CROP PROTECTION

Review Questions

1. It is a science that deals with the nature, causes, and control plant diseases:
1. entomology
2. agronomy
3. plant pathology
4. horticulture
2. The art of plant pathology which determines the severity and prevalence of diseases.
a. disease monitoring
b. disease forecasting
c. disease assessment
d. disease diagnosis
2. The ultimate objective of plant pathology.
a. minimize or reduce plant disease
b. identify plant disease
c. survey plant disease
d. measure plant disease
2. Moldy grains that are discolored and carry off-odors suffer a reduction in one of the following.
a. quantity
b. quality
c. loss mutants
d. disease
2. This is a mycotoxin produced by Apergillus flavus attacking stored grains
a. ochratoxin
b. yellow rice toxin

c. aflatoxin
d. penicillic acid
2. One adverse effect of applying pesticides which can effect the beneficial organisms, water sources, and plants.
a. ecological imbalance
b. pest resurgence
c. pest resistance
d. environmental contamination
2. The Greeks, Hebrews and Romans considered plant diseases as a

by God for wrongs and sins

committed.

a. payment
b. curse or punishment
c. sacrifice
d. admonition
2. The invention of the

in 1590 triggered the beginning of scientific studies in plant pathology.

a. compound microscope
b. electron microscope
c. lenses
d. fungicides
2. Heinrich Anton de Bary the father of the plant pathology, showed that a fungus,

was the cause of leaf blight of

potato

a. Phytophthora infestans
b. Plasmopara viticola
c. Sclerotium rolfsii
d. none of the above
2. The Kochs Postulates is a set of 4 rules that must be satisfied to prove the
a. disease
b. pathogenicity
c. survival

of a microorganism

d. severity
2.

, the first fungicide, is a mixture of copper sulfate and lime.

a. saline solution
b. Bordeaux mixture
c. borax solution
d. benomyl
2. The cause of diseases which Burill and Smith worked on
a. fungi
b. viruses
c. bacteria
d. nematodes
2. Bacteria were first shown to be able to incite plant disease in
a. potato leaf blight
b. rice bacterial blight
c. fire blight of apple and pears
d. taro blight
2. In 1971, Diener determined that potato spindle tuber disease was caused by a
a. virus
b. fungus
c. bacteria
d. viroid
2. Mycoplasma like organisms were first reported to cause in Japan.
a. peach yellows
b. aster yellows
c. cadang-cadang
d. corn stunt

2.

is a harmful alteration of the normal physiological and biochemical development of a plant

a. injury
b. disease
c. pathogenesis
d. colonization
2.

is a sharply defined variegated color pattern

a. mottle
b. chlorosis
c. mosaic
d. etiolation
2.

refer to the structures of the pathogen that are found associated with the infected host

a. symptoms
b. spores
c. mycelia
d. signs
2.

symptoms involve the death of protoplast, cells or tissues

a. necrotic
b. hyperplastic
c. hypertophic
d. histological
2.

is characterized by perforations in leaf as lesions drop out

a. shot-hole
b. leaf spot
c. blight
d. scab
2. Sign of a pathogen include

a. ooze
b. yellowing
c. etiolation
d. galls
2. The identification of specific plant diseases through their characteristic symptoms and signs is
a. detection
b. diagnosis
c. control
d. assessment
2. Yellowing due to lack of light is
a. etiolation
b. chlorosis
c. sunscalding
d. scorch
2. A disease caused by too much bright light along with high temperatures is
a. etiolation
b. sunscalding
c. water logging
d. chlorosis
2. An example of air pollutant is
a. fog
b. smoke
c. ozone
d. smog
2.

nematodes feed only on root hairs and root tips

a. endoparasitic

b. ectoparasitic
c. sedentary
d. migratory
2.

are pleomorphic microorganisms without cell walls

a. bacteria
b. mycoplasma
c. viroids
d. fungi
2. Citrus exocortis and cadang-cadang are believed to be caused by
a. viroids
b. mycoplasma
c. viruses
d. fastidious vascular bacteria
2. Agrobactrium tumefaciens causes

disease of many plants

a. root rot
b. crown gall
c. stunting
d. scab
2. Viruses are usually spread by

in the field

a. fungi
b. insects
c. nematodes
d. bacteria
2.

are wide-scale appraisal of the severity and prevalence of diseases in the country, a region or a
continent.

a. disease survey
b. disease diagnosis

c. disease monitoring
d. disease incidence
2. Fungi are spore-forming, achlorophyllous microorganisms with a filamentous vegetative body called
a. spores
b. hyphae
c. sclerotia
d. chlamydospore
2.

are the most common infectious agent of plant disease

a. fungi
b. viruses
c. bacteria
d. nematodes
2. An example of phanerogams is
a. witchweed
b. downy mildew
c. soft rot of cabbage
d. mango anthracnose
2. Rice tungro is caused by a virus transmitted by
a. green leafhopper
b. brown leafhopper
c. aphids
d. mealybugs
2. The ability of the parasites/pathogen to cause disease is
a. pathogenesis
b. pathogenicity
c. pathogenic

d. aggressiveness
2. Parasites that could grow and reproduce only in living hosts
a. facultative saprophyte
b. saprophyte
c. obligate parasite
d. facultative parasite
2. The following are events occurring in pathogenesis except
a. survival phase
b. inoculation
c. penetration
d. infection
2. The following are possible sources of inoculum of except
a. plant debris
b. propagative organs
c. nearby plants
d. tissue cultured plants
2. The following are stages in pathogen dissemination except
a. penetration
b. liberation
c. light deposition
2. Biotic factor that may affect pathogen penetration
a. RH
b. temperature
c. tension
d. antagonistic microorganisms
2. Not a mechanism of bacterial penetration to host

a. direct penetration
b. through stomata
c. through hydathodes
d. through wounds
2. A soil that contains a variety of antagonistic microorganism that produce toxic metabolites and cause pathogen
starvation

a. acidic soil
b. basic soil
c. suppressive soil
d. favorable soil
2. The incapability of spores of soil-borne fungi to germinate in some soil due to the existence of a variety of
antagonistic microorganism

a. cross protection
b. fungistasis
c. fungistatic
d. suppressive
2. The time interval between inoculation and the appearance of disease symptoms
a. incubation period
b. latent period
c. sporulation
d. half-life
2. Type of disease cycle where the pathogen completes only one or even part of one disease cycle in one growing
season

a. macrocyclic
b. polycyclic
c. monocyclic
d. microcyclic
2. The usual effect of root rotting fungi in plants is on the

a. translocation of organic compounds through the phloem

b. increase transpiration
c. change in production of host
d. interference with uptake of water and inorganic elements from the soil
2. Leaf-infecting plants pathogens usually
a. interfere with the translocation of organic compounds
b. reduce the photosynthetic activity
c. cause hyperplastic symptoms such as galls
d. affect host reproduction
2. The following are mechanical weapons used by pathogens to penetrate tissue except:
a. toxins
b. stylet
c. penetration peg
d. appressorium
2. Chemical substance produce by the pathogen that act directly on living host protoplasts seriously damaging or
killing the cells of the plant

a. enzymes
b. toxins
c. hormones
d. phytoalexin
2. The following pathogen enzymes degrade plant cell wall substance except
a. pectinases
b. hemicellulases
c. cellulases
d. isozymes
2. The following substances usually affect growth of cells except:
a. auxins

b. gibberellins
c. cutinases
d. cytokinins
2. The following are mechanism of variability in fungi except
a. transduction
b. parasexualism
c. heterokaryosis
d. heteroploidy
2. The following is a sexual like process in bacteria
a. heteroploidy
b. transduction
c. heterokaryosis
d. parasexualism
2. The concept that say for each gene that confers virulence/avirulence to the pathogen there is a corresponding
gene in the host that confer resistant to the host and vice-versa

a. Kochs postulates
b. gene-for-gene concept
c. the law of relativity
d. Malthuslan concept
2. The following are pre-existing host defenses except:
a. phytoalexin production
b. presence of thick cuticle
c. small stomatal openings
d. presence of phenolic compounds near the point of attack
2. The following are induced defenses of the host in response to pathogen attack except:
a. formation of abscission layers
b. hypersensitive reaction

c. thick cuticle
d. systemic acquired resistance
2. The rapid death of cells immediately surrounding the point of infection thereby walling off the pathogen and the
activation of a cascade of biological reactions in the attacked and the surrounding plant cells

a. systemic acquired resistance (SAR)

b. hypertensive response (HR)
c. oxidative burst
d. susceptibility
2. Toxic antimicrobial substances produced in appreciable amounts in plants only after stimulation by various types
of phytopathogens or by chemical or mechanical injury

a. elicitors
b. antibiotics
c. phytoalexins
d. toxins
2. Antibodies that are encoded by animal genes but produced in transgenic plants that makes the plant resistant to
the virus where the antibody was derived

a. antigenic determinant
b. plantibodies
c. golgi bodies
d. immunoglobulins
2. Resistance that spread systemically and develop in distal untreated parts of the plant which is not non-specific
or generalized resistance

a. systemic acquired resistance (SAR)

b. local acquired resistance (LAR)
c. hypertensive resistance (HR)
d. induced resistance (IR)
2. The study of the increase of the disease on a population and the factors that influence them
a. epidemic
b. epidemiology

c. demography
d. geology
2. The following are components of an epidemic except
a. susceptible host
b. favorable environment
c. avirulent pathogen
d. man as a manager of the system
2. An epidemic would more likely develop in
a. perennial woody plant
b. widespread planting of a single variety
c. planting multilines
d. mature plants
2. Epidemic would less likely develop in this condition
a. prolonged or repeated high moisture
b. dense planting
c. high O tension
2

d. aerially dispersed fungal spores

2. Roguing virus-infected plants in the field falls under what principle of plant disease control?
a. exclusion
b. eradication
c. protection
d. immunization
2. Control of disease through crop rotation is what method of control measure?
a. sanitation
b. physical method
c. cultural method

d. biological method
2. Irradication of fruits with gamma rays falls under what method of plant disease control
a. sanitation
b. physical
c. chemical
d. biological
2. Soil fumigation to control Moko disease of banana falls under method of control?
a. physical
b. biological
c. sanitation
d. chemical
2. You were required to leaves at the airport the planting material you carried from abroad. What principle of plant
disease control was applied?

a. exclusion
b. immunization
c. eradication
d. protection
2. The following are considered infrasubspecific taxa of pathogen except:
a. race
b. biotype
c. formae speciales
d. family
2. Proper fertilization of soils falls under what method of control?
a. chemical
b. cultural
c. sanitation
d. host resistance

2. The following are the basis of classifying weeds except

a. gross morphology
b. habit life cycle
c. growth habit
d. anatomy
2. Itchgrass is the English name of
a. Echinochloa colona
b. Eleusine indica
c. Echinochloa glabrescens
d. Rottboellia cochinchinensis
2. The following are the vegetative structure of weeds except
a. flowers
b. branches
c. tillers
d. leaves
2. Competition only occurs when there is
a. limited amount of light and nutrients
b. inadequate water supply
c. limited amount of C O and space
2

d. all of the above

2. Allelophatic substance are equated to
a. allelochemicals
b. secondary metabolites
c. allosomes
d. all of the above
2. The most popular herbicide we have today which was discovered in 1944 is

a. gramoxone
b. 2,4-D
c. atrazine
d. glyphosate
2. Weeds occupies the
a. 1 tropic level
st

b. 2 tropic level
nd

c. 3 tropic level
rd

d. 4 tropic level
th

2. The suspended growth of the embryo is due to

a. dormancy
b. germination
c. respiration
d. photosynthesis
2. The technical term for weed establishment is
a. ecstasy
b. ecases
c. ecesis
d. evasis
2. The physical form of dormancy is brought about the presence of
a. inhibitors in the seed coat
b. inhibitors in the embryo
c. immature embryo
d. thick hull
e. all of the above
2. The density of weed above which significant yield reduction will occur is called

a. critical period
b. critical time duration
c. critical threshold
d. critical stage
2. The following are the growth habit of a weed except
a. tree
b. vine or herb
c. shrub or tree
d. herbaceous and woody
2. Classification of weeds based on gross morphology includes
a. epiphytic
b. sedge
c. grass
d. broadleaf
2. The following are the characteristic of a sedges except
a. triangular stem
b. parallel leaf venation
c. monocot
d. hollow stem
2. The following are considered allelopathic substances except
a. icoline
b. marasmin
c. phytoncide
d. meristem
2. These structure are found in grass weed except
a. ligule

except

b. node
c. internode
d. tubers
2. purple nutsedge is
a. perennial
b. terrestrial
c. monocot
d. all of the above
2. Physiological dormancy may be overcome by
a. after ripening process
b. stratification
c. exposure to light
d. all of the above
2. The following are the steps involves in germination except
a. shoot emergence
b. root emergence
c. inhibition
d. rapid metabolism
2. Example of germination promoters are the following except
a. auxin
b. KNO

c. ABA
d. all of the above
2. The following are the example of underground vegetative structures that may be used for weed propagation
a. rhizomes
b. tubers

c. stolons
d. all of the above
2. The asexual reproduction of weed is greatly affected by the following factors except
a. light
b. soil
c. mineral
d. temperature
2. Dispersal unit of weed includes
a. rhizomes
b. seed
c. tuber
d. all of the above
2. An example of aquatic weed is
a. E. crassipes
b. E. indica
c. E. sonchifolia
d. E. hirta
2. The weed structure facilitating dispersal include
a. burs
b. spines
c. hooks
d. all of the above
2. Efficient plants possess the following traits except
a. KRANTZ structure
b. low water requirement
c. photorespiration

d. high light intensity saturation point

2. The C3 plants are characterized by the following except
a. high CO compensation point
2

b. low CO compensation point

2

c. low light intensity saturation point

d. absence of KRANTZ structure
2. The oldest form of weed control is
a. biological
b. mechanical
c. chemical
d. manual
2. Mycoherbicides are made up of
a. bacterial spores
b. egg of nematodes
c. virus particles
d. fungal particles
2. Collego is made up of spores of
a. Cercospora
b. Curvularia
c. Colletotrichum
d. Helminthosporium
2. Good biological weed control agents possess the following traits except
a. ability to search for the host
b. specific
c. ability to adapt to the environment
d. slow pace of reproduction

2. The following are considered cultural methods of weed control except

a. use of mulching materials
b. use of rotary weeder
c. flooding
d. choice of variety
2. Considered as the most efficient agent of weed dissemination is
a. wind
b. water
c. carabao
d. Mang Juan
2. The most limiting factor for competition in tropical countries especially during dry season is
a. soil pH
b. soil moisture
c. sunlight
d. nitrogen
2. Intraspecific type of competition is exhibited by
a. rice vs. jungle rice
b. E. colona vs. E. glabrescus
c. itchgrass vs. Rottboellia cochinchinensis
d. all of the above
2. What is the branch of science which deals with the study of insects?
a. zoology
b. ornithology
c. acarology
d. entomology
2. In what year entomological study first started in the Philippines?

a. 1816
b. 1618
c. 1718
d. 1810
2. Which nationality did a lot of insect collections in the Philippines?
a. French
b. American
c. German
d. Swedish
2. Hemitera Insularum Philippinarum and Dle Schmetterlings der philippinischen Inseln are both milestones in:
a. Philippine entomology
b. Philippine acarology
c. Philippine botany
d. Philippine zoology
2. All but one describes the importance of insects to man and agriculture:
a. production of many agricultural crops
b. provide food and other products of commercial values
c. cause enormous losses to agricultural crops
d. all acts as vectors of disease-causing organisms to plants, animals and human beings
2. All the following are distinguishing features of insects except:
a. three body regions
b. three pairs of legs
c. two pairs of antennae
d. one to two pairs of wings
2. Considered as locomotory region of the insect body
a. head

b. thorax
c. abdomen
d. all of the above
2. Which one is not an organ/structure in the head
a. antennae
b. compound eyes
c. spiracles
d. simple eye
2. Basic unit structure of the compound eye
a. ocelllus
b. ommatidium
c. tympanum
d. labium
2. Appendages found in the thorax except:
a. wings
b. legs
c. both a and b
d. none of the above
2. All of the following are insect mouthparts except
a. labium
b. mandible
c. maxillae
d. tibia
2. All the following are types of insect antennae except
a. aristate
b. plumose

c. moniliform
d. hamuli
2. All are modifications of clubbed type of antennae
a. clavate
b. capitate
c. flabellate
d. geniculate
2. All are modifications of clubbed type of antennae
a. clavate
b. capitate
c. flabellate
d. genicullate
2. All are external processes of the body wall except
a. scales
b. quinones
c. setae
d. spurs
2. Type of mouthparts of which the cranium is turned upward on the neck so that the mouthparts are directed
forward

a. hypognathus
b. opisthognathous
c. prognathus
d. hypergnathus
2. All are haustellate type of mouthparts except
a. mouthparts of thrips
b. mouthparts of bugs
c. mouthparts of fleas

d. mouthparts of grasshopper
2. Which one is not a part of the insect leg
a. femur
b. trochanter
c. tibia
d. cerci
2. Saltatorial type of legs is modified for
a. grasping
b. clinging
c. swimming
d. cutting
2. All are coupling devices in insect wing except
a. frenulum
b. hamuli
c. arolium
d. jugum
2. Type of wing which the 2/3 or of the forewing is parchment-like while the remaining distal part is membranous
a. elytron
b. hemyletron
c. tegmina
d. humeral
2. Type of metamorphosis with three stage of development-egg, nymph and adult
a. ametabolous
b. hemimetabolous
c. holometabolous
d. none of the above

2. Type of metamorphosis with four stages of development-egg, larva, pupa and adult
a. ametabolous
b. hemimetabolous
c. holometabolous
d. none of the above
2. Aquatic immature stage of hemimetabolous insect
a. nalad
b. nymph
c. pupa
d. larva
2. Quiescent or inactive stage of holometabolous insect
a. larva
b. pupa
c. nymph
d. adult
2. Destructive stages of insect development except
a. nymph
b. larva
c. adult
d. pupa
2. Science of classification
a. lobotomy
b. taxonomy
c. dichotomy
d. none of the above
2. Branch of science which deals how organisms are related to each other and attempt to describe the underlying
reasons for that relationship

a. taxonomy
b. systematics
c. nomenclature
d. none of the above
2. The fundamental unit of classification. It is also defined as the smallest group capable of reproduction and
production of fertile offsprings.

a. genus
b. family
c. species
d. order
2. A tool that unlock the door to identification of an unknown organism
a. nomenclature
b. key
c. systematics
d. taxonomy
2. All are morphological characteristic used to distinguish insect orders except
a. wings
b. mouthparts
c. antennae
d. body wall
2. Which insect order do butterflies, moths and skippers belong?
a. hymenoptera
b. homoptera
c. Lepidoptera
d. coleoptera
2. Which insect order do beetles and weevils belong?
a. hymenoptera

b. homoptera
c. Lepidoptera
d. coleoptera
2. Which insect order do bugs, aphids, mealybugs, leafhoppers and planthoppers belong?
a. hymenoptera
b. homoptera
c. Lepidoptera
d. coleoptera
2. Which insect order do flies, mosquitoes and gnats belong?
a. hymenoptera
b. diptera
c. isoptera
d. odonata
2. Which order do dragonflies and damselflies belong?
a. ephemeroptera
b. odonata
c. phtiraptera
d. thysanoptera
2. All the following insect orders are beneficial except
a. hymenoptera
b. mantodea
c. odonata
d. isoptera
2. All of the following orders are destructive to plant except
a. lepidoptera
b. coleoptera

c. homoptera
d. neuroptera
2. Which insect order do grasshopper, locusts and katy belong?
a. phasmatodea
b. orthoptera
c. blattodea
d. mantodea
2. Which insect order do earwigs belong?
a. mantodea
b. thysanura
c. dermaptera
d. coleopteran
2. All of the following are pest except
a. weeds
b. insects
c. plant pathogens
d. spider
2. An insect which interferes with the production of crops and animals either directly or indirectly
a. insect pest
b. insect pollinator
c. insect decomposer
d. none of the above
2. The level of pests which will cause economic damage is defined as
a. economic threshold level
b. economic injury level
c. economic inhibition level

d. all of the above

2. The level or number pests at which control must be applied to prevent an increasing pest population from
causing economic losses

a. economic threshold level

b. economic injury level
c. economic inhibition level
d. all of the above
2. All of the following are damage produced by chewing insect except
a. distinct portion of leaf missing
b. leaf mines
c. leaf curling
d. entire leaf blade missing
2. All of the following are damage produced by sucking insects
a. stipplings
b. galls
c. puckering
d. skeletonized leaf
2. Insect pests of rice which are vectors of virus disease except
a. rice stem borer
b. green leafhopper
c. brown plant hopper
d. zigzag leaf hopper
2. Important pests of corn except
a. corn stem borer
b. army worm
c. corn seedling maggot
d. black bug

2. Important insect pests of beans

a. podborer
b. Nezara viridula
c. Aphis craccivora
d. budworm
2. The most important pest of sweetpotato
a. sweetpotato weevil
b. sweetpotato stemborer
c. grasshopper
d. leaf miners
2. Which of the following is not a synonym/description of ecological resistance
a. false or fake
b. pseudo resistance
c. genetically controlled
d. all of the above
2. The following are mechanism of resistance except
a. tolerance
b. antixenosis
c. diagnosis
d. antibiosis
2. Vertical resistance is called :
a. monogenic
b. partial
c. polygenic
d. all of the above
2. The following are example of pathogens except:

a. virus
b. bacteria
c. arachnida
d. fungi
2. Which of the following is not an advantage of biological control
a. safe
b. self perpetuating
c. environment-friendly
d. none of the above
2. The point of entry of a fumigant insecticides is
a. insect integument
b. spiracles
c. mouth
d. none of the above
2. Organochlorine insecticides include
a. chlordane
b. tannate
c. DDT
d. a & b
2. What is defined as any action/activity that is designed to hold pest population below the economic threshold
level

a. resistance
b. pest control
c. tolerance
d. antibiosis
2. The following are the characteristics of a parasitoid except
a. kills its host gradually

b. lives inside or outside its host

c. needs only one host to complete its development
d. all of the above
2. Predators includes the following arthropods except
a. dragonfly
b. most coccinellid beetles
c. antlion
d. black bug
2. Horizontal resistance is also called
a. minor gene resistance
b. polygenic resistance
c. filed resistance
d. all of the above
2. The following are examples of cultural methods except
a. crop rotation
b. crop complementation
c. sanitation
d. none of the above
2. A mechanism of insect resistance that is described as refractory to guest is
a. tolerance
b. antibiosis
c. antixenosis
d. all of the above
2. Based on the mode of entry, insecticides can be classified as:
a. contact poison
b. stomach poison

c. none of the above

d. all of the above
2. The following are examples of organophosphate insecticides except:
a. Malathion
b. parathion
c. baygon
d. azodrin
2. An ecological based strategy that relies heavily on natural mortality factors is:
a. cultural control
b. biological control
c. chemical control]
d. integrated pest management
2. The following are disadvantages of chemical control except:
a. development of resistance pest species
b. hazards of pesticides residues
c. resurgence or outbreak of secondary pests
d. none of the above
2. A pesticides that is used to kill insect pest is:
a. herbicide
b. insecticide
c. acaricide
d. fungicide
2. A control action/method that prevents the introduction of potential pests to another area or prevent further
dissemination of those already present in the locality is:

a. resistance
b. biological control
c. quarantine

d. chemical control
2. Which is not example of botanical insecticide
a. pyrethroids
b. nicotinoids
c. juvenoids
d. rotenoids
2. Golden snail is under the phylum:
a. arthropoda
b. gasthropoda
c. mollusca
d. chordata
2. The native kuhol is
a. Achatina fulica
b. Pomacea canaliculata
c. Pila luzonica
d. none of the above
2. A pesticide group that is used against anail pest is :
a. fungicide
b. nematicide
c. molluscicide
d. insecticide
2. An adult golden snail lays an average of
a. 400
b. 200
c. 300
d. 500 eggs/egg mass

2. Maturity of golden snail ranges from

a. 2 to 3 months
b. 1 to 2 months
c. 3-4 months
d. 4-5 months
2. Birds are under the Class
a. mammalia
b. aves
c. arachnida
d. insecta
2. Also known as gnawing mammals include members of the order:
a. chiroptera
b. rodentia
c. primates
d. none of the above
2. The scientific name of the house or tree sparrow is:
a. Lonchura Malacca
b. Passer muntamus
c. Padda oryzivora
d. Oryza sativa
2. The biggest among the 5 species of rodents destructive to agricultural crops and in households.
a. common rice field rat
b. bush rat
c. Norway rat
d. asia rice field rat
2. The following are factors affecting population dynamics of rodents except:

a. immigration
b. emigration
c. birth rate
d. fumigation
2. The average weight of the Rattus rattus mindanensis is:
a. 180g
b. 130g
c. 30g
d. 12g
2. The following are signs of rat infestation except:
a. damaged crops
b. scattered food
c. food prints
d. none of the above
2. The insect that transmitted the bubonic plague bacteria that affected 41M victims in the 14 century is:
th

a. louse
b. flea
c. mosquito
d. bed bug
2. The following are examples of chronic rodenticide except
a. warfarin
b. zinc phosphide
c. racumin
d. dora
You wish to apply 300 liters of spray solution/ha to a 0.5 ha area. The recommended spray concentration of the 45%
EC pesticide is 0.04%.

192.

The spray volume needed for the treated area is:

a. 160 li
b. 100 li
c. 125 li
d. 150 li
192.

The amount of commercial formulation required for the treatment is

a. 0.142 li
b. 0.133 li
c. 0.165 li
d. 0.111 li
192.

Using 16-li capacity sprayer, how many sprayerloads will be done?

a. 15
b. 10
c. 5
d. 20
192.

The amount of commercial formulation needed per sprayerload is:

a. 0.0133 li
b. 0.0142 li
c. 0.007 li
d. 0.0166 li
A farmer obtained the following data during calibration of his 16 li knapsack sprayer

distance traveled = 40m

spray swath = 4m
volume sprayed = 5 li/min

196.

The application rate/ha is

a. 312.5 li/ha
b. 250.5 li/ha
c. 333.33 li/ha
d. 277.77 li/ha
196.

The time required to spray 1 ha is

a. 65.5 min
b. 62.5 min
c. 60.5 min
d. 66.2 min
You wish to apply 320 li/ha of spray solution to a 1.5- ha area. The recommendation rate of the 70% wettable powder
pesticide is 0.75kg a.i/ha

198.

How many kilograms of the commercial formulation are required to treat the 1.5 ha area?

a. 1.45
b. 2.15
c. 1.61
d. 1.12
198.

What is the volume of spray needed for the treated area?

a. 400 li
b. 480 li
c. 320 li
d. 300 li

A certain fungicide containing 50% a.i in WP is recommended to control leaf spotting fungus at the rate of 20g per 20
liters of water.

200.

What is the strength of the diluted spray?

a. 0.05%
b. 0.1%
c. 0.15%
d. 0.5%
200.

To prepare 100 li of the fungicidal spray, how much of the fungicide should be prepared?

a. 160g
b. 100g
c. 200g
d. 175g
1

31

61

91

121

151

181

32

62

92

122

152

182

33

63

93

123

153

183

34

64

94

124

154

184

35

65

95

125

155

185

36

66

96

126

156

186

37

67

97

127

157

187

38

68

98

128

158

188

39

69

99

129

159

189

10

40

70

100

130

160

190

11

41

71

101

131

161

191

12

42

72

102

132

162

192

13

43

73

103

133

163

193

14

44

74

104

134

164

194

15

45

75

105

135

165

195

16

46

76

106

136

166

196

1000 li

17

47

77

107

137

167

197

200min
s

18

48

78

108

138

168

198

19

49

79

109

139

169

199

20

50

80

110

140

170

200

21

51

81

111

141

171

201

22

52

82

112

142

172

23

53

83

113

143

173

24

54

84

114

144

174

25

55

85

115

145

175

26

56

86

116

146

176

27

57

87

117

147

177

28

58

88

118

148

178

29

59

89

119

149

179

30

60

90

120

150

180

202.
b.

Answers key 201 crop protection questions