NEURO MISC

1) The embryonic notochord becomes the nucleus pulposus of the intervetebral discs in adults
2) Which form of spina bifida is associated with myelomeningocele? Spina bifida cystica
3) Holoprosencephaly is characterized by a monoventricle and fusion of basal ganglia on MRI
4) The 1st and 2nd branchial arches form the anterior two-thirds of the tongue
5) The 3rd and 4th branchial arches form the posterior one-third of the tongue
6) The motor innervation to most muscles of the tongue is via CN XII
7) The palatoglossus muscle is the only tongue muscle innervated by CN X
8) Which tongue muscle retracts and depresses the tongue? Hyoglossus
9) Which tongue muscle protrudes the tongue? Genioglossus
10) Which tongue muscle draws the sides of the tongue upwards (creates a trough for swallowing)? Styloglossus
11) Which tongue muscle elevates the posterior tongue when swallowing? Palatoglossus
12) Which nervous system cell is typically damaged by Guillain-Barre syndrome? Schwann cells
13) Infarction and/or neoplasm of the blood-brain-barrier destroys endothelial cell tight junctions causing vasogenic edema
14) The ventral tegmentum and substantia nigra pars compacta are responsible for the synthesis of dopamine
15) Which dopaminergic pathway connects the ventral tegmentum (midbrain) to the prefrontal cortex? Mesocortical pathway
16) Blockage of the mesocortical dopamine pathway results in increased "negative" symptoms of schizophrenia
17) Are 1st-generation anti-psychotic drugs effective at reducing the "negative symptoms" associated with schizophrenia? No
(limited effect)
18) Which dopaminergic pathway connects the ventral tegmentum (midbrain) to the limbic system? Mesolimbic pathway
19) Stimulation of the mesolimbic dopamine pathway results in increased "positive" symptoms of schizophrenia
20) Are anti-psychotic drugs effective at reducing the "positive symptoms" associated with schizophrenia? Yes
21) Which dopaminergic pathway is the primary target for the antipsychotic treatment of schizoprenia? Mesolimbic pathway
22) Which dopaminergic pathway connects the substantia nigra pars compacta to the neostriatum? Nigrostriatal pathway
23) Blockage of the nigrostriatal dopamine pathway results in increased extrapyramidal symptoms
24) Decreased activity of which dopaminergic pathway produces extrapyramidal symptoms? Nigrostriatal pathway
25) The nigrostriatal pathway is significantly affected by movement disorders and antipsychotic drugs
26) Which dopaminergic pathway connects the arcuate nucleus (hypothalamus) to the pituitary? Tuberoinfundibular pathway
27) Blockage of the tuberoinfundibular dopamine pathway results in symptoms of prolactin excess
28) Decreased activity of which dopaminergic pathway produces prolactin excess? Tuberoinfundibular pathway
29) Depression::depression or anxiety is characterized by decreased dopamine
30) The basal nucleus of Meynert is responsible for the synthesis of acetylcholine
31) What pathology is characterized by degeneration of the basal nucleus of Meynert? Alzheimer disease
32) GABA is the main inhibitory neurotransmitter of the CNS
33) γ-Aminobutyric acid (GABA) is a neurotransmitter derived from the amino acid glutamate
34) Synthesis of GABA from glutamate requires vitamin B6 as a cofactor
35) The nucleus accumbens is responsible for synthesis of the neurotransmitter GABA
36) Anxiety::depression or anxiety is characterized by decreased GABA
37) Glycine is the main inhibitory neurotransmitter of the spinal cord
38) Glutamate is the main excitatory neurotransmitter of the CNS
39) Depression::depression or anxiety is characterized by decreased norepinephrine
40) Anxiety::depression or anxiety is characterized by increased norepinephrine
41) Depression is characterized by decreased serotonin
42) Anxiety is characterized by decreased serotonin
43) The reticular activating system (RAS) is formed by the reticular formation locus coeruleus and raphe nucleus
44) The reticular activating system mediates consciousness wakefulness attentiveness
45) Lesion of the reticular activating system::midbrain results in reduced levels of arousal and wakefulness (i.e. coma)
46) The rostral interstitial nucleus is the portion of the medial longitudinal fasciculus responsible for vertical gaze
47) Strokes involving the lenticulostriate artery typically involve the striatum and internal capsule
48) What visual field defect is associated with Wernicke aphasia secondary to middle cerebral artery stroke? Contralateral
homonymous superior quadrantanopia
49) CN I exits the skull through the cribriform foramina
50) CN II exits the skull through the optic canal
51) CNs III IV VI and V1 exit the skull through the superior orbital fissure
52) CN V2 exits the skull through the foramen rotundum
53) CN V3 exits the skull through the foramen ovale
54) The middle meningeal artery enters the skull through the foramen spinosum
55) CN VII and VIII exit the skull through the internal auditory meatus
56) CN IX X and XI exit the skull through the jugular foramen
57) The jugular vein exits the skull through the jugular foramen
58) CN XII exits the skull through the hypoglossal canal
59) The brainstem spinal root of CN XI and vertebral arteries exit/enter the skull through the foramen magnum
60) Cribriform plate - Exit for CN I
61) Optic canal - Exit for CN II and opthalamic artery::nerve and vessel
62) Superior orbital fissure - Exit for CN III IV VI and V1::4 nerves 1 vessel
63) Foramen rotundum - Exit for CN V2 I see (optic) Standing Room Only Sorry
64) Foramen ovale - Exit for CN V3::2
65) Foramen spinosum - Exit for middle meningeal artery::1 a.v.+ bonus nerve
66) Internal auditory meatus - Exit for CN VII VIII and labyrinthine artery::2 nerves 1 artery
67) Jugular foramen - Exit for CN IX X XI and jugular vein::3 nerves 1 vein 2 sinus 1 artery
68) Hypoglossal canal - Exit for CN XII
69) Foramen magnum - Exit/entry for brainstem spinal root of CN XI and vertebral arteries::1 nerve 1 vessel
70) Which cranial nerve is responsible for the afferent limb of the corneal reflex? CN V1 (nasociliary br. of ophthalmic)
71) Which cranial nerve (and branch) is responsible for the efferent limb of the corneal reflex? Bilateral CN VII (temporal br.
via orbicularis oculi)
72) Which cranial nerve is responsible for the afferent limb of the lacrimation reflex? CN V1
73) Which cranial nerve is responsible for the efferent limb of the lacrimation reflex? CN VII
74) Does loss of the lacrimation reflex prevent formation of emotional tears? No
75) Which two reflexes are mediated by CN V1 and VII (afferent and efferent respectively)? Lacrimation and corneal
76) Which cranial nerve is responsible for the afferent limb of the jaw jerk reflex? CN V3 (sensory muscle spindle from
masseter)
77) Which cranial nerve is responsible for the efferent limb of the jaw jerk reflex? CN V3 (motor from masseter)
78) Which reflex is mediated by CN V3 (afferent and efferent)? Jaw jerk reflex
79) Which reflex is mediated by CN II and III (afferent and efferent respectively)? Pupillary light reflex
80) Which cranial nerve is responsible for the afferent limb of the gag reflex? CN IX
81) Which cranial nerve is responsible for the efferent limb of the gag reflex? CN X
82) The cavernous sinus is a collection of venous sinuses on either side of the pituitary
83) The cavernous sinus drains blood from the eye and superficial cortex
84) The cavernous sinus drains into the internal jugular vein
85) What nerve(s) are found on the lateral walls of the cavernous sinus? CN III IV V1 V2
86) What nerve(s) are found medially within the cavernous sinus? CN VI
87) In addition to CNs the cavernous sinus also contains portions of the internal carotid artery and hypothalamospinal tract
fibers en route to the orbit
88) Cavernous sinus syndrome may present with variable ophthalmoplegia due to compression of various CNs
89) Cavernous sinus syndrome may present with decreased corneal and/or maxillary sensation
90) Cavernous sinus syndrome may present with Horner syndrome due to disruption of sympathetic fibers in the carotid plexus
91) Cavernous sinus syndrome may be seen secondary to pituitary tumor mass effect
92) Cavernous sinus syndrome may arise due to a carotid-cavernous fistula
93) Cavernous sinus syndrome may arise with cavernous sinus thrombosis related to infection
94) Which cranial nerve is most susceptible to injury to the cavernous sinus? CN VI (abducens)
95) Papez circuit describes the neural circuit for emotional expression and includes the hippocampus mammillary bodies
anterior thalamic nuclei cingulate gyrus and entorhinal cortex
96) Hypothalamic secretion of GnRH is mediated by the preoptic nucleus and arcuate nucleus
97) Idiopathic intracranial hypertension is also known as pseudotumor cerebri
98) Idiopathic intracranial hypertension is characterized by increased ICP with no apparent cause on imaging (e.g. no
hydrocephalus obstruction of CSF outflow)
99) What demographic is classically affected by Idiopathic intracranial hypertension? Obese females
100) Idiopathic intracranial hypertension is associated with vitamin A excess
101) Idiopathic intracranial hypertension can be associated with use of certain drugs such as tetracyclines and danazol
102) Idiopathic intracranial hypertension may present with symptoms of daily headache as well as transient visual changes that
are exacerbated by valsalva
103) Is idiopathic intracranial hypertension associated with a change in mental status? No
104) Idiopathic intracranial hypertension may present with bilateral symmetric papilledema on fundoscopy
105) Lumbar puncture in patients with idiopathic intracranial hypertension reveals increased opening pressure and provides
headache relief
106) Conservative treatment of idiopathic intracranial hypertension includes weight loss
107) Pharmacologic treatment of Idiopathic intracranial hypertension often involves acetazolamide or topiramate
108) One treatment for refractory idiopathic intracranial hypertension is repeated lumbar puncture
109) One treatment for refractory Idiopathic intracranial hypertension is ventriculoperitoneal (VP) shunt placement to reroute
CSF from the ventricles
110) One treatment for refractory idiopathic intracranial hypertension is optic nerve sheath fenestration surgery
111) What is a worrisome sequelae of idiopathic intracranial hypertension if left untreated? Vision loss
112) Which intracranial hemorrhage commonly presents in premature infants and low birth weight infants within the first 72
hours of life? Intraventricular hemorrhage
113) Partial (focal) seizures affect a single area of the brain
114) Partial seizures most commonly originate in the medial temporal lobe
115) Focal with impairment of awareness* seizures are often preceded by a seizure aura
116) Focal with no impairment of awareness seizures are characterized by intact::intact or impaired consciousness
117) Focal with impairment of awareness* seizures are characterized by impaired consciousness (intact or impaired)
118) Generalized seizures are diffuse and affect the entire brain
119) Which type of generalized seizure is characterized by a blank stare? Absence seizures
120) Absence seizures are characterized by impaired consciousness with no postictal confusion
121) Absence seizures are also known as petit mal seizures
122) Absence seizures are characterized by 3 Hz spike-and-wave discharges on EEG
123) Myoclonic seizures are characterized by quick single or repetitive muscle jerks
124) Tonic-clonic seizures are characterized by alternating stiffening and movement
125) Tonic-clonic seizures are also known as grand mal seizures
126) Tonic seizures are characterized by stiffening
127) Atonic seizures are characterized by sudden loss of muscle tone, thus known as "drop" seizures
128) Atonic seizures are commonly mistaken for fainting
129) Epilepsy is a disorder of recurrent seizures (non-febrile)
130) Status epilepticus is seizure activity for > 5 - 30 minutes (continuous or intermittent) without fully regaining consciousness
between episodes resulting in brain injury and possibly death
131) The most common cause of seizure in children is typically genetic
132) The most common cause of seizure in adults is typically tumor
133) The most common cause of seizure in the elderly is typically stroke
134) Cluster headaches are uni-lateral
135) Cluster headaches generally last from 15 minutes to 3 hours
136) Cluster headaches are more common in males::gender
137) Cluster headaches are characterized by repetitive brief headaches that occur seasonally
138) Cluster headaches are associated with excruciating periorbital::location pain
139) Cluster headaches may be associated with lacrimation and rhinorrhea
140) Cluster headaches may present with Horner syndrome
141) Tension headaches are bi-lateral
142) Tension headaches generally last from 4 to 6 hours
143) Tension headaches are more common in females::gender
144) Do tension headaches cause throbbing or constant pain? Constant/steady pain
145) Are tension headaches associated with photo- and/or phonophobia? No
146) Are tension headaches associated with auras? No
147) Migraines are uni-lateral
148) Migraines generally last from 4 to 72 hours
149) Migraines are more common in females::gender
150) Do migraines cause throbbing or constant pain? Throbbing pain
151) Are migraines associated with photo- and phonophobia? Yes
152) Are migraines associated with auras? Yes (~20%)
153) Migraines typically present as a pulsating pain with nausea photophobia or phonophobia
154) Are headaches caused by irritation of dura cranial nerves and extracranial structures? Yes
155) Are headaches caused by irritation of the brain parenchyma? No
156) The pathophysiology of headaches is related to release of vasoactive peptides substance P and calcitonin gene-related
peptide (CGRP)
157) Sleep is divided into two stages REM and non-REM
158) What EEG waveform is emitted when awake with eyes open? Beta (highest frequency lowest amplitude)
159) What sleep EEG waveform has the highest frequency and lowest amplitude? Beta
160) What EEG waveform is emitted when awake with eyes closed? Alpha
161) Stage N1 of non-REM sleep is described as light sleep
162) What EEG waveform is emitted during light sleep (N1)? Theta
163) Stage N2 of non-REM sleep is described as deeper sleep
164) What EEG waveforms are emitted during deeper sleep (N2)? Sleep spindles and K complexes::2
165) Which stage of sleep does bruxism (teeth grinding) occur? Stage N2
166) Stage N3 of non-REM sleep is described as the deepest non-REM sleep ("slow-wave" sleep)
167) What EEG waveform is emitted during deep "slow wave" sleep (N3)? Delta
168) What sleep EEG waveform has the lowest frequency and highest amplitude? Delta
169) Which stage of sleep do sleepwalking and night terrors occur? Stage N3
170) Which stage of sleep does bedwetting occur? Stage N3
171) Which stage of sleep do young adults spend the most time in? Stage N2 (45%)
172) Which stage of sleep do young adults spend the least time in? Stage N1 (5%)
173) Which stage of sleep is associated with loss of motor tone? REM sleep
174) REM sleep is characterized by increased brain O2 use and variable pulse and blood pressure
175) REM sleep may play a role in memory processing
176) What neurotransmitter is increased during REM sleep? Acetylcholine (thus increased vagal tone)
177) Which stage of sleep do dreams and nightmares occur? REM sleep
178) Which stage of sleep do penile and clitoral tumescence occur? REM sleep
179) Extraocular movements during REM sleep are due to activity of the paramedian pontine reticular formation (PPRF)
180) On average REM sleep occurs every 90 minutes with increasing duration through the night
181) Depression is associated with increased total REM sleep
182) Depression is associated with decreased REM latency
183) Sleep in the elderly is associated with decreased REM sleep
184) Sleep in the elderly is associated with increased REM latency
185) Both the elderly and depressed experience decreased slow wave sleep (stage N3)
186) Both the elderly and depressed experience increased early awakenings (terminal insomnia)
187) What demographic is associated with decreased REM sleep and increased REM latency? Elderly patients
188) What demographic is associated with increased REM sleep and decreased REM latency? Patients with depression
189) What is the effect of benzodiazepines and barbiturates on REM and slow-wave sleep (N3)? Decreased REM and slow-wave
sleep
190) What is the effect of alcohol on REM and slow-wave sleep (N3)? Decreased REM and slow-wave sleep
191) What is the effect of norepinephrine on REM sleep? Decreased REM sleep
192) Pharmacologic treatment of night enuresis may include desmopressin (preferred) or imipramine
193) What is the first-line treatment for bedwetting in children? Motivational therapy (e.g. star chart)
194) Benzodiazepines are useful for treating night terrors and sleepwalking by decreasing N3 and REM sleep
195) Primitive reflexes normally disappear within the 1st year of life
196) Primitive reflexes are inhibited by a mature/developing frontal lobe
197) Primitive reflexes may re-emerge in adults following frontal lobe lesions due to loss of inhibition
198) What primitive reflex is described as a "hang on for life" reflex? Moro reflex
199) What primitive reflex is characterized by nipple seeking (movement of head toward one side if cheek or mouth is stroked)?
Rooting reflex
200) What primitive reflex is characterized by sucking when the roof of the mouth is touched? Sucking reflex
201) What primitive reflex is characterized by curling of fingers when the palm is stroked? Palmar reflex
202) What primitive reflex is characterized by large toe dorsiflexion and fanning of other toes with plantar stimulation? Plantar
reflex
203) Do the toes of an infant dorsiflex or plantar flex in response to plantar stimulation? Dorsiflex (upward)
204) Do the toes of a healthy adult dorsiflex or plantar flex in response to plantar stimulation? Plantar flex (downward)
205) Which primitive reflex is characterized by lateral flexion of the lower body toward the stimulated side upon stroking along
one side of the spine while newborn is facedown? Galant reflex
206) What dermatome is found at the posterior half of the skull? C2
207) What dermatome is found at the high turtleneck shirt level? C3
208) What dermatome is found at the low-collar shirt level? C4
209) What dermatome includes the thumbs? C6
210) What dermatome is found at the nipple? T4
211) What dermatome is found at the xiphoid process? T7
212) What dermatome is found at the umbilicus? T10
213) What dermatome is found at the inguinal ligament? L1
214) What dermatome includes the kneecaps? L4
215) What dermatomes are responsible for erections and sensation of the penile/anal zones? S2 S3 S4
216) Which dermatome is important for early appendicitis pain referral? T10 (Umbilicus)
217) Inflammation of the diaphragmatic pleura gallbladder pericardium and mediastinal pleura refer pain to the right shoulder
via the phrenic nerve (C3-C5)
218) Which movement disorder presents as subjective restlessness and an intense urge to move? Akathisia
219) Which movement disorder presents as "flapping" motion upon extension of the wrists? Asterixis
220) Asterixis is associated with hepatic encephalopathy Wilson disease and other metabolic derangements
221) Which movement disorder presents as sustained involuntary muscle contractions? Dystonia
222) Blepharospasm is a form of dystonia that involves involuntary contraction of the eyelids
223) Torticollis (cervical dystonia) is a form of dystonia that involves involuntary contracture of the neck
224) Which movement disorder presents as a high-frequency tremor with sustained posture (e.g. outstetched arms)? Essential
tremor
225) Essential tremor is worsened::relieved or worsened with movement or when anxious
226) Which type of tremor is often familial? Essential tremor
227) Patients with essential tremor often self-medicate with alcohol which decreases tremor amplitude
228) What is first-line treatment for essential tremor? Non-selective β-blockers (e.g. propranolol)
229) In addition to β-blockers essential tremor may also be treated with primidone (a barbiturate)
230) Which type of free nerve ending (C or Aδ) is slow and unmyelinated? C
231) Which type of free nerve ending (C or Aδ) is fast and myelinated? Aδ
232) Which type of sensory receptor senses pain and temperature? Free nerve endings (e.g. C Aδ)
233) Which type of sensory receptor is located on all skin epidermis and some viscera? Free nerve endings
234) Meissner corpuscles are large myelinated::myelination fibers
235) Meissner corpuscles adapt quickly
236) Which type of sensory receptor is found on hairless (glabrous) skin? Meissner corpuscles
237) Which type of sensory receptor senses dynamic light touch and position sense? Meissner corpuscles
238) Pacinian corpuscles are large myelinated::myelination fibers
239) Pacinian corpuscles adapt quickly
240) Which type of sensory receptor is found on deep skin layers ligaments and joints? Pacinian corpuscles
241) Which type of sensory receptor senses vibration and pressure? Pacinian corpuscles
242) Which type of sensory receptor is "onion shaped"? Pacinian corpuscles
243) Merkel discs are large myelinated::myelination fibers
244) Merkel discs adapt slowly
245) Which type of sensory receptor is found on finger tips and superficial skin? Merkel discs
246) Which type of sensory receptor senses pressure deep static touch and position sense? Merkel discs
247) Which type of sensory receptor is characterized as a dendritic ending with a capsule? Ruffini corpuscle
248) Ruffini corpuscles adapt slowly
249) Which type of sensory receptor is found on finger tips and joints? Ruffini corpuscles
250) Which type of sensory receptor senses pressure slippage of objects along skin and joint angle change? Ruffini corpuscles
251) Which types of sensory receptor adapt slowly? Ruffini corpuscles and Merkel discs
252) Which types of sensory receptor adapt quickly? Pacinian corpuscles and Meissner corpuscles
253) Which type of sensory receptor (slowly or quickly adapting) sends a continous signal? Slowly adapting
254) Which type of sensory receptor (slowly or quickly adapting) sends a signal at the beginning and end of a stimulus? Quickly
adapting
255) The epineurium of a peripheral nerve is made of dense connective tissue that surrounds the entire nerve
256) The perineurium of a peripheral nerve surrounds a fascicle of nerve fibers
257) The endoneurium of a peripheral nerve invests single never fiber layers
258) Which peripheral nerve layer must be rejoined in microsurgery for limb attachment? Epineurium
259) Which peripheral nerve layer serves as the blood-nerve permeability barrier? Perineurium
260) Which peripheral nerve layer contains inflammatory infiltrate in Guillain-Barre syndrome? Endoneurium
261) Changes associated with chromatolysis reflect increased protein synthesis in effort to repair the damaged axon
262) Chromatolysis is characterized by displacement of the nucleus to the periphery
263) Chromatolysis is characterized by dispersion of Nissl substance throughout the cytoplasm
264) Chromatolysis is concurrent with Wallerian degeneration
265) What is the embryonic origin of dura mater? Mesoderm
266) What is the embryonic origin of arachnoid mater? Neural crest
267) What is the embryonic origin of pia mater? Neural crest
268) Which space in the meninges contains CSF? Subarachnoid space
269) Which space in the meninges is a potential space between the dura mater and skull containing fat and blood vessels?
Epidural space
270) Cerebral perfusion is primarily driven by changes in PCO2
271) PO2 increases cerebral perfusion pressure only when < 50 mmHg
272) Cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP) is equal to the difference between MAP and ICP
273) Cerebral perfusion pressure is decreased with decreased MAP
274) Cerebral perfusion pressure is decreased with increased ICP
275) Therapeutic hyper-ventilation may be used to treat acute cerebral edema unresponsive to other interventions
276) Venous sinus thrombosis presents with signs/symptoms of increased ICP (e.g. headache seizures focal neurologic deficits)
277) Dural venous sinus thrombosis is associated with hypercoagulable states
278) Vertebral disc herniation is characterized by herniation of the nucleus pulposus through the annulus fibrosus
279) Vertebral disc herniation usually occurs posterolaterally::direction at the level of L4-L5 or L5-S1
280) Vertebral disc herniation typically affects the nerve below the level of herniation
281) Compression of the S1 nerve (e.g. vertebral disc herniation) results in an absent ankle reflex
282) MPTP a contaminant in illicit drugs is metabolized to MPP+ which causes Parkinsonian symptoms
283) Which area of the brain is particularly sensitive to damage in Alzheimer disease? Hippocampus
284) Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease is associated with increased 14-3-3 protein in CSF
285) Multiple sclerosis is associated with a sensation of an electric shock running down the spine upon neck flexion (Lhermitte
phenomenon)
286) Acute inflammatory demyelinating polyradiculopathy is the most common subtype of Guillain-Barre syndrome
287) Guillian-Barre syndrome is an autoimmune condition that destroys Schwann cells
288) Guillain-Barre syndrome results in symmetric ascending::(ascending or descending) muscle weakness/paralysis
289) Guillain-Barre syndrome is associated with decreased DTRs beginning in the lower extremities
290) Cranial nerve involvement in Guillain-Barre syndrome commonly results in facial paralysis (50% of cases)
291) Guillain-Barre syndrome may be associated with cardiopulmonary irregularities and fluctuations in blood pressure
(autonomic dysfunction)
292) Is Guillain-Barre syndrome typically fatal? No (almost all patients survive)
293) Guillain-Barre syndrome is associated with increased CSF protein and normal cell count which may cause papilledema
294) The bugs that are associated with Guillain-Barre Syndrome are ICE MyCZ: Influenzavirus CMV EBV Mycoplasma
Pneumoniae Campylobacter Zika
295) Guillain-Barre syndrome can arise due to the immunologic phenomenon known as molecular mimicry
296) In addition to post-viral/bacterial infection Guillain-Barre syndrome also may arise due to vaccination or stress
297) Respiratory support is critical until recovery for patients with Guillain-Barre syndrome
298) In addition to respiratory support Guillain-Barre syndrome may be treated with plasmapheresis and IV immunoglobulins
299) Are steroids useful in the management of Guillain-Barre syndrome? No
300) Acute disseminated (postinfectious) encephalomyelitis is a multifocal inflammation and demyelination of the CNS after
infection or vaccination
301) Acute disseminated (postinfectious) encephalomyelitis presents with rapidly progressive multifocal neurologic symptoms
and altered mental status
302) Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease is also known as hereditary motor and sensory neuropathy (HMSN)
303) What is typically the mode of inheritance of Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease? Autosomal dominant
304) What structural foot abnormalities are associated with Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease? Pes cavus and hammer toes
305) Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease may present with lower extremity weakness (e.g. foot drop) and sensory deficits
306) Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease is a group of nerve disorders caused by defective production of proteins involved in the
structure and function of peripheral nerves or myelin sheath
307) Sturge-Weber syndrome is a developmental anomaly of neural crest derivatives due to somatic mosaicism
308) Is Sturge-Weber syndrome inherited or sporadic? Sporadic (somatic mosaicism)
309) Sturge-Weber syndrome is caused by an activating mutation in one copy of the GNAQ gene
310) Sturge-Weber syndrome is a neurocutaneous disorder associated with a port-wine stain of the face (nevus flammeus)
311) Sturge-Weber syndrome affects small capillary-sized blood vessels
312) The port wine stain in Sturge-Weber syndrome classically arises in a CN V1/V2 distribution
313) Sturge-Weber syndrome is a neurocutaneous disorder associated with ipsilateral leptomeningeal angiomas which may cause
seizures or epilepsy
314) Sturge-Weber syndrome is a neurocutaneous disorder associated with episcleral hemangiomas which may cause increased
IOP and early-onset glaucoma
315) The characteristics of Sturge-Weber syndrome may be remembered with the mnemonic "STURGE": S: Sporadic, port-wine
Stain T: Tram track calcifications (opposing gyri) U: Unilateral R: Retardation (intellectual disability) G: Glaucoma,
GNAQ gene E: Epilepsy
316) Sturge-Weber syndrome is also known as encephalotrigeminal angiomatosis
317) Which neurocutaneous disorder is associated with somatic mosaicism? Sturge-Weber syndrome
318) Is tuberous sclerosis inherited or sporadic? Inherited
319) What is the mode of inheritance of tuberous sclerosis? Autosomal dominant
320) Tuberous sclerosis is associated with mutations in the TSC1 or TSC2 genes
321) The TSC1 gene encodes for hamartin and is located on chromosome 9 (mutated in tuberous sclerosis)
322) The TSC2 gene encodes for tuberin and is located on chromosome 16 (mutated in tuberous sclerosis)
323) What genetic phenomenon is associated with tuberous sclerosis? Variable expressivity
324) The characteristics of tuberous sclerosis may be remembered with the mnemonic "HAMARTOMAS": H: Hamartomas in
CNS and skin A: Angiofibromas (adenoma sebaceum) M: Mitral regurgitation A: Ash-leaf spots (hypopigmented macule)
 R: cardiac Rhabdomyoma T: Tuberous sclerosis O: autosomal dOminant M: Mental retardation (intellectual disability) A:
renal Angiomyolipoma S: Seizures, Shagreen patches
325) What feature of tuberous sclerosis is seen in the image below? Angiofibromas (adenoma sebaceum) paste-
242605522682067.jpg
326) What feature of tuberous sclerosis is seen in the image below? Ash-leaf spots (hypopigmented macule) paste-
242622702551252.jpg
327) What feature of tuberous sclerosis is seen in the image below? Shagreen patches (patches of localized leathery thickenings)
paste-242197500788957.jpg
328) Tuberous sclerosis is a neurocutaneous disorder associated with ungual fibromas which are flesh-colored lumps emerging
from nail folds
329) What astrocyte-derived CNS tumor is associated with tuberous sclerosis? Subependymal giant cell astrocytomas
330) Neurofibromatosis type I is associated with mutations in the NF1 tumor suppressor gene on chromosome 17
331) The NF1 tumor suppressor gene normally codes for neurofibromin a negative regulator of RAS
332) What is the mode of inheritance of neurofibromatosis I and II? Autosomal dominant
333) What is the penetrance of neurofibromatosis I? 100%
334) What cutaneous findings are associated with neurofibromatosis I? Cafe-au-lait spots and cutaneous neurofibromas
335) Neurofibromatosis I is associated with optic glioma and Lisch nodules (pigmented iris hamartomas)::eye findings
336) What endocrine disorder is associated with neurofibromatosis I? Pheochromocytoma
337) Which neurocutaneous disorder is associated with cafe-au-lait spots cutaneous neurofibromas and Lisch nodules?
Neurofibromatosis I
338) Neurofibromatosis type I is also known as von Recklinghausen disease
339) Neurofibromatosis type II is associated with mutations in the NF2 tumor suppressor gene on chromosome 22
340) Neurofibromatosis II is a neurocutaneous disorder associated with bilateral acoustic schwannomas::ear findings
341) Neurofibromatosis II is associated with juvenile cataracts
342) What CNS tumors are associated with neurofibromatosis II? Meningioma and ependymoma
343) Von Hippel-Lindau disease is due to a deletion of the VHL gene on chromosome 3p leading unregulated activity of HIF1a
344) What is the mode of inheritance of von Hippel-Lindau disease? Autosomal dominant
345) The characteristics of von Hippel-Lindau disease may be remembered with the mnemonic "HARP": H:
Hemangioblastomas in retina, brain stem, cerebellum, spine::4 locations A: Angiomatosis (e.g. cavernous hemangiomas in
skin, mucosa, organs) R: bilateral Renal cell carcinoma P: Pheochromocytoma
346) Which feature of von Hippel-Lindau disease is seen in the image below? Hemangioblastoma (high vascularity with
hyperchromatic nuclei) paste-243507465814233.jpg
347) What part of the brain is most often affected by hemangioblastoma? Cerebellum
348) What hormone may be produced by hemangioblastomas? Erythropoietin
349) What CNS tumor is seen in the histology slide below? Hemangioblastoma (closely arranged thin-walled capillaries with
minimal intervening parenchyma) paste-243778048754054.jpg
350) Functional pituitary adenoma is most commonly from adenoma of lactotrophs (prolactinoma)
351) Functional pituitary adenoma is less commonly from adenoma of somatotrophs (GH) and corticotrophs (ACTH)
352) Functional pituitary adenoma is rarely from adenoma of thyrotrophs (TSH) and gonadotrophs (FSH LH)
353) What visual deficit is associated with pituitary adenoma? Bitemporal hemianopsia
354) Sequelae of pituitary adenoma include hyper- and hypopituitarism which may be caused by pituitary apoplexy
355) Pituitary adenoma is characterized by hyperplasia of only one::one or multiple type(s) of endocrine cell
356) Pinealoma is a tumor of the pineal gland
357) Pinealoma may cause obstructive hydrocephalus due to compression of the cerebral aqueduct
358) Pinealoma::CNS tumor may cause precocious puberty in males due to β-hCG production
359) Pinealoma is a CNS tumor that is similar to germ cell tumors (e.g. testicular seminoma)
360) Cauda equina syndrome is a spinal cord lesion due to compression of spinal roots from L2 and below
361) Cauda equina syndrome may be associated with "saddle (S3-S5) anesthesia"
362) Cauda equina syndrome is commonly associated with uni-lateral symptoms (uni- or bilateral)
363) Cauda equina syndrome may present with absent knee and ankle reflexes
364) Cauda equina syndrome is treated with emergent surgery and steroids
365) ID Eye Structure: Physiologic cup paste-276441275040128.jpg
366) ID Eye Structure: Optic disc paste-276462749876607.jpg
367) ID Eye Structure: Macula paste-276497109614971.jpg
368) ID Eye Structure: Fovea paste-276535764320637.jpg
369) ID Eye Structure: Retinal artery paste-276570124059006.jpg
370) ID Eye Structure: Retinal vein paste-276608778764668.jpg
371) Conjunctivitis is inflammation of the conjunctiva resulting in a red eye
372) Allergic conjunctivitis is characterized by bilateral itchy eyes
373) Bacterial conjunctivitis is characterized by pus
374) Viral conjunctivitis is characterized by sparse mucous discharge and a swollen preauricular node
375) Viral conjunctivitis is the most common type of conjunctivitis
376) What virus commonly causes conjunctivitis? Adenovirus
377) Hyperopia is a refractive error that is also known as "far-sightedness"
378) In hyperopia (farsightedness) light is focused behind the retina
379) Hyperopia is corrected with biconvex (converging) lenses
380) Myopia is a refractive error that is also known as "near-sightedness"
381) In myopia (nearsightedness) light is focused in front of the retina
382) Myopia is corrected with biconcave (diverging) lenses
383) Astigmatism is a refractive error caused by uneven/irregular curvature of the cornea
384) Astigmatism is corrected with cylindrical lenses
385) Presbyopia is aging-related impaired accommodation
386) Presbyopia is primarily due to decreased lens elasticity changes in lens curvature and decreased strength of ciliary muscle
387) Patients with presbyopia often need "reading glasses" (magnifiers)
388) Cataracts are painless often bilateral opacifications of the lens
389) One risk factor for cataracts is increased age
390) Modifiable risk factors for cataracts include smoking and excessive alcohol use
391) What drug class is associated with cataracts with prolonged use? Corticosteroids
392) One risk factor for cataracts is excessive sunlight
393) What endocrine pathology is associated with cataracts? Diabetes mellitus
394) Congenital risk factors for cataracts include disorders of galactose metabolism
395) Glaucoma is characterized by optic disc atrophy with characteristic cupping
396) Glaucoma is associated with elevated intraocular pressure
397) Glaucoma is associated with progressive peripheral visual field loss if untreated
398) Open-angle glaucoma is associated with increased age
399) Open-angle glaucoma is associated with African-American race and family history
400) Open-angle glaucoma is painless::painful or painless
401) Which form of glaucoma (open- or close-angle) is more common in the U.S.? Open-angle
402) Secondary open-angle glaucoma is due to obstruction of the trabecular meshwork (e.g. by WBCs RBCs retinal elements)
403) Primary closed-angle glaucoma is due to enlargement or forward movement of the lens against the iris
404) Closed-angle glaucoma is caused by obstruction of normal aqueous flow through the pupil
405) Secondary closed-angle glaucoma is caused by hypoxia from retinal disease which induces vasoproliferation in the iris that
contracts the angle (e.g. diabetes melliutus vein occlusion)
406) Chronic closed-angle glaucoma is often asymptomatic with damage to the optic nerve and peripheral vision
407) Acute closed-angle glaucoma is a true ophthalmic emergency
408) Acute closed-angle glaucoma results in a painful::painful or painless red eye that is fixed and mid-dilated
409) Acute closed-angle glaucoma is characterized by sudden vision loss with halos around lights
410) Closed-angle glaucoma is characterized by frontal headache and a fixed mid-dilated pupil
411) What catecholamine is contraindicated in closed-angle glaucoma? Epinephrine (mydriatic effect worsens the glaucoma)
412) Uveitis is inflammation of the uvea
413) Anterior uveitis is also known as iritis
414) Posterior uveitis includes choroiditis and/or retinitis
415) Uveitis may present with conjunctival redness and hypopyon which is the accumulation of pus in the anterior chamber
416) Uveitis is associated with systemic inflammatory disorders (e.g. sarcoidosis rheumatoid arthritis juvenile idiopathic arthritis
HLA-B27 disorders)
417) Uveitis is associated with HLA-B27 disorders
418) Age-related macular degeneration is characterized by degeneration of the macula
419) Age-related macular degeneration causes distortion (metamorphopsia) and eventual loss of central vision
420) Which type of macular degeneration (dry or wet) is more common (>80%)? Dry (nonexudative)
421) Dry macular degeneration is characterized by drusen which is deposition of yellowish extracellular material in between
Bruch's membrane and the retinal pigment epithelium
422) Dry macular degeneration is treated with multivitamin and antioxidant supplements; also smoking cessation if applicable
423) Dry (nonexudative) macular degeneration is associated with gradual::speed decrease in vision
424) Wet (exudative) macular degeneration is associated with rapid::speed decrease in vision
425) Wet macular degeneration is due to bleeding secondary to choroidal neovascularization
426) Wet macular degeneration is treated with smoking cessation (if applicable) and anti-VEGF injections
427) Diabetic retinopathy is retinal damage due to chronic hyperglycemia
428) Non-proliferative diabetic retinopathy is characterized by leakage of blood from damaged capillaries resulting in
hemorrhages and macular edema
429) What is the treatment for non-proliferative diabetic retinopathy? Blood sugar control
430) Proliferative diabetic retinopathy results in new blood vessel formation with resultant traction on the retina
431) Proliferative diabetic retinopathy is treated with peripheral retinal photocoagulation surgery and/or anti-VEGF therapy
432) Retinal vein occlusion is caused by blockage of a central or branch retinal vein due to compression from nearby arterial
atherosclerosis
433) Retinal vein occlusion is characterized by retinal hemorrhage and venous engorgement with edema in the affected area
434) Retinal detachment is due to separation of the neurosensory layer of the retina (rods cones) from the outer pigment
epithelium layer
435) Retinal detachment may be secondary to retinal breaks diabetic traction and inflammatory effusions
436) Retinal detachment is visualized on fundoscopy as crinkling retinal tissue and changes in vessel direction
437) Retinal detachment is more common in patients with high myopia and/or history of head trauma
438) Retinal detachment is often preceded by posterior vitreous detachment, which presents with "flashes" and "floaters"
439) Retinal detachment eventually results in monocular loss of vision like a "curtain drawn down"
440) What is the treatment for retinal detachment? Surgery (emergency)
441) Central retinal artery occlusion is characterized by acute painless::painful or painless monocular vision loss
442) Central retinal artery occlusion is characterized by a pale retina with a "cherry red" spot at the fovea
443) Patients with central retinal artery occlusion should be evaluated for an embolic source (e.g. carotid artery atherosclerosis
cardiac vegetation patent foramen ovale)
444) Retinoblastoma is an eye cancer associated with a white reflex rather than the normal red reflex
445) Retinitis pigmentosa is an inherited retinal degeneration (acquired or inherited)
446) Retinitis pigmentosa is a painless progressive vision loss beginning with night blindness
447) Retinitis pigmentosa is characterized by bone spicule-shaped deposits around the macula paste-270462680563928.jpg
448) Retinitis is characterized by retinal edema and necrosis leading to scar formation
449) What class of microorganism is often the cause of retinitis? Viruses (e.g. CMV HSV VZV)
450) Papilledema presents with transient vision loss associated with changes in head position and is secondary to increased
intracranial pressure
451) On Fundoscopy Papilledema is characterized by optic disc swelling / elevation with blurred margins (usually bilateral)
452) Contralateral homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing is a visual deficit associated with posterior cerebral artery
infarct
453) Contralateral homonymous hemianopia is a visual deficit associated most commonly with an optic tract or with a(n) lateral
geniculate body lesion
454) Contralateral homonymous inferior quadrantanopia is a visual deficit associated with lesion of the parietal lobe (e.g. MCA
infarct)
455) Contralateral homonymous superior quadrantanopia is a visual deficit associated with lesion of the temporal lobe (e.g.
MCA infarct)
456) Cholesteatoma is an overgrowth of desquamated keratin debris within the middle ear space
457) Cholesteatoma may eventually lead to erosion of the ossicles and mastoid air cells resulting in conductive::sensorineural or
conductive hearing loss
458) Vertigo is a sensation of spinning while actually stationary
459) Which type of vertigo is more common? Peripheral::peripheral or central
460) Peripheral vertigo is most commonly due to benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV) which is tested with the Dix-
Hallpike maneuver
461) Peripheral vertigo may be caused by vestibular nerve infection
462) Meniere disease is a triad of recurrent vertigo ear fullness / pain and unilateral hearing loss & tinnitus
463) Peripheral vertigo is caused by inner ear etiology (e.g. Meniere disease BPPV vestibular nerve infection semicircular canal
debris)
464) Peripheral vertigo is characterized by delayed nystagmus in the horizontal direction with positional testing
465) Central vertigo is caused by a brain stem or cerebellar lesion (e.g. stroke affecting vestibular nuclei or posterior fossa
tumor)
466) Central vertigo is characterized by immediate nystagmus in any direction with positional testing
467) Hypertensive retinopathy revolves around retinal damage due to chronic uncontrolled hypertension
468) Patients with hypertensive retinopathy will present on fundoscopy with flame-shaped retinal hemorrhages arteriovenous
nicking microaneurysms macular star and cotton-wool spots
469) In a patient with Hypertensive Retinopathy the presence of papilledema requires immediate lowering of blood pressure
470) What stage of sleep has a sleep EEG waveform with a low voltage pattern that often appears "saw toothed"? REM sleep
471) Nonbenzodiazepine hypnotics work by decreasing sleep latency
472) Branches of the subclavian artery can be remembered with the mnemonic (VIT CD) V - Vertebral artery I - Internal
thoracic (internal mammary) artery T - Thyrocervical trunk C - Costocervical artery D - Dorsal scapular artery
473) Branches of the external carotid artery can be remembered with the mnemonic (Some Angry Ladies Fight Off PMS) S -
Superior thyroid artery A - Ascending pharyngeal artery L - Lingual artery F - Facial artery O - Occipital artery P -
Posterior auricular artery M - Maxillary artery S - Superficial temporal artery
474) The middle meningeal artery is a branch of the maxillary artery
475) Cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP) is directly proportional to PCO2 until PCO2 is > 90 mmHg
476) In neonatal intraventricular hemorrhage bleeding usually originates from the germinal matrix highly vascularized layer of
the subventricular zone that starts disappearing at 28 weeks gestation
477) Patients with neonatal intraventricular hemorrhage can present with altered level of consciousness bulging fontanelle
hypotension seizures and coma
478) Alexia without Agraphia is a speech deficit associated with posterior cerebral artery infarct
479) Idiopathic intracranial hypertension presents with an enlarged blind spot and peripheral constriction on visual field testing
480) The most common type of Charcot-Marie-Tooth (CMT1A) is a duplication of large region of 17p which results in a
mutation of PMP22
481) The constant cycles of demyelination and remyelination seen in Charcot-marie-tooth result in unique histologic findings,
including an "onion bulb" appearance around nerves that innervate muscles
482) As parkinson disease progresses the therapeutic window for levodopa narrows and response becomes more unpredictable
483) Amaurosis fugax presents with a painless transient monocular vision loss that is caused by a small embolus to the
ophthalamic artery
484) Inhaled anesthetics with higher arteriovenous gradient have a slower onset of action
485) Inhaled anesthetics with lower arteriovenous concentration gradient have a faster onset of action
486) Cauda equina syndrome is commonly due to epidural cord compression from a malignancy
487) Is cervical dystonia typically painful? Yes
488) Cervical dystonia can be treated with local botulinum toxin injections
489) As opposed to acute disseminated encephalomyelitis Guillain Barre develops over the course of days to weeks once
symptoms begin
490) Fractures of the orbital floor can damage the infraorbital nerve
491) The infraorbital nerve is a continuation of the maxillary nerve that runs across the orbital floor
492) Fractures to the orbital floor can cause enopthalmus
493) Fractures to the orbital floor can entrap the inferior rectus muscle impairing vertical gaze
494) Fractures to the orbital floor most commonly result from direct frontal trauma to the orbit due to assault motor vehicle
crashes or sports injuries
495) Meniere disease is thought to be due to defective resorption of endolymph
496) In cognitive testing; providing name location & current date would test the patients orientation
497) In cognitive testing; asking the patient to follow multi-step commands would test their comprehension
498) In cognitive testing; having the patient recite the months of the year backwards would test concentration
499) Neurofibromatosis 1 can present with bony abnormalities; including sphenoid dysplasia scoliosis and congenital
pseudoarthrosis
500) What aging related condition can help improve mild myopia? Presbyopia
501) In cognitive testing; having the patient recall 3 unrelated words after 5 minutes would test short-term memory
502) In cognitive testing; asking the patient to provide details of significant life events tests long term memory
503) In cognitive testing; asking the patient to write a complete sentence with noun-verb agreement tests language skills
504) in cognitive testing; asking the patient to draw intersecting pentagons tests visual-spatial skills
505) In cognitive testing; asking the patient to draw a clock oriented to the time requested tests executive function
506) Febrile seizures are the most common neurological disorder affecting children
507) Are children who experience febrile seizures at a high risk of developing epilepsy? No
508) When treating febrile seizures is supportive care or active cooling primarily indicated? Supportive care
509) In heat stroke the hypothalamic set point is normal
510) Patients develop heat stroke due to heat production exceeding heat dissipation
511) When treating heat stroke is supportive care or active cooling primarily indicated? Active cooling
512) Heat stroke may cause permanent end-organ-damage since above 108*F oxidative phosphorylation ceases
513) Damage to the corpus callosum can result in a lack of interhemispheric communication (ex. patient unable to retrieve with
one hand an object palpated with the other)
514) Absence seizures are characteristically provoked by hyperventilation
515) Temporomandibular disorder (TMD) can arise from problems involving: - temporomandibular joint derangement -
pathologic contraction of muscles of mastication - mandibular nerve hypersensitivity
516) Patients with temporomandibular disorder that involve the mandibular nerve can have both jaw pain and otologic
symptoms
517) In the action potential of axons K+ ion permeance is highest during the repolarization phase of the action potential
518) Cardiothoracic surgery is the most common cause of iatrogenic phrenic nerve injury
519) Cataracts often result in glare and decreased vision especially at night
520) Spinal stenosis occurs most commonly in the lumbar region
521) The symptoms of lumbar spinal stenosis are most commonly elicited when walking
522) The symptoms of lumbar spinal stenosis are exacerbated when the lumbar spine is extended and relieved when the lumbar
spine is flexed
523) Spinal stenosis is most commonly due to osteoarthritis of the spine whereupon the ligamentum flavum hypertrophies and
compresses nerve roots
524) The anterior longitudinal ligament is the spinal ligament most commonly injured in whiplash injuries (ex. car accident /
rugby tackle)
525) On a non-contrast head CT acute bleeding appears as hyperattenuated (bright) lesions
526) Hypertensive encephalopathy is characterized by a progressive headache and nausea / vomiting followed by nonlocalizing
neurologic symptoms
527) The orbital floor is composed of a very thin layer of bone that separates the orbit from the air-filled maxillary sinus
528) The two most common places of fracture in the orbit are the medial wall and the orbital floor
529) Cytotoxic edema is an intracellular edema caused by impaired function of Na/K-ATPase pumps on neuronal cell
membranes
530) Lissencephaly (agyria) is a congenital absence of gyri that is typically accompanied by severe mental retardation and
seizures
531) What form of parkinsonism presents with rapidly progressive gait dysfunction falls executive function loss and vertical
gaze palsy? Progressive supranuclear palsy
532) What rare neural tube defect is characterized by protrusion of the brain and meninges through an abnormal opening in the
skull? Encephalocele
533) Brain arteriovenous malformations are developmental vascular lesions that present with intracranial hemorrhage seizure
headache or focal neurologic deficits
534) What disease presents with reduced sensitivity to pain impaired tear formation and orthostatic hypotension? Familial
dysautonomia
535) Familial dysautonomia can be caused by a mutation at splice sites for the IKAP gene
536) The majority of the external ear receives sensory innervation via nerves derived from what two nerve roots? C2 C3
537) The auriculotemporal nerve supplies sensory innervation in front of the ear
538) The posterior part of the external auditory canal concavity and posterior eminentia of the concha is innervated by the small
auricular branch of the vagus nerve
539) Patients in motor vehicle accidents may suffer from a "hangman's fracture", in which there is a bilateral fracture of the pars
interarticularis
540) Cholesterol granulomas can form in the middle ear after hemorrhage and appear as bluish-black gelatinous material behind
the tympanic membrane
541) What is the most common malignant tumor of the ear canal? Squamous cell carcinoma
542) Mannitol can disrupt the blood-brain barrier which increases the permeability of medications.
543) H1 antagonists are used to treat hyperemesis gravidarum.
544) The stapedius muscle is responsible for volume modulation.
545) The tensor tympani muscle is responsible for dampening of loud noises.
546) Alzheimer disease can present histologically with Hirano bodies which are eosinophilic proteinaceous rods in the
hippocampus.
547) NF1 is associated with bone lesions such as sphenoid dysplasia.
548) Friedreich ataxia is a trinucleotide repeat disorder that can cause degeneration of the lateral corticospinal tract
spinocerebellar tract and dorsal columns and dorsal root ganglia.
549) Friedreich ataxia may present with diabetes::endocrine disorder.
550) Nyctalopia is another name for night blindness which may be the presenting sign in retinitis pigmentosa.
551) Leukocoria (white reflex) may be caused by congenital cataracts and toxocariasis.
552) Lamotrigine is an anti-epileptic that has hemophagocytic lymphohistiocytosis as a black box warning.
553) Echothiophate is a indirect cholinomimetic used to treat glaucoma.
554) a2-agonists are glaucoma drugs that are associated with ocular hyperemia foreign body sensation and ocular pruritis