PATHOLOGY BOARD EXAM QUESTIONS A__16.

Perioral pallor and Dennie’s lines are seen in:

A. Atopic dermatitis C. Blood dyscrasias
B. Chronic actinic dermatitis D. Perioral contact dermatitis
NAME:
B__17. Most common tumor of infancy is:
A__1. The marker for Langerhans cell histiocytosis is: A. Lymphangioma C. Hemangioma
a. CD1a c. CD3 B. Rhabdomyoma D. Lipoma
b. CD20 d. CD30
D__18. Paralytic food poisoning is caused by:
A__2. Splenic macrophages in Gaucher’s disease differ from those in ceroid A. Staphylococci C. B. cereus
histiocytosis by staining positive for: B. E. coli D. Clostridia
A. Lipids C. Acid-fast stains
B. Phospholipids D. Iron C__19. Rodent ulcer is due to:
A. Syphilis C. Basal cell CA
A__3. Hereditary retinoblastoma develop the following chromosomal B. Burns D. TB
deletion:
A. 13q14 C. 14q13 D__20. Kobner’s phenomena is seen in:
B. 11p13 D. 22q11 A. Psoriasis C. Toxic epidermal necrolysis
B. Lichen planus D. All
D__4. Reticulocytes are NOT increased in one of the following conditions:
A. Hemorrhage C. Hemolysis A__21. A 10yo girl presents with tibial mass. Histopathological exam reveals
B. Thalassemia D. Aplastic anemia a small round cell tumor. Which of the ff molecular findings is most likely to
be present:
A__5. Acinic cell carcinomas of the salivary gland arise most often in the: A. 22q translocation C. 7p translocation
A. Parotid salivary gland C. Submandibular salivary gland B. 11q deletion D. n-myc amplification
B. Minor salivary glands D. Sublingual salivary gland
B__22. Which of the ff is the most specific test for rheumatoid arthritis:
B__6. A 14yo girl on exposure to cold develop pallor of extremities followed A. Anti IgM antibody C. Anti IgA antibody
by pain and cyanosis. In later ages of life she is prone to develop: B. Anti CCP antibody D. Anti IgG antibody
A. SLE C. Rheumatoid arthritis
B. Scleroderma D. Histiocytosis D__23. Onion bulb appearance of nerve ending on biopsy is seen in:
A. Diabetic neuropathy C. Leprous neuritis
B__7. Which of the following statement is incorrect: B. Amyloid neuropathy D. CIDP
A. Selenium deficiency causes cardiomyopathy
B. Zinc deficiency causes pulmonary fibrosis B__24. MIC-2 mutation is associated with:
C. Increased calcium intake cause iron deficiency A. Osteosarcoma C. Alveolar soft tissue sarcoma
D. Vit A deficiency occurs after 6mos-1year of low Vit A diet B. Ewing’s sarcoma D. Dermatofibrosarcoma protuberance

A__8. Brain natriuretic peptide is degraded by: B__25. “Biphasic pattern” on histology is seen in which tumor:
A. Neutral endopeptidase C. Collagenase A. Rhabdomyosarcoma C. Osteosarcoma
B. Elastase D. Ompatrilat B. Synovial cell sarcoma D. Neurofibroma

C__9. “Tophus” is the pathognomonic lesion of which of the following C__26. Mosaic pattern of lamellar bone histology is found in:
condition: A. Osteopetrosis C. Osteitis deformans
A. Multiple myeloma C. Gout B. Osteoid osteoma D. Osteomalacia
B. Cystinosis D. Eale’s disease
B__27. Dystrophin is lacking in:
C__10. Which of the following diseases have an underlying mitochondrial A. Polio C. Peroneal muscular atrophy
abnormality: B. Duchenne’s muscular dystrophy D. Spinal muscular atrophy
A. Krabbe’s disease D. Oncocytoma
B. Fabry’s disease E. Fanconi’s syndrome D__28. A 27yo male presents with low backache early in the morning, with
C. Mitochondrial myopathy stiffness persisting >30min. On exam, chest expansion is also restricted. Most
probable diagnosis is:
A__11. Foam cells are seen in: A. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Gouty arthritis
A. Alport’s syndrome C. Atherosclerosis B. Osteoarthritis D. Ankylosing spondylitis
B. Niemann-Pick disease D. Pneumonia
A__29. Potts puffy tumor is:
A__12. Warthin-Finkeldey cells are seen in: A. Osteomyelitis of frontal bone C. Osteomyelitis of maxilla
A. Measles C. Influenza B. Osteomyelitis of ethmoid D. Osteomyelitis of mandible
B. Rubella D. Rickettsial pox
B__30. Colloid bodies are seen in:
C__13. Most common second malignancy in patients with familial A. Psoriasis C. Leprosy
retinoblastoma is: B. Lichen planus D. Tuberculosis
A. Teratoma C. Osteosarcoma
B. Medullary carcinoma D. Malignant melanoma B__31. Koenon tumor is seen in:
A. NF C. Turners syndrome
D__14. Hutchison’s secondaries in skull are due to tumors in: B. Tuberous sclerosis D. Sturge Weber syndrome
A. Lung D. Adrenals
B. Breast E. Testes B__32. Amylin is secreted by which group of cells of pancreas:
C. Liver A. Alpha cells C. D cells
B. Beta cells D. PP cells (pancreatic polypeptide)
B__15. Rosette shaped arrangement of cells are seen in:
A. Thecoma of ovary C. Neurofibroma C__33. The term fetal adenoma is used for:
B. Ependymoma D. Lymphoma A. Hepatoma liver C. Folloicular adenoma of thyroid
B. Fibroadenoma breast D. Craniopharyngioma
D__34. Mauriac’s syndrome is characterized by all, EXCEPT: C__51. Which of the following is not a feature of Sipple Syndrome:
A. Diabetes C. Dwarfism A. Pheochromocytoma C. Hyperthyroidism
B. Obesity D. Cardiomegaly B. Medullary CA D. Hyperparathyroidism

C__35. Necrobiosis lipoidica is seen in: C__52. Chronic inflammation and fibrosis of the rotator cuff musculature
A. Diabetes insipidus C. Diabetes mellitus could result in:
B. Lyme disease D. Symmond’s disease A. Hypermobility of the shoulder C. Frozen shoulder
B. Antalgic gait D. Winged scapula
A__36. Most common association in MEN 1 is:
A. Gastrinoma C. Lipoma D__53. What would cause edema:
B. Insulinoma D. Glucagonoma A. Decreased capillary hydrostatic pressure
B. Increased capillary osmotic pressure
B__37. Which of the ff term describes hyperthyroidism following intake of C. Decreased capillary permeability
iodine in patients suffering from endemic goiter: D. Increased capillary permeability
A. Wolff-Chaikoff effect C. Grave’s disease
B. Jod-Basedow effect D. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis B__54. Malignant neoplasms shows all the following features, EXCEPT:
A. Disorganized cell structure C. Invasion of blood vessels
D__38. All are true about Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, EXCEPT: B. Encapulation D. Rapid, erratic growth
A. Follicular destruction C. Oncocytic metaplasia
B. Lymphocytic infitrationD. Orphan Annie eye nuclei C__55. The term metaplasia refers to:
A. Irregular, atypical proliferative change in epithelial & mesenchymal cells
B__39. Psammoma bodies are seen in all, EXCEPT: B. Loss of cell substance producing shrinkage of cells
A. Papillary CA of thyroid C. Meningioma C. Replacement of one type of adult cell by another type of adult cell
B. Papillary adenoma of colon D. Papillary CA of ovary D. None of the above

A__40. Which thyroid carcinoma is of C-Cell origin: D__56. Exfoliative cytology is indicated in:
A. Medullary CA C. Papillary CA A. Heavily keratinized lesions of oral cavity
B. Follicular CA D. Anaplastic CA B. Pro-cancerous lesions of oral cavity
C. Cigarette smokers
C__41. A 51yo man with history of recurrent calcium-containing renal stones D. Mass screening of cervical cancer
presents to the ER with excruciating flank pain and blood in urine. This
patient is likely to have: C__57. The most definite feature of a malignant tumor is:
A. Anemia of chronic disease C. Hyperparathyroidism A. Hemorrhage C. Metastasis
B. Chronic proteus infection D. Hyperaldosteronism B. Increased mitoses D. Necrosis

C__42. High calcium intake can lead to: A__58. Basal cell CA occurs on:
A. Osteoporosis C. Milk alkali syndrome A. Skin and pilosebaceous adnexa C. Skin, lips, tongue
B. Osteopetrosis D. Renal failure B. Skin and mucosa D. All of the above

A__43. Lymphatic spread is most commonly seen with which type of thyroid A__59. Tumor which shows origin from more than one germ layers is known
cancer: as:
A. Papillary C. Follicular A. Teratoma C. Choristoma
B. Medullary D. Lymphoma B. Pleomorphic tumors D. Hamartoma

C__44. Brown tumor is seen in: B__60. The best described etiology for Berry aneurysm is which of the
A. Hyperthyroidism C. Hyperparathyroidism following:
B. Hypothyroidism D. Hypoparathyroidism A. Degeneration of internal elastic lamina
B. Degeneration of tunica media
D__45. Most important histopathological indicator of malignancy in C. Defect in muscular layer
Pheochromocytoma is: D. Low grade inflammation in the vessel wall
A. Pleomorphism C. Vascular invasion
B. High mitotic activity D. None B__61. Which of the ff would distinguish hydrocephalus due to aqueductal
stenosis when compared to that due to Dandy walker malformation:
B__46. Most common site of pheochromocytoma after adrenal gland is: A) Third ventricle size C. Lateral ventricular size
A. Hilum of kidney C. Neck B) Posterior fossa volume D. Head circumference
B. Organs of Zuckerkandl D. Urinary bladder
A__62. Hypertensive hemorrhage is most commonly seen in :
B__47. In Conn’s syndrome, all the following are seen, EXCEPT: A. Basal ganglia C. Brain stem
A. Hypokalemia C. Hypertension B. Thalamus D. Cerebrum
B. Hypernatremia D. Edema
C__63. A 17yo female presents with history of fever and headache and
A__48. Tumor that follows rule of 10 is: develops altered sensorium. CT scan shows basal exudates with meningeal
A. Pheochromocytoma C. Lymphoma enhancement. CSF is most likely to show:
B. Oncocytoma D. Renal cell CA A. Lymphocytic pleocytosis, low sugar, low protein
B. Polymorphonuclear pleocytosis, normal sugar, high protein
B__49. Mitotic figures and giant cells are seen in which of the following C. Lymphocytic pleocytosis, low sugar, high protein
tumor: D. Lymphocytic pleocytosis, normal sugar, high protein
A. Benign & malignant thyroid CA
B. Benign & malignant pheochromocytoma D__64. Which of the ff is NOT a Prion disease:
C. Benign & malignant liver tumor A. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
D. Benign & malignant renal tumor B. Fatal familial insomnia
C. Gerstmann-Straussler-Scheinker syndrome
A__50. Homer rosette is seen in: D. Parkinson’s disease
A. Neuroblastoma C. Hepatoma
B. Nephroblastoma D. Ependymoma
C__65. Pathologic features of brain in AIDS are all, EXCEPT: B. Rotor syndrome D. Gall stones
A. Perivascular giant cell invasion C. Vasculitis
B. Microglial nodules D. Temporal lobe infection D__82. A patient with unconjugated bilirubinemia has increased excretion of
urobilinogen in his urine. This can be seen in all of the following conditions,
A__66. The pathogenesis of cerebral malaria includes: EXCEPT:
A. Cytoadhesion A. G6PD deificiency C. Hereditary spherocytosis
B. Sequestration of cerebral vessels by RBC B. Hemolytic anemia D. Biliary cirrhosis
C. Reticulocytopenia
D. Caused by P. vivax C__83. Nutmeg liver is seen in:
E. Sporozoites are sequestrated in blood A. Portal cirrhosis C. Chronic venous congestion of liver
B. Biliary cirrhosis D. Fatty liver
A__67. Albumino-cytologic dissociation occurs in cases of:
A. Guillain-Barre syndrome C. Motor neuron disease B__84. With the known finding of significantly increased serum ammonia,
B. TB meningitis D. Demyelinating disorder which of the ff physical findings may be expected in a patient of hepatic
failure:
D__68. Pseudorosettes are seen in all, EXCEPT: A. Capillary telangiectasias C. Caput medusae
A. Neuroblastoma C. Medulloblastoma B. Asterixis D. Gynecomastia
B. Retinoblastoma D. Thecoma
D__85. Which one of the ff diseases characteristically causes fatty change in
A__69. Rosenthal fibers are seen in which of the following tumors: liver:
A. Pilocytic astocytoma C. Medulloblastoma A. Hepatitis B virus infection C. Hepatitis C infection
B. Glioblastoma D. Ependymoma B. Wilson’s disease D. Chronic alcoholism

D__70. Verocay bodies are seen in: C__86. Councilman bodies are seen in:
A. MEningioma C. Glioma A. Wilson disease C. Acute viral hepatitis
B. Hemangioma D. Schwannoma B. Acute viral hepatitis D. Autoimmune hepatitis

B__71. The commonest site for extragonadal germ cell tumor is: B__87. The liver biopsy in acute hepatitis due to Hepatitis B virus is likely to
A. Pineal gland C. Retroperitoneum show all of the following, EXCEPT:
B. Mediastinum D. Sacrococcygeal region A. Ballooning change of hepatocytes C. Focal/ spotty necrosis
B. Ground glass hepatocytes D. Acidophil bodies
D__72. All are true about Polycystic Ovarian Disease, EXCEPT:
A. Persistently elevated LH C. Increased DHEAS B__88. Centrilobular necrosis of liver occurs in:
B. Increased LH/FSH ratio D. Increased prolactin A. Phosphorus C. Arsenic
B. Phenol D. Mercury
A__73. An ovarian neoplasm in a 14yo girl is most likely:
A. Germ cell tumor C. Sertoli-Leydig cell tumor C__89. Piece meal necrosis is seen in:
B. Epithelial tumor D. Granulosa cell tumor A. Alcoholic hepatitis C. Chronic active hepatitis
B. Toxic hepatitis D. Malignancy
C__74. Schiller-Duval bodies are seen in:
A. Teratoma C. Yolk-sac tumor C__90. A 34yo man has loss of appetite, nausea and vomiting, and fatigue.
B. Seminoma D. Choriocarcinoma Lab exams confirms diagnosis of Hep B, and the man becomes icteric 2
weeks later. This patient is vulnerable to development of:
C__75. Call-Exner bodies are seen in: A. Berry aneurysm C. Polyarteritis nodosa
A. Mature teratoma C. Granulosa cell tumor B. Coronary artery aneurysm D. Giant cell arteritis
B. Endodermal sinus tumor D. Sertoli Leydig cell tumor
A__91. Nodular regenerative changes in liver most commonly occur in:
C__76. Hormone produced by endodermal sinus tumor is: A. Drugs induced hepatitis C. Hepatitis B
A. AFP C. Both B. Alcoholic hepatitis D. Autoimmune hepatitis
B. Alpha-1 antitrypsin D. hCG
C__92. A chronic alcoholic has an elevated serum alpha-fetoprotein levels.
B__77. Tennis Racquet cells are seen in: Which of the ff neoplasm is most likely seen:
A. Rhabdomyoma C. Histiocytoma A. Prostatic adenoCA C. Hepatocellular CA
B. Rhabdomyosarcoma D. Eosinophilic granuloma B. Multiple myeloma D. Glioblastoma multiforme

C__78. Bilateral ovarian masses are seen on pelvic exam of a 40yo woman B__93. Alcoholic hyaline seen in alcoholic liver disease is composed of:
during hysterectomy. Pathologic exam demonstrates papillary CA producing A. Lipofuschin
serous fluid. Which tumor marker would be most useful in monitoring for B. Eosinophilic intracytoplasmic inclusions
recurrence: C. Basophilic intracytoplasmic inclusions
A. Alpha-fetoprotein C. CA-125 D. Hemazoin
B. Bombesin D. PSA
B__94. Most common site of Cholangiocarcinoma is:
B__79. A patient with chronic pelvic pain undergoes hysterectomy. The A. Distal biliary tree C. Intrahepatic biliary duct
resected uterus is filled with nodules composed of benign smooth muscle B. Hilum D. Multifocal
cells. Which term best describes these nodules:
A. Angiosarcoma C. Leiomyosarcoma D__95. All of the ff are risk factors for carcinoma of the bladder, EXCEPT:
B. Leiomyoma D. Rhabdomyoma A. Typhoid carriers C. Choledochal cysts
B. Adenomatous gallbladder polyps D. Oral contraceptives
C__80. Endodermal sinus tumor is characterized by:
A. Call Exner body C. Schiller Duval body B__96. Onion skin fibrosis of the common bile duct is:
B. Psammoma body D. Homer Wright body a. Primary biliary cirrhosis C. Extrahepatic biliary fibrosis
b. Primary sclerosing cholangitis D. Congenital hepatic fibrosis
C__81. Which of the ff condition is associated with unconjugated
hyperbilirubinemia: A__97. Klatskin tumor is:
A. Dubin-JOhnson syndrome C. Gilbert syndrome A. Nodular type of cholangiocarcinoma
B. Fibrolamellar hepatocellular CA C__113. Which of the ff artery is responsible for duodenal ulcer hemorrhage:
C. Gall bladder CA A. Sup. Pancreaticoduodenal artery C. Gastroduodenal artery
D. Hepatocellular CA B. Inf. Pancreaticoduodenal artery D. Left gastric artery

D__98. Histological finding in Reye’s syndrome is: C__114. Which of the ff is histological feature of Whipple’s disease:
A. Budding and branching of mitochondria A. Infiltration of histiocytes in the lamina propria
B. Swelling of endoplasmic reticulum B. Granuloma in the lamina
C. Para-nuclear micro-dense deposits C. Macrophages with PAS(+) material inside the lamina propria
D. Glycogen depletion D. Eosinophils in the lamina propria

A__99. “Kayser-Fleischer ring” is seen in: A__115. Macrpphages containing large quantities of undigested and partial
A. Wilson’s disease C. Hemochromatosis digested bacteria in intestine are seen in:
B. Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiencyD. Primary biliary cirrhosis A. Whipple’s disease C. Immunoproliferative small intestinal disease
B. Amyloidosis D. Vibrio cholerae infection
A__100. Centrilobular necrosis is seen in:
A. CCl4 C. Yellow fever B__116. Type of anemia caused by Ileocecal TB:
B. White phosphorus D. Eclampsia A. Iron-deficiency C. Sideroblastic
B. Megaloblastic D. Normocytic normochromic
D__101. Bronze diabetes is seen in:
A. Wilson’s disease C. Lead intoxication C__117. All are true about amoebic ulcer, EXCEPT:
B. Sarcoidosis D. Hemochromatosis A. Commonest site is ascending colon and cecum
B. Flask shaped ulcer
B__102. Barrett’s esophagus shows: C. Perforation is common
A. Intestinal dysplasia C. Columnar cell metaplasia D. Paucity of inflammatory cells
B. Intestinal metaplasia D. Collumnar cell dysplasia
B__118. Intestinal biopsy is NOT diagnostic in:
A__103. Best site for taking biopsy for viral esophagitis is: A. Abetalipoproteinemia C. Agammaglobulinemia
A. Edge of ulcer C. Adjacent indurated area of ulcer B. Tropical sprue D. Intestinal lymphangiectasias
B. Base of ulcer D. Surrounding normal mucosa
B__119. Transverse ulcers are seen in:
C__104. Plummer-Vinson syndrome is characterized by all, EXCEPT: A. Typhoid C. Amebiasis
A. Glossitis C. Megaloblastic anemia B. Tuberculosis D. Ulcerative colitis
B. Esophageal web D. Esophageal dysphagia
C__120. A female patient has severe arthritis involving the lower back. The
B__105. A patient complains of pain in upper portion of neck on swallowing. patient should be questioned by the doctor about which of the following
He regurgitates undigested food after eating. Which is the most likely disease before making a diagnosis of ankylosing spondylitis:
etiology of his problems: A. Carcinoid syndrome C. Crohn’s disease
A. Mallory-Weiss tears C. Schatzki rings B. Celiac disease D. Whipple’s disease
B. Zenker’s diverticulum D. Traction diverticula
C__121. A patient with intestinal malabsorption is found to improve when
A__106. A female with chronic dysphagia undergoes upper endoscopy with flour products are removed from his diet. At the height of the patient’s
massive dilation of distal esophagus. The esophagus is kinked and tortuous disease, marked histologic changes would be seen at what site:
and partly filled with undigested foods. What is the most likely diagnosis: A. Distal large bowel C. Proximal small bowel
A. Achalasia C. Hiatal hernia B. Distal small bowel D. Entire small bowel
B. Barrett’s esophagus D. Plummer-Vinson syndrome
B__122. Purtscher’s retinopathy is seen in:
B__107. Most common anatomical location of tongue cancer is: A. Meningitis C. Uncontrolled hypertension
A. Anterior third C. Dorsum B. Pancreatitis D. Unilateral carotid artery occlusion
B. Lateral margin D. Posterior third
C__123. The most common site for amebiasis:
B__108. Most common antecendent of erythroplakia and leukoplakia is A. Sigmoid colon C. Cecum
which of the following: B. Transverse colon D. Liver
A. Diphtheria C. Alcohol
B. Tobacco use D. Poor oral hygiene C__124. Which of the ff is NOT associated with celiac sprue:
A. Turner syndrome C. Klinefelter syndrome
B__109. Sister Mary Joseph nodule is most commonly seen in with which of B. Down syndrome D. Type 1 diabetes
the following:
A. Ovarian cancer C. Colon cancer C__125. Serum amylase level are raised in all of the following, EXCEPT:
B. Stomach cancer D. Pancreatic cancer A. Duodenal ulcer perforation C. Appendicitis
B. Pancreatitis D. Small Bowel strangulation
C__110. Which one of the ff is the most significant risk factor for
development of gastric CA: D__126. In Peutz-Jeghers syndrome, polyps are mainly seen in:
A. Paneth cell metaplasia C. Intestinal metaplasia A. Rectum C. Esophagus
B. Pyloric metaplasia D. Ciliated metaplasia B. Colon D. Jejunum

D__111. When CA of the stomach develops secondarily to pernicious A__127. Which of the ff would be the best morphological feature to
anemia, it is usually situated in the: distinguish ulcerative colitis from Crohn’s disease:
A. Prepyloric region C. Body A. Diffuse distribution of pseudopolyps C. Crypt abscesses
B. Pylorus D. Fundus B. Mucosal edema D. Lymphoid aggregates in mucosa

D__112. Histologic exam of the lesion in stomach reveals fat-laden cells. The A__128. Most common site of carcinoma of the pancreas is:
most likely cause is: A. Head C. Tail
A. Lymphoma C. Signet-cell CA stomach B. Body D. Equal incidnece at all sites
B. Postgastrectomy D. Atrophic gastritis
D__129. Two specimen of the intestine obtained following colectomy shows
hemorrhagic cobblestone appearance; but one shows longitudinal grooving. A. Diabetic Glomerulosclerosis C. Malignant Hypertension
It is likely to be a specimen of: B. Benign Hypertension D. Amyloidosis
A. Ulcerative colitis C. Multiple polyposis
B. Ischemic colitis D. Crohn’s disease A__144. Most common in diabetic nephropathy is:
A. Diffuse glomerulosclerosis C. Nodular glomerulosclerosis
B__130. Backwash ileitis is seen in: B. Diffuse cortical sclerosis D. Renal atherosclerosis
A. Crohn’s disease C. Colonic carcinoma
B. Ulcerative colitis D. Ileal polyp B__145. IgA depositions in mesangial cells are seen in:
A. Goodpasture’s syndrome C. Crescenteric glomerulonephritis
A__131. Biopsy of small, rounded rectal polyp demonstrates glands and B. Berger disease D. Alport syndrome
sawtooth crypts composed of proliferation of goblet and columnar epithelial
cells. No atypia. This polyp is classified as: B__146. Hallmark of the IgA nephropathy is:
A. Hyperplastic polyp C. Tubular adenoma A. Edema C. Hypertension
B. Peutz-Jeghers polyp D. Tubulovillous adenoma B. Hematuria D. Proteinuria

C__132. Zollinger Ellison Syndrome is not caused by tumors from: A__147. Subepithelial deposits with “M” spike is seen in:
A. Pancreas C. Colon A. Membranous glomerulonephritis
B. Ovary D. Duodenum B. Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis
C. Minimal change disease
B__133. A highly sensitive and specific marker for detecting intestinal D. RPGN
inflammation in ulcerative colitis is:
A. CRP C. Fecal calprotectin B__148. Tram track appearance on histopathology of kidney is seen in:
B. Fecal lactoferrin D. Leukocytosis A. Membranous nephropathy
B. Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis
D__134. A 28yo man has lenticonus and end stage renal disease now. His C. IgA nephropathy
maternal uncle also died of the same illness. What is the likely diagnosis: D. Crescentic glomerulonephritis
A. Autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease
B. Autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease A__149. Flea bitten appearance of the kidney is seen in:
C. Oxalosis A. Malignant hypertension C. Chronic pyelonephritis
D. Alport syndrome B. Benign hypertension D. Diabetes mellitus

A__135. Which of the ff is associated with adult polycystic kidney disease: A__150. Most common glomerulonephritis associated with HIV is which of
A. Berry aneurysm of Circle of Willis C. Fusiform aneurysm of aorta the following:
B. Saccular aneurysm of aorta D. Leutic aneurysm A. Focal segmental glomerulonephritis
B. Diffuse glomerulosclerosis
D__136. Podocytes are seen in: C. Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis
A. Proximal convoluted tubule C. Collecting tubule of kidney D. Cresecentic glomerulonephritis
B. Distal convoluted tubule D. Bowman’s capsule

A__137. A person with radiologically confirmed reflux nephropathy develops

nephritic range proteinuria. Which would be the most likley histological
finding in this patient:
A. Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis
B. Nodular glomerulosclerosis
C. Membranous glomerulopathy
D. Proliferative glomerulonephritis with crescents

B__138. The pathological feature in Wegener’s granulomatosis on renal

biopsy is:
A. Nodular glomerulosclerosis
B. Focal necrotizing glomerulonephritis
C. Granulomas in the vascular wall
D. Granuloma of parenchyma of kidney

A__139. Pauci-immune crescentic glomerulonephritis is associated with:

A. Microscopic polangitis C. H S Purpura
B. SLE D. PAN

B__140. Which of these does NOT cause crescentic glomerulonephritis:

A. Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis C. Goodpasture’s syndrome
B. Alport syndrome D. Henoch-Schonlein purpura

A__141. Kidney biopsy from a child with hemolytic uremic syndrome

characteristically most likely presents features of:
A. Thrombotic microangiopathy
B. Proliferative glomerulonephritis
C. Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis
D. Minimal change disease

B__142. RPGN is cuased by:

A. FSGS D. PAN
B. Wegener’s granulomatosis E. Micorscopic polyangitis
C. Goodpasture’s syndrome

A__143. Kimmelstiel Wilson disease is diagnostic of: