M

CRJ-700 Systems

SA
TEST GUIDE

U
H
GENERAL LIMITATION & DIMENTION :

1. What is the "Maximum Thrust Rating" for a "Normal

Takeoff"?: 12,670 LBS Thrust
2. What is the "Maximum Thrust Rating" for a takeoff using APR
thrust?: 13,790 Lbs Thrust
3. What type of engines are on the CRJ 700?: General Electric
CF34-8C1 (old)
General Electric CF34-8C5B1 (new)
4. The N1 Fan generates ____% of the "Takeoff Thrust".: 80%
5. The engines provide what stages of bleed air?: 6th and 10th Stages
6. The engine driven generators are driven by what?: The
"Accessory Gearbox".
7. What is the power output of the "engine driven generators"?: 40
KVA
8. The "Accessory Gearbox" drives what?: 1. Engine Driven
Generators
2. Engine Driven Hydraulic Pumps.
3. Fuel Metering Unit (FMU).
4. FADEC Generator above 50% N2
5. The Air Turbine Starter actually drives the Accessory Gearbox
during engine start.
9. The CRJ 700 is capable of "Maintaining" what speed?: M.81
10. What is the "Normal" cruising speed of the CRJ 700?: M.77
11. What is the "Maximum Operating Altitude"?: 41,000 feet
12. What is the "Length Overall" of the aircraft?: 106' 8"
13. What is the "Wingspan" of the aircraft?: 76' 3"
 M
14. What is the "Height of the Tail" of the aircraft?: 24' 10"

SA
15. What is the "Wing Tip" clearance height of the aircraft?: 6
feet

U
16. How tall are the winglets?: 4 feet
17. How much area is required in front of the nose to clear the tail

H
during a 180 degree turn?: 14"
18. The "Horizontal Stabilizer" markings on the tail indicate:
FULL UP: ? / FULL DOWN:?: Full UP: +13 Degrees
Full Down: -2 Degrees
19. How many emergency exits are there on the aircraft and where
are they?: Total of 5 emergency exits.

1. Left Overwing exit (Row 13)

2. Right Overwing exit (Row 13)
3. Main Cabin Door
4. Galley Service Door
5. Cockpit Escape Hatch
20. With the Radome "Closed", how far does the "Radar Hazard
Area" extend in front of the nose?: 2 feet
21. Which cargo compartments are "Pressurized"?: Both Forward
and Aft compartments.
22. Which cargo compartments are "Ventilated"?: Only the AFT
Compartment.
23. If you were to carry "Live Animals" which cargo
compartment would you put them in?: AFT Cargo compartment only!
24. Is the Forward cargo compartment heated?: NO
25. Is the AFT cargo compartment heated?: YES
26. What features does the cabin incorporate to reduce cabin
noise?: Thermal insulation
Acoustical insulation
Vibration isolators

‫ـــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــ‬
 M
SA
WATER SYS :

U
H
27. How many water systems are there and what are their names?:
2 water systems

Galley Water System

Lavatory Water System
28. Where on the aircraft are the service panels for the water
systems?: Galley Water System: Right / Forward Fuselage
Lavatory Water System: Right / Aft Fuselage
29. The Lavatory Water System provides for what?: Warm water
to the sink basin.
30. Where is the "Lavatory Water Tank" physically located on the
aircraft?: Beneath the cargo bay.
31. Is it possible to shutoff the water supply to each individual
water system?: YES ... Each system has a mechanically operated
shutoff valve to control water flow.

Galley Water Shutoff: In the coat closet within the cockpit.

Aft Lavatory Shutoff: Behind the toilet paper dispenser.
32. Does each water system have a separate water pump or is there
only one pump to pressurize the system?: Each system has a separate
electric water pump to move water from the tank to the water manifold.
The water pump is only functional when there is "no bleed air" from the
engine or APU available. With bleed air available it will pressurized the
water systems.

The forward galley water system is pressurized at all times (keeps a

constant pressure).
 M
The Aft Lavatory water system is only pressurized when the faucet

SA
handle is depressed.
33. What maintains pressure within each individual water

U
system?: Normally bleed air with the engines running.

H
Each electric water pump has a pressure switch to maintain water
system pressure when the engines are shut down.
34. How is the "Pressure Switch" for the lavatory water pump
system activated?: The water pump is activated when the faucet handle
is pushed down.
35. Are the water storage tanks heated for the fresh water
systems?: YES ... Both tanks are heated to prevent freezing.

The aft water tank is also heated to provide hot water to the sink basin.
36. What components of the water systems are heated?: 1. Drain
Masts
2. Hose assemblies
3. Drain lines
37. What is meant if a "OVHT" light is illuminated on the Potable
Water Control Panel?: The respective water systems water
temperature has exceeded 65 degrees C.
38. How long will the toilet flush motor operate when the lever is
depressed?: 10 seconds
39. How is "waste water" from the Galley and Lavatory water
systems stored?: It is not stored. It is drained overboard through heated
drain masts on the lower fuselage.
40. What color is the "Water Level Indicators" if sufficient water
quantity is onboard?: Green
41. What color is the "Water Level Indicators" if the water
quantity is low?: Amber
42. Are the two (2) water system service panels identical?: YES

‫ـــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــ‬
 M
SA
AIR CONDITION SYS. :

U
H
43. How many "Air Conditioning Packs" are there on the aircraft
and what are their names?: Two
Cabin Pack and Cockpit Pack
44. Where are the "Packs" physically located on the aircraft?: Aft
Equipment Bay
45. The "Cockpit Pack" is controlled by what?: Air Conditioning
System Controller #1 (ACSC #1)
46. The "Cabin Pack" is controlled by what?: Air Conditioning
System Controller #2 (ACSC #2)
47. In the event that one (1) pack fails, what will the remaining
pack do?: It will automatically pick up the entire load and go to "FULL
FLOW".
48. What is the purpose of the "Air Conditioning System
Controllers"?: They control the "Packs" and conditioned air flow.
49. Each ACSC has two (2) channels called ______ and _______.:
Channel A and Channel B
50. Are "both" Air Conditioning System Controller channels
operating at all times?: No
Functional channel alternates on a daily basis. The opposite channel is
in "STBY" mode.

Channel "A": ODD Days

Channel "B": EVEN Days

51. Is there any cockpit indication of the active ACSC channel?:
NO
52. Air Conditioning "Pack Valves" are considered to be ________
control valves.: Flow
 M
53. Air Conditioning Pack Valves are _________ controlled,

SA
_________ operated.: Electrically Controlled
Pneumatically Operated

U
54. What is the purpose of the "Pack" switchlights on the Air
Conditioning Panel?: They Open / Close the associated Pack Valve?

H
55. Normally the ACSC regulates the amount of air flow through
the packs dependent on what factors?: 1. Pressure Altitude
2. Difference in Ambient Temperature.
56. At what times are the Air Conditioning Packs "Fully
Closed"?: During Engine Starts - Pack resumes operation at "Starter
Cutout".

57. If one (1) Air Conditioning Pack fails, the remaining pack will
supply conditioned air to both the flight deck and cabin but at a
_________.: Reduced Volume
58. If an Air Conditioning "PACK FAULT" occurs, how will it be
indicated?: 1. The Pack Fault switchlight illuminates on the Air
Conditioning Panel.
2. A "L/R PACK INOP" status message is displayed.
59. How many "temperature sensors" are there to control:
Cockpit Temperature: ?
Cabin Temperature: ?: Cockpit: 1
Cabin: 2 (1 Forward and 1 Aft)
60. When does the "PULL UP / PULL DOWN" feature of the
automatic temperature control take effect?: 1. When the aircraft is on
the ground only.
2. "Actual cabin temperature" is more than 10 degrees different from
"Selected Temperature".
61. What occurs with the "Packs" when the "PULL UP / PULL
DOWN" feature of the automatic temperature control engages?: 1.
Packs go to "FULL FLOW".
2. Packs temperature operating limits increase.
62. If the "automatic" temperature controller fails, how can the
cabin and cockpit temperatures be regulated?: By selecting either
Left "MANUAL" switchlight or Right "Manual" switchlight on the Air
 M
Conditioning Control Panel.

SA
You must manually adjust pack output temperature using the toggle

U
switches.
63. When using the "Manual" mode to regulate cabin or cockpit

H
temperature, what must you try to avoid?: Allowing the pack output
temperature to exceed limits (85 degrees C).

We are no longer allowed to operate the packs in the manual mode

"unless" the auto mode is inoperative!

Do not leave the aircraft unattended when operating the packs in the
"manual" mode!
64. At what temperature will the Air Conditioning Packs
overtemp?: 85 degrees C
65. If a pack "over temps", what must take place for continued
pack operation?: 1. The associated pack must be selected to
"Off/Reset".
2. Pack must cool.
66. Where is "RAM AIR" obtained from?: Through a scoop on the
top of the fuselage near the tail.
67. What does "RAM AIR" air flow provide for?: Cools the Heat
Exchanger.
68. Where does "RAM AIR" exhaust to after cooling the heat
exchanger?: Through louvers on the left and right / aft sides of the
fuselage.
69. During "ground operations" what augments the ram air flow
to the pack heat exchangers?: A fan automatically operates within the
ram air scoop anytime the aircraft is on the ground and stationary.
70. What drives the fan within the RAM Air scoop?: Mechanically
driven by the Air Cycle Machine.
71. What is the purpose of the Air Conditioning system "Mixing
Manifold"?: It will recirculate 34% of the cabin air back to the air
conditioning system to increase heating and cooling efficiency.
 M
SA
Note: Recirc Fan must be selected "ON".
72. When should "Emergency RAM Air" be used?: 1. Only at

U
"Low Altitudes" (Below 15,000')
2. Only when "both" Air Conditioning System Controllers fail to

H
function.
73. Does "RAM AIR" go through the Air Conditioning Packs?: No
... It is directly connected to the ducting.
74. The Maximum altitude for bleed air extraction from the APU
is what?: 25,000 feet
75. What controls the "automatic" bleed air source selection?: Air
Conditioning System Controllers
76. How can the bleed source be controlled "manually"?: By
selecting "Manual" on the rotary dial on the Bleed Air Control Panel
and then selecting the desired source.
77. What does the caution message "APU BLEED ON" message
indicate?: The APU has been manually selected as the bleed air source
and the aircraft is above 25,000 feet.
78. What sources are available for bleed air during "GROUND
OPERATIONS"?: 1. Engines
2. APU
3. External Air Cart
79. When using "External Air" to ventilate the cabin during
ground operations, what precautions must be observed?: The Main
Cabin Door or Galley Service Door must remain open at all times to
prevent the cabin from pressurizing.
80. What cargo bays are pressurized?: Forward and Aft
81. What cargo bays are ventilated?: Aft Cargo Bay only!
82. What cargo bays are heated?: Aft Cargo Bay only!
83. At what times is ventilation of the AFT cargo bay inhibited?:
When smoke or fire is detected within the aft cargo bay.
84. What must be "ON" to ventilate the aft cargo bay?: Recirc Fan
85. In order for the heater to work in the aft cargo compartment
which switch must be selected?: The CARGO switch on the Air
Conditioning Panel must be selected to "AIR".
 M
86. If the conditioned air switch for the aft cargo compartment is

SA
selected to the "OFF" position, what happens?: 1. The "INTAKE
AND EXHAUST" valves in the aft cargo compartment will close.

U
2. The heater is de-energized.
87. At what times will the "electric heater" in the aft cargo

H
compartment de-energize?: During an Aft Cargo compartment fire.
88. If an EICAS message is displayed indicating that the aft cargo
heater is "OFF", how can the message be removed?: Select the cargo
switch to "AIR" position.

Selecting the "AIR" position resets all related EICAS messages!

89. How many smoke detectors are there in the forward cargo
compartment?: 3 in the forward compartment
90. How many smoke detectors are there in the AFT cargo
compartment?: 2
91. What must occur for "SMOKE" to be indicated on the
warning panel?: At least two (2) detectors must have detected smoke.
92. If Smoke or Fire is detected in the AFT Cargo compartment
what will automatically happen?: 1. Intake SOV closes
2. Exhaust SOV closes
3. Heater is de-energized.
93. Prior to reaching the Air Conditioning Packs the bleed air goes
through three (3) phases. What are they?: 1. Bleed Air is pre-cooled
through the Pre-Cooler.
2. Water is separated from the bleed air.
3. Bleed air is mixed with cooler ambient air to control temperature.
94. When do the Cabin Pressure Controllers (CPC's) alternate
active controllers?: 3 minutes after every landing.
95. What are the three (3) sources of cooling air available to the
EFIS and EICAS displays?: 1. Two (2) "AC powered" cooling Fans.
2. Recirc Fan
3. Cockpit air conditioning duct.
96. What is the function of the four switch positions on the AC
powered cooling fans?: GND ALTN:
Switches to the alternate fan if the Primary fan was to fail while on the
 M
ground.

SA
FLT ALTN:

U
Switches to the alternate fan if the Primary fan was to fail while in-
flight.

H
NORM:
Allows automatic selection of the appropriate fan.

STBY:
In the event that "BOTH" AC fans were to fail, selecting "STBY" would
allow cockpit conditioned air to cool the CRT's.

‫ــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــ‬

Pressurization:

97. What is the purpose of the "Ground Valve"?: 1. Dumps

avionics cooling air overboard while on the ground for more efficient
cooling.
a. Requires the MCD or Galley Service Door to be open.(MCD=MAIN
CABIN DOOR)

2. Ensures aircraft is depressurized while on the ground.

98. If an "OVBD COOL" message is displayed, what is
indicated?: The "Ground Valve" has failed in the "OPEN" position with
the MCD or Galley Service Door "Closed".
99. The "Cabin Pressurization System" will maintain a ______
cabin altitude to ______ feet pressure altitude.: 8,000 foot

41,000 feet
 M
100. Where is the "Outflow Valve" physically located on the

SA
aircraft?: On the Aft Pressure Bulkhead.
101. Where does the "Outflow Valve" dump the cabin pressure?:

U
Into the Aft Equipment Bay.
102. How many Cabin Pressure Controllers are there?: Two (2)

H
103. Do the Cabin Pressure Controllers alternate?: Yes. Three (3)
minutes after every landing.
104. Is it possible to know which "Cabin Pressure Controller" is
active at any given time?: YES. It is displayed on the ECS Synoptic
page.
105. Is it possible to manually switch the active pressure
controller?: YES

By pressing the "PRESS CONT" switchlight twice.

Pressing only once selects manual mode (if both pressure controllers
fail).

Pressing a second time switches the active controller.

106. What is the "Microprocessor" built into the Cabin Pressure
Control Panel called?: CPAM "Cabin Pressure Acquisition Module"
107. What is the functions of the "Cabin Pressure Acquisition
Module"?: 1. Drops the passenger O2 masks above 14,000 feet
2. Controls Ground Valve "Opening and Closing".
3. Limits the cabin pressure to 14,500 feet +/- 500 feet.
108. At what altitude will you receive a "CABIN ALTITUDE"
caution message?: 8,600 feet cabin altitude
109. At what altitude will you receive a "CABIN ALTITUDE"
warning message?: at or more 10,000 feet cabin altitude
110. At what altitude will the passenger oxygen masks
"automatically" drop?: 14,500 feet cabin altitude.
111. A "DIFF PRESS" warning message will occur when?: The
differential pressure exceeds 8.6 psi.
112. Is the "Outflow Valve" controlled electrically or
Pneumatically?: Electrically
 M
113. How many motors are there to drive the "Outflow Valve"?:

SA
Three (3)
114. Each of the three motors on the Outflow valve are controlled

U
by what?: Each Cabin Pressure Controller operates one (1).

H
The manual cabin pressure control controls the third motor.

The third motor may also be operated by pressing the "Manual Depress"
switchlight.
115. Operating the cabin pressure system in the "MANUAL" mode
requires what?: Both Cabin Pressure Controllers must have failed.
116. When operating the Cabin Pressure System in the manual
mode you are able to do what?: 1. Maintain a specific cabin altitude.
2. Control the rate of climb / descent.
117. What is the normal cabin differential pressure?: 8.6 PSI
118. Cabin Pressure "Overpressure Relief" occurs at what PSI?:
Above 8.6 PSI
119. Cabin altitude "Under Pressure Relief" occurs at what PSI?: -
.5 PSI
120. The Outflow valve is "Spring Loaded Closed". What is
required to "OPEN" it?: Pneumatic pressure
121. What is indicated if the cabin differential pressure exceeds the
overpressure limits?: 1. "DIFF PRESS" warning is displayed on
EICAS.
2. A Triple Chime aural warning is heard.
3. Differential pressure digital readout on EICAS Status page will turn
RED.
4. PSI readout on ECS synoptic page will turn RED.
122. What indications will appear if a cabin altitude "negative
pressure" limit has been exceeded?: There are no cockpit indications
of an negative pressure condition. The cabin simply indicates "un-
pressurized".
123. At what time will the "Ground Valve" open?: 1. On the ground
with either the MCD or Galley Service Door open.
 M
2. Automatically following touchdown (weight on wheels).

SA
3. When the "EMER DEPRESS" switchlight is pressed.
124. How long does it take the ground valve to "OPEN"?: Normally

U
60 seconds.

H
Opens within 2 seconds if "EMER DEPRESS" switchlight is pressed.
125. The CPAM limits cabin altitude so that it cannot exceed what
altitude?: 14,500 feet +/- 500 feet.
126. What occurs during the "Takeoff Abort Mode" with the cabin
altitude?: Cabin altitude is brought back up to field elevation at 500
fpm for 20 seconds and then the outflow valve will fully "OPEN".
127. What occurs with the cabin pressurization system during the
"Pre-Pressurization Mode?: The cabin altitude is pressurized to 150
feet below field elevation to dampen pressure spikes during takeoff.
128. What occurs with the cabin pressurization system during the
"Flight Abort" mode?: Departure field elevation is remembered for 10
minutes following takeoff. If a return to field is accomplished the cabin
altitude will already be set.
129. When is the "Descent Mode" of the pressurization system
automatically armed?: When the aircraft reaches "cruising altitude".
130. At what rate will the cabin pressure controller "normally"
descend the cabin during approach and landing?: 300 fpm.
It may increase the rate if it determines it is required when calculating
the remaining flight time.
131. When the "Manual Mode" is selected on the cabin pressure
control system, which motor are you actually powering?: The 3rd
motor on the outflow valve.
132. Pressing the "EMER DEPRESS" switchlight will do what?: 1.
Powers the third motor on the outflow valve to "full open".
2. Opens the ground valve within 2 seconds at "High Speed".

NOTE:
Cabin altitude is limited to 14,500 feet +/- 500 feet by CPAM.
‫ـــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــ‬
 M
APU :

SA
U
H
133. What is the Make and Model of the APU?: Allied Signal RE220
134. What is the "Primary Function" of the APU?: To provide AC
power.
135. What is the "Secondary Function" of the APU?: To provide a
backup Bleed Air Source.
136. The APU can supply Bleed Air for what purposes?: 1. Engine
Start
2. Pressurization
3. Air Conditioning
137. Under "High Demands" what loads takes precedence on the
APU?: Electrical Loads

During times of High Demand the ECU will (in conjunction with the
ACSC) command the Load Control Valve (LCV) to close, therefore
reducing the load on the APU.
138. What is the "Maximum Altitude" to Start the APU?: 37,000
feet
139. What is the "Maximum Operating Altitude" for the APU?:
41,000 feet
140. What is the "Maximum Altitude" for engine start using the
APU as the bleed air source?: 25,000 feet
141. What is the "Maximum Altitude" for bleed air extraction from
the APU?: 25,000 feet
142. All faucets of APU operation is controlled by what?: The APU
ECU.
143. The APU ECU controls what functions of the APU?: 1.
Recording Start Cycles.
2. Recording Operating Hours.
3. Sets up appropriate Fuel / Temperature schedules.
 M
144. Is the APU ECU "AC" or "DC" powered?: DC Powered

SA
145. Where is the APU physically installed on the aircraft?: It is
mounted in the "Tail Cone" of the aircraft.

U
146. Where is the APU "Air Intake Duct" located on the aircraft?:
Right side of Aft Fuselage, just behind the right engine.

H
147. At what times is the APU "Air Intake Duct" fully open?: 1.
During APU Start (On Ground Only).
2. All Ground Operations.
3. When inhibited "OPEN" by maintenance personnel.
148. The APU "Air Intake Duct" splits the air into two separate
flows to provide for what?: 1. APU air / oil heat exchanger operation.
- also used to cool APU compartment.

2. APU compressor flow.

149. APU "Exhaust Air" is expelled through the APU ______.:
Eductor
150. Where does the APU obtain its oil supply?: It has a self
contained oil supply.
151. The APU "Intake Door" is considered a _____ position door.:
Variable Position
152. The amount that the APU "Intake Door" opens is controlled
by _______.: The APU ECU
153. The amount that the APU "Intake Door" opens is dependant
on what factors?: 1. Mach speed
2. APU Speed
3. Weight On Wheels
154. Can the APU "Air Intake Door" be overridden "Fully
Open"?: Yes, by maintenance personnel.
155. If the APU "Door Position" is unknown, what is the maximum
speed allowed?: 220 knots or the APU must be running.
156. Why does the APU have to be "running" if the air intake door
position is unknown?: To prevent the APU from wind milling within
the APU "Critical Range" of 4% to 30 %.
157. What is the APU's "Critical Operating Range"?: 4% to 30%
 M
Below 4%: Insufficient heat is generated to cause damage.

SA
Above 30%: There is sufficient oil supply for lubrication and cooling.

U
158. The APU "Intake Door Position" is _______ displayed on the
_______ page of the EICAS.: Always

H
Status
159. If the APU "Air Intake Door Position" is unknown, how will it
be indicated?: The "DOOR OPEN / DOOR CLOSED" indication on the
Status page of the EICAS will turn to amber dashes.
160. APU EGT indications are displayed on the Status Page of the
EICAS. Do these indications stay constant or are they flexible?: The
EGT indication range will fluctuate with different operating conditions.
161. How is the APU oil cooled?: Through a Air / Oil heat exchanger.
Part of the air obtained through the Air Intake Door is utilized for
cooling the oil through the heat exchanger.
162. Is there any cockpit indication showing that metal grindings
are within the APU oil system?: NO

There is a "Chip Detector" within the oil supply, however there is no

cockpit indication showing its status.
163. An amber "APU FAULT" caution message is displayed for
what reasons?: 1. APU oil Temperature is too low.
2. APU oil Pressure is too low.
164. Where does the APU draw its fuel from?: The Left Collector
tank.
165. What is the purpose of the APU Fuel Pump?: To deliver fuel
from the left collector tank to the APU High Pressure Fuel Pump and
the Fuel Control Unit (FCU).
166. If the APU Fuel Pump fails what will happen?: 1. An internal
bypass will "OPEN" and bypass the failed pump.
2. The APU HP Fuel Pump will directly draw the fuel from the Left
Collector tank.
 M
167. What is the purpose of the APU "Fuel Shutoff Valve"?: It will

SA
shutoff the fuel supply to the APU in the event of a fire or during normal
shutdown of the APU.

U
168. When does the APU Fuel SOV become powered?: Anytime that
the APU "POWER/FUEL" switchlight is pressed.

H
169. When will the APU "Fuel Shutoff Valve" close automatically?:
When a APU FIRE is detected.
170. How can the APU "Fuel Feed SOV" be manually closed?: 1.
Pressing the "APU FIRE PUSH" switchlight.
2. Pressing the APU "POWER/FUEL" switchlight.
171. Will the APU automatically shutdown while in-flight if the
APU EGT is high?: YES, unless the APU bleed air is being used for
main engine start.
172. Will the APU automatically shutdown while in-flight for an
"APU FAULT"?: Not if the APU is being used.
173. Will the APU automatically shutdown while on the ground for
a "APU FAULT" caution message?: YES
174. Will the APU automatically shutdown while on the ground for
an "EGT FAULT" caution message?: YES
175. An "EGT FAULT" caution message is an indication of what?:
Thermocouple failure
176. The APU "Ground Auto Shutdown Feature" is enabled
when?: 30 seconds after landing.
177. How long does it take the "Apu Intake Door" to close after
APU auto shutdown occurs?: 30 seconds
178. What is the purpose of the APU's "Solenoid-Operated" fuel
shutoff valve?: Allows for starting the APU when on "Battery Power
Only"
179. During APU start, at what percent does the "Solenoid-
Operated" fuel shutoff valve "OPEN"?: 5% APU RPM
180. The APU "Solenoid-Operated" Fuel shutoff valve is powered
through what switch?: APU "START/STOP" switchlight.
181. Where is the APU EGT temperature measured from?: From
the APU exhaust.
 M
182. If the APU ECU senses that the APU is "Over Temping" what

SA
does it automatically do?: Drives the Load Control Valve (LCV)
towards closed to reduce pneumatic loading. Electrical demands take

U
precedence!
183. The APU "AIR INTAKE DOOR" is powered "OPEN"

H
through what switches?
GROUND:? / FLIGHT:?: GROUND: "POWER/FUEL" switchlight
FLIGHT: "START/STOP" switchlights
184. During APU shutdown, at what percent RPM does the APU
Air Intake Door close?: Below 25%
185. If the APU "Air Intake Door" is "INHIBITED OPEN or
CLOSED" by maintenance personnel, is there any cockpit
indication?: YES
Door status will indicate:
"DOOR INHIBIT OPEN"
"DOOR INHIBIT CLOSED"
186. What are the APU starter "Duty Cycle Limits"?: 3 start
attempts in any 60 minute period with a 2 minute wait between attempts.
187. At what times is the APU start "INHIBITED" by the ECU?
GROUND:? / FLIGHT:?: GROUND: Above 7% RPM
FLIGHT: Above 12% RPM
188. What is the "Minimum Battery Voltage" required for APU
start?: 22 Volts on both the Main and APU batteries.
189. If the APU "Flames Out" what will happen?: The APU will try
to "Auto-Relight" itself down to 12% RPM.
190. What is the maximum APU wind milling RPM allowed for
engaging the starter on the APU while in-flight?: 12% RPM
191. What is the maximum APU wind milling RPM allowed for
engaging the starter while on the ground?: 7% RPM
192. At what times will the APU "Auto Shutdown" while in-flight?:
1. During an APU Fire.
2. High EGT (unless the APU is being used for main engine start).
193. What is the APU Start Sequence of events while on the
GROUND?: Press "PWR/FUEL" switchlight
- APU RPM & TGT gauges are displayed on EICAS
 M
- Activates the ECU

SA
- Opens the APU Air Intake door (on ground only)
- Starts a Pre-Bite test

U
- Opens fuel SOV

H
Press "START/STOP" switchlight
- Starter engages
- At 5% RPM: Fuel and Ignition is energized
- At 50% RPM:
1. Starter cuts out (46% to 60%)
2. "APU Start Message" disappears
- At 99% RPM: Ignition Stops
- At 99% + 2 seconds: "AVAILABLE" switchlight illuminates indicating
that the APU is ready for "electrical" loading.
194. How does the APU "Start Sequence" differ when In-flight
from that on the ground?: The APU Intake door "OPENS" as a
function of the "START/STOP" switchlight rather than the "PWR/FUEL"
switchlight. This allows the ECU to control the amount that the APU
Intake Door opens while in-flight.
195. From what "External Locations" can the APU be shutdown in
the event of an emergency?: 1. External Service Panel
2. From within the APU compartment inside the tail.
196. During APU "Shutdown", what occurs after pressing the
"PWR/FUEL" switchlight?: 1. Power is removed from the ECU.
2. Power is removed from the Apu Fuel Pump.
3. Power is removed from the Fuel Shutoff Valve (SOV).
4. RPM and EGT indications disappear after 30 seconds.
197. Pressing the APU "PWR/FUEL" switchlight during APU start
will:: 1. Activate the ECU.
2. Powers the "APU Fuel Pump".
3. Opens the "APU FUEL SOV".
4. Opens the Air Intake door (within 10 seconds).
a. On Ground Only!
5. Starts a Pre-Start BITE test.
 M
a. Displays status message for 5 seconds.

SA
6. Displays the APU RPM/TGT indications on EICAS Status Page.
198. Pressing the "APU Start Switchlight" a 2nd time will:: Sends a

U
false over speed signal (106%) to shut down the APU.
199. Bleed air is available from the APU when:

H
On Ground? / In Flight?: On Ground: 99% + 60 seconds

In Flight: 99% + 2 seconds

NOTE:
The packs will take up to 1 minute to come on following APU start due
to this time constraint.
200. What will automatically happen if a fire is detected in the APU
while "ON THE GROUND"?: 1. APU Fire Bell Sounds
2. APU Fire Warning is displayed on EICAS
3. APU Shuts down
4. After 5 seconds the APU Fire bottle will discharge
a. The APU fire bottle discharge may be inhibited if you push the "APU
FIRE" switchlight within the 5 seconds.
201. What will automatically happen if a fire is detected in the APU
while "IN FLIGHT"?: 1. APU Fire Bell Sounds
2. APU Fire warning is displayed on EICAS
3. APU automatically shuts down
4. "APU FIRE PUSH" switch light illuminates
5. "APU BOTTLE ARM TO DISC" switch light illuminates once the
APU FIRE PUSH switch light is selected.

NOTE:
The APU fire bottle does not automatically discharge while in-flight!
202. How long after starting the APU is required before a RTL
(ready to load) signal is sent to the ACSC indicating that bleed air is
available?: GROUND: 1 minute (99% + 60 seconds)

FLIGHT: 99% + 2 seconds

 M
203. How can the pilot "manually" open the Load Control valve on

SA
the APU?: Select "Manual" position on the Bleed Air Control Panel.
204. What is required to "OPEN" the Load Control Valve?:

U
Pneumatic bleed air pressure.
205. Following APU start, when is bleed air available to the ACSC

H
while "In-flight"?: 99% RPM + 2 seconds
206. When will Bleed Air "Auto Switching" back to the engines
occur following takeoff? 1. Weight Off Wheels
2. Thrust levers are retarded out of Takeoff position.
3. Gear is up
4. Flaps less than 20 degrees.
207. When will bleed air "Auto Switching" occur back to the APU
on landing?: 1. APU Running
2. Gear is down
3. "or" Flaps are greater than 20 degrees
208. The APU generator is rated at what power and altitude?: 40
KVA to 41,000 feet
209. What is the purpose of the "Surge Control Valve" and at what
altitude does it automatically function?: It dampens electrical surges
from the APU when the APU is "Unloaded".

It will automatically come "ON" above 17,000 feet when the APU is
supplying electrical power.
210. Pressing the "APU Fire" switch light will:: 1. Shuts down the
APU.
2. Trips the APU generator off line.
3. Closes the APU Load Control Valve (LCV).
4. Closes the APU fuel shutoff valve.
5. Arms the APU Bottle to discharge into the APU.
211. The APU fire bottle will only discharge "automatically"
when:: The aircraft is on the ground and a fire has been detected.

NOTE:
Apu fire bottle will discharge 5 seconds after APU shutdown. It takes 5
seconds to close the Intake door.
 M
‫ـــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــ‬

SA
AUTOPILOT :

U
212. What is the purpose of the AFCS system?: It integrates the

H
"Autopilot" and "Flight Director" together.
213. Where does the AFCS system supply information to?: 1. Flight
Directors
2. Autopilot
3. Autopilot Pitch Trim
4. Yaw Dampers
214. What does the term "IAPS" stand for?: Integrated Avionics
Processing System
215. What is the function of the "IAPS" system?: It provides the
interface between various avionics systems.
216. What is the "Main Processors" for the IAPS system?: Flight
Control Computer #1 and Flight Control Computer #2
(FCC1 and FCC2)
217. The "Flight Control Computers" receive information from
what sources?: 1. Flight Control Panel (FCP)
2. Data Concentrator Units (DCU's)
3. Radio Systems
4. Flight Management Computers (FMC's)
218. Are both Flight Directors always active?: Usually not - One is
active and the other is in "Standby Mode". When in the following modes
they work together:

1. Takeoff Mode
2. Approach Mode
3. Go-Around Mode
219. What appears if the "Active Flight Director" fails?: A red
boxed "FD" appears on the PFD. An appropriate white status message
"FD 1 FAIL" or "FD 2 FAIL" will also appear on EICAS.
 M
220. What would be the appropriate action to take if FD #1 displays

SA
failed?: Select the transfer button on the FCP to select the opposite
flight director.

U
221. At what times do "Both" Flight Directors become active and
supply guidance?: In the following modes:

H
1. Takeoff Mode
2. Approach Mode
3. Go Around Mode
222. When the Flight Directors are operating "Independently"
What supplies guidance to the "Captain's" Flight Director?: Flight
Control Computer #1
223. The "left side" of the FMA is considered the ______ field.:
ACTIVE
224. The "right side" of the FMA is considered the ______ field.:
ARMED
225. The "top line" of the FMA indicates what mode?: Lateral Mode
226. The "bottom line" of the FMA indicates what mode?: Vertical
Mode
227. What is the meaning of a "red horizontal line" running
through the active mode of the FMA?: Data is invalid
228. The "active field text" will flash green for _____ seconds while
capturing.: 5 seconds
229. The "Flight Control Panel" on the glareshield is divided into
four (4) modes. What are they?: 1. Flight Director / Course Selector
2. Autopilot
3. Vertical Modes
4. Lateral Modes
230. What do the "green" status lights on each side of the
pushbuttons of the Flight Control Panel mean?: That the respective
Flight Control Computer has acknowledged the request.
231. Is it possible to turn "OFF" the Flight Director with the
autopilot engaged?: NO
232. Selecting the Flight Director pushbutton on the Flight Control
Panel will cause what to happen?
 M
Active Side:? / Standby Side:?: Active Side:

SA
It will remove the Flight Director command bars on "BOTH" sides.

U
Standby Side:
It will remove the Flight Director command bars from that side only!

H
233. Pressing the "center" of the Course Select Knob on the Flight
Control Panel will do what?: Sets 0 degrees deviation to the tuned
station.
234. What is the purpose of the "Flight Director Transfer
Switch"?: Allows the pilot to select the active Flight Director.
235. What indication is on the PFD to tell the pilot which Flight
Director is selected as active?: A white arrow.
236. What do the green status lights on each side of the "XFER"
switchlight on the Flight Control Panel indicate?: It indicates which
"Flight Control Computer" is providing information to the Autopilot.

If no "green" lights are visible then the captain's side is active.

If there is a "green" light on each side of the pushbutton then the First
Officers flight director is active.
237. When will the Flight Director "SYNC" switch operate?: Only
when the autopilot is disengaged.
238. How long will the "SYNC" message appear on the PFD when
the Flight Director SYNC switch is pressed?: 3 seconds or as long as
the button is held down.
239. Selecting the TOGA switch on the thrust levers will do what
while on the ground?: 1. Updates the FMS with the current runway
coordinates.
2. Activates the "Takeoff" lateral and vertical modes.
3. Lateral mode goes to "Heading Hold" with a 5 degree bank authority.
4. Selects a variable Pitch up mode.
5. Displays "TO" in the "Active" field of the FMA.
240. What is the default "lateral mode" when selecting the autopilot
"ON"?: ROLL
 M
241. What is the default "vertical mode" when selecting the

SA
autopilot "ON"?: PITCH
242. What will happen to the aircraft bank if the autopilot is

U
engaged during a gradual turn?: If the aircraft's bank is less than 5
degrees the aircraft will roll wings level. If the aircraft's bank is greater

H
than 5 degrees the current bank angle is maintained. PRESS --
243. What occurs when you press the center of the "Heading Points the
Select" knob on the Flight Control Panel?: The "Heading Bug" will Heading Bug
(both PFDs)
sync to the current aircraft's heading. directly to
244. What "NAV SOURCES" may be selected on the Air Data the present
heading.
Reference Panel?: 1. VOR The Present
2. LOC Heading is the
Lubber Line on
3. FMS the PFD.
245. "Localizer Capture" will automatically disarm what modes?:
1. 1/2 Bank Mode
2. Turbulence Mode
3. Heading Mode
246. What does selecting the "1/2 Bank Mode" do?: Restricts the
aircrafts bank angle to 15 degrees.
247. When does the "1/2 Bank" mode "automatically" engage?:
Above 31,600 feet.
248. Is it possible to de-activate "1/2 Bank Mode" when above
31,600 feet?: YES, by selecting the 1/2 Bank pushbutton.
249. "1/2 Bank" selection is not available in what modes?: 1. Takeoff
2. Approach
3. Go-Around
250. How is altitude capture indicated on the Primary Flight
Display?: A flashing green "ALTS" message in the FMA.
Only occurs when within 100 feet of selected altitude.
251. If another altitude is selected in the altitude "Pre-Select" what
does the "ALTS" change to?: "ALT" (Altitude Hold)
252. At what times will the "Altitude Alert" function sound tones?:
1. 1,000 feet prior to reaching altitude.
2. Deviations of more than 300 feet from selected altitude. (200feet crj900)
 M
3. Deviations of more than 1,000 feet causes the altitude bugs and

SA
digital altitude readout to "Flash" amber.
253. When the "TOGA" button is pressed, what pitch indication

U
will you receive during a go-around?
Single Engine:? / Two Engine:?: Single Engine: Approx. 10 degrees

H
pitch up

Two Engine: Approx. 15 degrees pitch up

254. The Pitch mode of the Flight Control Panel may be engaged by
what different methods?: 1. Pressing the "speed button" 3 times.
2. Manually moving the Pitch wheel.
3. Automatically engages the pitch mode if no other mode is selected
when the autopilot is turned "ON".
255. Each "click" of the manual pitch wheel will adjust the pitch
command bars by how much?: 1/2 degree pitch change
256. Repeatedly pressing the "SPEED" button on the Flight
Control Panel will cycle between what modes?: 1. IAS
2. Climb or Descent (depending on whether the selected altitude is
above or below you).
3. Pitch
257. After a new "Pre-Select" altitude is selected, the "CLM/DES
Mode" will indicate what?: If the selected altitude is "ABOVE" your
current altitude "CLB" is automatically selected. If the selected altitude
is "BELOW" you current altitude "DES" is automatically selected.
258. Each "click" of the "Manual Pitch Wheel" on the Flight
Control Panel will adjust the pitch by how much?
Pitch MODE:? / Vertical Speed Mode:?: Pitch Mode: 1/2 degree
Vertical Speed Mode: 100 feet per minute
259. At what point does changeover from IAS to MACH
automatically occur?: 31,600 feet
260. What "manual" method can be used to changeover from IAS
to MACH?: Press the center of the "SPEED" pushbutton on the Flight
Control Panel.
261. What will happen if descending in "Vertical Speed Mode" and
an over speed condition occurs?: The mode will automatically switch
 M
to "IAS MODE" and the aircraft will automatically pitch up to reduce its

SA
speed.

U
Mode indicator on the FMA will flash "amber" and the over speed
clacker will sound.

H
262. What is required to "Engage" the autopilot?: 1. Both Flight
Control Computers must be operational.
2. At least one (1) yaw damper operational and engaged.
3. At least one (1) Stab Channel engaged.
4. No faults in the Stab Trim System.
5. No significant instability with the aircraft.
6. Autopilot "Disconnect Bar" is "UP" on the FCP.
263. The autopilot may be dis-engaged by what means?: 1. Selecting
the "Disconnect Bar" on the FCP "OFF".
2. Pressing the "ENGAGE" button on the FCP.
3. Pressing the "Autopilot Disconnect" switch on yoke.
4. Activation of the stab trim split switches.
5. Pressing the "YAW DAMPER DISC" button.
6. Pressing the "TOGA" button on thrust levers.
264. The autopilot will "automatically" disconnect when what
occurs?: 1. Stall Warning (stick shaker)
2. Windshear warning (after 2 seconds)
3. Failure of both yaw dampers
265. If you advance the thrust levers beyond _____% during takeoff
without a "Takeoff Config OK" advisory message you will receive
an aural alert as well as a status message.: 70%
266. What components must be configured correctly to receive a
"Takeoff Config OK" advisory message?: 1. Flaps / Slats
2. Aileron Trim
3. Rudder Trim
4. Stabilizer Trim
5. Spoilers
6. Parking Brake
7. Autopilot
 M
267. If an "Out of Trim" condition occurs with the autopilot

SA
engaged, what indication is displayed?: An amber boxed "E" or "A"
symbol is displayed on the Primary Flight Display.

U
An EICAS message is generated.

H
268. What is the purpose of the "Turbulence" pushbutton on the
Flight Control Panel?: It reduces the autopilot gain. to provide a smoother flight

269. At what times is the "Turbulence Mode" automatically

disabled?: 1. Takeoff Mode
2. Approach Mode
3. Go-Around Mode
270. Pressing the "AP/SP" switch on the yoke will do what?: 1.
Automatically disengages the autopilot.
2. Disables the stick pusher for as long as the switch is held down.
271. How long is the audio warning heard when the autopilot is
disconnected using the "AP/SP" switch on the yoke?: 5 seconds

‫ـــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــ‬
COMMUNICATIONS

272. What is the function of the "Audio Integrating System"?: It

provides the "Interface" between the different communications system
components.

273. Are the "Audio Control Panels" interchangeable?: Yes,

however the "Observers Panel" does not have all the same functions as
the pilot's and co-pilot's panels.
274. Do the "Audio Warnings" go through the "Audio Control
Panels"?: NO
275. Is the audio warnings volume adjustable?: NO
 M
276. Is it necessary to press the "receive" button on the Audio

SA
Control Panel when the transmitter is selected to that radio?: NO
Receive function is automatically enabled.

U
277. What is the purpose of the "Voice / Both" switch on the Audio
Control Panels?: It allows you to receive "voice only" or "voice and

H
identifier" when verifying navigational radio signals.
278. What functions are "disabled" on the "Observers" Audio
Control Panel?: 1. Overhead Speaker is inoperative.
2. Norm/Emergency switch is disabled.
279. What is the purpose of the "EMER/NORM" switch on the
Audio Control Panels?: It will bypass the Audio Control Panels
features.
Aural warnings do not go through the Audio Control Panel!

Directly connects:
CAPTAIN's: NAV #1 / COMM #1
F.O's: NAV #2 / COMM #2
280. The Interphone System connects what locations?: 1. Flight
Deck
2. Both Flight Attendant Panels
3. External Service Panel
4. Re-Fuel / De-Fuel Panel
5. Aft Equipment Bay
6. Avionics Bay
281. The PA systems "volume" goes to "HIGH" automatically
when what occurs?: 1. Either engine is running
2. APU is running
282. What is the "Priority" order for transmitting over the PA
System?: 1. Captain
2. First Officer
3. Flight Attendants
283. What other function does the PA System provide other than
direct communications?: It provides the logic for chimes and lights
associated with the flight deck and cabin calls.
 M
284. The "Interphone Control Panel" has four (4) switchlights,

SA
what are they labeled?: 1. PA
2. CALL

U
3. CHIME
4. EMER

H
285. What type of chime does the "CHIME" switchlight produce
when pressed?: High / Low
286. Of the four (4) switchlights on the Interphone Control Unit
(ICU) one is not lighted. Which one is it?: CHIME
287. The "CALL" switchlight produces what type of chime when
pressed?: High / Low
288. In order to activate the "EMER" switchlight on the
Interphone Control Unit what must occur?: The "Transmit Select"
switch on the Audio Control Panel must be selected to "PA" position
first.
289. When the "EMER" pushlight is pressed on the Intercom
Control Unit what indications appear in the cabin?: 1. Causes the
switchlights to flash in both the cockpit and "Both" Flight attendant
panels.
2. A High / Low "Triple chime" will sound.
3. Illuminates the "Flashing Red Light" on the mid-cabin overhead
emergency exit sign.
290. When the "NO SMOKING" or "FASTEN SEATBELT" signs
are selected "ON", what type of chime is heard in the cabin?: Low
Chime
291. What occurs when the "Mechanic" switchlight is pressed on
the Ground Prox Test panel?: It will sound a chime in the External
Service Panel and illuminate the Mechanic call switchlight for 30
seconds only.
292. What are the Primary Radio Frequency Controllers?: Remote
Transmitting Units (RTU's)
293. What frequencies can be changed from both the RTU's and the
FMS radio page?: 1. Comm Frequencies
2. NAV Frequencies
 M
3. ADF Frequencies

SA
4. Transponder Codes
294. The Captain's RTU controls what frequencies?: 1. COMM #1

U
2. NAV #1
3. ADF #1

H
4. Optional COMM #3
295. The First Officer's RTU controls what frequencies?: 1. COMM
#2
2. NAV #2
3. ADF #2
4. HF Radio
296. How do you turn the RTU's "OFF"?: You cannot turn them off.
They are powered anytime that AC Power is available to the aircraft.
297. What two (2) pages can be displayed on the RTU's?: 1. TOP
Page
2. MAIN Page
298. What is the purpose of the "MAIN" page of the RTU's?: It
allows you to individually control the features of the selected COMM or
NAV radio.
299. If the Main page is selected and nothing is entered, how long
before the main page reverts back to the TOP page on the RTU's?:
20 seconds
300. The RTU's are capable of displaying three (3) different types of
frequency presentations. What are they?: 1. Active frequency
2. Recall frequency
3. Pre-select frequency
301. If the "squelch" is selected "OFF" through the RTU, how is it
indicated?: A "SQ OFF" message is displayed on the "TOP PAGE" of
the RTU.
302. What is the purpose of the "Backup Tuning Unit" (BTU)?: It
provides reversionary control of the RTU's in the event that "Both
RTU's" were to fail or complete electrical failure.
303. What is displayed on the RTU screen if it were to fail?: Screen
goes black.
 M
304. If the #1 RTU were to fail how could NAV #1, COM #1, ADF

SA
#1 frequencies be changed?: You would have to select the "INHIBIT"
switch on the BTU for the respective RTU. This will allow "Cross Side

U
Tuning" from the opposite sides RTU. Cross Side tuning is not
functional "if the RTU fails" unless the "INHIB" switch is selected for

H
the failed RTU.
305. What powers the Backup Tuning Unit" (BTU)?: It is powered
through the "Battery Bus". It remains powered anytime that the Battery
Master is selected "ON".
306. During "Normal Operations" the Backup Tuning Unit is
selected to what mode?: Standby
307. What frequencies will the Backup Tuning Unit "duplicate"
when selected to the standby mode?: NAV #1 and COMM #1
308. How is "Cross Side Tuning" indicated?: The selected data will
display as "Amber".
309. What is the purpose of the FMS "TUNE INHIBIT" toggle
switch?: When selected to "OFF" it takes away the FMS ability to auto
tune DME channel #1. It will still auto tune channels 2 and 3.
310. How would you "cancel" a "SELCAL VHF 2" status message
displayed on the EICAS?: Transmit over the #2 VHF radio on
SELCALL frequency.
311. The cockpit voice recorder will record four (4) different
channels of communications. What are they?: 1. Captain's Voice
2. First Officer's Voice
3. Area Microphone
4. Mixed PA and Observer's voice
312. The "Underwater locator" feature of the cockpit voice
recorder will activate for how long?: 30 days
313. When is the cockpit voice recorder activated?: As soon as
electrical power is applied to the aircraft.
314. The "Cockpit Voice Recorder" will record data for how long?:
120 minutes (2 hours)
315. Where is the Cockpit Voice Recorder physically located?: In
the AFT tail section of the aircraft.
 M
316. What will happen "upon impact" to the cockpit and data voice

SA
recorders?: Electrical power is automatically removed to prevent
accidental erasure.

U
317. When is the "Flight Data Recorder" automatically powered?:
1. Beacon "ON"

H
2. Strobes "ON"
3. Weight Off Wheels
318. How much data will the "Flight Data Recorder" record?: Last
25 hours
319. The underwater locating device on the "Flight Data Recorder"
will function for how long?: 30 days
320. What is the function of the "FDR EVENT" button?: It will put
a DATE/TIME stamp on the recording for later review by maintenance
personnel.

An EICAS message is displayed when the button is selected.

321. Where is the "ELT" physically located on the aircraft?: Aft tail
section.
vhf,uhf,
322. If the ELT is actually transmitting a signal, how is it known?:&sattellite
An "ELT ON" amber caution message is displayed on EICAS. puls
‫ـــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــ‬
ELECTRICAL:

323. DC current is provided by what sources?: 1. Main Battery

2. APU Battery
3. TRU's (4)
324. AC and DC electrical systems are controlled from what
panel?: Electrical Power Control Panel
325. How many Circuit Breaker panels are there and where are
they located?: Five Circuit Breaker Panels
 M
CB Panel #1: Behind Captain's seat

SA
CB Panel #2: Behind First Officer's Seat
CB Panel #3: Aircraft Nose Compartment

U
CB Panel #4: Aft Equipment Bay
CB Panel #5: Location unknown!

H
326. CB Panel #1 services include what?: 1. AC Bus #1
2. DC Bus #1
3. Battery Bus
4. AC Essential Bus
5. DC Emergency Bus
327. CB Panel #2 services include what?: 1. AC Bus #2
2. DC Bus #2
3. AC Service Bus
4. DC Service Bus
5. DC Utility Bus
6. DC Essential Bus
7. Battery Bus
328. The Engine Driven AC generators are know as _________.:
Independent Drive Generators (IDG's)
329. The Independent Drive Generators serve two (2) functions.
What are they?: 1. Act as a constant speed drive
2. 40 KVA AC Electrical Generator
330. The engine driven AC generators provide:
___ VAC / ____ Phase Power / ____ HZ: 115 / 200 VAC
3 Phase Power
400 HZ
331. How may the IDG's be disconnected from the accessory
gearbox?: By pressing the "IDG DISC" switchlight on the Electrical
Power Panel.
332. Once the IDG has been "disconnected", how may it then be
reconnected?: Only by maintenance personnel while on the ground.
333. The IDG's provide ____ KVA power to _____ feet.: 40 KVA
Power to 41,000 feet
334. Overload protection is provided from the IDG's. What are the
overload limits?: 45 KVA for 5 minutes
 M
SA
60 KVA for 5 seconds
335. Independent Drive Generators are driven by what?: The

U
accessory gearbox.
336. How can you verify IDG disconnect once the "IDG DISC"

H
switchlight has been pressed?: On the electrical synoptic page the IDG
is surrounded by a white box and "DISC" is displayed beneath it.
337. What faults will cause the IDG switchlight to illuminate?: 1.
IDG Overheat
2. Low Oil Pressure
338. If the "electrical disconnect" fails to disconnect the IDG for
whatever reason, what other features will disconnect the IDG?: 1. A
mechanical disconnect will occur when the IDG reaches a pre-
determined internal temperature.

2. The shaft will shear if the bearings begin to seize up.

339. Generator fault protection is provided for what?: 1. Under
Voltage / Over Voltage
2. Under Frequency / Over Frequency
3. Generator and Bus Over Current
4. Generator Phase Sequence
340. The "Generator Control Units" provide for what?: 1. Bus
Priority
2. Fault Protection
341. What occurs when the Generator Control Unit detects a fault?:
The respective generator is tripped "OFF-LINE".
342. When does the AC "APU generator" provide power to the
aircraft?: Anytime that a bus becomes unpowered. When operating it
will pick up the load on "ALL FAILED BUSES".
343. The APU generator is rated to _____ KVA to ______ feet.: 40
KVA

41,000 feet
344. The "External Service Panel" allows for what type of external
power to be applied to the aircraft?: AC 6 PIN power only!
 M
345. Where is the "External Services Panel" located on the

SA
aircraft?: Right / Forward Nose of the aircraft.
346. What controls and regulates the external power input?:

U
External Power Monitor (EPM)
347. What indication will you receive in the cockpit if external

H
power is plugged into the aircraft and the EPM senses that the
power is within parameters?: Green "AVAILABLE" light illuminates
on the cockpit Electrical Panel.
348. Selecting the green "AVAILABLE" switchlight "ON" on the
electrical panel will enable the external power to power what
buses?: All unpowered buses.
349. What is the "Priority" for power to operate the aircraft
systems?: 1. Engine Driven Generators (IDG's)
2. APU Generator
3. External Power
350. If the green "AVAILABLE" light does not illuminate on the
electrical control panel with external power applied, what would be
suspected?: External Power is "not within parameters".
351. Once the green "AVAILABLE" switchlight is pressed, what
will then indicate on the Electrical Control Panel?: The switchlight
will indicate "IN USE" (White).
352. With "External Power" powering the aircraft, what will
happen when an engine driven generator comes "ON-LINE"?: The
white "IN USE" switchlight will change and indicate green
"AVAILABLE" again.

The engine driven generator will pick up the entire electrical load.
353. How may the "AC Service Bus" be powered?: By pressing the
"AC" switchlight on the "External Service Panel".
354. What is the purpose of the "AC" switchlight on the "External
Service Panel"?: It will power the "AC Service Bus".

This supplies power to the electrical outlets within the cabin and
lavatory for aircraft cleaning purposes.
 M
SA
Also provides power to the "APU Battery Charger".
355. If the "AC" pushbutton is selected "IN" on the External

U
Service Panel, what will happen if the "AVAILABLE" switchlight is
depressed from within the cockpit on the Electrical Control Panel?:

H
It will override the AC pushlight on the External Service Panel and
power all of the AC buses.
356. The "AC Service Bus" is normally powered by what other
bus?: AC Bus #2
357. By what other means may the "AC Service Bus" be powered?:
By selecting the "AC" switchlight on the External Service Panel with
external AC applied.
358. What are the four (4) main AC Buses?: 1. AC Bus #1
2. AC Bus #2
3. Essential AC Bus
4. AC Service Bus
359. What power source "Normally" powers AC Bus #1?:
Generator #1
360. What power source "Normally" powers AC Bus #2?:
Generator #2
361. What power source "Normally" powers the AC Essential
Bus?: AC Bus #1
362. What power source "normally" powers the AC Service Bus?:
AC Bus #2
363. If AC Bus #1 becomes "Unpowered", what happens to the
Essential AC Bus?: It will automatically transfer to AC Bus #2.
364. If AC Bus #1 "FAILS" and the Essential AC Bus does not
automatically transfer to AC Bus #2, what can be done?: Select the
"AC ESS XFER" switchlight on the Electrical Control Panel "IN" to
manually transfer the Essential AC Bus to AC Bus #2.
365. What is the power source "priority" for AC Bus #1 as assigned
by the "Automatic Transfer System"?: 1. Generator #1
2. APU Generator
3. Generator #2
4. External AC
 M
366. What is the power source "priority" for AC Bus #2 as assigned

SA
by the "Automatic Transfer System"?: 1. Generator #2
2. APU Generator

U
3. Generator #1
4. External AC

H
367. If one generator was to "fail" with the APU generator "OFF",
what would occur?: The remaining generator would power all of the
ships buses.
368. What would occur if a "Bus Fault" were to occur on either AC
Bus #1 or AC Bus #2?: The buses associated generator would "Trip
Off-Line".
369. Once a bus "Faults" how can power be restored to that bus
again?: Restoring a "Faulted Bus" requires you to completely power
down the aircraft and then re-power again to clear the fault.
370. What is the purpose of the "Manual Transfer Inhibit"
switchlight?: It will "Isolate" the associated bus from the automatic
transfer system. This is a checklist item used in the event of isolating a
electrical fire.
371. What will happen to the "Essential AC Bus" if the ADG
deploys?: The ADG will automatically power the Essential AC Bus.
372. Following ADG deployment, if a ships generator once again
becomes operational what must be done?: Push the "Power TXFR
Override" button on the ADG Control Panel to transfer the Essential AC
Bus back to the priority system. This prevents load shedding the bus
below 135 kts during landing.
373. When will the ADG "automatically" deploy?: 1. Any ships
generator must have been On-Line for 3.45 seconds.
2. AC Bus #1 and AC Bus #2 becomes un-powered (below 50 Volts).
3. Weight Off Wheels (airborne).
374. If the ADG fails to deploy automatically, how else can it be
deployed?: By manually pulling the ADG handle on the lower pedestal.
375. Once deployed the ADG will power what?: 1. Hydraulic Pump
3B
2. Flaps and Slats (Above 140 kts)
 M
3. Essential AC Bus (Above 135 kts)

SA
4. Pitch Trim (Above 108 kts)
376. The ADG generator, when deployed, produces _____ KVA

U
_____ HZ power.: 15 KVA
400 HZ

H
377. When will the following "Load Shed" during approach when
the ADG is deployed?
Essential AC Bus / HYD Pump 3B /
Flaps / Slats / Pitch Trim: Essential AC Bus: Below 135 kts
HYD Pump 3B: Never
Flaps / Slats: Below 140 kts
Pitch Trim: Below 108 kts
378. To prevent the ADG from "Stalling" the aircraft must be
configured by what speed?: Flaps and Slats: 140 kts
Pitch Trim: 108 kts
379. How does the ADG "pull handle" deploy the ADG?: It is a
"direct cable connection" to the "up-locks" for the ADG.
380. What are the aircraft's sources of DC power?: 1. Main Battery
2. APU Battery
3. Four TRU's
a. Essential TRU #1
b. Essential TRU #2
c. TRU #1
d. TRU #2
381. There are nine (9) DC Buses. See how many you can name!: 1.
DC Bus #1
2. DC Bus #2
3. DC Essential Bus
4. DC Service Bus
5. DC Utility Bus
6. DC Direct Battery Bus
7. DC Emergency Bus
8. Main Battery Direct Bus
9. APU Battery Direct Bus
382. Each TRU is rated at ______ amps.: 120 amps
 M
383. Where are the TRU's physically located on the aircraft?: In the

SA
"Nose Compartment".
384. What is the primary function of the APU Battery?: 1. To

U
provide battery power for APU Start.
2. To provide "Backup DC Power".

H
385. What is the primary function of the MAIN Battery?: To
provide "Backup DC Power" only!
386. Where is the "MAIN Battery" physically located on the
aircraft?: Nose Compartment with the TRU's.
387. Where is the "APU Battery" physically located on the
aircraft?: In the AFT Equipment Bay.
388. Which is the largest of the two (2) batteries?: APU Battery
389. The APU battery is rated at _____ amps.: 43 amps
390. The MAIN battery is rated at ____ amps.: 17 amps
391. How are the batteries charged?: Each battery has its own battery
charger. The battery chargers are not shown on the electrical synoptic
page unless there is a problem.
392. When are the "Battery Chargers" powered?: Anytime that there
is AC power applied to the aircraft.

With only the AC Service Bus powered through the external service
panel, only the APU battery charger will be powered!
393. How long can the batteries provide power to the aircraft in the
event of total electrical failure?: 30 minutes
394. The aircraft battery chargers will automatically shutdown
when?: 1. Battery temp exceeds 65 degrees.
2. Cell imbalance of 1 volt.
3. Shorted temperature sensor
4. Shorted imbalance sensor
5. Loss of AC power input
6. Charger Failure.
395. Through which circuit breaker panel is DC Bus #1 controlled?:
CB Panel #1 (Behind Captain's seat)
396. Through which circuit breaker panel is DC Bus #2 controlled?:
CB Panel #2 (Behind First Officer's seat).
 M
397. What does the "DC SERVICE BUS" power?: 1. NAV Lights

SA
2. Toilet Motor and Waste System
3. Selected Passenger Cabin Lighting

U
398. What ways can the "DC Service Bus" be powered?: 1. Anytime
that AC Power is available to the aircraft.

H
2. By selecting the "DC SERVICE" toggle switch "ON" from the
Electrical Control Panel.
399. What is the purpose of the "DC Utility Bus"?: It powers non-
essential systems.

Automatically load sheds anytime that "Main Bus Tie" closes.

400. When will the "MAIN BUS TIE" automatically close?: Anytime
that TRU #1 "OR" TRU #2 fails.
401. What automatically occurs anytime that the DC "MAIN TIE"
closes?: The DC Utility Bus is "Load Shed".
402. What items are powered through the "DC ESSENTIAL
BUS"?: Items which are critical to flight.
403. What items are powered through the DC "EMERGENCY
BUS"?: Emergency services:

1. Engine and APU Fuel Shutoff Valves

2. Engine Hydraulic Shutoff Valves
3. Fire Extinguisher Circuits
404. What are the names of the "DC BUS TIE's"?: 1. MAIN TIE
2. ESSENTIAL TIE
3. CROSS TIE
405. When does the DC "MAIN TIE" automatically close?: Failure
of TRU #1 "or" TRU #2.
406. When does the DC "ESSENTIAL TIE" automatically close?:
Failure of Essential TRU #1 "or" Essential TRU #2.
407. When does the DC "CROSS TIE" automatically close?:
Multiple TRU failures.
408. Are the DC Bus Ties controlled by the pilots?: NO
 M
409. When will the "Essential TRU #2 Transfer Contactor" close?:

SA
1. Loss of Essential TRU #1 while the ADG is suppling emergency
power to the aircraft.

U
2. Essential TRU #1 failure followed by failure of AC Bus #2.

H
410. What is the purpose of the Essential TRU #2 Transfer
Contactor?: A redundant system to help insure that the Essential DC
Bus remains powered at all times.
411. What power source powers the "DC Emergency Bus"?: It is
powered directly through the ships Battery Bus. The battery switch must
be "ON" for operation.
412. What DC bus is "Not Shown" on the electrical synoptic page?:
The DC Emergency Bus is not shown on the electrical synoptic page
unless there is a problem.
413. The ADG will "Arm to Deploy" when:: 1. Weight off wheels
2. Any AC generator is on line for at least 3.45 seconds.
414. The ADG will automatically deploy when:: 1. Complete Loss of
All AC Power (Loss of AC Bus #1 & #2)
- AC Bus #1 and AC Bus #2 both below 50 volts.
2. Weight Off Wheels
3. Any generator has been on-line for at least 3.45 seconds.
415. When will the "Seatbelt Sign" illuminate when selected to the
"AUTO" position?: 1. When flaps are selected greater than 0 degrees.
2. When Gear is selected down.
3. At Cabin altitudes of 10,000 feet or more.
416. When will the "No Smoking Signs" illuminate when selected to
the "AUTO" position?: 1. When the gear is selected down.
2. When the cabin altitude exceeds 10,000 feet.
417. From what locations may the Emergency Lights be controlled
from?: 1. Cockpit
2. Forward Flight Attendant Panel
418. At what times will the "Emergency Lights" caution be
displayed?: Emergency Lights are selected to "OFF" (abnormal).
419. What does the "Emergency Lights" illuminate?: 1. Selected
cabin ceiling and floor lighting.
 M
2. Emergency Exits.

SA
3. Egress Lighting (exterior).
420. How are the "Emergency Lights" powered?: Four (4) re-

U
chargeable battery packs
421. The "Emergency lights" will illuminate for how long when

H
activated?: Provides 15 minutes of illumination.
422. Will the Forward Flight Attendant panel switch for the
emergency lights override the cockpit switch?: YES ... If the cockpit
switch is selected to the "OFF" position.
423. When the "Emergency Lights" are "ARMED" they will
automatically illuminate when?: Failure of the Essential AC Bus "or"
Essential DC Bus.
424. What must be selected to "ON" for the Emergency Lights to
operate?: Battery Master
425. Where is the Flight Data Recorder physically located on the
aircraft?: Aft Equipment Bay
426. At what times is the Flight Data Recorder operating?: 1.
Beacon "ON"
2. Strobes "ON"
3. Weight off wheels
427. How much data will the Flight Data Recorder record?: Last 25
hours
‫ـــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــ‬
‫ــــــــ‬
LIGHTS :

428. How many "navigation lights" are installed in each wing tip?:
Two (2)
429. What are the names of the two (2) navigation lights in each
wingtip?: Primary and Secondary
 M
430. When will the Secondary navigation light illuminate?: 1.

SA
Failure of the Primary navigation light bulb.
2. Primary navigation light overheats.

U
431. Is the Primary navigation light and Secondary navigation light
the same size bulbs?: NO ... The Secondary navigation light bulb is

H
smaller.
432. How many landing lights are there and what is their
locations?: Three (3):

Left Wing
Right Wing
Nose
433. Where are the taxi lights physically located on the aircraft?: In
the wing roots co-located with the landing lights.
434. At what distance are the landing lights focused at?: 100 feet
435. How many switches are installed for control of the "Passenger
Lighting" in the cabin?: Two (2)
436. Where are the two switches located for control of the passenger
lighting system?: Forward Flight Attendant Panel
437. What is the function of the two (2) switches for the passenger
lighting?
LEFT SWITCH:
RIGHT SWITCH:: LEFT SWITCH:
1. Selects low intensity cabin & entrance lighting.
2. "ARMS" the right switch.

RIGHT SWITCH:
1. Entrance lights go to HIGH intensity.
2. Turns "ON" air stair lighting.
‫ـــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــ‬
‫ــ‬
 M
OXYGEN SYS. :

SA
U
H
438. How are all the Passenger Service Units (PSU's) tested at
once?: By pressing the "Test Switch" located on the Forward Flight
Attendants Panel.
439. After testing all of the passenger service units (PSU's) with the
test switch on the forward flight attendant panel, how can they be
reset?: By pressing the "OFF" switch on the forward flight attendant
panel.
440. How many fire extinguishers are onboard the aircraft, and
where are their locations?: 4

(1) Behind the First Officers seat

(1) In wheelchair stowage compartment
(1) Above coat closet in cabin
(1) Aft cabin wall
441. How many portable oxygen bottles are there on the aircraft
and where are their locations?: 4

(2) in wheelchair stowage compartment for "Passenger Emergency First

Aid".
(1) above galley food storage compartment, right side of cabin.
(1) in aft cabin overhead bin at row 17DE, right side of cabin.
442. How many PBE's are there on the aircraft and what are their
locations?: 4

(1) Behind the captain's seat.

(1) In the wheelchair stowage compartment.
(1) in cabin overhead bin at row 1AB.
(1) on aft cabin wall.
‫ـــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــ‬
 M
SA
U
FIRE PROTECTION :

H
443. The "Fire Protection System" can "DETECT" fires from what
locations?: 1. Engines
2. APU
3. Wheel Bays
4. Cargo Compartments
5. Aft Lavatory
444. "Smoke Detection" is provided for in what areas?: 1. Both
Cargo Bays
2. Aft Lavatory
445. The engines and APU are protected using a ______ loop
protection system.: DUAL
446. The wheel wells are protected using a _______ loop protection
system.: SINGLE
447. Will the engine and APU fire protection system function if one
(1) loop was to fail?: YES

The loop is automatically inhibited and the remaining loop will provide
protection.
448. What controls the Engine and APU fire detection system?:
FIDEEX Unit
449. How many "smoke detectors" are there in each cargo bay?:
Forward Cargo: 3
AFT Cargo: 2
 M
450. What is the purpose of the fire detection loops in the main

SA
landing gear wheel bays?: To detect and indicate a wheel or brake
overheat condition.

U
451. What areas are protected by a "Fire Extinguishing" system?:
1. Engines

H
2. APU
3. Both Cargo Bays
4. Aft Lavatory waste disposal
452. What is indicated if one of the "Cargo Smoke" switchlights
illuminates?: Smoke has been detected within the respective cargo bay
on at least two (2) of the smoke detectors.
453. Pressing the "Cargo Smoke" switchlight will do what?
FWD: ? / AFT: ?: FWD:
Arms "BOTH" of the fire bottles to discharge into that compartment.

AFT:
Arms "BOTH" of the fire bottles to discharge into that compartment,
and:
1. De-energizes the heater.
2. Closes the "Intake and Exhaust Valves".
454. Where is the Lavatory fire bottle located?: Inside the waste
container.
455. What must occur for the Lavatory fire bottle to discharge?:
Automatically discharges into the waste container when the "heat
sensitive squibs (2) melt.
456. If any part of the "Fireex System does not test properly what is
displayed?: 1. You will not receive the "FIRE SYS TEST OK" advisory
message.
2. The effected system switchlight will not illuminate.
457. What monitors the fire detection loops for a fault?: FIDEEX
Unit
458. The FIDEEX unit will indicate a fire when a change in ______
is detected within the loops.: resistance
459. Where are the fire extinguishing bottles for the engines and
APU physically located on the aircraft?: Aft Equipment Bay
 M
460. Where are the fire bottles for the cargo compartments

SA
physically located on the airplane?: Right wing fairing.
461. How many fire bottles are installed for the "engines" use?:

U
Two (2)
462. How many fire bottles are installed on the aircraft for the

H
"APU's" use?: One (1)
463. How many fire bottles are installed on the aircraft for the
"cargo compartments" use?: Two (2)
464. Pressing the "LH/RH ENG FIRE PUSH" switchlight will do
what?: 1. Trips respective generator off-line.
2. Closes the hydraulic Shutoff Valve
3. Closes the respective fuel shutoff valve.
4. Shuts off bleed air from the respective engine.
5. Arms "Both" bottles to fire into that engine.
465. Pressing the "BOTTLE 1/2 ARMED PUSH TO DISC"
switchlight will do what?: Fire the respective fire bottle into the engine
as selected by the ENG FIRE PUSH switchlight.
466. Pressing the "APU FIRE" switchlight will do what?: 1. Shuts
down the APU.
2. Closes the APU fuel SOV.
3. Closes the APU Load Control Valve.
4. Trips the APU generator off-line.
5. ARMS the "APU BOTTLE ARMED - PUSH TO DISC" switchlight.
467. If a fire is detected within the APU what will occur?
GROUND: ?
INFLIGHT: ?: GROUND:
1. APU shuts down automatically.
2. After 5 seconds the APU Fire bottle will discharge.

INFLIGHT:
1. APU will shutdown automatically.
2. APU Fire Bottle "Must be manually discharged".
468. Is it possible to interrupt the automatic discharging of the fire
bottle into the APU while on the ground?: YES
 M
You must press the "APU FIRE" switchlight within 5 seconds to cancel

SA
the automatic discharging of the APU fire bottle.
469. What indications appear if smoke is detected in one of the

U
cargo bays?: 1. "Cargo Smoke" warning is displayed on EICAS.
2. Triple chime is heard.

H
3. Associated cargo smoke switchlight will illuminate.
470. Pressing the "Bottle Armed - Press to Disc" switchlight on the
Cargo Fireex Panel will do what?: 1. Rapidly discharges the first fire
bottle into the associated compartment to knock down fire.

2. The second bottle will then discharge more slowly to provide a halon
rich atmosphere.
471. How can it be verified that the cargo fire bottles have actually
fired?: A "CARGO SQUIB 1/2" caution message is displayed.
472. What occurs if smoke is detected in the aft lavatory?: 1. Smoke
detector sounds.
2. "SMOKE AFT LAV" is displayed on EICAS.
473. How can the smoke detector be reset in the lavatory?: By
pressing the "Test/Reset" button on the smoke detector.
474. Where is the portable fire extinguisher located on the flight
deck?: Behind the First Officers Seat.
475. What does the "MLG BAY OVERHEAT" EICAS warning
message indicate?: Heat has been detected within the main landing
gear wheel bay due to tire or brake overheat.
476. What is indicated by the "MLG OVHT FAIL" caution
message on the EICAS?: The overheat detection system for the wheel
bays has a fault.
477. When testing the Main Landing Gear Bay Overheat system,
what is each switch actually testing?
OVHT: ? WARN FAIL: ?: OVHT:
Simulates a false overheat condition.

WARN FAIL:
Simulates a failure of the overheat protection system.
 M
478. When testing the "Fire Detection System" on the FIREEX

SA
Monitor test panel, what are you looking for to insure an operable
system?: "FIRE SYS TEST OK" Advisory message

U
‫ـــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــ‬

H
FLIGHT CONTROLS :
479. The wing is a single piece, bolted to the fuselage in _____
separate locations.: 10
480. What flight controls are considered "Primary Flight
Controls"?: 1. Elevator
2. Rudder
3. Ailerons
481. What flight controls are considered "Secondary Flight
Controls"?: 1. Flaps
2. Slats
3. Inboard and outboard Ground Spoilers
4. Multifunction Spoilers
5. Stabilizer Trim
6. Aileron Trim
7. Rudder Trim
482. What are the "actuators" called that actually move the flight
controls?: Power Control Units (PCU's)
483. Are the Power Control Units (PCU's) mechanically or
hydraulically actuated?: Hydraulically
484. How many Power Control Units (PCU's) are there on each:
Aileron:? / Rudder: ? / Elevator: ?: Ailerons: 2
Rudder: 3
Elevator: 3
485. The "Left Aileron" is powered by what two (2) hydraulic
systems?: Hydraulic System #1
Hydraulic System #3
 M
486. The "Right Aileron" is powered by what two (2) hydraulic

SA
systems?: Hydraulic System #2
Hydraulic System #3

U
487. Each wing has how many "Spoiler Panels"?: 4
488. The two (2) "Inboard Spoiler Panels" on each wing are called

H
what?: Ground Spoilers
489. The two (2) "Outboard Spoiler Panels" on each wing are called
what?: Multi-Function Spoilers
490. What "Flight Controls" are "Electrically" operated?: 1. Flaps
2. Slats
3. Stabilizer Trim
4. Rudder Trim
5. Aileron Trim
491. The primary flight controls are ______ controlled and _______
actuated.: Electrically controlled
Hydraulically actuated
492. What flight controls are "Fly By Wire"?: All spoilers
493. The elevators are "coupled together" by what?: Torque Tube
494. When separated, the left elevator is controlled through which
yoke?: Captains
495. When separated, the right elevator is controlled through which
yoke?: First Officers
496. What is the "Pitch Disconnect" T handle used for?: To
overcome a "Cable Malfunction".
497. Both the pilot's and first officer's rudder inputs go into a single
_______ Mechanism.: Summing Mechanism
498. The "Summing Mechanism" provides a single input into what
flight control?: Rudder
499. At what times can the rudder input be limited?: In-flight only
with "both engines operating".
500. What is the function of the "Rudder Travel Limiter"?: Limits
rudder travel while "in-flight" only, to reduce rudder load.
501. If a "single" PCU jams on the rudder, what will isolate the
jam?: Load Limiter
 M
502. Protection for a "cable jam" in the rudder system is provided

SA
for by a _______.: Anti-Jam Mechanism
503. What provides for "Gust Lock" functions while on the

U
ground?: Trapped hydraulic fluid
504. What is required for the rudder trim to function?: Power from

H
at least one (1) hydraulic system
505. How many "Yaw Damper" systems are there on the aircraft?:
Two (2)
506. Yaw damper #1 receives input from what Flight Control
Computer?: FCC #1
507. Yaw damper #2 receives input from what Flight Control
Computer?: FCC #2
508. How can the yaw dampers be disconnected?: By pressing the
Yaw Damper disconnect button on the yaw damper control panel.
509. What is the purpose of the yaw damper switchlights?: To
engage the yaw dampers only!
510. A "single" yaw damper failure will cause what kind of
message?: Status message
511. A "dual" yaw damper failure will cause what kind of
message?: "YAW DAMPER" Caution Message
512. When the aileron torque tube has been disconnected, which
control operates the left aileron?: Captain's yoke
513. When the aileron torque tube has been disconnected, which
control operates the right aileron?: First officer's yoke
514. How many PCU's are there on each aileron?: Two (2)
515. What is the purpose of the "Roll Control Disconnect" T-
Handle?: To disconnect the ailerons in the event of a Jammed aileron.
516. What will assist the ailerons during low speed banks?: The
Multi-Function Spoilers (Roll Assist Mode).
517. The Multi-Function Spoilers will assist the ailerons at what
times?: During "Low Speed" turns, on the "Down Wing Only".
518. When the "Roll Disconnect" T-Handle is pulled, the captains
yoke will control what?: 1. Left aileron
2. Right Multi-Function Spoilers
 M
519. When the "Roll Disconnect" T-Handle is pulled, the first

SA
officer's yoke will control what?: 1. Right Aileron
2. Left Multi-Function Spoilers

U
520. What switchlight will illuminate after the "Roll Disconnect" T-
Handle is pulled?: "ROLL SELECT" switchlight will illuminate 20

H
seconds after pulling the T-Handle.
521. What is the purpose of the "ROLL SELECT" switchlight?: It
confirms that the "Roll Disconnect" T-Handle has been pulled.
Select the respective sides switchlight on the operative aileron control to
engage "all spoilers" on that side.
522. What is indicated if the "PLT ROLL" switchlight illuminates
while in-flight?: An aileron PCU runaway has occurred and the system
"has given that side control of the ailerons".
523. What are the purpose of the aileron "Flutter Dampers"?: 1.
Prevents aileron flutter if all hydraulics are lost while in-flight.
2. Acts as a gust lock while on the ground with the hydraulics
depressurized.
524. The "Stabilizer Trim" will control the stabilizer angle
between:
Nose Up: ?
Nose Down: ?: Nose Up: +13 degrees
Nose Down: -2 degrees
525. How many channels are there for the stabilizer trim?: Two (2)
526. How can the Stabilizer Trim channels be engaged?: By
selecting the two (2) stab channel switchlights "IN".
527. How can the Stabilizer Trim channels be dis-engaged?: Only by
selecting the "Stab Trim Disconnect" switch on the captain's and First
Officer's yokes.
528. If a "single" stabilizer channel fails, what is displayed on
EICAS?: Status Message
529. If "BOTH" stabilizer channels fail, what is displayed on
EICAS?: Caution Message
530. What is the "Only Way" to disconnect the stabilizer
channels?: By use of the "Stab Disconnect Switch" on each yoke.
 M
531. The "Stabilizer Trim" switches are _______ type switches.:

SA
Split Type Switches
532. What is the "Priority" for the stabilizer trim?: 1. Captains

U
Trim: (High Speed)
2. First Officer's Trim: (High Speed)

H
3. Autopilot Trim: (High Speed with flaps in motion)
4. Auto Trim: (High Speed with flaps in motion and "Autopilot OFF")
5. Mach Trim: (Low Speed with Autopilot OFF above .4 mach)
533. If Stabilizer trim movement is detected for more than _______
seconds, a clacker will sound.: 3 seconds
534. What is the purpose of the "Mach Trim"?: It will improve the
aircraft's stability when operating above .4 mach with the autopilot
disengaged (hand flown).
535. What is required for the "Mach Trim" to operate?: 1. At least
one (1) stab trim channel engaged.
2. Autopilot "OFF".
3. Above .4 Mach
536. What is required for the "Aileron Trim" system to function?:
At least one (1) hydraulic system powered.
537. Control for the flaps is provided for by what two (2) sources?:
1. Flap select Lever
2. Emergency Flap Switch
538. Is the "Slats/Flaps Lever" electrically or hydraulically
controlled?: Electrically
539. At what positions are there "Hard Gates" on the Slat/Flap
selection lever?: 8 degrees
20 degrees
540. During slat/flap "Extension", which moves first?: Slats, then
flaps
541. During slat/flap "Retraction", which moves first?: Flaps, then
slats
542. What are the Flap Lever "positions" as indicated on the flap
lever?: 0 degrees
1 degrees
8 degrees
 M
20 degrees

SA
30 degrees
45 degrees

U
543. At the 0 degree position on the Slats/Flaps lever at what
position do the Slats/Flaps extend?: Both are fully "UP"

H
544. At the 1 degree position on the Slats/Flaps lever at what
position do the Slats/Flaps extend?: Slats: 20 degrees
Flaps: 0 degrees
545. At the 8 degree position on the Slats/Flaps lever at what
position do the Slats/Flaps extend?: Slats: 20 degrees
Flaps: 8 degrees
546. At the 20 degree position on the Slats/Flaps lever at what
position do the Slats/Flaps extend?: Slats: 25 degrees
Flaps: 20 degrees
547. At the 30 degree position on the Slats/Flaps lever at what
position do the Slats/Flaps extend?: Slats: 25 degrees
Flaps: 30 degrees
548. At the 45 degree position on the Slats/Flaps lever at what
position do the Slats/Flaps extend?: Slats: 25 degrees
Flaps: 45 degrees
549. How many "Leading Edge Slats" panels are there on each
wing leading edge?: Three (3)
550. Which is the "Largest" leading edge slat?: Inboard

They get progressively smaller towards the wing tips.

551. How are the "Slats" de-iced?: Using bleed air through "Piccolo
Tubes".
552. What will occur if One (1) slat actuator were to fail?: The other
two (2) would drag the slat into position.
553. What type of sensor is located between each "Slat Panel"?: A
Skew Disconnect Sensor
554. What would occur if one of the "Slat Panels" failed to move
when selected?: The "Skew Disconnect Sensor" would disable the slats
and illuminate a "SLATS FAULT" caution message on EICAS.
 M
555. What would occur if the "Slats" on the left wing do not extend

SA
equally with those on the right wing?: Slats would "lock" in there
present position and a "SLATS FAIL" caution message would be

U
displayed on EICAS.
556. What type of flaps does the CRJ 700 have?: Double Slotted

H
557. How many "Flap Panels" are there on each wing?: Two (2)

Inboard and Outboard Flaps

558. How many actuators are there on each flap?: Two (2)
559. What will occur if the flap speed is exceeded?: Over speed
warning will occur.
560. If the flaps are being powered by the ADG, what difference in
operation is there?: Flaps and Slats will only move at 1/2 speed.
561. What is the maximum flap operating speeds:: 1 degree: 230 kts
8 degrees: 230 kts
20 degrees: 230 kts
30 degrees: 185 kts
45 degrees: 170 kts
562. What is the purpose of the "Emergency Flap" switch?:
Positions the Slats to 25 degrees and the Flaps to 20 degrees in the
event of Slat/Flap lever failure.
563. If the "Emergency Slat/Flap" switch has been DEPLOYED in
flight, will selecting the switch back to the "NORMAL" position
restore normal operation through the Slat/Flap lever if the lever
becomes operational again?: YES
564. If the "Emergency Slat/Flap" switch has been DEPLOYED on
the ground, will selecting the switch back to the "NORMAL"
position restore normal operation through the Slat/Flap lever if the
lever becomes operational again?: Only after movement of the
Slat/Flap selector lever.
565. When operating above the maximum flap speed of 230 kts will
the "Emergency Slat/Flap" lever function?: NO
566. When are the Slat/Flap positions indicated on the EICAS
Primary page?: 1. Slats or Flaps are greater than 0 degrees.
2. Gear is not "Up and Locked".
 M
3. Brake temperatures are not in the green range.

SA
4. Slats/Flaps are indicating 1/2 Speed.
567. At what times will the Slats/Flaps operate at "1/2 speed"?: 1.

U
Single PCU failure
2. Powered by ADG

H
568. What are the "Multi-Function Spoilers used for?: 1. Speed
Braking
2. Roll Assist at low airspeeds on down wing
3. Ground Lift Dumping
569. What are the available position selections for the "Flight
Spoilers"?: 0
1/4
1/2
3/4
MAX
570. Which panels are considered the "Ground Lift Dumpers"?:
Inner two (2)
571. What are the available selections on the "Ground Lift
Dumpers" control panel?: MAN ARM
AUTO
MAN DISARM
572. Ground Lift Dumper system will "ARM" when:: 1. Switch is
selected to "AUTO ARM".
"AND"
2. Thrust levers are advanced towards takeoff.
"AND"
3. Wheel speed indicates 45 kts or more.
573. The Ground Lift Dumper (GLD) system will automatically
"DEPLOY" when:: 1. System has "armed" itself.
"AND"
2. Both thrust levers are retarded towards IDLE.

"AND ANY TWO OF THE FOLLOWING"

- Wheel speed indicates greater than 16 kts.

 M
- Radar altimeter indicates 7 feet or less.

SA
- At least one (1) Weight on Wheels indication.
574. The Ground Lift Dumper (GLD) system will automatically

U
"RETRACT" when:: 1. Both thrust levers are below Takeoff thrust.
"AND"

H
2. The aircraft is on the ground for at least 40 seconds.
"AND"
3. The wheel speed is below 45 kts for at least 10 seconds.
575. The Multi-Function spoilers will assist the Ground Lift
Dumping system when:: A weight on wheels indication is received
from "BOTH" mains.

"AND any one of the following"

- The wheel speed is greater than 16 kts on "any pair".

- The radar altimeter indicates 7 feet or less.
576. What is required to "MANUALLY" deploy the Ground Lift
Dumpers?: Only a "single" valid weight on wheels signal.

‫ـــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــ‬

INDICATIONS & WARNING :

577. A "TAKEOFF CONFIG" warning will occur if any of the

following is out of configuration:: 1. Autopilot
2. Flaps
3. Parking Brake
4. Spoilers
5. Stab Trim
 M
6. Aileron Trim

SA
7. Rudder Trim
578. At what N1 setting will a "Takeoff Config" warning occur

U
during takeoff if the system is mis-configured?: 70% N1 on both
engines

H
579. What is the purpose of having a "Stick Pusher" ON/OFF
switch on both sides of the cockpit?: Allows either pilot to disengage
the stick pusher if necessary.
580. What is required for the stick pusher to operate?: Both stick
pusher switches must be selected to "ON".
581. What will occur if the "AP/SP" switch is depressed on the
yoke?: 1. Autopilot is disconnected
2. Stick Pusher is disabled for as long as the switch is held down.
582. When will the "Stall" switchlight on the glare shield illuminate
and flash red?: It is activated with "Stick Pusher" activation.
583. With the onset of a stall, what are the stall activation "Trip
Points"?: 1. Auto Ignition activates.
2. Stick Shaker / Autopilot disengages
3. Stick Pusher / Stall Warning switchlight activates.
4. Stall Warbler audio tone is heard.
584. What are the 3 sources of cooling air for the EFIS and EICAS
displays?: 1. 2 AC Display Fans
2. Recirc Fan
3. Cockpit Air Conditioning Duct.
585. What does the color logic indicate for the following colors on
the EICAS system?
GREEN / AMBER / RED / BLACK / BLUE: GREEN: Normal
AMBER: Below Normal
RED: Above Normal
BLACK: No Flow
BLUE: Structure
586. What does the different valve colors indicate on the EICAS
system?
WHITE / AMBER / GREEN / 1/2 MAGENTA: WHITE: Valve is
operable / waiting for work
 M
AMBER: Valve is inoperable

SA
GREEN: Valve is actually performing work
1/2 MAGENTA: Insufficient Data to determine proper color

U
587. CAS messages are "Inhibited" when?: Takeoff:

H
Condition #1:
1. Engines are at takeoff thrust.
2. Below 100 kts

Condition #2:
1. Above 100 kts.
2. Less than 400 feet AGL
- cancels 30 seconds after takeoff.

Landing:

Condition #3:
1. Within 400 feet AGL with "gear down".
- cancels 30 seconds after landing or climbing back through 400 feet
following a go-around.
588. The EICAS system consists of two displays. What are there
names?: ED #1
ED #2
589. ED #1 normally displays what page?: Primary Page
590. ED #2 normally displays what page?: Status Page
591. Are the CRT displays interchangeable?: YES
592. What will occur if ED #1 Display (Primary Page) fails?: The
Primary page will automatically transfer to ED #2.
593. Some engine indications are only displayed on the "Primary
Page" on an "As Required" basis. What are they?: 1. N1 Vibration
2. N2 Vibration
3. APR and REV icons
594. At what time is the N1 Vibration gauges displayed?: When
"both" engines are running and the oil pressure is normal.
 M
595. When are the "Landing Gear", "Flaps/Slats", and "BTMS"

SA
indications shown on EICAS?: 1. Gear is selected down.
"or"

U
2. Flaps are selected down.
"or"

H
3. Brake temperatures are not normal
"or"
4. Flaps or Slats 1/2 Speed message is displayed.
596. ED #2 normally displays the ______ page as default.: Status
597. How many different synoptic pages may be displayed on ED
#2?: 8 different synoptic pages as well as the menu page.
598. At what times are the APU RPM and EGT gauges shown on
the Status Page (ED #2)?: When the APU "PWR/FUEL" switchlight is
depressed.
599. At what times is the APU "Door Position" displayed on the
EICAS Status Page?: It is always displayed.
600. At what times are the aileron, rudder and stabilizer trim
settings shown on the status page?: Always
601. If the trim settings are within acceptable parameters for
takeoff how are they displayed?: Needles indicate a green color "while
on the ground".
602. If the trim settings "are not" within acceptable parameters for
takeoff how are they displayed?: Needles are shown as a white color.
603. During flight what color are the trim settings displayed as?:
White
604. What indications are "always" displayed on the Status Page of
EICAS?: 1. O2 Pressure
2. Trim Position
3. Apu Intake Door Position
605. At what times are the O2 pressures displayed on the EICAS
Status Page?: Always
606. The EICAS system uses color logic to display system data.
What is meant by the following colors?
GREEN / RED / AMBER / BLACK / BLUE: GREEN: Normal
operating range
 M
RED: Above Normal

SA
AMBER: Below Normal
BLACK: No Flow

U
BLUE: Structure
607. Valve operations on the synoptic pages are colored in

H
accordance with their status. What are the valve colors?: WHITE:
Operating Valve waiting to do work.
GREEN: Operating valve (working valve)
AMBER: Failed Valve
1/2 Magenta: Insufficient data to determine the proper color
608. Where does the EICAS system's ED #1 and ED #2 displays
receive their power?: From the "Battery Bus".
609. What limit applies to the ED Displays while on battery power
only?: 5 minute limitation do to the AC cooling fans not being powered.
610. By what means do the CRT's receive cooling air flow?: 1. Two
(2) AC cooling fans
2. Recirc Fan
3. Cockpit Conditioned Air duct
611. If a cooling fan fails for the CRT's, what must be done?: Select
either the "Flt Altn or Gnd Altn" position on the "Display Fan" control
to use the alternate cooling fan.
612. The "Data Concentrator Units (DCU's) provide information to
what?: They provide information to:

1. EICAS Displays
2. Lamp Driver Units
3. Maintenance Diagnostic Computer
4. Flight Data Recorder
613. How many Data Concentrator Units are there?: Two (2)
614. Are both Data Concentrator Units "Active" at all times?: Yes
... Each DCU provides different information.
615. If one Data Concentrator Unit fails, what will automatically
occur?: The remaining DCU will provide all data.
616. What provides the "Aural Alerts"?: Data Concentrator Units
 M
617. If a "Warning" occurs what type of chime will the DCU

SA
provide?: Triple Chime
618. If a "Caution" occurs what type of chime will the DCU

U
provide?: Single Chime
619. What type of chimes or bells will the DCU's provide?: 1. Single

H
Chime
2. Triple Chime
3. Engine / Apu fire bells
620. What generates the "Voice Messages"?: Data Concentrator
Units
621. Can the audio warnings that the DCU's provide be disabled?:
All may be disabled by selecting the appropriate DCU switchlight
"OFF" except:

1. Ground Prox warnings

2. TCAS Alerts
622. What will the DCU's do if multiple alerts occur at once?: The
DCU's will prioritize the warnings.
623. Is it possible to clear or "box" a red warning on the Primary
page?: No
624. Is it possible to clear or "box" a amber caution on the Primary
page?: Yes
625. Is it possible to clear or "box" a green advisory message on the
status page?: No
626. Is it possible to clear or "box" a white status message on the
status page?: Yes
627. A "RED" warning message is associated with a _______
elsewhere.: RED switchlight
628. A "AMBER" caution message is associated with a _______
elsewhere.: AMBER switchlight
629. If all of the warning or caution messages cannot be displayed
on the Primary Page, how can the remaining messages be
retrieved?: Pressing the CAS button on the EICAS Control Panel will
cycle through the pages.
 M
630. What does a "Green Advisory Message" indicate?: Advises of

SA
aircraft's system configuration.
631. What does a "White Status Message" indicate?: Advises of

U
System Status.
632. What is the purpose of the "Lamp Driver Units"?: The lamp

H
Driver Unit sends the signal as instructed by the DCU to illuminate the
appropriate switchlight.
633. What is achieved by selecting the "Lamp Test Switch" to the
Channel 1 position?: It tests channel 1 of the lamp driver unit.
634. At what times can the DCU minimize "Distracting Warning
and Caution Messages"?: Takeoff:

Condition #1:
1. Both thrust levers are advanced to "Takeoff Power".
2. Speed below 100 kts.

Condition #2:
1. Groundspeed greater than 100 kts.
2. Terminates at 400' or 30 seconds after WOW.

Landing:

Condition #3:
1. Aircraft within 400' w/ landing gear down.
2. Terminates 30 seconds after landing or climbing back through 400'
following a go-around.
635. There are four (4) buttons on the EICAS Control Panel which
are mechanical, which are they?: 1. PRI
2. STAT
3. CAS
4. STEP
636. What is accomplished by pressing the "PRI" button on the
EICAS Control Panel?: Causes the Primary page to be displayed on
ED #2.
 M
637. What is accomplished by pressing the "STAT" button on the

SA
EICAS Control Panel?: It causes the "Status" Page to be displayed on
ED #2.

U
If the status page is already displayed it will box the white status
messages.

H
638. What is accomplished by pressing the "CAS" button on the
EICAS Control Panel?: It will box the caution messages on the
Primary page "or" cycle through the pages if multiple pages exist.
639. What is accomplished by pressing the "STEP" button on the
EICAS Control Panel?: It will cycle through the synoptic pages
beginning with the last page displayed.
640. At what times is the "SEL, UP, DN" button on the EICAS
Control Panel operative?: Only when the "Menu" page is displayed on
ED #2.
641. With the Menu page selected on the EICAS Control Panel
what types of data may be entered?: Fuel used reset
642. What is the purpose of the "Reversionary Control Panel"?:
Provides control for an alternate method of displaying PFD and EICAS
information in the event one of the ED screens fails.
643. What alternate data may be selected to display on the MFD by
using the "Reversionary Control Panel"?: 1. EICAS Status Page
information
2. PFD
644. The "Reversionary Control Panel directly controls what is
displayed on what screen?: The Multi-function Display
645. What does the "Source Selector Panel" provide?: A way to
provide alternate data to both PFD's at once.
646. On the 'Source Selection Panel", what happens if the "DISP
CONT" knob is selected to either the 1 or 2 position?: It will select
which Display control Panel will control "BOTH" displays in the event
that one fails.
647. On the "Source Selection Panel" what happens if the EICAS
switch is selected to the ED1 or ED2 position?: It selects which ED
display will display "all" EICAS information in the event that one (1) ED
were to fail.
 M
648. If you are viewing "all EICAS Information" on one ED as

SA
selected by the Source Selection Panel, what will occur if a "RED
Warning" occurs?: If a page other than the primary page is displayed

U
a triple chime will be heard and the display will automatically revert to
the "Primary Page".

H
649. If you are viewing "all EICAS Information" on one ED as
selected by the Source Selection Panel, what will occur if a
"AMBER Caution" occurs?: Only a single chime will be heard. The
page "does not" automatically revert to the Primary Page!
650. Maintenance Diagnostic information may be selected to display
where?: 1. Captain's MFD
2. First Officer's MFD
651. What are two (2) primary purposes of the Maintenance
Diagnostic Computer"?: 1. Counts Engine Start Cycles
2. Records Trend Data.
652. At what times does the "Flight Data Recorder" begin
recording?: 1. Beacon ON
2. Strobes ON
3. Weight off wheels
653. The "Flight Data Recorder" will record the last _______ of
data.: 25 hours
654. The Flight Data Recorder is equipped with a ________
underwater locating device.: 30 day
655. Upon impact what is automatically accomplished to prevent
erasure of the Flight Data Recorder?: Power is removed.
656. Where is the flight data recorder physically located on the
aircraft?: Aft Equipment Bay
657. What is the purpose of the "Event" switch on the Misc Test
Panel?: It places a Time / Date stamp on the flight data recorder for
later review.
The tape is marked as a "significant event".

‫ـــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــ‬
 M
FUEL SYS. :

SA
U
658. By what two (2) means are the "Wing Tanks" refueled?: 1.

H
Pressure Refueling
2. Gravity Refueling (Overwing)
659. By what means may the "Center Fuel Tank" be refueled?:
Pressure Refueling Only!
660. What is the fuel capacity of the wing tanks for:
Pressure Refueling? / Overwing Refueling?: Pressure Refueling:
7,492 lbs

Overwing Refueling: 7,290 lbs

661. What is the fuel tank capacity for the center tank following
"Pressure Refueling"?: 4,610 lbs
662. What is the fuel capacity of the "Center Tank" following
"Gravity Refueling"?: Gravity refueling of the center tank is not
allowed. The center fuel tank may only be "Pressure Refueled"!
663. Fuel quantity information is displayed where?: 1. EICAS
Primary Page
2. Fuel Synoptic Page
664. What does the "Fuel Computer" control?: 1. Refuel / Defuel
operations
2. Fuel Feed
3. Fuel Balancing
4. Fuel quantity indications
665. Where are the collector tanks physically located on the
airplane?: Within the "Center Tank".
666. All fuel drawn from the fuel system comes from where?: The
collector tanks.
667. Where does the APU draw its fuel from?: The left collector tank
only!
668. What keeps the collector tanks full?: Scavenge Ejector pumps
 M
669. What powers the Scavenge Ejector pumps?: Motive flow fuel

SA
from:

U
ENGINES OPERATING:
HP Fuel pumps

H
ENGINES SHUT DOWN:
Fuel Boost Pumps
670. How is fuel transferred from the Center tank to the Collector
tanks?: Fuel is never transferred directly to the collector tanks from the
center tank. It must first be transferred to the wing tanks and then back
to the collector tanks via the "Scavenge Ejector Pumps".
671. Fuel tank venting is provided for by what?: NACA vents
672. Where are the NACA vents physically located on the aircraft?:
Underside of the wings near the trailing edge.
673. What is the purpose of the NACA vents?: To provide venting
during:

1. Refueling / Defueling operations

2. Normal venting during flight
3. Provides a "positive" head of pressure to the fuel tanks during flight.
674. If fuel inadvertently enters the NACA vents, where does it go?:
It is returned to the "Center Tank".
675. Is it normal for the "Center tank" to show an increase in fuel
quantity during a climb?: Yes ...

Fuel has entered the NACA vents and has been returned to the center
tank.
This is normal operation.
676. What do the NACA vents provide while in-flight?: A positive
head of pressure (Ram Air) to the fuel tank system.
677. What prevents fuel from moving within the main tanks during
low wing maneuvers?: One Way Flow valves.
678. How many "Fuel System Computers" are there on the
aircraft?: Only one (1), but it has two channels (Channel A and
Channel B).
 M
679. If one channel of the Fuel Control Computer fails what will

SA
happen?: The other channel will automatically take control.
680. When does the "Fuel System Computer" automatically test

U
itself (BITE)?: Continuously
681. What are the names of the three (3) different ejectors within

H
the fuel system?: 1. Main Ejectors
2. Scavenge Ejectors
3. Transfer Ejectors
682. What is the purpose of the "Main Ejectors"?: Provides a
positive head of pressure to the Engine Drive HP fuel pumps.
683. What is the purpose of the "Transfer Ejectors"?: The transfer
ejectors move fuel from the center tank to the wing tanks.
684. What is the purpose of the "Scavenge Ejectors"?: The Scavenge
Ejectors move fuel from the wing tanks to the collector tanks.
685. What powers the ejector pumps?: Normally motive flow fuel
from the engine drives HP pump with the engines operating.

With the engines shutdown the boost pumps provides the motive flow
fuel to power the main ejectors for engine start.
686. What is the "Primary" purpose of the fuel boost pumps?: To
provide a backup source of fuel pressure in the event of "Main Ejector"
failure.
687. What is the "Secondary" purpose of the fuel boost pumps?: To
provide "Motive Flow" fuel to power the ejector pumps with the engines
shutdown.
688. Are the Fuel boost pumps AC or DC powered?: DC powered.
689. If only "Battery power" is available will the fuel boost pumps
operate?: Only the "Left Boost Pump" will operate.
690. Both pumps will operate when _____ switch is selected to the
"ON" position if AC power is available.: Either
691. What does actually occur when both fuel boost pump switches
are selected to "ON"?: It will "ARM" the fuel pumps to operate when a
decrease in pressure is detected within the fuel manifold.
692. During engine start, will "both" fuel boost pumps be actually
working?: Both fuel boost pumps will function if only 1 engine is
 M
running. Following the second engine start the boost pumps are then in

SA
the "Armed" position.
693. Are the Fuel Shutoff Valves normally open or closed?: Open

U
694. How may the Fuel Shutoff Valves be "Closed"?: 1. Pressing
either ENG FIRE switchlight.

H
2. Pressing the APU FIRE switchlight.
695. Are the fuel shutoff valves spring loaded or electrically
operated valves?: Electrically operated.
696. How is the fuel heated within the fuel system?: Fuel / Oil heat
exchanger
697. What will happen if the fuel filter becomes clogged?: "Fuel
Filter" caution light illuminates and a bypass valve opens to allow fuel
to bypass the fuel filter.
The Fuel Filter caution light actually means that "Fuel is about to be
bypassed".
698. Is the APU fuel pump DC or AC powered?: DC powered.
699. All fuel delivered to the APU is drawn from where?: Left
Collector tank only.
700. What will occur if the APU fuel pump fails?: Fuel is
automatically drawn from the left collector tank via the APU suction.
701. When does "Automatic Fuel Transfer" occur from the center
tank to the wing tanks?: When the wing tank fuel quantity reaches 94%
the Fuel Control Computer directs the transfer pumps to transfer fuel
from the center tank to the wing tanks.
Transfer stops when the wing tank level reaches 97%.
702. By what two (2) means is fuel crossflow (balancing) provided
for?: 1. Powered Crossflow (Automatic & Manual)
2. Gravity Crossflow
703. "Powered Crossflow" can be accomplished by two means,
what are they?: 1. Automatic
2. Manual
704. How is "Automatic" powered crossflow (balancing) between
the main tanks achieved?: The Fuel Control Computer will
automatically cross flow fuel when a 200 lb fuel imbalance occurs.
 M
SA
Crossflow operations will stop when the fuel is balanced +50 lbs.
705. How is "Manual" powered crossflow (balancing) between the

U
main tanks achieved?: 1. Press the MAN Crossflow switchlight
2. Activate the crossflow pump on the "Low Tank Side".

H
- This tells the Cross Flow Pump to pump to that side.
706. At what point will the "Fuel Imbalance" caution light
illuminate?: 800 lb fuel imbalance.
707. At what times would you use the "Gravity Crossflow" method
to balance the wing tanks?: Only if the Powered Crossflow system
fails!
708. How is "Gravity Crossflow" (balancing) of the main fuel tanks
achieved?: 1. Select the "Gravity Crossflow" switchlight "OPEN"
2. When fuel is balanced you must manually close the Crossflow valve
again.
709. Where is the Refuel / Defuel panel physically located on the
aircraft?: Right wing root leading edge.
710. What does the Refuel / Defuel panel allow for?: 1. System
testing of the "Fuel System Computer".
2. Pressure fueling in both automatic and manual modes.
711. What two methods are provided for fuel quantity gauging?: 1.
Digital display
2. Magnetic Level Indicators (MLI's)
712. How many magnetic level indicators are there on the aircraft
and where are their locations?: 5 Total MLI's

Two (2) in each Wing Tank

One (1) in the Center Tank
713. On what page of the EICAS system is fuel quantity displayed?:
Primary Page
714. At what two (2) locations can you view the fuel quantity?: 1.
EICAS Primary Page
2. Fuel Synoptic Page
 M
715. The digital fuel quantity readout will turn "Amber" when?: 1.

SA
Total fuel quantity is less than 900 lbs.
2. Fuel imbalance exceeds 800 lbs.

U
716. What will be displayed on the fuel synoptic page if the fuel
quantity readings are invalid?: Quantity displayed turns to a "1/2

H
Magenta" color.
717. At what time will the "Center Tank" fuel quantity indication
be shown as a "Green" color?: When the Center Fuel tank quantity is
at least 10 lbs.
718. At what time will the "Center Tank" fuel quantity indication
be shown as a "White" color?: When the center fuel tank quantity is 0
lbs.
719. At what times may the fuel quantity readout be unreliable?:
During un-coordinated flight.
The wings must be level for at least 30 seconds for accurate fuel level
readings.
720. By what three (3) means can the "Fuel Used" readout be
reset?: 1. Automatically following aircraft power-up.
2. Manually by entering a new fuel quantity on the "PERF INIT" page.
3. Manually by selecting the fuel synoptic page, then menu key, then
"Fuel Used Reset" (On Ground Only).
721. Where is the "Bulk Fuel Temperature" measured from?: The
right wing tank only!
722. The "Bulk Fuel Temperature" readout will be "GREEN"
colored when?: Bulk Fuel Temperature is above -40 degrees C.
723. The "Bulk Fuel Temperature" readout will be "AMBER"
colored when?: The Bulk Fuel temperature is below - 40 degrees C.
724. At what temperature will the Fuel Feed temperature indicate a
"GREEN" color?: +5 degrees C or above.
725. At what temperature will the Fuel Feed temperature indicate a
"AMBER" color?: Fuel temperature is BELOW + 5 degrees C
726. If you measure the fuel tank quantity using the Magnetic Level
Indicators (MLI's), what must be referenced?: The "Inclinometer"
must be referenced behind the first officers seat and compared with the
charts to obtain the actual fuel quantity.
 M
727. Are you allowed to have the fuelers "De-Fuel" the aircraft?:

SA
NO

U
Defueling is a maintenance function!
728. What is the maximum allowable fuel in the center tank for

H
takeoff?: 500 lbs if "each" main tank fuel quantity is less than 4,400 lbs.
"OR"
Each main tank is above 2,000 lbs and:
1. The allowable zero fuel weight is reduced by the weight of the fuel in
the center tank in excess of 500 lbs.
2. The CG is verified to be within the allowable CG envelope.
‫ـــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــ‬
‫ــــــــ‬

HYDRAULIC SYS. :

729. What are the names of the three independent hydraulic

systems?: Hydraulic System #1
Hydraulic System #2
Hydraulic System #3
730. What is the "normal" operating pressure of each hydraulic
system?: 3,000 psi
731. How many hydraulic pumps does each hydraulic system
have?: 2
732. Hydraulic Systems #1 and #2 main pump is driven by what?:
Engine Driven Pump
733. Hydraulic Systems #1 and #2 "backup" pump is powered by
what?: Electric AC Motor pumps
734. Hydraulic Systems #3 "main" pump is powered by what?: AC
Motor Pump
735. Hydraulic Systems #3 "backup" pump is powered by what?:
AC Motor Pump
 M
736. All Hydraulic System #3's pumps are powered how?: AC Motor

SA
Pumps
737. What hydraulic pumps are directly controlled from the

U
"Hydraulic Control Panel"?: System #1 Backup Pump
System #2 Backup Pump

H
System #3 Main Pump
System #3 Backup Pump
738. What systems does the Hydraulic Systems power?: Landing
Gear
Brakes
Steering
Primary Flight Controls
Secondary Flight Controls
Thrust Reversers
739. What does Hydraulic System #1 Power?: Left Aileron
Rudder
Elevator
Outboard Flight Spoilers
Outboard Ground Spoilers
Left Engine Thrust Reverser
740. What does Hydraulic System #2 Power?: Right Aileron
Rudder
Elevator
Inboard Flight Spoilers
Inboard Ground Spoilers
Right Engine Thrust Reverser
Landing Gear Aux Actuators
Outboard Brakes
741. At what times are Hydraulic System #1 and Hydraulic Systems
#2 "MAIN" pumps actually working?: Anytime that the respective
engine is running.
742. Hydraulic System #1 and Hydraulic System #2's main pumps
are engine driven pumps. What is actually driving the pumps?:
Engine Accessory Gearbox
 M
743. Do the Engine Driven main pumps for the hydraulic system

SA
have any control switches?: No
744. What are the switch positions on the Hydraulic Control Panel

U
for the "Backup" hydraulic pumps?: Pump 1B: ON, OFF, AUTO
Pump 2B: ON, OFF, AUTO

H
Pump 3A: OFF, ON
Pump 3B: ON, OFF, AUTO
745. When in "Auto Mode" hydraulic pumps 1B, 2B and 3B will
operate when?: Anytime that:

1. AC power is available.
2. Flaps (not Slats) are selected out of the zero degree position.
746. What is the purpose of the "Ground Interlock" for the
Hydraulic System?: It allows you to operate the hydraulic system
backup pumps while on the ground without the flaps being selected out
of the zero position.
747. All "Primary Flight Controls" are powered by at least _____
hydraulic systems.: Two
748. What systems are powered by "ALL THREE" hydraulic
systems?: Ailerons
Rudders
Elevators
749. What is the purpose of "pressurizing" the hydraulic systems
reservoir?: Provides positive pressure to the:

Engine Driven Main Pumps

All Backup Pumps
750. Where are the Hydraulic shutoff valves installed within the
hydraulic system?: They are installed in the "supply lines" of the
engine driven "Main" pumps.
751. Are the Hydraulic Shutoff Valves normally "Open" or
"Closed"?: Open
752. Where can the hydraulic shutoff valve position be viewed?:
Hydraulic System Synoptic Page
 M
753. In what ways is it possible to "CLOSE" the hydraulic shutoff

SA
valves?: 1. Pressing the "Eng Fire Push" switchlight
2. Pressing the "HYD SOV" switchlight

U
754. What is the purpose of the "Hydraulic Shutoff Valves"?: To
isolate the flow of hydraulic fluid from the engine driven pumps in the

H
event of:

1. Overheat
2. Fluid Leak

Also provides a means to cool the fluid if necessary.

755. Which of the hydraulic systems require cooling?: Hydraulic
system #1A
Hydraulic system #2A
756. Why does Hydraulic Systems #1 and #2 require fluid cooling?:
Because of their close proximity to the aircraft's engines.
757. How is the hydraulic fluid cooled for Hydraulic Systems #1
and #2?: Air / Oil Heat Exchanger
758. Where does the "AIR" come from to cool the heat exchanger
for the hydraulic systems?: Ram Air Scoop at the base of the tail.
759. While operating on the ground what automatically happens to
provide a greater amount of cooling air to the Air/Oil heat
exchangers for the hydraulic systems?: A fan begins to operate within
the ram air duct at the base of the tail anytime that the aircraft is on the
ground and stationary.
760. Which hydraulic system powers the "Largest Demands"?:
Hydraulic System #3
761. Hydraulic system #3 provides pressure to what systems?: 1.
Rudder
2. Elevator
3. Ailerons
4. Inboard Ground Spoilers
5. Landing Gear
6. Nose wheel Steering
 M
762. Does Hydraulic System #3 have any "Engine Driven" pumps?:

SA
No
763. Does Hydraulic System #3 require fluid cooling?: No

U
764. When do the Hydraulic System "Backup pumps" normally
operate?: Anytime that:

H
1. AC Power is available to the pumps.
"AND"
2. The flaps (not slats) are selected out of zero degrees.

NOTE:
You would normally want the backup pumps to operate for takeoffs and
landings.
765. If the "Main" hydraulic pump fails while in-flight, will the
backup pump automatically power the system?: NO. The backup
pump must be selected to the "ON" position.
766. Will the backup hydraulic pumps operate if only "External AC
power" is available to the aircraft while on the ground?: Yes
767. If all AC power is lost while in-flight with the engines not
operating (APU not running), what provides hydraulic power?:
System #3

The ADG will power hydraulic system 3B pump regardless of switch

position.
768. If all AC power is lost while in-flight and the ADG deploys,
what position must hydraulic system #3 pump 3B be selected to for
operation of the system 3B pump?: It doesn't matter.
Pump 3B will automatically provide System #3 pressure regardless of
pump switch position.
769. At what point does the Hydraulic system pressure readout turn
"AMBER" on the hydraulic system synoptic page?: Below 1,800 PSI
770. At what point does the Hydraulic system pressure readout turn
"GREEN" on the hydraulic system synoptic page?: Above 1,800 psi
771. At what point does the Hydraulic system pressure readout turn
"WHITE" on the hydraulic system synoptic page?: Above 3,200 PSI
 M
772. When will the Hydraulic system "Temperature" readout

SA
indicate "GREEN" on the hydraulic synoptic page?: Below 96
degrees C

U
773. When will the Hydraulic system "Temperature" readout
indicate "AMBER" on the hydraulic synoptic page?: Above or equal

H
to 96 degrees C
774. When will the Hydraulic System "Quantity" readout indicate
"GREEN"?: Between 45% and 85%
775. When will the Hydraulic System "Quantity" readout indicate
"AMBER"?: Below 45% or Greater than 85%
776. At what point will "ALL" hydraulic system fluid quantities
disappear on the hydraulic synoptic page?: When fluid quantity drops
below 5%
777. If the "Engine Driven Hydraulic Pumps" overheat how can
they be disconnected?: If the pump malfunctions and overheats the
"Shear Pin" will break.
There is no manual means of disconnecting the engine driven hydraulic
pumps. They are driven by the gear box and constantly operate anytime
that the engine is operating.

‫ـــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــ‬

ICE & RAIN PROTECTION SYS. :

778. What systems are protected by the "Ice and Rain" protection
systems?: 1. Cowl Anti-Ice
2. Wing Anti-Ice
3. Forward Windshields
4. Side Windows
5. Air Data Probes & Sensors
 M
6. Ice Detection System

SA
7. Windshield wipers
779. What provides anti-icing for the tail?: Anti-Ice protection for the

U
tail is not required!
780. With regards to the Ice Protection system, which areas are

H
protected with bleed air?: 1. Cowl Anti-Ice
2. Wing Anti-Ice (including slats)
781. The Anti-Ice synoptic page only shows those areas which are
______ de-iced.: pneumatically
782. With regards to the Anti-Ice system, which areas are
"electrically" protected?: 1. Forward Windshields
2. Side Windows (De-Misted only)
3. Windshield wipers
4. Air Data Probes
5. Ice Detection Probes
783. How many Ice Detection systems are there on the CRJ700?:
Two (2) fully independent systems
784. What must occur for an "Ice" caution to occur?: At least one
(1) ice detection system must have sensed Ice.
785. Where are the "Ice Detect Probes" physically located on the
aircraft?: One on each side of the nose below the pilot's windshields.
786. Each "Ice Detector" consists of what?: A probe and a
microprocessor.
787. The ice detect probes vibrate within the slipstream. What
causes the "ICE" annuciator to display?: The ice detect probe
"decreases" its vibration to the pre-set trip point.
788. When "ICE" is detected the "ICE" caution message is
displayed where?: 1. EICAS "Primary Page"
2. Anti-Ice Synoptic Page
789. What would occur if "BOTH" anti-ice systems were to fail?:
You would receive a "ICE DETECT FAIL" Caution Message on the
EICAS Primary Page.
790. What would occur if "ONE" anti-ice systems were to fail?: You
would receive a "#1/#2 ICE DETECT FAIL" status message on the
EICAS.
 M
791. If Ice is detected a "ICE" caution message will be displayed on

SA
the EICAS Primary Page. What occurs following selection of the
wing anti-ice switches to the "ON" position?: The "ICE" caution

U
message is replaced by an "ICE" advisory message on the status page.
792. When "ICE" is detected, how are the Ice Detection Probes

H
heated and for how long?: They are automatically electrically heated
for as long as ice is detected.
They will automatically turn "OFF" the heating source after a pre-
determined amount of time following clear of icing conditions.
793. Will the Ice Detect Probes receive heat continuously when ice is
detected?: NO ... The probes will heat and cool for as long as ice is
detected.
794. When conducting the "Ice Detection" test what indications are
you looking for?: 1. Switchlight illuminates.
2. "ICE" is annunciated

HOT WING: White "ICE" status message

COLD WING: Amber "ICE" caution message

3. "ADS HEAT TEST OK" advisory message displays.

795. Selecting the "Cowl Anti-Ice" switches to the "ON" position
will de-ice what?: 1. Engine Cowls (pneumatically)
2. T2 Probe sensor within the engine cowls (electrically)
796. By what two (2) means may the T2 Inlet Temperature probe be
de-iced?: 1. Automatically by the FADEC computer.
2. Manually by selecting the "Engine Cowl" anti-ice switches to "ON".
797. What is the purpose of the T2 probe within the engine
nacelle?: It measures inlet air temperature.
798. Are the "Cowl Anti-Ice Valves" normally fail saved "OPEN"
or Closed"?: They are normally always "OPEN".
799. What is required to "CLOSE" the cowl anti-ice valves?: 1. DC
Electrical power
2. Bleed Air
800. Where are the "Cowl Anti-Ice Valves" physically located on
the aircraft?: Aft Equipment Bay
 M
801. At what times will you receive a "L/R COWL A/I" caution

SA
message?: 1. Pressure in the duct with the cowl anti-ice selected to
"OFF".

U
2. No pressure within the duct with the cowl anti-ice selected to "ON".
802. What directs the hot bleed air into the engine cowls when the

H
cowl anti-ice is selected to "ON"?: Piccolo Tubes
803. Where is the exhaust bleed air expelled from when the engine
anti-ice system is selected to "ON"?: Through louvers on the
underside of the engine.
804. What portion of the wings is de-iced when the "Wing Anti-Ice"
is selected to "ON"?: Wing leading edges and slats.
805. Where does the left wing "Normally" receive its bleed air for
de-icing?: Left Engine
806. Where does the right wing "Normally" receive its bleed air for
de-icing?: Right Engine
807. What controls the amount of bleed air which travels through
the wing for de-icing purposes?: The respective "Anti-ice Leak
Detection Controller" (AILC) modulates the wing anti-ice valve.
808. Is it possible to de-ice the left wing if the #1 engine fails?: YES

By selecting the "Wing Crossbleed Valve" to the "Right Wing" position.

809. What actually occurs if the "Wing Crossbleed Valve" is
selected to the "From Left" position?: 1. The "right wing anti-ice
valve closes.
2. The wing crossbleed valve opens.
3. "WING ISOL OPEN" message appears on EICAS.
810. What actually occurs if the "Wing Crossbleed Valve" is
selected to the "From Right" position?: 1. Left wing anti-ice valve
closes.
2. Cross bleed valve "OPENS".
3. "WING ISOL OPEN" message appears on EICAS.
811. If the "Wing Cross Bleed Valve" fails, does it fail OPEN or
Closed?: It will fail in the last position selected when power was
removed.
 M
812. How does the "Anti-Ice Leak Detection System" (AILS)

SA
regulate wing temperatures?: It modulates the wing anti-ice valve to
maintain the wing temperature depending on the temperature schedule.

U
813. Each Anti-Ice Leak Detection System has how many
channels?: Two (2)

H
814. How many sensors are there in each wing used to control and
monitor wing temperature when using the wing anti-ice system?:
Four (4) ... Channel A controls 2 and channel B controls 2.
815. What is the purpose of the wing temperature sensors on the
outboard portion of the wing?: Measures for a wing anti-ice duct
"Under heat condition".
816. What is the purpose of the wing temperature sensors on the
inboard portion of the wing?: Monitors the wing temperature for a
"Overheat" condition.
817. If an "Under heat" condition is detected by the wing sensors
for the wing anti-ice system what is displayed?: 1. "L/R Wing A/I"
caution message on EICAS.
2. Wing anti-ice duct turns an amber color.
818. If an "Overheat" condition is detected by the wing sensors for
the wing anti-ice system what is displayed?: 1. Triple Chime
2. "WING OVHT" warning message is displayed on EICAS.
3. "Wing Overheat" voice message is heard.
4. Wing anti-ice duct turns a red color.
819. At what times does the wing anti-ice system heat the wings to
the "HIGH" temperature schedule?: When slats are extended.
820. At what times does the wing anti-ice system heat the wings to
the "LOW" temperature schedule?: With the slats retracted.
821. Are the "Wing Anti-Ice Valves" fail saved OPEN or
CLOSED?: CLOSED
822. When will the "Wing Anti-Ice Valves" automatically
"CLOSE"?: 1. Overheat is detected within the wing.
2. Bleed air supply is removed.
3. Electrical power to the valve is removed.
823. The wing anti-ice ducts are referred to as _____.: Piccolo Tubes
 M
824. Where is exhaust bleed air utilized by the wing anti-ice system

SA
expelled from?: Underneath the wing leading edge (upper surface).
825. How is bleed air ducted to the slats for de-ice purposes?:

U
Through telescoping Piccolo Tubes interconnected by flexible
connectors.

H
826. What will the N2 gauge indicate when the wing anti-ice is
selected to "ON"?: A variable white arc ranging from 0% to 77%.
827. What is the purpose of the variable white arc on the N2
indicator?: Keeping the N2 RPM above the white arc ensures adequate
bleed air to de-ice the wings.
828. What will automatically occur if a wing "OVERHEAT"
occurs?: 1. Triple Chime is heard
2. Respective wing anti-ice valve will close.
3. "L/R WING OVHT" warning is displayed on the EICAS Primary
Page.
4. Anti-ice ducting will turn RED.
5. Aural "Wing Overheat" is heard.
829. What is indicated if a "L/R WING A/I" caution message is
displayed on the EICAS Primary Page?: The "outboard sensors" of
the wing has detected an under heat in the wing anti-ice system.
The flow lines will turn amber in color and a "L/R WING A/I" caution is
displayed.
830. When does the wing anti-ice system automatically test itself?:
Only during initial aircraft power-up.
831. What three (3) functions does the "Ice Detector Test"
accomplish?: 1. Tests circuitry and probes. (ICE msg)
2. Tests probe heating (ADS HEAT TEST)
3. Tests the icing indicator switchlight.
832. How are the forward windshields heated?: Electrically
833. How are the side windows heated?: Electrically - De-misted only
834. How many temperature controllers are there for the
windshields?: Four (4)
One for each windshield & side window
835. Are the windshield temperature controllers interchangeable?:
Yes
 M
836. Each window is controlled by a separate controller. True or

SA
False: True
837. What occurs when the left windshield is selected to the "LOW"

U
position?: The windshield goes through a "warm-up" cycle and is then
heated to low.

H
Side window is heated to low (De-Misted).
838. What occurs when the left windshield is selected to the
"HIGH" position?: The windshield goes through a warm-up cycle and
is then heated to high heat.

The side window remains in "LOW" position (De-misted only).

839. The "LH WSHLD" heat switch controls what windows?: 1.
Left forward windshield
2. Left side window.
840. The windshield heat switches are three (3) position switches.
What are the switch positions?: OFF / RESET
LOW
HIGH
841. What occurs when the windshield heat switches are placed in
the OFF/RESET position.: 1. Power is removed from the respective
windows.
2. Temperature controller is reset.
842. What is meant if the "L/R WSHLD HEAT" caution message is
displayed on EICAS?: 1. The windshield heat is selected to "OFF"
"or"
2. The windshield has overheated.
843. What will automatically occur if the windshields overheats?: 1.
A "L/R WSHLD HEAT" caution message is displayed.
2. Power is removed from the window.
844. How is the "Probe Heat" controlled?: By switches on the "Anti-
Ice Control Panel".
845. The "Probe Heat" switches can be thought of as _______.:
Ground control switches
 M
846. With the "Probe Heat" switches selected to the "OFF"

SA
position is anything heated while on the ground?: The pitot heat is in
"Low Heat" (1/2 Power) anytime there is an operating generator on-

U
line.
847. The "Left" probe heat switch controls what probes?: Captain's

H
side of aircraft.
848. The "Right" probe heat switch controls what probes?: First
Officer's side of aircraft.
849. Does the "Probe Heat" switches have any control when the
aircraft is airborne?: No .. all probes goes to high heat passing 60 kts
on the takeoff roll regardless of switch position.
850. In "Ground Mode" of the probe heat, what is heated with:
Probe Heat switches selected "OFF":
Probe Heat switches selected "ON":: Probe Heat switches selected
"OFF":

1. No heat to static ports and AOA vane.

2. Pitot probes 1/2 power with an operating generator on-line.

Probe Heat switches selected "ON":

1. Full power to static ports and AOA vane.

2. Pitot probes 1/2 power with an operating generator on-line.
851. What is the purpose of the "Probe Heat" switches?: To de-ice
the static ports during "Ground Icing" conditions.
852. What is required to provide power to the "pitot probes"
during ground operations?: An engine generator must be on-line.
‫ـــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــ‬
 M
LANDING GEAR :

SA
U
H
853. Landing gear position is displayed where?: ED #1 Primary
Page
854. At what times is the Landing Gear position indicator
displayed?: 1. Gear selected down.
2. Flaps selected down.
3. BTMS temperatures not normal.
4. Flaps or Slats 1/2 Speed message.
855. How many PSS sensors are there for the landing gear?
Main Gear? / Nose Gear?: Main Gear: 2 (Dual PSS Sensors for
redundancy)

Nose Gear: 2 (Dual PSS Sensors for redundancy)

856. At what time is the landing gear indication system removed
from view on the Primary Page?: 30 seconds after:

1. Gear is up and locked.

2. Flaps are up.
3. BTMS system indicates normal temperatures.
4. No Flap or Slat 1/2 speed message.
857. Which hydraulic system powers the landing gear system?:
Hydraulic System #3
858. At what time does Hydraulic System #2 assist Hydraulic
System #3 in regards to landing gear extension and retraction?:
During "Alternate Gear Extension".
859. Does the main landing gear doors "fully enclose" the main
gear wheel bays?: NO

The tire assembly remains exposed.

860. Does the nose landing gear doors "fully enclose" the nose gear
wheel bay?: Yes
 M
861. What will be the indication on the landing gear indicator while

SA
the gear is in transit?: Amber hash marks (------) are displayed.
862. What will be displayed on the landing gear indicator if the gear

U
stays "In Transient" too long?: The amber hash marks (-----) will turn
RED.

H
863. The landing gear handle is mechanically connected to the
landing gear system.
TRUE or FALSE: False
864. How are the "up-locks" for the landing gear system released
using the normal extension system?: Hydraulically
865. How is the "Main Gear" locked in the down position?: 1.
Hydraulically
2. Two (2) over-center springs
866. Does the "Main Gear" retract inwards or outwards?: Inwards
867. How are the "Main Gear" doors attached to the airframe?:
They are mechanically fixed to the main gear strut.
868. What is provided to stop the tire rotation of the nose gear
following retraction?: Anti-Spin Mechanism
869. How is the nose landing gear held up?: 1. Mechanical Up-Lock
assembly
2. Over-center mechanism
870. How is the "up-lock" released when extending the nose landing
gear?: Hydraulically

Note:
Utilizes the Aux #2 actuator powered by Hydraulic System #2.
871. How is the nose gear held in the down position?: Over-center
mechanism
(Same mechanism which held it up)
872. In which direction does the nose landing gear retract?:
Forward
873. Is the nose gear bay fully enclosed with the gear retracted?:
Yes
 M
874. With the gear selected down, do the nose gear doors close and

SA
cover the gear bay?: No
They remain open.

U
875. What feature on the landing gear system prevents an "UP"
selection of the gear while on the ground?: A "Down Lock" solenoid.

H
876. If a PSS fails after takeoff in the landing gear system, what
must be accomplished to raise the gear?: "Down-lock Release" button
must be depressed to mechanically retract the solenoid pin.
877. The landing Gear Horn will sound when:: 1. Flaps are selected
beyond 20 degrees with the gear up.
"OR"
2. The speed is below a predetermined value.
"OR"
3. One (1) thrust lever is selected toward IDLE with the gear up.
878. The landing gear horn "Cannot be Muted" when:: 1. Flaps are
selected more than 30 degrees with the gear up.
"OR"
2. Both thrust levers are retarded to idle.
879. At what times will the landing gear horn "automatically"
mute?: During windshear conditions.
880. What is indicated on EICAS when the gear horn is manually
selected to "MUTE"?: "HORN MUTED" advisory message on Status
Page.
881. The "TOO LOW GEAR" warning will sound when:: 1. Within
500 feet AGL
"AND"
2. Below 190 kts.
882. When is the main gear "Emergency Extension" procedure
used?: 1. Failure of the landing gear control circuitry.
2. Loss of System #3 Hydraulic pressure.
883. What is accomplished by pulling the "Alternate Gear T-
Handle"?: MAIN Gear:
Mechanically releases the uplocks.
Allows gear to free fall down assisted by Hydraulic System #2 pressure.
 M
NOSE GEAR:

SA
Hydraulic system #2 pressure releases the uplocks and the slipstream
forces the nose gear down.

U
884. Once the landing gear is extended using the alternate system,
what must happen in order to raise the gear again using the normal

H
system?: Hydraulic System #3 pressure must be restored.
885. What Hydraulic systems are required to extend the gear using
the "Alternate Gear Extension" method?: Hydraulic system #2 "Aux
Actuator" assists in main gear extension.

Hydraulic System #2 assists in releasing the "Uplocks" for the nose

gear.
886. What caution lights would prevent the nose gear from
extending using the alternate gear extension method?: The nose gear
will not extend if "Both" the "#2 HYD LOW PRESS" and the #3 HYD
LOW PRESS" caution lights are illuminated.
System #2 pressure is required to release the uplocks for the nose gear!
887. Main landing gear bays contains what to provide for "Over-
Heat Protection"?: Single Loop overheat detection wire.
888. When conducting the "Main Landing Gear Overheat" test,
what are you actually testing in the following switch positions?
MLG BAY OVHT / MLG OVHT FAIL: MLG BAY OVHT:
Checks the continuity of the loops.
Generates a "MLG BAY OVHT" warning on EICAS if the test was
successful.

MLG OVHT FAIL:

Simulates a failure of the overheat "Detection" system.
Generates a "MLG OVHT FAIL" caution on EICAS if successful.
889. Is the nose wheel steering system directly connected to the
rudder pedals?: NO
It is a "Steer By Wire" system.
890. What hydraulic system powers the nose wheel steering
system?: Hydraulic System #3
 M
891. What are the steering limits of the nose wheel steering system?:

SA
POWERED:
80 degrees left and right

U
UNPOWERED:

H
8 degress left and right

FREE CASTORS:
80 degrees left and right
892. During towing operations the torque links can be removed to
provide what degree of nose wheel castor?: 360 degrees
893. Where is the torque links actually located on the nose wheel
steering system?: On the back of the nose gear assembly.
894. What is indicated if a failure occurs within the nose steering
system?: A "STEERING INOP" caution message is displayed on EICAS.

System will default to the free castor mode (+/- 80 degrees) steering.
895. If the nose wheel steering system "faults", what will
automatically happen?: The nose wheel steering will default to the free
castor mode of 80 degrees.
896. How many "Fuse Plugs" are there on each tire?: 4
897. What are the wheel brakes constructed of?: Steel Brakes
898. The inboard brakes are powered by what hydraulic system?:
Hydraulic System #3
899. The outboard brakes are powered by what hydraulic system?:
Hydraulic System #2
900. In order to check the "Brake Wear Indicator Pins" what must
be accomplished?: The parking brake must be set.
901. Normally how many of the main wheels will "hold" if the
parking brake is applied?: All Four Wheels.
902. With the hydraulics "OFF" which wheel brakes will hold?:
Only the "Inboard Brakes".
903. With the hydraulics "OFF" how many parking brake
applications will the accumulator permit?: 6 brake applications.
 M
904. Loss of either Hydraulic System #2 or Hydraulic System #3

SA
will cause a loss of ____% of braking capacity.: 50%
905. The "Anti-Skid Control Unit" will regulate brake pressure to

U
each wheel brake "Independently" or "Together"?: Independently
906. At what times is the Anti-Skid system disabled?: 1. With the

H
parking brake set.
2. Below 10 kts.
3. Anti-Skid System selected to "OFF".
4. In-flight
907. What conditions must be met to "ARM" the Anti-Skid
system?: 1. Switch must be selected to "ARM".
2. Parking brake must be OFF.
3. At least one (1) main landing gear must be down.
908. When will the Anti-Skid system become "OPERATIONAL"
after landing?: 1. Above 35 kts
"OR"
2. Weight on Wheels + 5 seconds (with wheel speed sensor failure)
909. At what times does the "Anti-Skid" system test itself?: 1.
During aircraft power-up.
2. Continuously thereafter.
910. Where are the brake temperatures displayed?: On the EICAS
ED #2 Status Page.
911. Brake temperatures are displayed when:: 1. Landing Gear is
extended.
2. Flaps or Slats are extended.
3. Brake temperatures are not normal.
4. Flaps or Slats 1/2 Speed Message.
912. What is the numerical range of the brake temperature system
(BTMS)?: 1 to 20
913. Each number on the BTMS system represents an increase of
how many degrees?: 95 degrees F
35 degrees C
914. Is it required to confirm that the brake temperatures are
within the normal operating range prior to takeoff?: Yes
 M
915. Once the brake temperatures cool following a brake overheat

SA
warning, what must be accomplished?: The "BTMS OVHT WARN
RESET" button must be pressed to restore the color logic of the

U
indicator.
916. Once the BTMS system displays an overheat, will the

H
numerical values read accurately as the brake temperatures cool?:
YES ... but the color logic must be reset.
917. If the BTMS monitoring system fails, what will the indicator
show?: (----) (----) (----) (----)
Amber Dashes
‫ـــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــ‬

NAVICATION :

918. The EFIS system consists of how many CRT displays?: 4 .... 2
on each side!
919. Each pilot is provided flight information on two displays with
the EFIS system. What are the display names?: 1. Primary Flight
Display (PFD)
2. Multi-Function Display (MFD)
920. What are the 7 available NAV formats for the Multi-Function
Displays (MFD's)?: 1. HSI
2. Nav Air Sector Map
3. FMS Map
4. FMS Plan Map (North Up)
5. Radar
6. EGPWS
7. TCAS
921. What other displays can be transferred to display on the Multi-
Function Display through the "Reversionary Display Panel"?: 1.
 M
Primary Flight Display (PFD)

SA
2. EICAS Display
922. What is the purpose of the "Reversionary Display Panel"?: It

U
"directly controls" what is displayed on the Multi-Function Display.
Used in the event that a Primary Flight Display (PFD) or EICAS display

H
were to fail.
923. What is the purpose of the "Source Selector Panel"?: It
provides an alternate source of data to "Both" the PFD displays at the
same time.
924. Each Display Control Panel will control its respective EFIS
displays provided that _____ is selected on the Source Selection
Panel.: NORM
925. Selecting the "Source Selection Panel's" DISPL CONT knob to
either the 1 or 2 position will do what?: It will allow the selected
Display Control Panel to operate both the pilot's and First Officer's
EFIS displays.
It is used in the event one Display Control Panel were to fail.
926. If the Source Selection Panel's "DSPL CONT" knob were
selected to either the 1 or 2 position, what would be displayed on the
Primary Flight Displays?: Either DCP1 or DCP2, depending on which
alternate control was selected.
927. What is the purpose of the "Air Data Reference Panel"?: It
selects the altimeter settings and speeds.
928. The EFIS "Comparison Monitor" compares what two (2)
instruments?: Pilot and First Officer's Primary Flight Displays.
929. If the EFIS "Comparator Monitor" detects a mismatch, how is
it displayed to the pilots?: A caution message will be displayed on the
pilot's and First Officer's Primary Flight Display indicating what system
has mismatched (HDG, ROL,IAS,ALT,LOC,GS,RA).
930. What information does the "Comparison Monitor" compare
and what are the tolerances?: 1. Heading: Difference of more than 6
degrees
2. Roll: Difference of 4 degrees before glideslope capture
Difference of 3 degrees after glideslope capture
3. IAS: Airspeed difference of more than 10 kts
 M
4. Altitude: Altitude difference of more than 60 feet

SA
5. Localizer: Any difference between receivers
6. Glideslope: Any difference between receivers

U
7. Radar Altitude: Only monitored within 1,000 feet AGL
931. What are the components of the Pitot Static System?: 1.

H
Captain's Pitot Tube (P1)
2. First Officer's Pitot Tube (P2)
3. Standby Pitot Tube (P3)
4. Captain's Static Source (S1)
5. First Officer's Static Source (S2)
6. Static Source to ISI (S3)
932. Where is the "Total Air Temperature" probe physically
located on the aircraft?: Below the First Officer's side window.
933. What references can the "Air Data Reference Panel" set?: 1.
Altimeter
2. MDA
3. DA
4. Takeoff Speeds (V1, V2 and Vr)
5. Target Speed (VT)
934. What is the range of the "Airspeed Tape" along the left side of
the Primary Flight Display?: 40 to 400 kts
935. What errors are displayed on the Primary Flight Display with
"Air Data Flags" (Red Boxed)?: 1. IAS
2. ALT
3. V/S
936. "Low Flap Speed Cues" are displayed on the Primary Flight
Display by what means?: Red/Black barber pole on speed tape
937. "High Flap Speed Cues" are displayed on the Primary Flight
Display by what means?: Red/Black Barber pole on speed tape.
938. What is the function of the "Trend Vector"?: It displays where
the airspeed will be in 10 seconds at the current trend.
939. The airspeed "Trend Vector" will only show above what
airspeed?: Above .45 mach
940. At what airspeed will the "Mach Number" be displayed on the
Primary Flight Display?: Above .45 Mach
 M
941. At what airspeed will the "Mach Number" disappear from the

SA
display on the Primary Flight Display?: Below .40 Mach
942. When is "Speed Reversion" active?: Anytime that the autopilot

U
is engaged and the ALT/ALTS mode is not engaged.
943. What will occur during "Speed Reversion" if the maximum

H
airspeed is exceeded?: The aircraft will pitch up to slow the airspeed.
944. At what times will the altitude alert sound?: Approaching the
selected altitude (Acquisition Mode):
- Alert sounds when within 1,000 feet

Altitude Deviations (Deviation Mode):

- Alert sounds when deviations of 300 feet occur (200feet crj900)
945. What does the numerical readout of the altitude alert do when
deviations exceed 300 feet?: Numerical readout will flash "AMBER".
946. With "Vertical Nav" selected (Vnav) what symbols will
indicate the appropriate rate of descent on:
Altitude Tape: ? / Vertical Speed Indicator: ?: Altitude Tape:
Snowflake
VSI: Doughnut

NOTE:
The snowflake and Doughnut will only display when:
- At least a 100 fpm climb rate is indicated.
- At least a 500 fpm descent rate is indicated.
947. What is the "Altitude Range" displayed for the Radar
Altimeter?: -20 to 2,500 feet
948. The "Radar Altitude" readout will display what when:
Within 200 feet AGL / Above DA / Below DA: ?: Within 200 feet
AGL: AMBER Cross Hatched
Above DA: GREEN
Below DA: AMBER
949. What is the digital range which may be set by the pilot when
setting MDA or DA?: 0 to 999 feet
950. Selected Decision Height / MDA is display on the "Altitude
Tape" how?: By a Cyan (blue) reference line.
 M
951. If the Radar Altimeter data becomes "Invalid" how is it

SA
indicated?: By a red Boxed "RA" displayed on the Primary Flight
Display.

U
952. What is the purpose of the "Slew Switch" on the Compass
Control Panel?: In "MAG Mode" it will cause the compass to slew to a

H
new value, however it will return to its original value once the switch is
released. Slew :of an electronic device) give a maximum response to a
sudden large increase in input.

In "DG Mode" it will slew the compass in the selected direction.

953. If the AHARS are indicating "ATT/HDG ALIGNING DO
NOT TAXI" what action should be taken when:
ON GROUND / IN FLIGHT: ?: ON GROUND: Do not move the
aircraft!

IN FLIGHT: Hold the aircraft "Straight and Level" for the first 30
seconds of alignment.
954. The "IRS system" can be operated in two (2) modes. What are
they?: (NAV) NAV Mode
(ATT) ATTITUDE Mode
955. What is the difference between the NAV mode and the ATT
mode of the IRS system?: NAV mode will supply all position data.

ATT mode will not supply "position data".

956. Is it possible to re-align the IRS while in-flight and in "NAV"
mode?: No
957. How long must the aircraft remain stationary when re-aligning
the IRS while in "NAV" mode?: 3 minutes
958. One (1) brick deflection on the "Slip / Skid" indicator is equal
to how many balls width on a conventional slip/skid indicator?: 2
Balls
959. What does "AMI" stand for in relation to windshear
indications?: Alpha Margin Indicator
960. What does the "Alpha Margin Indicator" represent when
displayed on the Primary Flight Display during a windshear
 M
encounter?: It represents the maximum pitch allowed prior to reaching

SA
"Stick Shaker".
961. How long will the Alpha Margin Indicator (whiskers) be

U
displayed following a windshear encounter?: For the longer of:

H
30 seconds after the windshear encounter has ended
"or"
60 seconds from windshear "Onset" minimum
962. An "AMBER" windshear alert is displayed for what?:
Increasing performance
963. A "RED" windshear alert is displayed for what?: Decreasing
Performance
964. Each circle on the "glideslope" display is equal to what?: 1/4
degrees of deviation

NOTE:
There are 2 circles above and 2 circles below the "On Glideslope"
attitude.
965. The Primary Flight Display will "De-Clutter" when:
Pitch Exceeds: ? / Bank Exceeds: ?: Pitch Exceeds: +30 degrees to -
20 degrees

Bank Exceeds: 65 degrees

966. During the "De-Clutter" function of the Primary Flight
Displays, what type of information is displayed?: Only Essential
Information
967. If the Primary Flight Displays have "De-Cluttered", when will
normal operation resume?: When the Pitch and Roll limits are
restored.
968. When operating in the "VOR Mode", what does each dot of
deviation represent on the Primary Flight Display?: 5 degrees
deviation
969. When operating in the "LOC Mode", what does each dot of
deviation represent on the Primary Flight Display?: 1 degrees
deviation
 M
970. When operating in the "FMS Mode", what does each dot of

SA
deviation represent on the Primary Flight Display?: 5 NM deviation
971. What are the "NAV SOURCE" selections available to display

U
on the Primary Flight Displays?: 1. VOR 1 / LOC 1
2. VOR 2 / LOC 2

H
3. FMS 1 / FMS 2
4. OFF
972. When displaying "Cross Side" information how is it
identified?: Display indications are "AMBER" in color.
973. If the #1 DME is in "HOLD" function, how is it displayed?: 1.
An amber "H" is displayed next to the frequency on the Nav radio.
2. An amber "H" is displayed on the PFD next to the NAV Identifier and
the station identifier information is removed.
974. The ADF and VOR "Bearing Pointers" on the primary Flight
Display can display both ADF #1 and ADF #2 as well as VOR #1
and VOR #2. How can you tell the needles apart?: Bearings from #1
receivers are: Single Line (Magenta)
Bearings from #2 receivers are: Double Line (Cyan)
975. What is indicated if a RED Boxed "DCP 1 or DCP 2" warning
is displayed on the Primary Flight Displays?: The associated Display
Control Panel has failed.
Select the "Source Selection Panels" DSPL CONT switch to the opposite
Display Control Panel.
The selected Display Control Panel will now operate both sides.
976. If a CRT overheats, what is displayed?: A red "DISPLY TEMP"
is indicated on the associated display.
977. If a CRT overheats is it possible to regain the displays
function?: YES
It will automatically resume operation once the display cools again.
978. What information can be displayed on the Multi-Function
Display?: 1. HSI
2. Navaid Sector Map
3. FMS Map
4. FMS Plan Map (North Up Map)
5. Radar
 M
6. TCAS / EGPWS

SA
7. Maintenance Diagnostics
8. EICAS Information as Reversionary (Status Page)

U
9. PFD as Reversionary
979. Rotating the "Format" knob on the Display Control Panel will

H
cycle through what different formats?: 1. HSI
2. Nav Sector Map
3. FMS Map
4. FMS Plan Map (North Up Map)
5. Radar
980. The "Radar" will not overlay on what Multi-Function Display
formats?: 1. HSI
2. FMS Plan Map
981. The "Terrain" format will not overlay on what other Multi-
Function Display Formats?: 1. HSI
2. FMS Plan Map
3. Radar
982. What functions will the Integrated Standby Indicator (ISI)
provide?: 1. Altitude
2. Airspeed
3. Attitude
983. What source powers the Integrated Standby Indicator (ISI)?:
Battery Bus
984. Where does the Integrated Standby Indicator (ISI) receive its
navigation data from?: NAV #1 or the Backup Tuning Unit (BTU)
985. What does the "CAGE" button do on the Integrated Standby
Instrument (ISI)?: It will reset the horizon to 0 degrees when held in
for 2 seconds.
986. What does the "STD" button do on the Integrated Standby
Instrument (ISI)?: Changes the barometric pressure to 29.92" HG.
987. How can you tell what mode the clock is displaying?: A dot will
appear above the selected mode on the clock.
988. What is the warning "Priority" order of the EGPWS system?:
1. Stalls
 M
2. Windshear

SA
3. Ground Prox
989. How many VHF "Navigation Radios" are installed?: Two (2)

U
990. Each "Navigational Radio" is capable of receiving what?: One
(1) VOR/DME

H
Two additional DME Channels
991. At what times will the FMS tune the #1 DME channel?: Only
when "Auto Tune" is selected and:

1. DME Hold is "OFF"

2. Nav Source is selected to FMS (White Needles)
992. What is the FMS display capable of tuning?: 1. ADF Radio
Frequencies
2. Transponder Codes
3. Channel #1 of Nav Radios
4. Com Frequencies
993. What three (3) frequencies are displayed on the "Top Page" of
the RTU's?: 1. Active Frequency
2. Standby Frequency
3. Recall Frequency
994. When the "DME Hold" is selected what is displayed to indicate
its selection?: 1. An amber "H" is displayed on the RTU Main and Top
pages.
2. Amber "H" is displayed on the PFD and MFD.
(Replaces the NM indication)
995. With the "Auto Tune" disabled, what navigation frequencies
will the FMS utilize for navigation?: DME Channels 2 and 3
996. What three (3) navigational sources may be selected using the
"Nav Source" knob on the Display Control Panel?: 1. VOR
2. LOC
3. FMS
997. ADF needle #1 on the Primary Flight Display is shown as a
_____ line needle and colored what color?: Single Line / Magenta
998. ADF needle #2 on the Primary Flight Display is shown as a
_____ line needle and colored what color?: Double Line / Cyan (Blue)
 M
999. In order for the ADF needles to display on the PFD's what

SA
must be selected?: A valid ADF frequency must be selected for the
pointers to display.

U
1000. ADF bearing pointers may be displayed on what two (2)
instruments?: 1. Primary Flight Display

H
2. Multifunction Display
1001. From what instruments may the frequencies be changed
for the ADF's?: 1. RTU's
2. FMS CDU
1002. How many transponders are installed on the aircraft?:
Two (2) (ATC)
1003. From what panel are the transponders selected from?:
Backup RTU ATC
1004. Can the transponders "interrogate" while on the
ground?: No ... Receive Only!
1005. How many antennas does each transponder have and
where are they located?: Two (2)
Upper Fuselage and Lower Fuselage.
1006. If the transponder is in the "STBY" mode what color will
its frequency be displayed as?: WHITE
1007. If the transponder is in the "1 or 2" position what color
will its frequency be displayed as?: GREEN
1008. The "Enhanced Ground Proximity Warning System"
(EGPWS) has two databases, what are they?: 1. Terrain Clearance
Floor (TCF)
2. Terrain / Obstacle Awareness Display (TAAD)
1009. The Terrain Clearance Floor (TCF) database includes
what?: 1. Worldwide coverage of all airports with at least a 3,500 foot
runway.
2. Provides increased protection around the center point of airports.
1010. The Terrain / Obstacle Awareness Display (TAAD)
database includes what?: 1. All of U.S with parts of Mexico, Canada,
and the Bahamas.
2. All known obstacles at least 100 feet high (except man made).
3. Provides protection for potential conflicts ahead of the aircraft!
 M
1011. Which has precedence, windshear warnings or ground

SA
prox warnings?: Windshear Warnings
1012. What is the "Priority" of ground prox warnings?: 1. Stall

U
Warning
2. Windshear Warning

H
3. Ground Prox Warning
1013. The EGPWS utilizes "color logic" to display terrain
information ahead of the aircraft. What is meant by the following
colors?
Shading or Low Density? / Solid or High Density?: Shading or Low
Density:
No immediate threat to aircraft!

Solid or High Density:

Immediate Danger
Voice Warning is heard
EGPWS switchlight flashes
1014. What will automatically occur if conflicting terrain is
detected ahead of the aircraft?: The terrain overlay will automatically
display on the MFD if it isn't already displayed.

Range is automatically set to 10 NM

"Caution Terrain" or "Caution Obstacle" voice is heard

Ground Prox switchlight flashes

1015. When receiving a "Caution" from the EGPWS system,
how long is available prior to impact?: 60 seconds
1016. When receiving a "Warning" from the EGPWS system,
how long is available prior to impact?: 30 seconds
1017. What two (2) warnings may be inhibited on the EGPWS
system?: 1. Terrain Warnings
2. Flap Warnings
1018. The EGPWS system will alert the pilots if the aircraft
descends below the glide path during approach. What are the two
 M
(2) alerts?: 1st alert: (Soft Alert)

SA
More than 1.3 dots below glide path
Audio volume is at 1/2

U
"Glideslope" audio is heard

H
2nd Alert: (Hard Alert)
Within 300' AGL / 2 dots low
Audio volume is at "FULL"
"Glideslope" audio is heard
1019. During a "Windshear alert" the autopilot is
automatically disconnected after how long?: 2 seconds after a
"Windshear Warning".
1020. TCAS indications are presented on what two (2)
instruments?: 1. Primary Flight Display (above VSI)
2. Multifunction Display
1021. TCAS "Other Traffic" is displayed how?: Blue "Open"
diamond
1022. TCAS "Proximity Traffic" is displayed how?: Blue
"Solid" Diamond
1023. What is the definition of "Proximity Traffic" with
regards to the TCAS System?: Within 1,200 feet / 6 nautical miles of
your aircraft.
1024. A TCAS "Traffic Advisory" alert is generated when, and
how is it displayed?: Target aircraft is within 40 seconds CPA.
Displayed as a "Solid Yellow Circle". (45seconds crj900)
1025. A TCAS "Resolution Advisory" alert is generated when
and how is it displayed?: Target aircraft's approach is within 25
seconds CPA. Displayed as a "Solid Red Square". (30seconds crj900)
1026. If a TCAS "Resolution Advisory" is generated, you must
respond within what time frame?: 5 seconds
1027. If a TCAS "Corrective RA" is generated, you must
respond within what time frame?: 2.5 seconds
1028. If an arrow appears next to a TCAS target what does it
mean?: The target aircraft is either climbing or descending at least 500
fpm in the direction of the arrow.
 M
1029. All TCAS "RA Advisories" are inhibited when?

SA
Takeoff:
Landing:: Takeoff: No RA's below 1,100 feet.

U
No Descent commands below 1,200 feet.

H
Landing: No RA's below 900 feet.
No Descent commands below 1,000 feet.
1030. The TCAS system "will not" instruct you to "Increase
Descent" when below what altitude?: 1,450 feet agl
1031. It is possible to have insufficient performance to follow a
TCAS "Resolution Advisory" under the following conditions:: 1.
Airport elevations above 5,300 feet.
2. Bank angle in excess of 15 degrees.
3. Single Engine operations.
4. Thrust below normal "Takeoff Settings".
5. Unusual aircraft configurations.
6. Reversal RA commands.
1032. TCAS modes (TA Only etc.) may be selected on what
instrument?: Remote Tuning Unit (RTU)
1033. The TCAS "altitude" format of target aircraft may be
displayed in two different modes. What are they?: REL: Shows the
altitude as a difference between the aircraft and the intruder.

ABS: Shows the altitude of the intruder aircraft in reference to

barometric pressure altitude (FL330).
1034. When the TCAS system is selected to the "ABOVE"
mode, what are the altitude limits?: 9,900 feet above / 2,700 feet
below
1035. When the TCAS system is selected to the "Below" mode,
what are the altitude limits?: 2,700 feet Above / 9,900 feet Below
1036. When the TCAS system is selected to the "ABOVE and
BELOW" modes, what are the altitude limits?: 9,900 feet Above /
9,900 feet Below
 M
1037. How can the "Ground Clutter Suppression" mode of the

SA
radar unit be activated?: By pressing the center of the "Gain Control"
knob on the radar.

U
1038. When the "Ground Clutter Suppression" mode is
activated on the radar, how long will it suppress clutter?: 12 seconds

H
1039. Pushing the "Sector Scan" pushbutton on the radar
control panel will cycle between what scan arcs?: 30 degrees and 60
degrees
1040. What is the purpose of the "Transfer" pushbutton on the
radar control panel?: It selects which radar control panel will operate
both radars in the event one control panel fails.
1041. What is the purpose of the "STAB" pushbutton on the
radar control panel?: It will turn "ON" and "OFF" the automatic
stabilization mode of the radar antennae.
Used in the event of a "USTB" caution message.
Selecting the stabilization "OFF" allows you to manually control the
radar antennae tilt.
1042. How many satellites are there in orbit to provide GPS
data?: 24 total Nav Star satellites (21 active and 3 spares)
1043. How many satellites are "always" in view to provide
navigation?: There are always at least 4 satellites in view at any given
point.
1044. Two (2) dimensional navigation requires at least _____
GPS satellites.: 3
1045. Three (3) dimensional navigation requires at least _____
GPS satellites.: 4
1046. How many satellites can be manually disabled through
the FMS if they become disabled?: 2

‫ـــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــ‬
 M
OXYGEN SYS. :

SA
U
H
1047. Oxygen is supplied by two (2) independent systems. What
are they?: 1. Cockpit (gaseous)
2. Cabin (chemical reaction)
1048. If the cockpit oxygen system "thermally discharges" how
is it indicated?: The green "blowout disc" will be missing next to the
airstair door.
1049. At what PSI is the cockpit oxygen bottle full?: 1,850 psi
1050. Where is the oxygen service panel physically located on
the aircraft?: Right side of nose, aft of radome.
1051. Where is the oxygen cylinder physically located on the
aircraft for the cockpit system?: In the wardrobe closet behind an
access panel.
1052. Where is the oxygen bottle pressure displayed?: EICAS
Status Page.
1053. The oxygen pressure readout will turn "amber" when?:
Below 960 PSI
1054. What size oxygen bottle does the CRJ-700 have?: 77 cubic
foot bottle
1055. At what oxygen bottle level for the cockpit system will the
"OXY LOW PRESS" caution illuminate?: Below 960 PSI
1056. The cockpit oxygen mask regulators have three settings,
what are they and what do they provide?: NORMAL: Allows a
mixture of ambient air and oxygen.

100%: Provides 100% oxygen "On Demand".

EMERGENCY: Provides 100% oxygen "Under Pressure Continuously".

 M
1057. At what point will the cockpit oxygen mask deliver

SA
"Emergency" oxygen regardless of the mask setting?: Above 30,000
feet "Pressure Altitude".

U
1058. What does the "Yellow Cross Hair" indicator indicate?:
That oxygen is flowing!

H
1059. What does the "ON FLAG" indicate when it is visible on
the left compartment door?: That the oxygen shutoff valve is "OPEN".
Press the "RESET" lever to close.
1060. What is the correct procedure to re-stow the oxygen mask
in the cockpit compartment?: 1. Re-stow the mask
2. Close the compartment doors.
3. Press the reset lever to shutoff the oxygen shutoff valve.
1061. At what times will the "PASS O2" switchlight
illuminate?: 1. Masks have automatically deployed above 14,000 feet.
2. Masks have been manually deployed by pressing the switchlight.

NOTE:
Pressing the switchlight "sends the signal to deploy the masks".
1062. How much oxygen will the "Passenger Service Units"
provide?: 13 minutes of continuous flow to 3 masks.
1063. Oxygen in the passenger compartment PSU's is provided
for by what means?: Chemical Generators.
1064. How many oxygen masks are there in each PSU in the
cabin?: 3
1065. How many oxygen masks are there in the overhead
compartments near each flight attendant station and the lavatory?:
2
1066. When will the passenger oxygen masks automatically
deploy?: Cabin altitudes above 14,000 feet.
1067. What controls the dropping of the oxygen masks?: Cabin
Pressure Acquisition Module (CPAM)
1068. How many "portable oxygen bottles" are there in the
cabin?: 4
1069. Each portable oxygen bottle in the cabin has how many
masks?: 2
 M
1070. The masks attached to the portable oxygen bottles for the

SA
cabin provide both ____ liter and ____ liter connections.: 2 liter
4 liter

U
1071. How many PBE's are there on the aircraft and what are
their locations?: 4 PBE's (PORTABLE BREATHING EQUIPMENT)

H
- one behind the captain's seat
- one in the wheelchair stowage compartment
- one in the forward cabin overhead bin (left side)
- one behind the last row of seats in the cabin
1072. How many "Emergency Flashlights" are there in the
cockpit and where are they located?: 2

- Behind Captain's seat

- Behind First Officer's seat
1073. How many portable fire extinguishers are there on the
aircraft and where are they located?: 4

- One is located behind the first officer's seat.

- One is installed on the aft cabin wall.
- One is installed in the compartment above the crew bag stowage
closet.
- One is installed in the wheelchair stowage compartment.
1074. At what altitude will the cockpit oxygen masks deliver
100% oxygen regardless of switch position?: 30,000 feet Pressure
Altitude
1075. The "Passenger Service Units" (PSU's) provide oxygen
for how long?: 13 minutes
‫ـــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــ‬
 M
SA
Pneumatic SYS. :

U
H
1076. What are the "Pneumatic" Sources of pressurized air?: 1.
Engines
2. APU
3. External Air Cart
1077. What aircraft systems are powered by pneumatic bleed
air?: 1. Wing Anti-Ice
2. Cowl Anti-Ice
3. Pressurization
4. Air Conditioning
5. Engine Starting
1078. How many "Air Conditioning System Controllers"
(ACSC) are there on the aircraft?: Two (2)
1079. What is the purpose of the "Air Conditioning System
Controllers"?: 1. Controls automatic bleed air switching.
2. Controls the Air Conditioning System.
3. Monitors duct pressures.
4. Monitors the position of "ALL" bleed air valves and anti-ice valves.
1080. Where are the "Air Conditioning System Controllers"
(ACSC) physically located on the aircraft?: Aft Equipment Bay
1081. Each "Air Conditioning System Controller" has two
channels A & B. How can you tell which is the active channel?: You
Can't!
1082. When does the "active" channel of the Air Conditioning
System Controller alternate?: On a Daily basis.
1083. What is the purpose of the "Isolation Valve"?: It divides
the bleed air manifold into two separate systems.
1084. Is the isolation valve electrically or pneumatically
operated?: Electrically
 M
1085. If electrical power is removed, what will happen to the

SA
isolation valve?: It will remain in the last energized position.
1086. What is the purpose of the "High Pressure" bleed valve?:

U
Controls the operation of 10th stage bleed air when needed.
1087. What is required to "OPEN" the Engine "High

H
Pressure" Bleed Valve?: 1. 10 stage bleed air pressure.
2. Signal from the respective ACSC controller.
1088. The aircraft's bleed air system is normally powered from
____stage bleed air.: 6th stage
1089. Under "High Demand" the High Pressure Bleed Valve
will open and supply ____ stage bleed air to the system.: 10 Stage
1090. Is it possible to tell if 10th stage bleed air is being supplied
to the system?: No
1091. Do the High Pressure Bleed Valves fail safe "OPEN" or
"CLOSED"?: Closed
1092. At what times will the engine "High Pressure" Bleed
Valves close automatically?: 1. Loss of ACSC signal.
2. Engine Shutdown
3. Engine Fire Pushlight is pressed.
1093. What is the purpose of the Engine Bleed Valve?: It
regulates bleed air to maintain a constant pressure within the bleed air
manifold.
1094. The Engine Bleed Valve could be known as a ______
valve.: Pressure Regulating
1095. Is the Engine Bleed Valve fail safed "OPEN" or
"CLOSED"?: Closed
1096. How can the Engine Bleed Valve be closed?: By pressing
the Engine Fire Pushlight.
1097. What is the purpose of the APU Load Control Valve?: It
regulates the bleed air output of the APU to pressurize the left side of
the bleed air manifold.
1098. What controls the APU's Load Control Valves
operation?: The APU ECU.
1099. Bleed air from the APU is supplied to only one side of the
bleed air manifold. Which side is it?: Left Side
 M
1100. Is the APU Load Control Valve fail safed "OPEN" or

SA
"CLOSED"?: Closed
1101. At what times will the APU Load Control Valve close

U
automatically?: 1. Loss of ACSC signal
2. APU shutdown

H
1102. There are four (4) "One Way Check Valves" within the
bleed air system. Where are they located?: One in each engines 6th
stage bleed air duct to prevent backflow of 10th stage bleed air.
One at the External air connector.
One at the APU bleed air duct.
1103. Where is the "External Ground Air" connector
physically located on the aircraft?: Below the Left engine nacelle.
1104. Is the external ground air connector depicted on the ECS
synoptic page?: No
1105. What automatically selects the appropriate bleed air
source?: The Air Conditioning System Controller (ACSC)
1106. What does the Air Conditioning System Controller #1
control?: 1. Left Engine Bleed Valve.
2. Left Engine High Pressure Bleed Valve.
3. Apu Load Control Valve (normally)
4. Isolation Valve (normally)
1107. What does the Air Conditioning System Controller #2
control?: 1. Right Engine Bleed Valve
2. Right Engine High Pressure Valve

Acts as a backup to power the APU Load Control Valve and Isolation
Valve if ACSC #1 fails.
1108. Bleed air source may be manually selected from what
panel?: Bleed Air Control Panel.
1109. The "Bleed Source" rotary switch and "Isolation Valve"
switch will only function under what circumstance?: The bleed air
switch must be selected to "MANUAL".
1110. If the bleed air source is selected to "MANUAL" with the
APU selected as the source, will bleed air supply be automatically
shutoff above 25,000 feet msl?: No
 M
1111. If the bleed air source is selected to "MANUAL" and

SA
anti-ice is used, will the bleed source automatically transfer to the
engines?: NO ... the Load Control Valve will close and shutoff bleed air!

U
1112. What is indicated if a "LEFT ENG BLEED" or "RIGHT
ENG BLEED" caution message is displayed?: It is in indication that

H
the bleed manifold pressure has increased beyond normal range and the
ACSC has closed the applicable engine bleed valve.
1113. What source of bleed air "Always" has priority while on
the ground?: APU
1114. What ensures that the engine bleed valves remain closed
while on the ground?: ACSC Interlock

The APU has priority while on the ground for supplying bleed air.
The ACSC Interlock prevents the engines from supplying bleed air.
1115. What normally controls the Isolation Valve?: Air
Conditioning System Controller #1.
If ACSC #1 fails then ACSC #2 will control the Isolation Valve.
1116. The Isolation Valve is directly related to what other
valves position?: Load Control Valve

LCV OPEN = Isolation Valve OPEN

LCV CLOSED = Isolation Valve CLOSED
1117. What commands the Isolation Valve to OPEN?: The
engine Start Switch.
1118. With the "Bleed Air Source" selected to the "Auto"
position, when does bleed air transfer back to the engines after
takeoff?: 1. Thrust levers reduced below "TO" position.
"AND"
2. Gear retracted
"AND"
3. Flaps less than 20 degrees.
1119. With the bleed air source selected to the "AUTO"
position, when will bleed air be transferred back to the APU during
landing?: 1. APU Running
"AND"
 M
2. Gear Selected down.

SA
"OR"
3. Flaps selected greater than 20 degrees.

U
1120. What prevents the APU from providing bleed air when
the anti-ice is selected "ON"?: The ACSC Interlock

H
With the anti-ice selected "ON" the ACSC Interlock will close the APU
Load Control Valve.
1121. Bleed Air Leak detection is provided for by what
system?: Anti-Ice Leak Detection System (AILS)
1122. The Anti-Ice Leak Detection System will monitor what
four (4) zones?: 1. Left Bleed Duct
2. Right Bleed Duct
3. Left Wing Anti-Ice
4. Right Wing Anti-Ice
1123. Does the AILS system monitor for leaks in the engine
cowl anti-ice system?: No
1124. What monitors the cowl anti-ice system for bleed air
leaks?: A Pressure Transducer.
1125. What method is used to detect bleed air leaks in the
following systems?
Left and Right Bleed Ducts? / Wing Leading Edge Anti-Ice Ducts? /
Engine Cowl Anti-Ice?: Left and Right Bleed Ducts:
Dual Sensing loops

Wing Leading Edge Anti-Ice Ducts:

Dual Sensing Loops and Temperature Sensors

Engine Cowl Anti-Ice:

Pressure Transducer
1126. If a bleed air leak is detected within the engine bleed air
duct what will automatically close?: Respective engine's bleed air
valve.
1127. If a bleed air leak is detected within the Wing Anti-Ice
Duct what will automatically close?: Respective Wing Anti-Ice Valve
 M
1128. How does the pressure transducer function to detect a

SA
bleed air leak within the cowl anti-ice system?: It measures the
pressure difference between the inner and outer duct.

U
1129. The engines supply what two sources of bleed air?: 1. 6th
Stage bleed air

H
2. 10th stage bleed air
1130. What controls the APU "Load Control Valve"?: The APU
ECU.
1131. The APU supplies bleed air to which side of the bleed air
manifold?: The left side only!
1132. When will the APU Load Control Valve (LCV) close?: 1.
When the APU is shut down.
2. When ACSC signal is lost.
‫ـــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــــ‬

ENGINE & INDICATIONS :

1133. What engines are installed on the CRJ-700 aircraft?:

General Electric CF34-8C1 (OLD)

General Electric CF34-8C5B1 (NEW)

1134. What controls each engine?: Full Authority Digital Engine
Control (FADEC)
1135. What is the "Maximum Thrust" produced for a "Normal
Takeoff"?: 13,500 lbs thrust (CRJ900)
1136. What is the "Maximum Thrust" produced for a "APR
Takeoff"?: 14,600 lbs thrust (CRJ900)
1137. What does "APR" stand for?: Automatic Power Reserve
1138. N1 is actually what type of airflow?: Fan Bypass Airflow
 M
1139. N2 is actually what type of airflow?: Engine Core Airflow

SA
1140. During "Reverse Thrust" operations you are diverting
what type of airflow?: N1 (Bypass Airflow)

U
1141. The N1 Fan is a _____ stage fan connected by a shaft to a
_____ stage, low pressure compressor turbine.: Single Stage Fan

H
Four stage compressor
1142. The N2 is a _____ stage Turbine connected by a shaft to a
____ stage compressor.: Two stage Turbine
10 stage compressor
1143. Is the Operability Valve electrically or hydraulically
controlled?: Hydraulically
1144. What is the function of the "Operability Valve"?: Off
loads 10 stage bleed air during:

1. Engine Starts
2. Times of high aerodynamic loading
1145. What controls the "Operability Valve"?: Engine Fadec
System
1146. When the "Operability Valve" off loads bleed air, where
is it exhausted?: Through the top of the engine nacelle.
1147. What drives the "Accessory Gearbox"?: The respective
engine.
1148. What does the "Accessory Gearbox" drive?: 1. Engine
Driven Hydraulic Pumps
2. Integrated Drive Generators (IDG's)
3. Air Turbine Starter
4. Fadec Generator (above 50% N2)
1149. The engines FADEC computer controls the operation of::
1. Fuel Metering
2. Compressor Airflow Management
3. Engine Starting and Ignition Control
1150. When does the operable FADEC channel alternate?:
Following each engine shutdown.
 M
1151. At what times will both FADEC channels function

SA
together?: Only during engine over speeds. Both channels will
command the FMU to open and close to control the over speed.

U
1152. What powers the FADEC system?: Fadec is powered by
the ships batteries through 50% N2.

H
Above 50% N2 the FADEC System has its own generator.
1153. If the designated FADEC alternator fails how will the
FADEC computer become powered again when operating above
50% N2?: The ships electrical system will once again pick up the load.
1154. What are the five (5) thrust lever positions?: 1. SHUTOFF
2. IDLE
3. Climb
4. TOGA
5. APR
1155. Are there any mechanical connections between the thrust
levers and the engines?: No
1156. Following an engine failure, what will FADEC do?: When
a 15% N1 mismatch occurs, FADEC will increase thrust on the operable
engine.

Automatically selects "Continuous Ignition"

Fadec will also try and relight the failed engine 3 times if the N2
remains within the start envelope (above 45%).
1157. "Cruise Range" is between what thrust lever detents?:
Idle & Climb
1158. Idle RPM is programmed by the FADEC Computer.
There are five (5) different "IDLE" settings what are they?:
FLIGHT IDLE
APPROACH IDLE
LANDING IDLE
REVERSE IDLE
GROUND IDLE
 M
1159. At what time does the FADEC computer schedule "Flight

SA
Idle"?: 1. Thrust Lever to Idle
2. Gear is up

U
3. Flaps are 20 degrees or less

H
Note: RPM "Increases" with pressure altitude.
1160. At what time does the FADEC computer schedule
"Approach Idle"?: 1. Thrust levers at IDLE
2. Gear is down
3. Flaps are selected more than 20 degrees
1161. At what time does the FADEC computer schedule
"Landing Idle"?: Weight on Wheels "or" wheel rotation

NOTE:
Elevates the engine RPM in preparation for Reverse operations.
FADEC will maintain landing Idle RPM for only 5 seconds if thrust
reversers are not used!
1162. At what time does the FADEC computer schedule
"Reverse Idle"?: 1. Weight on wheels "or" wheel spin-up
2. Piggy backs raised
3. Transcowls moving to "OPEN" position
1163. At what time does the FADEC computer schedule
"Ground Idle"?: 1. Thrust levers idle
2. Weight on wheels
3. Automatically set 5 seconds after landing if the thrust reversers are
not used.
1164. The thrust mode annuciator is displayed on the N1 gauge.
At what times will it "default" to the "TO" setting?: On Ground
operations.
1165. The thrust mode annuciator is displayed on the N1 gauge.
At what times will it "default" to the "GA" setting?: During
approach with the gear selected down "or" flaps are selected greater
than 20 degrees.
1166. The takeoff thrust setting is locked into memory passing
what airspeed during the takeoff roll?: 65 kts
 M
1167. Does FADEC lock the thrust setting into memory during

SA
the takeoff roll if "Flex Thrust" is being used?: No
1168. The FADEC computer will lock the thrust setting into

U
memory passing 65 kts during the takeoff roll when using normal
thrust. At what point will it "unlock" again?: Passing 400 feet "or"

H
TOGA is set.
1169. Where can the FLEX temperature be set?: PERF MENU
Page of the FMS.
1170. When setting the "Flex Temperature" what restrictions
apply for the FADEC to accept the temperature?: 1. The assumed
temperature must be higher than actual temperature.
2. Thrust levers must be at "IDLE" or "SHUTOFF".
3. Weight on wheels for at least 1 minute.
4. Airspeed must be below 65 kts.
1171. Flex power settings are displayed in what color?: Magenta
1172. Engine Bleed Air is drawn from what two (2) locations?:
6th Stage
10th Stage
1173. What does the FADEC computer do automatically when
selecting the anti-ice "ON"?: It computes a new MAX N1 value to
prevent an engine over temp.
1174. Which is the "MASTER" engine for the engine sync
system?: Left Engine
1175. When using the engine sync, what must the values be
within for:
N1 SYNC ? / N2 SYNC ?: N1 SYNC: 1.5%
N2 SYNC: 7.5%
1176. What condition must occur for the engine sync system to
function?: Thrust levers must be in the "Cruise" range.
1177. During Single Engine Operations the FADEC computer
will automatically increase the thrust on the operating engine
when?: APR is selected when FADEC senses a 15% mismatch in N1
values.
1178. Selecting the "High Power" switchlight on the engine
control panel will do what?: It will increase the N1 power schedule to
 M
the next higher value.

SA
Cruise = Something More

U
Climb = MCT
TOGA = APR

H
1179. What is the primary purpose of the "High Power"
switchlight?: To enable the pilots to select "Max Continuous Thrust" on
both engines.
1180. What is automatically selected by FADEC if an engine
fails during a climb with the thrust levers set to the climb position?:
MCT
1181. What is automatically selected by FADEC if an engine
fails during cruise with the thrust levers set in the "cruise range"?:
Something More
1182. There are two (2) independent "Ignition Systems" for
each engine. What are their names?: Ignition A
Ignition B
1183. What powers "Ignition System A"?: AC Essential Bus
1184. What powers "Ignition System B"?: Powered through a
"Static Inverter" from the Battery Bus.
1185. What controls the "Ignition Systems"?: FADEC computer
1186. Which Ignition System is normally "Active"?
GROUND ? / FLIGHT ?: GROUND:
Active ignition is alternated following each engine start.

FLIGHT:
Both systems are active.
1187. During engine start, when is the ignition energized and
then stopped?: Energized when thrust levers are advanced to "IDLE"
position.
Stops at "Starter Cutout" (50%)
1188. Under what circumstances are "both" ignition systems
operative?: 1. Flight Operations
2. "CONT IGN" switchlight is selected.
3. Automatically at high angle of attacks near the stick shaker.
 M
1189. The "Continuous Ignition" system will automatically

SA
come on when:: 1. Near a stall
2. Auto engine relight (3 times)

U
1190. The "Air Turbine Starter" converts _______ energy into
mechanical motion.: Pneumatic

H
1191. The Air Turbine Starter mechanically engages what?:
Accessory Gearbox
1192. Pneumatic pressure to the Air Turbine Starter can come
from what sources?: 1. Engine Bleed Air (Crossbleed Start)
2. APU
3. External Air Source.
1193. Is it possible to manually open and close the start valve.:
YES ... By maintenance personnel.
1194. The engine oil is cooled by what means?: Fuel / Oil Heat
Exchanger
1195. At what point does the "OIL LEVEL LOW" status
message display for the engines?: Engines Shutdown: Below 80%
Engines Operating: Below 57%

Minimum Oil quantity while in-flight is 20%.

Minimum Oil quantity while on the ground with the engines shut down is
40%.
1196. What is the minimum oil quantity required while on the
ground?: 40%
1197. What is the minimum oil quantity required while in-
flight?: 20%
1198. Engine "vibration" is measured in terms of what?: MILS
1199. Are the engine vibration gauges always displayed for:
N1 Gauge? / N2 Gauge?: N1 Gauge: Displayed on the Primary Page
when:

1. Both engines are running

"AND"
2. Oil pressures are normal
 M
SA
N2 Gauge: Only displayed when there is a problem. Shows "VIB" amber
message on N2 gauge.

U
1200. At what point will the N1 vibration gauge turn
"AMBER" in color?: When the vibration exceeds 1.7 MILS.

H
1201. At what point will the N2 vibration gauge display the
"VIB" caution?: When the N2 vibration exceeds "a pre-determined
value".
1202. What is the purpose of the "Fuel Metering Unit"
(FMU)?: It schedules the appropriate fuel flow as determined by the
FADEC Computer.
1203. What drives the Fuel Metering Unit?: The accessory
gearbox.
1204. The "Thrust Reversers" utilize what kind of engine air?:
N1 Bypass Air
1205. What provides the power source for moving the
Translating Cowls on the thrust reverser system?: Hydraulics
1206. The translating cowls for the left thrust reverser is power
by what source?: Hydraulic System #1
1207. The translating cowls for the right thrust reverser is
power by what source?: Hydraulic System #2
1208. Will the thrust reversers operate in-flight?: NO ... They
will only function with weight on wheels.
1209. The "Thrust Reversers" will automatically "ARM" if:: 1.
Switch is selected to "ARM".
2. The respective hydraulic system is powered.
3. The Essential DC Bus is powered.
4. Weight on Wheels is detected.
1210. The thrust reverser "Translating Cowls" are locked in
the "stowed" position by what two (2) means?: 1. Hydraulically
2. Mechanically
1211. What is meant when an amber "REV" icon is displayed
on the N1 gauge?: The respective thrust reverser is in motion to deploy.
1212. What is meant when an green "REV" icon is displayed on
the N1 gauge?: The respective thrust reverser is "Fully Deployed".
 M
1213. What is the minimum airspeed at which full reverse

SA
thrust may be used?: 75 kts
1214. Below 75 kts, what is the maximum N1 that may be used

U
with "Reverse Thrust"?: 60% N1
1215. What is the maximum N1 setting allowed (over speed)?:

H
99.5%
1216. If an engine "over speed" occurs for either N1 or N2 what
will automatically occur?: 1. Triple Chime
2. Respective N1 or N2 gauge turns RED.
3. "ENG OVER SPEED" warning is displayed on EICAS.
4. "ENGINE OVER SPEED" voice message is heard.
5. Both FADEC computers command the FMU to regulate fuel flow to
control the over speed.
1217. What is the maximum N2 rpm allowed prior to over
speed?: 99.4%
1218. FADEC generated thrust settings are displayed in what
color?: CYAN
1219. Flex Thrust settings are displayed in what color?:
MAGENTA