Safety Precaution 9.

Which of the following comes under Class D

fire?
1. Globally harmonized system (GHS) is used for a) Fire occur in wood, paper, cloth
a) Classification and labeling of Chemical b) Fire occur in flammable petroleum
b) Classification and labeling of High pressure c) Fire occur in flammable Metal
gas Ref: EASA07A.1.6
c) Classification and labeling of Fire 10. Which fire extinguisher is best suited for class C
extinguishers fire
Ref: EASA07A.1.5 a) Water extinguisher
2. A document associated with hazardous b) Carbon dioxide extinguisher
chemicals that provide comprehensive c) Dry powder extinguisher
information for the safe handling, use, storage, Ref: EASA07A.1.5
disposal and risk management of potentially 11. If we use water extinguisher on class B fire
hazardous chemicals is a) It will explode
a) Service bulletin b) It produce electric shock
b) Safety data sheet c) Fire will not extinguished
c) Chemical manual Ref: EASA07A.1.6
Ref: EASA07A.1.5 12. If we use water extinguisher on class C fire
3. Following symbol indicates which type of a) It will explode
hazard according to GHS b) It produce electric shock
a) Health hazard c) Fire will not extinguished
b) Physical Hazard Ref: EASA07A.1.7
c) Environmental Hazard 13. If we use water extinguisher on class D fire
a) It will produce explosive expansion
Ref: EASA07A.1.5 b) It produce electric shock
4. Following symbol indicates which type of c) Fire will not extinguished
hazard according to GHS Ref: EASA07A.1.7
a) Corrosive Chemical 14. If we use the carbon dioxide extinguisher
b) Flammable Liquid a) Carbon dioxide isolates the fire from
c) High Pressure Gas oxygen.
b) Carbon dioxide cools the burning materials.
Ref: EASA07A.1.5 c) Both ‘a’ & ‘b’ are correct
5. Which of the following is indicated by blue Ref: EASA07A.1.7
colour in risk diamond 15. Carbon dioxide extinguisher is mainly
a) Flammability recommended for
b) Reactivity a) Class A & Class B fire
c) Health b) Class B & Class C fire
Ref: EASA07A.1.5 c) Class C & Class D fire
6. In risk diamond, special hazard segment Ref: EASA07A.1.7
contains 16. Halogenated hydrocarbon extinguishers are
a) A number from 0 to 4 most
b) As in ‘a’ & 4 indicates most hazardous a) Class A and B fire
condition b) Class B and C fire
c) Word or abbreviation c) Class A and C fire
Ref: EASA07A.1.5 Ref: EASA07A.1.7
7. Fire occur in flammable Gas comes under 17. Why is dry powder fire extinguisher not
a) Class A fire recommended for use on aircraft?
b) Class B fire a) It is not effective
c) Class C Fire b) Its residue is difficult to clean up and can
Ref: EASA07A.1. damage the electronic equipments
8. Which of the following comes under Class B c) It cause explosion
fire? Ref: EASA07A.1.9
a) Fire occur in wood, paper, cloth 18. Colour coding of class C fire extinguisher is
b) Fire occur in flammable petroleum a) Orange Square
c) Fire occur in Metal b) Blue Circle
Ref: EASA07A.1.6 c) Yellow star
 Ref: EASA07A.1.9 b) Three wiring system
19. What is correct order of using extinguisher in c) Both are equally prone to electrical hazard
P.A.S.S. techniques? 29. In which case there is minimum chance of
a) Pull, Aim, Sweep, Squeeze electrical hazard?
b) Push, Aim, Squeeze, Sweep a) Inadequate or absence of earthing
c) Pull, Aim, Squeeze, Sweep b) Worn or damaged wiring, insulation, plug,
Ref: EASA07A.1.10 socket
20. Hearing loss may be caused by c) Use of protective gloves or insulating mat
a) Exposure to the sound by noisy tools like Ref: EASA07A.1.3
pneumatic drills, rivet guns etc. 30. What action should we take when someone get
b) Exposure to the sound by aircraft engine, electrical shock?
APU, fuel trucks, baggage handling a) Immediately push him away from the
equipments electric circuit by hand
c) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’ are correct. b) Switch off the power supply and remove the
Ref: EASA07A.1.2 victim
21. Ear protection is optional where noise levels are c) Wash the burn portion with water and soap
a) less than 85 dB solution
b) more than 85 dB 31. While working on electricity, it is recommended
c) more than 90 dB to use
22. Chance of hearing loss may be reduced by a) Safety gloves
a) External device like earmuff or headphone b) As in ‘a’ & safety ground mat
b) internal device which fit into eardrum c) As in ‘b’ & safety glass
c) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’ may be effective 32. An equipment is energized or not is checked by
Ref: EASA07A.1.2 a) Ohmmeter
23. Foreign object damage can be controlled by b) Ammeter
a) Having adequate tool control program c) Electric tester
b) Keeping ramp and operation area clean 33. While working on receptacles at height, we
c) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’ are correct should use
Ref: EASA07A.1.2 a) Aluminum ladder
24. While working around the aeroplane, we should b) Steel ladder
stand c) Wooden ladder
a) Ahead of engine intake 34. High pressure gas cylinders are identified by
b) Behind the engine exhaust a) Name written on cylinder
c) At the point where pilot can see us. b) Colour coding
Ref: EASA07A.1.3 c) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’ are correct.
25. Which of the following is incorrect? 35. While working on oxygen system, there should
a) Avoid using smoking or open flame near an not be smoking or open flame within
operating aircraft. a) At least 10 feet
b) Do not handle fluid which is detrimental to b) At least 50 feet
our skin or clothing c) At least 30 feet
c) Maintain safe distance between aircraft and Ref: EASA07A.1.4
ground equipment. 36. While working on oxygen system, one should
Ref: EASA07A.1.3 use
26. We should approach the helicopter a) Oily or greasy tools
a) In view of the pilot b) Adequate fire extinguisher
b) From the rear side c) Both ‘a’ & ‘b’ are correct
c) With a vertical object in hand Ref: EASA07A.1.4
Ref: EASA07A.1.3 37. Distance should be maintained between oxygen
27. Which of the following reduces the chance of and petroleum products like oil, grease because
electric shock? a) petroleum products like oil, grease are
a) Presence of water flammable
b) Insulating material b) petroleum products like oil, grease support
c) Direct contact of foot with ground combustion
28. Which wiring system is more prone to electrical c) Both ‘a’ & ‘b’ are correct
hazard? Ref: EASA07A.1.4
a) Two wiring system
38. On oxygen system which type of lubricant is b) It is portable
used c) It keeps the tools free from moisture and dirt
a) Adhesive lubricant 47. Dehumidifier is used
b) Adhesive tape a) To clean the tools
c) Thread lubricant approved for use on b) To keep the level of moisture down
oxygen components. c) To keep the tools safe from grease and dirt.
Ref: EASA07A.1.4 48. What should be used to prevent rust formation
39. Oxygen cylinder must be stored in of tools
a) Cool and ventilated area a) Dehumidifier in the tool store
b) Away from petroleum products b) Silica gel or anti rust liner
c) Both ‘a’ & ‘b’ are correct c) Both ‘a’ & ‘b’ are correct
Ref: EASA07A.1.4 49. Tools should be cleaned by
40. Minimum separation between oxygen line and a) Soap solution followed by proper drying.
moving parts, electrical wiring or fluid line b) As in ‘a’ and using WD-40 spray.
should be c) As in ‘b’ and wiping down with rag.
a) 2 inches 50. Wooden handle of any tool may be cleaned
b) 4 inches with
c) 6 inches a) Rag dampened in little linseed oil.
Ref: EASA07A.1.4 b) Soap solution
c) WD 40 spray
51. Mark the correct statement regarding power
Workshop Practices tool
a) It should be unplugged before cleaning.
41. Who is responsible to care and maintenance of b) Dust should be removed from it by using
personal tool kit? soap solution.
a) Individual technician c) Lubricate the moving part of power tool with
b) Store in-charge grease or oil
c) Maintenance Manager 52. What should be checked visually before using
Ref: ATB module 07A/2.2 any tool?
42. Why care and maintenance of tools are a) Tools should be rust proof.
needed? b) Handle should not be loose, cracked or
a) To avoid damage and cost of replacement splintered
of tool. c) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’ are correct.
b) For safety of users and other personnel Ref: ATB module 07A/2.2
c) Both ‘a’ & ‘b’ are correct 53. The materials which can harm if it is inhaled by
Ref: ATB module 07A/2.2 anybody and may cause a serious health
43. Mark the correct statement regarding safe hazard is
workshop practices a) Toxic material
a) Keep greasing cutting edge of tools. b) Corrosive material
b) Use safety device to reduce accident c) Flammable material
c) Clean and oil the tool before use Ref: ATB module 07A/2.3
Ref: ATB module 07A/2.2 54. Harm from toxic material can be prevented by
44. Tools should be stored and kept in such a a) Using proper handling and storage of that
manner so that material
a) They should be quickly accessible b) Wearing a mask
b) They should not cause personnel injury. c) Both ‘a’ & ‘b’ are correct
c) Both ‘a’ & ‘b’ are correct. Ref: ATB module 07A/2.3
Ref: ATB module 07A/2.2 55. Which one is highly corrosive material
45. What are the advantages of pegboard storage a) Abrasive paper
system? b) Solder
a) Can make use of wall space for storage c) Battery electrolyte
b) Can see all the tools at a glance Ref: ATB module 07A/2.3
c) Both ‘a’ & ‘b’ are correct 56. Flammable material should be kept
46. pegboard storage is best storage for tools a) Out of direct flame
because b) In direct sunlight
a) It uses the space of wall c) In closed area
 Ref: ATB module 07A/2.3 a) Adjustable Wrench
57. What care should be taken before using any b) Torque Wrench
liquid in workshop? c) Socket spanner
a) It should not be expired.
b) Liquid should be properly identified.
c) Both are correct Tools
Ref: ATB module 07A/2.3
58. A measurable extent of some kind, such that 1. Hard hammer is made of
length, width, height, depth etc.are called 1) Copper or brass
a) Dimension 2) Carbon steel
b) Tolerance 3) Lead or Babbitt
c) Allowance Ref: Shop Theory page no. 38
Ref: ATB module 07A/2.4 2. Size of soft hammer is specified by
59. An approximate dimension that is used for the 1) Weight of head without the handle
purpose of general identification is called 2) Weight of handle with handle
a) Nominal size 3) Diameter of face
b) Limit dimension Ref: Shop Theory page no. 40
c) Basic size 3. Size of hard hammer is specified by
Ref: ATB module 07A/2.4 1) Weight of head without the handle
2) Weight of handle with handle
60. The total amount by which a given dimension is 3) Diameter of face
allowed to vary is called Ref: EASA 07A/3.11
a) Dimension 4. Flat face of ball peen hammer is used
b) Tolerance 1) To strike punch
c) Allowance 2) For riveting and peening
Ref: ATB module 07A/2.4 3) Both ‘1’ & ‘2’ are correct
61. Which type of tolerance is applicable in piston Ref: Shop Theory page no. 39
size? 5. Which hammer is best for driving and removing
a) Bilateral tolerance nail?
b) Unilateral tolerance 1) Ball peen hammer
c) Tolerance is not allowed in piston size 2) Claw hammer
Ref: ATB module 07A/2.4 3) Straight peen hammer
62. The component which is out of tolerance should Ref: JEPPESEN 9-2
be 6. Mark the correct statement regarding proper
a) Repaired use of hammer
b) Rejected 1) Face should be clean and free from dent or
c) Machined chip
Ref: ATB module 07A/2.4 2) Ensure that the handle is tight
63. The difference between the higher and lower 3) Both ‘1’ & ‘2’ are correct
limit of part dimension is Ref: EASA 07A/3.11
a) Allowance 7. Mark the correct statement regarding hammer
b) Tolerance 1) Swing it by bending wrist
c) Clearance 2) Swing it by bending elbow
Ref: ATB module 07A/2.4 3) Both ‘1’ & ‘2’ are correct
64. The minimum clearance needed between two Ref: EASA 07A/3.11
mating parts 8. Which type of hammer should be used to form
a) Allowance thin metal sheet
b) Tolerance 1) Hard faced hammer
c) Clearance 2) Soft faced hammer
Ref: ATB module 07A/2.5 3) Mallet
65. Tools should be calibrated Ref: EASA 07A/3.11
a) After a fixed period (usually one year) 9. Which type of hammer is this?
b) When its serviceability is in doubt
c) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’ are correct
Ref: ATB module 07A/2.4
66. Which tools need to be calibrated
 1) Ball peen 3) Read and Prince Screwdriver
2) Cross peen Ref: EASA 07A/3.8& & FAA 9A 530
3) Straight peen 19. Screwdriver of wrong size can cause
1) Cuts and burrs the screw slot
2) Slip of screwdriver tip
Ref: JEPPESEN 9-3 3) Both ‘1’ & ‘2’ are correct
10. Size of ball peen hammer Ref: EASA 07A/3.8
1) 0.12 kg to 1 kg 20. Offset screwdriver is made for
2) 2 kg to 10 kg 1) Standard head screw
3) 2kg to 5 kg 2) Recessed head screw
Ref: Shop Theory 3) Both
11. The ball peen hammer ranges in weight Ref: FAA 9A 530
a) One ounce to 3 pound 21. A common screwdriver must fill
b) 10 pounds to 15 pounds 1) At least 75 % of the screw slot
c) 1 kg to 10 kg 2) Full length of the screw slot
Ref: JEPPESEN 9-2 3) At most 75 % of the screw slot
12. Ball peen hammer should be used for Ref: EASA 07A/3.8
a) Securing rivet in aircraft sheet metal work 22. Camlock/Airlock fastener used to secure the
b) Peen over the rivet in commercial sheet cowling is opened by
metal work 1) Common screwdriver
c) Driving a nail 2) Reed d and prince screwdriver
Ref: JEPPESEN 9-2 3) Phillip screwdriver
13. Which type of hammer has two flat faces? Ref: EASA 07A/3.8& & FAA 9A 529
a) Ball peen hammer 23. Screwdriver should be used
b) Claw hammer 1) To drive the screw
c) Sledge hammer 2) For chiseling
Ref: JEPPESEN 9-3 3) To check an electric circuit
14. Which tool is used for loosening or tightening Ref: FAA 9A 530
the screw 24. While using a screwdriver on a small part
1) Screwdriver 1) Always hold the part in the vice
2) Spanner 2) Hold
old the part in hand
3) Chisel 3) Do not hold the part
Ref: FAA 9A/529 Ref: FAA 9A 530
15. Philip screwdriver 25. Which one is correct placement of screwdriver?
1) Slightly larger center in the cross
2) Has a sharp tip
3) Tip forms a perfect square
Ref: FAA 9A 530
16. Mark the correct statement regarding
screwdriver
1) The shaft is usually made of tough steel to
resist bending or twisting.
2) The tip may be hardened for improved 1) First & Second
visual
sual contrast between tip and shank 2) Second & third
3) Tip is treated with a dark tip coating to resist 3) Only third
wear. Ref:
17. Screwdriver which is used to drive screw where 26. Which pliers are best suited for twisting the
space is limited wire?
1) Stubby screwdriver 1) Round nose pliers
2) Philip screwdriver 2) Diagonal pliers
3) Read and Prince Screwdriver 3) Duckbill pliers
Ref: Shop Theory 42 Ref: EASA 07A/3.9
18. Screwdriver which is used to drive screw where 27. Which pliers are used to cut wire, rivets, small
vertical space is limited screw and cotter pin?
1) Offset screwdriver 1) Round nose pliers
2) Combination screwdriver 2) Diagonal pliers
 3) Duckbill pliers A
Ref: EASA 07A/3.10
28. Pliers should not be used
Prick punch
1) To turn the nut
B
2) For twisting the wire
3) Both ‘1’ & ‘2’ are correct
Ref: EASA 07A/3.10 Center punch
29. Name the type of pliers in below figure

Drift Punch
1) Duck bill pliers 1) Only A
2) Circlip pliers 2) Only B
3) Diagonal pliers 3) Only C
Ref: Shop Theory 40
30. Name the type of pliers in below figure 36. Which type of punch is following diagram?

1) Drift punch
2) Pin Punch
3) Aligning punch
1) Round nose pliers Ref: JEPPESEN 9-5
2) Flat nose pliers 37. Center punch is used
3) Needle nose pliers 1) To enlarge the prick punch mark
2) To drive the rivet
31. Which pliers are best to hold small work in 3) To transfer the location of hole through the
electrical and electronic work? template to the metal
1) Round nose pliers Ref: EASA 07A-3.12
2) Needle nose pliers 38. What is included angle of center punch
3) Diagonal pliers 1) 300
Ref: EASA 07A-3.9 2) 600
32. Most of the punches are made of hardened and 3) 800
tempered tool steel Ref: JEPPESEN 9-5& EASA 07A-3.12
1) For greater strength 39. Prick punch or center punch should not be used
2) For longer wear 1) To remove objects from a hole
3) Both ‘1’ & ‘2’ are correct 2) To locate hole center
Ref: Shop Theory 40 3) To transfer dimension from paper pattern to
33. Punches made of brass is used for metal
1) To prevent damage to part being assembled Ref: EASA 07A/3.12
or disassembled 40. Which type of punch does not need the blow of
2) As n ‘1’ & For greater strength hammer?
3) As n ‘2’ & For longer wear 1) Alignment punch
Ref: Shop Theory 40 2) Automatic center punch
34. Which punch is used to loosening or driving out 3) Hollow punch
damaged pins, rivets, and bolts from hole? Ref: Shop Theory 42
1) Drift punch 41. Which punch is used to transfer the location of
2) Prick punch holes through the pattern to the material?
3) Center punch 1) Transfer punch
Ref: Shop Theory 40 2) Alignment punch
35. Which figure has correct name? 3) Hollow Punch
Ref: EASA 07A/3.12
42. While using C-clamp on aircraft, aircraft 3) Combination of open and close end spanner
structure should be protected by using of same size
1) Masking tape Ref: Shop Theory 47
2) Brass jaw cap 51. The wrench which can be adjusted to fit any
3) Copper jaw cap size of nut and bolt by moving a thumb screw
Ref: EASA 07A/ 3.10 1) Adjustable wrench
43. Mark the correct statement regarding 2) Check nut wrench
toolmakers clamp 3) Tool post wrench
1) Consists of two flat steel jaws and two Ref: Shop Theory 47
screws 52. Mark the correct statement regarding adjustable
2) As in ‘1’ & first screw passing through the wrench
center used to exert pressure on the other 1) It can be used in place of hammer.
jaws 2) The movable jaw should be adjusted so that
3) As in ‘2’ & second screw in the end of one it is tight against a flat surface of nut or bolt.
jaw is hold the piece of work between the 3) Always apply the pressure away from the
jaws movable jaw.
Ref: Shop Theory 45 Ref: Shop Theory 47
44. Which vise is used to hold the heavier material? 53. Which one is correct procedure
1) Toolmakers hand vise
2) Bench vise
3) Toolmakers clamp
Ref: Shop Theory 45
45. Faces of bench vise are lightly serrated and
hardened
1) To ensure a firm grip on the work
2) To protect finished surface from being
marred
3) Both ‘1’ & ‘2’ are correct
Ref: Shop Theory 45
Method I Method II
46. Cylindrical objects for layout and measurement
can be securely hold by
1) Method I
1) Bench vise
2) Method II
2) Toolmakers clamp
3) None of the above
3) V-block with clamp
Ref: Shop Theory 47
Ref: Shop Theory 46
54. Identify the types of spanner
47. Which tool is used to turn nut or bolt
1) Spanner
2) Pliers
3) C-clamp
Ref: Shop Theory 46
48. Mark the correct statement regarding single 1) Pipe wrench
ended wrench 2) Hook wrench
1) Made to fit one size nut or bolt 3) Strap wrench
2) Comparatively cheaper Ref: Shop Theory 50
3) Less effective than two sided spanner 55. Which wrench is used on cylindrical parts
Ref: Shop Theory 46 where surface finish must be preserved
49. Double ended open wrench 1) Pipe wrench
1) Both ends have same size 2) Hook Wrench
2) Both ends have different size 3) Strap Wrench
3) One ends is sized in inch and other in mm Ref: Shop Theory 50
Ref: Shop Theory 47 56. Which wrench is used on cylindrical parts
50. Combination wrench is where surface finish is not a prime concern
1) Combination of metric and inch size 1) Pipe wrench
2) Combination of open and close end spanner 2) Hook Wrench
of different size 3) Strap Wrench
Ref: Shop Theory 50
57. Which wrench is used to open B-nut of a fuel, 66. Size of the C-clamp is measured by
hydraulic or oxygen line 1) Diameter of anvil
1) Crowfoot spanner 2) Size of the largest object it can hold
2) Flare nut spanner 3) Both are correct
3) Allen key 67. Mark the correct statement regarding
Ref: EASA 07A/3.14 toolmaker’s clamp
58. Which among these is used to turn down nut or 1) Jaws must be parallel to each other
screws which have many thread before tighten 2) It require more maintenance
up 3) It can damage the aluminum structure
1) Drive bar Ref: Shop Theory 45
2) Speed braces 68. Which type of clamp or vice is mostly used in
3) Extension bar shop to perform cutting or filing operation?
1) C-clamp
59. What is the purpose of knuckle bar or drive bar 2) Toolmaker’s vise
in socket set? 3) Bench vise
1) Used to break the stick of tight nut Ref: Shop Theory 45
2) Used for tightening the nut. 69. Faces of bench vise is serrated to
3) Used for final tightening of nut 1) Ensure a firm grip on object
2) Protect the finished object
60. Which one allows tightening of nut, bolt, screws 3) Both are correct
where it is not possible to obtain the access in a Ref: Shop Theory 46
straight line 70. Cylindrical object is securely held by
1) Universal socket 1) Bench vise
2) Adapter 2) V-Bock with clamp
3) Extension bar 3) C-clamp
Ref: Shop Theory 46
61. which wrench is used to turn or tighten the nut
to pre-determined torque Layout Tools
1) Torque wrench
2) Ratchet spanner 71. Which type of steel rule is used to measure the
3) Allen wrench curved surface
Ref: EASA 07A/3.14 a) Narrow rule
62. Which toque wrench does not provide any b) Flexible rule
visual or tactile signal when the required torque c) Short rule
is obtained Ref: Shop Theory 72
1) Beam type 72. Which type of rule is used where end of rule is
2) Click type not visible?
3) Dial indicating type a) Narrow rule
b) Short rule
63. Which torque wrench is preferred where c) Hook rule
accuracy and repeat use is required Ref: Shop Theory 73
1) Beam type 73. Which type of rule is used by patternmaker?
2) Toggle type a) Hook rule
3) Dial indicating type b) Shrink rule
Ref: JEPPESEN/9-29 c) Narrow rule
64. If a fastener is over torqued, Ref: Shop Theory 73
1) Joint is subjected to undue stress 74. Scriber is used to
2) Threads are overstressed a) Locate the center line
3) Life of fastener is increased b) Mark lines on metal surface
Ref: JEPPESEN/9-31 c) Measure the dimension on curved surface
65. When additional clearance is needed between Ref: FAA9A/ 543
the socket drive and socket, 75. Scriber should be tilted in the direction
1) Flex socket is used a) Towards which it will move
2) Deep socket is used b) Away from which it will move
3) Universal socket is used c) Towards the straightedge
Ref: JEPPESEN/9-26 Ref: FAA9A/ 543
76. Which type of caliper is a) Anvil and spindle
this? b) Sleeve and thimble
a) Inside caliper c) Sleeve and frame
b) Outside caliper Ref: JEPPESEN/9-36
c) Hermaphrodite caliper 86. Micrometer graduations ranges from
a) 0 – 1 inch
b) 0 – 3 inch
Ref: FAA9A/ 544 c) 0 – 2 inch
77. Which type of caliper is used to measure Ref: Shop Theory/96
diameter of hole 87. Micrometer reading
a) Inside caliper indicates
b) Outside caliper a) 5.53 inch
c) Hermaphrodite caliper b) 0.598 inch
Ref: FAA9A/ 544 c) 0.598 mm
78. Circle or arc is scribed on metal part by using
Ref: JEPPESEN/9-36
a) Scriber
88. The depth of groove or recesses is measured
b) Divider
by
c) Outside caliper
a) Outside micrometer
Ref: FAA9A/ 544
b) Inside micrometer
79. In combination set which head is used to find
c) Depth micrometer
the center of shaft?
Ref: JEPPESEN/9-38
a) Center head
89. Vernier caliper is used to measure
b) Stock head
a) Only outside dimension
c) Protector head
b) Only inside dimension
Ref: FAA9A/ 543
c) Both inside and outside dimension
80. Which gauge is used to measure the clearance
Ref: JEPPESEN/9-38
between two parts?
90. Micrometer reading
a) Hole gauge
indicates
b) Thickness gauge
d) 7.24 mm
c) Telescopic gauge
e) 7.74 mm
Ref: Jeppesen general/ 9-34
f) 0.724 mm
81. This position of micrometer
Ref: Shop Theory 102
indicates
91. Thickness of the wall of the tube is measured
a) Positive error
by
b) Negative error
a) Inside micrometer
c) No error
b) Tube micrometer
Ref: Jeppesen general/ 9-34
c) Depth micrometer
82. In inch marking micrometer, one small
Ref: Shop Theory 99
graduation of micrometer sleeve indicates
92. This vernier caliper reading indicates.
a) 0.025 inch
b) 0.001 Inch
c) 0.25 inch
Ref: Shop Theory/96
83. In inch marking micrometer, one small
graduation of micrometer thimble indicates
a) 0.025 inch
b) 0.001 Inch
c) 0.25 inch a) 3.014 inches
Ref: Shop Theory/97 b) 1.314 inches
84. Use of too much pressure by micrometer on a c) 1.44 inches
part is prevented by Ref: JEPPESEN/9-39
a) Thimble
b) Anvil
c) Ratchet stop Tap and Die
Ref: Shop Theory/98
85. Parts to be measured by outside micrometer is 93. Internal thread is cut by
placed between a) Tap
 b) Die 1) Heat treated Al alloy
c) Both tap and die 2) Stainless steel
Ref: Shop Theory 261 3) Both
94. Which type of tap is used to cut thread in deep Ref: FAA 9A 534
hole? 104. Colour coding of left hand aviation snip
a) Hand taps 1) Green
b) Extension tap 2) Red
c) Serial tap 3) Yellow
Ref: Shop Theory 261 Ref: JEPPESESN 9 – 12
105. Chisel used to thin wire, small bars
95. Which tap is used to begin the tapping 1) Flat chisel
process? 2) Cap chisel
a) Taper tap 3) Round nose chisel
b) Plug tap Ref: FAA 9A 536
c) Bottoming tap 106. Chisel used to cut the V-groove
Ref: JEPPESEN/9-20 1) Flat chisel
96. Bottoming tap is used to cut the thread in 2) Round nose chisel
a) Blind hole only 3) Diamond point chisel
b) Through hole only Ref: FAA 9A 536
c) Both thin and thick material hole 107. Chisel used to cut semicircular groove
Ref: JEPPESEN/9-20 1) Cap chisel
97. A tap is turned inside the hole by using 2) Round nose chisel
a) Tap wrench 3) Diamond point chisel
b) Die stock Ref: FAA 9A 536
c) Spanner or tap wrench 108. Chisel used to cut square corners and slots
Ref: JEPPESEN/9-20 1) Cap chisel
98. Threads on bolt is cut by using 2) Round nose chisel
a) Tap 3) Diamond point chisel
b) Die Ref: FAA 9A 536
c) Tap wrench 109. Cutting angle of chisel for cutting iron or steel
Ref: JEPPESEN/9-20 1) 700
99. Damaged male thread is restored by 2) 900
a) Split die 3) 500
b) Re-threading die Ref: Shop Theory 63
c) Both are correct 110. Head of the chisel spread out
Ref: JEPPESEN/9-20 1) Mushroom head
100. Number of thread per inch of internal and 2) Flat head
external thread is measured by 3) Cold head
a) Screw pitch gauge Ref: Shop Theory 64
b) Thread micrometer 111. For sawing brass, tool steel, cast iron and
c) Depth micrometer heavy material which type of blade is preferred?
Ref: JEPPESEN/9-20 1) All hard blades
2) Flexible blades
Cutting Tool 3) Both may be used
Ref: FAA 9A 535
101. Snip should never be used for 112. Best hacksaw blade for sawing hollow shape
1) Cutting straight cut 1) All hard blades
2) Cutting curved cut 2) Flexible blades
3) Cutting heavy sheet metal 3) Both may be used
Ref: FAA 9A 534 Ref: FAA 9A 535
102. Colour coding of right hand aviation snip 113. A thin walled tubing is cut with blades of
1) Green 1) 14 TPI
2) Red 2) 24 TPI
3) Yellow 3) 32 TPI
Ref: JEPPESESN 9 – 12 Ref: FAA 9A 535
103. Aviation snip are designed to cut the material 114. Install the hacksaw blade in the frame so that
 1) Teeth points towards the handle 2) Grade
2) Teeth point away from the handle 3) Pitch
3) Both are correct Ref: Shop theory 56
Ref: FAA 9A 535 125. Which file is used for filing concave surface
115. Blades in hacksaw frame is tighten with 1) Round file
1) Plain nut 2) Half round file
2) Wing nut 3) Rattail file
3) Check nut Ref: Shop theory 57
Ref: FAA 9A 535
116. Hacksaw is operated at speed 126. Included angle of knife file is
1) More than 40 to 50 strokes per minute 1) 200
2) Not more than 40 – 50 strokes/min 2) 100
3) 50 Strokes per minute 3) 300
Ref: FAA 9A 535 Ref: Shop theory 57
117. Cutting speed by hacksaw should be fast for 127. Notches in keys and locks are filed by
1) Softer material locksmith by
2) Hard material 1) Square file
3) Cutting speed does not depend upon 2) Triangular file
hardness 3) Warding file
Ref: Shop theory 54 Ref: Shop theory 57
118. In hacksaw pressure should be applied in 128. File used for rectangular slot
1) Forward stroke only 1) Square file
2) Return stroke only 2) Triangular file
3) Equally in both stroke 3) Warding file
Ref: FAA 9A 535 Ref: Shop theory 57
119. Starting point for the sawing is indicated by 129. Files are generally made with
nicking the edge with 1) Convex face
1) Chisel 2) Concave face
2) File 3) Flat face
3) Snip Ref: Shop theory 58
Ref: FAA 9A 535 130. Which file cut best?
120. Bending the teeth of hacksaw blades 1) New file
alternately in left and right side is called 2) Blunt file
1) Pitch of the blades 3) File after about 2500 strokes
2) Setting of blades Ref: Shop theory 59
3) Teeth per inch 131. Which filing technique provides finer finish?
Ref: Shop theory 52 1) Straight filing
121. Tools used to remove small amount of 2) Cross filing
material from the surface 3) Draw filing
1) Hacksaw Ref: Shop theory 59
2) File 132. In draw filing a file with
3) Chisel 1) Short angle cut is used
Ref: Shop theory 55 2) Large angle cut is used
122. Safe edge of the file means 3) Any file may be used
1) Face with single cut teeth Ref: Shop theory 59
2) Face with double cut teeth 133. Pinning of file means
3) Face with no teeth 1) Clogging the gullet of file
Ref: Shop theory 55 2) Cleaning the gullet of the file
123. Which one is the grade of the file 3) Applying chock on the file
1) Single cut Ref: Shop theory 60
2) Double cut 134. Pinning of file may be prevented by
3) Second cut 1) Cross filing
Ref: Shop theory 56 2) Applying much pressure
124. Which one of following depends upon size of 3) Applying the chock on file
the file? Ref: Shop theory 60
1) Cut 135. Main cause of the pinning is
 1) Corrosion a) To provide restoring force
2) Too much pressure b) To provide damping of pointer
3) Worn file teeth c) To prevent oscillation of pointer
Ref: Shop theory 60 Ref: FAA 9A Page 322
136. Which type of drill bit is used for deep hole 145. Ammeter is always connected in circuit
drilling? a) In series
1) Twist drill b) In parallel
2) Flat drill c) Across a voltage source
3) Oil hole drill Ref: FAA 9A Page 326
Ref: Shop theory 60 146. Range of an ammeter can be extend by
137. Which classification of twist drill diameter is a) Series resistor
most accurate? b) Shunt resister
1) By fraction c) Eddy current
2) By letter (A to Z) Ref: FAA 9A Page 324
3) By number (80 to 1) 147. If current is unknown, ammeter range should
Ref: FAA 9A 535 be selected to avoid damage to the meter
138. Which size of letter series is exactly coincide a) Highest possible range
with fractional series of twist drill? b) Lowest possible range
1) E – Series c) Midscale Range
2) B – Series Ref: FAA 9A Page 326
3) H – Series 148. Voltmeter range can be changed by
Ref: JEPPESEN 9-16 a) Shunt resistor in parallel
139. Which one does not need coolant during b) Multiplier in parallel
drilling? c) Multiplier in series
1) Brass and bronze Ref: FAA 9A Page 327
2) Aluminum structure 149. Voltmeter is connected in circuit
3) Cast iron a) In series
Ref: b) In parallel
140. A tool used to cuts a cone shaped depression c) Series or parallel
around the hole Ref: FAA 9A Page 328
1) Reamer 150. Which instrument is used to measure the
2) Countersink current
3) Grinder a) Ammeter
Ref: FAA 9A 541 b) Voltmeter
141. A hole that is to be reamed must be drilled c) Ohmmeter
1) Same diameter as reamed hole Ref: FAA 9A Page 322
2) 0.003 – 0.007 inch oversize 151. Which instrument is used to measure the
3) 0.003 – 0.007 inch undersize potential difference
Ref: FAA 9A 541 a) Ammeter
142. Included angle of drill bit used to drill hard b) Voltmeter
material such as stainless steel is c) Ohmmeter
1) 118 degree Ref: FAA 9A Page 329
2) 90 degree 152. Which instrument is used to measure the
3) 150 degree resistance
Ref: JEPPESEN 9 -15 a) Ammeter
b) Voltmeter
c) Ohmmeter
Ref: FAA 9A Page 329
153. Sensitivity of voltmeter is expressed in terms
Electrical measuring instrument a) Ampere
b) Volt
143. D’Arsonval ammeter is used to measure c) Ohm per volt
a) Only AC Ref: FAA 9A Page 329
b) Only DC 154. Ohmmeter is used to
c) Both AC and DC a) Measure resistance of circuit
Ref: FAA 9A Page 322 b) Check the continuity
144. Purpose of control spring in D’Arsonval meter
 c) Both are correct 2) Discharge probe and frequency generator
Ref: FAA 9A Page 329 3) Both ‘1’ & ‘2’ are correct
155. Insulation resistance is measured by 4. In computerized central maintenance system
a) Ohmmeter the signals are sent and received by BITE
b) Megger 1) To determine faults if any
c) Voltmeter 2) As in ‘1’ & To isolate the faults
Ref: FAA 9A Page 329 3) As in ‘2’ & To verify correct operating
parameter
Ref: ATB module 7A – 4.2
156. A short circuit means 5. BIT includes
a) A low resistance path 1) The detection and accommodation of the
b) High resistance path fault
c) A circuit that is not complete 2) The annunciation or logging of the fault to
Ref: FAA 9A Page 332 warn of possible effects and/or aid in
157. When a voltmeter is connected across a good troubleshooting the faulty equipment
component in an open circuit, the voltmeter will 3) Both ‘1’ & ‘2’ are correct
read Ref: ATB module 7A – 4.2
a) Zero 6. If any fault initiate while aircraft is en route,
b) Infinity 1) BITE records all parameter and displayed in
c) Battery voltage flight.
Ref: FAA 9A Page 332 2) BITE records all parameter but not
158. When a voltmeter is connected across an displayed in flight.
open component in series circuit, the voltmeter 3) BITE sends the fault to ground base.
will read Ref: ATB module 7A – 4.3
a) Zero 7. Serviceability of a unit can be checked while it
b) Infinity is installed on aircraft by
c) Battery voltage 1) Portable test equipment
Ref: FAA 9A Page 332 2) Shop test equipment
159. When an ohmmeter is connected across he 3) Both ‘1’ & ‘2’ are correct
open resistor, the ohmmeter will read Ref: ATB module 7A – 4.3
a) Zero 8. Avionics test equipment which is designed to
b) Infinity know that whether the output of unit is within
c) Battery voltage tolerance or not is
Ref: FAA 9A Page 332 1) Generator
160. When an ohmmeter will register zero, it 2) Test set
indicates 3) Analyzer
a) Short circuit Ref: ATB module 7A – 4.3
b) Open circuit 9. All types of Multimeter measures at least
c) Good circuit 1) Voltage, current and resistance
Ref: FAA 9A Page 332 2) Frequency, temperature and capacitance
3) Voltage, Frequency and Capacitance
Avionics General Test Equipment Ref: ATB module 7A – 4.4
10. A laboratory instrument commonly used to
1. A piece of hardware that can be replaced in a display and analyze the waveform of electronic
relatively short time by only opening and closing signals is known as
fasteners and connectors is called 1) Multimeter
1) Built in test equipment 2) Frequency meter
2) Line replaceable unit 3) Oscilloscope
3) Both ‘1’ & ‘2’ are correct. Ref: ATB module 7A – 4.4
2. Built in test equipment is 11. An oscilloscope
1) Portable type test equipment 1) Primarily used in bench testing
2) Test equipment for shop testing 2) Used to indicate rapid variations such as AC
3) Test unit built into airborne systems voltage, pulses, spikes of complex
Ref: ATB module 7A – 4.2 waveform
3. Built in test equipment consists of 3) Both ‘1’ & ‘2’ are correct
1) Multimeter and oscilloscope Ref: ATB module 7A – 4.4
12. A time-domain reflectometer (TDR) is an
electronic instrument that is used to locate 1. A drawing which is a description of an object
1) Faults in metallic cables or transmission line made of two or more parts is
2) Discontinuities in a connector & PCB a) Detail drawing
3) Both ‘1’ & ‘2’ are correct b) Assembly drawing
Ref: ATB module 7A – 4.4 c) Installation drawing
13. Pinched metallic cable (Ref: FAA 9A - 35)
1) Found as partial open & appear on the 2. A drawing which includes all necessary
graticule as minor dip information for a part or assembly of parts in
2) Found as partial close & appear on the final position is called
graticule as minor dip a) Detail drawing
3) Found as partial open & appear on the b) Assembly drawing
graticule as minor rise. c) Installation drawing
Ref: ATB module 7A – 4.4 (Ref: FAA 9A - 36)
14. Which situation is indicated by following figure? 3. Mark the incorrect statement regarding care of
1) Open conductor drawing
2) Short conductor a) Drawing should be opened slowly and
3) T-joint carefully to prevent tearing the paper
15. What is advantage of SSTDR over TDR? b) Never spread the drawing over surface
1) Greater precision and portability. covered with tools
2) Show exact location of fault in transmission c) Make a notes or mark if something
line additional should be reflected in drawing
3) Both are correct (Ref: FAA 9A - 36)
Ref: ATB module 7A – 4.2 4. Drawing number, date of drawing, name of
16. IFR 4000 testing device is used to test draftsman is written on drawing in
1) HF/VHF communication device an antenna a) Title block
2) VOR & ILS System b) Back of drawing
3) Both ‘1’ & ‘2’ c) At top of drawing
Ref: ATB module 7A – 4.6 (Ref: FAA 9A - 36)
17. Functional test should be done 5. In which type of projection exact size and
1) Before a repair or replacement of said angles of part is not reflected?
equipment a) Orthographic projection
2) After a repair or replacement of said b) Isometric projection
equipment c) Perspective view
3) Daily before flight (Ref: ATB module 7A – 5.13)
Ref: ATB module 7A – 4.7 6. Which type of drawing/view is useful in showing
18. Calibration interval for test equipment should be general appearance of a part?
accepted based on a) Pictorial drawing
1) Manufacturer’s recommendation b) Detail view
2) Calibration history of repair facility c) Sectional view
3) Both ‘1’ & ‘2’ are correct (Ref: FAA 9A - 39)
Ref: ATB module 7A – 4.7 7. A solid line with one arrowhead and indicates a
19. Data bus analyzer are used to part or portion to which a note, number or other
1) Troubleshoot the digital system reference applies is called
2) Evaluate the performance of LRU a) Break line
3) Check the standing wave in transmission b) Leader line
line c) Stitch line
Ref: ATB module 7A – 4.7 (Ref: FAA 9A - 45)
8. In which type of drawing two of three drawing
axes are always at right angle to each other?
a) Isometric drawing
b) Orthographic drawing
c) Oblique drawing
(Ref: ATB module 7A – 5.13)
9. This figure indicates
Engineering Drawing
 1) 0.0025
2) 0.050
3) 0.224
0.0050
(Ref: FAA 9A - 39)
19. When very accurate dimensions are necessary,
we use
a) Chain dimensioning 1) Fractional allowance
b) Datum dimensioning 2) Decimal allowance
c) Parallel dimensioning 3) Allowance indicated by letter
10. Hidden lines (short dashes evenly spaced) (Ref: FAA 9A - 39)
used to indicate 20. Drawing used for objects having constant
a) Visible edges thickness such as gasket, shims etc
b) Invisible edges 1) One view drawing
c) Border line 2) Two view drawing
(Ref: FAA 9A - 45) 3) Three view drawing
11. First digit of universal numbering system (Ref: FAA 9A - 39)
indicates 21. A view obtained by cutting away part of an
a) Drawing size object to show the shape and construction at
b) Drawing sheet number the cutting plane
c) Scale of drawing 1) Principle view
(Ref: ATB module 7A – 5.7) 2) Detailed view
12. Diagram used to show the electrical wiring and 3) Sectional view
circuitry is called (Ref: FAA 9A - 40)
a) Block diagram 22. View used to show both interior or exterior view
b) Schematic diagram of symmetrical object
c) Wiring diagram 1) Full sectional view
(Ref: ATB module 7A – 5.7) 2) Half sectional view
13. This symbol indicates 3) Revolved sectional view
1) First angle projection (Ref: FAA 9A - 42)
2) Third angle projection 23. Counter-bored holes are indicated by
3) Oblique projection 1) Diameters and depth
Ref: CAIP Part I – page 9 2) Diameter and angle of inclination
14. This symbol indicates 3) Depth and angle of inclination
1) First angle projection (Ref: FAA 9A - 43)
2) Third angle projection 24. Which type of allowance is given for force fit?
3) Oblique projection 1) Positive allowance
Ref: CAIP Part I – page 9 2) Negative allowance
15. Notes on the drawing are used to indicate 3) Both positive and negative allowance
1) Method of attachment of parts (Ref: FAA 9A - 43)
2) Modification 25. Alternate position of a part of the object or
3) Both are correct relative position of missing part is indicated by
(Ref: FAA 9A - 38) 1) Leader line
16. Fuselage frame Station number 185 indicates 2) Phantom line
the location of frame is 3) Hidden line
1) 185 inches aft from datum (Ref: FAA 9A - 45)
2) 185 inches ahead of datum 26. Location of individual component in the aircraft
3) 185 m ahead of datum is indicated by
(Ref: FAA 9A - 38) 1) Installation drawing
17. Surface that must be machine finished is 2) Schematic drawing
indicated by 3) Detailed drawing
1) Tolerance (Ref: FAA 9A - 46)
2) Finish mark
3) Notes
(Ref: FAA 9A - 38) Fits and clearance

27. In interference fit

18. In figure 0.224 + 0.0025, tolerance is
 1) Upper limit of shaft is greater than upper 2) Follow the same standards as ISO system
limit of hole 3) Classified the hole in two types: class A and
2) Lower limit of shaft is greater than lower B
limit of hole (Ref: ATB module 07A/6.3) (Level –II)
3) Both ‘1’ & ‘2’ are correct 36. Newall system of fit and clearance, class of fit P
(Ref: ATB module 07A/6.3) (Level –II) indicates
28. In transition fit 1) Transition fit in hole
1) Shaft moves easily in the hole 2) Transition fit on shaft
2) Only light effort is required to insert the shaft 3) Interference fit on shaft
into hole (Ref: ATB module 07A/6.3) (Level –II)
3) Force is necessary to drive the shaft into 37. The system in which the size of the hole is kept
hole. constant and shaft sizes are varied to obtain
(Ref: ATB module 07A/6.3) (Level –II) various types of fits
29. In clearance fit 1) Basic hole system
1) Minimum diameter of hole is greater than 2) Basic shaft system
larger diameter of the shaft 3) Both ‘1’ and ‘2’ are correct
2) Minimum diameter of shaft is greater than (Ref: ATB module 07A/6.5) (Level –II)
larger diameter of the hole 38. When many parts will fit on a same standard
3) Clearance value is negative shaft, which system is used?
(Ref: ATB module 07A/6.3) (Level –II) 1) Basic hole system
30. Positive difference between the sizes of the 2) Basic shaft system
hole and the shaft, before assembly, is called 3) Newall System
1) Clearance (Ref: ATB module 07A/6.5) (Level –II)
2) Tolerance 39. The difference between the high limit of shaft
3) Interference and lower limit of shaft is called
(Ref: ATB module 07A/6.3) (Level –II) 1) Allowance
31. Zone between the maximum and minimum limit 2) Tolerance
size of same part is called 3) Interference
1) Allowance (Ref: ATB module 07A/6.6) (Level –II)
2) Clearance 40. A dimension of 2.5 + 0.05 is the example of
3) Tolerance zone 1) Clearance
(Ref: PPT) (Level –II) 2) Bilateral tolerance
32. British Standards System provides 3) Unilateral tolerance
1) 28 types of hole and shaft with 20 grades of (Ref: ATB module 07A/6.6) (Level –II)
accuracy 41. Which types of fault is associated to hole
2) 21 types of hole and shaft with 16 grades of 1) Ovality
accuracy 2) Bow
3) Only two types of holes i. e. Class A and B 3) Twist
(Ref: ATB module 07A/6.2) (Level –II) (Ref: ATB module 07A/6.7) (Level –II)
33. ISO 286 provides 42. The size to which a parts may wear before it
1) 28 types of hole and shaft with 20 grades of must be rejected as unserviceable
accuracy 1) Dimension New
2) 21 types of hole and shaft with 16 grades of 2) Permissible Worn Dimension
accuracy 3) Permissible Worn Clearance
3) Only two types of holes i. e. Class A and B (Ref: ATB module 07A/6.7) (Level –II)
(Ref: ATB module 07A/6.2) (Level –II) 43. Testing of roundness of the shaft may be
34. According to American National Standards achieved by
Institute (ANSI) symbol RCx indicates 1) Taking numerous measurements of
1) Running and sliding fit diameter at different points round the
2) Force and shrink fit circumference
3) Clearance Locational fit 2) Placing the shaft to be checked on a block
(Ref: ATB module 07A/6.2) (Level –II) and rotating it under a scribing block or dial
35. American National Standards Institute (ANSI) indicator
for metric fits and clearance uses 3) Placing the shaft in V-block or between the
1) Symbols like RCx, FNx for different types of centers and rotating it under a dial indicator
fit (Ref: ATB module 07A/6.7) (Level –II)
44. Testing of concentricity of the shaft may be 3) Low current path
achieved by Ref: ATB 7 – 7.4
1) Taking numerous measurements of 24. Impedance of bonding or grounding wires
diameter at different points round the 1) Should not exceed 0.003 Ω
circumference 2) Should be at least 0.003 Ω
2) Placing the shaft to be checked on a block 3) Should not exceed 0.005 Ω
and rotating it under a scribing block or dial Ref: FAA 15A – 455
indicator 25. A bonding jumper should be
3) Placing the shaft in V-block or between the 1) As short as possible and do not interfere
centers and rotating it under a dial indicator with moving parts
(Ref: ATB module 07A/6.8) (Level –II) 2) Connected with the help of soldering
45. Amount of bow of a shaft is checked by using 3) Higher terminal resistance
1) By using straight edge and set of feeler Ref: ATB module 7A – 7.4
gauge 26. The process of removal of wires insulator
2) By mounting the circular shaft on V-block covering to expose the bare conductor is called
and locating the mark of twist in horizontal 1) Wire stripping
position 2) Wire crimping
3) Placing the square shaft on a surface table 3) Swaging
using a dial indicator mounted on a surface Ref: FAA 15A – 447
gauge 27. Each wire stripper is having multiple slots
(Ref: ATB module 07A/6.8) (Level –II) 1) To strip many wires simultaneously
46. Amount of twist of a circular shaft is checked 2) To strip wires of different gauges
1) By using straight edge and set of feeler 3) Both ‘1’ & ‘2’ are correct
gauge Ref:
2) By mounting the shaft on V-block and 28. Terminal strip which is used in radio and
locating the mark of twist in horizontal electronic system should be inspected for
position 1) Loose connection & any metallic objects
3) Placing the shaft on a surface table using a across the terminal strip
dial indicator mounted on a surface gauge 2) Dirt and grease accumulation
(Ref: ATB module 07A/6.8) (Level –II) 3) Both ‘1’ & ‘2’ are correct
Ref: ATB module 7A – 7.7
EWIS 29. If the crimp is too deep
1) It may break or cut the individual strand.
20. What are the two fundamental properties of an 2) Crimp may not retain the wire in terminal.
insulator 3) It is also susceptible to high resistance
1) Insulation resistance and dielectric strength
2) Insulation resistance and surface finish 30. A good crimp
3) Dielectric strength and its thickness 1) Must be strong
Ref: FAA 15A - 439 2) Should have low resistance
21. Maximum dielectric strength of insulator may be 3) Both ‘1’ & ‘2’ are correct
checked Ref: ATB module 7A – 7.8
1) By raising the voltage of test sample until 31. Radio frequency connectors
the test sample breaks down 1) Change the impedance of transmission line
2) Megger 2) Allow external signals into circuit
3) Both ‘1’ & ‘2’ 3) Prevent leakage of energy out of the circuit
Ref: FAA 15A - 439 Ref: ATB module 7A – 7.17
22. The process of electrically connecting 32. Where very large number of circuits are
conducting objects to either a conductive accommodated in single mated pair
structure or conducting return path 1) Rectangular connector is used
1) Bonding 2) Round cannon connector is used
2) Earthing 3) Modular block type connector is used
3) Both ‘1’ & ‘2’ are correct Ref: ATB module 7A – 7.12
Ref: FAA 15A - 439 33. Firewall connectors are
23. Electrical bonding has 1) Able to prevent the penetration of fire
1) Low impedance path through the connector opening
2) High impedance path
 2) Continue to function without failure for a Ref: FAA 15A – 433
specific time when exposed to fire 43. A heavy conductor has
3) Both ‘1’ & ‘2’ are correct 1) Larger resistance
34. Plastic insertion tool of contact size 20 is colour 2) Higher heating loss
coded 3) Expansive
1) Red Ref: FAA 15A – 435
2) Blue 44. Two most generally used conductors are
3) Yellow 1) Silver and Copper
Ref: ATB module 7A – 7.12 2) Copper and Aluminum
35. In coaxial cable, testing done with an ohmmeter 3) Aluminum and Silver
1) Before installation of end terminals to check Ref: FAA 15A – 435
cable 45. Maximum voltage drop in power cable should
2) After installation to check the integrity of the not exceed
entire cable assembly 1) 5 % of regulated voltage
3) Both ‘1’ & ‘2’ are correct 2) 2 % of regulated voltage
Ref: ATB module 7A – 7.15 3) 10 % of regulated voltage
36. Identification marking of wire less than 3 inch Ref: FAA 15A – 436
should be placed 46. To easily inspect the wire bundles is provided
1) At each end of wire by
2) At center 1) Splices
3) Should not be marked 2) Twisted wires
Ref: ATB module 7A – 7.17 3) Both are correct
37. Identification marking of wire 3 to 7 inch should Ref: FAA 15A – 441
be placed 47. Wires should be protected against chaffing or
1) At each end of wire abrasion in location
2) At center 1) Contact with sharp object is observed
3) Should not be marked 2) In the vicinity of battery
Ref: ATB module 7A – 7.17 3) In the vicinity of solvent and fluids
38. Minimum bend radii where the wire is suitably Ref: FAA 15A – 44
supported 48. Wires can be protected from solvent or fluid
1) Not less than 10 time the outside diameter 1) By using plastic tubing
2) Not less than 6 time the outside diameter 2) By running wires parallel to fluid line
3) Not less than 3 time the outside diameter 3) By running wires below the fluid lines
Ref: FAA 15A - 440 Ref: FAA 15A – 442
39. In high temperature application wire 49. Which type of splice is preferred in wire
identification code is printed bundles?
1) Directly on wire insulation 1) Self insulated type
2) On silicon fiberglass sleeving 2) Non insulating type
3) On vinyl sleeving 3) Soldered splice
Ref: FAA 15A - 440 Ref: FAA 15A – 448
40. Which type of flexible conduits should be used 50. Completion of crimping by hydraulic crimping
if it is necessary to minimize radio interference? tool is indicated by
1) Flexible brass conduits 1) Sudden decrease of effort
2) Flexible aluminum conduits 2) A click sound
3) Rigid steel conduits 3) Automatic anti-clockwise rotation of handle
Ref: FAA 15A – 440 Ref: ATB module 7A – 7.8
41. Which among following is the largest wire size? 51. Crimping made with the tool can be checked by
1) 0000 using
2) 0036 1) Go/not go gauges
3) 0040 2) Wire gauge
Ref: FAA 15A – 433 3) Ammeter
42. In wire gauge size of the wire is measured by Ref: ATB module 7A – 7.9
placing the wire between 52. In composite type pin removal and insertion tool
1) Flat parallel sides colour of extractor is
2) Semicircular opening 1) Always red
3) Both are used 2) Always white
 3) Depends upon size of wires
c) inch
Ref: ATB module 7A – 7.12
53. How many spare contacts should be provided Ref: ATB module 7A Page 8.3
in case of more than 100 contacts? 8. In rivet specification, MS20 426 AD 5 – 8 , 426
1) 2 spare contact indicates
2) 4 spare contact a) Countersunk rivet
3) 6 spare contact b) Universal head
Ref: ATB module 7A – 7.12 c) Material
54. When the ohmmeter probes are touched to the Ref: ATB module 7A Page 8.3
inner conductor, indicates 9. Total thickness of material to be joined by
1) Zero resistance riveting is
2) Infinite resistance a) Rivet length
3) Approx 5 ohm b) Grip length
Ref: ATB module 7A – 7.15 c) Shank length
Ref: ATB module 7A Page 8.4
10. Amount of rivet shank needed to form a proper
Riveting shop head
a) One and half times the diameter
1. Rivet provide b) Two times the diameter
a) Tensile strength c) Two and half times the diameter
b) Compression strength Ref: ATB module 7A Page 8.4
c) Shear strength 11. For structural application rivet may be replaced
Ref: ATB module 7A Page 8.2 by the rivet made of
2. Riveted joints are a) Lower strength material with same diameter
a) Airtight b) Lower strength material with larger diameter
b) Watertight c) Lowe strength material with smaller
c) Neither airtight nor watertight diameter
Ref: ATB module 7A Page 8.2 Ref: ATB module 7A Page 8.4
3. Rivet is placed into a hole 12. Which material rivet is use for general repair
a) Just a bit larger than rivet diameter work?
b) Just a bit smaller than rivet diameter a) 2024 – T4
c) Same as rivet diameter b) 2117 – T
Ref: ATB module 7A Page 8.2 c) 2017 – T4
4. The types of rivet used where smooth Ref: ATB module 7A Page 8.4
aerodynamic surface is required 13. The amount of force required to cut a rivet that
a) Brazier head rivet holds two or more sheets together
b) Universal head rivet a) Tensile strength
c) Countersunk rivet b) Compression strength
Ref: ATB module 7A Page 8.2 c) Shear strength
5. Which rivet is called ice box” rivet”? Ref: ATB module 7A Page 8.4
a) AD rivet 14. What two stresses are applied on rivets?
b) DD rivet a) Tensile and compression
c) E - Type rivet b) Tensile and shear
Ref: ATB module 7A Page 8.3 c) Compression and shear
6. If an excessive small rivet diameter is used for Ref: ATB module 7A Page 8.4
thick material 15. Minimum edge distance for universal head rivet
a) Shear strength of rivet will be insufficient should be
b) Bulging of rivet head takes place a) 2 times the diameter
c) Tensile strength will be insufficient b) 3 times the diameter
Ref: ATB module 7A Page 8.3 c) 4 times the diameter
7. For joining the 0.040 inch thickness skin Ref: ATB module 7A Page 8.6
diameter of rivet should be 16. Minimum edge distance for countersunk rivet
should be
a) inch a) 2 times the diameter
b) 3 times the diameter
b) inch c) 2 and half times the diameter
 Ref: ATB module 7A Page 8.6 c)
17. The distance between the centers of
neighboring rivets in the same row is
a) Rivet pitch Ref: ATB module 7A Page 8.15
b) Transverse pitch Option B is correct
c) Grip length
Ref: ATB module 7A Page 8.6
18. Perpendicular distance between rivet rows is
a) Rivet pitch
b) Transverse pitch Pipes and Hoses
c) Grip length
Ref: ATB module 7A Page 8.6 1. Outside diameter of rigid tube measured in
19. Which dimpling method is used when regular a) 1/16 of an inch
male die is not available? b) 1/8 of an inch
a) Coin dimpling c) 1/1000 of an inch
b) Hot dimpling Ref: ATB module 7 - 9.2
c) Radius dimpling 2. Wall thickness of rigid tube measured in
Ref: ATB module 7A Page 8.14 a) 1/16 of an inch
20. Which dimpling method used rotating male die b) 1/8 of an inch
a) Hot dimpling c) 1/1000 of an inch
b) Spin dimpling Ref: ATB module 7 - 9.2
c) Coin dimpling 3. A new pieces of tubing should be cut
Ref: CAIP part I Page 529 approximately
21. Which dimpling method used heated dimpling a) 10 % shorter
die b) 10 % longer
a) Hot dimpling c) Size equal to the required
b) Spin dimpling Ref: ATB module 7 - 9.2
c) Coin dimpling 4. Too much pressure on tube by tube cutter
Ref: ATB module 7A Page 8.14 causes
22. Which dimpling method is used on material like a) Excessive burring
magnesium and titanium alloy? b) Deformation of tube
a) Hot dimpling c) Both ‘a’ & ‘b’ are correct
b) Cold dimpling Ref: ATB module 7 - 9.2
c) Coin dimpling 5. To make the end square and smooth
Ref: ATB module 7A Page 8.14 a) De-burring tool is used
23. To use a countersunk rivet hole on excessive b) Fine tooth file is used
thinner material should be c) Coarse tooth file is used
a) Countersunk Ref: ATB module 7 - 9.2
b) Dimpled 6. In absence of tube cutter, tube can be cut by
c) Both are correct hacksaw of
Ref: ATB module 7A Page 8.14 a) 24 TPI
24. Which tool is used to cut the countersunk rivet b) 28 TPI
to within 0.002 inch without damaging the c) 32 TPI
surrounding material? Ref: ATB module 7 - 9.2
a) Rivet gun 7. Tubing under ¼ “ dia. can be bend
b) Micro shavers a) Without the use of bending tool
c) Rivet header b) With portable hand bender
Ref: ATB module 7A Page 8.11 c) Production bender
25. Which countersinking is preferred among Ref: ATB module 7 - 9.2
following? 8. Trying to bend thin walled tubing without hand
a) bender can cause
a) Kinking
b) Flattening
b) c) Wrinkling
Ref: ATB module 7 - 9.2
9. Small diameter of the flattened portion
 a) Must be minimum 50 % of the outside dia.
b) Must be minimum 75 % of the outside dia. 20. Following diagram indicates
c) Must be minimum 90 % of the outside dia.
Ref: ATB module 7 - 9.2
10. An ordinary production tube bender can bend
the tube ranging from
a) ¼” to 1-1/2” O.D. a) Single flaring
b) 1/8” to 1/2” O.D b) Double flaring
c) 1/8” to 1-1/2” O.D c) Beading
Ref: ATB module 7 - 9.2 21. Following diagram indicates
11. If a flare made too small, it
a) Produces a weak joint
b) Prevents leakage
c) Interferes with the screw thread on fitting
Ref: ATB module 7 - 9.2
12. A flared joint may leak if
a) Too small flare a) Single flaring
b) Too large flare b) Double flaring
c) Both ‘a’ & ‘b’ are correct c) Beading
Ref: ATB module 7 - 9.2 22. Which type of tube bending fault is indicated by
13. In aircraft preferred flaring angle is following diagram?
a) 37 degree
b) 45 degree
c) 25 degree
Ref: ATB module 7 - 9.2
14. Double flaring tube
a) Less resistant to the shearing effect a) Flattening
b) Seals better than single flare b) Kinking
c) Used in low pressure application c) Wrinkling
Ref: ATB module 7 - 9.2 23. In beading process size of the roller should
15. Rolling type flaring tools is used to flare matched with
a) Aluminum or brass a) Outside diameter of tube
b) Corrosion resistance Steel b) Inside diameter of tube
c) Titanium c) Thickness of tube wall
Ref: ATB module 7 - 9.2 24. In rigid tubing installation
16. Double flaring is used on a) Apply compound to the faces of fittings or
a) Aluminum alloy tubing upto 3/8” dia flare
b) Aluminum alloy tubing more than 3/8 “ dia b) Line assembly should be perfectly aligned
c) CRS tubing c) Pull the installation into place with torque on
Ref: ATB module 7 - 9.2 the nut
17. When a rigid tube is to be attach with hose, 25. Which one is correct method to install flared
tube may be tube assembly
a) Single flared a)
b) Double flared
c) Beaded
Ref: ATB module 7 - 9.2
18. Tube having ¼” to 1” diameter is beaded by b)
a) Hand beading tool
b) Beading machine
c) Grip and die
Ref: ATB module 7 - 9.2 c)
19. Small tubing are beaded by
a) Hand beading tool
b) Beading machine
c) Grip and die 26. While installing a rigid tube with insufficient
Ref: ATB module 7 - 9.2 torque
a) May damage or cut-off the tube flaring
 b) May ruin the sleeve or fitting nut 37. Too sharp bend in flexible hose assembly is
c) May leak under system pressure removed by using
27. In flare less tube installation nut is tightened d) Elbow nut
maximum e) Swivel nut
a) One sixth tern f) Adequate slack
b) One third turn 38. Lay line in spiral form on flexible hose assembly
c) One half turn indicates
28. Scratches or nicks which may be repaired by a) Too sharp bend
burnishing with hand tools b) Excessive tension
a) Scratches deeper than 5 % c) Twisted hose assembly
b) Scratches not deeper than 10 % 39. To provide change in length under applied
c) Scratches in the heel of bend pressure flexible hose should be provided with
29. Rigid tube lines with severe die marks, seams a) At least 5 to 8 % slack
or splits b) At least 10 % slack
a) Repaired by hand tool c) At most 5 % slack
b) Repaired by using bullet 40. A flexible hose must be supported atleast
c) Should be replaced a) Every 20 inch
30. If the damaged portion in rigid tube line is short b) Every 24 inch
enough, it should be repaired by c) Every 12 Inch
a) Using one union 41. Types of clamp used in the area subjected to
b) Cutting out a damaged section and inserting vibration
a tube of same size a) Plain clamp
c) Cutting out a damaged section and inserting b) Rubber cushioned type clamp
a tube of next larger size c) Teflon cushioned type clamp
31. In case of flexible fluid connection assembly 42. Types of clamp used in the area subjected to
maximum angular deviation allowed is deteriorating effect of hydraulic fluid or skydrol
a) 2 degree a) Plain clamp
b) 3 degree b) Rubber cushioned type clamp
c) Not allowed c) Teflon cushioned type clamp
32. In case of flexible fluid connection assembly 43. Maximum distance between the support of fluid
maximum offset in axis are allowed lines increases with
a) 1/8 inch a) Increase in tube diameter
b) 1/16 inch b) Decrease n tube diameter
c) 1/18 inch c) Remains same irrespective of tube diameter
33. In case of failure in flexible hose equipped with 44. Operating temperature of multiple wire braid
swaged fittings rubber covered hose assembly is
a) Entire assembly must be replaced a) -650F to +2500F
b) Only swaged fitting should be replaced by b) -650F to +2500F
fabrication c) -400F to +2750F -65°to +200°F
c) Swaged fitting must be repaired 45. In following diagram (identification marking on
34. Dash number stenciled along the length of hose) 4/90 indicates
flexible hose indicates
a) Outside diameter of hose
b) Inside diameter of hose
c) Size of tubing with which hose is compatible a) It is manufactured in April 1990
35. Flexible hose before installation should be b) It is manufactured in Oct to Dec 1990
checked to c) Outside diameter and thickness of hose
a) Atleast 1.5 times the system pressure 46. Flexible hose when pressurized
b) Atleast 2 times the system pressure a) Contract in length and expand in diameter
c) Equal to the system pressure b) Contracts in diameter and expand in length
36. Twisting stress in flexible hose assembly is c) Expands both in length and diameter
removed by using 47. Hose with too sharp bend near the fitting
a) Elbow nut a) Hose may rupture
b) Swivel nut b) Attaching nut may be loose
c) Appropriate bend radii c) Bursting pressure of hose may reduce
48. For retightening the non self sealing hose
 a) Do not disturb until the leakage is evident b) Either static length measurement or
b) Tighten with finger only load/deflection check
c) Tighten with finger and add one fourth turn c) Load/deflection check
49. In case of longitudinal cracks in tubing and (Ref: ATB module 7 - 10/2) (Level 2)
crack length more than 0.30” in length 62. In static length measurement of coil spring
a) Replace damaged section with union nut a) Length of spring in unloaded condition is
b) Replace damaged section with duplicate measured
length of tubing b) Length of spring in loaded condition is
c) Replace complete assembly measured
50. Metal hydraulic line, fuel or oil lines is secured c) As in ‘b’ & compared with graph published
by using by manufacturer of spring
a) Bonded clamps (Ref: ATB module 7 - 10/2) (Level 2)
b) Un-bonded clamps 63. In load/ deflection test of coil spring
c) Both ‘a’ & ‘b’ can be used a) Spring is checked for tension and
compression load
b) Spring is checked for torsional load
Spring c) Both ‘a’ & ‘b’ are correct
(Ref: ATB module 7 - 10/2) (Level 2)
55. Corrosion in spring 64. A series of loads are applied to the spring and
a) Occurs mainly in static spring the relevant deflections noted in graphical or
b) As in ‘a’ & capacity of spring to withstand tabular format
load is increased a) Static deflection check
c) As in ‘b’ & spring may lose temper b) Load/deflection check
(Ref: ATB module 7 - 10/2) (Level 2) c) Visual inspection
56. Loss of fatigue strength in spring may occur de (Ref: ATB module 7 - 10/2) (Level 1)
to
a) Corrosion
b) Overheating Bearing
c) Corrosion in spring carrying cyclic load
1. Mark the correct statement regarding cleaning
(Ref: ATB module 7 - 10/2) (Level 2)
of wheel well bearing
57. Overheating of spring
a) Bearing should be removed from the wheel
a) Occurs mainly in static spring
before cleaning
b) As in ‘a’ & capacity of spring to withstand
b) Bearing should be soaked in petrol
load is increased
c) It should be cleaned with hard bristle brush
c) Spring may lose temper
to remove dry stain of grease
(Ref: ATB module 7 - 10/2) (Level 2)
Ref:
58. Overheating of spring may be evident as
2. After cleaning of wheel well bearing it should be
a) Blistering
dried with
b) Change in colour
a) Steam
c) Both ‘a’ & ‘b’ are correct
b) In sunlight
(Ref: ATB module 7 - 10/2) (Level 2)
c) Compressed air
59. If overheating of spring is detected
Ref:
a) It must be repaired
3. While drying of wheel after cleaning
b) It must be replaced
a) Bearing should be rotated
c) It surface should be coated with heat
b) Bearing should not be rotated
resistance coating
c) As in ‘b’ & it can cause injury in case of
(Ref: ATB module 7 - 10/2) (Level 2)
broken parts
60. Which type of check should be done on coil
Ref:
spring
4. Galling of bearing is caused due to
a) Static length measurement
a) Corrosion
b) Load/Deflection check
b) Friction between mating parts
c) Both ‘a’ & ‘b’ are correct
c) Shear stress below the load carrying
(Ref: ATB module 7 - 10/2) (Level 2)
surfaces
61. Coil spring should be replaced if it fails
Ref:
a) Both static length measurement and
5. Spalling of bearing is caused due to
load/deflection check
a) Corrosion
 b) Friction between mating parts b) As in ‘a’ & Localized burns on raceway or
c) Shear stress below the load carrying rolling element
surfaces c) As in ‘b’ & Dark brown or grey black fluting
Ref: on raceway and rollers
6. Brinelling of bearing is caused due to Ref:
a) Static overload 15. Mark the correct statement regarding damage
b) As in ‘a’ & severe impact in bearing caused by electric current
c) As in ‘b’ & use of hammer to install the a) Rotating bearing is less prone to damage
bearing b) Non rotating bearing is less prone to
Ref: damage
7. False Brinelling of bearing is caused due to c) Both are equally prone to damage
a) Vibration of bearing in static state 16. Bearing should be stored
b) As in ‘a’ & oxidation of sub-microscopic a) Wrapped in grease proof paper
particles due to absence of lubricant b) Coated with rust preventing inhibiting oil
between metal to metal contact which c) Both ‘a’ & ‘b’ are correct
spread the damage 17. Bearing should be stored
c) As in ‘b’ & Shear stress below the load a) Horizontally
carrying surfaces b) Vertically
Ref: c) Inclined
8. The original surface texture remain in the
depression in case of
a) True Brinelling Transmission
b) False Brinelling
c) Overheating 1. A transmission is a mechanism to transfer
Ref: a) Power
9. In case of galling in bearing b) Force
a) Mating parts may get welded c) Only electrical power
b) As in ‘a’ & if continued in service metals are Ref: ATB module 7A – 12.2
pulled apart in direction of motion 2. Which mechanism is used to drive the
c) As in ‘b’ & bearing capacity is reduced alternator or vacuum pump in many piston
Ref: engine aircraft power-plants
10. Overheating of bearing is caused by a) Gear mechanism
a) Static overload b) Belts and pulley
b) Insufficient lubrication c) Chain and sprocket
c) Use of hammer to install it Ref: ATB module 7A – 12.3
Ref: 3. Correct gear backlash should be checked by
11. Indentation in bearing cup raceway of bearing is a) Backlash flag and Micrometer
indication of b) Backlash flag and Vernier caliper
a) Galling c) Backlash flag and dial indicator
b) Flaking Ref: ATB module 7A – 12.2
c) Brinelling 4. A gear mechanism with no lash
Ref: a) Gear will not be properly lubricated
12. For the installation of bearing cup b) Load will be transmitted to small portion of
a) Wheel is heated and cup is cooled tooth
b) Only bearing cup is heated c) Tooth will receive proper lubrication and
c) Both wheel and bearing cup is heated loading
Ref: Ref: ATB module 7A – 12.2
13. Contamination in bearing may be caused by 5. A gear mechanism with too large lash indicates
a) Poor handling procedure a) Improper lubrication
b) As in ‘a’ & Dirty hands or tools b) Tooth will break
c) As in ‘b’ & Foreign material in the lubricant c) Adequate lubrication
or cleaning fluid Ref: ATB module 7A – 12.2
Ref: 6. A typical gear lash should range between
14. Damage in bearing due to accidental current a) 0.003 to 0.004 lash
flow through the bearing ay appear as b) 0.03 to 0.04 lash
a) Dark discoloration on ball or rollers c) 0.003 to 0.007 lash
Ref: ATB module 7A – 12.2
7. The contact area of one gear to another a) Chain and sprocket system
meshing gear is called b) Jackscrew
a) Lash c) Lever and pulley
b) Pattern Ref: ATB module 7A – 12.3
c) Pitch 17. Primary maintenance concern with jackscrew
Ref: ATB module 7A – 12.2 are
8. In case of following gear arrangement a) Cleaning and Lubrication
b) Backlash and ball nut wear check
c) Both ‘a’ & ‘b’ are correct
a) The teeth will break Ref: ATB module 7A – 12.3
b) Teeth will not be lubricated 18. Primary maintenance concern with lever
c) Teeth will be lubricated properly mechanism are
Ref: ATB module 7A – 12.2 a) Lubrication if they are sealed-for-life
9. If pulley is not aligned properly bearings
a) Belts moves with vibration and cause b) Physical checks for damage, distortion and
excessive wear cracks
b) Pulley may crack c) Both ‘a’ & ‘b’ are correct
c) Belts may lose tension Ref: ATB module 7A – 12.3
Ref: ATB module 7A – 12.3 19. Push pull system is mainly inspected for
10. Belts and pulley tension may be checked by a) Correct alignment
a) Pushing on the belt on the area of contact b) Elongation
with pulley c) Kinks and twist
b) Pushing on the belt in an unsupported Ref: ATB module 7A – 12.4
location 20. A lever mechanism is used for
c) Belt length measurement a) Mechanical advantage
Ref: ATB module 7A – 12.3 b) Change in direction of force
11. In chain and sprocket type transmission c) Both ‘a’ & ‘b’ are correct
system, chain should be replaced if, Ref: ATB module 7A – 12.3
a) Inadequate lubrication
b) Chain s not cleaned Control Cable
c) Chain is elongated beyond limit
Ref: ATB module 7A – 12.2 21. Which type of control cable terminals is
12. The chain is cleaned by emerging them in preferred for modern civil aircraft?
a) Clean water 1) Hand woven 5 tuck splice
b) Paraffin 2) Hand woven 7 tuck splice
c) Petrol 3) Swage-type terminal
Ref: CAIP Part II page 7 Ref: ATB module 7A Page 13.2
13. Elongation of chain type transmission system 22. When swaging terminal onto cable end
should be replaced if elongation is 1) Solder the cable end to prevent faying
a) More than 2 % 2) Apply preservatives to the cable end before
b) More than 3 % insertion into terminal barrel
c) More than 5 % 3) Avoid bending of cable
Ref: CAIP Part II page 7 Ref: ATB module 7A Page 13.2
14. Kink and twist of chain is checked by 23. After swaging, terminal shank diameter is
a) Suspending it freely and sighting along the checked by
length 1) Go and Not Go gauge
b) Articulating each link through 180 degree 2) Micrometer
c) Cleaning or tapping with hammer 3) Both are correct
Ref: CAIP Part II page 7 Ref: ATB module 7A Page 13.2
15. Tight joint in chain may be corrected by 24. After swaging, terminal is checked for
a) Suspending it freely and sighting along the 1) Die mark and splits
length 2) Cable slippage in the terminal
b) Articulating each link through 180 degree 3) Both are correct
c) Cleaning or tapping with hammer Ref: ATB module 7A Page 13.2
Ref: CAIP Part II page 8 25. After swaging cable is tested by proof loading to
16. Stabilizer and flaps are generally driven by 1) 60% of its rated breaking strength
2) 150 % of its rated breaking strength
 3) Its rated breaking strength b) 1/8 inch
Ref: ATB module 7A Page 13.2 c) ½ inch
26. Cable tension is checked by using Ref: FAA 15A 128
1) Tensiometer 3. Damage which does not affect the integrity of
2) Terminal gauge structural member comes under
3) Go and not go gauge 1) Negligible damage
Ref: ATB module 7A Page 13.8 2) Damage repairable by patching
27. Break lever on the control column uses 3) Damage repairable by insertion
1) Bowden cable Ref: FAA 15A 129
2) Teleflex cable 4. Bending stress is combination of
3) Nicopress cable 1) Searing and tensile stress
Ref: ATB module 7A Page 13.2 2) Shearing and compression stress
28. Throttle lever to an engine control system is 3) Tensile and compression stress
operated by Ref: FAA 15A 133
1) Bowden cable 5. Occurrence of shallow spherical depression in a
2) Teleflex cable surface is called
3) Nicopress cable 1) Brinelling
Ref: ATB module 7A Page 13.2 2) Burrs
29. Deflection of cable at fair-leads should not be 3) Dent
greater than Ref: FAA 15A 130
1) 30 6. In sheet metal bumping, metal is supported by
2) 50 1) Dolly or die
3) 100 2) Sandbag
Ref: ATB module 7A Page 13.2 3) Dolly, sandbag or die
30. Improper unreeling and uncoiling of cable wire Ref: FAA 15A 145
causes 7. Turning down a flange on a seam is called
1) Strands or wire become out of position 1) Bumping
2) Unequal tension and excessive wear 2) Crimping
3) Both are correct 3) Stretching
Ref: ATB module 7A Page 13.6 Ref: FAA 15A 145
31. Broken wire strand of cable may be inspected 8. Piece of metal on the inside of the bend get
by 1) Stretched
1) Visual inspection and Magnifying glass 2) Compressed
2) Passing a cloth over the area to snag on 3) Corrugated
broken wire Ref: FAA 15A 145
3) Both are correct 9. Minimum bend radius of sheet metal depends
Ref: ATB module 7A Page 13.6 upon
32. If corrosion is present on cable exterior but not 1) Material and its thickness
present in the interior 2) Temper condition & thickness
1) Cable must be replaced 3) Material, thickness & temper condition
2) Loose rust must be replaced with fibre Ref: FAA 15A 146
brush 10. In bending of sheet metal, space or line which
3) Loose rust must be replaced with metallic does not affected by compression or stretch
wool or solvent 1) Sight line
Ref: ATB module 7A Page 13.7 2) Mold line
3) Neutral axis
Sheet metal & Composites Ref: FAA 15A 130
11. Length of the material required for the bend is
1. Crossectional area of patch plate in sheet metal called
repair must be 1) Bend allowance
1) Less than original 2) Setback
2) Equal to original 3) Bend radius
3) Equal or more than original Ref: FAA 15A 146
Ref: FAA 15A 127 12. The distance between bend tangent line and
2. Which size of rivet should be used to repair mold point is called
0.040 – in thicker skin? 1) Bend allowance
a) ¼ inch
 2) Setback (Ref: ATB module 7- 14.35)
3) Base measurement 22. Method used for quick evaluation of de-
Ref: FAA 15A 148 lamination or de-bonding of composite
13. Setback is calculated by formula 1) Tap test/coin test
( ) 2) Acoustic emission test
a) 3) Radiography test
(Ref: ATB module 7- 14.35)
b) (0.01743𝑅 + 0.0078𝑇) 𝑋 𝑁 23. Tap test is used to find defect of composite upto
1) 0.8” thickness
c) 𝐾(𝑅 + 𝑇) 2) 0.08” thickness
Ref: FAA 15A 148 3) 0.008” thickness
14. When amount of bend is more than 90 degree (Ref: ATB module 7- 14.36)
1) Closed bend 24. Electrical conductivity of repaired composite
2) Open bend structure is checked by
3) Wide bend 1) Ohmmeter
Ref: FAA 15A 151 2) Bonding tester
15. “K” no. for 90 degree bend is 3) Voltmeter
1) Always 1 (Ref: ATB module 7- 14.36)
2) Selected from K – chart 25. Vacuum bagging is used on composite repair to
3) Less than 1 1) Remove air tapped and excess resin
Ref: FAA 15A 151 2) Maintain the contour of repair
16. Holes cut in the rib section to decrease weight 3) Both are correct
is called (Ref: Advanced composite 7 -1)
1) Relief hole 26. A nylon fabric used during vacuum bagging to
2) Lightening hole facilitate the removal of excess resin
3) Both are correct 1) Clecos
Ref: FAA 15A 154 2) Spring clams
17. Holes cut at the intersection of two bends is 3) Peel ply
called (Ref: Advanced composite 7 -2)
1) Relief hole 27. In vacuum bagging process, a thermocouple is
2) Lightening hole used to
3) Both are correct 1) Regulate the temperature of part during
Ref: FAA 15A 153 curing
18. Diameter of relief hole for upto 0.064” thick Al 2) Monitor the temperature of part during
alloy is curing
1) Should not be less than 1/8 inch 3) To increase the adhesion of repair work
2) Should be less than ¼ inch (Ref: Advanced composite 7 -1)
3) Should not be less than 3/16 inch 28. If the aircraft part has metal hardware which
Ref: FAA 15A method of curing is best suited?
19. The offset formed on a part to allow clearance 1) Oven curing
for a sheet or another mating part is called 2) Autoclave
1) Bump 3) Heat gun
2) Joggle (Ref: Advanced composite 8 -9)
3) Stretching 29. Most common method for curing in composite
Ref: FAA 15A repair is
20. Presence of chipped or cracked point near 1) Heat blanket
screw head indicates 2) Autoclave
1) Loose rivet 3) Heal gun
2) Rivet shear failure (Ref: Advanced composite 8 - 8)
3) Fretting corrosion 30. A C-scan imaging does not show the
Ref: ATB 1) Shape and size of the defect
21. During repair of composite structure, highest 2) Location of defect
quality bond is produced by repair at 3) Depth of defect
1) Room temperature (Ref: Advanced composite 11 - 7)
2) Elevated temperature 31. Flaws caused by temperature variation of
3) Cold environment composite is diagnosed by
 1) Visual inspection 5. Acetylene gas is generally stored in cylinder at
2) Thermography pressure
3) Radiography a) 250 psi
(Ref: Advanced composite 11 - 8) b) 15 psi
32. Which defect can be diagnosed by visual c) 1800 psi
inspection Ref: FAA 15A/ 248
1) Surface crack and de-lamination 6. Oxygen gas is generally stored in cylinder at
2) Internal damage pressure
3) Impact damage a) 250 psi
(Ref: Advanced composite 11 - 8) b) 15 psi
33. Hardness testing is used to indicate c) 1800 psi
1) Strength of composite Ref: FAA 15A/ 249
2) Strength of fibre only 7. Color of oxygen cylinder is
3) Strength of matrix only a) Blue
(Ref: Advanced composite 11 -8) b) Yellow
34. Moisture trapped in composite is detected by c) Green
using Ref: FAA 15A/ 249
1) Radiography or laser holography 8. Which is a commonly used lubricant for oxygen
2) Ohmmeter cylinder
3) Both are correct a) Grease
(Ref: Advanced composite 11 - 21) b) Oil
35. Moisture is removed from composite structure c) Beeswax
by Ref: FAA 15A/ 249
1) Vacuum bagging 9. Oxygen regulator has
2) Resin injection method a) Right hand thread
3) Scarf repair b) Left hand thread
(Ref: Advanced composite 11 - 21) c) Both are correct
Ref: FAA 15A/ 249
10. In a stationary installation of oxy-acetylene
welding pressure gauge indicates
a) Cylinder pressure
b) Working pressure
Welding c) Both cylinder and working pressure
Ref: FAA 15A/ 249
1. Welding is used on aircraft to join 11. Diameter of the welding torch tip determines
a) Structural part only a) Amount of heat
b) Non structural part only b) Amount of temperature
c) Both structural and non structural part c) Both are correct
Ref: FAA 15A/ 247 Ref: FAA 15A/ 250
2. Union is formed in welding by the application of 12. A split or distorted flame is an indication of
a) Heat a) Clogged tip
b) Pressure b) Backfire
c) Both heat and pressure c) Flashback
Ref: FAA 15A/ 247 Ref: FAA 15A/ 251
3. In electric resistance welding which type of 13. Welding torch is ignited with
current is applied a) Matchbox
a) Low voltage and high current b) Flint lighter
b) High voltage low current c) Both may be used
c) Low voltage low current Ref: FAA 15A/ 251
Ref: FAA 15A/ 247 14. Diameter of the welding rod is governed by
4. Airtight weld can be obtained with a) Thickness of the material to be welded
a) Spot welding b) Type of material to be welded
b) Seam welding c) Property of the material
c) Butt welding Ref: FAA 15A/ 251
Ref: FAA 15A/ 248 15. Hose connected to the acetylene cylinder is
color coded
 a) Green or black Ref: FAA 15A/ 253
b) Red 25. Touching the torch tip with molten metal may
c) Yellow cause
Ref: FAA 15A/ 2451 a) Backfire
16. Leakage in acetylene gas is checked with b) Flashback
a) Open flame c) Corrosion in welding
b) Soap solution Ref: FAA 15A/ 253
c) Both may be used 26. In forehand technique of welding, flame is
Ref: FAA 15A/ 252 pointed in the direction
17. Temperature of oxyacetylene welding flame is a) Vertically downward
approximately b) Weld is progressing
a) 36000 F c) Finished weld
b) 63000 F Ref: FAA 15A/ 254
c) 18000 F 27. Which type of joint is
Ref: FAA 15A/ 252 indicated in this
18. Feather in oxyacetylene flame indicates figure?
a) Neutral flame a) Butt Joint
b) Oxidizing flame b) Lap Joint
c) Carburizing flame c) Corner joint
Ref: FAA 15A/ 252 Ref: FAA 15A/ 256
19. Which type of flame is accompanied with harsh 28. Which joint is preferred in spot welding
sound a) Lap joint
a) Neutral flame b) Tee joint
b) Oxidizing flame c) Butt joint
c) Reducing flame Ref: FAA 15A/ 257
Ref: FAA 15A/ 253 29. Repair of crack is considered to be a type of
20. A momentary backward flow of the gases at the a) Butt joint
torch tip which causes flame to go out is b) Lap joint
a) Flashback c) Edge joint
b) Backfire Ref: FAA 15A/ 256
c) Split flame 30. Which type of joint is preferred in joining tubular
Ref: FAA 15A/ 253 structure
a) Butt joint
21. Burning of the gas within the torch is called b) Tee Joints
a) Split flame c) Lap joint
b) Backfire Ref: FAA 15A/ 256
c) Flashback 31. Which welding process uses consumable
Ref: FAA 15A/ 253 electrode
22. Torch should be extinguished by a) Tungsten inert gas welding
a) Closing both valve simultaneously b) Metal inert gas welding
b) Closing oxygen valve first then acetylene c) Plasma arc welding
valve Ref: FAA 15A/ 267
c) Closing acetylene valve first then oxygen 32. Which welding process is recommended for
valve butt weld of tubing?
Ref: FAA 15A/ 253 a) Tungsten inert gas welding
23. Which flame is best suited for welding high b) Metal inert gas welding
carbon steel, Al, Ni or monel? c) Plasma arc welding
a) Oxidizing flame Ref: FAA 15A/ 267
b) Reducing flame 33. Which joining method is recommended to join
c) Neutral flame material which gets damage due to high heat?
Ref: FAA 15A/ 253 a) Welding
24. Which flame is best suited for welding brass b) Brazing
and bronze? c) Soldering
a) Oxidizing flame Ref: FAA 15A/ 261
b) Reducing flame 34. In brazing method, bonding material used is
c) Neutral flame a) Ferrous metal or alloy
 b) Non ferrous metal or alloy with melting point 44. Which gas is used for shielding in TIG or MIG
below 800 F welding?
c) Non ferrous metal or alloy with melting point a) Argon
above 800 F b) Neon
Ref: FAA 15A/ 261 c) Nitrogen
35. Brazing is used to repair Ref: FAA 15A/ 269
a) Structural member only 45. In which method of striking the arc in welding,
b) Non structural member the electrode should be vertical?
c) Both structural or non structural a) Scratch method
Ref: FAA 15A/ 261 b) Touch method
36. Which type of flame is recommended for c) Both are correct
brazing? Ref: FAA 15A/ 270
a) Neutral flame 46. Which one is necessary for using adhesive
b) Oxidizing flame bonding effectively
c) Carburizing flame a) Smooth surface
Ref: FAA 15A/ 261 b) Absolute cleaning
37. Mark the correct statement regarding brazing c) Contamination
a) Base metal parts are melted Ref: ATB module 07A/ 15.42
b) Filler metal fuse with base metal 47. In arc welding, if the rate of movement of
c) Filler metal adhere with base metal by electrode is too fast
molecular attraction a) Wide overlapping bead is formed
Ref: FAA 15A/ 261 b) Narrow bead is formed
38. Brazing flux contains c) Uniform bead is formed
a) Mixture of borax and boric acid Ref: ATB module 07A/ 15.29
b) Alloy of tin 48. To restart an arc of an interrupted bead start
c) Alloy of lead just
Ref: FAA 15A/ 261 a) Ahead of the crater of previous weld bead
39. Fabrication of oxygen line done by using b) Behind the crater of previous weld bead
a) Soft soldering c) Exactly at the crater of previous bead
b) Silver soldering Ref: ATB module 07A/ 15.29
c) Brazing 49. Fillet welds is generally used in
Ref: FAA 15A/ 261 a) Butt joint
40. Which type of joint are formed in silver b) Tee and lap joint
soldering? c) Butt and corner joint
a) Lap, edge and flanged Ref: ATB module 07A/ 15.31
b) Tee, Lap and butt 50. Groove formed due to melting of base material
c) Butt lap and corner away from weld joint causes a welding defect
Ref: FAA 15A/ 261 a) Undercut
41. Soft soldering is not used to join b) Overlap
a) Electrical components c) Slag inclusion
b) Copper and brass where a leak proof joint is Ref:
needed
c) Structural member
Ref: FAA 15A/ 262
42. Soft solder is an
a) Alloy of tin
b) Alloy of lead Weight and Balance
c) Mixture of alloy of tin and lead
Ref: FAA 15A/ 262 1. The empty weight of aircraft does not include
43. Gas or small bubbles trapped in the welded a) Fixed ballast
joints are called b) Removable ballast
a) Spatter c) Residual fuel
b) Porosity 2. The empty weight in which full capacity of
c) Undercut engine oil is included
Ref: a) Basic empty weight
b) Licensed empty weight
c) Standard empty weight
3. For aircraft certified before 1978 which type of a) Weight forward and ahead of the fulcrum is
empty weight is used? equal
a) Basic empty weight b) Arm of object forward and ahead of fulcrum
b) Licensed empty weight is equal
c) Standard empty weight c) Moment of object forward and ahead of
4. The difference between maximum allowable fulcrum is equal
gross weight and empty weight is 15. Aircraft may be leveled by using
a) Payload a) Spirit level
b) Useful load b) Plumb bob
c) Tare weight c) Deflating tires or landing gear struts
5. Payload does not consist 16. Aircraft level attitude is determined by
a) Passenger’s weight a) Spirit level or plumb bob
b) Baggage b) Deflating tires or landing gear struts
c) Fuel c) Adjusting the height of jacks
6. Weight of the ground support equipment used 17. Weighing of aircraft is
for weighing aircraft is called a) Never done inside the hanger
a) Tare weight b) Never done outside the hanger
b) Payload c) May be done outside hanger if wind and
c) Useful load moisture is negligible
7. The operational weight of an aircraft including 18. Aircraft should not be weighed
the payload but excluding the fuel load is a) With absolutely no fuel
a) Tare weight b) With completely filled fuel
b) Zero fuel weight c) With partially filled fuel
c) Useful load 19. Before weighing of aircraft
8. The quantity of fuel that cannot be safely used a) Items included in empty weight should be
during flight place at exact location.
a) Usable fuel b) Baggage compartment should be filled
b) Unusable fuel c) Lavatory tank should be filled
c) Minimum fuel 20. All aircraft should be leveled before weighing
9. The amount of fuel needed for 30 minutes of a) Only longitudinally
flight at cruise power b) Only laterally
a) Usable fuel c) Both longitudinally or laterally
b) Unusable fuel 21. Before takeoff of aircraft, it must be ensured
c) Minimum fuel that
10. The maximum weight of aircraft approved for a) Aircraft is not overloaded
ground operation b) Aircraft’s CG is within CG range
a) Maximum Ramp weight c) Both ‘a’ & ‘b’ are correct
b) Maximum take-off weight 22. As the loaded weight of the airplane increases
c) Maximum landing weight a) CG range increases
11. The horizontal distance of a part of the aircraft b) CG range decreases
from the datum is called c) CG range moves forward
a) Arm 23. Standard weight of gasoline used for weighing
b) Moment purpose is
c) CG Range a) 6 lbs/gal
12. If an item is located forward of the datum, its b) 6.7 lbs/gal
arm is c) 7.5 lbs/gal
a) Positive 24. If the CG is placed aft of the aft CG limit
b) Negative a) Some weight must be reduced
c) Arm is always positive irrespective of the b) Some weight must be shifted forward
position of item c) Some weight must be shifted rearward
13. Which one indicates negative moment? 25. Temporary Ballast
a) Weight being added aft of the datum a) Increase the aircraft empty weight
b) Weight being removed from forward of the b) Reduces the useful load
datum c) Located at baggage compartment
c) Weight being added forward of the datum 26. Permanent ballast is located
14. Balance condition exist when a) In baggage compartment
 b) In passengers compartment b) Ahead of left wing tip
c) As far aft or as far forward as possible c) Ahead of aircraft nose
27. If the loaded weight of aircraft is 3034 lb, CG is Ref: FAA 9 A Page 520
0.6” behind the aft CG limit, what should be 7. Aircraft is cleared to taxi is indicated by taxi light
weight of ballast needed to place at 39” ahead a) Flashing green
of the aft CG limit? b) Flashing white
a) 34.86 lb c) Flashing red
b) 46.68 lb Ref: FAA 9 A Page 520
c) 64.68 lb 8. The aircraft to be jacked must be located in
28. Loading graph is the part of a) Level condition
a) Flight manual b) Crosswind
b) Maintenance manual c) Inside the hanger
c) Weight and balance report Ref: FAA 9 A Page 524
29. Large aircraft weighing is done by 9. To change the tire or grease wheel bearing
a) Placing the aircraft on platform scale aircraft should be jacked at
b) Placing the load cell between jack and jack a) Single point
pad b) Three points
c) Placing the load cell in aircraft’s axel or c) Four points
landing gear struts Ref: FAA 9 A Page 525
30. What is the primary concern about aircraft’s 10. In cold weather condition fueling should be
weight and balance done
a) Safety of aircraft and people a) To full capacity
b) Efficiency of aircraft b) 3 to 5 percent below full volume
c) Sufficient ceiling height c) Only 80 % of tank
Ref: FAA 9 A Page 527
Aircraft Handling and storage 11. In case of multipoint jacking
a) Main landing gear jack should be raised first
1. While securing light aircraft, it should be tied at b) Nose landing gear jack should be raised
a) Aircraft tie down ring first
b) Lift strut c) All jacks should be raised simultaneously
c) Both are correct Ref: FAA 9 A Page 525
Ref: (EASA 07A/17.2) 12. Hydraulic lock in reciprocating engine is
2. Purpose of mooring or picketing is to prevent removed by
the aircraft from a) Removing spark plug from lower cylinder
a) Heavy rain b) Pulling propeller through in opposite
b) Sudden storm direction
c) Acid rain c) Applying force to rotate the propeller
Ref: FAA 9 A Page 509 Ref: FAA 9 A Page 489/490
3. During tie down aircraft head should be 13. For float type carburetors fuel air mixture
a) Into the wind control valve should be at
b) Across the wind a) Ideal cutoff
c) In north direction b) Full rich
Ref: FAA 9 A Page 509 c) Full lean
4. While parking, chock should be placed Ref: FAA 9 A Page 490
a) Ahead of the all wheels 14. For pressure type carburetors fuel air mixture
b) Behind all wheels control valve should be at
c) Ahead and behind all wheels a) Ideal cutoff
Ref: (EASA 07A/17.4) b) Full rich
5. Which type of tying down is preferred for large c) Full lean
aircraft? Ref: FAA 9 A Page 490
a) Manila rope 15. During starting a reciprocating engine if an
b) Nylon or Dacron engine fire develops
c) Cable or chain a) Continue cranking to start engine and blow
Ref: FAA 9 A Page 510 out fire
6. Standard position of taxi signalman is b) Discontinue the start attempt
a) Ahead of the right wing tip c) Extinguish the fire then attempt to start
 Ref: FAA 9 A Page 490 3) Either hot or cold fluid process
16. If the reciprocating engine aircraft has no self Ref: CAIP Part I page 592
starter, the engine must be started by 5. Dye penetrant inspection is used to detect
a) Swinging the propeller 1) Surface defect in porous material
b) Pushing the aircraft 2) Surface defects in nonporous material
c) Both are correct 3) Perspex type material
Ref: FAA 9 A Page 490 Ref: FAA 9A/477 & CAIP Part I page 592
17. A condition when a turbojet engine starts but 6. In penetrant inspection,
EGT exceeds specified limit is called 1) Smaller the defect smaller the penetrating
a) Hot start time
b) False start 2) Smaller the defect longer penetrating time
c) Hung start 3) Penetration time does not depends upon
Ref: FAA 9 A Page 494 size of the defect
18. A condition when a turbojet engine starts but Ref: FAA 9A/478
rpm is very lower than normal rpm 7. In dye penetrant inspection deep crack is
a) Hot start indicated by
b) False start or hung start 1) Broader and more brilliant line
c) Slow start 2) Fine line
Ref: FAA 9 A Page 494 3) Broken line
19. Hot start is caused due to Ref: FAA 9A/478
a) Insufficient power to starter 8. In dye penetrant testing, surface defect will
b) Starter cutting off before engine start appear in which colour?
c) Excessive rich fuel/air mixture in 1) Red
combustion chamber 2) Yellow-green
Ref: FAA 9 A Page 494 3) Blue-violet
20. Turbojet engine will not start within time limit Ref: FAA 9A/478
due to 9. In fluorescent penetrant testing, surface defect
a) Excessive rich fuel/air mixture will appear in which colour?
b) Lack of fuel to engine 1) Red
c) Insufficient power to starter 2) Yellow-green
Ref: FAA 9 A Page 494 3) Blue-violet
Ref: FAA 9A/478
10. In fluorescent penetrant testing, sound surface
area will appear in which colour?
Non destructive testing 1) Red
2) Yellow-green
1. The oil and chalk process is used to detect the 3) Blue-violet
1) Surface defect of ferrous material Ref: FAA 9A/478
2) Surface defect of nonferrous material 11. Fluorescent penetrant process is not suitable
3) Sub surface crack for
Ref: CAIP Part I page 591 1) Non-ferrous and non magnetic ferrous alloy
2. In oil and chalk process of non destructive 2) Plastic and ceramic
testing, the defect stain will appear 3) Absorbent material
1) Dark grey stain on light grey background Ref: CAIP Part I page 641
2) Light grey stain on dark grey background 12. Excess penetrant should be removed by
3) Greenish blue stain 1) Acidic solution
4) Ref: CAIP Part I page 591 2) Basic solution
3. In oil and chalk method, part is immersed in 3) Running water
1) Lubricating oil Ref: CAIP Part I page 644
2) Spindle oil 13. In fluorescent penetrant process, parts is
3) Mixture of paraffin and lubricating oil examined under
Ref: CAIP Part I page 592 1) Strong light source
4. When examining assembled structure or too 2) In dark using UV lamp
large parts by oil and chalk process 3) In dark using IR lamp
1) Hot fluid process is preferred Ref: CAIP Part I page 645
2) Cold fluid process is preferred 14. Magnetic particle inspection is applicable to
 1) Defects located far from the surface 24. What is correct order of film processing in
2) Surface defect of ferromagnetic substance radiography?
3) Surface defect of nonmagnetic material 1) Fixing bath, Acid bath and clear water wash
Ref: FAA 9A/469 2) Clear water wash, Fixing bath and Acid bath
15. Magnetic particle inspection indicates 3) Acid bath, Fixing bath and clear water bath
1) Shape and size of defect Ref: FAA 9A/479
2) Location of defect 25. Action of the developer in radiographic film is
3) Both ‘1’ & ‘2’ are correct neutralized by
Ref: FAA 9A/469 1) Acid bath
16. In MPI, if the discontinuity is present far below 2) Fixing bath
the surface gives 3) Water rinse
1) Dark indication Ref: FAA 9A/480
2) Faint indication 26. In radiographic inspection, image arrested at
3) No indication desired level of development by
Ref: FAA 9A/469 1) Acid bath
17. The defects running parallel to the axis of the 2) Fixing bath
part is detected by 3) Water rinse
1) Circular magnetization Ref: FAA 9A/480
2) Longitudinal magnetization 27. In radiography interpretation, a crack, tear or
3) Both are effective cold shut will resembles a
Ref: FAA 9A/471 1) Two dimensional plane
18. At higher flux density in MPI, sensitivity is 2) Three dimensional plane
1) High 3) Between two or three dimensional plane
2) Low Ref: FAA 9A/480
3) Sensitivity does not depend upon flux 28. In radiographic flaw analysis, what is the
density important consideration?
Ref: FAA 9A/472 1) Flaw shape and size
19. Which method of magnetization is used when 2) Location of flaws
magnetization is accomplished by flexible coil 3) Shape, size and location of flaws
wrapped around the parts? Ref: FAA 9A/481
1) Continuous method 29. Skin thickness of hollow propeller or turbine
2) Residual method blade is measured by
3) Circular method 1) Ultrasonic testing
Ref: FAA 9A/472 2) Radiographic testing
20. Heat treated crack has indication 3) Magnetic particle inspection
1) Sharp, clear and uniform pattern Ref: CAIP part 1 - 603
2) Less clear but smooth outline 30. Which method of non destructive testing is used
3) Sharp clear and jagged pattern on plastic, ceramic and most metal?
Ref: FAA 9A/473 1) Radiography
21. In radiography inspection, which ray is used? 2) Ultrasonic
1) X-ray 3) MPI
2) Gamma ray Ref: CAIP part 1 - 624
3) Either X-ray or gamma ray 31. Which ultrasonic method is suited for thickness
Ref: CAIP part 1 - 615 measurement when two sides are smooth and
22. In fluoroscopy, which ray is used parallel?
1) X-ray 1) Pulse echo method
2) Gamma ray 2) Through transmission method
3) Either X-ray or gamma ray 3) Resonance method
Ref: CAIP part 1 - 624 Ref: FAA 9A/483
23. Radiography inspection is used to locate the 32. In ultrasonic testing, probe is held in contact
defect in airframe and engine with specimen is
1) By dismantling 1) Contact scanning
2) Without or little disassembly 2) Immersion scanning
3) Stripping of paint from suspected area 3) Through transmission
Ref: FAA 9A/479 Ref: CAIP part 1 - 609
33. During surface cleaning and paint removal
 1) Pitot tube and static hole should be plugged 2) Alodizing
2) Wheel and brake assembly should be 3) Alclad
covered Ref: FAA 9A - 178
3) Both are correct 43. Which metal corrosion is easiest to detect?
Ref: ATB module 7A – 18.9 1) Titanium corrosion
34. While using stripping compound, we must wear 2) Magnesium corrosion
1) Aprons and gloves 3) Aluminum corrosion
2) Gloves and goggle Ref: FAA 9A - 179
3) Apron, gloves and goggles 44. Trace of sodium dichromate from titanium alloy
Ref: ATB module 7A – 18.9 is cleaned by
35. Paint stripper should allow to remain on the 1) Steel wool
surface for time interval which depends upon 2) Dry cloth
1) Humidity 3) Water rinse
2) Temperature Ref: FAA 9A - 180
3) Humidity and temperature 45. Which solvent is recommended for cleaning
Ref: ATB module 7A – 18.10 acrylic and rubber products
36. Chance of corrosion is increases if the aircraft 1) MEK
is operated in 2) Aliphatic naphtha
1) Marine environment 3) Aromatic naphtha
2) Dry climate Ref: FAA 9A - 189
3) Low humidity 46. During dismantling of certain parts, seized
Ref: FAA 9A - 173 hardware is provided with penetrating oil for
37. Presence of corrosion on bolt head or other 1) Lubrication
unprotected hardware 2) Anti corrosion function
1) Is Dangerous 3) Both ‘1’ & ‘2’ are correct
2) Affect the structural strength Ref: ATB module 07A – 18.59
3) Indicates need of maintenance 47. During dismantling of certain parts, seized
Ref: FAA 9A – 173 hardware is provided with heat and cold for
1) Lubrication
2) Anti corrosion function
38. Rust is 3) Reduce the friction
1) Corrosion in aluminum Ref: ATB module 07A – 18.59
2) Corrosion in steel or ferrous metal 48. A method of logical and best faultfinding
3) Corrosion in magnesium diagnosis to ascertain what is wrong
Ref: FAA 9A - 177 1) Modification
39. Rust 2) Repair
1) Acts as a protective coating on steel 3) Trouble shooting
2) Promotes additional corrosion Ref: ATB module 07A – 18.59
3) Prevent absorption of moisture 49. A device that enables the inspector to see
Ref: FAA 9A - 177 inside area that could not otherwise be
40. Corrosion in highly stressed steel parts are inspected without disassembly
removed by 1) Boroscope
1) Mild abrasive paper or fine buffing 2) Fluoroscope
compound 3) Microscope
2) Hand wire brushes or steel wool Ref: ATB module 07A – 18.59
3) Power buffer
Ref: FAA 9A - 177 Abnormal Event
41. Which type of corrosion is evident on
improperly heat treated Al alloy? 1. Abnormal events needs
1) Pitting corrosion 1) Scheduled maintenance program
2) Intergranular corrosion 2) Special maintenance program made by
3) Stress corrosion manufacturer
Ref: FAA 9A - 177 3) Special maintenance program made by
42. Laminating of pure aluminum over base Al alloy engineers
is called Ref: ATB module 7A – 19.2
1) Anodizing 2. Static charge on aircraft is discharged by
 1) Static discharge wicks
2) Null field discharger 1. Storage of components is performed according
3) Both are correct to
Ref: ATB module 7A – 19.2 a) Part number
3. Static discharge damage are in the form of b) Serial number
1) Local pitting and burning at trailing edge c) Both are correct
2) Blisters in radomses Ref: ATB module 7A page 20.4
3) Cracks on fibre glass 2. Procedure of storage and transportation of
Ref: ATB module 7A – 19.2 aircraft parts is provided by
4. After HIRF penetration, integrity of shielding is a) Store in-charge
checked by b) Manufacturer
1) Megger c) Technician
2) Ohmmeter Ref: ATB module 7A page 20.4
3) Bonding tester 3. Relative humidity of storage location is
Ref: ATB module 7A – 19.3 measured by
5. When aircraft encounters HIRF penetration, it a) Thermometer
will affect the b) Hygrometer
1) LRU and other electronic equipment c) Vapor phase inhibitor
2) Aircraft skin Ref: ATB module 7A page 20.5
3) Both are correct 4. Vapor phase inhibitor protects the ferrous
Ref: ATB module 7A – 19.2 material from
6. When aircraft is submerged in flood water, a) Corrosion
1) Submerged parts must be replaced b) Flame
2) Seat, carpet etc must be repaired c) Impact
3) Traces of salt and moisture must be Ref: ATB module 7A page 20.5
removed 5. Dehydrating material which used inside the
Ref: ATB module 7A – 19.5 packaging of components to remove the
7. An aircraft landing is considered heavy landing moisture
if landing at more than a) Phenolic compound
1) Landing weight b) Oil
2) Maximum vertical velocity c) Silica gel
3) Both are correct Ref: ATB module 7A page 20.5
Ref: ATB module 7A – 19.4 6. In storage of shelf life components employing
8. Damage caused by heavy landing gear is rotation system which should be distributed first
indicated by a) Oldest stock
1) Local pitting b) Newer stock
2) Wrinkled skin c) Stock of damaged part
3) Blisters in radom Ref: ATB module 7A page 20.5
Ref: ATB module 7A – 19.4 7. Certificate of release to service for an aircraft is
9. Lightening strike cause more serious damage in issued by
1) Good conductor like metallic skin a) Certifying maintenance staff
2) Non-metallic structure like fiberglass, b) Pilot in command
composite structure c) Any flight crew
3) Both are equally prone to damage Ref: ATB module 7A page 20.6
Ref: ATB module 7A – 19.2 8. Technical log book in which failure found during
10. In case of burst tire incident, damage may operation or maintenance is entered is part of
caused in a) Operational document
1) Wheel on which burst occur b) Maintenance document
2) Wheel axle and adjacent tire c) Maintenance as well as operational
3) Both are correct document
Ref: Ref: ATB module 7A page 20.8

9. Maintenance of fault reported in the log book is

performed by
Maintenance Procedure a) Pilot in command
 b) Line maintenance staff 51. A basic multi range ammeter is
c) Base maintenance staff 1) Usable over a wide range of voltage
Ref: ATB module 7A page 20.9 2) As in ‘1’ & different series resistors are used
10. Which comes under unscheduled maintenance for each range
a) Pre-flight check 3) As in ‘1’ & may also be used to measure the
b) Transit checks voltage
c) Corrosion treatment (Ref: EASA07A/3.53) (Level –II)
Ref: ATB module 7A page 20.8 52. Ammeter is always connected
11. The list of equipments which permit an aircraft 1) Across a power source
to fly to a base for deferred maintenance 2) In series with the element through which
operation current flow is to be measured
a) Master minimum equipment list (MMEL) 3) In parallel to the element through which
b) Minimum Equipment List (MEL) current flow is to be measured
c) Component deviation list (CDL) (Ref: EASA07A/3.54) (Level –II)
Ref: ATB module 7A page 20.9 53. Most accurate reading by an ammeter is
12. MEL is obtained at
a) Same for each aircraft 1) Full scale deflection
b) Unique for each aircraft 2) Half scale deflection
c) Provided by manufacturer 3) Accuracy does not depend upon position of
Ref: ATB module 7A page 20.9 pointer over scale
13. A modification which has no impact on weight, (Ref: EASA07A/3.54) (Level –II)
center of gravity, structural strength etc which 54. While connecting an ammeter in the circuit
has an impact on airworthiness is called 1) Proper polarity must be maintained
a) Minor modification 2) Incorrect connection results in reversed
b) Major modification meter deflection and bending of meter
c) Repair pointer
Ref: ATB module 7A page 20.9 3) Both ‘1’ & ‘2’ are correct
(Ref: EASA07A/3.54) (Level –II)
Electrical Mesuring Test Equipment 55. Voltmeter is always connected in
1) Series with the circuit
47. In DC voltmeter, pointer is deflected in
2) In parallel with the circuit
proportion to the
3) Both are correct
1) Current in coil
(Ref: EASA07A/3.55) (Level –II)
2) Voltage across the coil
56. Voltmeter sensitivity is defined in terms of
3) Resistance of the coil
1) Volt per resistance
(Ref: EASA07A/3.52) (Level –II)
2) Resistance per volt
48. What should be the shunt resistance, if a meter
3) Ampere per volt
having 1 mA full scale deflection current and
(Ref: EASA07A/3.55) (Level –II)
50Ω is to be used to measure 10 mA?
57. Range of voltmeter can be increased by using
1) 5 ohm
1) Multiplier resistance
2) 5.56 ohm
2) Shunt resistance
3) 1.53 ohm
3) As in ‘1’ and connected in parallel with the
(Ref: EASA07A/3.53) (Level –II)
meter coil
49. Method used to bring the pointer of an electrical
(Ref: EASA07A/3.55) (Level –II)
meter to rest after it has been set in motion is
58. The function of ohmmeter is to measure
called
1) Circuit current
1) Calibration
2) Circuit resistance
2) Damping
3) Potential difference
3) Nulling
(Ref: EASA07A/3.55) (Level –II)
(Ref: EASA07A/3.53) (Level –II)
59. In case of multi range ammeter
50. In electrical damping
1) Start with the highest range and work down
1) Moving coil is wound on an aluminum frame
un till the appropriate scale is reached
2) A vane is attached to the shaft of the
2) Start with the least range and work down un
moving element and enclosed in an air
till the appropriate scale is reached
chamber
3) Either of the two methods is used
3) Both ‘1’ & ‘2’ are correct
(Ref: EASA07A/3.54) (Level –II)
(Ref: EASA07A/3.53) (Level –II)
60. Internal resistance of an ammeter 68. Multiple range in ohmmeter is achieved by
1) Very low resistance using
2) Very high resistance 1) Multiplier resistance
3) Moderate resistance 2) Shunt resistor
(Ref: EASA07A/3.53) (Level –II) 3) Variable resistance
61. Internal resistance of an voltmeter (Ref: EASA07A/3.57) (Level –II)
1) Very low resistance 69. Mark the correct statement regarding an
2) Very high resistance ohmmeter
3) Moderate resistance 1) Shunt resistance increases for lower ohm
(Ref: EASA07A/3.55) (Level –II) ranges
62. When a voltmeter with low internal resistance is 2) Always equal to the center scale reading on
connected across two points in a circuit any selected range
1) Current will be shunted 3) Both ‘1’ & ‘2’ are correct
2) As in ‘1’ & effective resistance of circuit (Ref: EASA07A/3.57) (Level –II)
decreases significantly 70. Megger is used
3) As in ‘2’ & it will produce wrong voltage 1) To measure the insulation resistance and
reading other high resistance
(Ref: EASA07A/3.55) (Level –II) 2) For continuity testing
63. A basic ohmmeter contains 3) For short circuit testing of electrical power
1) A battery and variable resistance across the system
meter 4) All are correct
2) A battery and variable resistance in series (Ref: EASA07A/3.57) (Level –II)
with the meter 71. When the generator of megger is not in
3) A battery and fixed resistance in across the operation pointer will rest at
meter 1) Zero reading
(Ref: EASA07A/3.55) (Level –II) 2) Infinity reading
64. When the ohmmeter leads are open the meter 3) Mid scale reading
is 4) Anywhere on the scale
1) At zero deflection (Ref: EASA07A/3.58) (Level –II)
2) At full scale deflection 72. Position of pointer in megger depends upon
3) At half scale deflection 4) External resistance to be measured
(Ref: EASA07A/3.55) (Level –II) 5) Voltage generated in megger
65. What is the purpose of variable resistor in 6) Both ‘1’ & ‘2’ are correct
ohmmeter? (Ref: EASA07A/3.58) (Level –II)
1) To adjust the resistance of the circuit so that 73. If a DC meter like an ammeter is connected in
pointer is exactly at zero when the leads are AC circuit
shorted 1) Meter will read zero
2) To adjust the amount of current so that 2) Meter pointer will fluctuate around mid scale
pointer is exactly at zero when the leads are reading
opened 3) Meter will damage
3) To adjust the amount of current so that (Ref: EASA07A/3.58) (Level –II)
pointer is exactly at zero when the leads are 74. Electrodynamometer type meter is preferred for
shorted measuring
(Ref: EASA07A/3.55) (Level –II) 1) Voltage
66. In ohmmeter the value is 2) Current
1) Decreases from left to right 3) Electric power
2) Increases from left to right (Ref: EASA07A/3.58) (Level –II)
3) As in ‘1’ & called back-off scale 75. In moving iron vane meter
4) As in ‘2’ & called back-off scale 1) Permanent magnetic field is used
(Ref: EASA07A/3.56) (Level –II) 2) Electromagnet is used
67. Which meter uses non linear scale? 3) Induced magnetic field is used
1) Ammeter (Ref: EASA07A/3.59) (Level –II)
2) Voltmeter 76. Which type of meter works on the principle of
3) Ohmmeter repulsion between like poles?
(Ref: EASA07A/3.56) (Level –II) 1) Electrodynamometer
2) Moving Iron Vane Meter
3) D’Arsonval Type Meter
(Ref: EASA07A/3.59) (Level –II)