SOIL SCIENCE

1. Net nitrogen immobilization in soil occurs if the C/N is

a. Less than 20:1
b. Greater than 20:1
c. Greater than 35:1
d. Less than 15:1
e. None of the above
2. Individually, which among the following soil organisms have the least biomass?
a. Actinomycetes
b. Fungi
c. Batecria
d. Protozoa
e. Earthworm
3. Which among the following soil organisms are acid loving?
a. Fungi
b. Protozoa
c. Bacteria
d. Actinomycetes
e. A and b above
4. Ammonia volatilization from NH4+ -bearing fertilizers is not favored by which of the following?
a. High pH
b. High temperature
c. High CEC
d. A and B above
e. B and C above
5. Soil microorganisms degrade organic residues primarily for
a. Phosphorous and ATP
b. Carbon and energy
c. Nitrogen and energy
d. Phosphorous and energy
e. Nitrogen and phosphorous
6. The root nodule bacteria belong to the genus
a. Clostridium
b. Azotobacter
c. Rhizobium
d. Agrobacterium
e. None of the above
7. The anaerobic non-symbiotic ntrogen fixing bacteria belong to the genus
a. Derxia
b. Clostridium
c. Azotobacter
d. Bradyrhizobium
e. Nitrobacter
8. Algae are considered as
a. Autotrophs
b. Photoautotrophs
c. Chemoautotrophs
 d. Both a and b above
e. None of the above
9. The source of energy for blue-green (cyanobacteria are prokaryotes) algae is
a. Sunlight
b. Metabolism of glucose
c. Organic matter decomposition
d. Oxidation of inorganic compounds
e. None of the above
10. The predominant available form of N under flooded soil condition is
a. NO3-N
b. Organic N
c. NH4-N
d. NO2-N
e. NH2-N
11. The available form of nitrogen which predominates under upland condition is
a. Ammonia
b. Nitrite
c. Nitrate
d. Microbial biomass N
e. Fixed N
12. The conversion of NO3 to N2 is referred to as
a. Nitrogen fixation
b. Denitrification
c. Immobilization
d. Volatilization
e. None of the above
13. The percentage of organic N in the soil is approximately
a. 96-98%
b. 80-85%
c. 68-75%
d. 50-60%
e. 60-70%
14. Nitrogen is added to the soil system by which of the following processes?
a. Leaching
b. Nitrogen fixation
c. Ammonia volatilization
d. A and b above
e. B and C above
15. The conversion of organic N to inorganic or mineral N is termed as
a. Immobilization
b. Nitrification
c. Mineralization
d. Ammonification
e. None of the above
16. The conversion of N2 to NH4 is reffered to as
a. Denetrification
b. Nitrate reduction
c. Nitrogen fixation
d. Volatilization
 e. None of the above
17. Microorganisms which do not require oxygen are called?
a. Aerobes b. anaerobes c. obligate aerobes d. microaerophilic
18. The fixation and regeneration of CO2 in the biosphere is referred to as
a. Carbon cycle b. CO2 evolution c. respiration d. nutrient cycle
19. The optimum temperature requirement of the thermophiles is
a. Greater than 45 degrees Celsius
b. Less than 45 degrees Celsius
c. Greater than 30 degrees Celsius
d. Less than 30 degrees Celsius
20. Microorganisms which require organic compounds as sources of carbon and energy are
a. Autotrophs
b. Heterotrophs
c. Chemoautotrophs
d. Photoautotrophs
21. Refers to the entrapment of ammonium ions in between crystal lattices of clays thus redering them unavailable for
plant use. This process is called
a. Nitrogen fixation
b. Microbial fixation
c. Ammonium fixation
d. Nutrient fixation
22. Rhizobia generally associated with nitrogen fixation in
a. Rice b. Peanut c. Corn d. Sorghum
23. Bacteria belong to this genus are non-symbiotic nitrogen fixers
a. Nitrobacter b. Aerobacter c. Azotobacter d. Arthrobacter e. Nitrosomonas
24. If a crop residue contains 60% organic carbon and 5% total nitrogen, its C/N ratio is
a. 10.1 b. 12.1 c. 15.1 d. 20.1 e. 25.1
25. The C/N ratio of mcirobial biomas is about
a. 5-8:1 b. 12-15:1 c. 15-20:1 d. 20-25:1 e. None of the above
26. The most abundant microgarnisms found in the soil are generally the
a. Fungi b. Bacteria c. Actinomycetes e. Protozoa
27. The incorporation of inorganic nitrogen into microbial tissues is
a. Mineralization b. Immobilization c. Nitrification d. Denitrification e. Ammonification
28. Whichof the following microorganisms is very sensetive to potassium levels in soil and therefore useful in
diagnosing potasium deficiency?
a. Pseudomonas denitrificans b. Aspergillus flavus c. Aspergillus niger d. Azotobacter chroococcum e.
Nitrobacter agilis
29. A deficeincy of this element will not enable a legume and its bacterial partner to perform nitrogen fixation. This
element is
a. Boron b. Phosphorus c. Molydenum d. Zinc e. Magnesium
30. The group of soil microorganisms which is responsible for decomposing organic matter is the
a. Heterotrophs b. Autotrops c. Phototrops d. Chemaoutotrophss e. None of the above
31. Organic material with wide C/N ratio are not ready as source of available nitrogen because the nitrogen that they
contain is subject to
a. Nitrification b. Volatilization c. Immobilization d. Fixation e. None of the above
32. The soil microbial population is generally highest in the
a. A harizon b. B horizon c. C horizon d. B2HORIZON E. A3horizon
33. Chemoautorophs are those organisms which derive their enrgy from
 a. Sunlight b. Oxidation of organic material c. Fermentation d. Oxidation of organic substances e. None of
the above
34. For soil bacteria, growth results in an increase in the
a. Size of individuals b. Numbers of the individual c. Form of the individuals d. Size and number of
individuals e. None of the above
35. The most effecient organic material decomposers under acidic soil condition are the
a. Low organic b. actinomycetes c. Fungi d. Protozoa e. Algae
36. Pesticides will be retained much longer in soils with
a. Low organic matter b. High moisture content c. 2:1 dominant clay type d. Low pH e. 1;1 dominant type
37. Net mineralization of organic nitrogen in the soil will occur if the C/N ratio is less than
a. 20:1 b. 30:1 c.40:1 d. 50:1 e. 60:1
38. The initial substrate in notification is
a. Nitrite b. Nitrate c. Ammonium d. amine E. None of the above
39. The ultimate end-product of notification is
a. N2 b. NO c. N2o d. NH3 e. None of the above
40. Associative nitrogen fixation is undertaken by bacteria in association with
a. Rice b. Corn c. Sugar cane d. Pasture gasses e. None of the above
41. Frankia spp. Are soil microorganisms which are reponsible for the nodulation in
a. Casuarina b. Alnus c. Eleagnus d. Coriaria e. All of the above
42. The number and activity of bacteria in the soil is affected by
a. pH b. Moisture c. Ozygen supply d.salinity e. All of the abve
43. a type of microscope wich provides an e-demensional view of the soul microorganisms is called
a. light miroscope b. Scanning electron microscope c. Transmission electron microscope d. Immuno-
flourescent microscope e. None o f the above
44. A 1:1000 soil-water dilution means that one part of soil is suspended in
a. 9 parts of sterile H2O b. 99parts of sterile H2O c. 999 parts of sterile H2 O d. 1000 parts of strile H2O e.
None of the above
45. In a legume biological nitrogen fixing system, the microsymbiont is
a. Bacteria b. Actinomycetes c. Alage d. Fungi e. None of the above
46. CO2 evolution in soil is a funtion of
a. Mirobal population b. Aeration c. pH d. Temperature e. All of the above
47. The amout of molecular nitrogn (N2) in the atmosphere is about
a. 88% b. 78% c. 68% d. 58% e. 48%
48. When NO3 is denitrified all the way to N2, There is shift in tha valence of N from +5 to
a. +4 b. +3 c. +2 d. +1 e. 0
49. Which of the bacteria had been known to be capable of denitrification ?
a. Agrobacteria b. Azosperillum c. Pseudomonas d. Tjiobacillus e. All of the above
50. The optimum or ideal soil pH for growing of the most crops is
a. Ph 5.0 b. pH 6.5 c. pH 7.5
51. These chemical elements become more soluble or availale at soil pH <4.0
a. Fe, Al, Cu, Zn
b. Ca, Mg, K
c. N, P, K
52. At very low soil pH available P may become precipitated as
a. Tricalcium phosphate
b. Al-hydroxyapatite
c. Orthophosphate
53. These are acid actions
a. H+ and K+
 b. H+ and CA++
c. H+ and Al+++
54. Nitrification causes developement of soil acidity due to production of
a. Al ions b. H ion c. NH4OH
+
55. Reserve acidity is due to H in
a. Soil erosion
b. Colloid adsorption sites
c. Crystal structure
56. Most of the micronutrients tend to become less available
a. With decreasing soil pH
b. With increasing soil pH
c. With neutral soil pH
57. Soils that need to be limed are those with pH
a. Less than 5.0
b. Greater than 5.0
c. Equal to 7.0
58. This material is not considered lime
a. CACO3
b. CaSO4=2H2O
c. CaO
59. B
60. After saturation with NH4+ a soil that adsorbed 30 ml/100gm of NH4+
a. 20 me/100gm b. 30me/100gm c. 10me/100gm
61. A soil with 5 me of H adsorbed will need this amount of Ca++ to replace H+ ions
+

a. 10me Ca/100gm
b. 5me Ca/100gm
c. 20me Ca/100gm
62. Soils with high buffering capacity need
a. More lime to increase pH
b. Less lime to increase pH
c. No lime to change pH
63. Compared to a clay loam soil, an acidic sandy loam soil will need
a. More lime
b. Less lime
c. The same amount of lime
64. Under flooded or lowland soil conditions availability of ion is
a. Greater b. Lesser c. The same as in upland condition
65. The ability of the soil to adsorb and exchange negatively charged ions
a. Cation exhange capacity
b. Exchangeable sodium percentae
c. Anion exchange capacity
66. This clay has the highest CEC
a. Montmorillomite b. Kaolinite c. Illite
67. A chemical element is considered essential if
a. It is taken up by plants
b. It is involved in metabolic functions in the plant
c. It makes the plants grower
68. Soil fertility is the ability of the soil to supply nutrients in
a. Sufficient and balanced amount
 b. Amounts above the optimum
c. Readily available forms
69. Among the essential elements these three are not normally applied as fertilizers
a. N P K b. N S and CA c. C H and O2
70. The native supply of this nutrient generally comes from soil organic matter
a. Calcium b. Phosphorous c. Nitrogen
71. A soil that is fertile is
a. Necessarily productive b. Not necessarily productive c. Always productive
72. The essential elements Fe, Zn, Cu , Mn, etc. are called micronutrients because
a. They are needed by plants in very small amounts
b. They are less important to plants than the macronutrients
c. They are needed by smallest part of the cell
73. The immediate source of carbon by plants is
a. CO2 by the air
b. CO2 from carbonate minerals
c. CO2 from decay of organic matter
74. If the essential elements these three are not absorbed in ionic forms
a. NPK b. Ca, Mg, and S c. CHO
75. The dominant forms of nitrogen available or absored by plants are
a. NO3 and NO2 b. NH4+ and N2+ c. NH4+ and NO3+
76. Iron is more availabe to plants in
a. Its oxidized form, Fe3+ b. Its oxided form Fe2O3 c. Its reduced form Fe2+
77. The plant demand for nutrients particularly nitrogen is generally greatest during
a. Vegetative stage b. Seedling stage c. Senescent or matured stage
78. Liebig’s law of minimum in effect says that plant growth and yield
a. Is limited by the absence of a nutirent
b. Is limited by that nutrient present below the minimum requirement
c. Is limited by excess of a particular nutrient
79. Soil productivity is the ability of the soil
a. To produce the desired amount of plant yield
b. Supply nutrients in sufficient and balnced amounts
c. Store and resist leaching of nutrients
80. Plant growth response to increasing amounts of a limiting nutrient is generally
a. A curvilinear function b. A straigth line function c. A fluctuating line function
81. When depicted graphically, THE metscherlich, equation shows that with addition of a limiting nutirent
a. yield increases linearly
b. yeild increases but in decreasing increments
c. yield increases exponentially
82. plants become chlorotic when these nutrients are deficient
a. NPK b. N, Mg, and Ca c. N, Mg and S
83. When nutrients are mobile in the plant, deficiency symptoms show up first
a. In the oldest leaves
b. In the youngest leaves
c. In the intermediate leaves
84. These elements, when deficient cause chlorosis bacause they are structural componets of the chlorophyll
pigment
a. N and CA b. N and Mg c. P and S
85. This elements has a critical role in sugarcane fertilization because of its function in the synthesis of sugar
a. Nitrogen b. Phosphorous c. Potassium
86. These elements are present in most amino acids and proteins
a. Phosphorous and Potassium b. Iron and copper c. Nitrogen and Sulfur
87. This is a mechanism of nutrient movement and uptake due to concentration gradient
a. Mass flow b. Contact exchange or root interception c. Diffusion
88. Most micronutrients become less available at
a. Low pH b. High pH c. Neutral pH
89. Phosphorous is less available
a. Only at low pH
b. Only at high pH
c. At either very low or very high pH
90. In upland and well aerated soils the dominat form of available nitrogen in the soil is
a. NO3 b. NH4+ c. NH3
91. Under strongly acidic soil conditions phosphorous is usually complexed into unavailable form as
a. Tricaluim phosphate
b. Al and Fe hydroxyphosphate
c. Zn phosphate
92. Nutrient antagonism means reduced availability or absorption of a nutrient
a. Whern another nutrient is deficient
b. When another nutrient is excessive
c. When another nutrient is present in equal amounts
93. Chelation makes elements like Fe, Cu, Zn, etc
a. less available to plants
b. more available to plants
c. fixes the elements into insoluble compounds
94. the first product of the Haber-Bosch process of N fertilizer manufacture when N2 and H2 are reacted
a. NH3 b. (NH4)2SO4 c. CO(NH3)2
95. The highest analysis or grade of soilid N fertilizer
a. Ammonium sulfate
b. Anhydrous ammonia
c. Urea
96. The basic reaction during biological N fixation
a. N2 H2 NH3 b. N2 H2O NH3 c. N2 H2SO4 (NH4)2SO4

97. The enzyme needed to transform urea to (NH4)2CO3 in the soil

a. Carboxylase b. Anhydrase c. Urease
98. The weak acid formed upon hydrolysis of urea in soils
a. Acetic acid b. Carbonic acid c. Uric acid
99. The other essential element present in ammonium sulfate but absent in urea
a. Calcium b. Sulfur c. Iron
100. The percent N2 P2O5 and K2O in a fertilizer
a. Fertilizer ratio b. Fertilizer grade c. Fertilizer recommendation
101. This is a single element or straight fertilizer
a. Complete fertilizer
b. Urea
c. Ammonium phosphate
102. The fertilizer nutrients that are generally applied all at planting time
a. N and P b. P and K c. N and K
103. Application of fertilizer at planting time
a. Basal b. Topdressing c. Side dressing
104. The appropriate N fertilizer for a sulfur deficient soil
a. Urea b. Ammonium nitrate c. Ammonium sulfate
105. The suitable fertilizer for an alkaline N deficient soil
a. Anhydrous NH3 b. Urea c. Ammonium sulfate
106. This nitrogen transformation causes soil acidification
a. Denitrification b. NH3 volatilization c. Nitrification
107. This is a common way by which N in fertilizers is lost when applied to alkaline soils
a. NH3 volatilization b. Denitrification c. Fixation by clay
108. The amount of pure N in a 50-kg bag of urea (46-0-0)
a. 23 kg b. 15 kg c. 10 kg
109. Horizontal layers of soil differentiation
a. Concretions
b. Structure
c. Horizons
d. Hardpans
110. A square meter of land dug to a depth that nearly touches the bedrock
a. Profile b. Parent material c. Pedon d. Aquifer
111. Mature soil have the following horizons
a. AB b. ABC c. ABCD d. AB
112. Young soils ahve the following horizons
a. AB b. ABC c. AC d. BC
113. The solum is composed of these horizons
a. ABC b. BC c. ABCD d. AB
114. The regolith is composed of these horizons
a. AB b. BC c. ABC d. ABCD
115. The topsoil usually refers to this horizon
a. A B b. A c. B d. C
116. The subsoil usually refers to this horizon
a. A B b. A c. B d. C
117. Blocks of soil from each horizon posted on hard board
a. Regolith b. Monolith c. Litolith d. Pedon
118. The government agency charged with the survey and classification of soils
a. BPI b. BSWM c. NAFC d. DPWH
119. Basis for mapping of Philippine soils
a. Soil series b. Soil order c. Soil family d. Great group
120. A group of soils which developed from the same parent material and whose profile characteristics are the
same
a. Soil order b. Soil series c. Soil family d. Great group
121. Soil profile characteristics important to a civil engineer
a. Color b. Structure c. Texture d. Microbial population
122. Soil profile characteristic important to biologist
a. Roots and faunal activity signs
b. Color
c. Texture
d. Bulk density
123. Standard reference system for soil color
a. Soil taxonomy
b. Soil map
c. Soil survey report
 d. Munsell color chart
124. Describes darkness or lightness of soil color
a. Hue b. Value c. Chroma d. Intensity
125. Sign of poor drainage
a. Wellowixh mottles
b. Bluish gray mottless
c. Shade reflection
d. Intensity
126. Natural relatively permanent aggregates
a. Crumb b. Clods c. Peds d; pebbles
127. A simple test for limestone parent materials
a. H3SO4 b. HCL reaction c. Brittleness d. Stickyness
128. Structureless soil
a. Granular b. Crumb c. Prismatic d. massive/single grained
129. Soils with no diagnostic horizons
a. Entisols b. Mollisols c. Oxisols d. Alfisols
130. Broadest category of soil taxonomy
a. Great group b. Sub order c. Order d. Family
131. Soils which are predominantly montmorillonitic
a. Vertisols b. Entisols c. Inceptisols d. Histosols
132. A square meter of land dug to a depth that nearly touches the bedrock
a. Horizon b. Pit c. Epipedon d. Pedon
133. Basic properties described in a soil profile
a. Texture, bulk density, consistency
b. CEC, OM (%) content, BS, BD
c. Color, texture, stoniness, structure
d. Plasticity, structure
134. Describes the darkness or lightness of color
a. Value b. Hue c. Chroma d. Spectra
135. Describes the strength of color
a. Hue b. Value c. Ultra d. Chroma
136. Soil texture can be described effectively in the field through
a. Touch method b. Pinch method c. Hydrometer d. Fell and roll method
137. Medium silts refer to
a. Fine silty soils b. Coarse silty soils c. Loamy silty soils d. None of the above
138. Soils particles larger than 2 mm in size
a. Sand b. Rockiness c. Stones d. Gravelly
139. Refers to the abundance of stones
a. Hapiness b. Rockiness c. Stoniness d. Gravelly
140. Stone shape is determines by these propterties
a. Roundness, sphericity b. Abundance c. Angle d. Orientation
141. Soil structure is best observed at this soil horizon
a. Topsoil b. Parent material c. Subsoil d. Bedrock
142. Irregular polyhydra of roughly equal dimensions the surfaces of it which fit into neighboring peds
a. Blocky structure b . angular structure c. Prismatic structure d. Platy structure
143. Irregular spheres or polyhydra, which do not fit the faces of neighboring aggregates
a. Granular b. Blocky c. Columnar d. Platy
144. Refers to the feel of the soil and how it behaves when manipulated
a. Consistency b. Texture c. Wetness d. Plasticity
145. A land evaluation for its ability to grow crops for a particular soil
a. Land capability b. Crop suitability c. Crop productivity d. Sustainability
146. A system of soil classification used in the Philippines based on the concept of a precisely defined,
selected horizon for classifying soil profiles
a. Soil morphology b. 5th appoximation c. Soil taxonomy d. Soil survey
147. Soils with no diagnostic horizons
a. Entisols b. Inceptisols c. Alfisols d. Vertisols
148. Soils with mollic epipedon and base saturation percentage (BSP-50%)
a. Oxisols b. Histosol c. Mollisol d. Spodosol
149. Soil with >30% clay to 50 cm, cracks ?1 cm wide at 50 cm have gilgai, slickenslides and wedge-shaped
peds
a. Vertisols b. Mollisols c. Spodosols d. Oxisols
150. Soils with a warm temperature temie and an argillic horizon (or fragipan with clay skins>1mm thick) and
BSP <35%
a. Entisol b. Ultisols c. Mollisols d. Oxisols
151. The most detailed category of soil taxonomy
a. Soil family b. Soil series c. Great group d. Suborder
152. The scale of presentation of provincial soil survey reports
a. Semi-detailed b. Exploratory c. Reconnaissance d. Detailed
153. Land having no significant limitations to sustained application of a given use, or only minor limitation
that will not significantly reduce productivity or benefits that will not raise inputs above an acceptable level
a. Highly suitable b. Marginally suited c. Moderately suited d. None of the above
154. Land having limitation swhich , in aggregate are severe for sustained appli ation of a given use and so
reduce productivity or benefits, or increase the required inputs , that this expenditure will only be marginally
justified
a. Highly suitable
b. Marginally suitable
c. Moderately suited
d. None of the above
155. A soil consist of three components, namely, soid, liquid and gas
a. The solid is composed of inorganic matter and organic matter
b. The liquid is a solution with dissolved ions in it
c. The gas component is about 80%
d. None of the above
e. All of the above
156. A soil consist of three components; namely solid, liquid, and gas
a. The solid is composed of inorganic matter
b. The liquid is a solution with dissolved ions in it
c. The gas is 80% oxygen gas
d. None of the above
e. All of the above
157. A soil consist of three components; namely, solid, liquid and gas
a. The solid is composed of inorganic matter and organic matter
b. The liquid is a pure water
c. The gas is 80% oxygen gas
d. None of the above \\
e. All of the above
158. Under its natural occurence a soil is aggregated and porous
a. The aggregates is composed of millions of individual particles
 b. Water and air occupy the pores
c. The pores are interconnected channels to other pores
d. None of the above
e. All of the above
159. The solid particles of a soil vary in composition, size and shape
a. The soild is composed of inorganic and organic matter
b. The solid is composed of soil separates calld sand , silt, and clay
c. The solid stick or cluster together to form soil aggregate
d. None of the above
e. All of the above
160. The inorganic solid particles vary in size which are classified as soil separates
a. The size range of soil particle is equal to or less than 5 mm
b. Sand is a medium size soil separate
c. Clay is the smallest or fineness soil separate
d. None of the above
e. All of the above
161. The relative distribution of soil separates in a soil mass is called soil texture
a. Sand, silt and clay are soil separates
b. Soil texture changes easily with poor method of cultivation
c. Soil texture is improved by adding organic fertilizer
d. None of the above
e. All of the above
162. Soil texture refers to the coarseness or fineness of a soil
a. Sand is gritty
b. Silt is sticky and plastic
c. Clay is smooth
d. None of the above
e. All of the above
163. Soil texture refers to the coarseness or fineness of a soil
a. Sand is coarse and gritty
b. Silt is powdery and smooth
c. Clay is sticky and plastic
d. None of the above
e. All of the above
164. Many soil properties and characteristics are affected by soil texture
a. Sandy soil is more porous than clay soil
b. Loamy soil are rich in silt
c. Clay soil is chemically more reactive than sandy soil
d. None of the above
e. All of the above
165. In relation to crop production sandy soil are known to be
a. Droughty
b. Easy to be cultivated
c. Easy to drain
d. None of the above
e. All of the above
166. In relation to crop production clayey soils are known to be
a. Sticky to cultivate
b. Fertile than sand
 c. High water holding capacity than sand
d. None of the above
e. All of the above
167. Many soil properties and characteristics are affected by soil texture
a. Clayey soils are more porous than sandy soil
b. Silt texture is associated to poor good physical properties
c. Sandy soil is chemically more reactive than clay soil
d. None of the above
e. All of the above
168. Soil texture could be determine by
a. Feel method
b. Pipetted method’
c. hydometer method
d. none of the above
e. all of the above
169. soil texture could be determine in the laboratory by
a. ammonium acetate
b. buoyancy method
c. hydrometer method
d. none of the above
e. all of the above
170. the upper diameter size limit of clay particles is
a. 2.0 mm b. 0.2 mm c. 0.02 mm d. 0.002 mm e. 0.0002 mm
171. The upper diameter size limit of sand particles is
a. 2.0 mm b. 0.2 mm c. 0.02 mm d. 0.002 mm e. 0.0002 mm
172. The upper diameter size limit of sand particle is
a. 2.0 mm b. 0.2 mm c. 0.02 mm d. 0.002 mm e. 0.0002 mm
173. Soil texture class wherein the coarseness of sand, the smoothness feel of silt and the stickiness fo clay are
manifested in almost equal proportion in a soil mass
a. Sand v. Silt c. Clay d. Loam e. None of the above
174. Soil texture that would be best for growing lowland rice
a. Sandy loam
b. Silty loam
c. Clay loam
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
175. Characteristics feel of sand separates when rub in between the finger is
a. Coarse
b. Smooth
c. Sticky when moist
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
176. Characteristic feel of silt separates when rub in between the finger is
a. Coarse
b. Smooth
c. Sticky when moist
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
177. Many soil properties and characteristics are affected by soil structure
 a. Loam is the soil sturcture that most crops prefer
b. Dispersed clay soil processes good soil structure
c. Compacted soil structure allows fast movement of air in the soil
d. None of the above
e. All of the above
178. Many soil properties and characteristics are affected by soil structure
a. Crumb is the best structue that most crops prefer
b. Dispersed clay soil possesses poor soil structure
c. Poor water movement in platy soil structure
d. None of the above
e. All of the above
179. Among the following is not a soil structure
a. Loam b. Crumb c. Platy d. Sub-angular e. Prismatic
180. Soil densities and porsitites are affected by soil texture soil stucture
a. Porosity increases with increasing bulk density
b. Soil compaction increases bulk densities
c. Soil aggregation increases bulk density
d. None of the above
e. All of the above
181. Soil densities and porsitites are affected by soil texture and soil stucture
a. Porosity increases with decreasing bulk density
b. Soil compaction decreases bulk densities
c. Soil aggregation improves porosity
d. None of the above
e. All of the above
182. Pore-size distribution affects movement and retention of water and air in the soil
a. Macro-pores retains water
b. Micro-pores are important in root respiration
c. Micro-pores are more important than macro-pores
d. None of the above
e. All of the above
183. Pore-size distribution affects movement and retention of water and air in the soil\
a. Micro-pores retains water
b. Macro-pores are important in drainage and root respiration
c. Micro-pores and macro-pores are equally important to root growth
d. None of the above
e. All of the above
184. A soil with bulk density of 1.3 g cm3 and particle density of 2.60 g/cm3 will have a porosity of a
a. 5% b. 25% c. 50% d. 75%
185. Bulk density is a good indicator of soil degradation
a. Bulk density does not change with poor soil cultivation particles
b. Increasing bulk density indicates deteriorating soil physical condition
c. Decreasing bulk density indcates deteriorating soil physical condition
d. None of the above
e. All of the above

198. lowland rice land is prepared to have a soil consistency of

a. hard b. Friable c. Plastic d. Viscous

199. soil grown to corn is best cultivated when the soil consistency is

a. hard b. Friable c. Plastic d. Viscous

200. smallest volume of soil that can be considered a soil individual/body

a. pedon b. Horizon c. Ped d. Aggregate