Question N 1

In which frequency band may fading occur during the twilight period?

A MF

B VHF

C HF

D UHF

Question N 2
The wavelength of a radio signal with a frequency of 121.95 MHz is:

A 2.46 m

B 24.60 m

C 2.46 cm

D 24.60 cm

Question N 3
What is meant by the term "Fading"?

A The disappearance of the D-layer with beginning of the evening twilight.

B The interference of the ground and sky wave.

C An effect which can be observed only in the F-layer of the ionosphere.

D An effect at RADAR which leads to ‘blind speed’.

Question N 4
(For this question use annex 062-303-2008).
What type of modulation is shown in the figure below?

A Frequency modulation

B no modulation

C Amplitude modulation

D Pulse modulation

Question N 5
(For this question use annex 062-302-2008).
What type of modulation is shown in the figure below?
A Amplitude modulation

B Pulse modulation

C No modulation

D Frequency modulation

Question N 6
Radio waves in the VHF and higher frequency bands propagate mainly as...

A sky waves.

B earth reflected waves.

C space waves.

D surface waves.

Question N 7
Under what conditions can VHF voice communications often suffer interference from
transmissions on the same frequency at a distance considerably greater than line -of-
sight?

A A temperature inversion in the atmosphere can cause 'super-refraction'.

B The interfering signal may be refracted from the ionosphere at night.

C The interfering signal may be refracted from mountains between the transmitter and receiver.

D The interfering signal may be refracted as a surface wave over a large expanse of water.

Question N 8
Which aeronautical radio frequency band uses refraction within ionospheric layers?

A HF

B VHF

C UHF

D VLF

Question N 9
What is meant by keying in A1A modulation

A interrupting the carrier wave to break it into dots and dashes.

B interrupting the modulating signal to break it into dots and dashes.

C changing the amplitude of the carrier wave to add information.

D adding information on the carrier wave by use of a modulating signal.

Question N 10
The following might be caused by antenna shadowing:

A A weather radar failing to show a distant turbulent cloud due to the signals being blocked by a
nearer cloud.

B Poor radio reception of a VOR ident signal while the aircraft is making an orbit (360° medium-
level turn).

C An aircraft appearing as two distinct Indications on a radar controller's display.

D Blocking of a VOR transmission caused by buildings close to the antenna.

Question N 11
The damping of a radio wave is so strong that no signal can be received. This
phenomenon is called:

A diffraction

B absorption

C refraction

D reflection

Question N 12
Phase modulation...

A results in a change of polarisation of the modulated signal.

B is a modulation form used in GPS where the phase of the carrier wave is reversed.

C results in a change of amplitude of the carrier wave.

D is a modulation form used in ILS where the phase of the navigation signals is changed with 90° or
150°.

Question N 13
When raising the frequency of an electromagnetic wave, the:

A Wavelength remains the same

B Wavelength decreases

C Wavelength increases

D Wavelength and amplitude increases

Question N 14
What is the simplest Type of an antenna called?

A Monopole

B Quadrupole

C Loop antenna

D Dipole

Question N 15
The correct position for the GPS antenna on an airplane is:

A On the bottom of the fuselage.

B On the top of the fuselage.

C In the nose of the aircraft.

D In the tailplane.

Question N 16
Mountain effect, occurring for instance with NDBs, is caused by what physical
phenomenon?

A refraction

B diffraction

C reflection

D absorption
Question N 17
Why do VHF radio signals used for communication and navigation have a limited
range?

A Ground waves are absorbed by the Earth’s surface.

B Direct waves interfere with ionosphere waves.

C Sky waves are refracted from the D-layer.

D Because of the curvature of the Earth.

Question N 18
A reason that GPS satellites use helical antennae is

A to neutralize the ionospheric delay.

B that the signal has a circular polarization.

C to improve the signal to noise ratio.

D to achieve better omni directional receiving qualities.

Question N 19
International Telecommunication Union (ITU) classification abbreviations used in
aviation include the (1) _____ abbreviation. This designates carrier wave emissions
amplitude modulated with Morse code which is used by (2) _____.

A (1) A2A; (2) VORs

B (1) A3E; (2) NDBs

C (1) A2A; (2) NDBs

D (1) A3E; (2) VORs

Question N 20
Flying over a DME station at 36 000 ft what will be indicated on the DME?

A 6 Yards

B 11.6NM

C 6 NM

D 9KM

Question N 21
A student pilot has just learnt that meteorological information for aircraft en route on
long-haul flights is sent by radio. What kind of radio receiver is needed to receive this
information?

A VHF receiver.

B Single sideband receiver.

C LF/MF receiver.

D Double sideband receiver.

Question N 22
Refer to figure.
Which figure represents an ADF receiver antenna?
A Figure 1

B Figure 2

C Figure 3

D Figure 4
Question N 23
Single Side Band (SSB) is used...

A in HF two-way communication.

B with transmissions of the Meteorological aerodrome Report (METAR)

C in VHF transmissions to reduce transmission power.

D with NDB transmissions to reduce the bandwidth

Question N 24
Modulation is

A the process of impressing and transporting information by radio waves.

B a continuous wave which is capable of carrying audible signals without modification.

C to allow the signal to be amplified to the required power level.

D the process to provide a radio carrier wave for transmission.

Question N 25
The sky wave is an electromagnetic wave which travels:

A By line of sight between transmitter and receiver.

B Inside the ionosphere along the boundary layer.

C Into space to be refracted in the ionosphere.

D Across the earth's surface.

Question N 26
The shoreline/coastal effect is caused by diffraction of the radio waves. What is one
factor influencing the error of the bearing?

A flight altitude

B
Weather conditions

C conditions over the sea

D groundspeed

Question N 27
Refer to figure.
Which figure represents a VDF antenna?
A Figure 1

B Figure 2

C Figure 3

D Figure 4
Question N 28
VLF-radio waves travel:

A during day time as sky waves

B during day and night as ground waves and sky waves

C during daytime as ground and sky waves, during night time as ground waves only

D by line-of-sight

Question N 29
The unit for measuring frequency is ... and measures cycles ...

A Metres, per minute

B Metres, per second

C Hertz, Per second

D Hertz, per minute

Question N 30
A vertically-mounted dipole antenna is used for RF transmissions. The receiving
antenna has to be..

A aligned horizontally in order to receive the electrical field of the RF transmission in horizontal
plane.

B in the same vertical alignment in order to receive the electrical field of the RF transmission in the
vertical plane.

C aligned horizontally in order to receive the electrical field of the RF transmission in vertical plane.
D in the same vertical alignment in order to receive the electrical field of the RF transmission in the
horizontal plane.

Question N 31
3-30 kHz frequency band is referred to...

A VLF.

B HF.

C VHF.

D SHF.

Question N 32
At what velocity do electromagnetic waves travel?

A The speed of light + velocity of the transmitter.

B It depends on the frequency of the wave.

C The speed of light.

D The speed of sound.

Question N 33
The Ground Wave propagates as follows:

A The wave will be reflected at the ionosphere back to the ground.

B It travels along the earth’s surface and follows the curvature of the earth.
C The ground wave is transmitted toward the earth’s surface and will be reflected.

D It travels beneath the ground.

Question N 34
Electromagnetic waves in the VLF – band have a frequency spectrum of:

A 300-3000 kHz.

B 3-30 kHz.

C 30-300 kHz.

D 30-300 MHz.

Question N 35
A particular METAR states 4 000 m of visibility. This can refer to the visibility of a
light on an unlit background. The intesity of this light is how many candelas?

A 4 000 000

B 1 000

C 4 000

D 1 000 000

Question N 36
What type of antenna is used in a modern Airborne Weather Radar?

A Dipole
B Loop antenna

C omnidirectional antenna

D Slotted planar antenna

Question N 37
Describe the propagation of VHF radio waves:

A During day and night time as ground waves

B During daytime as ground waves, at night as sky waves

C Earth reflected waves

D Line of sight propagation

Question N 38
What is correct regarding antenna shadowing?

A Poor reception of GPS signals due to very weak signals compared to the background noise at that
frequency.

B Protection of a radar-reception antenna from the strong signals produced by a nearby transmission
antenna.

C Terrain blocking the path between the transmitter and receiver/aircraft antenna.

D Reduced reception by an antenna when part of the airframe blocks the signal to the antenna.

Question N 39
A radio signal may be classified by three symbols in accordance with the ITU radio
regulation e.g. A1A. Which statement is true?
A The first symbol indicates the type of modulation of the main carrier

B The three symbols together indicate which device is transmitting on the carrier

C The second symbol indicates the nature of information to be transmitted

D The third symbol indicates the nature of the signal modulating the main carrier

Question N 40
(For this question use annex 062-300-2008).
Which physical effects affecting wave propagation are shown in the figure below?

A A = refraction B = absorption C = reflection

B A = refraction B = scattering C = diffraction

C A = absorption B = damping C = reflection

D A = reflection B = polarisation C = refraction

Question N 41
What describes polarization?
A Orientation of the plane of oscillation of the electrical component (E) of the electromagnetic wave.

B Orientation of the antenna to the North Pole.

C Rotation of the antenna around a fixed axis.

D Orientation of the plane of oscillation of the magnetic component (H) of the electromagnetic wave.

Question N 42
VHF (Very High Frequency) waves occur in which frequency range?

A 30 MHz – 300 MHz

B 3 GHz – 30 GHz

C 3 MHz – 30 MHz

D 300 MHz – 3000 MHz

Question N 43
The pre-flight serviceability test of a direct reading compass consists of:

A Adjusting the indication to magnetic north with the help of the known compass deviation.

B A compass swing.

C Checking the deviation with celestial navigation methods.

D Comparing the indication to another reference (e.g. runway direction).

Question N 44
What are the effects of shadowing by parts of the aircraft on the reception of signals
from NAVSTAR GPS satellites?

A The signals will be distorted, however the error can be corrected for using an algorithm and
information from unaffected signals.

B It has no influence because high frequency signals are unaffected.

C It may prevent the reception of signals.

D It causes multipath propagation.

Question N 45
The VHF Omnirange (VOR) uses the following wavelengths:

A decimetric.

B centimetric.

C hectometric.

D metric.

Question N 46
Which failure in radio navigation is connected with "Fading"?

A Static Discharge

B Shoreline/coastal Effect

C Mountain Effect

D Twilight/night Effect
Question N 47
Which statement is true about the Direct Reading Compass (DRC)?

A Before Take Off the DRC should be checked by comparing the heading to the runway direction.

B The DRC is serviceable when the indication during take off differs by not more than 2 degrees
from the runway true direction.

C The DRC is serviceable when the indication is within 2 degrees of the magnetic track on the
navigation chart.

D The heading of the DRC can only be checked with the runway direction after allowing for
magnetic variation.

Question N 48
Where is pulse modulation used?

A In VHF.

B In ILS localiser.

C In VOR.

D In Radar.

Question N 49
The skip-zone is defined as:

A the area, where only the ground wave is receivable.

B the area, where neither the ground waves nor the sky waves are received.

C the area, where ground and sky waves are receivable.

D the area, where only the sky wave is receivable.

Question N 50
Due to 'Doppler' effect an apparent decrease in the transmitted frequency, which is
proportional to the transmitter's velocity, will occur when:

A the transmitter moves away from the receiver

B the transmitter moves toward the receiver

C there is no relative movement between the transmitter and the receiver

D the transmitter and receiver move towards each other

Question N 51
How are radio waves in MF propagated?

A At daytime as ground wave, during night only as sky wave.

B At daytime and during night only as ground wave.

C At daytime as ground wave and sky wave, during night only as ground wave.

D At daytime as ground wave, during night as ground wave and sky wave.

Question N 52
In the cruise a flight crew hears a click on the ATC frequency, no speaking can be
heard but the frequency is blocked, and no other transmissions can be heard. What is
most likely to be happening?

A The transmitting station is sending a signal, but the carrier wave is NOT being modulated.

B The receiving station is sending a radio signal, but the carrier wave is NOT being modulated.
C The carrier wave, which is modulated by the transmitter, is NOT being broadcast by the ATC
station.

D The transmitting station is sending the upper and lower sidebands only, the carrier wave is missing.

Question N 53
Which of the following summaries lists only directional antennas?

A Dipole antenna, loop antenna, parabolic antenna, slotted planar array antenna.

B Dipole antenna, sense antenna, parabolic antenna, helical antenna.

C Loop antenna, parabolic antenna, slotted planar array antenna, helical antenna.

D Sense antenna, parabolic antenna, slotted planar array antenna, helical antenna.

Question N 54
Single sideband two way communication is used in what frequency band and how can
such radio waves propagate?

A HF (3-30 MHZ), as ground waves only.

B HF (3-30 MHZ), as ground waves and sky waves.

C MF (3-30 MHZ), as ground waves.

D MF (3-30 MHZ), as ground waves and sky waves.

Question N 55
Pulse length is expressed as:

A An amplitude.
B A frequency.

C Distance.

D Time.

Question N 56
A dipole antenna in its simplest form, suited for a frequency of 110 MHz, ought to have
a length of

A 91 cm

B 136 cm

C 205 cm

D 273 cm

Question N 57
On which bearings do the errors caused by the shoreline/coastal effect reach their
maximum?

A Bearings 0° to 30° to the coastline.

B Bearings perpendicular to the coastline.

C Any bearing in the HF band.

D Bearing 30° to 60° to the coastline.

Question N 58
Modulation is:
A the elimination of disturbances for improving the reception.

B the addition of a high frequency signal (tone, voice) onto a low frequency carrier wave.

C the addition of a low frequency signal (tone, voice) onto a high frequency carrier wave.

D the tuning of the receiver in to the frequency of the transmitter.

Question N 59
According to the International Telecommunication Union (ITU) code, a radio signal
may be classified by three symbols. The abbreviation A3E is used for the type of
transmission in which the carrier wave is:

A A continuous wave interrupted with a keyed Morse code ident as used by an NDB.

B Amplitude modulated to transmit the Morse code ident, as is used by a VOR.

C Amplitude modulated by a speech signal, such as is used for VHF-COM.

D Interrupted to transmit the Morse code identification, as used by an NDB.

Question N 60
The skip distance of HF-transmission will increase with...

A lower frequency and higher level of the refracting ionospheric layer.

B higher frequency and lower level of the refracting ionospheric layer.

C higher frequency and higher level of the refracting ionospheric layer.

D lower frequency and lower level of the refracting ionospheric layer.

Question N 61
The skip distance is:

A the distance from transmitter to an obstacle which limits the extension of the ground wave

B the distance from transmitter to earth surface up to the point where the first sky wave can be
received

C the distance from transmitter to the maximum range of the sky wave

D the distance from transmitter to the maximum range of the ground wave

Question N 62
How is amplitude modulation achieved?

A The information is added onto the carrier wave by altering the amplitude of the carrier.

B The information is added onto the carrier wave by interrupting the carrier.

C The information is added onto the carrier wave by reversing the phases of the carrier.

D The information is added onto the carrier wave by altering the frequency of the carrier.

Question N 63
What does the term “antenna shadowing” mean?

A The antenna shielded from the sun in order to reduce the influence of the ionosphere.

B The antenna is masked from the transmitter due to the aircraft attitude.

C Terrain is in between the receiver and the transmitter.

D The antenna is placed under a dome.

Question N 64
(For this question use annex 062-301-2008).
Which letter in the figure below indicates the Skip Distance?

A d

B a

C c

D b

Question N 65
Considering a primary radar system, what kind of aerials are used?

A An omnidirectional antenna for transmitting, and a directional antenna for receiving.

B One directional antenna both for transmitting and for receiving.

C A directional antenna for transmitting, and an omnidirectional antenna for receiving.

D One directional antenna for transmitting and one for receiving.

Question N 66
Comparing a parabolic reflector with a flat plate antenna of the same size
A the parabolic reflector generates less side lobes than the flat plate antenna.

B the flat plate antenna has a considerably smaller beam width.

C the parabolic reflector has a considerably smaller beam width.

D the flat plate antenna generates less side lobes than the parabolic reflector.

Question N 67
Skip distance is the...

A highest critical frequency distance.

B thickness of the ionosphere.

C wavelength distance of a certain frequency.

D range from the transmitter to the first sky wave return.

Question N 68
What is the receiver aerial location of a GNSS system?

A Bottom of the fuselage.

B Top of the fuselage.

C Left wing tip.

D Top of the tail.

Question N 69
The frequency of an NDB is 427 kHz. What is the corresponding wavelength?
A 7025 m

B 702.5 m

C 70.25 m

D 702.5 cm

Question N 70
An error that reduces the bearing accuracy on the ADF when the aeroplane is not wings
level is known as:

A Dip error.

B Mountain effect.

C Quadrantal error.

D Static interference.

Question N 71
Among these frequency ranges, which one would contain VHF waves only?

A 29 MHz to 132 MHz

B 29 GHz to 132 GHz

C 90 kHz to 295 kHz

D 90 MHz to 295 MHz

Question N 72
Which of the following is most likely affected by fading during the twilight period?
A HF

B VHF

C UHF

D MF

Question N 73
During a flight at FL210, a pilot does not receive any DME distance indication from a
DME station located approximately 220 NM away.The reason for this is that the..

A Aeroplane is below the minimum altitude for line of sight propagation.

B Aeroplane is circling around the station.

C The power of the transmitted signal is too weak to be received by the DME station.

D Altitude is too high.

Question N 74
Which of the following options contains the correct frequency band, propagation path
and frequency range for radio communications using a single side band?

A VHF, sky waves, 108 MHz to 117.975 MHz.

B MF, surface and sky waves, 190 KHz to 1750 KHz.

C HF, surface and sky waves, 3 MHz to 30 MHz.

D HF, surface waves only, 3 MHz to 30 MHz.

Question N 75
The phase angle of a wave is:

A The angle of the modulation on a wavelength expressed in degrees from 000° to 360°.

B The position of a modulation on a wavelength expressed in degrees from 000° to 360°.

C The deflection on a wave expressed in degrees from 000° to 360°.

D The fraction of one wavelength expressed in degrees from 000° to 360°.

Question N 76
HF-radio waves travel:

A quasi-optically.

B during daytime and night time as sky waves, and the range of the ground wave is very small.

C during daytime as ground and sky waves, during night time as ground waves only.

D during daytime and at night as ground waves only.

Question N 77
(For this question use annex 062-304-2008).
What kind of disturbances may occur in the area marked by the circle in the figure?
A Absorption

B Fading and interference

C Shoreline/Coastal effect

D Diffraction

.............................................................................................................................................................

Release date: 2022.12.04.

Question N° 78
How is the Final Approach Segment (FAS) of a GBAS Precision Approach Procedure
defined?

A The GNSS space segment transmits the approach-path guidance parameters to the GBAS-equipped
aircraft.

B The GBAS ground facility transmits an error correction message to the ground-based azimuth and
glidepath-guidance transmitters.

C The GBAS reference receivers transmit-error correction messages to the ground-based azimuth and
elevation-guidance transmitters.

D The GBAS ground facility transmits the approach-path guidance parameters to the GBAS-
equipped aircraft.

Question N° 79
Plotting positions in charts by Dead Reckoning (DR) may be required..
A in areas with high densities of airways and navigation aids.

B during a flight with limited equipment and few navigational aids.

C when any of the radio-navigation, INS or GPS sources are unavailable.

D during a flight over sea using INS/IRS and GPS navigation.

Question N° 80
An estimate of the position accuracy from the Global Navigation Satellite System
(GNSS) can be derived from several factors, including:

A Geometric Dilution Of Precision (GDOP) and User Equivalent Range Error (UERE).

B The correction for the receiver clock error as transmitted by a differential station.

C Inaccuracies from the geometry of the satellites above the user's horizon.

D User Equivalent Range Error (UERE) alone.

Question N° 81
One of the advantages of the Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) systems over the
Primary Surveillance Radar (PSR) systems is that SSR can provide more information.
How does this happen?

A ATC SSR systems can interrogate aircraft transponders and elicit replies.

B ATC SSR systems have moving target indicator capability, which eliminates clutter so more
aircraft can be tracked.

C ATC SSR systems permanently interrogate aircraft within range, so the tracking is not interrupted.

D ATC SSR systems can reply to an aircraft interrogation and provide requested information.
Question N° 82
To enter a holding pattern based on a VOR/DME fix, which entry sectors are
permissible when following a DME arc entry track? Sectors..

A 1 and 2.

B 2 and 3.

C 1, 2, and 3.

D 1 and 3.

Question N° 83
Skip distance is the...

A highest critical frequency distance.

B thickness of the ionosphere.

C wavelength distance of a certain frequency.

D range from the transmitter to the first sky wave return.

Question N° 84
The skip-zone is defined as:

A the area, where only the ground wave is receivable.

B the area, where neither the ground waves nor the sky waves are received.

C the area, where ground and sky waves are receivable.

D the area, where only the sky wave is receivable.

Question N° 85
What is (one of) the differences between a Mode A/C/S all call and a mode A/C only all
call?

A The presence of Mode A/C addresses.

B The presence of Mode S addresses.

C The time interval between the pulses P1 and P3.

D The length of the pulse P4.

Question N° 86
A modern Airborne Weather Radar (AWR) uses a flat plate antenna with a:

A Cosecant squared beam with the tilt set to the aircraft pitch for ground mapping as the beam
spreads out vertically to the ground.

B Pencil or conical beam with the tilt set to the aircraft pitch for ground mapping.

C Cosecant squared beam with the tilt set downward for ground mapping.

D Pencil or conical beam with the tilt set downward for ground mapping.

Question N° 87
When an aircraft is operating its Secondary Surveillance Radar in Mode C an air traffic
controller's presentation gives information regarding the aircraft's indicated pressure
altitude in increments of:

A 100 ft

B 250 ft

C 200 ft
D 150 ft

Question N° 88
Assume that one of the satellites used by a GPS -receiver is faulty. When the signals of
5 satellites are received (including the faulty one) the RAIM software in the receiver:

A is not active, as the software needs at least 8 satellites to function correctly.

B is able to detect that one of the satellites is faulty and is able to identify the faulty one.

C is unable to detect and identify the faulty satellite.

D is able to detect that one of the satellites is faulty but is unable to identify the faulty one.

Question N° 89
If the number of pulse pairs received by the DME-transponder exceeds the maximum
number possible, which aircraft will always be denied a DME-range first?

A The aircraft at the largest distance from the DME-station.

B The aircraft at the lowest altitude.

C The aircraft from which the weakest pulse pairs are received.

D The smallest aircraft which is using the DME-station for range measurement.

Question N° 90
How can an air traffic control unit determine the position of an aircraft without the use
of radar?

A By using auto-triangulation provided from several VDF bearings from a single station.
B Auto-triangulation provided from several VOR bearings from a single station is used.

C By using auto-triangulation provided from several VDF bearings from different stations.

D VHF NAV frequencies are used to calculate the position of the aircraft by triangulation.

Question N° 91
The Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) Mode S transponder will transmit a 24 -bit
Aircraft Address (AA).
This Aircraft Address is:

A An ICAO code corresponding to the aircraft identification number, which is set from the flight
deck.

B A unique identification number that is hard-coded into the transponder.

C A unique code associated with the Operator and the flight number.

D The squawk code as assigned by ATC.

Question N° 92
What does the mode S provide information to?

A DME and radio altimeter.

B SSR and ADS (B).

C AWR and TCAS.

D SSR and TCAS

Question N° 93
ADF bearings by an aeroplane by day within the published protection range should be
accurate to within a maximum error of:

A ±2°

B ±10°

C ±5°

D ±2,5°

Question N° 94
Refer to figure.
What is the text "RNP 1.00" and "ANP 1.36" indicating?
A The text is amber because the navigation performance is out of limits.

B The aircraft navigation performance is better than required.

C The actual navigation performance is permitted to be 35% greater than the RNP.

D The aircraft is 1.36 NM off the track.

Question N° 95
Refer to figure.
An aircraft is on an ILS approach to runway 23 using an approach plate with the
diagram above. As the pilot is passing 1 500 ft, what lights and audio indications might
the pilot see and hear?

A A flashing white light and a continuous series of alternating dots and dashes.

B A flashing blue light and a continuous series of low-frequency dashes.

C A steady blue light and a continuous series of alternating dots and dashes.

D A flashing white light and a continuous series of low-frequency dashes.

Question N° 96
Why should Airborne Weather Radar (AWR) systems be used with extreme caution
when on the ground?

A The radar system may overheat and shut down due to the intensity of the returns from the ground,
buildings, and surrounding terrain.

B People could be exposed to Super High Frequency (SHF) radiation which, if absorbed in large
enough amounts, can lead to tissue damage.

C The radar antenna can be easily damaged during ground-taxi manoeuvres (especially on uneven
taxiways).

D The intense returns from the ground and surrounding terrain will not allow accurate identification
of potentially hazardous weather when lined up for departure.
Question N° 97
ICAO Doc 8168 describes, amongst others, holding procedures. The pilot should start
the timing for the outbound leg of the holding pattern when passing ABEAM the
holding fix or wings level, whichever is later. If the holding fix is NDB, the wings are
level and the pilot uses an RBI to fly the procedure, the timing should start when the
relative bearing of the NDB is:

A Approximately 180 degrees or 360 degrees.

B Approximately 090 degrees or 270 degrees.

C 90 degrees left or right.

D 90 degrees left or right of the inbound course.

Question N° 98
Which on-board sensor would typically be used to augment GNSS positional
information as part of an Airborne-Based Augmentation System (ABAS)?

A TCAS II

B EGNOS

C IRS

D ADS-B

Question N° 99
By using both GPS frequencies L1 and L2, GPS receivers can almost eliminate..

A both ionospheric and atmospheric propagation delay.

B atmospheric propagation delay.

C position dilution of precision.

D ionospheric propagation delay.

Question N° 100
The satellite navigation system NAVSTAR GPS uses two navigation frequencies, L1
and L2.
Choose the correct statement:
SPS: standard positioning service
PPS: precise positioning service

A The L1 frequency is used for PPS and the L2 frequency is used for SPS.

B Only the L1 frequency is used for PPS.

C Only the L2 frequency is used for PPS.

D Both L1 and L2 frequencies are used for PPS.

Question N° 101
Considering PBN procedures, which RNP/RNAV criteria allows the pilot to manually
define waypoints in the FMS database?

A RNP APCH

B RNAV 1

C RNAV 2

D RNAV 5

Question N° 102
In the case of an Airborne-Based Augmentation System (ABAS), which method of
integrity monitoring uses information from GNSS and from additional on-board sensors
such as Inertial Reference Systems (IRS)?

A Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM)

B Aircraft Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (AAIM)

C GNSS/IRS Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (GIAIM)

D Aircraft Station Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (ASAIM)

Question N° 103
An aircraft at FL300, in ISA conditions and with a ground speed of 300 kt, is about
pass overhead a DME station at MSL. The DME receiver is capable of determining
ground speed. One minute before the overhead, DME speed and distance indications are
respectively..

A less than 300 kt and 5 NM.

B less than 300 kt and 7 NM.

C 300 kt and 5 NM.

D 300 kt and 7 NM.

Question N° 104
AAIM (Aircraft Autonomous Integrity Monitoring) is a type of Airborne Based
Augmentation System that

A relies on GNSS information as well as information from additional on-board sensors.

B relies on information from additional on-board sensors only.

C relies on GNSS information only.

D can only function within the range of a Ground Based Augmentation System.

Question N° 105
NDB station is identified by:

A Audible signal (Morse code), 3-letter identifier for en-route NDB and 2-letter or 1-letter identifiers
for locators within terminal areas.

B Audible signal (Morse code), 2-letter identifier for en-route NDB and 3-letter or 2-letter identifiers
for locators within terminal areas.

C No audible signal, 3-letter identifier for en-route NDB and locators within terminal areas.

D No audible signal, 2-letter identifier for en-route NDB and locators within terminal areas.

Question N° 106
SBAS is required to comply with the PBN specifications for RNP approaches down to:

A Type B CAT II minima.

B Baro-VNAV minima.

C LNAV minima.

D LPV minima.

Question N° 107
An aircraft is on the 120° radial from a VOR station. Course 340° is selected on the
HSI (Horizontal Situation Indicator). If the magnetic heading is 070°, the deviation bar
relative to the aeroplane symbol will be:

A right
B left

C in front

D behind