1.

Vmca cater for

A. Use of full rudder deflection

B. Maximum of 5° bank
C. Both (1) and (2)

2. Number of satellites required to obtain a 3D fix

a. 3
b. 4
c. 2

3. The shape of holding pattern

A. circular
B. Race track
C. Rectangular

4. Instrument Landing Systems (ILS) Glide Paths provide azimuth coverage (i) ….. ° Each
side of the localizer center-line to a distance of (ii) …. NM minimum from the threshold.

A (i) 25 (ii) 17
B (i) 8 (ii) 10
C (i) 35 (ii) 25

5. A NDB transmits a signal pattern which is:

A. 30 Hz polar diagram
B. Omni-directional.
C. bi-lobal pattern
6. A radio altimeter can be defined as a?
A. Ground radio aid used to measure the true height of the aircraft.
B. Self-contained on-board aid used to measure the true height of the aircraft.
C. Self-contained on-board aid used to measure the true altitude of the aircraft

7. The operation of the radio altimeter of a modern aircraft is based on:

a) frequency modulation of the carrier wave.
b) amplitude modulation of the carrier wave.
c) pulse modulation of the carrier wave.

8. Trans Mercator chart, scale is correct

A. Meridian of tangency
B. Prime meridian
C. Standard latitude

9. A” balanced field length” is said to exist where:

A. The clearway does not equal the stopway
B. The ASDA is equal to all engine take off distance
C. ASDA is equal to the take off distance available

10. which of the following are the error of DGI

 Earth rate wander
 Transport wander
 Banking when pitched up
 Annual movement of poles
 Mechanical problems
A. 3,4,5
B. 1,2,3,5
C. 2,3,5
11. A pitot blockage of the ram air input with the static port open causes the airspeed
indicator to:
(A) react like an altimeter.
(B) read like a vertical speed indicator.
(C) operate normally

12. A pitot tube covered by ice which blocks the ram air inlet will affect the following
instrument (s):
(A) airspeed indicator only.
(B) altimeter only.
(C) vertical speed indicator only.

13. The hysteresis error of an altimeter varies substantially with the?

A. Time passed at a given altitude.
B. Mach number of the aircraft
C. Aircraft altitude

14. The altimeter consists of one or several aneroid capsules located in a sealed
Casing .The pressures in the aneroid capsule (i) and casing (ii) are respectively :
a) (i) vacuum (or a very low pressure) (ii) static pressure
b) (i) total pressure (ii) static pressure
c) (i) static pressure (ii) total pressure

15. A direct reading compass should be swung when:

a. There is a large change in magnetic latitude
b. Aircraft is stored for a long period of time and frequently moved
c. There is a long change in magnetic longitude
16. A two axis gyro measuring vertical changes will have:
d. Two degree of freedom and vertical axis
e. One degree of freedom and vertical axis
f. Two degree of freedom and horizontal axis

17. A turn indicator is an instrument which indicates rate of turn, Rate of turn depends upon
1. Bank angle
2. Aeroplane speed
3. Aeroplane weight

The combination of correct statement is:

g. 1,3
h. 2,3
i. 1,2

18. An airborne instrument, equipped with a gyro with 1 degree of freedom and a horizontal
spin axis is:
j. Turn indicator
k. DGI
l. Artificial horizon

19. Considering the MMO and VMO, the captain of a pressurized aircraft begins his descent
from a high flight level. In order to meet his schedule time of arrival, he decides to use
maximum ground speed at anytime of the descent, he will be limited by:
m. Initially by MMO, then by VMO below a certain flight level
n. Initially by VMO, then by MMO below a certain flight level
o. By the VMO in the still air
20. Heading information by a gyro platform, is given by:
p. 2 degrees of freedom in the horizontal axis
q. 1 degree of freedom in the horizontal axis
r. 2 degrees of freedom in the vertical axis

21. How many diaphragms are present in a Mach meter

s. Three
t. One
u. Two

22. Latitude Nut is used for:

v. To correct for longitude error in a DGI
w. To compensate for apparent wander in a DGI
x. To compensate for apparent wander in a artificial horizon

23. A turn indicator is built around a gyroscope with:

y. 2 degree of freedom
z. 1 degree of freedom
aa. 3 degree of freedom

24. True course A to B 250°, distance A to B 315 nm, TAS 450 kts, W/V 200/60 kt, ETD A
0650 UTC, what is the ETA at B
a. 0716 UTC
b. 0736 UTC
c. 0810UTC

25. True course 300°, drift 8°R, variation 10°W, deviation -4°, what is the compass heading
d. 294
e. 322
f. 306
26. On a transvers Mercator chart the scale is correct along:
g. Equator and parallel of origin
h. Prime meridian and the equator
i. Meridian of tangency

27. Scale on a lambert conformal chart is:

j. Constant along parallel of latitude
k. Constant along a meridian of latitude
l. Varies with latitude and longitude

28. An oblique Mercator is used specifically to produce:

m. Radio navigational charts in equatorial region
n. Charts of the great circle route between two points
o. Topographical maps of area large in east west extent.

29. On a transverse Mercator chart, with exception to the equator, parallel of latitude appears
as
p. Straight lines
q. Parabolic
r. Ellipses

30. On which of the chart it is not possible to represent the North or South poles:
s. Transverse Mercator
t. Direct Mercator
u. Lamberts conformal
31. The main use of transverse Mercator chart is for:
v. Great circle route strip maps
w. Topographical maps for countries lying east-west
x. Topographical map for countries lying north south

32. Assuming mid latitude 40N/S to 50 N/S, at which time of the year is the relationship
between the length of a day and night as well as the rate of change of declination of the
sun, changing at the greatest rate:
y. Winter solstice and autumn equinox
z. Summer solstice and spring equinox
aa. Spring equinox and autumn equinox

33. ADF bearings by day within the published range shold be accurate within a maximum
error of
a. =/-2.5
b. =/-10
c. =/-5

34. Aircraft hdg 225M, RMI reading 090, quadrantal error of this bearing:
d. Maximum
e. Minimum
f. Proportional to sine hdg time the signal strength
g. Zero

35. An ADF uses sense aerial to:

h. Determine null position
i. Resolve ambiguous bearings
j. Transmit beacon ident
k. Detect the receiver test signal
36. If static source to ASI becomes blocked during descent, the instrument will:
a. Continue to indicate speed at time of blockage
b. Under read
c. Over read

37. If static line becomes blocked:

d. ASI over read at at higher altitude and under indicate at lower altitude at which
blockage occurred
e. ASI will overread at lower altitude and under read at higher altitude than at which
blockage occured
f. ASI pointers will become fixed at time of blockage

38. Given- time and fuel flow as follows:

3 hr 25 min 400 imp gallon

1 hr 47 min 1075 lbs
1 hr 20 min 187 ltr/hr
Which of the following options are correct?
a. 117 imp gal/hr , 603 lb/hr s, 140 ltr/hr
b. 117 imp gal/hr, 600 lbs/hr, 140 ltr/hr
c. 115 imp gal/hr, 500 lbs/hr, 140 ltr/hr

39. Maximum range of ground RADAR is limited by:

g. Number of cycles per second
h. Number of pulses per seconds
i. Ratio of pulse width to pulse repetition period.

40. In order to fly from A(10N 030W) to B(30N 050W), maintaining a constant true course,
it is necessary to fly:
j. GC route
k. RL route
l. A straight line plotted on lambert chart
41. Parallel of latitude on direct Mercator chart are:
m. Parallel, straight lines, equally spaced
n. Parallel, straight lines, unequally spaced
o. Parallel, straight lines, converging at poles

42. Unless otherwise stated on the charts for SID, the routes shown are given with
p. Mag Heading
q. True Course
r. Mag Course

43. In which month difference between apparent noon and mean noon be greatest:
s. Nov and Feb
t. Jan and July
u. Jun and Dec

44. Errors of DGI are:

v. Acceleration error, turning error, attitude error
w. Gimbal error, random wander, apparent wander, rotor speed error
x. Gimbal error, loop error, roll error, rotor speed error, transport wander

45. A twin engine is to fly from A to B, Track 245°T, Distance is 830 nm. W/V 310/40, 2
eng TAS 280 kts. 1 eng TAS 220 kts, if the ETD is 0800ZT, find the ETA at one engine
inoperative PET
y. 0623Z
z. 0943Z
aa. 1023Z

46. When flying from low pressure to high pressure, the barometric altimeter will cause an
instrument to:
a. Under read the true altitude of the aircraft
b. Indicate the true altitude of the aircraft
c. Over read the true altitude of the aircraft
47. The ‘ toppling ‘ when applied to gyros is:
d. Real wander and apparent wander
e. Wander in the vertical plane
f. Wander in horizontal plane

48. At constant CAS, Mach no?

g. Remains unchanged when outside air temperature increases
h. Increases with increase in altitude
i. Decreases with altitude increases

49. The QNH is by definition is a value of the:

j. Altimeter setting so that the needle of the altimeter indicates the altitude of the
location for which it is given
k. Atmospheric pressure at the sea level of the location for which it is given
l. Altimeter setting so that the needle of the altimeter indicates zero when the
aircraft is on the ground at the location for which it is given

50. A multi engine aircraft on IFR flight, given the following data and assuming fuel
consumption remains unchanged, which of the following is correct:
 Trip fuel: 65 USG
 Contingency fuel: 5% of trip
 ALT Fuel including final reserve: 17 USG
 Useable fuel at time of departure: 93 USG
 At point half way to destination, fuel consumed is 40 USG
m. At destination required reserves remain intact
n. Remaining fuel is insufficient to reach destination
o. Remaining fuel is insufficient to reach to destination with reserves intact

51. Class B VHF DF bearings are accurate within:

a. +/- 1°
b. +/- 5°
c. +/- 10°
 52. In order to tune, identify and monitor NONA1A NDB transmission the BFO should be
used as follows:
Tune Identify Monitor
a. On on off
b. On on on
c. On off off

53. The protection ratio afforeded to NDB with in promulgated DOC applies
a. By day only
b. By day and night
c. Both day and night

54. The phenomenon of coastal refraction affecting the ADF bearings is caused by signal
_________
When it reaches the coastline and bending________ the normal to the coast.
a. Accelerating, towards
b. Decelerating, towards
c. Accelerating, away

55. The principal propagation path employed in a NDB/ADF system is:

a. Skywave
b. Surface wave
c. Direct wave

56. A Conventional VOR:

a. has an FM reference signal and an AM variable signal
b. has a 150Hz reference signal and a 90Hz variable signal
c. has an AM reference signal and a 150 Hz variable signal
57. The type of emission radiated by a VOR beacon is:
a. A double channel VHF carrier with one channel being amplitude modulated and the
second channel being frequency modulated.
b. A single channel VHF carrier wave amplitude modulated at 30 Hz with a sub carrier
being frequency modulated at 30 Hz.
c. A VHF carrier wave with a 90 Hz frequency modulation and a 150 Hz amplitude
modulation.

58. An aircraft is attempting to use an ILS approach outside the coverage sectors of an ICAO
standard system:
a. From the glideslope needle the captain may be receiving false course and reverse
sense indications and from the localiser needle intermittent and incorrect indications.
b. The aircraft’s receiver is not detecting any transmissions and the ILS needle OFF
flags are visible.
c. From the localiser needle the captain may be receiving false course and reverse sense
indications and from the glideslope needle intermittent and incorrect indications.

59.The correct sequence of colours of a colour Airborne Weather Radar as returns get stronger
is:
a. red yellow green.
b. yellow green red.
c. green yellow red.

60. The antenna of an Airborne Weather Radar is stabilised:

a. in pitch, roll and yaw.
b. in pitch and roll.
c. in pitch and roll whether the stabilisation is on or off.

61.If the SSR transponder IDENT button is pressed

a. it causes a momentary distinctive display to appear on the controller’s screen.
b. an identification pulse is automatically and continuously transmitted for 20 seconds,
4.35μ sec before the last framing pulse.
c. an identification pulse is automatically and continuously transmitted for 20 seconds,
4.35μ sec after the last framing pulse
62. A DME receiver is able to distinguish between replies to its own interrogation pulses and
those intended for other aircraft using the same transponder because:
a. DME is a secondary radar and each aircraft transmits and receives on a different
frequency.
b. DME transponders reply to interrogations by means of twin pulses and the airborne
equipment rejects all single pulses.
c.each aircraft transmits pulses at a random rate(“jittering”) and will only accept replies
that match this randomisation.

63. MTOM: 62800 KG, MLM:54900 KG, MZFM: 51300 KG, DOM: 34500 KG. Fuel burn:
7500 kg, PAYLOAD: 14000 kg, What is the maximum fuel uplift at departure
a. 14300
b. 13900
c. 16145

64. MTOM 62800, MLM 54900, MZFM 51300, DOM:34500, Fuel in tanks: 11300, fuel on
landing:3000, find max traffic load
a. 16800
b. 17400
c. 17000

65. An aeroplane is flying from an airport to another. In cruise, the calibrated airspeed is 150
kts, TAS is 180 kts, average groundspeed is 210 kts. The speed box in the filed flight plan
shall be as follows:
a. K0210
b. N0180
c. K0150
66. MTOM: 64400, MLM 56200, MZFM: 53000, DOM 35500, Estimated load: 14500,
estimated trip fuel:4900, minimum take off fuel: 7400, find maximum additional load:
a. 5600
b. 7000
c. 3000

67. In the appropriate box of a flight plan form, corresponding to the estimated time of
departure, the time indicated is which the aircraft intends to:
a. Start up
b. Go off blocks
c. Take off

68. In the ATS flight plan, for a non scheduled flight, which of the following letters should
be entered in the item 8 ( type of flight)
a. N
b. N/S
c. S

69. An aircraft to depart London at 10:00 UTC and arrive Munich EDDM at 12:15 UTC. In
the ATS flight plan item 16 ( destination/EET) should be entered with:
a. EDDM 2H15
b. EDDM 1215
c. EDDM 0215

70. In the ATS flight plan item 15, when entering a route for which SID and STAR
procedure exists:
a. Both SID and STAR should be entered
b. SID should be entered but not STAR
c. Neither SID noe STAR should be entered

71. “Ballast fuel” if carried onboard the aircraft, it is to ensure:

a. CG of the aircraft is in range
b. To increase aircraft’s DOM
c. To decrease the aircraft’s ZFM

72. Ballast fuel is a part of:

 a. BZFM
b. DOM
c. BEM

73. A DME receiver is able to distinguish between replies to its own interrogations pulses
and those intended for other aircraft usung the same transponder because:
a. A DME is a secondary RADAR and each aircraft transmits and receives on a
different frequency
b. DME transponder reply to interrogation by means of twin pulses and airborne
equipment rejects all single pulse
c. Each aircraft transmits pulses at a random rate (jittering) and will only accept
replies that match the randomization

74. During the approach, a crew reads on the radio altimeter the value of 65 ft, this is an
indication of the true:
a. Height of the lowest wheel with regard to ground at any time
b. Height of the aircraft with regard to ground at any time
c. Height of the aircraft with regard to runway

75. Modern low altitude radio altimeter emit wave in the following frequency band
a. UHF
b. VHF
c. SHF

76. A radio altimeter can be defined as a:

a. Ground radio aid used to measure true height of the aircraft
b. Self contained onboard aid, used to measure the true height of the aircraft
c. Ground radio aid used to measure true altitude of the aircraft