An 18 year old female who complains of Blurred Vision when looking at a distance, but has no
problems reading at near would most likely have
A. Emmetropia
B. Hyperopia
C. Myopia
D. Presbyopia
Components of the Hesselbach triangle includes the following except:
A. Inferior femoral vessels
B. Medial border of the rectus sheath
C. Inguinal ligament
D. Inferior epigastric vessels
Failure of the processes vaginalis to obliterate during embryologic development can lead to which of
the following?
A. Communicating hydrocele
B. Hydrocele of the cord
C. Scrotal hydrocele
D. all of the above
In the numeric pain scale, the scale of 6 is categorized as :
A. Mild intensity
B. Moderate intensity
C. Severe intensity
D. Very severe intensity
What is the dose of Epinephrine in treatment of Anaphylaxis?
A. 1mg IM
B. 1mg IV
C. 0.5mg IM
D. 0.5mg IV
A 10-year old boy develops right lower quadrant pain, nausea, vomiting and fever. You suspect
appendicitis and plan for an emergent appendectomy. During your preoperative interview with the
parents you discover that the patient has hemophilia A. What should you administer prior to surgery?
A. Cryoprecipitate
B. Factor VII
C. Factor VIII
D. Fresh-frozen plasma
Which of the following is an example of a secondary prevention?
A. Folic acid for women of child-bearing age to reduce the risk of having a baby with serious neural defects.
B. Statins for diabetic patients to lower the risk of cardiovascular disease
C. Mammography in women 50 years old and above to detect early stage of breast cancer
D. Funduscopic evaluation in hypertensive patients to check for hypertensive retinopathy
An unconscious boy was hurriedly brought to our institution. How long should a pulse check last? (1)
Application
A. No more than 10 seconds
B. No more than 5 seconds
C. As long as it takes to find the pulse
D. More than 10 seconds
The diagnostic exam that should be used to diagnose a pneumoperitoneum from a perforated peptic
ulcer is which of the following?
A. Esophagogastroduodenoscopy
B. Chest PA upright
C. Plain abdominal film
D. Abdominal ultrasound
Which of the following is the current recommended regimen for TB meningitis?
A. 2 HRZE+S/ 4 HR
B. 2 HRZE/ 4 HR
C. 2 HRZE/ 10 HR
D. 2 HRZE/ 18 HR
A 40 year old patient presented to your clinic with a blood uric acid (BUA) result of 8 mg /dl. Which
of the following pertinent findings in your patient warrants initiation of urate-lowering therapy (ULT)?
A. The patient had 1 gout flare in the past 6 months.
B. The patient has CKD stage 1
C. The patient has subcutaneous tophi in both elbows
D. The patient has a co-existing osteoarthritis
The presence of hematuria and RBC casts in urinalysis in the setting of azotemia, oliguria, edema,
and hypertension point on to the possibility of which major renal syndrome?
A. Acute kidney injury
B. Rapid progressive renal failure
C. Acute Nephritis
D. Chronic kidney disease
You conducted a Get-Up and Go Test to a 74-year old patient to assess his gait. The following result
warrants further assessment and further evaluation of your patient.
A. The patient took 7 seconds to complete the last
B. The patient took 10 seconds to complete the task
C. The patient took 12 seconds to complete the task
D. The patient took 15 seconds to complete the task
The clearest image 'falls' on which part of the Retina
A. Macula
B. Optic Nerve
C. Vascular Arcades
D. Peripheral area
The anatomic separation between the common hepatic duct and the common bile duct occurs at
which level?
A. entry of cystic duct into the common hepatic duct
B. entry of the duct into the pancreas
C. the change in the mucosa from columnar to squamous
D. the intersection of the bile duct and the right hepatic artery
A patient who is acutely infected with hepatitis B infection has the following serologic markers
results.
A. HBsAg (+), anti HBs (-), anti HBc IgM (+)
B. HBsAg (+), anti HBs (+), anti HBc IgM (-)
C. HBsAg (-), anti HBs (+), anti HBc IgG (+)
D. HBsAg (-), anti HBc (+), anti HBs (-)
The transfer from of heat from the body core to the surface and to the objects in contact with the
newborn's body is the process of which mechanism?
A. Convection
B. Radiation
C. Conduction
D. Evaporation
A 24 year old, male, after binge drinking with his high school friends, was involved in a motor vehicular
accident. Vital signs at the scene were 130/90 mm Hg, 114 bpm, 32 cpm and 80% oxygen saturation.
He was brought to our ED. Assuming he has a neck injury, how would you correctly open the airway?
A. Head tilt, chin lift maneuver
B. Jaw thrust maneuver
C. Neck flexed, head extended maneuver
Which of the following is NOT a sign of tension pneumothorax?
A. Tracheal deviation
B. Decreased breath sounds
C. Respiratory distress with hypertension
D. Distended neck veins
You then placed a pinhole in front of the Right eye of the patient. You noted that the VA improved to
20/20. This means that:
A. The patient has Emmetropia
B. The patient has an Error of Refraction
C. The patient has Presbyopia
D. The patient has cataract
A 55 y/o male presents at the OPD with cough, mild dyspnea, and fever of 37.8OC. Symptoms have
been present for the past 3 days, and when over-the- counter cold medications were having no effect,
he decided to seek medical attention. On PE, BP 120/70, PR 96 and regular, and RR 23. Lung
examination revealed the presence of right lower lung crackles with decreased breath sounds in the
RLLF. Laboratory studies revealed WBC of 15.6 with a left shift, sodium of 140, potassium of 4.5, BUN
of 22 and creatinine of 1.0. Chest x-ray revealed a right lower lobe infiltrate. The patient is in which
phase of CAP if there is predominance of neurophils, abundant fibrin deposition and cessation of
erythrocyte extravasation?
A. Edema
B. Red hepatization
C. Gray hepatization
D. Resolution
Which of the following is a function of epidemiology in community-oriented primary care
A. Intensive investigations for community diagnosis of conditions with low to moderate-priority rating.
B. Determination of the health priorities with focus on the community’s interest.
C. Surveillance of various community health programs for continuity care.
D. Evaluation of programs to ensure logistical support.
A patient is admitted to the hospital after ingesting lye. The following day, he complains of chest
pain. His pulse is 120 bpm. On physical exam, he is found to have subcutaneous crepitus on
palpation. His chest x-ray shows widening of mediastinum and pleural effusion. What has occurred?
A. Aortic rupture
B. Coagulation necrosis
C. Esophageal perforation
D. Spontaneous pneumothorax
Which hormone is expected to rise before ovulation?
A. Estrogen
B. Progesterone
C. FSH
D. LH
A 2 year old male, toxic looking and severely wasted, with branny desquamation on the skin, was
rushed to the ER because of sudden onset of respiratory difficulty. His cough has been present for
the past 2 weeks. A chest xray showed “pneumatocoeles”. Which of the following is the culprit in this
case?
A. Haemophilus influenzae B
B. Streptococcus pneumoniae
C. Pseudomonas aerugenosa
D. Staphylococcus aureus
A 25 year old male came in to your clinic with long term cough. You diagnosed him with Pulmonary
Tuberculosis and decided to start him on Anti-Koch's meds. Which of the following will you then
advise the patient?
A. Watch out for blurring of vision at near
B. Watch out for diplopia
C. Watch out for eye pain
D. Watch out for changes in color vision
During labor, when is the largest diameter of the head aligns with the largest diameter of the pelvis?
A. Engagement
B. Internal Rotation
C. External Rotation
D. Descent
Woman complaining of Milky whitish discharge with fishy odor and no pruritus, what is your most
likely diagnosis?
A. Trichomonas
B. Candidiasis
C. Bacterial Vaginosis
D. Gonorrhea
You received a 40 year old female while manning the ED. Primary survey was performed. Patient is
not responsive. Vital signs not appreciated. Hooked her to the cardiac monitor and this rhythm was
appreciated. What is the next best thing to do.(1) Application
A. Check the Capillary Blood Glucose
B. Do CPR immediately
C. Check for any pulsations at the carotid artery
D. Defibrillate immediately
All of the following factors are criteria to classify a patient as having health care associated
pneumonia EXCEPT?
A. Hospitalization for 2 or more days
B. Hospitalization within the prior 4 months
C. Antibiotic therapy in the preceding 3 mos
D. Home wound care
Correct statement about Primary Health Care :
A. It is focused more on preventive care.
B. It is focused on public sector.
C. It acts as a driver of the entire healthcare delivery system.
D. It is first contact care that engages in uni-directional transition of care.
Coarctation of the Aorta is associated with:
A. Marfan’ s Syndrome
B. Turner’s Syndrome
C. William’s Syndrome
D. VACTERL Syndrome
Edema of Nephrotic syndrome can be explained by:
A. Decreased capillary hydrostatic pressure
B. Decreased plasma oncotic pressure
C. Decreased capillary permeability
D. Increased lymphatic flow
The practice of community oriented primary care (COPC) is a combination of two forms of practice.
A. Preventive healthcare and community medicine
B. Clinical care of individuals and community medicine
C. Comprehensive care and community medicine
D. Collaborative care and community medicine
Patient came in the emergency room with a 5 cm laceration at the forearm. Which of the following is
NOT included in hemostasis:
A. Vascular constriction
B. Vascular dilatation
C. Platelet plug formation
D. Coagulation
What is the drug of choice for treatment of Supraventricular Tachycardia (SVT)?
A. Amiodarone
B. Adenosine
C. Procainamide
D. Esmolol
Most likely pathogens causing CAP in patients with structural lung disease such as bronchiectasis,
except:
A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
B. Burkholderia cepacia
C. Legionella pneumophila
D. Staphylococcus aureus
A 52 year old patient came in to your clinic with Right eye pain. Upon assessment, you noted that the
patient has an IOP of OD 16 OS 25. The Cup to Disc Ration is OD 0.4, OS 0.4 The visual field exam of
the patient was unremarkable. What is your impression?
A. Primary Angle Closure Glaucoma
B. Acute Angle Closure Glaucoma
C. Chronic Angle Closure Glaucoma
D. Ocular Hypertension
The most common acyanotic congenital heart disease is:
A. Tetralogy of Fallot
B. Patent ductus arteriosus
C. Ventricular Septal defect
D. Bicuspid Aortic Valve
The criticial phase of dengue is usually observed within
A. Day 1-7 of illness
B. Day 4-6 of illness
C. Day 7-10 of illness
D. Day 10-14 of illness
A 4- year old male, was brought to the Animal Bite and Treatment Clinic (ABTC) because of a dog
bite. On physical exam, you noticed a bleeding punctured wound in his right leg.How will you
categorize the patient?
A. Category I
B. Category II
C. Category III
D. Category IV
A newborn with ambiguous genitalia is determined to be genetically female. Virilization is most
commonly due to:
A. Maternal androgen intake
B. 21-hydroxylase deficiency
C. Androgen insensitivity
D. 3-beta-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase deficiency
A 2 month old baby was brought in to you because of leukocoria. Upon history taking, the mother
reveals that she had high grade fever during early pregnancy. What is your impression?
A. Retinopathy of Prematurity
B. Congenital Cataract
C. Retinoblastoma
D. Endophthalmitis
Which of these rhythms require defibrillation?
B.
C.
A.
What induction agent preserves respiratory drive and increases blood pressure?
A. Fentanyl
B. Ketamine
C. Propofol
D. Rocuronium
Which is critical in every step of the community-oriented primary care (COPC) steps?
A. Involvement of the stakeholders.
B. Involvement of the government
C. Involvement of the influential people
D. Involvement of the private sectors
Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation is performed for how many minutes before every rhythm check as
mandated by American Heart Association Guidelines of 2020. (1) Recall
A. As long as you can
B. 2 minutes
C. 4 minutes, 2 minutes per rescuer
D. 2 minutes, 1 minute per rescuer
A 23-year-old man presents to the ER with a single gunshot wound to the right chest. The patient has
decreased breath sounds on the right with a BP of 80/50 and therefore a Fr 36 chest tube is placed.
The patient told you that the incident happened 10 minutes ago. Which of the following is an
indication for additional operative management?
A. 1,500 ml of sanguinous chest tube output upon insertion.
B. 200 ml of sanguinous chest tube output over the next 2 hours.
C. Persistent bubbling after 5 hours.
D. The fact that he had hemodynamic instability on presentation to the emergency department.
Which hormone is increase in Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome?
A. FSH
B. LH
C. TSH
D. Progesterone
Which side of the orbit is most prone to injury?
A. Roof
B. Floor
C. Lateral wall
D. Medial Wall
Patient AR 9 weeks age of gestation, came in due to vaginal bleeding. Internal examination revealed
a closed cervix, with minimal vaginal bleeding. Uterus is enlarged to age of gestation and with no
wriggling tenderness. What is your diagnosis?
A. Inevitable abortion
B. Incomplete abortion
C. Threatened abortion
D. Complete abortion
Which of the following characteristics is an advantage of full thickness skin grafts (FTSGs) over split-
thickness skin grafts (STSGs)?
A. Lower incidence of contractures
B. Appropriate for larger defects.
C. Better for contaminated tissue beds.
D. Less nutritional demand.
The following are criteria to diagnose diabetes mellitus except.
A. FBS ≥ 126 mg/dL
B. RBS of > 200 mg/dL
C. HbA1C ≥ 6.5%
D. 2-hour Plasma glucoce > 200mg/dL during OGTT
Which of the following is the drug of choice for the treatment of pertussis?
A. Erythromycin
B. Amoxicillin
C. Co-trimoxazole
D. Chloramphenicol
The sequential steps of community oriented primary care (COPC) is
A. Identification of the health problem of interest, defining the community, development and implementation
of intervention and evaluation of the implemented project
B. Defining the community, implementation of intervention, identification of the health problem and the
evaluation of the implemented project
C. Defining the community, identification of the health problem, development and implementation of
intervention and evaluation of the implemented project.
D. Identification of the health problem, development and implementation of the intervention, defining the
community and evaluation of the implemented project.
You and a colleague was called in to assist an out of the hospital arrest scene that was called in few
minutes at the 911 center. Arriving at the scene you knew you had to performed CPR. Patient is not
intubated. What is the ratio of ventilations to compressions in this situation. (1) Application
A. 15 compressions: 1 ventilation
B. 30 compressions: 2 ventilations
C. 15 compressions: 2 ventilations
D. 30 compressions: 4 ventilations
Patient came in with whitish vaginal discharge. Microscopy showed pseudohyphae. What is your
treatment?
A. Metronidazole
B. Ceftriaxone
C. Penicillin
D. Clotrimazole
Kio is a 9-month old male infant was brought to the ER because of difficulty of breathing. He had a
history of cough of 5 days duration and fever of 3 days duration. Noted to be in moderate dehydration
with inability to feed. On Physical examination, RR= 65/min, there were inter-costal retractions; head
bobbing was noted with central cyanosis and crackles on both lung fields. Kio is considered as:
A. PCAP A
B. PCAP B
C. PCAP C
D. PCAP D
A 28 year old male was brought to the ER due to a motorcycle accident. You noted that the extra
ocular muscle movements were limited. What diagnostic test will you order?
A. MRI
B. MRA
C. CT scan
D. Ultrasound
What is the discriminatory level of serum Beta HCG in Ectopic Pregnancy?
A. 1000 – 1500 mIU/ml
B. 1500 – 2000 mIU/ml
C. 2000 – 2500 mIU/ml
D. 2500 – 3000 mIU/ml
Which of the following risk factors predicts the highest risk of developing breast cancer?
A. Age greater than 55.
B. Biopsy proven lobular carcinoma in situ.
C. BRCA-1 or BRCA-2 mutation.
D. Nulliparity
A 35 year old female presents with 6 week history of palpitations, tremor, and nervousness. What is
initial screening test for patients with suspected thyroid dysfunction?
A. Serum total T3
B. Serum TSH
C. Serum total
D. Thyroid stimulating immunoglobulin
A 47-year-old male presents with intermittent blood spotting on toilet paper over the past 5 weeks.
Anoscopy reveals a 1 cm split in the anoderm posteriorly on the midline, distal to the dentate line
with visible hypertrophic muscle fibers. What is the optimal management?
A. Bisacodyl
B. Stool softeners
C. Lateral internal sphincterotomy
D. Resection of affected tissue
Epinephrine is used mainly to treat cardiac arrest from VF or pulseless VT unresponsive to the initial
shock, asystole, PEA, and profoundly symptomatic bradycardia. What is the recommend dose of this
drug in cardiac arrest?
A. 0.5 mg every 3-5 minutes
B. 2 mg every 3 – 5 minutes
C. 1 mg every 3 – 5 minutes
D. 1.5 mg every 3 – 5 minutes
What is the main uterine support?
A. Uterosacral ligament
B. Cardinal Ligament
C. Round Ligament
D. Broad Ligament
All are parts of the uveal tract, EXCEPT:
A. Iris
B. Ciliary body
C. Retina
D. Choroid
A patient who was diagnosed with acute MI develops dyspnea. On PE, vitals were HR 96, RR 22 and
bp 120/70 and an S3 gallop is appreciated. Chest xray was done which revealed pulmonary
edema.What is the Killip classification for the patient?
A. Killip I
B. Killip II
C. Killip III
D. Killip IV
Refers to the relationship of an arbitrarily chosen portion of the fetal presenting part to the right or
left side of the birth canal
A. Position
B. Station
C. Presentation
D. Option 4
All of the following characterize transient ischemic attack except:
A. Most cases last for less than 1 hour
B. Infarcts occur even in the absence of neurologic signs and symptoms
C. When presenting with amaurosis fugax, etiology is carotid stenosis or opthalmic artery disease
D. Thrombolytic therapy is indicated
It's your first day at the Department of Ophthalmology, Your resident asked you to take the Visual
Acuity of patient X. Upon using the Snellen's chart, you noted that he had an Uncorrected Visual Acuity
of 20/50 for the Right eye. This means that:
A. The patient can only see from 20 feet away what the average person can see 50 feet away
B. The patient can only see from 50 feet away what the average person can see 20 feet away
C. The patient can only see from 20 feet away what the average person can see 20 feet away
D. The patient can only see from 20 out of the 50 letters in the chart
Patient LS 10 weeks came in with fever and vaginal bleeding, with associated foul smelling discharge,
cervix is open and uterus is enlarged. No tenderness on the uterus on bimanual examination
A. Incomplete abortion, septic, non-induced
B. Complete abortion, septic, non-induced
C. Threatened abortion, non-septic, non-induced
D. Inevitable abortion, non-septic, non-induced
A newborn FT was noted to be pale at 4th month of life. Iron is unlikely in this condition because
infants have sufficient stores to meet their iron requirement for:
A. 2-3 months
B. 4-6 months
C. 7-8 months
D. 10-12 months
The breastfed baby of a pure vegetarian mother may develop:
A. Xerophthalmia
B. Diarrhea & Dementia
C. Osteomalacia
D. Anemia
Follicle stimulating hormone receptors are present in which of the following:
A. Theca Cells
B. Granulosa Cells
C. Corpus Luteum
D. Corpus Albicans
The “thumb sign” is frequently seen on the lateral x-ray of the upper airway and it is suggestive of:
A. croup
B. acute epiglotittis
C. angioedema
D. bacterial tracheitis
Primary treatment of acute uncomplicated cystitis
A. Azithromycin
B. Ciprofloxacin
C. Amoxicillin-clavunlanate
D. Nitrofurantoin
Dennis, 20-year old male should present with the following symptoms in order to be considered a
COVID-19 suspect.
A. Anorexia and diarrhea
B. Coryza, headache and diarrhea
C. Headache, myalgia
D. Nausea and vomiting
CASE 1: A 3 year old child presents with 3 day history of sharp ear pain with associated fever, colds,
and cough.
During the physical examination, what is the best predictive finding for acute otitis media?
A. Immobile or limited tympanic membrane mobility
B. Perforated tympanic membrane
C. Otorrhea
D. Tug test
Which of the following is the first-line antibiotic treatment of acute otitis media in children?
A. Cefuroxime
B. Azithromycin
C. Clindamycin
D. Co-amoxiclav
CASE 2: A 2-month year old female presents to your clinic with a complete cleft lip and palate.
Which of the following structures are not considered in the Thallwitz classification?
A. Nasal septum
B. Alveolus
C. Hard palate
D. Soft palate
Which of the following are considered primary surgical procedures in the management of cleft lip
and palate?
A. Alveolar bone grafting
B. Lip revision
C. Cheiloplasty
D. Definitive rhinoplasty
Which of the following factors increases the risk of developing isolated cleft lip and/or palate?
A. Adequate folic acid intaken 1
B. Maternal alcoholic beverage intake
C. Urinary tract infection
D. Paternal smoking history
CASE 3: A 18 year old male presents in your clinic with recurrent watery rhinorrhea and nasal and
ocular pruritus, especially in the presence of dust.
Which of the following antibodies are associated with allergic rhinitis?
A. IgA
B. IgM
C. IgG
D. IgE
Which of the following items characterizes PERSISTENT allergic rhinitis?
A. Symptoms occurring 5 days/week and > 6 consecutive weeks
B. Symptoms occurring 6 days/week and 2 consecutive weeks
C. Symptoms occurring 1 day/week and for 1 week
D. Symptoms occurring 3 days/week and for 3 consecutive weeks
Which of the following medications are considered to be the most effective medication in controlling
allergic rhinitis symptoms in moderate-to-severe cases?
A. Intranasal corticosteroids
B. Antihistamines
C. Anti-leukotrienes
D. Cromolyn sodium
CASE 4: A 30 year old male presents with 3 year history of nasal congestion, facial fullness and noted
nasal polyps bilaterally.
Which of the following structures would drain within the middle meatus?
A. Posterior ethmoid sinus
B. Sphenoid sinus
C. Nasolacrimal duct
D. Maxillary sinus
Which of the following would describe a grade 1 nasal polyp as based on our CPG?
A. No visualizable nasal polyp
B. Nasal polyp within the middle meatus
C. Extends outside the middle meatus, not completely obstructing
D. Extends outside the middle meatus, completely obstructing
Which of the following Bipolar medications are used specifically for Bipolar depression only?
A. Carbamazepine
B. Lamotrigine
C. Valproic acid
D. Leviteracetam
Which of the following antidepressants is classified as a serotonin modulator and simulator (SMS)
as it has a multimodal mechanism of action towards the serotonin neurotransmitter system?
A. Agomelatine
B. Mirtazapine
C. Vortioxetine
D. Moclobemide
Which of the following antipsychotics is considered first line treatment as monotherapy or adjunctive
therapy for short term mania?
A. Amisulpride
B. Clozapine
C. Aripiprazole
D. Haloperidol
What conflict in Eric Erikson’s psychosocial stages of development happens in ages 12-18?
A. Generavity vs. Stagnation
B. Industry vs. Inferiority
C. Initiative vs. Guilt
D. Identity vs. Role confusion
Carlo and Karen are neurology residents in the same hospital. As a senior resident, Carlo always
makes Karen’s everyday life a living hell. He always scolds and criticizes her during morning
endorsements, punishes her with extra Sunday duty for a small mishap with a patient, and always
treats her in an aloof, angry manner. What Karen doesn’t know though is that Carlo is developing
strong romantic feelings for her. What defense mechanism is Carlo using?
A. Denial
B. Displacement
C. Rationalization
D. Reaction formation
Sigmund Freud coined the psychoanalytic term, Elektra complex, to describe:
A. A child’s sense of competition with the same sex parent for the affection of the opposite sex parent
B. The reaction to threats from a parent, usually the father, aimed to stop his early sexual activities
C. The ideal of perfection that the child strives to emulate
The following are the most common adverse effects of SSRI antidepressants except:
A. Hyponatremia
B. Hypersensitivity reaction
C. Nausea and vomiting
D. Decreased libido
Ever since Juan developed random panic attacks during the past month, he developed a strong fear
of riding public transportation such as the MRT or the UV express (especially if he is on the last row)
as he feels it will be difficult to escape or get help if he has a panic attack. What kind of phobia does
he have?
A. Agoraphobia
B. Claustrophobia
C. Kinesiophobia
D. Motorphobia
A patient had a normal EEG despite having an episode of what appears to be involuntary muscle
stiffening, convulsing, and jerking during the procedure. She was diagnosed with psychogenic non-
epileptic seizures. This condition is commonly associated with which psychiatric disorder?
A. Post-traumatic stress disorder
B. Schizotypal personality disorder
C. Schizophrenia
During the recent Covid surge, Eleanor began experiencing heightened anxiety, and extreme worry
that she will be infected with Covid. After reading the different clinical presentations of Covid, she
worried that she might have a stroke because her left leg felt numb despite being able to walk without
difficulty. She felt a sharp pain in one portion of her chest and asked if she could be having a heart
attack. She asked the doctor if he could also feel the lump on one side of her head that has been
bothering her for days and wonders if it means she has a brain tumor. She has sought consult with
multiple doctors, worrying that she may have an undiagnosed critical illness that may eventually
disable or kill her. She underwent numerous physical examinations and diagnostic tests all showing
normal results. What is her diagnosis?
A. Somatic symptom disorder
B. Obsessive Compulsive Disorder
C. Conversion disorder
D. Illness Anxiety Disorder
Rommel premorbidly, is a kind, hardworking, religious man. He has a homosexual orientation but is
at peace with his decision to maintain celibacy, in accordance to his Born again beliefs. He admitted
feeling very stressed out during the pandemic due to a sudden loss of employment. After which, he
began to experience frequent strong thoughts and urges to grab a knife from the kitchen to stab his
brother. He finds these thoughts very irrational as he loves his brother very much and has no recent
conflict with him. What symptom is the patient manifesting?
A. Obsession
B. Persecutory delusion
C. Commanding hallucination
D. Disorganized behavior
A elderly patient was referred for agitation, fluctuating sensorium, and visual hallucinations 24 hours
after craniotomy. Which of the following can be administered to the patient?
A. Diazepam 5mg IV every 4 hours as needed
B. Olanzapine 10mg PRN every 8 hours
C. Haloperidol and Diphenhydramine 10mg/50mg via IM stat
D. Risperidone 0.5mg BID PRN
Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome is a rare, life threatening adverse effect of treatment with
neuroleptics. The following below to the tetrad of clinical features except:
A. Extreme hyperthermia
B. Confusion
C. Coarse tremors
D. Autonomic fluctuations