1.

A hollow shaft of same cross-section area as solid shaft transmits

A. Same torque
B. Less torque
C. More torque
D. Unpredictable
Answer:
B. Less torque

2. In a cantilever beam, maximum deflection occurs at where

A. Bending moment is zero
B. Bending moment is maximum
C. Shear force is zero
D. Slope is zero
Answer:
A. Bending moment is zero

3. In a rectangular beam, when width, depth and length are doubled, the bending
stress will be
A. Shall remain unchanged
B. Shall be doubled
C. Shall become th
D. Shall be halved
Answer:
C. Shall become th

4. In an I section beam, the bending moment is resisted mainly by

A. Flanges only
B. Web only
C. Both by flanges and web
D. None of the above
Answer:
B. Web only

5. In internal combustion (I.C.) engines, combustion of fuel takes place in

A. Outside the cylinder
B. Inside the cylinder
C. Not in the cylinder
D. None of the above
Answer:
B. Inside the cylinder

6. Power available at the shaft of an I.C engine is known is

A. Brake horse power
B. Indicated horse power
C. Net indicated horse power
D. Pumping power
Answer:
A. Brake horse power

7. In internal combustion engine piston the maximum temperature occurs at

A. Ring section
B. Gungeon pin
C. Bottom centre
D. Top centre
Answer:
A. Ring section

8. A two-stroke engine is generally preferred to a four-stroke engine because

A. It offers low fuel consumption
B. It gives lesser shocks and vibrations
C. It can be easily started
D. It has smaller size for the same output.
Answer:
D. It has smaller size for the same output.

9. During idling process, a petrol engine requires

A. Lean mixture
B. Rich mixture
C. Variable mixture
D. None of above
Answer:
A. Lean mixture

10. Cavitation in a pipe will begin when

A. Pressure at any location reaches pressure equal to the saturated vapour pressure of
liquid
B. Pressure becomes more than critical pressure
C. Flow is increased
D. Pressure is increased
Answer:
A. Pressure at any location reaches pressure equal to the saturated vapour pressure of
liquid

11. Capillary action of liquid is due to the

A. Viscosity of liquid
B. Cohesion of liquid particles
C. Surface tension
D. Adhesion of liquid particles on the surface
Answer:
B. Cohesion of liquid particles

12. In one ton refrigeration machine, the term one ton implies
A. One ton refrigerant is used
B. One ton water can be converted into ice
C. One ton ice when melts from and at 0 oC in 24 hours, the refrigerating effects is
equivalent to 3000 kcal/hour
D. None of the above
Answer:
C. One ton ice when melts from and at 0 oC in 24 hours, the refrigerating effects is
equivalent to 3000 kcal/hour

13. In a refrigeration cycle, the moisture content is to be removed before it enters

into which system
A. Cold side of system
B. Evaporator
C. compressor
D. condenser
Answer:
B. Evaporator
14. Pitot tube is used for measurement of
(a) Pressure
(b) Temperature
(c) Discharge
(d) Velocity
Ans.: (d) Velocity

15. Slow plastic deformation of material under constant stress is

(a) Creep
(b) Fatigue
(c) Endurance
(d) Elastic deformation

Ans.: (a) Creep

16. Mass balancing is done to

(a) Avoid flutter
(b) Increase bending stress
(c) Reduce drag
(d) Distributing mass on control surface
Ans.: (a) Avoid flutter

17. Short columns are preferred over long columns from

(a) Strength consideration
(b) Buckling consideration
(c) Weight consideration
(d) None of the above
Ans.: (b) Buckling consideration

18. Centre of pressure of an aerofoil with an increase of angle of attack will

(a) Move forward
(b) Move backward

(c) Not move

(d) None of the above
Ans.: (a) Move forward

19. Thermal efficiency of a gas turbine plant as compared to diesel engine plant
(a) Higher
(b) Lower
(c) Same
(d) May be higher or lower
Ans.: (a) Higher

20. A closed cycle gas turbine works on

(a) Carnot cycle
(b) Rankine cycle
(c) Joule cycle
(d) Atkinson cycle
Ans.: (c) Joule cycle

21. A bolt of uniform strength can be developed by

(a) Keeping the core dia of threads equal to the dia of unthreaded portion of bolt
(b) Keeping the core dia of threads smaller than the dia of unthreaded portion of bolt
(c) Keeping the nominal dia of threads equal to the dia of unthreaded portion of bolt
(d) None of the above
Ans.: (a) Keeping the core dia of threads equal to the dia of unthreaded portion
of bolt

22. Stress concentration factor is defined as ratio of

(a) Max stress to endurance limit
(b) Nominal stress to endurance limit
(c) Max stress to nominal stress
(d) Nominal stress to max stress
Ans.: (c) Max stress to nominal stress

24. Principle effect of humidity is

(a) Corrosion
(b) Leaking from sealed enclosures
(c) Permanent set of packing and gaskets

(d) Differential contraction of metal parts

Ans.: (a) Corrosion

25. Backlash is
(a) Sum of the clearance of two gears
(b) Mutual play between two gears
(c) Amount by which the width of a tooth space exceeds the thickness of the engaging
tooth on pitch circle
(d) Any of the above
Ans.: (c) Amount by which the width of a tooth space exceeds the thickness of the
engaging tooth on pitch circle

26. Teflon is used for bearings because of

(a) Low co-efficient of friction
(b) Better heat dissipation
(c) Smaller space constraint
(d) All of the above
Ans.: (a) Low co-efficient of friction

27. When two elastic bodies collide with each other

(a) Two bodies will momentarily come to rest after collision
(b) The two bodies tend to compress & deform at the surface of contact
(c) Two bodies begins to retain their original shape
(d) All of the above
Ans.: (d) All of the above

28. Anti friction bearings are

(a) Thick lubricated bearing
(b) Thin lubricated bearing
(c) Ball & roller bearing
(d) Plastic bearing
Ans.: (c) Ball & roller bearing

29. What is Hertzian stress?

(a) Tensile stress on inner surface of cylinder
(b) Bending stress on two contact surface
(c) Contact stress on two contact surfaces
(d) Shear stress on two contact surfaces

Ans.: (c) Contact stress on two contact surfaces

30. Mohrs circle can be used to determine following stress on inclined surface
(a) Principal stresses
(b) Normal stresses
(c) Maximum shear stresses
(d) All of the above
Ans.: (a) Principal stresses

31. What size of material required for making rolled threads?

(a) Pitch diameter
(b) Root diameter
(c) Major diameter
(d) None
Ans.: (a) Pitch diameter

32. Normalizing operation is carried out in

a) Water

b) Oil
c) Air
d) Furnace
Ans.: c) Air

33. The main purpose of heat treatment of steels is to change the

a) Chemical composition
b) Mechanical properties
c) Surface finish
d) Physical properties
Ans.: b) Mechanical properties
34. Which of the following is a non-destructive test
a) Impact test
b) Charpy test
c) Cupping test
d) Radiography test
Ans.: d) Radiography test
35. Polymerization is associated with
a) Stainless steel
b) Cast iron
c) Thermoplastic

d) Duralumin
Ans.: c) Thermoplastic
36. The material of pattern in the investment casting is
a) Resin
b) Sand
c) Wax
d) Wood
Ans.: c) Wax
37.Shell moulding process requires
a) Wooden pattern
b) Plastic pattern
c) Sand pattern
d) Metal pattern
Ans.: d) Metal pattern
38. Liquid nitrogen containers can be made from
a) Ferritic stainless steel
b) HSLA steel
c) Titanium
d) Austenitic stainless steel
Ans.: d) Austenitic stainless steel
39. Stretching of rolled rings is done to

a) To meet dimensional requirement

b) To relieve stresses
c) To introduce stresses
d) To improve finish
Ans.: b) To relieve stresses

40. During manufacturing of spring, the coiling pitch is assumed to be larger

than specified pitch by
a) 5-8%
b) 10-12%
c) 2-5%
d) none

Ans.: a) 5-8%
41. Metric thread have included angle:
a) 60
b) 55
c) 30
d) None

Ans.: a) 60

42. Which part of the cutting tool is prone to crater wear

a) Flank
b) Face
c) Shank
d) Base

Ans.: b) Face
43. The crater wear of a cutting tool is due to
a) Chemical action of the coolant
b) Excessive heat generated during cutting operation
c) Rubbing of tool against the work piece
d) Abrasive action of the chip

Ans.: d) Abrasive action of the chip

44. Crater wear is predominant in

a) Carbon tool steels
b) Tungsten carbide tools
c) High speed steel tools
d) Ceramic tools

Ans.: b) Tungsten carbide tools

45. Identify the single point cutting tool
a) Milling cutter
b) Hacksaw blade
c) Grinding wheel
d) Cutting tool used in a slotting machine

Ans.: d) Cutting tool used in a slotting machine

46. The angle between the tool face and the plane parallel to the base of the
cutting tool is called
a) Lip angle
b) Cutting angle
c) Rack angle
d) Shear angle
Ans.: c) Rack angle
47. In metal cutting operation, the cutting angle is defined as the angle
a) between the flank and the horizontal machined surface
b) between the shear plane and the direction of tool travel
c) between the face of tool and the line tangent to the machined surface at the cutting
point
d) between the tool face and the ground end surface of flank

Ans.: c) between the face of tool and the line tangent to the machined surface at
the cutting point
48. The angle between the face and the flank of the single point cutting tool is
known as
a) Rack angle
b) Clearance angle
c) Lip angle
d) Point angle

Ans.: b) Clearance angle

49. Cutting tool may be provided with large positive rack angle to
a) Have a better heat dissipation
b) Avoid rubbing with the finished surface
c) Increase the strength of cutting edge
d) Reduce the magnitude of cutting forces

Ans.: d) Reduce the magnitude of cutting forces

50. Single point thread cutting tool should ideally have
a) Zero rack angle
b) Positive rack

c) Negative rack
d) Normal rack

Ans.: a) Zero rack angle

51. With an increase in nose radius of single point cutting tools
a) Tool life increases
b) Excessive heat is generated
c) Surface finish deteriorates
d) Cutting speeds have to be kept small

Ans.: a) Tool life increases

52. Tool signature
a) Is a pictorial view of the tool
b) Outlines the orthographic projection of the tool
c) Represents complete specification of the tool
d) Is a numerical method of tool identification
e) Indicate life of tool

Ans.: d) Is a numerical method of tool identification

53. The cutting speed of a tool refers to
a) Revolution made by the tool in a specified time

b) Revolutions turned by the job in a specified time

c) Distance travelled by the tool in one revolution of the job
d) Rate at which cutting edge of the tool passes over the surface of work piece
Ans.: d) Rate at which cutting edge of the tool passes over the surface of work
piece
54. Which is not the primary function of coolant in a metal cutting operation
a) To cool the tool and work piece and conduct the heat generated
b) To improve the cutting action
c) To help in giving bright shining surface to the job
d) To reduce the friction at the cutting point

Ans.: a) To cool the tool and work piece and conduct the heat generated
55. Choose the coolant that would be most appropriate for light cuts on
aluminum alloys
a) Kerosene
b) Mineral oil
c) Soluble oil or emulsions
d) Straight fatty oil

Ans.: a) Kerosene

56. Tool life may be measured by the

a) Total time the tool has been in contact with the job
b) Quantity of material removed between the total sharpening
c) Number of work pieces machined between tool sharpening
d) Time for the flank wear to reach a certain dimension
e) Any one of the above

Ans.: e) Any one of the above

57. The tool life is influenced maximum by
a) Cutting speed
b) Tool material and geometry
c) Cutting fluid
d) Surface conditions of the workpiece
e) Skill of the operator

Ans.: a) Cutting speed

58. Draft on pattern means
b) Allowance for machining
c) Locating pad
d) Compensate for stripping
e) Compensation for shrinkage

Ans.: d) Compensate for stripping

59. Slag inclusion in the casting is a

a) Surface defects
b) Internal defect
c) Crack
d) Notch
Ans.: a) Surface defects

60. Fettling is an operation performed

a) Before casting
b) After casting
c) During casting
d) After heat treatment
Ans.: b) After casting

61. Sprue in casting refers to

a) Gate
b) Runner
c) Riser
d) Vertical passage

Ans.: d) Vertical passage

62. Severe quenching can cause

a) Blow holes
b) Warping
c) Inclusions
d) Non of them
Ans.: b) Warping

63. Casting defects caused by the molten metal is

a) Blow holes
b) Swell
c) Scab
d) All of the above
Ans.: d) All of the above

64. Forming operation which does not involve rotation of work piece is
a) Spinning
b) Thread rolling
c) Ring rolling
d) Upsetting

Ans.: d) Upsetting

65. In hot working process

a) Poor surface finish is produced
b) Scale formed
c) Close tolerance is difficult to maintain
d) All of the above
Ans.: d) All of the above

66. Swaging is an operation of

a) Extrusion
b) Forging
c) Casting
d) Rolling
Ans.: b) Forging

67. Age hardening is related with

a) Stainless steel
b) Duralumin
c) Gun metal
d) Cast iron

Ans.: b) Duralumin

68. Foundry crucible is made of

a) Stainless steel
b) Mild steel
c) Lead
d) Graphite
Ans.: d) Graphite

69. A 1000 tonne press implies that

a) The weight of press is 1000 tonne
b) The press can handle works weighing up to 1000 tonne
c) It can exert pressure up to 1000 tonne
d) Its turn over in a day is 1000 tonne
Ans.: c) It can exert pressure up to 1000 tonne

70. The transistor is made of

a) Silver
b) Germanium
c) Copper
d) Cast iron

Ans.: b) Germanium

71. Pre heating is essential in welding of

a) High speed steel
b) German steel
c) Stainless steel
d) Cast iron
Ans.: a) High speed steel

72. Spring back phenomenon occurs in

a) Forging
b) Hot penning
c) Spinning
d) Bending
Ans.: d) Bending

73. Wire is made by

a) Drawing
b) Forging
c) Rolling
d) Casting

Ans.: a) Drawing

74. Greater forging capacity is achieved with

a) Mechanical press
b) Power hammer
c) Hydraulic press
d) Non of them
Ans.: c) Hydraulic press

75. Turbine rotor is made by

a) Rolling
b) Sand casting
c) Forging
d) Extrusion
Ans.: b) Sand casting

76. Which of the following welding process uses consumable electrodes

a) TIG
b) MIG
c) Thermit
d) Laser

Ans.: b) MIG

77. The phenomenon of weld decay occurs in

a) Cast iron
b) Brass
c) Bronze
d) Stainless steel
Ans.: d) Stainless steel

78. The crystal structure of alpha iron

a) BCC
b) FCC
c) HCP
d) Cubic
Ans.: a) BCC

79. The hardest known material is

a) Ceramic
b) High speed steel
c) Cemented carbide
d) Diamond

Ans.: d) Diamond

80. Which of the following is the most ductile material

a) Lead
b) Copper
c) Mild steel
d) Vanadium
Ans.: a) Lead

81. Brinell hardness tester uses a hardened steel ball of size

a) 1 mm
b) 5 mm
c) 10 mm
d) 15 mm
Ans.: c) 10 mm

82. Trimming process is associated with

a) Polishing of metals
b) Machining
c) Electroplating
d) Forging

Ans.: d) Forging
83. Seamless rings are made by the process
a) Super-plastic forming
b) Mandrel forging
c) Ring rolling
d) Diffusion bonding
Ans.: c) Ring rolling

84. Internal defects in material is detected by

a) Fluorescent penetrate check
b) Red dye check
c) Ultrasonic
d) Eddy current check
Ans.: c) Ultrasonic

85. Smaller the grains in steel

a) Higher the tensile strength
b) Higher the fatigue strength
c) Lower the creep
d) All the above
Ans.: a) Higher the tensile strength

86. Alloying element which lowers the hardenability in steel

a) Cobalt
b) Tungsten
c) Chromium
d) Aluminum
Ans.: d) Aluminum

87. Base element in Warp alloy is

a) Iron
b) Nickel
c) Cobalt
d) Aluminum
Ans.: b) Nickel

88. Glass bead peening on components done to

a) Improve creep strength
b) Improve fatigue strength
c) Improve finish
d) Impart further coating
Ans.: b) Improve fatigue strength

89. Forging is superior to casting due to

a) Better grain direction
b) Better flowability
c) Less internal defects
d) Higher strength
Ans.: a) Better grain direction

90. DOE in process control variance is

a) Department Of Energy
b) Design Of Experiments
c) Defects on external areas
d) None of the above
Ans.: b) Design Of Experiments

91. Strain rate is the lowest in

a) Hydraulic press
b) Counter blow hammers
c) Screw presses
d) Drop hammers
Ans.: c) Screw presses

92. Titanium is preferred in high pressure compressor blades due to

a) Higher strength
b) Lower density
c) High temperature strength
d) Higher strength to weight ratio
Ans.: d) Higher strength to weight ratio

93. Austenite is a combination of

a) Ferrite + austenite
b) ferrite+ cementite
c) Ferrite + graphite
d) cementite + gamma iron
Ans.: b) ferrite+ cementite

94. The unique property of cast iron

a) Malleability
b) Damping capacity
c) Hardness
d) Ductility
Ans.: b) Damping capacity

95. Charpy test is conducted to measure

a) Hardness
b) Fatigue resistance
c) Brittleness
d) Malleability
Ans.: c) Brittleness

96. Machinability of a metal depends on

a) Tensile strength
b) Hardness
c) Toughness
d) Both (a) & (b)
Ans.: d) Both (a) & (b)
97. For pure metals the recrystallization temperature is
a) 0.2Tm
b) 0.5Tm
c) 0.7Tm
d) 0.9Tm
Ans.: b) 0.5Tm

98. Impurity in the metal and alloy

a) Decreases the resistivity
b) Increases the resistivity
c) No effect
d) None of them
Ans.: b) Increases the resistivity

99. The increase in hardness due to cold working is called

a) cold hardening
b) hot hardening
c) work hardening
d) age hardening
Ans.: c) work hardening

100. Steel balls are manufactured by

a) casting
b) machining
c) sintering
d) spinning
Ans.: d) spinning

101. The mould is housed in a

a) flask
b) cope
c) drag
d) cheek
Ans.: a) flask

102. Cores are used to

a) make desired shapes in the casting
b) strengthen moulding sand
c) support loose pieces
a) remove pattern easily
Ans.: a) make desired shapes in the casting
103. Pick up the wrong statement? A refrigent should have
a. Low specific heat of liquid
b. High boiling point
c. High latent heat of vaporization
d. Higher critical temperature
e. Low specific volume of vapour

Answer:

High boiling point

104. The property of a material which enable it to resist fracture due to high
impact loads is known as
a. Elasticity
b. Endurance
c. Strength
d. Toughness
e. Resilience

Answer:
Toughness

105. Spring index is

a. Ratio of coil diameter to wire diameter
b. Load required to produce unit deflection
c. Its capability of storing energy

d. Indication of quality of spring

e. Nothing

Answer:
Ratio of coil diameter to wire diameter

106. Nodular iron has

a. High machinability
b. Low melting point
c. High tensile strength
d. Good fluidity
e. All of the above

Answer:
All of the above

107. Six isometric views are given below along with 3 set of orthographic views.
Please correlate the orthographic views with their isometric view and write the
answer in the box given below with a-f.

Answer:
D, A, B

108. The purpose of jigs and fixtures are to

a. Increased production rate

b. Increased machining accuracy

c. Facilitate interchangeable manufacturing

d. Enable employ less skilled operators

e. All of the above

Answer:

All of the above

109. Which one of the following methods produces gear by generating process

a. Hobbing

b. Casting

c. Punching

d. Milling

e. Broaching

Answer:

Hobbing

110. Tool life of the cutting tool is most affected by

a. Cutting speed

b. Tool geometry

c. Cutting feed and depth

d. Micro structure of material being cut

e. Not using coolant and lubricant

Answer:

Cutting speed

111. Metal in machining operation is removed by

a. Tearing chips

b. Distortion of metal

c. Shearing the metal across a zone

d. Cutting the metal across a zone

e. Pushing the metal with tool

Answer:

Shearing the metal across a zone

112. A feeler gauge is used to check

a. Radius

b. Screw pitch

c. Surface roughness

d. Unsymmetrical shape

e. Thickness of clearance

Answer:

Thickness of clearance

113. Which is false statement about case hardening? Case hardening is done by

a. Electroplating

b. Cyaniding

c. Induction hardening

d. Nitriding

e. Flame hardening

Answer:

Electroplating

114. Gun metal contains

a. 70% copper and 30% zinc

b. 90% copper and 10% tin

c. 85-92% copper and rest tin with little lead and nickel

d. 70-78% copper and rest tin

e. 85-92% copper and rest zinc

Answer:

85-92% copper and rest tin with little lead and nickel

115. Which of the following is not a casting defect

a. Hot tear

b. Blow hole

c. Scab

d. Decarburization

e. Shift

Answer:

Decarburization

116. Draft on pattern for casting is

a. Shrinkage allowance

b. Identification number marked on it

c. Taper to facilitate its removal from mould

d. Increase in size of cavity due to shaking of pattern

e. For machining allowance

Answer:

Taper to facilitate its removal from mould

117. The increase in hardness due to cold working is called

a. Cold hardening

b. Hot hardening

c. Work hardening

d. Age hardening

e. Induction hardening

Answer:

Work hardening

118. The impact strength of an material is an index of its

a. Toughness
b. Tensile strength
c. Capability of being cold worked
d. Hardness
e. Fatigue strength
Answer:
Toughness

119. If a material expands freely due to heating, it will develop

a. Thermal stress
b. Tensile stress
c. Bending
d. Compressive stress
e. No stress
Answer:
No stress

120. Ductility of material can be defined as

a. Ability to undergo large permanent deformation in compression
b. Ability to recover its original form
c. Ability to undergo large permanent deformation in tension
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
Answer:
Ability to undergo large permanent deformation in compression

121. Cast iron is characterized by minimum of following % of carbon

a. 0.2%
b. 0.8%
c. 1.3%
d. 2%
e. None of the above
Answer:

2%

122. Inconel is an alloy of

a. Nickel, chromium and iron
b. Nickel and copper
c. Nickel and chromium
d. Nickel and zinc
e. Nickel and lead
Answer:
Nickel, chromium and iron

123. Which of the following variable controls the physical properties of a perfect gas?
a. Pressure
b. Temperature
c. Volume
d. Atomic mass
e. All of the above

Answer:
All of the above

124. If heat be exchanged in reversible manner, which of the following property of the
working substance will change accordingly
a. Temperature
b. Enthalpy
c. Internal energy
d. Entropy
e. All of the above

Answer:
Entropy

125. Compression ratio of I.C. Engine is

a. The ratio of volume of air in cylinder before compression stroke and after
compression
b. Volume displaced by piston per stroke and clearance volume in cylinder

c. Ration of pressure after compression and before compression

d. Swept volume / cylinder volume
e. Cylinder volume / swept volume

Answer:
Volume displaced by piston per stroke and clearance volume in cylinder

126. Coefficient of friction is

a. Angle between normal reaction and the resultant of normal reaction and the limiting
friction
b. Ration of limiting friction and normal reaction
c. The friction force acting when the body is just about to move
d. The friction force acting when the body is in motion
e. Tangent of angle of response

Answer:
Ration of limiting friction and normal reaction

127. Dynamic friction as compared to static friction is

a. Same
b. More
c. Less
d. May be less or more depending upon nature of surfaces and velocity
e. Has no correlation

Answer:
Less