Sub : SR BIPC(CHAINA & ELITE) Date : 12-01-2019

Time : 3 Hrs NEET PT-03 Max. Marks: 720

MPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS :
The Test is of 3 Hours Duration.
The Test consists of 180 Questions. The Maximum Marks are 720.
There are Four parts in the question paper consisting of Physics, Chemistry,
Botany and Zoology.
For each correct answer 4 Marks and each incorrect answer -1 Mark.

SYLLABUS

PHYSICS:- Ray optics, Physical Optics, Atoms, Dual nature of radiation and matter, Nuclei,
Semiconductors,Communications

CHEMISTRY- Dilute solutions, Solid state , Electro chemistry , Chemical kinetics, Surface
chemistry, Transition elements,f-block elements , Complex compounds, Metallurgy
BOTANY:- Reproduction in Organisms, Sexual Reproduction in flowering plants, Principles
of inheritance & variations,Molecular basis of inheritance

ZOOLOGY:- Sex Determination, Genetic Disorders, HGP, DNA Fingerprinting, Evolution,

Human Health and disease,Animal Husbandry, Biotechnological Applications in Medicine,
Transgenic Animals

PHYSICS

1. Consider a hydrogen-like atom whose 2. A doubly ionized lithium atom is

energy in the nth state is given by hydrogen like with atomic number
13.6Z 2 Z=3.Wavelength of the radiation required
En = - eV . When this excited atom
n2 to excite the electron in Li 2  from the first
makes transition from nth state to a to the third Bohr orbit is nearly
lower state, most energetic photons R H  1.1107 / m 
radiated have energy Emax  52.224eV and o
1) 114 A 2) 214 Ao
least energetic photons radiated have
3) 14 Ao 4) 514 Ao
energy Emin  1.224eV . Atomic number of
3. A liquid of refractive index 1.5 is poured
the atom and the state of excitation are
respectively into a cylindrical jar of radius 20 cm
1) n  5 , z  2 2) n  4 , z  3 upto a height of 20cm. A small bulb is
3) n  5 , z  3 4) n  4 , z  2 lighted at the centre of the bottom of the
jar. Area of the liquid surface through

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You will never know your limits until you push yourself to them
 which the light of the bulb passes into 8. Two thin symmetrical lenses of different
air is nearly nature and of different materials have
1) 0.2005 m2 2) 0.1005 m2 equal radii of curvature R=15cm. The
3) 2.2 m2 4) 1.002 m2 lenses are put close together and
4. Hydrogen atom does not emit X-rays  4
immersed in water   w   . The focal
because  3
(X-rays have wavelength range 0.1A0 to length of the system in water is 30cm. The
100 A0) difference between the refractive indices of
1) its energy levels are too close to each the materials of the two lenses is
other 2 3
1) 2)
2) its energy levels are too far apart from 3 4
each other 1 1
3) 4)
3) it has a very small mass 4 3
4) it has a single electron 9. Threshold wavelength for a certain metal
5. Which of the following is not correct in 
is 0 . When a light of wavelength o is
Bohr model of hydrogen atom? 2
1) Radius of the nth orbit is proportional incident on it, maximum velocity of the
to n 2 emitted photoelectrons is 106 m / s . If the
2) Total energy of the electron in the nth wavelength of the incident radiation is
orbit is proportional to n 
3) Angular momentum of an electron in reduced to 0 , then the maximum
5
an orbit is an integral multiple of h / 2 velocity of the photoelectrons emitted in
4) Magnitude of the potential energy of m/s will be
the electron in any orbit is greater than 1) 2.5x106 2) 5 x106
its kinetic energy
3) 4 x106 4) 2 x106
6. For a hydrogen atom, let  1 be the
10. Light rays of wave length 6000A0 and of
frequency of the series limit of Lyman photons intensity 99.6 watt/m2 is
series, 2 be the frequency of the first incident on a metal surface. If only one
line of Lyman series and  3 be the percent of photons incident on the
frequency of the series limit of Balmer surface emit photo electrons, then the
series, then number of electrons emitted per second
1)  1   2   3 2)  2   1   3 per unit area from the surface will be
(Planks constant h= 6.64x10-34 Js,
3) 2 3   1   2 4)  1   2   3
Velocity of light, C = 3 x 108 ms-1)
7. A hydrogen atom emits a photon
1) 3  1017 2) 10  1018
corresponding to an electron transition
3) 3  1018 4) 12  1016
from n = 5 to n =1. The recoil speed of
the hydrogen atom in nearly equal to 11. Stopping potential V0  - frequency   of

R  1.1 107 / m, h  6.4  1034 Js  the incident radiation graph for three
H
different photo emitter surfaces A, B and
1) 3 m / s 2) 2 m / s
C are as shown. Then
3) 4 m / s 4) 8  10 2 m / s

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You will never know your limits until you push yourself to them
 A 3) 10 : 1 4) 1 : 10
B 15. Mass number of a nucleus is
V0 C 1) always less than its atomic number
2) always more than its atomic number
3) always equal to its atomic number
4) some times more than and some
times equal to its atomic number
 16. Which of the following is not correct
about nuclear forces?
a) threshold frequency of A < B< C
1) They are short range attractive forces
b) work function of A < B< C 2) They are independent of charge
c) work function of A = B = C 3) They change to repulsion nature at
d) threshold wavelength of A > B> C very close distance
e) ratio of the slopes of A,B,C is 1 :1: 1 4) They obey inverse square law
1) only a, b, d are correct 17. A heavy nucleus at rest breaks into two
2) only c, d, e are correct nuclear fragments which fly off with
velocities in the ratio 8 : 1. Ratio of the
3) only a, c, d, e are correct
radii of the fragments (assumed to be
4) only a, b, d, e are correct spherical) is
12. The stopping potential V0  - frequency 1) 1 : 2 2) 1 : 4
  graph for a given emitter surface is 18. A 1MeVpositorn and4)a21:1MeV electron
3) 4 : 1
given below. The threshold wavelength meet each other moving in opposite
for the emitter surface is directions. They annihilate each other
by emitting two photons. Wavelength of
2v each photon is nearly
v0 1) 5.1 103 A0 2) 10.2  10 3 A0
3) 8.2  103 A0 4) 6.2  103 A0
1v 19. 200 Mev of energy may be obtained per
5 6 7 8  fission of U 235 . A reactor is generating
160KW of power. The time rate of
1014 Hz  
nuclear fission in the reactor is
0 0 1) 1000/s 2) 2  108 / s
1) 4500 A 2) 6000 A 3) 5  1015 / s 4) 931/s
0
3) 5000 A 20. Two deuterium nuclei each of mass ‘m’,
4) cannot be estimated from the given fuse together to form a Helium nucleus,
data releasing an energy E. If ‘c’ is the velocity
13. The ratio of the intensities of two points of light, the mass of Helium nucleus
  formed will be:
located at respective distances and E E
4 3 1) 2 m  2 2)
from the central maximum in interference of c mc 2
YDSE is (  is the fringe width) E E
3) m  2 4) 2 m  2
1) 1 : 2 2) 2 : 3 c c
3) 2 : 1 4) 3 : 2 21. Radioactivity of a sample is ‘X’ at a time
14. Ratio of the energies of a moving particle ' t1 ' and Y at a time ' t 2 ' . If the mean life
and a photon is 1/100. Their velocities time of the specimen is ‘T’, the number
are in the ratio 1/10. Then the ratio of of atoms that have disintegrated in the
their de-Broglie wavelengths is
time interval  t1  t2  is
1) 5 :1 2) 1 : 5
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You will never know your limits until you push yourself to them
 1) Xt1  Yt2 2) X –Y 5K
X Y
3) 4)  X  Y  T
T
22. Assume that light of wavelength 6000A0 120V 10K
is coming from a star. Limit of resolution
of a telescope whose objective has a 50V
diameter of 254 cm is  107 radian .  is
nearly equal to 1) 9 mA, 5 mA 2) 14 mA, 5mA
1) 1.9 2) 2.1 2) 1mA 5mA 4) 14 mA, 6mA
3) 3.1 4) 2.9 27. In an n-p-n transistor circuit, the
23. The energy band diagrams of three collector current is 10mA. If 90% of the
semiconductors are given in the figure. electrons emitted from the emitter reach
From left to right they are respectively, the collector, then the emitter current
E f  Fermi level , C  conduction band ,V  Valcnce band  and base current are respectively
1) 0.11mA, 1.1 mA
C C C 2)10mA, 11.11mA
Ef
Ef 3) 11.11mA, 1.11mA
Ef 4) 0.01 mA, 11.11mA
V V V 28. The output Y of the logic circuit shown
in the figure is
1) n, intrinsic, p 2) p, intrinsic, n
3) intrinsic, p, n 4) intrinsic,n, p A
Y
24. In a p – n junction, a potential barrier of
250 mV exists across the junction. A
hole with a kinetic energy of 300 meV
B
approaches the junction. Find the
kinetic energy of the hole when it C
crosses the junction if the hole
approached the junction from the p – 1) A  B .C 2) A  B .C
side
1) 100 meV 2) 50 meV 3) A  B .C 4) A  B .C
3) 550 meV 4) 150 meV 29. A T. V tower is 150 m tall. If the area
25. An analyser is inclined to a polarizer at around the tower has a population
an angle of 300. The intensity of light density of 750 per km2, then the
1 population covered by the broadcasting
emerging from the analyser is th of the
n tower is about: (Radius of the earth =
natural light that is incident on the 6400 km)
polarizer. Then n is equal to
1) 4.5  106 2) 2.5  10 6
8
1) 4 2) 3) 4.5  105 4) 2.5  105
3 30. A message signal of frequency 10KHz and
1 4 peak voltage of 10V is used to modulate a
3) 4)
5 3 carrier frequency 1MHz and peak voltage of
26. In the figure shown, currents through 20V. Modulation index in % and frequencies
the series resistance and load resistance of the side bands produced are
are respectively 1) 60%, 1010 KHz and 990 KHz
2) 50%, 1000 KHz and 900 KHz
3) 50%, 1010 KHz and 990 KHz
4) 40%, 1020 KHz and 1000 KHz

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You will never know your limits until you push yourself to them
31. A device that converts one from of energy 39. Two beams of light are incident normally on
into another from can be termed as water    4 / 3  . If one of the beams passes
1) transducer
2) energy form converter through a glass    3 / 2  slab of height ‘h’
3) ASCII (American Standard Code for as shown in the figure, the time difference
Information Interchange) for both the beams for reaching the bottom
4) signal converter is (C is velocity of light is vacuum)
32. A point source of light produces at an
infinite distance from the source, a
1) spherical wave front
2) plane wavefront
3) cylindrical wavefront
4) both spherical and plane wavefronts
Glass h
33. In young’s double slit experiment, if sodium
light is replaced by blue light, then the h
1) Zero 2)
fringe width 3C
1) increases 2) decreases 6h h
3) remains same 4) becomes zero 3) 4)
C 6C
34. In an interference pattern produced by two
40. A ray of light incident on the hypotenuse
identical slits, the intensity at the site of the
face of a right angled prism, after travelling
central maximum is I. The intensity at the
parallel to the base inside the prism is to
same spot when one of two slits is closed is
undergo TIR at the hypotenuse face. If  is
1) I/2 2) I/4
3) 2I 4) I the refractive index of the material of the
35. A parallel beam of a monochromatic light of prism, the maximum value of the base angle
wavelength 5000A is incident normally on a
0  for which light is totally reflected from the
narrow slit of width of 0.001 mm. The light hypotenuse face is
is focused by a convex lens on a screen
placed at the focal plane. The first minimum
is formed for the angle of diffraction equal to
1) 00 2) 150 i
3) 30 0 4) 600
36. An unploarised light is incident on a plate of
refractive index 3 and the reflected light is

found to be completely plane polarized. The 1 1
angles of incidence and refraction are 1) Sin 1   2) Tan 1  
 
respectively
1) 600 ,300 2) 300 , 600   1  1
3) sin 1   4) cos 1  
 3 0    
 1  0
3) sin 1   , 45 4) Tan 1   ,30 41. Two prisms A and B have dispersive powers
 3  2
  0.012 and 0.018 respectively. The two
37. A beam of natural light falls on a system of prisms are in contact with each other. The
5 polaroids, which are arranged in prism ‘A’ produces a mean deviation of 1.20 .
succession such that the pass axis of each Mean deviation produced by ‘B’ if the
polaroid is turned through 600 with respect combination is an achromatic is
to the preceding one. The fraction of the 1) 3.60 2) 0.80
incident light intensity that passes through
the system is . 3) 0.40 4) 1.80
1) 1/64 2) 1/32 42. Two lenses of power -15D and 5D are in
3) 1/256 4) 1/512 contact with each other. The focal length of
38. The silver lining surrounding the profile of a the combination is (in cm)
mountain just before sunrise is due to 1) 20 2) 10
1) Interference 2) Diffraction 3) -20 4) -10
3) Dispersion 4) Refraction
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You will never know your limits until you push yourself to them
 1) + 2 D 2) -2 D
43. The magnifying power in normal adjustment 3) +8 D 4) – 1 D
of an astronomical telescope is 8 and the 45. Primary rainbow is a result of
distance between the two lenses is 54cm. 1) three step process (ie) refraction,
The focal lengths of eye piece and objective reflection and refraction
will be respectively. 2) three step process (ie) reflection,
1) 48 cm, 6 cm 2) 8 cm, 64 cm refraction and reflection
3) 64 cm, 8 cm 4) 6 cm, 48 cm 3) four step process
44. The near point of a person is at 50 cm from 4) two step process (ie) refraction and
his eyes. Power of the lens required to reflection
enable him to read clearly a book held at 25
cm from his eyes is
CHEMISTRY
46. In a crystalline solid, atoms of X form fcc lattice. What is the mole% of Cu 2 in total
packing and the atoms of Y occupy all copper content in this crystal
octahedral voids. If all the atoms along 1) 99.8% 2) 11.11%
one body diagonal are removed then the 3) 88.88% 4) 1.1%
simplest formula of the crystalline solid 51.  eq of 0.10N solution of CaI 2 is100.0 S
will be
cm2 eq 1 of 298K, cell constant of the cell
1) XY 2) X 4Y3 3) X 5Y4 4) X 4Y5
is 0.25 cm1 . How much current will flow
47. Which of the following dimensions is
correct for tetragonal unit cell? when the potential difference between
the electrode is 5V?
1) a  b  c,       900
1) 0.2 amp 2) 0.8 amp
2) a  b  c,       900 3) 1.2 amp 4) 2.5 amp
0
3) a  b  c,       90 52. One liter of 1M CuSO4 solution is
4) a  b  c,       900 electrolysed. After passing 2F charge, the
48. Wrong match is molarity of CuSO4 will be
1) Fe3O4 - ferrimagnetic 1) M/2 2) M/4 3) M 4) Zero
2) Gd - diamagnetic 53 The equilibrium constant of the following
3) GaAs - Semiconductor redox reaction at 298K is 1108
4) ReO3 – appears like copper 2 Fe3  aq.  2 I   aq.  2 Fe 2  aq.  I 2  s 
49. Which is incorrect statement If the standard reduction potential of
1) In NaCl structure, tetrahedral voids iodine becoming iodide +0.54V. What is
are unoccupied the standard reduction potential of
2) In ZnS structure, octahedral voids are Fe3 / Fe 2 ?
unoccupied 1) + 1.006 V 2) -1.006 V
3) In CaF2 structure, all tetrahedral voids 3) + 0.77 V 4) – 0.77 V
o
are occupied 54. If the ECell for a given reaction has a
4) In Na2O structure, all tetrahedral voids negative value, which of the following
are unoccupied gives the correct relationships for the
50. A certain sample of cuprous sulphide is values of G o and K eq ?
found to have composition Cu1.8 S , because 1) G o  0, K eq  1 2) G o  0, K eq  1
of incorporation of Cu 2 ions in the
3) G o  0, Keq  1 4) G o  0, Keq  1
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You will never know your limits until you push yourself to them
55. Efficiency of the following cell is 84% 2) HCHO  CO2  CH 4  Ar
A  s   B  aq   A  aq   B  s  ; H  285kJ
2 2
3) Ar  CO2  CH 4  HCHO
Then the standard electrode potential of 4) Ar  CH 4  CO2  HCHO
the cell will be 62. A certain zero order reaction k  0.025Ms 1
1) 1.20 V 2) 2.40 V for the disappearance of A. What will be
3) 1.10 V 4) 1.24 V the concentration of A after 15 seconds if
56. Which of the following reactions occurs the initial concentration is 0.5M?
at cathode during charging of storage 1) 0.5 M 2) 0.32 M
battery? 3) 0.125 M 4) 0.06 M
1) Pb 2  2e   Pb 2) Pb  Pb 2  2e  63. For a reaction A  B  C  D , if the
3) Pb2  SO42   PbSO4 concentration of A is doubled without
4) PbSO4  2 H 2O  PbO2  4 H   SO42   2e altering the concentration of B, the rate
57. A 0.2 molal solution of KCl freezes at gets doubled. If the concentration of B is
0
0.68 C . If K f for H 2O is1.86, the degree increased by nine times without altering
the concentration of A, the rate gets
of dissociation of KCl is
tripled. The order of the reaction is
1) 75 % 2) 83 %
1) 2 2) 1 3) 3/2 4) 4/3
3) 65 % 4) 92 %
64. Which of following relation is correct for
58. Which of the following solutions will
exhibit highest boiling point? first order reaction? (Here t1/ 2 = half –life;
1) 0.01M Na2 SO4 2) 0.01M KNO3 t3/ 4  3/ 4th time)
3) 0.015 M urea 4) 0.015 M glucose 1) t3/ 4  2  t1/ 2 2) t1/ 2  2  t3/ 4
59. 2 moles each of liquids A and B are 3) t3/ 4  3  t1/ 2 4) t1/ 2  3  t3/ 4
dissolved to form an ideal solution. What
65. Ozone layer depletion involves following
will be the mole fraction of B in the
steps

vapour phase? pA0  120 torr ; pB0  80 torr 
O3  O2  O  (fast)
1) 1/4 2) 1/2
O3  O   2O2 (slow)
3) 3/5 4) 2/5
CH 3 The rate law for the reaction will be
C O 1) Rate  k O O3 
60. When CH 3 (A) and CHCl3 (B) are 2) Rate  k O3  O2 
2 1

mixed then which among the following 2

observations is correct 3) Rate  k O3  4) Rate  k O2 O 
1) A – A and B – B interactions are 66. Consider a first order gas phase
weaker than A – B interaction decomposition reaction given below
2) A – A and B – B interactions are A g   B g   C  g 
stronger than A – B interaction The initial pressure of the system before
3) A - A and B – B interactions are same
as A – B interaction decomposition of A was pi . After lapse of
4) These two liquids do not from time ‘t’, total pressure of the system
homogeneous mixture
increased by x units and became ‘ pt ’.
61. K H value for Ar(g), CO2  g  ,HCHO(g) and
The rate constant k for the reaction is
CH 4  g  are 40.39, 1.67, 1.83  10 5 and given as
0.413 respectively. Arrange these gases 2.303 pi 2.303 pi
1) k  log 2) k  log
in the order of their increasing solubility t pi  x t 2 pi  pt
1) HCHO  CH 4  CO2  Ar

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You will never know your limits until you push yourself to them
 2.303 pi 2) S is negative and therefore, H
3) k  log
t 2 pi  pt should be highly positive
2.303 pi 3) S is negative and therefore, H
4) k  log should be highly negative
t pi  x 4) S is positive and therefore, H
67. According to Arrhenius equation rate should be negative
constant k is equal to Ae Ea / RT , which of 71. The coagulation of 10 ml of gold sol is
the following options represents the just prevented on adding 1 ml of 10%
1 NaCl in the presence of 0.025g of starch.
graph of ln k vs ? The gold number of starch is
T
1) 0.25 2) 0.025
3) 2.5 4) 25
72. The number of moles of lead nitrate
ln k ln k needed to coagulate 2 mole of colloidal
 AgI  I  is
1) 1/T 2) 1/T
1 2
1) 2 2) 1 3)
4)
2 3
73. The atomic numbers of V, Cr, Mn and Fe
ln k ln k are respectively 23, 24, 25 and 26.
Which one of these may be expected to
3) 1/T 4) 1/T have the highest second ionization
68. Match the following correctly energy?
1) Cr 2) Mn 3) Fe 4) V
Catalyst Industrial product 74. The basic character of the transition
A V2O5 i High density metal monoxides follows the order
polyhene 1) TiO > VO > CrO > FeO
B Ziegler – ii Poly 2) VO > CrO > TiO > FeO
Natta acrylonitrile 3) CrO > VO > FeO > TiO
C Peroxide iii NH 3 4) TiO > FeO > VO >CrO
75. Which of the statement is not true?
D Finely iv H 2 SO4
1) Na2Cr2O7 is preferred over K2Cr2O7 in
divided Fe
volumetric analysis
1) A- iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iii 2) K2Cr2O7 solution in acidic medium is
2) A- iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i orange
3) A- iii, B-i, C-ii, D-iv 3) K2Cr2O7 solution becomes yellow on
4) A- iv, B-ii, C-i, D-iii increasing the pH beyond 7
69. In Freundlich adsorption isotherm, the 4) On passing H 2 S through acidified
1
value of is K2Cr2O7 solution, a milky color is
n
1) 1 in case of physical adsorption observed
2) 1 in case of chemisorptions 76. Which of the following is not an actinide?
3) Between 0 and 1 in all cases 1) Curium 2) Califormnium
4) Between 2 and 4 in all cases 3) Uranium 4) Terbium
70. Which of the following is correct 77. Low spin complex of d 6 - cation in an
statement for the spontaneous octahedral field will have the following
adsorption of a gas? energy ( 0 = Crystal field splitting energy
1) S is positive and therefore, H in an octahedral field, P = Electron
should also be highly positive pairing energy)
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You will never know your limits until you push yourself to them
 2 2 1) 5.9 B.M 2) 4.9 B.M
1) 0  2P 2) 0  P
5 5 3) 3.9 B.M 4) 2.8 B.M
12 12 85. In an adsorption experiment a graph
3) 0  P 4)  0  3P x
5 5 between log versus log p is found to
78. The complex,  Pt  Py  NH3  BrCl  will have m
be linear with a slope of 450 . The
how many geometrical isomers ?
x
1) 2 2) 3 3) 4 4) 0 intercept on the log axis was found to
79. Jahn- Teller effect is not observed in m
high spin complexes of x
be 0.3010. What is if pressure is 0.6
1) d 9 2) d 7 3) d 8 4) d 4 m
80. The most stable complex among the bar (tan 450 =1)
following is 1) 0.6 2) 1.2
4 3) 2.4 4) 0.3
1)  Pd  CN 4  2)  Fe  CO 5 
86. In acidic solution, disproportionation of
4 3
3)  Ni  CN 4  4)  Ni  CN 4  MnO42 gives
81. Match the following 1) MnO 4 and Mn+2 2) MnO 4 and MnO2
Column-I Column-II 3) MnO2 and Mn+2 4) MnO 4 , Mn+3
A Cyanide I Ultra pure ‘Ge’ 2 en  en  en
process 87.  Ni  H 2O 6   A  B  C
B Froth II Dressing of ZnS A is Blue green, C is violet. Then possible
floatation colour of B is
process 1) Red 2) Green
C Electrolytic III Extraction of Al 3) Yellow 4) Blue
reduction 88. CH 3 MgI is an organometallic compound
D Zone refining IV Extraction of Au due to
A B C D 1) Mg- I bond 2) C – I bond
1) IV II III I 3) C- Mg bond 4) C – H bond
2) II III I IV 89. Which of the following is wrong
3) I II III IV statement?
4) III IV II I
1) Ni  CO 4 has oxidation number +4 for
82. In the extraction of copper from its
sulphide ore, the metal is finally Ni
obtained by the reduction of cuprous 2) Ni  CO 4 has zero oxidation number for
oxide with Ni
1) Carbon monoxide 3) Ni is a metal 4) CO is gas
2) Copper (I) Sulphide 90. Consider the following reactions at
3) Sulphur dioxide 4) Iron sulphide 10000 C
83. The following set of reactions are used in
A) Zn  s   1 O2  g   ZnO  s  ; G 0  360 kJmol 1
refining zirconium 2
523 K 1800 K
Zr  impure    ZrI 4   Zr  pure   2 I 2 B) C  s   1 O2  g   CO  g  ; G 0  460 kJmol 1
The method is known as 2
1) Distillation 2) Liquation Choose the correct statement at 10000 C
3) Hall- heroult method 1) Zinc can be oxidised by CO
4) Van arkel method 2) Zinc oxide can be reduced by C
84. The Magnetic moment of Autocatalyst 3) Both statements (A) and (B) are true
formed in the reaction between Acidified 4) Both statement (A) and (B) are false
oxalic acid and potassiumpermanganate
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 BOTANY
91. Number of linkage groups in each cell of 1) a- ii b- i c – iii d- iv
Nostoc is 2) a – ii b – i c – iv d- iii
1) 2 2)1 3)4 4) 0 3) a – iv b – iiic – i d – ii
92. Both chromosomes as well as genes do 4) a – ii b – iii c – i d – iv
not occur in pairs in 101. Which one of the following does not show
1) PMC 2) Fertilized egg the central dogma of molecular biology by
3) Microspore 4) Spore mother cell itself alone
93. The immediate progeny of which of the 1) Rolling alga 2) Bacteriophage
following crosses would have phenotypes 3) Pea 4) Mucor
and genotypes similar to their parents 102. Extra genomic DNA Replication is
1) TT x Tt 2) Tt x tt present in
3) Tt x Tt 4) both 1 & 2 1) Rhizobium 2) Rhizophora
94. Amino acid binding site of tRNA is 3) Rhizopus 4) all of these
1) 5’ end 2) T  C loop 103. The acidic characters of DNA and RNA
3) DHU loop 4) 3’ end. are due to
95. Reverse transcriptase is 1) purine bases 2) sugar molecule
1) DNA dependent DNA polymerase 3) pyrimidine bases 4) phosphoric group
2) RNA dependent DNA polymerase 104. Polymerization of nucleotides occurs
3) DNA dependent RNA polymerase during
4) RNA dependent RNA polymerase 1) G1 -phase 2) G2 - phase
96. What is the purpose of untranslated 3) S - phase 4) all
regions (UTRs) present on mRNA 105. Number of monohybrids in second filial
1) To stop the process of translation generation of Mendalian dihybrid cross is
2) To start the process of translation 1) 16 2) 8 3) 4 4) 1
3) For efficient translation 106. Mutations involve changes in a subset of
4) For DNA recognition chromosome number results in
97. The experimental proof for DNA 1) aneuploidy 2) polyploidy
replication in chromosomes is also by 3) pointmutilation 4) euploidy
semiconservative mode was shown in a 107. P.Maheshwari popularized the use of
1) Plant 2) Bacterium 1) taxonomical characters in embryology.
3) Fungus 4) Virus 2) morphological characters in anotomy.
98. Which one of the following is not a part of 3) embryological characters in taxonomy.
a transcription unit in DNA 4) anotomical characters in taxonomy.
1) The inducer 2) A terminator 108. Statement-I:-Cocos is monoecious,
3) A promoter 4) the structural gene bisexual plant with bisexual flowers.
99. The equivalent of a structural gene is Statement-II:-Carica is a dioecious,
1) Recon 2) Muton 3) Cistron 4) Operon unisexual plant with unisexual flowers.
100. Study the following table and choose the 1) Both S-I and S-II are true
correct match 2) Both S-I and S-II are false.
Column –I Column – II 3) S-I is false, S-II is true
a) Operator site i) Binding site for 4) S-I is true, S-II is false
RNA polymerase 109. S-I:- A Peepal tree has a much shorter
b) Promoter site ii) Binding site for life span as compared to Mango tree.
repressor molecule S-II:- Both are perennial plants
c) Regulator gene iii) Codes for protein 1) Both S-I and S-II are true
/enzyme 2) Both S-I and S-II are false.
d) Structural gene iv) Codes for 3) S-I is false, S-II is true
repressor molecule 4) S-I is true, S-II is false
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110. Contribution of megasporangium with in 122. Find the incorrect statement/s from the
a fruit as following
1) Seed 2) Pericarp 1) Largest seed is seen in a plant with
3) Embryo 4) Epicarp largest ovule.
111. Which one of the following would not lead 2) Largest flower bearing plant has
to formation of clones largest seeds.
1) Tissue culture 3) An estimated age of 10000 years old
2) Apomixis but viable pollen grains are seen in
3) Vegetative reproduction Lupine.
4) Double fertilization 4) 1, 2 & 3
112. In palynology the following are studied 123. Find the odd organism out with regard to
1) Megaspores of spermatophytes parthenogenesis
2) Megaspores of Pteridophytes 1) Turkey bird 2) Honey bees
3) Microspores of Gymnosperms only 3) Rotifers 4) Banana
4) Microspores of Spermatophytes 124. The number of nuclei present in a
113. Number of mitotic divisions occur in the primary endosperm cell is
pollen tube of majority of angiosperms is 1) 3 2) 1 3) 2 4) 4
1) one 2) two 3) three 4) four 125. Following is not related to spores in
114. Number of generations (phases) of tissues flowering plants
found in a fertilized ovule in Mango is 1) meiospores 2) endogenous
1) one 2) two 3) three 4) four 3) non-motile
115. Wall of the pollen tube is made up of 4) formed by terminal meiosis
1) Sporopollenin 2) Lignosuberin 126. Most critical event of sexual reproduction
3) Pectolignin 4) Pectocellulose 1) transfer of gamete
116. Movement of pollentube towards 2) coming together of gametes
micropylar end of embryosac is 3) fusion of gametes
1) Chemotactic 2) Chemotrophic 4) both 1 and 2
3) Thigmotrophic 4) Thigmonastic 127. 23s rRNA act as a catalyst in
117. Transiton of ploidy can be observed in 1) E.coli 2) Mitochondria
this cell of embryosac 3) Chloroplast 4) All the above
1) Antipodal 2) Synergid 128. Transcription begins when
3) Central cell 4) all 1) smaller subunit encounters the mRNA
118. Ovary with many ovules are found in 2) lager subunit of 70s ribosome
1) Wheat 2) Rice encounter the mRNA
3) Orchids 4) Sunflower 3) RNA polymerase bind at promoter site
119. Hydrophyte which does not show 4) larger subunit of 80s ribosome
hydrophily is encounter the mRNA
1) Eichhornia 2) Vallisneria 129. Length of the pollen tube is depends
3) Zostera 4) Hydrilla upon
120. An out breeding device for cross 1) Size of the pollen grain
pollination but not in hermaphrodite 2) Size of the stigma
flower is 3) Length of the style
1) Dichogamy 2) Dicliny 4) Width of the ovary
3) Herkogamy 4) Self-incompatable 130. Apomictic embryo in Citrus arise from
121. One plant one flower pollination is seen 1) haploid egg 2) synergid
in 3) maternal sporophytic tissue in ovule
1) Papaya 2) Maize 4) antipodal cells
3) Cycas 4) Thorn apple

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131. Large amount of variability with in a 134. Point mutation leads to sickle cell anemia
short span in a population is caused by is due to
1) Mutations 2) Introduction 1) insertion 2) transition
3) Hybridisation 4) Selection 3) transversion 4) deletion
132. ‘Genetic code is degenerate’, this property
of genetic code is not applicable to 135. The development and differentiation of
1) Ser 2) Arg 3) Trp 4) Leu embryo into adult organism is due to
133. In a dihybrid cross AABB X aabb, F2 coordinated regulation of expression of
progeny with AABB, AABb, AaBB and 1) single gene only 2) a set of genes only
AaBb occurs in the ratio of 3) several sets of genes
1) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 2) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 4) no gene expression
3) 1 : 2 : 2 : 1 4) 1 : 2 : 2 : 4

ZOOLOGY

136. XO type of sex determination is seen in the male progeny only. Find the nature
1) Birds 2) moths of the trait.
3) Grasshoppers 4) Drosophila 1) Autosomal recessive
137. Select the Incorrect one: 2) Autosomal dominant
1) Drones donot have father but have a 3) Sex-linked recessive
grand father 4)Sex-linked dominant.
2) Female honeybee possess 32 143. Down’s syndrome and turner’s
chromosomes syndrome are due to respectively
3) Drones produce sperms by meiosis 1)Monosomic and nullisomic conditions
4)Male honeybees develop from 2) Trisomic and monosomic conditions
unfertilized eggs. 3) monosomic and trisomic conditions
138. Automated DNA sequencing is based on 4) Trisomic and tetrasomic conditions
method developed by 144. A colourblind man has a colourblind
1) Erwin chargaff Sister and a normal brother. The parents
2) Jeffrys 3) crick would be
4) Frederick sanger 1) Both the parents are colourblind
139. Largest gene in humans is 2) Mother carrier, father normal.
1) Insulin gene 2) Oncogene 3) Mother carrier, father colourblind
3) Dystrophin gene 4) Mother normal, father colourblind.
4)   globin of haemoglobin 145. Gynaecomastia is a symptom of
140. If an inheritable mutation is observed in 1) Down’s syndrome
a population at high frequency, it is 2) Haemophilia
referred as 3) Turner’s syndrome
1) Linkage 2) Sequence 4) Klinefelter’s syndrome.
3) expressed sequence tag 146. Phenylketonuria is a genetic disorder
4) DNA polymorphism. caused by a defect in the metabolism of
141. Which of the following is not a 1) fattyacids 2) aminoacids
mendelian dis order? 3) polysaccharides
1) Thalassemia 4) vitamins
2) Klinefelter syndrome 
147. Heterozygous Hb A / Hbs individuals 
3) Colourblindness
have how much percentage of probability
4) Sickle cell anaemia
of transmission of the mutant gene to
142. A disease which shows its transmission
progeny?
from unaffected carrier female to some of
1) 25% 2) 50% 3) 0% 4) 100%
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You will never know your limits until you push yourself to them
148. Select the correct statement: 155. Use of antihistamines and steroid gives a
1) Theory of spontaneous generation was quick relief from
proposed by Louis Pasteur 1) nausea 2) cough
2) Panspermia is still a favourite idea for 3) allergy 4) abdominal pain
some astronomers. 156. The lymphoid organ that provide the
3) The universe is very old-almost 20 sites for interaction of lymphocytes with
million years old. the antigen is
4) Chemical evolution was preceded by 1) thymus gland 2) spleen
biological evolution. 3) bone marrow 4) All the above
149. Which of the following pair is incorrectly 157. Match the following:
matched with respect to convergent List –I (Drugs) List –II (effect)
evolution? a) Coke 1) Painkiller
1) Anteater – Numbat b) Smack 2) Sense of Euphoria
2) Lemur – spotted cuscus c) Ganja 3) Effect on cardio-
3) Flying squirrel – flying Fox vascular system
4) Bobcat – Tasmanian Tiger cat d) Morphine 4) Depressant
150. Darwin was most influenced by 1) a b c d 2) a b c d
1) Lamarck’s theory of acquired 4321 2341
characters. 3) a b c d 4) a b c d
2) Devries theory of mutations 1342 2431
3)Wallace’s theory of germ – plasm 158. The endocrine gland that is stimulated
4) Theory on population by Malthus. by nicotine is located on
151. Select the incorrect statement: 1) Kidney 2) Trachea
1) Neanderthal man used hides to 3) Liver 4) Brain
protect their body and buried their dead. 159. Which one among the following is
2) Homo erectus is Java man. correct?
3) Homo sapiens arose in Asia 1)Common cold – Droplet transmission
4) Cave paintings by prehistoric humans 2) Typhoid – contaminated food and
can be seen at Bhimbetka rock shelter in water
Madhya Pradesh 3) AIDS – shaking hands
152. The scientist who noted that embryos 4) Ringworm – Using infected towels
never pass through the adult stages of 1) 1, 2, 3 2) 1, 3,4
other animals is 3) 1, 2, 4 4) 3, 4
1) Ernst Haeckal 2) Hugo devries 160. Read the statements
3) Darwin 4) Von Baer 1) Opioids bind to specific receptors
153. Coal deposits has been mainly formed by present in our central nervous system
1) Bryophytes 2)Pteridophytes and gastro – intestinal tract .
3) Algae 4) Angiosperms 2) Morphine is extracted from the latex
154. Select the correct statement: of poppy plant.
1) Plasmodium vivax is the most serious 3) Natural connabinoids are obtained
malarial parasite and can even be fatal. from the inflorescences of the plant
2) Entamoeba histolytica is present in Cannabis sativa.
the small intestine of man. 4) Smack interferes with the transport of
3) Use of vaccines and immunization the neurotransmitter dopamine
programmes have enabled us to How many statements are correct
completely eradicate disease like 1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4
typhoid. 161. World cancer day is celebrated on
4) Dysentery, plague, diptheria are 1) 14 th November 2) 1st December
caused by bacteria. 3) 4 th February 4) 9 th November
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162. TAB vaccine is useful against 3) out – crossing
1) Polio 2) Pertussis 4) inter – specific hybridisation
3) Diptheria 4)Typhoid 167. Which product of apiculture is used in
163. Which pair of disease is viral? cosmetics and polishes?
1) Polio, AIDS 2) Typhoid, Tetanus 1)Royal Jelly 2) Wax
3) Pneumonia, Dengue 3) Honey 4) Both 1 and 2
4) Plague, pneumonia 168. Which technique is used for the herd
164. Recognise the figure and find out the improvement?
correct matching. 1) MOET 2) Artificial insemination
3) Inbreeding 4) All the above
169. Which one is not a marine fish?
1) Pomfret 2) Sardine
3) Rohu 4) Mackerel
170. Which is not true for inbreeding?
1)It causes inbreeding depression after a
few generations
2) It leads to homozygosity.
3) It always increases productivity
4)It is used to produce a pure line.
1) b – light chain, c- heavy chain, d – N 171. “Hisardale” is a breed of sheep developed
terminal. e – C terminal, a – antigen in
binding site. 1) Maharastra 2) Karnataka
2) b – light chain, c – heavy chain, e – N 3) Rajasthan 4) Punjab
terminal, d – C terminal, a – antigen 172. ADA deficiency is caused due to the ----
binding site of gene
3) c – light chain, b – heavy chain, d – N 1) translocation 2) Inversion
terminal, e – C terminal, a – antigen 3) Duplication 4) Deletion.
binding site 173. Disorder in which B-lymphocytes and T-
4) c – light chain, b – heavy chain, a –N lymphocytes are not formed is
terminal, d – C terminal, e – antigen 1) AIDS 2)SCID
binding site 3) Cystic fibrosis
165. Which is the particular type of drug that 4)Muscular dystrophy
is obtained from the plant whose one 174. The enzyme ADA is crucial for this
flowering branch is shown below? system to function
1) Neural 2) Endocrine
3) Immune 4) Circulation
175. Transgenic animals that produce useful
biological products can be created by the
introduction of the portion of DNA
Which codes for a particular product to
treat
a) Emphysema b) Cystic fibrosis
c) Phenyl – ketonuria
1) Pain – killer 2) Hallucinogen d) Alzeimers
3) Depressant 4) Stimulant 1) a, c only 2) a,b,c
166. The best breeding method for animals 3) a,c,d 4) a, b, c, d
that are below average in productivity,
growth rate in beef cattle is
1) cross – breeding 2) inbreeding
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176. From which of the following techniques 178. Protein   1antitrypsin is used to treat
early detection is not possible. 1) Cancer
a) Serum analysis b) PCR 2) Rheumatoid arthritis
c) ELISA 3) Parkinson disease
d) Recombinat DNA technology 4) Emphysema
e) Urine analysis 179. Which of these is used as vector for gene
1) b, c, e 2) a, e therapy in SCID and gene cloning in
3) a, d, e 4) b, c, d higher organisms?
177. Which is tagged with a radioactive 1) Entero virus 2) Retro virus
molecule and allowed to hybridise to its 3) Adeno virus 4) Paramyxo virus
complementary DNA in a clone of cells 180. Which is used in production of insulin
in autoradiography. by genetic engineering?
1) A single stranded RNA 1) Rhizobium 2) Saccharomyces
2) A single stranded DNA 3) Escherichia 4) Mycobacterium
3) A double stranded DNA
4) Both 1 and 2

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You will never know your limits until you push yourself to them