DEPARTMENT OF NURSING SCIENCE

FACULTY OF HEALTH SCIENCES

IMO STATE UNIVERSITY, ORLU CAMPUS
PRE-COUNCIL EXAMINATION FOR GENERAL NURSES
PAPER II
Covering every aspect of nursing care
Date: 15/02/2023 Time allowed: 3 hours

Instruction: Read the instruction carefully before attempting the questions.

Answer all questions from 1-250.

Select the most appropriate option from a-d

1. Functions of the stomach includes all except
a) Secretion of pancreatic juice
b) Digestion of food
c) Absorption of water, glucose and some drugs
d) Transient storage of food

2. A nurse would assess a patient who experiences prolonged vomiting for signs of
a) Hypovolamic shock
b) Water intoxication
c) Metabolic acidosis
d) Potassium excess

3. The appropriate technique for delivering tap/slap at the back for an infant is
a) With the heel palm of the back hand
b) With the heel of the hand
c) With the fingertips
d) With the entire hand.
4. When providing heart compression in CPR the nurse should compress child’s chart to a
depth of
a) 1-1.5 inches
b) 2 inches
c) 2 to 2.5inches
d) 2.5to 3 inches

5. Which of the following sites is the best for checking the pulse during cardio pulmonary
resuscitation (CPR) in a 5 year old child
a) Femoral
b) Carotid
c) Radial
d) Brachial
6. Chloranphenical ear drop was prescribed for a child with otitis media. The nurse taught
the mother how to administer the drug. Which of the following is the best means of
evaluating the women ability to administer the drug?
a) Observe the woman instill the drug in the child’s ear
b) Listen to the women as she describes the procedure
c) Ask the women to list the steps in the procedure
d) Ask the women if she has read the handout on the procedure

7. To assist a mother who wants to leave the child for an hour, to reduce anxiety of her
child, the nurse would suggest that the mother
a) leaves while the child is sleeping
b) brings the child’s favourite toys from home
c) should tell the child that she is leaving and when she will return
d) shortens her visits

8. Co-trimoxazole was prescribed by the doctor for a child that is suffering from otitis
media. After teaching the mother about the drug, which of the following statements
indicates that the woman needs more teachings about the drug
a) ”I will watch to see that my child is welling to his diapers as usual."
b) “I should give the suspension with food.”
c) “If he gets sun-burn type rash, I will not give him another does until I discuss with the
physician.”
d) “I will make sure he drinks a lot of extra fluids.”

9. The nurse is aware that when emphysema is present there is a decreased oxygen supply
because of
a) level of activity
b) infections obstruction
c) loss of aerating surface
d) respiratory muscle paralysis

10. The nurse understand that hemiplegia involves

a) Paresis of both lower extremities
b) Paralysis of one side of the body
c) Paralysis of both lower extremities
d) Paresis of upper and lower extremities

11. The relay center for sensory impulses is the

a) Thalamus
b) Cerebellum
c) Hypothalamus
d) Medulla oblongata

12. Reflex control of respiration occurs in the

a) Cerebellum
b) Hypothalamus
c) Cerebral cortex
d) Medulla oblongata

13. Manifestations of hearing loss include all except

a) Difficult keeping up conversation
b) Asking people to repeat themselves
c) Suspiciousness
d) None of the above

14. The following are complications of intestinal obstruction except

a) Strangulation
b) Perforation
c) Peritonitis
d) All of the above

15. A client is diagnosed as having acute appendicitis. This condition is associated with
a) Poor dietary habit
b) Hypertension and resultant oedema
c) Impaired circulation to the appendix
d) Infection of the bowel

16. The following are conditions that cause malabsorption syndrome except
a) Infectious diseases
b) alcohol use disorder
c) Steatorrhoea
d) ulculcerative collitis

17. The most common diagnostic test for gastritis is

a) Upper gastrointestinal x-ray examination
b) Gastric aspirate analysis
c) Endoacopy
d) Endoscope

18. A child suspected to have intussusceptions is expected by the nurse to under goes one
of the
a) Colonoscopy
b) Rectal biopsy
c) Barium enema
d) Cholangiography

19. When the body temperature declines below a certain level, the nervous system
responds by
a) Sweating
b) inducing shivering
c) Homeostasis
d) All of the above

20. The length and width of the large intestine approximately measure_______respectively
a) 1.5m and 0.5m
b) 1.5m and 0.75m
c) 1.75m and 7.5cm
d) 1.5m and 7.5cm

21. The bones that form the ocular orbit are all except
a) Zygomatic
b) Lacrimal
c) Frontal
d) Mandible

22. The cranium is made up of

a) 2 parietal, 1 frontal, 2 temporal, 1 sphenoid, 1 ethmoid and 1 occipital bones
b) 2 parietals, 2 spheroids, 2 occipital and 1 ethmoidal bones
c) 2 parietals, 2 temporals and 1 mexilla bones
d) 2 parietals, 2 temporals and 1 sphenoid bones

23. Insulin pump operates by the help of

a) Chips that regular the quantity of insulin injected at a tip
b) Syringe which is calibrated in units
c) Insulin needle which allows little quantity of insulin to be given at a time
d) Connector tubing which releases the required quantity of insulin at a time.

24. Thyroid gland traps iodine through iodine trapping and release about ……….. quantity
per day
a) 100 ng/dL
b) 105 ng/dL
c) 120 ng/dL
d) 125ng/dL

25. The alpha cells of the pancreatic islets secrets

a) Glycogen
b) Insulin
c) Glucagon
d) glucocorticoides

26. The human teeth in each quadrant are mirror image of the other, and include all except,
a) One central and one lateral incisors
b) First and second premolars
c) Two canine
d) First, second and third molars

27. Before the eruption of the wisdom teeth, an adults has ………….. number of teeth
a) 20
b) 28
c) 32
d) 36

28. The fudus of the stomach normally

a) Secrets trypsin
b) Contains air/gas
c) Is empty
d) Contains fluid

29. Decision making is a systematic process required by the nurse manager in--------
a) Collection of data
b) Definition the problem
c) Selecting strategies
d) Analysis of a situation and choice of action

30. As regards the structures in association with the kidneys, superiorly there is
a) Abdominal wall
b) Adrenal glands
c) Spleen
d) Pancreas

31. The kidneys drop about …………. When getting out of bed in the morning
a) 0.3cm
b) 0.5 cm
c) 3cm
d) 5cm

32. One of these is not a complication of diabetes mellitus

a. Glaucoma
b. Diabetic nephropathy
c. Diabetes insipidus
d. Hyperglycaemic hyperosmolar non-ketotic syndrome

33. One of these may not be necessary investigation in diabetes mellitus

a. Oral glucose tolerance test
b. Occult blood test
c. Post prandial glucose
d. Random blood glucose

34. Legal issues of documentation do not require

a) Legible writing
b) Time-sequenced descriptive notations
c) No unusual space(s)
d) Absence of abbreviations

35. Clearly communicated documentation aids

a) Understanding of who takes over from the nurse on duty
b) Flow of idea in client management among nurses
c) Knowing who is responsible for substandard practice among nurses
d) Proper investigation in malpractice

36. …………………………………. Spells the functions of Nursing & Midwifery Council of Nigeria
a) Nigerian Constitution
b) Nurse practice Act
c) Good Samaritan law
d) The Tort law

37. Negligence in nursing practice is simply said to be

a) Failure to provide self worth by the nurse
b) Failure to prove that the nurse owed duty to the patients
c) Failure to act in a rational and prudent manner
d) Failure to discharge duty timely

38. Any law that conflicts with the national Constitution including the State law is
technically declared
a) unsuitable
b) Unconstitutional
c) Illegal
d) No locus standi

39. Documentation is written evidence interpreted to be

a) Interaction between the nurse and the clients
b) Interaction between and among healthcare providers, clients and their families
c) Interaction between and among healthcare providers and the clients
d) Interaction between and among the nurses, doctors and patients

40. If a patent sues a nurse to court, the patient will be better referred by the court as
a) Plaintiff
b) Accused
c) Defendant
d) Accuser

41. Pruritus vulvae is common in

a) Cushing’s syndrome
b) Simmond’s disease
c) Addison’s disease
d) Diabetes mellitus

42. The duty to “do no harm” is referred to as

a) Non-maleficence
b) Justice
c) Beneficence
d) Fidelity

43. Error in the counting of instrument, sponge, etc, used for surgery could be seen as act of
a) Malpractice
b) Negligence
c) Battery
d) Assault

44. Amilodipine is a calcium channel blocker used in the management of hypertension. This
drug reduces BP by
a) Decreasing sinu-arterial node conduction resulting in a slower heart rate
b) Vasodilating /relaxing the vascular smooth muscle
c) Prevents platelet aggregation and subsequent thrombosis
d) Blocks the beta sympathetic stimulation of the heart
45. The specific gravity of normal urine is
a) 1.000 – 1.001
b) 1.000 – 1.005
c) 1.005 – 1.015
d) 1.010 – 1.025

46. The incubation period for treponema pallidum is

a) 10-30 days
b) 10-60 days
c) 10-90 days
d) 10-120 days

47. One of these is not an anti-thyroid drug

a) Carbimazole
b) Lugol’s Iodine
c) Synthetic thyroxin
d) Thiouracil

48. When a disease is said to be iatrogenically caused, this simply means that
a) It resulted from medical management of another disease
b) It resulted from careless nursing intervention
c) It resulted as complication of primary disease of the patient
d) It has no root cause

49. Pill rolling movement is a cardinal manifestation of

a) Parkinsonism
b) Tetanus
c) Bell’s palsy
d) Meningitis

50. Nurses usually pledge to pass their lives in ……… and to practice their profession …………
a) Neatness; in sanctity
b) Goodness; mercifully
c) Purity; faithfully
d) Response to calling; selflessly

51. Right to be free from pain is an aspect of

a) Dying Patient’s Bill of Rights
b) Patient’s Bill of Rights
c) Right to Health
d) Right to Live

52. If a nurse hangs himself/herself in self glory, that nurse may be said to be exhibiting
a) Poor conscience
b) Pride
c) Integrity
d) Poor caring

53. The incubation for Lassa fever is variable and ranges from ……….. to ………….
a) 6 days to 14 days
b) 6 days to 21 days
c) 7 days to 14 days

54. An example of a urinary tract antiseptic is

a) salvon
b) nitrofurantoin
c) fulcin sulphate
d) gentamycin sulphate

55. An expression of existence of two opposing feelings or emotion at the same time refer
to
a) Mutism
b) Ecstasy
c) Ambivalence
d) Elation

56. The integration of subordinates from planning to evaluation phase is referred is ----------
a) Delegation
b) Management by objectives
c) Leadership
d) Motivation

57. A nurse is performing an admission assessment on a 6 month old infant with a diagnosis
of hydrocephalus the nurse should:
a) Test the tube for protein
b) Take the apical pulse
c) Palpates the anterior fontanelle
d) Takes the blood pressure.
58. The physician prescribes an infusion of 2,400ml of I.V fluid in 24 hours, with half of this
amount to be infused in the first 10 hours. During the first one hour, the client should
receive how many milliliters of I.V fluid per hour.
a) 50ml/hour.
b) 100ml/hour.
c) 120ml/hour
d) 240ml/hour
59. A client was brought to the emergency department of your hospital with second and
third degree burns on the left arm, left anterior leg, and anterior trunk. Using the rule of
nines, what is the total body surface area that has been burned?
a) 18%
b) 27%
c) 30%
d) 36%.

60. A physicians order reads: ampicillin 125mg IV every 6 hours. The medication label reads
1g and constitute with 7.4ml of bacteriostatic water, a nurse prepares to draw up how
many milliliters to administer one dose?
a) 0.54ml
b) 0.94ml
c) 1.1ml
d) 7.4ml

61. One of the following conditions is not an indication for Oxygen therapy
a) Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD)
b) Oxygen saturation of 95%
c) Congestive Heart Failure
d) Congenital Heart Disease

62. The choice of delivery system to be used in O2 administration depends on the following
except
a) Age of client
b) Patients’ compliance
c) O2 concentration required
d) Humidification device to be used

63. The early clinical indicators of hypoxemia include the following except
a) Cyanosis
b) Anxiety
c) Tarchycardia
d) Dyspnea

64. During TB infection, inadequate immune response would result to the development of --
a) Active disease
b) Latent TB Infection
c) Formation of ghon complex
d) None of the above

65. The strategy used to ensure that TB patients comply with drug treatment is known as ---
a) Duly Observed Therapy
b) Directed Observed Treatment
c) Directly Observed Therapy
d) Directed Observed Therapy

66. An indication that a significant reaction occurred after mantoux skin test is the presence
of -----
a) Erythema
b) Induration
c) Erythema and Induration
d) Swelling

67. A male student in your class suddenly started bleeding from the nose; your first action is
to:
a) Reassure and instruct him to sit down and blow his nose to remove the blood
b) Reassure and instruct him to sit and lean forward slightly
c) Reassure and instruct him to sit down and throw his head back to stop bleeding
d) Reassure and instruct him to lie in supine position

68. The process of treating and monitoring a patient with infectious disease until he is free
from the disease is referred to as
a) Surveillance
b) Contact tracing
c) Isolation
d) Barrier Nursing
69. Kernig's sign is demonstrated by
a) Straight leg raising
b) Flexing the leg at the hip and knee, then extending at the knee
c) Flexing the neck
d) Tapping the face over the facial nerve
70. Which of these facts regarding the vagina is false?
a) It is 8-10cm long
b) It is described as a potential tube
c) It is joined to the ovaries
d) It has a thin membrane of tissue surrounding it
71. Control of odour in colostomy patient can be achieved by the under-listed except
a) Wearing clean and well fitted colostomy bag
b) Empty colostomy bag when necessary and clean thoroughly
c) Use deoderant tablets such as Bismuth subgallate
d) Avioding gas forming food

72. Which of the following is not a vector borne disease

a) Malaria
b) Trepanosomasis
c) Tinea capitis
d) Yellow fever
73. Which body area will provide the best result for assessment of cyanosis in a dark
skinned hands?
a) Backs of the hands
b) Earlobe
c) Palms of the hands
d) Sacrum

74. Which of the following would provide the most reliable indicator for determining the
adequacy of IV fluid resuscitation in client who sustained second and third degrees of
skin degree burns of the back legs?
a) Urine output
b) Vital signs
c) Peripheral pulses
d) Mental status

75. A client has just been diagnosed with early glaucoma. During a teaching session, the
nurse should
a) Provide instructions on eye patching
b) Assess the client’s visual acuity
c) Demonstrate eye drop initialization
d) Teach about intraocular lens cleaning

76. Which equipment should be used by the nurse to feed a 3 months infant after surgical
repair of cleft lip?
a) Single hole nipple
b) Plastic spoon
c) Paper straw
d) Rubber dropper.
77. Which of these is not a muscle of the neck?
a) Trapezius muscle
b) Sternocleidomastoid muscle
c) Longissimus muscle
d) Sterohyoid muscle

78. Functions of mucous include all except

a) Discharge of pus in goblet cells
b) Protection of membrane from chemical and mechanical injury
c) Traps foreign bodies in the respiratory track.
d) Acts as lubricant wherever it is secreted

79. A client reports abdominal pain. Which action will the nurse perform first in
investigation of the complaint
a) Using deep palpation
b) Checking for warmth in the painful area.
c) Assessing the painful area last
d) None of the above

80. In assessing a client with hyperthyroidism, the nurse expects to find which of the
following signs
a) weight gain, constipation and lethargy
b) weight loss, nervousness, and tachycardia
c) exophthalmoses, diarrhoea and cold intolerance
d) diaphoresis, fever, and decreased sweating

81. The nurse observes constant bubbling in the water seal chamber of a closed chest
drainage system. What should the nurse conclude?
a) the system is functioning correctly
b) the system has an air leak
c) the client has a pneumothorax
d) the chest tube is obstructed

82. A psychotic client in your ward reports to you that the previous shift nurse put
something suspicious in his water with his medication. If your reply was that “he is
worried about his medication”, the reply will be considered as
a) An example of presenting reality
b) reinforcing the client’s delusions
c) focusing on emotional content
d) a non-therapeutic technique called mind reading.
83. Which of the following methods will the nurse use to check the placement of an NG-
tube before feeding the patient?
a) abdominal x-rays.
b) injection of small amount of air while listening with a stethoscope over the abdominal
area.
c) a check of the PH of fluid aspirated from the tube.
d) Visualization of the measurement mark on the tube made at the time of insertion.

84. If a medication is to be administered via the buccal route, where should the nurse place
the medication?
a) on the clients skin
b) between the client’s check and gum.
c) under the client’s tongue
d) in the client’s conjuctival sac
85. These actions are appropriate when caring for a client with different cultural
background from yours except
a) consider that nonverbal cues, may have different meaning in different cultures.
b) respect the client’s cultural beliefs.
c) ask the client if he has cultural or religious requirements that should be considered in
his care.
d) understand that all cultures experience pain in the same way.

86. During assessment of a client who sustained blunt injury to the chest wall, one of the
following signs will indicate the presence of pneumothorax
a) diminished breath sounds
b) sucking sound at the site of injury
c) low respiratory rate.
d) presence of a barrel chest.

87. Water can be gotten from the following sources except

a) River
b) Atmosphere
c) On the surface of the earth
d) Groundwater

88. contaminated water can cause the following diseases except

a) typhoid fever
b) paratyphoid fever
c) malaria fever
d) cholera

89. Climate change can lead to the following except

a) Problems with agriculture and food production
b) Natural disasters and loss of lives
c) Upsurge in diarrhoea and other cases
d) None of the above

90 Noise can be controlled in the cities by the following , except

a) Careful planning of cities: the location of industries, railways, airport etc should be
different from the location of schools and residential houses.
b) Control of traffic: high traffic should not be allowed into residential areas or narrow
roads.
c) Education of the public about the hazards of high noise in the community
d) None of the above

91. African trypanosomiasis (sleeping sickness) is caused by

a) Aquatic snails
b) Sandflies
c) Tsetse flies
d) Lice

92. Disaster Preparedness refers to activities carried out

a) Prior to disaster
b) During the disaster
c) Followlng a disaster
d) To reduce effects of disaster.

93. The three (3) fundamental aspects of disaster management are

a) Disaster response, recovery and reconstruction
b) Disaster response, mitigation and preparedness
c) Disaster rehabilitation, preparedness and recovery
d) Disaster impact, recovery and reconstruction.

94. The internationally accepted colours in triage are

a) Red, blue, yellow and pink
b) White, green, brown and red
c) Black, yellow, white
d) Red, yellow, green and black.
95. The life span of an egg after leaving the ovary is approximately
a) 6-12 hours
b) 12-24 hours
c) 48-72 hours
d) 24-48 hours

96. Lactational Amenorrhoea protects the woman from pregnancy by preventing:

a) Ovulation
b) Fertilization
c) Implantation
d) Evisceration

97. An important function of spleen in an adult is _______________

a) Red blood cells production
b) Monocyte production
c) Platelets production
d) removal of defective erythrocytes

98. The optimal weight gain in an average pregnancy is ……………….

a) 10.5 - 15 kg
b) 12.5 – 17 kg
c) 12.5 - 15 kg
d) 11.5 - 16 kg

99. The following are emergency treatment for a victim that sustained sprain on the ankle
except
a) Apply hot compress on the affected part
b) immobilise the affected part
c) apply cold compress on the affected part
d) reassure the client/victim
100. Which of the following is not part of the uterine wall
a) Endometrium
b) Myometrium
c) Perimetrium
d) Peritoneum

101 At a point where demand curve intersects with the supply curve is called
a. Equilibrium point
b. Midline point
c. Point of interjection
d. None of the above
102 Demand for healthcare services cannot be affected by one of the under-listed.
a. Income
b. Market demand
c. Other prices
d. Taste

103 The under-listed affect demand for healthcare services except

a. State of one’s health
b. Knowledge of healthcare provider
c. Level of education
d. Cost of available healthcare services.

104 Healthcare has some outstanding characteristics listed below with exception of
a. Unpredictability
b. Derived demand
c. Understanding of information
d. Consumer sovereignty

105 Antigen-antibody complex is forms in…………………

a) Diabetic ketoacidosid
b) Bright’s disease
c) Nephrolithiasis

106 Kidney diseases are often marked by these with exception of one …….
a) Glucose in urine
b) Albumnuria
c) Haematuria
d) Dysuria

107 The benefits of NHIS will be better reaped when the following are available
except
a) Political stability
b) Economic growth
c) Relevant human resources
d) Divergent regulatory framework

108 One of these is not among the stages by which the kidneys convert blood plasma to
urine
a) Tubular secretion
b) Glomerular filtration
c) Tubular reabsorption
d) Active transport
109 The right kidney is slightly lower than the left kidney because
a) It is bigger in size
b) It is smaller in size
c) The large right lobe of the liver is at its superior surface
d) The large right lobe of the liver is at its inferior surface
110 One of these does not constitute the major ways of managing enlarged prostate
gland (BPH)
a) Watchful waiting
b) Conservative therapy
c) Non-surgical invasive therapy
d) Surgical measure

111 The nervous system mostly functions in conjunction with

a. The brain
b. The musculoskeletal system alone
c. Musculoskeletal and endocrine systems
d. Endocrine system alone

112 Pre-operative assessment of a patient with BPH involves the under-listed except
a. The last time patient voided
b. Volume of urine voided since last few hours
c. Desire to void but unable to initiate voiding
d. Presence of colic abdominal pain

113 A nurse is caring for a patient who has pressure sore treated with debridement,
irrigation and moist gauze dressings. How should the nurse expect healing to occur
a) Secondary intention
b) Tertiary intention
c) Regeneration of cells
d) Remodelling of tissues.

114 On patient’s first day post-op after prostatectomy he has incisional pain, slight
erythema at the incisional margin and a body temperature of 37.3 oC. Based on these the
nurse may conclude that
a) The abdominal incision is showing signs of infection
b) Patient is experiencing normal inflammatory response
c) The abdominal incision is showing signs of impending dehiscence
d) Patient’s physician needs to be informed of patient’s condition.

115 Following infection with HIV

a) A long period of dormancy is developed during which HV cannot be found in the blood
and there is viral replication
b) Infection of monocytes may occur but antibodies quickly destroy these cells
c) The viruses replicate mainly in B lymphocytes before spreading to CD4 + T cells
d) The immune system is impaired predominantly by eventual widespread destruction of
CD4+ T cells

116 The major difference between benign and malignant neoplasms is

a) site of malignant tumours
b) requirements for cellular nutrients
c) characteristics of tissue invasiveness
d) all of the above

117 A patient has been recently diagnosed of early stages of breast cancer, which of
the following is the most appropriate for the nurse to focus on
a) Discussing patient’s past experience with her grandmother’s cancer
b) Discussing replacement child care for patient’s children
c) Preparing a will and advance directive
d) Maintaining patient’s hope

118 During the postoperative care of a 76 years old patient he nurse monitors
patient’s intake and output carefully, knowing that the patient is at risk for fluid volume
and electrolyte imbalance primarily because
a) Older adult has an impaired thirst mechanism and need to be reminded to drink fluid
b) Older adults are more likely than young adults to lose extracellular fluid during surgical
procedures
c) Small loses of fluid is more significant because body fluids account for 50% of body
weight in older adults
d) Water accounts for greater percentage of body weight in older adults than in younger
adults

119 If hypertonic solution is administered, the mechanism involved in equalizing the

fluid concentration between the extracellular fluid and cell is by
a) Active transport
b) Diffusion
c) Facilitated diffusion
d) Osmosis

120 Nursing intervention directed at health promotion of older adults are primarily
focused on
a) teaching positive health behaviours
b) teaching regarding nutrition to enhance longevity
c) disease management
d) controlling symptoms of illness
121 Which of these is these is the leading determinants of an individual’s health
a) Family history of disease
b) behaviour
c) Home and work environment
d) type and quality of medical care received

122 If you are to examine the skin of a patient with 3rd degree burn, which primary
technique will you use?
a) Inspection
b) Palpation
c) percussion
d) auscultation

123 Which of these values is considered normal in neonate during the first few days
after birth?
a) weight loss then return to birth weight
b) Weight loss of 25%
c) birth weight of 2000 to 2,500g
d) weight gain of 25%

124 Which nursing diagnosis take highest priority post operatives for client that
received anaesthesia
a) Acute pain related to surgery
b) Deficient fluid volume related to blood and fluid loss from surgery
c) Impaired physical mobility related to surgery
d) Ineffective airway clearance related to anaesthesia

125 A brief summary of study at the beginning of a research report is_______

a) Acknowledgements
b) Abstract
c) Introduction
d) Background to the study

126 A population in which everyone is given equal chances of being selected for a
study is_____________ sampling
a) Purposive
b) Cluster
c) Random
d) Stratified

127 ____________is the causative organism of food poisoning

a) Clostridium botulinum
b) Clostridium welchi
c) Clostridium tetani
d) Streptococcus

128 Atropine is not given to patient with glaucoma because

it____________________
a) Decreases intraocular pressure
b) increases intraocular pressure
c) causes blurred vision
d) causes loss of accommodation

129 ______________ sampling is a process whereby the researcher uses the

respondents he see at the time of data collection
a) Cluster
b) Convenient
c) Purposive
d) Stratified

130 One of these is not associated with schizophrenia

a) Thought disorder
b) disorder of prescription
c) disorder of ideation
d) organic disorder

131 An over exercised muscle that has insufficient oxygen supply may become sore
from a build up of
a) Acetone
b) Lactic acid
c) Butyric acid
d) Acetoacetic acid

132 Schwam cells have the same function in the peripheral nerve as____________
a) Microglia
b) Ependymal cells
c) Astrocytes
d) Oligodendrites

133 Human blood constitutes .......... percentage of the total body weight
a) 6
b) 7
c) 8
d) 10
134 What the body does to drug is simply referred to as
a) Pharmacology
b) Pharmacokinetics
c) Toxicology
d) Pharmacodynamics

135 These are infections of lower respiratory tract EXCEPT

a) Bronchial asthma
b) Bronchitis
c) Pneumonia
d) Adenoiditis

136 The problem haemophilia is a hereditary disease with ………… as major carriers
a) Blacks
b) Caucasians
c) Females
d) Males

137 Surgical management of otitis media is known as

a) Myringotomy
b) Vestibular nerve sectioning
c) Tympanoplasty
d) Vestibular nerve repair

138 The cumulative effects of a high fat diet could lead to

a) Iron deficiency
b) Heart disease
c) Diabetic mellitus
d) Blindness

139 An acute and painful bacterial infection of sebaceous glands of the eyelid margin
is called____
a) Conjunctivitis
b) Blepharitis
c) Hordeolum
d) Presbyopia

140 Comprises of soluble vitamins

a) Vitamins A, B, C, K B
b) Vitamins A, D, E, K.
c) Vitamins A, C, E, K.
d) Vitamins A, B, E, K
141 One of the under-listed is/are not among the functions of fats in the body
a) helps in growth and repair of cells and tissues
b) formation of cholesterol and steroid hormones
c) support for certain body organs
d) provision of heat and energy

142 Each respiration cycle consists of three phases in the following order
a) Expiration-pause-inspiration
b) Inspiration-expiration-pause
c) Pause-inspiration-expiation
d) Inspiration-pause-expiration

143 Shock is best described as

a) Inadequate tissue perfusion
b) Cardiovascular collapse
c) Vasodilation
d) Acute pump failure

144 These are possible side effects of digoxin except

a) Hypertension
b) Photophobia
c) Blurred vision
d) Bradycardia

145 The following are signs and symptoms of threatened abortion except
a) Uterus smaller than date of gestation
b) uterus correspond to date of gestation
c) closed cervix
d) light bleeding

146 Which of the following phrases best describe inflammation

a) An antigen- antibody reaction
b) sequential reaction to the cell injury
c) Secondary defence mechanism
d) detrimental defence mechanism of the body

147 These are active learning strategy for the client except
a) Group discussion
b) Role playing
c) Lecture
d) Demonstration
148 The last step in teaching learning process is______________
a) Assessment
b) Evaluation
c) Setting objectives
d) Implementation

149 A characteristic of a chronic disease is that it

a) has a rapid onset
b) has a gradual onset
c) is self limiting
d) has a short duration

150 The treatment of choice in acute anaphylactic reaction is_______________

a) Theophylline (Aminophylline)
b) Diphenhydramine (Bendary)
c) Epinephrine (Adrenaline)
d) Corticosteroid (Solu-cortef)

151. Normal sperm count is about ______________ million sperm/ml

a) 20-60mls
b) 25-100mls
c) 50-120ml
d) 50-100mls
152. Human tests are adapted to cooler environment and can only produce sperm at.
a) Core body temperature
b) Temperature of 37°C
c) Temperature 36°C
d) Temperature of 35°C

153. The nurse may frown against moral vice like abortion because
a) It is means of transmitting infection
b) It makes a lady not to marry early
c) It is morally unacceptable by everyone
d) It depicts ethical and moral propensity

154. Code of ethics is a ………………………… for making ethical decisions

a) Basis
b) Framework
c) Curriculum
d) Mirror

155. Nursing code of conduct are …………………………….

 a) formal and informal moral responsibilities peculiar to nursing
b) standard of practice enshrined in the N&MCN establishment act
c) responsibilities of the nurse in the ICN regulations
d) rules and regulations guiding nursing practice

156. Three tiers of government capture

a) Federal government, State government and Local government area
b) Executive. Legislators and Judiciary
c) Tertiary, Secondary and Primary
d) All of the above

157. While using the a digital Blood Pressure apparatus to monitor patient’s blood pressure,
the patient is expected to do one of the following
a) Close his/her eyes until the digital reading is completed
b) Breath-in and hold the breath until the digital reading is completed
c) Close the mouth tightly until the digital reading is completed
d) Stop talking until the digital reading is completed

158. Doctrine of Res-Ipsa Loquitor requires that

a) A witness gives evidence to determine the case
b) A professional is required to prove the case
c) The patient/relation witness on the case
d) Evidence on ground is the only requirement in the case

159. Viewing the nurse as patient’s advocate is an indication that the nurse
a) Must be proactive
b) Must create trust relationship
c) Must discharge quality care
d) Must be loving and kind

160. Investigation in BPH may include all except

a) Prostate specific antigen (PSA)
b) Streptolysin O+ titre test
c) Urodynamic flow rate
d) Urinalysis, with culture and sensitivity

161. One of these drugs should be avoided because of its nephrotoxic effect
a) Quinolone
b) Cephalosphorine
c) Gentamycin
d) Penicillin

162. One of these drugs is very essential in dialysis

a) Heparine
b) Vitamin K
 c) Furosemide
d) Lisinopril

163. Creating nurse/patient therapeutic relationship in the management of patients with urinary
system diseases mostly has the rationale to
a) Reduce patient’s stay in the hospital
b) Instills hope in the patient
c) Manage anxiety
d) Help in nurses’ output
164. Experimental research is known to possess the under-listed characteristics
except
a) Randomization
b) Control
c) Generalization
d) Accuracy

165. Non-probability sampling methods include the following except:

a) Accidental sampling
b) Simple random sampling
c) Quota sampling
d) Judgmental sampling

166. The colour tag for victims who are certified dead during triage is
a) White
b) Yellow
c) Red
d) Black

167. One of these is a feed-forward mechanism to maintain homeostasis

a) Body temperature regulation
b) Parturition
c) Hormone production
d) Vomiting

168. One of these is not among the pressure points in the body
a) Gluteal point
b) Carotid point
c) Brachial point
d) Radial point

169. Drugs that inhibit the multiplication of bacteria without killing the bacteria are called
a) Disinfectants
b) Sterilizers
c) Bacteriocidals
d) Bacteriostatics
170. A patient with schistosomiasis is expected to complain of
a) Visible blood in urine
b) Painful micturition
c) Pyuria
d) Difficulty in micturition
171.
Ideal body mass index of a relatively healthy adult is within the range of
a) 33.4 – 35.4
b) 18.5 – 24.9
c) 20.5 – 30.5
d) 30.4 – 33.4

172. The possible signs of breast cancer include

a) fever
b) breast changes during menstruation
c) nipple discharge and a breast nodule.
d) fever and erythema of the breast.

173. During the administration of oxygen to a patient, the nurse does the following as
precautionary measures except
a) Ensures that the humidifier has very little water
b) Ensures that patient is given little oxygen to avoid complication
c) Ensures that there is no naked light
d) Tests the oxygen with water in a bow for bubbling

174. A business man looses an important contract, and gets a flat tire while driving home.
That evening, he begins to find fault with everyone. What defense mechanism is the he using?
a) projection
b) displacement
c) regression
d) sublimation

175. Excessive administration of oxygen to a child results in

a) rapid breathing
b) hyperthermia
c) retrolental fibroplasias
d) rigor

176. In research which of the following describes the behavior, characteristics or outcome
that the researcher wishes to explain or predict.
a) independent variable
b) dependent variable
c) intervening variable
 d) extraneous variable

177. Experimental research has the following characteristics except

a) Randomization
b) Generalization
c) Control
d) Applicability

178. Payment system in the healthcare services in Nigeria is mostly through

a) Out of pocket payment
b) Insurance remittance
c) Government subsidy
d) Instant payment

179. The market forces include

a) Buying and selling
b) Producer and consumer
c) Demand and supply
d) Profit and loss

180. The world Health Organization stipulates that each member Nation must budget…….. for
Health sector in each fiscal year budget
a) 5%
b) 10%
c) 15%
d) 20%

181. A patient that has vomited as much as 500 milliliters of vomitus may likely be develope
a) Ineffective airway clearance
b) Fluid volume deficit/Deficient fluid volume
c) Fluid volume excess
d) Self care deficit/Deficient self care

182. National Health Insurance Scheme (NHIS) was established in Nigeria under
a) Decree 25 of 1999
b) Decree 35 of 1999
c) Decree 25 of 1979
d) Decree 35 of 1979

183. Major precaution to be taken by the nurse in the administration of insulin is

a) Observe the site
b) Check the blood pressure of the patient
c) Get patients food ready before giving the insulin shot
 d) Observe patient for reaction of insulin

184. The act of selecting a sub-set of a population for inclusion in a study is called
a) Sampling
b) Sampling technique
c) Sample
d) Sample size

185. Cardiac arrest is synonymous with

a) Circulatory arrest
b) Cardiopulmonary arrest
c) Heart arrest
d) Heart attack

186. The midwife usually calculated gestation periods as_________from the last menstrual
period
a) 240 days
b) 260 days
c) 280 days
d) 300 days
187. --------------------- helps to separate metabolic wastes from the blood
a) Digestive system
b) The liver
c) The aveoli of the lungs
d) The kidneys

188. There are about ------------- renal pyramids per kidney

a) 2-5
b) 5-10
c) 3-6
d) 7-18

189. The kidneys are maintained in 24 hours by approximately

a) 1000 mls of fluid
b) 500 mls of fluid
c) 1500 mls of fluid
d) 250 mls of fluid

190. The incubation period for Neisseria gonorrhoea after exposure is

a) 2- 5 days
b) 1- 10 days
c) 10-20 days
d) 2-20 days

191. One of these does not form cardinal manifestations of Addison’s disease
a) Hypoglycaemia
b) Weight loss
c) Low blood pressure
d) Oedema
192. Nurses are carry out quick test of patients urine on admission because
a) It is known as routine investigation
b) Some abnormalities may be detected which will assist in the patient management
c) To keep to the doctor’s order or hospital policy
d) This has been the practice in nursing profession

193. The wall of the GIT is structurally arranged as follows from the inside.
a) Muscle layer, sub-mucous layer, mucous membrane and adventitia
b) Adventitia, sub-mucosa membrane, mucosa and muscle layer
c) Mucosa, sub-mucus membrane, muscle layer and adventitia
d) Adventitia, muscle layer, sub-mucous membrane and mucous membrane

194. One of these is not a cavity in human body

a) Bone marrow cavity
b) Intracranial space
c) Pericardial space
d) Vertebral canal

195. Post traumatic stress disorder may manifest through the following except
a) Display of concern over small issues
b) Exaggerated startled reactions
c) Generalized anxiety
d) Societal withdrawal

196. One of these is not included in the myths about suicide

a) People who talk about suicide are likely to commit suicide
b) People who talk about suicide do not commit suicide.
c) Asking about suicide puts ideas into the client’s head.
d) Suicide usually happens without warning

197. Myopia is corrected using

a) Convex lens
b) Biconcave lens
c) Concave lens
d) Refractive lens

198. Amilodipine is a calcium channel blocker used in the treatment of hypertension. This
drug acts by
a) Decreasing sinu-arterial node conduction resulting in a slower heart rate
b) Vasodilates/relaxing the vascular smooth muscle
c) Prevents platelet aggregation and subsequent thrombosis
d) Blocks the beta sympathetic stimulation of the heart
199. The steps to decision making include the following except
a) Identification and clarification of problem
b) Determining proper means of approach
c) Collecting relevant data to the problem
d) Analyzing and comparing alternatives

200. In ………. the manager asks some cardinal questions such as, where are we now?, where
do we want to go?, and, how are we going to get there?
a) Coordinating
b) Planning
c) Organizing
d) Directing

201. Theory X and Y were attributed to ……………………

a) Fredrick Taylor
b) Heirnzberch
c) Mc Gregor
d) Henry Feyol

202. One of the following is not a modality used in the provision of nursing care
a) Critical pathway
b) Patient allocation method
c) Supervising modality
d) Task modality

203. Essentially as human resource manager, a nurse manager is expected to ………………………

a. Know every subordinate under him/her
b. Be reliable some of the time
c. Be highly educated
d. Be friendly

204. The effectiveness of oral communication depends on the speaker’s ability to use_____
a) simple language
b) foreign words
c) long sentences
d) complex words

205. The aim of post-operative deep breathing exercise is to

a) Increase the blood oxygen level
b) Prevent pulmonary complications
c) Improve the oxygen supply to the brain cells.
d) Eliminate anaesthetic gases

206. In the administration of mannitol to a patient with head injury, the nurse should
recognize that the primary purpose for the mannitol is to
a) Reduce intracranial pressure
b) Diminish peripheral fluid retention
c) Nourish the brain cells
d) Prevent confusion

207. Which of these is very true about the thyroid gland?

a. It produces antidiuretic hormone
b. It secretes small amounts of insulin
c. It is located inferior to the larynx
d. It helps to initiate milk production

208. A nurse with accidental contaminated needle stick injury is primarily expected to
a. Cleanse the area with soap and water
b. Notify the infection control nurse
c. Request for post-exposure prophylaxis
d. Check the hepatitis status of the client

209. Cerebrovascular fluid is secreted at about ……… milliliters per day

a) 320
b) 720
c) 420
d) 520

210. The probability of rejecting a hypothesis when in actual sense, it is correct and should be
accepted is called
a) Type II error
b) Type I Error
c) Level of Significance
d) None of the above

211. Other name for vitamine E is

a) Ascorbic acid
b) Riboflavin
c) Thiamine
d) Tocopherol

212. Quantitative research is most appropriate for which of the following studies?
a) A study measuring the effects of sleep deprivation on wound healing.
b) A study examining the bereavement process in spouses of clients with terminal cancer.
c) A study exploring factors influencing weight control behaviours.
d) A study examining a client’s feeling before and after a bone marrow aspiration.

213. The use of a qualitative research process is most appropriate for which of the following
studies?
a) A study measuring nutrition and weight loss or gain in clients with cancer.
b) A study examining oxygen levels after endotracheal suctioning.
c) A study examining client reactions to stress after open heart surgery.
d) A study measuring differences in blood pressure before, during and after a procedure.

214. Study that determined the lived experiences of Cancer patients is an aspect of
a) Ethnographic study
b) A phenomenological
c) Mixed method study
d) Descriptive study

215. One of the under-listed is not a Pain theory

a) Proprioception theory
b) Gate control theory
c) Specificity theory
d) Pattern theory

216. Which of the following pre-operative diet is most appropriate for a patient scheduled
for a haemorrhoidectomy?
a) Higher fibre
b) Low residue
c) Plain liquid
d) Bland

217. One of these is not a type of urinary incontinent

a. Urge incontinent
b. Reflex incontinent
c. Pressure incontinent
d. Overflow incontinent

218. Which of the following is not a key strategy in pain management?

a) Acknowledge and accept client’s pain
b) Reduce misconception about pain
c) Reduce fear and anxiety
d) Tell client’s about their pain threshold

219. Tumor of the adrenal medulla is called

a) Haemocytoma
b) Adrenomyoma
c) Phaechromocytoma
d) Adrenogenic tumor.

220. Osteomalacia is a condition caused by deficiency of

a) Vitamin A
b) Vitamin C
c) Vitamin D
d) Vitamin E

221. One of these drugs has adverse effect on the eight (VIII) cranial never
a) Isoniazide
b) Ethambutol hydrochloride
c) Rifampicin
d) Streptomycin

222. Another name for vitamin A is

a) Calciferol.
b) Retinol
c) Niacin.
d) Biotin.

223. Membraneous gaps between the cranial bones of the infant are called
a) Sutures.
b) Fontanelles.
c) Joints.
d) Fascia
224. Control of odour in colostomy patient can be achieved by the under-listed except
a) Wearing clean and well fitted colostomy bag
b) Empty colostomy bag when necessary and clean thoroughly
c) Use deoderant tablets such as Bismuth subgallate
d) Avioding gas forming food

225. A distinct feature of pneumonia is

a) Productive cough.
b) Dyspnoea.
c) Lung consolidation.
d) Hyperventilation

226. Hydration in the management of patients with respiratory problems helps to

a) Prevent spread of infection
b) Reduce body temperature
c) Promote rest
d) Liquefy tracheobronchial secretions

227. The most important nursing intervention that will prevent attacks for a client with
asthma is
a) Encouraging copious oral fluid intake.
b) Encouraging the client to take his/her medications regularly.
c) Avoiding exercise and physical activity.
d) Assisting the client with activities of daily living

228. A definitive diagnosis of lung cancer is made by identifying malignant cells through
a) Chest X-ray.
b) Histologic examination.
c) Bronchoscopy.
d) Magnetic resonance imaging.

229. A nurse discovers that the doctor has prescribed an unusually large dosage of a
medication. Which of the following is the most appropriate action?
a) Administer the medication after notifying the doctor
b) Notify the doctor but do not administer the drug
c) Call the pharmacist to supply the actual dosage
d) Refuse to administer the medication.

230. Occupational rehabilitation of a footballer who had his lower limbs amputated after a
road traffic accident is an example of which of the following levels of nursing care?
a) Primary
b) Intermediate
c) Secondary
d) Tertiary

231. An elderly client informs the nurse that he has difficulty seeing the words in the
newspaper clearly unless he places the newspaper an arm’s length away. The nurse documents
this age-related change as
a) Presbycusis
b) Xerophthamia
c) Presbyopia
d) Presbyoesophagus

232. Heat dispersion by air currents is known as

a. Radiation.
b. Convection
c. Conduction.
d. Vapourization.

233. The temperature regulating centre is located in the

a. Basal ganglia
b. Cerebrum.
c. Hypothalamus.
d. Cerebellum.
234. In the assessment of Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) for an unconscious patient using best
motor response, a score of 4 refers to
a) Abnormal flexion to pain.
b) Eye opening.
c) Withdraws to painful stimuli
d) Confused.

235. Which of the following is a side effect of laxis?

a) Increased intraocular pressure.
b) Hypercalcaemia.
c) Polycythemia.
d) Hypokalemia.

236. Which of the following hormones is produced when blood supply to the kidney is
reduced?
a) Renal erythropoietin
b) Angiotensin
c) Rennin
d) Andrenocorticotropin

237. In nursing interventions in the management of the fluid deficit of a client, the nurse
should report to the doctor any urinary output that is less than
a) 60ml per hour.
b) 30ml per hour.
c) 50ml per hour.
d) 40ml per hour.

238. Which of the following should patients with productive cough receive at night?
a) Expectorants.
b) Cough suppressants
c) Expectorants and cough suppressants
d) None of the above.

239. A client who has had a colostomy should follow a diet that is :
a) Rich in protein
b) Low in fiber content
c) High in carbohydrate
d) As close to normal as possible

240. Each fallopian tube has four distinct segments

a) Infundibilum, ampulla, isthmus and interstitial
b) Infundibum, ampulla, isthmus and interstitial
c) Infundibum, fourchette, ampulla and isthmus
d) Infundibum, fimbriae, ischium and interstitial
241. Trismus is a manifestation of ________________.
a) Tetanus
b) Bell’s palsy
c) Meningitis
d) Parkinsonism

242. The process by which the reproductive organ return to their pre-pregnancy state is
known as
a) Recuperation
b) Contraction
c) Involution
d) Regression

243. A patient collapsed directly after the nurse administered intra muscular Injection of
Procain penicillin. This may be better referred to as
a) Anaphylactic shock
b) Cardiogenic shock
c) Syncope
d) Hypovolamic shock

244. High erythrocyte sedimentation rate indicates

a) High level of sodium in the blood
b) On-going Inflammatory process
c) high blood loss
d) all of the above.

245. Muscle tone is a state of

a) Partial contraction of muscles
b) Partial relaxation of muscles
c) Full contraction of muscles
d) Full relaxation of muscles

246. Genes are carried by

a) Vacuoles
b) Mitochondria
c) Chromatin
d) Centrosome

247. A group of subject with similar characteristics is referred to as -

a) Aggregate
b) Cohort
c) population
 d) Variables

248. Presidential election that retained the incumbent Nigeria President on seat was held
a) 1st October 2019
b) 29th May, 2019
c) 23rd February, 2019
d) 27th May, 2019

249. ……………………………………sleep is produced by withdrawal of neurotransmitters from the

reticular formation and inhibition of arousal mechanism in the cerebral cortex
a) Non-rapid eye movement (NREM)
b) rapid Eye Movement (REM)
c) Deep
d) Shallow

250. An individual to execute a living will must posses the following except
(a) Be an adult
(b) Be an emancipated minor by the country’s law
(c) Have evidence of terminal disease
(d) Show evidence of seriousness

DEPARTMENT OF NURSING SCIENCE

 FACULTY OF HEALTH SCIENCES
IMO STATE UNIVERSITY, ORLU CAMPUS
PRE-COUNCIL EXAMINATION FOR GENERAL NURSES

MARKING GUIDE FOR PAPER II DATE 15/02/2023

1. A 35. B 69. B
2. A 36. B 70. A
3. B 37. C 71. C
4. A 38. B 72. C
5. B 39. B 73. C
6. B 40. A 74. A
7. B 41. D 75. C
8. A 42. A 76. D
9. C 43. B 77. C
10. B 44. B 78. A
11. D 45. D 79. C
12. D 46. C 80. B
13. D 47. D 81. C
14. D 48. A 82. C
15. C 49. A 83. C
16. C 50. C 84. C
17. C 51. A 85. D
18. C 52. B 86. A
19. A 53. B 87. B
20. D 54. B 88. C
21. D 55. B 89. D
22. A 56. B 90. D
23. A 57. C 91. C
24. C 58. B 92. A
25. C 59. D 93. A
26. C 60. B 94. D
27. B 61. B 95. B
28. B 62. D 96. A
29. D 63. A 97. D
30. B 64. A 98. D
31. C 65. C 99. A
32. C 66. C 100. D
33. B 67. B 101. A
34. D 68. A 102. B
103. B 141. A 181. B
104. C 142. B 182. B
105. B 143. B 183. C
106. B 144. A 184. A
107. D 145. A 185. D
108. D 146. A 186. C
187. D
109. C 147. C
188. D
110. A 148. B
189. B
111. C 149. B
190. B
112. D 150. C
191. D
113. A 151. C
192. B
114. B 152. D
193. D
115. D 153. D
194. D
116. C 154. A
195. A
117. D 155. A
196. A
118. C 156. A
197. C
157. D
119. D 198. B
158. D
120. A 199. B
159. B
121. B 200. B
160. B
122. A 201. C
161. C
123. A 202. C
162. A
124. D 203. A
163. B
125. B 204. A
164. D
205. B
126. C 165. B
206. A
127. A 166. D
207. C
128. B 167. B
208. A
129. B 168. A
209. B
130. D 169. D
210. B
131. B 170. A
211. D
132. D 171. B
212. A
133. B 172. C
213. B
134. B 173. B
214. B
135. D 174. B
215. A
175. C
136. C 216. B
176. A
137. A 217. D
177. D
138. B 218. D
178. A
139. C 219. C
179. C
140. B 220. D
180. C
221. D 231. C 241. A
222. B 232. B 242. C
223. B 233. D 243. A
224. D 234. C 244. B
225. C 235. D 245. B
226. D 236. C 246. C
227. B 237. B 247. C
228. B 238. B 248. C
229. B 239. D 249. A
230. D 240. A 250. D