Model Question Paper

Computer Engineering
MCQ Bank for I-phone Programming (178154)Semester: VIII

1. Objective C programming is
A. Structural language
B. Object oriented language
C. Procedure language
D. None of the above.
Ans: B

2. Which one is not supported by objective C

A. Polymorphism
B. Data hiding
C. Inheritance
D. Refinement
Ans: D

3. The full form of GCC compiler is

A. Global compiler construction
B. gross compiler General
C. GNU Compiler collection
D. GNU compiler chain
Ans: C

4. Mac OS is developed by
A. IBM
B. Motorola
C. Apple
D. INTEL
Ans: C

5. Xcode is provided by
A. Motorola
B. Apple
C. IMA
D. INTEL
Ans: B

6. Which is not foundation class in objective C language

 A. Loop type and description
B. NS Array
C. NS foundation
D. NS Dictionary
Ans: C

7. Which one is the memory management technique supported by

objective C
A. Virtual memory management
B. Segmentation
C. Paging
D. Automatic reference counting
Ans: D

8. Which is not the pre-processor in objective C

A. #undef
B. #error
C. #endif
D. #type
Ans: D

9. Which is not related to COCOA

A. COCOA is an operating system
B. COCOA is operating system interface
C. COCOA is a UI/UX interface
D. COCOA is a standard library
Ans: A

10. Which is not consist in COCOA touch

A. Foundation
B. U I Kit
C. Safari
D. Core data
Ans: C

11. Which is latest IOS version

A. IOS 6.0
B. IOS 7.0
C. IOS 10.0
D. IOS 14.0
Ans: D
12. Which of the following is a correct way to insert comment in
objective C
 A. This is a comment
B. /* this is a comment
C. /* this is a comment */
D. this is a comment */
Ans: C

13. Does the iphone browser support flash application

A. Yes
B. No
C. Just the Flash application from apple
D. Some of them
Ans: A

14. Which of the following is not a state in the life cycle of a

service
A. Starting
B. Running
C. Destroyed
D. Paused
Ans: D

15. When an activity does not exist in memory it is in

A. Running state
B. Loading State
C. Starting state
D. Inexistent state
Ans: C

16. The iphone camera can

A. ZOOM
B. Auto focus
C. Record videos
D. All of the above
Ans: D

17. To create an emulator we need AVD. What does it stand for

A. Android virtual Display
B. Android virtual Device
C. Active virtual device
D. Application virtual device
Ans: B

18. The _________ file specifies the layout of your screen.

 A. Manifest file
B. Strings XML
C. Layout file
D. R file
Ans: C

19. The iphone has a feature that activates when you rotate the
device from portrait to landscape.
A. Rotator
B. Special sensor
C. Accelerometer
D. Shadow Detector
Ans: C

20. The iphone is a line internet and multimedia enabled

smartphones designed and marked by Intel corporation
A. True.
B. False.
Ans: B

21. IOS Stands for

A. Interwork operating system
B. Iphone operating system
C. Internet operating system
D. None of the above
Ans: B

22. COCOA is a part of

A. Android OS.
B. Apple OS.
C. Mac OS.
D. Unix OS.
Ans: B

23. COCOA touch is a

A. Mac development OS.
B. Iphone development framework.
C. Android development framework.
D. Microcontroller OS.
Ans: B

24. A Framework is
 A. Similar to API.
B. UI Interface.
C. Core Application Kit.
D. SDK.
Ans: A

25. Total number of layers in IOS are

A. 6.
B. 4.
C. 3.
D. 7.
Ans: B

26. In IOS Status bar is used to show the useful information

about device. This statement is True or False?
A. True.
B. False.
Ans: A

27. Which type of inheritance is allowed in Objective C-

A. Single Inheritance.
B. Multiple Inheritance.
C. Multilevel Inheritance.
D. Hierarchical Inheritance.
Ans: B

28. A COCOA framework may include

A. Predefined classes and functions.
B. Predefined processes.
C. Predefined macros.
D. None of these.
Ans: A.

29.Which of the following framework is not used in iOS ?

A. UIKit Framework
B. AppKit Framework
C. Foundation Framework
D. CoreMotion Framework

Ans: B
30.Which of the following iOS frameworks is a commonly used third
party Library?
A. AVFoundation.framework
B. Audiotoolbox.framework
C. AFNetwork.framework
D. CFNetwork.framework
Ans: C
31.The application has not been launched or was running but
terminated by the device. Determine the current state of App.
A. Suspended state
B. Background state
C. Inactive state
D. Not running state
Ans: D

32. Application running in foreground but currently not receiving

any events.What is the current state of Application?
A. Background state
B. Inactive State
C. Suspended state
D. Active State
Ans: B

33.IOS remote push notification is introduced by apple in which

version?

A. iOS 2.0
B. iOS 3.0
C. iOS 4.0
D. iOS 6.0

Ans:B.
34.Multitasking in iOS was introduced in which version?
A. iOS 2.0
B. iOS 4.0;
C. iOS 6.0;
D. iOS 7.0

Ans:B.

35.What is the core functionality of iPhone camera?

A. Record Videos.
B. Zoom
C. Auto Focus
D. Make digital photos

Ans: D

36. What is a pointer?

A. A variable
B. A memory address that points to a specific object
C. An object that calls other objects
D. A class
Ans: B

37. If you do not declare a return type for a method definition,

what is the default return type?
A. *NSString
B. id
C. No return type
Ans: B

38. what does this code produce? [NSString] *myString =

@”Hello World”;
A. An Error during compile
B. makes the pointer to myString equal to the pointer of the new
created object with @”hello world”
C. gets SIGABRT while executing the application
 D. it put the value Hello World into a string named myString
Ans: A

39. Developers are allowed to call [super dealloc] in ARC.

A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Ans: B

40. What is KVO?

A. Key Variable Obfuscation
B. Key Value Operations
C. Key Value Observing
Ans: C

41. True or False? You can compare two strings by (string1 ==

string2)
A. True
B. False
Ans: B

42. What does an Objective-C string literal look like?

A. “foo”
B. #”foo”
C. @”foo”
D. $”foo”
Ans: C

43. ARC means?

A. Automatic Reference Counting
B. Angular Reference Courting
C. Access Reference Collation
D. Artificial Reference Counting
Ans: A
44. What is a delegate?
A. A delegate is a UIView
B. A delegate holds the type of data a variable stores
C. A delegateallows one NSObject to send messages to another
NSObject, and listen to those messages
D. A delegate is a variable
Ans: C

45. Which of the following is a Singleton?

A. [NSArry array]
B. [NSFileManagerdefaultManager]
Ans: B

46. Which of the following is an object?

A. double
B. NSNumber
C. int
D. float
Ans: B

47. What is the name of the type of SQL Database that iOS
Supports?
A. SQL
B. NoSql
C. SQLite
D. MySql
Ans: C

48. What happens when you call retain on an object?

A. It is permanently stored in memory
B. It will stay in memory until the app closes
C. You increase it’sretain count by 1
 D. It is released from memory
Ans: C

49. How do you free an object?

A. [obj release]
B. None of the above
C. free(obj)
D. [objdealloc]
Ans: A

50. True or False? Sending a command asynchronously will lock

the main thread and then wait until the command is finished
before moving on to the next part of your code.
A. False
B. True
Ans: A

51. Which of the following accesses a variable in structure b?

A. b.var;
B. b-var;
C. b>var;
D. b->var;
E. b
Ans: A

52. True or False? For an object to use constraints, it must have

at least 3 constraint values.
A. False
B. True
Ans: A

53. True or False? A method and a variable can have the same
name in Objective-C.
A. False
B. True
Ans: B
54. Can you call C++ code from objective C environment?
A. Yes, from any .mm file
B. Yes, from any .m file
C. No, it is not possible
Ans: A

55. let a:int=5 a=10 this code is true of false?

A. false
B. true
Ans: A

56. Does Objective-C have constructors and destructors?

A. Yes
B. It depends on the object
C. No, you use init and dealloc on Objective-C
D. Only NSStrings do
Ans: C

57. Are integers full-fledged objects in Objective-C?

A. Yes, but only if you first cast them as id’s, e.g. (id) 123.
B. No, they are not objects at all.
C. Integers are only partial objects in Objective-C (e.g. do not
support any user defined methods).
D. Yes.
Ans: B

58. What is the ‘print object’ command in the debugger window?

A. print
B. p
C. -l
D. po
Ans: D

59. What is Objective-C’s language design based on?

A. C and C++.
B. C and Cocoa.
C. C and Smalltalk.
 D. C and BCPL.
Ans: C

60. What is (void*)?

A. Representation of void pointer
B. None of above
C. Representation of NULL pointer
D. Error
Ans: C
 Model Question Paper

Subject: Mobile Computing

Branch: Computer Engineering

Class: BE

Semester: VIII

Q1. Which of the following stores all the user-related data that is relevant for the
GSM system in mobile computing?

1. Sim
2. HLR
3. ELR
4. VLR

Answer 1

Q2. Which of the following stores Mobile Subscriber ISDN number – MSISDN?

1. Home location register

2. Visitor location register
3. Entity equipment register
4. None of the above

Answer 1

Q3. In which of the following Codes with specific characteristics can be applied to
the transmission?

1. GSM
2. GPRS
3. CDMA
4. None of the above

Answer 3
Q4. Which of the following allow the use of entire bandwidth simultaneously?

1. TDMA
2. FDMA
3. CDMA
4. None of the above

Answer 3

Q5. The base station covers a specific area that is called a ——

1. Cell
2. Tessellate
3. Mobile station
4. None of the above

Answer 1

Q6. In a cellular system, the shape of the cell depends on —–

1. Environmental conditions
2. Social conditions
3. Political conditions
4. None of the above

Answer 1

Q7. Cellular System or having small cells needs ——–

1. Handover
2. Infrastructure
3. Frequency planning
4. All of the above

Answer 4
Q8. In a cellular system, the same frequency is used for other users using the
technique ———-

1. Frequency planning
2. Frequency hopping
3. Frequency reuse
4. None of the above

Answer 3

Q9. Which of the following provides packet mode data transfer service over the
cellular network system?

1. GSM
2. GPRS
3. TCP
4. None of the above

Answer 2

Q10. Which of the following services/ services are defined by the GSM?

1. Bearer
2. Supplementary
3. Tele
4. All of the above

Answer 4

Q11. Bluetooth Technology supports

1. Piconet
2. Ad hoc piconet
3. Scatter net
4. All of the above
Answer 4

Q12. Which of the following wireless technology is used for exchanging data
between a variety of fixed and mobile devices over a very short diameter?

1. Mobile technology
2. Bluetooth technology
3. Ad hoc computing
4. None of the above

Answer 2

Q13. In Bluetooth which of the following device decides hopping sequence?

1. Master
2. Parked
3. Standby
4. Slave

Answer 1

Q14. In which of the following the total available bandwidth is split into many
channels of smaller bandwidth plus guard spaces between the channels?

1. FHSS
2. DSSS
3. Both a and b
4. None of the above

Answer 1

Q15. In which of the following a single data stream is split across several separate
narrowband channels at different frequencies to reduce interference and crosstalk.

1. OFDM
2. GSM
3. GPRS
 4. UMTS

Answer 1

Q16. Which of the following uses high-frequency radio waves instead of cables for
connecting the devices in LAN?

1. Wired LAN
2. Wireless LAN
3. Fiber made LAN
4. None of the above

Answer 2

Q17. Most WLANs are based upon the standard—-

1. IEEE 802.2
2. IEEE 802.11
3. IEEE 802.5
4. IEEE 802.15

Answer 2

Q18. Which of the following is/are the advantages of a wireless LAN?

1. Flexibility
2. Ease of use
3. Robustness
4. All of the above

Answer 4

Q19. Disadvantages of WLANs include —–

1. Interference and noise

2. Slower than wired
3. Greater care is needed for encryption
4. All of the above
Answer 4

Q20. In piconet devices connected with the master is called

1. Slaves
2. Parked
3. Standby
4. None of the above

Answer 1

Q21 The general goal of a file system is to support———-

1. Transparent access to data

2. Efficient access to data
3. Consistent access to data
4. All of the above

Answer 4

Q 22 In the distributed system a client gives the request, and the server provides—-

1. Data
2. Service
3. Information
4. All of the above

Answer 2

Q 23. The important challenges of distributed systems apply to DFS are ——

1. Migration of data
2. Concurrent access to data
3. Replication of data
4. All of the above

Answer 4
Q24. Features of CODA is/are

1. A disconnected operation for mobile computing

2. Freely available under a liberal license
3. High performance through client-side persistent caching
4. All of the above

Answer 4

Q25. Which of the file system apply gossip protocols?

1. CODA
2. Ficus
3. Rover
4. None of the above

Answer 2

Q26. Mio-NFS supports following mode/modes ———-

1. Connected
2. Loosely connected
3. Disconnected
4. All of the above

Answer 3

Q27. Which of the following are objects that can be dynamically loaded into a
client computer from a server (or vice-versa) to reduce client-server
communication?

1. Relocatable dynamic objects

2. Locatable objects
3. Dynamic objects
4. None of the above
Answer 1

Q28 Which of the following allows for non-blocking RPCs even when a host is
disconnected?

1. Queued remote procedure calls

2. Remote procedure calls
3. Both a and b
4. None of the above

Answer 1

Q29. All transactions must satisfy the —–

1. Consistency
2. Availability
3. ACID Property
4. All of the above

Answer 3

Q 30. The ability of a system to perform its function correctly even in the presence
of internal faults is called

1. Fault tolerance
2. Recovery
3. Both a and b
4. None of the above

Answer 3

Q 31. TCP is a reliable protocol that incorporates

1. congestion control
2. Flow control mechanisms
3. guarantees in-order delivery of data
4. All of the above
Answer 4

Q32. TCP supports many of the Internet’s most popular application protocols and
resulting applications, including

1. World Wide Web

2. e-mail,
3. File Transfer Protocol
4. All of the above

Answer 4

Q 33. Which of the following segments a TCP connection into a fixed part and a
wireless part?

1. Indirect TCP
2. Direct TCP
3. Both a and b
4. None of the above

Answer 1

Q 34. Advantages of Indirect TCP includes

1. Fast transmission
2. Congestion control
3. Error control
4. All of the above

Answer 4

Q 35. The main function of snooping TCP is —-

1. To buffer data close to the mobile host to perform fast local retransmission
in case of packet loss.
2. Congestion control
3. Flow control
 4. None of the above

Answer 1

Q 36. I-TCP and Snooping TCP does not help much if a mobile host gets

1. Out of coverage area

2. Disconnected
3. Battery power low
4. None of the above

Answer 2

Q 37. M-TCP wants to improve overall throughput to

1. to lower the delay

2. to maintain end-to-end semantics of TCP
3. to provide a more efficient handover
4. All of the above

Answer 4

Q 38. Disadvantages of Mobile TCP includes

1. Assuming low bit error rates

2. Lack of buffering
3. Lack of acknowledgment
4. None of the above

Answer 1

Q39. A very useful extension of TCP is the use of

1. Buffering packets
2. Congestion control
3. Selective retransmission
4. All of the above
Answer 3

Q40. Which of the following combine packets for connection establishment and
connection release with user data packets?

1. Transaction oriented TCP

2. Indirect TCP
3. Snooping TCP
4. None of the above

Answer 1

Q41. Mobile Computing allows transmission of data, from one wireless-enabled

device to another —-

1. Any device
2. Wired device
3. Wireless-enabled device
4. None of the above

Answer 3

Q42. The most important feature/s of mobile computing technology is/are —-

1. Mobility
2. Portability
3. Wireless connectivity
4. All of the above

Answer 4

Q43. Which of the following is the base of most mobile communications?

1. GSM
2. GPRS
3. CDMA
4. None of the above
Answer 1

Q44. Which of the following allow the use of only some part of bandwidth?

1. TDMA
2. FDMA
3. Both a and b
4. None of the above

Answer 3

Q45. Group of cells without overlapping gaps is called ——

1. Cell
2. Tessellate
3. Mobile station
4. None of the above

Answer 2

Q46. In a cellular system, the shape of the cell is generally —–

1. Hexagon
2. Circular
3. Square
4. None of the above

Answer 1

Q47. Important mobile computing application/s is/are —–

1. Education
2. Sports
3. Games
4. All of the above

Answer 4
Q48. Challenges of mobile computing include ———

1. Low Security
2. Ad hoc Networking
3. Shared medium
4. All of the above

Answer 4

Q49. The base station covers a specific area that is called a —-

1. Cell
2. Radius
3. Tessellate
4. None of the above

Answer 1

Q50. Which of the following services/service are defined within the bearer
services?

1. Data transmission
2. Forward error correction
3. Flow control
4. All of the above

Answer 4

Q51. The overlapping portion of two piconets is called——–

1. Piconet
2. Ad hoc piconet
3. Scatter net
4. All of the above

Answer 3
Q52. Bluetooth technology is used for —-

1. Connection of peripheral devices

2. Ad-hoc networking
3. Bridging network gaps
4. All of the above

Answer 4

Q53. In Bluetooth which of the following device follow the hopping sequence?

1. Master
2. Parked
3. Standby
4. Slave

Answer 4

Q54. Which of the following system takes a user bitstream and perform an (XOR)?
The result is either the sequence 0110101 (if the user bit equals 0) or its
complement 1001010 (if the user bit equals 1).

1. FHSS
2. DSSS
3. Both a and b
4. None of the above

Answer 2

Q55. Slow and fast hopping is used in —-

1. FHSS
2. GSM
3. GPRS
4. UMTS
Answer 1

Q56. The most WLANs are based upon —-

1. IEEE 802.11
2. WiFi
3. Both a and b
4. None of these

Answer 3

Q57. The advantages of WLANs are —–

1. Flexibility
2. Robustness
3. Less cost
4. All of the above

Answer 4

Q58. Disadvantages of WLANs are —–

1. Slow speed
2. Noise
3. More effort for Security
4. All of the above

Answer 4

Q59. In a piconet, the master device decides the —-

1. Hopping pattern
2. Frequency reuse
3. Channels
4. All of the above

Answer 4
Q60. In a Distributed File System, clients access files provided by

1. Other clients
2. Server
3. Access point
4. None of these

Answer 2
 Model Question Paper
Subject:-Mobile Computing

Branch:-Computer Engineering

Class:-B.E.

Semester:- VIII

Q1. Which of the following stores all the user-related data that is relevant for the GSM system in mobile
computing?

A. Sim
B. HLR
C. ELR
D. VLR

Answer A

Q2. Which of the following stores Mobile Subscriber ISDN number – MSISDN?

A. Home location register

B. Visitor location register
C. Entity equipment register
D. None of the above

Answer A

Q3. In which of the following Codes with specific characteristics can be applied to the transmission?

A. GSM
B. GPRS
C. CDMA
D. None of the above

Answer C

Q4. Which of the following allow the use of entire bandwidth simultaneously?

A. TDMA
B. FDMA
C. CDMA
D. None of the above

Answer C

Q5. The base station covers a specific area that is called a ——

 A. Cell
B. Tessellate
C. Mobile station
D. None of the above

Answer A

Q6. In a cellular system, the shape of the cell depends on —–

A. Environmental conditions
B. Social conditions
C. Political conditions
D. None of the above

Answer A

Q7. Cellular System or having small cells needs ——–

A. Handover
B. Infrastructure
C. Frequency planning
D. All of the above

Answer D

Q8. In a cellular system, the same frequency is used for other users using the technique ———-

A. Frequency planning
B. Frequency hopping
C. Frequency reuse
D. None of the above

Answer C

Q9. Which of the following provides packet mode data transfer service over the cellular network
system?

A. GSM
B. GPRS
C. TCP
D. None of the above

Answer B
Q10. Which of the following services/ services are defined by the GSM?

A. Bearer
B. Supplementary
C. Tele
D. All of the above

Answer D

Q11. Bluetooth Technology supports

A. Piconet
B. Ad hoc piconet
C. Scatter net
D. All of the above

Answer D

Q12. Which of the following wireless technology is used for exchanging data between a variety of fixed
and mobile devices over a very short diameter?

A. Mobile technology
B. Bluetooth technology
C. Ad hoc computing
D. None of the above

Answer B

Q13. In Bluetooth which of the following device decides hopping sequence?

A. Master
B. Parked
C. Standby
D. Slave

Answer A

Q14. In which of the following the total available bandwidth is split into many channels of smaller
bandwidth plus guard spaces between the channels?

A. FHSS
B. DSSS
C. Both a and b
D. None of the above

Answer A
Q15. In which of the following a single data stream is split across several separate narrowband channels
at different frequencies to reduce interference and crosstalk.

A. OFDM
B. GSM
C. GPRS
D. UMTS

Answer A

Q16. Which of the following uses high-frequency radio waves instead of cables for connecting the
devices in LAN?

A. Wired LAN
B. Wireless LAN
C. Fiber made LAN
D. None of the above

Answer B

Q17. Most WLANs are based upon the standard—-

A. IEEE 802.2
B. IEEE 802.11
C. IEEE 802.5
D. IEEE 802.15

Answer B

Q18. Which of the following is/are the advantages of a wireless LAN?

A. Flexibility
B. Ease of use
C. Robustness
D. All of the above

Answer D

Q19. Disadvantages of WLANs include —–

A. Interference and noise

B. Slower than wired
C. Greater care is needed for encryption
D. All of the above

Answer D
Q20. In piconet devices connected with the master is called

A. Slaves
B. Parked
C. Standby
D. None of the above

Answer A

Q21 The general goal of a file system is to support———-

A. Transparent access to data

B. Efficient access to data
C. Consistent access to data
D. All of the above

Answer D

Q 22 In the distributed system a client gives the request, and the server provides—-

A. Data
B. Service
C. Information
D. All of the above

Answer B

Q 23. The important challenges of distributed systems apply to DFS are ——

A. Migration of data
B. Concurrent access to data
C. Replication of data
D. All of the above

Answer B

Q24. Features of CODA is/are

A. A disconnected operation for mobile computing

B. Freely available under a liberal license
C. High performance through client-side persistent caching
D. All of the above

Answer D

Q25. Which of the file system apply gossip protocols?

A. CODA
B. Ficus
C. Rover
D. None of the above
Answer B

Q26. Mio-NFS supports following mode/modes ———-

A. Connected
B. Loosely connected
C. Disconnected
D. All of the above

Answer C

Q27. Which of the following are objects that can be dynamically loaded into a client computer from a
server (or vice-versa) to reduce client-server communication?

A. Relocatable dynamic objects

B. Locatable objects
C. Dynamic objects
D. None of the above

Answer 1

Q28 Which of the following allows for non-blocking RPCs even when a host is disconnected?

A. Queued remote procedure calls

B. Remote procedure calls
C. Both a and b
D. None of the above

Answer A

Q29. All transactions must satisfy the —–

A. Consistency
B. Availability
C. ACID Property
D. All of the above

Answer C

Q 30. The ability of a system to perform its function correctly even in the presence of internal faults is
called

A. Fault tolerance
B. Recovery
C. Both a and b
D. None of the above

Answer C
Q 31. TCP is a reliable protocol that incorporates

A. congestion control
B. Flow control mechanisms
C. guarantees in-order delivery of data
D. All of the above

Answer D

Q32. TCP supports many of the Internet’s most popular application protocols and resulting
applications, including

A. World Wide Web

B. e-mail,
C. File Transfer Protocol
D. All of the above

Answer D

Q 33. Which of the following segments a TCP connection into a fixed part and a wireless part?

A. Indirect TCP
B. Direct TCP
C. Both a and b
D. None of the above

Answer A

Q 34. Advantages of Indirect TCP includes

A. Fast transmission
B. Congestion control
C. Error control
D. All of the above

Answer D

Q 35. The main function of snooping TCP is —-

A. To buffer data close to the mobile host to perform fast local retransmission in case of packet
loss.
B. Congestion control
C. Flow control
D. None of the above

Answer A
Q 36. I-TCP and Snooping TCP does not help much if a mobile host gets

A. Out of coverage area

B. Disconnected
C. Battery power low
D. None of the above

Answer B

Q 37. M-TCP wants to improve overall throughput to

A. to lower the delay

B. to maintain end-to-end semantics of TCP
C. to provide a more efficient handover
D. All of the above

Answer D

Q 38. Disadvantages of Mobile TCP includes

A. Assuming low bit error rates

B. Lack of buffering
C. Lack of acknowledgment
D. None of the above

Answer A

Q39. A very useful extension of TCP is the use of

A. Buffering packets
B. Congestion control
C. Selective retransmission
D. All of the above

Answer C

Q40. Which of the following combine packets for connection establishment and connection release
with user data packets?

A. Transaction oriented TCP

B. Indirect TCP
C. Snooping TCP
D. None of the above

Answer A

Q41. Mobile Computing allows transmission of data, from one wireless-enabled device to another —-

A. Any device
B. Wired device
C. Wireless-enabled device
 D. None of the above

Answer C

Q42. The most important feature/s of mobile computing technology is/are —-

A. Mobility
B. Portability
C. Wireless connectivity
D. All of the above

Answer D

Q43. Which of the following is the base of most mobile communications?

A. GSM
B. GPRS
C. CDMA
D. None of the above

Answer A

Q44. Which of the following allow the use of only some part of bandwidth?

A. TDMA
B. FDMA
C. Both a and b
D. None of the above

Answer C

Q45. Group of cells without overlapping gaps is called ——

A. Cell
B. Tessellate
C. Mobile station
D. None of the above

Answer B

Q46. In a cellular system, the shape of the cell is generally —–

A. Hexagon
B. Circular
C. Square
D. None of the above

Answer A
Q47. Important mobile computing application/s is/are —–

A. Education
B. Sports
C. Games
D. All of the above

Answer D

Q48. Challenges of mobile computing include ———

A. Low Security
B. Ad hoc Networking
C. Shared medium
D. All of the above

Answer D

Q49. The base station covers a specific area that is called a —-

A. Cell
B. Radius
C. Tessellate
D. None of the above

Answer A

Q50. Which of the following services/service are defined within the bearer services?

A. Data transmission
B. Forward error correction
C. Flow control
D. All of the above

Answer D

Q51. The overlapping portion of two piconets is called——–

1. Piconet

2. Ad hoc piconet

3. Scatter net

4. All of the above

Answer C
Q52. Bluetooth technology is used for —-

A. Connection of peripheral devices

B. Ad-hoc networking
C. Bridging network gaps
D. All of the above

Answer D

Q53. In Bluetooth which of the following device follow the hopping sequence?

A. Master
B. Parked
C. Standby
D. Slave

Answer D

Q54. Which of the following system takes a user bitstream and perform an (XOR)? The result is either
the sequence 0110101 (if the user bit equals 0) or its complement 1001010 (if the user bit equals 1).

A. FHSS
B. DSSS
C. Both a and b
D. None of the above

Answer B

Q55. Slow and fast hopping is used in —-

A. FHSS
B. GSM
C. GPRS
D. UMTS

Answer A

Q56. The most WLANs are based upon —-

A. IEEE 802.11
B. WiFi
C. Both a and b
D. None of these

Answer C
Q57. The advantages of WLANs are —–

A. Flexibility
B. Robustness
C. Less cost
D. All of the above

Answer D

Q58. Disadvantages of WLANs are —–

A. Slow speed
B. Noise
C. More effort for Security
D. All of the above

Answer D

Q59. In a piconet, the master device decides the —-

A. Hopping pattern
B. Frequency reuse
C. Channels
D. All of the above

Answer D

Q60. In a Distributed File System, clients access files provided by

A. Other clients
B. Server
C. Access point
D. None of these

Answer B
 Model Question Paper

Subject: Mobile Computing

Branch: CSE

Class: BE

Semester: VIII

~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~
Q1. Which of the following stores all the user-related data that is relevant for
the GSM system in mobile computing?

a. Sim
b. HLR
c. ELR
d. VLR

Ans.: a

Q2. Which of the following stores Mobile Subscriber ISDN number – MSISDN?

a. Home location register

b. Visitor location register
c. Entity equipment register
d. None of the above

Ans.: a

Q3. In which of the following Codes with specific characteristics can be applied to
the transmission?

a. GSM
b. GPRS
c. CDMA
d. None of the above

Ans.: c

Q4. Which of the following allow the use of entire bandwidth simultaneously?

a. TDMA
b. FDMA
c. CDMA
d. None of the above

Ans.: c

Q5. The base station covers a specific area that is called a ——

a. Cell
b. Tessellate
c. Mobile station
d. None of the above

Ans.: a

Q6. In a cellular system, the shape of the cell depends on —–

a. Environmental conditions
b. Social conditions
c. Political conditions
d. None of the above

Ans.: a

Q7. Cellular System or having small cells needs ——–

a. Handover
b. Infrastructure
c. Frequency planning
d. All of the above

Ans.: d

Q8. In a cellular system, the same frequency is used for other users using the
technique ———-

a. Frequency planning
b. Frequency hopping
c. Frequency reuse
d. None of the above

Ans.: c
 Q9. Which of the following provides packet mode data transfer service over
the cellular network system?

a. GSM
b. GPRS
c. TCP
d. None of the above

Ans.: b

Q10. Which of the following services/ services are defined by the GSM?

a. Bearer
b. Supplementary
c. Tele
d. All of the above

Ans.: d

Q11. . Bluetooth Technology supports

a. Piconet
b. Ad hoc piconet
c. Scatter net
d. All of the above

Ans.: d

Q12. Which of the following wireless technology is used for exchanging data
between a variety of fixed and mobile devices over a very short diameter?

a. Mobile technology
b. Bluetooth technology
c. Ad hoc computing
d. None of the above

Ans.: b

Q13. In Bluetooth which of the following device decides hopping sequence?

a. Master
b. Parked
c. Standby
d. Slave

Ans.: a

Q14. Which of the following uses high-frequency radio waves instead of cables
for connecting the devices in LAN?

a. Wired LAN
b. Wireless LAN
c. Fiber made LAN
d. None of the above

Ans.: b

Q15. Most WLANs are based upon the standard—-

a. IEEE 802.2
b. IEEE 802.11
c. IEEE 802.5
d. IEEE 802.15

Ans.: b

Q16. . Which of the following is/are the advantages of a wireless LAN?

a. Flexibility
b. Ease of use
c. Robustness
d. All of the above

Ans.: d

Q17. Disadvantages of WLANs are —–

a. Slow speed
b. Noise
c. More effort for Security
d. All of the above

Ans.: d
 Q18. In the distributed system a client gives the request, and the server provides—
-

a. Data
b. Service
c. Information
d. All of the above

Ans.: b

Q19. In piconet devices connected with the master is called

a. Slaves
b. Parked
c. Standby
d. None of the above

Ans.: a

Q20. The important challenges of distributed systems apply to DFS are ——

a. Migration of data
b. Concurrent access to data
c. Replication of data
d. All of the above

Ans.: d
Q21. Bluetooth is the wireless technology for __________
a) local area network
b) personal area network
c) metropolitan area network
d) wide area network

Ans.: b

Q22. Bluetooth uses __________

a) frequency hopping spread spectrum
b) orthogonal frequency division multiplexing
c) time division multiplexing
d) channel division multiplexing

Ans.: a
Q23. The header length of an IPv6 datagram is ___________
a) 10bytes
b) 25bytes
c) 30bytes
d) 40bytes

Ans.: d

Q24. Bluetooth is named after a(n) ____________ king.

a. Swiss
b. English
c. German
d. Danish

Ans.: d

Q25. What is one of the features that make Bluetooth different from other wireless
technologies?

a. inability to transfer voice and data between battery-operated mobile devices

b. long-distance wireless capabilities
c. high bandwidth wireless capabilities
d. low power consumption

Ans.: d

Q26. IPv6 does not use _________ type of address.

a) broadcast
b) multicast
c) anycast
d) unicast

Ans.: a

Q27. Bluetooth devices communicate at ____________ bandwidths.

a. static
b. low
c. high
d. fixed

Ans.: b

Q28. WiMAX stands for ___________

a) wireless maximum communication
b) worldwide interoperability for microwave access
c) worldwide international standard for microwave access
d) wireless internet maximum communication

Ans.: b

Q29. WiMAX provides ________

a) simplex communication
b) half duplex communication
c) full duplex communication
d) no communication

Ans.: c

Q30. Which of the following is NOT a device that is likely to use Bluetooth
technology?

a. toy
b. high-speed router
c. PDA
d. cell phone

Ans.: b

Q31. Which among the following features is present in IPv6 but not in IPv4?
a) Fragmentation
b) Header checksum
c) Options
d) Anycast address

Ans.: d

Q32. What is the full form of WLAN?

a) Wide Local Area Network
b) Wireless Local Area Network
c) Wireless Land Access Network
d) Wireless Local Area Node

Ans.: b

Q33. Devices that provide the connectivity to a WiMAX network are known as
_________
a) subscriber stations
b) base stations
c) gateway
d) switch stations

Ans.: a

Q34. The size of an IP address in IPv6 is _________

a) 4 bytes
b) 128 bits
c) 8 bytes
d) 100 bits

Ans.: b

Q35. IPv6 has a larger address space of _________

a) 216
b) 2128
c) 232
d) 28

Ans.: b

Q36. Which of the following frequencies is not used in WiMAX for communication?
a) 2.3 GHz
b) 2.4 GHz
c) 2.5 GHz
d) 3.5 GHz

Ans.: b

Q37. RFID stands for?

a. Random frequency identification

b. Radio frequency identification

c. Random frequency information

d. Radio frequency information

Ans.: b

Q38. Which of the following is NOT true about Bluetooth?

a. Bluetooth is considered to be low bandwidth wireless technology.

b. Bluetooth has a range of about 30 feet.
c. Bluetooth has a bandwidth of 720 kbps.
d. Bluetooth is considered to be a long-distance wireless technology.
Ans.: d

Q39. Wi-Fi stands for?

a. Wireless fidelity

b. Wireless Flexibility

c. Wide Fidelity

d. WAN Flexibility

Ans.: a

Q40. Which of the following specifies a set of media access control (MAC) and
physical layer specifications for implementing WLANs?
a) IEEE 802.16
b) IEEE 802.3
c) IEEE 802.11
d) IEEE 802.15

Ans.: c

Q41. Which of the following is the world’s first cellular system to specify digital
modulation and network level architecture?
a) GSM
b) AMPS
c) CDMA
d) IS-54

Ans.: a

Q42. . Previously in 1980s, GSM stands for ____________

a) Global system for mobile
b) Groupe special mobile
c) Global special mobile
d) Groupe system mobile

Ans.: b

Q43. Who sets the standards of GSM?

a) ITU
b) AT & T
c) ETSI
d) USDC

Ans.: c

Q44. Which of the following does not come under the teleservices of GSM?
a) Standard mobile telephony
b) Mobile originated traffic
c) Base originated traffic
d) Packet switched traffic

Ans.: d

Q45. Which of the following comes under supplementary ISDN services?

a) Emergency calling
b) Packet switched protocols
c) Call diversion
d) Standard mobile telephony

Ans.: c

Q46. Which of the following memory device stores information such as subscriber’s
identification number in GSM?
a) Register
b) Flip flop
c) SIM
d) SMS

Ans.: c

Q47. Which of the following feature makes impossible to eavesdrop on GSM radio
transmission?
a) SIM
b) On the air privacy
c) SMS
d) Packet switched traffic

Ans.: b

Q48. Which of the following does not come under subsystem of GSM architecture?
a) BSS
b) NSS
c) OSS
d) Channel
Ans.: d

Q49. Which of the following subsystem provides radio transmission between mobile
station and MSC?
a) BSS
b) NSS
c) OSS
d) BSC

Ans.: a

Q50. ___________ manages the switching function in GSM.

a) BSS
b) NSS
c) OSS
d) MSC

Ans.: b

Q51. . __________ supports the operation and maintenance of GSM.

a) BSS
b) NSS
c) OSS
d) MSC

Ans.: c

Q52. A GPRS Network is a part of ____ in GSM network.

A) BTS

B) BSS

C) NSS

D) VLR

Ans.: c

Q53. Which is the organization providing standards for GPRS network?

A) ANSI

B) ETSI

C) 3GPP
D) UMTS

Ans.: c

Q54. A GPRS Network works same in _____.

A) 2G

B) 3G

C) 2G and /or 3G

D) 4G

Ans.: c

Q55. The Ga interface in a GRPS network uses which protocol?

A) MAP

B) CAP

C) Frame Relay

D) GTP (GPRS Tunneling Protocol)

Ans.: D

Q56. GPRS stands for?

A) General Packet Repair Service

B) General Packet Radio Service

C) Graphics Packet Radio Service

D) None

Ans.: b

Q57. What is the data rate or speed offered by a GPRS connection?

A) 56-115kbps

B) 9-256kbps

C) 64-128kbps

D) None
Ans.: a

Q58. GPRS services belong to which generation?

A) 1G

B) 2G

C) 3G

D) 4G

Ans.: b

Q59. Choose a correct abbreviation below.

A) SGSN - Serving GPRS Support Node

B) GGSN - Gateway GPRS Support Node

C) IP - Internet Protocol

D) All

Ans.: D

Q60. GPRS is a Connection Oriented service. True/False?

A) False

B) True

Ans.: a
Name of College: Gangamai College of Engineering, Nagaon Dist Dhule
Subject: Mobile Computing
Branch: Computer
Class: BE
Semester: VIII

Q1. Which of the following stores all the user-related data that is relevant for
the GSM system in mobile computing?

A. Sim
B. HLR
C. VLR
D. ELR
Ans.: A
Q2. Which of the following stores Mobile Subscriber ISDN number – MSISDN?

A. Home location register

B. Visitor location register
C. Entity equipment register
D. None of the above
Ans.: A
Q3. In which of the following Codes with specific characteristics can be applied
to the transmission?

A. GSM
B. GPRS
C. CDMA
D. None of the above
Ans.: C
Q4. Which of the following allow the use of entire bandwidth simultaneously?

A. TDMA
B. FDMA
C. CDMA
D. None of the above
Ans.: C
Q5. Cellular System or having small cells needs ——–

A. Handover
B. Infrastructure
C. Frequency planning
D. All of the above
Ans.: D
Q6. Which of the following provides packet mode data transfer service over
the cellular network system?

A. GSM
B. GPRS
C. TCP
D. None of the above
Ans.: B

Q7. Which of the following services/ services are defined by the GSM?

A. Bearer
B. Supplementary
C. Tele
D. All of the above
Ans.: D
Q8. Bluetooth Technology supports

A. Piconet
B. Ad hoc piconet
C. Scatter net
D. All of the above
Ans.: D
Q9. Which of the following wireless technology is used for exchanging data
between a variety of fixed and mobile devices over a very short diameter?

A. Mobile technology
B. Bluetooth technology
C. Ad hoc computing
D. None of the above
Ans.: B
Q10. In Bluetooth which of the following device decides hopping sequence?

A. Master
B. Parked
C. Standby
D. Slave
Ans.: A
Q11. Most WLANs are based upon the standard—-

A. IEEE 802.2
B. IEEE 802.11
C. IEEE 802.5
D. IEEE 802.15
Ans.: B
Q12. Which of the following is/are the advantages of a wireless LAN?

A. Flexibility
B. Ease of use
C. Robustness
D. All of the above
Ans.: D
Q13. Disadvantages of WLANs include —–

A. Interference and noise

B. Slower than wired
C. Greater care is needed for encryption
D. All of the above
Ans.: D
Q14. In piconet devices connected with the master is called

A. Slaves
B. Parked
C. Standby
D. None of the above
Ans.: A
Q15. Mobile Computing allows transmission of data, from one wireless-
enabled device to another —-

A. Any device
B. Wired device
C. Wireless-enabled device
D. None of the above
Ans.: C
Q16. The most important feature/s of mobile computing technology is/are —-

A. Mobility
B. Portability
C. Wireless connectivity
D. All of the above
Ans.: D
Q17. Which of the following is the base of most mobile communications?

A. GSM
B. GPRS
C. CDMA
D. None of the above
Ans.: A
Q18. Which of the following allow the use of only some part of bandwidth?

A. TDMA
B. FDMA
C. Both a and b
D. None of the above
Ans.: C
Q19. Important mobile computing application/s is/are —–

A. Education
B. Sports
C. Games
D. All of the above
Ans.: D
Q20. Challenges of mobile computing include ———

A. Low Security
B. Ad hoc Networking
C. Shared medium
D. All of the above
Ans.: D
Q21. Which of the following services/service are defined within the bearer
services?

A. Data transmission
B. Forward error correction
C. Flow control
D. All of the above
Ans.: D
Q22. The overlapping portion of two piconets is called——–

A. Piconet
B. Ad hoc piconet
C. Scatter net
D. All of the above
Ans.: C
Q23. Bluetooth technology is used for —-

A. Connection of peripheral devices

B. Ad-hoc networking
C. Bridging network gaps
D. All of the above
Ans.: D
Q24. The most WLANs are based upon —-
A. IEEE 802.11
B. WiFi
C. Both a and b
D. None of these
Ans.: C
Q25. The advantages of WLANs are —–

A. Flexibility
B. Robustness
C. Less cost
D. All of the above
Ans.: D
Q.26. Which of the following is the world’s first cellular system to specify
digital modulation and network level architecture?
A. GSM
B.AMPS
C.CDMA
D.IS-54
Ans.: A

Q.27 Previously in 1980s, GSM stands for ____________

A. Global system for mobile
B. Groupe special mobile
C. Global special mobile
D. Groupe system mobile
Ans.: B
Q.28 who sets the standards of GSM?
A. ITU
B. AT & T
C. ETSI
D. USDC
Ans.: C
Q.29 Which of the following does not come under the tele-services of GSM?
A. Standard mobile telephony
B. Mobile originated traffic
C. Base originated traffic
D. Packet switched traffic
Ans.: D
Q.30 Which of the following comes under supplementary ISDN services?
A. Emergency calling
B. Packet switched protocols
C. Call diversion
D. Standard mobile telephony
Ans.: C
Q.31 Which of the following memory device stores information such as
subscriber’s identification number in GSM?
A. Register
B. Flip flop
C. SIM
D. SMS
Ans.: C

Q.32 Which of the following feature makes impossible to eavesdrop on GSM

radio transmission?
A. SIM
B. On the air privacy
C. SMS
D. Packet switched traffic

Ans.: B

Q.33 Which of the following does not come under subsystem of GSM
architecture?
A. BSS
B. NSS
C. OSS
D. Channel

Ans.: D

Q.34 Which of the following subsystem provides radio transmission between

mobile station and MSC?
A. BSS
B. NSS
C. OSS
D. BSC

Ans.: A

Q.35 ___________ manages the switching function in GSM.

A. BSS
B. NSS
C. OSS
D. MSC

Ans.: B
Q.36 __________ supports the operation and maintenance of GSM.
A. BSS
B. NSS
C. OSS
D. MSC

Ans.: C

Q.37 __________ carries digitally encoded user data.

A. Traffic channels
B. Control channels
C. Signaling channels
D. Forward channels6

Ans.: A

Q.38 ____________ carries signalling and synchronizing commands.

A. Traffic channels
B. Control channels
C. Signaling channels
D. Forward channels
Ans.: B
Q.39 Several protocols for upper layers in bluetooth use _________
A. UDP
B. HSP
C. ITC
D. L2CAP
Ans.: D
Q.40 Network layer at source is responsible for creating a packet from data
coming from another ________
A. Station
B. Link
C. Node
D. Protocol
Ans.: D
Q.41 Header of datagram in IPv4 has _________
A. 0 to 20 bytes
B. 20 to 40 bytes
C. 20 to 60 bytes
D. 20 to 80 bytes
Ans.: C
Q.42 In IPv4 layer, datagram is of ________
A. Fixed length
B. Variable length
C. Global length
D. Zero length
Ans.: B
Q.43 Which protocol is commonly used to retrieve email from a mail server?
A. FTP
B. IMAP
C. HTML
D. TELNET
Ans.: B
Q.44 A packet in Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) is called a ____________
A. Transmittable slots
B. Packet
C. Segment
D. Source Slots
Ans.: C
Q.45 IEEE 802.11 defines basic service set as building block of a wireless
___________
A. LAN
B. WAN protocol
C. MAN
D. ALOHA
Ans.: A
Q.46 Wireless transmission is divided into ___________
A. 3 broad groups
B. 6 broad groups
C. 9 broad groups
D. 8 broad groups
Ans.: A
Q.47 Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Networking Protocol have
___________
A. Four Layers
B. Five Layers
C. Six Layers
D. Seven Layers
Ans.: A
Q.48 Packets of data that is transported by IP is called __________
A. Datagram
B. Frames
C. Segments
D. Encapsulate message
Ans.: A
Q.49 IPv6 has a larger address space of _________
A. 216
B. 2128
C. 232
D. 28
Ans.: B
Q.50 In practical IPv6 application, a technology encapsulates IPv6 packets
inside IPv4 packets, this technology is called _______
A. Tunneling
B. Hashing
C. Routing
D. NAT
Ans.: A
Q.51 Which one of the following descriptions about IPv6 is correct?
A. Addresses are not hierarchical and are assigned at random
B. Broadcasts have been eliminated and replaced with multicasts
C. There are 2.7 billion available addresses
D. An interface can only be configured with one IPv6 address
Ans.: B
Q.52 MIN stands for_____________________
A. Mobile Identification Number
B. Mobile Internet
C. Mobility In Network
D. None of the above
Ans.: A
Q.53 The process of transferring a mobile station from one base station to
another is_________________

A. MSC
B. Roamer
C. Hand off
D. Forward channel

Ans.: C

Q.54 In Handoff

A. Process of transferring the call to the new base station

B. Transfers the call
C. New channel allocation is done
D. All of the above

Ans.: D
Q.55 In a wireless communication, base station is connected to central hub
called _______
A. PSTN
B. MSC
C. CO
D. PBX
Ans.: B
Q.56 PSTN stands for ________
A. Public switched telephone network
B. Personal switched telephone network
C. Personal switched telephone node
D. Public switched telephone node
Ans.: A
Q.57 In public switched telephone network, LATA stands for ______
A. Local access and transport area
B. Land area and transport area
C. Local access and telephone access
D. Local area and telephone access
Ans.: A
Q.58 Connection oriented services are also called __________
A. Datagram services
B. Virtual circuit routing
C. Connectionless services
D. Routing service
Ans.: B
Q.59 ISDN is based on the concept of __________
A. SS7
B. CCS
C. ARDIS
D. CDPD
Ans.: B
Q.60 ______ is used for transmission of packets in the cellular switched
architecture.
A. Packet switching techniques
B. Circuit switching techniques
C. Packet and circuit switched technique
D. Datagram technique
Ans.: A
 Model Question Paper
Subject: Mobile Computing

Branch: Computer Engineering

Class: BE

Semester: VIII

Q1. “Mr. Watson, come here, I want to see you” was a first ever voice call by

A) Joseph Henry

B) F. B. Morse

C) Alexander G. Bell

D) Harald Blatand

Ans. C

Q2. Mobile Computing is also known as

A) Parallel Computing

B) Genetic Computing

C) Nomadic Computing

D) All of these

Ans. C

Q3. Fixed telephone is a

A) Bearer Network

B) Bearer Gateway

C) Middleware Gateway

D) User/Device

Ans. D

Q4. CDMA Mobile Phone is a

A) Bearer Network

B) Bearer Gateway

C) Middleware Gateway

D) User/Device
Ans. D

Q5. PDA is a

A) Bearer Network

B) Bearer Gateway

C) Middleware Gateway

D) User/Device

Ans. D

Q6. Analog exchange is a

A) Bearer Network

B) Bearer Gateway

C) Middleware Gateway

D) User/Device

Ans. A

Q7. Mobile exchange WAP is a

A) Bearer Network

B) Bearer Gateway

C) Middleware Gateway

D) User/Device

Ans. A

Q8. ISP Internet Gateway is a

A) Bearer Network

B) Bearer Gateway

C) Middleware Gateway

D) User/Device

Ans. A

Q9. Digital IVR is a

A) Bearer Network

B) Bearer Gateway

C) Middleware Gateway

D) User/Device

Ans. B

Q10. SMS Gateway is a

A) Bearer Network

B) Bearer Gateway

C) Middleware Gateway

D) User/Device

Ans. B

Q11. Web Server is a

A) Bearer Network

B) Bearer Gateway

C) Middleware Gateway

D) User/Device

Ans. B

Q12. Rendering is a

A) Bearer Network

B) Bearer Gateway

C) Middleware Gateway

D) User/Device

Ans. C

Q13. HTTP Server is a

A) Bearer Network

B) Bearer Gateway

C) Middleware Gateway
D) User/Device

Ans. C

Q14. User Hooks are

A) Bearer Network

B) Bearer Gateway

C) Middleware Gateway

D) User/Device

Ans. C

Q15. Connectors are

A) Bearer Network

B) Bearer Gateway

C) Middleware Gateway

D) User/Device

Ans. C

Q16. Mail Server is a

A) Bearer Network

B) Bearer Gateway

C) Middleware Gateway

D) Content Service

Ans. D

Q17. Mainframe Server is a

A) Bearer Network

B) Bearer Gateway

C) Middleware Gateway

D) Content Service

Ans. D

Q18. PIM Server is a

A) Bearer Network

B) Bearer Gateway

C) Middleware Gateway

D) Content Service

Ans. D

Q19. ............ is a personal Mobile Computing application

A) Bank Transactions

B) Wallet

C) Utility Bill Payment

D) News

Ans. B

Q20. ............ is a transaction oriented Mobile Computing application

A) Wallet

B) Diary

C) Utility Bill Payment

D) News

Ans. C

Q21. A Network can be divided into.......segments

A) One

B) Two

C) Three

D) Four

Ans. C

Q22. The Mobile Computing architecture has.......tiers

A) One

B) Two

C) Three
D) Four

Ans. C

Q23. In Mobile Computing architecture, User Interface is

A) Tire1

B) Tire2

C) Tire3

D) Tire4

Ans. A

Q24. In Mobile Computing architecture, Process Management is

A) Tire1

B) Tire2

C) Tire3

D) Tire4

Ans. B

Q25. In Mobile Computing architecture, Business Tasks are

A) Tire1

B) Tire2

C) Tire3

D) Tire4

Ans. B

Q26. In Mobile Computing architecture, Database Management is

A) Tire1

B) Tire2

C) Tire3

D) Tire4

Ans. C

Q27. In Mobile Computing architecture, Data Store is

A) Tire1

B) Tire2

C) Tire3

D) Tire4

Ans. C

Q28. The Google Chrome browser comes under

A) Presentation Tier

B) Application Tier

C) Data Tier

D) None of these

Ans. A

Q29. Lynx comes under

A) Presentation Tier

B) Application Tier

C) Data Tier

D) None of these

Ans. A

Q30. Apache comes under

A) Presentation Tier

B) Application Tier

C) Data Tier

D) None of these

Ans. A

Q31. The Client Context manager does not deal with

A) Identity

B) Security

C) Activity
D) Social Situation

Ans. B

Q32. Semantic Web is based on

A) URI

B) URL

C) A & B

D) None of these

Ans. A

Q33. Mobile Computing through Internet will be through

A) WiFi

B) GSM

C) CDMA

D) All of these

Ans. D

Q34. Bluetooth was the nickname of

A) Joseph Henry

B) F. B. Morse

C) Alexander G. Bell

D) Harald Blatand

Ans. D

Q35. Bluetooth operates in .......frequency band.

A) 2.2 GHz

B) 2.4 GHz

C) 2.6 GHz

D) 2.8 GHz

Ans. B

Q36. Bluetooth can transfer data at maximum speed of

A) 512 Kbps

B) 512 KBps

C) 1 Mbps

D) 1 MBps

Ans. C

Q37. RFID operates on.......basic frequncies

A) Two

B) Four

C) Six

D) Eight

Ans. C

Q38. ........is not currently identified application area of RFID.

A) Transportation and Logistics

B) Animal Tagging

C) Retail Store

D) Matchmaking

Ans. D

Q39. The WiMax technical standard is

A) 802.3

B) 802.11

C) 802.16

D) 802.22

Ans.C

Q40. The Home Agent in Mobile IP is used in

A) Discovery

B) Registration

C) Tunnelling
D) None of these

Ans. C

Q41. GSM was established in

A) 1982

B) 1987

C) 1989

D) 1990

Ans. A

Q42. GSM uses

A) FDMA

B) TDMA

C) A & B

D) None of these

Ans. C

Q43. In GSM System hierarchy, ........is at the top.

A) BSC

B) MSC

C) PLMN

D) LA

Ans. C

Q44. ........is not a GSM entity.

A) MS

B) BSC

C) MSC

D) LA

Ans. D

Q45. In GSM, HLR & VLR are connected to

A) BTS

B) BSC

C) MSC

D) OMC

Ans. C

Q46. .........is not used in GSM call routing.

A) IMEI

B) IMSI

C) TMSI

D) MSRN

Ans. A

Q47. IMEI is the acronym for

A) Internet Mobile Equipment Identity

B) International Mobile Equivalent Identity

C) International Mobile Equipment Identity

D) None of these

Ans. C

Q48. IMEI is stored in

A) EIR

B) SIM Card

C) Memory Card

D) None of these

Ans. A

Q49. IMSI is stored in

A) EIR

B) SIM Card

C) Memory Card
D) None of these

Ans. B

Q50. In the Mobile phone handset, one can type.......to see the IMEI number(s).

A) #*06*

B) *#06#*

C) *#06#

D) #*06*#

Ans. C

Q51. GSM has ........number of channels.

A) 120

B) 125

C) 130

D) 132

Ans. B

Q52. The IMEI number is of ........digits.

A) 12

B) 14

C) 15

D) 16

Ans. C

Q53. . The IMSI number is of ........digits.

A) 12

B) 14

C) 15

D) 16

Ans. C

Q54. In GSM, ....... Algorithm is used for Authentication.

A) A3

B) A5

C) A8

D) None of these

Ans. A

Q55. In GSM, ....... Algorithm is used for Key Generation.

A) A3

B) A5

C) A8

D) None of these

Ans. C

Q56. In GSM, ....... Algorithm is used for Privacy.

A) A3

B) A5

C) A8

D) None of these

Ans. B

Q57. .........is not a GPRS QoS requirement.

A) Reliability

B) Security

C) Delay

D) Throughput

Ans. B

Q58. .........is not used in GPRS

A) MS

B) BSS

C) SGSN
D) LA

Ans. D

Q59. GPRS works with

A) GSM

B) CDMA

C) A & B

D) None of these

Ans. A

Q60. GPRS is a ..........standard.

A) 1G

B) 2G

C) 2.5G

D) 3G

Ans. C
 Model Question Paper
Subject: MOBILE COMPUTING

Branch: COMPUTER ENGINEERING

Class: FINAL YEAR BE COMPUTER

Semester: VIII

Q1. Which of the following is a mobile computingcharacteristic?

A. Bearer Mobility.

B. Session Mobility

C. Host mobility.

D. All

Ans.: D

Q2. Gateway is:

A. Interface.

B. Mobility.

C. Network.

D. All

Ans.: A

Q.3.The base station covers a specific area that is called a ——

A.Cell

B. Tessellate
C. Mobile station
D. None of the above

Answer A.

Q.4 ISO 9000 related to …

A. Connection.

B. Software Quality.

C. Frequency.

D. All

Answer B.

Q.5 Session Mobility is a

A. One bearer to another.

B. One device to another.

C. One user-agent environment to another.

D. Physical Location.

Answer C.

Q.6. User Agent (UA) in the Mobile Computing is

A. Software.

B. Equipment.

C. Software and Equipment.

D. None.

Answer A

Q.7 In India the regulatory authority is

A. FCC

B.TRAI

C.ICT

D.CEPT

Answer B

Q.8 Virtual Office is

A. Physical office

B. Mobile office

C. Both A and B

D. None

Answer B

Q.9 Standards is a

A. Guideline

B. Rules

C. Criteria

D All

Answer D

Q. 10 second generation or 2G Technology uses

A. AMPS

B. FDMA

C. TDMA AND FDMA

D. UMTS

Answer C

Q.11 Mobile Computing allows transmission of data, from one wireless-enabled device to
another —-

A. Any device
B. Wired device
C. Wireless-enabled device
D. None of the above

Answer C

Q.12The most important feature/s of mobile computing technology is/are —-

A. Mobility

B. Portability
C . Wireless connectivity
D. All of the above

Answer D

Q.13 In a cellular system, the shape of the cell is generally —–

A.Hexagon

B.Circular

C. Square
 D.None of the above

Answer A

Q.14 Which of the following stores Mobile Subscriber ISDN number – MSISDN?

A. Home location register

B. Visitor location register
C. Entity equipment register
D. None of the above

Answer A

Q.15 In which of the following Codes with specific characteristics can be applied to the
transmission?

A. GSM
B. GPRS
C. CDMA
D. None of the above

Answer C

Q.16 Presentation Tiers responsible for presenting the information to the

A. End User.

B. Security.

C. Memory.

D . All

Answer A

Q.17 Edge is responsible for

A. Distribution of Traffic.
B. Local switching.

C. Exchanges.

D .All

Answer D.

Q.18. In Application Tier-2 MOM is a

A. Memory Oriented Management

B. Message –Oriented Middleware

C. Format

D. None

Answer B

Q.19 Three Tier architecture for mobile computing these tiers are Presentation Tier, application
Tier and

A. Session Tier

B. Physical Tier

C. Data Tier

D None

Answer C

Q.20 Which of the following uses high-frequency radio waves instead of cables for connecting
the devices in LAN?
 A. Wired LAN
B. Wireless LAN
C. Fiber made LAN
D. None of the above

Answer B

Q.21 EIR is a

A. Equipment Identity Register

B. Equipment Identity Rules

C. Equipment information Registration

D None.

Q.22 Bluetooth Technology supports

A. Piconet

B .Ad hoc piconet

C .Scatter net

D. All of the above

Answer D

Q.23. Which of the following wireless technology is used for exchanging data between a variety
of fixed and mobile devices over a very short diameter?

A. Mobile technology
B. Bluetooth technology
C. Ad hoc computing
D. None of the above

Answer B

Q.24. In Bluetooth which of the following device decides hopping sequence?

A. Master
B. Parked
C. Standby
D. Slave

Answer A

Q.25 Peripheral devices can communicate though a small network known as

A. Bluetooth

B. Wifi

C. Lifi

D. None

Answer A

Q.26 Bluetooth is the wireless technology for __________

a) local area network
b) personal area network
c) metropolitan area network
d) wide area network

Answer B
Q.27 Bluetooth transceiver devices operate in ______ band.
a) 2.4 GHz ISM
b) 2.5 GHz ISM
c) 2.6 GHz ISM
d) 2.7 GHz ISM

Answer A

Q.28. RFID stands for?

a) Random frequency identification
b) Radio frequency identification
c) Random frequency information
d) Radio frequency information

Answer B

Q.29. which of the following statement about radio frequency Identification (RFID) is not true?

A.RFID systems transmit radio signals over long distances

B. RFID systems use tiny tags with embedded microchips containing data about an item and its
location

C. RFID systems provide a powerful technology for tracking the movement of goods throughout
the supply chain

D .Companies may be required to upgrade hardware and software to accommodate the massive
amounts data that are being produced by RFID systems.

Answer A.

Q.30 1 WiMAX stands for ___________

a) wireless maximum communication
b) worldwide interoperability for microwave access
c) worldwide international standard for microwave access
d) wireless internet maximum communication

Answer B

Q.31 WiMAX uses the _________

a) orthogonal frequency division multiplexing
b) time division multiplexing
c) space division multiplexing
d) channel division multiplexing

Answer A

Q.32 WiMAX is mostly used for __________

a) local area network
b) metropolitan area network
c) personal area network
d) wide area network

Answer B

Q.33. Which of the following is the world’s first cellular system to specify digital modulation
and network level architecture?
a) GSM
b) AMPS
c) CDMA
d) IS-54

Answer A

Q.34 Previously in 1980s, GSM stands for ____________

a) Global system for mobile
b) Groupe special mobile
c) Global special mobile
d) Groupe system mobile

Answer B

Q.35 Previously in 1980s, GSM stands for ____________

a) Global system for mobile
b) Groupe special mobile
c) Global special mobile
d) Groupe system mobile

Answer C

Q.36 Which of the following feature makes impossible to eavesdrop on GSM radio
transmission?
a) SIM
b) On the air privacy
c) SMS
d) Packet switched traffic
Answer B

Q.37 ___________ manages the switching function in GSM.

a) BSS
b) NSS
c) OSS
d) MSC

Answer B

Q.38 Which of the following memory device stores information such as subscriber’s
identification number in GSM?
a) Register
b) Flip flop
c) SIM
d) SMS

Answer C

Q.39 The process of transferring a mobile station from one base station to another is
a. MSC
b. Roamer
c. Hand off
d. Forward channel
Answer C

Q.40 Hexagon shape is used for radio coverage for a cell because
a. It uses the maximum area for coverage
b. Fewer number of cells are required
c. It approximates circular radiation pattern
d. All of the above
Answer D

Q.41 Which of the following does not come under subsystem of GSM architecture?
a) BSS
b) NSS
c) OSS
d) Channel
Answer D

Q.42 Which one is not an advantage of using frequency reuse?

a) Increased capacity
b) Limited spectrum is required
c) Same spectrum may be allocated to other network
d) Number of base stations is reduced

Answer: d
Q.43 What is handoff?
a) Forward channel
b) Switching technique
c) Roamer
d) Guard channel

Answer: B
Q.44 who has the responsibility of billing and system maintenance function in cellular system?
a) Base Station
b) PSTN
c) MSC
d) Mobile system

Answer: C

Q.45Which is one of the disadvantages of 2G standards?

a) Short Messaging Service (SMS)
b) Digital modulation
c) Limited capacity
d) Limited Internet Browsing

Answer:D

Q.46VLR and HLR in GSM systems are

A. Gateways for outer connectivity

B. Databases of registered users

C. Routers and call management servers

D. NONE

Answer: B
Q.47Main reasons for a handover in GSM are

A. Weak signal in cell and heavy cell load

B. Heavy cell load

C. Mobile station moves from cell to cell

D.ALL

Answer:A

Q.48GPRS needs the following parts of a typical GSM

A. Does not need any part of GSM

B. The packet-switched core for data transmission

C. The circuit-switched core for localization and authentication

D.NONE

Answer:C

Q.49 MIN stands for

a. Mobile Identification Number
b. Mobile Internet
c. Mobility In Network
d. None of the above

Answer:A

Q.50 Centre excited hexagonal cells use

a. Sectored directional antennas
b. Omni directional antennas
c. Yagiuda antennas
d. None of the above

Answer:B

Q.51 The strategies acquired for channel assignment are

a. Fixed
b. Dynamic
c. Regular
d. Both a andb
e. Both b and c

Answer:D

Q.52 Delay in handoffs is caused due to

a. Week signal conditions
b. High traffic conditions
c. Un availability of the channel
d. All of the above

Answer:D

Q.53. Trunking in a cellular network refers to

a. Termination of a call
b. Spectrum unavailability
c. Accommodating large number of users in limited spectrum
d. All of the above

Answer:C

Q.542. RFID is a part of IoT.

a) True
b) False

Answer:A
Q.55 Bluetooth uses __________
a) frequency hopping spread spectrum
b) orthogonal frequency division multiplexing
c) time division multiplexing
d) channel division multiplexing

Answer:A

Q.56 Bluetooth supports _______

a) point-to-point connections
b) point-to-multipoint connection
c) both point-to-point connections and point-to-multipoint connection
d) multipoint to point connection

Answer:C

Q.57In a piconet, there can be up to ________ parked nodes in the network.

a) 63
b) 127
c) 255
d) 511

Answer:C

Q.58Which of the following priority handoff method decrease the probability of forced
termination of a call due to lack of available channels?
a) Queuing
b) Guard channel
c) Cell dragging
d) Near far effect

Answer:A

Q.59What is frequency reuse?

a) Process of selecting and allocating channels
b) Process of selection of mobile users
c) Process of selecting frequency of mobile equipment
d) Process of selection of number of cells

Answer:A
Q.60 Which of the following comes under supplementary ISDN services?
a) Emergency calling
b) Packet switched protocols
c) Call diversion
d) Standard mobile telephony

Answer: C
 Model Question Paper
SMQA
Department of Computer Engineering
Year 2019-20
Class :- BE
Subject:- Software Metrics and Quality Assurance

Q.1 Internal product attribute

A. Usability
B. Portability
C. Size
D. Maintainability

Ans. C

Q.2 External product attribute

A. Reliability
B. Size
C. Complexity
D. Reuse

Ans. A

Q.3 Functionality approach

A. Testability
B. Albrecht's Approach
C. Little Wood Model
D. None of Above

Ans. B

Q.4 TCF stands for

A. Test Complex Factor
B. Technical Complexity Factor
C. Type Component Factor
D. None of Above

Ans. B

Q.5 Parametric reliability growth model

A. Putnam Slim Model
B. COCOMO Model
C. DeMarco's Model
D. Jelinski Moranda Model

Ans. D

Q.6 Rayleigh curve is used in

A. COCOMO Model
B. COCOMO 2.0 Model
C. Putnam's Slim Model
D. Regression Based Model

Ans. C

Q.7 Model is applied for project exceeding 70000 lines of code

A. Regression Based Model
B. COCOMO Model
C. COCOMO 2.0 Model
D. Putnam's Slim Model

Ans. D

Q.8 Software quality model

A. Non Homogeneous Poission Process Model
B. ISO 9126
C. Little Wood Model
D. COCOMO Model

Ans. B

Q.9 Complexity is denoted by

A. Big B Notation
B. Big O Notation
C. Small o Notation
D. None of Above

Ans. B

Q.10 What is in degree?

A. Number of Arcs that leave the node
B. Number of Arcs arriving at the node
C. Number of sequence of consecutive node
D. None of Above

Ans. B

Q.11 Type[s] of structural measure

A. Information Flow Structure
B. Database Structure
C. Control Flow Structure
D. All of Above

Ans. C

Q.12 Measurement is made by counting number of elements in entity set

A. Absolute Scale
B. Ordinal Scale
C. Nominal Scale
D. Ratio Scale

Ans. A

Q.13 Conversion of fahrenheit to celsius is example of

A. Nominal Scale
B. Ordinal Scale
C. Interval Scale
D. Ratio Scale

Ans. C

Q.14 Meaningful statement

A. Fred is twice as tall as Jane
B. The Temperature in Tokyo today is twice that in London
C. Failure x is twice as critical as y
D. None of Above

Ans. A

Q.15 In DeMarco's approach functionality is measured by

A. Function Point
B. Object Point
C. Bang Metrics
D. None of Above

Ans. C

Q.16 Complete graph has tree impurity

A. 0
B. 1
C. Greater than 1
D. None of Above
Ans. B

Q.17 To compute McCabe's cyclomatic number, following equation is used

A. v(G)=d+2
B. v(G)=n-e+2
C. v(G)=e-n+1
D. v(G)=e-n+2

Ans. D

Q.18 Example of direct measurement

A. Test Effectiveness Ratio
B. Duration of Testing Process
C. Module Deftect Density
D. Programmer Productivity

Ans. B

Q.19 UFC stands for

A. Function Point Count
B. Adjusted Function Point Count
C. Unadjusted Fuction Point Count
D. None of Above

Ans. C

Q.20 Shooman's model is based on

A. Jelinski Moranda Model
B. Little Wood Model
C. Little Wood Verrall Model
D. Non Homogeneous Poisson Process Model

Ans. A

Q.21 Goel Okumoto model is

A. NHPP variant of Little Wood Verrall Model
B. NHPP variant of Little Wood Model
C. NHPP variant of Jelinski Moranda Model
D. None of Above

Ans. C

Q.22 Estimators compare proposed project with one or more past projects
A. Expert Opinion
B. Analogy
C. Decomposition
D. Models

Ans. B

Q.23 COCOMO stands for

A. Constructive Cost Model
B. Cost Constructive Model
C. Cost Coopearative Model
D. None of Above

Ans. A

Q.24 Banking or Accounting is

A. Organic System
B. Semidetached System
C. Embedded System
D. All of Above

Ans. A

Q.25 In Original COCOMO model, Intermediate model is applied when

A. Little bit about project is known
B. After requirements are specified
C. Design is complete
D. All of Above

Ans. B

Q.26 COCOMO 2.0 estimates size in

A. Function Point
B. Object Point
C. Bang Metics
D. None of Above

Ans. B

Q.27 Documentation should include

A. Process and Product Documentation
B. User Documentation
C. System Documentation
D. All of Above

Ans. D
Q.28 Tree impurity of Tree is
A. 0
B. 1
C. Greater than 1
D. None of Above

Ans. A

Q.29 x and y refers to the same global data

A. Data Coupling
B. Stamp Coupling
C. Control Coupling
D. Common Coupling

Ans. D

Q.30 Modules are related only by the fact that they must occur within same timespan
A. Sequential Cohesion
B. Communicational Cohesion
C. Procedural Cohesion
D. Temporal Cohesion

Ans. D

Q.31 Modules are unrelated

A. Function Cohesion
B. Temporal Cohesion
C. Logical Cohesion
D. Coincidental Cohesion

Ans. D

Q.32 It is the extent to which its individual components are needed to perform the
same task
A. Coupling
B. Cohesion
C. Both of Above
D. None of Above

Ans. B

Q. 33 It is the degree of interdependence between modules

A. Coupling
B. Cohesion
C. Both of Above
D. None of Above

Ans. A

Q.34 Type[s] of testing

A. Manual Testing
B. Automatic Testing
C. Both of Above
D. None of Above

Ans. C

Q.35 Short term goal[s] of software testing

A. Bug Discovery
B. Bug Prevention
C. Both of Above
D. None of Above

Ans. C

Q.36 Long term goal[s] of software testing

A. Quality
B. Customer Satisfaction
C. Both of Above
D. None of Above

Ans. C

Q.37 Post implementation goal[s] of software testing

A. Reduced Maintainance Cost
B. Improved Software Testing Process
C. Both of Above
D. None of Above

Ans. C

Q.38 In this software testing life cycle phase, real time validation of product and
finding bugs operations are carried out
A. Test Planning
B. Test Case Designing
C. Test Environment Set Up
D. Test Execution

Ans. D
Q.39 Matrix, reports and results are documented after completion of testing
A. Requirement analysis
B. Test Planning
C. Test Case Designing
D. Test Closure

Ans. D

Q.40 Testing will be carried out simultaneously on different machine with different
OS platform combination
A. Manual Testing
B. Automation Testing
C. Both of Above
D. None of Above

Ans. B

Q.41 Testing will be used when need to execute the set of test cases tests repeatedly.
A. Manual Testing
B. Automated Testing
C. Both of Above
D. None of Above

Ans. B

Q.42 Test scripts are developed and testing is performed using scripts in
A. Manual Testing
B. Automated Software Testing
C. Both of Above
D. None of Above

Ans. B

Q.43 Functional testing tool[s]

A. WinRunner
B. Quick Test Professional
C. Both of Above
D. None of Above

Ans. C

Q.44 Type[s] of structural coverage

A. Statement Coverage
B. Decision Coverage
C. Condition Coverage
D. All of Above

Ans. D

Q.45 Testing interactions of modules

A. Module Testing
B. Regression Testing
C. Integration Testing
D. System Testing

Ans. C

Q.46 Specification based (functional, black-box) testing include

A. Equivalence Partitioning
B. Boundary Value Analysis
C. Cause-effect Analysis
D. All of Above

Ans. D

Q.47 Structure based (white-box) testing include

A. Equivalence Partitioning
B. Boundary Value Analysis
C. Cause-effect Analysis
D. Coverage Metrics and Criteria

Ans. D

Q.48 Load and performance testing tool

A. Win Runner
B. Quick Test Professional
C. JMeter
D. All of Above

Ans. C

Q.49 Testing Tool is used to validate web application across different browsers and
platforms
A. Selenium IDE
B. Selenium 3
C. Selenium Grid
D. All of Above

Ans. D
Q.50 Level of CMM includes defect prevention, test process optimization and quality
control
A. Managed
B. Defined
C. Measured
D. Optimization

Ans. D

Q.51 Level of CMM includes test planning, test monitoring and control, test
environment
A. Initial
B. Managed
C. Defined
D. Measured

Ans. B

Q.52 Standard is applicable to most software development organizations

A. ISO 9001
B. ISO 9002
C. ISO 9003
D. None of Above

Ans. A

Q.53 Standard applies to those organizations which do not design products but are
only involved in production
A. ISO 9001
B. ISO 9002
C. ISO 9003
D. None of Above

Ans. B

Q.54 Standard applies to those organizations that are involved in only installation and
testing of the products
A. ISO 9001
B. ISO 9002
C. ISO 9003
D. None of Above

Ans. C

Q.55 Model is developed specifically for software industries

A. ISO 9000 Model
B. CMM Model
C. Both of Above
D. None of Above

Ans. B

Q.56 Model is applied to any type of industries

A. ISO 9000 Model
B. CMM Model
C. Both of Above
D. None of Above

Ans. A

Q.57 Phases of software engineering

A. Planning, Requirement Analysis
B. Design and Implemantation
C. Testing
D. All of Above

Ans. D

Q.58 M'=aM is
A. Admissible Transformation
B. Affine Transformation
C. Both of Above
D. None of Above

Ans. A

Q.59 M=aM'+b is
A. Admissible Transformation
B. Affine Transformation
C. Both of Above
D. None of Above

Ans. B
Q.60 Measurement in SMQA includes
A. Requirements are complete, Design is High Quality
B. Code is ready to be tested, Product is ready for delivery
C. Budget will be exceeded
D. All of Above

Ans. D
 Model Question Paper
Subject: Data Warehouse and Mining (DWM).
Branch: Computer Engineering.
Class: BESemester: VIII

Q1.__________ is a subject-oriented, integrated, time-variant, nonvolatile collection of

data in support ofmanagement decisions.
A.Data Mining.
B. Data Warehousing.
C. Web Mining.
D. Text Mining.
Ans.: B

Q2.Expansion for DSS in DW is__________.

A. Decision Support system.
B. Decision Single System.
C. Data Storable System.
D. Data Support System.
Ans.: A

Q3.The time horizon in Data warehouse is usually __________.

A. 1-2 years
B. 3-4years.
C. 5-6 years.
D. 5-10 years.
Ans.: D

Q4.. ________________defines the structure of the data held in operational databases

and used by
operational applications.
A. User-level metadata.
B. Data warehouse metadata.
C. Operational metadata.
D. Data mining metadata.
Ans.: C

1
Q5.__________ is the heart of the warehouse.
A.Data mining database servers.
B. Data warehouse database servers.
C. Data mart database servers.
D. Relational data base servers.
Ans.: B

Q6.A data mart is designed to optimize the performance for well-defined and predicable
uses.
A. True
B. False
Ans.: A

Q7.Transient data is which of the following?

A. Data in which changes to existing records cause the previous version of the records
to be eliminated
B. Data in which changes to existing records do not cause the previous version of the
records to be eliminated
C. Data that are never altered or deleted once they have been added
D. Data that are never deleted once they have been added
Ans.: A

Q8.A goal of data mining includes which of the following?

A. To explain some observed event or condition
B. To confirm that data exists
C. To analyze data for expected relationships
D. To create a new data warehouse
Ans.: A

Q9.Data mining is?

A. Time variant non-volatile collection of data
B. The actual discovery phase of a knowledge
C. The stage of selecting the right data
D. None of these
Ans.: B

2
Q10.What is noise?
A. Component of a network
B. Context of KDD and data mining
C. Aspects of a data warehouse
D. None of these
Ans.:B

Q11.The data Warehouse is__________.

A. read only.
B. write only.
C. read write only.
D. none.
Ans.: A

Q12.The important aspect of the data warehouse environment is that data found within
the data warehouseis___________.
A. subject-oriented.
B. time-variant.
C. integrated.
D. All of the above.
Ans.: D

Q13.A ________ system is market-oriented and is used for data analysis by knowledge
workers, including managers, executives, and analysts.
A. OLAP
B. OLTP
C. Both of the above
D. None of the above.
Ans.: A

Q14.. Query tool is meant for __________.

A. data acquisition.
B. information delivery.
C. information exchange.
D. communication.
Ans.: A

3
Q15.________ are responsible for running queries and reports against data warehouse
tables.
A. Hardware.
B. Software.
C. End users.
D. Middle ware.
Ans.: C

Q16.Classification rules are extracted from _____________.

A. root node.
B. decision tree.
C. siblings.
D. branches.
Ans.: B

Q17._________ is not associated with data cleaning process.

A. Deduplication
B. Domain
C. Consistency
D. Segmentation
Ans.: D

Q18.Expansion for DSS in DW is?

A. Decisive Strategic System
B. Data Support System
C. Data Store System
D. Decision Support system
Ans.: D

Q19.A data warehouse is described by which of the following?

A. Can be updated by end user
B. Contains only current data
C. Contains numerous naming conventions and formats
D. Organized around important subject areas
Ans.: D

4
Q20. The main organizational justification for implementing a data warehouse is to
provide?
A. ETL from operation systems to strategic system
B. Large scale transaction processing
C. Storing large volumes of data
D. Decision support
Ans.: D

Q21.When you ________ the data, you are aggregating the data to a higher level.
A. Slice
B. Roll up
C. Accumulate
D. Drill down
Ans.: B

Q22.______ makes a copy of a table and places it in a different location, to improve

access time.
A. Archive
B. Replication
C. Partitioning
D. Aggregation
Ans.: B

Q23.The data is stored, retrieved & updated in?

A. OLAP
B. OLTP
C. SMTP
D. FTP
Ans.: B

Q24.__________describes the data contained in the data warehouse.

A. Relational data.
B. Operational data.
C. Metadata.
D. Informational data.
Ans.: C

5
Q25. ____________predicts future trends & behaviors, allowing business managers to
make proactive,
knowledge-driven decisions.
A. Data warehouse.
B. Data mining.
C. Datamarts.
D. Metadata.
Ans.: B

Q26. Record cannot be updated in _____________.

A. OLTP
B. files
C. RDBMS
D. data warehouse
Ans.: D

Q27. The generic two-level data warehouse architecture includes __________.

A. at least one data mart.
B. data that can extracted from numerous internal and external sources.
C. near real-time updates.
D. far real-time updates.
Ans.: C

Q28.The active data warehouse architecture includes __________

A. at least one data mart.
B. data that can extracted from numerous internal and external sources.
C. near real-time updates.
D. all of the above.
Ans.: D

Q29.Treating incorrect or missing data is called as _______.

A. Preprocessing
B. Interpretation
C. Selection
D. Transformation
Ans.: A

6
Q30.Successful data warehousing requires that a formal program in total quality
management (TQM) be implemented.
A. True
B.False
Ans.: A

Q31. The core of the multidimensional model is the _______ , which consists of a large set of
facts and a number of dimensions.
A. Multidimensional cube
B. Dimensions cube
C. Data cube
D. Data model
Ans.: C

Q32. —— is not a data mining functionality?

A. Clustering and Analysis
B. Selection and interpretation
C. Classification and regression
D. Characterization and Discrimination
Ans.: B

Q33.Data mining is a tool for allowing users to find the hidden relationships in data.
A. True
B. False
Ans.: A

Q34.What are the two main objectives associated with data mining?
A. To explain some observed event or condition
B. To confirm that data exists
C. To analyze data for expected relationships
D. To find hidden patterns and trends
Ans.: D

Q35.Data mining is?

A. Time variant non-volatile collection of data
B. The actual discovery phase of a knowledge
C. The stage of selecting the right data
D. None of these
Ans.: B

7
Q36.._______ is an essential process where intelligent methods are applied to extract
data patterns.

A. Data warehousing
B. Data mining
C. Text mining
D. Data selection
Ans.: B

Q37.. Data mining can also applied to other forms such as ______
i) Data streamsii) Sequence data
iii) Networked dataiv) Text datav) Spatial data
A. i, ii, iii and v only
B. ii, iii, iv and v only
C. i, iii, iv and v only
D. All i, ii, iii, iv and v
Ans.: D

Q38.The full form of KDD is _______

A. Knowledge Database
B. Knowledge Discovery Database
C. Knowledge Data House
D. Knowledge Data Definition.
Ans.: B

8
Q39.. Strategic value of data mining is_________
A. cost-sensitive
B. work-sensitive
C. time-sensitive
D. technical-sensitive.
Ans.: C

Q40.The _________ refers to extracting knowledge from larger amount of data.

A. data abstraction.
B. data warehouse.
C. database.
D. data mining
Ans.: D

Q41.Knowledge discovery in database refers to _____.

A. whole process of extraction of knowledge from data.
B. selection of data.
C. coding.
D. cleaning the data.
Ans.: A

Q42.Data mining is used to refer ______ stage in knowledge discovery in database.

A. selection.
B. retrieving.
C. discovery.
D. coding.
Ans.: C

Q43._________refers to the process of deriving high-quality information from text.

A. Text Mining.
B. Image Mining.
C. Database Mining.
D. Multimedia Mining
Ans.: A

9
Q44.Reduce amount of time and memory required by data mining algorithms--------
A. Target Data
B. Data sampling
C. Data aggregation
D. Data reduction
Ans.: D

Q45.What does Apriori algorithm do

A. It mines all frequent patterns through pruning rules with lesser support
B. It mines all frequent patterns through pruning rules with higher support
C. Both a and b
D. None of the above
Ans.: A

Q46.. What techniques can be used to improve the efficiency of Apriori algorithm?
A. Hash-based techniques
B. Transaction Reduction
C. Partitioning
D. All of the above
Ans.: D

Q47.Which of the following is direct application of frequent item set mining?

A. Social Network Analysis
B. Market Basket Analysis
C. Outlier Detection
D. Intrusion Detection
Ans.: B

Q48.When do you consider an association rule interesting?

A. If it only satisfies min support
B. If it only satisfies min confidence
C. If it satisfies both min support and min confidence
D. There are other measures to check so
Ans.: C

10
Q49.. What is the relation between candidate and frequent item sets?
A. A candidate itemset is always a frequent itemset
B. A frequent itemset must be a candidate itemset
C. No relation between the two
D. Both are same
Ans.: B

Q50.What is the principle on which Apriori algorithm work?

A. If a rule is infrequent, its specialized rules are also infrequent
B. If a rule is infrequent, its generalized rules are also infrequent
C. Both a and b
D. None of the above
Ans.: A

Q51.Which of these is not a frequent pattern mining algorithm?

A. Apriori
B. FP growth
C. Decision trees
D. Éclat
Ans.: C

Q52.What are closed frequent itemsets?

A. A closed itemset
B. A frequent itemset
C. An itemset which is both closed and frequent
D. None of the above
Ans.: C

Q53. What are maximal frequent itemsets?

A. A frequent itemsetwho’s no super-itemset is frequent
B. A frequent itemset whose super-itemset is also frequent
C. A non-frequent itemset whose super-itemset is frequent
D. None of the above
Ans.: A

11
Q54.Why is correlation analysis important?
A. To make apriori memory efficient
B. To weed out uninteresting frequent itemsets
C. To find large number of interesting itemsets
D. To restrict the number of database iterations
Ans.: B

Q55. What is association rule mining?

A. Same as frequent itemset mining
B. Finding of strong association rules using frequent itemsets
C. Using association to analyses correlation rules
D. None of the above
Ans.: B

Q56.What is frequent pattern growth?

A. Same as frequent itemset mining
B. Use of hashing to make discovery of frequent itemsets more efficient
C. Mining of frequent itemsets without candidate generation
D. None of the above
Ans.: C

Q57.The apriori algorithm works in a..And...Fashion?

A. top-down and depth-first
B. top-down and breath-first
C. bottom-up and depth-first
D. bottom-up and breath-first
Ans.: D

Q58.A ______ system is market-oriented and is used for data analysis by knowledge
workers, including managers, executives, and analysts.
A) OLAP
B) OLTP
C) Both of the above
D) None of the above
Ans.: A

12
Q59.Data cleaning routine attempt to fill I missing values, ___ and correct
inconsistencies.
A. smooth out noise
B.remove error
C. variance
D. none of above
Ans.: A

Q60.Pivot is also known as?

A. drill up
B. roll up
C. rotate
D. mix
Ans.: C

13
 Model Question Paper
Subject:- CD
Branch: Computer
Class:- BE
Semester: VIII

------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1 Compiler translates the source code to

A. Executable code
B. Machine code
C. Binary code
D. Both B and C

Answer: Both B and C

2. Which of the following groups is/are token together into semantic structures?

A. Syntax analyzer
B. Intermediate code generation
C. Lexical analyzeQr
D. Semantic analyzer
Answer:Lexical analyzeQr

3. Compiler should report the presence of __________ in the source program, in translation process.

A. Classes
B. Objects
C. Errors
D. Text
Answer:Errors
4. What is the output of lexical analyzer?

A. A parse tree
B. A list of tokens
C. Intermediate code
D. Machine co
Answer:. A list of tokens

5. How many parts of compiler are there?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 8
Answer:2

6. Grammar of the programming is checked at _______ phase of compiler.

A. Semantic analysis
B. Syntax analysis
C. Code optimization
D. Code generation
Answer:Syntax analysis

7. _________ is a process of finding a parse tree for a string of tokens.

A. Parsing
B. Analysing
C. Recognizing
D. Tokenizing
Answer:Parsing

8. What is the action of parsing the source program into proper syntactic classes?
 A. Lexical analysis
B. Syntax analysis
C. General syntax analysis
D. Interpretation analysis
Answer:Lexical analysis

9. Compiler can check ________ error.

A. Logical
B. Syntax
C. Content
D. Both A and B
Answer:Syntax

10.A grammar that produces more than one parse tree for some sentence is called as

A. Ambiguous
B. Unambiguous
C. Regular
D. All of these
Answer:Ambiguous

11. Lexical analysis is about breaking a sequence of characters into

A. Groups
B. Packets
C. Lines
D. Tokens
Answer:Tokens

12. _______ is the most general phase structured grammar.

A. Context sensitive
 B. Regular
C. Context free
D. All of these
Answer:Context sensitive
13. ________ is considered as a sequence of characters in a token.

A. Texeme
B. Pattern
C. Lexeme
D. Mexeme
Answer:Lexeme

14. What is the name of the process that determining whether a string of tokens can be generated by a
grammar?

A. Analysing
B. Recognizing
C. Translating
D. Parsing
Answer:Parsing

15. A _________ is a software utility that translates code written in higher language into a low level language.

A. Converter
B. Compiler
C. Text editor
D. Code optimizer
Answer:Compiler

16. Which phase of compiler is Syntax Analysis

a) First
b) Second
c) Third
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: Second

17. What is Syntax Analyser also known as

a) Hierarchical Analysis
b) Hierarchical Parsing
c) None of the mentioned
d) Hierarchical Analysis & Parsing
Answer: Hierarchical Analysis & Parsing

18. Syntax Analyser takes Groups Tokens of source Program into Grammatical Production
a) True
b) False
Answer: True
19. From where it take its input from?
a) Lexical analyser
b) Syntactic Analyser
c) Semantic Analyser
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: Lexical analyser
20. Parsers are expected to parse the whole code
a) True
b) False
Answer: ) True
21. A grammar for a programming language is a formal description of
a) Syntax
b) Semantics
c) Structure
d) Library
Answer: Structure

22. Which of these is not true about Symbol Table?

a) All the labels of the instructions are symbols
b) Table has entry for symbol name address value
c) Perform the processing of the assembler directives
d) Created during pass 1
Answer: Perform the processing of the assembler directives

23. Which of these features of assembler are Machine-Dependent

a) Instruction formats
b) Addressing modes
c) Program relocation
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: All of the mentioned
24. A compiler can check?
a) Logical Error
b) Syntax Error
c) Both Logical and Syntax Error
d) Not Logical and Syntax Error
Answer: Syntax Error

25. The fourth Generation computer was made up of?

a) Transistor
b) Vacuum tubes
c) Chips
d) Microprocessor chips
Answer: Microprocessor chips

26. Select a Machine Independent phase of the compiler

a) Syntax Analysis
b) Intermediate Code generation
c) Lexical Analysis
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: All of the mentioned

27. A system program that combines the separately compiled modules of a program into a form suitable for
execution?
a) Assembler
b) Compiler
c) Linking Loader
d) Interpreter
Answer: Linking Loader
28. Which of the following system software resides in the main memory always
a) Text Editor
b) Assembler
c) Linker
d) Loader
Answer: Loader
29. Output file of Lex is _____ the input file is Myfile?
a) Myfile.e
b) Myfile.yy.c
c) Myfile.lex
d) Myfile.obj
Answer: Myfile.yy.c

30. Type checking is normally done during?

a) Lexical Analysis
b) Syntax Analysis
c) Syntax Directed Translation
d) Code generation
Answer: Syntax Directed Translation
31. Suppose One of the Operand is String and other is Integer then it does not throw error as it only checks
whether there are two operands associated with ‘+’ or not .
a) True
b) False
Answer: True

32. In Short Syntax Analysis Generates Parse Tree

a) True
b) False
Answer: True

33. By whom is the symbol table created?

a) Compiler
b) Interpreter
c) Assembler
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: Compiler

34. What does a Syntactic Analyser do?

a) Maintain Symbol Table
b) Collect type of information
c) Create parse tree
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: Create parse tree

35. Semantic Analyser is used for?

a) Generating Object code
b) Maintaining symbol table
c) Generating Object code & Maintaining symbol table
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: Generating Object code & Maintaining symbol table

36. Which of the following derivations does a top-down parser use while parsing an input string?
a) Leftmost derivation
b) Leftmost derivation in reverse
c) Rightmost derivation
d) Rightmost derivation in reverse
Answer: Leftmost derivation
37. The process of assigning load addresses to the various parts of the program and adjusting the code and
data in the program to reflect the assigned addresses is called
a) Assembly
b) Parsing
c) Relocation
d) Symbol resolute
Answer: Relocation
38. Which of the following statements is false?
a) Left as well as right most derivations can be in Unambiguous grammar
b) An LL (1) parser is a top-down parser
c) LALR is more powerful than SLR
d) Ambiguous grammar can’t be LR (k)
Answer: Left as well as right most derivations can be in Unambiguous grammar
39. Which of the following grammar rules violate the requirements of an operator grammar?
(i) P -> QR
(ii) P -> QsR
(iii) P -> ε
(iV) P -> QtRr
a) (i) only
b) (i) and (iii) only
c) (ii) and (iii) only
d) (iii) and (iv) only
Answer: i) and (iii) only

40. Compute E.value for the root of the parse tree for the expression:2 # 3 & 5 # 6 &4.
a) 200
b) 180
c) 160
d) 40

Answer: 160
41. Given the following expression grammar:
E -> E * F | F+E | F
F -> F-F | id
which of the following is true?
a) * has higher precedence than +
b) – has higher precedence than *
c) + and — have same precedence
d) + has higher precedence than *
Answer: b
42. Consider a program P that consists of two source modules M1(contains reference to a function defined
in M2) and M2 contained in two different files.
a) Edit time
b) Compile time
c) Link time
d) Load time
Answer: Link time
43. Which of the following suffices to convert an arbitrary CFG to an LL(1) grammar?
a) Removing left recursion only
b) Factoring the grammar alone
c) Factoring & left recursion removal
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: None of the mentioned
44. Assume that the SLR parser for a grammar G has n1 states and the LALR parser for G has n2 states.
a) n1 is necessarily less than n2
b) n1 is necessarily equal to n2
c) n1 is necessarily greater than n2
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: n1 is necessarily equal to n2
45. Match the following.

P. Regular expression 1. Syntax analysis

Q. Pushdown automata 2. Code generation

R. Dataflow analysis 3. Lexical analysis

S. Register allocation 4. Code optimization

a) P-4. Q-1, R-2, S-3

b) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2
c) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2
d) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3

Answer: P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2

46. Inherited attribute is a natural choice in
a) Variable declarations record is maintained
b) L values and R values
c) All of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: Variable declarations record is maintained

47. YACC builds up

a) SLR parsing table
b) Canonical LR parsing table
c) LALR parsing table
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: LALR parsing table.

48. In an absolute loading scheme which loader function is accomplished by assembler?

a) Re-allocation
b) Allocation
c) Linking
d) Loading
Answer: Re-allocation

49. A parser with the valid prefix property is advantageous because it

a) Detects errors
b) None of the mentioned
c) Errors are passed to the text phase
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: Errors are passed to the text phase
50. The action of parsing the source program into proper syntactic classes is called
a) Syntax Analysis
b) Lexical Analysis
c) Interpretation analysis
d) General Syntax Analysis
Answer: Lexical Analysis

51. Relocating bits used by relocating loader are specified by

a) Relocating loader itself
b) Linker
c) Assembler
d) Macro Processor
Answer: Linker

52. What is the binary equivalent of the decimal number 368

a) 10111000
b) 110110000
c) 111010000
d) 111100000

Answer: 110110000

53. AB+(A+B)’ is equivalent to

a) A?B
b) A+B
c) (A+B)A
d) (A+B)B

Answer: A?B
54. A top down parser generates
a) Rightmost Derivation
b) Right most derivation in reverse
c) Left most derivation
d) Left most derivation in reverse

Answer: Left most derivation

55. Running time of a program depends on
a) Addressing mode
b) Order of computations
c) The usage of machine idioms
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: All of the mentioned

56. Which of the following derivations does a top-down parser use while parsing an input string?
a) Leftmost derivation
b) Leftmost derivation in reverse
c) Rightmost derivation
d) Rightmost derivation in reverse
Answer: Leftmost derivation
57_________ is a process of finding a parse tree for a string of tokens.

A. Parsing
B. Analysing
C. Recognizing
D. Tokenizing
Answer:Parsing

58. What is the output of lexical analyzer?

A. A parse tree
B. A list of tokens
C. Intermediate code
D. Machine co
Answer:. A list of tokens

59.Compiler can check ________ error.

A. Logical
B. Syntax
C. Content
D. Both A and B
Answer: Syntax

60.A grammar that produces more than one parse tree for some sentence is called as

A. Ambiguous
B. Unambiguous
C. Regular
 D. All of these
Answer: Ambiguous

of
 Model Question Paper

Subject: Mobile Computing

Branch: Computer

Class: BE

Semester: VIII

Q1. Which of the following stores all the user-related data that is relevant for
the GSM system in mobile computing?

A. Sim

B. HLR

C. VLR

D. ELR

Ans.: A

Q2. Which of the following stores Mobile Subscriber ISDN number – MSISDN?

A. Home location register

B. Visitor location register
C. Entity equipment register
D. None of the above

Ans.: A

Q3. In which of the following Codes with specific characteristics can be applied
to the transmission?

A. GSM
B. GPRS
C. CDMA
D. None of the above

Ans.: C

Q4. Which of the following allow the use of entire bandwidth simultaneously?

A. TDMA
B. FDMA
C. CDMA
D. None of the above

Ans.: C

Q5. Cellular System or having small cells needs ——–

A. Handover
B. Infrastructure
C. Frequency planning
D. All of the above

Ans.: D

Q6. Which of the following provides packet mode data transfer service over
the cellular network system?

A. GSM
B. GPRS
C. TCP
D. None of the above
Ans.: B

Q7. Which of the following services/ services are defined by the GSM?

A. Bearer
B. Supplementary
C. Tele
D. All of the above

Ans.: D

Q8. Bluetooth Technology supports

A. Piconet
B. Ad hoc piconet
C. Scatter net
D. All of the above

Ans.: D

Q9. Which of the following wireless technology is used for exchanging data
between a variety of fixed and mobile devices over a very short diameter?

A. Mobile technology
B. Bluetooth technology
C. Ad hoc computing
D. None of the above

Ans.: B
Q10. In Bluetooth which of the following device decides hopping sequence?

A. Master
B. Parked
C. Standby
D. Slave

Ans.: A

Q11. Most WLANs are based upon the standard—-

A. IEEE 802.2
B. IEEE 802.11
C. IEEE 802.5
D. IEEE 802.15

Ans.: B

Q12. Which of the following is/are the advantages of a wireless LAN?

A. Flexibility
B. Ease of use
C. Robustness
D. All of the above

Ans.: D

Q13. Disadvantages of WLANs include —–

A. Interference and noise

B. Slower than wired
C. Greater care is needed for encryption
D. All of the above

Ans.: D

Q14. In piconet devices connected with the master is called

A. Slaves
B. Parked
C. Standby
D. None of the above

Ans.: A

Q15. Mobile Computing allows transmission of data, from one wireless-

enabled device to another —-

A. Any device
B. Wired device
C. Wireless-enabled device
D. None of the above

Ans.: C

Q16. The most important feature/s of mobile computing technology is/are —-

A. Mobility
B. Portability
C. Wireless connectivity
D. All of the above
Ans.: D

Q17. Which of the following is the base of most mobile communications?

A. GSM
B. GPRS
C. CDMA
D. None of the above

Ans.: A

Q18. Which of the following allow the use of only some part of bandwidth?

A. TDMA
B. FDMA
C. Both a and b
D. None of the above

Ans.: C

Q19. Important mobile computing application/s is/are —–

A. Education
B. Sports
C. Games
D. All of the above

Ans.: D

Q20. Challenges of mobile computing include ———

A. Low Security
B. Ad hoc Networking
C. Shared medium
D. All of the above

Ans.: D

Q21. Which of the following services/service are defined within the bearer
services?

A. Data transmission
B. Forward error correction
C. Flow control
D. All of the above

Ans.: D

Q22. The overlapping portion of two piconets is called——–

A. Piconet
B. Ad hoc piconet
C. Scatter net
D. All of the above

Ans.: C

Q23. Bluetooth technology is used for —-

A. Connection of peripheral devices

B. Ad-hoc networking
C. Bridging network gaps
D. All of the above
Ans.: D

Q24. The most WLANs are based upon —-

A. IEEE 802.11
B. WiFi
C. Both a and b
D. None of these

Ans.: C

Q25. The advantages of WLANs are —–

A. Flexibility
B. Robustness
C. Less cost
D. All of the above

Ans.: D

Q.26. Which of the following is the world’s first cellular system to specify
digital modulation and network level architecture?
A. GSM
B.AMPS
C.CDMA
D.IS-54
Ans.: A

Q.27 Previously in 1980s, GSM stands for ____________

A. Global system for mobile
B. Groupe special mobile
C. Global special mobile
D. Groupe system mobile
Ans.: B
Q.28 who sets the standards of GSM?
A. ITU
B. AT & T
C. ETSI
D. USDC

Ans.: C

Q.29 Which of the following does not come under the tele-services of GSM?
A. Standard mobile telephony
B. Mobile originated traffic
C. Base originated traffic
D. Packet switched traffic

Ans.: D

Q.30 Which of the following comes under supplementary ISDN services?

A. Emergency calling
B. Packet switched protocols
C. Call diversion
D. Standard mobile telephony

Ans.: C

Q.31 Which of the following memory device stores information such as

subscriber’s identification number in GSM?
A. Register
B. Flip flop
C. SIM
D. SMS

Ans.: C

Q.32 Which of the following feature makes impossible to eavesdrop on GSM

radio transmission?
A. SIM
B. On the air privacy
C. SMS
D. Packet switched traffic

Ans.: B

Q.33 Which of the following does not come under subsystem of GSM
architecture?
A. BSS
B. NSS
C. OSS
D. Channel

Ans.: D

Q.34 Which of the following subsystem provides radio transmission between

mobile station and MSC?
A. BSS
B. NSS
C. OSS
D. BSC

Ans.: A

Q.35 ___________ manages the switching function in GSM.

A. BSS
B. NSS
C. OSS
D. MSC

Ans.: B

Q.36 __________ supports the operation and maintenance of GSM.

A. BSS
B. NSS
C. OSS
D. MSC

Ans.: C

Q.37 __________ carries digitally encoded user data.

A. Traffic channels
B. Control channels
C. Signaling channels
D. Forward channels6

Ans.: A

Q.38 ____________ carries signalling and synchronizing commands.

A. Traffic channels
B. Control channels
C. Signaling channels
D. Forward channels
Ans.: B
Q.39 Several protocols for upper layers in bluetooth use _________

A. UDP
B. HSP
C. ITC
D. L2CAP

Ans.: D

Q.40 Network layer at source is responsible for creating a packet from data
coming from another ________
A. Station
B. Link
C. Node
D. Protocol

Ans.: D

Q.41 Header of datagram in IPv4 has _________

A. 0 to 20 bytes
B. 20 to 40 bytes
C. 20 to 60 bytes
D. 20 to 80 bytes

Ans.: C

Q.42 In IPv4 layer, datagram is of ________

A. Fixed length
B. Variable length
C. Global length
D. Zero length
Ans.: B

Q.43 Which protocol is commonly used to retrieve email from a mail server?
A. FTP
B. IMAP
C. HTML
D. TELNET

Ans.: B

Q.44 A packet in Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) is called a ____________

A. Transmittable slots
B. Packet
C. Segment
D. Source Slots

Ans.: C

Q.45 IEEE 802.11 defines basic service set as building block of a wireless
___________
A. LAN
B. WAN protocol
C. MAN
D. ALOHA

Ans.: A

Q.46 Wireless transmission is divided into ___________

A. 3 broad groups
B. 6 broad groups
C. 9 broad groups
D. 8 broad groups
Ans.: A

Q.47 Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Networking Protocol have

___________
A. Four Layers
B. Five Layers
C. Six Layers
D. Seven Layers

Ans.: A

Q.48 Packets of data that is transported by IP is called __________

A. Datagram
B. Frames
C. Segments
D. Encapsulate message

Ans.: A

Q.49 IPv6 has a larger address space of _________

A. 216
B. 2128
C. 232
D. 28

Ans.: B

Q.50 In practical IPv6 application, a technology encapsulates IPv6 packets

inside IPv4 packets, this technology is called _______
A. Tunneling
B. Hashing
C. Routing
D. NAT

Ans.: A

Q.51 Which one of the following descriptions about IPv6 is correct?

A. Addresses are not hierarchical and are assigned at random
B. Broadcasts have been eliminated and replaced with multicasts
C. There are 2.7 billion available addresses
D. An interface can only be configured with one IPv6 address

Ans.: B

Q.52 MIN stands for_____________________

A. Mobile Identification Number
B. Mobile Internet
C. Mobility In Network
D. None of the above
Ans.: A

Q.53 The process of transferring a mobile station from one base station to
another is_________________

A. MSC
B. Roamer
C. Hand off
D. Forward channel

Ans.: C

Q.54 In Handoff
A. Process of transferring the call to the new base station
B. Transfers the call
C. New channel allocation is done
D. All of the above

Ans.: D

Q.55 In a wireless communication, base station is connected to central hub

called _______
A. PSTN
B. MSC
C. CO
D. PBX

Ans.: B

Q.56 PSTN stands for ________

A. Public switched telephone network
B. Personal switched telephone network
C. Personal switched telephone node
D. Public switched telephone node

Ans.: A

Q.57 In public switched telephone network, LATA stands for ______

A. Local access and transport area
B. Land area and transport area
C. Local access and telephone access
D. Local area and telephone access
Ans.: A

Q.58 Connection oriented services are also called __________

A. Datagram services
B. Virtual circuit routing
C. Connectionless services
D. Routing service

Ans.: B

Q.59 ISDN is based on the concept of __________

A. SS7
B. CCS
C. ARDIS
D. CDPD

Ans.: B

Q.60 ______ is used for transmission of packets in the cellular switched

architecture.
A. Packet switching techniques
B. Circuit switching techniques
C. Packet and circuit switched technique
D. Datagram technique

Ans.: A
Name of College: Gangamai College Of Engineering,Nagaon,Dhule-05

Subject: Software Metrics & Quality Assurance

Branch: Computer Engineering

Class: BE

Semester: VIII

Q1. Which of the following is the task of project

indicators A help in assessment of status of ongoing
project
B track potential risk

C help in assessment of status of ongoing project & track

potential risk D none of the mentioned
Ans.: help in assessment of status of ongoing project & track
potential risk

Q2. Which of the following does not affect the software quality
and organizational performance?

A Market
B
Product
C
Technology
D People
Ans.:
Market
Q3. The intent of project metrics is:

A minimization of development
schedule B for strategic purposes
C assessing project quality on ongoing basis

D minimization of development schedule and assessing project quality on

ongoing basis

Ans.: minimization of development schedule and assessing project

quality on ongoing basis

Q4. Which of the following is not a direct measure of SE

process? A Efficiency
B Effort
Applied C Cost
D All of the mentioned

Ans.: Efficiency

Q5. Which of the following is an indirect measure of

product? A Quality
B
Complexity
C Reliability
D All of the Mentioned

Ans.: All of the Mentioned

Q6. In size oriented metrics, metrics are developed based on the

A number of
Functions B number
of user inputs
C number of lines of code

D amount of memory usage

Ans.: number of lines of code

Q7. Usability can be measured in terms of:

A Intellectual skill to learn the system

B Time required to become moderately efficient in system

usage C Net increase in productivity
D All of the mentioned

Ans.: All of the mentioned

Q8. Defects removal efficiency

(DRE)depends on A E – errors found before
software delivery
B D – defects found after delivery to
user C Both E and D
D Varies with project

Ans.: Both E and D

Q9. A graphical technique for finding if changes and variation in
metrics data are meaningful is known as

A DRE (Defect Removal

Efficiency) B Function points
analysis
C Control Chart

D All of the mentioned

Ans.: Control Chart

Q10. Which of the following is not a metric for design
model? A Interface design metrics
B Component-level
metrics C Architectural
metrics
D Complexity metrics

Ans.: Complexity metrics

Q11. Statement and branch coverage metrics are

part of A Analysis Model
B Design
Model C
Testing
D Source Code

Ans.: Testing
Q12. Function Points in software engineering was first
proposed by A Booch
B Boehm
C
Albrecht
D
jacobson
Ans.: Albrecht

Q13. How many Information Domain Values are used for Function
Point Computation?

A3

B4

C5

D6

Ans.: 5

Q16. Architectural Design Metrics are in

nature. A Black box
B White
box C Grey
box D
Green box
Ans.: Black Box
Q17. SMI stands for

A Software Mature
Indicator B Software
Maturity Index
C Software Mature Index

D Software Maturity Indicator

Ans.: Software Maturity Index

Q18. The amount of time that the software is available for use is
known as A Reliability
B Usability
C
Efficiency
D Functionality

Ans.: Reliability

Q19. Usability in metric analysis is defined as the degree to which the

software A Stated needs
B is easy to use

C makes optimal use of system

resources D None of the above
Ans.: is easy to use
Q20. Suitability, Accuracy, Interoperability, and security are what type
quality attribute of ISO 9126 ?

A
Reliability
B Usability
C
Efficiency

D Functionality

Ans.: Functionality

Q21. In ISO 9126, time behavior and resource utilization are a

part of A Maintainability
B
Portability
C
Efficiency
D Usability
Ans.: Efficiency

Q22. is a measure of the degree of

interdependence between modules.

A
Cohesion
B
Coupling
C None of
these D All of
these Ans.:
Coupling
Q23. Which of the following is the best type of module
coupling? A Control coupling
B Stamp
coupling C Data
coupling
D Content coupling

Ans.: Data Coupling

Q24. Which of the following is the worst type of module
coupling? A Control coupling
B Stamp
coupling C
External coupling
D Content
coupling

Ans.: External Coupling

Q25. Which of the following is the worst type of module

cohesion? A Logical cohesion
B Temporal
cohesion C
Functional cohesion
D Coincidental Cohesion

Ans.: Coincidental Cohesion

Q26. Which of the following is the best type of module
cohesion? A Logical cohesion
B Temporal
cohesion C
Functional cohesion
D Coincidental Cohesion

Ans.: Functional cohesion

Q27. A software engineer must design the modules with the goal
of high cohesion and low coupling.

A
True
B
False
Ans.: True

Q28. In what type of coupling, the complete data structure is passed

from one module to another? A Control coupling
B Stamp
coupling C
External coupling
D Content
coupling

Ans.: Stamp Coupling

Q29. If all tasks must be executed in the same time-span, what
type of cohesion is being exhibited?

A Logical cohesion

B Temporal
cohesion C
Functional cohesion
D Coincidental Cohesion

Ans.: Temporal cohesion

Q30. Which of the following is not included in failure
costs? A Rework
B Repair

C Failure Mode
analysis D none of
these
Ans.: None of these

Q31. Which requirements are the foundation from which quality is

measured? A Hardware
B Software

C
Programmers
D None of
these Ans.:
Software
Q32. Who identifies, documents, and verifies that corrections have been
made to the software?

A Project
Manager B
Project Team
C SQA
group D All
of these
Ans.: SQA group

Q33. The primary objective of formal technical reviews is to find

during the process so that they do not become defects after release
of the software.

A Error

B Equivalent
failure C Failure
cause
D None of these

Ans.: Errors
Q34. Software quality assurance consists of the auditing and
reporting functions of management.

A
True
B
False
Ans.: True
Q35. How is reliability and failure intensity related to each
other? A Direct relation
B Inverse
relation C No
relation
D None of these

Ans.: Inverse relation

Q36. Which one of the following is not a software quality

model? A ISO 9000
B McCall
Model C
Boehm Model
D ISO 9126
Ans.: ISO 9000

Q37. What is MTTF ?

A Maximum time to
failure B mean time to
failure
C minimum time to
failure D none of these
Ans.: Mean time to failure

Q38. How is software reliability defined?

A Time

B
Efficiency
C Quality
D Speed

Ans.: Time

Q39. NHPP stands for

A Non Homogeneous Poisson
Product B Non-Hetrogeneous
Poisson Product C Non-
Hetrogeneous Poisson Process D
Non Homogeneous Poisson
Process
Ans.: Non Homogeneous Poisson Process

Q40. Which of the following is not a phase of “bathtub curve” of

hardware reliability?

A Useful -
life B Burn -
in
C Wear -
out D Time
Ans.: Time

Q41. Which of the following are parameters involved in computing the

total cost of a software development project?
A Hardware and Software
Cost B Effort Cost
C Travel and training
cost D All of these
Ans.: All of these

Q42. Which of the following costs is not part of the total effort
cost? A Costs of networking and communications
B Costs of providing heating and lighting office
space C Costs of lunch time food
D Costs of support staff

Ans.: Costs of lunch time food

Q43. What is related to the overall functionality of the delivered

software? A Function related metrics
B Product related
metrics C Size related
metrics
D None of these

Ans.: Function related metrics

Q44. It is often difficult to estimate size at an early stage in a project
when only a specification is available

A
True
B
False
Ans.: True

Q45. Which of the following uses empirically derived formulas to predict

effort as a function of LOC or FP? A FP-Based Estimation
B Process-Based
Estimation C COCOMO
D Both FP-Based Estimation and COCOMO

Ans.: Both FP-Based Estimation and COCOMO

Q46. The empirical data that support most estimation models are
derived from a vast sample of projects.

A
True
B

False

Ans.: False

Q47. COCOMO stands

for A Constructive cost
model
B Comprehensive cost model

C Constructive cost estimation

model D Complete cost estimation
model Ans.: Constructive cost
model

Q48. Which version of COCOMO states that once requirements

have been stabilized, the basic software architecture has been
established?

A Early design stage model

B Post-architecture-stage model
C Application composition
model D All of the mentioned
Ans.: Early design stage model
Q49. Which model was used during the early stages of software
engineering, when prototyping of user interfaces, consideration of
software and system interaction, assessment of performance, and
evaluation of technology maturity were paramount.

A Early design stage model

B Post-architecture-stage
model C Application
composition model D All of the
mentioned

Ans.: Application composition model

Q50. Estimation of size for a project is

dependent on A Cost

B Time

C Schedule

D None of these

Ans.: None of these

Q51. RAD stands for

A Relative Application
Development B Rapid
Application Development
C Rapid Application Document
D None of these

Ans.: Rapid Application Development

Q52. Which one of the following models is not suitable for

accommodating any change?

A Build & Fix

Model B
Prototyping Model
C RAD Model
D Waterfall Model

Ans.: Waterfall Model

Q53. Which is not one of the types of prototype of Prototyping

Model A Horizontal prototype
B Vertical
prototype C
Diagonal prototype
D Domain
prototype
Ans.: Diagonal Prototype

Q54. Which one of the following is not a phase of Prototyping

Model? A Quick design
B Coding

C Prototype Refinement
D Engineer product

Ans.: Coding

Q55. RAD Model

has A 2 phases
B 3 phases C 5 phases

D 6 phases
Ans.: 5 phases

Q56. SDLC stands for

A Software Development Life

Cycle B System Development
Life cycle
C Software Design Life
Cycle D System Design
Life Cycle
Ans.: Software Development Life Cycle

Q57. Which model can be selected if user is involved in all the phases
of SDLC? A Waterfall Model
B Prototyping
Model C RAD
Model
D both Prototyping Model & RAD Model
Ans.: RAD Model

Q58. ensures the integrity and security of data that are

passing over a network. A Firewall
B Anti-virus

C Pen testing tools

D Network security protocol

Ans.: Network security protocol

Q59. Which of the following is not a strong security

protocol? A HTTPS
B SSL

C
SMTP
D SFTP
Ans.: SMTP
Q60. TSL (Transport Layer Security) is a cryptographic protocol
used for securing HTTP/HTTPS based connection.

A
True
B
False
Ans.: True
 Model Question Paper

Subject: Software Metrics & Quality Assurance

Branch: Computer Engineering

Class: BE

Semester: VIII

Q1. Which of the following is the task of project

indicators A help in assessment of status of ongoing
project
B track potential risk

C help in assessment of status of ongoing project & track

potential risk D none of the mentioned
Ans.: help in assessment of status of ongoing project & track
potential risk

Q2. Which of the following does not affect the software quality
and organizational performance?

A Market
B
Product
C
Technology
D People
Ans.:
Market
Q3. The intent of project metrics is:

A minimization of development
schedule B for strategic purposes
C assessing project quality on ongoing basis

D minimization of development schedule and assessing project quality on

ongoing basis

Ans.: minimization of development schedule and assessing project

quality on ongoing basis

Q4. Which of the following is not a direct measure of SE

process? A Efficiency
B Effort
Applied C Cost
D All of the mentioned

Ans.: Efficiency

Q5. Which of the following is an indirect measure of

product? A Quality
B
Complexity
C Reliability
D All of the Mentioned

Ans.: All of the Mentioned

Q6. In size oriented metrics, metrics are developed based on the

A number of
Functions B number
of user inputs
C number of lines of code

D amount of memory usage

Ans.: number of lines of code

Q7. Usability can be measured in terms of:

A Intellectual skill to learn the system

B Time required to become moderately efficient in system

usage C Net increase in productivity
D All of the mentioned

Ans.: All of the mentioned

Q8. Defects removal efficiency

(DRE)depends on A E – errors found before
software delivery
B D – defects found after delivery to
user C Both E and D
D Varies with project

Ans.: Both E and D

Q9. A graphical technique for finding if changes and variation in
metrics data are meaningful is known as

A DRE (Defect Removal

Efficiency) B Function points
analysis
C Control Chart

D All of the mentioned

Ans.: Control Chart

Q10. Which of the following is not a metric for design
model? A Interface design metrics
B Component-level
metrics C Architectural
metrics
D Complexity metrics

Ans.: Complexity metrics

Q11. Statement and branch coverage metrics are

part of A Analysis Model
B Design
Model C
Testing
D Source Code

Ans.: Testing
Q12. Function Points in software engineering was first
proposed by A Booch
B Boehm
C
Albrecht
D
jacobson
Ans.: Albrecht

Q13. How many Information Domain Values are used for Function
Point Computation?

A3

B4

C5

D6

Ans.: 5

Q16. Architectural Design Metrics are in

nature. A Black box
B White
box C Grey
box D
Green box
Ans.: Black Box
Q17. SMI stands for

A Software Mature
Indicator B Software
Maturity Index
C Software Mature Index

D Software Maturity Indicator

Ans.: Software Maturity Index

Q18. The amount of time that the software is available for use is
known as A Reliability
B Usability
C
Efficiency
D Functionality

Ans.: Reliability

Q19. Usability in metric analysis is defined as the degree to which the

software A Stated needs
B is easy to use

C makes optimal use of system

resources D None of the above
Ans.: is easy to use
Q20. Suitability, Accuracy, Interoperability, and security are what type
quality attribute of ISO 9126 ?

A
Reliability
B Usability
C
Efficiency

D Functionality

Ans.: Functionality

Q21. In ISO 9126, time behavior and resource utilization are a

part of A Maintainability
B
Portability
C
Efficiency
D Usability
Ans.: Efficiency

Q22. is a measure of the degree of

interdependence between modules.

A
Cohesion
B
Coupling
C None of
these D All of
these Ans.:
Coupling
Q23. Which of the following is the best type of module
coupling? A Control coupling
B Stamp
coupling C Data
coupling
D Content coupling

Ans.: Data Coupling

Q24. Which of the following is the worst type of module
coupling? A Control coupling
B Stamp
coupling C
External coupling
D Content
coupling

Ans.: External Coupling

Q25. Which of the following is the worst type of module

cohesion? A Logical cohesion
B Temporal
cohesion C
Functional cohesion
D Coincidental Cohesion

Ans.: Coincidental Cohesion

Q26. Which of the following is the best type of module
cohesion? A Logical cohesion
B Temporal
cohesion C
Functional cohesion
D Coincidental Cohesion

Ans.: Functional cohesion

Q27. A software engineer must design the modules with the goal
of high cohesion and low coupling.

A
True
B
False
Ans.: True

Q28. In what type of coupling, the complete data structure is passed

from one module to another? A Control coupling
B Stamp
coupling C
External coupling
D Content
coupling

Ans.: Stamp Coupling

Q29. If all tasks must be executed in the same time-span, what
type of cohesion is being exhibited?

A Logical cohesion

B Temporal
cohesion C
Functional cohesion
D Coincidental Cohesion

Ans.: Temporal cohesion

Q30. Which of the following is not included in failure
costs? A Rework
B Repair

C Failure Mode
analysis D none of
these
Ans.: None of these

Q31. Which requirements are the foundation from which quality is

measured? A Hardware
B Software

C
Programmers
D None of
these Ans.:
Software
Q32. Who identifies, documents, and verifies that corrections have been
made to the software?

A Project
Manager B
Project Team
C SQA
group D All
of these
Ans.: SQA group

Q33. The primary objective of formal technical reviews is to find

during the process so that they do not become defects after release
of the software.

A Error

B Equivalent
failure C Failure
cause
D None of these

Ans.: Errors
Q34. Software quality assurance consists of the auditing and
reporting functions of management.

A
True
B
False
Ans.: True
Q35. How is reliability and failure intensity related to each
other? A Direct relation
B Inverse
relation C No
relation
D None of these

Ans.: Inverse relation

Q36. Which one of the following is not a software quality

model? A ISO 9000
B McCall
Model C
Boehm Model
D ISO 9126
Ans.: ISO 9000

Q37. What is MTTF ?

A Maximum time to
failure B mean time to
failure
C minimum time to
failure D none of these
Ans.: Mean time to failure

Q38. How is software reliability defined?

A Time

B
Efficiency
C Quality
D Speed

Ans.: Time

Q39. NHPP stands for

A Non Homogeneous Poisson
Product B Non-Hetrogeneous
Poisson Product C Non-
Hetrogeneous Poisson Process D
Non Homogeneous Poisson
Process
Ans.: Non Homogeneous Poisson Process

Q40. Which of the following is not a phase of “bathtub curve” of

hardware reliability?

A Useful -
life B Burn -
in
C Wear -
out D Time
Ans.: Time

Q41. Which of the following are parameters involved in computing the

total cost of a software development project?
A Hardware and Software
Cost B Effort Cost
C Travel and training
cost D All of these
Ans.: All of these

Q42. Which of the following costs is not part of the total effort
cost? A Costs of networking and communications
B Costs of providing heating and lighting office
space C Costs of lunch time food
D Costs of support staff

Ans.: Costs of lunch time food

Q43. What is related to the overall functionality of the delivered

software? A Function related metrics
B Product related
metrics C Size related
metrics
D None of these

Ans.: Function related metrics

Q44. It is often difficult to estimate size at an early stage in a project
when only a specification is available

A
True
B
False
Ans.: True

Q45. Which of the following uses empirically derived formulas to predict

effort as a function of LOC or FP? A FP-Based Estimation
B Process-Based
Estimation C COCOMO
D Both FP-Based Estimation and COCOMO

Ans.: Both FP-Based Estimation and COCOMO

Q46. The empirical data that support most estimation models are
derived from a vast sample of projects.

A
True
B

False

Ans.: False

Q47. COCOMO stands

for A Constructive cost
model
B Comprehensive cost model

C Constructive cost estimation

model D Complete cost estimation
model Ans.: Constructive cost
model

Q48. Which version of COCOMO states that once requirements

have been stabilized, the basic software architecture has been
established?

A Early design stage model

B Post-architecture-stage model
C Application composition
model D All of the mentioned
Ans.: Early design stage model
Q49. Which model was used during the early stages of software
engineering, when prototyping of user interfaces, consideration of
software and system interaction, assessment of performance, and
evaluation of technology maturity were paramount.

A Early design stage model

B Post-architecture-stage
model C Application
composition model D All of the
mentioned

Ans.: Application composition model

Q50. Estimation of size for a project is

dependent on A Cost

B Time

C Schedule

D None of these

Ans.: None of these

Q51. RAD stands for

A Relative Application
Development B Rapid
Application Development
C Rapid Application Document
D None of these

Ans.: Rapid Application Development

Q52. Which one of the following models is not suitable for

accommodating any change?

A Build & Fix

Model B
Prototyping Model
C RAD Model
D Waterfall Model

Ans.: Waterfall Model

Q53. Which is not one of the types of prototype of Prototyping

Model A Horizontal prototype
B Vertical
prototype C
Diagonal prototype
D Domain
prototype
Ans.: Diagonal Prototype

Q54. Which one of the following is not a phase of Prototyping

Model? A Quick design
B Coding

C Prototype Refinement
D Engineer product

Ans.: Coding

Q55. RAD Model

has A 2 phases
B 3 phases C 5 phases

D 6 phases
Ans.: 5 phases

Q56. SDLC stands for

A Software Development Life

Cycle B System Development
Life cycle
C Software Design Life
Cycle D System Design
Life Cycle
Ans.: Software Development Life Cycle

Q57. Which model can be selected if user is involved in all the phases
of SDLC? A Waterfall Model
B Prototyping
Model C RAD
Model
D both Prototyping Model & RAD Model
Ans.: RAD Model

Q58. ensures the integrity and security of data that are

passing over a network. A Firewall
B Anti-virus

C Pen testing tools

D Network security protocol

Ans.: Network security protocol

Q59. Which of the following is not a strong security

protocol? A HTTPS
B SSL

C
SMTP
D SFTP
Ans.: SMTP
Q60. TSL (Transport Layer Security) is a cryptographic protocol
used for securing HTTP/HTTPS based connection.

A
True
B
False
Ans.: True
 Model Question Paper
Subject: Software Metrics and Quality Assurance

Branch: Computer Engineering

Class: BE

Semester: VIII

Q1. Which of the following is not a SQA plan for a project?

A. Evaluations to be performed
B. Amount of technical work
C. Audits and reviews to be performed
D. Documents to be produced by the SQA group

Ans.: B

Q2. The most important feature of spiral model is

A. Requirement analysis.
B. Risk management.
C. Quality management.
D. Configuration management.
Ans.: B

Q3. SRD stands for

A. Software requirements definition

B. Structured requirements definition
C. Software requirements diagram
D. Structured requirements diagram
Ans.: B

Q4.The tools that support different stages of software development life cycle
are called
A. CASE Tools
B. CAME tools
C. CAQE tools
D. CARE tools
 Ans.: A

Q5.Line of code(LOC) can be used to normalize quality and/or productivity

measure for
A. Extended function point metrics
B. Function point metrics.
C. Size oriented metrics.
D. None of the above.
Ans.: C

Q6. Quality of the product comes under which type of measures?

A. Indirect measures
B. Direct measures
C. Coding
D. None of the above
Ans.: A

Q7. What is Software?

A. Software is documentation and configuration of data
B. Software is set of programs
C. Software is set of programs, documentation & configuration of data
D. None of the mentioned
Ans.: C

Q8.Which of the following are parameters involved in computing the total

cost of a software development project?

A. Hardware and software costs

B. Effort costs
C. Travel and training costs
D.All of the mentioned
Ans.: D

Q9.Which of the following costs is not part of the total effort cost?
A. Costs of networking and communications
B. Costs of providing heating and lighting office space
D. Costs of lunch time food
D. Costs of support staff
 Ans.: C
Q10.What is related to the overall functionality of the delivered software?
A. Function-related metrics
B. Product-related metrics
C. Size-related metrics
D. None of the mentioned
Ans.: A
Q11. Function Points in software engineering was first proposed by
A. Booch
B. Boehm
C. Albrecht
D.Jacobson
Ans.: C

Q12.How many Information Domain Values are used for Function Point
Computation?
A. three
B. four
C. five
D. six
` Ans.: C

Q13. Function Point Computation is given by the formula

A. FP = [count total * 0.65] + 0.01 * sum(Fi)
B. FP = count total * [0.65 + 0.01 * sum(Fi)].
C. FP = count total * [0.65 + 0.01] * sum(Fi)
D. FP = [count total * 0.65 + 0.01] * sum(Fi)
Ans.: B
Q14.Architectural Design Metrics are ___________ in nature.
A. Black Box
B. White Box
C. Gray Box
D. Green Box
Ans.: A
Q15.SMI stands for
A. Software Mature Indicator
B. Software Maturity Index
C. Software Mature Index
D. Software Maturity Indicator
Ans.: B
Q16.The amount of time that the software is available for use is known as
A. Reliability
B. Usability
C. Efficiency
D. Functionality
Ans.: A

Q17.Size and Complexity are a part of

A. Product Metrics
B. Process Metrics
C. Project Metrics
D. All of the mentioned
Ans.: A
Q18. Cost and schedule are a part of
A. Product Metrics
B. Process Metrics
C. Project Metrics
D. All of the mentioned

Ans.: C
Q19. Percentage of modules that were inspected is a part of
A. Product Metrics
B. Process Metrics
C. Project Metrics
D. All of the mentioned
Ans.: B
Q20.Line of code(LOC) can be used to normalize quality and/or productivity
measure for?
A. Extended function point metrics
B. Function point metrics.
C. Size oriented metrics.
D. None of the above.
Ans.: C

Q21.Project risk factor is considered in which model.

A. Spiral model.
B. Waterfall model.
C. Prototyping model
D. None of the above.
Ans.: A

Q22.Which of the following is / are characteristics of testable software?

A. Observability
B. Simplicity
C. Stability
D. All of the above
Ans.: D
Q23. Black Box Testing is also known as ________ .

A. Behavioral Testing
B. Flow Testing
C. Data Testing
D. None of the above
Ans.: A

Q24. Test cases are designed during which of the following stages?
A. Test recording
B. Test configuration
C. Test planning
D. Test specification
Ans.: D

Q25.Static analysis can be best described as:

 A. The reviewing of test plans
B. The analysis of batch programs
C. The use of black box testing
D. The analysis of program code
Ans.: D

Q26.White-box testing can be started:

A. After installation
B. After SRS creation
C. After programming
D. After designing
Ans.: C

Q27.Beta Testing is done at:

A. Developer’s end
B. User’s end
C. User’s & Developer’s end
D. None of the mentioned
Ans.: B

Q28.In order to control cost, defects should ideally be detected in which

phase:
A. Coding
B. Design
C. Implementation
D. Requirements Gathering
Ans.: D

Q29.Which of the following is not included in failure costs?

A. rework
B. repair
C. failure mode analysis
D. none of the mentioned
Ans.: D

Q30.Which requirements are the foundation from which quality is

 measured?
A. Hardware
B. Software
C. Programmers
D. None of the mentioned
Ans.: B

Q31.Which of the following is not included in External failure costs?

A. testing
B. help line support
C. warranty work
D. complaint resolution
Ans.: A

Q32.What is not included in prevention costs?

A. quality planning
B. formal technical reviews
C. test equipment
D. equipment calibration and maintenance
Ans.: D

Q33.Which one is not a software quality model?

A. ISO 9000
B. McCall model
C. Boehm model
D. ISO 9126
Ans.: A

Q34.How many levels are present in CMM?

A. three
B. four
C. five
D. six
Ans.: C

Q35.Mean Time To Repair (MTTR) is the time needed to repair a failed

 hardware module.
A. True
B. False
Ans.: A

Q36.Which of the following is not a phase of “bathtub curve” of hardware

reliability?
A. Useful Life
B. Burn-in
C. Wear-out
D. Time
Ans.: D

Q37.How is reliability and failure intensity related to each other?

A. direct relation
B. inverse relation
C. no relation
D. none of the mentioned
Ans.: B

Q38.How is software reliability defined?

A. time
B. efficiency
C. quality
D. speed
Ans.: A

Q39.…………… is a measure of the time between observed system failures.

A. Probability of Failure on Demand (POFOD)
B. Rate of Failure Occurrence (ROCOF)
C. Mean Time to Failure (MTTF)
D. Availability (AVAIL)
Ans.: C

Q40.The COCOMO model takes into account different approaches to

 software development, reuse, etc.
A. True
B. False
Ans.: B

Q41.Which of the following are parameters involved in computing the total

cost of a software development project?
A. Hardware and software costs
B. Effort costs
C. Travel and training costs
D. All of the mentioned
Ans.: D

Q42.As a software manager, when you will decide the number of people
required for a software project?

A. Before the scope is determined.

B. Before an estimate of the development effort is made.
C. After an estimate of the development effort is made.
D. None of the above.
Ans.: C

Q43.What is the meaning of Software Scope?

A. It describes the Off-the-shelf component.

B. It describes the functions and features that are to be delivered to end
users.
C. It describes the software risk.
D. None of the above.
Ans.: B

Q44.Debugging is not Testing, but always occurs as a consequences of

testing.
A. True
B. False
Ans.: A
Q45. What does QA and QC stand for?
A. Quality Assurance and Queuing Control
B. Quality Adjustment and Quality completion
C. Quality Assurance and Quality control
D. Quality Adjustment and Queuing control
Ans.: C

Q46.What is QA?
A. It is the measurement of degree to which a product satisfies the need
B. Any systematic process used to ensure quality in the process
C. Process of identifying defects
D. It is a corrective tool
Ans.: B

Q47.Which of the following is an example of QA?

A. Verification
B. Software testing
C. Validation
D. Documentation
Ans.: A

Q48.Which of the following is not a core step of Six Sigma?

A. Define
B. Control
C. Measure
D. Analyse
Ans: B

Q49.What is the main purpose of integration testing?

A. Design errors
B. Interface errors
C. Procedure errors
D. None of the above
Ans :B
Q50.Which of the following is not included in failure costs?
A. rework
B. repair
C. failure mode analysis
D. none of the mentioned
Ans: D

Q51.Which requirements are the foundation from which quality is

measured?
A. Hardware
B. Software
C. Programmers
D. None of the mentioned
Ans: B

Q52.Which of the following is not a SQA plan for a project?

A. evaluations to be performed
B. amount of technical work
C. audits and reviews to be performed
D. documents to be produced by the SQA group
Ans :B

Q53.Which of the following is not included in External failure costs?

A. testing
B. help line support
C. warranty work
D. complaint resolution
Ans : A

Q54.What is not included in prevention costs?

A. quality planning
B. formal technical reviews
C. test equipment
D. equipment calibration and maintenance
Ans: D
Q55.Quality Management in software engineering is also known as
A. SQA
B. SQM
C. SQI
D.SQA and SQM
Ans:A

Q56.Inspections and testing are what kinds of Quality Costs?

A. Prevention
B. Internal Failure
C. External Failure
D. Appraisal
Ans: A

Q57.Boundary value analysis belong to?

A. White Box Testing
B. Black Box Testing
C. White Box & Black Box Testing
D. None of the mentioned
Ans: B

Q58.Which requirements are the foundation from which quality is

measured?
A. Hardware
B. Software
C. Programmers
D. None of the mentioned
Ans: B

Q59.The cost incurred in first time reviews and testing is called ---------

A. Red money
B. Green money
C.Blue money
Ans : C
Q60.Continual (Continuous) improvement cycle is based on systematic
sequence of -------------- activities.
A. SDLC
B. PDCA
C. waterfall model
Ans : B.
 Model Question Paper
Subject :SMQA ( Software Metric and Quality and Assurance )

Branch :Computer Engineering / Computer Science and Engineering

Class : BE

Semester : VIII

Q1. Which requirements are the foundation from which quality is measured?
a) Hardware
b) Software
c) Programmers
d) None of the mentioned

Q2. Attributes of the software are

a) Length
b) Functionality
c) Reuse
d) All of Above
Q3. Measurement can be called as ________________

a) Quantization
b) Quantification
c) Qualification
d) None of Above

Q4. Direct Measurement quantification is :

a) Length
b) Height
c) Weight
d) All of Above

Q5. Which of following is not Indirect Measurement quantification i?

a) To Calculate area
b) To measure the valuation of house
c) To calculate BMI ratio
d) To measure height

Q6. As software engineering focuses on implementing the software in controlled and scientific way.

a) True
b) False

Q7. Neglecting Measurements causes :

a) fail to set measurable targets
b) fail to understand and quantify the cost
c) can’t quantify the quality of the product
d) All of the above

Q8. Measurement is needed for assessing the status of :

a) Projects
b) Products
c) Resources
d) All of above

Q9. Software Manager does not check:

a) What does each process cost?

b) Are the requirements testable?
c) How productive is the staff?
d) How good is the code being developed?

Q10. Developer checks :

a) Have we found all the faults?
b) Have we meet our product or process goals?
c) What will happen in future?
d) All of the above

Q11. Cost and Effort estimation Models are:

a) COCOMO
b) Putnam
c) Albrecht’s function point model
d) All of above

Q12. Measurement for Prediction always require mathematical model:

a) True
b) False

Q13: Which of the following are types of measurement scales:

i) Nominal scale ii) Ordinal scale iii) Internal scale iv) Ratio scale v) Obsolete scale

a) (I,ii,iii)
b) (ii,iii,v)
c) (i,ii,iv)
d) (I,ii,iv,v)

Q14. The interval scale:

a) Maintains order
b) Maintains differences
c) Not accept multiplication and division
d) All of Above

Q.15 The quality of any measurement program is clearly dependent on careful data collection.
a) True
b) False

Q16.Software metrics is a term that embraces many activities. Which are these?:
a) Cost and effort estimation models and measures
b) Data collection
c) Quality models and measures
d) All of above
e) None of above

Q17. In size oriented metrics, metrics are developed based on the:

a. number of Functions
b. number of user inputs
c. number of lines of code
d. amount of memory usage

Q18. Line of code(LOC) of the product comes under which type of measures?
a.Indirect measures
b. Direct measures
c. Coding
d. None of the above

Q 19. Function Points in software engineering was first proposed by

a. Booch
b.Boehm
c. Albrecht
d. Jacobson

Q20.Labeling, classifying entities are the example of _____________ scale:

a) Nominal
b) Ordinal
c) Ratio
d) Interval
Q.21 .Simple measure of size is often rejected because it fails to reflect

a) Effort
b) Productivity
c) Cost
d) All of above

Q22. Software size can be outlined using three attributes

a) Length
b) Functionality
c) Complexity
d) All of above

Q23. Length of traditional code measures commented lines also.

a) True
b) False

Q 24.Two alternative Measures for line of code:

a) Number of bytes of computer storage required for the program text.

b) Number of characters in the program text.
c) Number of words in the program text.
d) a,b

Q25. Structured Analysis and Structured Design (SA/SD) is diagrammatic notation which is
design to :
a) help people understand the system.
b) improve quality and reduce the risk of System failure.
c) Basically the approach of SA/SD is based on the Data Flow Diagram.
d) All of above

Q.26.The control flow measures are usually modeled with:

a) Control graph
b) Bipartite Graph
c) Directed graph
d) None of above

Q27. Node on control graph shows :

a) Program Statement
b) Control Flow
c) Loop
d) None of above
Q28.In-degreeof the node is the:

a) Logarithm of degree
b) number of arcs arriving at the node
c) number of values arriving at the node
d) All of above

Q29. External Inputs Means :

a) Distinct application oriented dataitems provided by the user
b) Interacting i/p
c) Machine Readable files
d) None

Q30. Coupling is :

a) Degree of Interdependence between modules

b) Degree of Independence between module
c)Degree of functionality among modules
d) None

Q31. There are ________ types of Structural measures.

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

Q32. Control Flow addresses the sequence of instructions executed.

a) True
b) False

Q33. DFD depicts the behavior of data when it interacts with the system.
a) Pattern
b) Behavior
c) No. of instructions
d) None

Q34.
Above Flow graph indicate the statement:

a) If X then A
b) IF A then X
c)IF A then true
d) IF X then true

Q35.

Above flow graph shows the statement :

a) If A then x else y
b) If x and y then A
c) If A then y else x
d) None

Q 36. ET, in this formula ET and ER are________ , ________ resply.

Portability = 1 -
ER
i)Target environment
ii)Resident environment
iii)Event test
iv)Event recall

a) i), iii)
b) ii), iii)
c) i), ii)
d) ii,iv)

Q37. X and y communicate by parameters, where each parameter is either a single data element or
a homogeneous set of data items that incorporate no control element. This type of coupling is
________________.
a) No coupling relation
b) Stamp Coupling
c) Common Coupling
d) Data Coupling
Q38. If the modules performs more than one function, and they are unrelated then it is ______
cohesion.

a)Temporal
b) Logical
c) Coincidental
d) None

Q39. What is GQM :

a)Goal-Question-Metric Paradigm
b) General-Question-Metric Paradigm
c) Goal-Quotient-Metric Paradigm
d) Goal-Quality-Metric Paradigm

Q40.PDF means _______________.

a)Probability Dynamic Function
b) Probability Density Function
c) Portable Document Format
d) None

Q41. UPDF is _______________.

a)Uniform PDF
b) Unified PDF
c) Universal PDF
d) None

Q42. We define the reliability function R(t) as:

a)R(t)=1-F(t)

b) R(t)=F(t)-1

c) R(t)=1+F(t)

d) None of Above

Q43. Which Model is basic model of reliability from which various reliability models are derived :

a)DeMarcho Model
b) LittleWood Model
c) Jelinski-Moranda (J-M) Model
d) All of above

Q44. An operating environment or integrated applications environment is the environment in which

____________
a)Users operates the environment
b) Users run application software.
c) Environment application support
d) None of Above

Q45. Operating environment rest between

a)OS and application
b) OS and middleware
c) Middleware and application
d) All of above

Q46. Uniform pdf applies when the failure time is Bounded.

a)True
b) False

Q47. The mean time to failure (MTTF) is the mean of the probability density function.
a)True
b) False

Q48. In morphology size metric is measured by size=n+a. Where n= ________ and a=_______.

a)No. of nodes and arcs

b) No. of lines and comment
c) No. of commented and non-commented lines.
d) Number and address

Q49. mean time between failures (MTBF)

a)MTBF=MTTF-MTTR
b) MTBF = MTTF + MTTR
c) MTBF=MTTR-MTTF
d) None of above

Q50. Usually software fails due to design problem

a)True
b) False

Q51.Which of the following is an indirect measure of product?

a) Quality
b) Complexity
c) Reliability
d) All of the Mentioned
Q52. In size oriented metric, metrics are based on
a)Lines of code
b) No. of Functions
c) User input
d) Memory Usage

Q53. Mean Time To Repair (MTTR) is the time needed to repair a failed hardware module.
a) True
b) False

Q54. Which quality is measured as a foundation of requirement…?

a) Hardware
b) Programmers
c)Software
d) None of the mentioned

Q55. Which is the examples of Measurement

a)Radar System
b) Medical System
c) Weather forecasting system
d) All of above

Q56. A is taller than B iff M(A) > M(B).This statement implies that when ever A is taller than B then
M(A) must be bigger number that M(B).

a)True
b) False

Q57. A ratio scale has the following features:

a)The measurement mapping needs to start at zero

b) It is a measurement mapping that maintains ordering
c) Measurement mapping increase at equal intervals, called units.
d) All of Above

Q58. Measurement is the process by which numbers or symbols are assigned to attributes of
entities in the real world.

a)True
b) False
Q59. To count FP we first computer the UFC (Unadjusted function point count)

a)True
b) False

Q60. Performance evaluation is based on :

a)Response Time
b) Computational
c) Algorithmic complexity
d) All of above

Answer Key

1. b

2. d

3. b

4. d

5. d

6. a

7. d

8. d

9. b

10. d

11. d

12.a

13.c

14.d

15.a

16. c
17. c

18.b

19. c

20.a

21.d

22.d

23. a

24.d

25.d

26. c

27. a

28.b

29.a

30. a

31. c

32. a

33. b

34.b

35. a

36.c

37.d

38. c

39. a

40.b

41.a
42. a

43. c

44. b

45.a

46.a
47.a

48.a

49.b

50. a

51.d

52. a

53. a

54.c

55. d

56. a

57. d

58.a

59.a

60.d
 Model Question Paper
SUBJECT: SOFTWARE METRICS AND QUALITY ASSURANCE

Branch: Computer Engineering

Class: BE Semester: VIII

___________________________________________________________________________

UNIT I

Q1. --------------describes the collection of techniques that apply an engineering approach to

the construction of software product
A. Measurement
B. Software engineering
C. Planning
D. Specification
Ans.: B

Q2. Which of the following does not affect software quality?

A. Market
B. Technology
C. Reliability
D. Product
Ans.: A

Q3. Which of the following does not affect software productivity?

A. Time
B. Money
C. Complexity
D. None of the above
Ans.: D

Q4. Which of the following is an indirect measure of product?

A. Time
B. Density
C. Length
D. None of above
Ans.: B

Q5. Which of the following is not the attribute of program code?

A. Quality
B. Reliability
C. Length
D. Requirement stability
Ans.: D

Q6. The order in which participants complete a task is an example of what level of
measurement?
A. Ordinal
B. Ratio
C. Interval
D. Nominal
Ans.: A

Q7. What level of measurement would be used if participants were asked to choose their
favourite picture from a set of six?
A. Ordinal
B. Nominal
C. Ratio
D. Interval
Ans.: B

Q8. If the grading of diabetes is classified as mild, moderate and severe the scale of
measurement used is:
A. Interval
B. Nominal
C. Ordinal
D. Ratio
Ans.: C
Q9. The quantity or quality is measured using which of the following measurement?
A. Direct Measurement:
B. Indirect Measurement:
C. Both a and b
D. Controlling
Ans.: C

Q10. Which of following is the internal product attribute of software?

A . Usability
B. Reliability
C. Price
D. Comfort
Ans.: C

Q11. Which of the following provide useful measures of software quality?

A. Correctness, maintainability, integrity, usability.
B. Reliability, maintainability, integrity, sales
C. Correctness, maintainability, size, satisfaction
D Correctness, performance, integrity, usability
Ans.: A

Q12. A measure must specify the ____and _______as well as the rules for performing the
mapping
A binary relation, domain
B domain, number
C domain ,range
D empirical relation, range
Ans.: C

Q13 Measurement is needed for assessing the status of our---------

A Projects and Products

B Processes
C Resources.
D All of above

Ans.: D
Q14. A abstraction of reality, allowing us to strip away details and view an entity or concept
from a particular perspective is called as

A. Method
B. Function.
C. Model.
D. document
Ans.: C
Q15. Direct measurement---

A. Involves attributes of entity

B. involves no other attributes of entity
C. involves data
D involves functions of program,
Ans.: B

Q16. A mathematical model together with a set of prediction procedures for determining
unknown parameters is known as

A. Calculation System
B. Database system.
C. Prediction system.
D. Power System
Ans.: C

Q17. Line of code calculation is an example of which scale

A. Nominal
B. Ordinal
C. Interval
D. Absolute
Ans.: D

Q18. Which of the following comes under the Control Structure Testing?
A. Condition testing
B. Loop testing
C. Data Flow Testing
D. All of the above
Ans: D

Q19. A graphical technique for finding if changes and variation in metrics data are
meaningful is known as

A.DRE (Defect Removal Efficiency)

B. Function points analysis

C. Control Chart
D. All of the mentioned
Ans: C

Q20. Cost and schedule are a part of_________________________?

A. Product Metrics
B. Process Metrics
C. Project Metrics
D. All of the mentioned

Ans: C

UNIT II

Q21. Which of the following is not an information domain required for determining function
point?
A. Number of user Input
B. Number of user Inquiries
C. Number of external Interfaces
D. Number of errors
Ans.: D
Q22. Which of these the advantage using LOC (lines of code) as a size oriented metrics?
A. LOC is easily computed
B. LOC is language dependent measure
C. LOC is language measurement.
D. LOC is computed before design is completed.
Ans.: A

Q23. Line of code (LOC) can be used to normalize quality and/or productivity measure for
------------.
A. Extended function point metrics
B. Function point metrics.
C. Size oriented metrics.
D. None of the above.
Ans.: C
Q24. In size oriented metrics, metrics are developed based on the ----------------- .
A. number of Functions
B. number of user inputs
C. number of lines of code
D. amount of memory usage
Ans.: C
Q25. Function oriented metric were first proposed by ___________ and he suggested a
measure called the __________ .
A. Barry Boehm, KLOC.
B. Barry Boehm, Function point.
C. Albrecht, Function point.
D. Albrecht, KLOC.
Ans.: C

Q.26 Which of the following is an example of QA

A. validation
B. Software testing
C. verification
D. Documentation
Ans.: C

Q27. What does QA and QC stand for

A. Quality Adjustment and Queuing control

B. Quality Assurance and Quality control

C. Quality Adjustment and Quality completion

D. Quality Assurance and Queuing Control

Ans.: B
Q.28 Which of the following is not an information domain required for determining function
point in FPA?

A. Number of user Input

B. Number of user Inquiries

C. Number of external Interfaces

D. Number of errors
Ans.: D
Q.29 Function Points in software engineering was first proposed by

A. Booch
B. Boehm
C. Albrecht
D. Jacobson
Ans.: C
Q.30 Function Point Computation is given by the formula

A. FP = [count total * 0.65] + 0.01 * sum(Fi)

B.FP = count total * [0.65 + 0.01 * sum(Fi)]

C.FP = count total * [0.65 + 0.01] * sum(Fi)

D.FP = [count total * 0.65 + 0.01] * sum(Fi)

Ans.: B
Q.31 Size and Complexity are a part of
A. Product Metrics
B. Process Metrics
C. Project Metrics
D. None of the above

Ans.: A
Q.32 Which of the following is not categorized under Component-Level Design Metrics?

A. Complexity Metrics
B. Cohesion Metrics
C. Morphology Metrics
D. Coupling Metrics
Ans.: C
Q.33 From the following methods which size of the software product can be calculated?

A. Counting the lines of delivered code

B. Counting delivered function points
C. Both a and b above
D. None of the above
Ans.: C
Q.34 How many product quality factors are proposed in McCall quality model?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 11
D.8

Ans.: B
Q.35Advantage of using function point(FP) as measure of the functionality delivered by a
software application?

A.FP is a language dependent measure

B.FP is a language independent measure

C.FP can be computed before a design is completed

D. Both b and c
Ans.: D

Q.36 Which metric gives the idea about the contents on a web page ?

A. Word Token

B. Word Count

C. Word Size

D. Word Length
Ans.: C
Q.37 Number of dynamic web pages provides an idea about________ for a web page that is
to be built.

A. Size
B. Complexity
C. Effort
D. All of the mentioned

Ans.: B
Q.38 How many Information Domain Values are used for Function Point Computation?

A. Three
B. Four
C. Five
D. Six
Ans.: C
Q.39. Which of the following is not categorized under Product Operation of McCall’s
Software Quality Factors?
A. Flexibility
B. Reliability
C. Usability.
D. Integrity
Ans.: A
Q.40 Software size can be calculated by
A. Length
B. Functionality
C. Complexity
D. All of above
Ans: D

UNIT III

Q41. Which one is not a software quality model?

A. ISO 9000
B. McCall model
C. Boehm model
D. ISO 9126
Ans.: A

Q42. Which of the following does not affect the software quality and organizational
performance?
A. Market
B. Product
C. Technology
D. People
Ans.: A

Q43. Which of the following is not a direct measure of software engineering process?
A. Efficiency
B. Cost
C. Effort Applied
D. All of the mentioned
Ans.: A

Q44. Which of the following is an indirect measure of product?

A. Quality
B. Complexity
C. Reliability
D. All of the Mentioned
Ans .: D

Q45. Which requirements are the foundation from which quality is measured?
A. Hardware
B. Software
C. Programmers
D. None of the above
Ans .: D

Q 46. How is reliability and failure intensity related to each other?

A. Direct relation
B. Inverse relation
C . No relation
D. None of the mentioned
Ans .: B

Q 47. What is MTTF ?

A. Maximum time to failure
B. Mean time to failure
C. Minimum time to failure
D. None of the mentioned
Ans .: B

Q 48. Which of the following approaches are used to achieve reliable systems?
A. Fault prevention
B. Fault removal
C. Fault tolerance
D. All of the above
Ans .: D
Q 49. Failure In Time (FIT) is another way of reporting
A. MTTR
B. MTTF
C. MTSF
D. MTBF
Ans .: D

Q 50. Which one of the following is not parametric reliability growth model?
A. Jelinski moranda
B. Little wood
C. Albrecht function point
D. All of above
Ans .: C

Q 51. What is MTBF?

A. Maximum Time Between Failure
B. Mean Time Between Failures
C. Mean Time Between Fix
D. Maximum Time Between Fix
Ans .: B

Q 52. In ISO 9126, time behaviour and resource utilization are a part of
A. Maintainability
B. Portability
C. Efficiency
D. Usability
Ans .: C

Q53. What is MTTR?

A. Mean Time To Repair
B. Mean Time To Reuse
C. Maximum Time To Reuse
D. None of the above
Ans .: A
Q54. As the reliability increases failure intensity ---------.
A. decreases
B. increases
C. No effect
D. None of the above
Ans .: A

Q. 55 Which one of the following is not software quality model?

A. McCall
B. Boehm
C. ISO 9126
D. Jelinski Moranda
Ans .: D

Q 56. What are the reasons of software failure?

A. Usually software fail due to design problem.
B. Changes in requirements.
C. Correction in existing problem.
D. All of the above
Ans .: D

Q 57. The amount of time that the software is available for use is known as
A. Reliability
B. Usability
C. Efficiency
D . Functionality
Ans .: A

Q 58. Usability in metric analysis is defined as the degree to which the software-------.
A. stated needs
B. is easy to use
C. makes optimal use of system resources
D. none of the mentioned
Ans .: B
Q 59. Which of the following is not categorized under Product Operation of McCall’s
Software Quality Factors?
A. Flexibility
B. Reliability
C. Usability
D. Integrity
Ans .: A

Q 60. Failure occurrences can be represented as

A. time to failure
B. time interval between failures
C. failures experienced in a time interval
D. All of the Above
Ans .: D
 Model Question Paper
SUBJECT: SOFTWARE METRICS AND QUALITY ASSURANCE

Branch: Information Technology

Class: BE Semester: VIII

___________________________________________________________________________

UNIT I

Q1. --------------describes the collection of techniques that apply an engineering approach to

the construction of software product
A. Measurement
B. Software engineering
C. Planning
D. Specification
Ans.: B

Q2. Which of the following does not affect software quality?

A. Market
B. Technology
C. Reliability
D. Product
Ans.: A

Q3. Which of the following does not affect software productivity?

A. Time
B. Money
C. Complexity
D. None of the above
Ans.: D

Q4. Which of the following is an indirect measure of product?

A. Time
B. Density
C. Length
D. None of above
Ans.: B

Q5. Which of the following is not the attribute of program code?

A. Quality
B. Reliability
C. Length
D. Requirement stability
Ans.: D

Q6. Which of the following is an indirect measure of product?

A. Quality
B. Complexity
C. Reliability
D. All of the Mentioned
Ans .: D

Q7. What level of measurement would be used if participants were asked to choose their
favourite picture from a set of six?
A. Ordinal
B. Nominal
C. Ratio
D. Interval
Ans.: B

Q8. If the grading of diabetes is classified as mild, moderate and severe the scale of
measurement used is:
A. Interval
B. Nominal
C. Ordinal
D. Ratio
Ans.: C

Q9. The quantity or quality is measured using which of the following measurement?
A. Direct Measurement:
B. Indirect Measurement:
C. Both a and b
D. Controlling
Ans.: B

Q10. Which of following is the internal product attribute of software?

A . Usability
B. Reliability
C. Price
D. Comfort
Ans.: C

Q11. Which of the following provide useful measures of software quality?

A. Correctness, maintainability, integrity, usability.
B. Reliability, maintainability, integrity, sales
C. Correctness, maintainability, size, satisfaction
D Correctness, performance, integrity, usability
Ans.: A

Q12. A measure must specify the ____and _______as well as the rules for performing the
mapping
A binary relation, domain
B domain, number
C domain ,range
D empirical relation, range
Ans.: C

Q13 Measurement is needed for assessing the status of our---------

A Projects and Products

B Processes and Resources.
C Both A and B
D All of above

Ans.: C
Q14. A abstraction of reality, allowing us to strip away details and view an entity or concept
from a particular perspective is called as

A. Method
B. Function.
C. Model.
D. document
Ans.: C
Q15. Direct measurement---

A. Involves attributes of entity

B. involves no other attributes of entity
C. involves data
D involves functions of program,
Ans.: B

Q16. A mathematical model together with a set of prediction procedures for determining
unknown parameters is known as

A. Calculation System
B. Database system.
C. Prediction system.
D. Power System
Ans.: C

Q17. Line of code calculation is an example of which scale

A. Nominal
B. Ordinal
C. Interval
D. Absolute
Ans.: D

Q 18. Which of the following is not a direct measurement of software engineering?

A. Length
B. Duration of Testing Process
C. Productivity
D. Time of a Programmer
Ans.: C

Q 19.If its truth value is invariant of transformation of allowable scales it is called_____.

A. Meaningless
B. Meaningful
C. Predication System
D. All above
Ans.: B

Q 19.If its truth value is invariant of transformation of allowable scales it is called_____.

A. Meaningless
B. Meaningful
C. Predication System
D. All above
Ans.: B

Q 20 Which of the following is not a scope of Software metrics.

A. Management by Metrics
B. Reliability Model
C. Cost and Effort Model
D. Software Process Model
Ans.: D
 UNIT II

Q21. Which of the following is not an information domain required for determining function
point?
A. Number of user Input
B. Number of user Inquiries
C. Number of external Interfaces
D. Number of errors
Ans.: D

Q22. Which of these the advantage using LOC (lines of code) as a size oriented metrics?
A. LOC is easily computed
B. LOC is language dependent measure
C. LOC is language measurement.
D. LOC is computed before design is completed.
Ans.: A

Q23. Line of code (LOC) can be used to normalize quality and/or productivity measure for
------------.
A. Extended function point metrics
B. Function point metrics.
C. Size oriented metrics.
D. None of the above.
Ans.: C

Q24. What do QA and QC stand for?

A. Quality Adjustment and Queuing control

B. Quality Assurance and Quality control

C. Quality Adjustment and Quality completion

D. Quality Assurance and Queuing Control

Ans.: B
Q.25 what is the Full form of TCF?

A. Technology Complex Factor

B. Taken common factor
C. Technical Complex Factor
D. Technical Complexity Factor
Ans.: D

Q.26 which of the following methods is used for size of the software product.

A. Counting the lines of delivered code

B. Counting delivered function points
C. Both a and b above
D. None of the above
Ans.: C
Q.27 How many Information Domain Values are used for Function Point Computation?

A. Three
B. Four
C. Five
D. Six
Ans.: C
Q.28. Which of the following is not categorized under Product Operation of McCall’s
Software Quality Factors?
A. Flexibility
B. Reliability
C. Usability.
D. Integrity
Ans.: A
Q.29 Software size can be calculated by
A. Length
B. Functionality
C. Complexity
D. All of above
Ans: D

Q.30 Flow graph nodes with out-degree equal to 1 are called

A. Procedure nodes
B. predicate nodes
C. intermediate nodes
D. leaf nodes
Ans: A

Q.31 There are legitimate operations we can use to build new flow graphs from old
A. Sequencing
B. Nesting
C. Sequencing and Nesting
D. Sequencing ,Nesting and Directed graph
Ans: C

Q.32 Cyclomatic number of program’s flow graph is calculated as

A. e-n+2
B. e+n-2
C. e-n-2
D. e+n+2
Ans: A

Q.33 ________the extent to which modules are reused within the same product
A. internal use
B. internal reuse
C. Internal design reuse
D. internal module based reuse
Ans: B

Q.34 In coupling, the pair (x, y) where y represents

A. Coupling relation
B. no of times relation occur
C. no coupling relation
D. module coupling
Ans: B

Q.35 -------------of a module is the extent to which its individual components are needed to
perform the same task.
A. Coupling
B. relation
C. cohesion
D. information Flow
Ans: C

Q.36 How can we measure size in morphology

A. by length
B. by LOC
C. by FP
D. number of nodes, number of edges or combination
Ans:

Q.37 -------is a contiguous sequence of program statements bounded by boundary elements.

A. Module
B. Modularity
C. Intra-module
D. Inter-module
Ans: A

Q.38 ---------are intended to measure the amount of functionality in a system as described by

specification.
A. Function point
B. UFC
C. TCF
D. Reuse
Ans: A
Q.39 what is internal file in Albrecht’s Approach
A. input files
B. output files
C. logical master file
D. messages
Ans: C

Q.40 Physical size of product

A. Functionality
B. reuse
C. length
D. Complexity
Ans: C

UNIT III

Q 41. Which of the following does not affect the software quality and organizational
performance?
A. Market
B. Product
C. Technology
D. People
Ans.: A
Q 42. Which requirement is the foundation from which quality is measured?
A. Hardware
B. Software
C. Programmers
D. None of the above
Ans .: D
Q 43. -----------------is the probability of failure between time o and t.
A. Hazard rate function
B. reliability function
C. Survival function
D. None of the above
Ans.: D
Q 44. Which one is not a software quality model?
A. ISO 9000
B. McCall model
C. Boehm model
D. ISO 9126
Ans.: A

Q 45. How is reliability and failure intensity related to each other?

A. Direct relation
B. Inverse relation
C . No relation
D. None of the mentioned
Ans .: B

Q 46. What is MTTF ?

A. Maximum time to failure
B. Mean time to failure
C. Minimum time to failure
D. None of the mentioned
Ans .: B

Q 47. Which of the following approaches are used to achieve reliable systems?
A. Fault prevention
B. Fault removal
C. Fault tolerance
D. All of the above
Ans .: D

Q 48. Failure In Time (FIT) is another way of reporting

A. MTTR
B. MTTF
C. MTSF
D. MTBF
Ans .: D

Q 49. Which one of the following is not parametric reliability growth model?
A. Jelinski moranda
B. Little wood
C. Albrecht function point
D. All of above
Ans .: C

Q 50. What is MTBF?

A. Maximum Time Between Failure
B. Mean Time Between Failures
C. Mean Time Between Fix
D. Maximum Time Between Fix
Ans .: B

Q 51. In ISO 9126, time behaviour and resource utilization are a part of
A. Maintainability
B. Portability
C. Efficiency
D. Usability
Ans .: C

Q52. What is MTTR?

A. Mean Time To Repair
B. Mean Time To Reuse
C. Maximum Time To Reuse
D. None of the above
Ans .: A

Q53. As the reliability increases failure intensity ---------.

A. decreases
B. increases
C. No effect
D. None of the above
Ans .: A

Q. 54 Which one of the following is not software quality model?

A. McCall
B. Boehm
C. ISO 9126
D. Jelinski Moranda
Ans .: D

Q 55. What are the reasons of software failure?

A. Usually software fail due to design problem.
B. Changes in requirements.
C. Correction in existing problem.
D. All of the above
Ans .: D

Q 56. The amount of time that the software is available for use is known as
A. Reliability
B. Usability
C. Efficiency
D . Functionality
Ans .: A
Q 57. Failure occurrences can be represented as
A. time to failure
B. time interval between failures
C. failures experienced in a time interval
D. All of the Above
Ans .: D
Q 58 In --------------,Components get failed due to physical wear.
A. hardware reliability
B. software reliability
C. probability density function
D. none of above
Ans .: A
Q 59.Defect density = no of known defects / product size
A. true
B. false
C. probability on place sof product size
D. probability on place of no of known defects
Ans .: A
Q 60.It describes uncertainty about when the component will fail.
A. cdf
B. mttf
C. pdf
D. rf
Ans .:C
 Model Question Paper

Subject: Software Metrics and Quality Assurance

Branch: Computer Engineering

Class: BE

Semester: VIII

Q1. Which of the following is not included in failure costs?

A.rework
B. repair
C.failure mode analysis
D. none of the mentioned

Ans: D

Q2.Which requirements are the foundation from which quality is measured?

A. Hardware
B. Software
C. Programmers
D. None of the mentioned

Ans: B

Q3. Which of the following is not a SQA plan for a project?

A. evaluations to be performed
B. amount of technical work
C. audits and reviews to be performed
D. documents to be produced by the SQA group

Ans: B

Q4. Degree to which design specifications are followed in manufacturing the product is called
A. Quality Control
B. Quality of conformance
C. Quality Assurance
D. None of the mentioned

Ans: B
Q5. Which of the following is not included in External failure costs?
A. testing
B. help line support
C. warranty work
D. complaint resolution

Ans: A

Q6. Who identifies, documents, and verifies that corrections have been made to the software?
A. Project manager
B. Project team
C. SQA group
D. All of the mentioned

Ans: C

Q7. Which of the following is not an appraisal cost in SQA?

A. inter-process inspection
B. maintenance
C. quality planning
D. testing

Ans: C

Q8. The primary objective of formal technical reviews is to find _________ during the process
so that they do not become defects after release of the software.
A. errors
B. equivalent faults
C. failure cause
D. none of the mentioned

Ans: A

Q9. What is not included in prevention costs?

A. quality planning
B. formal technical reviews
C. test equipment
D. equipment calibration and maintenance

Ans:D

Q10.Which of the following is the task of project indicators:

A. help in assessment of status of ongoing project

B. track potential risk

C. help in assessment of status of ongoing project & track potential risk

D. none of the mentioned

Ans: C

Q11.Which of the following does not affect the software quality and organizational
performance?

A. Market

B. Product

C. Technology
D. People

Ans: A

Q12.The intent of project metrics is:

A. minimization of development schedule

B. for strategic purposes

C. assessing project quality on ongoing basis

D. minimization of development schedule and assessing project quality on ongoing basis

Ans: D

Q 13.Cost and schedule are a part of_________________________?

A. Product Metrics
B. Process Metrics
C. Project Metrics
D. All of the mentioned

Ans: C

Q 14.Number of errors found per person hours expended is an example of

a____________________?
A. measurement
B. measure
C. metric
D. all of the mentioned

Ans: C

Q15.Size and Complexity are a part of____________________?

A. Product Metrics
B. Process Metrics
C. Project Metrics
D. All of the mentioned

Ans: A

Q16. Which of the following is not categorized under Product Operation of McCall’s Software
Quality Factors ?

A. Flexibility
B. Reliability
C. Usability
D. Integrity

Ans: A

Q 17.Which of the following is not categorized under Component-Level Design Metrics?

A. Complexity Metrics
B. Cohesion Metrics
C. Morphology Metrics
D. Coupling Metrics

Ans: C

Q 18.MTTC falls the the category of____________________?

A. correctness
B. integrity
C. maintainability
D. all of the mentioned
Ans: C

Q 19.The arc-to-node ratio is given as r = a/n. What does ‘a’ represent in the ratio ?

A. maximum number of nodes at any level

B. longest path from the root to a leaf
C. number of modules
D. lines of control

Ans: D

Q 20.Percentage of modules that were inspected is a part of__________________?

A. Product Metrics
B. Process Metrics
C. Project Metrics
D. All of the mentioned

Ans: B

Q 21.Identify the correct option with reference to Software Quality Metrics ?

A. Integrity = [Sigma(1 – threat)] * (1 – security)

B. Integrity = [1 – Sigma(threat)] * (1 – security)
C. Integrity = [1 – threat * Sigma(1 – security)]
D. Integrity = Sigma[1 – threat * (1 – security)]

Ans: D

Q 22.Usability in metric analysis is defined as the degree to which the

software_________________?

A. stated needs
B. is easy to use
C. makes optimal use of system resources
D. none of the mentioned

Ans: B

Q23.The amount of time that the software is available for use is known as_________________?

A. Reliability
B. Usability
C. Efficiency
D. Functionality
Ans: A

Q24.SMI stands for_______________?

A. Software Mature Indicator

B. Software Maturity Index
C. Software Mature Index
D. Software Maturity Indicator

Ans: B

Q 25.Function Points in software engineering was first proposed by_______________?

A. Booch
B. Boehm
C. Albrecht
D. Jacobson
Ans: C

Q 26.Which of the following is not a web engineering project metric ?

A. Number of Static Content Objects
B. Number of Dynamic Content Objects
C. Number of Inherited Objects
D. Word Count
Ans: C

Q 27.Which of the following is not a metric for design model ?

A. Interface design metrics
B. Component-level metrics
C. Architectural metrics
D. Complexity metrics
Ans: D

Q 28.How many Information Domain Values are used for Function Point Computation ?
A. three
B. four
C. five
D. six
Ans: C
Q 29.Mean Time To Repair (MTTR) is the time needed to repair a failed hardware module.
A. True
B. False
Ans: A

Q 30.SMI = [Mt – (Fa + Fc + Fd)]/Mt. Here Mt is the number of modules______________?

A. in the current release

B. in the current release that have been changed
C. from the preceding release that were deleted in the current release
D. none of the mentioned

Ans: A

Q 31.Structural complexity of a module i is given as S(i) = f*f (i). What does f symbolizes here ?

A. “fan check-out” of module i

B. “fan check-in” of module i
C. “fan in” of module i
D. “fan out” of module i

Ans: D

Q 32.Function Point Computation is given by the formula___________________?

A. FP = [count total * 0.65] + 0.01 * sum(Fi)

B. FP = count total * [0.65 + 0.01 * sum(Fi)].
C. FP = count total * [0.65 + 0.01] * sum(Fi)
D. FP = [count total * 0.65 + 0.01] * sum(Fi)

Ans: B

Q 33.Statement and branch coverage metrics are part of______________________?

A. Analysis Model
B. Testing
C. Design Model
D. Source Code
Ans: B

Q 34.Which of the following is not a classification of the web engineering metric, Web Page
Similarity ?
A. Content based
B. Link based
C. Usage based
D. Traffic based
Ans: D

Q 35.How is the complexity of a web page related to link count?

A. Directly
B. Indirectly
C. No relation
D. All of the mentioned
Ans: A

Q 36.Which metric gives the idea about the contents on a web page?
A. Word Token
B. Word Count
C. Word Size
D. Word Length
Ans: B

Q 37.Number of dynamic web pages provides an idea about____________ for a web page that is
to be built?

A. size
B. complexity
C. effort
D. all of the mentioned

Ans: D

Q 38.Link based measures rely on _____________ structure of a web graph to obtain related
pages?
A. Embedded
B. Hyperlink
C. Dynamic
D. All of the mentioned
Ans: B

Q 39.Which of the following web engineering metric measures the extent of relatedness between
two or more web pages?

A. Number of Static Content Objects

B. Number of Dynamic Content Objects
C. Web Page Similarity
D. Number of Internal Page Links

Ans: C
Q 40.Usability can be measured in terms of_________________?

A. Intellectual skill to learn the system

B. Time required to become moderately efficient in system usage
C. Net increase in productivity
D. All of the mentioned

Ans: D

Q 41.Which of the following is not a direct measure of SE process?

A. Efficiency
B. Cost
C. Effort Applied
D. All of the mentioned
Ans: A

Q 42.Which of the following does not affect the software quality and organizational performance
?

A. Market
B. Product
C. Technology
D. People

Ans: A

Q 43.Which of the following is an indirect measure of product?

A. Quality
B. Complexity
C. Reliability
D. All of the Mentioned
Ans: D

Q 44.A graphical technique for finding if changes and variation in metrics data are meaningful is
known as_________________?
A. DRE (Defect Removal Efficiency)
B. Function points analysis
C. Control Chart
D. All of the mentioned
Ans: C

Q 45.In size oriented metrics, metrics are developed based on the _____________________?
A. number of Functions
B. number of user inputs
C. number of lines of code
D. amount of memory usage
Ans: C

Q 46.Defects removal efficiency (DRE)depends on ______________________?

A. E – errors found before software delivery
B. D – defects found after delivery to user
C. Both E and D
D. Varies with project
Ans: C

Q 47.The intent of project metrics is_____________________?

A. minimization of development schedule
B. for strategic purposes
C. assessing project quality on ongoing basis
D. minimization of development schedule and assessing project quality on ongoing basis
Ans: D

Q 48.Which of the following is the task of project indicators?

A. help in assessment of status of ongoing project

B. track potential risk
C. help in assessment of status of ongoing project & track potential risk
D. none of the mentioned

Ans: C

Q 49.Which of the following is not an information domain required for determining function
point in FPA ?
A. Number of user Input
B. Number of user Inquiries
C. Number of external Interfaces
D. Number of errors
Ans: D

Q 50. How many product quality factors are proposed in McCall quality model?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 11
d) 8

Ans: B

Q 51. Which one of the following is not a software quality model?

a) ISO 9000
b) McCall model
c) Boehm model
d) ISO 9126

Ans: A

Q 52. What is MTTF?

a) Maximum time to failure
b) Mean time to failure
c) Minimum time to failure
d) None of the mentioned

Ans: B

Q 53. How is software reliability defined?

a) time
b) efficiency
c) quality
d) speed

Ans: A

Q 54. Suitability, Accuracy, Interoperability, and security are what type quality attribute of ISO
9126 ?
a) Reliability
b) Efficiency
c) Functionality
d) Usability

Ans: C
Q 55. Time Behavior and Resource Behavior fall under which quality attribute of ISO 9126?
a) Reliability
b) Efficiency
c) Functionality
d) Usability

Ans: B

Q 56. NHPP stands for

a) Non Homogeneous Poisson Product
b) Non-Hetrogeneous Poisson Product
c) Non-Hetrogeneous Poisson Process
d) Non Homogeneous Poisson Process

Ans: D

Q 57. The CMM model is a technique to.

a) automatically maintain the software reliability
b) improve the software process.
c) test the software
d) all of the mentioned

Ans: B

Q 58. Which of the following is not a phase of “bathtub curve” of hardware reliability?
a) Useful Life
b) Burn-in
c) Wear-out
d) Time

Ans: D

Q 59. Which level of CMM is for process management?

a) Initial
b) Repeatable
c) Defined
d) Optimizing

Ans: D

Q 60. In ISO 9126, time behavior and resource utilization are a part of
a) maintainability
b) portability
c) efficiency
d) usability

Ans: C
 Model Question Paper
Computer Engineering
MCQ Bank for Software Metrics and Quality Assurance
(178141) Semester: VIII
Q1.One of the most important attribute for software product metrics is that it should be:
A.Easy to compute
B.Qualatative in nature
C Reliable overtime
D.Widely applicable
Ans: A.Easy to compute
Q.2.Number of errors found per person hours expended is an example of
a____________________?

A. measurement

B. Measure

C. Metric

D. all of the mentioned

Ans: C. Metric

Q.3. Software ...... is a standard of measure that contains many activities which involve
some degree of measurement

A.quality

B.quantity

C.metrics

D.measurement

Ans: C.metrics

Q.4. ................. − is the sequence in which instructions are executed in a program.

A Control-flow structure

B Data Flow

C Structure

D Data Structure

Ans: A Control-flow structure

Q.5.Size and Complexity are a part of____________________?

AProduct Metric

B. Process Metric

C. Project Metric

D. All of the mentioned

Ans: A. Product Metrics

Q.6.Cost and schedule are a part of_________________________?

A. Product Metrics
B. Process Metrics
C. Project Metrics
D. All of the mentioned
Ans: C. Project Metrics

Q.7.Which of the following is not categorized under Component-Level Design Metrics ?

A. Complexity Metrics
B. Cohesion Metrics
C. Morphology Metrics
D. Coupling Metrics

Ans:CMorphology Metrics

Q.8. ..........................describe the project characteristics and execution.

A Project metrics

B Process Metrics

C Product Metrics

D None of the above

Ans: A Project metrics

Q.9.Percentage of modules that were inspected is a part of__________________?

A. Product Metrics
B. Process Metrics
C. Project Metrics
D. All of the mentioned.
 Ans: B. Process Metrics

Q10.Identify the correct option with reference to Software Quality Metrics ?

A Integrity = [Sigma(1 – threat)] * (1 – security)

B. Integrity = [1 – Sigma(threat)] * (1 – security)
C. Integrity = [1 – threat * Sigma(1 – security)]
D. Integrity = Sigma[1 – threat * (1 – security)]

Ans: D. Integrity = Sigma[1 – threat * (1 – security)]

Q.11.Usability in metric analysis is defined as the degree to which the

software_________________?

A. stated needs
B. is easy to use
C. makes optimal use of system resources
D. none of the mentioned.

Ans: B. is easy to use

Q.12Function Points in software engineering was first proposed by_______________?

A Booch
B. Boehm
C. Albrecht
D. Jacobson
Ans: C. Albrecht

Q13The amount of time that the software is available for use is known
as_________________?

A.Reliability
B. Usability
C. Efficiency
D. Functionality
Ans:A Reliability

Q.14SMI stands for_______________?

A. Software Mature Indicator

B. Software Maturity Index
C. Software Mature Index
D. Software Maturity Indicator

Ans: B. Software Maturity Index

Q.15 How many Information Domain Values are used for Function Point Computation ?
 A. three
B. four
C. five
D. Six

Ans: C. Five

Q.16.Which of the following is not a direct measure of SE process ?

AEfficiency
B. Cost
C. Effort Applied
D. All of the mentioned
Ans: A. Efficiency

Q.17.Function Point Computation is given by the formula___________________?

A. FP = [count total * 0.65] + 0.01 * sum(Fi)

B. FP = count total * [0.65 + 0.01 * sum(Fi)].
C. FP = count total * [0.65 + 0.01] * sum(Fi)
D. FP = [count total * 0.65 + 0.01] * sum(Fi)

Ans: B. FP = count total * [0.65 + 0.01 * sum(Fi)].

Q.18.Usability can be measured in terms of_________________?

A. Intellectual skill to learn the system

B. Time required to become moderately efficient in system usage
C. Net increase in productivity
D. All of the mentioned

Ans: D. All of the mentioned

Q.19Structural complexity of a module i is given as S(i) = f*f (i). What does f symbolizes
here ?

A. “fan check-out” of module i

B. “fan check-in” of module i
C. “fan in” of module i
D. “fan out” of module i
Ans: D. “fan out” of module i

Q.20.Which of the following is an indirect measure of product ?

A. Quality
B. Complexity
C. Reliability
D. All of the Mentioned

Ans: D. All of the Mentioned

Q.21The intent of project metrics is_____________________?

 A. minimization of development schedule
B. for strategic purposes
C. assessing project quality on ongoing basis
D. minimization of development schedule and assessing project quality on ongoing
basis
Ans:D

Q.22.Which of the following is not an information domain required for determining function
point in FPA ?

A Number of user Input

B. Number of user Inquiries
C. Number of external Interfaces
D. Number of errors

Ans: D. Number of errors

Q.23Which of the following is the task of project indicators ?

A. help in assessment of status of ongoing project
B. track potential risk
C. help in assessment of status of ongoing project & track potential risk
D. none of the mentioned

Ans:C. help in assessment of status of ongoing project & track potential risk
Q.24. Which of the following is not included in failure costs?
A) rework
B) repair
C) failure mode analysis
D) none of the mentioned
Ans: D) none of the mentioned
Q,25. Which of the following is not a SQA plan for a project?
A) evaluations to be performed
B) amount of technical work
C) audits and reviews to be performed
D) documents to be produced by the SQA group
Ans: B) amount of technical work
Q.26. Which of the following is not an appraisal cost in SQA?
A) inter-process inspection
B) maintenance
C) quality planning
D) testing
Ans: C) quality planning
Q.27. Degree to which design specifications are followed in manufacturing the product is
called
A) Quality Control
B) Quality of conformance
C) Quality Assurance
D) None of the mentioned
Ans: B) Quality of conformance
Q.28. Which of the following is not included in External failure costs?
A) testing
B) help line support
C) warranty work
D) complaint resolution
Ans: A) testing
Q.29. Which requirements are the foundation from which quality is measured?
A) Hardware
B) Software
C) Programmers
D) None of the mentioned
Ans: B) Software
Q.30. Who identifies, documents, and verifies that corrections have been made to the
software?
A) Project manager
B) Project team
C) SQA group
D) All of the mentioned
Ans: C) SQA group
Q.31. The primary objective of formal technical reviews is to find _________ during the
process so that they do not become defects after release of the software.
A) errors
B) equivalent faults
C) failure cause
D) none of the mentioned
Ans: A) errors

Q.32. Software quality assurance consists of the auditing and reporting functions of
management.
A) True
B) False
Ans: A) True

Q.33.Select which option is not true about SQA…?

A) Audits and reviews to be performed by the team
B) Amount of technical work to be performed
C) Evaluations to be performed
D) Documents that are produced by the SQA team.
Ans: C) Evaluations to be performed
Q.34 What is not included in prevention costs?
A) quality planning
B) formal technical reviews
C) test equipment
D) equipment calibration and maintenance
Ans: D) equipment calibration and maintenance
Q.35. A product which is manufactured by using the degree of the design specification…
A) Quality of conformance
 B) Quality Control
C) Quality Assurance
D) None of the above.
Ans: A) Quality of conformance
Q.36. Software quality assurance consists of which function of management.
A) reporting functions
B) auditing functions
C)both and b
D)all of the above
Ans:C)both and b

Q.37. Faults are found most cost-effectively in which test activity?

A. design
B. execution
C. planning
D. Check Exit criteria completion
Ans:C. Planning
Q.38. How is reliability and failure intensity related to each other?

A) direct relation
B) inverse relation
C) no relation
D) none of the mentioned
Ans: B) inverse relation

Q.39 Which of the following does not affect the software quality and organizational
performance ?

A. Market
B. Product
C. Technology
D. People
Ans: A. Market

Q.40 What is MTTF ?

A) Maximum time to failure

B) Mean time to failure
C) Minimum time to failure
D) None of the mentioned
Ans: B) Mean time to failure
Q.41. How is software reliability defined?
A) time
B) efficiency
C) quality
D) speed
Ans: A) time
Q.42 Q.46. Quality also can be looked at in terms of user satisfaction which includes
A) A compliant product
B) Good quality output
C) Delivery within budget and schedule
D) All of the mentioned
Ans : D) All of the mentioned

.43. Which of the following is an indirect measure of product?

A. Quality
B. Complexity
C. Reliability
D. All of the above

Ans : D All of the above

Q.44.In size oriented metrics, metrics are developed based on the _____________________?
A. number of Functions
B. number of user inputs
C. number of lines of code
D. amount of memory usage

Ans: C. number of lines of code

Q.45. Quality Management in software engineering is also known as
A) SQA
B) SQM
C) SQI
D) SQA and SQM
Ans: A) SQA
Q.46. Which of the following is not a SQA plan for a project?
A) evaluations to be performed
B) amount of technical work
C) audits and reviews to be performed
D) documents to be produced by the SQA group
Ans : B) amount of technical work
Q.47 The COCOMO model takes into account different approaches to software development,
reuse, etc.
 A) True
B) False
Ans: B) False
Q.48 It is often difficult to estimate size at an early stage in a project when only a
specification is available
A) True
B) False
Ans: A) True
Q.49 What is related to the overall functionality of the delivered software?

A) Function-related metrics
B Product-related metrics
C) Size-related metrics
D) None of the mentioned
Ans: A) Function-related metrics
Q.50 Which of the following costs is not part of the total effort cost?
A) Costs of networking and communications
B) Costs of providing heating and lighting office space
C) Costs of lunch time food
D) Costs of support staff
Ans: C) Costs of lunch time food
Q.51. Which of the following are parameters involved in computing the total cost of a
software development project?
A) Hardware and software costs
B) Effort costs
C) Travel and training costs
D) All of the mentioned
Ans: D) All of the mentioned
Q.52.Which one of the following is not a s/w process quality:
A)Productivity
B)portability
C)Timelyness
D)Visibility
Ans: B)portability
Q.53.Choose an internal software quality from below
A) scalability
B)usability
C) reusability
D)Realiability
Ans: C) reusability
Q.54.Which of the following is not a direct measure of SE process?
A. Efficiency
B. Cost
C. Effort Applied
D. All of the above

Ans : A Efficiency

Q.55.What is the project &process level that provides the Quality Metric Benefit:
A)Defect amplification
B)Defect removal efficiency
C) Measuring quality
D)all the above
Ans: B)Defect removal efficiency
Q. 56.Checking Quality of sw in both simulated and live environments is known as:
A)Usability
B)Reusability
C)Checking
D)validation
Ans: D)validation
Q.57 It is often difficult to estimate size at an early stage in a project when only a
specification is available
A) True
B) False

Answer: A) True

Q.58. Quality planning is the process of developing a quality plan for

A) team
B) project
C) customers
D) project manager

Answer:B project
Q.59.Many s/w metrics can only be assessed by measuring hard Factors
A)True
B)False’
Ans:A)True
Q.60. Reliability in software system can be achieved using which of the following strategies.
 i) Fault Avoidance ii) Fault Tolerance
iii) Fault Detection iv) Fault Deletion

A)i, ii and iii only

B) ii, iii and iv only
C)i, iii and iv only
D) All i, ii, iii and iv

Ans: A) i, ii and iii only

EXTRA:

Q..SMI = [Mt – (Fa + Fc + Fd)]/Mt. Here Mt is the number of modules______________?

A in the current release

B. in the current release that have been changed
C. from the preceding release that were deleted in the current release
D. none of the mentioned

Ans: A in the current release

 Model Question Paper
Subject: Elective III: iPhone Programming (178154 & 228154)

Branch: Computer / I.T.

Class: BE

Semester: VIII

Q1. Which of the following framework is not used in iOS ?

AUIKit Framework

B Foundation Framework

CAppKit Framework

D Core Motion Framework

Ans.: C

Q2. Single inheritance, Multiple inheritance, and Aggregation comes under _______

A Hierarchy

B Modularity

C Typing

D None of the mentioned

Ans.: A

Q3.Objective-C was created primarily by

A James Gosling

B Brad Cox

C Bjarne Stroustrup

D Dennis Ritchie

Ans.: B
Q4. Meaning of iOS is?

A Integrated operating

B System Integrated open system

C iPhone Operating System

D None of above

Ans.: C

Q5. Abstraction is classified into _______ types

A1

B3

C2

D4

Ans.: D

Q6. Which of the following hierarchy is correct?

(A) UIButton->UIControl->UIView->NSObject->UIResponder

(B) UIButton->UIControl->UIView->UIResponder->NSObject

(C) UIControl->UIButton->UIView->UIResponder->NSObject

(D) None of the Above

Ans.: B

Q7. A file control block contains the information about ____________

A file permissions

B file ownership

C location of file contents

D all of the mentioned

Ans.: D
Q8. The application has not been launched or was running but terminated by the device.
Determine the current state of App.

A Not running state

B Suspended state

C Background state

D Inactive state

Ans.: A

Q9. What is Iphone?

AMobile Operating system

B Mobile phone

C Desktop Operating system

D Music player

Ans.: B

Q10. What is the built-in database used in iOS ?

A MySQL

B Apache

C SQLite

D Oracle

Ans.: C

Q11. What is the object.toString equivalent in objective-c?

A [NSObject description]

B [NSObjecttoString]

C [NSObjectstringWithFormat]

D [NSObjectgetDescription]

Ans.: A
Q12. The __________ is used as an index into the page table.

A frame bit

B frame offset

C page number

D page offset

Ans.: C

Q13. The iphone has a feature that activates when you rotate device from portrait to
landscape

A Accelerometer

B Rotator

C Shadow detector

D Special Sensor

Ans.: A

Q14. What is the programming style of the object oriented conceptual model?

A Goals, often expressed in a predicate calculus.

B Invariant relationships

C Classes and objects

D Algorithms

Ans.:C

Q15. In which of the following mechanisms, types of all variables and expressions are
fixed at compilation time.

A Weak Typing

B Static Binding/ early binding

C Strong Typing

D Dynamic Binding/ late binding

Ans.: B
Q16. The data structure used for file directory is called ____________

A mount table

B process table

C file table

D hash table

Ans.: D

Q17. To create a new file application program calls ____________

Abasic file system

B file-organisation module

C logical file system

D none of the mentioned

Ans.: C

Q18. Which of the following iOS frameworks is a commonly used third party Library?

AAVFoundation.framework

B CFNetwork.framework

C Audiotoolbox.framework

D AFNetwork.framework

Ans.: D

Q19. Does Objective-C have constructors and destructors?

A No, you use init and dealloc on Objective-C

B Only NSStrings do

C Yes

D It depends on the object

Ans.: A
Q20. What is that concept in type theory in which a single name may denote objects of
many different classes that are related by some common super class referred to ______

A Polymorphism

B Monomorphism

C Type Checking

D Generalization

Ans.: A

Q21. To create a file ____________

A allocate the space in file system & make an entry for new file in directory

B allocate the space in file system

C make an entry for new file in directory

D none of the mentioned

Ans.: A

Q22. @property and @synthesize directive helps in

(A) automatically generating accessor methods for you

(B) protecting private data of class

(C) declaring temporary variables

(D) None of the above

Ans.: A

Q23. To create a new file application program calls

(A) basic file system

(B) file-organisation module

(C) logical file system

(D) none of the mentioned

Ans.: C
Q24. Which data type of objective – C has %i as NSLog conversion characters

(A) Float

(B) Char

(C) Int

(D) Number

Ans.: C

Q25. Objective -C is a_____

A Strict superset of the C programming language,

B Was layered on top of the C language

C General-purpose language

D All of the above.

Ans.: D

Q26. What is true about Objective-C from following?

A Objective-C keeps all aspects of C

B Objective-C does not support procedural programming

C Objective-C language is not standardized

D All are true.

Ans.: D

Q27. Objective -C source code 'implementation' program files usually have file extension

A .m

B .c

C .objc

D .mm

Ans.: A
Q28. Swift language is

A Low level assembly language

B High level compiled language

C High level interpreted language

D None of the mentioned

Ans.: B

Q29. For Boolean Objective – C uses

A bool, true and false

B BOOL, YES and NO

C bool, 0 and 1

D boolean, yes and no

Ans.: B

Q30. Select general syntax for defining Class in objective - C

(A) @interface NewClassName: ParentClassName

property and method declarations;

@end

(B) @Class NewClassName: ParentClassName

property and method declarations;

@endClass

(C) @interface ParentClassName: NewClassName

property and method declarations;

@end

(D) @ NewClassName: ParentClassName

property and method declarations;

@end

Ans.: A
Q31. To install XCode which url is preferred to use?

(A) http://developer.xcode.com/downloads

(B) http://developer.objectivec.com/downloads

(C) http://developer.apple.com/downloads

(D) http://developer.iphoneprogramming.com/downloads

Ans.: C

Q32. Xcode uses LLVM which is

A Low Level Virtual Machine

B Least Level Virtual Machine

C Local Logic Virtual Metadata

D Local Logic Varying Metadata

Ans.: A

Q33. Xcode's Command Line Tools contains

A Command prompt for MAC OS X & iOS

B Manual for commands in Xcode

C Many tools and libraries from Apple

D Backup tool for XCcde installation

Ans.: C

Q34. What is the output of this code?

(A) 2020-09-14 14:30:39.066 prog1[690:23581]

Programming is fun!

Program ended with exit code: 0

(B) Programming is fun!

Program ended with exit code: 0

(C) Programming is fun!

(D) Error at line number 6

Ans.: A

Q35. In Objective-C program , benefit of writing @autoreleasepool is

(A) Compiler will detect and auto correct all errors.

(B) System will efficiently manage memory used by your application.

(C) It keeps track of all pool data

(D) All of the above

Ans.: B

Q36. Name the root class in Objective – C.

(A) NSRoot

(B) NSResponder

(C) NSObject

(D) NSString

Ans.: C

Q37. Select correct way of compiling Objective-C source file named main.m using a
Terminal on Mac OSX

(A) $ objcmain.m -o prog1

(B) $ occ -fobjc-arc main.m -o prog1

(C) $ clang -fobjc-arc main.m -o prog1

(D) $ clang main.m -o prog1

Ans.: C
Q38. Source Editor of XCode is

(A) used for code folding

(B) used for syntax highlighting

(C) writing source code

(D) All

Ans.: D

Q39. Which feature of XCode displays Shortened API documentation while you're
programming?

(A) Static Analysis

(B) Quick Help

(C) XCTest Framework

(D) Asset Catalog

Ans.: B

Q40. Leading minus sign ( - ) tells the Objective-C compiler that the method is

(A) Class method.

(B) Instance method.

(C) Built-in method

(D) Operator Method

Ans.: B

Q41. Select correct way creating instance myFraction of Class named Fraction

(A) Fraction *myFraction;

myFraction = [ [ Fraction alloc ] init ];

(B) Fraction *myFraction = [ [Fraction alloc ] init];

(C) Fraction *myFraction = [ Fraction new ];

(D) All of the above

Ans.: D
Q42. Methods that set the values of instance variables are often collectively referred to as

(A) Reader

(B) Getter

(C) Setter

(D) Writer

Ans.: C

Q43. Does Objective-C have constructors and destructors?

(A) No, you use init and dealloc on Objective-C

(B) Only NSStrings do

(C) Yes

(D) It depends on the object

Ans.: A

Q44. A category provides

(A) easy way for us to modularize the definition of a class into groups

(B) easy way to extend an existing class definition

(C) Both (A) & (B)

(D) None of the above

Ans.: C

Q45. Which data type is known for generic object type and achieves dynamic binding in
objective-C?

(A) id

(B) String

(C) Array

(D) Dictionary

Ans.: A
Q46. Object-oriented programming groups operations and data into modular units called

(A) Functions

(B) Macros

(C) Objects

(D) Structure

Ans.: C

Q47. Select looping constructs available in Objective-C

(A) for statement

(B) while statement

(C) until statement

(D) Both A & B

Ans.: D

Q48. Foundation framework, UIKit and Core data constitute which layer in Framework
layers?

(A) Application Service Layer

(B) Cocoa Touch

(C) Cocoa

(D)MAC OS X Kernel

Ans.: B

Q49. @interface AddressBook: NSObject<NSCopying>

In above line NSCopying is declared as

(A) Protocol

(B) Parent Class

(C) Category

(D) Header File

Ans.: A
Q50. The object whose contents cannot be changed are called as

(A) Modifiable

(B) Mutable

(C) Variable

(D) Immutable

Ans.: D

Q51. Internal accelerometers can

(A) take input text data

(B) detect swipe, tap, pinch, and reverse pinch gestures

(C) respond to shaking or rotating the device

(D) All of the above

Ans.: C

Q52. The Core Data framework is responsible for

(A) Provides the low-level communication to the hardware in the form

(B) Easily storing and managing data.

(C) Support for printing and graphics rendering,

(D) Performing basic I/O operations.

Ans.: B

Q53. The frameworks that provide the support for our MAC OS X applications is

(A) Cocoa

(B) Cocoa Touch

(C) Dot Net

(D) JRE

Ans.: A
Q54. For OpenGL ES graphics-based applications such as games which iOS template can be
used from new project window?

(A) Master-Detail

(B) OpenGL Game

(C) Utility Application

(D) SpriteKit Game

Ans.: B

Q55. Which of the following is not a part of iOS SDK?

(A) Xcode

(B) iPhone Simulator

(C) Interface Builder

(D) MAC OS X kernel

Ans.: D

Q56. Which of the following is targeted for iOS devices?

(A) Cocoa

(B) Cocoa Touch

(C) Dot Net

(D) JRE

Ans.: B

Q57. In iOS Notification Center is used to

(A) Displays missed notifications

(B) Photo Streaming

(C) Displays Calendar tasks

(D) Both A & C

Ans.: D
Q58. #define FALSE 0

(A) assign symbolic names FALSE to constant 0

(B) pre-processor replaces all occurrences of FALSE with 0

(C) Both (A) & (B) are true

(D) Error in syntax: No equals sign

Ans.: C

Q59. For the code snippet what will be the value stored inside compareResult?

NSString *str1 = @"This is string A";

NSString *str2 = @"This is string B";

NSComparisonResultcompareResult;

compareResult = [str1 compare: str2];

(A) NSOrderedAscending

(B) NSOrderedSame

(C) NSOrderedDescending

(D) Error

Ans.: A

Q60. What is true about XCode from the following statements?

(A) XCode can be installed directly on Microsoft Windows OS using usual windows installer.

(B) Intelligent Code Completion is not supported in XCode.

(C) It provides tools to manage our entire development workflow

(D) All statements are true.

Ans.: C
 Model Question Paper
Subject: Compiler Design
Branch: Data Warehousing & Mining
Class: BE
Semester: VIII

Q 1. __________ is a subject-oriented, integrated, time-variant, non-volatile collection of

data in support ofmanagement decisions.
A. Data Mining.
B. Data Warehousing.
C. Web Mining.
D. Text Mining.
ANS: B

Q 2. The data Warehouse is__________.

A. read only.
B. write only.
C. read write only
D. none.
ANS: A

Q3. Expansion for DSS in DW is__________.

A. Decision Support system.
B. Decision Single System.
C. Data Storable System.
D. Data Support System.
ANS: A

Q4. The important aspect of the data warehouse environment is that data found within the
data warehouseis___________.
A. subject-oriented.
B. time-variant.
C. integrated.
D. All of the above.
ANS: D

Q5. The time horizon in Data warehouse is usually __________.

A. 1-2 years.
B. 3-4years.
C. 5-6 years.
D. 5-10 years.

ANS: D

Q6. The data is stored, retrieved & updated in ____________.

A. OLAP.
B. OLTP.
C. SMTP.
D. FTP.
ANS: B

Q7. __________describes the data contained in the data warehouse.

A. Relational data.
B. Operational data.
C. Metadata.
D. Informational data.
ANS: C

Q8. The star schema is composed of __________ fact table.

A. One.
B. Two.
C. Three.
D. Four.
ANS: A

Q9. Data can be updated in _____environment.

A. Data warehouse.
B. Data mining.
C. Operational.
D. Informational.
ANS: C

Q10. Record cannot be updated in _____________.

A. OLTP
B. Files
C. RDBMS
D. Data warehouse

ANS: D

Q11. Bill Inmon has estimated ___________of the time required to build a data warehouse,
is consumed inthe conversion process.
A. 10 percent.
B. 20 percent.
C. 40 percent
D. 80 percent.
ANS: D

Q12. ___________ is a good alternative to the star schema.

A. Star schema.
B. Snowflake schema.
C. Fact constellation.
D. Star-snowflake schema.
ANS: C

Q13. A snowflake schema is which of the following types of tables?

A. Fact
B. Dimension
C. Helper
D. All of the above
ANS: D

Q14. In Binning, we first sort data and partition into (equal-frequency) bins and then which
of the following is not a valid step Select one:
A. smooth by bin boundaries
B. smooth by bin median
C. smooth by bin means
D. smooth by bin values
ANS: D
.
Q15. The core of the multidimensional model is the ....................... , which consists of a
large set of facts and a number of dimensions.

A. Multidimensional cube
B. Dimensions cube
C. Data cube
D. Data model
Ans: C

Q16.Which of the following is not a Data discretization Method?

A. Histogram analysis
B. Cluster Analysis
C. Data compression
D. Binning
ANS: C

Q17. What is the use of data cleaning?

A. to remove the noisy data
B. correct the inconsistencies in data
C. transformations to correct the wrong data.
D. All of the above
ANS: D

Q18. ............................. is a comparison of the general features of the target class data
objects against the general features of objects from one or multiple contrasting classes?
A. Data Characterization
B. Data Classification
C. Data discrimination
D. Data selection
ANS: A

Q19. Data warehouse architecture is based on …………………..

A. DBMS
B. RDBMS
C.SQL Server
D. None of the above
ANS: D

Q 20. The core of the multidimensional model is the ………………….. , which consists of a large
set of facts and a number of dimensions.
A. Multidimensional cube
B. Dimensions cube
C. Data cube
D. Data model
ANS: C

Q 21. —— is not a data mining functionality?

A. Clustering and Analysis
B. Selection and interpretation
C. Classification and regression
D. Characterization and Discrimination
ANS: B

Q 22. ——– is the output of KDD…

A. Query
B. Useful Information
C. Data
D. information
ANS: B

Q23. Data mining is _______ step of KDD process.

A. fifth
B. third
C. first
D. second
ANS: A

Q24. ...................... is an essential process where intelligent methods are applied to extract
data patterns?
A. Data warehousing
B. Data mining
C. Text mining
D. Data selection
ANS: B

Q25. The full form of KDD is ..................

A. Knowledge Database
B. Knowledge Discovery Data
C. Knowledge Data House
D. Knowledge Data Definition
ANS: B
Q26. …………………… is a summarization of the general characteristics or features of a target
class of data.
A. Data Characterization
B. Data Classification
C. Data discrimination
D. Data selection
ANS: A

Q27. ............................. is a comparison of the general features of the target class data
objects against the general features of objects from one or multiple contrasting classes.
A. Data Characterization
B. Data Classification
C. Data discrimination
D. Data selection
ANS: C

Q28. The various aspects of data mining methodologies is/are ...................

A. Mining various and new kinds of knowledge
B. Mining knowledge in multidimensional space
C. Pattern evaluation and pattern or constraint-guided mining.
D. All of above
ANS: D

Q 29. Next step after data selection in the process of knowledge discovery is:
A. Data cleaning
B. Data integration
C. Pattern evaluation
D. Data transformation
ANS: D

Q30. Noise is ________________

A. A component of a network

B. In the context of KDD and data mining, this refers to random errors in a database table.
C. One of the defining aspects of a data warehouse

D. None of these

Ans: B

Q 31 Which of the following is not a data pre- processing methods

A. Data Visualization
B. Data Discretization
C. Data Cleaning
D. Data Reduction
ANS: A
Q 32. ............................. is a summarization of the general characteristics or features of a
target class of data.
A. Data Characterization
B. Data Classification
C. Data discrimination
D. Data selection
ANS: A
Q 33. Incorrect or invalid data is known as _________ Select one:
A. Missing data
B. Outlier
C. Changing data
D. Noisy data
ANS: D
Q 34. KDD process has ___________ steps

A. 2
B. 10
C. 4
D. 7
ANS: D

Q 35. State various methods of Integrating Data Mining System with A DB/DW System.
A Loose coupling
B. No coupling
C. Tight coupling
D All of Above
Ans: D
Q 36. In _______scheme, the data mining system does not utilize any of the database or
data warehouse functions.
A Tight coupling
B. No coupling
C. Semi-tight coupling
D Loose coupling
Ans: B

Q 37. Which of the following is not Data Mining Task Primitives

A. Set of task relevant data to be mined.
B. Kind of knowledge to be mined.
C. Data cleaning process
D. Background knowledge to be used in discovery process.
Ans: C

Q 38.In clustering, the objects are grouped on the principle of__________ intraclass
similarity
A. Maximizing
B. Minimizing
C. Both A & B
D. None of the above
Ans: A

Q 39. Which of the following is data mining issues?

A. Mining Methodology and User Interaction
B. Performance Issues
C. Diverse Data Types Issues
D. All of above
Ans: D
Q 40. In clustering, __________ is defined as the data objects that do not belong to the
general behaviour or model of the data available.
A. medoid
B. random error
C. Outlier
D. centroid
Ans: C
Q41.What do you mean by support(A)?
A. Total number of transactions containing A
B . Total Number of transactions not containing A
C. Number of transactions containing A / Total number of transactions
D. Number of transactions not containing A / Total number of transactions

Q42.Which of the following is direct application of frequent itemset mining?

A. Social Network Analysis
B. Market Basket Analysis
C. Outlier Detection
D. Intrusion Detection
Ans: B
Q43. How do you calculate Confidence(A -> B)?
A. Support(A B) / Support (A)
B. Support(A B) / Support (B)
C. Support(A B) / Support (A)
D. Support(A B) / Support (B)
Ans: A
Q44. . A priori algorithm is otherwise called as __________.
A. width-wise algorithm.
B. level-wise algorithm.
C. pincer-search algorithm.
D. FP growth algorithm.
Ans: B

Q45. The A Priori algorithm is a ___________.

A. top-down search.
B. breadth first search.
C. depth first search.
D. bottom-up search.
Ans: D

Q46. The first phase of A Priori algorithm is _______.

A. Candidate generation.
B. Itemset generation.
C. Pruning.
D. Partitioning.
Ans: A

Q47. The second phase of A Priori algorithm is ____________.

A. Candidate generation.
B. Itemset generation.
C. Pruning.
D. Partitioning.
Ans: C
Q48. ________is the most well known association rule algorithm and is used in most
commercial products.
A. Apriori algorithm.
B. Partition algorithm.
C. Distributed algorithm.
D. Pincer-search algorithm.
Ans: A
Q49.Multilevel association rules can be mined efficiently using ______ under a support-
confidence framework.
A. concept hierarchies.
B. contact framework.
C. olap operations
D. market basket analysis
Ans: A
Q50. After the pruning of a priori algorithm, _______ will remain.
A. Only candidate set.
B. No candidate set.
C. Only border set.
D. No border set.
Ans: B
Q51. The number of iterations in a priori ___________.
A. increases with the size of the maximum frequent set.
B. decreases with increase in size of the maximum frequent set.
C. increases with the size of the data.
D. decreases with the increase in size of the data.
Ans: A
Q52 If a set is a frequent set and no superset of this set is a frequent set, then it is called
________.
A. maximal frequent set.
B. border set.
C. lattice.
D. infrequent sets.
Ans: A
Q53. Market basket analysis analyzes customer buying habits by finding associations
between the different items that customers place in their _______________
A. catalog
B. no of customer visit
C. shopping baskets
D. stock in shop
Ans: C
Q54.____________ specify the set of task-relevant data.
A. Rule constraints
B. Data constraints
C. Level constraints
D. Dimension constraints
Ans: B

Q55.____________specify thresholds on statistical measures.

A. Rule constraints
B. Data constraints
C. Level constraints
D. Interestingness constraints
Ans: D

Q56.The proportion of transaction supporting X in T is called _________.

A. confidence.
B. support.
C. both.
D. All of the above.
Ans: B

Q57.Market-basket problem was formulated by __________.

A. Agrawal et al.
B. Steve et al.
C. Toda et al.
D. Simon et al.
Ans: A

Q58. Data that are not of interest to the data mining task is called as ______.
A. missing data.
B. changing data.
C. irrelevant data.
D. noisy data.
Ans: C

Q59. All set of items whose support is greater than the user-specified minimum support are
called as _____________.
A. border set.
B. frequent set.
C. maximal frequent set.
D. lattice.
Ans: B

Q60. The _______ step eliminates the extensions of (k-1)-itemsets which are not found to
be frequent, from being considered for counting support.
A. Candidate generation.
B. Pruning.
C. Partitioning.
D. Itemset eliminations.
Ans: B
 MODEL QUESTION PAPER
Subject : Compiler Design
Branch : Computer Science and Engineering
Class : B.E. (Computer)
Semester : VIII
Academic Year : 2019-2020

60 MCQ Practice MCQ Questions with Solution

Q1. A Compiler translates the source code to
A Executable code
B Machine code
C Binary code
D Both Machine code and Binary Code
Ans.: D

Q2. The lexical analyzer takes ____ as input and produces a list of ___ of output.
A Machine code, mnemonic
B Tokens, source code
C Source code, tokens
D All of the mentioned
Ans.: C

Q3. A Compiler can check ………… types of errors

A Syntax
B Content
C Logical
D Both Syntax and Content
Ans.: A

Q4. a+ means …..

A {epsilon, a, aa, aaa, ….}
B {a,aa, aaa,….}
C {a, aa, aaa, aaa}
D {epsilon, a, aa, aaa,….}
Ans.: B

Q5. Synthesized attribute can be easily simulated by a

A LR grammar
B LL grammar
C Ambiguous grammar
D None of the Mentioned
Ans.: A

Q6. Parsing is also well known as

A Lexical Analysis
B Syntax Analysis
C Semantic Analysis
D Intermediate Code generation
Ans.: B

Q7. When an expression sum = 3 + 2 is tokenized then what is the token category of 3.
B.E. (C.S.E.) – Compiler Design Page 1 of 9
A identifier
B assignment operator
C integer Literal
D keyword
Ans.: C

Q8. Two important lexical categories are

A White spaces
B comments
C All of the mentioned
D None of the mentioned
Ans.: C

Q9. The output of LEX is …………. If the input filename is Myfile?

A Myfile.e
B Myfile.yy.c
C Myfile.lex
D Myfile.out
Ans.: B

Q10. Semantic Analyser is used for

A Generating Object Code
B Maintaining Symbol Table
C Both (A) and (B)
D Only (A)
Ans.: C

Q11. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

A Context free language is a subset of Context Sensitive Language
B Regular Language is the subset of Context Sensitive Language
C Recursively enumerable language is the superset of regular Language
D Context Sensitive language is a subset of Context free Language
Ans.: D

Q12. Which of the following are always unambiguous

A Deterministic Context free grammars
B Non-Deterministic Regular Grammars
C Context Sensitive Grammars
D All of the above
Ans.: A

Q13. Shift Reduce Parsers are

A Bottom Up parsers
B Top-Down Parsers
C Both (A) and (B)
D None of the Mentioned
Ans.: A

Q14. Which is not true about syntax and semantic parts of a computer language
A Semantics is checked mechanically by a computer
B Semantics is the responsibility of the programmer
C All of the mentioned
D None of the mentioned
Ans.: D

B.E. (C.S.E.) – Compiler Design Page 2 of 9

Q15. The grammar A ->AA |( A)| ε
is not suitable for predictive-parsing because the grammar i
A Ambiguous
B Left-Recursive
C Right-Recursive
D An operator grammar
Ans.: A

Q16. Parsing is also well known as

A Lexical Analysis
B Syntax Analysis
C Semantic Analysis
D Intermediate Code generation
Ans.: B

Q17. ……….is the most general phase structured grammar

A Regular
B Context Free
C Context Sensitive
D All of the above
Ans.: C

Q18. Output of parser is a

A Set of Tokens
B Parse trees
C Object Code
D Intermediate Code
Ans.: B

Q19. Which grammar rules violate the requirements of an operator grammar?

A P→QR
B P→QsR
C P →€
D P→QtRr
Ans.: B

Q20. Consider the grammar: E→E+n|E×n|n

For a sentence n + n × n, the handles in the right-sentential form of the reduction are
A n, E + n and E + n × n
B n, E + n and E + n × n
C n, n + n and n + n × n
D n, E + n and E × n
Ans.: D

Q21. A compiler is preferable to an interpreter because

A Debugging can be faster and easier
B If one changes a statement, only that statement needs re-compilation
C It is much helpful in the initial stages of program development
D It can generate stand alone programs that often take less time for execution
Ans.: D

Q22. Suppose S -> (S)| a

B.E. (C.S.E.) – Compiler Design Page 3 of 9
 Let the number of states in SLR(1), LR(1) and LALR(1) parsers for the grammar n1 n2
and n3 respectively
A n1 < n2 <n3
B n1 = n3 <n2
C n1 = n2 = n3
D n1 $ n3 $ n2
Ans.: B

Q23. During Compilation process, Semantic Analyzer is used for

A Generating Object Code
B Maintaining Symbol Table
C Ensuring that the declarations and statements of a program are semantically
correct
D All of the mentioned
Ans.: D

Q24. A Grammar is said to be ambiguous if

A It has 2 parse trees
B It has 2 Leftmost derivations
C It has 2 Rightmost derivations
D All of the above
Ans.: D

Q25. A Context free Grammar is not closed under

A Dot operation
B Union operation
C Concatenation
D Iteration
Ans.: D

Q26. Which of the following derivations does a top-down parser use while parsing an input
string
A Leftmost derivation
B Leftmost derivation in reverse
C Rightmost derivation
D Rightmost derivation in reverse
Ans.: A

Q27. Which of the following suffices to convert an arbitrarily CFG to an LL(1) grammar?
A Removing left recursion only
B Factoring the grammar alone
C Factoring and left recursion removal
D None of the mentioned
Ans.: D

Q28. Assume that SLR parser for a grammar G has n1 states and the LALR parser for G has n2
states. Then which of the following statements hold true
A n1 is necessarily lesser than n2
B n1 is necessarily greater than n2
C n1 is necessarily equal than n2
D None of the mentioned
Ans.: C

Q29. A Running time of a Program depends on ………..

B.E. (C.S.E.) – Compiler Design Page 4 of 9
A Addressing Modes
B Order of Computations
C Usage of Machine idioms
D All of the above
Ans.: D

Q30. Which of the following is not a Regular Expression

A [(a+b)* - (aa+bb)]*
B [(0+1) - (0b+a1)*(a+b)]*
C (01+11+10)*
D (1+2+0)* (1+2)*
Ans.: B

Q31. A LR parser can detect a syntactic error as soon as

A The parsing starts
B It is possible to do so a left-to-right scan of the input
C It is possible to do a right-to-left scan of the input
D Parsing ends
Ans.: B

Q32. How many strings of length less than 4 contains the language described by the regular
expression (x+y)*y(a+ab)*?
A 7
B 11
C 10
D 12
Ans.: B

Q33. If a state does not know whether it will make a shift operation or reduction for a terminal
is called as
A Shift/reduce conflict
B Reduce/shiftconflict
C Shiftconflict
D reduce conflict
Ans.: A

Q34. The action of parsing the source program into proper syntactic classes is called as
A Syntax analysis
B Lexical analysis
C Semantic analysis
D None of the above
Ans.: B

Q35. An intermediate code form is

A Postfix Notations
B Syntax Trees
C Three address code
D All of the mentioned
Ans.: D

Q36. A Terminal table

B.E. (C.S.E.) – Compiler Design Page 5 of 9
A Contains all constants in the program
B Is a permanent table of decision rules in the form of patterns for matching with the
uniform symbol table to discover syntactic structure
C Consist of a full or partial list of the token is as they appear in the program created by
lexical analysis and used for syntax analysis and interpretation
D Is a permanent table which lists all keywords and special symbols of the language in
symbolic form
Ans.: D

Q37. During the translation process of source to target program, The address code involves
A Exactly 3 address
B At most three address
C None if the unary operators
D None of the mentioned.
Ans.: D

Q38. In a single pass assembler, most of the forward references can be avoided by putting the
restriction
A On the number of strings/life reacts
B Code segment to be defined after data segment
C On unconditional jump
D None of the mentioned
Ans.: B

Q39. Two important lexical categories are

A White spaces
B comments
C All of the mentioned
D None of the mentioned
Ans.: C

Q40. Which is not true about syntax and semantic parts of a computer language
A Semantics is checked mechanically by a computer
B Semantics is the responsibility of the programmer
C All of the mentioned
D None of the mentioned
Ans.: D

Q41 What does a Syntactic Analyzer do?

A Maintain Symbol table
B Collect Type of information
C Create parse trees
D Generate object code
Ans.: C

Q42 Which one is a type of Lexeme

A Identifiers
B Constants
C Keywords
D All of the above
Ans.: D

B.E. (C.S.E.) – Compiler Design Page 6 of 9

Q43 Which of the following features cannot be captured by CFG?
A Syntax of if-then-else statements
B Syntax of recursive procedures
C A variable is declared before its use
D Matching nested parenthesi
Ans.: D

Q44 Which of the following parsers is the most powerful parser?

A Operator – Precedence
B LALR
C SLR
D Canonical LR
Ans.: D

Q45 Regular expressions are

A Type 0 language
B Type 1 language
C Type 2 language
D Type 3 language
Ans.: A

Q46 Which of the following is not a source of error?

A Faulty design specification
B Faulty algorithm
C Compilers themselves
D None of these
Ans.: D

Q47 The phase ‘Semantic Analysis’ is responsible for ____ in Compiler.

A Check semantics
B Static checking
C Type checking
D All of the mentioned
Ans.: D

Q48 Which of the following cannot be used as an intermediate code form?

A Quadruples
B Syntax trees
C Three address codes
D Post fix notation
Ans.: A

Q49 The cost of developing a compiler is proportional to

A Flexibility of the available instruction set
B Complexity of the architecture of the target machine
C Complexity of the source language
D All of the mentioned
Ans.: D

Q50 Programming languages can be categories as _____

B.E. (C.S.E.) – Compiler Design Page 7 of 9
A Assembly language
B High level language
C Machine language
D All of the mentioned
Ans.: D

Q51. Representing the syntax by a grammar is advantageous. What is the cause?

A It is concise
B It is accurate
C Automation becomes easy
D All of the mentioned
Ans.: D

Q52. Which of the following is true?

A (01)*0 = 0(10)*
B (0+1)*0(0+1)*1(0+1) = (0+1)*01(0+1)*
C (0+1)*01(0+1)*+1*0* = (0+1)*
D All of the mentioned
Ans.: D

Q53. The important lexical categories is/are

A Whitespaces
B Comments
C All of the mentioned
D None of the mentioned
Ans.:

Q54. A LR parser can detect a syntactic error as soon as

A The parsing starts
B It is possible to do so a left-to-right scan of the input
C It is possible to do a right-to-left scan of the input
D Parsing ends
Ans.: B

Q55. Which of the following is not a Regular Expression

A [(a+b)* - (aa+bb)]*
B [(0+1) - (0b+a1)*(a+b)]*
C (01+11+10)*
D (1+2+0)* (1+2)*
Ans.: B

Q56. Left Factoring is a process of

A Prefixed of alternatives
B Suffixes of alternatives
C Predictive Parsing
D None of the mentioned
Ans.: D

Q57. In Compilation, ……..is considered as a sequence of characters in a token

A Pattern
B Lexeme
C Token
D Attributes
Ans.: B

B.E. (C.S.E.) – Compiler Design Page 8 of 9

Q58. Which of the following suffices to convert an arbitrarily CFG to an LL(1) grammar?
A Removing left recursion only
B Factoring the grammar alone
C Factoring and left recursion removal
D None of the mentioned
Ans.: D

Q59. Which of the following derivations does a top-down parser use while parsing an input
string
A Leftmost derivation
B Leftmost derivation in reverse
C Rightmost derivation
D Rightmost derivation in reverse
Ans.: A

Q60. A Context free Grammar is not closed under

A Dot operation
B Union operation
C Concatenation
D Iteration
Ans.: D

B.E. (C.S.E.) – Compiler Design Page 9 of 9

 MODEL QUESTION PAPER
Subject : Data Warehousing & Mining [ 178113 ]

Branch : Computer Science & Engineering

Class : BE (Final Year)

Semester : VIII
Total: 60 Questions with answers

1) Which OLAP operation provides axes rotation

(A) Drill down
(B) Roll up
(C) Slice dice
(D) Pivot
Answer: (D)

2) Data is rapidly stored, retrieved, updated in ___________

(A) FTP
(B) SMTP
(C) OLTP
(D) OLAP
Answer: (C)

3) Which kind of data is stored in Data Warehouse?

(A) Only Current Data
(B) Historical Data
(C) Noisy Data
(D) Invalid data
Answer: (C)

4) OLAP (online analytical processing) is for ____________

(A) Data analysis and decision making
(B) Day to Day transaction
(C) Concurrency Control
(D) None of the above
Answer: (a)

5) Unit of work for OLAP is __________

(A) Simple transaction
(B) Single query
(C) Concurrent transactions
(D) Complex query
Answer: (D)

6) Star schema is composed of __________ fact table

(A) FOUR
(B) TWO
(C) THREE
(D) ONE
Answer: (D)
7) Operation of moving from higher level summarized data to lower level detailed data in data
cube is known as ___________
(A) Roll Up
(B) Drill down
(C) Pivot
(D) Dice
Answer: (B)

8) In Which Data Warehouse Schema some dimension tables are normalized?

(A) Star Schema
(B) Snowflake Schema
(C) ER Schema
(D) OLTP Schema
Answer: (B)

9) The full form of KDD is _____________

(A)Knowledge data definition
(B) Knowledge Database
(C) knowledge discovery from data
(D) knowledge data house
Answer: (C)

10) What is Data Cube

(A)Multidimensional Database
(B) Single Dimensional Data Model
(C) Transactional Data model
(D) A type of database
Answer: (A)

11) What are facts?

(A) Numeric Measures
(B) Boolean Values
(C) Categorical Data
(D) Data types
Answer: (A)

12) What does a fact table contains?

(A) Names of facts and keys to dimensions tables
(B) Only keys to dimension tables
(C) Only names of facts
(D) Fact Values
Answer: (A)

13) What is a concept hierarchy?

(A) A set of mappings from lower conceptual level to higher conceptual level
(B) Sorted data in increasing order
(C) Hierarchy of data types
(D) Sorted data in decreasing order
Answer: (A)
14) How does roll-up operation affect the size of data cube?
(A) It increases the size
(B) It decreases the size
(C) Does not affect the size
(D) None of the above
Answer: (B)

15) What is noise?

(A) Random error or variance in a measured value
(B) Read only data
(C) Sorted values
(D) Missing values
Answer: (A)

16) Correlation analysis is used for _______________

(A) Eliminating noise
(B) find missing values
(C) identifying redundant attributes
(D) data partitioning
Answer: (C)

17) What is use of data normalization?

(A) It is used to scale the data of an attribute so that it falls in a smaller range
(B) It is used to increase size of data.
(C) It is used for predicting unknown values
(D) It is used for data grouping
Answer: (A)

18) What is clustering?

(A) Process of grouping similar objects
(B) Process of classifying new objects
(C) Both a and b
(D) None of the above
Answer: (A)

19) Data that are not of interest to the data mining task is called as ______.
(A) missing data.
(B) changing data.
(C) irrelevant data.
(D) noisy data.
Answer: (C)

20) Which of the following is not data pre-processing method?

(A) Data Cleaning
(B) Data Normalization
(C) Data Visualization
(D) Data Reduction
Answer: (A)
21) To detect fraudulent usage of credit cards, following data mining task should be used.
(A) Clustering
(B) Outlier Analysis
(C) Association Mining
(D) Regression
Answer: (B)

22) To identify the truly interesting patterns representing knowledge based on some
interestingness measures is........................
(A) Pattern Extraction
(B) Pattern Analysis
(C) Pattern Modification
(D) Pattern Evaluation
Answer: (D)

23) Which of the following is the entity identification problem?

(A) One person with different email address
(B) One person’s name written in different way
(C) One person with multiple phone numbers
(D) One person with multiple phone numbers
Answer: (B)

24) Removing noise and inconsistent data is.........................

(A) Data merging
(B) Data Cleaning
(C) Data migration
(D) Data Replication
Answer: (B)

25) What is ETL stands for

(A) Extraction Transparent Loading
(B) Extraction Transmission Logging
(C) Engineering Transformation Logging
(D) Extraction Transformation Loading
Answer: (D)

26) Combining multiple data sources referred as ........................

(A) Data Migration
(B) Data Extraction
(C) Data Integration
(D) Data Replication
Answer: (C)

27) Attribute subset selection.........

(A) Removes irrelevant, redundant attributes
(A) Removes relevant attributes
(C) Removes entities with less attributes
(D) adds redundancy
Answer: (A)
28) Which of the following data mining task is known as market basket analysis
(A) Clustering
(B) Classification
(C) Association mining
(D) Regression
Answer: (c)

29) What does Apriori algorithm do?

(A) It mines frequent patterns which satisfies minimum threshold
(B) It mines infrequent patterns
(C) Both A and B
(D) None of above
Answer: (A)

30) Which of the following is direct application of frequent itemset mining?

(A) Social Network Analysis
(B) Market Basket Analysis
(C) Outlier detection
(D) Intrusion detection
Answer: (B)

31) What is association rule mining?

(A) Same as frequent itemset mining
(B) Finding of strong association rules using frequent itemsets
(C) Using association to analyse correlation rules
(D) None of the above
Answer: (B)

32) Dimensionality reduction reduces the data set size by removing...............

(A) relevant attributes.
(B) constructed attributes
(C) composite attributes
(D) irrelevant attributes.
Answer: (D)

33) _____________ is data about data.

(A) Metadata
(B) Minidata
(C) Microdata
(D) Bigdata
Answer: (A)

34) The first phase of apriori algorithm is _______

(A) Candidate Generation
(B) Itemset generation
(C) Pruning
(D) Partitioning
Answer: (A)
35) Every non empty subset of frequent itemset must also be frequent.
(A) Association Rule
(B) Data mining property
(C) Metadata property
(D) Apriori property
Answer: (D)

36) The second phase of Apriori algorithm is ____________

(A) Candidate generation.
(B) Itemset generation.
(C) Pruning
(D) Partitioning
Answer: (C)

37) ________is the most well-known association rule mining algorithm and is used in most
commercial products.
(A) Apriori algorithm.
(B) Partition algorithm.
(C) Distributed algorithm
(D) Pincer-search algorithm
Answer: (A)

38) Rule based classification algorithms generate _________ rule to perform the classification.
(A) IF-THEN
(B) While
(C) Do While
(D) Switch
Answer: (A)

39) Data Discretization techniques can be used to ____________the range of continuous

attribute into intervals.
(A) Sum
(B) Divide
(C) Characterize
(D) Tabularize
Answer: (B)

40) What do you mean by support(A)?

(A) Total number of transactions containing A
(B) Total Number of transactions not containing A
(C) Number of transactions containing A / Total number of transactions
(D) Number of transactions not containing A / Total number of transactions
Answer: (C)

41) Data mining is the application of specific________ for extracting ________ from data.
(A) Data warehouse, transactions
(B) Data mart , valuable
(C) Algorithms, Patterns
(D) Database , Knowledge
Answer: (C)
42) Multiple fact tables share dimension tables is____________
(A) STAR Schema
(B) Snowflake Schema
(C) Flat Relational Schema
(D) Fact Constellation Schema
Answer: (D)

43) Street --> City --> State--> Country This exhibits OLAP operation
_____________________
(A) Roll UP
(B) Drill Down
(C) Dice
(D) Slice
Answer: (A)

44) Gathering data from multiple, heterogeneous, and external sources

(A) Data Extraction
(B) Data Modification
(C) Data Restoration
(D) Data Migration
Answer: (A)

45) The number of iterations in apriori ___________

(A) increases with the size of the data
(B) decreases with the increase in size of the data
(C) increases with the size of the maximum frequent set
(D) decreases with increase in size of the maximum frequent set
Answer: (C)

46) Reducing the number of transactions scanned in future iterations

(A) Transaction reduction
(B) Attribute Reduction
(C) Data Reduction
(D) None of the Above
Answer: (A)

47) where data relevant to the analysis task are retrieved from the database
(A) Data replication
(B) Data Manipulation
(C) Data Selection
(D) Data Extraction
Answer: (C)

48) A data warehouse is which of the following?

(A) Can be updated by end users.
(B) Contains numerous naming conventions and formats.
(C) Organized around important subject areas.
(D) Contains only current data.
Answer: (C)
49) ............................. is the process of finding a model that describes and distinguishes data
classes or concepts.
(A) Data Reduction
(B) Data Classification
(C) Data Association
(D) Data selection
Answer: (B)

50) Which of the following is data mining tool ?

(A) Borland C
(B) Weka
(C) Auto CAD
(D) Visual C
Answer: (B)

51) Which of the following is not a data mining functionality?

(A) Characterization and Discrimination
(B) Classification and regression
(C) Selection and interpretation
(D) Clustering and Analysis
Answer: (C)

52) Which of the following is not a kind of data warehouse application?

(A) Information processing
(B) Analytical processing
(C) Data mining
(D) Transaction processing
Answer: (D)

53) Hidden knowledge can be found by using _____________

(A) Indexing algorithm
(B) Data mining algorithm
(C) Sorting algorithm
(D) Clues
Answer: (B)

54) The algorithms that are controlled by human during their execution is _______ algorithm.
(A) unsupervised
(B) incremental
(C) batch learning
(D) supervised
Answer: (D)

55) What is true about next two statements 1)-HOLAP contains ROLAP Technology 2)-
HOLAP contains MOLAP technology
(A) only 1 is true
(B) only 2 is true
(C) both are true
(D) both are flase
Answer: (C)
56) Which of the following does not supports multidimensional data view
(A) Star Schema
(B) Snowflake Schema
(C) Fact Constellation Schema
(D) Flat Relational Schema
Answer: (D)

57) MOLAP stands for_____________________

(A) Manual Online Analytical Processing
(B) Modified Online Analytical Processing
(C) Multiple Online Analytical Processing
(D) Multidimensional Online Analytical Processing
Answer: (D)

58) Itemset which passes minimum threshold is called as _____________________

(A)Frequent Itemset
(B) Repetitive Itemset
(C) Redundant Itemset
(D) None of the above
Answer: (A)

59) Three tier architecture of data warehouse middle tier contains......

(A) Database Tools
(B) Data warehouse servers
(C) Front end tools
(D) OLAP servers
Answer: (D)

60) What is true about next a&b statements a) drill across is not OLAP operation b) drill across
involves multiple fact tables
(A) a is true b is false
(B) a is false b is true
(C) both a and b are true
(D) both a and b are false
Answer: (B)
 MODEL QUESTION PAPER
Subject:-Software Metrics & Quality Assurance (178141)

Branch: - Computer Science and Engineering

Class: B.E

Semester-VIII

Q1. Which of the following does not affect the software quality and organizational performance?
A) Market
B) Product
C) Technology
D) People

Ans:- A

Q2. The intent of project metrics is:

A) Minimization of Development Schedule
B) For Strategic Purposes
C) Assessing Project Quality On Ongoing Basis
D) Minimization of Development Schedule And Assessing Project Quality On Ongoing Basis

Ans: D

Q3. Which of the following is not a direct measure of SE process?

A) Efficiency
B) Cost
C) Effort Applied
D) All of The Mentioned

Ans: A

Q4. Which of the following is an indirect measure of product?

A) Quality
B) Complexity
C) Reliability
D) All Of The Mentioned

Ans: D

Q5. In size oriented metrics, metrics are developed based on the ___________________
A) Number Of Functions
B) Number Of User Inputs
C) Number Of Lines Of Code
D) Amount Of Memory Usage

Ans: C
Q. 6. Usability can be measured in terms of:
A) Intellectual Skill To Learn The System
B) Time Required To Become Moderately Efficient In System Usage
C) Net Increase In Productivity
D) All of The Mentioned

Ans: D

Q7. Defects removal efficiency (DRE)depends on:

A) E – Errors Found Before Software Delivery
B) D – Defects Found After Delivery To User
C) Both E And D
D) Varies With Project

Ans: C

Q8. Which of the following is not an information domain required for determining function point in
FPA ?
A) Number of User Input
B) Number of User Inquiries
C) Number of External Interfaces
D) Number of Errors

Ans: D

Q9. A graphical technique for finding if changes and variation in metrics data are meaningful is known
as
A) DRE (Defect Removal Efficiency)
B) Function Points Analysis
C) Control Chart
D) All Of The Mentioned

Ans: C

Q10. Which of the following is the task of project indicators:

A) Help In Assessment of Status of Ongoing Project
B) Track Potential Risk
C) Help In Assessment of Status of Ongoing Project & Track Potential Risk
D) None of The Mentioned

Ans: C

Q11. Which metric gives the idea about the contents on a web page ?
A) Word Token
B) Word Count
C) Word Size
D) Word Length

Ans: B
Q12. How is the complexity of a web page related to link count ?
A) Directly
B) Indirectly
C) No Relation
D) All of The Mentioned

Ans: A

Q13. Number of dynamic web pages provides an idea about________ for a web page that is to be
built.
A) Size
B) Complexity
C) Effort
D) All of The Mentioned

Ans: D

Q14. Which of the following web engineering metric measures the extent of relatedness between two
or more web pages ?
A) Number of Static Content Objects
B) Number of Dynamic Content Objects
C) Web Page Similarity
D) Number of Internal Page Links

Ans: C

Q15. Which of the following is not a classification of the web engineering metric, Web Page
Similarity ?
A) Content Based
B) Link Based
C) Usage Based
D) Traffic Based

Ans: D

Q16. Link based measures rely on ___________ structure of a web graph to obtain related pages.
A) Embedded
B) Hyperlink
C) Dynamic
D) All of The Mentioned

Ans: B

Q17. Which of the following is not a web engineering project metric ?

A) Number of Static Content Objects
B) Number of Dynamic Content Objects
C) Number of Inherited Objects
D) Word Count

Ans: C
Q18. Which of the following is not a metric for design model?
A) Interface Design Metrics
B) Component-Level Metrics
C) Architectural Metrics
D) Complexity Metrics

Ans: D

Q19. Statement and branch coverage metrics are part of

A) Analysis Model
B) Testing
C) Design Model
D) Source Code

Ans: B

Q20. Function Points in software engineering was first proposed by

A) Booch
B) Boehm
C) Albrecht
D) Jacobson

Ans: C

Q21. How many Information Domain Values are used for Function Point Computation?
A) Three
B) Four
C) Five
D) Six

Ans: C

Q22. Function Point Computation is given by the formula

A) FP = [Count Total * 0.65] + 0.01 * Sum(Fi)
B) FP = Count Total * [0.65 + 0.01 * Sum(Fi)].
C) FP = Count Total * [0.65 + 0.01] * Sum(Fi)
D) FP = [Count Total * 0.65 + 0.01] * Sum(Fi)

Ans: B

Q23. Architectural Design Metrics are ___________ in nature.

A) Black Box
B) White Box
C) Gray Box
D) Green Box

Ans: A
Q24. Structural complexity of a module i is given as S(i) = f*f (i). What does f symbolizes here?
A) “Fan Check-Out” Of Module I
B) “Fan Check-In” Of Module I
C) “Fan In” Of Module I
D) “Fan Out” Of Module I

Ans: D

Q25. SMI stands for

A) Software Mature Indicator
B) Software Maturity Index
C) Software Mature Index
D) Software Maturity Indicator

Ans: B

Q26. SMI = [Mt – (Fa + Fc + Fd)]/Mt. Here Mt is the number of modules

A) In The Current Release
B) In The Current Release That Have Been Changed
C) From The Preceding Release That Were Deleted In The Current Release
D) None Of The Mentioned

Ans: A

Q27. The amount of time that the software is available for use is known as
A) Reliability
B) Usability
C) Efficiency
D) Functionality

Ans: A

Q28. Usability in metric analysis is defined as the degree to which the software
A) Stated Needs
B) Is Easy To Use
C) Makes Optimal Use of System Resources
D) None of the Mentioned

Ans: B

Q29. Size and Complexity are a part of

A) Product Metrics
B) Process Metrics
C) Project Metrics
D) All of the Mentioned

Ans: A
Q30. Cost and schedule are a part of
A) Product Metrics
B) Process Metrics
C) Project Metrics
D) All of the Mentioned

Ans: C

Q31. Number of errors found per person hours expended is an example of a

A) Measurement
B) Measure
C) Metric
D) All of the Mentioned

Ans: C

Q32. Which of the following is not categorized under Product Operation of McCall’s Software Quality
Factors?
A) Flexibility
B) Reliability
C) Usability
D) Integrity

Ans: A

Q33. The arc-to-node ratio is given as r = a/n. What does ‘a’ represent in the ratio?
A) Maximum Number Of Nodes At Any Level
B) Longest Path From The Root To A Leaf
C) Number Of Modules
D) Lines Of Control

Ans: D

Q34. Which of the following is not categorized under Component-Level Design Metrics?
A) Complexity Metrics
B) Cohesion Metrics
C) Morphology Metrics
D) Coupling Metrics

Ans: C

Q35. Percentage of modules that were inspected is a part of

A) Product Metrics
B) Process Metrics
C) Project Metrics
D) All of the Mentioned

Ans: B
Q36. MTTC falls the category of
A) Correctness
B) Integrity
C) Maintainability
D) All of the Mentioned

Ans: C

Q37. Identify the correct option with reference to Software Quality Metrics.
A) Integrity = [Sigma(1 – Threat)] * (1 – Security)
B) Integrity = [1 – Sigma(Threat)] * (1 – Security)
C) Integrity = [1 – Threat * Sigma(1 – Security)].
D) Integrity = Sigma[1 – Threat * (1 – Security)].

Ans: D

Q38. Which of the following is not project management goal?

A) Keeping Overall Costs within Budget
B) Delivering the Software to the Customer at the Agreed Time
C) Maintaining a Happy and Well-Functioning Development Team
D) Avoiding Customer Complaints

Ans: D

Q39. Which of the following is not considered as a risk in project management?

A) Specification Delays
B) Product Competition
C) Testing
D) Staff Turnover

Ans: C

Q40. The process each manager follows during the life of a project is known as
A) Project Management
B) Manager Life Cycle
C) Project Management Life Cycle
D) All of the Mentioned

Ans: C

Q41. A 66.6% risk is considered as

A) Very Low
B) Low
C) Moderate
D) High

Ans: D
Q42. Which of the following is/are main parameters that you should use when computing the costs of
a software development project?
A) Travel And Training Costs
B) Hardware And Software Costs
C) Effort Costs (The Costs Of Paying Software Engineers And Managers)
D) All Of The Mentioned

Ans: D

Q43. Quality planning is the process of developing a quality plan for

A) Team
B) Project
C) Customers
D) Project Manager

Ans: B

Q44. Which of the following is incorrect activity for the configuration management of a software
system?
A) Internship Management
B) Change Management
C) Version Management
D) System Management

Ans: A

Q45. Identify the sub-process of process improvement

A) Process Introduction
B) Process Analysis
C) De-Processification
D) Process Distribution

Ans: B

Q46. Which of the following costs is not part of the total effort cost?
A) Costs of Networking And Communications
B) Costs of Providing Heating And Lighting Office Space
C) Costs of Lunch Time Food
D) Costs of Support Staff

Ans: C

Q47. What is related to the overall functionality of the delivered software?

A) Function-Related Metrics
B) Product-Related Metrics
C) Size-Related Metrics
D) None of the Mentioned

Ans: A
Q48. A _________ is developed using historical cost information that relates some software metric to
the project cost.
A) Algorithmic Cost Modelling
B) Expert Judgement
C) Estimation by Analogy
D) Parkinson’s Law

Ans: A

Q49. Which technique is applicable when other projects in the same analogy application domain have
been completed?
A) Algorithmic Cost Modelling
B) Expert Judgement
C) Estimation by Analogy
D) Parkinson’s Law

Ans: C

Q50. Which model assumes that systems are created from reusable components, scripting or database
programming?
A) An Application-Composition Model
B) A Post-Architecture Model
C) A Reuse Model
D) An Early Design Model

Ans: A

Q51. Which of the following states that work expands to fill the time available.
A) CASE Tools
B) Pricing To Win
C) Parkinson’s Law
D) Expert Judgement

Ans: C

Q52. Which model is used during early stages of the system design after the requirements have been
established?
A) An Application-Composition Model
B) A Post-Architecture Model
C) A Reuse Model
D) An Early Design Model

Ans: D
Q53. Which of the following uses empirically derived formulas to predict effort as a function of LOC
or FP?
A) FP-Based Estimation
B) Process-Based Estimation
C) COCOMO
D) Both FP-Based Estimation And COCOMO

Ans: D

Q54. COCOMO stands for

A) Constructive Cost Model
B) Comprehensive Cost Model
C) Constructive Cost Estimation Model
D) Complete Cost Estimation Model

Ans: A

Q55. Which version of COCOMO states that once requirements have been stabilized, the basic
software architecture has been established?
A) Early Design Stage Model
B) Post-Architecture-Stage Model
C) Application Composition Model
D) All of the Mentioned

Ans: A

Q56. Which one is not a size measure for software product?

A) LOC
B) Halstead’s Program Length
C) Function Count
D) Cyclomatic Complexity

Ans: D

Q57. Estimation of size for a project is dependent on

A) Cost
B) Time
C) Schedule
D) None of the Mentioned

Ans: D

Q58. Choose the correct option in terms of Issues related to professional responsibility
A) Confidentiality
B) Intellectual Property Rights
C) Both Confidentiality & Intellectual Property Rights
D) Managing Client Relationships

Ans: C
Q59. Efficiency in a software product does not include ________
A) Responsiveness
B) Licensing
C) Memory Utilization
D) Processing Time

Ans: B

Q60. The reason for software bugs and failures is due to

A) Software Companies
B) Software Developers
C) Both Software Companies and Developers
D) All of the Mentioned

Ans: C
 MODEL QUESTION PAPER

Subject: Mobile Computing ()

Branch: Computer Science and Engineering,

Class: BE

Semester: VIII
Q1. In 1997, researchers in AT&T Bell Labs conceived the idea of ________ phones.

A Cellular.

B Mobile.

C CDMA.

D GSM.

Ans.: A

Q2. 3G uses__________ techniques for media access and encoding.

A CDMA.

B Spread Spectrum.

C GPRS.

D GSM.

Ans.: B

Q3. Mobile computing is defined as a ____________environment of physical mobility.

A Computing.

B Data.

C Address Book.

D Information.

Ans.: A

Q4. The device for mobile computing can be either computing or a _________device.

A Mobile.

B Computing.
C Communication.

D Computer

Ans.: C

Q5. In any communication there are_______types of user dialogue.

A Two.

B Three.

C One.

D Four.

Ans.: A

Q6. Wireline networks are generally _________ network and cover wide areas.

A Public.

B Private

C Gobal.

D Network.

Ans.: A

Q7. Mobile network are called_________ network.

A Wired.

B Wireless.

C Co-axial.

D Fibre.

Ans.: B

Q8. Any software layered between a user application and operating system is a __________.

A Middleware.

B Database Middleware.

C Behaviour Management Middleware.

D RPC Middleware.

Ans.: A
Q9. Which of the following is the world's first cellular system to specify digital modulation
and network level architecture.

A GSM.

B AMPS.

C CDMA.

D IS-54.

Ans.: A

Q. 10 Previously in 1980s, GSM stands for__________.

A Global system for mobile.

B Groupe special mobile.

C Global special mobile.

D Groupe system mobile.

Ans.: B

Q. 11 Who set the standards of GSM

A ITU.

B AT&T.

C ETSI.

D USDC

Ans.: C

Q. 12 Which of the following does not come under the teleservices of GSM.

A Standard mobile telephony.

B Mobile originated traffic.

C Base originated traffic.

D Packet switched traffic.

Ans.: D

Q. 13 Which of the following comes under supplementary ISDN services.

A Emergency calling.
B Packet switched protocols.

C Call diversion.

D Standard mobile telephony.

Ans.: C

Q. 14 Which of the following memory device stores information such as subscriber's

identification number in GSM

A Register.

B Flip flop.

C SIM.

D SMS.

Ans.: C

Q. 15 Which of the following feature makes impossible to eavesdrop on GSM radio

transmission.

A SIM.

B On the air privacy.

C SMS.

D Packet switched traffic.

Ans.: B

Q. 16 Which of the following does not come under subsystem of GSM architecture.

A BSS

B NSS

C OSS

D Channel

Ans.: D

Q. 17 ___________ manages the switching function in GSM.

A BSS

B NSS

C OSS
D MSC

Ans.: B

Q. 18 Which of the following subsystem provides radio transmission between mobile station
and MSC.

A BSS

B NSS

C OSS

D BSC

Ans.: A

Q. 19 Which of the following allow the use of entire bandwidth simultaneously?

A TDMA.

B CDMA.

C FDMA.

D None of these.

Ans.: B

Q. 20 The base station covers a specific area that is called a ——

A Cell.

B Tessellate.

C Mobile Station.

D None of these.

Ans.: A

Q. 21 In a cellular system, the shape of the cell depends on —–

A Environmental condition.

B Social conditions

C Political condition.

D None of these.

Ans.: A
Q. 22 World’s first cellular system was developed by__________

A Nippon Telephone and Telegraph (NTT)

B Bellcore and Motorola

C AT&T Bell Laboratories

D Qualcomm

Ans.: A

Q. 23 Bluetooth technology support__________.

A Piconet.

B Adhoc piconet.

C Scatter net.

D All of the above.

Ans.: D

Q. 24 Which of the following wireless technology is used for exchanging data between a
variety of fixed and mobile devices over a very short diameter?

A An Mobile technology.

B Bluetooth technology.

C Ad hoc Computing

D None of the above.

Ans.: B

Q. 25 In piconet devices connected with the master is called___________.

A Slaves.

B Parked.

C Standby.

D None of these.

Ans.: A

Q. 26 The most important feature/s of mobile computing technology is/are —--------.

A Mobility.
B Portability.

C Wireless connectivity.

D All of the above.

Ans.: D

Q. 27 In a cellular system, the shape of the cell is generally —-------

A Hexagon.

B Circular.

C Square.

D None of these.

Ans.: A

Q.28 Important mobile computing application/s is/are —–

A Education.

B Sports.

C Games.

D All of the above.

Ans.: D

Q. 29 Challenges of mobile computing include ———

A Low Security.

B Ad hoc Networking.

C Shared Medium.

D All of the above.

Ans.: D

Q. 30 Slow and fast hopping is used in —-

A FHSS.

B GSM.

C GPRS.

D UMTS.
Ans.: A

Q. 31 WiMAX stands for ___________

A wireless maximum communication

B worldwide interoperability for microwave access

C worldwide international standard for microwave access

D wireless internet maximum communication

Ans.: B

Q. 32 WiMAX provides ________

A simplex communication

B half duplex communication

C full duplex communication

D no communication

Ans.: C

Q.33 WiMAX uses the _________

A orthogonal frequency division multiplexing

B time division multiplexing

C space division multiplexing

D channel division multiplexing

Ans.: A

Q. 34 Which of the following modulation schemes is supported by WiMAX?

A binary phase shift keying modulation.

B quadrature phase shift keying modulation.

C quadrature amplitude modulation.

D All of the above.

Ans.: D

Q. 35 WiMAX is mostly used for __________

A local area network

B metropolitan area network

C personal area network

D wide area network

Ans.: B

Q. 36 IPv6 has a larger address space of _________

A 216

B 2128
C 232

D 28

Ans.: B

Q. 37 In IPv6, real-time audio or video, particularly in digital form, requires resources such
as __________
A Fixed Bandwidth

B Variable Bandwidth

C High Bandwidth

D Low Bandwidth

Ans.: C

Q. 38 The header length of an IPv6 datagram is ___________

A 10 bytes.

B 25 bytes.

C 30 bytes.

D 40 bytes.

Ans.: D

Q. 39 Which of these functions is called to display the output of an applet?

A display()

B paint()

C displayApplet()

D PrintApplet()
Ans.: B

Q. 40 GPRS stands for?

A General Packet Repair Service

B General Packet Radio Service

C Graphics Packet Radio Service

D None of these.

Ans.: B

Q. 41 GPRS and EDGE supports which 2G standard?

A GSM only

B IS-136 only

C GSM and IS-136 both

D PDC

Ans.: C

Q. 42 MIN stands for_______

A Mobile Identification Number

B Mobile Internet

C Mobility In Network

D None of the above

Ans.: A

Q. 43 The process of transferring a mobile station from one base station to another
is___________

A MSC

B Roamer

C Hand off

D Forward channel

Ans.: C

Q. 44 The 2G cellular network uses__________

A TDMA/FDD

B CDMA/FDD

C Digital modulation formats

D All of the above

Ans.: D

Q. 45 3G W-CDMA is also known as__________

A UMTS

B DECT

C DCS-1800

D ETACS

Ans.: A

Q. 46 Commonly used mode for 3G networks is_______

A TDMA

B FDMA

C FDD

D TDD

Ans.: C

Q. 47 The advantage of using frequency reuse is_____

A Increased capacity

B Limited spectrum is required

C Same spectrum may be allocated to other network

D All of the above

Ans.: D

Q. 48 Interference in frequency bands may lead to_______

A Cross talk

B Missed calls

C Blocked calls
D All of the above

Ans.: D

Q. 49 Fading is caused due to _____

A Multi path propagation

B Variation in amplitude and phase at receiver

C Obstacles

D All of the above

Ans.: D

Q. 50 Doppler spread refers to________

A Signal fading due to Doppler shift in the channel

B Temporary failure of message transfer

C Large coherence time of the channel as compared to the delay constraints

D All of the above

Ans.: A

Q. 51 Spread spectrum modulation involves________

A PN sequence for modulation

B Large bandwidth

C Multiple users

D All of the above

Ans.: D

Q. 52 Direct sequence spread spectrum demodulation uses_______

A DPSK

B FSK

C ASK

D QPSK

Ans.: A

Q. 53 The digital modulation technique used in frequency selective channels is________

A FSK

B ASK

C BPSK

D QPSK

Ans.: C

Q. 54 WAP is a _______.

A Application Environment for mobile device.

B Common Protocol.

C Both A and B.

D Transport protocol.

Ans.: A

Q. 55 Which of the following is not a property of spread spectrum techniques?

A Interference rejection capability

B Multipath fading

C Frequency planning elimination

D Multiple user, multiple access interface

Ans.: B

Q. 56 Frequency hopping involves a periodic change of transmission _______

A Signal

B Frequency

C Phase

D Amplitude

Ans.: B

Q. 57 DSSS system spreads the baseband signal by ________ the baseband pulses with a
pseudo noise sequence.

A Adding

B Subtracting
C Multiplying

D Dividing

Ans.: C

Q. 58 In cellular telephony, Interim Standard 95 (IS-95), produces data at a basic rate

of_____________.

A 9.6 KBPS

B 9.7 KBPS

C 9.8 KBPS

D 9.9 KBPS

Ans.: A

Q. 59 In cellular telephony, Interim Standard 95 (IS-95), the forward channel uses the
technique___________.

A CDMA

B DSSS

C FHSS

D FDMA

Ans.: A

Q. 60 In Interim Standard 95 forward transmission, the output of the decimator is used

for__________.

A Signaling

B Scrambling

C Framing

D Searching

Ans.: B
 Model Question Paper
Subject: Compiler Design

Branch: Computer Engineering

Class: BE

Semester: VIII

Q1. Task of a compiler is to -------

A.Translate the whole program to machine language

B.Translate one statement of the program at a time

C. Translate one statement at a time and execute it

D. None of the other options

Ans.: A

Q2. Task of an interpreter is to ------

A. Translate the whole program to machine language

B. Translate one statement of the program at a time

C. Translate one statement at a time and execute it

D. None of the other options

Ans.: C

Q3. AFinite automata can contain-----

A. One start state and one final state

B. One start state but multiple final states

C. Multiple start states but one final state

D. Multiple start and final states

Ans.: B

Q4. Programming language constructs are -----

A. Unambiguous

B. Ambiguous

C. May be unambiguous or ambiguous

D. None of the other options

Ans.: A

Q5. Natural language constructs are

A. Unambiguous
B. Ambiguous

C. May be unambiguous or ambiguous

D. None of the other options

Ans.: C

Q6.In a computer system number of compilers may be------

A. One
B. Many
C. Two

D. Ten

Ans.: B

Q7.For a particular programming language, in a computer system, number of

compilers may be----------
A. One
B. Many
C. Two

D. Ten

Ans.: B
Q8.Which of the following data structures may be good if there are frequent
search for data items followed by insertion and deletion?
A. Array
B. Link list
C. Tree

D. Hash table

Ans.: D

Q9.Suppose there is a compiler for C language that can generate code for
Computer A. Which of the following statements is true?
A. It can be used for Computer A only
B. It can be used for any computer
C. It can be used only for computers with similar processor and operating
system

D. It can be used only for computers with similar processor, operating system
and peripherals

Ans.: C

Q10.A compiler is
A. Part of operating system
B. Part of system software
C. Part of machine code

D. None of the other options

Ans.: B

Q11.Lexical analyzer generates the next token

A. When it is asked for
B. By maintaining a repository of tokens
C. By scanning the whole input
D. None of the other options

Ans.: A

Q12.Lexical analysis and parsing are put as two different phases so as to

A. Make design simple
B. Improve efficiency
C. Enhance portability

D. All of the other options

Ans.: D

Q13.A lexeme is ------

A. Any sequence of characters
B. Sequence of characters defining a token
C. Same as a token

D. Not related to any token

Ans.:B

Q14.Character sequence “2r” is not a lexical error if the language allows--

A. Symbol names to start with integers
B. Juxtaposition is taken as a valid operator
C. Length of symbol names is not fixed
D. Symbol names to start with integers or juxtaposition is taken as a valid
operator

Ans.:D

Q15.A certain compiler corrects errors like “fi” to “if” automatically. This is an
example of recovery in -----
A. Panic mode
B. Delete character
C. Replace character
D. Transpose characters

Ans.: D

Q16.For the Fortran language statement “DO 5 I = 1.25” returns token

IDENTIFIER for DO 5 I after looking up to---
A. I
B. =
C. .
D. 5

Ans.:C

Q17.A regular expression represents----

A. Constituent strings of a language
B. Part of a language
C. Cannot represent any language
D. None of the other options
Ans.:A

Q18.The regular expression (0|1)*(0|1) represents a language with---

A. Nonempty binary strings
B. Empty and nonempty binary strings
C. Odd nonempty strings
D. Even nonempty strings
Ans.: A

Q19.The regular expression (0|1)*00 will accept all strings---

A. Divisible by 2
B. Divisible by 4
C. Divisible by 2 with minimum length 2
D. Divisible by 4 with minimum length 2
Ans.:D

Q20.A regular expression for accepting strings with exactly one 1 more than 0’s
is -----
A. 0*1
B. (0|1)*1(0|1)*
C. (0|1)*1(0|1)*|1(0|1)*
D. Not possible
Ans.: D

Q21.Finite automata is an implementation of -----

A. Regular expression
B. Any grammar
C. Part of a regular expression
D. None of the other options
Ans.:A

Q22.A DFA cannot have -----

A. Epsilon transitions
B. An isolated state
C. More than one transition from a state on same input
D. All of the other options
Ans.:D

Q23.Number of possible epsilon transitions from a state in an NFA is ---

A. One
B. At most one
C. Many
D. Zero
Ans.:C

Q24.Between NFA and DFA which one is easier to implement -----

A. NFA
B. DFA
C. Equal effort needed
D. Cannot be said definitely
Ans.:B

Q25.Between NFA and DFA which one is more powerful----

A. NFA
B. DFA
C. Equally powerful
D. Cannot be said definitely
Ans.:C

Q26.At a time, an NFA can be in ----

A. Many states
B. No state
C. Only a single state
D. None of the other options
Ans.:A

Q27.At a time, aDFA can be in ----

A. Many states
B. No state
C. Only a single state
D. None of the other options
Ans.:C

Q28.Between NFA and DFA which has the potential to have more states in it?
A. NFA
B. DFA
C. Cannot be said deterministically
D. Both have same number of states
Ans.:B

Q29.Which of the following is a lexical analysis tool ----?

A. lex
B. flex
C. jflex
D. All of the other options
Ans.:D

Q30.Output of lex program is available in a file named

A. lex.c
B. lex.yy.c
C. lex.l
D. lex.yy.l
Ans.: B

Q31.Number of sections in a lex program is ---------

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4
Ans.: C

Q32.Lex specification file sections are demarcated by---------

A.%

B. {%

C. %}

D. %%

Ans.:D

Q33.Number of components in formal definition of a grammar is---------

A.2

B. 3

C. 4

D.None of the other options

Ans.:C

Q34.In a lex specification file "?" stands for--------

A.0 or more occurrences of preceding regular expression

B. One or more occurrence of preceding regular expression

C. Exactly one occurrence of preceding regular expression

D.None of the other options

Ans.:D

Q35.Most frequent operation on a symbol table is

A. Insert

B. Delete

C. Modify
D.Lookup

Ans.: D

Q36.Symbol table data is filled by

A. Lexical analyzer

B. Parser

C. Both lexical analyser and parser

D.Neither lexical analyzer nor parser

Ans.: C

Q37.The grammar{ EE + T | T, T T * F | F, F  id} is------

A.Ambiguous

B. Unambiguous

C. Partially ambiguous

D.None of the other options

Ans.:B

Q38.The grammar { EE + E | E * E | id} is------

A. Ambiguous

B. Unambiguous

C. Partially ambiguous

D.None of the other options

Ans.: A

Q39.For a context-free grammar, left-hand side of production rules should

contain ----

A.Single nonterminal

B. Atmost three grammar symbols

C. Atmost two grammar symbols

D.None of the other options

Ans.: A

Q40.A grammar is ambiguous if ----

A.its left most and right most derivations are different

B. more than one left most derivations exist

C. there is no left most derivation

D.there is no right most derivation

Ans.: B

Q41.A grammar with production rules { A Ba | Cb, B  CA, C c | ꜫ }

contains ---

A. Left factor

B. Left recursion

C. Both Left factor and Left recursion

D.None of the other options

Ans.: B

Q42.For top-down parsing left recursion removal is -----

A.Mandatory

B. Desirable

C. Too complex

D.Not needed

Ans.: A

Q43.Derivation produced by a top-down parser is -----

A.Leftmost
B. Rightmost

C. Either leftmost or rightmost

D.None of the other options

Ans.: A

Q44.A predictive parser is -----

A.Needs backtracking

B. Does not need backtracking

C. May not terminate

D.None of the other options

Ans.: B

Q45.For the grammar rules( SAa | Bb , A  c | ꜫ }, FIRST(S) is -----

A. {b, c}

B. {a, b}

C. {a, b, c}

D.{a, b, c, ꜫ }

Ans.:C

Q46.In SLR parsing for the grammar

E’  E

E aEbE | bEaE | ꜫ

In state 0, for inputs ‘a’ and ‘b’

A. Both will have shift-reduce conflict

B. Only ‘a’ will have shift-reduce conflict

C. Only ‘b’ will have shift-reduce conflict

D.Neither of the other options

Ans.:A

Q47. For the grammar

S’  S

S  CC

C  Cc | d

In state 0 of LR(1) parser , item included is

A. C  .Cc; c

B. C  .Cc; c,d

C. C  .cC; c,d

D. C  .cC; c,$

Ans.: C

Q48.In SLR parsing for the grammar

S B | SabS

B Bb | ꜫ

In state 0 or inputs ‘a’ and ‘b’

A. Both will have shift-reduce conflict

B. Only ‘a’ will have shift-reduce conflict

C. Only ‘b’ will have shift-reduce conflict

D. Neither of the other options

Ans.: B

Q49.Between SLR, Canonical LR and LALR, which one is the most powerful?

A. SLR
B. Canonical LR

C. LALR

D.All are equally powerful

Ans.: B

Q50.Amount of lookahead in LALR parser is----

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D.None

Ans.: A

Q51.Between SLR, Canonical LR and LALR, which have same number of states--
--

A. SLR and LALR

B. SLR and Canonical LR

C. Canonical LR and LALR

D.All of them

Ans.: A

Q52.In SLR parsing to get a shift-reduce conflict for state l on terminal symbol
‘a’,

A. Aα,β with First(β) containing ‘a’ should be in I

B. A  δ, be in I with Follow(A) having ‘a’

C. A  α,β with First(β) containing ‘a’ should be I and A δ, be in I with

Follow(A) having ‘a’

D.None of other options

Ans.: C

Q53.In state I we have the items A α, and B δ., First(A), Follow(A) abd
Follow(B) contains the symbol ‘a’. This leads to

A. shift-reduce conflict

B. Reduce-reduce conflict

C. Both shift-reduce and reduce-reduce conflicts

D.None conflicts

Ans.: B

Q54.Construction of parsing table in which strategies do not need the Follow

set?

A. SLR and Canonical LR

B. Canonical LR and LALR

C. SLR and LALR

D.None of the given options

Ans.: B

Q55.Type checking checks the input

A. Lexically

B. Semantically

C. Syntactically

D.All the other options

Ans.: B

Q56.Type checking done by the compiler is

A. Static

B. Dynamic
C. Both static and dynamic

D.None of the other options

Ans.: A

Q57.Array bound check can be done

A. Statically

B. Dynamically

C. Both statically and dynamically

D.None of the other options

Ans.: B

Q58.Most programming languages are weakly typed since

A. Such languages put less constraint on the programmer

B. Some type errors can only be caught dynamically

C. Both of the other options

D.None of the other options

Ans.: C

Q59.Which of the following phase of compiler does NOT use symbol table?

A. Semantic analysis

B. Code generation

C. Code optimization

D.None of the given options

Ans.: D

Q60.Which of the following is NOT likely to be kept in a symbol table?

A. Name
B. Location

C. Scope

D.None of the given options

Ans.: D
 Model Question Paper
Subject: Data Warehousing & Mining

Branch: Computer Engineering & Information Security

Class: BE

Semester: VIII

Q1. Data mining is

AThe actual discovery phase of a knowledge discovery process

B The stage of selecting the right data for a KDD process

C A subject-oriented integrated time variant non-volatile collection of data in

support of management

D None of these

Ans.: A

Q2. Data selection is

AThe actual discovery phase of a knowledge discovery process

B The stage of selecting the right data for a KDD process

C A subject-oriented integrated time variant non-volatile collection of data in

support of management

D None of these

Ans.: B

Q3. Data Warehouse Architecture is having

Afive tier

B four tier

C three tier

D eight tier
Ans.: C

Q4. Dimension table are normalized in

Asnowflake schema

B star schema

Cgalaxy schema

DFact constellation

Ans.: A

Q5. Fact constellation schema is

Acollection of star schema

B also known as galaxy schema

Cboth A and B

Dhaving only one fact table

Ans.: C

Q6. KDD (Knowledge Discovery in Databases) is referred to

ANon-trivial extraction of implicit previously unknown and potentially useful

information from data

B Set of columns in a database table that can be used to identify each record
within this table uniquely

Ccollection of interesting and useful patterns in a database

DNone of these

Ans.: A

Q7. OLAP stands for

Aonline access processing

B online analytical processing

Conline analysis processing

Donline and processing

Ans.: B

Q8. OLTP is having access of

ARead only

B Write only

Cboth

Dhaving no access

Ans.: C

Q9. OLTP stans for

Aonline tally processing

B online transcript processing

Conline transaction processing

DAll of the above

Ans.: C

Q10. Which of the following are OLAP Servers?

AROLAP

B MOLAP

CHOLAP

Dall of the above

Ans.: D

Q11. Which of the following are/is technique/techniques for Data Cleaning

AClustering
B Binning

CRegression

DAll of the above

Ans.: D

Q12. Which of the following are/is technique/techniques for data

transformation?

ASmoothing of data

B Generalization of data

CNormalization of data

DAll of the above

Ans.: D

Q13. Which of the following are/is technique/techniques for Numerosity

Reduction?

AHistograms

B Regression and Log-Linear Models

Cboth A and B

DNone of these

Ans.: C

Q14. Which of the following is not a category of measures?

ADistributive

B Algebraic

CHolistic

DSelective

Ans.: D
Q15. Which of the following is not Discretization and Concept Hierarchy
Generation methods for Numerical Data?

AEntropy-Based Discretization

B Interval Merging by Chi square Analysis

CCluster Analysis

DZ-Score

Ans.: D

Q16. Data warehouse systems allow for

A The integration of a variety of application systems

B systematically organizes

Cdata to make strategic decisions

DAll of the above

Ans.: D

Q17. Data Warehouse is Subject-Oriented because

AA data warehouse is organized around major subjects

B data warehouse is usually constructed

Cuse Data cleaning and data integration techniques

DNone of the above

Ans.: A

Q18. Data Warehouse is Time Variantbecause

AData warehouse data: provide information from a historical perspective

B holds current value data

CContains an element of time, explicitly or implicitly

DAll of the above

Ans.: D

Q19. What is a data cube?

AA data cube allows data to be modelled and viewed in multiple dimensions

B holds data in cuboidal

Cholds unmodelled data

DNone of the above

Ans.: A

Q20. Day to day operations belongs to

A OLTP

B OLAP

CHOLAP

DMOLAP

Ans.: A

Q21. Data mining can be done of following data

ADataWarehouses

B Transactional Databases

CObject-Relational Databases

DAll of the above

Ans.: D

Q22. Data Mining Functionalities following patterns can be mined

AConcept/Class Description

B Mining Frequent Patterns

CClassification and Prediction

DAll of the above

Ans.: D

Q23. Frequent patterns are

ACluster of data

B Are patterns that occur frequently in data

CRegression of values

DAll of the above

Ans.: B

Q24. Integration of a Data Mining System with a Database or Datawarehouse

System can be done with

ALoose coupling

B Semi tight coupling

CTight coupling

DAll of the above

Ans.: D

Q25. Major Issues in Data Mining are/is

AMining different kind of knowledge in databases

B Interactive mining of knowledge at multiple levels of abstraction

C Presentation and visualization of data mining results

D All of the above

Ans.: D

Q26. Outlier in clustering refers to

AData object in one cluster only

B Data object that does not belongs to any cluster

CBoth A and B

DData object that belongs to all clusters

Ans.: B

Q27. Regression analysis is a statistical methodology that is most often used

for

Anumeric prediction

B clustering

C relevance analysis

D All of the above

Ans.: A

Q28. single-dimensional association rules consist of

Aonly one AND connective

B only one OR connective

C Only one predicate

D More than one predicate

Ans.: C

Q29. The output of data characterization can be presented in various forms

as

Apie charts

B Bar charts

C curves

D All of the above

Ans.: D
Q30. Which of the following are/is issues relating to the diversity of database
types?

AHandling of relational and complex types of data

B Mining information from heterogeneous databases and global information

systems

C both A and B

D None of these

Ans.: C

Q31. Which of the following is not a classification technique?

AIF-THEN rules

B Decision tree

C K-means

D Neural network

Ans.: D

Q32. Which of the following is/are Data Mining Task Primitives?

AThe set of task-relevant data to be mined

B The kind of knowledge to be mined

C Both A and B

D Evolution Analysis

Ans.: C

Q33. Which of the following is/are performance issues in data mining?

AEfficiency and scalability of data mining algorithms

B Parallel, distributed, and incremental mining algorithms

C Both A and B
D Z-Score

Ans.: C

Q34. Data cleaning is responsible for

Ato make good data

B to remove noise and inconsistent data

Cto remove empty spaces

Dto delete zeros

Ans.: B

Q35. Data Characterizationis responsible for

Asummarization of the general characteristics or features of a target class of

data

B used to specify the kind of patterns to be found in data mining tasks.

CDescriptive mining tasks characterize the general properties of the data in the
database.

DPredictive mining tasks performs inference on the current data to make

predictions.

Ans.: A

Q36. Data Discrimination is responsible for

AIt is a comparison of the general features of targeting class data objects with
the general features of objects from one or a set of contrasting classes.

B User can specify target and contrasting classes.

CThe user may like to compare the general features of software products
whose sales increased by 10% in the last year with those whose sales
decreased by about 30% in the same duration.

DAll of the above

Ans.: D

Q37. Association Analysis means

Afrom marketing perspective, determining which items are frequently

purchased together within the same transaction.

B used to specify the kind of patterns to be found in data mining tasks.

CDescriptive mining tasks characterize the general properties of the data in the
database.

DPredictive mining tasks performs inference on the current data in order to

make predictions.

Ans.: A

Q38. Classification is the ___

AThe process of finding a model that describes and distinguishes data classes
or concepts for the purpose of being able to use the model to predict the class
of objects whose class label is unknown.

B From marketing perspective, determining which items are frequently

purchased together within the same transaction.

CDescriptive mining tasks characterize the general properties of the data in the
database.

DPredictive mining tasks performs inference on the current data to make

predictions.

Ans.: A

Q39. Clustering analyses is responsible for

AData objects without consulting a known class label.

B In many cases class labelled data may simply not exist at the beginning.

CCan be used to generate class label for the group of data.

DAll of the above

Ans.: D

Q40. Outlier Analysis is responsible for

AA database may contain data objects that do not comply with the general
behaviour or model of the data.

B Main object in cluster

CBad clusters

DObjects with class

Ans.: A

Q41. Frequent patterns are patterns

AThat appear in a data set frequently

B That appear in data book frequently

CThat appear in database frequently

DThat appear in data office frequently

Ans.: A

Q42. Market basket analysismay help you design

ASoftware

B store layouts

Coffice plan

Dhouse plan

Ans.: B

Q43. Apriori is a seminal algorithm proposed by

AR. Agrawal and R. Srikant

B R. Aadam and R. Swan

CR. Bhuvan and R. Pathak

DR. Jadhav and R. Sivam

Ans.: A

Q44. Association rule mining is finding

Afrequent pattern

B associations

Ccorrelations

DAll of the above

Ans.: D

Q45. Association rule mining applications are

ABasket data analysis

B cross-marketing

Ccatalog design

DAll of the above

Ans.: D

Q46. Uniform Support is responsible for

Areduced minimum support at lower levels

B Controlled level-cross filtering by single item

Cthe same minimum support for all levels

DNone of the above

Ans.: C

Q47. Reduced Support is used to

Areduced minimum support at lower levels

B Controlled unlevel-cross filtering by single item

Cthe same minimum support for all levels

DNone of the above

Ans.: A

Q48. Reduced support has following strategy

ALevel-by-level independent

B Level-cross filtering by k-itemset

CLevel-cross filtering by single item

DAll of the above

Ans.: D

Q49. Improving the Efficiency of Apriori algorithm include

AHash-based technique

B Partitioning

CSampling

DAll of the above

Ans.: D

Q50. Hash-based technique used to

Aused to reduce the size of the candidate

B used to reduce values of attributes

Cused to reduce size of the table

DNone of the above

Ans.: A

Q51. Transaction reduction is used to

Areducing the numbers

B used to reduce values of attributes

Cused to reduce size of the table

DNone of the above

Ans.: D

Q52. Partitioningresponsible for the

Apartitioning the data to find candidate itemsets and used that requires just
two database scans to mine the frequent itemsets

B cleaning the data to itemsets

Ctransform data

Dprepare data for improvement of Bayes

Ans.: A

Q53. Sampling refers to

Asample the dataset for cleaning

B Transform data in bining

Cpick a random sample S of the given data D, and then search for frequent

itemsets in S instead of D

DBining data in containers

Ans.: C

Q54. Knowledge type constraints is specifying the

AThese specify the type of knowledge to be mined, such

as association or correlation.

B These specify the set of task-relevant data.

CThese specify the desired dimensions (or attributes) ofthe data, or levels of
the concept hierarchies, to be used in mining.
DThese specify thresholds on statistical measures of ruleinterestingness, such
as support, confidence, and correlation.

Ans.: A

Q55. Interestingness constraints is specifying the

AThese specify the type of knowledge to be mined, suchas association or

correlation.

B These specify the set of task-relevant data.

CThese specify the desired dimensions (or attributes) ofthe data, or levels of
the concept hierarchies, to be used in mining.

DThese specify thresholds on statistical measures of ruleinterestingness, such

as support, confidence, and correlation.

Ans.: D

Q56. Data constraintsis specifying the

AThese specify the type of knowledge to be mined, suchas association or

correlation.

B These specify the set of task-relevant data.

CThese specify the desired dimensions (or attributes) ofthe data, or levels of
the concept hierarchies, to be used in mining.

DThese specify thresholds on statistical measures of ruleinterestingness, such

as support, confidence, and correlation.

Ans.: B

Q57. Dimension/level constraintsspecifying the

AThese specify the type of knowledge to be mined, suchas association or

correlation.

B These specify the set of task-relevant data.

CThese specify the desired dimensions (or attributes) ofthe data, or levels of
the concept hierarchies, to be used in mining.

DThese specify thresholds on statistical measures of ruleinterestingness, such

as support, confidence, and correlation.

Ans.: C

Q58. Constraint-based mining contents

ARule constraints

B Cluster Constraints

CClassification Constraints

DMining constraints

Ans.: A

Q59. Which constraints maybe expressed as metarules (rule templates), as

the maximum or minimum numberof predicates that can occur in the rule
antecedent or consequent, or as relationshipsamong attributes, attribute
values, and/or aggregates?

ARule constraints

B Dimension/level constraints

C. Data constraints

DPredication Constraints

Ans.: A

Q60. Apriori algorithm consist

AJoin step

B Prune step

Cboth A & B

Dnone of the above

Ans.: C
 Model Question Paper
Subject: Software Metrics & Quality Assurance
Branch: Computer Engineering & Information Technology
Class: BE
Semester: VIII

Sr. No. Questions Answer

Measurement helps us to focus on which of the following parameter

A. Understand
1) B. Control D
C. Improve
D. All of the above
Which of the following is not the Cost and Effort Estimation model
A. Boehm’s COCOMO model
2) B. Demarco's Approach B
C. Albrecht’s function model
D. Putnam’s SLIM Model
Which of the followings are the Reliability model
A. Jelinski-Moranda model
3) B. Little Wood model D
C. Little wood Verall Model
D. All of the above
Performance evaluation and models covers
A. Response time
4) B. Completion rates D
C. Internal workings of system
D. All of the above
Capability Maturity Assessment Model (CMM) has how many numbers of
levels
5) A. 3 C
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
Which of the following is not the type of empirical relation
A. UnaryB. Binary D
6) C. TernaryD. Machinery
Frankie is taller. This sentence belongs to which type of empirical
Relation? A
7) A. UnaryB. Binary
C. TernaryD. Machinery
Direct measurement of an attribute of an entity involves no other

1
8) attribute or entity.
A. True A
B. False
Indirect measurement of an attribute of an entity involves no other
attribute or entity.
9) A. True B
B. False
Which of the following is not the type of measurement scale?
A. Nominal
10) B. Ordinal D
C. Interval
D. Control
Which of the following is powerful measurement scale
A. Nominal
11) B. Ordinal D
C. Interval
D. Absolute
True Zero element is present in which type of measurement scale?
A. Nominal
12) B. Ordinal C
C. Ratio
D. Absolute
All arithmetic operations are applied to which type of measurement scale?
A. Nominal
13) B. Ordinal C
C. Ratio
D. Absolute
Only addition and subtraction operations are applied to which type of
measurement scale?
14) A. Nominal D
B. Ordinal
C. Ratio
D. Interval

Person A twice as tall as Person B. This statement is

15) A. Meaningful
B. Not Meaningful A
C. Both A and B
D. None of the above

The temperature in Shirpur today is twice that in Dhule.

A. Meaningful
16) B. Not Meaningful B
C. Both A and B
D. None of the above

Collection of software related activities is called as

2
 A. Process
17) B. Product A
C. Resources
D. None of the above
Classifying software metrics does not covers
A. Process
18) B. Product D
C. Resources
D. People
Which of the following is not the external attribute of product
A. Quality
19) B. Reliability D
C. Productivity
D. Software Size
Which of the following is the internal attribute of product
A. Quality
20) B. Reliability D
C. Productivity
D. Software Size
Which of the following is not the aspect of software size?
A. Length
21) B. Functionality D
C. Complexity
D. Quality
Which of the following is not the internal attribute of product?
A. Size
22) B. Structure C
C. Quality
Which of the following is not the type of reuse?
A. Reuse Verbatim
23) B. Slightly Modified D
C. Extensively Modified
D. Complete

Formula for finding function point is

A. FP=UFC*TCF
B. FP=UFC+TCF A
24) C. FP=UFC-TCF
D. FP=UFC/TCF

Logical master file is nothing but the_____

A. External Input
25) B. External Output D
C. External File
D. Internal File
Which of the following is not required to find function points?

3
 A. External Input
26) B. Temporary File B
C. External File
D. External Output
What is the function point FP if UFC=63and FP=0.93?
A. 60
27) B. 59.58 B
C. 58.59
D. 61
COCOMO stands for Constructive Cost Model
A. True A
28) B. False
Full form of COCOMO is
A. Constructive Cost Model
29) B. Cost Constructive Model A
C. Cost Quality Model
D. none of the above
Which of the following is not the measures of Demarco's Approach
A. Function Bang
30) B. Data Bang C
C. Cost Bang
D. None of the above
Which of the following is not the type of complexity?
A. Problem Complexity
31) B. Algorithmic Complexity D
C. Structural Complexity
D. Quality Complexity
Which of the following is not the aspect of structure?
A. Control Flow Structure
32) B. Data Flow Structure D
C. Data Structure
D. None of the above
The node whose out degree is more than 1 is called as
A. Predicated Node
33) B. Procedural Node A
C. Data Node
D. None of the above
Which of the following is not related to operations of flowgraph
A. SequencingB. Nesting C
34) C. Replacement D. None of the above

Morphology refers to overall “shape” of system structure when expressed

pictorially.
35) A. True A
B. False

Morphology characteristic includes

4
 A. Size
36) B. Depth D
C. Width
D. All of the above
Which of the following is not the type of coupling
A. Data Coupling
37) B. Stamp Coupling D
C. Control Coupling
D. Logical Coupling
Which of the following is not the type of cohesion
A. Functional
38) B. Sequential C
C. Control
D. Logical

39)
Above formula used for B
A.Control Flow Structure
B.Tree Impurity Measure
C.Calculation of UFP & TFP
D.None of these
Software quality assurance consists of the auditing and reportingfunctions
40) of management A
a) True
b) False
Which of the following is the task of project indicators:
A.help in assessment of status of ongoing project
41) B.track potential risk C
C.help in assessment of status of ongoing project & track potential risk
D.none of the mentioned
Who identifies, documents, and verifies that corrections have been made
to the software?
42) A.Project manager C
B.Project team
C.SQA group
D.All of the mentioned

Which metric is related to the software maintenance

43) A.Development B
B.Software
C.Process
D. Product
Software quality assurance consists of which function of management.
A.Reporting functionsB.Auditing functions C
44) C.Both A and B D. All of the above
Which of the following is not included in prevention cost?

5
 A.Equipment calibration and maintenance
45) B.Formal technical reviews A
C.Test equipment reviews
D. Quality planning reviews
Select what is the primary objective of formal technical reviews to find
during the process so that after the release of the software they do not
become the defect…
46) A.failure C
B.faults
C.errors
D.none of the mentioned
Select the option which is not an appraisal in SQA?
A.inter-process inspection
47) B.maintenance D
C.testing
D.quality planning
Which phase is considered as software architecture phase..
A.Design
48) B.Implementation A
C.Development
D.Requirement gathering
In which phase the defect is less costly…
A.Coding
49) B.Design C
C.Requirements Gathering
D. Implementation
Select which measurement taken by the two people are same refers to the
term which is called as…
A.Reliability A
50) B.Validity
C.Calibration
D.Ease of use and simplicity
The effort required for modifying an operational program.
A.Availability
51) B.Maintainability D
C.Portability
D.Flexibility
To achieve the software Quality is easily adaptable only with
programming skills?
52) A.True B
B.False
How many levels in the Process Maturity Model
A.6
53) B.5 B
C.4
D. 3
Which one is the level-2 in the process maturity

6
 A.Defined
54) B.Ad-hoc C
C.Repeatable
D. Managed
What is the long form of MTTR
A.Mean time to restore
55) B.Major time to repair D
C.Minimum time to restore
D.Mean time to repair
What is the full form of LOC
A.Lines of Constraints
56) B.Legal of Code D
C.Length of Code
D. Lines of Code
What is the formula of Function Point Calculation (FP)
A.FP = UFC * TCF
57) B.FP = UFC - TCF A
C.FP = UFC + TCF
D. FP = UFC / TCF
Which one is the level-5 in the process maturity
A.Defined
58) B.Optimizing C
C.Repeatable
D. Managed
What is the long form of MTTF
A.Major Time Between Failures
59) B.Mean Time Between Failures B
C.Mean Time Between Fault
D.Minimum Time Between Failures
Which one is the level-3 in the process maturity
A.Defined
60) B.Optimizing D
C.Repeatable
D. Defined

***

7
 Model Question Paper
Subject: iPhone Programming

Branch: Computer Engineering & I. T.

Class: BE

Semester: VIII

Q1. Which of the following framework is not used in iOS ?

AUIKit Framework

BAppKit Framework

CFoundation Framework

DCoreMotion Framework

Ans.: B

Q2. iOS stands for ?

AInternetwork Operating System

BiPhone Operating System

CInternet Operating System

DNone of Them

Ans.: B

Q3. The application has not been launched or was running but terminated by
the device.Determine the current state of App.

ASuspended state

BBackground state

CInactive state

DNot running state

Ans.: D
Q4. Flash Applications is supported in iPhone browsers.Is it true?

AYes

BNo

CIt supports flash applications from apple only

DSupports partially

Ans.: A

Q5.iOS remote push notification is introduced by apple in which version?

AiOS 2.0

BiOS 3.0

CiOS 4.0

DiOS 6.0

Ans.: B

Q6.Which of the following is a default UI property?

Aassign

Bnon-atomic

Catomic

DNone of them

Ans.: C

Q7. Multitasking in iOS was introduced in which version?

AiOS 2.0

BiOS 4.0

CiOS 6.0

DiOS 7.0
Ans.: B

Q8. What is the built-in database used in iOS ?

AMySQL

BSQLite

CApache

DOracle

Ans.: A

Q9. What is the core functionality of iPhone camera?

ARecord Videos

BZoom

CAuto Focus

DMake digital photos

Ans.: D

Q10. Creating a UI (User Interface) in Android requires careful use of

AJava and SQL

BXML and Java

C XML and C++

DDreamweaver

Ans.: B

Q11. The ___________ file specifies the layout of your screen.

ALayout file

BManifest file

CStrings XML
DR file

Ans.: A

Q12.The Iphone has a feature that activates when you rotate the device from
portrait to landscape.

ARotator

BAccelerometer

CShadow detector

DSpecial Sensor

Ans.: B

Q13. Which is not the characteristics of objective c ?

AOnly adds OOP to C

BHas no standard library; is dependent on other libraries

CHas numerous uses

DSimpler way of handling classes and objects

Ans.: C

Q14. NS Coversion character for float is ?

A%g

B%c

C%lg

D%nf

Ans.: A

Q15. Which arithmetic expression has left to right associativity ?

ARelational

BAssignment
Cconditional

Dunary

Ans.: A

Q16. Which of the data types has the size that is variable?

Aint

Bstruct

Cfloat

Ddouble

Ans.: B

Q17.What does the “id” type mean?

AThis is the general type for any kind of object regardless of class

BThis is a type for a specific object of class id

CThis is a type for strings

D None of the above

Ans.: A

Q18. What does an Objective-C string literal look like?

A“foo”

B#”foo”

C@”foo”

D$”foo”

Ans.: C

Q19. Can you call C++ code from objective C environment?

AYes, from any .mm file

BYes, from any .m file

C Yes, from any .xib file

DNo, it is not possible

Ans.: A

Q20. Does Objective-C have constructors and destructors?

AYes

BIt depends on the object

CNo, you use init and dealloc on Objective-C

DOnly NSStrings do

Ans.: C

Q21. What is not supported in Objective-C

ARecursive method call

BMethod argument default value

CVariable argument count to method

DByte manipulation

Ans.: B

Q22. Under what section the various functions are declared ?

Ainterface

Bimplementation

Cautorelease

DNSLog

Ans.: A

Q23. Under what section the various functions are defined ?

Ainterface

Bimplementation

Cautorelease

DNSLog

Ans.: B

Q24. What is NSLog ?

AIt is the function that is used to print the logs

BIt is the function that Display or log its argument

CIt is used to run the object.

DIt is the function that system uses to run the program after main

Ans.: B

Q25. What is the use of id datatype in objective c?

AIt is used default datatype

BIt is used to store object of any datatype

CIt is same as integer

DIt is use when some unique number is to be given

Ans.: B

Q26. Which is not a function of IOS

ACarrying network protocols and functions

BConnecting high speed traffic between devices

CProviding scalability for ease of network growth and redundancy

DCreating session between hosts in LAN

Ans.: D
Q27. Command to find the broadcast address from router

Ashow running-config

Bshow startup-config

Cshow interfaces

Dshow protocols

Ans.: C

Q28. What is the Xcode?

AIt is the integrated development environment (IDE) that developer use to

write software for IOS or OS X

BIt is the language most preferred by developer to write programs for apple

CIt is the application

D None of the above

Ans.: A

Q29. What is the Objective-C?

AIt is the integrated development environment (IDE) that developer use to

write software for IOS or OS X

BIt is the language most preferred by developer to write programs for apple

CIt is the application

D None of the above

Ans.: B

Q30. What is the Cocoa?

AIt is the integrated development environment (IDE) that developer use to

write software for IOS or OS X

BIt is the language most preferred by developer to write programs for apple
CIt is the application

D None of the above

Ans.: C

Q31. Mention what are the source items used by Xcode?

ASource File

BSource Group, Folder

CFramework

D All of the above

Ans.: D

Q32. XCode is the integrated development environment (IDE) that developer

use to write software for IOS or __________ applications ?

AC#

BAndroid

C OS X

D C++

Ans.: C

Q33. Which object is created by the UIApplicationMain function at app

launch time?

AAppMain

BAppDelegate

CUIMain

DNone of these.

Ans.: B

Q34. Which is true about the XCode command line tools?

AIs available free of charge

BIt can be installed without installing XCode.

CIs a self-contained package.

DAll of the above.

Ans.: D

Q35. When we use NSArray?

AWhen data in the array change

BWhen data in the array don't change

CCan only be obtained from a single direct parent class

DNone of these

Ans.: B

Q36. Name the application thread from where UIKit classes should be used?

AApplication's Local Thread

BApplication's Global Thread

CApplication's Deamon Thread

DApplication's Main Thread

Ans.: D

Q37. A special C data type that encapsulates other pieces of data into a single
cohesive unit is called?

Adouble

Bchar

Cint

Dstruct

Ans.: D
Q38. Which of the following is used to design GUI of Apps (Inbuilt feature of
the iPhone SDK) ?

ASimulator

BInstruments

CInterface Builder

DNone of these

Ans.: C

Q39. How many types of Protocols are there?

A5

B3

C2

D4

Ans.: C

Q40. What is resolution of iPad Min in portrait mode?

A1280X720

B768X1024

C720X1280

D1024X768

Ans.: D

Q41. What is meant by Nil?

ANil is meant for class pointers

BNil is meant for function pointers

CNil is meant for variable pointers

DNil is meant for object pointers

Ans.: A

Q42. What is "Protocol" in Objective C?

AA protocol can create new variables at runtime

BA protocol declares methods that can be implemented by any class

CA protocol is used to transfer data from one class to another

DNone of above

Ans.: B

Q43. Which are the app specific objects that stores the app's content?

AData model objects

BClass Objects

CData Driven objects

DDelegates

Ans.: A

Q44.What does DOM stands for?

AData Object Model

BDocument Of Model

CData Of Model

DDocument Object Model

Ans.: D

Q45. What is meaning of "synthesize" keyword ?

Acreate a new variable

Bcreates an empty space for new values

Cdeletes a variable
Dcreates a getter and a setter for the variable

Ans.: D

Q46. Which company owns Iphone?

AGoogle

BMicrosoft

COracle

DApple

Ans.: D

Q47. Iphone OS is based on which language?

AC++

BC

CJava

DBoth (A) and (B)

Ans.: D

Q48.Iphone has its OS under which licence?

AGPL

BBSD

CMPL

DProprietary

Ans.: D

Q49.What is the latest version of Iphone OS?

A 3.1

B 8.4
C 2.0

D 5.0

Ans.: B

Q50.What is the user interface of Iphone OS called?

ATouchwiz

BMobiface

CCocoa

DUniversal Mobile Interface

Ans.: C

Q51. How many generations are there for Iphone OS?

AOne generation

BThree generations

CFour generations

DTwo generations

Ans.: C

Q52. Who is responsible for development of Iphone OS?

ABill Gates

BSteve Jobs

CSteve Ballmer

DBarack Obama

Ans.: B

Q53. Which version of Iphone OS supports video calling and multitasking?

AIphone 3.2
BIphone 4.0

CIphone 5.0

DIphone 2.4

Ans.: B

Q54. When the activity is not in focus, but still visible on the screen it is in?

Arunning state

BPaused state

Cstopped state

Ddestroyed state

Ans.: B

Q55.What is face time in apple ?

ADigital Photos

BVideo Calls

CTaking Videos

DEditing Photos

Ans.: B

Q56. When an activity doesn’t exist in memory it is in.

AStarting state

BRunning state

CLoading state

DInexistent state

Ans.: A

Q57. Which of the following commands displays the syntax for the clock
command?
Acl?

Bclock?

Cclock ?

Dcl ?

Ans.: C

Q58. Which of the following statement is wrong ?

AIBAction is a type qualifier used by IB to enable connection user experience

elements and app code.

BIBAction resolves to void

CIBAction is a macro defined to denote a method that can be referred to in

Interface Builder

D None of the above

Ans.: D

Q59. Which of the following is a default UI property?

Aassign

Bnon-atomic

Catomic

DNone of them

Ans.: C

Q60. First IOS was written in

A 1984

B 1985

C 1986

D 1987
Ans.: C
 Model Question Paper
Subject: Compiler Design

Branch: Computer Engineering

Class: BE

Semester: VIII

Q1. A ____________ is a software that converts high level language to

assembly language.

A. Assembler
B. Linker
C. Loader
D. Compiler

Ans.: D

Q2. A system software which converts assembly language to machine

language is known as, ______________ .

A. Compiler
B. Loader
C. Assembler
D. Linker

Ans.: C

Q3. _________________ is a tool that produces input for the compiler

A. Processor
B. Linker
C. Pre-processor
D. None of the Above

Ans.: C

Q4. Macros can be called as ___________________ .

A. Small Functions
 B. Part of a Process
C. Routine
D. None of the above

Ans.: A

Q5. A ___________________ reads a statements from inputs, converts it into

intermediate code, execute it, and then takes the next statement.

A. Compiler
B. Interpreter
C. Assembler
D. Linker

Ans.: B

Q6. A compiler that’s run on platform (A) and is capable of generating

executable code for platform (B) is called as,

A. Compiler
B. Interpreter
C. Cross Compiler
D. Linker

Ans.: C

Q7. ______________________ is a part of an OS and is responsible for

loading executable files into memory & execute them.

A. Compiler
B. Interpreter
C. Assembler
D. Loader

Ans.: D

Q8. The output of assembler is called as _____________________ .

A. Object File
B. Executable File
C. Linking File
 D. None of the above

Ans.: A

Q9. ______________________ is a computer program that links & merges

various object file together in order to make an executable file.

A. Compiler
B. Linker
C. Assembler
D. Loader

Ans.: B

Q10. Perl, Python are the example of ___________________

A. Compiler
B. Linker
C. Interpreter
D. Loader

Ans.: C

Q11. C, C++ are the example of _________________

A. Compiler
B. Linker
C. Assembler
D. Loader

Ans.: A

Q12. Compiler Design started with ______________ in ____________

A. PASCAL, 1960
B. COBOL, 1952
C. FORTRAN, 1950
D. None of the above

Ans.: C

Q13. Linear Analysis is also called as ___________________

 A. Lexical Analysis or Scanning
B. Syntax Analysis or Parsing
C. Semantic Analysis
D. None of the above

Ans.: A

Q14. Sequence of a character that have a collective meaning is known as

_________________

A. String
B. Tokens
C. Directives
D. Words

Ans.: B

Q15. Hierarchical Analysis is also called as _____________________

A. Lexical Analysis or Scanning

B. Syntax Analysis or Parsing
C. Semantic Analysis
D. None of the above

Ans.: B

Q16. There are ______ Phases of Compiler

A. 5
B. 8
C. 4
D. 6

Ans.: D

Q17. Symbol Table is a _______________

A. Data Structure
B. Array
C. Pointer
D. Structure
Ans.: A

Q18. A ________________ is a description which is used by the tokens.

A. Lexemes
B. Tokens
C. Pattern
D. None of the above

Ans.: C

Q19. Read input character and produce token is the task perform by ______

A. Lexical Analysis
B. Syntax Analysis
C. Semantic Analysis
D. Code Generator

Ans.: A

Q20. Syntax Analysis generates ________________

A. Symbol Table
B. Error Code
C. Error Message
D. Parse Tree

Ans.: D

Q21. _________________ is a process of determining whether the a string of

tokens can be generated by grammar

A. Scanning
B. Parsing
C. Compiling
D. Linking

Ans.: B

Q22. Parser gets input from ________________

A. Syntax Analysis
 B. Semantic Analysis
C. Lexical Analysis
D. All of the above

Ans.: C

Q23. Parser is needed to detect ____________________ effectively.

A. Semantic Error
B. Lexical Error
C. Symbol Table Error
D. Syntactic Error

Ans.: D

Q24. A ____________________ error is an error which takes place during the

execution of a program.

A. Compile Time
B. Run Time
C. System Time
D. None of the above

Ans.: B

Q25. A _________________ error raises before the execution of program.

A. Compile Time
B. Run Time
C. Message
D. None of the above

Ans.: B

Q26. There are _______ error recovery strategies.

A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5

Ans.: C
Q27. CFG stands for _____________________________

A. Context Free Grammar

B. Context Format Grammar
C. Context Formal Grammar
D. Context Fly Grammar

Ans.: A

Q28. In CFG ‘V’ denotes for

A. Set of Non Terminals

B. Set of Terminals
C. Set of Productions
D. All of the above

Ans.: A

Q29. A grammar is denoted by ______________

A. Single
B. Double
C. Triple
D. Quadruple

Ans.: D

Q30. In CFG, Terminal symbols are denoted with the help of ______________

A. Upper Case Letter

B. Small Case Letter
C. Both A& B
D. None of the above

Ans.: B

Q31. A derivation in which production is applied to the left-most variable, is

called as _______________________

A. Leftmost Derivation
B. Rightmost Derivation
C. Simple Derivation
 D. None of the above

Ans.: A

Q32. A derivation in which production is applied to the rightmost variable, is

called as ______________________

A. Leftmost Derivation
B. Rightmost Derivation
C. Simple Derivation
D. None of the above

Ans.: B

Q33. ______________________ is a graphical representation of how

sentence has been derived from the given grammar G.

A. Flow Chart
B. Parse Tree
C. Derivation Tree
D. Both B & C

Ans.: D

Q34. For a grammar, if there exists at least one string which can be derived
in more than one way, then the grammar is called as, ___________________

A. Context Free Grammar

B. Regular Grammar
C. Ambiguous Grammar
D. All of the Above

Ans.: C

Q35. A grammar in which the leftmost variable of its RHS is exactly same as
variable of its LHS, such a grammar is known as, _____________________

A. Leftmost Grammar
B. Ambiguous Grammar
C. Left Recursive Grammar
D. Rightmost Grammar
Ans.: C

Q36. Left recursion is eliminated by converting the grammar into _________

A. Left Recursive
B. Right Recursive
C. Both A & B
D. None of the above

Ans.: B

Q37. ________________________ is a process by which the grammar with

common prefixes is transformed to make it useful for Top down parser.

A. Left Recursion
B. Leftmost Derivation
C. Left Factoring
D. None of the above

Ans.: C

Q38. The problem of Left Recursion is to create _______________

A. Segmentation Fault
B. Infinite Loop
C. Syntax Error
D. None of the above

Ans.: B

Q39. String of terminals means _______________________

A. Valid Word of the language

B. Characters
C. Sentence
D. All of the Above

Ans.: A

Q40. Sentential Forms means _______________________

A. Valid word of language

 B. String of terminal & non terminal
C. Characters
D. Sentence

Ans.: B

Q41. _________________ is a process of analysing a string of symbols

according to the rules of a formal grammar.

A. Scanning
B. Parsing
C. Executing
D. None of the above

Ans.: B

Q42. _____________________ is a construction of parse tree by starting at

start symbol & guessing each derivation until we reach a string that matches
an input

A. Bottom Up Parsing
B. Shift Reduce Parsing
C. Top Down Parsing
D. Backtracking

Ans.: C

Q43. Top down parsing technique used ______________

A. Leftmost Derivation
B. Rightmost Derivation
C. Left Recursion
D. Left Factorial

Ans.: A

Q44. The first function of given grammar is,

S ->aBDh
B ->cC
C->Bc
D->b
E->Cc

A. a,c,c,b,c
B. c,b,c,c,a
C. b,c,c,c,a
D. a,b,c,c,c

Ans.: A

Q45. _________________ is a set of terminals that can appear immediately

to the right of Non terminal X in some sentential form.

A. FIRST(X)
B. FOLLOW(X)
C. SECOND(X)
D. FINAL(X)

Ans.: B

Q46. Before calculating FIRST & FOLLOW function eliminating _____________

A. Leftmost Derivation
B. Left Factorial
C. Left Recursion
D. None of the Above

Ans.: C

Q47. Grammar for which we create predictive parser is called

______________

A. LL(1) Grammar
B. Leftmost Grammar
C. Rightmost Grammar
D. None of the above

Ans.: A
Q48. Construct the parse tree from for an input string beginning at the
leaves & working towards the root, that parsing is known as ______________

A. Top Down Parsing

B. Predictive Parsing
C. Backtracking
D. Bottom Up parsing

Ans.: D

Q49. ______________________ is a process of reducing a string to start

symbol of a grammar.

A. Predictive Parser
B. Shift Reduce Parser
C. Backtracking
D. Bottom Up Parser

Ans.: B

Q50. In LL(1) Grammar, second L stands for

A. Left to Right
B. Leftmost Derivation
C. Left Recursion
D. Left Factoring

Ans.: B

Q51. LR Parser is a type of ________________

A. Bottom Up Parser
B. Top Down Parser
C. Shift Reduce Parser
D. LL(1) Parser

Ans.: A

Q52. CLR Stands for

A. Clear
B. Canonical LR
 C. Correct LR
D. None of the above

Ans.: B

Q53. LR Parser ends with ______________

A. Terminal Symbol
B. Non Terminal Symbol
C. Start Symbol
D. None of the above

Ans.: C

Q54. YACC Stands for ______________

A. Yet Another Compiler Compiler

B. Yes And Compiler Compiler
C. Yet Another C Compiler
D. None of the above

Ans.: A

Q55. The output of YACC file is

A. yy.tab.cc
B. l.y
C. y.tab.c
D. lex.yacc

Ans.: C

Q56. FIRST of anon terminal is a very ______________ character.

A. Second
B. first
C. third
D. fourth

Ans.: B
Q57. Calculate the FOLLOW function of a non-terminal by looking where it is
present on the __________________ of a production side.

A. RHS
B. LHS
C. Both A & B
D. None of the above

Ans.: B

Q58. In LL(1) Grammar, 1 stands for

A. Using 1 input symbol for lookahead

B. Only one Output
C. Only one input & output
D. None of the above

Ans.: A

Q59. In LL(1) Grammar, first L stands for

A. Scanning input from Left to Right

B. Left Recursion
C. Left factoring
D. Leftmost derivation

Ans.: A

Q60. In CFG the terminal symbol presents at _________side.

A. Left
B. Right
C. Both A & B
D. None of the above

Ans.: B
 Model Question Paper
Subject: Compiler Design
Branch: Computer Engineering
Class: BE
Semester: VIII

Unit-I
Q1. What is the output of lexical analyzer?
a) A set of RE
b) Syntax Tree
c) Set of Tokens
d) String Character
Ans:c

Q2. What is an Object program?

a) Program written in machine language
b) Program to be translated into machine language
c) Translation of high-level language into machine language
d) None of the mentioned
Ans: c

Q3. Which concept of grammar is used in the compiler?

a) Lexical analysis
b) Parser
c) Code generation
d) Code optimization
Ans :b

Q4. Which of the following are Lexemes?

a) Identifiers
b) Constants
c) Keywords
d) All of the mentioned
Ans: d

Q5. What constitutes the stages of the compilation process?

a) Feasibility study, system, design, and testing
b) Implementation and documentation
c) Lexical analysis, syntax, Analysis and code generation
d) None of the mentioned
Ans:c

Q6. The lexical analyzer takes _________ as input and produces a stream of _______ as output.
a) Source program, tokens
b) Token, source program
c) Either of the two
d) None of the mentioned
Ans :a

Q7. Parsing is also known as ________

a) Lexical Analysis
b) Syntax Analysis
c) Semantic Analysis
d) Code Generation
Ans :b

Q8. Which of the following groups is/are token together into semantic structures?
a) Syntax analyzer
b). Intermediate code generation
c). Lexical analyzer
d. Semantic analyzer
Ans:c

Q9. Compiler should report the presence of __________ in the source program, in translation process.
a) Classes
b) Objects
c) Errors
d) Text
Ans:c

Q10. Compiler can check ________ error.

a) Logical
b) Syntax
c) Content
d) Both A and B
Ans:b

Q11. What is the name of the process that determining whether a string of tokens can be generated by a
grammar?
a) Analysing
b) Recognizing
c) Translating
d) Parsing
Ans:d

Q12. Lexical analyser generates the next token

a) When it is asked for
b) By maintaining a repository of tokens
c) By scanning the whole input
d) None of the other option
Ans:a

Q13. Lexical analysis and parsing are put as two different phases so as to
a) Make design simple
b) Improve efficiency
c) Enhance portability
d) All of the other options
Ans:d

Q14. When expression sum=3+2 is tokenized then what is the token category of 3?
a) Identifier
b) Assignment operator
c) Integer Literal
d) Addition Operator
Ans:c

Q15. In an aboslute loading scheme, which loader function is accomplished by programmer?

a. Allocation
b. LInking
c. Reallocation
d. both (A) and (B)
Ans:d

Q16. Advantage of using assembly language rather than machine language is that
a. it is mneomonic and easy to read
b. addresses any symbolic not absolute
c. introduction of data to program is easier
d. All of these
Ans: d

Q17. An interpreter is a program that

a) places programs into memory and prepares them for execution
b) automates the translation of assembly language into machine language.
c) accesses a program written in a high level language and produces an object program.
d) appears to execute a source program as if it were machine language.
Ans: d

Q18. A optimizing compiler

a)Is optimized to take less time for execution
b)Optimized the code
c)Is optimized to occupy less space
d)None of the mentioned
Ans;b

Q19. In a compiler, keywords of a language are recognized during -

a) the code generation
b) parsing of the program
c) the lexical analysis of the program
d) dataflow analysis
Ans:c

Q20. A compiler for a high-level language that runs on one machine and produces code for a different machine
is called
a. optimizing compiler
b. one pass compiler
c. cross compiler
d. multipass compiler
Ans:a

Unit-II

Q21. The most suitable data structure used to represent the derivations in compiler:
a) Queue
b) Linked List
c) Tree
d) Hash Tables
Ans:c

Q22. The process of assigning load addresses to the various parts of the program and adjusting the code and data
in the program to reflect the assigned addresses is called?
a) Assembly
b) Parsing
c) Relocation
d) Symbol resolute
Ans:c

Q23. Which among the following is the root of the parse tree?
a) Production P
b) Terminal T
c) Variable V
d) Starting Variable S
Ans:d

Q24. Given the following expression grammar:

E -> E * F | F+E | F
F -> F-F | id
which of the following is true?
a) * has higher precedence than +
b) – has higher precedence than *
c) + and — have same precedence
d) + has higher precedence than *
Ans:b

Q25. Which of the following suffices to convert an arbitrary CFG to an LL(1) grammar?
a) Removing left recursion only
b) Factoring the grammar alone
c) Factoring & left recursion removal
d) None of the mentioned
Ans: d

Q26. Which of the following describes a handle (as applicable to LR-parsing) appropriately?
a) Position where next reduce or shift operation will occur
b) The next step has use of Non-terminal for reduction
c) Used for reduction in a coming-up step along with a position in the sentential form where the next shift or
reduce operation will occur
d) Used in the next step for reduction along with a position in the sentential form where the right hand side of
the production may be found
Ans: d

Q27. Which of the following statement is false in context of tree terminology?

a) Root with no children is called a leaf
b) A node can have three children
c) Root has no parent
d) Trees are collection of nodes, with a parent child relationship
Ans:a

Q28. The grammar A → AA | (A) | ε is not suitable for predictive-parsing because the grammar is?
a) Ambiguous
b) Left recursive
c) Right recursive
d) An operator grammar
Ans: b

Q29. The number of leaves in a parse tree with expression E*(E) where * and () are operators
a) 5
b) 2
c) 4
d) 3
Ans:a

Q30. Which of these is not true about the Symbol Table?

a) All the labels of the instructions are symbols
b) Table has entry for symbol name address value
c) Perform the processing of the assembler directives
d) Created during pass 1
Ans :c

Q31. Assume the statements S1 and S2 given as:

S1: Given a context free grammar, there exists an algorithm for determining whether L (G) is infinite.
S2: There exists an algorithm to determine whether two context free grammars generate the same language.
Which of the following is true?
a) S1 is correct and S2 is not correct
b) Both S1 and S2 are correct
c) Both S1 and S2 are not correct
d) S1 is not correct and S2 is correct
Ans: a

Q32. Grammar that produce more than one Parse tree for same sentence is ___________
a) Ambiguous
b) Unambiguous
c) Complementation
d) Concatenation Intersection
Ans :a

Q33. Grammars that can be translated to DFAs is ___________

a) Left linear grammar
b) Right linear grammar
c) Generic grammar
d) All of the mentioned
Ans: b

Q34. In left factoring,

I : We make one production for each common prefixes.
II: The common prefix may be a terminal or a non-terminal or a combination of both.
a) Both are correct statements
b) Both are wrong statements
c) Only I is correct statement
d) Only II is correct statements
Ans: a

Q35. Choose the correct statement.

a) CFG is not LR
b) Ambiguous Grammar can never be LR
c) CFG is not LR & Ambiguous Grammar can never be LR
d) None of the mentioned
Ans:c

Q36.
I) In the syntax analysis phase, a compiler verifies whether or not the tokens generated by the lexical analyzer
are grouped according to the syntactic rules of the language.
II) his is done by a parser.
The parser obtains a string of tokens from the lexical analyzer and verifies that the string can be the grammar for
the source language.
a) Both are correct statements
b) Both are wrong statements
c) Only I is correct statement
d) Only II is correct statements
Ans: a

Q37.
I)Ambiguity of a grammar is undecidable
II)There is particular algorithm for removing the ambiguity of a grammar.
a) Both are correct statements
b) Both are wrong statements
c) Only I is correct statement
d) Only II is correct statements
Ans: c

Q38.
I) A character sequence which is not possible to scan into any valid token is a lexical error.
II) Removes one character from the remaining input is useful Error recovery method.
a) Both are correct statements
b) Both are wrong statements
c) Only I is correct statement
d) Only II is correct statements
Ans: a

Q39. Which of the following are always unambiguous?

a) Deterministic Context free grammars
b) Non-Deterministic Regular grammars
c) Context sensitive grammar
d) None of the mentioned
Ans :a

Q40. A CFG is not closed under

a) Dot operation
b) Union Operation
c) Concatenation
d) Iteration
Ans:c

Unit:III
Q41. Which of the following derivations does a top-down parser use while parsing an input string?
a) Leftmost derivation
b) Leftmost derivation in reverse
c) Rightmost derivation
d) Rightmost derivation in reverse
Ans:a

Q42. Which of the following statements is false?

a) Left as well as right most derivations can be in Unambiguous grammar
b) An LL (1) parser is a top-down parser
c) LALR is more powerful than SLR
d) Ambiguous grammar can’t be LR (k)
Ans:a

Q43. Which one of the following is a top-down parser?

a) Recursive descent parser
b) Operator precedence parser
c) An LR(k) parser
d) An LALR(k) parser
Ans :a

Q44. Which of the following suffices to convert an arbitrary CFG to an LL(1) grammar?
a) Removing left Recursive alone
b) Factoring the grammar alone
c) Along with removing left recursion we also perform the factoring of the grammar
d) None of the mentioned
Ans:d

Q45. Inherited attribute is a natural choice in ___________

a) Variable declarations record is maintained
b) L values and R values
c) All of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned
Ans:a

Q46. YACC builds up __________

a) SLR parsing table
b) Canonical LR parsing table
c) LALR parsing table
d) None of the mentioned
Ans:c
Q47. A parser with the valid prefix property is advantageous because it __________
a) Detects errors
b) None of the mentioned
c) Errors are passed to the text phase
d) All of the mentioned
Ans:c

Q48. A top down parser generates __________

a) Rightmost Derivation
b) Right most derivation in reverse
c) Left most derivation
d) Left most derivation in reverse
Ans:c

Q49. A bottom up parser generates __________

a) Right most derivation
b) Rightmost derivation in reverse
c) Leftmost derivation
d) Leftmost derivation in reverse
Ans:b

Q49. Which of these is true about LR parsing?

a) Is most general non-backtracking shift-reduce parsing
b) It is still efficient
c) Is most general non-backtracking shift-reduce parsing & It is still efficient
d) None of the mentioned
Ans:c

Q50. Which of the following is incorrect for the actions of A LR-Parser I) shift s ii) reduce A->ß iii) Accept
iv) reject?
a) Only I)
b) I) and ii)
c) I), ii) and iii)
d) I), ii) , iii) and iv)
Ans:c

Q51. If a state does not know whether it will make a shift operation or reduction for a terminal is called
_________
a) Shift/reduce conflict
b) Reduce /shift conflict
c) Shift conflict
d) Reduce conflict
Ans:a

Q52. When there is a reduce/reduce conflict?

a) If a state does not know whether it will make a shift operation using the production rule i or j for a
terminal
b) If a state does not know whether it will make a shift or reduction operation using the production rule i or j
for a terminal
c) If a state does not know whether it will make a reduction operation using the production rule i or j for a
terminal
d) None of the mentioned
Ans:c

Q53. The original YACC as written in __________ language

a) R programming language
b) C programming language
c) B programming language
d) None of the mentioned
Ans:c
Q54 Which of these is also known as look-head LR parser?
a) SLR
b) LR
c) LLR
d) None of the mentioned
Ans:c

Q55. An LR-parser can detect a syntactic error as soon as __________

a) The parsing starts
b) It is possible to do so a left-to-right scan of the input
c) It is possible to do so a right-to-left scan of the input
d) Parsing ends
Ans:b

Q56. Assume that the SLR parser for a grammar G has n1 states and the LALR parser for G has n2 states.
The relationship between n1 and n2 is
a) n1 is necessary less than n2
b) n1 is necessary equal to n2
c) n1 is necessary greater than n2
d) None of the above.
Ans:b

Q57.
I: SLR parser is a type of LR parser with small parse tables and a relatively simple parser generator algorithm.
II: SLR and the more-general methods LALR parser and Canonical LR parser have identical methods and similar
tables at parse time; they differ only in the mathematical grammar analysis algorithms used by the parser
generator tool.
a) Both are correct statements
b) Both are wrong statements
c) Only I is correct statement
d) Only II is correct statements
Ans: a

Q58. What is the grammar for the below equations?

S→CC
C→cC|d
a) LL(1)
b) SLR(1) but not LL(1)
c) LALR(1) but not SLR(1)
d) LR(1) but not LALR(1)
Ans:a

Q59. Consider the following grammar G.

S→F⎪H
F→p⎪c
H→d⎪c
Which one is true?
S1: All strings generated by G can be parsed with help of LL (1).
S2: All strings generated by G can be parsed with help of LR (1).
a) Only S1
b) Only S2
c) Both S1 & S2
d) None of the mentioned
Ans:d

Q60. Consider the grammar with non-terminals N = { S, C, S1 }, terminals T = { a, b, i, t, e }, with

S as the start symbol, and the following set of rules:
S→iCtSS1|a S1→eS|ε, C→b

The grammar is NOT LL(1) because:

a) it is left recursive
b) it is right recursive
c) it is ambiguous
d) it is not context free
Ans:a
 Model Question Paper
Subject: Data Warehousing & Mining

Branch: Computer

Class: BE

Semester: VIII

Q1. Which of the following statement is true?

A.The data warehouse consists of data marts and operational data
B.The data warehouse is used as a source for the operational data
C.The operational data are used as a source for the data warehouse
D.All of the above
Ans.: C

Q2. The following is true of three-tier data warehouses:

A.Once created, the data marts will keep on being updated from the data
warehouse at periodic times
B.Once created, the data marts will directly receive their new data from the
operational databases
C.The data marts are different groups of tables in the data warehouse
D.A data mart becomes a data warehouse when it reaches a critical size
Ans.: A

Q3. A data warehouse is which of the following?

A. Can be updated by end users.
B. Contains numerous naming conventions and formats.
C. Organized around important subject areas.
D. Contains only current data.
Ans.: C

Q4. An operational system is which of the following?

A. A system that is used to run the business in real time and is based on
historical data.
B. A system that is used to run the business in real time and is based on current
data.
C. A system that is used to support decision making and is based on current
data.
D. A system that is used to support decision making and is based on historical
data.
Ans.: B

Q5. Data transformation includes which of the following?

A. A process to change data from a detailed level to a summary level
B. A process to change data from a summary level to a detailed level
C. Joining data from one source into various sources of data
D. Separating data from one source into various sources of data
Ans.: A

Q6. __________ is a subject-oriented, integrated, time-variant, nonvolatile

collection of data in support of management decisions.
A. Data Mining.
B. Data Warehousing.
C. Web Mining.
D. Text Mining.
Ans.: B

Q7. Expansion for DSS in DW is__________.

A. Decision Support system.
B. Decision Single System.
C. Data Storable System.
D. Data Support System.
Ans.: A
Q8. The important aspect of the data warehouse environment is that data
found within the data warehouse is___________.
A. subject-oriented.
B. time-variant.
C. integrated.
D. All of the above.
Ans.: D

Q9. __________describes the data contained in the data warehouse.

A. Relational data.
B. Operational data.
C. Metadata.
D. Informational data.
Ans.: C

Q10. Which of the following process includes data cleaning, data integration,
data transformation, data selection, data mining, pattern evaluation and
knowledge presentation?

A. KDD process

B. ETL process

C. KTL process

D. None of the above

Ans.: A

Q11. At which level we can create dimensional models?

A. Business requirements level

B. Architecture models level

C. Detailed models level

D. Implementation level

Ans.: B

Q12. The full form of OLAP is

A. Online Analytical Processing

B. Online Advanced Processing
C. Online Advanced Preparation
D. Online Analytical Performance

Ans.: A

Q13. The data is stored, retrieved and updated in ....................

A. OLAP
B. OLTP
C. SMTP
D. FTP
Ans.: B

Q14. An .................. system is market-oriented and is used for data analysis

by knowledge workers, including managers, executives, and analysts.
A. OLAP
B. OLTP
C. Both of the above
D. None of the above

Ans.: A

Q15. Dimensionality reduction reduces the data set size by removing

____________.
A. relevant attributes.
B. irrelevant attributes.
C. derived attributes.
D. composite attributes.
Ans.: B

Q16. Removing duplicate records is a process called _____________.

A. recovery.
B. data cleaning.
C. data cleansing.
D. data pruning.
Ans.: B

Q17._________ is the input to KDD.

A. Data.
B. Information.
C. Query.
D. Process.
Ans.: A

Q18. The KDD process consists of ________ steps.

A. three.
B. four.
C. five.
D. six.
Ans.: C
Q19. Treating incorrect or missing data is called as ___________.
A. selection.
B. preprocessing.
C. transformation.
D. interpretation.
Ans.: B
Q20. Converting data from different sources into a common format for
processing is called as ________.
A. selection.
B. preprocessing.
C. transformation.
D. interpretation.
Ans.: C

Q21. What are the specific application oriented databases?

A. Spatial databases,

B. Time-series databases,

C. Both a & b

D. None of these

Ans.:C

Q22. The Synonym for data mining is

A. Data warehouse

B. Knowledge discovery in database

C. ETL

D. Business intelligence

Ans.: B

Q23. Which of the following is not a data mining functionality?

A. Characterization and Discrimination
B. Classification and regression
C. Selection and interpretation
D. Clustering and Analysis

Ans.: C

Q24...................... is an essential process where intelligent methods are

applied to extract data patterns.
A. Data warehousing
B. Data mining
C. Text mining
D. Data selection

Ans.: B

Q25. The output of KDD is .............

A. Data
B. Information
C. Query
D. Useful information

Ans.: D

Q26. Which statement about outliers is true?

A. Outliers should be identified and removed from a dataset.

B. Outliers should be part of the training dataset but should not be present in
the test data.

C. Outliers should be part of the test dataset but should not be present in the
training data.

D. The nature of the problem determines how outliers are used.

Ans.: D

Q27. ____________predicts future trends & behaviors, allowing business

managers to make proactive, knowledge-driven decisions.
A. Data warehouse.
B. Data mining.
C. Datamarts.
D. Metadata.
Ans.: B

Q28. Data mining is?

A. time variant non-volatile collection of data

B. The actual discovery phase of knowledge

C. The stage of selecting the right data

D. None of these

Ans.: B

Q29. Which of the following can also applied to other forms?

A. Data streams & Sequence data

B. Networked data

C. Text & Spatial data

D. All of These

Ans.: D

Q30. Which of the following is a general characteristic or features of a target

class of data?

A. Data selection

B. Data discrimination

C. Data Classification

D. Data Characterization

Ans.: D

Q31. Data mining is a tool for allowing users to find the hidden relationships
in data.

A. TRUE
B. FALSE

Ans.: A

Q32. Classification and regression are the properties of…

A. data analysis

B. data manipulation’

C. data mining

D. none of these

Ans.: C

Q33. We define a ______ as a subdivision of a set of examples into a number

of classes.

A. kingdom

B. tree

C. classification

D. array

Ans.: C

Q34. Group of similar objects that differ significantly from other objects is
named as …

A. classification

B. cluster

C. community

D. none of these

Ans.: B

Q35. Which of the following is true for Classification?

A. A subdivision of a set
B. A measure of the accuracy

C. The task of assigning a classification

D. All of these

Ans.: A

Q36. ............................. is a summarization of the general characteristics or

features of a target class of data.
A. Data Characterization
B. Data Classification
C. Data discrimination
D. Data selection

Ans.: A

Q37. The full form of KDD is ..................

A. Knowledge Database
B. Knowledge Discovery Database
C. Knowledge Data House
D. Knowledge Data Definition

Ans.: B

Q38. Cluster is

A. Group of similar objects that differ significantly from other objects

B. Operations on a database to transform or simplify data in order to prepare

it for a machine-learning algorithm

C. Symbolic representation of facts or ideas from which information can

potentially be extracted

D. None of these

Ans.: A

Q39. Hidden knowledge referred to

A. A set of databases from different vendors, possibly using different database

paradigms
 B. An approach to a problem that is not guaranteed to work but performs well
in most cases

C. Information that is hidden in a database and that cannot be recovered by a

simple SQL query.

D. None of these

Ans.: C

Q40. The various aspects of data mining methodologies is/are ...................

i) Mining various and new kinds of knowledge

ii) Mining knowledge in multidimensional space

iii) Pattern evaluation and pattern or constraint-guided mining.

iv) Handling uncertainty, noise, or incompleteness of data

A. i, ii and iv only

B. ii, iii and iv only

C. i, ii and iii only

D. All i, ii, iii and iv

Ans.: D

Q41. Which of the following is NOT a valid association rule?

A. A -> B

B. B -> A

C. A -> D

D. D -> A

Ans.: C

Q42. The left hand side of an association rule is called __________.

A. consequent.
B. onset.
C. antecedent.
D. precedent.
Ans.: C
Q43. The right hand side of an association rule is called _____.
A. consequent.
B. onset.
C. antecedent.
D. precedent.
Ans.: A

Q44. All set of items whose support is greater than the user-specified
minimum support are called as _____________.
A. border set.
B. frequent set.
C. maximal frequent set.
D. lattice.
Ans.: B

Q45. Apriori algorithm is otherwise called as __________.

A. width-wise algorithm.
B. level-wise algorithm.
C. pincer-search algorithm.
D. FP growth algorithm.
Ans.:B
Q46. The APriori algorithm is a ___________.
A. top-down search.
B. breadth first search.
C. depth first search.
D. bottom-up search.
Ans.: D
Q47. The first phase of APriori algorithm is _______.
A. Candidate generation.
B. Itemset generation.
C. Pruning.
D. Partitioning.
Ans.: A
Q48. The second phase of APriori algorithm is ____________.
A. Candidate generation.
B. Itemset generation.
C. Pruning.
D. Partitioning.
Ans.: C

Q49. After the pruning of apriori algorithm, _______ will remain.

A. Only candidate set.
B. No candidate set.
C. Only border set.
D. No border set.
Ans.: B

Q50. The FP-growth algorithm has ________ phases.

A. one.
B. two.
C. three.
D. four.
Ans.: B

Q51. A frequent itemset is one which satisfies the:

A. Support criteria

B. Confidence criteria

C. Both support and confidence criteria

D. None of the above

Ans.: A

Q52. The minimum support is 60% and the minimum confidence is 80%.

Trans_id Itemlist

T1 {F, A, D, B}

T2 {D, A, C, E, B}

T3 {C, A, B, E}
T4 {B, A, D}

The 1-itemsets that satisfy the support criteria are:

A. {A}, {B}, {C}, {D}

B. {A}. {B}, {C}

C. {A}, {B}

D. None of the above

Ans.: C

Q53. Association rules are always defined on ________.

A. Binary attribute.

B. Single attribute.

C. Relational database.

D. Multidimensional attribute.

Ans.: A

Q54. The apriori property means

A. If a set cannot pass a test, all of its supersets will fail the same test as well

B. To improve the efficiency the level-wise generation of frequent item sets

C. If a set can pass a test, all of its supersets will fail the same test as well

D. To decrease the efficiency the level-wise generation of frequent item sets

Ans.: B

Q55. A frequent pattern tree is a tree structure consisting of ________.

A. an item-prefix-tree.
B. a frequent-item-header table.
C. a frequent-item-node.
D. both A & B.
Ans.: D
Q56. The partition algorithm uses _______ scans of the databases to discover
all frequent sets.
A. two.
B. four.
C. six.
D. eight.
Ans.: A

Q57. The basic idea of the apriori algorithm is to generate________ item sets
of a particular size & scans the database.

A. candidate.
B. primary.
C. secondary.
D. superkey.

Ans.: A

Q58. ________is the most well known association rule algorithm and is used
in most commercial products.
A. Apriori algorithm.
B. Partition algorithm.
C. Distributed algorithm.
D. Pincer-search algorithm

Ans.: A

Q59. An algorithm called________is used to generate the candidate item sets

for each pass after the first.
A. apriori.
B. apriori-gen.
C. sampling.
D. partition.

Ans.: B

Q60. The number of iterations in apriori ___________ Select one:

A. increases with the size of the data

B. decreases with the increase in size of the data

C. increases with the size of the maximum frequent set

D. decreases with increase in size of the maximum frequent set

Ans.: C
 Model Question Paper
Subject: Mobile Computing

Branch: Computer Engineering

Class: BE

Semester: VIII

Q1. Which of the following stores all the user-related data that is relevant for
the GSM system in mobile computing?

A.SIM

B. HLR

C. ELR

D. VLR

Ans.: A

Q2. Which of the following stores Mobile Subscriber ISDN number –

MSISDN?

A. Home location register

B. Visitor location register

C. Entity equipment register

D. None of the above

Ans.: A

Q3. The base station covers a specific area that is called a ——

A. Cell

B. Tessellate

C. Mobile station

D. None of the above

Ans.: A

Q4. In a cellular system, the shape of the cell depends on —–

A. Environmental conditions

B. Social conditions

C. Political conditions

D. None of the above

Ans.: A

Q5. Cellular System or having small cells needs ——–

A. Handover

B. Infrastructure

C. Frequency planning

D. All of the above

Ans.: D

Q6. Which of the following provides packet mode data transfer service over
the cellular network system?

A. GSM

B. GPRS

C. TCP

D. None of the above

Ans.: B

Q7. Which of the following services/ services are defined by the GSM?

A. Bearer

B. Supplementary

C. Telephony
D. All of the above

Ans.: D

Q8. Bluetooth Technology supports

A. Piconet

B. Ad hoc piconet

C. Scatter net

D. All of the above

Ans.: D

Q9. Which of the following wireless technology is used for exchanging data
between a variety of fixed and mobile devices over a very short diameter?

A. Mobile technology

B. Bluetooth Technology

C Ad hoc computing

D. None of the above

Ans.: B

Q10. In Bluetooth which of the following device decides hopping sequence?

A. Master

B. Parked

C. Standby

D. Slave

Ans.: A

Q11. Which of the following uses high-frequency radio waves instead of

cables for connecting the devices in LAN?

A. Wired LAN
B. Wireless LAN

C. Fiber made LAN

D. None of the above

Ans.: B

Q12. Most WLANs are based upon the standard—-

A. IEEE 802.2

B. IEEE 802.11

C. IEEE 802.5

D. IEEE 802.15

Ans.: B

Q13. Which of the following is/are the advantages of a wireless LAN?

A. Flexibility

B. Ease of use

C. Robustness

D. All of the above

Ans.: D

Q14. Disadvantages of WLANs include —–

A. Interference and noise

B. Slower than wired

C. Greater care is needed for encryption

D. All of the above

Ans.: D

Q15. In piconet devices connected with the master is called

A. Slaves

B. Parked

C. Standby

D. None of the above

Ans.: A

Q16. The most important feature/s of mobile computing technology is/are —

A. Mobility

B. Portability

C. Wireless connectivity

D. All of the above

Ans.: D

Q17. Which of the following is the base of most mobile communications?

A. GSM

B. GPRS

C. CDMA

D. None of the above

Ans.: A

Q18. Which of the following allow the use of only some part of bandwidth?

A. TDMA

B. FDMA

C. Both a and b

D. None of the above

Ans.: C
Q19. Group of cells without overlapping gaps is called ——

A. Cell

B. Tessellate

C. Mobile station

D. None of the above

Ans.: B

Q20. In a cellular system, the shape of the cell is generally —–

A. Hexagon

B. Circular

C. Square

D. None of the above

Ans.: A

Q21. Important mobile computing application/s is/are —–

A. Education

B. Sports

C. Games

D. All of the above

Ans.: D

Q22. Challenges of mobile computing include ———

A. Low Security

B. Ad hoc Networking

C. Shared medium

D. All of the above

Ans.: D

Q23. The overlapping portion of two piconets is called——–

A. Piconet

B. Ad hoc piconet

C. Scatter net

D. All of the above

Ans.: C

Q24. Bluetooth technology is used for —-

A. Connection of peripheral devices

B. Ad-hoc networking

C. Bridging network gaps

D. All of the above

Ans.: D

Q25. In Bluetooth which of the following device follow the hopping

sequence?

A. Master

B. Parked

C. Standby

D. Slave

Ans.: D

Q26. Electronic commerce transactions that are conducted with a mobile

device are

A. Mobile Commerce (M-Commerce)

B. Mobile Portal
C. Location-Based Commerce (L-Commerce)

D. Mobile Computing

Ans.: A

Q27. A wireless technology that allows manufacturers to attach tags with

antennas and computer chips to goods and then track their movement
through radio signals

A. Near-Field Communication (NFC)

B. Wireless Sensor Networks (WSN)

C. Wireless Fidelity (WiFi)

D. Radio-Frequency Identification (RFID) Technology

Ans.: D

Q28. Chip technology that enables shirt-range connections between wireless

devices

A. Wireless

B. Hotspot

C. Voice Portal

D. Bluetooth

Ans.: D

Q29.A real-time connection between a mobile decide and other computing

environments, such as the Internet and an intranet

A. Mobile Wallet

B. Mobile Computing

C. Pervasive Computing

D. Mobile Portal

Ans.: B
Q30.Phones the provide two-way radio communications over a cellular
network of base stations with seamless handoffs

A. Bluetooth

B. Infrared

C. Cellular Phones

D. Mobile Wallet

Ans.: C

Q31. 3G W-CDMA is also known as

A. UMTS

B. DECT

C. DCS-1800

D. ETACS

Ans.: A

Q32. Which of the following is the world’s first cellular system to specify
digital modulation and network level architecture?

A.GSM

B. AMPS

C. CDMA

D. IS-54

Ans.: A

Q33. Previously in 1980s, GSM stands for ____________

A. Global system for mobile

B. Groupe special mobile

C. Global special mobile

D .Groupe system mobile

Ans.: B

Q34. Who sets the standards of GSM?

A. ITU

B. AT & T

C. ETSI

D. USDC

Ans.: C

Q35. Which of the following comes under supplementary ISDN services?

A. Emergency calling

B. Packet switched protocols

C. Call diversion

D. Standard mobile telephony

Ans.: C

Q36. Which of the following memory device stores information such as

subscriber’s identification number in GSM?
A. Register

B. Flip flop
C. SIM

D. SMS

Ans.: C

Q37. Which of the following does not come under subsystem of GSM
architecture?

A. BSS
B. NSS

C. OSS

D. Channel

Ans.: D

Q38. Which of the following subsystem provides radio transmission between

mobile station and MSC?

A. BSS

B. NSS

C. OSS

D. BSC

Ans.: A

Q39. ___________ manages the switching function in GSM.

A. BSS

B. NSS

C. OSS

D. BSC

Ans.: B

Q40. __________ supports the operation and maintenance of GSM.

A. BSS

B. NSS

C. OSS

D. BSC

Ans.: C

Q41. A GPRS Network is a part of ____ in GSM network.

A. BTS

B. BSS

C. NSS

D. VLR

Ans.: C

Q42. Which is the organization providing standards for GPRS network?

A. ANSI

B. ETSI

C. 3GPP

D. UMTS
Ans.: C
Q43. Which is the main protocol that transfers packets in a GPRS Core
network?

A. GTP

B. SSTP

C. SCTP

D. None

Ans.: A

Q44. A GPRS Network works same in _____.

A.2G
B.3G
C.2G and /or 3G
D. 4G
Ans.: C
Q45.What is the interface between BSC and SGSN in a GPRS Network
Structure?

A. Ga

B. Gb

C. Gc

D. Gd

Ans.: B

Q46. What is the interface between SGSN and GGSN in a GPRS network?

A. Ga

B. Gb

C. Gn

D. Gd

Ans.: C

Q47. What is the interface between GGSN and Inter-PLMN GPRS network?

A. Ga

B. Gb

C. Gp

D. Gd

Ans.: C

Q48. What is the interface between GGSN and External Packet Network(
Internet ) in a GPRS structure?

A. Ga

B. Gb

C. Gp
D. Gi

Ans.: D

Q49. What is the interface between SGSN and MSC/VLR in a GPRS network?

A. Gs

B. Gb

C. Gp

D. Gd

Ans.: A

Q50. The Gb interface in a GRPS network uses which protocol?

A. Frame Relay

B. IP

C. Frame Realy or IP protocol

D.None

Ans.: C

Q51. The Gd interface in a GPRS network uses which protocol?

A.MAP 1 (MAP- Message Application Protocol)
B.MAP 2
C.MAP 3
D. All MAP1, MAP2 and MAP3
Ans.: D

Q52. GPRS stands for?

A. General Packet Repair Service

B. General Packet Radio Service

C. Graphics Packet Radio Service

D. None

Ans.: B

Q53. What is the data rate or speed offered by a GPRS connection?

A.56-115kbps

B.9-256kbps

C.64-128kbps

D.None

Ans.: A

Q54. GPRS services belong to which generation?

A.1G
B.2G
C.3G
D.4G
Ans.: B

Q55. Choose a correct abbreviation below.

A. SGSN - Serving GPRS Support Node

B. GGSN - Gateway GPRS Support Node

C. IP - Internet Protocol

D. All

Ans.: D

Q56. GPRS uses which unused channels for transportation of Data in general?
A.SDCCH
B.BCCH
C.TCH
D.SCH
Ans.: C

Q57. Which system in a GPRS architecture collects all Charging (Billing)

records for final processing?

A.SGSN

B.GGSN

C.CH (Charging Gateway)

D.None

Ans.: C

Q58. What are the main parts of a Mobile Station in a GSM Network?

A.MT - Mobile Terminal

B.SIM - Subscriber Identity Module

C.Both A and B

D.None

Ans.: C

Q59. What are the three main parts of a GSM Architecture or Structure?

A. Mobile Station

B.BSS - Base Station Subsystem

C.NSS - Network and Switching Subsystem

D.All the above

Ans.: D

Q60. Each Mobile Terminal is identified by a unique ______ number?

A.IMEI

B.SIM
C.IMSI

D.None

Ans.: A
 Model Question Paper

Subject: Compiler Design

Branch: Computer Engineering

Class: BE

Semester: VIII

Q 1: Which of the following comparisons between static and dynamic type checking is
incorrect?

A. Dynamic type checking slows down the execution

B. Dynamic type checking offers more flexibility to the programmers
C. In contrast to Static type checking, dynamic type checking may cause failure in
runtime due to type errors
D. Unlike static type checking, dynamic type checking is done during compilation

The Correct Answer Among All the Options is D

Q 2: Incremental Compiler is a compiler

A. Which is written in a language that is different from the source language

B. Compiles the whole source code to generate object code afresh
C. Compiles only those portion of source code that has been modified.
D. That runs on one machine but produces object code for another machine

The Correct Answer Among All the Options is C

Q 3: DU-chains(Definition-Use) in compiler design

A. Consist of a definition of a variable and all its uses, reachable from that definition
B. Are created using a form of static code analysis
C. Are prerequisite for many compiler optimization including constant propagation and
common sub-expression elimination
D. All of the above

The Correct Answer Among All the Options is D

Q 4: Which of the following comment about peephole optimization is true?

 A. It is applied to a small part of the code and applied repeatedly
B. It can be used to optimize intermediate code
C. It can be applied to a portion of the code that is not contiguous
D. It is applied in the symbol table to optimize the memory requirements.

The Correct Answer Among All the Options is A

Q 5: Relative to the program translated by a compiler, the same program when

interpreted runs

A. Faster
B. Slower
C. At the same speed
D. May be faster or slower
The Correct Answer Among All the Options is B

Q 6: The output of a lexical analyzer is

A. A parse tree
B. Intermediate code
C. Machine code
D. A stream of tokens
The Correct Answer Among All the Options is D

Q 7: Which of the following class of statement usually produces no executable code

when compiled?
A. Declaration
B. Assignment statements
C. Input and output statements
D. Structural statements
The Correct Answer Among All the Options is A

Q 8: The access time of the symbol table will be logarithmic if it is implemented by

A. Linear list
B. Search tree
 C. Hash table
D. Self organization list
The Correct Answer Among All the Options is B

Q 9: Recursive descent parsing is an example of

A. Top-down parsers
B. Bottom-up parsers
C. Predictive parsers
D. None of the above
The Correct Answer Among All the Options is A

Q 10: A top-down parser generates

A. Rightmost Derivation
B. Rightmost derivation in reverse
C. Leftmost derivation
D. Leftmost derivation in reverse
The Correct Answer Among All the Options is C

Q 11: Peephole optimization is a form of

A. Loop optimization
B. Local optimization
C. Constant folding
D. Data flow analysis
The Correct Answer Among All the Options is B

Q 12: Substitution of values for names (whose values are constants) is done in
A. Local optimization
B. Loop optimization
C. Constant folding
D. Strength reduction
The Correct Answer Among All the Options is C
Q 13: Which one of the following is correct about the statements are given below? I. All
function calls are resolved at compile time in C languageII. All function calls are
resolved at compile time in C++ language
A. Only II is correct
B. Both I and II are correct
C. Only I is correct
D. Both I and II are incorrect
The Correct Answer Among All the Options is D

Q 14: A simple two-pass assembler does which of the following in the first pass:

A. Checks to see if the instructions are legal in the current assembly mode
B. It allocates space for the literals.
C. It builds the symbol table for the symbols and their values.
D. All of these
The Correct Option Among all Options is D

Q15: In compiler terminology reduction in strength means

A. Replacing run time computation by compile time computation

B. Removing loop invariant computation
C. Removing common subexpressions
D. Replacing a costly operation by a relatively cheaper one

The Correct Answer Among All the Options is D

Q 16: Which of the following statements about peephole optimization is False?

A. It is applied to a small part of the code
B. It can be used to optimize intermediate code
C. To get the best out of this, it has to be applied repeatedly
D. It can be applied to the portion of the code that is not contiguous
The Correct Answer Among All the Options is D

Q 17: Which variable does not drive a terminal string in grammar?

S→AB
 A→a

B→b

B→C
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. S
The Correct Answer Among All the Options is C

Q 18: Shift reduce parsing belongs to a class of

A. Bottom up parsing
B. Top down parsing
C. Recursive parsing
D. Predictive parsing
The Correct Answer Among All the Options is A

Q 19: A bottom-up parser generates :

A. Leftmost derivation in reverse
B. Right-most derivation in reverse
C. Left-most derivation
D. Right-most derivation
The Correct Answer Among All the Options is B

Q 20: Identify the correct nodes and edges in the given intermediate code:
(1) i=1
(2) t1=5*I
(3) t2=4*t1
(4) t3=t2
(5) a[t3]=0
(6) i=i+1;
(7) if i<15 goto(2)

A. 33
B. 44
C. 43
D. 34
The Correct Answer Among All the Options is C
Q 21: Number of queues are needed to implement symbol and is acting as permanent
database

A. Variable Table
B. Terminal Table
C. Keyword Table
D. Identifier Table

The Correct Answer Among All the Options is A

Q 22: Identify the total number of tokens in the given statements printf(“A%B=”, &i);

A. 7

B. 8

C. 9

D. 13

The Correct Answer Among All the Options is B

Q 23: Which of the following code replacements is an example of operator strength

reduction?

A. Replace P^2 by P*P

B. Replace P*16 by P<< 4

C. Replace pow(P,3) by P*P*P

D. Replace (P <<5) -P by P*3

The Correct Answer Among All the Options is B

Q 24: Merges the bodies of two loops.

A. Loop rolling

B. Loop folding
 C. Loop merge

D. Loop jamming

The Correct Answer Among All the Options is D

Q 26: Which of the following can be accessed by transfer vector approach of linking?

A. External data segments

B. External subroutines

C. Data located in other procedure

D. All of these

The Correct Answer Among All the Options is B

Q 27: YACC builds up

A. SLR parsing table

B. Canonical LR parsing table

C. LALR parsing table

D. None of these

The Correct Answer Among All the Options is C

Q 28: Micro program is

A. The name of source program in micro computers

 B. The set of instructions indicating the primitive operations in a system
C. Primitive form of macros used in assembly language programming
D. Program of very small size

The Correct Answer Among All the Options is B

Q 29:What is the maximum number of reduce moves that can be taken by a bottom up
parser for a grammar with no epsilon and unit production(i.e., of type A → ∈ and A →
a) to parse a string with n tokens?

A. N/2

B. N-1

C. 2n-1

D. 2n

The Correct Answer Among All the Options is B

Q 30: In a compiler, keywords of a language are recognized during

A. Parsing of the program

B. The code generation

C. The lexical analysis of the program

D. Dataflow analysis
The Correct Answer Among All the Options is C

Q 31: A system program that combines the separately compiled modules of a program
into a form suitable for execution.
A. Assembler

B. Linking loader

C. Cross compiler

D. Load and go

The Correct Answer Among All the Options is B

Q 32: Which of the following statements is false?

A. There exist parsing algorithms for some programming languages whose complexities
are less than O(n3)

B. A programming language which allows recursion can be implemented with static

storage allocation

C. L-attributed definition can be evaluated in the framework of bottom-up parsing

D. Code improving transformation can be performed at both source language and

intermediate code level.

The Correct Answer Among All the Options is B

Q 33: In a single pass assembler, most of the forward references can be avoided by
putting the restriction
A. On the number of strings/lifereacs

B. That the data segment must be defined after the code segment

C. On unconditional rump

D. That the data segment be defined before the code segment

The Correct Answer Among All the Options is B

Q 34:The grammar S ⟶ (S) | SS | ∈ is not suitable for predictive parsing because the
grammar is

A. An Operator Grammar
B. Right Recursive
C. Left Recursive
D. Ambiguous

The Correct Answer Among All the Options is D

Q 35: Pseudo-instructions are

A. Assembler directives
B. Instructions in any program that have no corresponding machine code instruction
C. Instruction in any program whose presence or absence will not change the output for
any input
D. None of these

The Correct Answer Among All the Options is A

Q 36: Consider the following Grammar G :

S➝ A | BA➝ a | cB➝ b | c

Where {S,A,B} is the set of non-terminals, {a,b,c} is the set of terminals.

Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct ?

S1 : LR(1) can parse all strings that are generated using grammar G.
S2 : LL(1) can parse all strings that are generated using grammar G.

Choose the correct answer from the code given below :

Code :

A. Both S1 and S2
B. Only S2
C. Neither S1 nor S2
D. Only S1

The Correct Answer Among All the Options is C

Q 37: The identification of common sub-expression and replacement of run time

computations by compile-time computations is:

A. Local optimization
B. Constant folding
C. Loop Optimization
D. Data flow analysis

The Correct Answer Among All the Options is B

Q 38: The structure or format of data is called:

A. Syntax
B. Struct
C. Semantic
D. None of the above

The Correct Answer Among All the Options is A

Q 39: The graph that shows basic blocks and their successor relationship is called:

A. DAG
B. Control graph
C. Flow graph
D. Hamiltonian graph

The Correct Answer Among All the Options is C

Q 40: A top down parser generates:

A. Leftmost derivation
B. Rightmost derivation
 C. Leftmost derivation in reverse
D. Rightmost derivation in reverse

The Correct Answer Among All the Options is A

Q 41: Syntax directed translation scheme is desirable because:

A. It is based on the syntax

B. It is easy to modify
C. Its description is independent of any implementation
D. All of these

The Correct Answer Among All the Options is B

Q 42: The output of lexical analyzer is:

A. A set of regular expressions

B. Strings of character
C. Syntax tree
D. Set of tokens

The Correct Answer Among All the Options is D

Q 43: Given the following expression grammar:

E→ E*F | F+E |F

F→ F-F | id

Which of the following is true?

A. *has higher precedence than +

B. – has higher precedence than *
C. + and – have same precedence
D. + has higher precedence than *

The Correct Answer Among All the Options is B

Q 44:The number of tokens in the following C statement isprintf(“i=%d, &i=%x”, i&i);

A. 13
B. 6
C. 10
D. 0

The Correct Option Among all Options is D

Q 45: Which grammar rules violate the requirement of the operator grammar?A, B, C
are variables and a, b, c are terminals1) A → BC2) A → CcBb3) A → BaC4) A → ε

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1 and 4 only

The Correct Answer Among All the Options is D

Q 46: Which one of the following is a top-down parser?

A. Recursive descent parser

B. Shift left associative parser
C. SLR(k) parser
D. LR(k) parser

The Correct Option Among all Options is A

Q 47:YACC stands for

A. Yet accept compiler constructs

B. Yet accept compiler compiler
C. Yet another compiler construct
D. Yet another compiler compiler

The Correct Answer Among All the Options is D

Q 48: Which statement is true?

A. LALR parser is more powerful and costly as compare to other parsers
 B. All CFG’s are LP and not all grammars are uniquely defined
C. Every SLR grammar is unambiguous but not every unambiguous grammar is SLR
D. LR(K) is the most general backtracking shift reduce parsing method

The Correct Answer Among All the Options is C

Q 49: With respect to compiler design, "recursive descent" is a ____ parsing technique
that reads the inputs from ____.
A. Top-down, right to left
B. Top-down, left to right
C. Bottom up, right to left
D. Bottom up, left to right

The Correct Answer Among All the Options is B

Q 50:Which of the following is NOT a bottom up, shift reduce parser?

A. LR parser
B. LL parser
C. SLR parser
D. LALR parser
The Correct Answer Among All the Options is B

Q 51: Which of the following is machine independent optimization?

A. Loop optimization
B. Redundancy Elimination
C. Folding
D. All of the options

The Correct Answer Among All the Options is D

Q 52:Which of the following statements is/ are false?

S1: LR(0) grammar and SLR(1) grammar are equivalent

S2: LR(1) grammar are subset of LALR(1) grammars

A. S1 only
B. S1 and S2 both
C. S2 only
D. None of the options

The Correct Answer Among All the Options is B

Q 53: The optimization phase in a compiler gererally:

A. The optimization phase in a compiler gererally:

B. Optimization the code to reduce execution time
C. Both (A) and (B)
D. Neither (A) nor (B)

The Correct Answer Among All the Options is C

Q 54: Which of the following phases of the compilation process is also known as
parsing?

A. Lexical analysis
B. Code optimization
C. Syntax analysis
D. Semantic analysis

The Correct Answer Among All the Options is C

Q 55: Resolution of externally defined symbols is performed by____.

A. Linker
B. Loader
C. Compiler
D. Editor

The Correct Answer Among All the Options is A

Q 56: Which of the following are language processor?

A. Assembler and editor

B. Compiler and word processor
C. Only Assembler and compiler
D. Assembler,Compiler and Interpreter

The Correct Answer Among All the Options is D

Q 57: Synthesized attribute can easily be simulated by an

A. LL grammar
B. Ambiguous grammar
C. LR grammar
D. None of the above

The Correct Answer Among All the Options is C

Q 58: Consider an ε-tree CFG. If for every pair of productions A → u and A → v

A. If FIRST(u) ∩ FIRST(v) is empty then the CFG has to be LL(1)

B. If the CFG is LL(1) then FIRST(u) ∩ FIRST(v) has to be empty
C. Both (A) and (B)
D. None of the above

The Correct Answer Among All the Options is C

Q 59: Which of the following checks are not included in semantic analysis done by the
compiler:

A. Type checks
 B. Spelling checks
C. Uniquencess checks
D. Flow of control checks

The Correct Answer Among All the Options is B

Q 60: In a computer, keywords of a language are recognized during

A. Parsing of the program

B. Code generation
C. Lexical analysis of the program
D. Data flow diagrams

The Correct Answer Among All the Options is C

 Model Question Paper

SUBJECT: COMPILER DESIGN

BRANCH: COMPUTER ENGINEERING
CLASS: BE
SEMESTER: VIII

UNIT-I

Q1. Which of the following groups is/are token together into semantic structures?
a) Syntax analyzer
b). Intermediate code generation
c). Lexical analyzer
d. Semantic analyzer
Ans:c

Q.2.What is the name of the process that determining whether a string of tokens can be generated by a grammar?
a) Analysing
b) Recognizing
c) Translating
d) Parsing
Ans:d

Q.3. Compiler can check ________ error.

a) Logical
b) Syntax
c) Content
d) Both A and B
Ans:b

Q.4. Lexical analyser generates the next token

a) When it is asked for
b) By maintaining a repository of tokens
c) By scanning the whole input
d) None of the other option
Ans:a

Q.5. When expression sum=3+2 is tokenized then what is the token category of 3?
a) Identifier
b) Assignment operator
c) Integer Literal
d) Addition Operator
Ans:c
Q.6. Lexical analysis and parsing are put as two different phases so as to
a) Make design simple
b) Improve efficiency
c) Enhance portability
d) All of the other options
Ans:d

Q.7.Output of the lex program is available in a file named

a) Lex.c
b) Lex.yy.c
c) Lex.l
d) Lex.yy.l
Ans: b

Q.8. A compiler can check

a) Logical Error.
b) Syntax error.
c) both logical error and syntax error.
d) Not logical & syntax error
Ans: b

Q9. Compiler should report the presence of __________ in the source program, in translation process.
a) Classes
b) Objects
c) Errors
d) Text
Ans:c

Q10. Which of the following are Lexemes?

a) Identifiers
b) Constants
c) Keywords
d) All of the mentioned
Ans: d

Q.11. An interpreter is a program that

a) places programs into memory and prepares them for execution
b) automates the translation of assembly language into machine language.
c) accesses a program written in a high level language and produces an object program.
d) appears to execute a source program as if it were machine language.
Ans: d

Q.12.Which of the following is not the feature of compiler?

a) Scan the entire program first and translate into machine code.
b) To remove syntax errors.
c) Slow for debugging
d) Execution time is more.
Ans:d

Q.13. A compiler is defined as

a)Part of system software.
b)Part of operating system.
c)Part of machine code.
d)None of the other options.
Ans:a

Q.14. What constitutes the stages of the compilation process?

a) Feasibility study, system, design, and testing
b) Implementation and documentation
c) Lexical analysis, syntax, Analysis and code generation
d) None of the mentioned
Ans:c

Q.15. Which phase of compiler does not use symbol table?

a) Code generation.
b)Syntax analysis.
c) Lexical analysis.
d)None of the other options
Ans:d

Q.16. Which concept of grammar is used in the compiler?

a) Lexical analysis
b) Parser
c) Code generation
d) Code optimization
Ans :b

Q.17.Task of a compiler is to –
a) Translate one statement at a time and execute it.
b) Translate the whole program to machine language.
c) Translate one statement of the program at a time.
d) None of the other options.
Ans :b

Q.18 What is an Object program?

a) Program written in machine language
b) Program to be translated into machine language
c) Translation of high-level language into machine language
d) None of the mentioned
Ans: c

Q.19.Which phase of compiler is syntax analysis?

a) First
b) Second
c) Third
d) None of the mentioned
Ans: b

Q.20. A compiler program written in a high language is called

a) Source Program
b) Object program
c) Machine language program
d) None of the mentioned
Ans: a

UNIT-II

Q.21. A grammar with production rules {A Ba|Cb, B CA,C c| ε } contains

a) Left factor
b) Left recursion
c) Both Left factor and Left recursion
d) None of the other options
Ans: c

Q.22. Grammars that can be translated to DFAs is ___________

a) Left linear grammar
b) Right linear grammar
c) Generic grammar
d) All of the mentioned
Ans: b

Q.23. Choose the correct statement.

a) CFG is not LR
b) Ambiguous Grammar can never be LR
c) CFG is not LR & Ambiguous Grammar can never be LR
d) None of the mentioned
Ans:c

Q.24. The number of leaves in a parse tree with expression E*(E) where * and () are operators
a) 5
b) 2
c) 4
d) 3
Ans:a

Q.25. For top–down parsing left recursion removal is

a) Mandatory
b) Desirable
c) Too complex
d) Not needed
Ans:a
Q.26. The grammar A → AA | (A) | ε is not suitable for predictive-parsing because the grammar is?
a) Ambiguous
b) Left recursive
c) Right recursive
d) An operator grammar
Ans: b

Q.27. Syntax Analyzer takes Groups Tokens of source Program into Grammatical Production
a) True
b) False
Ans: a

Q.28. Words of a language constitute

a) Set of terminals.
b) Set of non terminals
c) Set of both terminals and non terminals.
d) None of the other options.
Ans: a

Q29. Which of the following statement is false in context of tree terminology?

a) Root with no children is called a leaf
b) A node can have three children
c) Root has no parent
d) Trees are collection of nodes, with a parent child relationship
Ans:a

Q.30. Which of the following suffices to convert an arbitrary CFG to an LL(1) grammar?
a) Removing left recursion only
b) Factoring the grammar alone
c) Factoring & left recursion removal
d) None of the mentioned
Ans: d

Q.31. Given the following expression grammar:

E -> E * F | F+E | F
F -> F-F | id
which of the following is true?
a) * has higher precedence than +
b) – has higher precedence than *
c) + and — have same precedence
d) + has higher precedence than *
Ans:b

Q.32.Which of the following derivations does a top-down parser use while parsing an input string
a)Leftmost derivation
b)Leftmost derivation in reverse
c)Rightmost derivation
d)Rightmost derivation in reverse
Ans:a

Q.33. Which among the following is the root of the parse tree?
a) Production P
b) Terminal T
c) Variable V
d) Starting Variable S
Ans:d.

Q.34. Error recovery helps to

a) Report multiple errors
b)Rectify multiple errors.
c) Both Report and Rectify errors
d) None of the mentioned
Ans:c

Q.35.Derivation produced by a top down parser is

a) Leftmost
b) Rightmost
c) Either leftmost and rightmost
d) None of the other options.
Ans:a

Q.36. _____________ is a graph representation of a derivation

a) The parse tree
b) Oct tree
c) Binary tree
d) None of the mentioned
Ans:a

Q.37. A CFG is closed under

a) Union
b) Kleene star
c) Concatenation
d) None of the mentioned
Ans:d

Q.38.Which of the following statement is false?

a) The CFG can be converted to Chomsky normal form
b) The CFG can be converted to Greibach normal form
c) CFG is accepted by pushdown automata
d) None of the mentioned
Ans:d

Q.39. Which of the following suffices to convert an arbitrarily CFG to an LL(1) grammar?
(a)Removing left recursion only
(b)Factoring the grammar alone
(c)Factoring and left recursion removal
(d)None of the mentioned
Ans:d
Q.40. A regular Grammar is a?
a) CFG
b) Non CFG
c) English Grammar
d) None of the mentioned
Ans:a

UNIT-III

Q.41. Assume that SLR parser for a grammar G has n1 states and the LALR parser for G has n2 states. Then which
of the following statements hold true
(a)n1 is necessarily lesser than n2
(b)n1 is necessarily greater than n2
(c)n1 is necessarily equal than n2
(d)None of the mentioned
Ans:c

Q.42. Which of the following parsers is the most powerful parser?

(a)Operator Precedence
(b)Canonical LR
(c)LALR
(d)SLR
Ans:b

Q.43. In shift reduce parsing, handle is at

a) Top of the stack.
b) Bottom of the stack.
c) Anywhere in the stack.
d) Nowhere in the stack.
Ans:a

Q.44. An operator –precedence parser is a

a) Shift-reduce parser
b) Bottom –up parser
c) Parser constructing derivation in the reverse.
d) All the other options.
Ans:d

Q.45. An LR-parser can detect a syntactic error as soon as __________

a) The parsing starts
b) It is possible to do so a left-to-right scan of the input
c) It is possible to do so a right-to-left scan of the input
d) Parsing ends
Ans:b

Q.46. The original YACC as written in __________ language

a) R programming language
b) C programming language
c) B programming language
d) None of the mentioned
Ans:c

Q.47. A parser with the valid prefix property is advantageous because it __________
a) Detects errors
b) None of the mentioned
c) Errors are passed to the text phase
d) All of the mentioned
Ans:c

Q.48. A top down parser generates __________

a) Rightmost Derivation
b) Right most derivation in reverse
c) Left most derivation
d) Left most derivation in reverse
Ans:c

Q.49. YACC builds up __________

a) SLR parsing table
b) Canonical LR parsing table
c) LALR parsing table
d) None of the mentioned
Ans:c

Q.50. Inherited attribute is a natural choice in ___________

a) Variable declarations record is maintained
b) L values and R values
c) All of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned
Ans:a

Q.51. Which of the following suffices to convert an arbitrary CFG to an LL(1) grammar?
a) Removing left Recursive alone
b) Factoring the grammar alone
c) Along with removing left recursion we also perform the factoring of the grammar
d) None of the mentioned
Ans:d

Q.52. Which of the following statements is false?

a) Left as well as right most derivations can be in Unambiguous grammar
b) An LL (1) parser is a top-down parser
c) LALR is more powerful than SLR
d) Ambiguous grammar can’t be LR (k)
Ans:a
Q.53. Which of the following derivations does a top-down parser use while parsing an input string?
a) Leftmost derivation
b) Leftmost derivation in reverse
c) Rightmost derivation
d) Rightmost derivation in reverse
Ans:a

Q.54. If a state does not know whether it will make a shift operation or reduction for a terminal is called
_________
a) Shift/reduce conflict
b) Reduce /shift conflict
c) Shift conflict
d) Reduce conflict
Ans:a

Q.55. A LR parser can detect a syntactic error as soon as

a) The parsing starts
b) It is possible to do so a left-to-right scan of the input
c) It is possible to do a right-to-left scan of the input
d) Parsing ends
Ans:b

Q.56.A certain compiler corrects errors like “fi” to “if ” automatically. This is an example of recovery in
a)Panic mode
b) Delete character
c) Replace character.
d)Transpose character
Ans:d

Q.57.Which one of the following is a top-down parser?

a) Recursive descent parser
b) Operator precedence parser
c) An LR(k) parser
d) An LALR(k) parser
Ans:a

Q.58. Shift reduce parsers are

a) Top down Parser
b) Bottom Up parser
c) Recursive descent parser
d) Operator precedence parser
Ans:b

Q.59. A top down parser generates

a) Rightmost Derivation
b) Right most derivation in reverse
c) Left most derivation
d) Left most derivation in reverse
Ans:c
Q.60. A bottom up parser generates
a) Right most derivation
b) Rightmost derivation in reverse
c) Leftmost derivation
d) Leftmost derivation in reverse
Ans:b
 Model Question Paper

Subject: Compiler Design (CD)

Branch: CSE& IT

Class: BE

Semester: VIII

Q1. A compiler for a high-level language that runs on one machine and produces code
for a different machine is called ___________

AOptimizing compiler

BOne pass compiler

CCross compiler

DMultipass compiler

Ans.: C

Q2. Cross-compiler is a compiler __________

AWhich is written in a different language from the source language?

BThat generates object code for the machine it’s running on.

CWhich is written in the same language as the source language?

DThat runs on one machine but produces object code for another machine

Ans.: A

Q3. Cross compiler is used in Bootstrapping.

ATrue

BFalse

Ans.: A
Q4. Is GCC a cross Complier.

A Yes

B No

Ans.: A

Q5. What is the output of lexical analyzer?

AA set of RE

BSyntax Tree

CSet of Tokens

DString Character

Ans.: C

Q6Which symbol table implementation is based on the property of locality of reference?

ALinear list

BSearch tree

CHash Table

DSelf Organisation

Ans.: C

Q7What is an Object program?

AProgram written in machine language

BProgram to be translated into machine language

CTranslation of high-level language into machine language

DNone of the mentioned

Ans.: C
Q8Which concept of grammar is used in the compiler?

ALexical analysis

BParser

CCode generation

DCode optimization

Ans.: B

Q9Which of the following are Lexemes?

AIdentifiers

B Constants

CKeywords

DAll of the mentioned

Ans.: D

Q10What constitutes the stages of the compilation process?

AFeasibility study, system, design, and testing

B Implementation and documentation

CLexical analysis, syntax, Analysis and code generation

DAll of the mentioned

Ans.: C

Q11The lexical analyzer takes _________ as input and produces a stream of _______
as output.

A Source program, tokens

B Token, source program

CEither of the two

DAll of the mentioned

Ans.: A

Q12A compiler program written in a high level language is called ________

A Source Program

B Object Program

CMachine Language Program

DNone of the mentioned

Ans.: A

Q13System program such a compiler are designed so that they are ________

A Re-enterable

B Non-Usable

CSerially usable

DNone of the mentioned

Ans.: A

Q14Which of the following is not a feature of compiler?

A Scan the entire program first and translate into machine code

B To remove syntax errors

CSlow for debugging

DExecution time is more

Ans.: D

Q15A system program that brings together separately compiled modules of a program
into a form language that is suitable for execution.

A Assembler

B Linking loader
CCross compiler

DNone of the mentioned

Ans.: B

Q16A programmer by mistakes writes a program to multiply two numbers instead of

dividing them, how can this error be detected?

A Compiler

B Interpreter

CCompiler or interpreter

DNone of the mentioned

Ans.: D

Q17Which phase of the compiler is Syntax Analysis?

A First

B Second

CThird

DNone of the mentioned

Ans.: B

Q18Syntax Analyser is also known as ___________

A Hierarchical Analysis

B Hierarchical Parsing

CHierarchical Analysis & Parsing

DNone of the mentioned

Ans.: C
Q19From where it takes its input from?

A Lexical analyser

B Syntactic Analyser

CSemantic Analyser

DNone of the mentioned

Ans.: A

Q20A grammar for a programming language is a formal description of

_______________

A Syntax

B Semantics

CStructure

DLibrary

Ans.: C

Q21 Which of these is not true about the Symbol Table?

A All the labels of the instructions are symbols

B Table has entry for symbol name address value

CPerform the processing of the assembler directives

DCreated during pass 1

Ans.: C

Q22 Which of these features of assembler are Machine-Dependent?

A Instruction formats

B Addressing modes

CProgram relocation

DAll of the mentioned

Ans.: D

Q23 A compiler can check?

A Logical Error

B Syntax Error

CBoth Logical and Syntax Error

DNot Logical and Syntax Error

Ans.: B

Q24 The fourth Generation computer was made up of ______________

A Transistor

B Vacuum tubes

CChips

DMicroprocessor chips

Ans.: D

Q25 Select a Machine Independent phase of the compiler.

A Syntax Analysis

B Intermediate Code generation

CLexical Analysis

DAll of the mentioned

Ans.: D

Q26 A system program that combines the separately compiled modules of a program
into a form suitable for execution?

A Assembler

B Compiler

CLinking Loader
DInterpreter

Ans.: C

Q27 Type checking is normally done during ____________

A Lexical Analysis

B Syntax Analysis

CSyntax Directed Translation

DCode generation

Ans.: C

Q28 By whom is the symbol table created?

A Compiler

B Interpreter

CAssembler

DCode generation

Ans.: A

Q29 What does a Syntactic Analyser do?

A Maintain Symbol Table

BCollect type of information

CCreate parse tree

DNone of the mentioned

Ans.: C

Q30 Semantic Analyser is used for?

A Generating Object code

BMaintaining symbol table

CGenerating Object code & Maintaining symbol table

DNone of the mentioned

Ans.: C

Q31 Grammar that produce more than one Parse tree for same sentence is
___________

A Ambiguous

BUnambiguous

CComplementation

DConcatenation Intersection

Ans.: A

Q32 A CFG is closed under _________

A Union

BKleene star

CConcatenation

DNone of the mentioned

Ans.: D

Q33 Which of these does not belong to CFG?

A Terminal Symbol

BNon terminal Symbol

CStart symbol

DEnd Symbol

Ans.: D
Q34 What is CFG?

A Compiler

BA language expression

CRegular Expression

DNone of the mentioned

Ans.: B

Q35 Which of the following derivations does a top-down parser use while parsing an
input string?

A Leftmost derivation

BLeftmost derivation in reverse

CRightmost derivation

DRightmost derivation in reverse

Ans.: A

Q36 The process of assigning load addresses to the various parts of the program and
adjusting the code and data in the program to reflect the assigned addresses is called?

A Assembly

BParsing

CRightmost derivation

DRightmost derivation in reverse

Ans.: A

Q37 Which one of the following is a top-down parser?

A Recursive descent parser

BOperator precedence parser

CAn LR(k) parser

DAn LALR(k) parser

Ans.: A

Q38 Which of the following statements is false?

A Unambiguous grammar has both kind of derivations

BAn LL(1) parser is a top-down parser

CLALR is more powerful than SLR

DAmbiguous grammar can’t be LR(k)

Ans.: A

Q39 Which one of the following is true at any valid state in shift-reduce parsing?

A At the bottom we find the prefixes

BNone of the mentioned

CStack contains only viable prefixes

DStack consists of viable prefixes

Ans.: C

Q40 Which of the following pairs is the most powerful?

A SLR, LALR

BCanonical LR ,LALR

CSLR canonical LR

DLALR canonical LR

Ans.: C
Q41 YACC builds up __________

A SLR parsing table

BCanonical LR parsing table

CLALR parsing table

DNone of the mentioned

Ans.: C

Q42 The action of parsing the source program into proper syntactic classes is called
__________

A Syntax Analysis

BLexical Analysis

CInterpretation analysis

DGeneral Syntax Analysis

Ans.: B

Q43 A top down parser generates ____________________

A Rightmost Derivation

BRight most derivation in reverse

CLeft most derivation

DLeft most derivation in reverse

Ans.: C

Q44. An intermediate code form in Compiler is __________

APostfix notation

BSyntax Trees

CThree Address code

DAll of the mentioned

Ans.: D

Q45. Which of the following actions an operator precedence parser may take to recover
from an error?

AInsert symbols onto the stack

BDelete symbols from the stack

C Inserting or deleting symbols from the input

DAll of the mentioned

Ans.: D

Q46. _________ or scanning is the process where the stream of characters making up
the source program is read from left to right and grouped into tokens.

ALexical Analysis

BDiversion

C Modelling

DNone of the mentioned

Ans.: A

Q47 _____________ is a graph representation of a derivation.

AThe parse tree

BOct tree

C Binary tree

DNone of the mentioned

Ans.: A

Q48 Which of the following symbols table implementation is based on the property of
locality of reference?

AHash Table

BSearch tree
C Self organizing list

DLinear list

Ans.: C

Q49 Assume that the SLR parser for a grammar G has n1 states and the LALR parser
for G has n2 states. Hence which one is true?

AN1 is necessarily less than n2

BN1 is necessarily equal to n2

C N1 is necessarily greater than n2

DNone of the mentioned

Ans.: B

Q50 Which of these is also known as look-head LR parser?

ASLR

BLR

C LALR

DNone of the mentioned

Ans.: C

Q51 What is the similarity between LR, LALR and SLR?

AUse same algorithm, but different parsing table

BSame parsing table, but different algorithm

C Their Parsing tables and algorithm are similar but uses top down approach

DBoth Parsing tables and algorithm are different

Ans.: A
Q52 An LR-parser can detect a syntactic error as soon as __________

AThe parsing starts

BIt is possible to do so a left-to-right scan of the input

C It is possible to do so a right-to-left scan of the input

DParsing ends

Ans.: B

Q53 Which of these is true about LR parsing?

AIs most general non-backtracking shift-reduce parsing

BIt is still efficient

C Is most general non-backtracking shift-reduce parsing & It is still efficient

DNone of the mentioned

Ans.: C

Q54 Which of the following is incorrect for the actions of A LR-Parser I) shift s ii) reduce
A->ß iii) Accept iv) reject?

AOnly I)

BI) and ii)

C I), ii) and iii)

DI), ii) , iii) and iv)

Ans.: C

Q55 If a state does not know whether it will make a shift operation or reduction for a
terminal is called _________

AShift/reduce conflict

B Reduce /shift conflict

C Shift conflict

DReduce conflict

Ans.: A

Q56 When there is a reduce/reduce conflict?

AIf a state does not know whether it will make a shift operation using the production rule
i or j for a terminal

B If a state does not know whether it will make a shift or reduction operation using the
production rule i or j for a terminal

C If a state does not know whether it will make a reduction operation using the
production rule i or j for a terminal

DNone of the mentioned

Ans.: C

Q57 The construction of the canonical collection of the sets of LR (1) items are similar to
the construction of the canonical collection of the sets of LR (0) items. Which is an
exception?

AClosure and goto operations work a little bit different

B Closure and goto operations work similarly

C Closure and additive operations work a little bit different

D Closure and associatively operations work a little bit different

Ans.: A

Q58 LR parsers are attractive because _________

AIt can be constructed to recognize CFG corresponding to almost all programming

constructs

B It does not backtrack

C It can be constructed to recognize CFG corresponding to almost all programming

constructs &It does not backtrack

D None of the mentioned

Ans.: C

Q59 Dividing a project into segments and smaller units in order to simplify design and
programming efforts is called?

AModular approach

B Top down approach

C Bottom up approach

D Left right approach

Ans.: A

Q60 YACC is stands for _________

A Yet Another Compiler Compiler

B Yet Another Computer Compiler

C Yet Another Copy Compiler

D Yet Another Compiler Code

Ans.: A
 Model Question Paper
Subject: COMPILER DESIGN

Branch: COMPUTER

Class: BE

Semester: VIII

Q1. The output of lexical analyzer is

A set of RE

B Syntax Tree

C Set of Tokens

D String Character

Ans.: C

Q2. The symbol table implementation is based on the property of locality of

reference is

A Linear list

B Search tree

C Hash Table

D Self Organisation

Ans.: C

Q3. Object program is a

A Program written in machine language

B Program to be translated into machine language

C Translation of high-level language into machine language

D None of the mentioned

Ans.: C
Q4. Which of the following are Lexemes?

A Identifiers

B Constants

C Keywords

D All of the mentioned

Ans.: D

Q5. Which of the following is not a phase of compiler?

A syntax

B lexical

C testing

D code generation

Ans.: C

Q6. Compiler

A reads source program

B converts it into target language

C both a and b

D none of the above

Ans.: C

Q7. a* means

A {eppsilon,a,aa,...}

B {a, aa...}

C {a, aa, aaa, aaa}

D {a, aa, aaa, aaa...}

Ans.: A

Q8. a+ means

A {eppsilon,a,aa,...}

B {a, aa,..}

C {a, aa, aaa, aaa}

D {a}

Ans.: B

Q9. Input buffer is

A symbol table

B divided into two halves

C divided into three halves

D None of the above

Ans.: B

Q10. In compiler, Source program is read by

A Analyst

B lexical analyzer

C developer

D None of the above

Ans.: B

Q11. In compiler grouping of character in token is done by

A Scanner

B Parser
C code generation

D Code optimization

Ans.: A

Q12. The lexical analyzer takes ____ as input and produces a list of ___ of
output.

A Machine code, mnemonic

B Tokens, source code

C Source code, tokens

D None of the Above

Ans.: C

Q13. Linear analysis is called ____ in a compiler.

A Lexical analysis

B Scanning

C Testing

D Both A and B

Ans.: D

Q14. Lexical analysis is about breaking a sequence of characters into

A Token

B Lines

C Groups

D Packets

Ans.: A

Q15. Code optimization in compiler used for

A Analysis code
B Optimized code

C Both A & B

D None of the above

Ans.: B

Q16. A compiler for a high level language that runs on one machine and
produce code for different machine is called

A One pass compiler

B multipass compiler

C optimizing compiler

D cross pass compiler

Ans.: D

Q17. Who constructs the desired target program from the intermediate
representation of the source program?

A Analysis part

B Lexical part

C Both A & B

D Synthesis part

Ans.: D

Q18. Which of the following phase need token for further processing?

A Lexical Analysis

B Syntax & Semantic Analysis

C Both A & B

D None of the above

Ans.: B
Q19. Which grammar is not phased structured grammar?

A Regular

B Context free

C Context sensitive

D None of these

Ans.: D

Q20. The process of searching for matched tokens is typically described using

A Regular expression

B Context free grammar

C Symbol Table

D None of the above

Ans.: A

Q21. In compilation process keywords are recognised during

A Code Generation

B Parsing of the Program

C Lexical Analysis of the program

D Dataflow Analysis

Ans.: C

Q22. Compiler translates source code into

A Machine code

B Binary code

C Executable Code

D Both A & B
Ans.: D

Q23. Following is the process of finding parse tree from string of token

A Analysing

B Recognizing

C Tokenizing

D Parsing

Ans.: D

Q24. Compiler can check _____error

A Syntax

B content

C Both A & B

D None of the Above

Ans.: A

Q25. A _______is a software utility that translates code written in higher

Language into object code

A Text editor

B Compiler

C Converter

D Bone of the above

Ans.: B

Q26. Intermediate code generation introduces ______code

A source code

B Redundant code

C machine code
D None of the above

Ans.: B

Q27. Output file extension for LEX Tool is.

A .obj
B y.tab.c

C .lex.yy.c

D None of the above

Ans.: c

Q28.By whom is the symbol table created?

A Compiler
B Interpreter
C Assembler
D None of the mentioned

Ans.: A

Q29. Compiler should report the presence of __________ in the source

program, in translation process.

A Classes

B Errors

C Text

D None of the above

Ans.: B

Q30. Compilation process is divided in to

A Analysis Part

B Synthesis Part

C Both A & B
D None of the Above

Ans.: C

Q31. Output of parser is

A set of tokens

B parse tree

C object code

D intermediate code

Ans.: B

Q32. The concept of grammar is much used in this part of the compiler

A lexical analysis

B parser

C code generation

D code optimization

Ans.: B

Q33. Parsing is also known as

A syntax analysis

B lexical analysis

C code optimization

D code generation

Ans.: A

Q34. Grammar is ambiguous if

A it has two left most derivations

B it has two right most derivations

C Both A&B

D None of the above

Ans.: C

Q35. The phase Syntax Analysis is modelled on the basis of

A High level language

B Low level language

C Context free grammar

D Regular grammar

Ans.: C

Q36. From where Syntax Analysis takes its input from?

A Lexical analyser

B Syntactic Analyser

C Semantic Analyser

D None of the above

Ans.: A

Q37. Output file extension for YACC Tool is.

A .obj
B y.tab.c

C .lex

D None of the above

Ans.: B
Q38. Parse tree can be obtained

A left most

B Right Most

C Both A & B

D None of the above

Ans.: C

Q39. Following is not a part of derivation

A leftmost derivation

B Lexical analysis

C Rightmost Derivation

D None of the above

Ans.: B

Q40. Unambiguous grammar

A produces more than one parse tree

B not produces more than one parse tree

C Both A & B

D None of the above

Ans.: B

Q41. Grammar of the programming is checked at _______ phase of compiler.

A Lexical Analysis

B Syntax Analysis

C Code Optimization

D Code Generation
Ans.: B

Q42. A grammar is a left recursive

A if the leftmost variable of RHS is same as variable of LHS.

B if the rightmost variable of RHS is same as variable of LHS.

C Both A & B

D None of the Above

Ans.: A

Q43. A grammar is a Right recursive

A if the rightmost variable of RHS is same as variable of LHS.

B if the leftmost variable of RHS is same as variable of LHS.

C Both A & B

D None of the above

Ans.: A

Q44. A grammar is said to be recursive

A If it is unambiguous

B If it is ambiguous

C if and only if it generates infinite number of strings

D None of the above

Ans.: C

Q45. A recursive grammar may be either

A Left recursive grammar

B Right recursive grammar

C Both A & B
D None of the Above

Ans.: C

Q46. Common prefixes problem is solved by

A Left recursion

B Left factoring

C Both A & B

D None of the above

Ans.: B

Q47. If RHS of more than one production starts with the same symbol, then
such a grammar is called as

A Grammar with Ambiguity

B Grammar with common prefix

C Both A & B

D None of the Above

Ans.: B

Q48. Left factoring is used in

A Top down Parsing

B Bottom up Parsing

C Shift Reduce Parsing

D None of the above

Ans.: A

Q49. Which of the following is an error-recovery strategy?

A Panic Mode

B Linking
C Code Optimization

D None of the above

Ans.: A

Q50. Global correction

A Phase of compiler

B Structure of compiler

C Error-recovery strategy

D None of the above

Ans.: C

Q51. Name of some identifier typed incorrectly than following error

occurred

A Syntactical

B Logical

C Semantical

D Lexical

Ans.: D

Q52. If code goes into infinite loop than

A Type check

B Logical

C Semantical

D Lexical

Ans.: B

Q53. If incompatible value assignment is done than following error is

occurred
A Syntactical

B Logical

C Semantical

D Lexical

Ans.: C

Q54. If unbalanced parenthesis than following error is occurred

A Syntactical

B Logical

C Semantical

D Lexical

Ans.: A

Q55. Which parser constructs a parse tree from the root node gradually
moving down to the leaf nodes?

A Top down Parser

B Bottom up Parser

C Both A & B

D None of the Above

Ans.: A

Q56. Which parser constructs a parse tree starts from the leaf nodes of a tree
and works in upward direction till it reaches the root node.

A Top down Parser

B Bottom up Parser

C Both A & B

D None of the Above

Ans.: B

Q57. Shift-Reduce Parser is a type of

A Top down Parser

B Bottom up Parser

C Both A & B

D None of the Above

Ans.: B

Q58. Recursive Descent Parser is a type of

A Top down Parser

B Bottom up Parser

C Both A & B

D None of the Above

Ans.: A

Q59. A bottom up parser generates __________

A Right most derivation

B Rightmost derivation in reverse

C Leftmost derivation

D Leftmost derivation in reverse

Ans.: B

Q60. Backtracking is occurred in

A Recursive Descent Parser

B Shift Reduce Parser

C LR Parser

D None of the Above

Ans.: A
 Model Question Paper
Subject: Compiler Design
Branch: Computer Engineering
Class: BE
Semester: VIII

Q1. Which one of the following statement is FALSE?

a) Context-free languages are closed under union
b) Context-free languages are closed under concatenation
c) Context-free languages are closed under intersection
d) Context-free languages are closed under Kleene closure
Answer: c

Q2. Which of the following strings is not generated by the following grammar?
S → SaSbS|ε
a) aabb
b) abab
c) aababb
d) aaabbb
Answer: d

Q3. Regular expressions can be used only for values of type string and number.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b

Q4. What is the Regular Expression Matching Zero or More Specific Characters
a) x
b) #
c) *
d) &
Answer: c

Q5. All __________ are automatically treated as regular expressions.

a) Programmatic description
b) Window
c) Win Object
d) Collection
Answer: a

Q6. Regular expression x/y denotes the set

a) {x,y}
b) {xy}
c) {x}
d) {y}
Answer: a

Q7. The regular expressions denote zero or more instances of an x or y is

a) (x+y)
b) (x+y)*
c) (x* + y)
d) (xy)*
Answer: b

Q8. A compiler for a high-level language that runs on one machine and produces code for a different machine is
called
a) Optimizing compiler
b) One pass compiler
c) Cross compiler
d) Multipass compiler
Answer: c
Q9. If we compile the sam.c file with the command “gcc -o samsam.c”, then the executable file will be
a) a.out
b) sam
c) sam.out
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b

Q10. What will be output of the following code?

#include<stdio.h>
int main()
{
printf("%d\t",sizeof(6.5));
printf("%d\t",sizeof(90000));
printf("%d",sizeof('A'));
return 0;
}
a) 8 4 2
b) 8 4 2
c) 8 4 4
d) 8 4 3
Answer: c

Q11. What will be output of the following c code?

#include<stdio.h>
int main()
{
signed x;
unsigned y;
x = 10 +- 10u + 10u +- 10;
y = x;
if(x==y)
printf("%d %d",x,y);
else if(x!=y)
printf("%u %u",x,y);
return 0;
}
a) 0 0
b) 65536 -10
c) 0 65536
d) Compilation error
Answer: a

Q12. What will be output of the following c code?

#include<stdio.h>
int main()
{
const int *p;
int a=10;
p=&a;
printf("%d",*p);
return 0;
}
a) 0
b) 10
c) Garbage Value
d) Any Memory address
Answer: b
Q13. What will be output of the following c code?
#include<stdio.h>
int main()
{
int a= sizeof(signed) +sizeof(unsigned);
int b=sizeof(const)+sizeof(volatile);
printf("%d",a+++b);
return 0;
}
a) 10
b) 9
c) 8
d) Error
Answer: c

Q14. The output of lexical analyzer is

a) A set of RE
b) Syntax Tree
c) Set of Tokens
d) String Character
Answer: c

Q15. The symbol table implementation is based on the property of locality of reference is
a) Linear list
b) Search tree
c) Hash Table
d) Self Organisation
Answer: c

Q16. For operator precedence parsing, which one is true?

a) For all pair of non-terminal
b) For all pair of non-terminals
c) To delimit the handle
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a

Q17. Object program is a

a) Program written in machine language
b) Program to be translated into machine language
c) Translation of high-level language into machine language
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c

Q18. Which concept of grammar is used in the compiler

a) Lexical analysis
b) Parser
c) Code generation
d) Code optimization
Answer: b

Q19. Which of the following are Lexemes?

a) Identifiers
b) Constants
c) Keywords
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d

Q20. The process of forming tokens from an input stream of characters is called_____
a) Liberalisation
b) Characterisation
c) Tokenization
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Q21. When expression sum=3+2 is tokenized then what is the token category of 3
a) Identifier
b) Assignment operator
c) Integer Literal
d) Addition Operator
Answer: c

Q22. Which grammar defines Lexical Syntax

a) Regular Grammar
b) Syntactic Grammar
c) Context free Grammar
d) Lexical Grammar
Answer: d

Q23. The output of a lexical analyzer is

a) Machine Code
b) Intermediate Code
c) Stream of Token
d) Parse Tree
Answer: c

Q24. The RE gives none or many instances of an x or y is

a) (x+y)
b) (x+y)*
c) (x* + y)
d) (xy)*
Answer: b

Q25. Subset Construction method refers to:

a) Conversion of NFA to DFA
b) DFA minimization
c) Eliminating Null references
d) ε-NFA to NFA
Answer: a

Q26. Which of the following is a regular language?

a) String whose length is a sequence of prime numbers
b) String with substring wwr in between
c) Palindrome string
d) String with even number of Zero’s
Answer: d

Q27. It is less complex to prove the closure properties over regular languages using:
a) NFA
b) DFA
c) PDA
d) Can’t be said
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

Q28. The output of the lexical and syntax analyzer can stated as:
a) parse stream, parse tree
b) token tree, parse tree
c) token stream, parse tree
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: c

Q29. Which among the following is not a tool to construct lexical analyzer from a regular expression?
a) lex
b) flex
c) jflex
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: d
Q30. A program that performs lexical analysis is termed as:
a) scanner
b) lexer
c) tokenizer
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: d

Q31. Which phase of compiler includes Lexical Analysis?

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) Its primary function, not in any phase
Answer: a

Q32. Which of the following characters are ignored while lexical analysis?
a) .
b) =
c) #
d) WhiteSpace
Answer: d

Q33. A CFG is ambiguous if

a) It has more than one rightmost derivations
b) It has more than one leftmost derivations
c) No parse tree can be generated for the CFG
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b

Q34. Which of the following are always unambiguous?

a) Deterministic Context free grammars
b) Non-Deterministic Regular grammars
c) Context sensitive grammar
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a

Q35. Task of a compiler is to

A. Translate the whole program to machine language
B. Translate one statement of the program at a time
C. Translate one statement at a time and execute it
D. None of the other options
Ans:- A.

Q36. Task of an interpreter is to

A. Translate the whole program to machine language
B. Translate one statement of the program at a time
C. Translate one statement at a time and execute it
D. None of the other options
Ans:- C

Q37. Which of these is also known as look-head LR parser?

a) SLR
b) LR
c) LLR
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c

Q38. What is the similarity between LR, LALR and SLR?

a) Use same algorithm, but different parsing table.
b) Same parsing table, but different algorithm.
c) Their Parsing tables and algorithm are similar but uses top down approach.
d) Both Parsing tables and algorithm are different.
Answer: a
Q39. If a state does not know whether it will make a shift operation or reduction for a terminal is called
a) Shift/reduce conflict
b) Reduce /shift conflict
c) Shift conflict
d) Reduce conflict
Answer: a

Q40. A grammar that produces more than one parse tree for some sentence is called
a) Ambiguous
b) Unambiguous
c) Regular
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a

Q41. An optimizer Compiler

a) Is optimized to occupy less space
b) Both of the mentioned
c) Optimize the code
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: d

Q42. The linker

a) Is similar to interpreter
b) Uses source code as its input
c) Is required to create a load module
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c

Q43. Shift reduce parsers are

a) Top down Parser
b) Bottom Up parser
c) May be top down or bottom up
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b

Q44. Which phase of compiler is Syntax Analysis

a) First
b) Second
c) Third
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b

Q45. From where syntax analyzer take its input from?

a) Lexical analyser
b) Syntactic Analyser
c) Semantic Analyser
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a

Q46. Which of these is not true about Symbol Table?

a) All the labels of the instructions are symbols
b) Table has entry for symbol name address value
c) Perform the processing of the assembler directives
d) Created during pass 1
Answer: c

Q47. A compiler can check?

a) Logical Error
b) Syntax Error
c) Both Logical and Syntax Error
d) Not Logical and Syntax Error
Answer: b
Q48. In a computer system number of compilers may be
(A) One
(B) Many
(C) Two
(D) Ten
Answer: b

Q49. For a particular programming language, in a computer system, number of compilers may be
(A) One
(B) Many
(C) Two
(D) Ten
Answer: b

Q50. A compiler is
(A) Part of operating system
(B) Part of system software
(C) Part of machine code
(D) None of the other options
Answer: b

Q51. Lexical analyser generates the next token

(A) When it is asked for
(B) By maintaining a repository of tokens
(C) By scanning the whole input
(D) None of the other options
Answer: a

Q52. Lexical analysis and parsing are put as two different phases so as to
(A) Make design simple
(B) Improve efficiency
(C) Enhance portability
(D) All of the other options
Answer: d

Q53. A certain compiler corrects errors like “fi” to “if” automatically. This is an example of
recovery in
(A) Panic mode
(B) Delete character
(C) Replace character
(D) Transpose characters
Answer: d

Q54. A regular expression represents

(A) Constituent strings of a language
(B) Part of a language
(C) Cannot represent any language
(D) None of the other options
Answer: a

Q55. Between NFA and DFA which one is more powerful

(A) NFA
(B) DFA
(C) Equally powerful
(D) Cannot be said definitely
Answer: c
Q56. Output of lex program is available in a file named
(A) lex.c
(B) lex.yy.c
(C) lex.l
(D) lex.yy.l
Answer: c

Q57. Number of sections in a lex program is

(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
Answer: c

Q58. Lex specification file sections are demarkated by

(A) %
(B) {%
(C) %}
(D) %%
Answer: d

Q59. Type checking checks the input

(A) Lexically
(B) Semantically
(C) Syntactically
(D) All the other options
Answer: b

Q60. Type checking done by the compiler is

(A) Static
(B) Dynamic
(C) Both static and dynamic
(D) None of the other options
Answer: a
 Model Question Paper
Subject: Compiler Design (CD)

Branch: Computer Engineering

Class: B.E

Semester: VIII

1. How many parts of compiler are there?

(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) 6
(D) 8
Answer: (A) 2
2. Which of the following is/are the phases of compiler?
(A) Code generation
(B) Syntax analyser
(C) Lexical analyser
(D) All of these
Answer: (D) All of these
3. Compiler translates the source code to
(A) Machine code
(B) Executable code
(C) Binary code
(D) Both A and C
Answer: (D) Both A and C
4. Grammar of the programming is checked at phase of compiler.
(A) Syntax analysis
(B) Semantic analysis
(C) Code generation
(D) Code optimization
Answer: (A) Syntax analysis
5. Which of the following groups is/are token together int o syntactic structures?
(A) Syntax analyzer
(B) Semantic analyzer
(C) Lexical analyzer
(D) Intermediate code generation
Answer: (C) Lexical analyzer
6. A compiler which allows only the modified section of the source code to be recompiled is called
(A) Subjective compiler
(B) Dynamic compiler
(C) Re-configurable compiler
(D) Incremental compiler
Answer: (D) Incremental compiler
7. A compiler is preferable to an interpreter because
(A) Debugging can be faster and easier
(B) If one changes a statement, only that statement needs re-compilation
(C) It is much helpful in the initial stages of program development
(D) It can generate stand alone programs that often take less time for execution
Answer: (D) It can generate stand alone programs that often take less time for execution
8. What is an interpreter?
(A) An interpreter is a decoder which provides very efficient execution
(B) An interpreter is a general purpose language providing very efficient execution
(C) An interpreter does the conversion line by line as the program is run
(D) An interpreter is the representation of the system being designed
Answer: (D) An interpreter is the representation of the system being designed
9. A top-down parser generates
(A) Left-most derivation in reverse
(B) Left-most derivation
(C) Right-most derivation in reverse
(D) Right –most derivation
Answer: (B) Left-most derivation
10. Which of the following parsers is the most powerful?
(A) SLR
(B) LALR
(C) Canonical LR
(D) Operator-precedence
Answer: (C) Canonical LR
11. The action of parsing the source program into proper syntactic classes is called
(A) General syntax analysis
(B) Interpretation analysis
(C) Syntax analysis
(D) Lexical analysis
Answer: (D) Lexical analysis
12. A bottom-up parser generates
(A) Left-most derivation in reverse
(B) Left-most derivation
(C) Right-most derivation in reverse
(D) Right –most derivation
Answer: (C) Right-most derivation in reverse
13. The bottom-up parsing method is also called
(A) Shift reduce parsing
(B) Predictive parsing
(C) Recursive descent parsing
(D) None of these
Answer: (A) Shift reduce parsing
14. Synthesized attribute can be easily simulated by a
(A) LR grammar
(B) LL grammar
(C) Ambiguous grammar
(D) None of these
Answer: (A) LR grammar
15. The top-down parsing method is also called
(A) Operator precedence parsing
(B) Recursive descent parsing
(C) Shift reduce parsing
(D) None of these
Answer: (B) Recursive descent parsing
16. The most general phase structured grammar
(A) Context sensitive
(B) Context free
(C) Regular
(D) None of these
Answer: (A) Context sensitive
17. Which of the following class of statement usually produces no executable code when compiled?
(A) Assignment statement
(B) Structural statements
(C) Input and output statements
(D) Declaration
Answer: (B) Structural statements
18. The lexical analyzer takes ____ as input and produces a list of ___ of output.
(A) Machine code, mnemonic
(B) Tokens, source code
(C) Source code, tokens
(D) Both a and b
Answer: (C) Source code, tokens
19. Linear analysis is called ____ in a compiler.
(A) Lexical analysis
(B) Scanning
(C) Testing
(D) Both a and b
Answer: (D) Both a and b
20. Lexical analysis is about breaking a sequence of characters into
(A) Tokens
(B) Lines
(C) Groups
(D) Packets
Answer: (A) Tokens
21. The phase Syntax Analysis is modeled on the basis of
(A) High level language
(B) Low level language
(C) Context free grammar
(D) Regular grammar
Answer: (C) Context free grammar
22. Compiler is a program that
(A) Accepts a program written in a high level language and produces an object program
(B) Appears to execute a source program as if it were machine language
(C) Automates the translation of assembly language into machine language
(D) Places programs into memory and prepares them for execution
Answer: (A) Accepts a program written in a high level language and produces an object program
23. An optimizing compiler
(A) Is optimized to occupy less space
(B) Optimized the code
(C) Is optimized to take less time for execution
(D) None of these
Answer: (B) Optimized the code
24. A compiler for a high level language that runs on one machine and produce code for different machine is
called
(A) One pass compiler
(B) multipass compiler
(C) croos compiler
(D) optimizing compiler
Answer: (C) croos compiler
25. _____ constructs the desired target program from the intermediate representation of the source program.
(A) Analysis part
(B) Lexical part
(C) Synthesis part
(D) None of these
Answer: (C) Synthesis part
26. What is the name of the process that determining whether of tokens can be generat ed by a grammar?
(A) Analysing
(B) Parsing
(C) Translating
(D) Recognizing
Answer: (B) Parsing
27. ___ grammars are not phase structured grammar.
(A) Regular
(B) Context free
(C) Context sensitive
(D) None of these
Answer: (D) None of these
28. The parsing technique that avoids backtracking is
(A) Top-down parsing
(B) Recursive-descent parsing
(C) Predictive parsing
(D) Both (b) and (c)
Answer: (D) Both (b) and (c)
29. CSG (Context Sensitive Grammar) can be recognized by
(A) Push down automata
(B) Finite state automata
(C) 2-way linear bounded automata
(D) All of the above
Answer: (C) 2-way linear bounded automata
30. The process of searching for matched tokens is typically described using ___
(A) Finite automata
(B) Regular expressions
(C) Context free grammar
(D) Both a and b
Answer: (D) Both a and b
31. Loader is a program that
(A) Places programs into memory and prepares them for execution
(B) Automates the translation of assembly language into machine language
(C) Accepts a program written in a high level language and produces an object program
(D) Appears to execute a source program as if it were machine language
Answer: (A) Places programs into memory and prepares them for execution
32. Interpreter is preferred over a compiler is
(A) During program development phase
(B) When storage space is to be minimized
(C) When efficient use of computer resources is the consideration
(D) All of these
Answer: (A) During program development phase
33. Which of the following is used for grouping of characters into tokens?
(A) Scanner
(B) Code generator
(C) Code optimizer
(D) Parser
Answer: (A) Scanner
34. Type checking is normally done during
(A) Code optimization
(B) Syntax directed translation
(C) Lexical analysis
(D) Syntax analysis
Answer: (B) Syntax directed translation
35. Back- patching is useful for handling
(A) Forward references
(B) Backward references
(C) Conditional jumps
(D) Unconditional jumps
Answer: (A) Forward references
36 ______ is considered as a sequence of characters in a token.
(A) Pattern
(B) Texeme
(C) Lexeme
(D) Mexeme
Answer: (C) Lexeme
37. ____ or scanning is the process, where the stream of characters making up the source program is read
from left to right and grouped into tokens.
(A) Modeling
(B) Diversion
(C) Lexical analysis
(D) All of these
Answer: (C) Lexical analysis
38. LR stands for
(A) Left to right
(B) Left to right reduction
(C) Right to left
(D) Left to right and right most derivation in reverse
Answer: (D) Left to right and right most derivation in reverse
39. Recursive descent parsing belongs to the class of
(A) Top-down parsing
(B) Bottom-up parsing
(C) Predictive parsing
(D) None of these
Answer: (A) Top-down parsing
40. Compiler should report the presence of _____ in the source program, in translation process.
(A) Text
(B) Errors
(C) Classes
(D) Objects
Answer: (B) Errors
41. Minimum hamming distance method is used for connection of
(A) Algorithm errors
(B) Transcription errors
(C) Semantic errors
(D) Syntactic errors
Answer: (C) Semantic errors
42. The output of lexical analyzer is
(A) Strings of characters
(B) A set of tokens
(C) Syntax tree
(D) A set of regular expressions
Answer: (B) A set of tokens
43. Compiler can check ____ error.
(A) syntax
(B) logical
(C) content
(D) Both a and b
Answer: (A) syntax
44. Which of the following is language processor?
(A) Interpreters
(B) Assembler
(C) Compilers
(D) All of these
Answer: (D) All of these
45. CFG (Context Free Grammar) can be recognized by a
(A) Push down automata
(B) Finite state automata
(C) 2 way linear bounded automata
(D) Both a and c
Answer: (D) Both a and c
46. Semantic errors can be detected at
(A) Compile time only
(B) Run-time only
(C) Both (a) and (b)
(D) None of these
Answer: (C) Both (a) and (b)
47. A permanent database in the general model of compiler is
(A) Source code
(B) Terminal table
(C) Identifier table
(D) Literal table
Answer: (B) Terminal table
48. Which of the following actions an operator-precedence parser may take to recover from an error?
(A) Insert symbols onto the stack
(B) Delete symbols from the stack
(C) Insert or delete symbols from the input
(D) All of these
Answer: (D) All of these
49. Which of the following system software resides in main memory always?
(A) Text editor
(B) Assembler
(C) Linker
(D) All of these
Answer: (D) All of these
50. A compiler translate high level programs into low level programs, which is called as
(A) Beta code
(B) Compiled code
(C) Source code
(D) Object code
Answer: (D) Object code
51 _______ is/are parts of the compiler.
(A) Execution part
(B) Analysis part
(C) Synthesis part
(D) Both B and C
Answer: (D) Both B and C
52. Only OS independent compiler is
(A) Java compiler
(B) Visual basic compiler
(C) Pascal compiler
(D) Turbo C compiler
Answer: (A) Java compiler
53. The phase ‘Semantic Analysis’ is responsible for ____ in Compiler.
(A) Check semantics
(B) Static checking
(C) Type checking
(D) All of these
Answer: (D) All of these
54. The errors that can be pointed out by the compiler are known as
(A) Internal errors
(B) Logical errors
(C) Semantic errors
(D) Syntax errors
Answer: (D) Syntax errors
55. Which of the following is not a source of error?
(A) Faulty design specification
(B) Faulty algorithm
(C) Compilers themselves
(D) None of these
Answer: (D) None of these
56. Language used in a computer that is similar to the languages of human and is easy to understand, is
referred as
(A) Object code
(B) Source code
(C) Machine language
(D) High level language
Answer: (D) High level language
57. A _____ is a software utility that translates code written in higher language into a low level language.
(A) Compiler
(B) Converter
(C) Text editor
(D) Code optimizer
Answer: (A) Compiler
58. A grammar that produces more than one parse tree for some sentence is called as
(A) Ambiguous
(B) Regular
(C) Unambiguous
(D) All of these
Answer: (A) Ambiguous
59 _____ is a process of finding a parse tree for a string of tokens.
(A) Analysing
(B) Recognizing
(C) Parsing
(D) Tokenizing
Answer: (C) Parsing
60. What is the action of parsing the source program into proper syntatic classes?
(A) Syntax analysis
(B) Lexical analyis
(C) Interpretation analysis
(D) General syntax analysis
Answer: (B) Lexical analyis
 Model Question Paper

Department of Computer Engineering

MCQ Bank for Compiler Design (178112) Sem 8th
Semester: VIII
------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Q. 1 Compiler should report the presence of __________ in the source program, in translation process.
A. Errors
B. Objects
C. Classes
D. Text
Ans: A

Q. 2 Which of the following is the language processor?

A. Compiler
B. Interpreter
C. Assembler
D. All of above
Ans: C

Q. 3 The linker is
A. user source code as a input
B. always used before source program are executed
C. same as loader
D. required to create a load module
Ans: C

Q. 4 A grammar that produces more than one parse tree for same sentence is called as
A. Regular
B. Ambiguous
C. Unambiguous
D. None of above
Ans B

Q.5 Shift reduce parser is

A. Bottom up parser
B. Top down parser
C. May be a both A Or B
D. None of above
Ans: A

Q 6 Lexical analyzer produces output as

A. Syntax tree
B. Set of regular expression
C. String of characters
 D. Set of tokens
Ans: D

Q. 7 A regular grammar is
A. Non CFG
B. CFG
C. English sentence
D. All of above
Ans: B

Q. 8 Which of these does not belongs to CFG?

A. Non terminal symbol
B. Terminal symbol
C. End symbol
D. Start symbol
Ans: C

Q. 9 Which one is top down parser?

A. Recursive descent parser
B. Operator Precedence parser
C. C LR(k) parser
D. LALR(k) parser
Ans: A

Q. 10 A top down parser generates

A. Left most derivation
B. Right most derivation
C. Right most derivation in reverse
D. Leftmost derivation in reverse
Ans: A

Q. 11 Lexical analyzer breaks sequences of characters into

A. Groups
B. Packets
C. Lines
D. Tokens
Ans: D

Q. 12 Sequence of character in token is

A. Lexeme
B. Pattern
C. Texeme
D. None of the above
Ans: A

Q. 13 How many parts Compiler has?

A. 4
B. 3
 C. 2
D. 8
Ans: C

Q. 14 Compiler can check

A. Logical error
B. Syntax error
C. both A and B
D. None of the above
Ans: B

Q. 15 What is the output of lexical analyzer?

A. Stream of tokens
B. Parse tree
C. Intermediate code
D. Machine code
Ans: A

Q. 16 A value of k, in LR(k) cannot be

A. 0
B. 3
C. 2
D. None of the above
Ans: D

Q. 17 LR stands for
A. left to right
B. right to left
C. left to right and right most derivation in reverse
D. left to right reduction
Ans : C

Q. 18 Which of these is true about LR parser?

A. It is still efficient
B. Is most general nonbacktracking shift reduce parsing
C. Is most general nonbacktracking shift reduce parser and is still efficient
D. None of the above
Ans: C

Q. 19 Parsing is also known as

A. Semantic analysis
B. Syntax analysis
C. Lexical analysis
D. Code generation
Ans: B

Q. 20 Input buffer is
A. Symbol table
B. Divided into two halves
 C. Divided into three halves
D. not divided
Ans: B

Q. 21 Source program is read

A. line by line
B. Character by character
C. Page by page
D. Module wise
Ans: A

Q. 22 Which of following are Lexemes?

A. Identifier
B. keywords
C. Constants
D. All of above
Ans: D

Q. 23 LEX is
A. Token generator
B. Code generator
C. Parser generator
D. None of the above
Ans: A

Q. 24 YACC is tool for

A. Lexical analysis
B. Syntax analysis
C. Code optimization
D. Intermediate code generation
Ans: B

Q. 25 Predictive parser can be

A. Recursive
B. Nonrecursive
C. Constructive
D. Recursive and constructive
Ans: A

Q. 26 YACC stands for

A. yes another another compiler
B. yet another compile compiler
C. yet another compiler compiler
D. yes another compile compiler
Ans: C

Q. 27 The grammar E->E+E/E*E/a is

A. Ambiguous
B. Unambiguous
 C. Depends on given sentence
D. None of the above
Ans: A

Q. 28 What is similarity between LA, LALR, SLR?

A. Use same algorithm but different parsing table
B. Use same parsing table but different algorithm
C. Their parsing table and algorithm are same but uses top down approach
D. Both parsing table and algorithm are different
Ans: A

Q. 29 Handle pruning is the technique used to obtain

A. Canonical reduction sequence
B. Canonical derivation sequence
C. Both (A) and (B)
D. None of these
Ans: A

Q. 30 Consider the following grammar

S-> CC
C->cC/d
The grammar is
A. LL(1)
B. SLR(1) but not LL(1)
C. LALR(1) but not LL(1)
D. LR(1) but not LALR(1)
Ans: A

Q. 31 What is the name of the process that determines whether string of tokens can be generated by
grammar?
A. Analysing
B. Translating
C. Parsing
D. Recognizing
Ans: C

Q. 32 Which software utility translates program written in High level language into low level language?
A. Converter
B. Text editor
C. Code optimizer
D. Compiler
Ans: D

Q. 33 Grammar of the programming is checked by following phase

A. Syntax analysis
B. Lexical analysis
C. Semantic analysis
D. Code generation
Ans: A
Q. 34 Input of code generator is
A. Target code
B. Source code
C. Intermediate code
D. All of above
Ans: C

Q. 35 Which is a graph representation of a derivation?

A. Binary tree
B. Oct tree
C. Parse tree
D. None of the above
Ans: C

Q. 36 If a state does not know whether it will make shift operation or reduction for a terminal is called as
A. Shift/ reduce conflict
B. reduce/ shift conflict
C. reduce/reduce conflict
D. reduce conflict
Ans: A

Q. 37 When there is reduce reduce conflicts there is

A. if a state does not know whether it will make a shift operation using the production rule i Or j
for a terminal
B. If a state doesn't know whether it will make shift or reduce operation using production rule i or
j for a terminal
C. If a state does not know whether it will make a reduction operation using the production rule i
or j for a terminal
D. None of the above
Ans: C

Q. 38 What is terminal table?

A. Contains all constants in the program
B. Is a permanent table of decision rules in the form of patterns for matching with the uniform
symbol table to discover syntactic structure
C. Consist of a full or partial list of the token is as they appear in the program created by lexical
analysis and used for syntax analysis and interpretation
D. Is a permanent table which lists all keywords and special symbols of the language in symbolic
form
Ans: D

Q. 39 Which of the following is a phase of a compilation process?

A. Lexical Analysis & Code Generation
B. Lexical analysis
C. Code generation
D. None of the above
Ans: A
Q. 40 Assembler is a program that
A. Puts programs into memory and executes them
B. Writes in high level language and produces an object program
C. Translates the assembly language into machine language
D. None of the above
Ans: C

Q. 41 If a programmer by mistake writes multiplication instead of division, such error can be detected by?
A. Compiler
B. Interpreter
C. Compiler or Interpreter
D. None of the above
Ans: D

Q. 42 The computer language generally translated to pseudo code is

A. Pascal
B. Fortran
C. Assembly
D. Machine
Ans: C

Q. 43 Which is the most powerful parser?

A. LALR
B. Canonical LR
C. SLR
D. Operator Precedence
Ans: B

Q. 44 Which grammar is not phase structured grammar?

A. Context free grammar
B. Regular
C. Context sensitive
D. None of the above
Ans: D

Q. 45 The construction of the canonical collection of the sets of LR (1) items are similar to the
construction of the canonical collection of the sets of LR (0) items. Which is an exception?
A. Closure and goto operations work similarly
B. Closure and additive operations work a little bit different
C. Closure and additive operations work a little bit different
D. Closure and goto operations work a little bit different
Ans: D

Q. 46 Input to code generator

A. Intermediate code
B. Source code
C. Target code
D. None of the above
Ans: A
Q. 47 An intermediate code form is
A. Postfix notation
B. Syntax tree
C. Three address code
D. All of the above
Ans: D

Q. 48 YACC builds up
A. SLR parsing table
B. LALR parsing table
C. Canonical LR parsing
D. None of the above
Ans: B

Q. 49 Which of the following is not an intermediate code form?

A. Postfix notation
B. Syntax tree
C. Three address code
D. Quadruples
Ans: D

Q. 50 Which of the following are language processor

A. Assembler
B. Compiler
C. Interpreter
D. All of the above
Ans: A

Q. 51 One of the purposes of using intermediate code in compilers is to

A. Increase the chances of reusing the machine-independent code optimizer in other compilers
B. Make parsing and semantic analysis simpler
C. Improve error recovery and error reporting
D. Improve the register allocation
Ans: A

Q. 52 Which one of the following statements is FALSE ?

A. High-level language programs can be translated to different Intermediate Representations.
B. Context-free grammar can be used to specify both lexical and syntax rules
C. Arguments to a function can be passed using the program stack.
D. Type checking is done before parsing.
Ans: D

Q. 53 Recursive descent parsing is an example

A. Top down parsing
B. Bottom up parsing
C. Predictive parsing
D. None of the above
Ans: A
Q. 54 Advantage of panic mode of error recovery is that
A. It is simple to implement
B. It never gets into an infinite loop
C. Both A and B
D. None of these
Ans: D

Q. 55 Relocating bits used by relocating loader are specified by

A. Relocating loader itself
B. Linker
C. Assembler
D. Macro processor
Ans: B

Q. 56 The grammar S → aSa | bS | c is?

A. LL(1) but not LR(1)
B. LR(1) but not LR(1)
C. Both LL(1) but not LR(1) & LR(1) but not LR(1)
D. None of the mentioned
Ans: C

Q. 57 In a compiler, keywords of a language are recognized during

A. the code generation
B. parsing of the program
C. the lexical analysis of the program
D. dataflow analysis
Ans: C

Q. 58 The lexical analyzer takes ____ as an input and produces a list of ____ as output.
A. Machine code, mnemonic
B. Tokens, source code
C. Source code, tokens
D. Both a and b
Ans: C

Q. 59 The output of the lexical and syntax analyzer can stated as:
A. parse stream, parse tree
B. token tree, parse tree
C. token stream, parse tree
D. all of the mentioned
Ans : C

Q. 60 Which among the following is not a tool to construct lexical analyzer from a regular expression?
A. lex
B. flex
C. jflex
D. none of the mentioned
Ans: D
Name of College: Gangamai College of Engineering.
Subject: Data Warehouse and Mining (DWM).
Branch: Computer Engineering.
Class: BESemester: VIII

Q1.__________ is a subject-oriented, integrated, time-variant, nonvolatile collection of

data in support ofmanagement decisions.
A.Data Mining.
B. Data Warehousing.
C. Web Mining.
D. Text Mining.
Ans.: B

Q2.Expansion for DSS in DW is__________.

A. Decision Support system.
B. Decision Single System.
C. Data Storable System.
D. Data Support System.
Ans.: A

Q3.The time horizon in Data warehouse is usually __________.

A. 1-2 years
B. 3-4years.
C. 5-6 years.
D. 5-10 years.
Ans.: D

Q4.. ________________defines the structure of the data held in operational databases

and used by
operational applications.
A. User-level metadata.
B. Data warehouse metadata.
C. Operational metadata.
D. Data mining metadata.
Ans.: C

1
Q5.__________ is the heart of the warehouse.
A.Data mining database servers.
B. Data warehouse database servers.
C. Data mart database servers.
D. Relational data base servers.
Ans.: B

Q6.A data mart is designed to optimize the performance for well-defined and predicable
uses.
A. True
B. False
Ans.: A

Q7.Transient data is which of the following?

A. Data in which changes to existing records cause the previous version of the records
to be eliminated
B. Data in which changes to existing records do not cause the previous version of the
records to be eliminated
C. Data that are never altered or deleted once they have been added
D. Data that are never deleted once they have been added
Ans.: A

Q8.A goal of data mining includes which of the following?

A. To explain some observed event or condition
B. To confirm that data exists
C. To analyze data for expected relationships
D. To create a new data warehouse
Ans.: A

Q9.Data mining is?

A. Time variant non-volatile collection of data
B. The actual discovery phase of a knowledge
C. The stage of selecting the right data
D. None of these
Ans.: B

Q10.What is noise?
A. Component of a network
B. Context of KDD and data mining

2
 C. Aspects of a data warehouse
D. None of these
Ans.:B

Q11.The data Warehouse is__________.

A. read only.
B. write only.
C. read write only.
D. none.
Ans.: A

Q12.The important aspect of the data warehouse environment is that data found within
the data warehouseis___________.
A. subject-oriented.
B. time-variant.
C. integrated.
D. All of the above.
Ans.: D

Q13.A ________ system is market-oriented and is used for data analysis by knowledge
workers, including managers, executives, and analysts.
A. OLAP
B. OLTP
C. Both of the above
D. None of the above.
Ans.: A

Q14.. Query tool is meant for __________.

A. data acquisition.
B. information delivery.
C. information exchange.
D. communication.
Ans.: A

Q15.________ are responsible for running queries and reports against data warehouse
tables.

3
A. Hardware.
B. Software.
C. End users.
D. Middle ware.
Ans.: C

Q16.Classification rules are extracted from _____________.

A. root node.
B. decision tree.
C. siblings.
D. branches.
Ans.: B

Q17._________ is not associated with data cleaning process.

A. Deduplication
B. Domain
C. Consistency
D. Segmentation
Ans.: D

Q18.Expansion for DSS in DW is?

A. Decisive Strategic System
B. Data Support System
C. Data Store System
D. Decision Support system
Ans.: D

Q19.A data warehouse is described by which of the following?

A. Can be updated by end user
B. Contains only current data
C. Contains numerous naming conventions and formats
D. Organized around important subject areas
Ans.: D

Q20. The main organizational justification for implementing a data warehouse is to

provide?

4
 A. ETL from operation systems to strategic system
B. Large scale transaction processing
C. Storing large volumes of data
D. Decision support
Ans.: D

Q21.When you ________ the data, you are aggregating the data to a higher level.
A. Slice
B. Roll up
C. Accumulate
D. Drill down
Ans.: B

Q22.______ makes a copy of a table and places it in a different location, to improve

access time.
A. Archive
B. Replication
C. Partitioning
D. Aggregation
Ans.: B

Q23.The data is stored, retrieved & updated in?

A. OLAP
B. OLTP
C. SMTP
D. FTP
Ans.: B

Q24.__________describes the data contained in the data warehouse.

A. Relational data.
B. Operational data.
C. Metadata.
D. Informational data.
Ans.: C

5
Q25. ____________predicts future trends & behaviors, allowing business managers to
make proactive,
knowledge-driven decisions.
A. Data warehouse.
B. Data mining.
C. Datamarts.
D. Metadata.
Ans.: B

Q26. Record cannot be updated in _____________.

A. OLTP
B. files
C. RDBMS
D. data warehouse
Ans.: D

Q27. The generic two-level data warehouse architecture includes __________.

A. at least one data mart.
B. data that can extracted from numerous internal and external sources.
C. near real-time updates.
D. far real-time updates.
Ans.: C

Q28.The active data warehouse architecture includes __________

A. at least one data mart.
B. data that can extracted from numerous internal and external sources.
C. near real-time updates.
D. all of the above.
Ans.: D

Q29.Treating incorrect or missing data is called as _______.

A. Preprocessing
B. Interpretation
C. Selection
D. Transformation
Ans.: A

6
Q30.Successful data warehousing requires that a formal program in total quality
management (TQM) be implemented.
A. True
B.False
Ans.: A

Q31. The core of the multidimensional model is the _______ , which consists of a large set of
facts and a number of dimensions.
A. Multidimensional cube
B. Dimensions cube
C. Data cube
D. Data model
Ans.: C

Q32. —— is not a data mining functionality?

A. Clustering and Analysis
B. Selection and interpretation
C. Classification and regression
D. Characterization and Discrimination
Ans.: B

Q33.Data mining is a tool for allowing users to find the hidden relationships in data.
A. True
B. False
Ans.: A

Q34.What are the two main objectives associated with data mining?
A. To explain some observed event or condition
B. To confirm that data exists
C. To analyze data for expected relationships
D. To find hidden patterns and trends
Ans.: D

Q35.Data mining is?

A. Time variant non-volatile collection of data
B. The actual discovery phase of a knowledge
C. The stage of selecting the right data
D. None of these
Ans.: B

7
Q36.._______ is an essential process where intelligent methods are applied to extract
data patterns.

A. Data warehousing
B. Data mining
C. Text mining
D. Data selection
Ans.: B

Q37.. Data mining can also applied to other forms such as ______
i) Data streamsii) Sequence data
iii) Networked dataiv) Text datav) Spatial data
A. i, ii, iii and v only
B. ii, iii, iv and v only
C. i, iii, iv and v only
D. All i, ii, iii, iv and v
Ans.: D

Q38.The full form of KDD is _______

A. Knowledge Database
B. Knowledge Discovery Database
C. Knowledge Data House
D. Knowledge Data Definition.
Ans.: B

8
Q39.. Strategic value of data mining is_________
A. cost-sensitive
B. work-sensitive
C. time-sensitive
D. technical-sensitive.
Ans.: C

Q40.The _________ refers to extracting knowledge from larger amount of data.

A. data abstraction.
B. data warehouse.
C. database.
D. data mining
Ans.: D

Q41.Knowledge discovery in database refers to _____.

A. whole process of extraction of knowledge from data.
B. selection of data.
C. coding.
D. cleaning the data.
Ans.: A

Q42.Data mining is used to refer ______ stage in knowledge discovery in database.

A. selection.
B. retrieving.
C. discovery.
D. coding.
Ans.: C

Q43._________refers to the process of deriving high-quality information from text.

A. Text Mining.
B. Image Mining.
C. Database Mining.
D. Multimedia Mining
Ans.: A

9
Q44.Reduce amount of time and memory required by data mining algorithms--------
A. Target Data
B. Data sampling
C. Data aggregation
D. Data reduction
Ans.: D

Q45.What does Apriori algorithm do

A. It mines all frequent patterns through pruning rules with lesser support
B. It mines all frequent patterns through pruning rules with higher support
C. Both a and b
D. None of the above
Ans.: A

Q46.. What techniques can be used to improve the efficiency of Apriori algorithm?
A. Hash-based techniques
B. Transaction Reduction
C. Partitioning
D. All of the above
Ans.: D

Q47.Which of the following is direct application of frequent item set mining?

A. Social Network Analysis
B. Market Basket Analysis
C. Outlier Detection
D. Intrusion Detection
Ans.: B

Q48.When do you consider an association rule interesting?

A. If it only satisfies min support
B. If it only satisfies min confidence
C. If it satisfies both min support and min confidence
D. There are other measures to check so
Ans.: C

10
Q49.. What is the relation between candidate and frequent item sets?
A. A candidate itemset is always a frequent itemset
B. A frequent itemset must be a candidate itemset
C. No relation between the two
D. Both are same
Ans.: B

Q50.What is the principle on which Apriori algorithm work?

A. If a rule is infrequent, its specialized rules are also infrequent
B. If a rule is infrequent, its generalized rules are also infrequent
C. Both a and b
D. None of the above
Ans.: A

Q51.Which of these is not a frequent pattern mining algorithm?

A. Apriori
B. FP growth
C. Decision trees
D. Éclat
Ans.: C

Q52.What are closed frequent itemsets?

A. A closed itemset
B. A frequent itemset
C. An itemset which is both closed and frequent
D. None of the above
Ans.: C

Q53. What are maximal frequent itemsets?

A. A frequent itemsetwho’s no super-itemset is frequent
B. A frequent itemset whose super-itemset is also frequent
C. A non-frequent itemset whose super-itemset is frequent
D. None of the above
Ans.: A

11
Q54.Why is correlation analysis important?
A. To make apriori memory efficient
B. To weed out uninteresting frequent itemsets
C. To find large number of interesting itemsets
D. To restrict the number of database iterations
Ans.: B

Q55. What is association rule mining?

A. Same as frequent itemset mining
B. Finding of strong association rules using frequent itemsets
C. Using association to analyses correlation rules
D. None of the above
Ans.: B

Q56.What is frequent pattern growth?

A. Same as frequent itemset mining
B. Use of hashing to make discovery of frequent itemsets more efficient
C. Mining of frequent itemsets without candidate generation
D. None of the above
Ans.: C

Q57.The apriori algorithm works in a..And...Fashion?

A. top-down and depth-first
B. top-down and breath-first
C. bottom-up and depth-first
D. bottom-up and breath-first
Ans.: D

Q58.A ______ system is market-oriented and is used for data analysis by knowledge
workers, including managers, executives, and analysts.
A) OLAP
B) OLTP
C) Both of the above
D) None of the above
Ans.: A

12
Q59.Data cleaning routine attempt to fill I missing values, ___ and correct
inconsistencies.
A. smooth out noise
B.remove error
C. variance
D. none of above
Ans.: A

Q60.Pivot is also known as?

A. drill up
B. roll up
C. rotate
D. mix
Ans.: C

13
 Model Question Paper
Subject: Data Warehousing and Mining
Branch : Computer Engineering /Information Technology
Class : BE
Semester : VIII
Unit I
Q1. ......................... is a subject-oriented, integrated, time-variant, nonvolatile collection or
data in support of management decisions.
A) Data Mining
B) Data Warehousing
C) Document Mining
D) Text Mining
Answer:B) Data Warehousing
Q2. Which of the following is not a component of a data warehouse?
A) Metadata
B) Current detail data
C) Lightly summarized data
D) Component Key
Answers: D) Component Key
Q3. Which of the following is not a kind of data warehouse application?
A) Information processing
B) Analytical processing
C) Data mining
D) Transaction processing
Answers: D) Transaction processing
Q4. A data warehouse is ......................
A) updated by end users.
B) contains numerous naming conventions and formats
C) organized around important subject areas
D) contain only current data
Answer :C) organized around important subject areas
Q5. Data warehouse contains ................ data that is never found in the operational
environment.
A) normalized
B) informational
C) summary
D) denormalized
Answer: C) summary
Q6. ................... are responsible for running queries and reports against data warehouse
tables.
A) Hardware
B) Software
C) End users
D) Middle ware
Answer: C) End users
Q7. The full form of OLAP is
A) Online Analytical Processing
B) Online Advanced Processing
C) Online Advanced Preparation
D) Online Analytical Performance
Answer: A) Online Analytical Processing
Q8. ........................ is a good alternative to the star schema.
A) Star schema
B) Snowflake schema
C) Fact constellation
D) Star-snowflake schema
Answer: C) Fact constellation
Q9. Fact tables are which of the following
A) Completely denormalized
B) Partially denormalized
C) Completely normalized
D) Partially normalized
Answer: C) Completely normalized
Q10.A star schema has what type of relationship between a dimension and fact table?
A) Many-to-many
B) One-to-one
C) One-to-many
D) All of the above.
Answer: C) One-to-many
Q11.Among the followings which is not a characteristic of Data Warehouse?
A) Integrated
B) Volatile
C) Time-variant
D) Subject oriented
Answer: B) Volatile
Q12. The type of relationship in star schema is ...............
A) many to many
B) one to one
C) one to many
D) many to one
Answers: C) one to many
Q13. Which of the following method(s) is(are) used to handle the missing value in dataset.
A) Ignore the tuple or Fill in the missing value manually
B) Use the attribute mean for all samples belonging to the same class as the given tuple
C) Use a global constant to fill in the missing value or Use the attribute mean to fill in the
missing value
D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above
Q14. Which of the following is/are data smoothing technique(s)
A) Binning
B) Regression
C) Clustering
D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above
Q15.Which of the following is/are data transformation technique(s)
A) Smoothing
B) Aggregation
C) Generalization , Normalization and Attribute construction
D) All of the above
Answer: D) all of above
Q16.The methods for data normalization is/are
A) Min Max
B) Z-score
C) Decimal Scaling
D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above
Q17. ……………can be used to reduce the data by collecting and replacing low level
concepts with higher level concepts.
A) Concept Hierarchy
B) Z-Score
C) Min Max
D) None of the Above
Answer:A) Concept Hierarchy
Q18. ……………can be used to reduce the data by collecting and replacing low level
concepts with higher level concepts.
A) Decimal Scaling
B) Z-Score
C) Min Max
D) None of the Above
Answer: D) None of the Above
Q19. Which of the following is not data smoothing technique
A) Binning
B) Regression
C) Clustering
D) None of the above
Answer: D) None of the above
Q20.The star schema is composed of __________ fact table
A) Four
B) Three
C) Two
D) One
Answer: D) One

Unit II
Q1. ...................... is an essential process where intelligent methods are applied to extract data
patterns.
A) Data warehousing
B) Data mining
C) Text mining
D) Data selection
Answer: B) Data Mining
Q2. Data that are not of interest to the data mining task is called as ______.
A)Missing data
B)Changing data
C)Irrelevant data
D)Noisy data
Answer: C)Irrelevant data
Q3. Data mining can also applied to other forms such as ................
A) Data streams
B) Sequence data
C) Text data
D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above
Q4. Which of the following is not a data mining functionality?
A) Characterization and Discrimination
B) Classification and regression
C) Selection and interpretation
D) Clustering and Analysis
Answer: C) Selection and interpretation
Q5. The full form of KDD is ..................
A) Knowledge Database
B) Knowledge Discovery Database
C) Knowledge Data House
D) Knowledge Data Definition
Answer: B) Knowledge Discovery Database
Q6 . The output of KDD is .............
A) Data
B) Information
C) Query
D) Useful information
Answer: D) Useful information
Q7. Which of following is NOT a stage of KDD(Knowledge Discovery from
Database) process?
A)Data Mining
B)Data Selection
C) Data integration
D)Correlation
Answer: D)Correlation
Q8. Which of following is/are a step(s) of KDD(Knowledge Discovery from
Database) process?
A)Data Mining
B)Data Selection
C)Data integration
D)All of the above
Answer: D)All of the above
Q9. Which of the following process includes data cleaning, data integration, data selection,
data transformation, data mining, pattern evolution and knowledge presentation?
A) KDD process
B) ETL process
C) KTL process
D) None of the above
Answer: A) KDD Process
Q10. Which of the following process includes data cleaning, data integration, data selection,
data transformation, data mining, pattern evolution and knowledge presentation?
A) MTX process
B) ETL process
C) KTL process
D) None of the above
Answer: D) None of the above

Q11. Data mining application domains are

A) Biomedical
B) DNA data analysis and Financial data analysis
C) Retail industry and telecommunication industry
D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above
Q12. Which of the following is/are the Data mining tasks?
A) Regression
B) Classification
C) Clustering
D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above
Q13. The Synonym for data mining is
A) Data warehouse
B) Knowledge discovery in database
C) ETL
D) Business intelligence
Answer:B) Knowledge discovery in database
Q14. …………………is a summarization of the general characteristics or features of a target
class of data
A) Data characterization
B) Data discrimination
C) Both A and B
D ) None
Answer: A ) Data characterization
Q15. …………… is a comparison of the general features of target class data objects with the
general features of objects from one or a set of contrasting classes
A) Data characterization
B) Data discrimination
C) Both A and B
D) None
Answer: B) Data discrimination
Q16. A database may contain data objects that do not comply with the general behavior or
model of the data. These data objects are ………
A) Outliers
B) Inners
C) Well known objects
D) None
Answer: A) Outliers
Q17. A database may contain data objects that do not comply with the general behavior or
model of the data. These data objects are ………
A) Inners
B) Well known objects
C) Inners and well known objects
D) None
Answer: D) None
Q18. Which of the following is/are integration scheme(s) of data mining system with a data
warehouse system
A) No Coupling
B) Loose coupling
C) Tight coupling
D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above
Q19. In which integration scheme DM system will not utilize any function of a DB or DW
system.
A) No Coupling
B) Loose coupling
C) Tight coupling
D) All of the above
Answer: A) No Coupling
Q20. ………….. means that a DM system is smoothly integrated into the DB/DW system.
A) No Coupling
B) Loose coupling
C) Tight coupling
D) All of the above
Answer C) Tight coupling

Unit III

Q1. Which of the following is direct application of frequent itemset mining?

A) Social Network Analysis
B) Market Basket Analysis
C) Outlier Detection
D) Intrusion Detection
Answer: B) Market Basket Analysis
Q2. What does Apriori algorithm do?
A) It mines all frequent patterns through pruning rules with lesser support
B) It mines all frequent patterns through pruning rules with higher support
C) Both a and b
D) None of the above
Answer: A) It mines all frequent patterns through pruning rules with lesser support
Q3. What techniques can be used to improve the efficiency ofApriori algorithm?
A) Hash-based techniques
B) Transaction Reduction
C) Partitioning
D) All of the above
Ans: D) All of the above
Q4. What do you mean by support(A)?
A) Total number of transactions containing A
B) Total Number of transactions not containing A
C) Number of transactions containing A / Total number of transactions
D) Number of transactions not containing A / Total number of transactions
Answer : C)Number of transactions containing A / Total number of transactions
Q5. How do you calculate Confidence(A -> B)?
A) Support(A Ո B) / Support (A)
B) Support(A Ո B) / Support (B)
C) Support(A Ս B) / Support (A)
D) Support(AՍ B) / Support (B)
Answer: A) Support(A Ո B) / Support (A)
Q6. The proportion of transaction supporting X in T is called _________.
A) Confidence.
B) Support.
C) Support count.
D) All of the above.
Answer: B) support
Q7. The absolute number of transactions supporting X in T is called ___________.
A) Confidence
B) Support
C) Support count
D) None of the above
Answer: C) support count
Q8. The value that says that transactions in D that support X also support Y is called
______________.
A) confidence
B) support
C) support count
D) None of the above
Answer: A) confidence.
Q9. The left hand side of an association rule is called __________.
A) consequent.
B)onset.
C) antecedent.
D) precedent.
Answer: C) antecedent.
Q10. The right hand side of an association rule is called _____.
A) consequent.
B) onset.
C) antecedent.
D) precedent.
Answer: A) consequent
Q11. When do you consider an association rule interesting?
A) If it only satisfies min_support
B) If it only satisfies min_confidence
C) If it satisfies both min_support and min_confidence
D) There are other measures to check so
Answer: C) If it satisfies both min_support and min_confidence
Q12. What is the relation between candidate and frequent itemsets?
A) A candidate itemset is always a frequent itemset
B) A frequent itemset must be a candidate itemset
C) No relation between the two
D) Both are same
Answer: B) A frequent itemset must be a candidate itemset
Q13. The second step of Apriori algorithm is ____________.
A. Candidate generation.
B. Itemset generation.
C. Pruning.
D. Partitioning.
Answer: C) Pruning
Q14. What is the Apriori property
A)All nonempty subsets of a frequent itemset must also be frequent
B)All nonempty subsets of a frequent itemset must be infrequent
C)Both A and B
D)None of the above
Answer: A) All nonempty subsets of a frequent itemset must also be frequent
Q15. What are closed itemsets?
A) An itemset for which at least one proper super-itemset has same support
B) An itemset whose no proper super-itemset has same support
C) An itemset for which at least super-itemset has same confidence
D) An itemset whose no proper super-itemset has same confidence
Answer: B) An itemset whose no proper super-itemset has same support

Q16. What are closed frequent itemsets?

A) A closed itemset
B) A frequent itemset
C) An itemset which is both closed and frequent
D) None of the above
Answer: C) An itemset which is both closed and frequent
Q17. What are maximal frequent itemsets?
A) A frequent itemset whose no super-itemset is frequent
B) A frequent itemset whose super-itemset is also frequent
C) A non-frequent itemset whose super-itemset is frequent
D) None of the above
Answer: A) A frequent itemset whose no super-itemset is frequent
Q18. All set of items whose support is greater than the user-specified minimum support are
called as _____________.
A) border set.
B) frequent set.
C) maximal frequent set.
D) lattice.
Answer: B) frequent set
Q19. If a set is a frequent set and no superset of this set is a frequent set, then it is called
________.
A) maximal frequent set.
B)border set.
C) lattice.
D) infrequent sets.
Answer: A) maximal frequent set.
Q20. In the first step of Apriori algorithm _______ is performed.
A)Candidate generation.
B)Itemset generation.
C) Pruning.
D) Partitioning.
ANSWER: A)Candidate generation
 Model Question Paper
Computer Engineering
MCQ Bank for Data Warehousing and Mining (178113) Sem 8th

1. ______________which works to remove noise from the data.

A. Aggregation
B. Generalization
C. Normalization
D. Smoothing
Ans.: D
2. _________executes queries involving more than one fact table.
A. Drill-down
B. Roll-up
C. Drill-across
D. Pivot
Ans.: C
3. DB size in OLTP is___________________.
A. 100 GB to TB
B. 10 MB to GB
C. 10 GB to TB
D. 100 MB to GB
Ans.: D
4. In _____________histogram the width of each bucket range is uniform.
A. Equidepth
B. V-Optimal
C. Equal-width
D. MaxDiff
Ans.: C
5. _________________find discrepancies by analyzing the data to discover rules and
relationships, and detecting data that violate such conditions.
A. Data scrubbing tools
B. Data migration tools
C. Data auditing tools
D. ETL tools
Ans.: C
6. A Data warehouse is_____________________________.
A. subject-oriented, integrated, time-variant, volatile
B. application-oriented, integrated, time-variant, nonvolatile
C. subject-oriented, nonintegrated, time-variant, volatile
D. subject-oriented, integrated, time-variant, nonvolatile
Ans.: D

Page 1 of 9
7. In ______________ a fact table in the middle connected to a set of dimension tables.
A. Star schema
B. Snowflake schema
C. Fact constellations
D. None of the above
Ans.: A
8. An aggregate function is ___________ if it can be computed in a distributed Manner.
A. Holistic
B. Distributive
C. Algebraic
D. Nonholistic
Ans.: B
9. _____________is a visualization operation that rotates the data axes in view in order to
provide an alternative presentation of the data.
A. Roll-up
B. Drill-down
C. Pivot
D. Slice and dice
Ans.: C
10. Number of records accessed by OLTP is in _________________.
A. Thousands
B. Millions
C. Tens
D. Hundreds
Ans.: C
11. _________________includes fact tables and dimension tables.
A. Data source view
B. Business query view
C. Top-down view
D. Data warehouse view
Ans.: D
12. ______________may be detected by clustering.
A. Noise
B. Outliers
C. Both A and B
D. None of the above
Ans.: B
13. DB Design in OLAP is____________________.
A. Application-oriented
B. Object-oriented
C. Subject-oriented
D. ER based oriented
Ans.: C

Page 2 of 9
14. Multiple fact tables share dimension tables, viewed as a collection of stars, therefore called
as ___________________.
A. Star schema
B. Snowflake schema
C. Fact constellations
D. None of the above
Ans. C
15. Number of records accessed by OLAP is in ___________.
A. Hundreds
B. Thousands
C. Millions
D. Tens
Ans.: C
16. ______________says that there can be no missing values between the lowest and highest
values for the attribute, and that all values must also be unique.
A. A unique rule
B. A null rule
C. A consecutive rule
D. None of the above
Ans.: C
17. ____________methods smooth a sorted data value by consulting its “neighborhood,” that
is, the values around it.
A. Regression
B. Non-regression
C. Binning
D. Clustering
Ans.: C
18. _____________obtains a reduced representation of the data set that is much smaller in
volume yet produces the same analytical results.
A. Data Transformation
B. Data Integration
C. Data Cleaning
D. Data Reduction
Ans.: D
19. ____________is a random error or variance in a measured variable.
A. Outlier
B. Noise
C. Both A and B
D. None of the above
Ans.: B
20. Principal components analysis is also called as____________________.
A. P-L Method
B. P-A Method
C. P-C Method
D. K-L Method
Ans.: D

Page 3 of 9
21. ______________means that a DM system is smoothly integrated into the DB/DW system.
A. No coupling
B. Loose coupling
C. Tight coupling
D. Semitight coupling
Ans.: C
22. _____________refers to extracting or mining knowledge from large amounts of data.
A. Data Mining
B. Data Warehouse
C. Both A and B
D. None of the above
Ans.: A
23. In _________________multiple data sources may be combined.
A. Data Cleaning
B. Data Selection
C. Data Integration
D. Data Transformation
Ans.: C
24. The next stage to data mining in KDD process is____________________.
A. Data Selection
B. Knowledge Presentation
C. Data Transformation
D. Pattern Evaluation
Ans.: D
25. _________is the domain knowledge that is used to guide the search or evaluate the
interestingness of resulting patterns.
A. Pattern evaluation module
B. Data mining engine
C. Knowledge base
D. User interface
Ans.: C
26. ________________________can be designed to support ad hoc and interactive data mining.
A. Data warehouse query language
B. Data mining query language
C. Data control query language
D. Data Definition query language
Ans.: B
27. _______________is the process of finding a model (or function) that describes and
distinguishes data classes or concepts.
A. Classification
B. Prediction
C. Both of the above
D. None of the above
Ans.: A

Page 4 of 9
28. _____________tasks perform inference on the current data in order to make predictions.
A. Descriptive Mining
B. Predictive Mining
C. Both of the above
D. None of the above
Ans.: B
29. ___________________is used to summarized the general characteristics of a target class of
data.
A. Data Classification
B. Data discrimination
C. Data Characterization
D. Data selection
Ans.: C
30. The output of KDD is ___________.
A. Data
B. Information
C. Query
D. Useful information
Ans.: D
31. ________________where visualization and knowledge representation techniques are used
to present the mined knowledge to the user.
A. Pattern evaluation
B. Data mining
C. Knowledge Presentation
D. User interface
Ans.: C
32. ___________________is a comparison of the general features of the target class data
objects with the general features of objects from one or set comparative classes.
A. Data characterization
B. Data classification
C. Data discrimination
D. Data selection
Ans.: C
33. ________________means that a DM system will not utilize any function of a DB or DW
system.
A. Tight coupling
B. Loose coupling
C. Semitight coupling
D. No coupling
Ans.: D
34. _______________tasks characterizes the general properties of the data in the database.
A. Descriptive mining
B. Predictive mining
C. Both of the above
D. None of the above
Ans.: A

Page 5 of 9
35. ____________routines work to “clean” the data by filling in missing values, smoothing noisy
data.
A. Data Transformation
B. Data Integration
C. Data Cleaning
D. Data Reduction
Ans.: C
36. ______________________________specifies the portions of the database or the set of data
in which the user is interested.
A. The interestingness measures and thresholds for pattern evaluation
B. The expected representation for visualizing the discovered patterns
C. The kind of knowledge to be mined
D. The set of task-relevant data to be mined
Ans.: D
37. __________________ can be designed to incorporate primitives, allowing users to flexibly
interact with data mining systems.
A. Data warehouse query language
B. Data mining query language
C. Data control query language
D. Data Definition query language
Ans.: B
38. ______________is the task of discovering interesting patterns from large amounts of data,
which can be stored in databases, data warehouses, or other information repositories.
A. Databases
B. Data warehouse
C. Data mining
D. Task Primitives
Ans.: C
39. The next stage to data integration in KDD process is____________________.
A. Data Cleaning
B. Pattern Evaluation
C. Data Selection
D. Data Transformation
Ans.: C
40. _______________where data are consolidated into forms appropriate for mining by
performing summary or aggregation operations.
A. Pattern evaluation
B. Data transformation
C. Data integration
D. Data reduction
Ans.: B
41. ________________________is an example of frequent itemset mining.
A. Intrusion Detection
B. Social Network Analysis
C. Outlier Detection
D. Market Basket Analysis
Ans.: D

Page 6 of 9
42. Association rule is consider__________________________________________.
A. If it only satisfies min_support
B. If it only satisfies min_confidence
C. If it satisfies both min_support and min_confidence
D. There are other measures to check so
Ans.: C
43. Confidence (A B) is calculated as_____________________________.
A. Support_count (A ∪ B) / Support_count (B)
B. Support_count (A ∩ B) / Support_count (A)
C. Support_count (A ∩ B) / Support_count (B)
D. Support_count (A ∪ B) / Support_count (A)
Ans.: D
44. Apriori algorithm is used for ___________________________________.
A. To mines all frequent patterns through pruning rules with lesser support
B. To mines all frequent patterns through pruning rules with higher support
C. Both A and B
D. None of the above
Ans.: A
45. ___________________specify the desired dimensions of the data, or levels of the concept
hierarchies, to be used in mining.
A. Data constraints
B. Interestingness constraints
C. Knowledge type constraints
D. Dimension constraints
Ans.: D
46. Association rule mining means _________________________________.
A. Same as frequent itemset mining
B. Finding of strong association rules using frequent itemsets
C. Using association to analyse correlation rules
D. None of the above
Ans.: B
47. Correlation analysis is considered as important _________________________________.
A. To make apriori memory efficient
B. To weed out uninteresting frequent itemsets
C. To find large number of interesting itemsets
D. To restrict the number database iterations
Ans.: B
48. Apriori algorithm is work on which principle?
A. If a rule is infrequent, its specialized rules are also infrequent
B. If a rule is infrequent, its generalized rules are also infrequent
C. Both A and B
D. None of the above
Ans.: A

Page 7 of 9
49. Performance of Apriori algorithm is improved by________________________.
A. Hash-based techniques
B. Transaction Reduction
C. Partitioning
D. All of the above
Ans.: D
50. Association rules generated from mining data at multiple levels of abstraction are
called______________________________.
A. Hybrid-dimesnsional association rules
B. Single level association rules
C. Multilevel association rules
D. Multidimensional association rules
Ans.: C
51. Support (A) is calculated as_________________________________________.
A. Total number of transactions containing A
B. Total Number of transactions not containing A
C. Number of transactions containing A / Total number of transactions
D. Number of transactions not containing A / Total number of transactions
Ans.: C
52. ___________________specify the set of task-relevant data.
A. Interestingness constraints
B. Data constraints
C. Knowledge type constraints
D. Dimension constraints
Ans.: B
53. The Apriori algorithm is a _________________________________________.
A. seminal algorithm for mining frequent itemsets for nonboolean association rules.
B. seminal algorithm for mining frequent itemsets for constraint based association rules.
C. seminal algorithm for mining frequent itemsets for Boolean association rules.
D. seminal algorithm for mining non-frequent itemsets for Boolean association rules.
Ans. C
54. _______________________mining allows users to focus the search for rules by providing
metarules and additional mining constraints.
A. Quantitative association rules
B. Multilevel association rules
C. Constraint-based rule
D. Association Rule
Ans.: C
55. In Apriori property__________________________________________.
A. All empty subsets of a frequent itemset must also be frequent.
B. All nonempty subsets of a nonfrequent itemset must also be frequent.
C. All nonempty subsets of a frequent itemset must also be nonfrequent.
D. All nonempty subsets of a frequent itemset must also be frequent.
Ans.: D

Page 8 of 9
56. An itemset X is a closed frequent itemset in set S.
A. if S is both closed and frequent in X.
B. if X is both closed and nonfrequent in S.
C. if X is both nonclosed and frequent in S.
D. if X is both closed and frequent in S.
Ans. D
57. What step should be taken if support is reduced?
A. Number of frequent itemsets remains same
B. Some itemsets will become infrequent while others will become frequent
C. Some itemsets will add to the current set of frequent itemsets
D. None of the above
Ans.: C
58. The lift between the occurrence of A and B i.e lift (A, B) can be measured by_____________.
A. P(B ∪ A) / P(A)P(B)
B. P(B ∩ A) / P(B)P(A)
C. P(A ∪ B) / P(A)P(B)
D. P(A ∩ B) / P(A)P(B)
Ans.: C
59. In which of the following the same minimum support threshold is used when mining at each
level of abstraction.
A. Using reduced minimum support at lower levels
B. Using item or group-based minimum support
C. Using uniform minimum support for all levels
D. None of the above
Ans.: C
60. ________________specify the type of knowledge to be mined, such as association or
correlation.
A. Data constraints
B. Interestingness constraints
C. Knowledge type constraints
D. Dimension constraints
Ans.: C

Page 9 of 9
 Model Question Paper

Subject: DATA WAREHOUSING & MINING

Branch: COMPUTER ENGINEERING

Class: BE COMP

Semester: VIII

1. The time horizon in Data warehouse is usually .

A. 1-2 years.
B. 3-4years.
C. 5-6 years.
D. 5-10 years.
ANSWER: D
2. is a subject-oriented, integrated, time-variant, non volatile collection of data
in support of management decisions.

A). Data Mining.

B). Data Warehousing.

C). Web Mining.

D). Text Mining.

Ans. B

3. The data Warehouse is .

A). read only.

B). write only.

C). read write only.

D). none.

Ans. A

4. The core of the multidimensional model is the which consists of a large set
of facts and a number of dimensions.

A). Multidimensional cube

B). Dimensions cube

 C). Data cube

D). Data model

Ans. C

5. The source of all data warehouse data is the .

A. Operational environment.
B. Informal environment.
C. Formal environment.
D. Technology environment.
ANSWER: A

6. Data that can be modelled as dimension attributes and measure attributes are called
data.

A). Multidimensional

B).Single dimensional

C). Measured

D).Dimensional

Ans. A

7. Data warehouse architecture is based on

A). DBMS

B). RDBMS

C). Sybase

D). SQL Server

Ans. D

8. supports basic OLAP operations, including slice and dice, drill-down, roll-up
and pivoting.

A). Information processing

B). Analytical processing

C). Data mining

D). Transaction processing

Ans. B
9. is a good alternative to the star schema.
A. Star schema.
B. Snowflake schema.
C. Fact constellation.
D. Star-snowflake schema.
ANSWER: C

10. Routines work to clean the data by filling in missing values, smoothing
noisy data, identifying or removing outliers and resolving inconsistencies.

A). Data Integration

B). Data Cleaning

C). Data Transformation

D). Data Reduction

Ans. B

11. Data modelling technique used for data marts is_

A). Dimensional Modelling

B). ER Model

C). Extended ER

D) All of these

Ans. A

12. The star schema is composed of fact table.

A). One.

B). Two.

C). Three.

D). Four.

Ans. A

13. Data can be updated in environment.

A). Data warehouse.

B). Data mining.

C). Operational.
 D). Informational.

Ans. C

14. A data warehouse is .

A). Updated by end users.

B). Contains numerous naming conventions and formats

C). Organized around important subject areas.

D). Contains only current data.

Ans. C

15. The extract process is .

A. capturing all of the data contained in various operational systems.

B. capturing a subset of the data contained in various operational systems.

C. capturing all of the data contained in various decision support systems

D. capturing a subset of the data contained in various decision support systems.

ANSWER: B

16. Data transformation includes .

A). A process to change data from a detailed level to a summary level.

B). A process to change data from a summary level to a detailed level.

C). Joining data from one source into various sources of data.

D). Separating data from one source into various sources of data.

Ans. A

17. Dimensionality reduction reduces the data set size by removing .

A). Relevant attributes.

B). Irrelevant attributes.

C). Derived attributes.

D). Composite attributes.

Ans. B

18. is data about data.

 A). Meta data.

B). Micro data.

C). Mini data.

D). Multi data

Ans. A

19. The full form of KDD is .

A). Knowledge database.

B). Knowledge discovery in database.

C). Knowledge data house.

D). Knowledge data definition

Ans. B

20. Removing duplicate records is a process called .

A). Recovery.

B). Data cleaning.

C). Data cleansing.

D). Data pruning.

Ans. B

21. Data marts that incorporate data mining tools to extract sets of data are called .

A).Independent data mart.

B). Dependent data marts.

C). Intra-entry data mart.

D). Inter-entry data mart.

Ans. B

22. The dimension tables describe the .

A). Entities.

B). Facts.

C). Keys.
 D). Units of measures.

Ans. B

23. is a the input to KDD.

A). Data.

B). Information.

C). Query.

D). Process.

Ans. A

24. The important aspect of the data warehouse environment is that data found within the
data warehouse is .
A. Subject-oriented.
B. Time-variant.
C. Integrated.
D. All of the above.
ANSWER: D

25. Treating incorrect or missing data is called as .

A). Selection.

B). pre-processing.

C). Transformation.

D). Interpretation.

Ans. B

26. is the goal of data mining.

A). To explain some observed event or condition.

B). To confirm that data exists.

C). To analyze data for expected relationships.

D). To create a new data warehouse.

Ans. A

27. Data mining is?

A). Time variant non-volatile collection of data

 B). The actual discovery phase of a knowledge

C). The stage of selecting the right data

D). None of these

Ans. B

28. defines the structure of the data held in operational databases and
used by operational applications.
A. User-level metadata.
B. Data warehouse metadata.
C. Operational metadata.
D. Data mining metadata.
ANSWER: C

29. ——- is not a data mining functionality?

A). Clustering and Analysis

B). Selection and interpretation

C). Classification and regression

D). Characterization and Discrimination

Ans.B

30. Which of the following are general characteristics or features of a target class of data?

A). Data selection

B). Data discrimination

C).Data Classification

D). Data Characterization

Ans. C

31. is held in the catalogue of the warehouse database system.

A. Application level metadata.
B. Algorithmic level metadata.
C. Departmental level metadata.
D. Core warehouse metadata.
ANSWER: B

32. Which of the following activities is NOT a data mining task?

A). Predicting the future stock price of a company using historical records
 B). Monitoring and predicting failures in a hydropower plant

C). Extracting the frequencies of a sound wave

D). Monitoring the heart rate of a patient for abnormalities

Ans. C

33. Highly summarized data is .

A. compact and easily accessible.

B. compact and expensive.

C. compact and hardly accessible.

D. compact.

ANSWER: A

34. predicts future trends & behaviors, allowing business managers to make
proactive, knowledge-driven decisions.

A). Data warehouse.

B). Data mining.

C). Data marts.

D). Metadata.

Ans. B

35. Data mining helps in .

A). Inventory management.

B). Sales promotion strategies.

C). Marketing strategies.

D). All of the above.

Ans. D

36. Data mining is used to refer stage in knowledge discovery in database.

A). Selection.

B). Retrieving.

C). Discovery.
 D). Coding.

Ans. C

37. A collection of interesting and useful patterns in database is called _

A). knowledge.

B). information.

C). data.

D). algorithm

Ans. A

38. analysis divides data into groups that are meaningful, useful, or both.

A. Cluster.

B. Association.

C. Classification.

D. Relation

Ans. A

39. How many components are there in a data warehouse?

A. two.
B. three.
C. four.
D. five.
ANSWER: D
40. is an expensive process in building an expert system.
A. Analysis.
B. Study.
C. Design.
D. Information collection.
ANSWER: D

41. Strategic value of data mining is .

A. cost-sensitive.
B. work-sensitive.
C. time-sensitive.
D. technical-sensitive.
ANSWER: C

42. is a process of determining the preference of customer's majority.

 A. Association
B. Preferencing.
C. Segmentation.
D. Classification.
ANSWER: B

43. The term that is not associated with data cleaning process is .
A. Domain consistency.
B. Deduplication.
C. Disambiguation.
D. Segmentation.
ANSWER: D

44. EIS stands for .

A. Extended interface system.
B. Executive interface system.
C. Executive information system.
D. Extendable information system.
ANSWER: C

45. MDDB stands for .

A. multiple data doubling.
B. multidimensional databases.
C. multiple double dimension.
D. multi-dimension doubling.
ANSWER: B
46. is a data transformation process.
A. Comparison.
B. Projection.
C. Selection.
D. Filtering.
ANSWER: D

47. Source data from the warehouse comes from .

A. ODS.
B. TDS.
C. MDDB.
D. ORDBMS.
ANSWER: A

48. The main organizational justification for implementing a data warehouse is to provide
.
A. cheaper ways of handling transportation.
B. decision support.
 C. storing large volume of data.
D. access to data.
ANSWER: C

49. Classification rules are extracted from .

A. root node.
B. decision tree.
C. siblings.
D. branches.
ANSWER: B

50. Query tool is meant for _ .

A. data acquisition.
B. information delivery.
C. information exchange.
D. communication.
ANSWER: A

51. are responsible for running queries and reports against data warehouse tables.
A. Hardware.
B. Software.
C. End users.
D. Middle ware.
ANSWER: C

52. The most common source of change data in refreshing a data warehouse is .
A. queryable change data.
B. cooperative change data.
C. logged change data.
D. snapshot change data.
ANSWER: A

53. A fact is said to be fully additive if .

A. it is additive over every dimension of its dimensionality.
B. additive over atleast one but not all of the dimensions.
C. not additive over any dimension.
D. None of the above.
ANSWER: A

54. Which of the following is the other name of Data mining?

A. Exploratory data analysis.
B. Data driven discovery.
C. Deductive learning.
D. All of the above.
 ANSWER: D

55. Which of the following is a predictive model?

A. Clustering.
B. Regression.
C. Summarization.
D. Association rules.
ANSWER: B
56. In the groups are not predefined.
A. Association rules.
B. Summarization.
C. Clustering.
D. Prediction.
ANSWER: C

57. The output of KDD is .

A. Data.
B. Information.
C. Query.
D. Useful information.
ANSWER: D

58. Various visualization techniques are used in step of KDD.

A. selection.
B. transformation.
C. data mining.
D. interpretation.
ANSWER: D

59. Extreme values that occur infrequently are called as .

A. outliers.
B. rare values.
C. dimensionality reduction.
D. All of the above.
ANSWER: A
60. Incorrect or invalid data is known as .
A. changing data.
B. noisy data.
C. outliers.
D. missing data.

ANSWER: B
 Model Question Paper
Subject: Data Warehousing & Mining

Branch: Information Technology

Class: BE IT

Semester: VIII

1)__________ is a subject-oriented, integrated, time-variant, non volatile collection of data in

support of management decisions.

A). Data Mining.

B). Data Warehousing.

C). Web Mining.

D). Text Mining.

Ans. B

2) The data Warehouse is__________.

A). read only.

B). write only.

C). read write only.

D). none.

Ans. A

3) The core of the multidimensional model is the ___________ which consists of a large set of
facts and a number of dimensions.

A). Multidimensional cube

B). Dimensions cube

C). Data cube

D). Data model

Ans. C
4) Data that can be modelled as dimension attributes and measure attributes are called _______
data.

A). Multidimensional

B).Single dimensional

C). Measured

D).Dimensional

Ans. A

5) Data warehouse architecture is based on___________

A). DBMS

B). RDBMS

C). Sybase

D). SQL Server

Ans. D

6) __________supports basic OLAP operations, including slice and dice, drill-down, roll-up and
pivoting.

A). Information processing

B). Analytical processing

C). Data mining

D). Transaction processing

Ans. B

7) _____________ Routines work to clean the data by filling in missing values, smoothing noisy
data, identifying or removing outliers and resolving inconsistencies.

A). Data Integration

B). Data Cleaning

C). Data Transformation

D). Data Reduction

Ans. B

8) Data modelling technique used for data marts is_______

A). Dimensional Modelling

B). ER Model

C). Extended ER

D) All of these

Ans. A

9) The star schema is composed of __________ fact table.

A). One.

B). Two.

C). Three.

D). Four.

Ans. A

10) Data can be updated in _____environment.

A). Data warehouse.

B). Data mining.

C). Operational.

D). Informational.

Ans. C

11) A data warehouse is _____________.

A). Updated by end users.

B). Contains numerous naming conventions and formats

C). Organized around important subject areas.

D). Contains only current data.

Ans. C
12) Data transformation includes __________.

A). A process to change data from a detailed level to a summary level.

B). A process to change data from a summary level to a detailed level.

C). Joining data from one source into various sources of data.

D). Separating data from one source into various sources of data.

Ans. A

13) Dimensionality reduction reduces the data set size by removing ____________.

A). Relevant attributes.

B). Irrelevant attributes.

C). Derived attributes.

D). Composite attributes.

Ans. B

14) ______________ is data about data.

A). Meta data.

B). Micro data.

C). Mini data.

D). Multi data

Ans. A

15) The full form of KDD is _________.

A). Knowledge database.

B). Knowledge discovery in database.

C). Knowledge data house.

D). Knowledge data definition

Ans. B

16) Removing duplicate records is a process called _____________.

A). Recovery.

B). Data cleaning.

C). Data cleansing.

D). Data pruning.

Ans. B

17) Data marts that incorporate data mining tools to extract sets of data are called ______.

A).Independent data mart.

B). Dependent data marts.

C). Intra-entry data mart.

D). Inter-entry data mart.

Ans. B

18) The dimension tables describe the _________.

A). Entities.

B). Facts.

C). Keys.

D). Units of measures.

Ans. B

19) _________ is a the input to KDD.

A). Data.

B). Information.

C). Query.

D). Process.

Ans. A

20) Treating incorrect or missing data is called as ___________.

A). Selection.
B). pre-processing.

C). Transformation.

D). Interpretation.

Ans. B

21)_______________ is the goal of data mining.

A). To explain some observed event or condition.

B). To confirm that data exists.

C). To analyze data for expected relationships.

D). To create a new data warehouse.

Ans. A

22)Data mining is?

A). Time variant non-volatile collection of data

B). The actual discovery phase of a knowledge

C). The stage of selecting the right data

D). None of these

Ans. B

23) ——- is not a data mining functionality?

A). Clustering and Analysis

B). Selection and interpretation

C). Classification and regression

D). Characterization and Discrimination

Ans.B

24)Which of the following are general characteristics or features of a target class of data?

A). Data selection

B). Data discrimination

C).Data Classification

D). Data Characterization

Ans. C

25)Which of the following activities is NOT a data mining task?

A). Predicting the future stock price of a company using historical records

B). Monitoring and predicting failures in a hydropower plant

C). Extracting the frequencies of a sound wave

D). Monitoring the heart rate of a patient for abnormalities

Ans. C

26)____________predicts future trends & behaviors, allowing business managers to make

proactive,

knowledge-driven decisions.

A). Data warehouse.

B). Data mining.

C). Data marts.

D). Metadata.

Ans. B

27)Data mining helps in __________.

A). Inventory management.

B). Sales promotion strategies.

C). Marketing strategies.

D). All of the above.

Ans. D

28) Data mining is used to refer ______ stage in knowledge discovery in database.

A). Selection.
B). Retrieving.

C). Discovery.

D). Coding.

Ans. C

29) A collection of interesting and useful patterns in database is called _______

A). knowledge.

B). information.

C). data.

D). algorithm

Ans. A

30) _______analysis divides data into groups that are meaningful, useful, or both.

A. Cluster.

B. Association.

C. Classification.

D. Relation

Ans. A

31) Which of the following is the data mining tool?

A). Borland C.

B). Weka.

C). Borland C++.

D). Visual C.

Ans. B

32) Two fundamental goals of Data Mining are ____c ____.

A). Analysis and Description

B). Data cleaning and organizing the data

C). Prediction and Description

D). Data cleaning and organizing the data

Ans. C

33) Strategic value of data mining is___________

A). Cost-sensitive

B). Work-sensitive

C). Time-sensitive

D). Technical-sensitive

Ans. C

34) ________is the collection of tables, each of which is assigned a unique name.

A). Relational Database

B). Data Warehouses

C). Data Mining

D). Stream Database

Ans. A

35) ________store image, audio, video data

A). Text Database

B).Legacy Database

C). Data Stream

D). Multimedia Database

Ans. D

36)________Tasks characterize the general Properties of data in the database.

A). Descriptive Mining

B). Predictive Mining

C) Characterization
D) Discrimination

Ans. A

37)_______Tasks perform inference on the current data in order to make prediction.

A). Descriptive Mining

B). Predictive Mining

C) Characterization

D) Discrimination

Ans. B

38) A data mining query is defined in the term of_________

A). Classification

B). Prediction

C). Data mining task primitive

D) Query

Ans. C

39)________ is the process of finding a model that describes and distinguishes data classes or
concept.

A). Classification

B). Data

C). Data mining task primitive

D) Query

Ans. A

40) A database may contain data objects that do not comply with the general bahavior or model
of the data. These data objects are______

A). Cluster

B). Outliers

C). Evolution
D) Classification

Ans. B

41)What does Apriori algorithm do?

A).It mines all frequent patterns through pruning rules with lesser support

B).It mines all frequent patterns through pruning rules with higher support

C).Both a and b

D).None of the above

Ans. A

42)What techniques can be used to improve the efficiency of apriori algorithm?

A).Hash-based techniques

B).Transaction Reduction

C).Partitioning

D).All of the above

Ans. D

43) What do you mean by support(A)?

A).Total number of transactions containing A

B).Total Number of transactions not containing A

C).Number of transactions containing A / Total number of transactions

D).Number of transactions not containing A / Total number of transactions

Ans. C

44)How do you calculate Confidence(A -> B)?

A).Support(A B) / Support (A)

B).Support(A B) / Support (B)

C).Support(A B) / Support (A)

D).Support(A B) / Support (B)

Ans. A

45) Which of the following is direct application of frequent itemset mining?

A).Social Network Analysis

B). Market Basket Analysis

C).Outlier Detection

D).Intrusion Detection

Ans. B

46) When do you consider an association rule interesting?

A).If it only satisfies min_support

B).If it only satisfies min_confidence

C).If it satisfies both min_support and min_confidence

D).There are other measures to check so

Ans. C

47) What is the relation between candidate and frequent itemsets?

A).A candidate itemset is always a frequent itemset

B).A frequent itemset must be a candidate itemset

C).No relation between the two

D). Both are same

Ans. B

48) What are closed itemsets?

A).An itemset for which at least one proper super-itemset has same support

B).An itemsetwhose no proper super-itemset has same support

C).An itemset for which at least super-itemset has same confidence

D).An itemsetwhose no proper super-itemset has same confidence

Ans. B
49) What are maximal frequent itemsets?

A).A frequent itemsetwhose no super-itemset is frequent

B).A frequent itemset whose super-itemset is also frequent

C).A non-frequent itemset whose super-itemset is frequent

D).None of the above

Ans. A

50) What will happen if support is reduced?

A).Number of frequent itemsets remains same

B).Some itemsets will add to the current set of frequent itemsets

C).Some itemsets will become infrequent while others will become frequent

D). Cannot say

Ans. B

51) The apriori algorithm works in a _____and __________fashion?

A).Top-down and depth-first

B).Top-down and breath-first

C).Bottom-up and depth-first

D).Bottom-up and breath-first

Ans. D

52) Why is correlation analysis important?

A).To make apriori memory efficient

B).To weed out uninteresting frequent itemsets

C).To find large number of interesting itemsets

D).To restrict the number of database iterations

Ans. B

53) What is frequent pattern growth?

A).Same as frequent itemset mining

B).Use of hashing to make discovery of frequent itemsets more efficient

C)Mining of frequent itemsets without candidate generation

D). None of the above

Ans. C

54)When is sub-itemset pruning done?

A).A frequent itemset 'P' is a proper subset of another frequent itemset 'Q'

B).Support (P) = Support(Q)

C).When both a and b is true

D).When a is true and b is not

Ans. C

55) Which of the following is not null invariant measure(that does not considers null
transactions)?

A).all_confidence

B).max_confidence

C).cosine measure

D).lift

Ans. D

56) The number of iterations in apriori ___________ Select one:

A).increases with the size of the data

B).decreases with the increase in size of the data

C).increases with the size of the maximum frequent set

D).decreases with increase in size of the maximum frequent set

Ans. C

57) Frequent item sets is Select one:

A).Superset of only closed frequent item sets

B).Superset of only maximal frequent item sets

C).Subset of maximal frequent item sets

D).Superset of both closed frequent item sets and maximal frequent item sets

Ans. D

58)Significant Bottleneck in the Apriori algorithm is Select one:

A).Finding frequent itemsets

B).Pruning

C).Candidate generation

D).Number of iterations

Ans. C

59) KDD represents extraction of Select one:

A).Data

B).Knowledge

C).Rules

D).Model

Ans. B

60) Which statement about outliers is true? Select one:

A). Outliers should be part of the training dataset but should not be present in the test data.

B).Outliers should be identified and removed from a dataset.

C).The nature of the problem determines how outliers are used

D).Outliers should be part of the test dataset but should not be present in the training data.

Ans. C
 Model Question Paper
Subject: Data Warehousing& Mining
Branch:Computer Engineering
Class: BE
Semester: VIII

Q1.The full form of KDD is _____________

A. Knowledge data definition

B. Knowledge Database
C. knowledge discovery in database
D. knowledge data house

Ans.: C

Q2In a star schema, only __________join defines the relationship between the fact table and
any dimension tables.

A. Single
B. Double
C. Cross
D. Base

Ans.: A

Q3.Data mining is the application of specific________ for extracting ________ from data.

A. Data warehouse, transactions

B. Data mart , valuable
C. Algorithms, Patterns
D. Database , Knowledge

Ans.: C

Q4. ___________is a subject-oriented, integrated, time-variant, non-volatile collection of

data in support of management decisions

A. Data Mining.
B. Data Warehousing.
C. Web Mining.
D. Text Mining

Ans.: B

Q5. The data Warehouse is__________.

A. Read only.
B. Write only.
 C. Read write only
D. D. none.

Ans.: A

Q6. Expansion for DSS in DW is__________.

A. Decision Support system.

B. Decision Single System.
C. Data Storable System.
D. Data Support System

Ans.: A

Q7. The important aspect of the data warehouse environment is that data found within the
data warehouse is___________

A. Subject-oriented.
B. Time-variant.
C. Integrated.
D. All of the above.

Ans.: D

Q8. Background knowledge referred to –

A. Additional acquaintance/ information used by learning algorithm to facilitate learning

process.
B. It is a form of transactional data
C. It is a form of automatic learning
D. None of these
Ans.: A

Q9. The data is stored, retrieved & updated in ____________.

A. OLAP.
B. OLTP.
C. SMTP.
D. FTP.

Ans.: B

Q10. __________describes the data contained in the data warehouse.

A. Relational data.
B. Operational data.
C. Metadata.
D. Informational data.
Ans.: C

Q11.Data that are not of interest to the data mining task is called as ______.

A. missing data.
B. changing data.
C. irrelevant data.
D. noisy data.

Ans.: C

Q12. In Which Data Warehouse Schema some dimension tables are normalized?

A. Star Schema
B. Snowflake Schema
C. ER Schema
D. OLTP Schema

Ans.: B

Q13.Which of the following is not data pre-processing method?

A. Data Cleaning
B. Data Normalization
C. Data Visualization
D. Data Reduction

Ans.: C

Q14.Data is stored, retrieved, updated in ___________

A. FTP
B. SMTP
C. OLTP
D. OLAP

Ans.: C

Q15.OLAP (online analytical processing) is for ____________

A. Day to Day transaction

B. Concurrency Control
C. Data analysis and decision making
D. None of the above

Ans.: C
Q16.Operation of moving from higher level summarized data to lower level detailed data in
data cube is known as ___________

A. Roll up
B. Drill down
C. Pivot
D. Dice

Ans.: B

Q17..What is Data Cube

A. Multidimensional Database
B. Single Dimensional Data Model
C. Transactional Data model
D. A type of database

Ans.: A

Q18. What are facts ?

A. Categorical Data
B. Boolean Values
C. Numeric Measures
D. Data types

Ans.: C

Q19.What is a concept hierarchy?

A. A set of mappings from lower conceptual level to higher conceptual level

B. Sorted data in increasing order
C. Hierarchy of data types
D. Sorted data in decreasing order

Ans.: A

Q20. The star schema is composed of __________ fact table.

A. one.
B. two.
C. three.
D. four.

Ans.: A

Q21. How does roll-up operation affect the size of data cube?

A. It increases the size

B. It decreases the size
C. Does not affect the size
 D. None of the above

Ans.: B

Q22.Correlation analysis is used for _______________

A. eliminating noise
B. find missing values
C. identifying redundant attributes
D. data partitioning
Ans.: C
Q23What is noise?

A. Random error or variance in a measured value

B. Read only data
C. Sorted values
D. Missing values
Ans.: A
Q24. What is use of data normalization?

A. It is used to scale the data of an attribute so that it falls in a smaller range.

B. It is used to increase size of data.
C. It is used for predicting unknown values
D. It is used for data grouping
Ans : A
Q25. What is a base cuboid?

A. Fact of data cube

B. Cuboid which holds lowest level of summarization
C. Cuboid which holds highest level of summarization
D. A complete data cube
Ans.: B
Q26. Data warehouse contains_____________data that is never found in the operational
environment.
A. Normalized.
B. Informational.
 C. Summary.
D. Denormalized

Ans.: C

Q27. Which of the following is the entity identification problem ?

A. One person with different email address

B. One person’s name written in different way
C. One person with multiple phone numbers
D. Title of person
Ans.: B
Q28. In Binning, we first sort data, and partition into bins, and then which of the following is
not a valid step

A. Smoothing by bin boundaries

B. Smoothing by bin median
C. Smoothing by bin means
D. Smoothing by bin values
Ans.: D
Q29. Which of the following data mining task is known as market basket analysis

A. Clustering
B. Classification
C. Association mining
D. Regression.
Ans.: C

Q30.What does Apriori algorithm do?

A. It mines all frequent patterns through pruning rules with lesser support
B. It mines all frequent patterns through pruning rules with higher support
C. Both a and b
D. None of the above

Ans.: A

Q31. What is association rule mining?

A. Same as frequent itemset mining

B. Finding of strong association rules using frequent itemsets
 C. Using association to analyse correlation rules
D. None of the above

Ans.: B

Q32. An operational system is _____________.

A. used to run the business in real time and is based on historical data.
B. used to run the business in real time and is based on current data.
C. used to support decision making and is based on current data.
D. used to support decision making and is based on historical data.

Ans.: B

Q33. Various visualization techniques are used in ___________ step of KDD.

(A) selection. (B) transformation. (C) data mining. (D) interpretation.

Ans.: D

Q34. The first phase of apriori algorithm is _______.

A. Candidate generation.
B. Itemset generation.
C. Pruning.
D. Partitioning.

Ans.: A

Q35. The type of relationship in star schema is __________________.

A. many-to-many.
B. one-to-one.
C. one-to-many.
D. many-to-one.

Ans.: C

Q36.Data transformation is data mining strategy, In __________ low-level data are replaced
with high-level data by using concept hierarchies climbing.

A. Generalization
B. Adoption
C. Characterization
D. Association

Ans.: A

Q37. Rule based classification algorithms generate _________ rule to perform the
classification.

A. if-then.
 B. while.
C. do while.
D. switch..

Ans.: A

Q38.Data Discretization techniques can be used to ____________the range of continuous

attribute into intervals.

A. sum
B. Divide
C. Characterize
D. Tabularize

Ans.: B

Q39. __________ mining tasks characterize the general properties of the data in the database.

A. Predictive
B. Descriptive
C. Assertive
D. Productive

Ans.: B

Q40. Data transformation includes which of the following?

A. process to change data from a detailed level to a summary level

B. process to change data from a summary level to a detailed level
C. Joining data from one source into various sources of data
D. (D)Separating data from one source into various sources of data

Ans.: A

Q41.............................. is the process of finding a model that describes and distinguishes data
classes or concepts.

A. Data Reduction
B. Data Classification
C. Data Association
D. Data selection

Ans.: B

Q42Which of the following is data mining tool ?

A. Borland C
B. Weka
C. Visual C
 D. Autocad

Ans.: B

Q43. ............................. is a comparison of the general features of the target class data objects
against the general features of objects from one or multiple contrasting classes.

A. Data Characterization
B. Data Classification
C. Data discrimination
D. Data selection

Ans.: C

Q44. Data warehouse architecture is based on ______________.

A. DBMS.
B. RDBMS.
C. Sybase.
D. SQL Server.

Ans.: B

Q45. Which of the following is not a data mining functionality?

A. Characterization and Discrimination

B. Classification and regression
C. Selection and interpretation
D. Clustering and Analysis

Ans.: C

Q46.Which of the following is not a kind of data warehouse application?

A. Information processing
B. Analytical processing
C. Data mining
D. Transaction processing

Ans.: D

Q47. Classification rules are extracted from______________

A. root node
B. decision tree
C. siblings
D. branches

Ans.: B
Q48. The granularity of the fact is the _____ of detail at which it is recorded.
A. transformation.
B. summarization.
C. level.
D. transformation and summarization.

Ans.: C

Q50. Which of the following is not a data mining attribute?

A. nominal
B. ordinal
C. interval
D. multiple

Ans.: D

Q51. A snowflake schema is which of the following types of table?

A. Fact
B. Dimension
C. Helper.
D. All the above.

Ans.: D

Q.52________is the most well-known association rule mining algorithm and is used in most
commercial products.

A. Apriori algorithm.
B. Partition algorithm.
C. Distributed algorithm.
D. Pincer-search algorithm.

Ans : A

Q.54 In the K-means clustering algorithm the distance between cluster centroid to

each object is calculated using ______ method.

A. Cluster distance
B. Euclidean distance
C. Cluster width
D. None of above

Ans: B

Q.55 What are closed frequent itemsets?

A. A closed itemset
 B. A frequent itemset
C. An itemset which is both closed and frequent
D. None of the above

Ans : C

Q. 57 What is the effect of reducing min confidence on association rules?

A. Number of association rules remains same

B. Some association rules will add to the current set of association rules
C. Some association rules will become invalid while others might become a rule.
D. Can not say

Ans B

Q. 59 Binning is top down splitting technique, based on specific number of bins. Binning is a
_________ discretization technique.

A. supervised
B. reinforced
C. ReLU
D. unsupervised

Ans : D

Q. 60 Apriori is a classic algorithm for mining frequent items for ________ association rule.

A. Rapid
B. Hierarchical
C. Boolean
D. Cluster
Ans : C
 Model Question Paper
Subject: - Data Warehousing & Mining
Branch:- Computer Engineering
Class: - BE
Semester: - VIII

1. An operational system is which of the following?

a. A system that is used to run the business in real time and is based on historical data.
b. A system that is used to run the business in real time and is based on current data.
c. A system that is used to support decision making and is based on current data.
d. A system that is used to support decision making and is based on historical data.
2. In which schema normalization is occurs.
a. Star Schema
b. Snowflake Schema
c. Fact constellation Schema
d. None of above
3. Detail data in single fact table is otherwise known as.
a. Monoatomic data.
b. Diatomic data.
c. Atomic data.
d. Multiatomic data.
4. Which schema is a good alternative to the star schema.
a. Star schema.
b. Snowflake schema.
c. Fact constellation.
d. None of above
5. The dimension tables describe the …….
a. Entities.
b. Facts.
c. Keys.
d. Units of measures.
6. The load and index is
a. A process to reject data from the data warehouse and to create the necessary indexes.
b. A process to upgrade the quality of data after it is moved into a data warehouse.
c. A process to upgrade the quality of data before it is moved into a data warehouse.
d. A process to load the data in the data warehouse and to create the necessary indexes.
7. Data scrubbing is?
a. A process to reject data from the data warehouse and to create the necessary indexes.
b. A process to load the data in the data warehouse and to create the necessary indexes.
c. A process to upgrade the quality of data after it is moved into a data warehouse.
 d. A process to upgrade the quality of data before it is moved into a data warehouse

8. The data is stored, retrieved & updated in

a. OLAP.
b. OLTP.
c. SMTP.
d. FTP.
9. A star schema has what type of relationship between a dimension and fact table?
a. Many-to-many
b. One-to-one
c. One-to-many
d. All of above
10. The most common source of change data in refreshing a data warehouse is .
a. Queryable change data.
b. Cooperative change data.
c. Logged change data.
d. Snapshot change data.
11. Converting data from different sources into a common format for processing is called as
a. Selection.
b. Preprocessing.
c. Transformation.
d. Interpretation.
12. A definition of a concept is if it recognizes all the instance of that concept?
a. Consistent
b. Constant
c. Complete
d. None of above
13. Classification rules are extracted from .
a. Root node.
b. Decision tree.
c. Siblings.
d. Branches.
14. Which of the following is not a data mining task?
a. Feature Subset Detection
b. Association Rule Discovery
c. Regression
d. Sequential Pattern Discovery
15. Effect of one attribute value on a given class is independent of values of other attribute is
called
a. Value independence.
b. Class conditional independence.
c. Conditional independence.
d. Unconditional independence.
16. A Data mart is designed to optimize the performance for well defined and predicable uses?
a. True
b. False
 c. Both a&b
d. None of above
17. To explain some observed event or condition is the goal of….?
a. Data Mining.
b. Data Warehouse.
c. OATP.
d. None of above
18. Noise is ….?
a. A component of a network
b. In the context of KDD and data mining, this refers to random errors in a database table.
c. One of the defining aspects of a data warehouse
d. None of these
19. Data that are not of interest to the data mining task is called as?
a. Irrelevant data
b. Missing data.
c. Changing data.
d. Noisy data.
20. Some telecommunication company wants to segment their customers into distinct groups in
order to send appropriate subscription offers, this is an example of?
a. Supervised learning
b. Data extraction
c. Unsupervised Learning
d. Data transformation
21. Data mining system is used to build which models?
a. Retrospective model.
b. Interrogative model.
c. Predictive model.
d. Imperative model.
22. Data transformation includes which of the following?
a. A process to change data from a detailed level to a summary level
b. A process to change data from a summary level to a detailed level
c. Joining data from one source into various sources of data
d. Separating data from one source into various sources of data
23. Which of the following issue is considered before investing in Data Mining?
a. Functionality
b. Vendor Consideration
c. Compatibility
d. All of the above
24. What do you means by metadata repository?
a. Prism solution directory manager.
b. CORBA.
c. STUNT.
d. COBWEB.
25. Which of the following is a disadvantage of decision trees?
a. Factor analysis
b. Decision trees are prone to be overfit
 c. Decision trees are robust to outliers
d. None of the above
26. Which metadata contains information that gives users an easy-to-understand perspective of
the information stored in the data warehouse.
a. Business metadata.
b. Technical metadata.
c. Operational metadata.
d. Financial metadata.
27. Which of the following algorithm comes under the classification
a. Apriori
b. Brute force
c. DBSCAN
d. K-nearest neighbor
28. KDD represents extraction of
a. Data
b. Knowledge
c. Rules
d. Model
29. Which of the following is a predictive model?
a. Clustering.
b. Regression.
c. Summarization.
d. Association

30. The probability of a hypothesis before the presentation of evidence.

a. Apriori
b. Posterior
c. Conditional
d. Subjective
31. In which algorithm data groups are not predefined?
a. Association rules.
b. Summarization.
c. Clustering.
d. Prediction.
32. Supervised learning and unsupervised clustering both require which is correct according to
the statement?
a. Output attribute.
b. Hidden attribute.
c. Input attribute.
d. Categorical attribute
33. Data used to optimize the parameter setting of a supervised learning model?
a. Training
b. Test
c. Verification
d. Validation
34. The proportion of transaction supporting X in T is called?
 a. Confidence.
b. Support.
c. Support count.
d. All of the above.
35. How do you calculate Confidence(A -> B)?
a. Support(A^B) / Support (A)
b. Support(A^B) / Support (B)
c. Support(AVB) / Support (A)
d. Support(AV B) / Support (B)
36. Which of the following is not a desirable feature of any efficient algorithm?
a. To reduce number of input operations.
b. To reduce number of output operations.
c. To be efficient in computing.
d. To have maximal code length.
37. All set of items whose support is greater than the user-specified minimum support are called
as?
a. Border set.
b. Frequent set.
c. Maximal frequent set.
d. Lattice.
38. The apriori algorithm works in a …….and ….. Approach?
a. top-down and depth-first
b. top-down and breath-first
c. bottom-up and depth-first
d. bottom-up and breath-firs
39. Why is correlation analysis important?
a. To make apriori memory efficient
b. To find large number of interesting itemsets
c. To restrict the number of database iterations
d. To weed out uninteresting frequent itemsets
40. What is the relation between candidate and frequent itemsets?
a. A candidate itemset is always a frequent itemset
b. No relation between the two
c. Both are same
d. A frequent itemset must be a candidate itemset
41. What is the difference between absolute and relative support?
a. Absolute -Minimum support threshold and Relative-Minimum support count threshold
b. Absolute -Minimum support count threshold and Relative -Minimum support threshold
c. Both mean same
d. None of above
42. . ___________can be thought of as classifying an attribute value into one of a set of possible
classes?
a. Estimation.
b. Identification.
c. Clarification.
 d. Prediction.
43. The number of iterations in a priori algorithm.
a. Increases with the size of the maximum frequent set.
b. Decreases with increase in size of the maximum frequent set.
c. Increases with the size of the data.
d. Decreases with the increase in size of the data.
44. A frequent pattern tree is a tree structure consisting of ________?
a. An item-prefix-tree.
b. A frequent-item-header table.
c. A frequent-item-node.
d. Both a & b.
45. Which of the following is direct application of frequent itemset mining?
a. Social Network Analysis
b. Outlier Detection
c. Intrusion Detection
d. Market Basket Analysis
46. When do you consider an association rule interesting?
a. If it only satisfies min_support
b. If it only satisfies min_confidence
c. There are other measures to check so
d. If it satisfies both min_support and min_confidence
47. Bayesian classifiers is?
a. A class of learning algorithm that tries to find an optimum classification of a set of
examples using the probabilistic theory.
b. Any mechanism employed by a learning system to constrain the search space of a
hypothesis
c. An approach to the design of learning algorithms that is inspired by the fact that when
people encounter new situations, they often explain them by reference to familiar
experiences, adapting the explanations to fit the new situation.
d. None of these
48. Prediction can be viewed as forecasting a_________value?
a. Non-continuous.
b. Constant.
c. Continuous.
d. Variable.
49. Rule based classification algorithms generate ______ rule to perform the classification.
a. While.
b. Do while.
c. Switch.
d. If-then.
50. What is back propagation?
a. It is another name given to the curvy function in the perceptron
b. It is the transmission of error back through the network to allow weights to be adjusted so
that the network can learn
c. It is the transmission of error back through the network to adjust the inputs
d. None of the above
51. A good clustering method will produce high quality clusters with?
a. high inter class similarity
b. low intra class similarity
c. no inter class similarity
d. high intra class similarity

52. What does K refers in the K-Means algorithm which is a non-hierarchical clustering
approach?
a. Complexity
b. Fixed value
c. No of iterations
d. Number of clusters
53. What is the final resultant cluster size in Divisive algorithm, which is one of the hierarchical
clustering approaches?
a. Zero
b. Two
c. Three
d. Singleton
54. Hierarchical agglomerative clustering is typically visualized as?
a. Dendrogram
b. Binary trees
c. Block diagram
d. Graph
55. Which statement about outliers is true?
a. Outliers should be part of the training dataset but should not be present in the test data.
b. Outliers should be identified and removed from a dataset.
c. The nature of the problem determines how outliers are used
d. Outliers should be part of the test dataset but should not be present in the training data.
56. The concept of core, border and noise points fall into which category?
a. DBSCAN
b. DENCLUE
c. Subspace clustering
d. Grid based
57. Which clustering technique start with as many clusters as there are records, with each cluster
having only one record?
a. Divisive.
b. Agglomerative.
c. Partition.
d. Numeric.
58. In which algorithm each cluster is represented by the center of gravity of the cluster?
a. K-medoid.
b. K-means.
c. Divisive.
d. Agglomerative.
59. The goal of _____ is to discover both the dense and sparse regions of a data set?
a. Association rule.
 b. Classification.
c. Clustering.
d. Genetic Algorithm.
60. Which algorithm is hierarchical clustering algorithm?
a. BIRCH.
b. DBSCAN
c. PAM.
d. CURE.

Question No Ans
1 b
2 b
3 c
4 c
5 d
6 d
7 d
8 b
9 c
10 a
11 c
12 c
13 b
14 a
15 a
16 a
17 a
18 b
19 a
20 c
21 c
22 a
23 d
24 a
25 b
26 a
27 d
28 b
29 b
30 a
31 c
32 b
33 d
34 b
35 a
36 d
37 b
38 d
39 d
40 d
41 b
42 d
43 a
44 d
45 d
46 d
47 a
48 c
49 d
50 b
51 d
52 d
53 d
54 a
55 c
56 a
57 b
58 b
59 c
60 b
 Model Question Paper
Subject : Data warehousing & Mining

Branch : Comp Engineering

Class : BE

Semester : VIII

Total Questions : 60

-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

1. An .......................... system is market-oriented and is used for data analysis by knowledge

workers, including managers, executives, and analysts.
A) OLAP
B) OLTP
C) Both of the above
D) None of the above

Answer- A

2. Which of the following is not a kind of data warehouse application?

A) Information processing
B) Analytical processing
C) Data mining
D) Transaction processing

Answer- D

3. The data is stored, retrieved and updated in ………………..

A) OLAP
B) OLTP
C) SMTP
D) FTP

Answer - B

4. A data warehouse is ………………….

A) updated by end users.
B) contains numerous naming conventions and formats
C) organized around important subject areas
D) contain only current data

Answer - C
5. The following is true of three-tier data warehouses:

A) Once created, the data marts will keep on being updated from the data warehouse at
periodic times.
B) Once created, the data marts will directly receive their new data from the
Operational databases.
C) The data marts are different groups of tables in the data warehouse.
D) A data mart becomes a data warehouse when it reaches a critical size

Answer : A

6. The core of the multidimensional model is the ................................., which consists of a large
set of facts and a number of dimensions.
A) Multidimensional cube
B) Dimensions cube
C) Data cube
D) Data model

Answer- C

7 is the process of finding a model that describes and distinguishes data

classes or concepts.

A) Data Characterization
B) Data Classification
C) Data discrimination
D) None of above

Answer- B

8 is a summarization of the general characteristics or features of a target

class of data.

A) Data Characterization
B) Data Classification
C) Data discrimination
D) Data selection

Answer- A

9. Star schema have what type of relationship between fact table and dimension.
A) Many–to-many
B) One-to-one
C) One-to many
D) All of above

Answer- C
10. Which schema has normalized form to reduce redundancy in data warehouse design
A) Star schema
B) Snowflake schema
C) Fact constellation schema
D) All of above

Answer- B

11. Data warehouse contains data that is never found in the operational
environment.

A) Normalized.
B) Informational.
C) Summary.
D) Denormalized.

Answer : C

12. The data Warehouse is .

A) read only.
B) write only.
C) read write only.
D) none.

Answer: A

13. is the heart of the warehouse.

A. Data mining database servers.
B. Data warehouse database servers.
C. Data mart database servers.
D. Relational data base servers.

ANSWER: B

14. is a good alternative to the star schema.

A. Star schema.
B. Snowflake schema.
C. Fact constellation.
D. Star-snowflake schema.

ANSWER: C

15. Data scrubbing is .

A. a process to reject data from the data warehouse and to create the necessary indexes.
B a process to load the data in the data warehouse and to create the necessary indexes
C. a process to upgrade the quality of data after it is moved into a data warehouse.
 D. a process to upgrade the quality of data before it is moved into a data warehouse

Answer: D

16. Dimensionality reduction reduces the data set size by removing .

A. relevant attributes.
B. irrelevant attributes.
C. derived attributes.
D. composite attributes.

Answer: B

17. Removing duplicate records is a process called .

A. recovery.
B. data cleaning.
C. data cleansing.
D. data pruning.

Answer: B

18. maps data into predefined groups.

A. Regression.
B. clustering
C. Prediction.
D. Classification.

Answer: D

19. is a the input to KDD.

A. Data.
B. Information.
C. Query.
D. Process.

Answer: A

20. Treating incorrect or missing data is called as .

A. selection.
B. preprocessing.
C. transformation.
D. interpretation.

Answer: B

21. Converting data from different sources into a common format for processing is called as
.
 A. selection.
B. preprocessing.
C. transformation.
D. interpretation.

Answer: C

22. Incorrect or invalid data is known as .

A. changing data.
B. noisy data.
C. outliers.
D. missing data.

Answer: B

23. predicts future trends & behaviors, allowing business managers to make
proactive,
knowledge-driven decisions.
A. Data warehouse.
B. Data mining.
C. Datamarts.
D. Metadata.

Answer: B

24. Which of the following is the other name of Data mining?

A. Exploratory data analysis.
B. Data driven discovery.
C. Deductive learning.
D. All of the above.

Answer: D

25. The absolute number of transactions supporting X in T is called .

A. confidence.
B. support.
C. support count.
D. None of the above.

Answer: C
26. The value that says that transactions in D that support X also support Y is called
.
A. confidence.
B. support.
 C. support count.
D. None of the above.

Answer: A

27. The left hand side of an association rule is called .

A. consequent.
B. onset.
C. antecedent.
D. precedent.

Answer: C

28. A priori algorithm is otherwise called as .

A. width-wise algorithm.
B. level-wise algorithm.
C. pincer-search algorithm.
D. FP growth algorithm.

Answer: B

29. The step eliminates the extensions of (k-1)-item sets which are not found to be
frequent, frombeing considered for counting support.
A. Candidate generation.
B. Pruning.
C. Partitioning.
D. Itemset eliminations.

Answer: B

30. After the pruning of a priori algorithm, will remain.

A. Only candidate set.
B. No candidate set.
C. Only border set.
D. No border set.

Answer: B

31. The goal of is to discover both the dense and sparse regions of a data set.
A. Association rule.
B. Classification.
C. Clustering.
D. Genetic Algorithm.

Answer: C
 32. All set of items whose support is greater than the user-specified minimum support are
called as
.
A. border set.
B. frequent set.
C. maximal frequent set.
D. lattice.

Answer: B

33. .Which of the following is not a data mining functionality?

A) Characterization and Discrimination

B) Classification and regression

C) Selection and interpretation

D) Clustering and Analysis

Answer: C

34................................ is a comparison of the general features of the target class data objects
against the general features of objects from one or multiple contrasting classes.

A) Data Characterization

B) Data Classification

C) Data discrimination

D) Data selection

Answer: C

35. The various aspects of data mining methodologies is/are ...................

i) Mining various and new kinds of knowledge

ii) Mining knowledge in multidimensional space

iii) Pattern evaluation and pattern or constraint-guided mining.

iv) Handling uncertainty, noise, or incompleteness of data

 A) i, ii and iv only

B) ii, iii and iv only

C) i, ii and iii only

D) All i, ii, iii and iv

Answer: D

36. The ............................. exposes the information being captured, stored, and managed by
operational systems.

A) top-down view

B) data warehouse view

C) data source view

D) business query view

Answer: C

37. The ................... allows the selection of the relevant information necessary for the data
warehouse.

A) top-down view

B) data warehouse view

C) data source view

D) business query view

Answer: A

38. describes the data contained in the data warehouse.

A. Relational data.
B. Operational data.
C. Metadata.
D. Informational data.

Answer: C
39. Data transformation includes .
A. a process to change data from a detailed level to a summary level.
B. a process to change data from a summary level to a detailed level.
C. joining data from one source into various sources of data.
D. separating data from one source into various sources of data.

Answer: A

40. is a data transformation process.

A. Comparison.
B. Projection.
C. Selection.
D. Filtering.

Answer: D

41. . are designed to overcome any limitations placed on the warehouse by the
nature of the relational data model.
A. Operational database.
B. Relational database.
C. Multidimensional database.
D. Data repository.

Answer: C

42. Which of the following is not a component of a data warehouse?

A. Metadata.
B. Current detail data.
C. Lightly summarized data.
D. Component Key.

Answer: D

43. The dimension tables describe the .

A. entities.
B. facts.
C. keys.
D. units of measures.

Answer: B

44. is used to map a data item to a real valued prediction variable.

A. Regression.
 B. Time series analysis.
C. Prediction.
D. Classification.

Answer: B

45. Which of the following is a predictive model?

A. Clustering.
B. Regression.
C. Summarization.
D. Association rules.

Answer: B

46. A directory to help the DSS analyst locate the contents of the data warehouse is seen in
.
A. Current detail data.
B. Lightly summarized data.
C. Metadata.
D. Older detail data.

Answer: C

47. A model identifies patterns or relationships.

A. Descriptive.
B. Predictive.
C. Regression.
D. Time series analysis.

Answer: A

48. In the groups are not predefined.

A. Association rules.
B. Summarization.
C. Clustering.
D. Prediction.

Answer: C

49. A predictive model makes use of .

A. current data.
B. historical data.
C. both current and historical data.
D. assumptions.
Answer: B

50. Various visualization techniques are used in step of KDD.

A. selection.
B. transformaion.
C. data mining.
D. interpretation.
Answer: D

51. Extreme values that occur infrequently are called as .

A. outliers.
B. rare values.
C. dimensionality reduction.
D. All of the above.
Answer: A

52. . Market-basket problem was formulated by .

A. Agrawal et al.
B. Steve et al.
C. Toda et al.
D. Simon et al.
Answer: A

53. Which of the following is not a data mining metric?

A. Space complexity.
B. Time complexity.
C. ROI.
D. All of the above.
Answer: D

54. The process of viewing the cross-tab (Single dimensional) with a fixed value of one
attribute is
a) Slicing
b) Dicing
c) Pivoting
d) Both Slicing and Dicing

Answer: A

55. The operation of moving from finer-granularity data to a coarser granularity (by means of
aggregation) is called a _
 a) Rollup
b) Drill down
c) Dicing
d) Pivoting

Answer: A

56. Data that can be modeled as dimension attributes and measure attributes are called
data.
a) Multidimensional
b) Single dimensional
c) Relational
d) Operational

Answer: A

57. is the most well known association rule algorithm and is used in
most commercial products.
A. Apriori algorithm.
B. Partition algorithm.
C. Distributed algorithm.
D. Pincer-search algorithm.
Answer: A

58. The number of iterations in a priori .

A. increases with the size of the maximum frequent set.
B. decreases with increase in size of the maximum frequent set.
C. increases with the size of the data.
D. decreases with the increase in size of the data.

Answer: A

59. If T consist of 500000 transactions, 20000 transaction contain bread, 30000 transaction
contain jam,
10000 transaction contain both bread and jam. Then the support of bread and jam is
.
A. 2%
B. 20%
C. 3%
D. 30%
Answer: A

60. If T consist of 500000 transactions, 20000 transaction contain bread, 30000 transaction contain jam,
10000 transaction contain both bread andjam. Thenthe confidence ofbuying bread with jamis .
A. 33.33%
 B. 66.66%
C. 45%
D. 50%

Answer: D
 Model Question Paper

Subject: Data Warehousing& Mining

Branch: Computer Science & Engineering and Information Technology

Class: BE CSE

Semester: VIII
1.Which of the following features usually applies to data in a data warehouse?

A.Data are often deleted

B.Most applications consist of transactions
C.Data are rarely deleted
D.Relatively few records are processed by applications
Ans: C

2.Which of the following statement is true?

A.The data warehouse consists of data marts and operational data

B.The data warehouse is used as a source for the operational data
C.The operational data are used as a source for the data warehouse
D.All of the above
Ans: C

3.The following is true of three-tier data warehouses:

A.Once created, the data marts will keep on being updated from the data warehouse at
periodic times
B.Once created, the data marts will directly receive their new data from the operational
databases
C.The data marts are different groups of tables in the data warehouse
D.A data mart becomes a data warehouse when it reaches a critical size
Ans: A

4.What is true of the multidimensional model?

A.It typically requires less disk storage

B.It typically requires more disk storage
C.Typical business queries requiring aggregate functions take more time
D.Increasing the size of a dimension is difficult
Ans: B

5.The following technology is not well-suited for data mining:

A.Expert system technology
B.Data visualization
C.Technology limited to specific data types such as numeric data types
D.Parallel architecture
Ans: C

6.OLTP means__________

A. Online Transfer Processing

B.Online Transaction Processing

C.Online Transfer Protocol

D.None of the above

Ans-B

7.Data warehouse is which of the following?

A. Can be updated by end users.

B. Contains numerous naming conventions and formats.
C. Organized around important subject areas.
D. Contains only current data.
Ans: C

8.The generic two-level data warehouse architecture includes which of the following?

A.At least one data mart

B. Data that can extracted from numerous internal and external sources
C. Near real-time updates
D. All of the above.
Ans: B

9.The active data warehouse architecture includes which of the following?

A. At least one data mart
B. Data that can extracted from numerous internal and external sources
C. Near real-time updates
D. All of the above.
Ans: D

10.OLAP means__________

A. Online Analytical Processing

B.Online Answer Processing

C.Online Analysis Protocol

D.None of the above

Ans-A

11.A star schema has what type of relationship between a dimension and fact table?

A. Many-to-many
B. One-to-one
C. One-to-many
D. All of the above.
Ans: C

12.Fact tables are which of the following?

A. Completely demoralized
B. Partially demoralized
C. Completely normalized
D. Partially normalized
Ans: C

13.A snowflake schema is which of the following types of tables?

A. Fact
B. Dimension
C. Helper
D. All of the above
Ans: D

14.A goal of data mining includes which of the following?

A. To explain some observed event or condition
B. To confirm that data exists
C. To analyze data for expected relationships
D. To create a new data warehouse
Ans: A

15.Which of the following statements does not apply to relational databases?

A. Relational databases are simple to understand
B. Tables are one of the basic components of relational databases
C. Relational databases have a strong procedural orientation
D. Relational databases have a strong mathematical foundation
Ans: C

16.In the relational database terminology, a table is synonymous with:

A. A column
B. A row
C. An attribute
D. A relation
Ans: D

17.A null value indicates:

A. A numeric value with value 0
B. The absence of a value
C. A very small value
D. An erroneous value
Ans: B

18.Data in the data warehouse are loaded and refreshed from operational systems.

A. True

B. False

Ans: A

19.Star schema is suited to online transaction processing, and therefore is generally

used in operational systems, operational data stores.

A. True
B. False
Ans: B

20.OLAP is used by knowledge worker.

A.True
B.False
Ans: A
21.Data that can be modeled as dimension attributes and measure attributes are
called _______ data.

A,Multidimensional
B. Singledimensional
C. Measured
D.Dimensional

Ans:A

22.What do data warehouses support?

A.OLAP
B. OLTP
C. OLAP and OLTP
D.Operational database

Ans:A

23.__________ is a subject-oriented, integrated, time-variant, nonvolatile collection of

data in support of management decisions.

A. Data Mining.
B. Data Warehousing.
C. Web Mining.
D. Text Mining

Ans-B

24.Which of the following features usually applies to data in a data warehouse?

A.Data are often deleted
B.Most applications consist of transactions
C.Data are rarely deleted
D.Relatively few records are processed by applications
Ans: C

25.Data mining is

A..The actual discovery phase of a knowledge discovery process

B. The stage of selecting the right data for a KDD process

 C. A subject-oriented integrated time variant non-volatile collection of data in support of
management

D. None of these

Ans:A

26.Which of the following applied on warehouse?

A.write only
B.read only
C. both a & b
D.none of these
Ans:B

27.Data can be store , retrieve and updated in …

A.SMTP
B. OLTP
C.FTP
D.OLAP
Ans:B
28.Data mining is?
A.time variant non-volatile collection of data
B. The actual discovery phase of a knowledge
C.The stage of selecting the right data
D. None of these
Ans:B

29. ——- is not a data mining functionality?

A.Clustering and Analysis
B.Selection and interpretation
C. Classification and regression
D. Characterization and Discrimination
Ans:B

30.——– is the out put of KDD…

 A.Query
B.Useful Information
C. Data
D. information
Ans:B

31.What is noise?
A. component of a network
B.context of KDD and data mining
C.aspects of a data warehouse
D.None of these
Ans:B

32.Data mining is a tool for allowing users to find the hidden relationships in data.
A.True
B.False
Ans:A

33.Classification and regression are the properties of…

A.data analysis
B.data manipulation’
C. data mining
D.none of these
Ans:C
34.Group of similar objects that differ significantly from other objects is named as …
A. Classification
B. cluster
C.community
D.none of these
Ans:B

35.What is the strategic value of data mining?

A. design sensitive
B. cost sensitive
C. technical sensitive
D.time sensitive
Ans:D

36.Methods used to handle noisy data ______

A.Binning
B.Regression
C.Clustering
D.All of the above
Ans:D

37.Datawarehouse is______
A.Subject-Oriented
B.Time-varient
C.integrated
D.All of the above
Ans:A

38.Timehorizon of data warehouse is____

A.1-2 years
B.3-4 Years
C..5-6 Years
D.5-10 Years
Ans:D

39.The data is stored ,retrieved & updated in ___________

A.OLAP
B.OLTP
C.SMTP
D.FTP
Ans:B
40.__________describes the data contained in the data warehouse.
A. Relational data.
B. Operational data.
C. Metadata.
D. Informational data.
Ans:C

41.____________predicts future trends & behaviors, allowing business managers to

make proactive,knowledge-driven decisions.

A. Data warehouse.
B. Data Mining
C. Datmarts
D. Metadata
Ans:B

42._____________databases are owned by particular departments or business

groups.
A. Informational.
B. Operational.
C. Both informational and operational.
D. Flat.
Ans:B

43.What does Apriori algorithm do?

A. It mines all frequent patterns through pruning rules with lesser support

B. It mines all frequent patterns through pruning rules with higher support

C. Both a and b

D. None of the above

Ans: A

44.What techniques can be used to improve the efficiency of apriori algorithm?

A. Hash-based techniques
B. Transaction Reduction

C. Partitioning

D. All of the above

Ans: D

45.What do you mean by support(A)?

A. Total number of transactions containing A

B. Total Number of transactions not containing A

C. Number of transactions containing A / Total number of transactions

D. Number of transactions not containing A / Total number of transactions

Ans: C

46.Which of the following is direct application of frequent itemset mining?

A. Social Network Analysis

B. Market Basket Analysis

C. Outlier Detection

D. Intrusion Detection

Ans: B

47.When do you consider an association rule interesting?

A. If it only satisfies min_support

B. If it only satisfies min_confidence

C. If it satisfies both min_support and min_confidence

D. There are other measures to check so

Ans: C
48.What is association rule mining?

A. Same as frequent itemset mining

B. Finding of strong association rules using frequent itemsets

C. Using association to analyse correlation rules

D. None of the above

Ans: B

49.The number of iterations in apriori ___________

A. increases with the size of the data

B. decreases with the increase in size of the data

C. increases with the size of the maximum frequent set

D. decreases with increase in size of the maximum frequent set

Ans: C

50.Frequent item sets is

A. Superset of only closed frequent item sets

B. Superset of only maximal frequent item sets

C. Subset of maximal frequent item sets

D. Superset of both closed frequent item sets and maximal frequent item sets

And: D

51.Significant Bottleneck in the Apriori algorithm is

A. Finding frequent itemsets

B. Pruning

C. Candidate generation

D. Number of iterations
Ans: C

52.Which Association Rule would you prefer

A. High support and medium confidenc

B. High support and low confidence

C. Low support and high confidence

D. Low support and low confidence

And: C

53.Which of the following task is market basket analysis?

A. Classification

B. Regression

C. Association analysis

D. Outlier analysis

Ans-C

54.Frequent pattern consist of_____

A. Frequent itemset

B. Subsequences

C. Substructures

D. All of the above

Ans-D

55.Frequent pattern mining is used to find ______between itemsets.

A. Association

B. Correlation

C. Association & correlation

D. Grouping

Ans -C
56.Rule interesting measures______

A. Support

B. Confidence

C. Support and confidence

D. Pattern

Ans-C

57. Apriori algorithm is proposed in ______

A. 1994

B. 1995

C. 1993

D. 1997

Ans-A

58.Apriori algorithm uses ____

A. Join step

B. Prune step

C. Join and prune

D. None of the above

Ans-C

59.Cluster is

A.Group of similar objects that differ significantly from other objects

B .Operations on a database to transform or simplify data in order to prepare it for a

machine-learning algorithm

C .Symbolic representation of facts or ideas from which information can potentially be

extracted

D .None of these

Ans-A
60. A good clustering method will produce high quality clusters with

A. high inter class similarity

B. low intra class similarity

C.high intra class similarity

D.no inter class similarity

Ans-C
 Model Question Paper

Subject: Data Warehousing& Mining

Branch: Computer Science & Engineering and Information Technology

Class: BE CSE& IT

Semester: VIII
1.Which of the following features usually applies to data in a data warehouse?

A.Data are often deleted

B.Most applications consist of transactions
C.Data are rarely deleted
D.Relatively few records are processed by applications
Ans: C

2.Which of the following statement is true?

A.The data warehouse consists of data marts and operational data

B.The data warehouse is used as a source for the operational data
C.The operational data are used as a source for the data warehouse
D.All of the above
Ans: C

3.The following is true of three-tier data warehouses:

A.Once created, the data marts will keep on being updated from the data warehouse at
periodic times
B.Once created, the data marts will directly receive their new data from the operational
databases
C.The data marts are different groups of tables in the data warehouse
D.A data mart becomes a data warehouse when it reaches a critical size
Ans: A

4.What is true of the multidimensional model?

A.It typically requires less disk storage

B.It typically requires more disk storage
C.Typical business queries requiring aggregate functions take more time
D.Increasing the size of a dimension is difficult
Ans: B

5.The following technology is not well-suited for data mining:

A.Expert system technology
B.Data visualization
C.Technology limited to specific data types such as numeric data types
D.Parallel architecture
Ans: C

6.OLTP means__________

A. Online Transfer Processing

B.Online Transaction Processing

C.Online Transfer Protocol

D.None of the above

Ans-B

7.Data warehouse is which of the following?

A. Can be updated by end users.

B. Contains numerous naming conventions and formats.
C. Organized around important subject areas.
D. Contains only current data.
Ans: C

8.The generic two-level data warehouse architecture includes which of the following?

A.At least one data mart

B. Data that can extracted from numerous internal and external sources
C. Near real-time updates
D. All of the above.
Ans: B

9.The active data warehouse architecture includes which of the following?

A. At least one data mart
B. Data that can extracted from numerous internal and external sources
C. Near real-time updates
D. All of the above.
Ans: D

10.OLAP means__________

A. Online Analytical Processing

B.Online Answer Processing

C.Online Analysis Protocol

D.None of the above

Ans-A

11.A star schema has what type of relationship between a dimension and fact table?

A. Many-to-many
B. One-to-one
C. One-to-many
D. All of the above.
Ans: C

12.Fact tables are which of the following?

A. Completely demoralized
B. Partially demoralized
C. Completely normalized
D. Partially normalized
Ans: C

13.A snowflake schema is which of the following types of tables?

A. Fact
B. Dimension
C. Helper
D. All of the above
Ans: D

14.A goal of data mining includes which of the following?

A. To explain some observed event or condition
B. To confirm that data exists
C. To analyze data for expected relationships
D. To create a new data warehouse
Ans: A

15.Which of the following statements does not apply to relational databases?

A. Relational databases are simple to understand
B. Tables are one of the basic components of relational databases
C. Relational databases have a strong procedural orientation
D. Relational databases have a strong mathematical foundation
Ans: C

16.In the relational database terminology, a table is synonymous with:

A. A column
B. A row
C. An attribute
D. A relation
Ans: D

17.A null value indicates:

A. A numeric value with value 0
B. The absence of a value
C. A very small value
D. An erroneous value
Ans: B

18.Data in the data warehouse are loaded and refreshed from operational systems.

A. True

B. False

Ans: A

19.Star schema is suited to online transaction processing, and therefore is generally

used in operational systems, operational data stores.

A. True
B. False
Ans: B

20.OLAP is used by knowledge worker.

A.True
B.False
Ans: A
21.Data that can be modeled as dimension attributes and measure attributes are
called _______ data.

A,Multidimensional
B. Singledimensional
C. Measured
D.Dimensional

Ans:A

22.What do data warehouses support?

A.OLAP
B. OLTP
C. OLAP and OLTP
D.Operational database

Ans:A

23.__________ is a subject-oriented, integrated, time-variant, nonvolatile collection of

data in support of management decisions.

A. Data Mining.
B. Data Warehousing.
C. Web Mining.
D. Text Mining

Ans-B

24.Which of the following features usually applies to data in a data warehouse?

A.Data are often deleted
B.Most applications consist of transactions
C.Data are rarely deleted
D.Relatively few records are processed by applications
Ans: C

25.Data mining is

A..The actual discovery phase of a knowledge discovery process

B. The stage of selecting the right data for a KDD process

 C. A subject-oriented integrated time variant non-volatile collection of data in support of
management

D. None of these

Ans:A

26.Which of the following applied on warehouse?

A.write only
B.read only
C. both a & b
D.none of these
Ans:B

27.Data can be store , retrieve and updated in …

A.SMTP
B. OLTP
C.FTP
D.OLAP
Ans:B
28.Data mining is?
A.time variant non-volatile collection of data
B. The actual discovery phase of a knowledge
C.The stage of selecting the right data
D. None of these
Ans:B

29. ——- is not a data mining functionality?

A.Clustering and Analysis
B.Selection and interpretation
C. Classification and regression
D. Characterization and Discrimination
Ans:B

30.——– is the out put of KDD…

 A.Query
B.Useful Information
C. Data
D. information
Ans:B

31.What is noise?
A. component of a network
B.context of KDD and data mining
C.aspects of a data warehouse
D.None of these
Ans:B

32.Data mining is a tool for allowing users to find the hidden relationships in data.
A.True
B.False
Ans:A

33.Classification and regression are the properties of…

A.data analysis
B.data manipulation’
C. data mining
D.none of these
Ans:C
34.Group of similar objects that differ significantly from other objects is named as …
A. Classification
B. cluster
C.community
D.none of these
Ans:B

35.What is the strategic value of data mining?

A. design sensitive
B. cost sensitive
C. technical sensitive
D.time sensitive
Ans:D

36.Methods used to handle noisy data ______

A.Binning
B.Regression
C.Clustering
D.All of the above
Ans:D

37.Datawarehouse is______
A.Subject-Oriented
B.Time-varient
C.integrated
D.All of the above
Ans:A

38.Timehorizon of data warehouse is____

A.1-2 years
B.3-4 Years
C..5-6 Years
D.5-10 Years
Ans:D

39.The data is stored ,retrieved & updated in ___________

A.OLAP
B.OLTP
C.SMTP
D.FTP
Ans:B
40.__________describes the data contained in the data warehouse.
A. Relational data.
B. Operational data.
C. Metadata.
D. Informational data.
Ans:C

41.____________predicts future trends & behaviors, allowing business managers to

make proactive,knowledge-driven decisions.

A. Data warehouse.
B. Data Mining
C. Datmarts
D. Metadata
Ans:B

42._____________databases are owned by particular departments or business

groups.
A. Informational.
B. Operational.
C. Both informational and operational.
D. Flat.
Ans:B

43.What does Apriori algorithm do?

A. It mines all frequent patterns through pruning rules with lesser support

B. It mines all frequent patterns through pruning rules with higher support

C. Both a and b

D. None of the above

Ans: A

44.What techniques can be used to improve the efficiency of apriori algorithm?

A. Hash-based techniques
B. Transaction Reduction

C. Partitioning

D. All of the above

Ans: D

45.What do you mean by support(A)?

A. Total number of transactions containing A

B. Total Number of transactions not containing A

C. Number of transactions containing A / Total number of transactions

D. Number of transactions not containing A / Total number of transactions

Ans: C

46.Which of the following is direct application of frequent itemset mining?

A. Social Network Analysis

B. Market Basket Analysis

C. Outlier Detection

D. Intrusion Detection

Ans: B

47.When do you consider an association rule interesting?

A. If it only satisfies min_support

B. If it only satisfies min_confidence

C. If it satisfies both min_support and min_confidence

D. There are other measures to check so

Ans: C
48.What is association rule mining?

A. Same as frequent itemset mining

B. Finding of strong association rules using frequent itemsets

C. Using association to analyse correlation rules

D. None of the above

Ans: B

49.The number of iterations in apriori ___________

A. increases with the size of the data

B. decreases with the increase in size of the data

C. increases with the size of the maximum frequent set

D. decreases with increase in size of the maximum frequent set

Ans: C

50.Frequent item sets is

A. Superset of only closed frequent item sets

B. Superset of only maximal frequent item sets

C. Subset of maximal frequent item sets

D. Superset of both closed frequent item sets and maximal frequent item sets

And: D

51.Significant Bottleneck in the Apriori algorithm is

A. Finding frequent itemsets

B. Pruning

C. Candidate generation

D. Number of iterations
Ans: C

52.Which Association Rule would you prefer

A. High support and medium confidenc

B. High support and low confidence

C. Low support and high confidence

D. Low support and low confidence

And: C

53.Which of the following task is market basket analysis?

A. Classification

B. Regression

C. Association analysis

D. Outlier analysis

Ans-C

54.Frequent pattern consist of_____

A. Frequent itemset

B. Subsequences

C. Substructures

D. All of the above

Ans-D

55.Frequent pattern mining is used to find ______between itemsets.

A. Association

B. Correlation

C. Association & correlation

D. Grouping

Ans -C
56.Rule interesting measures______

A. Support

B. Confidence

C. Support and confidence

D. Pattern

Ans-C

57. Apriori algorithm is proposed in ______

A. 1994

B. 1995

C. 1993

D. 1997

Ans-A

58.Apriori algorithm uses ____

A. Join step

B. Prune step

C. Join and prune

D. None of the above

Ans-C

59.Cluster is

A.Group of similar objects that differ significantly from other objects

B .Operations on a database to transform or simplify data in order to prepare it for a

machine-learning algorithm

C .Symbolic representation of facts or ideas from which information can potentially be

extracted

D .None of these

Ans-A
60. A good clustering method will produce high quality clusters with

A. high inter class similarity

B. low intra class similarity

C.high intra class similarity

D.no inter class similarity

Ans-C
 Model Question Paper
Subject SOFTWARE METRICS AND QUALITY ASSURANCE

Branch : Computer Engineering /Information Technology

Class : BE

Semester : VIII

1) Which of the following comes under the Control Structure Testing?

a. Condition testing

b. Loop testing

c. Data Flow Testing

d. All of the above

Answer: d

2) Which of the following is software metric that provides a quantitative measure of the
logical complexity of a program?

a. Cyclomatic Complexity

b. LOC

c. Function Point

d. None of the above.

Answer : a

1 P.T.O.
3) A graphical technique for finding if changes and variation in metrics data are
meaningful is known as

a. DRE (Defect Removal Efficiency)

b. Function points analysis

c. Control Chart

d. All of the mentioned

Answer :c

4) Cost and schedule are a part of_________________________?

a. Product Metrics

b. Process Metrics

c. Project Metrics

d. All of the mentioned

Answer :c

5) In size oriented metrics, metrics are developed based on the___________.

a. Number of lines of code

b. number of user input

c. number of function

d. None of the above.

Answer :a

2
6) Loop Testing methodology includes which of the following.

a. simple loops

b. Nested loops

c. Concatenated loops.

d. All of the above

Answer :d

7) Which of the following is an indirect measure of product?

a. Quality

b. Complexity

c. Reliability

d. All of the mentioned

Answer :d

8) What Direct measures include in the Software product?

a. Line of Code (LOC)

b. Execution Speed

c. Defect reported

d All of these

Answer :a

3 P.T.O.
9) Which of the following is an example of QA

a. validation

b. Software testing

c. verification

d. Documentation

Answer :c

10) What does QA and QC stand for

a. Quality Adjustment and Queuing control

b. Quality Assurance and Quality control

c. Quality Adjustment and Quality completion

d. Quality Assurance and Queuing Control

Answer :b

11) ______ is a white-box testing technique first proposed by Tom McCabe.

a. Equivalence Partitioning

b. Basis Path Testing

c. Boundary Value Analysis

d. None of the above.

Answer :b

12) Equivalence partitioning and boundary value analysis techniques are used only
during system testing

a. True

b. False

Answer :b

4
13) Which of the followings is/are not a Specification Based Technique?

a. Cause-Effect Table

b. State transition Testing

c. Decision Coverage

d. Use case Testing

Answer :c

14) Abbreviate the term CMMI.

a. Capability Maturity Modification integration

b. Capability Managed Maturity Integration

c. Capability Maturity Model Integrator

d. Capability Maturity Model Integration

Answer :d

15) Which of the following is the Process Improvement Model?

a. CMMI

b. Agile

c. Prototyping

d. V model

Answer :a

5 P.T.O.
16) Which of the following is not an information domain required for determining
function point in FPA?

a) Number of user Input

b) Number of user Inquiries

c) Number of external Interfaces

d) Number of errors

Answer :d

17) Defects removal efficiency (DRE)depends on:

a) E – errors found before software delivery

b) D – defects found after delivery to user

c) Both E and D

d) Varies with project

Answer :c

18) Which of the following is not included in External failure costs?

a) testing

b) help line support

c) warranty work

d) complaint resolution

Answer :a

6
19) Which of the following are advantage of using LOC (lines of code) as a size- oriented
metric?

a. LOC is easily computed.

b. LOC is language dependent measure

c. LOC is a language dependent measure

d. LOC can be computed before a design is completed.

Answer :a

20) Advantage of using function point(FP) as measure of the functionality delivered by a

software application?

a. FP is a language dependent measure

b. FP is a language independent measure

c. FP can be computed before a design is completed

d. b and c

Answer :d

21) Which metric gives the idea about the contents on a web page ?

a. Word Token

b. Word Count

c. Word Size

d. Word Length

Answer :b

7 P.T.O.
22) Number of dynamic web pages provides an idea about________ for a web page that is
to be built.

a. Size

b. Complexity

c. Effort

d. All of the mentioned

Answer :b

23) Function Points in software engineering was first proposed by

a. Booch

b. Boehm

c. Albrecht

d. Jacobson

Answer :c

24) How many Information Domain Values are used for Function Point Computation?

a. three

b. four

c. five

d. six

Answer :c

8
25) Function Point Computation is given by the formula

a. FP = [count total * 0.65] + 0.01 * sum(Fi)

b. FP = count total * [0.65 + 0.01 * sum(Fi)]

c. FP = count total * [0.65 + 0.01] * sum(Fi)

d. FP = [count total * 0.65 + 0.01] * sum(Fi)

Answer :b

26) SMI stands for

a. Software Mature Indicator

b. Software Maturity Index

c. Software Mature Index

d. Software Maturity Indicator

Answer :b

27) Size and Complexity are a part of

a. Product Metrics
b. Process Metrics
c. Project Metrics
d. None of the above
Answer :a
28) Which of the following is not categorized under Product Operation of McCall’s
Software Quality Factors?
a. Flexibility
b. Reliability
c. Usability.
d. Integrity
Answer :a

9 P.T.O.
29) Which of the following is not categorized under Component-Level Design Metrics?

a. Complexity Metrics
b. Cohesion Metrics
c. Morphology Metrics
d. Coupling Metrics
Answer :c
30) From the following methods which size of the software product can be calculated?

a. Counting the lines of delivered code

b. Counting delivered function points
c. Both a and b above
d. None of the above
Answer :c
31) Direct measure of SE process
a. Efficiency
b. Cost
c. Effort Applied
d. All of the mentioned
Answer :a
32) The environment that supports the software project is called
a. CLSS
b. SEE
c. FAST
d. CBSE
Answer :b
33) Which of the following is not a phase of “bathtub curve” of hardware reliability?
a. Useful Life
b. Burn-in
c. Wear-out
d. Time
Answer :d

10
34) How is reliability and failure intensity related to each other?
a. direct relation
b. inverse relation
c. no relation
d. none of the mentioned
Answer :b
35) How many product quality factors are proposed in McCall quality model?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 11
d. 8
Answer :b
36) Which one of the following is not a software quality model?
a. ISO 9000
b. McCall model
c. Boehm model
d. ISO 9126
Answer :a
37) What is MTTF?
a. Maximum time to failure
b. Mean time to failure
c. Minimum time to failure
d. None of the mentioned
Answer :b
38) The CMM model is a technique to
a. automatically maintain the software reliability
b. Improve the software process.
c. test the software
d. all of the mentioned
Answer :b

11 P.T.O.
39) Which level of CMM is for process management?
a. Initial
b. Repeatable
c. Defined
d. Optimizing
Answer :d
40) SCM stands for
a. Software Control Management
b. Software Configuration Management
c. Software Concept Management
d. None of the mentioned
Answer :b
41) Which of the following is not a main phase in Configuration Management (CM)
Process?
a. CM Planning
b. Executing the CM process
c. CM audits
d. None of the mentioned
Answer :d
42) What are one or more software configuration items that have been formally
reviewed and agreed upon and serve as a basis for further development?
a. Baseline
b. Cumulative changes
c. CM
d. Change Control
Answer :a
43) Which of the following is a example of Configuration Items ?
a. SCM procedures
b. Source code
c. Software design descriptions
d. All of the mentioned
Answer :b

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44) Quality Management in software engineering is also known as
a. SQA
b. SQM
c. SQI
d. SQA and SQM
Answer :a
45) Quality also can be looked at in terms of user satisfaction which includes
a. A compliant product
b. Good quality output
c. Delivery within budget and schedule
d. All of the mentioned
Answer :d
46) Non-conformance to software requirements is known as
a. Software availability
b. Software reliability
c. Software failure
d. None of the mentioned
Answer :c
47) What kind of quality cost is incurred when an error is detected in a product prior to
shipment?
a. Prevention
b. Internal Failure
c. External Failure
d. Appraisal
Answer :b
48) According to ISO 9001, inspection and testing comes under which management
responsibility?
a. Process control
b. Document control
c. Control of nonconforming products
d. Servicing
Answer :a

13 P.T.O.
49) Line of code (LOC) can be used to normalize quality and/or productivity measure for
_______.
a. Extended function point metrics
b. Function point metrics.
c. Size oriented metrics.
d. d. None of the above.
Answer :c
50) Measure of reliability is given by ______.
a. Mean Time between successes.
b. Mean reliable
c. Mean Time between failures (MTBF).
d. MTTR
Answer :c
51) A COCOMO model is ________.
a. Common Cost Estimation Model.
b. Constructive Cost Estimation Model.
c. Complete Cost Estimation Model.
d. Comprehensive Cost Estimation Model
Answer :b
52) Cost of Production = Right The First time cost (RTF +-----------).
a. Cost of Deployment
b. Cost of Quality
c. Cost of maintenance
d. Cost of Production
Answer :b
53) Which is the Estimation Software size should be known?
a. Time estimation
b. Effort estimation
c. Cost estimation
d. Software size estimation
Answer :b

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54) Object inherits a class is known as _____ .
a. Maintenance
b. Operations
c. Transitional
d. Development
Answer :b
55) In the Empirical Estimation Technique which model is developed by Barry W.
Boehm?
a. Putnam model
b. COCOMO
c. Both A & B
d. None of the above
Answer :b
56) What is a special set of ISO guidelines that developed to help the interpret standard
for the use in software process?
a. ISO 9001-2000
b. ISO 9001-2001
c. ISO 9000-3
d. ISO 9000-4
Answer :c
57) What is the correctness, completeness, and consistency of the requirements model
will have a strong influence on the quality of all work products that follow?
a. Requirement quality
b. Design quality
c. Code quality
d. Quality control effectiveness
Answer :a

15 P.T.O.
58) Which quality deals with the maintaining the quality of the software product?
a. Quality assurance
b. Quality control
c. Quality Efficiency
d. None of the above
Answer :b
59) Which is focused towards the goal of the organization?
a. Feasibility study
b. Requirement gathering
c. Software requirement specification
d. Software requirement validation
Answer :a
60) What is the project and process level that provides the Quality Metric benefit?
a. Defect amplification
b. Defect removal efficiency
c. Measuring quality
d. All mentioned above
Answer :b

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