C A I R O I N S P E C T I O N C O M P A N Y

ALL QUESTIONS ARE CLOSED BOOK

1. The purpose of the WPS and PQR is to determine that :

A. the welder is qualified
B. the base metals are strong enough
C. the weldment has the desired properties
D. the skill of the welder

2. The WPS lists :

A. nonessential variables.
B. Essential variables
C. Ranges of 1 & 2 above
D. All of the above

3. The PQR must list :

A. essential variables
B. qualification test & examination results
C. supplementary essential variables ( when notch toughness is required )
D. A&C Together

4. What is the earliest Edition of Section IX recognized by the current edition ?

A. 1958
B. 1992
C. 1987
D. 1962

5. New Welding Procedure Specifications must meet the _________ Edition and Addenda of Section
IX.
A. 1962
B. current
C. 1986
D. 1995

6. Each _____________________________ shall conduct the tests required by Section IX to qualify

the WPS’s used during the construction, alteration, or repair.
A. Welder or welding operator
B. Manufacturer or contractor
C. Inspector
D. All of the above

7. The records of procedure, welder and welding operator qualification must be available to the
__________ .
A. Manufacturer
B. Welder

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C. Authorised Inspector
D. Foreman
8. A welder qualifying with a groove weld in plate in the 4G position is qualified to weld groove
welds in plate and pipe over 24”O.D. in at least the ________ positions.
A. Vertical
B. Flat & horizontal
C. Flat & overhead
D. Horizontal

9. A welder qualifying with plate fillet welds in the 3F and 4f positions is qualified to weld groove
welds in plate in the _____________ positions.

A. Flat only
B. Flat and horizontal
C. Flat and vertical
D. None of the above

10. A welder qualifying by making a groove weld on pipe with an O.D. of ¾” in the 5G position is
qualified to weld groove welds in :
A. ½” O.D. Pipe in the overhead position
B. 6” O.D. Pipe in the vertical position
C. ¾” O.D. pipe in the horizontal position
D. None of the above

11. In general, qualification on groove welds also qualifies a welder to make :

A. Stud welds
B. Overhand welds
C. Fillet welds
D. All of the above

12. Charpy V-notch tests are performed to determine a weldment’s

A. Tensile strength
B. Ductility
C. Notch toughness
D. All of above

13. A welder making a groove weld using the SAW process on P1 materials may be qualified using
radiography.
A. True
B. False

14. When a tensile specimen breaks in the base metal outside of the weld or fusion line, the strength
recorded may be at most ____ below the specified tensile and be accepted.
A. 3.5%
B. 0.5%

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C. 5%
D. All of the above
15. Guided-bend specimens shall have no open defects in the weld or heat effected zone exceeding
__________ measured in any direction on the convex surface of the specimen after bending.
A. 1/16”
B. 3/32”
C. 1/8”
D. None of the above

16. When using radiographs to qualify welder, the acceptance standards used are found in
A. ASME Section V
B. ASME Section IX
C. ASME Section VII
D. The referencing code

17. A WPS must describe :

A. Essential variables
B. Nonessential variables
C. Supplementary essential variable when required for notch toughness
D. All of the above

18. A PQR must describe

A. Nonessential variables
B. Essential variables
C. Results of Welder Qualification tests
D. Project description & NDE methods

19. The _______ must certify the PQR as accurate.

A. Inspector
B. Manufacturer or contractor
C. Welder
D. All of the above

20. For the SMAW process ___________________ is an essential variables for the WPS.
A. Groove design
B. Post Weld Heat Treatment
C. Root spacing
D. Method of cleaning

21. For the SAW process ________________________ is an essential variable for the WPS.
A. Supplemental powdered filler metal (if used)
B. Filler metal diameter
C. Preheat maintenance
D. Addition or deletion of peening

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22. The basic purpose of testing a welder is to establish the welder’s

____________________________.
A. Knowledge of welding requirements
B. Ability to deposit sound weld metal
C. Mechanical ability to operate equipment
D. General attitude toward welding inspectors

23. The record of a welder’s performance test is called a ___________________.

A. PQR
B. WQR
C. WPS
D. WPQ / welders performance qualification

24. If a welder qualified with the SMAW process on Jan. 1,1994 and last welded with SMAW on
March 15, 1994, would he still be qualified on October 7, 1994?
A. Yes
B. No.

25. A welder qualifying with a groove weld welded from both sides is qualified to weld
________________.
A. Without backing
B. With all base metals
C. With backing only
D. With P1 backing only

26. Immediate retests of welders’ qualifications coupons

A. Must use the same method
B. May use any method
C. Are not allowed
D. Require Inspector approval

27. Welder performance qualification records must describe all the ___________ variables specified.
A. Essential & nonessential
B. Nonessential
C. Essential
D. Brazing

28. A welder depositing 1/2" of weld metal with the SMAW process is qualified to deposit up to
____________ of weld metal. Note : if mentioned aminimum with 3 layers then it will be max to
be weld
A. 8”
B. Max to be welded
C. 1”
D. ½”

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29. “P” numbers are used to designate groups of :

A. Electrodes
B. Flux
C. Base metals
D. Joints

30. A welder qualifying by welding P-No. 21 to P-No.21 is qualified to weld :

A. P-1- P-11 to P-1 – P –11
B. P-8 – P8
C. P-21 – P-25 TO P-21-P-25
D. P21 to P21 only

31. Welding electrodes are grouped in Section IX by :

A. AWS class
B. ASME specification
C. SFA
D. “F” number

32. Ferrous weld metal chemical composition may be designated using :

A. “P” number
B. Welder I.D.
C. “A” number
D. Page number

33. For welder qualifications with the SMAW process ______________ is an essential variable.
A. Base metal thickness
B. Peening
C. P-number
D. Electrode diameter

34. Each welder must be assigned a(n):

A. P number
B. Unique identifier
C. Hood & gloves
D. Inspector

35. May a welder, qualified in the 2G position on ¼ inch thick plate, weld a 1 inch outside diameter
pipe, ¼ inch thick in the horizontal position without re-qualification?
A. Yes
B. No
C. Not enough information provided
D. Yes, provided pipe is carbon steel, P#1

36. What is the difference between gas metal arc-welding and gas tungsten arc-welding processes?
A. GMAW uses a continuously fed fillet metal and GTAW a tungsten electrode

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B. The SFA specification of the filler metal

C. The F-number of the filler metal
D. GTAW is run with gas; gas is optional with GMAW
37. A welder has been tested in the 6-G position, using as E-7018 F-4 electrode, on 6” Sch 160 (0.718”
nom) SA 106B pipe. Is this welder qualified to weld a 2” 300# ANSI schedule 80 bore flange to a
2” Schedule 80 SA 106 B nozzle neck?
A. Yes
B. No
C. Not enough information provided
D. Yes, provided a backing strip is provided in the 2” weld.

38. May a welder who qualified using a double-groove weld, make a single V-groove weld without
backing?
A. Yes
B. No
C. Not enough information provided
D. Yes, because backing is not an essential variable for a welder

39. May a GTAW welder be qualified by radiography, in lieu of bend tests? The test coupon will be P-
22 material and the production welds will be P-22 also.
A. Yes
B. No
C. Not enough information provided
D. Yes, provided the P-22 is welded with F-22 fillers

40. Who is responsible for qualification of welding procedures, welders and welding operators?
A. The Inspector
B. The A.I
C. The Shop Foreman
D. The Manufacturer of Contractor

41. A welding electrode has the marking E-6010. The “1” marking indicates :
A. Flat position only
B. Horizontal position only
C. All positions
D. Only good for heat treated welds

42. May a FCAW welder qualified using UT, be used to weld in production?
A. Yes, welder can be used
B. No welder cannot be used
C. Yes, if welder is using GMAW (Short Arc)
D. Yes, if welder is qualified with backing

43. A welder may deviate from the parameters specified in a WPS if they are a nonessential variable.
True Or False (circle one)

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44. What are the number of transverse guided bend tests required for Performance Qualification in a
6G position?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 3

45. What positions are necessary to qualify a welder for all position pipe welding?
A. 3G and 4G
B. 2G and 5G
C. 3G and 1G
D. 4G and 5G

46. What ASME Code Section has welding electrode storage requirements?
A. ASME IX
B. ASME VIII
C. ASME B31.1
D. ASME II Part C

47. A repair organization has a WPS which states it is qualified for P-8 to P-8 material welded with
either E308, E308L, E309, E316, electrodes (SMAW process). The PQR, supporting this WPS,
states the weld test coupons were SA-240 Type 304L material, welded with E308 electrodes. Is the
WPS properly qualified for the base material listed?
A. Yes
B. No
C. Not enough information given
D. Yes, if properly heat treated

48. May a GMAW, short circuit transfer, welding procedure be qualified using real-time ultrasonics ?
A. Yes
B. No
C. Not enough information given
D. Yes, provided bend tests are done

49. Three arc-welding processes are :

A. BMAW, SMAW, EFGAW
B. FCAW, SAW, ESW
C. SMAW, GTAW, PAW
D. PTAW, SLAW, PEAW

50. A welder was qualified with a P-1 test coupon using SMAW E 7018 electrodes. May the welder
weld P-4 material using E8028 electrodes with backing in production? (Assume the P-4 procedure
using E8028 electrodes has been qualified)
A. Yes

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B. No
C. Not enough information provided
D. None of the above
51. Is a welding procedure qualified under the 1965 ASME Code Section IX still applicable?
A. Yes
B. No, must be re-qualified
C. Is only applicable for 1965 pressure vessels
D. Cannot be used for new construction – repairs only

52. What are the various positions in which a welder may qualify for plate groove welds?
A. 1G
B. 3G
C. 4G
D. All of the above

53. You are reviewing a WPQ (QW-484) for a welder testing in the 6-G position, on SA-53 grade B
pipe (TS-60,000 psi). The test results indicate the following :
No.1 Tensile developed 51,000 psi, broke in the weld
No.2 Tensile developed 56,900 psi, broke in base metal
No.1 Transverse root bend satisfactory
No.2 Transverse face bend satisfactory

54. Will these test qualify the welder?

A. Yes
B. No
C. Not enough information given
D. Tension test is acceptable but No.1 is unacceptable

55. What are the primary classifications of guided-bend tests permitted by the Code?
A. Side and Transverse
B. Face and Root
C. Transverse and Longitudinal
D. Side and Face

56. A welder qualified by welding in the 5G position is qualified for what position on plate?
A. F,H,OH
B. F,V,OH
C. V,OH,SP
D. H,V,OH

57. Which of the following is a covered electrode?

A. E6010
B. E7018
C. E9028
D. All of the above

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58. Applicable essential variables must be documented on which of the following?

A. The WPS
B. The PQR
C. The WPQ
D. All of the above

59. In performance qualification of pipe welds to ASME Section IX, which positions require more than
two guided bend specimens for qualification?
A. 5G and 6G
B. 2G and 4F
C. 4G and 5G
D. None of the above

60. Name two defects that would cause visual rejection of a welder’s test pipe or plate?
A. Porosity, underfill
B. Lack of penetration/fusion
C. Slag, overlap
D. Any of the above

61. A variable that, when changed will cause a change in the mechanical properties of the weldment is
called a:
A. Essential variable
B. Non-essential variable
C. Supplementary essential variable
D. All of the above

62. The test that determines the ultimate strength of groove-weld joints is a:
A. Notch Toughness Test
B. Tension Test
C. Fillet Weld Test
D. Guided-Bend Test

63. The procedure qualification test is used to determine:

A. The skill of the welder
B. That the proposed production weldment is capable of having the required properties
C. The corrosion-resistance of the proposed weldment
D. None of the above

64. A change in a supplementary essential variable requires re-qualification, when notch-toughness is a

consideration.
True Or False (circle one)

65. When using Macro-examination of fillet weld tests, the weld and the HAZ must not reveal cracks
when magnified at:

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A. 5X
B. 2X
C. 10X
D. No magnification is required – visual examination is required, only

66. A non-essential variable may be changes without re-qualification because:

A. Nobody cares about non-essential variables
B. The welder is allowed to change variables at his discretion
C. Non-essential variables do not affect the mechanical or notch-toughness properties
D. Non-essential variables cannot be changes without re-qualification

67. A WPS must only address essential and, if applicable, supplementary essential variables.
True Or False (circle one)

68. The data recorded on a PQR (non-editorial) may be changed provided :

A. The AI approves
B. The test data on a PQR is a record of what occurred and should never be changed. Only
editorial information can be changed on a PQR.
C. The API 510 inspector approves
D. The date of the WPS is changed

69. Tension tests may be used in lieu of bend tests to qualify welders or welding operators.
True Or False (circle one)

70. A groove weld bend test reveals a linear indication on the face of the bend surface that measures
exactly 1/8” long. No other indications are seen. Does this coupon pass or fail?
A. Pass
B. Fail

71. Unless notch-toughness is a consideration, a qualification in any position qualifies a welding

procedure for all positions.
True Or False (circle one)

72. The purpose of a WPS and PQR is to determine if a welder has the skill necessary to make sound
production welds.
True Or False (circle one)

73. Welders can be qualified by radiograph when using P 6X materials?

True Or False (circle one)

74. It is permissible to sub-contract welding of coupons as well as other work to prepare coupons.
True Or False (circle one)

75. Variable QW 402.4 for SMAW procedure qualification is a _____________ variable.

A. Essential

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B. Non-essential
C. Supplemental essential
D. None of the above
76. Variable QW 404.24 for SAW procedure qualification is an ______________variable.
A. Essnetial
B. Non-Essential
C. Supplemental essential
D. None of the above

77. Each manufacturer must certify the PQR (by signature) indicating that the information given is true
and correct.
True Or False (circle one)

78. Welder variable QW-405.1 (for welder qualifying with the SMAW process) is a __________
variable.
A. Essential
B. Non-essential
C. Supplemental essential
D. None of the above

79. The purpose of a WPS and PQR is to determine if a proposed weldment to be used in construction
is capable of providing the required properties for the intended application.
True Or False (circle one)

80. A qualification in a 4G position qualifies a welder for all groove weld positions.
True Or False (circle one)

81. A WPS must address all applicable non-essential variables.

True Or False (circle one)

82. Groove weld coupons shall be tested by macro-examination when qualifying a welding procedure.
True Or False (circle one)

83. A welding procedure must be qualified with impact tests only when required by the applicable
construction code, such as ASME VIII Div.1.
True Or False (circle one)

84. A welder qualified to weld in the 2G position on pipe would have to be qualified in which of the
additional positions to qualify for all position groove welding on pipe?
A. 1G
B. 2G
C. 5G
D. 6G
E. All of the above

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85. The maximum preheat temperature decrease allowed without re-qualification of a GMAW groove
weld procedure is:
A. 500F
B. 1000F
C. 1250F
D. 1500F
E. None of the above

86. A welder is qualified to weld all thick nesses of material when :

A. The test is any thickness above 3/8 inch
B. The test thickness was ½ inch
C. The test thickness was ¾ inch or over
D. The test pipe wall thickness was 5/8 inch and nominal pipe size was over ½ inches

87. What is the maximum defect permitted on the convex surface of a welder qualification bend test
after bending except for corner cracks and corrosion resistant weld overlay?
A. ¼ inch
B. 1/8 inch
C. 1/16 inch
D. 3/16 inch
E. No defects are allowed

88. What period of inactivity from a given welding process requires the welder to re-qualify in that
process?
A. 3 months
B. 6 months
C. 9 months
D. 12 months
E. As stated by the AI

89. Notch-toughness requirements are mandatory:

A. For heat treated metals
B. For quenched and tempered metals
C. For hardened and tempered metals
D. For annealed and tempered metals
E. When specified as required by the referencing Code Section

90. A welder qualified for SMAW using an E7018 electrode is also qualified to weld with:
A. E7015
B. E6011
C. E6010
D. E7024
E. All of the above

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91. Macro examination of an etched fillet weld section for performance qualification is acceptable if
the examination shows:
A. Complete fusion and freedom from cracks, excepting linear indication not exceeding 1/32
inch at the root.
B. Concavity or convexity no greater than 1/16 inch
C. Not more than 1/8” difference in leg lengths
D. All of the above
E. Both B and C above

92. Each manufacturer or contractor is responsible for the welding or brazing done by his organization.
Whenever these words are used in Section IX, they shall include :
A. Designer or architect
B. Designer or installer
C. Architect or installer
D. Installer or assembler
E. Assembler or designer

93. For P-11 materials, weld grooves for thick nesses ________________ shall be prepared by thermal
processes, when such processes are to be employed during fabrication.
A. Less than 5/8 inch
B. 5/8 inch
C. 1 inch
D. 11/4 inches
E. None of the above

94. A SWPs may be used in lieu of a manufacturer qualified WPS when:

A. approved by the Inspector’s Supervisor
B. allowed by ASME V
C. one test coupon is tension tested per Article V
D. compliance to Article V and Appendix E of ASME IX is shown

95. A change in a non-essential variable requires re-certification of the PQR

True Or False (circle one)

96. Reduced-section tensile test specimens conforming to QW-462.1 (b) may be used on all
thicknesses of pipe having an outside diameter greater than:
A. 2 inches
B. 21/2 inches
C. 3 inches
D. 31/2 inches
E. 4 inches

97. Groove weld test may be used for qualification of welders. Which of the following shall be used
for evaluation?
A. Only bend tests

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B. Only radiography
C. Both radiography and bend tests
D. Either bend tests or radiography
E. None of the above
98. Under which of the following conditions can a welder be qualified during production work?
A. A 6” length of the first production groove weld may be qualified by radiography
B. A bend test coupon may be cut from the first 12” length of weld
C. A macro examination may be taken from the first 3” of weld length
D. None of the above

99. Two plate tensile test specimens have been tested and found to be acceptable. The characteristics of
each specimen are as follows :
Specimen 1: Width of 0.752”; thickness of 0.875”; ultimate tensile value of 78.524 psi
Specimen 2: Width of 0.702”; thickness of 0.852”; ultimate tensile value of 77,654 psi guess

What is the ultimate load for each specimen that was reported on the laboratory report?
A. 51,668 & 46,445
B. 67,453 & 56,443
C. 78,524 & 77,654
D. None of the above

100. Which of the following welding processes are currently not permitted to be used with SWPs as
referenced in Appendix E of ASME IX?
A. GMAW
B. SAW
C. PAW
D. All of the above

ANSWER KEY FOR PRACTICE WELDING QUESTIONS:

1. C 52. C
2. D 53. D
3. D 54. A
4. D 55. C
5. B 56. B
6. B 57. D
7. C 58. D
8. C 59. A
9. D 60. B
10. B 61. A
11. C 62. B
12. C 63. B
13. A 64. True

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14. C 65. D
15. C 66. C
16. B 67. B
17. D 68. False
18. B 69. False
19. B 70. Pass
20. B 71. True
21. A 72. False
22. B 73. False
23. D 74. False
24. B 75. B
25. C 76. A
26. A 77. True
27. C 78. A
28. C 79. True
29. C 80. False
30. C 81. True
31. D 82. False
32. C 83. True
33. C 84. C
34. B 85. B
35. B 86. C
36. A 87. B
37. B 88. B
38. B 89. E
39. A 90. E
40. D 91. D
41. C 92. D
42. B 93. A
43. B 94. D
44. A 95. False
45. B 96. C
46. D 97. D
47. B 98. A
48. B 99. A
49. C 100. D
50. A
51. A

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BASIC PIPING INSPECTION, TERMINOLOGY AND RP 574 –

PRACTICE Qs – ON – APRIL 2002

1. In the Barlow formula for determining pipe thickness, the term S stands for :
a. internal design gage pressure of the pipe in psi.
b. pressure design strength for internal pressure, in inches
c. allowable unit stress at the design temperature, in psi
d. maximum strain at the average operating tenperature, in psi

2. At low pressures and temperatures, the thickness determined by the Barlow formula may be so small
that the pipe would have _______ structural strength.
a. adequate
b. insufficient
c. ample
d. good

3. A seamless NPS 12, A-106 Grade A pipe operators at 300 degrees F and 941 psi. The allowable stress
is 16000 psi. Using the Barlow Equation, determine the thickness required for these conditions.
a. 0.375”
b. 0.750”
c. 0.353”
d. 0.706”

4. A seamless NPS6, A-106 Grade A pipe operators at 300 degrees F and 941 psi. The allowable stress is
16000 psi. The owner-user specified that the pipe must have 0.1” allowed for corrosion allowance.
Using the Barlow Equation, determine the thickness required for these conditions
a. 0.295”
b. 0.195”
c. 0.277”
d. 0.706”

5. A seamless NPS 8, A-53 Grade B pipe operators at 700 degrees F and 700 psi. The allowable stress is
16500 psi. The pipe has been in service for 6 years. The original wall thickness of the pipe was 0.375”.
The pipe wall now measures 0.30”. Considering no structural requirements, estimate how long the
piping can continue to operate and not be below the minimum thickness.
a. 4.68 years
b. 9.8 years
c. 0 years; pipe now below minimum
d. 10.42 years

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6. An Inspector finds a thin area in the body of a NPS 8 (8.625” O.D.) 600# gate valve. The valve’s body
is made from ASTM A216 WCB material. The system operates at 700 psi and 750 degrees F. Using a
corrosion allowance of 0.125”, what thickness must be present in order to continue to safely operate?
Round to nearest hundredth.
a. 0.48”
b. 0.38”
c. 0.51”
d. 0.43”

7. If corrosion or erosion is anticipated for a valve, what should be done prior to installing the valve?
a. Severance thickness determinations should be made when the valves are installed so that the
fretting rate and metal ruination can be determined
b. Retirement thickness measurements should be made after installation so that the fatigue rate
and metal loss can be determined
c. Reference thickness measurements should be made when the valves are installed so that the
corrosion rate and metal loss can be determined
d. Retina measurements of the macula should be made when the iris’ are installed so the optical
rate and losses of perception can be determined

8. Which of the items listed below would NOT normally be contained in inspection records or piping ?
a. Original date of installation, the specifications and strength levels of the materials used.
b. Original vessel hydrotest pressures and conditions that the tests were performed under
c. Original thickness measurements and the locations and dates of all subsequent readings
d. Calculated retirement thick nesses

9. Accurate records of a piping system make possible an evaluation of __________ on any piping, valve
or fitting
a. Computerisation
b. Security and continuity
c. Cost and competency
d. Service life

10. You are working as an inspector. While reviewing a tabulation of thickness data on a section of piping
in non-corrosive or very low corrosive service, you find the initial thickess reading of an inspection
point to be 0.432” and marked nominal on a NPS 6 pipe. At the next inspection 12 months later you
find a reading by ultrasonics of 0.378” at the same point. Twelve months later UT readings were taken
and the thickness at the point was still 0.378”. what would this mean to you?
a. No measurement was taken originally, the nominal thickness was listed and the piping probably
had an under-tolerance of 12.5”.
b. There was an error made by the inspector at the installation or the inspector who UT’d the
piping at the next inspection made an error.
c. The UT machine that the inspector used during the 12 month inspection after installation was
defective and not reading correctly.
d. The pipe contractor or the installer put the wrong schedule piping in service.

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11. You are working as an inspector. While reviewing a tabulation of thickness data on a section of piping,
you find the letter “C” marked under a column headed by the word METHOD. What does the “C”
indicate?
a. The inspection temperature of the pipe was COLD.
b. The thickness measurement was made by an inspector with the I.D. OF “C”
c. The thickness measurement was taken with calipers.
d. The thickness measurement was CONFIRMED by a second party.

12. Which of the following is not an important function of an accurate sketch?

a. assist in determining future locations that urgently require examinations
b. identifying systems and circuits in terms of location, size, materials etc.
c. serve as field data sheets
d. none of the above

13. As soon as possible after completing an inspection, the Inspector should:

a. review the inspection records and schedule the next inspection
b. always require a hydrotest
c. sign all RT records
d. notify the Piping Engineer, so he can wake up and go home

14. The Wenner 4-Pin methods, the soil bar, and the soil box do not represent methods of determining:
a. holidays
b. pipe-to-soil potentials
c. cathodic protection acceptability
d. all of the above

15. The total resistivity for a Wenner 4-Pin test that utilizes pins spaced 2 feet apart and a 6 “R” factor is:
a. 2298 ohm/cm
b. 3500 ohm/cm
c. 6000 ohm/cm
d. 8000 ohm/cm

16. Which of the following is not a consideration when using a soil bar ?
a. using a standard prod bar
b. avoiding the addition of water
c. applying pressure on the soil bar after injection
d. none of the above

17. Which of the following is a consideration when using a soil box:

a. depth of Pins less than 4% of spacing
b. ensuring the soil has dried out before testing
c. avoiding contamination of the sample during handling and storage
d. all of the above

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ANSWERS
1. c API 574, 11.1
2. b API 574, 11.1
3. a API 574, 11.1
4. a API 574, 11.1
5. b API 574, 11.1
6. c API 574, 11.2
7. c API 574, 11.2
8. b API 574, 12.1
9. d API 574, 12.1
10. a API 574, 4.1.1
11. c API Figure 34
12. d API 574, 12.2
13. a API 574, 12.5
14. d API 574, 10.3.1
15. a API 574, 10.3.1.4
16. d API 574, 10.3.1.4
17. c API 574, 10.3.1.9

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ASME B 16.5 – PRACTICE QUESTIONS

1. The maximum depth and radial projection of an imperfection (deeper than the bottom of the serration)
on a NPS 14 raised face flange is:
a. 0.31”
b. 0.018”
c. 0.18”
d. 0.25”

2. On an NPS 24, 600 Class flange, the thickness of the flange (minimum) is:
a. 4 ½”
b. 3.00”
c. 6.0”
d. 4.0”

3. The allowable pressure (in psig) on a 1000F, Class 150 8” flange made from A-182 Grade F2 material
is:

a. 170
b. 290
c. 300
d. 400

4. If a Class 1500 flange is to be made from A-182 F347 stainless steel and will be used at 280 psig with
a carbon content of 0.09%, at what maximum temperature can this flange be used?
a. 10000F
b. 13000F
c. 11800F
d. 20000F

5. What is the minimum wall thickness of a Class 900 fitting that is NPS 16?
a.1.56”
2.6”
3.2”
4.1”

6. What is the rated working pressure of a flanged fitting that is a 400 Class with a material stress value
of 16,200 psi?
a. 1000 psig

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b. 1500 psig
c. 800 psig
d. 740 psig

7. What is the minimum wall thickness of a NPS 5 Class 1500 fitting?

a. 0.091”
b. 0.91”
c. 1.00”
d. 1.15”

8. What is the maximum system hydrostatic test pressure required for a Class 300 flange that is made
from Group 1.10 material?
a. 1125 psig
b. 450 psig
c. 1000 psig
d. None of the above

9. A local area has been thinned on the wall thickness of a flanged fitting. The fitting is NPS 8 Class 400,
and the local area has been thinned to 0.400”. Is this corrosion acceptable per ASME B 16.5?
a. Yes
b. No
c. Cannot be calculated from information given
d. Wall thicknesses may not be less than that shown in B16.5

10. In question No.9, what is the maximum circular area of sub-minimum thickness allowed, in square
inches?
a. 2.75
b. 0.74
c. 1.85
d. 0.431

11. From problem No.9 and No.10 above, if two areas of sub-minimum thickness are observed on the
fitting, what is the minimum distance between the edges of these circles?
a. a. 3.0”
b. 2.70”
c. 8.0”
d. 3.70”

12. What is the maximum system hydrostatic test pressure required for a Class 600 flange in a flanged
joint made from Group 3.5 material?
a. 2250 psi
b. 1500 psi
c. 1000 psi
d. None of the above

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13. A local area has been thinned on the wall of a flanged fitting. The fitting is NPS 12 Class 900, and the
local area has been thinned to 0.945”. What is the minimum acceptable thickness for this thinned area
per ASME B 16.5?
a. 0.9375”
b. 1.250”
c. 1.750”
d. Cannot be calculated from information given

14. From the information in Question No.13, what is the maximum circular area of sub-minimum
thickness allowed in square inches?
1. 2.75”
2. 1.33”
3. 1.85”
4. 0.431”

15. Using the information in questions No.13, 14 , if two areas of sub-minimum thickness are observed on
the fitting, what is the minimum distance between the edges of these circles?
3.0”
2.70”
6.52”
4.70”

16. What would be the calculated thickness of a new NPS 14 flanged fitting with a 900 psi class
designation?
a. 0.830”
b. 1.28”
c. 1.112”
d. None of the above

17. A NPS flanged fitting is operating at a temperature of 6500F and has a pressure class rating of 600 psi.
Using a stress value of 17,400 psi, what would be the maximum permitted rated working pressure?
a. 2000 psi
b. 1193 psi
c. 1175 psi
d. 1500 psi

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ANSWER KEY

1. c
2. d
3. b
4. a
5. a
6. d
7. b
8. a
9. b
10. d
11. d
12. a
13. a
14. b
15. c
16. b
17. c

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