1.

Carbon footprint can be measured by:

a) Carbon dating
b) Instruments
c) Carbon accounting
d) Formula
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Carbon footprint is the total set of greenhouse gas emissions caused by an individual, event,
organisation or product. It is expressed as carbon dioxide equivalent. It can be measured by assessment of
GHG (greenhouse gas) levels or activities like carbon accounting.

2. How many types of ecological pyramids are there?

a) 3
b) 2
c) 4
d) 5
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Ecological pyramid is a graphical representation used to show bio productivity at each
trophic level. The three types are the pyramid of energy, pyramid of numbers and pyramid of biomass.

3. A legally binding agreement between 2 or more nation states relating to environment is:
a) BEA
b) BA
c) MA
d) MEA
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: MEA stand for Multilateral Environmental Agreement. When it is between 2 nation states, it
is BEA – Bilateral Environmental Agreement. These are predominantly produced by the United Nations.

4. _________ is a programme run by UN related to sustainable development.

a) GHG indicator
b) Agenda 21
c) IPCC
d) UNEP
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Agenda 21 is a comprehensive blueprint of action to be taken globally, nationally and
locally by governments of member nations of UN and those major groups in every area in which humans
impact on the environment.

5. For a gold LEED certification, how many points are required?

a) 40-49
b) 60-79
c) 50-59
d) 80-110
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: LEED is Leadership in Energy and Environmental Design. It has four levels – certified (40-
49 points), silver (50-59), gold (60-79) and platinum (80-110 points).

6. Which of the below green building in India has received a platinum LEED certification?
a) Dabur India, Chandigarh
b) Logix Cyber Park, UP
c) Unitech Commercial Tower, Chandigarh
d) Suzlon One Earth, Pune
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: This building can accommodate 2300 people, has used low energy materials, thus reducing
carbon footprint. 90% of occupied space has access to natural daylight.

7. ________ is the conventional source for hydel power.

a) Tidal wave
b) Currents
c) Water
d) Ripples
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Hydel power is obtained from a high velocity of running water. It is abundantly present. It is
used for a longer period of time. It is an exceptional case of conventional energy.

8. The first academic publication about ecological footprints was in:

a) 1992
b) 1990
c) 1993
d) 1994
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: William Rees published the first ecological footprint in 1992. The concept and calculation
was developed as the PhD dissertation of Mathis Wackernagel under Rees’ supervision from 1990-1994.

9. Which of the below is a global scale environmental issue?

a) Eutrophication
b) Regional ozone
c) Climate change
d) Pollution
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: These are three scales of environmental issues – local, regional and global. Climate change,
global warming, stratospheric ozone less, etc. are all issues at a global level.
10. Carbon can be stored in organic matter in the form of:
a) Biomass
b) Biofuel
c) Bioenergy
d) Bio carbon
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: It is stored in the roots of trees and organic matter for decades in the form of biomass. The
carbon from these are released into the atmosphere on decomposition.

11. The ‘Miracle Material’ that can turn CO2 into liquid fuel is:
a) Propene
b) Copper
c) Graphene
d) Potassium
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Graphene quantum dots can recycle waste CO2 to fuel. Scientist Pulickel Ajayan has shown
the conversion of CO2 into ethylene and ethanol using electro catalysis in lab conditions.

1. Does the CO2 that you produce each year – through your daily activities like driving a
car, washing the dishes, heating your home, etc. – weigh more than you do?
Yes
No
Correct. If you weigh less than 7.5 tons (the national average for CO2 emissions per person per year in
the US) – and we hope you do.

2. Recycling actually costs more than it saves.

True
False
Correct.

3. To make sure you purchase the most energy-efficient appliances, you should look for
(choose one):
A. The Appliance Efficiency Label
B. The Energy Star Label
C. The Good Housekeeping Seal
D. The Green House Label
The answer is B - The Energy Star Label.

4. Enough sunlight falls on the earth in one minute to power the world’s entire energy
needs for (choose one):
A. One minute
 B. One day
C. One month
D. One year
The answer is D - One year.

5. Photovoltaic systems (choose one):

A. Convert sunlight to CO2
B. Convert sunlight to electricity
C. Convert sunlight to hot water
D. Convert sunlight to steam
The answer is B - Convert sunlight to electricity.

6. Picture a gallon of milk. How many gallons of water do you think the average American
use each day?
A. Less than 20
B. 20 - 40
C. 40 - 80
D. 80 -100
The answer is D - 80 - 100.

7. What do you think uses the most household water?

A. Car washing
B. Dish washing
C. Showers and baths
D. Toilet flushing
The answer is D - Toilet flushing.

8. The mantra that is the heart and soul of green living is “Reduce, Reuse and:
A. Recycle
B. Refrain
C. Repair
D. Restore
The answer is A - Recycle.

9. LEED is a building rating system developed and maintained by:

A. The New Jersey Board of Public Utilities
 B. The US Department of Energy
C. The US Environmental Protection Agency
D. The US Green Building Council
The answer is D - The US Green Building Council

Sustainable building means that

(A) Green building

(B) Environmental building
(C) Both A and B
(D) None of the above

Which of the following elements should be used optimum to make a green building?

(A) Agni
(B) Jal
(C) Prithvi
(D) All of the above

Which of the following is not the purpose of a green building?

(A) To reduce use of water

(B) To minimize damage of the environment
(C) Re-use of waste materials
(D) None of the above

Where is India's first green building located?

(A) ITC Green Centre, Gurgaon

(B) CII – Sohrabji Green Business Centre, Hyderabad
(C) Wipro Technologies, Gurgaon
(D) Suzlon one Earth, Pune

Which of the following is not an economic benefit for a green building?

(A) 20 – 30 % energy used

(B) 20 – 30 % less water used
(C) Enhance asset value
(D) None of the above

Which of the following is not an environment benefit for a green building?

(A) To reduce use of water

(B) Reduce solid waste
(C) Decrease air quality
(D) None of the above

Which of the following is a disadvantage of green building?

(A) Increases 15-20% cost as compared to normal building

(B) Modern techniques are required
(C) Experts technicians are required
(D) All of the above

Which of the following is not a green building component?

(A) Water efficiency

(B) Design efficiency
(C) Material efficiency
(D) None of the above

Which of the following benefit is for green building material?

(A) Lower cost

(B) Reduced maintenance cost
(C) Greater design flexibility
(D) All of the above

Which of the following green rating systems are currently working in India?

(A) LEED
(B) GRIHA
(C) Both A and B
(D) None of the above

LEED means___

(A) Leadership in Energy and Environmental Document

(B) Leadership in Energy and Environmental Design
(C) Leadership in Energy and Efficiency Document
(D) Leadership in Energy and Efficiency Design

LEED gives rating in form___

(A) Platinum
(B) Gold
(C) Silver
(D) All of the above
GRIHA means that___

(A) Green Rating for Integrated Habital Assessment

(B) Green Rating for Information Habital Assessment
(C) Green Rating for Indian Habital Assessment
(D) Green Rating for International Habital Assessment

When GRIHA was launched in india?

(A) 2001
(B) 2008
(C) 2010
(D) 2011

GRIHA has been prepared by ___

(A) USGBC
(B) TERI
(C) LEED
(D) None of the above

When LEED was launched in india?

(A) 2001
(B) 2008
(C) 2010
(D) 2011

Full name of TERI is___

(A) The Energy and Resources Institute

(B) The Energy and Rating Institute
(C) The Energy and Resources India
(D) The Environmental and Resources Institute

Full form of IGBC is that___

(A) International Green Building Council

(B) International Green Building Control
(C) Indian Green Building Council
(D) Indian Green Building Control

What rating did the Government of India make mandatory for government buildings in 2010?

(A) GRIHA - 2 Star

(B) GRIHA – 3 Star
(C) Gold
(D) Platinum
ADARSH means___

(A) Association for Design and Research of Sustainable Habitas

(B) Association for Development and Rating of Sustainable Habitas
(C) Association for Development and Research of Sustainable Habitas
(D) Association for Design and Rating of Sustainable Habitas

Which rating star is given by GRIHA for points between 71 – 80?

(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4

How many set of criteria formulated by GRIHA for rating the building?

(A) 31
(B) 32
(C) 33
(D) 34

LCA means that___

(A) Life Cycle Assessment

(B) Life Council Assessment
(C) Life Cycle Association
(D) Local Cycle Assessment

LCA associated with a___

(A) Product
(B) Process
(C) Service
(D) All of the above

Which of the following assessments is made by LCA throughout the life of a building?

(A) Use of building

(B) Transportation of construction material
(C) Disposal of surplus waste material
(D) All of the above

Which of the following phases is not a LCA process?

(A) Life cycle inventory

(B) Life cycle impact assessment
(C) Life cycle interpretation
(D) None of the above
Which of the following are not a benefits for LCA?

(A) Does not improvement in the quality of environment

(B) To know about Eco-friendly materials
(C) Promotion to recycle and reuse of waste materials
(D) None of the above

Which of the following are not a measure for a green building?

(A) Use B-rated elements that save energy

(B) Install solar panels for lighting or heating water
(C) Install water meters in a building
(D) None of the above

1. Does the CO2 that you produce each year – through your daily activities like driving a car, washing
the dishes, heating your home, etc. – weigh more than you do?

Yes

No

The answer is Yes. If you weigh less than 7.5 tons.

2. Recycling actually costs more than it saves.

True

False

The answer is False.

3. To make sure you purchase the most energy-efficient appliances, you should look for (choose one):

A. The Appliance Efficiency Label

B. The Energy Star Label

C. The Good Housekeeping Seal

D. The Green House Label

The answer is B - The Energy Star Label.

4. Enough sunlight falls on the earth in one minute to power the world’s entire energy needs for
(choose one):

A. One minute

B. One day

C. One month

D. One year
The answer is D - One year.

5. Photovoltaic systems (choose one):

A. Convert sunlight to CO2

B. Convert sunlight to electricity

C. Convert sunlight to hot water

D. Convert sunlight to steam

The answer is B - Convert sunlight to electricity.

6. Picture a gallon of milk. How many gallons of water do you think the average American use each
day?

A. Less than 20

B. 20 - 40

C. 40 - 80

D. 80 -100

The answer is D - 80 - 100.

7. What do you think uses the most household water?

A. Car washing

B. Dish washing

C. Showers and baths

D. Toilet flushing

The answer is D - Toilet flushing.

8. The mantra that is the heart and soul of green living is “Reduce, Reuse and:

A. Recycle

B. Refrain

C. Repair

D. Restore

The answer is A - Recycle.

9. LEED is a building rating system developed and maintained by:

A. The New Jersey Board of Public Utilities

B. The US Department of Energy

C. The US Environmental Protection Agency

D. The US Green Building Council

The answer is D - The US Green Building Council.

According to the textbook, sustainable development is defined as meeting the needs of the present by
compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs.

True

False

Which of the following is NOT emphasized in sustainable development according to the textbook?

Environmental quality

Electronic information

Economic prosperity

Community well-being

According to the text, characteristics of sustainable communities include

public spaces

controlled growth

mixed uses

all of the above

only a and b

According to the textbook, if the building is oriented correctly, sunlight will provide solar heating gain
in the winter and minimize overheating from southern summer sunlight.

True

False

Green building considers the cost of the material as well as the energy used to create the product such
as mining, harvesting, processing and transporting it to the site.

True
 False

According to the textbook, sustainable buildings

use durable materials and products

use recycled and reused materials

use renewable resources

all of the above

only a and c

Passive solar design is most effective in colder climates when?

The building's long axis runs north and south

The largest amount of windows face west

The most used rooms are located on the west side of the building

Garages are located on the east side of the building

All of the above

None of the above

According to the textbook, by reducing local energy consumption, efficient buildings can also reduce
air pollution.

True

False.

According to the textbook, window performance is measured by which of the following?

Solar Heat Gain Coefficient (SHGC)

Visible Transmittance (VT)

Condensation Resistance (CR)

U-value

All of the above

None of the above

According to the text, the easiest way to determine the efficiency of appliance and energy equipment
is to

read and compare energy information found on labels

 compare energy bills before and after the use of the new appliance

install it yourself

rely on brand names

According to the text, in comparison to a standard incandescent lamp, compact fluorescent lighting
(CFLs)

can last up to ten times longer

consumes 90% less electricity

can produce ten times more light per watt

all of above

none of above

According to the chapter, evergreen trees, shrubs, vines or fences can create buffers from the winter
wind when placed on the _____ side(s) of a house.

north

south

east

west

both a and d

both b and c

According to the text, when designing a water-wise landscape, careful attention should be paid to
which of the following

Storm water and run-off management

Plant selection and placement

Mulch

All of the above

None of the above

According to the text, creating a healthy building includes careful consideration of only outdoor
environmental quality issues.

True

False
According to the U.S. Department of Energy, using natural resources such as energy and water
efficiently is an element of sustainable buildings.

True

False

When constructing a sustainable building, which of the following measures can be taken to protect
the building site?

Consolidate parking, waste disposal, cleanup efforts and the stockpile for topsoil and recyclables
all in one area

Require contractors to describe how they will protect the site

Require contractors to sign a compliance agreement that requires dollar compensation if any
trees, bushes or grasses are damaged

All of the above

Only b and c

None of the above

Active solar design can include which of the following?

Solar hot water heaters

Solar outdoor lights

Photovoltaic cells

All of the above

Only a and b

None of the above

Resource efficient landscaping should reduce maintenance by

dispersing plants throughout the lawn area

planting grass in thin strips

both of the above

none of the above

Sustainable communities replace historic buildings with more energy efficient structures.

True

False
In many communities, sustainability is not incorporated into planning because decisions are made in a
piecemeal fashion.

True

False

1. Carbon footprint can be measured by:

a) Carbon dating

b) Instruments

c) Carbon accounting

d) Formula

Answer: c

Explanation: Carbon footprint is the total set of greenhouse gas emissions caused by an individual,
event, organisation or product. It is expressed as carbon dioxide equivalent. It can be measured by
assessment of GHG (greenhouse gas) levels or activities like carbon accounting.

2. How many types of ecological pyramids are there?

a) 3

b) 2

c) 4

d) 5

Answer: a

Explanation: Ecological pyramid is a graphical representation used to show bio productivity at each
trophic level. The three types are the pyramid of energy, pyramid of numbers and pyramid of biomass.

3. A legally binding agreement between 2 or more nation states relating to environment is:

a) BEA

b) BA

c) MA

d) MEA

Answer: d

Explanation: MEA stand for Multilateral Environmental Agreement. When it is between 2 nation states,
it is BEA – Bilateral Environmental Agreement. These are predominantly produced by the United
Nations.
4. _________ is a programme run by UN related to sustainable development.

a) GHG indicator

b) Agenda 21

c) IPCC

d) UNEP

Answer: b

Explanation: Agenda 21 is a comprehensive blueprint of action to be taken globally, nationally and

locally by governments of member nations of UN and those major groups in every area in which humans
impact on the environment.

5. For a gold LEED certification, how many points are required?

a) 40-49

b) 60-79

c) 50-59

d) 80-110

Answer: b

Explanation: LEED is Leadership in Energy and Environmental Design. It has four levels – certified (40-49
points), silver (50-59), gold (60-79) and platinum (80-110 points).

6. Which of the below green building in India has received a platinum LEED certification?

a) Dabur India, Chandigarh

b) Logix Cyber Park, UP

c) Unitech Commercial Tower, Chandigarh

d) Suzlon One Earth, Pune

Answer: d

Explanation: This building can accommodate 2300 people, has used low energy materials, thus reducing
carbon footprint. 90% of occupied space has access to natural daylight.

7. ________ is the conventional source for hydel power.

a) Tidal wave

b) Currents

c) Water
d) Ripples

Answer: c

Explanation: Hydel power is obtained from a high velocity of running water. It is abundantly present. It is
used for a longer period of time. It is an exceptional case of conventional energy.

8. The first academic publication about ecological footprints was in:

a) 1992

b) 1990

c) 1993

d) 1994

Answer: a

Explanation: William Rees published the first ecological footprint in 1992. The concept and calculation
was developed as the PhD dissertation of Mathis Wackernagel under Rees’ supervision from 1990-1994.

9. Which of the below is a global scale environmental issue?

a) Eutrophication

b) Regional ozone

c) Climate change

d) Pollution

Answer: c

Explanation: These are three scales of environmental issues – local, regional and global. Climate change,
global warming, stratospheric ozone less, etc. are all issues at a global level.

10. Carbon can be stored in organic matter in the form of:

a) Biomass

b) Biofuel

c) Bioenergy

d) Bio carbon

Answer: a

Explanation: It is stored in the roots of trees and organic matter for decades in the form of biomass. The
carbon from these are released into the atmosphere on decomposition.

11. The ‘Miracle Material’ that can turn CO2 into liquid fuel is:
a) Propene

b) Copper

c) Graphene

d) Potassium

Answer: c

1. How much money does Sick Building Syndrome cost businesses each year?

1. $100 million
2. $500 million
3. $10 billion
4. $200 billion
.
2. Which of the following does NOT describe Building-Related Illness (BRI)?

1. Symptoms improve rapidly after leaving the suspected building environment.

2. Symptoms include coughing, chest tightness, fevers, chills and muscle aches that.
3. BRI symptoms have been clinically defined.
4. Specific treatment can be prescribed for these illnesses.
.
3. Good indoor air quality requires which of the following?
1. Temperature – Maintained at comfortable levels for occupant activities.
2. Humidity – The amount of moisture in the air responsible for “dry” or “stuffy”.
3. Ventilation – Introduction of new air into an indoor space
4. Indoor Air Pollutants – Monitored and controlled to maintain occupant health and comfort.
5. All of the above.
.
4. How quickly can mold start to grow after a water event?
1. 12 hours
2. 24 hours
3. 48 hours
4. 72 hours
.
5. True or False: Sick Building Syndrome (SBS) can be diagnosed by a doctor.

1. True
2. False
.
6.Which product category is least likely to contain formaldehyde?
1. Paints & Coating
2. Solid Wood Furnishings
3. Engineered wood flooring
4. Carpeting
.
7. True or False: You will notice any water event serious enough to cause mold growth.
1. True
2. False
.
8. True or False: Old buildings are more likely to encourage mold growth.

1. True
2. False
.
9. What percentage of people suffer from allergies?

1. 10%
2. 20%
3. 50%
4. 70%
.
10. Which of the following products is best for improving Indoor Air Quality?
1. Air Fresheners
2. Candles
3. Cleaning products
4. None of the above
.
11. True or False: Indoor air is cleaner than outdoor air.

1. True
2. False
.
12. During which season(s) do we receive the most Indoor Air Quality complaints?

1. Winter
2. Spring
3. Summer
4. Fall
.
13. Which of the following elements contribute to poor IAQ?
1. Chemicals – Found in building materials, office equipment, pesticides and cleaning products
2. Environmental Contaminants –Radon, Asbestos, Carbon Monoxide
3. Particles – Sources include outdoor air, consumer product emissions and indoor activities like
cooking
4. Microbes – Fungi and mold spores
5. Pests – Dust mites, cockroaches, mice and other indoor pests
6. All of the Above
.
14. Which chemical is responsible for the “fresh new” smell you experience in new cars, homes and
buildings?

1. Toluene
2. Ethylene glycol
3. Benzene
4. Formaldehyde
.
15. How does poor IAQ affect children in school?

1. Decreased attendance due to asthma & allergies

2. Reduced attention span and focus
3. Decreased overall performance in the classroom
4. Increased ADHD symptoms
5. All of the above

1. In a code-compliant building envelope, the most heat loss (per-square-foot) will occur through
the:
A) Walls
B) Windows
C) Roof
D) Floor

2. True or False: The heat loss per-hour through infiltration can be as high or even higher than
conductive heat loss through the entire building envelope?
A) True
B) False

3. Which of the following statements is NOT correct?

A) Higher R-values means better insulation
B) Thermal mass does not equate to better insulation
C) Heat loss increases with more severe outdoor temperatures
D) Higher U-factors mean better insulation

4. Which of the following is NOT true with regard to “cool roofs”?

A) They typically exhibit a low Solar Reflectance Index (SRI)
B) They tend to emit heat at a high rate
C) hey usually exhibit a high solar reflectance
D) They can help reduce the urban heat island effect

5. Which of the following terms can be described as the condition when a more conductive (i.e.,
poorly insulating) material permits an easier pathway for heat to flow across a thermal barrier?
A) Solar heat gain coefficient
B) Heat capacity
C) Thermal bridge
D) Infiltration
6. True or False: When it comes to insulating a wall or a roof, after a certain point there is a
diminishing return on increasing the total R-value.
A) True
B) False

7. Building wraps typically establish which TWO of the following envelope “barriers”?
A) Air barrier
B) Vapor barrier
C) Thermal barrier
D) Bulk water barrier

8. What is NOT one of the three basic forms of heat transfer in the built environment?
A) Capacity
B) Convection
C) Conduction
D) Radiation
9. Which of the following is NOT a basic potential energy-related function of the building envelope?
A) Solar energy collection or reflectance
B) Thermal energy storage
C) Reduction of heat transfer
D) Admission of light/views
E) Sound transmission

10. Which of the following building materials is the most thermally massive (i.e., exhibits the
highest thermal storage capacity)?
A) Brick
B) Concrete
C) Adobe
D) Gypsum

Q. Unwanted material arising from strip out of an existing structure

Excavation Waste

Construction Waste

Demolition Waste

Solid Waste

Q. Unwanted material resulting from reduced level dig and site preparation and levelling, and
the digging of foundations, tunnels, and service trenches, typically consisting of soils and stones
Excavation Waste

Construction Waste

Demolition Waste
Solid Waste

Q. When considering a recyclable construction waste material, three major areas are taken into
account except
Economy

Compatibility with other materials

Size

Material properties

Q. According to EU definitions, ________________ (and other naturally occurring material)

excavated in the course of construction activities, where it is certain that the material will be
used for the purposes of construction in its natural state on the site from which it was excavated,
is not considered as a waste
Uncontaminated stones

Uncontaminated wood

Uncontaminated gravel

Uncontaminated soil

Q. Aggregates can be classified into

Primary, Secondary, Tertiary

Primary, Recycled, Organic

Primary, Secondary, Recycled

Organic, Inorganic, Recycled

Q. Typical waste components include the following

Cement concrete, asphalt concrete, wood, metal

Cement concrete, asphalt concrete, wood, plastic

Asphalt concrete, wood, metal, metal, plastic, soil

All of the above

Q. Millions of tons of waste concrete are generated every year around the world due to following
reasons:

I. Creation of cement, plywood, metal for buildings, bridges, and roads

II. Demolition of old structure

III. Deconstruction of buildings and structures during earthquakes and wars

IV. Removal of useless concrete from structures, buildings, road pavements etc

V. Waste concrete generated due to concrete cube and cylinder testing, destructive methods of
testing of existing structures etc

answer choices
V.

II. III.

I. II. III. IV.

II. III. IV. V.

Q. Approximately how much waste material from a construction site is recyclable

100%

90%

80%

50%

Q. In what country was the first demolition waste recycling carried out due to high volumes of
demolition wastes accumulated
USA

China

Germany

Japan

Q. Which among the following is the most expected waste in site clearance
Rock

Concrete

Cement

Steel

Q. Asbestos, an ingredient used in fire-resistant construction material, causes which of the

following diseases?
Lung Cancer

Glaucoma

Skin Cancer

Stroke

Q. The type/s of demolition that can maximize the separation and recovery of recyclable
materials, but is not always feasible.
Manual

Mechanical

Both A and B

None of the above

Q. Which of the following is not part of proper waste disposal?

Crushing of asbestos-containing materials

Contacting the Environmental Protection Agency prior to demolition

Non-RACM materials disposed in accredited construction and demolition waste landfills

Burning of lead pipe, solder, and paint wastes

Q. How much construction and demolition debris make up the waste received at many landfill
sites around the world?
10%-30%

30%-40%

40%-50%

50%-60%

Q. Contaminants that are soluble and mobile can potentially be absorbed into porous building
materials. These contaminants are most likely to be present in groundwater.
Mixed Contamination

Surface Contamination

Absorbed Contamination

None of the above

1. Which of the following is a disadvantage of renewable energy?
a) High pollution
b) Available only in few places
c) High running cost
d) Unreliable supply
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Renewable energy often relies on the weather for its sources of power. Hydro
generators need rain to fill dams and thereby provide electricity. Wind turbines need wind to turn
the blades. Solar collectors need clear skies and sunshine.

2. A Solar cell is an electrical device that converts the energy of light directly into electricity by
the ____________
a) Photovoltaic effect
b) Chemical effect
c) Atmospheric effect
d) Physical effect
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The photovoltaic effect was first discovered in 1839 by Edmond Becquerel. The
hotovoltaic effect is a process that generates voltage or electric current in a photovoltaic cell
when it is exposed to sunlight.

3. Wood is a renewable resource.

a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Wood is a renewable resource. Trees can be replanted and grown to maturity in
place of those that are cut down. When the trees are replanted at the same rate as they are cut
down, wood will be a renewable resource. Rainforests are said to be non-renewable because they
take thousands of years to re-grow.

4. In hydroelectric power, what is necessary for the production of power throughout the year?
a) Dams filled with water
b) High amount of air
c) High intense sunlight
d) Nuclear power
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Dams are used for power generation. The reservoir water is stored at a higher level
than the turbines, which are housed in a power station. The dam feed water directly to the
turbines in the power station.

5. The main composition of biogas is _______________

a) Methane
b) Carbon dioxide
c) Nitrogen
d) Hydrogen
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Biogas is one of the types of bio fuel that is produced from the decomposition of
organic waste. Biogas is known as the environmentally-friendly energy source since it is
converting organic waste into energy. The composition of biogas is as follows: – Methane 50-
75%, Carbon dioxide 25-50%, Nitrogen 0-10%, Hydrogen 0-1%.

6. Which Ministry is mainly responsible for research and development in renewable energy
sources such as wind power, small hydro, biogas and solar power?
a) Human Resource Development
b) Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
c) Ministry of New and Renewable Energy
d) Health and Family Welfare
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Ministry of New and Renewable Energy is a ministry of the Government of India.
The ministry is working to develop renewable energy for supplementing the energy requirements
of India. It is headquartered in Lodhi Road, New Delhi.

7. Which among the following have a large amount of installed grid interactive renewable power
capacity in India?
a) Wind power
b) Solar power
c) Biomass power
d) Small Hydro power
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Wind power having capacity 29000 MW holds 56.8%, Solar power having capacity
9500 MW holds 18.5%, Biomass power having capacity 8200 MW holds 16%, Small Hydro
power having capacity 4400 MW holds 8.5%.

8. The world’s first 100% solar powered airport located at ____________

a) Cochin, Kerala
b) Bengaluru, Karnataka
c) Chennai, Tamil Nadu
d) Mumbai, Maharashtra
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Cochin International airport, the fourth-largest airport in India in terms of
international traffic, now runs entirely on solar power. Cochin International Airport became the
world’s first fully solar powered airport on 18 August 2015.

9. Which of the following is not under the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy?
a) Wind energy
b) Solar energy
c) Tidal energy
d) Large hydro
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: According to a recent survey large hydro installed capacity was 44.41 GW. The
large hydro is administered separately by the Ministry of Power and not included in Ministry of
New and Renewable Energy.

10. Where is the largest Wind Farm located in India?

a) Jaisalmer Wind Park, Rajasthan
b) Muppandal Wind Farm, Tamil Nadu
c) Vaspet Wind Farm, Maharashtra
d) Chakala Wind Farm, Maharashtra
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Muppandal Wind Farm produces 1500 MW of current capacity. Muppandal Wind
Farm is the second largest onshore wind farm in the world. This Wind Farm supplies power to
many regions in Tamil Nadu.

11. Nuclear Energy is a Renewable Energy.

a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: No, Nuclear Energy is not a Renewable Energy. Nuclear Energy is produced in
Nuclear power plant. Nuclear power plant uses uranium as nuclear fuel to generate electricity
during the nuclear fission reaction. Uranium is a finite resource, so we can’t consider the nuclear
energy produced by uranium in a nuclear reactor as a renewable energy source.

12. Which Indian enterprise has the Motto “ENERGY FOREVER”?

a) Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency
b) Indian Non-Renewable Energy Development
c) Indian Agricultural Development
d) Indian Biotechnology Development
View Answer

Answer:a
Explanation: Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency established in 1987 as Non-
Banking Financial Institution. It is engaged in promoting, developing and extending financial
assistance for setting up projects which are relating to new and renewable sources of energy.

1. A non-renewable resource is a finite resource.

a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: A non-renewable resource does not renew itself or which can’t be regenerated after
it is used. If we have used it once, we will not be able to reuse or recycle it for the second time.
Some of the examples of non-renewable resources are Earth minerals, fossil fuels etc.

2. Which of the below theory is related to non-renewable resources?

a) Game Theory
b) Phlogiston Theory
c) Big Bang Theory
d) Hotelling’s Theory
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: This theory is proposed by Harold Hotelling. This theory states that owners of non-
renewable resources will only produce a supply of their product if it will yield more value when
compared to other financial instruments available to them on market like bonds and interest
bearing securities.

3. Bill Gates, Chairman of the Board for Terra Power Company is associated in which of the
following non-renewable resources?
a) Earth minerals
b) Fossil fuels
c) Nuclear energy
d) Metal ores
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Terra Power is a nuclear energy technology company based in Bellevue,
Washington. It works to raise global living standards by creating new forms of energy. The
primary technology of this company is Traveling wave reactor. It activities are in the fields of
nuclear energy and related sciences, which are yielding significant innovations in the safety and
economics of nuclear power and hybrid-energy.
4. The below schematic diagram represents which life cycle?

a) Carbon Life Cycle

b) Earth minerals Life Cycle
c) Phosphorus Life Cycle
d) Fossil Fuel Life Cycle
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: In the Fossil Fuel Life Cycle various processes take place. Raw material, its
discovery and extraction followed by the combustion of the raw material in order to generate
necessary energy. While generating energy many harmful particles release to the atmosphere
causing pollution.

5. The primary composition of coal is _______________

a) Nitrogen
b) Carbon
c) Oxygen
d) Hydrogen
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Coal is a naturally found fossil fuel formed by the anaerobic decay of plant life
taking place over millions of years. It is extracted from the underground by coal mining. The
primary composition of coal is carbon while nitrogen, oxygen, and hydrogen comes under
secondary composition.

6. Which Ministry is mainly responsible for refining, distribution, import, export of petroleum
products and natural gas in India?
a) Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas
b) Ministry of Fossil Fuel
c) Ministry of Non-Renewable Energy
d) Ministry of Oil
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas is a ministry of the Government of India.
The ministry is working to develop the exploration and exploitation of petroleum resources for
supplementing the energy requirements of India. At present the ministry is headed by the Cabinet
Minister Dharmendra Pradhan (2014-Incumbent).

7. Where is the first oil well drilled in Asia?

a) Karachi, Pakistan
b) Assam, India
c) Tokyo, Japan
d) Kandy, Sri Lanka
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Oil deposits were first discovered in Assam-Arrakan Basin at Digboi in 1889. In
1901, Asia’s first oil refinery was set at Digboi in Assam. Digboi is the oldest oil well operating
in India. In order to look after the oil business in this area, Assam Oil Company was formed in
1899.

8. The most abundantly available fossil fuel in India is _____________

a) Coal
b) Natural Gas
c) Petroleum
d) Oil
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Coal is the most abundantly available fossil fuel in India. There are different forms
of coal available they are, 1) Peat: Peat is produced by the decaying of plants in swamps. 2)
Bituminous: It derives its name after liquid called bitumen. 3) Lignite: This form is used to
produce electricity. 4) Anthracite: It has more than 90% carbon content per kg and it is the best
quality coal.

9. Which of the following nonrenewable energy is not classified under a fossil fuel?
a) Nuclear
b) Petroleum
c) Oil
d) Natural gas
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Nuclear energy is not a fossil fuel. Fossil fuels are based on materials that, a very
long time ago were living animal or trees. Uranium used as fuel in nuclear power plants was
never a living thing, thus Nuclear energy is not classified under fossil fuel.

10. The major non-renewable energy usage in India is___________

a) Coal
b) Petroleum and other liquids
c) Natural gas
d) Nuclear
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Around 50% of India’s commercial energy demand is met through the country’s
vast coal reserves. Coal is cheaper than petroleum. For industrial progress cheap energy is
necessity for this coal comes into picture. Due to huge presence of coal reserve it remains as the
most important source of energy usage in India.

11. Natural gas is a non-renewable energy.

a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Yes, natural gas is a non-renewable energy. It takes millions of years to form once
it is converted into energy. Natural gas is used as a fuel for vehicles. It is found in deep
underground rock and some of them are found in coal beds.

12. How many Nuclear power stations are there in India?

a) 5
b) 6
c) 7
d) 8
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: There are 7 nuclear power stations are here in India they are, 1) Tarapur having
total capacity of 1400 MW, 2) Rawatbhata having total capacity of 1180 MW, 3) Kudankulam
having total capacity of 2000MW, 4) Kaiga having total capacity of 880 MW, 5) Kakrapar
having total capacity of 440 MW, 6) Kalpakkam having total capacity of 440 MW, 7) Narora
having total capacity of 440 MW.

1. Which Indian state is the largest producer of gold?

a) Karnataka
b) Kerala
c) Assam
d) Goa
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Karnataka is the largest producer of gold in India. The Kolar Gold Fields which is
located in Kolar which was one of the largest producers of gold in India was shut down.
Presently there are two main gold mines located in Karnataka they are Hutti and Raichur gold
mines which produce almost 84% of India’s gold.

2. For the policy level guidelines for mineral sector, which policy is formed?
a) National Resources Policy
b) National Mineral Policy
c) National Regulation Policy
d) National Legislation Policy
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: National Mineral Policy was started in 1993. The main aim of this policy is
liberalization of the mining sector and to encouraging the flow of investment especially in
private investment and mining. In the 2008 reform it address in the areas of mining sector.

3. According to 2012 survey India is the largest producer of _____________

a) Iron ore
b) Bauxite
c) Sheet mica
d) Manganese ore
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The largest producer of sheet mica is India. India is the third largest producer of
iron ore. India is the fifth largest producer of bauxite in the world. India is the seventh largest
producer of manganese ore in the world.

4. India is the largest producer and exporter of mica in the world.

a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: India is the largest producer and exporter of mica. India accounts for almost 60% of
the net mica production in the whole world. India export mica to many countries like Japan,
United States of America, United Kingdom and many more countries.

5. Which state in India is the largest producer of diamond ores?

a) Karnataka
b) West Bengal
c) Rajasthan
d) Madhya Pradesh
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Madhya Pradesh is the only state in India which produce diamond. The unit used to
measure diamond is Carats. Diamond is classified under non-metallic mineral. The largest
project of diamond in India is the Bunder project which is located in Madhya Pradesh.

6. The copper production in India to that of world’s production is about_________%

a) 10%
b) 2%
c) 0.5%
d) 0.2%
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Copper production in India is just about 0.2% in the world. But still, in the
production rate it is still within the top 20 countries in the world. Copper mining production is
about 0.2% but refined copper production is 4% of word’s production.

7. The state which is having largest deposit of thorium in India is_________

a) Tamil Nadu
b) Jharkhand
c) Kerala
d) Andhra Pradesh
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: In India thorium is located in a contiguous belt of eastern coastal states. Andhra
Pradesh accounts 31% of total thorium occurrence, whereas Tamil Nadu has 21%, Kerala has
16%, and Jharkhand has 2% of total thorium occurrence in India.

8. Which state is largest producer of chromite ore in India?

a) Kerala
b) Karnataka
c) Tamil Nadu
d) Orissa
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: India accounts 18% of the world’s chromite resources. In India largest resources of
chromite is found in the Orissa state. Orissa has above 95% of the total chromite ore resource
found in India. Karnataka is the second largest producer of chromite in India.

9. The term ‘Rat hole mining’ is used in which mining?

a) Gold
b) Silver
c) Coal
d) Copper
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Rat hole mining is used in coal mining because of the sizes of holes. This type of
mining is carried out in the state Meghalaya. In this type, mining is done by digging small holes
into the ground like holes dug by rats. This type of mining is generally done illegal.

10. The position of India in terms of production of Aluminium is________

a) 4th
b) 3rd
c) 2nd
d) 1st
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: India stands 4th position in the aluminium production in the world. China stands 1st
position in the aluminium production in the world. Russia in 2nd place. Canada stands in 3rd
place. The aluminium production in India is around 2750 tonnes.

11. Steel is a mineral.

a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: No, Steel is not a mineral. Minerals are the naturally occurring substances which
are usually solid or inorganic which is obtained from mining. But steel is an alloy of iron and
other elements and steel don’t exist in natural rock.

12. Kudremukh hills which is known for iron ore deposit is situated in ____________
a) Kerala
b) Karnataka
c) Goa
d) Tamil Nadu
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Kudremukh which is known as an iron ore mining town is located in
Chikkamagaluru district in Karnataka state. The government runs an iron ore company known as
Kudremukh Iron Ore Company Ltd(KIOCL).

Where does India stand on solar energy production?

a) First
b) Third
c) Fifth
d) Seventh
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Based on total PV installed capacity India ranks seventh in the solar production
which is stated by International Energy Agency (IEA). First position is taken by China, third by
Germany, fifth by Italy and seventh by India with the total production of 9000 MW.

2. India’s position in the Global Wind Energy Council (GWEC) is_________

a) fourth
b) third
c) second
d) first
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: According to Global Wind Energy Council in 2016 India ranked fourth in the
Global Wind Power Installed Capacity Index with cumulative installed wind power generation.
This gives the capacity of 28700 MW with the world’s share of around 6%.

3. Which country leads in the production of biofuel in the world?

a) United States of America
b) Brazil
c) Germany
d) Argentina
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The United States is the largest producer of biofuel in the world, accounting to 42%
of global biofuel production. The United States produced 31 metric tons of oil equivalents, while
Brazil which stands second in the production of biofuel produced 18 million metric tons of oil
equivalents.

4. India is placed within the top 25 nations, in terms of oil production in the world.
a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: India stands in the 24th position in terms of oil production in the world. The total
amount of oil produced in India is 734,180 Barrel per day (bbl/day). Whereas the first three place
go to Russia, Saudi Arabia and United States respectively.

5. The Arab states of the Persian Gulf are known for the production of ___________
a) Coal
b) Copper
c) Gold
d) Petroleum
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The Arab states of the Persian Gulf are the seven states in Arab which border the
Persian Gulf, namely Iraq, Bahrain, Kuwait, Oman, Qatar, Saudi Arabia and UAE. All these
Arab states have significant production of petroleum. There GDP is highly depending on the
production of petroleum.

6. India stands in the first position, in the production of coal in the world.
a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: India stands second position in the production of coal in the world. China stands in
the first position in the production of coal in the world. According to 2016 survey India produces
3,411 million tons of coal, whereas China produces 7,461 million tons of coal.

7. Which country produces the largest share of electricity generated by nuclear power?
a) India
b) France
c) China
d) Japan
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: France produces the largest share of electricity generated by nuclear power. France
accounts 75% of total electricity produced by nuclear power. India stands in the 27TH position
with 306% of total electricity produced by nuclear power.

8. Total primary energy consumption of fuel in the world is lead by ___________

a) Coal
b) Nuclear
c) Hydro
d) Oil
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Consumption of primary energy of fuel in the world is lead by oil with the
consumption of 33%. The consumption of coal is 30%. The consumption of Nuclear is 4%. The
consumption of hydro is 7%.

9. India’s energy consumption growth in 2016 is_________

a) 3.6%
b) 4.6%
c) 2.9%
d) 1.5%
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Many countries energy consumption has seriously slowed overed few years. But
India is managed to increased its consumption growth. One of the main reason for the increase in
energy consumption growth in India is the decision took for continued to support world energy
consumption.

10. Which is the world’s biggest oil consuming country?

a) United States of America
b) Japan
c) India
d) China
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The United States is the largest consumer of oil in the world, accounting 20% of
global oil production. The United States consumed 18.5 million barrels of oil per day, while
Japan stands third, India in fourth place and China in second place.

11. State true or false. Nordic countries consumption of energy per capita is among the highest in
the world.
a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Nordic countries are the countries which are situated in Northern Europe and the
North Atlantic. The Nordic countries generate only moderate emission levels of greenhouse
gases compared to other developed countries. This is related to their lower dependency on fossil
fuels. However, their consumption of energy per capita is among the highest in the world.

12. The world’s top consuming country of domestically produced hydroelectricity is

___________
a) India
b) Brazil
c) China
d) Japan
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: China is the largest consumption of hydroelectricity in the world. It consumed 163
million tonnes of oil-equivalent(mtoe) which is of 6.7% of its total energy consumption. India
consumes 25 mtoe, Brazil consumes 90 mtoe, Japan consumes 19 mtoe.

13. India stands first position in the consumption of electricity in the world.
a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: India stands third position in the consumption of electricity in the world. China
stands in the first position in the consumption of electricity in the world. According to 2016
survey India consumes 1,408,624,400,000 KiloWatt Hours per year(kW-h/yr).

14. India’s total primary energy consumption is ____________

a) 24.3 BTU
b) 19.01 BTU
c) 120 BTU
d) 30.1 BTU
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: According to 2014 estimation India’s total primary energy consumption is 24.3
BTU, China consumes 120 BTU, Japan consumes 19.01 BTU, Russia consumes 30.1 BTU.
India’s energy consumption is increasing exponentially due to the large population of the
country.

. What is the cause of discoloration in fresh water?

a) Fungal bloom
b) Viral bloom
c) An algae bloom
d) Bacterial bloom
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Algae blooms are the most common problems encountered by fresh water bodies
like lake and pond. Certain forms of algae may harbor toxins. By mechanical and physical
intervention we can keep the fresh water clean and clear.

2. The Great Smog in 1952 caused in which city?

a) Delhi
b) Lahore
c) London
d) New York
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In 1952 severe air pollution caused in London. It combined with an anticyclone
cold weather, windless conditions and collected air borne pollutants which are raised from the
use of coal. This is one of the clear example of deforestation and lack of fresh air.

3. In which forest we can see deforestation to large extent?

a) Atlantic forest
b) Amazon forest
c) Borneo forest
d) Sumatra forest
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: According to World Wildlife report Amazon forest is the region where we can see
more number of deforestation than any other region. Amazon forest which is the world’s largest
forest is also the site of the biggest projected loss due to deforestation.

4. Due to deforestation the pure air that we intake became less in its availability.
a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The air humans and other animals consume is oxygen. Trees release oxygen when
they use energy from sunlight to male glucose from carbon dioxide and water. But due to
deforestation there is a lack of trees which thereby reduced the air production and this also cause
increase in carbon dioxide level.

5. The biggest driver of deforestation is_______________

a) Agriculture
b) Forest fire
c) Volcanic activities
d) Soil erosion
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The biggest driver of deforestation is Agriculture. This is due to, farmers cut forests
to provide more space for planting crops. The other reason is grazing livestock. The process of
burning of trees by cutting them is known as slash agriculture.

6. The best way to reduce deforestation is by_________________

a) Using more paper
b) Clear more area of trees to grow plant
c) Burning forest in order to create cultivated land
d) Clear more area of plants to grow trees
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: In order to reduce deforestation we need to make sure it is possible only by growing
more number of trees. The large trees will make dense forest and by this only we can able to
avoid deforestation. All the other options create deforestation.

7. Due to deforestation how much fields worth of trees is lost per minute?
a) 12 football
b) 24 football
c) 36 football
d) 48 football
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: According to World Wildlife Fund about 36 football fields worth of trees lost every
minute. It’s due to various reasons like agriculture, for logging, for bio fuels, for the construction
of roads, mining etc.

8. Rain forest land is most often cleared for___________

a) Pasture
b) Forest fire
c) Human activities
d) High pressure
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: In rain forest land is majorly losing its land due to human activities. Large areas of
rain forest are being cut down often in order to remove just a few logs. Rain forest is being
destroyed at double the rate than ever. There is a very high rate of extinction.

9. The main cause of wildfire is____________

a) Volcanic activity
b) Lightening
c) Pollution
d) Human activity
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Human beings are the number one cause of wildfires. Many of these wildfires are
caused by cigarette butts being left on the land. Some of the man made causes of wildfires are,
burning debris, arson, equipment failure, unattended campfires.

10. Which nation is most affected by deforestation?

a) Honduras
b) Indonesia
c) Benin
d) Ghana
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Honduras is the nation which is most affected by deforestation. In Honduras, 37%
of forest land is lost due to deforestation. Whereas Indonesia, Benin and Ghana saw a decline of
26%, 31%, 28% respectively.

11. Deforestation is a good process.

a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: No, deforestation is not a good process. Deforestation clears the forest area which
directly effects animals and environment. Though there are some advantages of deforestation
like agricultural practices and create an opportunity to graze animals. But instead of this, we can
use alternative methods in order to save forest.

12. Which type of farming cause more amount of deforestation?

a) Subsistence farming
b) Commercial farming
c) Mixed farming
d) Dairy farming
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: According to the United Nations Framework Convention on climate change, the
direct cause of deforestation is agriculture. In agriculture, Subsistence farming is responsible for
48% of deforestation and commercial farming is responsible for 32%.

. Based on the volume of fill which is the largest man made dam in the world?
a) Tarbela Dam
b) Fort Peck Dam
c) Ataturk Dam
d) Houtribdijk Dam
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Tarbela Dam is the largest man made dam in the world. This Tarbela Dam is
located in Pakistan. The construction of a dam is completed in 1976. Fort Peck Dam, Ataturk
Dam, Houtribdijk Dam are respectively second, third and fourth largest man made dams.

2. Temples of modern India was a term coined by ___________________

a) Subhas Chandra Bose
b) Jawahar Lal Nehru
c) Mahatma Gandhi
d) Sardar Vallabhai Patel
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Temples of modern India was coined by Jawahar Lal Nehru while inaugurating
Bhakra Nangal dam to describe dams, scientific research institutes, steel plants and power plants.
According to Nehru, these four are the temples of modern India.

3. The largest dam in India is____________

a) Tehri
b) Bhakra Nangal
c) Hirakud
d) Nagarjuna Sagar
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Tehri dam is the largest dam in India. Tehri dam is located in Uttarakhand. The
height of the dam is 260 mtrs. The length is 575 mtrs. Total capacity is 2,100,000(Acre Ft). The
inflow water to Tehri dam is Bhagirathi.

4. Barrage dam is used for control the amount of water passing the dam.
a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: A barrage dam is a special kind of dam which consists of a line of large gates that
can be opened or closed for the purpose of control the amount of water passing the dam. One of
the examples for barrage dam is Red Bluff Diversion dam in California.

5. The earliest known dam is______________

a) Jawa Dam
b) Sadd – el – Kafara Dam
c) Great Dam of Marib
d) Roman Dam
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Jawa Dam is the earliest known dam. Jawa dam which is in Jordan, 100 km away
from the capital Amman. This earliest built dam Jawa is a gravity dam. This dam structure is
dated to 3000 BC. This Jawa dam is still in use.

6. The era of large dams was initiated with the construction of which dam?
a) Hoover Dam
b) Tarbela Dam
c) Tehri Dam
d) Aswan Low Dam
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The era of large dams was initiated with the construction of the Aswan Low dam.
This Aswan Low dam is located in Egypt in Africa continent. This dam is built in 1902. Its is
gravity masonry buttress dam on the Nile river.

7. Arch dams are first built by ______________

a) Greeks
b) Romans
c) Portuguese
d) British
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The Romans were the first to build arch dams. In this arch dams the reaction force
stabilizes the structure from the external hydrostatic pressure. Later in 19th century British
Empire builds many arch dams.

8. The tallest dam in the world is______________

a) Jinping- l – Dam
b) Nurek Dam
c) Xiaowan Dam
d) Xiluodu Dam
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Jinping- l – dam is the tallest dam in the world. It’s is of 305m in height. It is a
concrete arch type dam. It is situated in China and the river that flows in this dam is Yalong.
Nurek Dam, Xiaowan Dam and Xiluodu Dam are second, third, fourth tallest dams respectively.

9. Which of the following types of dams were widely used in the early part of the industrial
revolution?
a) Steel dams
b) Timber dams
c) Coffer dams
d) Check dams
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Timber dams were widely used in the early part of the industrial revolution. This is
due to the ease and speed of construction. Two common variations of timber dams are a crib and
the plank. Both these variations have different functions.
10. Which of the following is a natural dam?
a) Tailings dam
b) Diversionary dam
c) Saddle dam
d) Volcanic dam
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Volcanic dams is the example for natural dam. It is formed when lava flows, often
basaltic, intercept the path of a stream or lake outlet, resulting in the creation of a natural
impoundment. Uinkarat volcanic field in United States is the example for volcanic dam.

11. A dry dam is designed to control flooding.

a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: A dry dam is also known as a flood retarding structure. This dry dam is designed in
such a way to control the flooding. This dry dams normally holds back no water and allows the
channel to flow freely except during intense flow period.

12. The glacier blocks a river in the dam is known as________________

a) Ice dam
b) Blockage dam
c) Spilt dam
d) Isolated dam
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: An Ice dam occurs when water builds behind a blockage of ice. Ice dams form
either when ice chunks in a river and forms a lake or when ice chunks in a river are blocked by
something and build up to form a dam.

1. Which is the first state in India to make roof top rain water harvesting compulsory to all the
houses?
a) Tamil Nadu
b) Kerala
c) Assam
d) Goa
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Tamil Nadu is the first state in India which has made roof top rain water harvesting
structure compulsory to all the houses across the state. If anyone failed to obey this, there are
legal provisions to punish the defaulters. This method helps to save rain water.
2. The name given to the diversion channels of the western Himalayas is__________________
a) Phalodi
b) Johads
c) Guls or Kuls
d) Khadins
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The diversions channels of the western Himalaya is known as Guls or Kuls. In hills
and mountains, people built diversion channels for irrigational purposes, which are called Guls
and Kuls. It is mainly used in the western Himalayas for harvesting water.

3. What is Palar pani?

a) Spring
b) Milk
c) River water
d) Rain water
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Palar Pani is the commonly used name for rain water. This term is mainly used in
Rajasthan. In Rajasthan Palar Pani means “Meetha Panni” which mainly stored and used for
household works like working and drinking.

4. Mattur dam is located across Krishna river.

a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Mettur dam which is the largest dam in Tamil Nadu located across Cauvery river.
This Mettur dam provides irrigation and drinking water facilities for more than 10 districts of
Tamil Nadu. Hence it plays a vital role in the farmers life.

5. Which of the following is the major source of fresh water which is available in India?
a) Ocean water
b) River water
c) Pond water
d) Ground water
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Ground water is the major source of fresh water in India. Ground water can’t see or
can’t access easily. The important role of ground water sources play in the water cycle is that
they are the primary sources for human consumption.
6. Narmada Bachao Andolan is related to____________
a) Tehri
b) Bhakra Nangal
c) Sardar Sarovar
d) Rihand
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Narmada Bachao Andolan is a social movement against the large dams built across
the Narmada river at Sardar Sarovar dam in Gujarat. Sardar Sarovar dam is the first focal point
of the movement.

7. At what time usually rainfall is recorded in India?

a) 4 P.M.
b) 6 P.M.
c) 8 P.M.
d) 10 P.M.
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: We can record the amount of rainfall by the device called as a rain gauge. The usual
time of recording for rainfall is 8 A.M in Indian time. Different countries have different rainfall
recording timings. The some total of all the measurements during the previous 24 hours is
register at 8 A.M in the morning.

8. The total surface of water in the earth surface is_________________

a) 65%
b) 69%
c) 71%
d) 75%
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The total surface of the water in the earth surface is 71%, while the other 29%
consists of Continents and Islands. The oceans hold about 96.5% of all Earth’s water. The
remaining 3.5% of water is stored in other water bodies.

9. Which planet is also known as blue planet?

a) Mercury
b) Venus
c) Earth
d) Mars
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: About 71% of the earth’s surface is covered in water, which appears blue from
space. Earth is known as blue planet because of its blue visibility when we see it from outer
space. No other planet is having such a large amount of water this is also the reason for its blue
color.

10. The rank of India in terms of water availability per person p.a in the world
is_______________
a) 130th
b) 131st
c) 132nd
d) 133rd
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The per capita water availability in the country is reducing due to the increase in
population. According to 2011 census, the average annual per capita availability of water in the
country is 1545 cubic meters.

11. Krishna Raja Sagara is a dam built on river Kaveri.

a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Krishna Raja Sagara was popularly known as KRS. The kind of dam built is gravity
dam. This dam is situated in Karnataka. The total surface area of the dam is 129 km2. The water
released from KRS dam flows to Mettur dam which is in Tamil Nadu district.

12. Ground water is accessed by______________

a) Drilling wells
b) Drip irrigation
c) Check bunds
d) Constructing canals
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Ground water is commonly accessed either through a bore or well. A well is a
vertical shaft which is dug into the ground. In order to drill a well we need to have a permission
from the government. Government provide ‘take and use license’ in most cases.

. Which is the major source of animal protein in the Earth?

a) Milk
b) Egg
c) Fat
d) Fish
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Fish is the major source of animal protein in the Earth. Fish are aquatic animals
which is seen in oceans and other water bodies. It contains the high amount of proteins.
Nowadays fishes are raised in fisheries.

2. Which crop provides more energy when compared to any other type of crop in the world?
a) Pulses
b) Corn
c) Cereal
d) Legumes
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Cereal grain is a staple food that provides more food energy than any other type of
crop. All the other type of food like corns, pulses also provide energy but they don’t match the
energy that is providing by cereals.

3. Among the following which is not a organic farming?

a) Compost
b) Crop rotation
c) Chemical fertilizers
d) Green manures
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Compost, crop rotation and green manures come under organic farming in which no
chemicals are added to it. But in chemical fertilizers as the name indicates they use chemicals to
raise the crops, so it is not a organic farming.

4. Fruit bearing trees are renewable food sources.

a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Fruit bearing trees are renewable food resources. Renewable food resources are
those that may be able to sustain themselves against all the types of external harmful conditions
and environmental conditions and produce year after year.

5. Apiculture means_______________
a) Rearing Silk Moths
b) Rearing Cattles
c) Rearing Horses
d) Bee Keeping
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The word ‘Apiculture’ comes from the Latin word ‘apis’ meaning bee. Apiculture
is the care and management of honey bees for the production of honey and wax. During bee
keeping certain precautionary measures are taken.

6. Pigeon pea is a good source of______________

a) Vitamins
b) Calcium
c) Proteins
d) Iron
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Pigeon pea is a legume from the family ‘Fabaceae’ and it is not related to bird
pigeon. It is consumed in large scale in South Asia and is a major source of protein for the
people. Binomial name for pigeon pea is ‘Cajanus cajan’.

7. Which is the only insect in the entire world that can produce something that we can eat?
a) Bee
b) Ant
c) Lizard
d) Cockroach
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Bee produces honey. Honey is the only food that includes all the substances
necessary to sustain life. An average worker bee produces about 1/12th teaspoon of honey in its
lifespan. Honeybee’s lifespan is about six weeks.

8. The crops which are grown in summer season are called __________________
a) Kharif crop
b) Zaid crop
c) Rabi crop
d) Multiple crop
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The crops which are mainly grown in the summer season is called Zaid crop. They
require warm, dry weather. The main produce of Zaid crops are seasonal fruits and seasonal
vegetables. This crop can be cultivable in the end of summer season.

9. The crops which are grown in winter season are called___________________

a) Kharif crop
b) Multiple crop
c) Zaid crop
d) Rabi crop
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Rabi crops are grown in winter season. Though it sow in winter season it is
harvested only in spring season in South Asia. The major rabi crop in India is wheat followed by
barely, mustard, sesame and peas. Cool temperature is required for rabi crops.

10. BT cotton is an example for_______________

a) Organic farming
b) Chemical fertilization
c) GM crop
d) Cultivation
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: BT cotton is an example of GM crop. BT cotton which is a GM crop was developed
to insect resistant by the introduction of a new gene. GM are well known as genetically modified
crops. Many oppositions raised against BT crops due to customs issues.

11. Processed food is good for health.

a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Processes food is not good for health. It caused high blood pressure and increase
the chance of type 2 diabetes. The term processed food includes any food that has been
purposely changed in some way prior to consumption. It includes canned, frozen, packaged
foods.

12. Sowing two or three crops together on the same land, one being the main crop and other as
subsidiaries is known as___________
a) Crop rotation
b) Mixed cropping
c) Irrigation
d) Harvesting
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Mixed cropping means sowing two or more crops in the same land where one of
them is the main crop. For example, growing of wheat and ground nut on the same field. Here
nitrogen used by wheat is restored by leguminous plants, so there is no need to add nitrogenous
fertilizers.
13. Growing different crops on the same land in pre planned succession is known
as___________
a) Crop rotation
b) Inter cropping
c) Mixed cropping
d) Irrigation
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Crop rotation is the systematic or pre planned planting of different crops in a
particular order over several years in the same growing space. This process helps to maintain
nutrients in the soil and prevents plant diseases and removes pests from the plant.

14. India’s global ranking in banana production is______________

a) Rank 1
b) Rank 2
c) Rank 3
d) Rank 4
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: India stands in 1st rank in the production of banana. Whereas Uganda, China and
Philippines stand 2nd, 3rd and 4th rank respectively in the production of banana globally. India
also stands Rank 1 in jute and mango production.

1. When did the word food security came into exist?

a) 1970
b) 1972
c) 1974
d) 1976
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: At 1974 ‘World Food Conference’ held at Rome the term food security came into
existence. It was defined with an emphasis a supply. Food security is defined as an availability at
the times of adequate world food supplies of basic food stuffs to sustain a steady expansion of
food.

2. Coping Strategies Index is related to_______________

a) Financial statement
b) Food security measurement
c) Banking sector
d) Sales
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Coping Strategies Index(CSI) assesses household behavior based on a set of varied
established behaviors on how households cope with food shortages. CSI was developed in
Uganda, Ghana and Kenya but has now been used for early warning and food security
monitoring and assessment.

3. MSP stands for_________________

a) Maximum support price
b) Minimum support price
c) Marginal support price
d) Main support price
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Minimum support price is the price at which government purchase crops from the
farmers, whatever may be the price for the crops. MSP helps to incentivize the farmers and thus
ensures adequate food grains production in the country.

4. Annapurna scheme provide food requirements of____________

a) Children
b) Women
c) Senior citizens
d) Students
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Annapurna scheme aims at providing food security to meet the requirement for
senior citizens. The Annapurna scheme has been launched with effect from 1st of April in the
year 2000 to provide food to senior citizens.

5. The official document entitling the holder to a ration of food issued by the government of
India is known as____________
a) Ration card
b) Food card
c) Health card
d) Insurance card
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Ration card is primarily used when purchasing subsidized food stuffs. This ration
card has been used since second world war. India is public distribution system is based on the
ration card. This ration card is used to establish identity, eligibility and entitlement.

6. The color of Antyodaya Anna Yojana scheme card is______________

a) Pink
b) Black
c) Blue
d) Yellow
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Antyodaya Anna Yojana is a government of India sponsored scheme to provide
highly subsidized food to millions of the poorest families. Antyodaya ration card also called by
the name PDS yellow card because of it’s yellow color.

7. In which state ration shops are run by co-operatives in large extend?

a) Assam
b) Karnataka
c) Tamil Nadu
d) Goa
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Out of all fair price shops running in Tamil Nadu, around 94% are being run by the
co-operatives. The co-operatives are playing an important role in food security in India
especially in the southern and western parts of the country.

8. For grain banks in different regions which society is established?

a) Academy of Development Science
b) Kissan
c) Amul
d) Food research center
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Academy of Development Science (ADS) has facilitated a network of NGOs for
setting up grain banks in different regions. Because of ADS grain banks are slowly taking shape
in different parts of Maharashtra and in the borders of Karnataka.

9. Where can we find seasonal hunger?

a) Urban
b) Metro cities
c) Forest
d) Rural areas
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Seasonal hunger is related to cycles of food growing and harvesting. This is
prevalent in rural areas because of the seasonal nature of agriculture activities. It occurs in a
community or society at only certain times of the year.
10. Buffer stock scheme purpose is______________
a) To save food grains from pest attack
b) To stop price fluctuations
c) To transport the food
d) To deliver the food
View Answer

11. Goats are the solution to global food security.

a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Goats are an important part of the solution to global food security because they are
fairly low maintenance and easy to raise and farm when compare to other animals. The trinomial
name of goat is ‘Capraaegagrus hircus’. Female goats referred as ‘does’.

12. How many pillars are there in food security according to WHO?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: According to WHO there are three pillars that determine food security. They are
food availability, food access and food use. In addition to WHO, the world summit on food
security stated that there are four pillars namely food availability, food access, food utilization
and food stabiltity.

13. In which state of India Amul headquarter situated?

a) Kerala
b) Bihar
c) Gujarat
d) West Bengal
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Amul is an Indian dairy co-operative based at Anand in the state of Gujarat. It is
founded in 1946 by Tribhuvandas Patel. Amul abbreviation stands for Anand Milk Union
Limited. Amul created India’s white revolution.

14. F.C.I stands for__________________

a) Food Center of India
b) Food Center of Investigation
c) Food Complex of Integrity
d) Food Corporation of India
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The Food Corporation of India (FCI) was setup under ‘Food Corporation Act
1964’. It established in order to fulfill the objectives of the food policy. Since its inception, FCI
has played a significant role in India’s success in transforming the crisis management oriented
food security into a stable system.

1. Excessive use of macronutrients to crops leads to the deficiency of___________________

a) Micro nutrients
b) Semi nutrients
c) Mega nutrients
d) Mixed nutrients
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: More use of macronutrients leads in the deficiency of micronutrients. Chemical
fertilizers used in modern agriculture contain nitrogen, phosphorus and potassium (N, P, K)
which are macronutrients. By using fertilizers in an excess way it results in micronutrient
imbalance.

2. ‘Blue Body Syndrome’ is caused due to_________________

a) Soil pollution
b) Nitrate pollution
c) Carbon pollution
d) Zinc pollution
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: When excess nitrogenous fertilizers applied in fields it leach deep into the soil
contaminating the ground water. When the concentration of nitrate in drinking water exceeds
25mg/L it leads to a fatal condition in new born babies.

3. Pest which are resistant to pesticides are known as_________________

a) Green pests
b) Multi pests
c) Super pests
d) Strong pests
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Pest which are resistant to pesticides are known as super pests. Some pests that
survive the pesticide generate highly resistant generations that are immune to all kinds of
pesticides. Such pests are known as super pests.
4. Pesticides are biodegradable.
a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Pesticides are not biodegradable. They do not degrade naturally. They need special
treatment in order to degrade. Most pesticides are non biodegradable and accumulate in the food
chain. This is called bio-accumulation.

5. Water stands on land for most of the year is called as_____________

a) Salinity
b) Water loading
c) Water logging
d) Stand by water
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: During water logging the roots of plants do not get enough air for respiration due to
this strength of soil decreases and its cause for the low crop yield. Causes of water logging are
heavy rain, poor drainage and not proper usage of modern agriculture system.

6. Potato famine occurred in Ireland due to pest attack on the complete crop due to monoculture,
this is of using________________
a) Pesticides
b) Nitrogen
c) High yielding varieties
d) Crop rotation
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: High yielding varieties (HYV) are used in modern agriculture to produce more crop
yield. HYV are irrigation and chemical fertilizers intensive. Hence by using excessive chemical
fertilizers and pesticides some useful pests also gets killed.

7. Harmful and high cost pesticides can be replaced by______________

a) Weeds
b) Small animals
c) Artificial protectors
d) Natural predators
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Natural predator method is used to deal with pests like aphids, caterpillars and
slugs. There are two important components for the use of natural predators and they are darkness
and moist. These natural predators are useful for farmers.
8. Though farmers are aware that chemical fertilizers cause damage to the soil of the field they
are using it because___________________
a) Output is low
b) Output is high
c) For healthy crop
d) For healthy soil
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Despite of harness causing to the soil and as well as to the crop farmers using
chemical fertilizers over organic farming. The yield that produced is high by using chemical
fertilizers and it gives resistant to pesticides for initial years for after that yield becomes less and
soil lose its fertility.

9. Which of the following situation is not the effect of modern agriculture?

a) Bio magnification
b) Lost of soil fertility
c) Carbon pollution
d) Ozone depletion
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Ozone depletion is not the effect of modern agriculture. This ozone layer depletion
takes place due to the damage in the Ozone. This may results in a slow and excruciating death of
radiation. It results in the direct flow of UV rays to the Earth atmosphere.

10. Irrigation with light sodium water may damage soil structure by the formation of alkaline
soil.
a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Sodium requires more water layers in order to become stable. When sodium ion
associated with bicarbonate and carbonate ions it causes pH to rise. This pH rise becomes
harmful to soil and thereby damage the crops.

1. Energy is released from fossil fuels when they are___________________

a) Pumped
b) Cooled
c) Burned
d) Pressurized
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Fossil fuels are fuels because they release heat energy when they are burned. They
are fossil fuels because they were formed from the remains of living organisms billions of years
ago. Some of the examples of fossil fuels are coal, oil and natural gas.

2. Oil release sulfur dioxide gas when they burn.

a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Oil release sulfur dioxide gas when they burn. This sulfur dioxide gas causes
breathing problems for living creatures. Along with the health issue this sulfur dioxide which is
emitted from oil also causes acid rain.

3. The most nuclear fuel used in the world is________________

a) Thorium – 232
b) Uranium – 238
c) Uranium – 235
d) Plutonium – 239
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The most used nuclear fuel is Uranium – 235. It is a radioactive metal. Nuclear
fuels like Uranium do not burnt to release energy. Instead, the fuels are involved in nuclear
reaction in nuclear reaction in the nuclear reactor.

4. The blades in wind turbines are connected to________________

a) Nacelle
b) Tower
c) Foundations
d) String
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: A nacelle is a cover housing that houses all of the generating components in a wind
turbine. Wind turbines have huge blades mounted on a tall tower. The blades are connected to a
nacelle. Thus the nacelle in wind turbines helps to work the wind turbines.

5. In the production of wave energy which form of energy is used?

a) Potential energy
b) Kinetic energy
c) Solar energy
d) Wind energy
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The water in the sea rises and falls because of waves on the surface. Wave
machines use the Kinetic energy in this movement to drive electricity generators. Wave energy
also known as ocean energy. Wave energy is essentially power drawn from waves.

6. A tidal barrage is a barrier built over a___________________

a) River bed
b) River estuary
c) River end
d) River starting
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: A tidal barrage is a barrier built over a river estuary to make use of the kinetic
energy in the moving water. Huge amounts of water move in and out of river mouths each day
because of the tides. The barrage contains electricity generators.

7. In hydroelectricity power_________________
a) Kinetic energy is transferred to potential
b) Potential energy is transferred to kinetic
c) Solar energy is transferred to wind energy
d) Wind energy is transferred to solar energy
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Hydroelectricity power stations use the kinetic energy in moving water. But the
water comes from behind a dam built across a river valley. The water high up behind the dam
contains potential energy.

8. Solar panels generate electricity.

a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Solar panels do not generate electricity. They just heat up water by the external
electricity connection given to them. This solar panels are often located on the roofs of the
building where they can receive heat energy directly from the sun.

9. In order to produce solar energy during sunlight, where the energy is stored in the batteries?
a) Nickel Sulfur
b) Zinc Cadmium
c) Nickel Cadmium
d) Nickel Zinc
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Nickel Cadmium cells offers along service life thereby ensuring a high degree of
the economy. In the PV industry, Nickel Cadmium battery cells are majorly used for the energy
storage technology from manufacturers and users of PV of grid systems.

10. How many forms of fossil fuels are there________________

a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: There are three major forms of fossil fuels they are coal, oil and natural gas. They
formed from organic remains of plants and animals that were converted into coal, oil and natural
gas by exposure to heat and the pressure of the earth’s crust over millions of years.

11. According to WHO, how many premature deaths annually linked to air pollution causing by
the burning of fossil fuels?
a) One million
b) Three million
c) Five million
d) Seven million
View Answer

12. Energy in the form of heat and light is obtained by________________

a) Biomass
b) Fossil fuels
c) Sun
d) Wind
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Energy in the form of heat and light is obtained by sun. Sunlight contains a large
amount of energy. The Sun’s energy warms the planet’s surface, powering titanic transfers of
heat and pressure in weather patterns and ocean currents.

13. SI unit for energy is_____________

a) Watt
b) Kilogram
c) Newton
d) Joule
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: SI unit for energy is joule. Metric unit of measurement for energy or work equal to
a force of one Newton applied through a distance of one meter. One joule is equivalent to
0.737324 ft-lbs. Joule is a SI unit of work, energy and heat.
14. Trapped heat inside the earth is known as_______________
a) Heat energy
b) Kinetic energy
c) Geothermal energy
d) Thermal energy
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Geothermal energy is the heat from the earth. It’s clean and sustainable. Resources
of geothermal energy range from the ground to water and hot rock. The term geothermal
originates from the Greek words.

1. A continuous are of land surrounded by ocean is called__________________

a) Seashore
b) Beach
c) Landmass
d) Wetland
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Landmass may be often written as one word to distinguish it from the usage
‘landmass’ which means a measure of land. Landmass includes super continents, continents.
Hence a land surrounded by oceans continuously is called as landmass.

2. How many major continuous landmass are there?

a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: On earth, there are four major continuous landmasses are there. They are, Afro-
Rurasia, the Americans, Antarctica and Australia. A part from the above four major continuous
landmasses there are many minor landmasses also present.

3. Land capable of being ploughed and used to grow crops is called as________________
a) Domestic land
b) Arable land
c) Un arable land
d) Dry land
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Arable land is land that can be used for growing crops. Country with the most
arable land in the world is United States having the share of 10.5% of the world’s arable land.
India stands in the second position with the production of 9.22%.

4. Out of the total land area, how many million hectares of land suffer from degradation?
a) 150
b) 175
c) 200
d) 225
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: 175 million hectares of land area suffer from degradation. Land degradation is
caused largely by soil erosion but also by water logging and excessive salinity. The high degree
of degradation will affect the existing land resources.

5. Wearing away of a field’s topsoil by the natural physical forces of water and wind is known
as_____________
a) Wind erosion
b) Soil erosion
c) Water erosion
d) Sand erosion
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Along with water and wind there is one more factor that determines the soil erosion
and that is through forces associated with farming activities such as tillage, erosion, whether it is
by water or wind.

6. The greater the intensity and duration of a rainstorm, the higher the erosion potential.
a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The impact of raindrops on the soil surfaces can break down soil aggregates and
disperse the aggregate material. Lighter aggregate materials such as very fine sand, silt, clay and
organic matter are easily removed by raindrops.

7. Estimate of the ability of soils to resist erosion, based on the physical characteristics of each
soil is known as__________________
a) Soil erodibility
b) Soil erosion
c) Soil potentiality
d) Soil neutrality
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Texture is the principle characteristic affecting erodibility. Generally, soils with
faster infiltration rates, higher levels of organic matter and improved soil structure have a greater
resistance to erosion.

8. Low lying tract of land enclosed by dikes that forms an artificial hydrological entity is known
as_________________
a) Polder
b) Resign
c) Derelict
d) Catchment
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: A polder has no connection with outside water other than through manually
operated device used. There are three types of the polder. They are, Land reclaimed, flood plains
and the last one is marshes.

9. In Germany marshes separated from the surrounding water by a dike are known
as______________
a) Delt
b) Koogs
c) Catchment
d) Flood plains
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: A koog is one of the types of polder found on the North Sea West of Germany.
Koog is established by the construction of dykes enclosing the land which is drained to form
marshland. Koog is protected by embankments known as dykes.

10. Hydroponics is a technique of growing crops without__________________

a) Water
b) Air
c) Soil
d) Sunlight
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Hydroponics is the technique of growing plants in a soil less medium, or an aquatic
based environment. Hydroponics is a subset of hydro culture. Hydroponic growing uses mineral
nutrient solutions to feed the plants.

11. The land which is abandoned and declared as not good for cultivation anymore is known
as_____________
a) Polder
b) Koogs
c) Derelict land
d) Catchment land
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Derelict land is the land that has become damaged by industrial or other
development and beyond uses without any kind of treatment. The treatments that is given for
derelict land are demolition and levelling.

12. The thin layer of grainy substance covering the surface of the earth is called
as_______________
a) Mineral
b) Soil
c) Sand
d) Chemical fertilizers
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Soil is the material found on the surface of the earth that is composed of organic
and inorganic material. Soil varies in its composition and the structure of its particles. Soil is a
vital important to the sustainability of an ecosystem.

13. A collapse of a mass of earth or rock from a mountain is known as__________________

a) Landform
b) Landslide
c) Deforestation
d) Deformation
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: During landslides huge masses of land slide down destroying anything in its path.
Various development activities like construction of dams, reservoirs, roads require large space
which results in deforestation. This activity increases chances of landslides.

14. Process of conversion of productive land to arid or semi arid lands is known
as________________
a) Deforestation
b) Deformation
c) Landform
d) Desertification
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Desertification is classified into two types, moderate desertification in which 10 to
25% drop in productivity and one more is serious desertification in which there is more than a
50% drop in the productivity. This desertification leads to depletion of ground water.

1. How many types of ecological succession are there?

a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: There are two types of ecological succession they are primary succession,
secondary succession and cyclic succession. Primary succession occurs when a new land is
formed which provide habitant to colonized for first time. In secondary succession there is a
recolonized in a previously occupied area.

2. What is called for the term used to express a community in its final stage of succession?
a) End community
b) Final community
c) Climax community
d) Dark community
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The term climax community is used to express a community in its final stage of
succession. The climax community may change if there are changed in climate or long term
evolutionary changes in species.

3. What is called for the term in which all the living organisms that occupy an area undergoing
primary succession in the beginning stages?
a) Climax community
b) Settled community
c) Dense community
d) Pioneer community
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: When succession occurs in any particular area smaller species such as bacteria,
fungi are usually first to come in. These first organisms that settle an area make up the pioneer
community. These pioneer communities later lead to biological succession.

4. What is called for the process when older communities of plants and animals are replaced by
newer communities?
a) Evolution
b) Deforestation
c) Forestation
d) Ecological succession
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Ecological succession can be defined as changing sequence of communities that
live in an ecosystem during a given time period. The actual species involved in a succession in a
particular area can control by geology, climate, soil type and other environmental factors.

5. Which process occurs after a volcanic eruption?

a) Primary succession
b) Secondary succession
c) Nitrogen fixation
d) Oxidation
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Secondary succession refers to the concept of an ecosystem reviving itself after all
has been destroyed. In an area where a volcano erupts the lava inside cause damage to the plant
and tree life. If the land which was affected by volcanic eruption and not covered in new
volcanic rock, roots or plants parts in soil could renew.

6. Species diversity hurts ecological succession.

a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Species diversity does not contribute for ecological succession. The diversity
among the species is high at pioneer community. However as time passed competition and
interaction causes a significant drop in species diversity.

7. Soil changes due to erosion is an example of which of the following succession?

a) Allogenic succession
b) Autogenic succession
c) Computational succession
d) Emigrational succession
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Succession driven by the abiotic components of an ecosystem is known as allogenic
succession. In contrast, an autogenic succession is driven by the biotic components of the
ecosystem. Allogenic succession happens on a time scale that is proportionate with the
disturbance.

8. What is called for the succession driven by the biotic components of an ecosystem?
a) Allogenic succession
b) Autogenic succession
c) Computational succession
d) Migration succession
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: In autogenic succession plants they cause succession to occur light captured by
leaves, production of detritus and nitrogen fixation. Autogenic succession can be viewed as a
secondary succession because of pre existing plant life.

9. What is called for a pattern of vegetation change in which a small number of species tend to
replace each other over time in the absence of large scale disturbance?
a) Primary succession
b) Secondary succession
c) Tertiary succession
d) Cyclic succession
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Cyclic ecological succession happens within established communities and is merely
a changing of the structure of the ecosystem on a cyclical basis. In cyclic replacement
observation that made has provided evidence against end state climax community.

10. Which is the first process in ecological succession?

a) Nudation
b) Migration
c) Ecesis
d) Aggregation
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Nudation is defined as the development of a bare site uninhabited by any
organisms. This nudation is usually caused by disturbances in topographic, climatic or biotic
factors. The areas formed can sustain only autotrophic organisms which can utilize in organic
substrates.

11. What is called for the succession occurring within a microhabitat?

a) Primary succession
b) Nudation
c) Serule
d) Climax succession
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Micro-organisms such as fungi and bacteria occurring within a microhabitat known
as serule. This type of succession occurs in newly available habitat. Changes of pH in a habitat
could provide ideal conditions for a new species to inhabit the area.

12. What is called for the climax which is governed by more than one climate?
a) Climatic climax
b) Catastrophic climax
c) Sub climax
d) Edaphic climax
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Community in which climax is governed by more than one climax communities in
a region, soil nutrients, soil moisture, scope exposure and animal activity is called as edaphic
climax. Soil factors like salinity, alkalinity determined climax community.

13. After landslide which of the following type of succession occurs?

a) Primary
b) Secondary
c) Tertiary
d) Climax
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Succession is generally regarded as primary when it occurs on a landslide where
rock and subsoil, virtually free of organic matter are exposed, despite the fact that landslide was
formed the substratum just beneath a developed soil carrying vegetation.

14. Ecesis is the initial establishment of the plant community.

a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Ecesis is dependent on the soil structure and it is the initial establishment of the
plant community. In this stage, the early colonizing species proliferate abundantly through
germination, growth and reproduction. It is due to allogenic mechanisms.

. Which one of the following is not a gaseous biogeochemical cycle in an ecosystem?

a) Carbon cycle
b) Phosphorous cycle
c) Sulfur cycle
d) Nitrogen cycle
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Phosphorous cycle is not a gaseous biogeochemical cycle in an ecosystem. It is also
a biogeochemical cycles but here atmosphere does not play a significant role in the movement of
the phosphorous cycle.

2. Transfer of energy from source of plants through a series of organism is known as

________________
a) Food web
b) Energy cycle
c) Food chain
d) Biological system
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Food chain is a pathway that represents the exchange of energy from one organism
to another. Energy is transmitted all the way from Sun to the other organisms by passing from
producers to the consumers.

3. The type of ecosystem with the highest mean plant productivity is _______________
a) Tundra
b) Temperate grassland
c) Desert
d) Tropical rain forest
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: A Tropical rain forest has more kinds of trees than any other area in the world.
Seventy percent of the plants in the rainforest are trees. There are many distinct layers of trees.
These layers have been identified as the emergent upper, canopy, understory and forest floor.

4. An ecosystem which can be easily damaged but can recovered after some time if damaging
effect stops will be having ____________________
a) High stability and high resilience
b) High stability and low resilience
c) Low stability and low resilience
d) Low stability and high resilience
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: In any ecosystem the condition of low stability and high resilience makes it to
damage easily and after a certain amount of time they recover from damaging effects. Hence
both stability and resilience play an important role in ecosystem.

5. Pyramids of number in grassland ecosystem are inverted.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Pyramids of number in grassland ecosystem is erect. It is the graphical
representation which depicts the number of organisms, biomass and productivity at each tropic
level. All ecological pyramids begin at the bottom with the producer and goes into the upper
level.

6. In ecosystem standing crop refers to________________

a) All the green plants
b) All the non living materials
c) All living and dead animals
d) All the living materials both animals and plants
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Standing crop is the amount of total biomass present in an ecosystem. This is the
amount of total living matter. There is no circulation in standing crop. In standing crop
continuous synthesis and consumption of biomass are going on.

7. Which ecosystem produce the highest annual net primary productivity?

a) Tropical evergreen forest
b) Tropical rain forest
c) Tropical deciduous forest
d) Temperate evergreen forest
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Tropical rain forest produce mean NPP of 2200(g/m2/yr) the world NPP is 37.4(109
tons/yr). Tropical rain forest produce mean biomass of 45(Kg/m2) and the world biomass is
763(109 tones). Hence tropical rain forest ecosystem produces the highest annual net primary
productivity(NPP).

8. What flows through the ecosystem while matter cycles within them?
a) Energy
b) Force
c) Pressure
d) Wind
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Ecosystem maintains themselves by cycling energy and nutrients obtained from
external sources. At the first tropic level, primary producers are solar energy to produce organic
plant material through photosynthesis.

9. Total primary production in an ecosystem is known as____________________

a) Gross final production
b) Gross primary production
c) Gross middle production
d) Net primary production
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The total amount of productivity in a region is gross primary productivity. Primary
productivity is the rate at which energy is converted by photosynthetic and chemosynthetic
autotrophy to organic substances.

10. Which type of ecosystem accounts for most of the net primary productivity on earth even
though it has a low average net primary productivity?
a) Tropical rain forest
b) Desert
c) Tropical evergreen forest
d) Oceans
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The open oceans account for most of the net primary productivity on the planet
even though they have one of the lowest average net primary productivities which cover by far
the most area on earth.

11. Generally ecosystem consists of how many basic components?

a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Generally ecosystems consist of two basic components, they are abiotic and biotic
components. Abiotic components include basic inorganic and organic compounds. Biotic
components include producers, consumers and decomposers.

12. The three functional components interact with each other to form__________________
a) Environmental succession
b) Environmental depression
c) Environmental system
d) Ecology
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The three functional components of an ecosystem which are inorganic constituents,
organism and energy input forms environmental system. An ecosystem is a functional and life
sustaining environmental system.
13. The dominant second tropic level in a lake ecosystem is_____________________
a) Phytoplankton
b) Zooplankton
c) Plankton
d) Benthos
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Lake ecosystem includes both biotic and abiotic components. Zooplanktons are the
organisms that have animal like traits. Most of them are heterotrophy in nature. Zooplankton is a
vital component of fresh water food webs.

14. Green plants are the most important organisms for an ecosystem.
a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Green plants form the basis for the sustainability and long term health of the
environmental system. Green plant removes carbon dioxide from the atmosphere and generates
oxygen required for breathing for other organisms include humans.

. What is called for the process of breaking down food to yield energy?
a) Oxidation
b) Photosynthesis
c) Cellular respiration
d) Decomposition
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Catabolism is a metabolic process in cellular respiration that uses oxygen and
energy to break down nutrients. It creates the waste through an oxidation process with free
chemical energy, which is used to help create the waste.

2. What are called for an organisms which get energy by eating dead organisms?
a) Decomposers
b) Producers
c) Consumers
d) Herbivores
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Decomposers are an organism that break down chemicals from wastes and dead
organisms. In return, it gives important materials to the soil and water. This is the last stop of the
food chain.
3. Which among the following is a product of photosynthesis?
a) Glucose
b) Carbon
c) Monoxide
d) Nitrogen
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Photosynthesis is a process to harvest energy from light. The energy is converted to
biomass. Photosynthesis takes in carbon dioxide and water combine them in the presence of
energy from the sun to make food.

4. What is called for an organism that eats both plants and animals?
a) Omnivore
b) Carnivore
c) Decomposers
d) Herbivore
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Some animals eat both plants and animals they are called omnivores. Omnivores
include mammals and birds. It is very easy for omnivore to find food because they eat both
plants and animals. They are opportunistic eaters.

5. Why energy flow is linear in an ecosystem?

a) Because it flows in air medium
b) Because it is very particular
c) Because ecosystem is linear
d) Because energy flows from one trophic level to the next higher one
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Energy flow is unidirectional because energy flows from one trophic level to next
higher one. One more reason is when there is energy flow some energy lost as heat at each step.
This is according to 10% energy transfer law.

6. Energy flow is cyclic

a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Energy flow is a natural process that has energy associated with the movement. The
energy is passed from one organism to another in the food chain but unlike water and few
elements like nitrogen and carbon, energy doesn’t return in a cycle.
7. Flow of nutrients is___________________________
a) Unidirectional
b) Rectangular
c) Cyclic
d) Triangular
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Nutrients flows in a cyclic form. This is because to create a balance of nutrients in
different resources of the environment. These nutrients even if used are restored by these
biogeochemical cycles. The flow of nutrients from abiotic factor to biotic factors helped by
biogeochemical cycles.

8. Why plants in forests do not make use of all the light energy available to them?
a) Because plants do not require energy
b) Because plants are grown only in the winter season
c) Because of the absence of chlorophyll
d) Because sunlight doesn’t fall on the leaves fully
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: All plants require light energy in order to obtain energy. This energy is providing
by sun known as ultimate source of energy. When sun light falls on the plants in the dense forest
due to its shady branches of big trees which forms canopy.

9. Which form of Sun’s energy is trapped by the producers in the energy flow?
a) Light energy
b) Chemical energy
c) Wind energy
d) Pressure energy
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The potential for light to perform work is called as light energy. Here light from
sun enters the plants and there it creates energy with the help of chlorophyll. This chlorophyll is
a green pigment present in all green plants to trap light energy.

10. How many percents of energy transferred from one trophic level to the next higher level?
a) 10%
b) 20%
c) 50%
d) 100%
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Only about 10% of energy is transferred from one trophic level to the next higher
trophic level. The rest of the energy is lost through heat as it transfers along each level. The
reason for this is when energy is transferred energy is lost. This is according to second law of
thermodynamics.

11. Into how many areas the energy that is received by organisms during energy transfer is
converted?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The energy that is received during energy transfer which is received by organisms
is converted onto three different areas. The three areas are, a)Net Consumer Productivity,
b)Metabolic Energy, c) Organic Waste.

12. There is always a loss of some energy as heat during energy flows through an ecosystem.
a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: At each trophic level about 90% of the energy is lost. It is called as ‘Ten Percent
Law’, which was introduced by Lindeman in 1942. According to this law, during the transfer of
energy from organic food from one tropic level to the next, only 10% of the energy from organic
matter is stored as flesh.

. A continuous are of land surrounded by ocean is called__________________

a) Seashore
b) Beach
c) Landmass
d) Wetland
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Landmass may be often written as one word to distinguish it from the usage
‘landmass’ which means a measure of land. Landmass includes super continents, continents.
Hence a land surrounded by oceans continuously is called as landmass.

2. How many major continuous landmass are there?

a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: On earth, there are four major continuous landmasses are there. They are, Afro-
Rurasia, the Americans, Antarctica and Australia. A part from the above four major continuous
landmasses there are many minor landmasses also present.

3. Land capable of being ploughed and used to grow crops is called as________________
a) Domestic land
b) Arable land
c) Un arable land
d) Dry land
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Arable land is land that can be used for growing crops. Country with the most
arable land in the world is United States having the share of 10.5% of the world’s arable land.
India stands in the second position with the production of 9.22%.

4. Out of the total land area, how many million hectares of land suffer from degradation?
a) 150
b) 175
c) 200
d) 225
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: 175 million hectares of land area suffer from degradation. Land degradation is
caused largely by soil erosion but also by water logging and excessive salinity. The high degree
of degradation will affect the existing land resources.

5. Wearing away of a field’s topsoil by the natural physical forces of water and wind is known
as_____________
a) Wind erosion
b) Soil erosion
c) Water erosion
d) Sand erosion
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Along with water and wind there is one more factor that determines the soil erosion
and that is through forces associated with farming activities such as tillage, erosion, whether it is
by water or wind.

6. The greater the intensity and duration of a rainstorm, the higher the erosion potential.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The impact of raindrops on the soil surfaces can break down soil aggregates and
disperse the aggregate material. Lighter aggregate materials such as very fine sand, silt, clay and
organic matter are easily removed by raindrops.

7. Estimate of the ability of soils to resist erosion, based on the physical characteristics of each
soil is known as__________________
a) Soil erodibility
b) Soil erosion
c) Soil potentiality
d) Soil neutrality
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Texture is the principle characteristic affecting erodibility. Generally, soils with
faster infiltration rates, higher levels of organic matter and improved soil structure have a greater
resistance to erosion.

8. Low lying tract of land enclosed by dikes that forms an artificial hydrological entity is known
as_________________
a) Polder
b) Resign
c) Derelict
d) Catchment
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: A polder has no connection with outside water other than through manually
operated device used. There are three types of the polder. They are, Land reclaimed, flood plains
and the last one is marshes.

9. In Germany marshes separated from the surrounding water by a dike are known
as______________
a) Delt
b) Koogs
c) Catchment
d) Flood plains
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: A koog is one of the types of polder found on the North Sea West of Germany.
Koog is established by the construction of dykes enclosing the land which is drained to form
marshland. Koog is protected by embankments known as dykes.

10. Hydroponics is a technique of growing crops without__________________

a) Water
b) Air
c) Soil
d) Sunlight
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Hydroponics is the technique of growing plants in a soil less medium, or an aquatic
based environment. Hydroponics is a subset of hydro culture. Hydroponic growing uses mineral
nutrient solutions to feed the plants.

11. The land which is abandoned and declared as not good for cultivation anymore is known
as_____________
a) Polder
b) Koogs
c) Derelict land
d) Catchment land
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Derelict land is the land that has become damaged by industrial or other
development and beyond uses without any kind of treatment. The treatments that is given for
derelict land are demolition and levelling.

12. The thin layer of grainy substance covering the surface of the earth is called
as_______________
a) Mineral
b) Soil
c) Sand
d) Chemical fertilizers
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Soil is the material found on the surface of the earth that is composed of organic
and inorganic material. Soil varies in its composition and the structure of its particles. Soil is a
vital important to the sustainability of an ecosystem.

13. A collapse of a mass of earth or rock from a mountain is known as__________________

a) Landform
b) Landslide
c) Deforestation
d) Deformation
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: During landslides huge masses of land slide down destroying anything in its path.
Various development activities like construction of dams, reservoirs, roads require large space
which results in deforestation. This activity increases chances of landslides.

14. Process of conversion of productive land to arid or semi arid lands is known
as________________
a) Deforestation
b) Deformation
c) Landform
d) Desertification
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Desertification is classified into two types, moderate desertification in which 10 to
25% drop in productivity and one more is serious desertification in which there is more than a
50% drop in the productivity. This desertification leads to depletion of ground water.

1. Energy is released from fossil fuels when they are___________________

a) Pumped
b) Cooled
c) Burned
d) Pressurized
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Fossil fuels are fuels because they release heat energy when they are burned. They
are fossil fuels because they were formed from the remains of living organisms billions of years
ago. Some of the examples of fossil fuels are coal, oil and natural gas.

2. Oil release sulfur dioxide gas when they burn.

a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Oil release sulfur dioxide gas when they burn. This sulfur dioxide gas causes
breathing problems for living creatures. Along with the health issue this sulfur dioxide which is
emitted from oil also causes acid rain.

3. The most nuclear fuel used in the world is________________

a) Thorium – 232
b) Uranium – 238
c) Uranium – 235
d) Plutonium – 239
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The most used nuclear fuel is Uranium – 235. It is a radioactive metal. Nuclear
fuels like Uranium do not burnt to release energy. Instead, the fuels are involved in nuclear
reaction in nuclear reaction in the nuclear reactor.

4. The blades in wind turbines are connected to________________

a) Nacelle
b) Tower
c) Foundations
d) String
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: A nacelle is a cover housing that houses all of the generating components in a wind
turbine. Wind turbines have huge blades mounted on a tall tower. The blades are connected to a
nacelle. Thus the nacelle in wind turbines helps to work the wind turbines.

5. In the production of wave energy which form of energy is used?

a) Potential energy
b) Kinetic energy
c) Solar energy
d) Wind energy
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The water in the sea rises and falls because of waves on the surface. Wave
machines use the Kinetic energy in this movement to drive electricity generators. Wave energy
also known as ocean energy. Wave energy is essentially power drawn from waves.

6. A tidal barrage is a barrier built over a___________________

a) River bed
b) River estuary
c) River end
d) River starting
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: A tidal barrage is a barrier built over a river estuary to make use of the kinetic
energy in the moving water. Huge amounts of water move in and out of river mouths each day
because of the tides. The barrage contains electricity generators.

7. In hydroelectricity power_________________
a) Kinetic energy is transferred to potential
b) Potential energy is transferred to kinetic
c) Solar energy is transferred to wind energy
d) Wind energy is transferred to solar energy
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Hydroelectricity power stations use the kinetic energy in moving water. But the
water comes from behind a dam built across a river valley. The water high up behind the dam
contains potential energy.

8. Solar panels generate electricity.

a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Solar panels do not generate electricity. They just heat up water by the external
electricity connection given to them. This solar panels are often located on the roofs of the
building where they can receive heat energy directly from the sun.

9. In order to produce solar energy during sunlight, where the energy is stored in the batteries?
a) Nickel Sulfur
b) Zinc Cadmium
c) Nickel Cadmium
d) Nickel Zinc
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Nickel Cadmium cells offers along service life thereby ensuring a high degree of
the economy. In the PV industry, Nickel Cadmium battery cells are majorly used for the energy
storage technology from manufacturers and users of PV of grid systems.

10. How many forms of fossil fuels are there________________

a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: There are three major forms of fossil fuels they are coal, oil and natural gas. They
formed from organic remains of plants and animals that were converted into coal, oil and natural
gas by exposure to heat and the pressure of the earth’s crust over millions of years.

11. According to WHO, how many premature deaths annually linked to air pollution causing by
the burning of fossil fuels?
a) One million
b) Three million
c) Five million
d) Seven million
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Fossil fuels are not environmental friendly. Burning of fossil fuels result in
pollution and can cause serious environmental concerns. According to WHO, 7 million
premature deaths annually linked to air pollution by the fossil fuels burning.

12. Energy in the form of heat and light is obtained by________________

a) Biomass
b) Fossil fuels
c) Sun
d) Wind
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Energy in the form of heat and light is obtained by sun. Sunlight contains a large
amount of energy. The Sun’s energy warms the planet’s surface, powering titanic transfers of
heat and pressure in weather patterns and ocean currents.

13. SI unit for energy is_____________

a) Watt
b) Kilogram
c) Newton
d) Joule
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: SI unit for energy is joule. Metric unit of measurement for energy or work equal to
a force of one Newton applied through a distance of one meter. One joule is equivalent to
0.737324 ft-lbs. Joule is a SI unit of work, energy and heat.

14. Trapped heat inside the earth is known as_______________

a) Heat energy
b) Kinetic energy
c) Geothermal energy
d) Thermal energy
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Geothermal energy is the heat from the earth. It’s clean and sustainable. Resources
of geothermal energy range from the ground to water and hot rock. The term geothermal
originates from the Greek words.
1. Excessive use of macronutrients to crops leads to the deficiency of___________________
a) Micro nutrients
b) Semi nutrients
c) Mega nutrients
d) Mixed nutrients
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: More use of macronutrients leads in the deficiency of micronutrients. Chemical
fertilizers used in modern agriculture contain nitrogen, phosphorus and potassium (N, P, K)
which are macronutrients. By using fertilizers in an excess way it results in micronutrient
imbalance.

2. ‘Blue Body Syndrome’ is caused due to_________________

a) Soil pollution
b) Nitrate pollution
c) Carbon pollution
d) Zinc pollution
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: When excess nitrogenous fertilizers applied in fields it leach deep into the soil
contaminating the ground water. When the concentration of nitrate in drinking water exceeds
25mg/L it leads to a fatal condition in new born babies.

3. Pest which are resistant to pesticides are known as_________________

a) Green pests
b) Multi pests
c) Super pests
d) Strong pests
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Pest which are resistant to pesticides are known as super pests. Some pests that
survive the pesticide generate highly resistant generations that are immune to all kinds of
pesticides. Such pests are known as super pests.

4. Pesticides are biodegradable.

a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Pesticides are not biodegradable. They do not degrade naturally. They need special
treatment in order to degrade. Most pesticides are non biodegradable and accumulate in the food
chain. This is called bio-accumulation.
5. Water stands on land for most of the year is called as_____________
a) Salinity
b) Water loading
c) Water logging
d) Stand by water
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: During water logging the roots of plants do not get enough air for respiration due to
this strength of soil decreases and its cause for the low crop yield. Causes of water logging are
heavy rain, poor drainage and not proper usage of modern agriculture system.

6. Potato famine occurred in Ireland due to pest attack on the complete crop due to monoculture,
this is of using________________
a) Pesticides
b) Nitrogen
c) High yielding varieties
d) Crop rotation
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: High yielding varieties (HYV) are used in modern agriculture to produce more crop
yield. HYV are irrigation and chemical fertilizers intensive. Hence by using excessive chemical
fertilizers and pesticides some useful pests also gets killed.

7. Harmful and high cost pesticides can be replaced by______________

a) Weeds
b) Small animals
c) Artificial protectors
d) Natural predators
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Natural predator method is used to deal with pests like aphids, caterpillars and
slugs. There are two important components for the use of natural predators and they are darkness
and moist. These natural predators are useful for farmers.

8. Though farmers are aware that chemical fertilizers cause damage to the soil of the field they
are using it because___________________
a) Output is low
b) Output is high
c) For healthy crop
d) For healthy soil
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Despite of harness causing to the soil and as well as to the crop farmers using
chemical fertilizers over organic farming. The yield that produced is high by using chemical
fertilizers and it gives resistant to pesticides for initial years for after that yield becomes less and
soil lose its fertility.

9. Which of the following situation is not the effect of modern agriculture?

a) Bio magnification
b) Lost of soil fertility
c) Carbon pollution
d) Ozone depletion
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Ozone depletion is not the effect of modern agriculture. This ozone layer depletion
takes place due to the damage in the Ozone. This may results in a slow and excruciating death of
radiation. It results in the direct flow of UV rays to the Earth atmosphere.

10. Irrigation with light sodium water may damage soil structure by the formation of alkaline
soil.
a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Sodium requires more water layers in order to become stable. When sodium ion
associated with bicarbonate and carbonate ions it causes pH to rise. This pH rise becomes
harmful to soil and thereby damage the crops.

. Which one of the following is not a gaseous biogeochemical cycle in an ecosystem?

a) Carbon cycle
b) Phosphorous cycle
c) Sulfur cycle
d) Nitrogen cycle
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Phosphorous cycle is not a gaseous biogeochemical cycle in an ecosystem. It is also
a biogeochemical cycles but here atmosphere does not play a significant role in the movement of
the phosphorous cycle.

2. Transfer of energy from source of plants through a series of organism is known as

________________
a) Food web
b) Energy cycle
c) Food chain
d) Biological system
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Food chain is a pathway that represents the exchange of energy from one organism
to another. Energy is transmitted all the way from Sun to the other organisms by passing from
producers to the consumers.

3. The type of ecosystem with the highest mean plant productivity is _______________
a) Tundra
b) Temperate grassland
c) Desert
d) Tropical rain forest
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: A Tropical rain forest has more kinds of trees than any other area in the world.
Seventy percent of the plants in the rainforest are trees. There are many distinct layers of trees.
These layers have been identified as the emergent upper, canopy, understory and forest floor.

4. An ecosystem which can be easily damaged but can recovered after some time if damaging
effect stops will be having ____________________
a) High stability and high resilience
b) High stability and low resilience
c) Low stability and low resilience
d) Low stability and high resilience
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: In any ecosystem the condition of low stability and high resilience makes it to
damage easily and after a certain amount of time they recover from damaging effects. Hence
both stability and resilience play an important role in ecosystem.

5. Pyramids of number in grassland ecosystem are inverted.

a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Pyramids of number in grassland ecosystem is erect. It is the graphical
representation which depicts the number of organisms, biomass and productivity at each tropic
level. All ecological pyramids begin at the bottom with the producer and goes into the upper
level.

6. In ecosystem standing crop refers to________________

a) All the green plants
b) All the non living materials
c) All living and dead animals
d) All the living materials both animals and plants
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Standing crop is the amount of total biomass present in an ecosystem. This is the
amount of total living matter. There is no circulation in standing crop. In standing crop
continuous synthesis and consumption of biomass are going on.

7. Which ecosystem produce the highest annual net primary productivity?

a) Tropical evergreen forest
b) Tropical rain forest
c) Tropical deciduous forest
d) Temperate evergreen forest
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Tropical rain forest produce mean NPP of 2200(g/m2/yr) the world NPP is 37.4(109
tons/yr). Tropical rain forest produce mean biomass of 45(Kg/m2) and the world biomass is
763(109 tones). Hence tropical rain forest ecosystem produces the highest annual net primary
productivity(NPP).

8. What flows through the ecosystem while matter cycles within them?
a) Energy
b) Force
c) Pressure
d) Wind
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Ecosystem maintains themselves by cycling energy and nutrients obtained from
external sources. At the first tropic level, primary producers are solar energy to produce organic
plant material through photosynthesis.

9. Total primary production in an ecosystem is known as____________________

a) Gross final production
b) Gross primary production
c) Gross middle production
d) Net primary production
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The total amount of productivity in a region is gross primary productivity. Primary
productivity is the rate at which energy is converted by photosynthetic and chemosynthetic
autotrophy to organic substances.
10. Which type of ecosystem accounts for most of the net primary productivity on earth even
though it has a low average net primary productivity?
a) Tropical rain forest
b) Desert
c) Tropical evergreen forest
d) Oceans
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The open oceans account for most of the net primary productivity on the planet
even though they have one of the lowest average net primary productivities which cover by far
the most area on earth.

11. Generally ecosystem consists of how many basic components?

a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Generally ecosystems consist of two basic components, they are abiotic and biotic
components. Abiotic components include basic inorganic and organic compounds. Biotic
components include producers, consumers and decomposers.

12. The three functional components interact with each other to form__________________
a) Environmental succession
b) Environmental depression
c) Environmental system
d) Ecology
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The three functional components of an ecosystem which are inorganic constituents,
organism and energy input forms environmental system. An ecosystem is a functional and life
sustaining environmental system.

13. The dominant second tropic level in a lake ecosystem is_____________________

a) Phytoplankton
b) Zooplankton
c) Plankton
d) Benthos
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Lake ecosystem includes both biotic and abiotic components. Zooplanktons are the
organisms that have animal like traits. Most of them are heterotrophy in nature. Zooplankton is a
vital component of fresh water food webs.

14. Green plants are the most important organisms for an ecosystem.
a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Green plants form the basis for the sustainability and long term health of the
environmental system. Green plant removes carbon dioxide from the atmosphere and generates
oxygen required for breathing for other organisms include humans.

1. What is called for the process of breaking down food to yield energy?
a) Oxidation
b) Photosynthesis
c) Cellular respiration
d) Decomposition
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Catabolism is a metabolic process in cellular respiration that uses oxygen and
energy to break down nutrients. It creates the waste through an oxidation process with free
chemical energy, which is used to help create the waste.

2. What are called for an organisms which get energy by eating dead organisms?
a) Decomposers
b) Producers
c) Consumers
d) Herbivores
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Decomposers are an organism that break down chemicals from wastes and dead
organisms. In return, it gives important materials to the soil and water. This is the last stop of the
food chain.

3. Which among the following is a product of photosynthesis?

a) Glucose
b) Carbon
c) Monoxide
d) Nitrogen
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Photosynthesis is a process to harvest energy from light. The energy is converted to
biomass. Photosynthesis takes in carbon dioxide and water combine them in the presence of
energy from the sun to make food.

4. What is called for an organism that eats both plants and animals?
a) Omnivore
b) Carnivore
c) Decomposers
d) Herbivore
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Some animals eat both plants and animals they are called omnivores. Omnivores
include mammals and birds. It is very easy for omnivore to find food because they eat both
plants and animals. They are opportunistic eaters.

5. Why energy flow is linear in an ecosystem?

a) Because it flows in air medium
b) Because it is very particular
c) Because ecosystem is linear
d) Because energy flows from one trophic level to the next higher one
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Energy flow is unidirectional because energy flows from one trophic level to next
higher one. One more reason is when there is energy flow some energy lost as heat at each step.
This is according to 10% energy transfer law.

6. Energy flow is cyclic

a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Energy flow is a natural process that has energy associated with the movement. The
energy is passed from one organism to another in the food chain but unlike water and few
elements like nitrogen and carbon, energy doesn’t return in a cycle.

7. Flow of nutrients is___________________________

a) Unidirectional
b) Rectangular
c) Cyclic
d) Triangular
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Nutrients flows in a cyclic form. This is because to create a balance of nutrients in
different resources of the environment. These nutrients even if used are restored by these
biogeochemical cycles. The flow of nutrients from abiotic factor to biotic factors helped by
biogeochemical cycles.

8. Why plants in forests do not make use of all the light energy available to them?
a) Because plants do not require energy
b) Because plants are grown only in the winter season
c) Because of the absence of chlorophyll
d) Because sunlight doesn’t fall on the leaves fully
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: All plants require light energy in order to obtain energy. This energy is providing
by sun known as ultimate source of energy. When sun light falls on the plants in the dense forest
due to its shady branches of big trees which forms canopy.

9. Which form of Sun’s energy is trapped by the producers in the energy flow?
a) Light energy
b) Chemical energy
c) Wind energy
d) Pressure energy
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The potential for light to perform work is called as light energy. Here light from
sun enters the plants and there it creates energy with the help of chlorophyll. This chlorophyll is
a green pigment present in all green plants to trap light energy.

10. How many percents of energy transferred from one trophic level to the next higher level?
a) 10%
b) 20%
c) 50%
d) 100%
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Only about 10% of energy is transferred from one trophic level to the next higher
trophic level. The rest of the energy is lost through heat as it transfers along each level. The
reason for this is when energy is transferred energy is lost. This is according to second law of
thermodynamics.

11. Into how many areas the energy that is received by organisms during energy transfer is
converted?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The energy that is received during energy transfer which is received by organisms
is converted onto three different areas. The three areas are, a)Net Consumer Productivity,
b)Metabolic Energy, c) Organic Waste.

12. There is always a loss of some energy as heat during energy flows through an ecosystem.
a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: At each trophic level about 90% of the energy is lost. It is called as ‘Ten Percent
Law’, which was introduced by Lindeman in 1942. According to this law, during the transfer of
energy from organic food from one tropic level to the next, only 10% of the energy from organic
matter is stored as flesh.

1. How many types of ecological succession are there?

a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: There are two types of ecological succession they are primary succession,
secondary succession and cyclic succession. Primary succession occurs when a new land is
formed which provide habitant to colonized for first time. In secondary succession there is a
recolonized in a previously occupied area.

2. What is called for the term used to express a community in its final stage of succession?
a) End community
b) Final community
c) Climax community
d) Dark community
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The term climax community is used to express a community in its final stage of
succession. The climax community may change if there are changed in climate or long term
evolutionary changes in species.

3. What is called for the term in which all the living organisms that occupy an area undergoing
primary succession in the beginning stages?
a) Climax community
b) Settled community
c) Dense community
d) Pioneer community
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: When succession occurs in any particular area smaller species such as bacteria,
fungi are usually first to come in. These first organisms that settle an area make up the pioneer
community. These pioneer communities later lead to biological succession.

4. What is called for the process when older communities of plants and animals are replaced by
newer communities?
a) Evolution
b) Deforestation
c) Forestation
d) Ecological succession
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Ecological succession can be defined as changing sequence of communities that
live in an ecosystem during a given time period. The actual species involved in a succession in a
particular area can control by geology, climate, soil type and other environmental factors.

5. Which process occurs after a volcanic eruption?

a) Primary succession
b) Secondary succession
c) Nitrogen fixation
d) Oxidation
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Secondary succession refers to the concept of an ecosystem reviving itself after all
has been destroyed. In an area where a volcano erupts the lava inside cause damage to the plant
and tree life. If the land which was affected by volcanic eruption and not covered in new
volcanic rock, roots or plants parts in soil could renew.

6. Species diversity hurts ecological succession.

a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Species diversity does not contribute for ecological succession. The diversity
among the species is high at pioneer community. However as time passed competition and
interaction causes a significant drop in species diversity.
7. Soil changes due to erosion is an example of which of the following succession?
a) Allogenic succession
b) Autogenic succession
c) Computational succession
d) Emigrational succession
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Succession driven by the abiotic components of an ecosystem is known as allogenic
succession. In contrast, an autogenic succession is driven by the biotic components of the
ecosystem. Allogenic succession happens on a time scale that is proportionate with the
disturbance.

8. What is called for the succession driven by the biotic components of an ecosystem?
a) Allogenic succession
b) Autogenic succession
c) Computational succession
d) Migration succession
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: In autogenic succession plants they cause succession to occur light captured by
leaves, production of detritus and nitrogen fixation. Autogenic succession can be viewed as a
secondary succession because of pre existing plant life.

9. What is called for a pattern of vegetation change in which a small number of species tend to
replace each other over time in the absence of large scale disturbance?
a) Primary succession
b) Secondary succession
c) Tertiary succession
d) Cyclic succession
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Cyclic ecological succession happens within established communities and is merely
a changing of the structure of the ecosystem on a cyclical basis. In cyclic replacement
observation that made has provided evidence against end state climax community.

10. Which is the first process in ecological succession?

a) Nudation
b) Migration
c) Ecesis
d) Aggregation
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Nudation is defined as the development of a bare site uninhabited by any
organisms. This nudation is usually caused by disturbances in topographic, climatic or biotic
factors. The areas formed can sustain only autotrophic organisms which can utilize in organic
substrates.

11. What is called for the succession occurring within a microhabitat?

a) Primary succession
b) Nudation
c) Serule
d) Climax succession
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Micro-organisms such as fungi and bacteria occurring within a microhabitat known
as serule. This type of succession occurs in newly available habitat. Changes of pH in a habitat
could provide ideal conditions for a new species to inhabit the area.

12. What is called for the climax which is governed by more than one climate?
a) Climatic climax
b) Catastrophic climax
c) Sub climax
d) Edaphic climax
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Community in which climax is governed by more than one climax communities in
a region, soil nutrients, soil moisture, scope exposure and animal activity is called as edaphic
climax. Soil factors like salinity, alkalinity determined climax community.

13. After landslide which of the following type of succession occurs?

a) Primary
b) Secondary
c) Tertiary
d) Climax
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Succession is generally regarded as primary when it occurs on a landslide where
rock and subsoil, virtually free of organic matter are exposed, despite the fact that landslide was
formed the substratum just beneath a developed soil carrying vegetation.

14. Ecesis is the initial establishment of the plant community.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Ecesis is dependent on the soil structure and it is the initial establishment of the
plant community. In this stage, the early colonizing species proliferate abundantly through
germination, growth and reproduction. It is due to allogenic mechanisms.

. Who developed ecological pyramids for the first time?

a) Charles Newton
b) Charles Elton
c) Charles Babbage
d) Charles Darwin
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Ecological pyramids were first developed by Charles Elton. Since he first
developed ecological pyramid is also known as Eltonian pyramid. An ecological pyramid may be
erect or inverted depending on the type of criterion and the ecosystem.

2. Where we can find the inverted pyramids of biomass?

a) Terrestrial ecosystem
b) Aquatic ecosystem
c) Grassland ecosystem
d) Desert ecosystem
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Aquatic ecosystems have inverted biomass pyramids because there’s a high
turnover rate of producers. This is stable because high rates of production keep up to
consumption rates. Inverted food pyramid means that consumers are more than producers.

3. Which of the following shows the numbers of the producers, herbivores and the carnivores at
their successive trophic levels?
a) Food web
b) Food chain
c) Pyramid of biomass
d) Pyramid of numbers
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Pyramid of numbers is the number of organisms in a food chain can represent
graphically in a pyramid. Each bar represents the number of individuals at each trophic level in
the food chain. Hence pyramid of numbers represent the number of herbivores and the carnivores
at their successive trophic levels.

4. How can we indicate the accurate energy passed at each trophic level?
a) By the help of pyramid of number
b) By the help of pyramid of biomass
c) By the help of pyramid of energy
d) By the help of pyramid of food web
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: A pyramid of biomass is a more accurate indication of how much energy is passed
at each trophic level. Biomass is the mass of living material in each organism multiplied by the
total number of organisms in that trophic level.

5. Which of the following statement is true for pyramid of biomass?

a) The biomass in each trophic level is always more than the below trophic level
b) The biomass in each trophic level is always less than the below trophic level
c) The biomass in each trophic level is entirely different compared to below one
d) Trophic level don’t pass energy
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Biomass is a measure of the amount of food available. When animals eat only a
small proportion of their food, it is converted into new tissue. This tissue is the food for the next
trophic level organisms.

6. Pyramid of energy shows the relationship between energy and trophic level.
a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Pyramid of energy depicts flow of energy in the ecosystem. Source of all energy in
ecosystem is the sun. Producers are only organisms in an ecosystem that can trap the solar
energy. So base of energy pyramid is always wide compare to others.

7. What is the significance of the shape of the pyramid of energy?

a) It shows decrease in energy
b) It shows increase in energy
c) It shows the direction of energy flow
d) It shows the trophic levels
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Pyramid of energy is always upright in shape, this is because as energy lost as heat
along food chains either used in respiration or lost due to heat. So there will be decrease in
energy. Energy transformation is just about 10% for higher trophic levels.

8. Why are the trophic levels is in the shape of pyramid?

a) Due to loss of energy between the trophic level
b) Due to good looking
c) Due to increase of energy between the trophic level
d) Due to stable energy between the trophic level
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The pyramid shape of the trophic level comes from the loss of energy between the
levels. The chain grows only 10% of the energy supply to the proceeding animals, that energy
loss will be used to produce new primary consumers.

9. Which pyramid is always upright apart from tree ecosystem?

a) Pyramid of Number
b) Pyramid of Biomass
c) Pyramid of Energy
d) Pyramid of Force
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Pyramid of a number represents the total number of organisms at each trophic level.
It is always upright except in a tree ecosystem. In tree ecosystem pyramid of number is inverted.
Usually, it contains four trophic levels.

10. What is the exception to the upright pyramid of biomass?

a) Temperate forests
b) Deserts
c) Aquatic ecosystems
d) Grassland ecosystems
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The pyramids of biomass represent the relationship between different trophic levels
in terms of biomass. In aquatic ecosystem the producers are small organisms with least biomass
and the biomass gradually increase towards the apex of the pyramid.

11. In an energy pyramid, which way does energy transfer occur?

a) From both top to bottom and bottom to top of pyramid
b) From middle of pyramid
c) From top to the bottom of pyramid
d) From bottom to the top of pyramid
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The largest source of energy for an ecosystem is the Sun. Energy and nutrients
passed when one organism eats another. Usually producers are in large amount when compared
to that of consumers.
12. Which of the following ecological pyramids is the most fundamental?
a) Pyramid of energy
b) Pyramid of numbers
c) Pyramid of biomass
d) Pyramid of force
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Pyramid of energy is a diagrammatic expression of the rates of flow of energy
through the different trophic levels of an ecosystem. The pyramid reflects the rates of respiration
and photosynthesis.

13. How many types of ecological pyramids are there?

a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: There are three types of ecological pyramids are there, a) Pyramid of Number: It
represents the total number of organisms at each trophic level. b) Pyramid of Biomass: It
represents total weight of the organisms in each trophic level. c) Pyramid of Energy: It represents
total energy of the organisms in each trophic level.

14. The pyramid of biomass is upright in aquatic ecosystem.

a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Pyramid of Biomass is inverted in case of aquatic ecosystem because the producers
in aquatic ecosystem are phytoplankton. This phytoplankton grows and reproduces rapidly. The
pyramid of biomass has a small base, with the consumer biomass exceeding the producer
biomass.

1. How many parts are there in the forest ecosystem?

a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: A forest ecosystem has two parts they are, abiotic and biotic. Abiotic type of forest
depends on abiotic conditions at the site, they are also called non-living aspects of the forest.
Biotic type of forest depends on plants and animals form communities that are specific to each
forest type.

2. On which factor forest type is mainly dependent?

a) Abiotic
b) Size of the forest
c) Shape of trees
d) Products from the trees
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The forest type mainly depends on abiotic factors such as the climate and soil
characteristics of a region. It also depends on the nature of the tree species whether they are
evergreen forest, deciduous, xerophytes or mangroves.

3. Where can we find coniferous forest in India?

a) Deserts
b) River deltas
c) Grassland
d) Himalayan
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Coniferous forests grow in the Himalayan mountain region. It requires low
temperature. Forests dominated by conifers such as pine, hemlock, spruce and fir. Wildlife such
as snow leopards, Himalayan tahrs and musk deer’s are found in this region.

4. Why most of the Sun light does not penetrate to the ground in evergreen forest?
a) Because of snowfall
b) Because of less temperature
c) Because of trees overlap with each other
d) Because of less rainfall
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Evergreen forests look green throughout the year due to high rainfall. The trees
overlap with each other to form a continuous canopy. Thus, little light penetrates down to the
forest floor. The forest is rich in orchids and ferns.

5. Which state in India has the maximum percentage of its area covered by forests?
a) Arunachal Pradesh
b) Madhya Pradesh
c) Mizoram
d) Nagaland
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Mizoram has the highest percentage is covered by forests. The state is host to
numerous species of birds, wildlife. This is followed by Lakshadweep. Mizoram covers about
88% of its land with forest.

6. Forest plays an important role in ecosystem.

a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Forests hold importance for all inhabitants as well as for the overall health of
planet. Forest protects from adverse climatic conditions. Forests are major contributors to the
Earth’s ability to maintain its climate. Deforestation negates these benefits.

7. Where can we find thorn forest in India?

a) Semi-arid regions
b) Desert regions
c) Himalayan regions
d) Northeast regions
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Thorn forests are found in the semi-arid regions of India. The trees, which are
sparsely distributed, are surrounded by open grassy area. Thorn forest trees have long or fibrous
roots to enable them to reach water at great depths.

8. What is considered as lungs of nature?

a) Rock
b) Sun
c) Water
d) Trees
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Tress is considered as lungs of nature. Trees control pollutions by absorption and
carbon dioxide and they release oxygen in return. This is similar to the respiration mechanism of
lungs in humans where it takes oxygen by eliminating carbon dioxide.

9. How erosion controlled by forest?

a) By reducing in the sunlight penetration
b) By reducing the rainfall’s force on the soil’s surface
c) By reducing the pressure
d) By increasing the rainfall’s force on the soil’s surface
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Forest prevents erosion by reducing the rainfall’s force on the soil’s surface. Forest
absorbing water and they do not allow it to flow directly run off. By this method, they prevent
the removal of topsoil.

10. How forests increase the atmosphere’s humidity?

a) By transpiration
b) By inspiration
c) By expiration
d) By oxidation
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Forest release water vapor by transpiration which increases humidity. Forest
contains many trees, these trees undergo photosynthesis. During this process, they released
oxygen and water resulting in increase in humidity of atmosphere.

11. Which of the following type of forest important for watersheds?

a) Tropical Evergreen forest
b) Tropical Deciduous forest
c) Tropical Montane forests
d) Grassland forest
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Tropical Montane forests play an important role in watersheds. Watersheds are
defined as an area of land that contains a common set of streams and rivers that all join into a
single larger body of water. Tropical Montane forest is characterized by dense forest which helps
in watershed.

12. How the tropical rain forest gets the name?

a) Due to less rain
b) Due to heavy rain
c) Due to moderate rain
d) Due to no rain required
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The tropical rain forest named so because they receive a lot of rain. They receive an
average of 80 inches a year. Due to heavy rain temperature doesn’t change very much and it is
always warm and muggy.

13. Where can we find the most feared spider in the world ‘Tarantulas’?
a) In deserts
b) In mountains
c) In tropical rain forests
d) In grassland forest
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: ‘Tarantulas’ is one of the deadliest spiders found in tropical rain forest. Most
species of tarantula have poisonous fangs for killing prey and to protect itself from other
organisms. The tropical rain forest suits for this spider to survive.

14. The biomass of a forest is defined as the mass of living plants.

a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The biomass of a forest is defined as the mass of living plants. It is normally
expressed as dry weight per unit area. Biomass production in the forest is the rate at which
biomass is accrued per unit area over a fixed interval of time in a forest.

1. What is the predominate vegetation in grassland ecosystem?

a) Sand
b) Land
c) Rock
d) Grass
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Grassland ecosystem includes a wide range of landscapes in which the vegetation is
predominantly grass and small annual plants specifically adapted to India’s climatic conditions.
Due to the high presence of grass vegetation it got its name as Grassland ecosystem.

2. In grassland area how much amount of rainfall is required?

a) Low rainfall
b) High rainfall
c) Moderate rainfall
d) They don’t require any rainfall
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Grasslands cover areas where rainfall is low. The area of grassland ecosystem has
soil depth and its quality is poor. The low rainfall prevents the growth of a large number of trees
and shrubs. It is sufficient to support the growth of grass cover during the monsoon.

3. How humans use grassland?

a) To cultivate the land
b) To feed livestock
c) To grow thick forests
d) Grassland is not at all useful for humans
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Humans use grassland to feed various livestock. Grassland mainly consists of grass,
animals such as cow, buffalo, sheep and various other animals depend eat grass as their main
food. Thus by raring cattle humans many products from livestock.

4. Which of the following ecosystem shows varieties in his vegetation?

a) Aquatic ecosystem
b) Desert ecosystem
c) Grassland ecosystem
d) Forest ecosystem
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Grasslands form a variety of ecosystems located in different climatic conditions. It
ranges from near desert conditions to patches of shoal grasslands that occur on hill-slopes. In the
Himalayas, there are high cold pastures.

5. Where we can find tracts of tall elephant grass?

a) Terai belt
b) Deccan belt
c) Himalayan pasture belt
d) Gangs belt
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Tracts of tall elephant grass present in the low lying terai belt south of the
Himalayan foothills. This is one of the types of grassland which is found in India. They form
variety of ecosystems based on climatic conditions.

6. Himalayan wildlife requires both forest and grassland ecosystems.

a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Himalayan Wildlife requires both ecosystems. They want forest as well as
grassland ecosystem as vital parts of their habitat. The animal migrates up into the high altitude
grasslands in the summer season. In winter they move downwards.

7. What is the type of grassland ecosystem which is found at Western India, Central India and
the Deccan?
a) The semi-arid plains
b) The terai
c) The Himalayan pasture belt
d) The shola
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The semi-arid plains of Western India, Central India and the Deccan are covered by
grassland tracts with patches of thorn forest. Several mammals such as blackbuck, chinkara and
birds such as bustards and floricans are adapted to this condition.

8. Which of the following consist of patches on hill slopes?

a) The shola grassland
b) Desert
c) Himalayan region
d) Deccan pasture land
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The shola grasslands consist of patches on hill slopes that occur alongside the shola
forests on the Western Ghats and the Anamalai ranges. These form patchworks of grassland on
the slopes and forest habitats along the streams.

9. Which ecosystem are the grazing areas of many rural communities?

a) Tropical evergreen
b) Tropical deciduous
c) Grassland
d) Desert
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Farmers who keep cattle or goats and shepherds are highly dependent on grasslands
to supply food for their livestock. Many rural people use grassland for grazing purpose. The
grass is also to thatch houses and farm-sheds.

10. What is stored to feed cattle if there is no grass during summer to cattle?
a) Vegetables
b) Chemical manures
c) Fodder
d) Water
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Grassland is used to graze cattle. Fodder is collected and stored to feed cattle when
there is no grass left for them to graze in summer. Sometimes grassland ecosystem won’t give
healthy grass due to climatic changes.
11. How grassland converted into flat stubs?
a) By over grazing
b) By less grazing
c) By climatic changes
d) By less water
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: When animals over graze, the grasses are converted into flat stubs with very little
green matter left in the land. Degraded grasslands have fewer grass species as the nutritious
species which are used by the large number of domestic animals.

12. How many percent of grassland covered in terms of permanent pastures in India?
a) 2.7%
b) 3.7%
c) 4.7%
d) 5.5%
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: According to 2002 report given by the ‘Food and Agriculture Organization’, the
grassland cover in the country, in terms of permanent pastures is only 3.7% of the total land
which includes all types of ecosystem.

13. Why rotational grazing pattern established?

a) To preserve grassland ecosystem
b) To destroy grassland ecosystem
c) To graze in the tropical rain forests
d) To grow grass in grassland ecosystem
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: In order to close a part of the grassland in an area every year, the rotational grazing
pattern is established. Grasslands should be over grazed and some areas should be closed for
grazing the live stock.

14. Human activities such as fires affect grassland adversely.

a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: When fires are lit in the grasslands in summer, the burnt grass gets a fresh flush of
small green shoots which the domestic animals graze on. In this is done too frequently, the
grassland begins to deteriorate and grassland becomes bare.
1. When did the Montreal protocol come into force?
a) 1985
b) 1987
c) 1989
d) 1991
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Montreal protocol on substances that deplete ozone layer came into force in 1989.
The protocol settargete for reducing the consumption and production of a range of ozone
depleting substances.

2. When did India accepted Montreal protocol?

a) 1990
b) 1991
c) 1992
d) 1993
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Though Montreal protocol came into force in 1989, India accepted this protocol
with its London Amendment in September 1992. The Ministry of Environment and Forest has
established an ozone cell for this.

3. When did Kyoto protocol adopted?

a) 1996
b) 1997
c) 2000
d) 2007
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The Kyoto protocol was adopted in Kyoto, Japan on December 1997. It entered int
force on 16 February 2005. It is an international treaty which extends the 1992 United Nations
Framework Convention Climate Change.

4. For the convention on Biological Diversity which protocol was adopted?

a) Kyoto
b) Montreal
c) The Nagoya Protocol
d) The Cartagena protocol
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The Cartagena protocol on biosafety was adapted to the convention on Biological
Diversity. It is an international agreement which aims to ensure the safe handling, transport and
use of living modified organisms.

5. Which protocol aims to sharing the benefits arising from the utilization of genetic resources?
a) The Nagoya Protocol
b) The Cartagena protocol
c) Kyoto Protocol
d) Montreal Protocol
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The Nagoya Protocol on Access and Benefits-sharing is an international agreement
which aims at sharing the benefits arising from the utilization of genetic resources in a fair and
equitable way. It came into force on 12th October 2014.

6. Protocol and conventions are the same.

a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: A protocol to the convention is an agreement that diplomatic negotiators formulate
and sign as the basis for a final convention where the parties set specific aims. Usually, when a
major provision is to be incorporated a protocol is called among the countries.

7. Which protocol helps to phase out Hydro-fluorocarbons?

a) Montreal Protocol
b) Kyoto Protocol
c) The Cartagena Protocol
d) The Nagoya Protocol
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Hydro-fluorocarbons are greenhouse gases with a significantly higher warming
potential than carbon dioxide. More than 170 countries have reached a historic deal to phase out
Hydro-fluorocarbons after years of protracted.

8. How many parties are there in the Nagoya Protocol?

a) 91
b) 93
c) 95
d) 97
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The Nagoya Protocol was adopted on29 October 2010 in Nagoya, Japan. Presently
there are 93 parties are there. Secretary General of the United Nations worked as a depository for
the Nagoya protocol.

9. When did the Nagoya-Kuala Lumpur supplementary protocol come into force?
a) 2011
b) 2015
c) 2017
d) 2018
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The Nagoya-Kuala Lumpur supplementary protocol is the recent added protocol.
This protocol is majorly on Liability and Redress to the Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety. This
protocol came into force on 5 March 2018.

10. The international committee came into force for the Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety.
a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The international committee for the Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety (ICC) was
established in decision EM-1/3 adoption the Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety to undertake the
preparations necessary for the first meeting of the parties to the protocol.

. Which convention adopted for the protection of ozone layer?

a) Vienna Convention
b) Basel Convention
c) Montreal Protocol
d) Stockholm Convention
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The Vienna Convention was adopted in 1985. The main objectives are, parties to
promote and cooperation by means of systematic observations, research and information
exchange on the effects of human activities on the ozone layer.

2. How many years once the parties in the Vienna Convention meet to take a decision?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The parties of the Vienna Convention meet once in three years in order to make
decisions designed to administer the convention. In 2009, the Vienna Convention became the
first Convention of any kind to achieve universal ratification.

3. When did Stockholm Convention on persistent organic pollutants came into exist?
a) 2000
b) 2002
c) 2004
d) 2006
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Stockholm Convention on persistent organic pollutants came into exist on 17 May
2004. It is a global treaty to protect human health and the environment from persistent organic
pollutants and thus helps to maintain the health of humans and environment.

4. What are persistent organic pollutants?

a) Organic manure
b) Weed
c) Sand
d) Chemicals
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Persistent organic pollutants (POPs) are chemicals that remain intact in the
environment for long periods and become widely distributed geographically and accumulated in
the fatty tissue of living organisms.

5. What is the main aim of Stockholm Convention on persistent organic pollutants?

a) Eliminate dangerous POPs
b) Increase the usage of dangerous POPs
c) Developing strong chemicals
d) Increase in the production of POPs
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The main aim of Stockholm Convention on persistent organic pollutants is to
eliminate dangerous POPs starting with the 12 worst. Apart from this it also aims o support the
transition to safer alternatives for POPs.

6. Rotterdam Convention is established to trade with hazardous chemicals.

a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Rotterdam Convention is the prior informed consent procedure for certain
hazardous chemicals and pesticides in international trade. This Rotterdam Convention came into
force in February 24, 2004.

7. Basel Convention is mainly deals with_________________

a) Biological diversity
b) Hazardous wastes and their disposals
c) Persistent organic pollutants
d) Ozone depleting
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Basel Convention was adopted on 22 March 1989 by the conference of
Plenipotentiaries in Basel, Switzerland. The main aim is to control of transboundary movements
of hazardous wastes and its disposals.

8. What is the main aim of UNFCCC?

a) Stabilization of greenhouse gas
b) Increase of greenhouse gas
c) Increase of temperature
d) Stabilization of oxygen
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) came
into exist in June 1992. The reason behind this is to achieve stabilization in greenhouse gases
concentration in atmosphere.

9. Which convention came into exist for the use of ‘Transboundary water courses’?
a) Vienna Convention
b) Stockholm Convention
c) Helsinki Convention
d) Bucharest Convention
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Foe the regulation of use of international watercourses Helsinki Convention came
into exists in 1992. The main aim is to protect and use of Transboundary watercourses and
international lakes seeks to established cooperative frameworks.

10. How many principles proclaimed at Rio de Janeiro Convention?

a) 21
b) 25
c) 27
d) 29
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The United Nations Conference on Environment and Development met at the Rio
de Janeiro Convention from 3rd to 14th June 1992. During this meeting they proclaimed 27
principles with the goal of establishing a new partnership.

11. For the conservation of migratory species of wild animals which convention took place?
a) Rio de Janeiro Convention
b) Bonn Convention
c) Basel Convention
d) Aarhus Convention
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Bonn Convention came into exist for the conservation of migratory species of wild
animals. And also to conserve terrestrial species and marine species throughout their range was
the objective of this convention.

12. When did the Washington Convention happen?

a) 1972
b) 1973
c) 1975
d) 1978
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Washington Convention is an international agreement between governments,
drafted as a result of a resolution adopted in 1973 at the meeting held at International Union for
Conservation of Nature.

13. What is the full form of ENMOD?

a) Environmental Middle Convention
b) Environmental Modification Convention
c) Environmental Middle Center
d) Environmental Modification Center
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The Environmental Modification Convention (ENMOD) is an international treaty
for prohibiting the military or other hostile use of environmental modification techniques. It
came into force on October 5th 1978.

14. The Ramsar Convention is also called as the Convention on Wetlands.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The Ramsar Convention is an intergovernmental treaty that provides the framework
for national action and international cooperation for the conservation and wise use of wetlands
and their resources.

1. What is called for the benefits that nature provides to human beings?
a) Ecosystem services
b) Ecosystem conservation
c) Ecosystem degradation
d) Ecosystem pool
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Ecological services are the environmental benefits resulting from physical,
chemical and biological functions of ecosystems. Ecological services include market goods
produced from ecosystems and non material benefits.

2. Why are ecosystem services important for sustainable development?

a) Due to increase in population
b) Due to decrease in population
c) Due to increase in forest area
d) Due to increase in animals
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The human population is increasing day by day and it will become a greater
demand for many natural resources. The limited natural resources from the ecosystem may not
satisfy each and everyone desire. Thus ecosystem services are important for sustainable
development.

3. How might ecosystem services save our life?

a) By providing energy
b) By expanding our wealth
c) By killing organisms
d) By causing damages to ecosystem
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Many ecosystem services provide food which is the basic thing for all organisms to
sustain the life. This food which contributes food web and thus the energy keep on passing from
producers to decomposers.

4. Which of the following natural capital provide food production?

a) Grasslands
b) Forests
c) Wetlands
d) Croplands
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Cropland is defined as a land that includes areas used for the production of adapted
crops for harvest. Two subcategories of cropland are recognized, cultivated and noncultivated.
Cropland is the natural capital which provides food production.

5. What is the main reason for the reduction of ecological services?

a) Excessive growth of forest
b) Unsustainable depletion of natural capital
c) Increase in the yield of food crops
d) Improper management
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Ecological services have been declining continually as landscapes and are
converted from their natural states for human use. Unsustainable depletion of natural capital
results in the reduction of ecological services.

6. Humans are completely depended on the natural forest for food.

a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Humans are not completely depends on natural forests for food. We grow many
food items that are required in private croplands. This private cropland meets the dependence of
food for both humans and as well as animals.

7. Which of the following factor help to conserve water quality?

a) Sunlight
b) Forest
c) Rock
d) Sand
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Forests helps to conserve water quality. Trees provide shade to keep water cool.
Cool water maintains higher oxygen content when compared to warm water. Water temperature
and sedimentation play an important role in maintaining water quality.

8. Which of the following helps to preserve biodiversity?

a) Private forests
b) Rocks
c) Seas
d) Sediments
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Private forests play an important role in providing habitant to wildlife and they
preserve biodiversity. Private forest in particular makes an important contribution to the
conservation of aquatic habitat.

9. Which of the following is the important pool of carbon?

a) Air
b) Water
c) Forest
d) Land
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Forests constitute an important pool of carbon. Trees take carbon out of the
atmosphere through photosynthesis. This carbon is stored in the trees. Green wood of weight is
about 25% carbon. Thus carbon plays an important role in ecosystem.

10. Which type of forest is widely used for outdoor recreation?

a) Natural forests
b) Private forests
c) Dead forests
d) Grassland forests
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Forest land together with another water bodies like lake and streams provide an
excellent resource for outdoor recreation. Some of the outdoor recreation are swimming, fishing
and hiking. Private forests are often used for recreation compared to other types of forests.

11. How did ecosystem services help for pollination of crops?

a) By the help of humans
b) By animals help
c) By natural calamities
d) By self germination
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Plants rely on animals or the wind to pollinate the crops. Animals such as bees,
butterflies and moths pollinate plants. All this pollination occurs accidentally. Animals while
getting food the sticky pollen made at the base of the pollen helps in the pollination process.

12. According to Millennium Ecosystem Assessment, how many percent of ecosystem services
are used unsustainably?
a) 50%
b) 60%
c) 70%
d) 80%
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: According to the Millennium Ecosystem Assessment, biodiversity is a necessary
underlying component of ecological goods and services. In 2005, they made a project and
showed that 60% of ecosystem services are being degraded.

13. How many categories of service provide of ecosystem to humans according to ‘Millennium
Ecosystem Assessment (MEA)?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: In MEA scientist developed four basic categories of services provided by
ecosystem to humans they are, 1. Providing services like wood, 2. Regulating services like flood
regulations, 3. Supporting services like ecological processes, 4. Cultural services like aesthetic.

14. Ecosystem services are the benefits that humans freely gain from nature.
a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Ecosystem services are providing by nature for free of cost to humans. But instead
of using it in useful way humans degrading it. This leads to the improper use of ecological
services. The term ‘Environmental Services’ was introduced in 1970.

1. How many types of aquatic ecosystems are there?

a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: There are two important aquatic ecosystems are there. One is fresh water ecosystem
and one more is marine ecosystem. Again these two ecosystems are further divided into various
categories. Marine includes sea whereas fresh water includes lakes, rivers and wetlands.
2. Where plants and animals live in aquatic ecosystems?
a) Water
b) Land
c) Air
d) Fire
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: In aquatic ecosystems, plants and animals live in water. These species which are
live in water adapted themselves for a different type of aquatic habitats. From breeding to all
mechanisms take place inside the water only.

3. What made organisms to build their ecosystem in quatic?

a) Curiosity
b) Evolution
c) Force from other organisms
d) Increase in water level
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: According to scientists Earth’s first cellular life arose primordial in oceans. Later as
evolution takes place many animals from aquatic ecosystem came to land and adopt themselves
to live in the condition of land.

4. Where can we find both running water as well as stagnant water?

a) Marine ecosystems
b) Wetlands
c) Coral reefs
d) Freshwater ecosystems
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The freshwater ecosystems that have running water as streams and rivers. Ponds,
tanks and lakes are ecosystems where water doesn’t flow. So in freshwater we can find both
running water as well as stagnant water.

5. In which of the following we can see fluctuation in the water level dramatically in different
season?
a) Coral reefs
b) Brackish water
c) Wetlands
d) Deep oceans
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Wetlands are special ecosystems in which the water level fluctuates dramatically in
different seasons. They have expanses of shallow water with aquatic vegetation form an ideal
habitat for fish and water birds.

6. Sea is salty.
a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Water flows down rivers and streams from mountains and usually there is no
outflows from seas and oceans. Thus all the minerals and salts that are collected as water travels
down rivers and lakes are collected in sea. Hence sea is salty.

7. Which is the largest ecosystem on Earth?

a) Desert
b) Forest
c) Grassland
d) Oceans
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Ocean is the largest ecosystem on Earth. When we see the Earth from space we can
only see blue color. That is due to water, seventy percent of Earth’s surface is covered by water,
Water is vital for the survival of all living things.

8. Where can we see coral reefs?

a) In pond
b) In desert
c) In shallow trophical seas
d) In dense tropical forest
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Coral reefs come under Marine ecosystems. Marine ecosystems are highly saline
water. Coral reefs are very rich in species and are found only in shallow trophical seas. The coral
reefs in India are around the Andaman and Nicobar islands and found in the Gulf of Kutch.

9. Which of the following is among the world’s most productive ecosystems in terms of biomass
production?
a) Pond ecosystems
b) Lake ecosystems
c) Brackish water ecosystems
d) River ecosystems
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Brackish water ecosystems in river deltas are covered by mangrove forests and are
among the world’s most productive ecosystems in biomass production. Sunderbans in a delta of
Ganges river is one of the example.

10. Which is the simplest aquatic ecosystem?

a) Pond
b) Stream
c) Lake
d) Marine
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Pond is the simplest aquatic ecosystems. Most ponds become dry after the rain over
and are covered by terrestrial plants for the rest of the year. When the ponds fills in the monsoon
season, a large number of food chains formed in the pond ecosystems.

11. Which ecosystem is known as giant permanent pond?

a) Lake ecosystem
b) Pond ecosystem
c) Seashore ecosystem
d) Marine ecosystem
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: A lake ecosystem functions like a giant permanent pond. A large amount of its
plant material is algae. Algae derives its energy directly from sun, this energy is transferred to
microscopic animals which feeds on algae.

12. How many oceans constitute the marine ecosystems around peninsular India?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The Indian Ocean, Arabian Sea and Bay of Bengal constitute the marine
ecosystems around peninsular India. In the coastal areas, the sea is shallow while further away it
is deep. Peninsular shape helps India to protect from neighboring countries.

13. Beach is classified into which ecosystem?

a) Lake ecosystem
b) Seashore ecosystem
c) Pond ecosystem
d) River ecosystem
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Beaches can be sandy, rocky, shell covered. On each of these different types
several species have evolved to occupy a separate them. There is a presence of crustaceans as
crabs that make holes in the sand.

14. Humans are dependent on aquatic ecosystem.

a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Humans use aquatic ecosystems for clean freshwater on which human life depends.
Water is usually impounded by large dams to ensure supply throughout the year. Agriculture and
industry are highly dependent on water.

1. In which of the following place we can find the cold deserts?

a) Bangalore
b) Chennai
c) Himalaya
d) Rajasthan
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Cold deserts are the deserts where we can find less vegetation and few organisms
which is adopted to live in cold regions. Cold deserts covered with snow. We can also find this
cold deserts in the high plateaus of the Himalayas.

2. What kind of climate we can find in the Thar desert?

a) Cold
b) Dry
c) Cool
d) Moist
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The climate in the Thar desert is extremely dry. Most of the typical desert
landscape seen in Rajasthan is in the Thar desert. Thar desert has sand dunes and it also has areas
covered with spares grasses with few shrubs.

3. Where can we find babul tree?

a) In deserts ecosystems
b) In river deltas
c) In grassland ecosystems
d) In semi-arid ecosystems
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Semi-Arid ecosystem or also known as a desert vegetation. The areas in the
adjoining semi-arid tract, the vegetation consists of a few shrubs and thorny trees. Babul is one
of the thorny tree found along with the kher tree.

4. Why Rann of Kutch attracts aquatic birds in monsoon season?

a) Because desert land is converted to forest land
b) Because desert land is converted to snow
c) Because desert land do not convert
d) Because desert land is converted to salt marshes
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Rann of Kutch is extraordinarily specialized air ecosystems. In summer the land is
similar to a desert landscape. These are low-lying areas near the sea, they are converted to salt
marshes during the monsoon.

5. Which is the only breeding colony of the flamingos in India?

a) The Little Rann
b) The Great Rann of Kutch
c) The Himalayans
d) Thar desert
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The Great Rann of Kutch is the only breeding colony of the greater and lesser
flamingos in India. Condition in this landscape suits for flamingos to breed during a certain
period of the year. The Little Rann of Kutch is the only home of the wild ass in India.

6. Desert and semi-arid regions have many organisms such as insects, birds and animals.
a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Desert and semi-arid regions have a number of specialized insects and reptiles. The
rare animals such as Indian Wolf, desert cat, desert fox and birds such as the great Indian bustard
and florican also present in desert ecosystem.

7. For what purpose areas of scanty vegetation is used?

a) Grazing
b) Farming
c) Water storage
d) To generate wind power
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Areas of scanty vegetation with semi-arid land have been used for cattle goat and
camel in states like Rajasthan and Gujarat. This also used for sheep grazing in the Deccan
plateau. So grazing is the main advantage for scanty vegetation area.

8. What makes desert region to become highly unproductive?

a) Salinity
b) Sunlight
c) Temperature
d) Increase in the rain
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The conversion of desert lands through extensive irrigation systems has changed
several of the natural characteristics. Canal water evaporates rapidly bringing the salts to the
surface. The region becomes highly unproductive as it becomes saline.

9. How can desert ecosystems be conserved?

a) By minimizing the human activity
b) By pouring water to desert area
c) By deforestation
d) By killing organisms
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Desert ecosystems can be conserved if we minimize the human activities in forest
land and other cultivable land. Humans convert forest land in order to convert it to farming or for
industrial usage.

10. Which of the following tribe protected trees from several generation in Rajasthan?
a) Bishnoi
b) Papadi
c) Korvanji
d) Gudus
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The Bishnoi tribe in Rajasthan is known to have protected their khejdi trees for
several generations. The tradition began when the ruler of their region ordered his army to cut
down trees for his own use.

11. Where can we see Indira Gandhi Canal?

a) Gujarat
b) Rajasthan
c) Punjab
d) Haryana
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The Indira Gandhi Canal is situated in Rajasthan. There is destroying in its
important natural arid ecosystem as it will convert the region into an intensive agricultural land.
Salt works also destroyed the area.

12. Which kind of soil we can found on the surface of Thar desert?
a) Rocky
b) Moist
c) Fertile
d) Aeolian
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The surface of the Thar desert consists of Aeolian sand. This Aeolian sand consists
of wind deposited sand that has accumulated over the past 1.8 million years. The soil of the Thar
desert remains dry throughout year.

13. Which is the biggest desert in the world including both hot and cold deserts?
a) Sahara
b) Arctic
c) Arabian
d) Antarctica
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Antarctica is the biggest desert in the world. Sahara is the biggest only in hot
deserts but overall Antarctica comes to first place. The entirety of Antarctica is a desert with an
annual precipitation of less than 200mm.

14. Deserts can only be ‘HOT’.

a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Deserts are classified into hot desserts and cold deserts. Sahara is the biggest hot
desert in the world with an area of 9,000,000(Miles squared), whereas Antarctica is the biggest
cold desert as well as overall biggest desert.

1. What is the full form of NPPA?

a) National Policy on Population Abatement
b) National Policy on Pollution Abatement
c) National Policy on Population Absorption
d) National Policy on Population Arise
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: National Policy on Population Abatement encourages the use of economical
instruments to complement traditional command and control approaches to pollution abatement.
The policy adopts various guiding principles to integrate environmental consideration.

2. Which is the most recent pronouncement of the government’s commitment to improving

environmental conditions?
a) National Environmental Policy
b) National Water Policy
c) Environment Act
d) Air Policy
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: National Environment Policy (NEP) came into force in 2006. This is the most
recent pronouncement of the government’s commitment to improving environmental objectives
include conservation of critical environmental resources and social development.

3. What is Environmental Compliance?

a) Conforming to government laws
b) Conforming to constitutional laws
c) Conforming to environmental laws
d) Conforming to tribal laws
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The meaning of environmental compliance is conforming to environmental laws,
regulations and other requirements such as site permits to operate. Environmental concerns have
led to a significant increase in the number of compliance imperatives.

4. What is the full form of EDMS?

a) Environmental Data Management Systems
b) Environmental Data Management Security
c) Environmental Data Management Sustainability
d) Environmental Data Management Syndrome
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Environmental Data Management System is software that is designed to manage
environmental compliance. Criteria must be considered when selecting environmental
compliance software like proven capability, high performance and data extraction.
5. How many laws relating to environmental protection in the legal framework are there?
a) Over one hundred
b) Over two hundred
c) Over three hundred
d) Over four hundred
View Answer

6. One of the main objectives of the Central Pollution Control Board is to coordinate the
activities of State Pollution Control Boards and resolve the disputes among them.
a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) is the national board with oversight
powers over state boards. The CPCB has a central office as well as a network of zonal offices
located in various places in India.

7. Which is the central government nodal agency responsible for planning, promotion and
coordination of all environmental activities?
a) The Central Pollution Control Boards
b) Municipal Corporation
c) State Pollution Control Boards
d) Ministry of Environment and Forests
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Ministry of Environment and Forests is the primary institution responsible for the
formulation and enforcement of environmental acts. It is established in 1985. The main objective
is to conservation and survey of flora, fauna, forests and wildlife.

8. Which of the following helped in the saving of trees?

a) Pouring of water
b) Developing of chemical manuals
c) Use of modern agriculture
d) Development of iron and steel
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Development of iron and steel saved the trees that were used for most heavy
construction and ship building. Coal mining saved more trees that didn’t need to be cut down for
fire wood and the manufacture of charcoal.

1. Why aviation causing environmental problems?

a) Due to demand and continually growing of aviation
b) Due to not proper growing of aviation
c) Due to decrease in the aviation
d) Due to pilot’s negligence
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Demand for air transport is continually growing and if this demand is to be met
with all the attendant benefits, society must also accept the costs which includes noise, pollution,
climate change, risk and resource use etc.

2. How computer industry causing environmental problems?

a) By not providing jobs to humans
b) By modern technologies like IOT, block chains
c) By printing unnecessary large amount of files
d) By making people lazy
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Computer are also causing environmental problems, when we print unnecessary
large amounts of files from internal which wastes paper and harm trees. More use of computers
wastes electricity that could have been saved and reduce the amount of burning of fossil fuel.

3. Why lead harmful for children?

a) Because it don’t give any nutritional values
b) Because it cause indigestion
c) Because it interferes with development of the nervous system
d) Because children become addict to this
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Lead is harmful to children because it interferes with development of the nervous
system. It is a neurotoxin that can harm the kidneys and reproductive systems. Even low levels of
lead and be harmful to a children mental development.

4. Apart from printing papers and electricity computers causing environmental problems
by__________________
a) Making people lazy
b) Electronic wastes
c) Causing soil pollution
d) Causing noise pollution
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Computers are made of heavy metals and dangerous chemicals. Heavy metals like
lead, mercury, beryllium and PVC. These metal and chemicals contribute to global warming and
causing pollution.
5. What is the impact of food processing on the environment?
a) Create loss in the vegetation
b) Create disposal problems
c) Create forest fire
d) Create deforestation
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The highly diversified nature of the food industry, various food processing,
handling and packaging operations create wastes of different quality and quantity. If we don’t
treat that could lead to increase disposal problems and severe pollution problems.

6. Industrialization causing urbanization.

a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Industrialization needs people to work in factories. People move from rural areas to
cities. They are spread out to industrialized cities. A higher population puts added pressure on
the local environment and cause environmental problems.

7. What step taken in mines to limit the environmental damages?

a) Construction of artificial mines
b) Construction of dams
c) Construction of heat processor
d) Construction of storage center
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: To limit the environmental damage, mines often construct dams and place the toxic
water inside. These dams do not necessarily prevent contamination of the surrounding
environment, toxic waste can easily seep into soil and groundwater.

8. What is the main reason for acid mine drainage?

a) Dirty gold mining
b) Ground water
c) Soil erosion
d) Granite mining
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Dirty gold mining often leads to a persistent problem known as acid mine drainage.
The problem results when underground rock disturbed by mining is newly exposed to air and
water. Acidic water draining from mine sites is more concentrated than acid rain.
9. Which of the following is a liquid metal?
a) Gold
b) Silver
c) Oxygen
d) Mercury
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Mercury is a liquid metal. It is used in artisanal and small scale gold mining to
extract gold from rock and sediment. Mercury reaches rivers, atmosphere, lakes and oceans. The
use of mercury in gold mining is causing a global health and environmental crisis.

10. Mercury is extremely good to human health.

a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Mercury is bad for human health. The amount of vapor released by mining
activities has been proven to damage kidneys, liver, brain, heart, lungs and immune system. In
children and developing fetuses, mercury can impair neurological development.

11. What is the main reason of releasing of mercury into the Amazon’s water?
a) Soil erosion
b) Earth quake
c) Nuclear wastes
d) Gold mining
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Gold mining is the main responsible for the release of large amounts of mercury
into the Amazon’s air and water. The mercury is poisoning plants, animals, fish and people. As
gold mining increases, forests are coming down.

12. What is the main cause of industrial pollution?

a) Lack of polices to control pollution
b) Use of modern technologies
c) Planned industrial growth
d) Efficient waste disposal
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Lack of effective policies and poor enforcement drive allowed many industries to
pass certain laws made by the pollution control board which resulted in mass scale pollution that
affected lives of many people.
13. What is the term used for the use of resources for industrialization?
a) Pollution
b) Urbanization
c) Extraction
d) Waste material
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Industrialization makes use of resources from the land, water, wood, plants, fossil
fuels, etc. This has an effect on the environment. Since demand goes up, more quantities of
minerals and ores are extracted from the land.

. When did the Environmental Assessment Institute which is the independent body under the
Danish Ministry of the Environment established?
a) 2000
b) 2001
c) 2002
d) 2003
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The Environmental Assessment Institute was an independent body under the
Danish Ministry of the Environment. It was established in February 2002 by the Danish
Government with the task of making environmental analyses.

2. Which institute in Sweden has the motto as “Bridging Science and Policy”?
a) Stockholm Environmental Institute
b) Yale Environmental Institute
c) Uppsala Environmental Institute
d) Lund Environmental Institute
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Stockholm Environmental Institute (SEI) was formed in 1989. Its headquarters is in
Stockholm in Sweden. The motto of Stockholm Environmental Institute is “Bridging Science
and Policy”. The Swedish International Development Cooperation Agency is the main donor of
SEI.

3. In how many countries the Stockholm Environmental Institute operates?

a) One
b) Three
c) Five
d) Seven
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Stockholm Environmental Institute was an initiative of the Government of Sweden.
SEI operates in seven countries they are Sweden, United Kingdom, United States, Estonia,
Thailand, Colombia and Kenya.

4. Who many National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA) research laboratories
are there?
a) Five
b) Seven
c) Eleven
d) Sixteen
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: There are seven NOAA research laboratories are there, they are Atlantic
Oceanographic and Meteorological Laboratory, Air Resource Laboratory, Earth System
Research Laboratory, Geophysical Lakes Environmental Research Laboratory, Great Lakes
Environmental Research Laboratory, National Severe Storms Laboratory and Pacific Marine
Environmental Laboratory.

5. Who founded Yale School of Forestry and Environmental studies?

a) Jorge Kindly
b) Gifford Pinchot
c) James Harry
d) Peter Mark
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Yale School of Forestry and Environmental studies was founded by Gifford Pinchot
in 1900. He was the first Chief of the United States Forest Service. The School’s graduates have
provided ongoing leadership in environment.

6. Only ten environmental research institutes are there in the world.

a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: There are more than ten environmental research institutes are there in the world.
These environmental research organizations undertake research on the sustainable management
of resources which includes water, biodiversity and energy.

7. With respect to the World Environmental Center which one of the following option is correct?
a) It is a non-profit and advocacy organization
b) It is a profit and advocacy organization
c) It is a non-profit and non-advocacy organization
d) It is a profit and non-advocacy organization
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: World Environmental Center is a global non-profit and non-advocacy organization
that advances sustainable development through the business practices of member companies and
in partnership with governments.

8. Making people aware of family planning is one of the solutions to overpopulation.

a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Raising awareness among people regarding family planning and letting them know
about the after effects of overpopulation can help to reduce the population growth. Provide
knowledge about various safe sex techniques will reduce the population growth.

1. When do greenhouse gases cause global warming?

a) When their concentration is enhanced
b) When their concentration is decreased
c) When there are no greenhouse gases
d) When greenhouse gas released in balance way
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Greenhouse gases cause global warming which in the long run threatens the
existence of life on Earth. This is the case only when their concentration is enhanced, but these
gases are also essential to survive on this planet.

2. How much percent of energy is absorbs from the Sun to Earth?

a) 25%
b) 50%
c) 75%
d) 100%
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: When the Earth receives energy from the Sun, the surface of the Earth only absorbs
50% of it. The radiation absorbed by the atmosphere is radiated again in all direction some
radiated towards space and radiated back to the surface of the Earth.

3. What is called for the phenomenon when the radiation absorbed by the atmosphere is re-
radiated towards the surface of the Earth?
a) Smog
b) Newton effect
c) Darwin effect
d) Greenhouse effect
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Greenhouse effect is a natural phenomenon that helps in keeping the temperature at
the surface warm and balanced, which is suitable for all organisms. Because of greenhouse gas,
the radiations are re-radiated.

4. Which of the following result obtain due to cutting down of trees?

a) Providing more fresh oxygen
b) Providing more pure water
c) Cause greenhouse effect
d) Cause increase in the rain
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Forest which plays an important role in maintaining the balance of nature by
absorbing the excess carbon dioxide present in the atmosphere. Cutting down of trees increase in
carbon dioxide level, eventually, cause greenhouse effect.

5. Which is the most abundantly found greenhouse gas?

a) Carbon dioxide
b) Water vapor
c) Methane
d) Nitrous oxide
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Water vapor is the most abundantly found greenhouse gas. It constituting around
35-70% of all the gases contributing to greenhouse effect. Increase in temperature results in a
relatively high presence of water vapor in the atmosphere.

6. Population growth indirectly contributes for greenhouse effect.

a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Population growth is an indirect contributor and one of the major causes of the
greenhouse effect. Due to increase in population there is an increase in deforestation and
increasing in industrial processes. This results in the increase of greenhouse gas which thereby
causes greenhouse effect.

7. Which of the following is not a greenhouse gas?

a) Water vapor
b) Carbon dioxide
c) Methane
d) Ethane
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Ethane is not a greenhouse gas among the above options. Water vapor is the most
abundantly found greenhouse gas with consti9tute around 35-70%, carbon dioxide constitutes
around 9-26% and methane constitute around 4-9%.

8. When did greenhouse effect discovered?

a) 1814
b) 1824
c) 1854
d) 1884
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The greenhouse effect was first discovered by Joseph Fourier in 1924. The
greenhouse effect is a natural process that is thousands of years old. Apart from Joseph Fourier it
is experimentally verified by John Tyndall in 1861 and quantified in the year 1894 BY Svante
Arrhenius.

9. Why the temperature inside the car is much warmer than the outside temperature when the car
that has been left parked in the sun for a couple of hours?
a) Due to air pollution
b) Due to smog
c) Due to sudden climate change
d) Due to greenhouse effect
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: When we opened we open the door of a car that has been left parked in the sun for a
couple of hours, we notice that the temperature inside the car is much warmer than outside. This
is due to greenhouse effect.

10. Taking the example of a car parked in the sun for a few hours, which of the following action
takes place?
a) Sunlight once entered the car through windows is partially converted into heat
b) Sunlight once entered the car through windows is partially converted into electricity
c) Sunlight once entered the car through windows is completely absorbed by the car
d) Sunlight once entered the car through windows is partially converted into wind energy
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The windows of the car allow the sunlight to enter into the car. This light is then
partially converted into heat. However, these same windows do not allow the heat inside the car
to pass through as easily as light.

11. For greenhouse effect greenhouse gases interacts with which one of the following options?
a) Wind’s energy
b) Sun’s energy
c) Atmosphere pressure
d) Pollution in the atmosphere
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The greenhouse effect is caused due to the interaction of the sun’s energy with
greenhouse gases such as methane, carbon dioxide, nitrous oxide and fluorinated gases in the
Earth’s atmosphere. The greenhouse effect increases the temperature of the Earth.

12. Which is the main feedback gas of the greenhouse effect?

a) Water vapor
b) Carbon dioxide
c) Methane
d) Nitrous oxide
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The main feedback gas of the greenhouse effect is water vapor. Water vapor is a
highly active component of the climate system that responds rapidly to changes in conditions.
Thus the impact of the greenhouse effect is primarily circulated through water vapor and it acts
as a fast feedback.

13. Greenhouse is made up of_______________

a) Bricks
b) Glass
c) Steel
d) Copper
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: A greenhouse is a house that is made up of glass. It has many doors and roof which
are made up of glass. A greenhouse remains warm during the winter. It is used by the people in
colder regions where it is difficult to grow plants under extreme cold temperature.

14. Greenhouse effect occurs to bodies other than Earth.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The greenhouse effect on Titan has an anti-greenhouse effect. The greenhouse
effect on Venus is large because its dense atmosphere consists mainly of carbon dioxide.
Because of the evaporation of nitrogen, Pluto is colder than expected.

. Which of the following action takes place in the formation of ozone?

a) Action of daylight on oxygen
b) Action of daylight on nitrogen
c) Action of daylight on hydrogen
d) Action of daylight on phosphorous
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Ozone is made by the action of daylight on oxygen. It forms a layer 20 to 50 km
over the surface of the earth. This action of formation of ozone over the surface of the earth takes
place naturally within the atmosphere.

2. How many oxygen particles are there in every atom of ozone?

a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Ozone is a type of oxygen that has three particles in every atom. The formation of
ozone is extremely slow. Ozone gas is extremely toxic with a powerful odor. This toxic gas is
harmful to environment.

3. Why ozone within the upper environment is important?

a) Because it provides rain to the earth
b) It protects the earth from the sun’s harmful ultraviolet radiations
c) It provides good aesthetic view to the atmosphere
d) It protects the earth from floods
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Ozone within the upper environment is important to all existence because it
protects the earth from the harmful ultraviolent radiations. The ozone layer within upper
atmosphere absorbs the sun’s ultraviolent radiations and it prevents it to reach the earth surface.

4. Which of the following is threat to the ozonosphere?

a) Nitrogen dioxide
b) Oxygen
c) CFCs
d) Carbon dioxide
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Ozone layer within the atmosphere protects life on earth from harmful ultraviolent
radiation from the sun. Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) that were used as refrigerants and aerosol
spray propellants expose a threat to the ozonosphere.

5. Which one of the following is a result of ozone layer depletion?

a) Increase in the oxygen level
b) Increase in the nitrogen level
c) Increase in the phosphorous level
d) Increases in the carbon dioxide level
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The destruction of the ozone layer causes harm to positive vegetation and to
plankton and accordingly affecting nature’s food chains and food webs. This in turn causes an
increase in carbon dioxide due to the decrease in vegetation.

6. Ozone at a ground level considered as a pollutant.

a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Ozone is taken into consideration as a pollutant at ground level and constitutes a
health risk. The health risks like inflicting respiratory ailments like allergies and bronchitis and
other health related issues.

7. In which layer of atmosphere ozone is very vital for all vegetation?

a) Upper atmosphere
b) Below atmosphere
c) Ground level
d) Below ground level
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Ozone in the upper atmosphere is vital to all forms of life as it protects the earth
from harmful UV radiations. Ozone at ground level is considered a pollutant at ground level and
causes harm to vegetation.

8. Which atom released when CFCs molecules are broken from UV radiations?
a) Oxygen
b) Chlorine
c) Nitrogen
d) Arsenic
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The CFC molecules are virtually indestructible until they reach the level of
stratosphere. In stratosphere UV radiations breaks them down to release chlorine atoms. These
chlorine atoms react with ozone molecules to break them down into oxygen molecules.

9. What is the full form of CFCs?

a) Chlorofluorocarbons
b) Chlorine fluorocarbons
c) Chromate fluorocarbons
d) Chlorofluridcarbons
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: CFCs stands for chlorofluorocarbons. In the 1970s, scientists discovered
chlorofluorocarbons, which are used as refrigerants and aerosol spray propellants, pose a threat
to the ozone layer.

10. Which is the first place where scientist found the thinning of ozone layer?
a) Atmosphere above Australia
b) Atmosphere above Antarctica
c) Atmosphere above India
d) Atmosphere above France
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Antarctica was the first place where scientist comes to known about the thinning of
ozone layer. In the early 1980s, scientists have detected a thinning of the ozone layer in the
atmosphere above Antarctica.

11. Which treaty was signed in 187 for the protection of ozone layer?
a) The Montreal Protocol
b) The Kyoto Protocol
c) Ozone Summit
d) Wildlife Conservation Act
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The Montreal Protocol which was signed in 1987 is a treaty for the protection of the
ozone layer, the use of CFCs was to be banned by the year 2000, after which the ozone layer is
expected to slowly recover over a period of about 50 years.

12. Which one of the following cause ozone layer depletion?

a) Oxygen
b) Mercury
c) Sodium silicate
d) Methyl chloroform
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Methyl chloroform belongs to ‘Ozone Depleting Substances’. There are other
chemical substances apart from the chlorofluorocarbons that are generally grouped as ozone
depleting substances. Methyl chloroform used on making industrial solvents.

13. Which compound which used in fire extinguishers cause ozone layer depletion?
a) Sodium aluminates
b) Phosphates
c) Halons
d) Sulfurous silicate
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Halons are compounds formed by Br, F and C. Because of its ability to put out
fires, they are used in fire extinguishers, although their manufacture and use is prohibited in
many countries because of their ozone depleting action.

14. The reduced in the use of CFCs completely prevents the ozone layer depletion.
a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The reduced in the use of CFCs didn’t completely prevent the ozone layer
depletion. Although the use of CFCs has been reduced and banned in most countries, other
chemicals like bromine, nitrous oxides and halocarbons continue to attack the ozone layer.

1. Environmental ethics belongs to which part?

a) Environmental science
b) Environmental chemistry
c) Environmental philosophy
d) Environmental studies
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Environmental ethics is the part of environmental philosophy. It considers
extending the traditional boundaries of ethics from solely including humans to including
environment which are of many organisms.

2. On what Marshall’s category of conservation ethics valid?

a) Usefulness to all organisms
b) Usefulness to humans
c) Usefulness to the ecosystem
d) Non usefulness to humans
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Marshal’s category of conservation ethics is an extension of use value into the
biological world. It focuses only on the worth of the environment in terms of its usefulness or
utility to humans only in this situation it is valid.

3. According to anthropocentrism who are more important?

a) Fishes
b) Lizards
c) Humans
d) Lions
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Anthropocentrism is the position that humans are the most important or critical
element in any situation. According to anthropocentrism human race must always be its own
primary concern apart from the rest.

4. Who distinguished between two types of anthropocentrism?

a) Aristotle
b) Michael Smith
c) Chris Lynn
d) Peter Vardy
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Peter Vardy distinguished between two types of anthropocentrism they are strong
and weak anthropocentrism. Strong anthropocentrism argues that humans are at the center of
reality. Weak anthropocentrism argues that reality can be only interpreted from a human point of
view.

5. Who coined the term “Environmental Pragmatism”?

a) Smith harry
b) Henry willsion
c) David Walker
d) Bryan Norton
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Bryan Norton developed one of the essential actors of environmental ethics by
launching environmental pragmatism. It refuses to take a stance in disputes between defenders of
anthropocentrism and non-anthropocentrism ethics.
6. Environmental ethics exerts influence on a large range of disciplines.
a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Environmental ethics exerts influence on a large range of disciplines including
environmental law, environmental sociology, ecotheology, ecology, ecological economics and
environmental geography.

7. Who is the dominant species in the planet according to human centered environmental
worldviews?
a) Blue whale
b) Elephant
c) Giraffe
d) Human
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: According to the human centered environmental worldviews, on the planet most
important and dominant species are human. Humans can and should manage the planet mostly
for own benefit. This creating imbalance in the environment.

8. Which one of the following is not an ethical guideline?

a) Developing respect for all life
b) Understanding how earth works
c) Considering humans as the predominant species
d) Seeking of environmental wisdom
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Apart from the humans as the predominant species all other options are important
ethical guidelines known as Earth Ethics or Environmental Ethics. Considering humans as
predominant leads to the long-term harmful for environmental and social consequences.

9. What is the main reason environmental destruction?

a) Due to consumption of the poor
b) Due to consumption of the rich
c) Due to no consumption
d) Due to consumption in certain interval of times
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Environmental destruction is largely caused by the consumption of the rich. The
worst sufferers of environmental destruction are the poor, even among the poor the worst
sufferers are the backward cultures and women.
10. What is the full form of GNP?
a) Gross Nation Product
b) Gross Nation Purchase
c) Gross Nation Premises
d) Grand Nation Product
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The Gross Nation Product (GNP) is the total amount of product produced in the
entire nation. The GNP will be enhanced if we can stop and reverse the growing alienation
between people and the resources.

11. When was first earth day celebrated?

a) December 23, 1956
b) May 21, 1965
c) April 22, 1970
d) July 24, 1976
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Understanding the serious implications of depletion of the natural resources, earth
day was started observing from April 22, 1970 onwards. The purpose is to make people and
government agencies aware of the importance of caring and preserving the environment.

12. Which one of the following is the major environmental issue?

a) Use of resources
b) Use of economy
c) Education
d) Employment
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Use of resources is one of the important environmental issues. Developed countries
use a major part of natural resources. The developing county like India also overuses its natural
resources for its large population.

13. The common property of rural communities has increasingly been used to supply the needs
of the ______________
a) Forests
b) Urban
c) Deserts
d) Water bodies
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: An urban-rural equity issue is of the major environmental ethics facing. The rural
sector supplies food and part of the energy needs to most towns and cities in India. The common
lands of the rural sector are being depleted of their resources.

14. Environmental ethics tells all the life forms on Earth have the right to live.
a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The environmental ethics brings out the fact that all the life forms on Earth have the
right to live. By destroying nature we are denying the life forms. The food web clearly indicates
that humans, plants and animals are closely linked with each other and everyone have the right to
live.

1. Which of the following can act as sanitation technology?

a) Environmental sanitation
b) Wet sanitation
c) Weir sanitation
d) Notch sanitation
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: A wide range of sanitation technologies are available like container based
sanitation, community-led total sanitation, environmental sanitation etc. Each of these is a
different approach and is proven best.

2. Which of the following is not a sanitation system?

a) Storm water drainage system
b) Solid waste management system
c) Excreta management system
d) Night soil sanitation system
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Sanitation process includes certain system, which are to be monitored for having a
clean environment. Those include excreta management system, waste water management system,
solid waste management system and storm water drainage system.

3. Disease transmission cycle can be stopped by_______

a) Wet sanitation
b) Water usage
c) Sanitation system
d) Night soil
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Improper sanitation can lead to the development of disease transmission. This can
be avoided by adopting certain sanitation systems, which are used based on the type of
conditions present in and around the area.

4. Which of the following can act as the main transmission element of fecal-oral diseases?
a) Fungi
b) Fingers
c) Fire
d) Air
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The transmission of fecal-oral diseases occurs due to the improper maintenance of
the sanitation system as well as our surroundings. The objects like fingers, flies, fluids and food
can act as a transmitter of diseases.

5. Which of the following places involve the usage of sanitation technology?

a) Public places
b) Houses
c) Open environment
d) Water treatment area
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The usage of sanitation technology must be done everywhere. But in case of water
treatment areas, this must be adopted for sure as it can be contagious. Installing a sanitation
technology can serve as a resistant to disease transmission cycle.

6. Which of the following is involved in a sanitary chain?

a) Ecological sanitation
b) Dry sanitation
c) Waste water collection method
d) Container-based sanitation
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Sanitary chain involves everything related to sanitary conditions like user, excreta
and the waste water collection methods. Sanitary chain is developed based on the type of
conditions present in and around the installed sanitary technology.

7. The transportation of excreta in sealed container is done in__________

a) Container-based sanitation
b) Dry sanitation
c) Environmental sanitation
d) Ecological sanitation
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Container-based sanitation involves in the collection of human excreta in a
container than can be sealed after filling and can be transported to the treatment unit, for further
purposes.

8. Which of the following ended the open defecation practice?

a) Community-led total sanitation
b) Dry sanitation
c) Environmental sanitation
d) Ecological sanitation
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The development of community-led total sanitation practice brought a behavioral
change in many rural and urban areas by highlighting the importance of sanitation and the
defects of improper sanitation.

9. Which of the following is not a type of sanitation practice?

a) Ecological sanitation
b) Community-led total sanitation
c) Dry sanitation
d) Environmental sanitation
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Different type of sanitation practices were adopted in India, those include dry
sanitation, community-led total sanitation, ecological sanitation, emergency sanitation. The main
purpose of all these is proven to be same i.e., being healthy by having proper sanitation methods.

10. Which of the following is used as a transporter of waste to the treatment plant?
a) Fertilizers
b) Bleach
c) Water
d) Soil
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: In order to reach the treatment plant, waste materials are to be mixed with any other
agent. In general, water is considered as that agent because of the fact that it is easily available.

1. Which types of plant are fed and emptied regularly?

a) Batch type plants
b) Continuous type plants
c) Dome type plants
d) Drum type plants
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Continuous plants are fed and emptied continuously. They empty automatically
through the overflow whenever new material is filled in. therefore, the substance must be fluid
and homogeneous.

2. Gas production of continuous plant is higher than which of the following plant?
a) Batch plant
b) Dome plant
c) Drum plant
d) Flexible gas biogas plant
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Continuous plants are suitable for rural households as the necessary work fits well
into daily routine. Gas production is constant and higher than in batch plants. Today, nearly all
biogas plants are operating on a continuous mode.

3. What type of plant is a floating gas holder plant?

a) Batch plant
b) Continuous plant
c) Semi-batch plant
d) Semi-continuous plant
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: This is one of the common designs in India, coming under category of semi-
continuous feed plant. It has a cylindrical floating biogas holder on top of the well shaped
digester. This digester is vividly used in rural sides.

4. For how much percent is biogas normally designed to hold?

a) 35%
b) 20%
c) 50%
d) 80%
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: As the biogas is produced in the digester, it rises vertically and gets accumulated
and stored in the biogas holder at a constant pressure of 8-10 cm of water column. The biogas
holder is normally designed to store 50% of the daily gas production.
5. Where was fixed dome concept plant developed?
a) China
b) America
c) India
d) Japan
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The plant based on fixed dome concept was developed in India in the middle 1970s.
The Chinese fixed plants use a seasonal crop wastes as the major feed stock for feeding,
therefore, their design is based on principle of semi-batch-feed digester.

6. Indian fixed dome digesters are designed for holding what pressure capacity?
a) 0 – 90 cm of water column
b) 70 – 90 cm of water column
c) 50 – 65 cm of water column
d) 10 – 25 cm of water column
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The Indian fixed dome plant design use the principle of displacement of slurry
inside the digester for storage of biogas in the fixed gas storage chamber. Indian fixed dome
biogas digesters are designed for pressure inside the plant varying from 0 to 90 cm of water
column.

7. Fixed dome biogas plant is best suitable for which type of plant?
a) Continuous type
b) Batch type
c) Semi-batch type
d) Semi continuous type
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The discharge opening is located on water wall surface of the outlet displacement
chamber and it spontaneously controls the maximum pressure. It is best suited for batch process
especially when daily feeding is adopted in small quantities.

8. Which plants digester is fabricated by using rubber?

a) Flexible Bag biogas plant
b) Fixed dome biogas plant
c) Floating drum biogas plant
d) Khadi and village industries type biogas plant
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Main unit of the plant including the digester is fabricated by using rubber, high
strength plastic, neoprene or red mud plastic. The inlet and outlet are made of heavy duty PVC
tube. A small pipe of same PVC tube is fixed on top of the plant as gas outlet pipe.

9. Which type of plant is portable?

a) Flexible Bag biogas plant
b) Fixed dome biogas plant
c) Floating drum biogas plant
d) Khadi and village industries type biogas plant
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Flexible bag biogas plant is portable and can easily be erected. It requires support
from outside, upto the slurry level, to maintain the shape as per its design configuration, which is
done by placing the bag inside a pit dug on site.

10. In which type of plant the weight needs to be added on top to build the desired pressure?
a) Flexible Bag biogas plant
b) Fixed dome biogas plant
c) Floating drum biogas plant
d) Khadi and village industries type biogas plant
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The depth of the pit should be in proportion to height of the digester so that the
mark of initial slurry level is in line with the ground level. The outlet pipe is fixed in such a way
that its outlet opening is also in line with the ground level. Some weight has to be added on the
top of the bag to build the desired pressure to convey the generated gas to the point of utilization.

11. What is the main advantage of flexible bag plant?

a) The fabrication can be centralized for mass production
b) It has highest gas storage capacity
c) It is portable from place to place
d) Easy to understand and work on it
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Advantage of flexible bag plant is that the fabrication can be centralized for mass
production. Individuals or agencies having land and basic infrastructure can take up fabrication
of the biogas plant with small investment.

12. Khadi village industries type biogas plant is example of _________

a) flexible Bag biogas plant
b) fixed dome biogas plant
c) floating drum biogas plant
d) semi-batch type
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Khadi and village industries type biogas plant (KVIC) is an example of Floating
drum biogas plant. It is a semi continuous plant. It is one of the most common types of biogas
plant used in rural area of India.

13. Vertical type KVIC is more commonly used than horizontal type.
a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The KVIC (Khadi and village industries biogas plant) model is a floating holder
semi continuous fed bio gas plant and has two types, (I) Vertical and (II) Horizontal. The vertical
type is more commonly used and the horizontal type is used only in the high water table region.

14. Which part of the KVIC is made of mixture of cement concrete and brick ballast?
a) Foundation
b) Digester
c) Gas holder
d) Inlet and outlet pipe
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Foundation of a KVIC is compact base made of a mixture of cement concrete and
brick ballast. The foundation is well compacted using wooden ram and then top surface is
cemented to prevent any percolation & seepage.

. The ____________ is made of bricks and cement mortar and it’s inside wall are plastered with
a mixture of cement and sand.
a) Foundation
b) Digester
c) Gas holder
d) Inlet and outlet pipe
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Digester (Fermentation chamber) of KVIC is a cylindrical shaped well like
structure, constructed using the foundation as its base. The digester is made of bricks and cement
mortar and it inside walls are plastered with a mixture of cement and sand.

2. From what material is biogas holder drum made?

a) Mild steel
b) Cast iron
c) Aluminum alloys
d) Rot iron
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The biogas holder drum of KVIC model is normally made of mild steel sheets. The
biogas holder rests on a ledge constructed inside the walls of the digester well. If the KVIC
model is made with water jacket on top of the digester wall, no ledge is made and the drum of
the biogas holder is placed inside the water jacket.

3. What is the weight of biogas holder?

a) 8-10 kg/m2
b) 10-15 kg/m2
c) 8-18 kg/m2
d) 25-30 kg/m2
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The weight of the biogas holder is 8-10 kg/m2. The biogas holder of KVIC (Khadi
village industries biogas plant) is also fabricated out of fiber glass reinforced plastic (FRP), high
density polyethylene (HDP) or Ferroconcrete (FRC).

4. What type of movement does a biogas holder of KVIC has?

a) Linear Movement
b) Transverse movement
c) Rotary movement
d) Circular movement
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The biogas holder of a KVIC moves up and down on a guide pipe situated in the
centre of the digester. The biogas holder has a rotary movement that helps in breaking the scum-
mat formed on the top surface of the slurry. The weight of the biogas holder is 8-10 kg/m2. So
that it can store biogas at a constant pressure of 8-10 cm of water column.

5. How is the inlet pipe of KVIC made?

a) Cement mortar
b) Asbestos cement concrete
c) White cement
d) PVC
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The inlet pipe is made out of cement concrete (CC) or Asbestos cement concrete
(ACC) or pipe. The one end of the inlet pipe is concrete to the mixing tank and the other end
goes inside the digester on the inlet side of the partition wall and rests on a support made of
bricks of about 1 feet height.

6. How is the outlet pipe of KVIC made?

a) Cement mortar
b) Asbestos cement concrete
c) White cement
d) PVC
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The outlet pipe is made out of cement concrete (CC) or asbestos cement concrete
(ACC) or pipe. The one end of the outlet pipe is connected to the outlet tank and the other end
goes inside the digester, on the outlet side of the partition wall and rests on a support made of
about bricks of about 1 feet height.

7. How is the Biogas outlet pipe of KVIC made?

a) Cement
b) PVC
c) Asbestos
d) GI pipe
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The biogas outlet pipe is fixed on the top middle portion of the biogas holder,
which is made of a small of GI pipe fitted with socket and a gat valve. The biogas generated in
the plant and stored in the biogas holder is taken through the gas outlet pipe via pipeline to the
place of utilization.

8. What is the life time of Floating drum plant?

a) Short
b) Large
c) Life time
d) Average
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Even though the floating drum plant is built with all reinforced constituents and
hard materials the life of floating drum plant is short which is upto 15 years; And in tropical
coastal regions its just about 5 years.

9. Which plant has no movable parts?

a) KVIC
b) JANATA model
c) Pragati design plant
d) Ferro – cement plant
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The janata model consists of a digester and fixed biogas holder as gas storage
chamber covered by a dome shaped enclosed roof structure. The entire plant is made of bricks
and cement masonry and constructed underground. Unlike the KVIC, the janata model has no
movable part.

10. Which part of the janata bio gas plant comprises of the fermentation chamber and the gas
storage chamber?
a) Foundation
b) Digester
c) Inlet chamber
d) Outlet chamber
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The digester is a cylindrical tank resting on the foundation. The top surface of the
foundation serves as the bottom of the digester. The digester of janata biogas plant comprises of
the fermentation chamber and the gas storage chamber.

11. The Gas storage chamber of the digester of janata model is designed to store what percentage
og daily gas?
a) 5%
b) 19%
c) 33%
d) 58%
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The gas storage chamber is also cylindrical in shape and is the integral part of the
digester and located just above the fermentation chamber. The GSC is designed to store 33% of
the daily gas production from the plant.

12. Which plant has fixed hemi-spherical roof?

a) Fixed dome plant
b) Floating drum plant
c) Chinese plant
d) Flexible bag biogas plant
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Fixed dome plant has a fixed hemi-spherical roof which forms the cover of the
digester and constructed with brick and cement concrete mixture, after which it is plastered with
cement mortar. The dome is only an enclosed roof designed in such a way to avoid steel
reinforcement.

13. The upper portion of the ______________ is in the shape of bell mouth and constructed
using bricks and cements mortar in fixed dome plant.
a) gas storage chamber
b) inlet chamber
c) outlet chamber
d) digester
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The upper portion of the inlet chamber is in the shape of bell mouth and constructed
using bricks and cements mortar in fixed dome plant. It s outer wall is kept inclined to the
cylindrical wall of the digester so that the feed material can flow easily into the digester by
gravity.

14. The outer chamber upper is called as ___________

a) outlet displacement chamber
b) outlet discharge chamber
c) outlet density chamber
d) outlet dwell chamber
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Outer chamber is a rectangular shaped located just on the opposite side of the inlet
chamber. The bottom opening of the outlet chamber is connected to the gate and the upper
portion is much wider and is known as Outlet displacement chamber (ODC).

1. For minimum of how many days within starting of fermentation, initiates anaerobic bacterial
action?
a) 2
b) 10
c) 14
d) 20
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The storage of raw materials in a damp, confined space for over ten days initiates
anaerobic bacterial action that, though causing some gas loss, reduces the time for the digester to
become operational.

2. What should be the ratio of raw material to water?

a) 1:1
b) 4:1
c) 5:2
d) 3:6
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Experience has shown the raw material (domestic and poultry wastes and manure)
ratio to water should be 1:1, i.e., 100kg of excrete to 100 kg of water. In the slurry, this
corresponds to a total solids concentration of 8-11 per cent by weight.
3. Higher loading rates have been used when the ambient temperature is ____________
a) High
b) Low
c) At 0o
d) At medium temperature
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The size of the digester depends upon the loading, which is determined by the
influent solids content, retention time and the digester temperature. Optimum loading rates vary
with their different digesters and sites of location. Higher loading rates have been used when the
ambient temperature is high.

4. What is the full form of TVS?

a) Tempered volatile solid
b) Total variant solid
c) Total volatile solid
d) Termed variant solid
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: In general, the literature is filled with a variety of conflicting loading rates. In
practice, the loading rate should be an expression of either (a) Weight of total volatile solids
(TVS) added per day per unit volume of digest, or (b) the weight of TVS added per day per unit
weight of TVS in the digester.

5. ______________ is a major factor in determining the methane yield and methane production
rates from the digestion of biomass.
a) Seeding
b) Contamination
c) Substrate composition
d) Moisture content
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Substrate composition is a major factor in determining the methane yield and
methane production rates from the digestion of biomass. Techniques to determine the
compositional characteristics of the feedstock are available, while parameters such as solids,
elemental, and organic analyses are important for digester design and operation.

6. What is anaerobic digestion PH range?

a) 6.0 – 8.0
b) 1.3 – 4.2
c) 2.5 – 6.5
d) 7.2 – 10.0
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Low pH inhibits the growth of the methanogenic bacteria and gas generation and is
often the result of overloading. A successful pH range for anaerobic digestion is 6.0 – 8.0;
efficient digestion occurs at a pH near neutrality.

7. With a mesophilic flora digestion precedes best at what temperature?

a) 30 – 40oC
b) 65 – 75oC
c) 10 – 30oC
d) 10 -15oC
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: With a mesophilic flora, digestion precedes best at 30 – 40oC; with thermophiles,
the optimum range is 50 – 60oC. The choice of the temperature to be used is influenced by
climatic considerations.

8. Which of the following two are most important nutrients?

a) Carbon and nitrogen
b) Methane and carbon
c) Methane and oxygen
d) Methane and nitrogen
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The maintenance of optimum microbiology activity in the digester is crucial to gas
generation and consequently is related to nutrient availability. Two of the most important
nutrients are carbon and nitrogen.

9. What does excess availability of nitrogen lead?

a) NO3
b) NO2
c) NH3
d) NH4
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Excess availability of nitrogen leads to the formation of NH3, the concentration of
which inhibits further growth. Ammonia toxicity can be remedied by low loading or by dilution.
So in practice it is necessary to maintain the levels of nitrogen.

10. How is potential toxicity, due to ammonia is corrected?

a) By dilution
b) By adding urea
c) By adjusting the temperature
d) By adding extra carbon rich content
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Wastes and biodegradable residue are often accompanied by a variety of pollutants
that could inhibit anaerobic digestion. Potential toxicity can be corrected by remedying the C/N
ratio of manure by dilution.

11. Which of the following salt group is stimulatory or toxic in action?

a) Sodium, potassium, calcium and magnesium
b) Copper, zinc, sodium and magnesium
c) Copper, calcium, magnesium and potassium
d) Sodium, magnesium, zinc, and potassium
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Salts of sodium, potassium, calcium and magnesium may be stimulatory or toxic in
action, both manifestations being associated with the cat-ion rather than the anionic portion of
the salt. Pesticides and synthetic detergents may also be troublesome to the process.

12. Agitation is performed ___________

a) Mechanically
b) Manually
c) By help of cattle
d) Feedstock
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Agitation can be done either mechanically or with a plunger or by means of
rotational spraying of fresh influent. Agitation is normally required for both digesters, ensures
exposure of new surfaces to bacterial action prevents viscid satisfaction and slow down of
bacterial activity.

13. Which is the initial issue of the biogas plant?

a) Feedstock
b) Contaminants
c) Moisture contents
d) Nutrients
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The most important initial issue when considering the application of anaerobic
digestion systems is the feedstock to the process. Almost any organic material can be processed
with anaerobic digestion; however, if biogas production is the aim, the level of digestion is the
key factor in its successful application.
14. The anaerobic digestion can be inhibited.
a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The anaerobic digestion process can be inhibited by several compounds, affecting
one or more of the bacterial groups responsible for the different organic matter degradation steps.
The degree of the inhibition depends, among other factors, on the concentration of the inhibitor
in the digester. Potential inhibitors are ammonia, sulfide, light metal ions and some organics.

1. Which of the following energy has the greatest potential among all the sources of renewable
energy?
a) Solar energy
b) Wind Energy
c) Thermal energy
d) Hydro-electrical energy
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Solar energy has the greatest potential of all the sources of renewable energy which
comes to the earth from sun. This energy keeps the temperature of the earth above that in colder
space, causes wind currents in the ocean and the atmosphere, causes water cycle and generates
photosynthesis in plants.

2. What is the rate of solar energy reaching the earth surface?

a) 1016W
b) 865W
c) 2854W
d) 1912W
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The solar energy reaching the surface of the earth is about 1016W whereas the
worldwide power demand is 1013W. That means solar energy gives us 1000 times more energy
than our requirement.

3. What is total amount of solar energy received by earth and atmosphere?

a) 3.8 X 1024 J/year
b) 9.2 X 1024 J/year
c) 5.4 X 1024 J/year
d) 2.1 X 1024 J/year
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Even if we use 5% of this energy, it is more than 50 times our requirement. The
total solar radiation absorbed by the earth and its atmosphere is 3.8 X 1024 Joules/year. Except
that it is distributed over the area of earth.

4. Which is most common source of energy from which electricity is produced?

a) Hydroelectricity
b) Wind energy
c) Coal
d) Solar energy
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Coal is the most common source of energy that is being used since
industrialization. Modern steam boilers can burn coal in any of its form as a primary fuel.
Different ranks of coal available are peat, lignite, bituminous and anthracite.

5. Oil is estimated to last for ________ more.

a) 100 years
b) 500 years
c) A decade
d) 800 years
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Almost 40% of energy needs is met by oil alone. With present consumption and a
resource of 250,000 million tonnes of oil, it is estimated to be last for only 100 years, unless
more oil is discovered. Major chunk of oil comes from petroleum.

6. Complete the following reaction.

H2O + CO2 → _______
a) CH2O + O2
b) CO2 + O2
c) H + CO2 + O2
d) CH2O + H2O + O2
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: H2O + CO2 → CH2O + O2 ∵under solar energy CH2O is stable at low temperature
but breaks at higher temperature releasing heat equal to 469 Kj/mole.

7. In what form is solar energy is radiated from the sun?

a) Ultraviolet Radiation
b) Infrared radiation
c) Electromagnetic waves
d) Transverse waves
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Solar energy is radiated from the sun in the form of electromagnetic waves of
shorter wavelength of 0.2 to 0.4 micrometers. Out of all the solar energy radiations reaching the
earth’s atmosphere, 8% is ultraviolet radiation, 40% is visible range light and 46% is by infrared
radiation.

8. What does MHD stands for in the energy field?

a) Magneto Hydro Dynamic
b) Metal Hydrogen Detox
c) Micro Hybrid Drive
d) Metering Head Differential
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Magneto hydro dynamic is a generator which is used for direct conversion of
thermal energy into electrical energy. They work on faraday principle. When an electric
conductor moves across a magnetic field, electric current is produced.

9. Solar radiation which reaches the surface without scattering or absorbed is called
_____________
a) Beam Radiation
b) Infrared radiation
c) Ultraviolet radiation
d) Diffuse radiation
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Solar radiation that has not been absorbed or scattered and reaches the ground from
the sun is called direct radiation or beam radiation. It is the radiation which produces a shadow
when interrupted by an opaque object.

10. The scattered solar radiation is called ____________

a) Direct Radiation
b) Beam Radiation
c) Diffuse radiation
d) Infrared Radiation
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Diffuse radiation received from the sun after its direction has been changed by
reflection and scattering by the atmosphere. Since the solar radiation is scattered in all direction
in the atmosphere, diffuse radiation comes to the earth from all parts of the sky.

11. Solar radiation received at any point of earth is called ______________

a) Insolation
b) Beam Radiation
c) Diffuse Radiation
d) Infrared rays
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Insolation is the total solar radiation received at any point on any point on the
earth’s surface. In other words insolation is the sum of the direct and diffuse radiation. More
specifically insolation is defined as the total solar radiation energy received on a horizontal
surface of unit area on the ground in unit time.

12. Insolation is less ____________

a) when the sun is low
b) when the sun right above head
c) at night
d) at sun rise
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The insolation at a given point or location on the earth’s surface depends among
other factors, on the altitude of the sun in the sky. As a result of absorption and scattering, the
insolation is less when the sun is low in the sky than when it is higher.

13. HHW stands for ____________

a) High and Low water
b) High Level Waste
c) Heated Low Level water
d) High and Low Waste
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: These are generated in reprocessing of spent fuel. They contain all fission products
and contain of the transuranium elements not separated during reprocessing. Such wastes are to
be disposed of carefully.

14. What is unit of nuclear radiation?

a) Reaumur
b) Roentgen
c) Rankine
d) Pascal
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Units of nuclear radiation is Roentgen- amount of radiation which will on passing
through pure air under standard condition produce 1 electrostatic unit of ions/cm3 of air -> 86.9
ergs of energy absorbed/gm of air.
15. Which type of fuel is removed from the reactor core after reaching end of core life service?
a) Burnt Fuel
b) Spent fuel
c) Engine oil
d) Radioactive fuel
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Spent fuel is the unprocessed fuel that is removed from the reactor core after
reaching end of core life service. It is removed and then stored for 3 to 4 months under water in
the plant site to give time for the most intense radioactive isotopes to decay.

. The amount of energy received in unit time on a unit area perpendicular to the sun’s direction at
the mean distance of the earth from the sun is called ________
a) Solar radiation
b) Solar constant
c) Intensity of solar radiation
d) Air Mass
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The amount of energy received in unit time on a unit area perpendicular to the sun’s
direction at the mean distance of the earth from the sun is called solar radiation. It is defined as
the solar energy receiving at the top of the atmosphere, denoted by I sc.

2. What is ‘n’ in the following solar intensity formula?

I = Isc {1 + 0.033cos (360n/365)}
a) Day of the year
b) Month of the year
c) The year
d) Week of the year
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The following ‘n’ denotes day of the year in the formula. Since the distance
between sun and earth varies, extra-terrestrial flux also varies. Earth is closest to the sun in the
summer and farthest away in the winter.

3. When the sun is directly on the top of head, it as referred to _________

a) Zenith
b) Azimuth
c) Declination
d) Hour angle
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: When the sun is directly on the top of the head, it is referred to as sun at zenith. The
zenith is an imaginary point directly “above” a particular location, on the imaginary celestial
sphere. The zenith is the “highest” point on the celestial sphere.

4. Path length of radiation through the atmosphere to the length of path when the sun is at zenith
is called ___________
a) Declination
b) Air mass
c) Azimuth
d) Solar Constant
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Path length of radiation through the atmosphere to the length of path when the sun
is at zenith is called Air mass.
Air mass, m = Cos (altitude angle), except for very low solar altitude angles.
m = 1; When the sun is at the zenith
m = 2; When zenith angle is 60o
m = 3; sec (θz) for m>3.

5. Radiation intensity ‘I’ normal to the surface is given by __________

a) ICosθ
b) Itanθ
c) ICotθ
d) Isinθ
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: I = ICosθ, Let θ = Angle between an incident beam radiation I and the normal to the
plane surface. And the θ is referred to as incident angle. And further by this formula latitude
angle, declination, hour angle, zenith angle and solar azimuth angles are found out.

6. Angle made by radial line joining the location to the centre of the earth with the projection of
the line on the equatorial plane is called _________
a) Latitude
b) Zenith angle
c) Hour angle
d) Declination
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Angle made by radial line joining the location to the centre of the earth with the
projection of the line on the equatorial plane is called latitude. And it is denoted by Φ l. It is also
given by the angular distance north or south of the equator measured from the centre of the earth.
7. Angular distance of sun’s rays north or south of the equator is called _______
a) Declination
b) Hour angle
c) Latitude
d) Air mass
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Declination is the angular distance of sun’s rays north or south of the equator. It is
the angle between the line extending from the centre of the sun to the centre of the earth and the
projection of this line upon earth’s equatorial plane.

8. By which of the following symbol is solar Declination denoted by ____________

a) δ
b) ρ
c) Δ
d) γ
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Solar declination is denoted by Greek letter δ(DELTA). Solar declination is the
angle between the earth-sun line and the equatorial plane. Solar declination varies throughout the
year. And is given by cooper equation,
δ = 23.45sin [(360/365) (284+n)] ∵n is day of the year.

9. The angle through which the earth must turn to bring the meridian of a point directly in sun’s
rays is called __________
a) Hour angle
b) Declination
c) Latitude
d) Air mass
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The angle through which the earth must turn to bring the meridian of a point
directly in sun’s rays is called Hour angle. And it is denoted by Greek letter ω (OMEGA). It is
measured from noon based on the solar local time (LST).

10. Solar Altitude is also called as ________

a) Declination
b) Altitude angle
c) Zenith angle
d) Azimuth angle
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The vertical angle between the projection of the sun’s rays on the horizontal plane
and the direction of sun’s rays passing through the point s called solar altitude and is also
referred to altitude angle and is denoted by Greek letter α (ALPHA).

11. The angle between the sun’s rays and a line perpendicular to the horizontal plane through
angle the beam of the sun and vertical is called __________
a) Solar Azimuth angle
b) Zenith angle
c) Altitude angle
d) Declination
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The angle between the sun’s rays and a line perpendicular to the horizontal plane
through angle measured from the north to the horizontal projection of rays is called zenith angle.
And it is denoted by θ z.

12. The solar angle in degrees along the horizon east or west of north or it is the horizontal angle
measured from north to the horizontal projection of sun’s rays is called ___________
a) Solar azimuth angle
b) Zenith angle
c) Altitude angle
d) Declination
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The solar angle in degrees along the horizon east or west of north or it is the
horizontal angle measured from north to the horizontal projection of sun’s rays is called solar
azimuth angle. And it is denoted by Greek letter γs (GAMMA).

. Angle made by plane surface with horizontal is called ________

a) Slope
b) Altitude angle
c) Zenith angle
d) Hour Angle
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The slope is the angle made by the plane surfaces with the horizontal. It is
considered positive for surfaces slopping towards the south and negative for surface slopping
towards the north. Different types of measurements are calculated by slopes.

2. The angle of deviation of the normal to the surface from the local meridian is called as
_________
a) Surface azimuth angle
b) Solar azimuth angle
c) Solar altitude
d) Hour angle
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Surface azimuth angle is the angle of deviation of the normal to the surface from
the local meridian, the zero point being south, east positive and west negative. And surface
azimuth is different where it is an angle on a horizontal plane between the normal to a vertical
surface and the north-south direction line.

3. The angle being measured from a plane and which is equal to angle between the beam of rays
and normal to the plane is called __________
a) Incident angle
b) Azimuth angle
c) Hour angle
d) Declination
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The angle being measured from a plane and which is equal to angle between the
beam of rays and normal to the plane is called as incident angle. And it is denoted by Greek letter
θ (Theta). The angle of incidence (θ) is the angle between the sun’s rays irradiated on a surface
and the line normal to this surface.

4. The vector sum of the components along the line normal of the titled surface in a direction
normal to the tilted surface is called as __________
a) Solar intensity
b) Declination
c) Incident angle
d) Hour angle
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The solar intensity at a direction normal to the tilted surface is the vector sum of the
components along the line normal of the tilted surface. And is given by formula,
IΣ = IDN cosθΣ
Where IDN = solar intensity irradiated on a surface normal to the sun’s rays.

5. The time from sunrise to sunset is termed as _______________

a) Slope
b) Day length
c) Local solar time
d) Solar intensity
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The time from sunrise to sunset is termed as day length. On earth, daytime is
roughly the period of the day during which any given point in the world experiences natural
illumination from especially direct sunlight. Daytime occurs when the sun appears above the
local horizon, that is, anywhere on the globe’s hemisphere facing the Sun. During daytime, an
observer sees indirect sunlight while in the shade, which includes cloud cover.

6. LST stands for __________

a) Local standard time
b) Local solar temperature
c) Low surface temperature
d) Land surface temperature
View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Local solar time is also known as local apparent time which is the time used for
calculating the hour angle. The local solar time is obtained from the standard time observed on a
clock by making two corrections. First, is taking different longitudes between the locations and
second is correction due to small perturbations of earth’s orbit and rate of rotation.

7. How much would be the angle of declination on DECEMBER 21 at 0900 h (LAT). The
collector s located in New Delhi (28o35’N, 77o12’E) and is tilted at an angle of 36o with the
horizontal and is pointing south?
a) -44.28o
b) -28.92o
c) -23.45o
d) -42.22o
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: In the case γ = 0o, on December 21, n=355

8. What is angle of declination on 305th day of year and what day is it?
a) -23.26o, November 2
b) -15.06o, November 1
c) -18.96o, November 2
d) -10.52o, November 1
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Angle of declination on 305th day of the year i.e. on NOVEMBER 1

9. What is the angle of declination on May 12 considering it’s a leap year?

a) 20.34o
b) 22.85o
c) 29.42o
d) 12.4o
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Angle of declination on May 21 in leap year is 142 nd day of the year.

10. What is the angle of declination on 60th day of the leap year?
a) -8.29
b) 8.29
c) 4.82
d) 12.44
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The date is February 29 on leap year, which is considered as the 60 th day.

11. Which type of device is used to measure solar irradiance on a planar surface?
a) Pyranometer
b) Net radiometer
c) Gardon gauge
d) Pyrheliometer
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: A Pyranometer is a type of actinometer used for measuring solar irradiance on a
planar surface and it is designed to measure the solar radiation flux density from the hemisphere
above within a wavelength range 0.3μm to 3μm.

12. Instrument used to measure direct beam of solar irradiance is called ____________
a) Pyranometer
b) Net radiometer
c) Gardon gauge
d) Pyrheliometer
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: A Pyrheliometer is the device used to measure direct beam solar irradiance.
Sunlight enters the instrument through a window and is directed onto a thermopile which
converts heat to an electrical signal that can be recorded.
EIA Sample Test Questions and Answer Key
Introduction to EIA questions

1.1 EIA is defined as (select one):

a. A process of identifying, predicting, and evaluating the likely impacts of a proposed
project or development to define mitigation actions to reduce negative impacts and to
provide positive contributions to the natural environment and well-being
b. A report written by government representatives on the planned development impacts of
environment, socio-economic issues and culture
c. Project life-cycle assessment

1.2 True or False? More than 100 countries have legislation on EIA.

1.3 What is essential in an EIA? (select all that apply):

a. That it allows decision makers to assess a project’s impacts in all its phases
b. That it allows the public and other stakeholders to present their views and inputs on the
planned development
c. That it contributes to and improve the project design, so that environmental as well as
socioeconomic measures are core parts of it

1.4 Other assessments similar to EIA include (select all that apply):
a. SEA – strategic environmental assessment
b. SIA – strategic impact assessment
c. IEA – integrated environmental assessment

1.5 True or False? Honduras is currently in the process of revising its legislation on EIA.

Screening questions

2.1 What is the purpose of the “screening” step of EIA? (Select all that apply)
a. To assess the quality of the project design
b. To facilitate informed decision making by providing clear, well-structured, factual
analysis of the effects and consequences of proposed actions
c. To determine whether a full EIA needed

2.2 Which type of project usually requires an EIA? (Select all that apply):
a. Small housing building
b. Dams and reservoirs
c. Industrial plants (large scale)
d. Community garden development
e. Irrigation, drainage, and flood control (large scale)
f. Mining and mineral development (including oil and gas)

1
 g. Port and harbour development
h. Development of wells in the community
i. Reclamation, resettlement and new land development;
j. Thermal and hydropower development
k. Outdoor recreation

2.3 EIA is usually required for a development project when (select all that apply):
a. Large changes are expected in the environment
b. Limited impacts are expected in the environment
c. A small area is expected to be affected by the project
d. There are potentials for transboundary impact
e. Many people are likely to be affected by the project
f. No cumulative impacts are expected
g. There are protected areas in the project area of influence

2.4 True or False? Typically, the project proponents carry out the screening process by assessing
their project based upon a set of criteria determined by a designated agency.

2.5 True or False? In Honduras, screening is carried out via an online system for development
projects only classified under category 1 (low impact).

Scoping questions

3.1 What is true of the Scoping step? (select all that apply)
a. It is a systematic exercise that establishes the boundaries of an EIA
b. It clearly indicates what is relevant and what is not relevant within an EIA
c. It serves as a work plan for the entire EIA process

3.2 Which one of the steps below is NOT included in the scoping process? (select one)
a. Set up the team of experts that will conduct the EIA.
b. Describe the project area and the area of the project influence.
c. Outline project alternative for preparation, implementation and closure.
d. Conduct public meetings and stakeholder consultations; integrate comments and collected
feedback into project planning and alternatives.
e. Create a set of environmental, biological and socioeconomic areas that will be used in the
assessment.
f. Define a set of criteria to assess the project.
g. Identify and describe the environmental impacts and create a contingency plan
h. Identify a set of data for baseline descriptions and potential additional data collection needs.
i. Start inserting this information in the appropriate section of the TOR.

3.3 True or False? Public consultation is a critical part of the EIA, and in some Central American
countries it is mandated by legislation.

2
3.4 True or False? TORs are always prescribed in national EIA legislation

3.5 In Honduras, what is meant by the development project’s Areas of Influence? (select one)
a. The project environment that is located outside the area of the overall project and extends
from its boundaries to a distance of 500 metres.
b. The sector within which the EIA will be developed (Mining, Tourism, etc.)
c. The environmental impacts that will occur outside of the project due to water flow,
migratory species, etc.

Impact Assessment and Mitigation questions

4.1 What is included in an Impact assessment? (select all that apply)

a. a detailed assessment of the planned project and selected alternatives compared to the
baseline conditions
b. Qualitative descriptions measuring high, medium and low impacts
c. Quantitative descriptions such as indicating the cubic metres of water withdrawn, sewage
produced, and pollutants released
d. All the data collection, analyses, and developed plans summarized together in a well-
structured and concise document

4.2 True or False? Impact assessment is done for the planned project and the identified
alternatives.

4.3 The key focus areas of Mitigation measures should include (select all that apply):
a. Preventive measures that avoid the occurrence of impacts and thus avoid harm or even
produce positive outcomes.
b. Measures that focus on limiting or lessening the severity and the duration of the impacts.
c. The identification of compensation mechanisms for those impacts that are unavoidable and
cannot be reduced further.

4.4 Please select the one item from the list below that is NOT an example of an approach to impact
assessment:
a. Expert judgment
b. Quantitative physical and mathematical models
c. Social impact assessment
d. One-off impact assessment
e. Matrices and interaction diagrams
f. Rapid Impact Assessment Matrix (RIAM)
g. Battelle Environmental Evaluation System

4.5 True or False? In a Leopold Matrix, the rows cover the key aspects of the environment and
society, while the columns list the project’s activities during all stages of the project.

3
Impact Management questions

5.1 A core part of Impact Management is developing an EMP – environmental management plan.
Please indicate which items from the list below are contents of the EMP (select all that apply)
a. Mitigation
b. Monitoring
c. Capacity Development
d. Implementation Schedule and Cost Estimates
e. Contingency plans
f. TOR

5.2 True or False? Impact Management plans are often compulsory.

5.3 What is NOT a key step in developing an EMP?

a. Summary of the potential impacts of the proposal.
b. A review of EIA legislation in 5 different countries
c. Description of the recommended mitigation measures.
d. Statement of their compliance with relevant standards.
e. Allocation of resources and responsibilities for plan implementation.
f. Schedule of the actions to be taken.
g. Program for monitoring and auditing.

5.4 What is a contingency plan? (select the best answer)

a. A set of guidelines ensuring that the development project will remain within its boundaries.
b. A plan of actions to prevent an emergency and to be taken when emergencies occur.
c. A plan describing the measures that will be taken to contain or treat any waste produced by
the development project.

5.5 True or False? In Honduras, an EMP is only requested for project in category 4 (High impact).

EIA Report questions

6.1 What specific aspects does a good EIA report and review include? (select all that apply)
a. Assessment, mitigation measures and related plans
b. A terms of reference (TOR)
c. A generalized set of assumptions about the project benefits described in highly technical
terms.
d. A satisfactory prediction of the adverse effects of proposed actions and their mitigation
using conventional and customized techniques.
e. Information that is helpful and relevant to decision making.

4
6.2 True or False? The EIA Report is compiled by the designated government agency.

6.3 There are many known shortcomings in EIA reports. Which is NOT a known shortcoming?
(Select one)
a. The description of the proposal does not cover key features.
b. Appropriate mitigating measures are not considered.
c. Insufficient or outdated prediction models are used.
d. All relevant stakeholder’s concerns are incorporated.

6.3 True or False? The EIA report development is the last step in terms of conducting the impact
assessment done by the project team and the involved consultants.

6.5 Below is a detailed overview of the TOR in Honduras. Two of the items do not belong. Can you
find them? (select two)
a. Proponent details and Index
b. Executive Summary of the EIA
c. Project description and alternatives
d. Legal considerations and environmental regulations applicable
e. Summary of similar environmental regulations in neighboring countries
f. Description of physical environment
g. Description of biological environment
h. Description of Socioeconomic environment
i. Identification and prioritization of environmental impacts
j. Identification of any stakeholders who are against the project
k. Environmental Management Plan
l. Risk Analysis and Contingency Plan
m. Cost Analysis - Environmental Benefit
n. Environmental Policy for the project and its regulations
o. Environmental monitoring plan

Review of the EIA report and licensing

7.1 What are the key objectives of EIA review? (select all that apply)
a. Confirm the quality of the information and methods used in an EIA.
b. Ensure that it that it addresses all the critical and cumulative impacts and identified relevant
mitigation measures
c. Take into account inputs from public comment.

5
7.2 True or false? A good quality EIA might still lead to the planned development not being
permitted to go ahead based on the identified impacts.

7.3 There is often a formal review and licensing procedure in EIA systems. Who would carry out
such a procedure?
a. The proponent of the development project
b. The government authority ultimately responsible for licensing development projects (i.e
government infrastructure department)
c. Another government agency or committee
d. an independent body

7.4 Experience with EIA review in a number of countries has shown that public comment is a critical
part of the EIA review process. What are common methods to ensure the public can comment
on the project? (Select all that apply)
a. Public hearing(s)
b. Written comments submitted to the proponent or government department
c. Creation of TV shows and/or magazine articles to describe the project

7.5 Who carries out the technical review procedure of the EIA in Honduras?
a. MiAmbiente through the Office of Evaluation and Environmental Control (DECA)
b. A Non-governmental Organization called “Transparency in Honduran Development Projects”
c. The Honduran infrastructure and planning department.

Monitoring

8.1 What kind of monitoring is referred to when we speak of monitoring a development project
(select all that apply)
a. Monitoring indicators that measure the impacts on the environment and communities as a
result of the development project
b. Ensuring the fulfillment of all the commitments made in the approved EIA.
c. Keeping track of changes that may happen in the environment and communities because of
the project and other local and/or global changes, such as changes in livelihoods due to
economic crisis or migration, differences in water availability due to drought, etc.
d. Keeping track of the political context, to ensure that the project retains its licence.

8.2 From the list below, please select which item does NOT require any indictors in order to
monitor identified environmental and social impacts and mitigation measures: (Select one):
a. The amount and range of stakeholders who participated in the scoping stage
b. The most important impacts
c. The effectiveness of the mitigation measures to make sure that they indeed reduce the
impacts.
d. The actions proposed in the contingency plans

6
8.3 Who carries out the data collection for monitoring indicators? (select all that apply)
a. The project’s implementers
b. National governments or independent agencies.
c. International development banks or aid agencies

8.4 True or false? Frequency of monitoring will be determined by the nature of the project

8.5 Who is responsible for monitoring an EIA in Honduras? (select all that apply)
a. The World Bank ensures that all Honduran development projects comply with international
standards
b. SINEIA is part of the actions of autoregulation environmental projects, works or activities.
c. DECA is in charge of monitoring and oversight of the project’s environmental performance
through visits.
d. The local municipality is responsible for supporting overall supervision

Answer Key
Question Right answer(s) Feedback (if applicable)
1.1 a
1.2 true
1.3 a,b,c
1.4 a, b Strategic Impact Assessment does not exist
1.5 false Honduras modernized its EIA legislation in 2009.
2.1 b,c At the screening step, the project design is not considered
because it may not even require an EIA.
2.2 b,c,e,f,g,i,j
2.3 a,d,e,g
2.4 true
2.5 false Projects under the categories 1 (low), 2 (low-moderate) and 3
(moderate-high) are screened using the online system. Only the
projects classified as category 4 (High environmental impact) are
not screened using the online system.
3.1 a,b,c
3.2 g A contingency plan is created only during the Impact
Management step. During the Scoping step, it is only necessary to
identify the project impacts, during its all stages and create a list
of significant and non-significant impacts and explain why.
3.3 true
3.4 false In some countries, the proponent prepares its own TOR guided
legislations and in others the TOR is prescribed in the legislation
3.5 a

7
 4.1 a,b,c D is incorrect – this refers to compiling the EIA Report, which is
carried out in the next step.
4.2 true
4.3 a,b,c
4.4 d ‘One-off impact assessment’ does not exist
4.5 true
5.1 a,b,c,d,e The TOR is not part of the EMP. TORs give guidelines for the EIA
report content and they are created during the scoping phase.
5.2 true
5.3 b
5.4 b
5.5 false In Honduras, EMP can be requested for projects, activities, and
works in Category 2, 3, or 4.
6.1 a,b,d,e
6.2 false
6.3 d
6.4 true
6.5 e,j
7.1 a,b,c
7.2 true
7.3 b,c,d
7.4 a,b
7.5 a
8.1 a,b,c
8.2 a
8.3 a
8.4 true
8.5 b,c,d

Source: EIA Online Learning Platform - http://www.iisd.org/learning/eia

8
© International Institute for Sustainable Development
1. In a code-compliant building envelope, the most heat loss (per-square-foot) will occur through
the:

 A) Walls
 B) Windows
 C) Roof
 D) Floor

2. True or False: The heat loss per-hour through infiltration can be as high or even higher than
conductive heat loss through the entire building envelope?

 A) True
 B) False

3. Which of the following statements is NOT correct?

 A) Higher R-values means better insulation

 B) Thermal mass does not equate to better insulation
 C) Heat loss increases with more severe outdoor temperatures
 D) Higher U-factors mean better insulation

4. Which of the following is NOT true with regard to “cool roofs”?

 A) They typically exhibit a low Solar Reflectance Index (SRI)

 B) They tend to emit heat at a high rate
 C) hey usually exhibit a high solar reflectance
 D) They can help reduce the urban heat island effect

5. Which of the following terms can be described as the condition when a more conductive (i.e.,
poorly insulating) material permits an easier pathway for heat to flow across a thermal barrier?

 A) Solar heat gain coefficient

 B) Heat capacity
 C) Thermal bridge
 D) Infiltration

6. True or False: When it comes to insulating a wall or a roof, after a certain point there is a
diminishing return on increasing the total R-value.

 A) True
 B) False

7. Building wraps typically establish which TWO of the following envelope “barriers”?

 A) Air barrier
 B) Vapor barrier
 C) Thermal barrier
 D) Bulk water barrier
8. What is NOT one of the three basic forms of heat transfer in the built environment?

 A) Capacity
 B) Convection
 C) Conduction
 D) Radiation

9. Which of the following is NOT a basic potential energy-related function of the building envelope?

 A) Solar energy collection or reflectance

 B) Thermal energy storage
 C) Reduction of heat transfer
 D) Admission of light/views
 E) Sound transmission

10. Which of the following building materials is the most thermally massive (i.e., exhibits the
highest thermal storage capacity)?

 A) Brick
 B) Concrete
 C) Adobe
 D) Gypsum

1. Two locations where a cold air return should be installed:

a. Open area of wall and low to the ground.
b. Behind appliances and high on the wall.
c. Open area of wall and high on the wall.
d. Behind appliances and low to the ground.

2. Which of the following is a law of thermodynamics:

a. Heat is a form of matter.
b. Heat moves toward a place with higher intensity.
c. Heat moves toward a place with lower intensity.
d. Heat moves toward a place with a higher temperature.

3. Sensible heat describes _________________________.

a. How fast heat will travel.
b. The quantity of heat.
c. The volume of heat.
d. How hot something feels.

4. Latent heat measures _______________________.

a. The temperature of heat in a substance.
b. The quantity of heat in a substance.
 c. The velocity of heat in a substance.
d. The heat potential of a substance.

5. Latent heat is measured in ____________________.

a. Degrees Celsius, F ahrenheit and Kelvin
b. International System of Units
c. British Thermal Units
d. Board of Trade Unit

6. If 1 pound of water warms to 60 degrees F from 55 degrees F,

what btu of latent heat will it have absorbed?
a.
2.5
b.
5
c.
10
d. 15

7. What is the amount of heat energy required to evaporate 1 pound

of water?
a. 370 btu
b. 570 btu
c. 770 btu
d. 970 btu

8. In an air conditioning and refrigeration system, what occurs in an evaporator?

a. The refrigerant absorbs the latent heat.
b. The refrigerant evaporates latent heat.
c. Latent heat is condensed.
d. Latent heat is released.

9. In an air conditioning and refrigeration system, what occurs in a condenser?

a. The refrigerant absorbs the latent heat.
b. The refrigerant releases the latent heat.
c. Latent heat is pressurized.
d. Latent heat is increased.

10. In a sealed system, pressure and temperature _________________.

a. are inversely proportional
b. go in opposite directions up and down
c. are equal
 d. follow each other up and down

11. Which of the following is not a type of compressor?

a. Lateral
b. Reciprocating
c. Rotary
d. Screw
e. Centrifugal

12. In Fahrenheit, the boiling point of water is _____________.

a. 100 degrees
b. 112 degrees
c. 212 degrees
d. 221 degrees

13. To change Fahrenheit to Celsius, which formula is used?

a. C =(F+32)÷ 1.8
b. C=(F-32) x 1.8
c. C=(F-32) ÷ 1.8
d. C= (F-32)+1.8

14. Which of the following is not a method by which heat may be transferred from a warmer substance
to a colder substance?
a. Conduction
b. Retraction
c. Convection
d. Radiation

15. What btu of heat is required to raise 1 pound of ice 1 degree F when the temperature is below 32
degrees F?
a. .25
b. .5
c. 1
d. 1.5

16. What btu of heat is required to raise 1 pound of steam 1 degree F above the temperature of 212
degrees F?
a. .25
 b. .5
c. 1
d. 1.5

17. A day-ton of refrigeration is the amount of refrigeration produced by melting 1 ton of ice at a
temperature of 32 degrees F in 24 hours.
True
False

18. Ice exerts pressure ________________.

a. Upwards
b. Laterally
c. Downwards
d. In all directions

19. Pressure is usually measured in ___________.

a. Pounds per square foot
b. Pressure per square foot
c. Pounds per square inch
d. Pressure per square inch

20. Atmospheric pressure, at sea level, is 14.7 psia.

True
False

21. When one rises into the atmosphere, the atmospheric pressure decreases by 1 psi for
every_________________.
a. 2,343 feet
b. 3,334 feet
c. 2,500 feet
d. 5,280 feet

22. Vaporization can be increased by _____________ the pressure on a liquid.

a. Increasing
b. Equalizing
c. Reducing

23. Every mechanical refrigeration system has __________ different pressure levels.
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
 d. 5

24. Pressure on the high pressure side of a mechanical refrigeration unit is called _______________.
a. suction pressure
b. discharge or head pressure
c. differential l pressure
d. absolute pressure

25. The exertion of pressure on a substance with a constant temperature increases its volume in
proportion to the increase in pressure.
a.True b.False
 SINHGAD COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING

DEPARTMENT OF CIVIL ENGINEEING

B.E. CIVIL- ELECTIVE: GREEN BUILDING TECHNOLOGY- QUIZ

UNIT 1

SUBJECT TEACHER : MRS. V. S. LIMAYE

ACADEMIC YEAR 2019-20

Sr no Question with options Correct
option
Q1 The material is said to be green if d
a) it’s impact on environment is negative
b) it can not be recycled
c) it is not lasting long
d) all of the above
Q2 The benefits of ecofriendly material are c
a) high operation and maintainance cost
b) poor environment
c) better health
d) none of the above
Q3 Following represent ecofriendly product b
a) aluminium sliding window
b) bamboo roofing
c) concrete
d) none of the above
Q4 Benefit of low VOC materials a
a) improved air quality
b) frequent recoating need
c) flammable
d) none of the above
Q5 Which material can be used in foundation and masonry as ecofriendly c
material
a) bamboo
b) steel
c) stone
d) none of the above
Q6 IEQ stands for b
a) interior environmental quality
b) indoor environmental quality
c) interior energy quality
d) none of the above
Q7 Four main elements in IEQ d
a) furniture arrangement, IAQ, noise comfort, lighting
b) thermal comfort, noise comfort, lighting, furniture arrangement
c) Interior design, noise comfort, lighting, IAQ
d) thermal comfort, noise comfort, lighting, IAQ
Q8 The worst impact on residents is observed because of a
a) formaldehyde
b) tobacco smell
c) less ventilation
d) none of the above
Q9 Better IEQ is observed because of d
a) use of low VOC materials
 b) appropriate light and spatial use
c) appropriate orientation
d) all of the above
Q 10 Construction waste is usually b
a) organic
b) inorganic
c) flammable
d) none of the above
Q 11 Construction waste management plan comprises of d
a) reduce
b) reuse
c) recycle
d) all of the above
Q 12 Role of government in Construction waste management c
a) policy framing
b) site allocations
c) both a and b
d) none of the above
Q 13 Construction waste components in India are a
a) concrete, bricks, steel
b) rubble, tree trunks, bricks
c) bushes, bricks, concrete
d) none of the above
Q 14 The use of ecofriendly products in India accounts for d
a) engineered wood
b) slate roofing
c) earthen products
d) all of the above
Q 15 Mechanical property of stone is b
a) luster
b) strength
c) texture
d) none of the above
 SINHGAD COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING

DEPARTMENT OF CIVIL ENGINEEING

B.E. CIVIL- ELECTIVE: GREEN BUILDING TECHNOLOGY- QUIZ

UNIT 3

SUBJECT TEACHER : MRS. V. S. LIMAYE

ACADEMIC YEAR 2019-20

Sr no Question with options Correct
option
Q1 Negative environmental impacts can be mitigated by performing... c
a) a Preliminary Environmental Review
b) an Environmental Impact Assessment
c) both a and b
d) none of the above
Q2 By evaluating a building ’ s environmental impact, environmental a
harm is identified, _________, and prevented
a) reduced
b) increased
c) enhanced substantially
d) none of the above
Q3 Which of the following measures reduce land take impact? b
a) Increase building footprint
b) Minimise building footprint
c) Increase building area
d) none of the above
Q4 Which of the following is not a sustainable planning practice? c
a) site study
b) material selection
c) Energy Audit
d) none of the above
Q5 Which is the term for an evaluation of a product’s environmental impact d
over the entire time of its use?
a) Sustainability
b) Durability
c) chain of custody
d) LCA
Q6 Which is not a part of “ Energy Audit” defined as per the Energy Conservation Act, 2001 b
a) monitoring and analysis of energy use
b) ensuring implementations of recommended measures followed by review
c) submission of technical report with recommendations
d) verification of energy use
Q7 Step to reduce embodied energy d
a) conserve and preserve
b) reuse
c) recycle
d) all of the above
Q8 Embodied energy accounts for d
a) manufacturing process
b) transportation process
c) delivering the product
d) all of the above
Q9 Life cycle assessment is b
 a) collective embodied energy
b) methodology for assessing environmental impacts
c) energy management
d) none of the above
Q 10 Process of EIA involves c
a) screening
b) scoping
c) both a and b
d) none of the above
Q 11 In India EIA started in b
a) 1957-58
b) 1977-78
c) 1997-98
d) 2017-18
Q 12 Approach for energy management in residential area c
a) use of energy efficient appliances
b) use of smart techniques
c) both a and b
d) none of the above
Q 13 Approach for energy management in commercial / industrial area d
a) following provisions of ECBC
b) use of smart techniques
c) Sun and wind path study
d) all of the above
Q 14 Salient features of energy management flow chat d
a) energy audit
b) improving system efficiency
c) operational control
d) all of the above
Q 15 To reduce embodied energy c
a) use light weight building materials in hot climate
b) use windows that allow winter sun in and block summer sun
c) both a and b
d) none of the above
 Sinhgad Technical Education Society
Academic Year - 2019-20, Semester – II
Branch: Civil Engineering
Subject: Green Building Technology
Class: BE Quiz-Unit-2
Marks-50 Time: 1 Hr

Sr. Question with options Correct

No. option
Q.1 Sustainability means c
a) Green Building
b) Planting Trees
c) conducting any human activity such that resources are not
permanently depleted affecting the lives of future generation
d) Improving infrastructure
Q.2 Sustainable building will help to reduce d
a) 12% of portable water consumption
B) 3 billions of raw material used for construction each year
c) 30% of all green house gas emission produced by building in US
d) All of these
Q.3 Which is the term for an evaluation of products environmental impact a
over the entire time of its use?
a) Sustainability
b) Durability
c) Life cycle assessment
d) All of these
Q.4 Green Building practices include d
a) Only energy efficiency
b) Only recycled materials
c) Only environmental protection
d) Chain of custody
Q.5 When does Sustainable Planning take place? a
a) During the design phase of the building ’ s development
b) During the construction phase of the building ’ s development
c) After construction of the building
d) All of the above
Q.6 Sustainable planning considers environmental, social, and _______ b
impacts of a building.
a) technological
b) economic
c) political
d)Environmental
Q.7 Which of the following is considered a negative environmental impact? c
a) Accessible green space (i.e. parks)
b) Pedestrian pathways
c) Construction noise
d) all of the above

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 Sinhgad Technical Education Society
Academic Year - 2019-20, Semester – II
Branch: Civil Engineering
Subject: Green Building Technology
Class: BE Quiz-Unit-2
Marks-50 Time: 1 Hr

Q.8 Which of the following practice applied in sustainable planning? b

a) Energy audits
b) Site appraisals
c) Waste management plan
d) all of the above
Q.9 Negative environmental impacts can be mitigated by performing... c
a) a Preliminary Environmental Review.
b) an Environmental Impact Assessment.
c) both a and b
d) none of the above
Q.10 In sustainable planning, site appraisals evaluate the... c
a) site cleanliness.
b) economic value of the land.
c) relationship between the building and its surrounding areas
d) all of the above
Q.11 Which of the following is not a sustainable planning practice? c
a) Reuse of existing structure and materials
b) Heritage Impact Assessment
c) Energy Audit
d) all of the above
Q.12 Which of the following is a reusable building material from demolished a
buildings when constructing new buildings?
a) Bricks
b) Paint
c) carpet
d) all of the above
Q.13 Sustainable building design does not include.. c
a) energy conservation.
b) Indoor Air Quality.
c) Town Planning.
d) Building Planning
Q.14 ________ ventilation requires less energy, capital and maintenance b
costs, and contributes less GHG emissions.
a) Mechanical
b) Natural
c) Automatic
d) man made
Q.15 Which of the following is not considered a renewable energy source? c
a) Geothermal
b) Solar

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 Sinhgad Technical Education Society
Academic Year - 2019-20, Semester – II
Branch: Civil Engineering
Subject: Green Building Technology
Class: BE Quiz-Unit-2
Marks-50 Time: 1 Hr

c) Coal
d) all of the above
Q.16 Renewable energy is a solution for __________ energy demand and b
__________ oil supply.
a) diminishing; growing
b) growing; diminishing
c) growing; stable
d) stable; growing
Q.17 A well-design building envelope _______ the entry of contaminated air c
and moisture.
a) allows
b) increase
c) eliminate
d) decrease
Q.18 Building with windows facing ______ or ______ provide good access to c
illumination and effortless shading.
a) east; west
b) north; south
c) south; west
d) north; west
Q.19 What is functional building design? c
a) A design that serves its purpose well
b) A design that is flexible and adaptable to the changing tenant
requirements
c) both a and b
d) only b
Q.20 Green procurement is the use of building materials that are ___________ b
and ____________ while eliminating the use of materials that contain
ozone depleting substances.
a) new; trendy
b) recyclable; rapidly renewable
c) used; non-renewable
d) used; renewable
Q.21 Volatile Organic Compounds (VOCs) are commonly found in. a
a) paints and lacquers
b) refrigerants and air-conditioners
c) household appliances.
d) oil
Q.22 Using recycled-content building materials can _______ waste as well as d
pollution and energy associated with the mining, harvesting of raw

Prof. Sneha S Bhende- Assistant Professor RMDSSOE.

 Sinhgad Technical Education Society
Academic Year - 2019-20, Semester – II
Branch: Civil Engineering
Subject: Green Building Technology
Class: BE Quiz-Unit-2
Marks-50 Time: 1 Hr

materials.
a) increase
b) create
c) stable
d) reduce
Q.23 Which of the following statement is true? c
a) Using non-renewable materials can reduce the environmental impacts
b) Using new building materials can reduce waste disposal.
c) Using recycled-content materials can enable the reuse of waste and
thus reduce waste disposal.
d) none of the above
Q.24 Sustainable construction considers the ____________ and ____________ c
impacts of construction activities on the surrounding neighborhood.
a) operational; economical
b) environmental; operational
c) environmental; social
d) social ; operational
Q.25 The stack effect is the tendency for air to move vertically through a
buildings and stacks (chimneys) because of---------..
a) buoyancy
b)speed
c) intensity
d) flow
Q.26 -------------, in turn, is the physical mechanism by which warm air rises a
above cooler air. It’s all about relative density, the same reason that oil
floats on water.
a) buoyancy
b)speed
c) intensity
d) flow
Q.27 the ---------- can enhance ventilation, improve exhaust dispersion, and a
make tall buildings more pleasant places to live and work
a)stack effect
b)heat effect
c) warm air
d) cool air
Q.28 Some heating, ventilation, and air conditioning (HVAC) systems also a
exploit the ----------------------- to improve exhaust rate.
a)stack effect
b)heat effect

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 Sinhgad Technical Education Society
Academic Year - 2019-20, Semester – II
Branch: Civil Engineering
Subject: Green Building Technology
Class: BE Quiz-Unit-2
Marks-50 Time: 1 Hr

c) warm air
d) cool air

Prof. Sneha S Bhende- Assistant Professor RMDSSOE.

 Sinhgad Technical Education Society
Academic Year - 2019-20, Semester – II
Branch: Civil Engineering
Subject: Green Building Technology
Class: BE Quiz-Unit-2
Marks-50 Time: 1 Hr

Q.29 The landforms which are created by erosional and depositional activities b
of wind are called as
a) wind Landforms.
b) Aeolian Landforms.
c) stack effect
d) soil erosion
Q.30 ----------- or natural ventilation supplies and removes air from indoor b
spaces without the assistance of mechanical systems.
a) active
b) passive
c) positive
d) negative
Q.31 HVAC means d
a) Healing Ventilation and Air Conditioning
b) Healing Voltage and Air Conditioning
c) HeatingVentilation and Air Cooling
d) Heating Ventilation and Air Conditioning
Q.32 An HVAC system accounts for approximately what percentage of most d
Americans' total annual energy bill?
a) 10 to 15 percent
b) 20 to 25 percent
c) 30 to 35 percent
d) 40 to 55 percent
Q.33 ---------- system is basically an assembly of various types of equipment b
installed together to provide heating and cooling along with indoor
climate control.
a) HAVC
b) HVAC
c) HCAV
d) AVCA
Q.34 The single scale which combines the effects of various thermal comfort c
factors i.e air temperature, humidity and radiation is called as-------
a) Thermal Index or Temperature Scale
b) Thermal Index or Temperature Scale
c) Thermal Index or comfort Scale
d) Temperature Index or comfort Scale
Q.35 The difference of temperature between the outside air and inside air c
tends to the deposition of moisture in the room surfaces known as
___________
a) Ventilation
b) Diffusion

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 Sinhgad Technical Education Society
Academic Year - 2019-20, Semester – II
Branch: Civil Engineering
Subject: Green Building Technology
Class: BE Quiz-Unit-2
Marks-50 Time: 1 Hr

c) Condensation
d) Dissipation
Q.36 The ________________ plays an important role in the comfort of persons b
affected by ventilation system.
a) Carbon monoxide
b) Purity of air
c) Volume of room
d) Health of occupant
Q.37 In ______________ system, the use is made of doors, windows, c
ventilators and skylights to make the room properly ventilated.
a) Artificial ventilation
b) Air conditioning
c) Natural ventilation
d) Mechanical ventilation
Q.38 In ______________ system, the partial vacuum is created inside of the d
room by exhausting the vitiated inside air by fans or blowers.
a) Supply
b) Plenum
c) Air conditioning
d) Exhaust
Q.39 The relative position of the Sun is a major factor in the heat gain of a
buildings and in the performance of solar energy system, that is also
called as -------
a) sun path
b) wind path
c) ventilation
d) sanitation
Q.40 In building design, windows, walls, and floors are made to collect, store, a
reflect, and distribute solar energy in the form of heat in the winter and
reject solar heat in the summer. This is called -------------
a) passive solar design
b) active solar design
c) positive solar design
d) non of these
Q.41 -------------systems can interface to Building Automation System (BAS) to a
allow the building owners to have more control over the heating or
cooling units. The building owner can monitor the system and respond to
alarms generated by the system from local or remote locations
a) HVAC
b) HAVC
c) HVCA

Prof. Sneha S Bhende- Assistant Professor RMDSSOE.

 Sinhgad Technical Education Society
Academic Year - 2019-20, Semester – II
Branch: Civil Engineering
Subject: Green Building Technology
Class: BE Quiz-Unit-2
Marks-50 Time: 1 Hr

d) None of the above

Q.42 Which of the below green building in India has received a platinum d
LEED certification?
a) Dabur India, Chandigarh
b) Logix Cyber Park, UP
c) Unitech Commercial Tower, Chandigarh
d) Suzlon One Earth, Pune
Q.43 "-----------------" (also known as "sustainable," "ecological," and "eco- a
designed") is a way of looking at buildings in terms of reducing energy
use, conserving water, improving indoor air quality, and reducing
dependence on our natural resources
a) Green Building
b) Tall building
c) Ecological building
d) safe building
Q.44 Inadequate --------------can increase indoor pollutant levels by not a
bringing in enough outdoor air to dilute emissions from indoor sources
and by not carrying indoor air pollutants out of the home
a) ventilation
b)air
c) environment
d) all of above
Q.45 combustion sources such as oil, gas, kerosene, coal, wood, and tobacco a
products; building materials and furnishings as diverse as deteriorated,
asbestos-containing insulation, or furniture made of certain pressed
wood products; products for household cleaning and maintenance,
central heating and cooling systems.
a) Sources of indoor air Pollution
b) Sources of outdoor air Pollution
c) Sources of air Pollution
d) None of these
Q.46 -------------is a method of laying concrete flooring, walkways, sidewalks, a
and driveways in such a manner that there are open patterns allowing
grass or other flora to grow
a) grasscrete
b)concrete
c) masonary
d) plastering
Q.47 ----- is just what it sounds like – a concrete like material created from the a
woody inner fibers of the hemp plant.
a) Hempcere

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 Sinhgad Technical Education Society
Academic Year - 2019-20, Semester – II
Branch: Civil Engineering
Subject: Green Building Technology
Class: BE Quiz-Unit-2
Marks-50 Time: 1 Hr

b)concrete
c) grasscrete
d) all of the above
Q.48 --------- building material for modern buildings is its combination a
of tensile strength, light weight, and fast-growing renewable nature.
a) Bamboo
b)steel
c) RCC
d) all of the above
Q.49 ----------- is a new material being researched that uses recycled materials
including steel dust from the steel industry to create a concrete-like a
building material that is even stronger than concrete
a) Ferrock
b) Hemceret
c) Grasscrete
d) all of the above
Q.50 ----------- or natural ventilation supplies and removes air from indoor b
spaces without the assistance of mechanical systems.
a) active
b) passive
c) positive
d) negative

Prof. Sneha S Bhende- Assistant Professor RMDSSOE.

 Sinhgad Technical Education Society
Academic Year - 2019-20, Semester – II
Branch: Civil Engineering
Subject: Green Building Technology
Class: BE Quiz-Unit-4
Marks-50 Time: 1 Hr

Sr. Question with options Correct

No. option
Q.1 Direct Solar energy is used for d
a) Water heating
b) Distillation
c) Drying
d) All of the above
Q.2 The power from the sun intercepted by the earth is approximately b
8
a) 1.8 x 10 MW
b) 1.8 x 1011 MW
c) 1.8 x 1014 MW
d) 1.8 x 1017 MW
Q.3 The following is indirect method of Solar energy utilization d
a) Wind energy
b) Biomass energy
c) Wave energy
d) All of the above
Q.4 The value of Solar Constant is c
2
a) 1347 W/m
b) 1357 W/m2
c) 1367 W/m2
d) 1377 W/m2
Q.5 Solar radiation flux is usually measured with the help of b
a) Anemometer
b) Pyranometer
c) Sunshine recorder
d) All of the above
Q.6 The function of a solar collector is to convert....... c
a) Solar Energy into Electricity
b) Solar Energy radiation
c) Solar Energy thermal energy
d) Solar Energy mechanical energy
Q.7 Most of the solar radiation received on earth surface lies within the c
range of........
a) 0.2 to 0.4 microns
b) 0.38 to 0.78 microns
c) Solar cell
d) All
Q.8 Reflecting mirrors used for exploiting solar energy are called........ d
a) Mantle

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Subject: Green Building Technology
Class: BE Quiz-Unit-4
Marks-50 Time: 1 Hr

b) Ponds
c) Diffusers
d) Heliostats
Q.9 The output of solar cell is of the order of........ a
a) 1 W
b) 5 W
c) 10 W
d) 20 W
Q.10 A pyranometer is used for mesurement of........ c
a) Direct radiation only
b) Diffuse radiation only
c) Direct as well as diffuse radiation
d) All of the above
Q.11 Most widely used solar material is........ c
a) Arsenic
b) Cadmium
c) Silicon
d)steel
Q.12 Photovoltaic cell or solar cell converts........ b
a) Thermal energy into electricity
b) Electromagnetic radiation directly into electricity
c) Solar radiation into thermal energy
d) Solar radiation into kinetic energy
Q.13 The voltage of a single solar cell is....... a
a) 0.5 V
b) 2.5 V
c) 5 V
d)10 V
Q.14 Solar cells, for power generation, entail the following major b
disadvantages........
a) Variable power
b) High cost
c) Lack of availability
d) Large area requirement
Q.15 Which of the following energy has the greatest potential among all the a
sources of renewable energy?
a) Solar energy
b) Wind Energy
c) Thermal energy
d) Hydro-electrical energy

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Class: BE Quiz-Unit-4
Marks-50 Time: 1 Hr

Q.16 In what form is solar energy is radiated from the sun? c

a) Ultraviolet Radiation
b) Infrared radiation
c) Electromagnetic waves
d) Transverse waves
Q.17 Solar radiation which reaches the surface without scattering or absorbed a
is called _________
a) Beam Radiation
b) Infrared radiation
c) Ultraviolet radiation
d) Diffuse radiation
Q.18 A light emitting diode is _______ a
a) Heavily doped
b) Lightly doped
c) Intrinsic semiconductor
d) Zener diode
Q.19 Which of the following materials can be used to produce infrared LED? b
a) Si
b) GaAs
c) CdS
d) PbS
Q.20 What should be the biasing of the LED? a
a) Forward bias
b) Reverse bias
c) Forward bias than Reverse bias
d) No biasing required
Q.21 What is the bandwidth of the emitted light in an LED? b
a) 1 nm to 10 nm
b) 10 nm to 50 nm
c) 50 nm to 100 nm
d) 100 nm to 500 nm
Q.22 Which of the following is not a characteristic of LED? b
a) Fast action
b) High Warm-up time
c) Low operational voltage
d) Long life
Q.23 Intrinsically _________________ are a very linear device. d
a) Injection lasers
b) DH lasers
c) Gain-guided

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d) LEDs
Q.24 The internal quantum efficiency of LEDs decreasing _______________ b
with ________________ temperature
a) Exponentially, decreasing
b) Exponentially, increasing
c) Linearly, increasing
d) Linearly, decreasing
Q.25 What is/are the consequences of driving the LED in the form of an d
output function?
a) Pin sources the current when made low without glowing LED
b) Pin sinks the current when made high without glowing LED
c) Pin sources the current when made high by glowing LED
d) Pin sinks the current when made low by glowing LED
Q.26 CFL means c
a) Combustible fluoride lamp
b) Compact fluoride lamp
c) Compact fluorescent lamp
d) Combustible fluorescent lamp
Q.27 In fluorescent lamp one capacitor is connected across the lamp circuit c
and another is connected across the starter. Then
a) Both the capacitors are used for improving power factor
b) Both the capacitors are used for reducing radio interference
c) Former capacitors is used for improving power factor and later is
used for reducing radio interference
d) Former capacitors is used for reducing radio interference and later is
used for improving power factor
Q.28 What is the difference between a CFL and an LED lamp? d
a) To produce light, a CFL uses mercury vapour and phosphor while an
LED lamp uses semi-conductor material.
b) The average life span of a CFL is much longer than that of an LED
lamp
c) A CFL is less energy-efficient as compared to an LED lamp.
d) a and c
Q.29 For how much percent is biogas normally designed to hold? c
a) 35%
b) 20%
c) 50%
d) 80%
Q.30 Which type of plant is portable? a
a) Flexible Bag biogas plant

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Subject: Green Building Technology
Class: BE Quiz-Unit-4
Marks-50 Time: 1 Hr

b) Fixed dome biogas plant

c) Floating drum biogas plant
d) Khadi and village industries type biogas plant
Q.31 Khadi village industries type biogas plant is example of ______ c
a) flexible Bag biogas plant
b) fixed dome biogas plant
c) floating drum biogas plant
d) semi-batch type
Q.32 What is the percentage at which rated power from biogas in petrol d
engine can be developed?
a) 45%
b) 65%
c) 75%
d) 85%
Q.33 Which of the SI engine can be run on biogas? b
a) Diesel engine
b) Petrol engine
c) IC engine
d) External combustion engine
Q.34 The process of burning of municipal solid waste at high temperature is a
called ____________
a) Incineration
b) Composting
c) Land filing
d) Shredding
Q.35 In which method of disposal of municipal solid waste, the waste is c
dumped in the soil?
a) Incineration
b) Composting
c) Land filing
d) Shredding
Q.36 The process of decomposition of biodegradable solid waste by c
earthworms is called ___________
a) Incineration
b) Composting
c) vermin composting
d) Shredding
Q.37 In which method of composting, decomposition of anaerobic waste takes c
place?
a) Indian method

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Class: BE Quiz-Unit-4
Marks-50 Time: 1 Hr

b) Depression method
c) Bangalore method
d) Trench method
Q.38 Which of the following is a biological method of disposal of municipal d
solid waste?
a) Land fills
b) Shredding
c) Pulverization
d) Composting
Q.39 Which of the following can act as sanitation technology? a
a) Environmental sanitation
b) Wet sanitation
c) Weir sanitation
d) Notch sanitation
Q.40 Which of the following places involve the usage of sanitation technology? d
a) Public places
b)Houses
c) Open environment
d) Water treatment area
Q.41 Which of the following is involved in a sanitary chain? c
a) Ecological sanitation
b) Dry sanitation
c) Waste water collection method
d) Container-based sanitation
Q.42 ______ used to mean the regulation of admitting more or less sunshine in d
the room.
a) Elegance
b) Roominess
c) Circulation
d) Aspect
Q.43 The term ______ is used to mean the link or access or movement c
between the various rooms and floors of building.
a) Flexibility
b) Prospect
c) Circulation
d)Elegance
Q.44 ________ is used to indicate the architectural effect produced by d
elevation in relation to width, height position of doors and windows,
materials employed in the construction of external walls, etc.
a) Flexibility

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b) Prospect
c) Circulation
d)Elegance
Q.45 The placing of various rooms or units of a structure in a proper d
correlation of their functions and in due proximity with each other is
known as ________
a) Sanitation
b) Prospect
c) Economy
d)Grouping
Q.46 As a principle of planning, the term _______ is used to mean a
architectural hygiene.
a) Sanitation
b) Drainage
c) Water supply
d) Waste Water
Q.47 The ________ is required to control dust and other impurities in the air. c
a) Circulation
b) Sanitation
c) Ventilation
d) Purification
Q.48 What is the wastewater from kitchen sinks called? a
a) Grey water
b)Black Water
c) Brown Water
d) Waste water
Q.49 What is the water from urinals called? b
a) Grey water
b)Black Water
c) Brown Water
d) Waste water
Q.50 The color of the septic sewage is __________ b
a) Grey water
b)Black Water
c) Brown Water
d) Waste water

[email protected] / [email protected]
 Sinhgad Technical Education Society
Academic Year - 2019-20, Semester – II
Branch: Civil Engineering
Subject: Green Building Technology
Class: BE Quiz-Unit-4
Marks-50 Time: 1 Hr

[email protected] / [email protected]
10/19/2020 Green Building Q and A: Answers to common Green Building questions | City of Alexandria, VA

Green Building Q&A : Answers to common

Green Building question:
What are some simple ways to save energy at home?
1. Plug electronics into a power strip rather than the outlet. Appliances plugged into the power strip
leak 80% less electricity than when plugged into the wall.

2. Seal the cracks in window and door frames which can account for 25% heat loss in your home.

3. Buy energy efficient appliances. Although they cost more initially, they are almost always more
cost effective over time.

4. Eat less meat; livestock is responsible for 18% of greenhouse gas emissions, according to the UN
Food and Agriculture Organization.

I’m building a new home in Alexandria. What are some ways I could make my home more eco-
friendly?

1. Consider a green roof. These roofs provide temperature and sound isolation while improving air
quality. They also absorb rainwater, thus filtering out pollutants and improving the quality of
stormwater runoff. More information about green roofs can be found here.

2. Look into solar or geothermal heating options. Basic information about these systems can be
found on Alexandria’s Green Building Resource Center. Installing a solar powered water heater is
one of the most affordable ways to use solar power, paying for themselves in the first year or two
by significantly lower your electric bill.

3. Choose low VOC paints and explore sustainable flooringoptions.

Where can I dispose of hazardous materials such as paint, CFLS, and batteries?
See Alexandria’s Solid Waste and Recycling site for a list of locations. The link to “Refuse Collections”
tells you how to prepare materials and where to take them. Many of these materials, like CFL bulbs,
are collected at home improvement stores such as Home Depot.

What is LEED?
LEED stands for Leadership in Energy and Environmental Design. LEED promotes a whole-building
approach to sustainability by recognizing performance in five key areas of human and environmental
health: sustainable site development, water savings, energy efficiency, materials selection and indoor
environmental quality. (Source: US Green Building Council)

How do I buy green power?

In Alexandria, you can sign up for Dominion Virginia Power’s VA Green Power program online or by
phone. Your rates will be only slightly higher (an additional $0.015 /kWh), costing as little as $2 more
each month while reducing carbon emissions and encouraging independence from fossil fuels.

https://www.alexandriava.gov/tes/gbrc/default.aspx?id=49202 1/2
10/19/2020 Green Building Q and A: Answers to common Green Building questions | City of Alexandria, VA

How do I calculate my carbon footprint?

Your carbon footprint is the sum of all emissions of CO2 (carbon dioxide) produced by your daily
activities, such as driving a car or buying food, over a certain period of time. The CO2 released from
the burning of fossil fuels is one of the most significant causes of global warming is the CO2 released
from the burning of fossil fuels. Here’s an online calculator to help you
out: http://www.carbonfootprint.com/calculator.aspx.

Is it true that washing my clothes in cold water will still get them clean?
Yes, and doing so can save you money while eliminating as much as 350 pounds of carbon dioxide
emissions annually. Most liquid detergents work as well as cold-water detergent, so there’s no need to
switch to a special soap. Grease-stained clothing may come cleaner in hot water but, for the most
part, cold water will get your clothes just as clean as warm water rinses and keep them looking newer
in the process.

Is it more efficient to use a dishwasher or to hand wash?

Studies show that while it is possible to hand wash dishes more efficiently than a dishwasher, doing
so is difficult. Washing a full load of dishes in the dishwasher, especially on the energy saving cycle,
has been shown to be the most eco-friendly way to tidy up the kitchen. Even more points if you skip
the heated-dry.

Where can I learn more about green living?

The City of Alexandria hosts workshops monthly on major topics of concern, such as making historic
homes more energy efficient. These workshops are posted on the here on the resource center.

I live in a historic house. Can I still use solar technology?

Yes. Although regulations are somewhat stricter, solar technology can be a great way to provide clean
power to your home. Alexandria’s Green Building Resource Center has several articles on solar power,
including one directly addressing solar power options for historic homes.

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10/19/2020 Mcq 1 | Green Building | Economy And The Environment

. Sustainability means
a. Building Green
b. Planting trees
c. Conducting any human activity such that Resources are not permanently depleted
affecting the lives of future generation
d. Improving Infrastructure

2. Sustainable buildings will help reduce

a. 12% of potable water consumption
b. The 3 billion tons of raw material used each year in construction.
c. 30 percent of all greenhouse gas emissions produced by buildings each year in the United
States
d. All of these

3. Which is the term for an evaluation of a product’s environmental impact over

the entire time of its use?
a. Sustainability
b. Durability
c. Life-cycle assessment
d. Chain-of-custody

4. Green building practices include

a. Only energy efficiency.
b. Only recycled materials
c. Only Environmental Protection

d. All of these
5. LEED means
a. Leadership in Ecological and Environmental Design.
b. Leadership in Energy and Environmental Design.
c. Leadership in Efficiency and Environmental Design.
d. Leadership in Efficiency and Ecological Design.

6. LEED deals with Sustainable Aspects of

a. Agriculture
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10/19/2020 Mcq 1 | Green Building | Economy And The Environment

b. Buildings
c. Chemical Industry
d. Motor Vehicles

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 MCQs_Green Building Technology

1. When does Sustainable Planning take place?

A) During the design phase of the building’ s development (Correct)

B) During the construction phase of the building ’ s development

C) After construction of the building

2. Sustainable planning considers environmental, social, and……….impacts of a building.

A) Technological
B) Economic (Correct)
C) Political

3. Which of the following is considered a negative environmental impact?

A) Accessible green space (i.e. parks)
B) Pedestrian pathways
C) Construction noise (Correct)

4. Which of the following practice applied in sustainable planning?

A) Energy audits
B) Site appraisals (Correct)
C) Waste management plan

5. Negative environmental impacts can be mitigated by performing...........

A) A Preliminary Environmental Review

B) An Environmental Impact Assessment

C) Both (Correct)
6. In sustainable planning, site appraisals evaluate the............
A) Site cleanliness
B) Economic value of the land

C) Relationship between the building and its surrounding areas (Correct)

7. Site appraisals evaluate a building’s accessibility to infrastructure,………., and

local micro-climate.
A) compatibility of use with surrounding area (Correct)
B) indoor air quality
C) noise pollution

8. By evaluating a building’s ecological impact, environmental harm is identified……

and prevented.
A) Reduced (Correct)
B) Increased
C) Enhanced

9 Which of the following measures reduce land take impact?

A) Minimize building footprint (Correct)
B) Increase building footprint
C) Increase roof surface area

10. Which of the following is not a sustainable planning practice?

A) Reuse of existing structure and materials
B) Heritage Impact Assessment
C) Energy Audit (Correct)

11. Which of the following is a reusable building material from demolished buildings
when constructing new buildings?
A) Bricks (Correct)
B) Paint
C) Carpet
12. It is often more………….to adapt existing buildings to new uses.
A) Expensive
B) Economical (Correct)
C) Dangerous

13. Sustainable building design is an enhanced building……….that promotes

environmental protection, health and safety.
A) Standard (Correct)
B) Feature
C) Management

14. Sustainable building design does not include...

A) Energy conservation
B) Indoor Air Quality
C) Town Planning. (Correct)

15. What does LEED stand for?

A) Leadership in Energy Efficiency Design
B) Leadership in Energy and Environmental Design (Correct)
C) Leadership in Energy Emissions Design

16. A building which utilizes solar energy such as solar film effectively…………
heat gain during the winter, and summer. …………heat gain during the
A) increases; reduces (Correct)
B) reduces; increases
C) reduces; reduces
17. A sustainable building is integrated into the natural and……….. setting of its
location.

A) Cultural (Correct)
B) Technological
C) Political

18. Which land use is considered incompatible with residential neighborhoods?

A) Commercial use
B) Industrial use (Correct)
C) Residential use

19. ………… ventilation requires less energy, capital and maintenance costs, and
contributes less GHG emissions.
A) Mechanical
B) Natural (Correct)
C) Automatic

20. Rainwater can be harvested from roofs of buildings and stored for non-potable
uses. Which of the following is considered a non-potable use?
A) Drinking
B) Toilet flushing (Correct)
C) Cooking

21. Which of the following is not considered a renewable energy source?

A) Geothermal
B) Solar
C) Coal (Correct)
22. Renewable energy is a solution for ……….energy demand and ……….oil supply.
A) diminishing; growing
B) growing; diminishing (Correct)
C) growing; stable

23. Universal accessibility is a design approach that allows

participation from a………range of users.
A) limited
B) small
C) diverse (Correct)

24. Building orientation is the……….of a building on a site.

A) positioning (Correct)
B) design
C) heating

25. Building with windows facing………. Or…………provide good access to

illumination and effortless shading.
A) east; west
B) north; south (Correct)
C) south; west
26. What is functional building design?
A) A design that serves its purpose well
B) A design that is flexible and adaptable to the changing tenant requirements
C) Both (Correct)

27. Green procurement is the use of building materials that are

…………. and…………….while eliminating the use of materials that contain ozone
depleting substances.
A) new; trendy
B) recyclable; rapidly renewable (Correct)
C) used; non-renewable
28. Volatile Organic Compounds (VOCs) are commonly found in...
A) Paints and lacquers. (Correct)
B) Refrigerants and air-conditioners.
C) Household appliances.

29. Ozone-depleting substances are commonly found in which products?

A) Paints and lacquers
B) Refrigerants (Correct)
C) Household appliances

30. Which of the following is not a rapidly renewable building material?

A) Bamboo
B) Cork
C) Timber (Correct)

31. Using recycled-content building materials can…………….waste

as well as pollution and energy associated with the mining, harvesting of raw materials.
A) increase
B) create
C) reduce (Correct)

32. Which of the following statement is true?

A) Using non-renewable materials can reduce the environmental impacts.
B) Using new building materials can reduce waste disposal.

C) Using recycled-content materials can enable the reuse of waste and thus reduce waste
disposal. (Correct)
33. Which of the following statement is true?
A) Plastic lumber made from paper and wood chips is a recycled-content material.

B) Straw is considered a rapidly renewable building material.(Correct)

C) All timbers are come from sustainable forests.

34. Which of the following is not a recycled-content building material?

A) Virgin timber (Correct)

B) Tile containing recycled glass
C) Concrete containing recycled aggregate

35. Salvaging of bricks and stones from an old building for use in a new building is an
example of what type of practice?
A) Reusing (Correct)
B) Reducing
C) Recycling

36. What does VOCs stand for?

A) Volatile Organic Compounds (Correct)
B) Various Organic Compounds
C) Volatile Outdoor Chemicals

37. Volatile Organic Compounds are...

A) Organic chemical compounds that easily vaporize into the air.
B) A major cause of smog in the atmosphere.
C) Both (Correct)

38. The most harmful ultra-violet radiation from the sun is……..wavelengths.
A) UVA
B) UVB (Correct)
C) UVC
 39. The………of the atmosphere act(s) as a sun block for the Earth, filtering harmful
radiation from the sun.

A) ozone layer (Correct)

B) oxygen molecules
C) clouds

40. Using recycled-content building materials will……….resource depletion, energy

use in raw material extraction, and waste.
A) increase
B) reduce (Correct)
C) encourage

41. Rapidly renewable materials regenerate………….than/as their market demand.

A) faster (Correct)
B) slower
C) at the same speed

42. A………… building material can be made into new products again and again.
A) recyclable (Correct)
B) reusable
C) repairable

43. Paving block made of recycled glass from disposed bottles is

………………..
A) a rapidly renewable building material
B) a recycled-content building material (Correct)
C) a VOC off-gasing building material

44. A straw bale used for building insulation is……...

A) a rapidly renewable building material (Correct)
B) a recycled-content building material
C) a VOC off-gasing building material
45. Cork flooring is…………..
A) a rapidly renewable building material (Correct)
B) a recycled-content building material
C) a VOC off-gasing building material

46. When does Sustainable Construction take place?

A) During the design phase of a building’ s development

B) During the construction phase of a building’s development (Correct)

C) After construction of the building

47. Sustainable construction considers the………and……..impacts of construction activities

on the surrounding neighborhood.

A) operational; economical
B) environmental; operational
C) environmental; social (Correct)

48. What environmental aspects are monitored to identify and mitigate

environmental nuisances during construction?
A) water and waste
B) air and noise
C) Both A and B (Correct)

49. What is the main source of air pollution from construction activities?
A) Greenhouse gases
B) Dust particles (Correct)
C) Ozone
50. Airborne particulates arising from construction can travel
……………from the site, affecting the air quality and health of the neighborhood.
A) far (Correct)
B) fast
C) a short distance

51. Noise disturbance from construction activities is minimized by utilizing noise

barriers and………….
A) installing automatic water spraying devices
B) conducting regular noise impact assessments (Correct)
C) adopting precast concrete road paving

52. Mosquito breeding in construction sites can be minimized by

enhancing the passage of water and removing Choose the best ………..water.
A) stagnant (Correct)
B) chemically polluted water
C) murky
53. ………wastes are sorted for public fill disposal and…………….
wastes are disposed in landfills.
A) Public; private
B) Inert; non-inert (Correct)
C) Industrial; household

54. A waste management plan is a strategy to generate………

Construction waste on site and to landfills. ……………….public fills and
A) more; increase waste to
B) less; sort waste effectively before disposed to (Correct)
C) less; transport waste safely to

55. Under the Noise Control Ordinance, the construction activities in Hong Kong are
grouped into two categories:
A) General construction work & Percussive Piling (Correct)
B) General construction work & heavy machinery work
C) Noise level I & Noise level II

56. Which of the following is not an inert material?

A) Excavated rocks
B) Bamboo (Correct)
C) Soil materials

57. Which of the following measures are not used in construction air pollution
management?
A) Use of precast concrete paving
B) Use of mobile sprinkler
C) Use of feather duster (Correct)
58. When do construction activities restrict under the Noise Control Ordinance?
A) Between 7p.m. to 7a.m.
B) Sundays and statutory holidays
C) Both A and B. (Correct)

59. Which of the following measures are not used to reduce waste water impacts
during construction?
A) Installation of waste water treatment plant to collect and treat waste water before
discharge
B) Regular testing on wastewater quality after treatment
C) Use of mobile sprinkler (Correct)

60. About ………….. percent of the total waste intake by landfills comes from the
construction industry.
A) 20
B) 30
C) 40 (Correct)

61. Which of the following measures are not used to reduce mosquito breeding in a
construction site?
A) wrapping of bamboo scaffolding ends to prevent water from entry
B) use of light duty sump pumps to clear stagnant water
C) use of mechanical cover for dump truck (Concrete paving can be related to less risk for
stagnant water.) (Correct)
62. Substitution of traditional timber with metal formwork can save timber
consumption by up to ………percent.
A) 20
B) 30 (Correct)
C) 50

63. Which of the following is not a strategy to reduce construction waste?

A) Use of insulated refuse chute (Correct)
B) Use of prefabricated materials
C) On-site sorting to separate inert materials from non-inert materials

64. What is a sustainably maintained building?

A) A building which uses innovative technology in their design.
B) A building which requires little energy and attention for upkeep and operation. (Correct)
C) A building which requires intensive maintenance and repairs for upkeep and operation.

65. When does Sustainable Maintenance take place?

A) During the design phase of a building ’ s development
B) During the construction phase of a building ’ s development
C) After the construction of a building. (Correct)
66. Which of the following is not a local voluntary program benchmarking building
performance?
A) Building Environmental Assessment Method (BEAM).

B) Leadership in Energy and Environmental Design (LEED).(Correct)

C) Hong Kong Energy Efficiency Registration Scheme for Buildings (HKEERSB).

67. Life Cycle Costing (LC C) is a technique to establish the……..

cost of ownership.
A) initial
B) partial
C) total (Correct)

68. LCC gives the current and future costs of a building’s

development, operation and ………. throughout its useful life.
A) performance
B) maintenance
C) fire drill (Correct)
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1 What does LEED stand for?

A - Leadership in Energy and Environmental Design
B - Leadership in Efficient Energy Design
C - Landscaping with Energy Efficient Design
D - Landscaping with Efficient Energy Design
Source
LEED stands for Leadership in Energy and Environmental Design. It is a
green building certification system that is internationally recognized.
2 What is the name for an area that has not been developed, compacted, or
cleared that could support open space, habitat, or natural hydrology?
A – Greenfield
B - Bottleneck
C - Blackfield
D - Brownfield
Source : A
Greenfield

A Greenfield is an area that has not been developed or cleared and is in

a natural state, or was used for agriculture. The land is also available to
support open space, habitat, or natural hydrology.
3 Which of the following is NOT a way to reduce the heat island effect on a
roof?
A - Install High-Albedo Roof Surfaces
B - Construct a Flat Roof
C - Use Roofing Materials With High SRI Value
D - Install Vegetated Roof That Covers At Least 50% of Roof Area
Source : B
Installing high-albedo roof surfaces, using roofing materials with high
SRI value, and installing a vegetated roof that covers at least 50% of the
roof area are all ways to reduce heat island effect on a roof. Constructing
a flat roof will not reduce the heat island effect.
4 Which of the following provides detailed information on the safety
procedures, chemical composition, and health effects of materials and
products?
A - Material Safety Data Sheets
B - Measurement and Verification Plan
C - Substance Scorecard
D - Detailed Product and Procedure Plan
Source : A
Your Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDS) can help you identify the types
and amounts of hazardous substances contained in your materials. You
can use the quantities of these substances to select the appropriate
materials to use on your job.
5 Which of the following is an area NOT involved in integrated pest
management?
A - Pest Control and Prevention Methods
B - Knowledge About Pests
C - The Environment
D - Knowledge of Construction Codes
Source : D
Knowledge of Construction Codes
Integrated pest management combines a knowledge of pests, pest
control and prevention methods, and the environment. Knowledge of
construction codes would not help in integrated pest management.
6 You're trying to lessen the footprint of your building. This will have a positive
effect on which of the following?
A - Public Transit Access
B - Parking Capacity
C - Open Space
D - Capacity for Recycling
Source : C
Open Space

Reducing the footprint of your building will allow for more open space.
Open space includes grassland or landscaping.
7 Which of these is the LEAST a preferred strategy for reducing waste
according to the EPA?
A - Recycling Materials
B - Reuse of Materials
C - Burning of Waste Materials
D - Source Material Reduction
Source : C
Burning of Waste Materials

The EPA ranks its preferred methods of waste removal. Reducing,

Reusing, and Recycling are all highly preferred methods of waste
removal.
8 Which of the following are required in order to achieve LEED certification?
A - Satisfy All Prerequisites and Earn All Possible Credits
B - Satisfy Half of the Prerequisites and Earn 20 Credits
C - Satisfy Half of the Prerequisites and Earn All Possible Credits
D - Satisfy All Prerequisites and Earn a Minimum Number of Credits
Source : D
Satisfy All Prerequisites and Earn a Minimum Number of Credits

In order to earn LEED certification, you must satisfy all prerequisites and
earn a minimum number of credits. By earning more credits you can earn
higher levels of certification.
9 If you have earned 55 credits, which level of LEED certification have you
achieved?
A - Certified
B - Platinum
C - Silver
D - Diamond
Source :- C
Silver
If you have earned 55 credits you have achieved a Silver level of LEED
certification. The minimum number of credits you can earn and still
achieve certification is 40.
10 Which of the following is a property where redevelopment, expansion, or
reuse can be complicated by the possible presence of hazardous substances.
A - Blackfield
B - Greenfield
C - Brownfield
D - Whitefield
Source :- C
Brownfield

A brownfield is a site where redevelopment, expansion, or reuse can be

complicated by the possible presence of hazardous substances. Its
estimated that there are more than 450,000 brownfields in the United
States.
11 How many points are possible to earn in the Innovation in Design category?
A-2
B - 24
C-6
D - 10
Source : C
There are 6 possible points to earn in the Innovation in Design category.
In order to achieve LEED certification you need to earn a minimum of 40
points
12 At which of the following points does the life cycle approach of a project
begin?
A - Property Cleaning
B - Project Scheduling
C - Materials Purchase
D - Pre-Design
Source : D
Pre-Design

The life cycle approach takes all aspects of the project into consideration.
Because of this, it should begin before all other aspects of the project.
13 Designing a building that has a flexible floor plan that could be used for
commercial or residential purposes is an example of which of the following?
A - Brownfield
B - Heat Island
C - Adaptive Reuse
D - Shifting Abilities
Source : C
Adaptive Reuse

A building with a floor plan that could either be used for commercial or
residential purposes is an example of adaptive reuse. Adaptive reuse
takes a property or object and uses it for a different purpose, extending
its life.
14 LEED certification was developed by what organization?
A - Central Intelligence Agency
B - U.S. Green Building Council
C - United States Labor Department
D - United States Environmental Protection Agency
Source : B
U.S. Green Building Council

The U.S. Green Building Council (USGBC) developed the LEED

certification program. It provides a set of standards for environmentally
sustainable design, construction, and operation of buildings.
15 Which of the following is an example of light trespass?
A - Truck Lights Shining on the Building
B - A Parking Lot Light Flowing Into a Nearby Park
C - Turning Lights Off at a Predetermined Time
D - Office Lights Set on a Dimmer
Source : B
A Parking Lot Light Flowing Into a Nearby Park

A light in a parking lot whose light flows into a nearby park is an

example of light trespass. Light trespass is when light moves beyond its
intended boundary.
16 If you're working on a project you'll need materials. What is an
environmental benefit of using salvaged wood in a project?
A - Higher Material Strength
B - Lower Material Cost
C - Increase Local Economy
D - Reduce Demand of New Resources
Source : D
Reduce Demand of New Resources

An environmental benefit of using salvaged wood in a project is that it

reduces the amount of new resources needed on the project. By reusing
materials, new trees wouldn't need to be cut down.
17 What would NOT be a good strategy to reduce waste associated with
construction?
A - Throw Away Unused Material
B - Recycle the Materials
C - Donate Unused Materials
D - Use Primarily Salvaged Materials
Source :- A
Throw Away Unused Material

Recycling or donating unused materials, or using salvaged materials are

good ways to reduce construction waste. Throwing away unused
materials would likely increase the amount of waste on the construction
site.
18 New Construction, Core and Shell, Schools, Existing Buildings: Operations
and Maintenance projects require what minimum floor area?
A - 20,000 sq. ft.
B - No Minimum Exists
C - 1,000 sq. ft.
D - 10,000 sq. ft.
Source : C
1,000 sq. ft.

New Construction, Core and Shell, Schools, Existing Buildings: Operations

and Maintenance projects require a 1,000 sq. ft. minimum floor area.
Smaller buildings cannot adequately be measured using the LEED
system.
19 Which of the following topics does ASHRAE 62.1-2010 cover?
A - Proper Reuse of Materials
B - Overall Building Energy Conservation
C - Indoor Air Quality
D - Heating and Cooling Practices
Source : C
Indoor Air Quality

ASHRAE 62.1-2010 discusses indoor air quality and building ventilation.

The improvements that can be made play into the Indoor Environmental
Quality credit.
20 If you have completed all of the LEED prerequisites and earned 81 credits,
what level of LEED certification have you earned?
A - Bronze
B - LEED Certified
C - Platinum
D - Gold
Source :- C
Platinum

If you have earned 80 or more credits and have completed all

prerequisites, you would have earned LEED Platinum Certification. To
achieve basic LEED Certification you need to earn between 40 and 49
credits.
10/19/2020 Your Results for "Multiple Choice"

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Site Title: Introduction to Housing Summary of Results

Book Title: Introduction to Housing
25% Correct of 20 Scored items:
Book Author: HERA 5 Correct: 25%
Location on Site: Chapter 11 > Multiple Choice 15 Incorrect: 75%

Date/Time October 19, 2020 at 9:25 AM (UTC/GMT) More information about scoring
Submitted:

1. According to the textbook, sustainable development is defined as meeting the needs of the
present by compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs.

Your Answer: True

Correct Answer: False

2. Which of the following is NOT emphasized in sustainable development according to the textbook?

Your Answer: Community well-being

Correct Answer: Electronic information

3. According to the text, characteristics of sustainable communities include

Your Answer: mixed uses

Correct Answer: all of the above

4. According to the textbook, if the building is oriented correctly, sunlight will provide solar heating
gain in the winter and minimize overheating from southern summer sunlight.

Your Answer: False

5. Green building considers the cost of the material as well as the energy used to create the
product such as mining, harvesting, processing and transporting it to the site.

Your Answer: False

Correct Answer: True

6. According to the textbook, sustainable buildings

Your Answer: use recycled and reused materials

Correct Answer: all of the above

7. Passive solar design is most effective in colder climates when?

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10/19/2020 Your Results for "Multiple Choice"

Your Answer: The most used rooms are located on the west side of the building
Correct Answer: None of the above

8. According to the textbook, by reducing local energy consumption, efficient buildings can also
reduce air pollution.

Your Answer: True

9. According to the textbook, window performance is measured by which of the following?

Your Answer: Condensation Resistance (CR)

Correct Answer: All of the above

10. According to the text, the easiest way to determine the efficiency of appliance and energy
equipment is to

Your Answer: read and compare energy information found on labels

11. According to the text, in comparison to a standard incandescent lamp, compact fluorescent
lighting (CFLs)

Your Answer: can produce ten times more light per watt
Correct Answer: can last up to ten times longer

12. According to the chapter, evergreen trees, shrubs, vines or fences can create buffers from the
winter wind when placed on the _____ side(s) of a house.

Your Answer: both a and d

13. According to the text, when designing a water-wise landscape, careful attention should be paid
to which of the following?

Your Answer: All of the above

14. According to the text, creating a healthy building includes careful consideration of only outdoor
environmental quality issues.

Your Answer: True

Correct Answer: False

15. According to the U.S. Department of Energy, using natural resources such as energy and water

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10/19/2020 Your Results for "Multiple Choice"
efficiently is an element of sustainable buildings.

Your Answer: False

Correct Answer: True

16. When constructing a sustainable building, which of the following measures can be taken to
protect the building site?

Your Answer: Require contractors to sign a compliance agreement that requires dollar
compensation if any trees, bushes or grasses are damaged
Correct Answer: Only b and c

17. Active solar design can include which of the following?

Your Answer: Photovoltaic cells

Correct Answer: All of the above

18. Resource efficient landscaping should reduce maintenance by

Your Answer: both of the above

Correct Answer: none of the above

19. Sustainable communities replace historic buildings with more energy efficient structures.

Your Answer: True

Correct Answer: False

20. In many communities, sustainability is not incorporated into planning because decisions are
made in a piecemeal fashion.

Your Answer: False

Correct Answer: True

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Basic Civil Engineering Questions and Answers –
Sustainable Engineering
« Prev
Next »
This set of Basic Civil Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers
(MCQs) focuses on “Sustainable Engineering”.

1. Carbon footprint can be measured by:

a) Carbon dating
b) Instruments
c) Carbon accounting
d) Formula
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Carbon footprint is the total set of greenhouse gas emissions
caused by an individual, event, organisation or product. It is expressed as
carbon dioxide equivalent. It can be measured by assessment of GHG
(greenhouse gas) levels or activities like carbon accounting.
2. How many types of ecological pyramids are there?
a) 3
b) 2
c) 4
d) 5
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Ecological pyramid is a graphical representation used to show
bio productivity at each trophic level. The three types are the pyramid of
energy, pyramid of numbers and pyramid of biomass.
3. A legally binding agreement between 2 or more nation states relating to
environment is:
a) BEA
b) BA
c) MA
d) MEA
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: MEA stand for Multilateral Environmental Agreement. When it is
between 2 nation states, it is BEA – Bilateral Environmental Agreement.
These are predominantly produced by the United Nations.
4. _________ is a programme run by UN related to sustainable
development.
a) GHG indicator
b) Agenda 21
c) IPCC
d) UNEP
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Agenda 21 is a comprehensive blueprint of action to be taken
globally, nationally and locally by governments of member nations of UN and
those major groups in every area in which humans impact on the
environment.
5. For a gold LEED certification, how many points are required?
a) 40-49
b) 60-79
c) 50-59
d) 80-110
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: LEED is Leadership in Energy and Environmental Design. It has
four levels – certified (40-49 points), silver (50-59), gold (60-79) and
platinum (80-110 points).
6. Which of the below green building in India has received a platinum LEED
certification?
a) Dabur India, Chandigarh
b) Logix Cyber Park, UP
c) Unitech Commercial Tower, Chandigarh
d) Suzlon One Earth, Pune
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: This building can accommodate 2300 people, has used low
energy materials, thus reducing carbon footprint. 90% of occupied space has
access to natural daylight.
7. ________ is the conventional source for hydel power.
a) Tidal wave
b) Currents
c) Water
d) Ripples
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Hydel power is obtained from a high velocity of running water.
It is abundantly present. It is used for a longer period of time. It is an
exceptional case of conventional energy.
8. The first academic publication about ecological footprints was in:
a) 1992
b) 1990
c) 1993
d) 1994
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: William Rees published the first ecological footprint in 1992. The
concept and calculation was developed as the PhD dissertation of Mathis
Wackernagel under Rees’ supervision from 1990-1994.
9. Which of the below is a global scale environmental issue?
a) Eutrophication
b) Regional ozone
c) Climate change
d) Pollution
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: These are three scales of environmental issues – local, regional
and global. Climate change, global warming, stratospheric ozone less, etc.
are all issues at a global level.
10. Carbon can be stored in organic matter in the form of:
a) Biomass
b) Biofuel
c) Bioenergy
d) Bio carbon
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: It is stored in the roots of trees and organic matter for decades
in the form of biomass. The carbon from these are released into the
atmosphere on decomposition.
11. The ‘Miracle Material’ that can turn CO2 into liquid fuel is:
a) Propene
b) Copper
c) Graphene
d) Potassium
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Graphene quantum dots can recycle waste CO2 to fuel. Scientist
Pulickel Ajayan has shown the conversion of CO2 into ethylene and ethanol
using electro catalysis in lab conditions.
GBT_2015_Unit 4_TTT

VSL
• Unit IV:
• Appropriate Technologies / Approaches for :
• A) Water conservation / efficiency
• B) Sanitation (Grey water, black water management,
SWM)
• C) Treatments
• D) Biogas
• E) Composting
• F) Solar energy and its applicability through panels,
photovoltaic cells etc
• G) Use of “ LED, CFL, Fresnel Lens” etc
• H) Wind energy and its use....
• I) Orientation aspects in site planning to achieve
maximum daylight and natural ventilation
 scarcity

need

Hampered
quality
sustenance
 WATER
CONSE
R-
VATION
PLAN

WATER
CONSER- WHAT EDUCATE
VATION
IDEAS TO DO

EMPLOYEE
PARTICIPA
TION
 WHY CONSERVE WATER?
1. It is a resource that is a benefit to everyone.
2. To save money. Lower consumption means lower
water bills.
3. To keep rates low. Maximizing current water
supplies helps defer the need to develop new, more
expensive sources of water.
4. To prepare for a drought. Many areas of the
country have experienced drought conditions in the
past few years. Water conservation helps prepare
for these worst of times.
5. To comply with regulations. Many states and
local regulators have established efficient water use
regulations.
• Water efficiency is reducing water wastage by measuring the
amount of water required for a particular purpose and the amount
of water used or delivered. Water efficiency differs from water
conservation in that it focuses on reducing waste, not restricting
use. (wikipidia)
• What is Water Efficiency?
• Water efficiency is the smart use of our water resources through
water-saving technologies and simple steps we can all take around
the house. Using water efficiently will help ensure reliable water
supplies today and for future generations. (EPA-US)
• The terms water efficiency and water conservation are often used
interchangeably. Water efficiency is the accomplishment of a
function, task, process, or result with the minimal amount of water
feasible. (e.g. toilet flushing or showering) (CWCB)
• https://courses.cit.cornell.edu/arch465/.../4605-7b-LEED-WE.htm
• Decreasing run-off losses: Contour cultivation,
Terrace farming, Conservation-bench terracing,
Water spreading, Chemical wetting agents
(Surfactants)
• Reducing evaporation losses
• Storing water in soil
• Reducing irrigation losses
• Reuse of water
• Preventing wastage of water
• Increasing block pricing
 TWO TYPES OF PRACTICES

1. Engineering practices:
practices based on
modifications in plumbing,
fixtures, or water supply
operating procedures.
2. Behavioral practices:
practices based on
changing water use habits.
• Metering
• Leak detection
• Auditing water
• Reduction in pressure
• Recycle
• Reuse
• Dual flush
• RWH
• XERISCAPE LANDSCAPE

• CAFETERIAS AND RESTAURANTS

• LAUNDRIES
• HOSPITALS AND CLINICS ETC
 Sanitation (Grey water, black water
management, SWM)
• MEANING
• ONE PIPE ----TWO PIPE & ASSOCIATED PROBLEMS
• TREATMENTS
• OUTCOME- USE OF TREATED WATER
• FIGURES / STATISTICS
• MANAGEMENT : NEED , MEANS , ENERGY
GENERATION / REUSE- RECYCLE ETC
• WHAT IS BIOGAS? RAW MATL USED, PROCESS FOR
PRODUCTION, EFFICIENCY, DEPENDANCY FACTORS,
REPLACEMENT FOR CONVENTIONAL ENERGY
SOURCE
• WHAT IS GREY WATER? SOURCE?COLLECTION –
TREATMENT PROCESS , OUTCOME – EFFICIENCY ,
DEPENDANCY FACTORS, REPLACEMENT FOR
CONVENTIONAL ENERGY SOURCE
• WHAT IS COMPOST? TYPES OF COMPOSTING, RAW
MATL USED, PROCESS FOR PRODUCTION,
EFFICIENCY, DEPENDANCY FACTORS, REPLACEMENT
FOR CONVENTIONAL ENERGY SOURCE
• WIND ENERGY: SPEED / CYCLES / CLIMATIC ZONE –
(MICROCLIMATIC BEHAVIOUR),
• TURBINE: LOCATION, EFFICIENCY, PRECAUTIONS ETC
• COMFORT , ORIENTATION , TYPE OF BLDG

• SUN PATH : CLIMATIC ZONE – (MICROCLIMATIC

BEHAVIOUR)
• PANELS AND OTHER DEVICES IN USE …..
APPLICATIONS , LOCATION , EFFICIENCY ,
PRECAUTIONS ETC
• COMFORT , ORIENTATION , TYPE OF BLDG
• Energy efficiency is using technology that requires
less energy to perform the same function. Using a
light-emitting diode (LED) light bulb or a compact
fluorescent light (CFL) bulb that requires less energy
than an incandescent light bulb to produce the
same amount of light is an example of energy
efficiency.
• Energy conservation is any behavior that results in
the use of less energy. Turning the lights off when
leaving the room and recycling aluminum cans are
both ways of conserving energy
• LED – CFL- FRESNEL …. WHEN WHERE WHY
OUTCOME
• FRESNEL LENS: WORKING PRINCIPLE , OUTCOME ,
APPLICATION , PRECAUTIONS IF ANY

• FIGURES , COMPARITIVE ANALYSIS (PRINCIPLE ,

MATERIAL , COST , BENEFIT , EFFICIENCY ,
SUSTENANACE)
 ORIENTATION
• WHAT IT IS?
• DEPENDANCY FACTORS
• JUSTICICATION FOR DESIGN – ARCHITECTURAL
FEATURES
• INDIA - ENGLAND
Biogas plants are decentralized energy system that can lead to self-sufficiency in heat and power
requirements, and at the same time reduces environmental pollution. A biogas plant stabilizes
organic waste through natural biological process in the absence of air and transforms waste
into biogas and biofertilizer.
Typical composition of biogas
Compound Formula %

Methane CH4 50–75

Carbon dioxide CO2 25–50

Nitrogen N2 0–10

Hydrogen H2 0–1

Hydrogen sulfide H2S 0.1 –0.5

Oxygen O2 0–0.5
• Solid-Waste Characteristics
• Composition and properties
• The sources of solid waste include residential, commercial, institutional, and industrial activities.
Certain types of wastes that cause immediate danger to exposed individuals or environments are
classified as hazardous; these are discussed in the article hazardous-waste management. All
nonhazardous solid waste from a community that requires collection and transport to a processing
or disposal site is called refuse or municipal solid waste (MSW). Refuse includes garbage
and rubbish. Garbage is mostly decomposable food waste; rubbish is mostly dry material such as
glass, paper, cloth, or wood. Garbage is highly putrescible or decomposable, whereas rubbish is
not. Trash is rubbish that includes bulky items such as old refrigerators, couches, or large tree
stumps. Trash requires special collection and handling.
• Construction and demolition (C&D) waste (or debris) is a significant component of total solid waste
quantities (about 20 percent in the United States), although it is not considered to be part of the
MSW stream. However, because C&D waste is inert and nonhazardous, it is usually disposed of in
municipal sanitary landfills.
• Another type of solid waste, perhaps the fastest-growing component in many developed countries,
is electronic waste, or e-waste, which includes
discarded computer equipment, televisions, telephones, and a variety of other electronic devices.
Concern over this type of waste is escalating. Lead, mercury, and cadmium are among the materials
of concern in electronic devices, and governmental policies may be required to regulate their
recycling and disposal.
REFER: https://www.britannica.com/technology/solid-waste-
management/Solid-waste-collection

• Solid-Waste Treatment And Disposal

• Once collected, municipal solid waste may be
treated in order to reduce the total volume
and weight of material that requires final
disposal. Treatment changes the form of the
waste and makes it easier to handle. It can
also serve to recover certain materials, as well
as heat energy, for recycling or reuse.
FRESNEL LENS
Fresnel lens, succession of concentric rings, each consisting of an
element of a simple lens, assembled in proper relationship on a flat
surface to provide a short focal length. The Fresnel lens is used
particularly in lighthouses and searchlights to concentrate the light into
a relatively narrow beam
Role of govt: policy formation, setting up bench marks / standards,
subsidy, research grants, testing laboratories, incentives etc

• ABOVE SLIDES HAVE MENTIONED ABOUT THE

GUIDELINES…. HOW TO INTRODUCE
DIAGRAM, STATISTICS , ROLE OF
GOVERNMENT**** ETC

• I WILL BE SENDING THE ANSWERS OF EARLIER

STUDENTS
 Unit 4

1.Write a note on solar energy & applications.

Ans:

(a) Solar Water Heating:

A solar water heating unit comprises a blackened flat plate metal
collector with an associated metal tubing facing the general direction of
the sun. The plate collector has a transparent glass cover above and a
layer of thermal insulation beneath it.

The metal tubing of the collector is connected by a pipe to an insulated

tank that stores hot water during cloudy days. The collector absorbs
solar radiations and transfers the heat to the water circulating through the
tubing either by gravity or by a pump.

This hot water is supplied to the storage tank via the associated metal
tubing. This system of water heating is commonly used in hotels, guest
houses, tourist bungalows, hospitals, canteens as well as domestic and
industrial units.

(b) Solar Heating of Buildings:

(a) Collecting the solar radiation by some element of the building itself
i.e. solar energy is admitted directly into the building through large
South-facing windows.
(b) Using separate solar collectors which may heat either water or air or
storage devices which can accumulate the collected solar energy for use
at night and during inclement days.

When the building requires heat then from these collectors or storage
devices, the heat is transferred by conventional equipment such as fan,
ducts, air outlets, radiators and hot air registers etc. to warm up the
living spaces of a building.

When the building does not require heat, the heated air or water from the
collector can be moved to the heat storage device such as well insulated
water tank or other heat holding material. For inclement days, an
auxiliary heating system using gas, oil or electricity is required as a
backup system.

c) Solar-distillation:
In arid semi and or coastal areas there is scarcity of potable water. The
abundant sunlight in these areas can be used for converting saline water
into potable distilled water by the method of solar distillation. In this
method, solar radiation is admitted through a transparent air tight glass
cover into a shallow blackened basin containing saline water.

Solar radiation passes through the covers and is absorbed and converted
into heat in the blackened surface causing the water to evaporate from
the brine (impure saline water). The vapors produced get condensed to
form purified water in the cool interior of the roof.

The condensed water flows down the sloping roof and is collected in the
troughs placed at the bottom and from there into a water storage tank to
supply potable distilled water in areas of scarcity, in colleges, school
science laboratories, defense labs, petrol pumps, hospitals and
pharmaceutical industries. Per liter distilled water cost obtained by this
system is cheaper than distilled water obtained by other electrical
energy-based processes.

(d) Solar-pumping:
In solar pumping, the power generated by solar-energy is utilized for
pumping water for irrigation purposes. The requirement for water
pumping is greatest in the hot summer months which coincide with the
increased solar radiations during this period and so this method is most
appropriate for irrigation purpose. During periods of inclement weather
when solar radiations are low then the requirement for water pumping is
also relatively less as the transpiration losses from the crops are also
low.

(e) Solar Drying of Agricultural and Animal Products:

This is a traditional method of utilising solar energy for drying of
agricultural and animal products. Agricultural products are dried in a
simple cabinet dryer which consists of a box insulated at the base,
painted black on the inner side and covered with an inclined transparent
sheet of glass.

At the base and top of the sides ventilation holes are provided to
facilitate the flow of air over the drying material which is placed on
perforated trays inside the cabinet. These perforated trays or racks are
carefully designed to provide controlled exposure to solar radiations.
Solar drying, especially of fruits improves fruit quality as the sugar
concentration increases on drying. Normally soft fruits are particularly
vulnerable to insect attack as the sugar content increases on drying but in
a fruit dryer considerable time is saved by quicker drying —minimizing
gap the chances of insect attack.

The present practice of drying chilies by spreading them on the floor not
only requires a lot of open space and manual labour for material
handling but it becomes difficult to maintain its quality and taste unless
drying is done in a controlled atmosphere. Moreover, the products being
sun dried very often get spoiled due to sudden rains, dust storms or by
birds. Besides, reports reveal that it is not possible to attain very low
moisture content in the sun-dried chilies.

2.Write a note on wind energy & applications.

Air is most important natural resource and if you are looking to use air
as the good resource then you can control air pollution easily. Moving
air is also called as wind that produces energy. Wind energy is necessary
non conventional source of India. Wind energy could be converted into
the mechanical and electrical energies. It is used in the wind battery
charges, wind pumps and wind electricity generators. When it comes to
the wind power applications then it could be used to run pumps in order
to draw water from grounds via wind mills.
Application of Wind Energy:
1. The wind energy is used to propel the sailboats in river and seas to
transport men and materials from one place to another.
2. Wind energy is used to run pumps to draw water from the grounds
through wind mills.

3. Wind energy has also been used to run flourmills to grind the grains
like wheat and corn into flour.

4. Now-a-days wind energy is being used to generate electricity.

3. Write a note on water conservation and efficiency.

Ans:

Water Conservation: Definition and Strategies for Water Conservation!

Water conservation is a big thing, but every little bit helps, so don’t
think that what you do doesn’t matter. A whole lot of people doing a
little bit adds up to a whole lot. We must all make changes in our
lifestyles that will change the course of our water and its quality.

Strategies for Water Conservation :

The following strategies can be adopted for conservation of water:
1. Decreasing run-off losses:
Huge water-loss occurs due to run-off on most of the soils, which can be
reduced by allowing most of the water to infiltrate into the soil. This can
be achieved by using contour cultivation, terrace framing, water
spreading, chemical treatment or improved water-storage system.

(a) Contour cultivation:

On small furrows and ridges across the slopes trap rainwater and allow
more time for infiltration. It is applicable on relatively short slopes up to
about 8 percent, steepness with fairly stable soils. By planning across the
slope, rather t up and down a hill, the contour ridges slow or stop the
downhill flow of water, water is held in between these contours, thus
reducing water erosion and increasing soil moisture.

(b) Terrace farming:

Terracing constructed on deep soils has large water-storage capacity. On
gentle slopes trapped run off is spread over a large area (for better
infiltrations). Terraced fields decrease erosion and surface runoff, and
are effective for growing crops requiring much water, such as rice.

(c) Conservation-bench terracing:

It involves construction of a series of benches for catching the run off
water’s.

(d) Water spreading:

Water spreading is done by channelling or lagoon-levelling, in
Channelling, water flow is controlled by a series of diversions with
vertical intervals. In lagoon levelling, small depressions are dug in the
area so that there is temporary storage water.

(e) Chemical wetting agents (Surfactants):

These seem to increase the water intake rates when added to normal
irrigated soiled) Surface crop residues, tillage, mulch, animal residues
etc. help in reducing run-off by allowing more time for water to
penetrate into the land’s) Chemical conditioners like gypsum
(CaS04.2H20) when applied to sonic soils improve soil permeability and
reduce run off.
Another useful conditioner is HPAN (hydrolyzed poyacrylonitrileg)
Water-storage structures like farm ponds, dugouts etc. build by
individual farmers can be useful measures for conserving water through
reduction of runoff.

2. Reducing evaporation losses:

This is more relevant in humid regions. Horizontal barriers of asphalt
placed below the soil surface increase water availability and increase
crop yield by 35-40%. This is more effective on sandy soil but less
effective on loamy sand soils. A copolymer of starch and acrylonitrile
called ‘super slumber’ has been reported to absorb water up to 1400
times its weight. The chemical has been found to be useful for sandy
soils.

3. Storing water in soil:

Storage of water takes place in the soil root zone inhumed regions when
the soil is wetted to field capacity. By leaving the soil fallow for one
season water can be made available for the crop grown in next season.

4. Reducing irrigation losses:

Ans:
(a) Use of lined or covered canals to reduce seepage.

(b) Irrigation in early morning or late evening to reduce evaporation

losses.

(c) Sprinkling irrigation and drip irrigation to conserve water by 30-

50%.
 (d) Growing hybrid crop varieties with less water requirements and
tolerance to saline water help conserve water.

(e) Leave some ground idle and apply the saved water to high- value
crops.

4. What is the important of Grey water/black water/solid waste

management? Elaborate the aftermath if handled in
inappropriately.
Ans:
Greywater can be defined as any domestic wastewater produced,
excluding sewage. The main difference between greywater and sewage
(or blackwater) is the organic loading. Sewage has a much larger organic
loading compared to greywater.

Some people also categorise kitchen wastewater as blackwater because it

has quite a high organic loading relative to other sources of wastewater
such as bath water.

People are now waking up to the benefits of grey water re-use, and the
term "Wastewater" is in many respects a misnomer. Maybe a more
appropriate term for this water would be "Used Water".

Two major benefits of grey water use are:

 Reducing the need for fresh water. Saving on fresh water use can
significantly reduce household water bills, but also has a broader
community benefit in reducing demands on public water supply.
 Reducing the amount of wastewater entering sewers or on-site
treatment systems. Again, this can benefit the individual household,
but also the broader community.

Solid waste management

Black water in a sanitation context denotes wastewater from toilets,
which likely contains pathogens. Black water can contain feces, urine,
water and toilet paper from flush toilets. Black water is distinguished
from grey water, which comes from sinks, baths, washing machines, and
other kitchen appliances apart from toilets. Grey water results from
washing food, clothing, dishes, as well as from showering or bathing.
The beneficial use of solid waste saves landfill capacity for materials
that do not have alternative uses and reduces the amount of raw
materials used in construction and other industries. By using solid waste,
individuals and organizations can reduce disposal costs, or even generate
profit through the sale of materials that have a beneficial use.
5. Write a note on different treatments given to waste water and
solid waste.
Ans:
Waste Water
Wastewater treatment is the process of converting wastewater – water
that is no longer needed or is no longer suitable for use – into bilge water
that can be discharged back into the environment.
It may be formed by a number of activities including bathing, washing,
using the toilet, and rainwater runoff.

The following is a step by step process of how wastewater is treated:

1. Wastewater Collection
This is the first step in the wastewater treatment process. Collection
systems are put in place by the municipal administration, homeowners as
well as business owners to ensure that all the wastewater is collected and
directed to a central point.
Note that the wastewater collected here is primarily the water used in
our everyday activities like cooking utensils, taking a bath, doing
laundry, and more.

This water is collected and then directed to a treatment plant using

underground drainage systems or by exhauster tracks owned and
operated by business people.

2. Odor Control
At the treatment plant, odor control is important, to say the least.
Wastewater contains a lot of dirty substances that cause a foul smell
over time. To ensure that the surrounding areas are free of the foul smell,
odor treatment processes are initiated at the treatment plant.

All odor sources are contained and treated using chemicals to neutralize
the foul smell producing elements. It is the first wastewater treatment
plant process and it’s very important.

3. Screening
This is the next step in the wastewater treatment process. Screening
involves the removal of large objects for example nappies, cotton buds,
plastics, diapers, rags, sanitary items, nappies, face wipes, broken bottles
or bottle tops that in one way or another may damage the equipment.
Failure to observe this step results in constant machine and equipment
problems. Specially designed equipment is used to get rid of grit that is
usually washed down into the sewer lines by rainwater. The solid wastes
removed from the wastewater are then transported and disposed off in
landfills.
4. Primary Treatment
This process involves the separation of macrobiotic solid matter from
the wastewater. Primary treatment is done by pouring the wastewater
into big tanks for the solid matter to settle at the surface of the tanks.

The sludge, the solid waste that settles at the surface of the tanks, is
removed by large scrappers and is pushed to the center of the cylindrical
tanks and later pumped out of the tanks for further treatment. The
remaining water is then pumped for secondary treatment.
5. Secondary Treatment
Also known as the activated sludge process, the secondary treatment
stage involves adding seed sludge to the wastewater to ensure that it is
broken down further. Air is first pumped into huge aeration tanks that
mix the wastewater with the seed sludge which is basically a small
amount of sludge, which fuels the growth of bacteria that uses
oxygen and the growth of other small microorganisms that consume the
remaining organic matter.
This process leads to the production of large particles that settle down at
the bottom of the huge tanks. The wastewater passes through the large
tanks for a period of 3-6 hours.

6. Bio-solids handling
The solid matter that settles out after the primary and secondary
treatment stages are directed to digesters. The digesters are heated at
room temperature. The solid wastes are then treated for a month where
they undergo anaerobic digestion.
During this process, methane gases are produced and there is a
formation of nutrient-rich bio-solids that are recycled and de-watered
into local firms.

The methane gas formed is usually used as a source of energy at the

treatment plants. It can be used to produce electricity in engines or to
simply drive plant equipment. This gas can also be used in boilers to
generate heat for digesters.

7. Tertiary treatment
This stage is similar to the one used by drinking water treatment plants
which clean raw water for drinking purposes. The tertiary treatment
stage has the ability to remove up to 99 percent of the impurities from
the wastewater. This produces effluent water that is close to
drinking water quality. Unfortunately, this process tends to be a bit
expensive as it requires special equipment, well trained and highly
skilled equipment operators, chemicals, and steady energy supply. All
these are not readily available.
8. Disinfection
After the primary treatment stage and the secondary treatment process,
there are still some diseases causing organisms in the remaining treated
wastewater.
To eliminate them, the wastewater must be disinfected for at least 20-25
minutes in tanks that contain a mixture of chlorine and sodium
hypochlorite. T

he disinfection process is an integral part of the treatment process

because it guards the health of the animals and the local people who later
use the water for other purposes.

The effluent (treated wastewater) is later released into the environment

through the local waterways. This water may now be used in industries,
for irrigation, and to meet a range of other purposes like doing laundry
and washing clothes.

9. Sludge Treatment
The sludge that is produced and collected during the primary and
secondary treatment processes requires concentration and thickening to
enable further processing. It is put into thickening tanks that allow it to
settle down and later separates from the water.

This process can take up to 24 hours. The remaining water is collected

and sent back to the huge aeration tanks for further treatment. The
sludge is then treated and sent back into the environment and can be
used for agricultural use.
Solid Waste

Waste treatment and disposal methods are selected and used based on
the form, composition, and quantity of waste materials.

Here are major waste treatment and disposal methods:

Thermal Treatment

Thermal waste treatment refers to the processes that use heat to treat
waste materials. Following are some of the most commonly used
thermal waste treatment techniques:

 Incineration is one of the most common waste treatments. This

approach involves the combustion of waste material in the
presence of oxygen. This thermal treatment method is commonly
used as a means of recovering energy for electricity or heating.
This approach has several advantages. It quickly reduces waste
volume, lessens transportation costs and decreases harmful
greenhouse gas emissions.
 Gasification and Pyrolysis are two similar methods, both of
which decompose organic waste materials by exposing waste to
low amounts of oxygen and very high temperature. Pyrolysis uses
absolutely no oxygen while gasification allows a very low amount
of oxygen in the process. Gasification is more advantageous as it
allows the burning process to recover energy without causing air
pollution.
  Open Burning is a legacy thermal waste treatment that is
environmentally harmful. The incinerators used in such process
have no pollution control devices. They release substances such as
hexachlorobenzene, dioxins, carbon monoxide, particulate matter,
volatile organic compounds, polycyclic aromatic compounds, and
ash. Unfortunately, this method is still practiced by many local
authorities internationally, as it offers an inexpensive solution to
solid waste.

Dumps and Landfills

Sanitary landfills provide the most commonly used waste disposal

solution. These landfills are desired to eliminate or reduce the risk of
environmental or public health hazards due to waste disposal. These
sites are situated where land features work as natural buffers between the
environment and the landfill. For instance, the landfill area can be
comprised of clay soil which is quite resistant to hazardous wastes or is
characterized by an absence of surface water bodies or a low water table,
preventing the risk of water pollution.

The use of sanitary landfills presents the least health and environmental
risk, but the cost of establishing such landfills is comparatively higher
than other waste disposal methods.

Controlled dumps are more or less the same as sanitary landfills. These
dumps comply with many of the requirements for being a sanitary
landfill but may lack one or two. Such dumps may have a well-planned
capacity but no cell-planning. There may be no or partial gas
management, basic record keeping, or regular cover.

Bioreactor landfills are the result of recent technological research. These

landfills use superior microbiological processes to speed up waste
decomposition. The controlling feature is the continuous addition of
liquid to sustain optimal moisture for microbial digestion. The liquid is
added by re-circulating the landfill leachate. When the amount of
leachate is not adequate, liquid waste such as sewage sludge is used.

Biological Waste Treatment

Composting is another most frequently used waste disposal or treatment

method which is the controlled aerobic decomposition of organic waste
materials by the action of small invertebrates and microorganisms. The
most common composting techniques include static pile composting,
vermin-composting, windrow composting and in-vessel composting.

Anaerobic Digestion also uses biological processes to decompose

organic materials. Anaerobic Digestion, however, uses an oxygen and
bacteria-free environment to decompose the waste material where
composting must have air to enable the growth of microbes.

6.Write a note on Method of biogas generation.

Ans:

Biogas is produced through the processing of various types of organic

waste. It is a renewable and environmentally friendly fuel made from
100% local feedstocks that is suitable for a diversity of uses
including road vehicle fuel and industrial uses. The circular-economy
impact of biogas production is further enhanced by the organic nutrients
recovered in the production process.

Biogas can be produced from a vast variety of raw materials

(feedstocks). The biggest role in the biogas production process is played
by microbes feeding on the biomass.
Digestion carried out by these microorganisms creates methane, which
can be used as it is locally or upgraded to biogas equivalent to natural
gas quality, enabling the transport of the biogas over longer distances.
Material containing organic nutrients is also produced in the process,
and this can be utilized for purposes such as agriculture.
Stages in biogas production
Biogas is produced using well-established technology in a process
involving several stages:
1. Biowaste is crushed into smaller pieces and slurrified to prepare it
for the anaerobic digestion process. Slurrifying means adding
liquid to the biowaste to make it easier to process.
2. Microbes need warm conditions, so the biowaste is heated to
around 37 °C.
3. The actual biogas production takes place through anaerobic
digestion in large tanks for about three weeks.
4. In the final stage, the gas is purified (upgraded) by removing
impurities and carbon dioxide.

After this, the biogas is ready for use by enterprises and consumers, for
example in a liquefied form or following injection into the gas pipeline
network.
Turning diverse range of materials into gas
Biogas production starts from the arrival of feedstocks at the biogas
plant. A diverse range of solid as well as sludge-like feedstocks can be
used.
Materials suitable for biogas production include:
 biodegradable waste from enterprises and industrial facilities, such
as surplus lactose from the production of lactose-free dairy
products
 spoiled food from shops
 biowaste generated by consumers
 sludge from wastewater treatment plants
 manure and field biomass from agriculture
The material is typically delivered to the biogas plant's reception pit by
lorry or waste management vehicle.
A delivery of solid matter such as biowaste will next undergo crushing
to make its consistency as even as possible. At this point, water
containing nutrients obtained from a further stage in the production
process is also mixed with the feedstock to take the rate of solid matter
down to only around one-tenth of the total volume.
This is also when any unwanted non-biodegradable waste, such as
packaging plastic of out-of-date food waste from shops, is separated
from the mixture. This waste is taken to a waste treatment facility where
it is used to generate heat and electricity. Biomass that has passed
through slurrification is combined with biomass delivered in the form of
slurry to the biogas plant and pumped into the pre-digester tank where
enzymes secreted by bacteria break down the biomass into an even finer
consistency.
Next, the biomass is sanitized before entering the actual biogas reactor
(digester). In sanitization, any harmful bacteria found in the material are
eliminated by heating the mixture to above 70 °C for one hour. Once
sanitized, the mass is pumped into the main reactor where biogas
production takes place. Sanitization makes it possible to use the fertilizer
product in agriculture.
Biomass is turned into gas by microbes
In the biogas reactor, microbial action begins and the biomass enters a
gradual process of fermentation.
In practice this means that microbes feed on the organic matter, such as
proteins, carbohydrates and lipids, and their digestion turns these into
methane and carbon dioxide.
Most of the organic matter is broken down into biogas – a mixture of
methane and carbon dioxide – in approximately three weeks. The biogas
is collected in a spherical gas holder from the top of the biogas reactors.
Digestate utilized as fertilizers or gardening soil
The residual solids and liquids created in biogas production are referred
to as digestate. This digestate goes into a post-digester reactor and from
there further into storage tanks. Digestates are well suited for uses such
as fertilization of fields.
Digestates can also be centrifuged to separate the solid and liquid parts.
Solid digestates have uses such as fertilizers in agriculture or in
landscaping and can also be turned into gardening soil through a process
of maturation involving composting.
Digestates are centrifuged to yield enough process water for the
slurrification of biowaste at the beginning of the process. This helps
reduce the use of clean water. The centrifuged liquid is rich in nutrients,
particularly nitrogen, that can be separated further using methods such as
stripping technology and used as fertilizers or nutrient sources in
industrial processes.
Clean biogas helps move towards low-carbon society
Gas would already be ready for several uses straight from the biogas
plant gas holder. However, before being injected into the gas pipeline
network or used to fuel vehicles, it will still undergo purification.

In this upgrading process, gas is filtered and flown into columns where it
is scrubbed by cascading water at a very specific pressure and
temperature. Water efficiently absorbs carbon dioxide and sulfur
compounds contained by the gas.
Biogas can also be purified using other methods, such as passing it
through activated carbon filters to remove impurities.
The final upgraded biogas injected into the gas network is at least 95%
and usually around 98% methane. Upgraded biogas still contains a
couple of per cent of carbon dioxide as its further separation from
methane is not cost-effective let alone sensible as regards the usability of
the gas. Biogas is dried carefully before injection into the gas network to
prevent condensation in winter subzero conditions.
The biogas produced can be used for purposes such as fuelling
municipal waste management vehicles, urban buses or private cars. At
the same time, gas serves as evidence of those practical actions that are
taking us towards the low-carbon society of the future.
7. Write a note on Method of composting.
Ans:
Composting is the natural process of 'rotting' or decomposition of
organic matter by microorganisms under controlled conditions. Raw
organic materials such as crop residues, animal wastes, food garbage,
some municipal wastes and suitable industrial wastes, enhance their
suitability for application to the soil as a fertilizing resource, after having
undergone composting.

Methods of composting

In Coimbatore method, composting is done in pits of different sizes

depending on the waste material available. A layer of waste materials is
first laid in the pit. It is moistened with a suspension of 5-10 kg cow
dung in 2.5 to 5.0 I of water and 0.5 to 1.0 kg fine bone meal sprinkled
over it uniformly. Similar layers are laid one over the other till the
material rises 0.75 m above the ground level. It is finally plastered with
wet mud and left undisturbed for 8 to 10 weeks. Plaster is then removed,
material moistened with water, given a turning and made into a
rectangular heap under a shade. It is left undisturbed till its use.

In the Indore method of composting, organic wastes are spread in the

cattle shed to serve as bedding. Urine soaked material along with dung is
removed every day and formed into a layer of about 15 cm thick at
suitable sites. Urine soaked earth, scraped from cattle sheds is mixed
with water and sprinkled over the layer of wastes twice or thrice a day.
Layering process continued for about a fortnight. A thin layer of well
decomposed compost is sprinkled over top and the heap given a turning
and reformed. Old compost acts as inoculum for decomposing the
material. The heap is left undisturbed for about a month. Then it is
thoroughly moistened and given a turning. The compost is ready for
application in another month.

In the Bangalore method of composting, dry waste material of 25 cm

thick is spread in a pit and a thick suspension of cow dung in water is
sprinkled over for moistening. A thin layer of dry waste is laid over the
moistened layer. The pit is filled alternately with dry layers of material
and cow dung suspension till it rises 0.5 m above ground level. It is left
exposed without covering for 15 days. It is given a turning, plastered
with wet mud and left undisturbed for about 5 months or till required.

In Coimbatore method, there is anaerobic decomposition to start with,

following by aerobic fermentation. It is the reverse in Bangalore method.
The Bangalore compost is not so thoroughly decomposed as the Indore
compost or even as much as the Coimbatore compost, but it is bulkiest.

Compost is a rich source of organic matter. Soil organic matter plays an

important role in sustaining soil fertility, and hence in sustainable
agricultural production. In addition to being a source of plant nutrient, it
improves the physico-chemical and biological properties of the soil. As a
result of these improvements, the soil:

(i) becomes more resistant to stresses such as drought, diseases

and toxicity;
(ii) helps the crop in improved uptake of plant nutrients; and
(iii) possesses an active nutrient cycling capacity because of
vigorous microbial activity.
(ii)

8. Write note on methods of “LED, CFL, Fresnel Lens” & it’s

important.
Ans:
LED

The major uses of LED (Light Emitting Diodes) is to illuminate objects

and even places. Its application is everywhere due to its compact size,
low consumption of energy, extended lifetime and flexibility in terms of
use in various applications.
Applications and Uses of LEDs can be seen in:

 TV Backlighting
 Smartphone Backlighting
 LED displays
 Automotive Lighting
 Dimming of lights

The uses and functions of LEDs depends upon the place where it is
used, some examples are mentioned below:

LEDs used for TV Backlighting

A TV’s backlight is the major power consuming source. Uses of LEDs
can give a efficient power reduction. In the edges of TV, using
an LED will be a cost reduction choice. Using LEDs directly behind the
display provides better contrast. LEDs has been replacing CFLs and
LCDs when it comes to TV backlighting.

It is used for Smartphone Backlighting

With the use of LED, the backlight design of the smartphone can be
thinner and be made within low cost. The price of LED may vary
according to the size of the smartphone display. Due to the lower output
voltage, they ensure longer battery life.
Uses of LED in Displays
LEDs display boards are common now these days and are used outdoors
like storage signs, billboards, road signs etc. In sign boards which has
multiple languages conveying signals, use of more LEDs will be
beneficial in terms of less power consumption.

These are used in Automotives

Uses of LEDs in automotive industry is growing. With LEDs, energy is
saved and there is a clearer visibility. These are extensively used in back
and rear of an automobile for better accessibility. LED lighting can
improve safety of pedestrians and driver as it enhances visibility when it
is ON, OFF and dimmed in any part of the journey.

LEDs used in Dimming of Lights

Few LED applications include dimming of lights which helps in
reducing energy consumption.
This dimming feature is also used in Appliances where it is of two types.
Global Dimming where all LEDs are dimmed together.
Local Dimming where LEDs are dimmed indepently.
CFL

Compact fluorescent lamps (CFL's), are small household lamp-sized

fluorescent lamps. They are generally intended to replace incandescent
light bulbs. They have become very popular mainly due to their lower
energy consumption (about one-fourth - 25%) for the same amount of
light output compared to incandescent light bulbs. As a result, they are
perceived as being "green". But, like all man-made devises, there are
advantages and disadvantages, pro's and con's to using them. We will
present these below, along with references to credible authoritative
sources and some conclusions to help you decide when CFL's are right
for you.
Uses

 Energy Star qualified CFLs use at least two-thirds less energy than
standard incandescent bulbs
 CFLS can last about 6 times longer (average lifespan of a CFL is
five to six years).
 CFLs save $30 or more in energy costs over each bulb's lifetime.
 CFLs produce 70 percent less heat, making them safer to operate.

Fresnel lens

Fresnel lenses consist of a series of concentric grooves etched into

plastic. Their thin, lightweight construction, availability in small as well
as large sizes, and excellent light gathering ability make them useful in a
variety of applications. Fresnel lenses are most often used in light
gathering applications, such as condenser systems or emitter/detector
setups. They can also be used as magnifiers or projection lenses in
illumination systems, and image formulation.

Light Collimation

A Fresnel lens can easily collimate a point source by placing it one focal
length away from the source. In a finite-conjugate system, the grooved
side of the Fresnel lens should face the longer conjugate (Figures 3 - 4)
because this produces the best performance.

Light Collection

One of the most common applications for a Fresnel lens is the collection
of solar light, which is considered very nearly parallel (an infinite-
conjugate system). Using a Fresnel lens for light collection is ideal for
concentrating light onto a photovoltaic cell or to heat a surface. For
example, a Fresnel lens can be used for popular home maintenance such
as heating a home or pool! In these cases, the overall surface area of the
lens determines the amount of collected light.
Magnification

Another common application for a Fresnel lens is magnification. It can

be used as a magnifier or projection lens; however, due to the high level
of distortion, this is not recommended. Also, the image quality does not
compare to that of a higher-precision system given the amount of
distortion.

While commonly found in solar applications, Fresnel lenses are ideal for
any application requiring inexpensive, thin, lightweight positive lens
elements. Fresnel lenses are not new technology, but their pervasiveness
has increased with improvements in manufacturing techniques and
materials. Fresnel lenses are truly unique optical lenses which make
them a great tool for a range of interesting and fun optical designs.

9. Orientation aspects in site planning to achieve maximum daylight.

Ans:

Daylight is a highly cost-effective means of reducing the energy for

electrical lighting and cooling. But architectural education often reduces
the aspect of daylight to eye-catching effects on facades and scarcely
discusses its potential effects - not just on cost, but on health, well-being
and energy.

This Light Matters will explore the often unexplored aspects of daylight
and introduce key strategies for you to better incorporate daylight into
design: from optimizing building orientations to choosing interior
surface qualities that achieve the right reflectance. These steps can
significantly reduce your investment as well as operating costs. And
while these strategies will certainly catch the interest of economically
orientated clients, you will soon discover that daylight can do so much
more.
1. Optimize urban design and building orientation
The large scale design for daylight starts with urban planning. Create
districts and buildings in a form that people receive daylight as their
source of light and heat as well as views where and when they want it.
This strategy is of course dependent on the specific climate and location.
A careful design of a building height forms the basis for avoiding
excessive shading from nearby buildings or from different building
wings. The next factor is the orientation of the architecture to maximize
exposure, for example a south direction for the northern hemisphere. In
addition northern exposure should be optimized for indirect diffuse
lighting. Finally, enlarge as much as possible the perimeter footprint in
order to maximize the daylight for interior spaces. For harvesting
daylight, long and narrow building forms work better; atriums offer
additional possibilities.

2. The perfect size, form and glazing treatment for windows

Analyse your climate regarding the four forms of daylight for each
façade - including the roof: 1. Direct sun, 2. Indirect sun due to
reflection from other buildings, 3. Direct cloudy sky and 4. Indirect
cloudy sky, which is reflected on the ground. In the northern
hemisphere, the south windows should not be oversized and they need
protection against direct sunlight to avoid glare and heat. In contrast, the
cool north façades mainly receive diffuse light and require window
treatments with low heat losses.

When it comes to the aperture itself, differentiate between daylight and

the view to optimize the functions individually: Select a clear window
for the upper part to increase daylight penetration and use a tinted glass
for glare reduction on the eye level. Don’t underestimate the potential of
diffuse light from an overcast sky through windows positioned high on
the wall or through toplighting options in the roof.
When you begin the glass selection consult a technical expert to find the
right glazing treatments regarding the solar heat gain coefficient, the U-
value to avoid heat loss and light transmission for good visibility.
Finally, ensure that the thermal break of the window frame construction
is effective.

3. Shading for visual comfort and cooling

The intense rays of sunlight are critical for visual and thermal comfort.
Therefore block the direct sunlight for workplaces and provide screens
for glaring sources like neighbouring glass facades, which reflect the
sunlight. In summer daylight could easily lead to overheating in
buildings with large glass façades. This results in higher energy
consumption for cooling. For that reason shading is essential to control
thermal comfort. Take a tree to reduce glare and heat in the summer and
let the rays of sunlight warm up your building in the winter when the
leaves have fallen. For technical solutions, prefer exterior shading
elements, which are much more effective than interior, because they
keep the heat directly out of the building. In addition, plan movable
shading elements for the daily and seasonal changes and let sensors and
control systems help you optimize shading for visual comfort and
cooling.

4. Work with bright interior surfaces

Design your interior surfaces with high reflectance to increase the
daylight level in the depth of the space. Be careful with shiny and very
bright surfaces that could cause glare. Therefore use matte light colours
to improve the visual comfort. For a bright room impression, keep away
from dark surfaces, especially on the back wall.

5. Move task areas close to windows

Detect functions that would benefit the most from daylight in relation to
the time of occupation. Offer workplaces access to daylight and keep
service rooms in the core of the building. Make sure that furniture does
not block the daylight. You could even provide daylight to corridors by
using translucent partition walls.

6. Consider daylight reflector systems

Direct sunlight can be easily reflected onto the ceiling for indirect
lighting. Use light surface colours for the reflecting surface and the
ceiling. Increase the reflectance in front of the window to make it more
effective. If you locate the reflector system above eye-level, you can
better avoid glare.

7. Energize your building with solar radiation

Beyond improving the light situation within the building, you could also
use the power of the sun for solar water heating and install photovoltaic
systems for electric devices. The sun is a cost-free medium to cut down
your carbon footprint.

10. Orientation aspects in site planning to achieve maximum natural

ventilation.
Ans:

Here are some ways you can use natural ventilation, whether your
building or home is already laid out or you’re in the planning phase.

1. Window Height. Installing windows that are at least 3.6 feet high
helps indoor air movement and also reduces the heat load on ceilings
2. Wind/Air deflectors. These can be positioned either horizontally or
vertically to redirect air flow and can be installed in the form of
overhangs, louvers or slats and should be placed on a higher level to
redirect air motion.
3. Clerestories. Clerestories not only provide natural illumination, but
can also improve air movement. Since hot air is known to go upward, a
clerestory is able to act as a vent and space for the hot air to accumulate.
4. Window orientation. Windows should be placed on the north and
south areas for optimum cross-ventilation, unless it hinders aesthetic
views. This encourages natural breeze and draws in good air flow into
interiors, especially during the summer months.
5. Transitional spaces. Incorporate courts, balconies, atriums and other
open spaces that encourage air flow.
The advantages of natural ventilation are compelling. The energy costs
are dramatically lowered down, air quality is improved and chemical
substances released in the air by air conditioners or other mechanical
devices is minimized. Overall, using natural ventilation in your home
can have a tremendous positive impact on its occupants, the building
itself and the environment.
Some Innovative Building Materials Developed by
CBRI

1. Burnt Clay Fly Ash Building Bricks

Burnt Clay Fly ash bricks are primarily composed of cement, sand, fly ash
and water. Such bricks are competitive in comparison to conventional clay
bricks and provide enormous indirect benefits such as saving in labor cost
and less consumption of mortar. Increase in number of thermal power plants
has resulted in severe environmental problems such as fly ash. Dumping of
fly ash makes atmosphere unhealthy and also devours fertility of land. To
overcome these problems, use of fly ash in conjunction with clay for making
building bricks has been suggested by different govt. agencies.

2. NON ERODABLE MUD PLASTER

The plaster over mud walls gets eroded during rains, which necessitates
costly annual repairs. This can be made non-erodable by use of bitumen
cutback emulsion containing mixture of hot bitumen and kerosene oil. The
mixture is pugged along with mud mortar and wheat/rice straw. This mortar
is applied on mud wall surface in thickness of 12 mm. One or two coats of
mud-cowdung slurry (gobri) with cutback are applied after the plaster is dry.
The plaster enhances the durability of mud wall and reduces maintenance
cost.
3. PREFAB PANEL
SYSTEM

It provides strong and economical roof/floor consisting of partially precast

RCC joists supporting the prefabricated brick panels covered with 35 mm
thick cement concrete having suitable reinforcement. It is 30-35% cheaper
compared to RCC slab; savings in cement, steel and brick are 20-25%, 32-
40% and 30-35% resp.

4. FIBROUS GYPSUM PLASTER BOARD

Process involves sandwiching teased fibers between layers of moist calcined
gypsum and slurry poured in steel moulds of 1200 x 600 x 12 mm3 size. The
product is allowed to set and demoulded after 1-2 hr. These boards are light
in weight, fire-resistant and have thermal and sound insulation properties.
Some Innovative Building Materials Developed by
SERC
1) Building blocks from mine waste
Building blocks from mine waste are eco-friendly as it
utilizes waste and reduces air, land and water pollution. It is energy
efficient and also cost effective Therefore, the use of alternative materials
for brick construction should be encouraged.

2) Fiber Reinforced Concrete

Fiber Reinforced Concrete can be defined as a composite material
consisting of mixtures of cement, mortar or concrete and
discontinuous, discrete, uniformly dispersed suitable fibers. Fiber
reinforced concrete are of different types and properties with many
advantages. Continuous meshes, woven fabrics and long wires or
rods are not considered to be discrete fibers.
 REPORT ON ENVIRONMENT AUDIT
Environmental auditing is a management tool which simply inspects the environmental
management activities performed by the industries or organizations and makes them aware of new
cleaner technology. For the impact of industries and their product on natural resources and
environmental quality it is necessary to have “Environmental Audit” to ensure sustainable
industrial developments. Objectives need and advantages are focused in this paper. Moreover,
audit scheme, approach, characteristics, case studies in India are also enumerated. For more
implementation and popularization of environmental audit in India are conducted to review
existing management systems and internal controls. To gather appropriate information to provide
a basis for evaluating the reliability of internal controls in achieving desired environmental results.
Suggestive measures are also suggested for the improvement of companies.

INTRODUCTION
Pollution now is an inevitable consequence of modern industrial technology, rapid and convenient
transport and comfortable housing, but excessive pollution may interfere with man’s health and
his mental, social and economic wellbeing. There is now a clarion call from every nook and corner
of the society that “save the nation from this menace the pollution”. Governments, all over the
world, have formulated laws and regulations to correct and cure the past violations of good
environmental practices. The term auditing is known to us in financial accounts and records are
examined. Environmental audit is for the impact of the industries and their products on natural
resources and environmental quality. It is necessary to have ‘Environmental Audit’ to ensure
sustainable industrial developments. Environmental Audit is a pragmatic management tool, which
addresses itself to help an industry or operation, to verify compliance with environmental
requirements, to evaluate the effectiveness of the environmental management system, to assess
risks and to identify and correct environmental hazards. It is the examination of accounts of
revenues and costs of environmental and natural resources, their estimation, depreciations and
natural resources, their estimation depreciations and values recorded in the books of accounts.1
Environmental organization management systems and equipment are performing with the aims of:
i. Facilitating management control of environmental practices. ii. Assessing compliance with
company policies. iii. Facilitating professional competence2. The concept of environmental
auditing came into being in industrialized countries such as Canada, USA, UK and Netherland
during early 1970’s under a different number of approaches and names depending on the company
concerned such as “Environmental review”. Environmental performance appraisal, Quality
approach, etc. In 1972, British Petroleum (B.P.) International group first used this concept. The
United States Environmental Protection Agency published their environmental policy in 1986
followed by International Chamber of Commerce book let on environmental auditing in the year
1988.
Objectives of Environmental Auditing
1. An environmental audit programme which is designed and implemented properly can enhance
an industry’s environmental performance.

2. Monitoring the scale of optimum utilization of the resources and evaluating the company at
national & international level.

3. To suggest for using alternative energy for the conservation of energy resources.

4. Evaluation of waste water quality and determination of waste water characteristics & their
effects on the living system.

5. Classification of the categories of solid waste hazardous waste their sources, quantities &
characteristics. 6. Introduction and implementation of time saving technologies in production. 7.
Maintains of Labour / Occupational health & medicine. 8. Proper documentation of environmental
compliance status. 9. To help in minimizing the wastes through modern cleaner technologies. 10.
Regular environmental auditing once in a year will help in producing environmentally educated
&technically sound personnels.3, 4 The purpose of the environmental audit is to provide an
indication to the management of the improvements while environmental organization system &
equipment are performing. To fulfill this purpose it is essential that audits should beseen as the
responsibility of the company. The audit work can be voluntary and for the advantage of the
company .The audit work can be done systematically and efficiently by the help of environmental
auditing programme.5. It helps in the proper utilization of natural resources as a whole it improves
environmental quality.

ENVIRONMENTAL AUDIT SCHEME AND ITS COMPONENTS

This particular tool is very important aspect of the environmental audit for the total management
system in terms of its being an asset or a liability for the industry`s environmental performance.
Environmental system is with a broad aim for a green environment. It helps in reducing waste.

 It helps in assessing compliance with regulatory requirement.

 It also helps in prevention control of effect of pollutant.

 It promotes relationship between qualified technician professionals, individual industries, State

Pollution Control Board, other public authorities and industrial association etc6. Environmental
Audit Scheme (EAS) has three following components. 1. State Pollution Control Board 2. Internal
Auditor Board 3. External Auditor 1. State Pollution Control Board - It plays active role in
implementing the environmental audit effectively. The steps involved in state pollution control
board are mentioned. To prepare format of audit report on all the aspect of environmental
protection.
 To appoint internal auditors to prepare industries audit report.

 Evaluation and verification of audit reports.

 Initiating the action on evaluated report.

2. Internal Auditor-The selection of auditor consist of experienced experts from various

backgrounds. A qualified auditor should be require, as per the rules of State Pollution Control
Board with well-equipped laboratory facility for analysis of water and air samples. 3. External
Auditor -Team should be approved by State Pollution Control Board. Evaluated and verified
reports have to send their comments to State Pollution Control Board for further action.
PRINCIPLE AREAS OF ENVIRONMENTAL AUDITING The principal areas covered are2, 3,
4, 7. a. Material Audit-It mainly concentrate on the use of different raw material or natural use of
resources, cost\unit, process wise consumption, wastage etc. Conservation of raw material,
scientific storage & reuse of wastage material are taken into consideration. b. Energy Audit- It
examines consumption of various forms of energy in different processes in any industry or
organization. The main of audit is minimization, elimination of avoidable losses of valuable energy
& their conservation. c. Water Audit- Consumption of water at different sources is noted. It also
concentrates on the reuse and recycling of water, evaluation of raw water intake, balancing of
water table & other sources. d. Health and Safety Audit- Workers &employee are the basic need
of industry. Health and safety of those is well considered in audit. Proper disposal of toxic and
hazardous waste, fire prevention measures etc. should be evaluatede. Environmental Quality
Audit- Conservation of every aspect and stage of environment helps to maintain the quality. This
also well noted in audit scheme. f. Waste Audit: It covers the qualitative and quantities evaluation
of waste generated from industries. g. Engineering Audit-Use of advance technology which will
cover the suitable processes and engineering application. h. Compliance Audit: The different
aspect of audits that are required to be carried out as per regulation, procedure & according to the
policies of that particular industry are known as compliance audit. ENVIRONMENTAL AUDIT
ACTIVITIES: 1. Pre-audit activities -These include selection of the expert team and development
of a plan. The plan should include defining the scope of the work, selecting priority areas, laying
down the procedure &allocating team resources. There are four key activities.

 Submitting pre-visit questionnaire of the facility.

 Reviewing relevant regulation.

 Defining audit scope and team responsibilities

 Reviewing audit check lists. 2. On-site activities-Meeting of the team with the appropriate with
the appropriate personnel of the unit &with discussion of the objective. The 3 primary functions
on site activities are

 Record &documentation review

 Interview with staff

 Physical inspection of the facilities.

3. Post-audit Activities: Development of raw material balance analysis for each process unit of the
industry highlighting analysis for each process unit of the industry highlighting the proposed
utilization of raw material and ideas regarding reuse can be thought of. Water, energy
consumption, vegetation removal all the sensitive parts must be balanced. Evaluation of pollution
audit, emission standard are carried out. a. Issue of draft report b. issue of final report Conducting
follow up to the corrective action 2, 3, 5

Advantages:-

 Preparation of Environmental management plan.

 Assessment of environmental input and risks.

 Identifying areas of strength and weakness for improvements.

 Evaluation of pollution control.

 Verification of compliance with laws.

 Assuring safety of plant, environment & human beings.

 Enhancement of loss prevention, manpower development and marketing.

 Budgeting for pollution control, waste prevention, reduction, recycling and reuse.

 Providing an opportunity for management to give credit for good environmental performance. 
As a whole environmental audit plays an important role in minimizing the environmental problem
locally, regionally, nationally and internationally.

Case study
Environmental Audit of Distillery Industry: A Case Study of Kumbhi Kasari Distillery Factory,
Kuditre, Kolhapur.

The environmental audit data are the total water consumption of Kumbhi-Kasari Distillery Factory
in the year 2009-2010 is same as that of year 2008-2009, whereas process water consumption
increased in production of rectified spirit in the year 2009- 2010. The rectified spirit produced as
a product in the year 2008- 2009 was 4581.204 kL, and in the year 2009-2010 was 3818.820 kL.
The use of molasses and also all other raw materials was more in the year 2009-2010 as compared
to previous financial year, and yet the total quantity of rectified spirit produced waslessin the
financial year 2009-2010. The fuel oil is also one product produced, and it was 26.0 kL in the year
2008-2009, while in the year 2009-2010 it was 40.0 kL. It was also found that the use of steam
and power was consumed more in the year 2009-2010. It is clear that consumption of raw material
(kg/kL of spirit), urea, DAP and antifoam was increased in the year 2009-2010. Though the raw
material consumption is more, the product produced is less. Thus, from the results, it is clear that
the industry is using more raw materialsthan the quantity of rectified spirit produced. It is also
clear that the consumption of water, raw materials, steam and power is more, but in turn the total
quantity of rectified spirit produced is less.

CONCLUSION

Environmental audit is carried out to provide an indication to company management about how
the environmental Organization system and equipment’s are performing. As a result the best
practicable means can be applied to preserve air, water, soil, plant and animal life from the adverse
effect.
 ASSIGNMENT NO 3
TO STUDY, ANALYZE PRESENT SCENARIO OF ORGANIC WASTE COLLECTION
AND MANAGEMENT OF ANY OF THE PREMISE, PREFERABLY HOTELS.

1. What is the weekly average food requirement for your restaurant?

Ans: The weekly average food requirement for the restaurant is 1400kg. Daily 200kgs.

2. Is it easily accessible to people from all over the city?

Ans: Yes, it is accessible to everyone from all over the city.

3. What is the maximum waste collection of the restaurant?

Ans: 20kgs to 25kgs of waste is generated per day. That includes maximum of vegetable
waste and food waste. Out of which, 75% is solid waste and 25% is liquid waste.

4. What are the disposal problems you face?

Ans: The disposal problems faced are: lack of space for disposing the waste. Sometimes the
waste disposed is not collected on time by the Corporation team.

5. How many customers come on average?

Ans: Around 200-250 people come to the restaurant every hour.

6. How do you use the leftover food?

Ans: Usually we use the leftover food to distribute among the people who are in need of it.

7. What is the type of waste generated?

Ans: Food waste, paper waste, peelings of vegetables, plastic waste are generated from the
restaurant.

8. How do you segregate waste generated?

Ans: Waste is segregated as dry waste and wet waste in different dustbins.
 ASSIGNMENT NO 3
9. What do you do with plastic waste?
Ans: Plastic waste is generated but it is not recycled.
 ASSIGNMENT NO 4
Green rating systems
The built environment has both direct and indirect environmental impacts. As a result, a large
number of 'green' rating systems have been established to help mitigate these impacts through the
encouragement, measurement and recognition of sustainability performance. BRE’s rating
system, BREEAM, was the UK’s first green rating system, launched in the 1990s, followed by the
US’ Leadership in Energy and Environmental Design (LEED) rating system in 2000. It is now
thought that there are around 600 green certification systems worldwide. Rating
systems measure relative levels of compliance or performance with against goals and
requirements to create projects that are environmentally responsible and use resources efficiently
throughout the project lifecycle.

The benefits of using a green rating system include:

 Environmental aspirations can be set.

 Clear goals can be worked towards.
 Environmental performance can be verified.
 Environmental performance can be demonstrated to third parties.
 Improvement can be measured and demonstrated.
 Green education can be facilitated and encouraged.
 Positive marketing can be generated

Some of the most commonly-used green rating systems include the following:

BUILDING TYPE OF STANDARD OR MANAGING ISSUES/AREASOF

RATING CERTIFICATION ORGANISATION FOCUS
OR
CERTIFICA
TION
SYSTEM

BCA Green Benchmarkingscheme that aims Building and Constru Rates buildingsaccordi
Mark to achieve a sustainable built ctionAuthority ng to five key criteria:
Scheme environment by (BCA)
(Singapore) incorporating best practices in  Energy efficiency.
environmental design and constru  Waterefficiency.
ction, and the adoption of green  Environmental
buildingtechnologies. protection.
 Indoor
environmental
quality.
 Other green
and innovativefeatur
es that contribute to
 ASSIGNMENT NO 4
better building
performance.

BREEAM ( Certification system is a multi- BRE Global Assessment uses

UK) tiered process with pre- recognized measures o
assessment, third- f performance, which
party consultantguidance through are set against
an assessment organisation for: established
benchmarks in:
 New construction.
 Communities.  Energy and water us
 In-use buildings. e.
 Eco-homes.  Internal environment
(health and well-
being).
 Pollution.
 Transport.
 Materials.
 Waste.
 Ecology.
 Managementprocess
es.

CASBEE Buildingassessment toolsfor JSBC Assessment areasinclu

(Japan) (Japan Sustainable de:
 Pre-design. BuildingConsortium)
 New construction. and affiliated sub-  Energy efficiency.
 Existing building. committees  Resource efficiency.
 Renovation.  Local environment.
 Indoor environment.

CEEQUAL Delivering BRE Global Stages:

improved specification, design an
d construction of civil  Project/Contract
engineering works, providing an Strategy.
evidence-  Project/Contract
based sustainabilityassessment, Management.
rating and awards scheme.  People
& Communities.
 Land Use
& Landscape.
 The Historic
Environment.
 Ecology & Biodivers
ity.
 ASSIGNMENT NO 4
 WaterEnvironment.
 Physical Resources
Use & Management.
 Transport.

Code for A method for assessing BRE It measuressustainabili

Sustainable and certifying the sustainable desi tyagainst nine
Homes gnand construction of new categories:
homes.
 Energy and carbon
dioxideemissions.
 Water.
 Materials.
 Surface water run-
off.
 Waste.
 Pollution.
 Health and well-
being.
 Management.
 Ecology.

EDGE A universal standard and a International Finance Assessment areasinclu

certification system Corporation (IFC). de:
for residential and
commercial structures.  Energy.
 Water.
 Materials.

Energy Star Government certification using U.S. EPA and U.S. Building energyand wa
(USA) a benchmarking method. DOE. ter use.

Green Green building guidance and Green Building Environmental

Globes assessment program for: Initiative in the assessment areas to
(USA) U.S.BOMA Canada. earn credits in:
 Existing buildings.
 New construction.  Energy.
 Indoor environment.
 Site.
 Water.
 Resources.
 Emissions.
 Project/environment
al management.
 ASSIGNMENT NO 4
Leadership Green buildingrating and U.S. Green Performance in:
in Energy certification system through Building Council
and independent third-party  Sustainablesites.
Environment verification for:  Waterefficiency.
al  Energy &
Design (LEE  New Construction(NC). atmosphere.
D) (USA)  Existing Buildings, Operations  Materials &
& Maintenance(EB O&M). resources.
 Commercial Interiors (CI).  Indoor
 Core & Shell(CS). environmental
 Schools (SCH). quality.
 Retail.  Locations &
 Healthcare (HC). linkages.
 Homes.  Awareness &
 Neighborhood Development(N education.
D).  Innovation in design.
 Regional priority
through a set of
prerequisites
and credits.

Living Performance-based standard, and International Living Performance areas

Building certification program for: Future Institute include:
Challenge (
USA)  Landscape and infrastructure  Site.
projects.  Water.
 Partial renovationsand  Energy.
complete buildingrenewals.  Materials.
 New buildingconstruction.  Equity.
 Neighborhood, campus
and communitydesign.

Passivhaus An energy Passivhaus-Institut The Passivhausstandar

performancestandard for dwelling d can be achieved
s, commercial, industrial by measuresincluding:
and public buildings.
 Shading.
 Pre-cooling of
the supply air.
 Night purging.
 Natural ventilation.
 Ait-tightness.
 Mechanical
ventilation heat
recovery(MVHR).
 Insulation.
 ASSIGNMENT NO 4
 Avoidance
of thermal bridges.
 Passive solar gains.
 Exploitation of
internal heatsources.

Pearl Rating Green building rating system for: Abu Dhabi Urban Assessment
System for Planning Council of performance in:
Estidama  Community.
(UAE)  Buildings.  Integrated developm
 Villas. ent process.
 Temporary villas  Natural systems.
and Buildings.  Livable communities
.
 Precious water.
 Resourceful energy.
 Stewarding materials
.
 Innovating practice.

Ska Rating Environmental assessment Royal Institute The Ska assessment

method, benchmark of Chartered process is broken into
and standard for non-domestic fit Surveyors three stages:
outs.
 Design / planning
 Handover
 Occupancy

WELL Performance based standard and Administered by the Measuresattributes of

Building certification program for International WELL buildings that
Standard (U Building Institute™ impact occupanthealth
SA)  New and existing buildings. (IWBI) by looking at seven
 New and existing interiors. factors: air, water,
 Core and shell retail. nourishment, light,
 Education facilities. fitness, comfort,
 Restaurant
 Commercial kitchen.
 Multi-family residential.
 ASSIGNMENT NO 4
WHY PURSUE A GREEN BUILDING RATING OR CERTIFICATION?

The reasons for pursuing a green building certification for a project are varied. Certification
through any rating system provides verification of the green nature of the project, and can be a
valuable educational and marketing tool for owners and design and construction teams through
the process of creating a more sustainable building. Green building certification can also be a
way to provide an incentive for clients, owners, designers, and users to develop and promote
highly sustainable construction practices. It is important to note that a building does not have to
be certified to be sustainable and well-built.
The guidelines within rating systems also help to clarify a market filled with "green" options.
Rating systems also clearly outline what green standards need to be followed and what types of
green products should be included in construction specifications.
Ultimately, the type of certification system pursued for a project depends upon that singular
project; none of these certification systems are one-size-fits all. The dynamic nature of projects
might prohibit one system but favor another. The choice is dependent upon the uniqueness of
each project and the project needs and requirements such as the project location, size, budget,
and overall project goals. Also comparing essential issues such as cost, ease of use, and building
performance will help determine which building rating system is applicable and which
certification level is possible.
Building rating and certification systems are in a state of change and evolution and continue to
be refined to reflect new standards and goals for achieving ever higher levels of sustainability. So
it is essential to investigate the most current versions of these programs to gain an understanding
of particular requirements that must be met in order to achieve the best results.

Case Study of Green Building and its Accreditation

AIPEI101, Xinyi District, Taipei Taipei101 is the world’s tallest green building and formally
known as the Taipei101 World Financial Center – is a landmark super tall skyscraper in Xinyi
District, Taipei and Republic of China. The building was officially classified as the world’s
tallest in 2004, but BurjKhalifa in Dubai in 2010 is the world’s tallest building. In 2011, the
building was awarded the LEED platinum certification, the highest award according to the
Leadership in Energy and Environmental Design (LEED) rating system, and became the tallest
and largest green building in the worlds. The Taipei 101 is floor count 101, 5 below ground and
 ASSIGNMENT NO 4
floor area is 412,500m2 (4,440,100sq.ft.). Construction started 1999 and completed 2004. The
total cost of building is NT$58 billion (US$1.934billion).TAIPEI101 is Taiwan’s tallest building
and the most prominent landmark of the capital city of Taipei.

Taipei101 is the business centre in Taiwan also it is world’s tallest green building in world with Platinum
certification by LEED (Leadership in Energy & Environmental Design.
 ASSIGNMENT NO 5
REPORT ON CARBON CREDIT
Today the biggest threat that our planet faces is global warming. As the revolution in the industrial and
life cycle, the CO2 level in the earth atmosphere rises. To delay the time of global warming, global
economy has taken one of the initiative called Carbon Credit. On Wednesday 16 February 2005, some
8 years after the world’s nations came together in Kyoto in Japan in 1997 to discuss global warming;
the Kyoto protocol finally came into force. It has covered six greenhouse gases.

A carbon credit is a generic term for any tradable certificate or permit representing the right
to emit one tonne of carbon dioxide or the equivalent amount of a different greenhouse gas. Carbon
credits and carbon markets are a component of national and international attempts to mitigate the growth
in concentrations of greenhouse gases (GHGs). One carbon credit is equal to one tonne of carbon
dioxide, or in some markets, carbon dioxide equivalent gases. Carbon trading is an application of
an emissions trading approach. Greenhouse gas emissions are capped and then markets are used to
allocate the emissions among the group of regulated sources. The goal is to allow market mechanisms
to drive industrial and commercial processes in the direction of low emissions or less carbon intensive
approaches than those used when there is no cost to emitting carbon dioxide and other GHGs into the
atmosphere. Since GHG mitigation projects generate credits, this approach can be used to
finance carbon reduction schemes between trading partners and around the world.
There are also many companies that sell carbon credits to commercial and individual customers
who are interested in lowering their carbon footprint on a voluntary basis. These carbon
offsetters purchase the credits from an investment fund or a carbon development company that has
aggregated the credits from individual projects. Buyers and sellers can also use an exchange platform
to trade, which is like a stock exchange for carbon credits. The quality of the credits is based in part on
the validation process and sophistication of the fund or development company that acted as the sponsor
to the carbon project.

Kyoto Protocol:
On Wednesday 16 February 2005, some 8 years after the world’s nations came together in
Kyoto in Japan in 1997 to discuss global warming; the Kyoto protocol finally came into force. As IISD
(2009) described that during the Third Conference of Parties (COP) of UNFCCC (which was agreed at
the Earth Summit at Rio-de-Janeiro in 1992); the protocol has described six greenhouse gas emissions.
The implementation of concept got delayed for more than 7 years, because there were difficulties in
obtaining the necessary number of ratification from the countries, who accounted for 55% of carbon
dioxide equivalent emissions of 1990 level. As the initial stage, 141 countries of the world have ratified
the protocol, although a few major GHGs emitting countries have not. India, along with most of the
European Countries and Many other developing counties, has ratified the protocol; although USA and
Australia have not (IISD, 2009). The Kyoto Protocol has brought out three mechanisms for GHG
emission abatement. They are: (i) Joint Implementation (JI) (ii) Clean Development Mechanism (CDM)
(iii) International Emission Trading (IET). The CDM and JI are international crediting mechanisms
under the KP, which is an international agreement under the United Nations Framework Convention on
Climate Change (UNFCCC) to limit GHG emissions. The KP sets binding GHG emissions targets for
industrialized countries (known as ‘Annex B countries’), amounting to an average of 5.2% compared
with 1990 levels over the commitment period 2008-2012 (UNFCCC, 2011a).
 ASSIGNMENT NO 5

 Joint Implementation (JI): In Joint Implementation, a developed country with relatively

high costs of domestic greenhouse reduction would set up a project in another developed country. They
produce Emission Reduction Units (ERUs) just like CERs in CDM.

 Clean Development Mechanism (CDM): In Clean Development Mechanism (CDM), a

developed country can 'sponsor' a greenhouse gas reduction project in a developing country where the
cost of greenhouse gas reduction project activities is usually much lower, but the atmospheric effect is
globally equivalent. The developed country would be given credits for meeting its emission reduction
targets, while the developing country would receive the capital investment and clean technology or
beneficial change in land use.

 International Emission Trading: Here, the Annex I countries can trade in the international
carbon credit market to cover their shortfall in allowances. Countries with surplus credits can sell them
to countries with capped emission commitments under the Kyoto Protocol.

All these mechanisms are market-based. The first two are project based, wherein the third one
allows the developed countries to sell surplus emission of one country to another developed country.
CDM Projects are of importance to us amongst the rest as only Clean Development Mechanism Projects
are applicable to India and has potential opportunity for India in terms of transfer of technology,
investment, carbon trading, profits and most of all environmental benefits (The Institute of Chartered
Accountants of India- ICAI, 2009).

Carbon Market Development in India:

India signed the UNFCCC on 10 June 1992 and ratified it on 1 November 1993. Under the
UNFCCC, developing countries such as India do not have binding GHG mitigation commitments in
recognition of their small contribution to the greenhouse problem as well as low financial and technical
 ASSIGNMENT NO 5
capacities. The ministry of environment and forest is the nodal agency for climate change issues in
India. It has constituted working Groups on the UNFCCC and Kyoto Protocol. Looking at India’s CDM
scenario in terms of corporate participation, Big corporations such as Tata, Reliance, Ambuja, Birla,
Bajaj, and many others, who ritually emit millions of tons of carbon dioxide into the biosphere and earn
handsome returns in the name of ’clean development mechanism’. Ever since the unique mitigation
strategy of carbon trading was conceptualized in the Kyoto Protocol, India seems to have been one of
the busiest countries to put the concept into action (NFFPFW, 2011). By the end of 2012, India had
2784 CDM projects registered with the UNFCCC, taken together; the projects claim to reduce a
whopping 722,827,037 tons of CO2 equivalent in Kyoto protocol phase I (meaning that the same
amount of tradable CERs will be credited to the projects, if UNFCCC registers them all). The projects
will able to reduce about 1520 million tons of GHGs till 2020 (MNRE, 2009-10). Power Exchange
India Ltd (PXIL), Mumbai and Indian Energy Exchange (IEX) Delhi had on March 30, 2011 opened
First trading session for trading of Renewable Energy Certificates (RECs). 532 RECs issued, 424 were
sold successfully. Though there was sizable demand for Solar RECs, no trade concluded on any of the
exchanges, since none of the solar energy projects has been accredited/ issued any solar REC, so far.
The Ministry of Power (MOP), Government of India, under the proposed “Perform, Achieve and Trade
(PAT)” Scheme, has developed a market based mechanism to drive delivery of additional energy
savings on a cost effective basis. Under proposed scheme MOP, has notified 563 Designated Consumers
(DCs) in eight industrial sectors viz. thermal power plants, fertilizers, cements, pulp and paper, textiles
choir-alkali, iron and steel and aluminums. The DCs would be required to comply with the energy
conservation norms and prescribed standards as per the EC Act 2001. The mechanism will further call
for a setting up of baseline for individual targets for saving at plant level and the issuance of Energy
Saving Certificates (EScerts) which will be traded over the counter as well in the energy exchanges.
The energy efficiency improvements targets would be unit specific i.e. each DC would be required to
reduce its specific energy consumption (SEC) by a fixed percentage, based on its baseline SEC. Bureau
of Energy Efficiency (BEE) is designated as the overall regulator and dispute resolution agency and
Energy Efficiency Service Ltd. (EESL) as the process manager in the entire mechanism. The first cycle
of PAT is started in April 2011 with the aim to cover aforesaid eight industrial sectors to achieve higher
energy efficiency in a span of three years. The subsequent PAT cycle will include more sectors. PAT
aims at increase in industrial energy efficiency by bringing down energy consumption by 5%,
amounting to an avoided capacity of over 5,600 MW over the three-year period.

Carbon Credit Market:

The research focused on the potential of Gujarat market. One of the researches covered the
initiate taken by the Municipal Corporation to earn carbon credit and the opportunity for the new carbon
projects. Nadene Ghouri (2009) covered the facts that affect environment and human rights in Gujarat
taking florochemical companies. GFL had spoiled the land and water area nearest to plant and that affect
the human. GFL is part of a worldwide carbon-trading scheme, centered in London, which is supposed
to be helping to save the planet from global warming. Under the Kyoto agreement and supervised by
the UN, looks like an efficient way to cut global carbon emissions. However, a live investigation has
exposed a series of major failings and loopholes in the scheme. Four years ago, GFL installed
technology to reduce the greenhouse gases it produces and was given a vast financial reward by the
UN; a UK company was also given considerable sums for investing in the projects. However, far from
being a flagship green factory, GFL stands accused of poisoning the local environment. S. Shwetal
(2011) covered the possibility of exclusive use of renewable energy for electricity required by the
 ASSIGNMENT NO 5
Municipality for Pumping, Lighting and Municipality Buildings etc. This can be one of the many first
initiatives of the State for climate change mitigation, Gujarat can be the first State in the World to have
carbon neutral municipalities by adopting this practice. Gujarat Government is supporting establishment
of renewable energy power plants through Power Purchase Agreement (PPA) based on policies for
solar, wind, biomass etc. By development of Carbon Neutral Towns, Government will further establish
an example of Convenient Action for curbing challenges of Climate Change. Proposed 10 Carbon
Neutral towns will require a 1 time expense of about Rs. 75 to 100 Cr., in return will get assured supply
of electricity for coming 25 years. Pearson (2011) covered the Gujarat carbon credit award with
reference to Gujarat Flourochemicals Ltd. Gujarat Flourochemicals Ltd., an Indian maker of refrigerant
gases, rose to a three-year high after winning carbon credits for the first time since the United Nations
ended a probe into projects claiming emission reductions of industrial gases. The shares gained 4.5
percent to 263.95 rupees in Mumbai trading, its highest close since February 2008. The benchmark
Sensitive Index advanced 1.1 percent. Such credits are bought by companies and nations to comply
with limits on emissions of greenhouse gases. While HFC-23 projects represent less than 1 percent of
all registered CDM projects, their credits account for more than half the tradable offsets issued so far
by the UN. The 19 projects cutting the gas under the CDM program are mainly in China and India.

Case Study
A Study of Carbon Credit Market in Gujarat

The scope of the study refers to the parameters under which the study examines Registered CDM
projects in the state of Gujarat. The study focuses on carbon credit market in India and Gujarat state
including Kyoto protocol and its mechanism, The Indian nodal agency for carbon credit is NCDMA
and CDM cell in Gujarat. The result of the study may be specifically applied to only a niche segment
of CDM projects. The sampling frame is defined as energy sector organisations in Gujarat which have
registered their large scale CDM projects for carbon emission reduction (CER) up to 2012 under
NCDMA (Kyoto protocol phase I). The test of the result shows that all the category of risk associated
with CDM Projects does not differ with the technology adopted by organisations. Because the
significant value of all the risk associated with the CDM Projects is higher than 0.05 which indicates
that null hypothesis is not rejected. The study has been carried out to study CDM Projects and different
parameters of CDM Projects. Although there are several articles that appear to express parameters
considered for CDM Projects. The research highlights the research gap identified from comprehensive
review of literature which shows that there is significant gap in the understanding of the concept from
the organisations point of view. An empirical study utilising structured questionnaire was employed to
survey energy sector organisations which had registered and implement the CDM Projects in Gujarat.
Furthermore the research attempted to provide unique insights into the question raised in relation to
barriers analysis of CDM Projects, factors affecting CDM Projects, risk involved in CDM Projects,
aspects considered for CDM Projects, impact of CDM Projects, carbon trading and corporate social
responsibility by using non-parametric test with an understanding of the data normality and small
sampling unit.
 ASSIGNMENT NO 6

To prepare a report on energy efficient buildings in India

1. Introduction
Sustainability has become increasingly important in the building industry in recent years. A
movement has occurred to construct buildings in a more efficient and sustainable manner by
reducing energy use and the costs associated in operating and maintaining the building. A green
building is an outcome of a design philosophy which focuses on increasing the efficiency of
resource use; energy, water, and materials while reducing the impact on human health and the
environment during the building's lifecycle, through better design, construction, operation,
maintenance and removal.
Environment friendly innovative technologies like energy efficient materials, intelligent gadgets,
energy efficient doors and windows, solar water heating and generating power, rain water
harvesting, rain water harvesting are used by many developers in different parts all over the
country, but now more and more builders and developers are going in for projects that promote an
eco-friendly life style.

2. Energy Efficient Construction

2.1 Need for Energy Efficient construction
The need for energy efficient construction is taking momentum by the rising power consumption
in real-estate sector. The buildings being designed and used today are consuming excessive energy
for heating/cooling and lightning. There is about 30-40% energy saving potential in the building
industry which shall not only reduce the load on the power sector to meet its demand but also help
the inhabitants in reducing their energy bills (ECBC, 2007).
The leadership in energy and environmental design (LEED-INDIA) Green Building rating system
is a nationally and internationally accepted benchmark for the design, construction and operation
of high performance green buildings. LEED-INDIA promotes a whole building approach to
sustainability by recognizing performance in the following five key areas: - Sustainable site
development, Water Savings, Energy efficiency, Materials selection and Indoor environment
quality.

2.2 Various Energy Saving Concepts

Site Selection- Although site selection is usually based on price, a poor decision can preclude
several sustainable features. Making the most out of what the site has to offer can be the difference
between a high performance building and traditional one.
Orientation- Proper orientation allows for passive solar gain and day lightning. In the northern
hemisphere, south facing windows have the greatest exposure to the sun. West facing windows
need to be carefully designed, as the low angle of the setting can cause overheating.
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Walls, and Roof- the envelope of the building is a significant determinant of how much energy is
required to heat and cool it. The challenge in designing the foundation, walls and roofs is to
minimize conductive heat loss/gain while minimizing uncontrolled movement of air into the
building.
Energy Efficient Appliances- Use of energy efficient and eco-friendly appliance reduces utility
cost. While purchasing new electrical appliances always look for BEE star rating. More stars
indicate more efficiency. The small additional initial installation cost will be compensated many
times over by the savings and Heating, Air-Conditioning and Ventilation- Reducing the heat load
of the structure allows for the installation of a smaller heating and cooling system. The importance
of high quality ventilation systems is often overlooked during the design phase, but is a
fundamental consideration in green building.
Waste reduction- Green architecture also seeks to reduce waste of energy, water and materials
during construction. One goal should be to reduce the amount of material going to landfills. Well-
designed buildings also help reduce the amount of waste generated by occupants as well, by
providing on-site solution such as compost bins to reduce matter going to the landfills.

2.3 Cost Effectiveness

A Green building costs 3-8% more than the conventional buildings. However, the cost is recovered
within two to three years through savings in maintenance costs. Due to substantial reduction in
operational costs, the total cost of ownership of green building is invariably lesser than the
conventional building. Maximum cost increment is due to Efficient envelopes, systems and
lightning which are ECBC recommendations. Once ECBC becomes mandatory, there will be no
extra cost. Also an analysis shows that the Life Cycle Cost of Energy efficient buildings is lower
than that of the conventional buildings (Source: TERI-GRIHA).

3. Energy Modelling for Building Performance

Traditional building design was largely reliant upon two-dimensional drawings (plans, elevations,
sections, etc.). Building information modelling extends this beyond 3D, augmenting the three
primary spatial dimensions (width, height and depth) with time as the fourth dimension and cost
as the fifth. BIM therefore covers more than just geometry. It also covers spatial relationships,
light analysis, geographic information, and quantities and properties of building components.
Autodesk Revit software is specifically built for Building Information Modeling (BIM),
empowering design and construction professionals to bring ideas from concept to construction
with a coordinated and consistent model-based approach. Revit is a single application that includes
features for architectural design, MEP and structural engineering, and construction. It allows to
design a building and structure and its components in 3D, annotate the model with 2D drafting
elements and access building information from the building models database. The Revit work
environment allows users to manipulate whole buildings or assemblies (in the project
environment) or individual 3D shapes (in the family editor environment).Energy Analysis for
Autodesk Revit software is a cloud-based energy simulation service powered by Autodesk Green
Building Studio that supports sustainable design.
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3.1 Energy analytical Model creation

The energy analytical model feature in Revit building design software provides tools for fast,
flexible creation of models for energy simulation. It can create energy analytical models to suit
different design stage needs, workflows, and precision preferences either directly from
architectural building elements and room/space elements, or create it manually using conceptual
massing.

3.2 Whole building Energy Analysis

Conceptual energy analysis tools help to make every design more sustainable. It can help in
presenting analysis results in a highly visual format for easy comparison and interpretation. Also
the tools can be used to quickly compare the energy consumption and lifecycle costs of design
alternatives right from within Autodesk Revit

Architecture software:
Autodesk Green Building Studio is a flexible cloud-based service that allows to run building
performance simulations to optimize energy efficiency and to work toward carbon neutrality
earlier in the design process. The Autodesk Green Building Studio web service provides: Annual
energy cost
• Lifecycle energy costs (30 year)
• Annual energy consumption (electric and gas)
• Peak electric energy demand (kW)
• Lifecycle energy consumption (electric and gas)
• Onsite energy generation from photovoltaic and wind systems
• Water use analysis
• Assistance with day lighting using glaze factor calculations
• Natural ventilation potential calculations
• Carbon emission calculations. Analysis results are presented in a highly-visual, graphical format
for easy interpretation. It can also facilitate collaborative design, allowing to transfer essential
information on your building design to the applications used for engineering design or code
analysis. The Autodesk Green Building Studio service can help to change the way building energy
analysis is used in the building design process.
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Case study:
The construction industry must gear up for eco-friendly practices which will help in creating new
jobs, and share inspiring cases from India and around the world. This will also help in transition
to more sustainable economies, societies related to renewable energy, waste reduction and green
building. With the increase in number of green projects, one can see a great future going green.
Initiative of local Municipal Corporation of Thane (TMC), Maharashtra The municipal corporation
of Thane, covering an area of 147 sq. km and population of nearly 1.7 million is one of the most
progressive municipal corporations located in western India. The municipality has taken consistent
actions over past years and has demonstrated energy savings by application of no-cost and cost
effective energy conservation techniques. TMC has an energy conservation cell responsible for
identifying energy conservation opportunities and implement projects to effect savings. TMC has
been able to affect a savings of INR 32 million during last 3 financial years.
The basic approach followed to ensure maximum outreach and benefits out of their efforts are:
1. Large-scale awareness generation among own employees and residents of the municipality. The
awareness generation stresses use of no cost or low cost options. For e.g., avoid wastages by
switching of gadgets when not required.
2. Implement Cost effective energy saving measures in municipal services and public buildings
e.g. 33% energy saving was achieved in street lighting through introduction of energy efficient
lamps and ballasts, municipal water pumping efficiency was enhanced through suitable retrofits.
Initiative by a private developer in Bangalore, TZED homes:
T- Initiative by a private developer in Bangalore , T ZED homes T- ZED homes have been
promoted by one of India’s largest ‘sustainably built environment’ [SBE] enterprise, BCIL. A
cluster of 95 homes built over an area of 5 acres in the city of Bangalore, the T ZED homes aims
to set new standards for residential housing. The basic features and highlights of the complex are:
• Energy efficient homes built using materials and technologies that have low embodied energy.
• Ergonomically designed.
• T-Zed Homes come with built-in energy efficient lights, solar hybrid fans in each of the
washrooms, intelligently switched lighting systems for corridors and other areas, master controller
operable through mobile, offsite green power generation using is a biomassgasifier that uses wood
chip as fuel, grown or procured in a sustainable way, customized environment-friendly (brine–
based), zero electricity refrigerator cum freezer and home air–conditioning that is fully controlled,
and is based 100 per cent on fresh air .
• The campus will also have a 24-hour DG backup made up of two 125 KVA genset modules that
will be powered by biodiesel or diesel.
• Extensive water conservation measures coupled with rain water harvesting and reuse
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• T ZED homes do not cost higher than conventional homes and yet promises attractive returns on
investment through power and water savings
• The T ZED homeowners have been involved in the entire design and construction process and
have made valuable additions to the design.
• The project is considering applying for carbon credits under CDM.
• The project demonstrates that it is possible to deliver sustainable homes at no added costs with
help of a dedicated team of intelligent professionals and a well-informed clientele. Is there a
business case? I did a bit of searching and found that the sit holds 95 homes but under “normal”
building circumstances would accommodate ~300 homes. Low density is a very high cost from a
developers perspective unless the houses sold for 3X more? We have no information on this, but
considering that it is the first such attempt in India, it is likely to face some teething trouble before
it becomes a lucrative option for developers/builders.
• However, according to Harsha Sridhar, Architect, BCIL, too much interference of the customers
in the design process leads to unnecessary delays and thus upsets the project cycle. Client interface
should be allowed in a much controlled way . Also, he feels that in Southern India (Bangalore is
in South India) homes have been promoted by one of India’s largest ‘sustainably built environment
[SBE] enterprise, BCIL. A cluster of 95 homes built over an area of 5 acres in the city of Bangalore,
the T ZED homes aims to set new standards for residential housing.
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SUSTAINABLE PLANNING ASPECTS FOR URBAN

HOUSING
Sustainable development has been a much debated subject in the most recent years especially in
developing countries. Due to rapid urbanisation with increased population and rapid economic growth,
every developing country is now moving forward in implementing sustainable development.
Sustainability can be achieved through housing development as it could promote social equity, generate
economic growth,and promote environmental conservation through its planning, construction, design
and management. It is to be believed that the most fundamental aspect in achieving sustainability is
through the planning system and development plans.

Aspects of Sustainable Planning:-

1. Planning Control in Housing Development Process - planning mechanism such as

development plan system and planning control system plays important roles in achieving sustainability
in housing perspectives. The National Physical Planning Council acts as an advisor for three (3) types
of developments as specified in Act 172 which are; 1) development of new township with more than
10 thousand population or larger than 100 hectares or both, 2) Development of major national
infrastructures, and 3) development on hilltop or hillsides.
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2. Factor loading in Housing Planning Perspective - Urbanisation has put stress upon
housing development with the increased population rate mainly in major urban areas. In addition,
shortage of land supply has resulted in problems such as shortage in the number of open spaces,
recreational areas and inadequate provision of community facilities within the housing areas. Provision
of community facilities and open space, and land location for housing is seemed to be aspects that
highlighted among developers with regards to policies and concept outlined by respective development
plan. It has been argued that the site identified for housing in the development plan does not guarantee
the housing development will meet the demand. Rather than location chosen must be within the
proposed new growth area, developers claimed that suitable location for housing is to be close to
existing roads and infrastructure. In addition, land dealing has caused disruption when it comes into
conditions imposed related to accessibility. There is also problem in the case of land use zoning where
land cannot be readily used for housing without the provision of infrastructure, although the
development plan has shown a housing zone. Moreover, provision of community facilities and open
space as required in development plan also difficult to comply as the size of land is quite limited. Based
on this study, again, it can be review that the issue of non compliance is quite apparent in the perspective
of developer in providing sustainable housing when it comes into location identified for housing. As
problems in dealing with land to provide those requirements occurs, some developer may leave the
project to be abandoned and if they continued the project could be lacking in the provision of required
10 percent of open space. Implication of these situations for instance could affect living environment
of the communities in the neighbourhood. Meanwhile, problems in the planning standards have been
raised by housing developers especially in the layout approval and land subdivision. For instance,
provision of community facilities required a large land acreage which consequently limits number of
houses to be developed. There is also problem to comply with road design and width as it is depends
on neighbourhood unit to be created and security measure considered. Similar to provision of
community facilities, the provision of public utilities is also difficult to comply because the size and
quantity is depends on planning standard. However, it can be review that such compliance with planning
standard provided by authorities is for the purpose to ensure sustainable in housing could be achieved.

3. Non Compliance Issues related to Land Use Planning Regulations - Non

compliance seemed to be the most arguable issue in achieving sustainability as it may affect quality of
life in term of social, economic and environmental aspect. One of the problems occurring is related to
non-compliance with the higher level development plans (structure and local plans). In addition,
policies, objectives and standard related to aspects such as land location, land size and provision of
community facilities in development plan also difficult to comply by developer. If land location for
housing is not easily accessible to the nearest transit node, the housing could consider as unsustainable
as it may increase travel cost of people. There is also a problem where land has been zoned for housing
area but eventually rezoned for commercial use due to pressure from existing development. In this case,
the land use control under land law seemed to be loosened. When the local authorities zoned the area
for residential purposes, this zoning benefited the resident living in this area. People buying the land in
the zone are willing to pay higher prices due to promises given by the authorities that promote sense of
security, tranquillity and attraction of living in a residential zone. If there are changes in land use, the
residents might be disappointed and it goes against their original purpose of buying a house in the area.
In addition, there are cases where the contractor has already carried out earthwork even before planning
permission was granted. It was argued that local authorities allow the developers to proceed with project
to suit the new developments in the area even before the plan is gazette. This is similar to the problem
of non-compliance with planning requirements or planning condition. It has been indicated that housing
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items such as road design, layout approval, land subdivision and provision of utilities in the planning
standard and guidelines are considered difficult to comply with by housing developers.

4. Sustainable Urban Housing Development- This section intend to review on

sustainability in the urban housing context including its characteristic and factor, sustainability issues
and challenges related to urban housing. The sustainable development concept was originally defined
as "development that meets the needs of the present without comprising the ability of future
generations to meet their own needs". In other words, this means any development should meet the
desires of people with no harm to the other peoples desires in future. However, this concept was
gradually amended to specifically focus on the quality of life which enhances three (3) dimensions
including economic, social and environment aspects. These three (3) main elements are important as to
promote sustainable development for any project especially housing development as housing could
promote social equity among people, generate economic growth and also promote environmental
conservation.There are several aspects considered in housing which include location, construction and
design, dwelling use and regeneration. In the case of location, land use planning in terms of easy access
to public transport and employment and mixed use development is important as it is the first stage of
every housing development. In addition, higher densities, access to open spaces, housing quality,
affordability and safe living environment are among characteristics that should be given concern in
designing a residential development for a community. Meanwhile, the aspect of dwelling use and
regeneration involves characteristics such as maintenance and management as well as energy efficiency.
The concept of sustainable housing and its practice is still new especially in developing countries like
Malaysia. The European Union indicated sustainable housing in three perspectives which are
construction, social and economic factors, and eco efficiency. Nowadays, sustainable housing is much
concern on the aspect of physical design of building and the use of high technology which much related
to green building. In planning perspective, several housing aspect need to be emphasised in achieving
sustainable urban housing such as site location and design of the house which considered as the most
significant factor involve sustainability in housing. As development of sustainable housing refers to
development of building, it is also associated with housing layout plan. Site location of the housing area
can be determined through development plan as it is one of consideration aspect in preparing the plan.
Similarly, design of the house in planning perspective can be determined through planning standard and
guidelines like instance, the provision of open space. The design consideration aspect can be categorized
into two (2) which is design of the house (space) and design within the residential area (facilities). When
it comes into urban housing, its characteristic is much related to higher density which is flatted type of
house with good access to open space and community facilities, easy access to workplace as well as
affordability (price of the house).Urban housing problems normally arise when the developer in urban
areas have less interested to build medium and low cost housing due to small profit gained from the
development which consequently affected in terms of affordability. In addition, with shortage of land
supply and increased value of land in urban areas may also affect in the provision of open space.

5. Sustainability Issues and Challenges: Housing Perspectives - Achieving

sustainability is not an easy task to accomplish without better understanding and also proper
implementation. The challenge of being sustainable in housing projects can be seen at planning and
construction stage as both have significant influence towards environment, social and economic
dimensions of sustainability. In the context of planning, economic sustainability refers to activities that
give benefit to the actors (planners) and users (local people)which mainly focus on affordability.
Legislation compliance is among issues in sustainability which is related to non-compliance to policies,
regulations and statutes in planning conditions. Meanwhile, environment sustainability is concerned on
matters related to land, pollution as well as environmental-friendly designs. Social sustainability is
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concerned on the advantages provided for the residents of the houses. Planning for a building should
concern on how it may affect the community within the house and within the neighbourhood areas in
the aspect of safety, user comfort, accessibility and human wellbeing

Case Study
Urban Sustainable Development in Copenhagen

Copenhagen is the capital and largest city of Denmark, with an urban population of 1,230,728 and a
metropolitan population of 1,967,727. The city itself counts 559,440 inhabitants. Since 2000,
Copenhagen has seen strong urban and cultural development, facilitated by investments in its
institutions and infrastructure. The Municipal Plan focuses on three main areas:

1) A good everyday-life in Copenhagen: by 2025, Copenhagen will still be one of the best cities in the
world to live in and be a safe, inspiring and diverse city with its own special and unique character with
a mix of old and new buildings, green lungs and people in the city space;

2) Knowledge and business in Copenhagen: by 2025, Copenhagen will be a knowledge city attracting
and retaining foreign students, researchers, employees and enterprises. Going towards 2020, average
annual growth should be 5%. Growth and prosperity go hand in hand because the sectors which the city
lives by support a greener, healthier and more exiting city;

3) Copenhagen as a green growth metropolis: by 2025, Copenhagen will be the world’s first carbon
neutral capital and have a leading edge on green technology and innovation in Europe. Also,
Copenhagen will be the no. 1 bike city in the world. The urban development will remain sustainable,
which means that environmental, social and economic development go hand in hand.

In terms of sustainable mobility, urban planners have designed the city to make cycling particularly
attractive with environmental, social, and economic effects, namely:

 Reduction in traffic congestion: in 2010, 35 percent of all trips to work or education in the city
of Copenhagen were made by bike (for people working and living in Copenhagen, the numbers
are even higher reaching 50 percent);
 Time and money saving: the city actually saves € 0.06 for every kilometer traveled by bike
instead of a car (1.2 million kilometers cycled each day); the saved costs from less congestion
are estimated at € 14 million; the infrastructure is also less beset by car use. Fewer car
accidents also play into the total avoided external costs of € 31 million;
  Quality of life: it is proven that half an hour cycling daily increases mean life expectancy by
1-2 years; the health benefits of cycling also include fewer sick days, fewer medical expenses
and treatments with a total health benefit estimated in 268 million euro per year;
  Small local business and new local jobs: today, there are 309 businesses selling and repairing
bicycles registered in the capital region that generate 650 full time jobs and a total estimated
annual turnover of 174 million euro; then there are other firms such as bicycle rental firms,
pedicabs, bike messengers and firms whose employees cycle during working hours (i.e.
postmen) and an increasing number of firms purchasing staff bicycles for use on the job.
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BENEFITS GIVEN TO GREEN BUILDINGS

 The growing importance of the green building concept has affected not only urban policy
makers and planners but also scholars. Reflecting this practical trend, many academic
articles have been published since 2000 in major planning or policy journals such as the
Journal of Planning Literature, Energy Policy, Journal of Planning Education and
Research, and Economic Development Quarterly. Themes of articles dealing with green
buildings can be classified into four broad categories: motivations for being green, policy
adaptation, benefits of and obstacles to achieving a green designation , and green design.
This study considered public policy as motivations of green building construction.

Based in part on information derived from a review of the academic literature, Web
sites for central cities that possess more than one green office building were reviewed. The
intent was to ascertain whether or not city governments apply green building policies. The
search phrases used were “green building requirement” and “green building incentives.”
lists all central cities that have implemented municipal green building policies. Green
policies can be adopted through either executive orders or legislation. Executive orders are
a quicker method for implementing policy. Legislation often gets bogged down by politics,
as competing political agendas often stall green legislation. The general concept for
implementing green building techniques through regulatory policies is straightforward:
requiring that some or all newly constructed or renovated buildings in certain zoning areas
must meet LEED or equivalent requirements .Some municipalities have established such
mandates while some state governments have required their public buildings to utilize
green building techniques .Regulation is viewed as the most powerful policy tool for
promoting specific development 44 The Effects of Municipal Policy on Green Building
Designations in india, activities, because a city or a state can conduct disciplinary action
for noncompliance. Central cities also utilize three types of incentive-based policies to
encourage green building—administrative incentives, financial incentives, and technical
supports. With administrative incentives, green building projects pass through the plan
review and approval process faster so that developers can save time and money. Financial
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incentives include tax credits, funds, and rebates for green building developers. With
technical support, a municipality provides every effort for the developers who want their
properties to be green certified; this support is very useful, since green building
requirements are often new and unfamiliar to private sector initiators

 DIFFERENT MUNICIPAL CORPORATION

1. Mumbai
2. Delhi
3. Bengluru
4. Hyderabad
5. Pune etc.

 TYPES OF BENEFITS
 Sustainable Site Planning
 Improving Energy Efficiency
 Conserving Materials and Resources
 Embracing Indoor Environmental Quality
 Safeguarding Water
1. CASE STUDY BY BMC

RUBY MILLS - MUMBAI

Ruby Mills, the tallest tower in Mumbai, stands as a shining example of modern glazing
solutions for energy efficient building. It has the unique distinction of being the first
energy efficient building in India in which Ceramic frit and high performance glass have
been used. This potent combination has gone a long way in achieving unmatched energy
efficiency and design goals, making Ruby Mills the iconic skyscraper that it is.

Design Intent
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The aim of the project was not just to be a landmark skyscraper and the tallest
Commercial Tower across the Mumbai skyline. More importantly, its objective was to
provide a suitable glazing solution for a green-rated energy-efficient office building with
extensive use of glass in the envelope. Besides having eco-friendly architecture, the
towering façade also aimed at creating unique design sensibilities - a mosaic pattern
spread over 30,000 sqms.

The Glass Effect

The Design team from Saint-Gobain Glass collaborated with the energy consultant EDS
to provide a customized glazing solution; the company provided facades based on
orientation, and worked on the ceramic frit solutions.

The thickness/wind-load analysis and panel design optimization were also done as a part
of structural analysis by the design engineers.

After a detailed analysis, the green building glass SGG Envision Magma (SKN 154) IGU
was suggested. SGG Envision is a high performance, 5th generation glass that has a high
light transmission as well as a very low solar factor.

Envision Magma had a solar Heat Gain Coefficient: 0.26 reduced up to 0.22 (using frit),
U-value: 1.5 W/m2K and Light Transmission: 50% (optimized to 30% in glare prone
areas)

Key Green Features

The energy efficient building incorporated several green factors, some of which included:

 2% daylight factor for 75% occupant areas

 >90% occupants with outdoor views
 Adherence to ECBC green building specifications with:

o Solar Heat Gain Coefficient < 0.25

o U-value < 3.3
o Light transmission > 20%
o Innovations of the project
o Extensive ceramic frit

The façade had a combination of 30%, 60% and non-fritted panels. 60% and 30%
panels were used extensively in the South & West facing façade. Each of the façades
had a tailor-made design & density of frit to offer unobstructed views (sans glare) in the
vision panels.

Ceramic Frit and External Reflection were designed to complement stone cladding.
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Individual panel labeling was done to ensure exact mosaic pattern while installation.

For the first time in India, Ceramic frit was used to achieve unmatched efficiency and
design goals. With a customized Frit design, balanced Design & Energy, the high rise
building achieved a targeted energy reduction for IGBC - LEED Gold rating.

Integrated solutions offered for safety/low VoC

Extensive Fire Safety solutions through fire resistant glass were implemented.

The Interior applications used lacquered glass and Miralite Evolution (Mirrors), which
have a very low VOC content, to increase indoor air quality.

The Fact Sheet

Project : The Ruby, Mumbai

Use : IT Park / Office Space

Client : Ruby Mills

Architect : Ar.Atul Shah, Access Architects, Mumbai

Fabricator : Iljin, Korea

Processor : Glasstech, Mumbai

Area : 30,000 Sqmts.