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Ultrasonic Testing
End of course Assessment
( Thickness Measurement )

Answer all Questions.

Zone A

Zone B

1 . Zone A in figure 1 , is referred to as

a. Near zone
b. Close zone
c. Dead zone
d. Frau zone

2 . Zone B in figure 1, is referred to as

a. Beam zone
b. Long zone
c. Distant zone
d. Far zone

3 . Which of the following would be classified as an immersion type test

a. A tank in which the search unit and test piece are immersed
b. A squirter bubbler method in which the sound is transmitted in a column of
flowing water
c. Scanning with a wheel type search unit with the transducer inside a liquid filled
tyre
d. All of the above

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4 . The expansion and contraction of a crystal under the influence of a changing electric
field is referred as :

a. Magretostriction
b. Refraction
c. Piezoelectic effect
d. Rarefaction

5 . Which of the following can occur when an ultrasonic beam reaches the interface of
two dissimilar materials ?

a. Reflection
b. Refraction
c. Mode conversion
d. All of the above

6. Which of the following search units would contain the thinnest crystal

a. 5MHz
b. 2MHz
c. 10MHz
d. 25MHz

7. If a probe has an angle of 60 degrees when inspecting steel , what effect would
changing the material being inspected have upon the angle :

a. None , probe angle is independent of material

b. It would depend on the couplant used
c. It would depend on the frequency of the probe
d. The probe angle would be changed

8. For shear waves the motion the particles of relative to the direction of propagation is

a. Parallel
b. At 90 degrees
c. Elliptical
d. Oblique

9. In through transmission testing the search units configuration is

a. 2 separate units on opposite sides of the materials under inspection

b. 2 separate units the same side of the materials
c. One search unit transmitting and receiving

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d. 2 units in the same probe

10. Which of the follwing is not a part an ultrasonic flaw detector :

a. Pulse generator
b. Time base
c. Search coil
d. Attenuator

11. When a single reduced to 25% of its maximum , it is said reduced by :

a. 20dB
b. 12dB
c. 6dB
d. 2dB

12. Frequency is equal to

a. Velocity Wavelength
b. Velocity / Wavelength
c. Wavelength / Velocity
d. Velocity Density

13. For a 6MHz compression wave (velocity 5900m/sec) in steel the wavelength is

a. 0.98
b. 1.01
c. 0.8
d. 2.3

14. The primary purpose of reference blocks is :

a. To aid the operator in obtaining maximum back reflection

b. To obtain the greatest sensitivity possible from an instrument
c. To obtain a common reproducible reference standard
d. None of the above

15. attenuation of a sound wave as it travels through a material is due to

a. Absorption
b. Scatter
c. Beam spread
d. A and B

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16. A piezo electric crystal in an ultrasonic probe

a. Converts electrical energy to ultrasound

b. Converts ultrasound to electrical energy
c. Both a and b
d. Enables probe frequency to be varied

17. The acoustic impedance of a material is :

a. Directly proportional to density and inversely proportional to velocity

b. Directly proportional to velocity and inversely proportional to density
c. Inversely proportional to density and velocity
d. Equal to the product of density and velocity

18. Wavelength is defined as :

a. The distance a wave travels to the back surface of the specimen

b. The distance a wave from advances while a particle makes one complete vibration
or orbit
c. The number of cycles produced per second
d. The time required for a wave to reach a certain point in the specimen

19. In ultrasonic testing , the duration of the transmitted pulse is referred as

a. The pulse length or pulse width

b. The pulse amplitude
c. The pulse shape
d. None of the above

20. The types of waves used in ultrasonic testing are characterised by :

a. The amplitude of the waveform

b. The velocity of the waveform
c. The direction of the molecules of the materials with respect to the direction of
propagation
d. The pressure difference per unit path length

21. In a liquid , the only mode of vibration that can exits is :

a. Longitudinal

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b. Shear
c. Both (a) and (b) above
d. Surface wave

22. As frequency increases in ultrasonic testing , the angle of beam divergence of a given
Diameter crystal :

a. Decreases
b. Remains unchanged
c. Increases
d. Varies uniformly through each wavelength

23. All other factors being equal which of the following modes of vibration has the
lowest velocity

a. Shear wave
b. Transverse
c. Longitudinal wave
d. Surface wave

24. Which of the follwing would produce the best penetration of a 12 inch thick
specimen of coarse grained steel

a. 2MHz
b. 5MHz
c. 3MHz
d. 1MHz

25. A large difference in the acoustic impedance of 2 materials at an interface will lead to

a. More sound being reflected than transmitted

b. High energy losses due to attenuation
c. Less sound being reflected than transmitted
d. Refraction of the shear wave mode at 90 degrees

26. The purpose of a couplant is to:

a. Filter undesirable reflections from the specimen

b. Tune transducer to the correct operating frequency
c. Reduce attenuation within the specimen
d. Transmit ultrasonic waves from the transducer to specimen

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27. A couplant can be :

a. Water
b. Oil
c. A plastic material
d. All of these

28. The acoustic impedance of a material is used to :

a. Determine the angle of refraction at an interface

b. Determine the attenuation within a material
c. Determine the relative amounts of sound energy coupled and reflected at an
interface
d. Determine the beam spread within a materials

29. The angle of reflection an ultrasonic beam is :

a. Equal to the angle of incidence

b. Approximately four times the angle of incidence
c. Approximately half the angle of the incidence
d. Equal to the angle of refraction

30. The amount of beam divergence from a probe is primarily dependent on :

a. Type of test
b. Tightness of crystal backing in the search unit
c. Frequency and crystal size
d. Pulse length

31. Which law can be used to calculate the angle of refraction within a metal for both
longitudinal and shear waves ?

a. Poissons law
b. Snells law
c. Fresnls field
d. Charles law

32. In which zone does the amplitude of an indication form a given discontinuity
diminish exponentially as the distance increase ?

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a. Far field zone

b. Near field zone
c. Dead zone
d. Fresnel zone

33. the ratio of the velocity sound in water compared to that aluminium or steel is
approximately.

a. 1:4
b. 1:2
c. 1:8
d. 1:3

34. The smallest detectable defect in steel using a 5MHz compression probe is :
Compression velocity in steel : 5900m/sec

a. 1.18mm
b. 0.59mm
c. 0.84mm
d. 0.42mm

35. The near field in steel for a 2MHz , 10mm diameter compression probe is :

a. 8.47mm
b. 84.75mm
c. 9.25mm
d. 33.9mm

36. High frequency probes give :

a. Better resolution
b. Better penetration
c. Lower sensitivity
d. All of the above

37. Significant errors in ultrasonic errors in ultrasonic thickness measurement can occur
if :

a. Test frequency is varying at a constant rate

b. The velocity of propagation deviates substantially from an assumed constant
value for a given material

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c. Water is employed as a couplant between the transducer and the part being
measured
d. None of the above should cause errors

38. A CRT display 10 backwall echoes from a 25 mm thick calibration block , using a
compression probe . The time between any two echoes is equal to :

a. The period of the ultrasound

b. The time for the ultrasonic pulse to travel 25 mm in the block
c. The time for the ultrasonic pulse to travel 50 mm in the block
d. A duration which depends on the time base setting

39. Compression waves travel faster through :

a. Perspex
b. Steel
c. Aluminium
d. Water

40. In an ultrasonic instrument , the number of pulses produced by an instrument in a

given period of time known as the :

a. Pulse length of the instrument

b. Pulse recovery time of the instrument
c. Frequency of the instrument
d. Pluse repetition rate or frequency of the instrument

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SPECIFIC
41. A general term applied to all cracks , inclusions , blow holes etc . which cause a
reflection of ultrasonic energy is :

a. A dispenser
b. A discontinuity
c. An attenuator
d. A refractor

42. Echodynamic patter 3B represents

a. Large irregular reflector at normal incidence

b. Large irregular reflector at oblique incidence
c. Small reflectors
d. None of the above

43. an imperfection exhibiting pattern 1 for depth and patter 2 for lateral scan and
showing a rapid fall off swiveling of the probe is likely to be

a. Linear porosity
b. Lack of side wall fusion
c. Cracking
d. A fine slag line

44. The maximum amplitude if sizing can be used for

a. Accurate measurement of all defects

b. All defect exhibiting pattern 1 or 4
c. Planar defects
d. All defects showing pattern 3a or 3b defects

45. The accuracy of the 6 dB sizing technique is dependant upon what factor

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a. The defect being smaller than the beam width at the range detected
b. The accuracy of the beam spread plot
c. The defect being wider than the beam width at the range detected
d. The defect being either pattern 3a or 3b

46. The ultrasonic test method in which finger damping is most effective in locating the
position of a discontinuity is :

a. Shear wave
b. Longitudinal wave
c. Surface wave
d. Compression wave

47. During straight beam testing , test specimens with non parallel front and back
surface can cause :

a. Loss of back reflection

b. No loss back reflection
c. A widened (board) back surface reflection
d. A focused (narrow) back surface reflection

48. Compensation for the variation in echo height related in discontinuity depth in the test
material is know as :

a. Transfer
b. Attenuation
c. Distance amplitude correction
d. Interpretation

49. Which of the following is a reference reflector that is not dependant on beam angle ?

a. A flat bottomed hole

b. A vee notch
c. A side drilled hole which is parallel to plate surface and perpendicular to the
sound path
d. A disc shaped laminar reflector

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50. When scanning with a zero degree compression probe over a smooth discontinuity
whose major plane is not perpendicular to the direction of sound propagation , its
presence may be in indicated by :

a. An echo amplitude comparable in magnitude to the surface reflection

b. A complete loss of back surface reflection
c. An echo amplitude larger in magnitude than the back surface reflection
d. All of the above

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