1 Maadi STEM School – Biology Assistants

GMOs

1. What are 2 of the top 4 GM crops?

A. Wheat and barley

B. Soy and corn
C. Tomatoes and peppers
D. Kale and spinach

2. Technique of inserting Deoxyribonucleic Acid (DNA) into plants is known

as:
A. Bio injection
B. Bio-fission
C. Bio genetic
D. Bio diffusion

3. Which company is the largest biotech company in the world, also

responsible for the majority of the GMOs in our food supply?
A. Kroger
B. Nestle
C. Monsanto
D. Nike

4. As a result of genetically modified crops, chemical use on farms has:

A. Gone up dramatically.
B. Gone down dramatically.
C. Gone up on some but no change on others.
D. Gone down on some crops but there is little or no change on others.
E. Not changed.
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5. A researcher identifies a naturally occurring variant possessing

characteristics of interest. If this plant is selectively bred, then this is an
example of ..

A. Traditional plant breeding

B. Transgenic technology
C. Mutant selection
D. None of the above

6. Companies are required by law to label their products as "non-GMO' or

GMO free.
A. True
B. False

7. Traditional breeding methods are

A. selective breeding
B. cell fusion
C. mutation breeding
D. all of above

8. Which of these animals has been genetically engineered to grow faster,

becoming the first animal to be modified specially for human consumption?

A. Salmon
B. Pigs
C. Lobster
D. Chickens

9. Will insects develop resistance to the toxins produced in Bt corn?

A. It is impossible for insects to develop resistance to Bt corn.

B. It is unlikely that insects will develop resistance to Bt corn.
C. Under certain conditions insects may develop resistance to Bt corn.
D. It is almost certain that insects will develop resistance to Bt corn.
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E. Insects are already resistant to the toxins produced in Bt corn.

10.HR933, dubbed the "Monsanto Protection Act" and passed by Congress in

March 2013, included what?

A. A ban on the import of all genetically modified foods.

B. Language that prevents federal courts from halting the sale of GMOs
(and other protections for GMO producers), should their products
eventually be proven to be harmful.
C. A temporary halt on all GMO experimentation in the US.
D. A requirement that all foods sold in the U.S. include some kind of genetic
modification.

11.The first field tests were of what genetically altered organism?

A. BT corn
B. Vaccinia virus containing a gene from the rabies virus
C. The "flavrsavr" tomato
D. Strawberry seedlings sprayed with "ice-minus" bacteria

12.Monsanto, the major U.S. retailer of genetically modified seeds, primarily

offers what explanation for its opposition to GMO labeling?

A. The technology for GMOs is consistently evolving, and by the time

standards for GMO labeling were developed they would already be out of
date.
B. It would be environmentally wasteful to produce the labels.
C. Babies might play with the labels and choke on them.
D. The labels would imply to consumers that the foods are dangerous or in
some way inferior to conventionally grown foods.

13.Does Bt corn or Bt cotton only kill specific pests that damage the crop?
4 Maadi STEM School – Biology Assistants

A. The Bt toxin kills all insects.

B. The Bt toxin kills European corn borer and other flying insects.
C. The Bt toxin kills the European corn borer and its close relatives.
D. The Bt toxin only kills the insects for which it is targeted.
E. The Bt toxin repels but doesn't kill insects.

14.The FDA's 1992 statement - that genetically engineered foods are not
'materially' different from non-engineered food and did not need to be
labeled - set what standards for labeling food?

A. Whether or not the difference could be detected by the human senses -

taste, smell, etc.
B. Whether or not the food has ingredients produced in a laboratory.
C. Whether or not rodents have eaten the food and survived.
D. Whether or not the ingredients in the food were packaged in the US.

15.Which of the agricultural challenges below cannot be solved with transgenic

techniques?

A. Crops are damaged by frost

B. Crops are killed by a virus
C. Public concern about safety of synthetic pesticides
D. Public Preference for organic vegetables

16. 93 percent of the total cotton crop sown in India is a GMO.

A. True
B. False

17. When did crops become resistant to herbicides?

A. Crops have always been resistant to some herbicides.

B. After the introduction of Bt corn in 1997.
5 Maadi STEM School – Biology Assistants

C. After the introduction of Roundup-ready soybeans in 1996.

D. Crops are not resistant to herbicides.

18.For how long have we been eating GMOs?

A. 0 – 5 years
B. 5 – 10 years
C. 10 – 15 years
D. 15 – 20 years

19.Can genes escape from genetically modified crops and jump to other plants?

A. Yes, and often do.

B. Only to some crops, but those crops aren't genetically modified.
C. Only during rare climatic conditions.
D. No, genes cannot move from species to species without human
intervention.

20.Can scientists predict with certainty where an inserted gene will go on a

plant chromosome?

A. With modern genetic techniques, scientists can insert genes precisely.

B. Genes are inserted on the proper chromosome, but there is no control
on where it goes on the chromosome.
C. Scientists have a general idea of where the gene will go and what it
will do to the plant.
D. It's just a shot in the dark

1. B
2. B
3. C
4. D
5. A
6. B
7. D
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8. A
9. D
10.B
11.D
12.D
13.C
14.A
15.D
16.A
17.A
18.D
19.A
20.D

Mitosis

1) Starting with a fertilized egg (zygote), a series of five cell divisions would produce an
early embryo with how many cells?

A) 4
B) 8
C) 16
D) 32
E) 64

Answer: D
2) For a newly evolving protist, what would be the advantage of using eukaryote -like cell
division rather than binary fission?

A) Binary fission would not allow for the formation of new organisms.
B) Cell division would allow for the orderly and efficient segregation of multiple linear
chromosomes.
C) Cell division would be faster than binary fission.
D) Cell division allows for lower rates of error per chromosome replication.
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E) Binary fission would not allow the organism to have complex cells.

Answer: B

3) How do the daughter cells at the end of mitosis and cytokinesis compare with their parent
cell when it was in G1 of the cell cycle?

A) The daughter cells have half the amount of cytoplasm and half the amount of DNA.
B) The daughter cells have half the number of chromosomes and half the amount of DNA.
C) The daughter cells have the same number of chromosomes and half the amount of DNA.
D) The daughter cells have the same number of chromosomes and the same amount of
DNA.
E) The daughter cells have the same number of chromosomes and twice the amount of
DNA.

Answer: D
4) Use the following information to answer the questions below.
The lettered circle in the Figure shows a diploid nucleus with
four chromosomes. There are two pairs of homologous
chromosomes, one long and the other short. One haploid set is
symbolized as black and the other haploid set is gray. The
chromosomes in the unlettered circle have not yet replicated.

Choose the correct chromosomal conditions for the following

stages.
• at prometaphase of mitosis

Answer: B

• one daughter nucleus at telophase of mitosis

Answer: E

5) Which term describes two centrosomes arranged at opposite poles of the cell?

A) telophase
B) anaphase
C) prometaphase
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D) metaphase
E) prophase

Answer: C
6) Which is the longest of the mitotic stages?

A) telophase
B) anaphase
C) prometaphase
D) metaphase
E) prophase

Answer: D

7) Which term describes centromeres uncoupling, sister chromatids separating, and the two
new chromosomes moving to opposite poles of the cell?

A) telophase
B) anaphase
C) prometaphase
D) metaphase
E) prophase

Answer: B

8) If cells in the process of dividing are subjected to colchicine, a drug that interferes with
the unctioning of the spindle apparatus, at which stage will mitosis be arrested?
A) anaphase
B) prophase
C) telophase
D) metaphase
E) interphase

Answer: D
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9) According to this table answer; the best conclusion

concerning delta is that the cells:

A) contain no DNA.
B) contain no RNA.
C) contain only one chromosome that is very short.
D) are actually in the G0 phase.
E) divide in the G1 phase.

Answer: D
10) If a cell has 8 chromosomes at metaphase of mitosis, how many chromosomes will it
have during anaphase?

A) 1
B) 2
C) 4
D) 8
E) 16

Answer: E
11) The formation of a cell plate is beginning across the middle of a cell and nuclei are re-
forming at opposite ends of the cell. What kind of cell is this?

A) an animal cell in metaphase

B) an animal cell in telophase
C) an animal cell undergoing cytokinesis
D) a plant cell in metaphase
E) a plant cell undergoing cytokinesis

Answer: E
12) Which of the following are primarily responsible for cytokinesis in plant cells?

A) kinetochores
B) Golgi-derived vesicles
C) actin and myosin
D) centrioles and basal bodies
E) cyclin-dependent kinases
 10 Maadi STEM School – Biology Assistants

Answer: B
13) Chromosomes first become visible during which phase of mitosis?

A) prometaphase
B) telophase
C) prophase
D) metaphase
E) anaphase

Answer: C
14) In which group of eukaryotic organisms does the nuclear envelope remain intact during
mitosis?

A) seedless plants
B) dinoflagellates
C) diatoms
D) B and C only
E) A, B, and C

Answer: D
15) Imagine looking through a microscope at a squashed onion root tip. The chromosomes
of many of the cells are plainly visible. In some cells, replicated chromosomes are aligned
along the center (equator) of the cell. These particular cells are in which stage of mitosis?

A) telophase
B) prophase
C) anaphase
D) metaphase
E) prometaphase
16) In order for anaphase to begin, which of the following must occur?

A) Chromatids must lose their kinetochores.

B) Cohesin must attach the sister chromatids to each other.
C) Cohesin must be cleaved enzymatically.
D) Kinetochores must attach to the metaphase plate.
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E) Spindle microtubules must begin to depolymerize.

Answer: C
17) Why do chromosomes coil during mitosis?

A) to increase their potential energy

B) to allow the chromosomes to move without becoming entangled and breaking
C) to allow the chromosomes to fit within the nuclear envelope
D) to allow the sister chromatids to remain attached
E) to provide for the structure of the centromere

Answer: B
18) Which of the following best describes how chromosomes move toward the poles of the
spindle during mitosis?

A) The chromosomes are ʺreeled inʺ by the contraction of spindle microtubules.

B) Motor proteins of the kinetochores move the chromosomes along the spindle
microtubules.
C) Non-kinetochore spindle fibers serve to push chromosomes in the direction of the
poles.
D) both A and B
E) A, B, and C

Answer: B
19) Nucleotides can be radiolabeled before they are incorporated into newly forming DNA
and can therefore be assayed to track their incorporation. In a set of experiments, a student-
faculty research team used labeled T nucleotides and introduced these into the culture of
dividing human cells at specific times.

• Which of the following questions might be answered by such a method?

A) How many cells are produced by the culture per hour?

B) What is the length of the S phase of the cell cycle?
C) When is the S chromosome synthesized?
D) How many picograms of DNA are made per cell cycle?
E) When do spindle fibers attach to chromosomes?
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Answer: B
20) Cells that are in a nondividing state are in which phase?
A) G0
B) G2
C) G1
D) S
E) M

Answer: A
21) This is the shortest part of the cell cycle:

A) G0
B) G1
C) S
D) G2
E) M

Answer: E
22) The ʺrestriction pointʺ occurs here:

A) G0
B) G1
C) S
D) G2
E) M

Answer: B
23) Nerve and muscle cells are in this phase:

A) G0
B) G1
C) S
D) G2
E) M
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Answer: A

24) In the opposite figure:

• mitosis is represented by which number?

A) I
B) II
C) III
D) IV
E) V

Answer: D
• G1 is represented by which number(s)?

A) I and V
B) II and IV
C) III
D) IV
E) V

Answer: A

• Which number represents DNA synthesis?

A) I
B) II
C) III
D) IV
E) V

Answer: B
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• Which number represents the point in the cell cycle during which the chromosomes are
replicated?

A) I
B) II
C) III
D) IV
E) V
Answer: B
25) A mutation results in a cell that no longer produces a normal protein kinase for the M
phase checkpoint. Which of the following would likely be the immediate result of this
mutation?

A) The cell would prematurely enter anaphase.

B) The cell would never leave metaphase.
C) The cell would never enter metaphase.
D) The cell would never enter prophase.
E) The cell would undergo normal mitosis, but fail to enter the next G1 phase.

Answer: E

26) Which of the following is true concerning cancer cells?

A) They do not exhibit density-dependent inhibition when growing in culture.

B) When they stop dividing, they do so at random points in the cell cycle.
C) They are not subject to cell cycle controls.
D) B and C only
E) A, B, and C

Answer: E
27) Cells from an advanced malignant tumor most often have very abnormal chromosomes,
and often an abnormal total number of chromosomes. Why might this occur?

A) Cancer cells are no longer density dependent.

B) Cancer cells are no longer anchorage dependent.
C) Chromosomally abnormal cells can still go through cell cycle checkpoints.
D) Chromosomally abnormal cells still have normal metabolism.
E) Transformation introduces new chromosomes into cells.
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Answer: C
28) Vinblastine is a standard chemotherapeutic drug used to treat cancer. Because it
interferes with the assembly of microtubules, its effectiveness must be related to

A) disruption of mitotic spindle formation.

B) inhibition of regulatory protein phosphorylation.
C) suppression of cyclin production.
D) myosin denaturation and inhibition of cleavage furrow formation.
E) inhibition of DNA synthesis.

Answer: A
29) A particular cell has half as much DNA as some other cells in a mitotically active tissue.
The cell in question is most likely in

A) G1
B) G2.
C) prophase.
D) metaphase.
E) anaphase.

Answer: A
30) Which of the following does not occur during mitosis?

A) condensation of the chromosomes

B) replication of the DNA
C) separation of sister chromatids
D) spindle formation
E) separation of the spindle poles

Answer: B
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Meiosis

1) Which of the following statements about genes is incorrect?

A) Genes correspond to segments of DNA.
B)Many genes contain the information needed for cells to synthesize enzymes and other proteins.
C)During fertilization, both the sperm and the ovum contribute genes to the resulting
fertilized egg.
D) One gene only is used in a specific cell type.
E) Genetic differences can result from changes in the DNA called mutations.
Answer: D

2)Asexual reproduction and sexual reproduction differ in all but which of the following ways?
A)Individuals reproducing asexually transmit 100% of their genes to their progeny,
whereas individuals reproducing sexually transmit only 50%.
B)Asexual reproduction produces offspring that are genetically identical to the parents,
whereas sexual reproduction gives rise to genetically distinct offspring.
C)Asexual reproduction involves a single parent, whereas sexual reproduction involves two.
D)Asexual reproduction requires only mitosis, whereas sexual reproduction always
involves meiosis.
E)Asexual reproduction is utilized only by fungi and protists, whereas sexual
reproduction is utilized only by plants and animals.
Answer: E

3-) A geneʹs location along a chromosome is known as which of the following?

A) Allele
B) Sequence
C) Locus
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D) Variant
E) Trait
Answer: C

4) What is a karyotype?
A) The set of unique physical characteristics that define an individual
B) The collection of all the mutations present within the genome of an individual C)
The combination of chromosomes found in a gamete
D) A system of classifying cell nuclei
E) A display of every pair of homologous chromosomes within a cell, organized
according to size and shape
Answer: E

5)At which stage of mitosis are chromosomes usually photographed in the preparation of a
karyotype?
A) Prophase
B) Metaphase
C) Anaphase
D) Telophase
E) Interphase
Answer: B

6-) Which of the following is true of a species that has a chromosome number of 2n = 16?
 18 Maadi STEM School – Biology Assistants

A) The species is diploid with 32 chromosomes per cell.

B) The species has 16 sets of chromosomes per cell.
C) Each cell has 8 homologous pairs.
D) During the S phase of the cell cycle there will be 32 separate chromosomes.
E) A gamete from this species has 4 chromosomes.
Answer: C

7)Eukaryotic sexual life cycles show tremendous variation. Of the following elements, which
do all sexual life cycles have in common?
I. Alternation of generations
II. Meiosis
III. Fertilization
IV. Gametes
V. Spores
A) I, IV, and V
B) I, II, and IV
C) II, III, and IV
D) II, IV, and V
E) All of the above
Answer: C

8)Referring to a plant sexual life cycle, which of the following terms describes the process that
leads directly to the formation of gametes?
A) Sporophyte meiosis
B) Gametophyte mitosis
C) Gametophyte meiosis
 19 Maadi STEM School – Biology Assistants

D) Sporophyte mitosis
E) Alternation of generations
Answer: B

9)Which of the following is an example of alternation of generations?

A) A grandparent and grandchild each has dark hair, but the parent has blond hair.
B) A diploid plant (sporophyte) produces, by meiosis, a spore that gives rise to a
multicellular, haploid pollen grain (gametophyte).
C)A diploid animal produces gametes by meiosis, and the gametes undergo fertilization
to produce a diploid zygote.
D) A haploid mushroom produces gametes by mitosis, and the gametes undergo
fertilization, which is immediately followed by meiosis.
E)A diploid cell divides by mitosis to produce two diploid daughter cells, which then
fuse to produce a tetraploid cell.
Answer: B

10)How do cells at the completion of meiosis compare with cells that have replicated their
DNA and are just about to begin meiosis?
A) They have twice the amount of cytoplasm and half the amount of DNA.
B) They have half the number of chromosomes and half the amount of DNA.
C) They have the same number of chromosomes and half the amount of DNA.
D) They have half the number of chromosomes and one-fourth the amount of DNA.
E) They have half the amount of cytoplasm and twice the amount of DNA.
Answer: D
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11)When does the synaptonemal complex disappear?

A) Late prophase of meiosis I
B) During fertilization or fusion of gametes
C) Early anaphase of meiosis I
D) Mid-prophase of meiosis II
E) Late metaphase of meiosis II
Answer: A
12)Which diagram represents
prophase I of meiosis?
A) I
B) II
C) IV
D) V
E) VI
Answer: C

13)Independent assortment of chromosomes occurs.

A) The statement is true for mitosis only.
B) The statement is true for meiosis I only.
C) The statement is true for meiosis II only.
D) The statement is true for mitosis and meiosis I.
E) The statement is true for mitosis and meiosis II.
Answer: B
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14)You have in your possession a microscope slide with meiotic cells on it and a light
microscope. What would you look for if you wanted to identify metaphase I cells on the slide?
A) A visible nuclear envelope
B) Separated sister chromatids at each pole of the cell
C) Tetrads lined up at the center of the cell
D) A synaptonemal complex
E) A cleavage furrow
Answer: C
15)If a female of this species has one chromosome 12 with a blue gene and another
chromosome 12 with an orange gene, she will produce which of the following egg types?
A) Only blue gene eggs
B) Only orange gene eggs
C) 1/2 blue and 1/2 orange gene eggs
D) 3/4 blue and 1/4 orange gene eggs
E) An indeterminate frequency of blue and orange gene eggs
Answer: C

16)Chiasmata are what we see under a microscope that let us know which of the following is
occurring?
A) Asexual reproduction
B) Meiosis II
C) Anaphase II
D) Crossing over
E) Separation of homologs
Answer: D
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17)Whether during mitosis or meiosis, sister chromatids are held together by proteins referred
to as cohesions. Such molecules must have which of the following properties?
A) They must persist throughout the cell cycle.
B) They must be removed before meiosis can begin.
C) They must be removed before anaphase can occur.
D) They must reattach to chromosomes during G1.
E) They must be intact for nuclear envelope reformation.
Answer: C
18) Which of the following occurs in meiosis but not in mitosis?
A) Chromosome replication
B) Synapsis of chromosomes
C) Production of daughter cells
D) Alignment of chromosomes at the equator
E) Condensation of chromatin
Answer: B

19)A female with a paternal set of one orange and one long gene chromosomes and a maternal
set comprised of one blue and one short gene chromosome is expected to produce which of
the following types of eggs after meiosis?
A) All eggs will have maternal types of gene combinations.
B) All eggs will have paternal types of gene combinations.
C) Half the eggs will have maternal and half will have paternal combinations.
D) Each egg has 1/4 chance of having blue long, blue short, orange long, or orange short
combinations.
E) Each egg has a 3/4 chance of having blue long, blue short, orange long, or orange
short combinations.
Answer: D
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20) If an organism is diploid and a certain gene found in the organism has 18 known alleles
(variants), then any given organism of that species can/must have which of the following? A)
At most, 2 alleles for that gene
B) Up to 18 chromosomes with that gene
C) Up to 18 genes for that trait
D) A haploid number of 9 chromosomes
E) Up to, but not more than, 18 different traits
Answer: A

21)For a species with a haploid number of 23 chromosomes, how many different combinations
of maternal and paternal chromosomes are possible for the gametes?
A) 23
B) 46
C) 460
D) 920
E) About 8 million
Answer: E

Mendel

1) Pea plants were particularly well suited for use in Mendelʹs breeding
experiments for all of the following reasons except that

A) peas show easily observed variations in a number of characters, such as pea

shape
and flower color.
B) it is possible to control matings between different pea plants.
C) it is possible to obtain large numbers of progeny from any given cross.
24 Maadi STEM School – Biology Assistants

D) peas have an unusually long generation time.

E) many of the observable characters that vary in pea plants are controlled by
single genes.

Answer: D

2) What is the difference between a monohybrid cross and a dihybrid cross?

A) A monohybrid cross involves a single parent, whereas a dihybrid cross involves

two parents.
B) A monohybrid cross produces a single progeny, whereas a dihybrid cross
produces two progeny.
C) A dihybrid cross involves organisms that are heterozygous for two characters
and a monohybrid only one.
D) A monohybrid cross is performed for one generation, whereas a dihybrid cross
is performed for two generations.
E) A monohybrid cross results in a 9:3:3:1 ratio whereas a dihybrid cross gives a
3:1 ratio.

Answer: C

3) A cross between homozygous purple-flowered and homozygous white-flowered

pea plants results in offspring with purple flowers. This demonstrates
A) the blending model of genetics.
B) true-breeding.
C) dominance.
D) a dihybrid cross.
E) the mistakes made by Mendel.

Answer: C

4) The F1 offspring of Mendelʹs classic pea cross always looked like one of the
two parental
varieties because

A) one phenotype was completely dominant over another.

B) each allele affected phenotypic expression.
C) the traits blended together during fertilization.
D) no genes interacted to produce the parental phenotype.
E) different genes interacted to produce the parental phenotype.
25 Maadi STEM School – Biology Assistants

Answer: A

5) What was the most significant conclusion that Gregor Mendel drew from his
experiments with pea plants?

A) There is considerable genetic variation in garden peas.

B) Traits are inherited in discrete units, and are not the results of ʺblending.ʺ
C) Recessive genes occur more frequently in the F1 than do dominant ones.
D) Genes are composed of DNA.
E) An organism that is homozygous for many recessive traits is at a disadvantage.

Answer: B

6) How many unique gametes could be produced through independent assortment

by an individual with the genotype AaBbCCDdEE?
A) 4
B) 8
C) 16
D) 32
E) 64

Answer: B

7) Two plants are crossed, resulting in offspring with a 3:1 ratio for a particular
trait. This suggests
A) that the parents were true-breeding for contrasting traits.
B) incomplete dominance.
C) that a blending of traits has occurred.
D) that the parents were both heterozygous.
E) that each offspring has the same alleles.

Answer: D

8) Two characters that appear in a 9:3:3:1 ratio in the F2 generation should have
which of the following properties?

A) Each of the traits is controlled by single genes.

B) The genes controlling the characters obey the law of independent assortment.
C) Each of the genes controlling the characters has two alleles.
26 Maadi STEM School – Biology Assistants

D) Four genes are involved.

E) Sixteen different phenotypes are possible.

Answer: B

9) A sexually reproducing animal has two unlinked genes, one for head shape (H)
and one for tail length (T). Its genotype is HhTt. Which of the following genotypes
is possible in a gamete from this organism?
A) HT
B) Hh
C) HhTt
D) T
E) tt

Answer: A

10) It was important that Mendel examined not just the F1 generation in his
breeding experiments, but the F2 generation as well, because

A) he obtained very few F1 progeny, making statistical analysis difficult.

B) parental traits that were not observed in the F1 reappeared in the F2.
C) analysis of the F1 progeny would have allowed him to discover the law of
segregation, but not the law of independent assortment.
D) the dominant phenotypes were visible in the F2 generation, but not in the F1.
E) many of the F1 progeny died.

Answer: B

11) When crossing an organism that is homozygous recessive for a single trait with
a heterozygote, what is the chance of producing an offspring with the homozygous
recessive phenotype?

A) 0%
B) 25%
C) 50%
D) 75%
E) 100%

Answer: C
27 Maadi STEM School – Biology Assistants

Use Figure 14.1 and the following description to answer the questions below.
In a particular plant, leaf color is controlled by gene locus D. Plants with at least
one allele D have dark green leaves, and plants with the homozygous recessive dd
genotype have light green leaves. A true-breeding dark-leaved plant is crossed with
a light-leaved one, and the F1 offspring is allowed to self-pollinate. The predicted
outcome of the F2 is diagrammed in the Punnett square shown in Figure
14.1, where 1, 2, 3, and 4 represent the genotypes corresponding to each box
within the square.

Figure 14.1
12) Which of the boxes marked 1-4 correspond to plants with
dark leaves?

A) 1 only
B) 1 and 2
C) 2 and 3
D) 4 only
E) 1, 2, and 3

Answer: E

13) Which of the boxes correspond to plants with a heterozygous genotype?

A) 1
B) 1 and 2
C) 1, 2, and 3
D) 2 and 3
E) 2, 3, and 4

Answer: D

14) Which of the plants will be true-breeding?

A) 1 and 4
B) 2 and 3
C) 1—4
D) 1 only
E) None

Answer: A
28 Maadi STEM School – Biology Assistants

15) Mendel accounted for the observation that traits which had disappeared in the
F1 generation reappeared in the F2 generation by proposing that

A) new mutations were frequently generated in the F2 progeny, ʺreinventingʺ traits

that had been lost in the F1.
B) the mechanism controlling the appearance of traits was different between the F1
and the F2 plants.
C) traits can be dominant or recessive, and the recessive traits were obscured by
the dominant ones in the F1.
D) the traits were lost in the F1 due to blending of the parental traits.
E) members of the F1 generation had only one allele for each character, but
members of the F2 had two alleles for each character.

Answer: C

16) Which of the following about the law of segregation is false?

A) It states that each of two alleles for a given trait segregate into different
gametes.
B) It can be explained by the segregation of homologous chromosomes during
meiosis.
C) It can account for the 3:1 ratio seen in the F2 generation of Mendelʹs crosses.
D) It can be used to predict the likelihood of transmission of certain genetic
diseases within families.
E) It is a method that can be used to determine the number of chromosomes in a
plant.

Answer: E

17) The fact that all seven of the pea plant traits studied by Mendel obeyed the
principle of independent assortment most probably indicates which of the
following?

A) None of the traits obeyed the law of segregation.

B) The diploid number of chromosomes in the pea plants was 7.
C) All of the genes controlling the traits were located on the same chromosome.
D) All of the genes controlling the traits behaved as if they were on different
chromosomes.
E) The formation of gametes in plants occurs by mitosis only.
29 Maadi STEM School – Biology Assistants

Answer: D

18) Mendel was able to draw his ideas of segregation and independent assortment
because of the influence of which of the following?

A) His reading and discussion of Darwinʹs Origin of Species

B) The understanding of particulate inheritance he learned from renowned
scientists of his time
C) His discussions of heredity with his colleagues at major universities
D) His reading of the scientific literature current in the field
E) His experiments with the breeding of plants such as peas

Answer: E

19) Mendelʹs observation of the segregation of alleles in gamete formation has its
basis in which of the following phases of cell division?

A) Prophase I of meiosis
B) Prophase II of meiosis
C) Metaphase I of meiosis
D) Anaphase I of meiosis
E) Anaphase of mitosis

Answer: D

20) Mendelʹs second law of independent assortment has its basis in which of the
following events of meiosis I?

A) Synapsis of homologous chromosomes

B) Crossing over
C) Alignment of tetrads at the equator
D) Separation of homologs at anaphase
E) Separation of cells at telophase

Answer: C
30 Maadi STEM School – Biology Assistants

Crossing Over

1) Two true-breeding stocks of pea plants are crossed. One parent has red, axial
flowers and the other has white, terminal flowers; all F1 individuals have red, axial
flowers. The genes for flower color and location assort independently. If 1,000 F2
offspring resulted from the cross, approximately how many of them would you
expect to have red, terminal flowers?

A) 65
B) 190
C) 250
D) 565
E) 750
Answer: B

2) Labrador retrievers are black, brown, or yellow. In a cross of a black female

with a brown male, results can be either all black puppies, 1/2 black to 1/2 brown
puppies, or 3/4 black to 1/4 yellow puppies.

These results indicate which of the following?

A) Brown is dominant to black.

B) Black is dominant to brown and to yellow.
C) Yellow is dominant to black.
D) There is incomplete dominance.
E) Epistasis is involved.

Answer: E

3) In one type cross of black × black, the results were as follows:

9/16 black
4/16 yellow
3/16 brown

The genotype aabb must result in which of the following?

A) Black
B) Brown
C) Yellow
 31 Maadi STEM School – Biology Assistants

D) A lethal result

Answer: C

4) Drosophila (fruit flies) usually have long wings (+) but mutations in two
different genes can result in bent wings (bt) or vestigial wings (vg). If a
homozygous bent wing fly is mated with a homozygous vestigial wing fly, which
of the following offspring would you expect?

A) All +bt +vg heterozygotes

B) 1/2 bent and 1/2 vestigial flies
C) All homozygous + flies
D) 3/4 bent to 1/4 vestigial ratio
E) 1/2 bent and vestigial to 1/2 normal

Answer: A
4) A 1:2:1 phenotypic ratio in the F2 generation of a monohybrid cross is a sign of

A) complete dominance.
B) multiple alleles.
C) incomplete dominance.
D) polygenic inheritance.
E) pleiotropy.

Answer: C
5) Skin color in a certain species of fish is inherited via a single gene with four
different alleles.

• How many different types of gametes would be possible in this system?

A) 1
B) 2
C) 4
D) 8
E) 16

Answer: C
 32 Maadi STEM School – Biology Assistants

6) A cross between a true-breeding sharp-spined cactus and a spineless cactus

would produce

A) all sharp-spined progeny.

B) 50% sharp-spined, 50% dull-spined progeny.
C) 25% sharp-spined, 50% dull-spined, 25% spineless progeny
D) all spineless progeny.
E) It is impossible to determine the phenotypes of the progeny.

Answer: A
7) A blue budgie is crossed with a white budgie. Which of the following results is
not possible?

A) Green offspring only

B) Yellow offspring only
C) Blue offspring only
D) Green and yellow offspring
E) a 9:3:3:1 ratio

Answer: D
8) Two blue budgies were crossed. Over the years, they produced 22 offspring, 5
of which were white. What are the most likely genotypes for the two blue budgies?

A) yyBB and yyBB

B) yyBB and yyBb
C) yyBb and yyBb
D) yyBB and yybb
E) yyBb and yybb

Answer: C

9) Rh positive is a trait that shows simple dominance over Rh negative and is

designated by the alleles R and r, respectively. A third gene for the MN blood
group has codominant alleles M and N.

• Which of the following is a possible partial genotype for the son?

A) IBIB
B) IBIA
C) ii
33 Maadi STEM School – Biology Assistants

D) IBi
E) IAIA

Answer: D
10) Which of the following is a possible genotype for the mother?

A) IAIA
B) IBIB
C) ii
D) IAi
E) IAIB

Answer: D

11) Which of the following is a possible phenotype for the father?

A) A negative
B) O negative
C) B positive
D) AB negative
E) Impossible to determine

Answer: C

12) Which of the following is the probable genotype for the mother?

A) IAIARR
B) IAIARr
C) IAirr
D) IAiRr
E) IAiRR

Answer: D
13) Which describes the ability of a single gene to have multiple phenotypic
effects?

A) Incomplete dominance
B) Multiple alleles
 34 Maadi STEM School – Biology Assistants

C) Pleiotropy
D) Epistasis

Answer: C
14) Which describes the ABO blood group system?

A) Incomplete dominance
B) Multiple alleles
C) Pleiotropy
D) Epistasis

Answer: B

15) Which of the following terms best describes when the phenotype of the
heterozygote differs from the phenotypes of both homozygotes?

A) Incomplete dominance
B) Multiple alleles
C) Pleiotropy
D) Epistasis

Answer: A
16) Which of the following is an example of polygenic inheritance?

A) Pink flowers in snapdragons

B) The ABO blood groups in humans
C) Huntingtonʹs disease in humans
D) White and purple flower color in peas
E) Skin pigmentation in humans

Answer: E
17) Hydrangea plants of the same genotype are planted in a large flower garden.
Some of the plants produce blue flowers and others pink flowers. This can be best
explained by which of the following?

A) Environmental factors such as soil pH

B) The allele for blue hydrangea being completely dominant
35 Maadi STEM School – Biology Assistants

C) The alleles being codominant

D) The fact that a mutation has occurred
E) Acknowledging that multiple alleles are involved

Answer: A
18) Most genes have many more than two alleles. However, which of the following
is also true?

A) At least one allele for a gene always produces a dominant phenotype.

B) Most of the alleles will never be found in a live-born organism.
C) All of the alleles but one will produce harmful effects if homozygous.
D) There may still be only two phenotypes for the trait.
E) More than two alleles in a genotype is lethal.

Answer: D
19) A woman has six sons. The chance that her next child will be a daughter is

A) 1.
B) 0.
C) 1/2.
D) 1/6.
E) 5/6.

Answer: C
20) The following questions refer to the
pedigree chart in Figure 14.2 for a
family, some of whose members exhibit
the dominant trait, wooly hair. Affected
individuals are indicated by an open
square or circle.

• What is the genotype of individual II-5?

A) WW
B) Ww
C) ww
D) WW or ww
36 Maadi STEM School – Biology Assistants

E) ww or Ww

Answer: C

• What is the likelihood that the progeny of IV-3 and IV-4 will have wooly hair?

A) 0%
B) 25%
C) 50%
D) 75%
E) 100%

Answer: C

• What is the probability that individual III-1 is Ww?

A) 3/4
B) 1/4
C) 2/4
D) 2/3
E) 1
Answer: E
21) When a disease is said to have a multifactorial basis, it means that

A) both genetic and environmental factors contribute to the disease.

B) it is caused by a gene with a large number of alleles.
C) it affects a large number of people.
D) it has many different symptoms.
E) it tends to skip a generation.

Answer: A
22) A scientist discovers a DNA-based test for the allele of a particular gene. This
and only this allele, if homozygous, produces an effect that results in death at or
about the time of birth. Of the following, which is the best use of this discovery?

A) To screen all newborns of an at-risk population

B) To design a test for identifying heterozygous carriers of the allele
C) To introduce a normal allele into deficient newborns
D) To follow the segregation of the allele during meiosis
37 Maadi STEM School – Biology Assistants

E) To test school-age children for the disorder

Answer: B
23) Cystic fibrosis (CF) is a Mendelian disorder in the human population that is
inherited as a recessive. Two normal parents have two children with CF. The
probability of their next child being normal for this characteristic is which of the
following?

A) 0
B) 1/2
C) 1/4
D) 3/4
E) 1/8

Answer: C
24) Phenylketonuria (PKU) is a recessive human disorder in which an individual
cannot appropriately metabolize a particular amino acid. This amino acid is not
otherwise produced by humans. Therefore the most efficient and effective
treatment is which of the following?

A) Feed them the substrate that can be metabolized into this amino acid.
B) Transfuse the patients with blood from unaffected donors.
C) Regulate the diet of the affected persons to severely limit the uptake of the
amino acid.
D) Feed the patients the missing enzymes in a regular cycle, i.e., twice per week.

Answer: C
25) A pedigree analysis for a given disorderʹs occurrence in a family shows that,
although both parents of an affected child are normal, each of the parents has had
affected relatives with the same condition. The disorder is then which of the
following?

A) Recessive
B) Dominant
C) Incompletely dominant
D) Maternally inherited
38 Maadi STEM School – Biology Assistants

E) A new mutation

Answer: A

26) One of two major forms of a human condition called neurofibromatosis (NF 1)
is inherited as a dominant, although it may be either mildly to very severely
expressed. If a young child is the first in her family to be diagnosed, which of the
following is the best explanation?

A) The mother carries the gene but does not express it at all.
B) One of the parents has very mild expression of the gene.
C) The condition skipped a generation in the family.
D) The child has a different allele of the gene than the parents.

Answer: B
27) What is the probability that each of the following pairs of parents will produce
the indicated offspring? (Assume independent assortment of all gene pairs.)

A) AABBCC × aabbcc AaBbCc

B) AABbCc × AaBbCc AAbbCC
C) AaBbCc × AaBbCc AaBbCc
D) aaBbCC × AABbcc AaBbCc

Answer: A) 1, B) 1⁄32, C) 1⁄8, D) 1⁄2

Morgan

1) Why did the improvement of microscopy techniques in the late 1800s set the
stage for the emergence of modern genetics?

A) It revealed new and unanticipated features of Mendelʹs pea plant varieties.

B) It allowed the study of meiosis and mitosis, revealing parallels between
behaviors of
genes and chromosomes.
C) It allowed scientists to see the DNA present within chromosomes.
D) It led to the discovery of mitochondria.
39 Maadi STEM School – Biology Assistants

E) It showed genes functioning to direct the formation of enzymes.

Answer: B

2) When Thomas Hunt Morgan crossed his red-eyed F1 generation flies to each
other, the F2 generation included both red- and white-eyed flies. Remarkably, all
the white-eyed flies were male. What was the explanation for this result?

A) The gene involved is on the X chromosome.

B) The gene involved is on the Y chromosome.
C) The gene involved is on an autosome.
D) Other male-specific factors influence eye color in flies.
E) Other female-specific factors influence eye color in flies.

Answer: A

3) Morgan and his colleagues worked out a set of symbols to represent fly
genotypes. Which of the following are representative?

A) AaBb × AaBb
B) 46, XY or 46, XX
C) vg+vgse+se × vgvgsese
D) +2 × +3

Answer: C

4) Sturtevant provided genetic evidence for the existence of four pairs of

chromosomes in Drosophila in which of these ways?

A) There are four major functional classes of genes in Drosophila.

B) Drosophila genes cluster into four distinct groups of linked genes.
C) The overall number of genes in Drosophila is a multiple of four.
D) The entire Drosophila genome has approximately 400 map units.
E) Drosophila genes have, on average, four different alleles.

Answer: B

5) A man with Klinefelter syndrome (47, XXY) is expected to have any of the
following EXCEPT
40 Maadi STEM School – Biology Assistants

A) lower sperm count.

B) possible breast enlargement.
C) increased testosterone.
D) long limbs.
E) female body characteristics.

Answer: C

6) A woman is found to have 47 chromosomes, including 3 X chromosomes.

Which of the following describes her expected phenotype?

A) Masculine characteristics such as facial hair

B) Enlarged genital structures
C) Excessive emotional instability
D) Normal female
E) Sterile female

Answer: D

7) Males are more often affected by sex-linked traits than females because

A) males are hemizygous for the X chromosome.

B) male hormones such as testosterone often alter the effects of mutations on the X
chromosome.
C) female hormones such as estrogen often compensate for the effects of mutations
on the X.
D) X chromosomes in males generally have more mutations than X chromosomes
in females.
E) mutations on the Y chromosome often worsen the effects of X-linked mutations.

Answer: A

8) What is the chromosomal system for determining sex in mammals?

A) Haploid-diploid
B) X-0
C) X-X
D) X-Y
E) Z-W
41 Maadi STEM School – Biology Assistants

Answer: D

9) What is the chromosomal system for sex determination in birds?

A) Haploid-diploid
B) X-0
C) X-X
D) X-Y
E) Z-W

Answer: E

10) What is the chromosomal system of sex determination in most species of ants
and bees?
A) Haploid-diploid
B) X-0
C) X-X
D) X-Y
E) Z-W

Answer: A

11) SRY is best described in which of the following ways?

A) A gene region present on the Y chromosome that triggers male development

B) A gene present on the X chromosome that triggers female development
C) An autosomal gene that is required for the expression of genes on the Y
chromosome
D) An autosomal gene that is required for the expression of genes on the X
chromosome
E) Required for development, and males or females lacking the gene do not
survive past early childhood

Answer: A

12) In cats, black fur color is caused by an X-linked allele; the other allele at this
locus causes orange color. The heterozygote is tortoiseshell. What kinds of
offspring would you expect from the cross of a black female and an orange male?

A) Tortoiseshell females; tortoiseshell males

42 Maadi STEM School – Biology Assistants

B) Black females; orange males

C) Orange females; orange males
D) Tortoiseshell females; black males
E) Orange females; black males

Answer: D

13) Red-green color blindness is a sex-linked recessive trait in humans. Two

people with normal color vision have a color-blind son. What are the genotypes of
the parents?

A) XcXc and XcY

B) XcXc and XCY
C) XCXC and XcY
D) XCXC and XCY
E) XCXc and XCY

Answer: E

14) Cinnabar eyes is a sex-linked recessive characteristic in fruit flies. If a female

having cinnabar eyes is crossed with a wild-type male, what percentage of the F1
males will have cinnabar eyes?

A) 0%
B) 25%
C) 50%
D) 75%
E) 100%

Answer: E

15) Calico cats are female because

A) a male inherits only one of the two X-linked genes controlling hair color.
B) the males die during embryonic development.
C) the Y chromosome has a gene blocking orange coloration.
D) only females can have Barr bodies.
E) multiple crossovers on the Y chromosome prevent orange pigment production.

Answer: A
43 Maadi STEM School – Biology Assistants

16) In birds, sex is determined by a ZW chromosome scheme. Males are ZZ and

females are ZW. A recessive lethal allele that causes death of the embryo is
sometimes present on the Z chromosome in pigeons. What would be the sex ratio
in the offspring of a cross between a male that is heterozygous for the lethal allele
and a normal female?

A) 2:1 male to female

B) 1:2 male to female
C) 1:1 male to female
D) 4:3 male to female
E) 3:1 male to female

Answer: A

Refer to the following information to answer the questions below.

A man who is an achondroplastic dwarf with normal vision marries a color-blind
woman of normal height. The manʹs father was six feet tall, and both the womanʹs
parents were of average height. Achondroplastic dwarfism is autosomal dominant,
and red-green color blindness is X-linked recessive.

17) How many of their daughters might be expected to be color-blind dwarfs?

A) All
B) None
C) Half
D) One out of four
E) Three out of four

Answer: B

18) What proportion of their sons would be color-blind and of normal height?

A) All
B) None
C) Half
D) One out of four
E) Three out of four

Answer: C
44 Maadi STEM School – Biology Assistants

19) They have a daughter who is a dwarf with normal color vision. What is the
probability that she is heterozygous for both genes?

A) 0
B) 0.25
C) 0.50
D) 0.75
E) 1.00

Answer: E

20) A Barr body is normally found in the nucleus of which kind of human cell?

A) Unfertilized egg cells only

B) Sperm cells only
C) Somatic cells of a female only
D) Somatic cells of a male only
E) Both male and female somatic cells

Answer: C

21) Sex determination in mammals is due to the SRY region of the Y chromosome.
An abnormality could allow which of the following to have a male phenotype?

A) Turner syndrome, 45, X

B) Translocation of SRY to an autosome of a 46, XX individual
C) A person with too many X chromosomes
D) A person with one normal and one shortened (deleted) X
E) Down syndrome, 46, XX

Answer: B

22) Which of the following statements is true?

A) The closer two genes are on a chromosome, the lower the probability that a
crossover will occur between them.
B) The observed frequency of recombination of two genes that are far apart from
each other has a maximum value of 100%.
C) All of the traits that Mendel studied seed color, pod shape, flower color, and
others are due to genes linked on the same chromosome.
45 Maadi STEM School – Biology Assistants

D) Linked genes are found on different chromosomes.

E) Crossing over occurs during prophase II of meiosis.

Answer: A

23) How would one explain a testcross involving F1 dihybrid flies in which more
parental-type offspring than recombinant-type offspring are produced?

A) The two genes are linked.

B) The two genes are linked but on different chromosomes.
C) Recombination did not occur in the cell during meiosis.
D) The testcross was improperly performed.
E) Both of the characters are controlled by more than one gene.

Answer: A

24) New combinations of linked genes are due to which of the following?

A) Nondisjunction
B) Crossing over
C) Independent assortment
D) Mixing of sperm and egg
E) Deletions

Answer: B

25) What does a frequency of recombination of 50% indicate?

A) The two genes are likely to be located on different chromosomes.

B) All of the offspring have combinations of traits that match one of the two
parents.
C) The genes are located on sex chromosomes.
D) Abnormal meiosis has occurred.
E) Independent assortment is hindered.

Answer: A

26) A 0.1% frequency of recombination is observed

A) only in sex chromosomes.

46 Maadi STEM School – Biology Assistants

B) only on genetic maps of viral chromosomes.

C) on unlinked chromosomes.
D) in any two genes on different chromosomes.
E) in genes located very close to one another on the same chromosome.

Answer: E

27) The following is a map of four genes on a chromosome:

Figure 15.1
Between which two genes would you expect the highest frequency of
recombination?

A) A and W
B) W and E
C) E and G
D) A and E
E) A and G

Answer: E

Chapter 15, The Chromosomal Basis of Inheritance 307

28) What is the reason that linked genes are inherited together?

A) They are located close together on the same chromosome.

B) The number of genes in a cell is greater than the number of chromosomes.
C) Chromosomes are unbreakable.
D) Alleles are paired together during meiosis.
E) Genes align that way during metaphase I of meiosis.

Answer: A

29) What is the mechanism for the production of genetic recombinants?

A) X inactivation
B) Methylation of cytosine
C) Crossing over and independent assortment
D) Nondisjunction
E) Deletions and duplications during meiosis
47 Maadi STEM School – Biology Assistants

Answer: C

Refer to Figure 15.2 to answer the following

questions.
Figure 15.2

30) In a series of mapping experiments, the

recombination frequencies for four different linked
genes of Drosophila were determined as shown in
the figure. What is the order of these genes on a
chromosome map?

A) rb-cn-vg-b
B) vg-b-rb-cn
C) cn-rb-b-vg
D) b-rb-cn-vg
E) vg-cn-b-rb

Answer: D

31) Which of the following two genes are closest on a genetic map of Drosophila?

A) b and vg
B) vg and cn
C) rb and cn
D) cn and b
E) b and rb

Answer: E

D, F, and J are three genes in Drosophila. The recombination frequencies for two
of the three genes are shown in
Figure 15.3.
Figure 15.3

32) Genes D and F could be

A) located on different chromosomes.

B) located very near to each other on the same chromosome.
C) located far from each other on the same chromosome.
48 Maadi STEM School – Biology Assistants

D) Both A and B
E) Both A and C

Answer: E
33) The frequency of crossing over between any two linked genes will be which of
the following?

A) Higher if they are recessive

B) Dependent on how many alleles there are
C) Determined by their relative dominance
D) The same as if they were not linked
E) Proportional to the distance between them

Answer: E

34) Map units on a linkage map cannot be relied upon to calculate physical
distances on a chromosome for which of the following reasons?

A) The frequency of crossing over varies along the length of the chromosome.
B) The relationship between recombination frequency and map units is different in
every individual.
C) Physical distances between genes change during the course of the cell cycle.
D) The gene order on the chromosomes is slightly different in every individual.
E) Linkage map distances are identical between males and females.

Answer: A

35) Which of the following is a map of a chromosome that includes the positions
of genes relative to visible chromosomal features, such as stained bands?

A) Linkage map
B) Physical map
C) Recombination map
D) Cytogenetic map
E) Banded map

Answer: D
49 Maadi STEM School – Biology Assistants

3< ‫ربنا معانا يا أذكي دفعة علي ظهر البسيطة‬

Ann Osama, Hager Lialy, Yara Mosaad, and Rawan ElShobaky