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GT Reading Sample - "Summer activities at London’s Kew Gardens" & "City Park and Ride"

Read the text below and answer Questions 1–6.

Summer activities at London’s Kew Gardens
A. Climb up to the walkway among the trees, 18 metres above the ground, for a spectacular experience.
Feel as tall as the trees and enjoy a bird’s-eye view over the gardens.

B. The Nash Conservatory displays stunning images from leading wildlife photographer Heather Angel.
Each photograph explores the wealth of biodiversity at Kew Gardens, from foxes to birds, tiny insects to
towering trees.

C. A world of pollination comes to life in the Princess of Wales Conservatory. Find yourself in a tropical
environment whilst walking through clouds of colourful butterflies as they fly around the Conservatory!
Come face-to-face with gigantic sculptures of insects, birds and bats, which will help tell the fascinating
stories of how they interact with plants.

D. An extraordinary sound installation created by Chris Watson. On the hour throughout the day, the Palm
House is filled with the sound of the dawn and dusk choruses of birds that live in the Central and South
American rainforests.

E. Come and see the fantastic outdoor exhibition of garden, wildlife and botanical photography. Walk
amongst enlarged photographs and admire the wonderful garden photos – all taken by children aged 16
and under from all round the country. If you are in this age category and fancy yourself as a photographer,
then you can enter for the next show!

F. Young explorers can discover the new children’s outdoor play area, shaped like a plant, in Kew’s
magical Conservation Area. As you journey through this interactive landscape, discover the functions of
every part of a plant. Tunnel through giant roots, get lost among the leaves and hide amongst the large
fungi, whilst solving puzzles along the way!

G. What is biodiversity all about? Did you know that every breath we take and every move we make
depends on plants? Take a guided tour to discover what biodiversity means and why it matters so much.

H. Visit our exciting and colourful exhibition of South American botanical paintings, which brings the
continent’s exotic and lush plants to life in works from two hundred years ago and from this century.
Questions 1-6

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The text has eight sections, A-H.

Which sections contain the following information?

Write the correct letter, A-H, in boxes 1-6 on your answer sheet.

1. learning what all the different sections of a plant do

2. seeing art showing plants from a different part of the world
3. the possibility of having your work exhibited
4. learning about why human beings need plants
5. something that happens daily at the same times
6. learning about the relationship between various creatures, insects and plants

Read the text below and answer Questions 7–14.

City Park and Ride
We have six purpose-built Park and Ride sites serving the city, more than almost anywhere else in the UK.
Established for over 40 years, they provide around 5,000 parking spaces for cars. The sites are located on
the main routes into the city centre. More than 3,000,000 passengers a year take a bus from a Park and
Ride site into the city, reducing congestion and helping to improve the air quality in the city centre.

Parking at the sites is available only for those travelling from the site on a Park and Ride or other scheduled
bus services, and is free. No overnight parking is permitted. Heavy goods vehicles are not permitted at the
Park and Ride site at any time.

It’s simple to use. Just park your car and buy your bus ticket from the bus driver, with the correct money if
possible. An individual adult daily return purchased prior to 12:30 hrs for use chat day costs £2.40. If
purchased after 12:30 hrs it costs £2.10.

Up to four children under 16 travel free with an adult or concessionary pass holder. The return fare for
unaccompanied children under 16 is £1.10.

Cycle and Ride for just £1.10 a day. Just park your cycle, motorcycle or scooter in the allocated space, and
buy your ticket from the site office. You may be asked to provide evidence that you have travelled to the
Park and Ride site by cycle, motorcycle or scooter.

Return tickets for concessionary bus pass holders cost £1 after 09:30 Monday to Friday and any time at

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weekend or bank holidays (when open). At other times there is no reduction for holders of concessionary
bus passes.

Questions 7-14

Do the following statements agree with the information given in the text 'City Park and Ride'?

In boxes 7-14 on your answer sheet, write:

TRUE if the statement agrees with the information

FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this

7. This was one of the first UK cities to introduce a Park and Ride scheme.
8. The amount of congestion in the city centre has fallen.
9. There is a special section of the car park for heavy goods vehicles.
10. Bus drivers do not give change so you must have the correct money for a ticket.
11. Ticket prices vary depending on the time of day.
12. Children under 16 travelling alone are allowed free travel.
13. The space for cycles, motorcycles and scooters is close to the site office.
14. People with concessionary bus passes must pay the full fare to travel at certain times.

Click the button to Show/ Hide Answers

Answer:
1. F 6. C 11. TRUE
2. H 7. NOT GIVEN 12. FALSE
3. E 8. TRUE 13. NOT GIVEN
4. G 9. FALSE 14. TRUE
5. D 10. FALSE
Read the text below and answers questions 15-27 on your answer sheet.
You should spend about 20 minutes to complete this task.

GT Reading Sample - "How to organise a successful Business conference" & "How to deal with the annual
performance appraisal"

Read the text below and answer Questions 15–20.

HOW TO ORGANISE A SUCCESSFUL BUSINESS CONFERENCE
To start with
Advance planning is the key to a hassle-free conference. The key players of a successful conference are
the delegates, so identify the audience and then tailor the programme you are planning to their particular

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needs.

Where and when

The date and venue should then be chosen. These are often interdependent, and when choosing the date
take into account the timing of similar regular events which may clash. Also, consider holiday periods which
may mean that people are away and so will not be able to attend.

When choosing a venue, check how easy it is to reach by train and plane etc. and the availability of parking
for those driving. Visit the venue personally: consider the size of the main lecture hall and whether it is big
enough for the anticipated number of delegates, then look into the potential of having breakout areas for
separating into a number of groups for discussions. Then check whether there is a suitable lounge area for
the tea/coffee breaks and an exhibition space for display stands if required.

Who
The next stage is to choose the speakers and invite them, making sure you give them ample notice so they
are more likely to be available. Ask only those people that you know speak well. Do not try and speak
yourself in addition to organising the conference, as this will be too demanding.

Contacting people
Let people know the date and venue by an early mailshot. This allows them, if they are interested, to put the
date into their diaries. At the same time, contact all the speakers again, confirming their particular topic, the
audio-visual aids which will be available and finding out their accommodation requirements. Ask them to
provide a written summary of their presentation for distribution to delegates at the conference.

Final arrangements
Approximately 4-5 weeks before the conference, confirm the provisional numbers with the venue. Contact
them again about two weeks prior to the conference to confirm final numbers, decide on menus and finalise
the arrangements.

Prepare delegate packs to include a name badge, delegate list and programme. The venue should provide
pads of paper and pens. Then prepare questionnaires for all delegates to complete at the end of the
conference. Their responses will enable you to gauge the success of the conference and start planning the
next one!
Questions 15-20

Complete the notes below.

Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the text for each answer.
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Write your answers in boxes 15-20 on your answer sheet.

ORGANISING A BUSINESS CONFERENCE

First steps:
- decide who the conference is for
- ensure the programme fulfils delegates’ requirements

Venue and timing:

- try to avoid scheduling the conference during 15 ………….... times or when other annual conferences
occur

- check accessibility by different modes of transport

- choose a place with a large hall and also 16 ………….... spaces for smaller meetings

Speakers:
- choose appropriate speakers
- give the speakers as much 17 ………….... as possible

Communication:
- send out a mailshot to potential delegates
- confirm individual details with speakers, check if they will need accommodation and request
a 18………….... of their presentation

Final tasks:
- give the venue precise numbers of attendees
- make sure each person attending receives information about the conference and a 19 ………… for
identification
- use 20 ………….. to get opinions on the conference

Read the text below and answer Questions 21-27.

How to deal with the annual performance appraisal
The annual performance appraisal can help improve your productivity and provide a foundation for your
work priorities. It is, however, critical to have the right attitude and approach. Knowing what areas your
superiors see as your weaknesses is the most direct way of increasing the likelihood of being considered for
promotion, if that is what you are looking for.

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Preparation
Send your boss a summary of your achievements. Reminding your boss of activities, special assignments
you did, and projects you were in charge of helps him or her create a more accurate performance appraisal.
Consider keeping notes of these on a regular basis to make it easier to provide the data when required.

Create a list of questions you would like to discuss during your appraisal. This one-on-one time with your
boss is an excellent opportunity to ask him or her about your role in the company, request any additional
responsibilities you would like and clarify your priorities. But it is best to focus your attention around
personal and professional improvements, rather than financial considerations, such as an increase in
salary.

During the appraisal

Present a positive attitude as soon as you enter the appraisal room. This approach may lead to a more
constructive discussion of review items. Avoid taking any negative assessments that are offered as a
personal attack, but rather try to take them on board calmly, because if you put the failings right you will
improve your performance. A realistic assessment of your strengths and weaknesses can be one of the
most beneficial ways of helping you advance in the company.

After the appraisal

Create a list of personal goals based on your performance appraisal. Make the items detailed and
measurable if possible. Send this list to your boss so he or she knows you took the appraisal seriously. Use
this list to help achieve higher scores on your next performance appraisal.

Six months after the appraisal, ask for a mid-term review with your boss to discuss your progress. This
session should be more relaxed and informal than the official review. Ask for more feedback to help you
improve. Checking in with your boss helps him or her remember your dedication as far as your job is
concerned, and may help remove any criticisms before they become a review point on your next formal
appraisal.
Questions 21-27

Complete the sentences below.

Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the text for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 21-27 on your answer sheet.

21. By learning at an appraisal what areas of work need improving, staff can improve their chances of
getting .....................
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22. It is important to think of some ..................... that can be used during the appraisal.
23. The appraisal can be a good time to ask the boss for extra .....................
24. React ..................... to any criticism.
25. It is helpful to identify a number of individual ..................... arising from the appraisal comments.
26. Staff can request a meeting half-way through the year to look at the ..................... which has been
achieved.
27. If staff act on any appraisal comments, they will demonstrate their ..................... to their work.
Answer:
15. holiday 20. questionnaires 25. goals
16. breakout 21. promotion 26. progress
17. notice 22. questions 27. Dedication
18. summary 23. responsibilities
19. badge 24. calmly

Section 3: Question 28-40

Read the text below and answers questions 28-40 on your answer sheet.
You should spend about 20 minutes to complete this task.

GT Reading Sample - "Efforts to save a special bird — the spoon-billed sandpiper"

Questions 28–33.
The text below has six sections, A-F.

Choose the correct heading for each section from the list of headings below.

Write the correct number, i-viii, in boxes 28-33 on your answer sheet.
List of Headings

i Gaining public recognition

ii Reasons for continuing to make the long journey
iii A disappointment followed by desirable outcomes
iv The main stages of the plan
v A growth in the number of natural predators
vi Increasing threats
vii A very unusual feature of these birds
viii Cautious optimism

28. Section A
29. Section B
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30. Section C
31. Section D
32. Section E
33. Section F

Efforts to save a special bird — the spoon-billed sandpiper

Last year an international team of ornithologists devised a bold plan to rescue one of the world’s rarest
birds. Gerrit Vyn reports
A. At first glance, the spoon-billed sandpiper resembles other small migratory birds of the sandpiper family
that breed across the Arctic. But it is the only one to have developed a flattened bill that flares out into a
‘spoon’ at the end, and that makes it special. If it becomes extinct, thousands of years of evolution will come
to an end, which would be a real tragedy.

The bird’s Russian name, kulik-lopaten, means ‘shovel beak’, which is an apt description of a remarkable
structure. The bill is 19 mm long and 10 mm wide near the tip and the edges are lined with sharp serrations,
called papillae. Theories have varied as to how the bill functions; one suggestion is that the sandpiper
sweeps it through the water in a similar fashion to its larger namesake, the spoonbill. But Nigel Clark, a
leading authority on the sandpiper, says the comparison is misleading.

B. Until a few years ago, the spoon-billed sandpiper had never been fully documented, which added to its
fascination. But an air of mystery is not helpful if you’re a Critically Endangered species. So the organisation
‘Birds Russia’ decided to produce a photographic and audio record of this imperilled bird with the help of
experts round the world. In May of last year, I joined the international expedition to one of the species’ last
breeding strongholds in North-East Russia. The primary aim of the two-and-a-half month expedition,
however, was to collect eggs from wild sandpipers; those eggs would then be hatched in captivity nearby.
Later, the chicks would be flown to the Wildfowl and Wetlands Trust (WWT) headquarters at Slimbridge in
the UK, in order to establish a small, self-sustaining population there. These birds would provide a ‘safety
net’, an insurance policy against the wild birds dying out.

C. You might wonder why birds like the spoon-billed sandpiper travel such great distances, about 8,000
km in total, from their wintering grounds on the tropical coasts of Bangladesh, Burma and Vietnam in South-
East Asia to breed on the low land, commonly called tundra, in North-East Russia, but from the birds’ point
of view it is worth it. Though they often arrive to find hostile, wintry weather while they are finding their
mates and making their nests, there are relatively few predators there, and the abundance of insects that
emerge during the brief but intense Arctic summer creates ideal conditions for raising their chicks.

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D. Two main factors are responsible for the sandpiper’s recent rapid decline: the ongoing destruction of
stopover habitat on its migration route and hunting on its wintering grounds. The development of new
industrial cities is destroying former tidal areas, where sandpipers and other migratory birds used to rest
and refuel. Subsistence hunting is certainly a hazard in some Asian countries, where hunters trap birds for
food. Conservationists are targeting this problem with small-scale interventions. For example, hunters from
40 villages have been given alternative sources of income, such as cool boxes in which they can take fish to
sell at markets, in return for a halt to the bird-netting.

E. Once the expedition team had reached its destination, it was seven days before we spotted the first
sandpiper. In the following days, more began to arrive and the males’ song was heard, advertising their
patches of territory to potential mates.
As the sandpipers paired up, the song gave way to the quiet of egg-laying and incubation. In total nine nests
were found. The first one was lost to a predator, along with the female attending it. This was a stark
reminder of the vulnerability of a tiny population to natural events, such as storms or predation.

The team then selected donor nests and transferred the eggs to specially prepared incubators. They
collected 20 eggs in all, taking entire clutches each time – it was early in the breeding season, so the
females were likely to lay replacements. Then 50 days after our arrival, the moment arrived: I witnessed my
first wild spoon-billed sandpipers hatch. I had been lying inside a wind-battered hide for 36 hours when !
saw the first tiny chicks emerge from the eggs. Having hidden a microphone near the nest, I could also just
hear their first calls. Later, I watched them stumbling through the 15 cm-high jungle of grasses on comically
oversized legs and feet. But my joy was tempered by concern. Difficulties on their migration route and in
their wintering areas meant that other tiny creatures like these faced immense dangers.

F. The complex rescue plan does give some grounds for hope. Young chicks were flown to WWT
Slimbridge last year and again this summer. A high-tech biosecure unit has been built for them there, it is
divided in two, with the older birds in one section and this year’s chicks in the other. To minimise the risk of
infections, staff change into full-body overalls and rubber shoes and wash their hands before entering.
Hygiene is crucial: even a single strand of human hair could harm the chicks by becoming twisted round
their legs or bills. The rescue plan’s final stage, once the captive flock has built up sufficiently, will be to fly
eggs back to Russia, to release the chicks there. It’s a gamble, but when the survival of a species this
special is at stake, you have to try.
Questions 34-37

Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.

Write the correct letter in boxes 34—37 on your answer sheet.

34. What was the main purpose of the international expedition?

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A to add sandpiper eggs to an international frozen egg bank

B to maintain a small group of sandpipers for future generations
C to make an audiovisual record of the Russian sandpiper colony
D to protect a colony of wild sandpipers through a breeding season

35. What do we learn about the drop in the sandpiper population?

A The birds are increasingly being hunted on their way north to Russia.
B Scientists are managing to reduce deaths from netting considerably.
C Efforts are being made to protect some of their coastal habitat sites.
D Economic growth is one of the underlying causes of the decline.

36. Which feeling did the writer express when the sandpiper chicks hatched?
A relief that his long wait was over
B surprise at the sound of their song
C worry about birds of the same species
D amazement that they could walk so soon

37. The writer describes the sandpipers’ unit at WWT Slimbridge to emphasise
A how much care is being devoted to their welfare.
B how much money is being spent on the project.
C his surprise at how fragile the young birds are.
D his confidence in the technology available.
Questions 38-40

Complete the summary below.

Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the text for each answer.
The life cycle of the spoon-billed sandpiper
In early spring, spoon-billed sandpipers return to their breeding grounds in Russia in the area known
as 38 ………..… . Although the weather there is often very harsh, to begin with, there are obvious
advantages to the sandpipers. There is above all a plentiful supply of 39 ……...…….. , and this makes it
possible for the sandpiper chicks to develop well. The lack of 40 ……..………. is another definite advantage.
As a result, a good proportion of the chicks grow up to face the long flight to the South-East Asian coasts.
Answer:
28. vii 32. iii 36. C 39. insects
29. iv 33. viii 37. A 40. Predators
30. ii 34. B 38. tundra
31. vi 35. D

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GT Reading Sample: The Medicine, Important Notice: Product Return & Fabulous Furniture

You are advised to spend 20 minutes on Questions 1-13.

Questions 1- 4:

Read the information on The Medicine in the passage below. Do the following statements agree with the
information in the passage?

In boxes 1- 4 on your answer sheet write:

YES if the statement agrees with the information
NO if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN if there is no information about this in the passage
Example Answer
You must shake the bottle before you take the medicine. YES

The Medicine

• This medicine must be taken as directed.

• Before using, shake the bottle.
• Dose: 50ml to be taken twice daily after the midday and evening meals.

Instructions:

• Do not take this medicine on an empty stomach or immediately before lying down.
• If any of the following occur, discontinue taking the medicine and contact your doctor: dizziness, vomiting,
blurred vision.
• This medicine is not available without a prescription and is not suitable for children under 5 years.
• Once you have begun to take this medicine you must continue to take it until the bottle is empty, unless
advised otherwise by your doctor.
• Only one course of this medicine should be taken in a period of six months.
• Expiry date: 16 February 2004.

1. You should lie down after you have taken the medicine.
2. You must stop taking the medicine if your eyesight is affected.
3. You must stop taking the medicine when you feel better.
4. This medicine is suitable for a person of any age.

Questions 5-9
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Look at the notice below. Using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER answer the
following questions.
Write your answers in boxes 5-9 on your answer sheet.
Example Answer
What has been found in some Fancy Foods pieces of metal
products?
5. Where can you find the batch number on the jars?
6. How much will you receive for an opened jar of contaminated Chicken Curry?
7. If you have eaten Chicken Curry from a jar with one of the batch numbers listed, whom should you
contact?
8. What information do they ask you to provide about the jar of Chicken Curry you ate?
9. What is the maximum reward Fancy Foods is offering for information about who contaminated their
product?

IMPORTANT NOTICE: PRODUCT RETURN

Fancy Foods wishes to inform the public that pieces of metal have been found in some jars of Fancy
Foods Chicken Curry (Spicy). The batches of the Jars involved have numbers from J6617 to
J6624.The batch number is printed on the bottom of each jar.

If you have any jars with these batch numbers, please return them (preferably unopened) to the
supermarket where you purchased them. You can also return them to the factory (Fancy Foods
Retailers, Blacktown). Fancy Foods will pay $10 for each jar returned unopened and $5 for each jar
already opened.

No payment will be made for empty jars, which do not need to be returned. However, the company’s
Retailing Manager will be interested to hear from people who have consumed chicken curry from any
of the above batch numbers. In particular, it will be helpful if they can give information about the place
of purchase of the product.

Jars of Fancy Foods Chicken Curry (Coconut) and Fancy Foods Chicken Curry (Mango) have not
been affected and do not need to be returned.

REWARD
Fancy Foods will pay a reward of $ 10,000 to $50,000 for information which leads to the conviction of
any person found guilty of placing metal pieces in its products. If you have such information, please
contact the Customer Relations Manager, Fancy Foods Retailers, Blacktown.

Questions 10-13
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Look at the extract from a brochure on the following page.

From the list of headings below, choose the most suitable headings for Sections C-F.
Write the appropriate numbers i-viii in boxes 10-13 on your answer sheet.
Example Answer
Section A vii
10 Section C
11 Section D
12 Section E
13 Section F
List of Headings

i. Payment options
ii. Save money by not paying interest
iii. Choosing your style of furniture
iv. Free advice on furnishing your home
v. Location of stores
vi. Applying for a card
vii. Ordering furniture from home
viii. A wide range of furniture

Fabulous Furniture

Section A
Have you ever wanted to buy a small bedside table? Or a dinner table for 20 people? If you want it, we’ve
got it! Fabulous Furniture has Australia’s widest choice of furniture.

Section B
If you visit a Fabulous Furniture store, you can have your furniture - right now - using our Fabulous Furniture
Credit Card. When you see something you really want, you can have it straight away, and pay later.

Section C
Unlike most cards, the Fabulous Furniture Credit Card offers a full 60-day interest-free period on every
Fabulous purchase - no matter when you make your purchase. This leaves you with more money to spend
on other things.

Section D

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• You may choose to pay the full amount within 60 days. In this case, you pay no interest.
• You may spread your payments over a longer period. In this case, interest will be charged after the initial
60-day interest-free period.

Section E
Application is absolutely free! Nor are there any annual fees or administration fees. Just fill in the application
form and bring it to your nearest Fabulous Furniture store. Your application will be processed promptly and
you can begin making purchases immediately after your application is approved.

Section F
We have stores in every major city, so you’re never far away from a Fabulous Furniture store. For our
addresses, just check in your local telephone directory.

Answer:
1. NO
2. YES 7. (company’s) Retailing 11. i
3. NO Manager 12. vi
4. NO 8. place of purchase 13. v
5. (on the) bottom (of jar) 9. $50,000
6. $5/five dollars 10. ii

Part 2:

General Training Reading Sample: Student Clubs and Societies & Student Loans

Part - 2: Questions 14-27

Questions 14-17

Read the notice on the following page about Student Clubs and Societies. The notice has four main
paragraphs A-D.
Choose the most suitable heading for each paragraph from the list of headings below.

Write the appropriate numbers i-x in boxes 14-17 on your answer sheet.
List of Headings
i. English Society vi. Games Society
ii. Education Club vii. Women’s Club
iii. Film Appreciation Society viii. Debating Club
iv. Drama Society ix. United Nations Student Club
v. Music Club x. Technical Students’ Club

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14. Paragraph A
15. Paragraph B
16. Paragraph C
17. Paragraph D
Questions 18 and 19:

Using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS, answer the following questions.

Write your answers in boxes 18 and 19 on your answer sheet.
18. How do you let the CAS President know you are interested in joining a club?
19. How often is the CAS Ball held?

STUDENT CLUBS AND SOCIETIES

Desperate to find friends with common interests?
Urgently in need of student contacts around college?
Looking for different cultural and religious experiences?
Wanting some good discussion?
Don’t look any further!
JOIN A CLUB OR SOCIETY AND HAVE FUN

A..................................................................................
This club was first started by a group of friends who enjoyed going to the cinema. When our trips became
more frequent we realised that there must be others who also shared our love of movies. This club is for
those people. Membership gives wide access to other activities like basketball and football as well as
barbeques and other social functions. We don’t just enjoy movies.

B.................................................................................
The association has many opportunities to debate and we are a non-political unbiased international
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organisation which aims to promote international awareness on campus. We establish links and access to
the organisation’s agencies and other internationalist organisations and their resources. Our plans this year
include discussion groups, guest speakers and to build a model of the UN General Assembly.

C................................................................................
Whether for fun or debating experience, we discuss everything from personal experience, future society or
feminism. This year we plan an internal competition, weekly debates and beginners’ lessons as well as
chances to compete nationally. Whether it be to improve your verbal or social skills the society provides
both!

D....................................................................................
Want to be a movie star? Then go somewhere else! On the other hand, want to work really hard for great
rewards? Then come and join the club where the interesting theatre is created. We usually put on three
productions each year. So if you like to write, paint, act, direct or do anything in the theatre, come and put
your name down with us.

If you are interested in joining any of these clubs, you can leave a message for the
President at the CAS Office in the Student Union Building.
And don’t forget the CAS Ball is an annual event!
This year it’s being held on 22 December!

Questions 20-27

It is possible for some students in Higher Education in Britain to borrow money through a government
scheme. These loans are called ‘student loans’ and are described in the following passage.

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Read the passage and answer Questions 20-27 below.

In boxes 20-27 on your answer sheet write

YES if the answer to the question is ‘yes’

NO if the answer to the questions is ‘no’
NOT GIVEN if the information is not given in the passage

Example:
I’m a full-time student at a local college of Higher Education. I already get a standard maintenance grant.
Does this mean I’m not eligible for a student loan?

Answer:
NO

20. I’m taking a month’s cookery course at a local college. It’s a private catering college. I’m going a couple
of evenings a week, after work. I get a diploma at the end of it. Can I get some help with a student loan?

21. I’m starting a foundation course in September. It’s full time and after a year I hope to get on to a degree
course. The fees for the actual course are being paid for by my Local Authority. Am I eligible for a student
loan?

22. I finish my first degree in July. I’ve got a place on a Postgraduate Certificate in Education course to start
in September. Will the Local Authority pay the tuition fees for this course?

23. Now all her children are grown up my mother says she’d like to finish the studies she was forced to give
up earlier in life. She’s 48 now and her course is full-time for a year. Is she too old to get a student loan?

24. I’ve already been given a small scholarship to cover some of my tuition fees. Can I still get a student
loan?

25. I’m actually staying with my aunt while I’m at college. Will the Student Loans Company want to know
how much she earns?

26. I owed the bank rather a lot of money a few years ago. It’s all paid back now but they won’t lend me any
more. Will this disqualify me from getting a student loan?

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27. I took a course a couple of years ago, got a student loan, but had to withdraw half-way through. I’ve kept
up all my payments on my loan. Am I eligible for a second loan?

Student Loans
The Government has been funding a loans scheme for students in Higher Education since September
1990.

These loans are available as a ‘top up’ to the standard grant. Although the loan is intended to supplement
the grant for living costs, eligibility for a student loan is not restricted to those who receive a maintenance
grant. The decision whether or not to take the loan is yours.

Eligibility
You are eligible for a student loan if you are a UK resident and are attending a full-time Higher Education
course, below postgraduate level, or a Postgraduate Certificate in Education course, provided you start your
course before your 50th birthday. Full-time courses last at least one academic year and include sandwich
courses which combine time at college with time spent in a workplace.

Eligible courses are offered by colleges, universities, the Scottish grant-aided colleges and other publicly
funded institutions providing Higher Education courses. In general, eligible courses include first-degree
courses or their equivalents and any other courses for which your Local Authority will pay your tuition fees.

Your financial circumstances

Students who want loans are not ‘means tested’ or ‘credit vetted’ - all those eligible will obtain a loan. This
means that:

• The amount of your maintenance grant or tuition fees does not matter.
• Other income, if any, is not taken into account.
• Any previous student loans are not taken into account.
• The income of your parents, spouse, partner or other relatives is not taken into account.
• Your previous financial record is not a consideration.

When to apply for a loan

If you would like more information on how to apply for a student loan in readiness for your entry to Higher
Education in Autumn 2003, then you should contact The Student Loans Company from June 2003 onwards.
Once in Higher Education, you can apply for a loan at any time in the academic year.

Answer:
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14. iii 19. annually / once a year / 23. NO

15. ix every year / each year 24. YES
16. viii 20. NO 25. NO
17. iv 21. YES 26. NO
18. leave (a) message 22. NOT GIVEN 27. YES

Part 3:

General Training Reading Sample: FIRST IMPRESSIONS COUNT

Part 3: Questions 28-40

Look at the passage below.

FIRST IMPRESSIONS COUNT

A. Traditionally uniforms were - and for some industries still are - manufactured to protect the worker. When
they were first designed, it is also likely that all uniforms made symbolic sense - those for the military, for
example, were originally intended to impress and even terrify the enemy; other uniforms denoted a
hierarchy - chefs wore white because they worked with flour, but the main chef wore a black hat to show he
supervised.
B. The last 30 years, however, have seen an increasing emphasis on their role in projecting the image of an
organisation and in uniting the workforce into a homogeneous unit — particularly in ‘customer facing"
industries , and especially in financial services and retailing. From uniforms and workwear has emerged
‘corporate clothing’. "The people you employ are your ambassadors," says Peter Griffin, managing director
of a major retailer in the UK. "What they say, how they look, and how they behave is terribly important." The
result is a new way of looking at corporate workwear. From being a simple means of identifying who is a
member of staff, the uniform is emerging as a new channel of marketing communication.
C. Truly effective marketing through visual cues such as uniforms is a subtle art, however. Wittingly or
unwittingly, how we look sends all sorts of powerful subliminal messages to other people. Dark colours give
an aura of authority while lighter pastel shades suggest approachability. Certain dress style creates a sense
of conservatism, others a sense of openness to new ideas. Neatness can suggest efficiency but, if it is
overdone, it can spill over and indicate an obsession with power. "If the company is selling quality, then it
must have quality uniforms. If it is selling style, its uniforms must be stylish. If it wants to appear innovative,
everybody can’t look exactly the same. Subliminally we see all these things," says Lynn Elvy, a director of
image consultants House of Colour.
D. But translating corporate philosophies into the right mix of colour, style, degree of branding and
uniformity can be a fraught process. And it is not always successful. According to Company Clothing
magazine , there are 1000 companies supplying the workwear and corporate clothing market. Of these, 22
account for 85% of total sales - £380 million in 1994.
E. A successful uniform needs to balance two key sets of needs. On the one hand, no uniform will work if
staff feel uncomfortable or ugly. Giving the wearers a choice has become a key element in the way
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corporate clothing is introduced and managed. On the other, it is pointless if the look doesn’t express the
business’s marketing strategy. The greatest challenge in this respect is time. When it comes to human
perceptions, first impressions count. Customers will size up the way staff look in just a few seconds, and
that few seconds will colour their attitudes from then on. Those few seconds can be so important that big
companies are prepared to invest years, and millions of pounds, getting them right.
F. In addition, some uniform companies also offer rental services. "There will be an increasing specialisation
in the marketplace," predicts Mr Blyth, Customer Services Manager of a large UK bank. The past two or
three years have seen consolidation. Increasingly, the big suppliers are becoming ‘managing agents’, which
means they offer a total service to put together the whole complex operation of a company’s corporate
clothing package - which includes reliable sourcing, managing the inventory, budget control and distribution
to either central locations or to each staff member individually. Huge investments have been made in new
systems, information technology and amassing quality assurance accreditations.
G. Corporate clothing does have potentials for further growth. Some banks have yet to introduce a full
corporate look; police forces are researching a complete new look for the 21st century. And many
employees now welcome a company wardrobe. A recent survey of staff found that 90 per cent welcomed
having clothing which reflected the corporate identity.
Questions 28-33

The passage "First Impressions Count" has seven paragraphs A-G.

Which paragraphs discuss the following points?
Write the appropriate letters A-G in boxes 28-33 on your answer sheet.
Example Answer

the number of companies supplying the corporate clothing market. D

28. different types of purchasing agreement
29. the original purposes of uniforms
30. the popularity rating of staff uniforms
31. involving employees in the selection of a uniform
32. the changing significance of company uniforms
33. perceptions of different types of dress
Questions 34-40

Do the following statements agree with the views of the writer of the passage? In boxes 34-40 on your
answer sheet write:

YES if the statement agrees with the writer’s views

NO if the statement contradicts the writer’s views
NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this

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34. Uniforms were more carefully made in the past than they are today.
35. Uniforms make employees feel part of a team.
36. Using uniforms as a marketing tool requires great care.
37. Being too smart could have a negative impact on customers.
38. Most businesses that supply company clothing are successful.
39. Uniforms are best selected by marketing consultants.
40. Clothing companies are planning to offer financial services in the future.
Answer:
28. F 33. C 38. NO
29. A 34. NOT GIVEN 39. NOT GIVEN
30. G 35. YES 40. NO
31. E 36. YES
32. B 37. YES

Section 1: Question 1-14

Read the text below and answers questions 1-14 on your answer sheet.
You should take around 20 minutes to complete this task.

GT Reading Sample - "Is Your Child at School Today?" & "Holiday Apartment To Let"

Read the text below and answer Questions 1–5.

Is Your Child at School Today?
School Attendance Information for Parents/Carers Introduction

Receiving a good full-time education will give your child the best possible start in life. Attending school
regularly and punctually is essential if children are to make the most of the opportunities available to them.
The law says that parents must ensure that their child regularly attends the school where he/she is
registered.

What you can do to help

• Make sure your child arrives at school on time. This encourages habits of good timekeeping and
lessens any possible classroom disruption. If your child arrives after the register has closed without a good
reason, this will be recorded as an ‘unauthorised’ absence for that session.

• If your child has to miss school it is vital that you let the school know why, preferably on the first
morning of absence. (Your child’s school will have an attendance policy explaining how this should be
done.)

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• If you know or think that your child is having difficulties attending the school you should contact the
school. It is better to do this sooner rather than later, as most problems can be dealt with very quickly.

Authorised and Unauthorised Absence

If your child is absent and the school either does not receive an explanation from you, or considers the
explanation unsatisfactory, it will record your child’s absence as ‘unauthorised’, that is, as truancy.
Most absences for acceptable reasons will be authorised by your child’s school:

• Sickness
• Unavoidable medical or dental appointments (if possible, arrange these for after school or during
school holidays)
• An interview with a prospective employer or college
• Exceptional family circumstances, such as bereavement
• Days of religious observance.

Your child’s school will not authorise absence for the following reasons:

• Shopping during school hours

• Day trips
• Holidays which have not been agreed
• Birthdays
• Looking after brothers or sisters or ill relatives.
Questions 1–5

Do the following statements agree with the information given in the text above?

In boxes 1-5 on your answer sheet, write:

TRUE if the statement is true

FALSE if the statement is false
NOT GIVEN if the information is not given in the passage

1. Children must go to the school where they are registered.

2. All arrivals after the register has closed are recorded as ‘unauthorised’ absences.
3. If your child is absent from school, you must send the school a letter to explain why.

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4. Staff who think a child is having difficulties at school will contact the parents.
5. Schools will contact other authorities about children who take frequent unauthorised absences.

Read the text below and answers Questions 8-14.

HOLIDAY APARTMENTS TO LET
A: Sleeps 2-3. One-bedroom apartment with uninterrupted sea views. This is a small first-floor apartment in
a well-established apartment complex containing a range of leisure facilities and a supermarket for
residents. On the edge of the town but close to cafes and restaurants. On-street parking is generally
available.

B: Sleeps 2-4. Spacious one-bedroom apartment in a complex that has only just opened, five minutes’ walk
from the sea. Private parking in front of the building. It is located in a quiet, unspoilt village with a local
market, banks, cafes and restaurants. There are some fabulous championship golf courses within easy
walking distance.

C: Sleeps 2+child. One-bedroom cottage (child’s bed can also be provided), large terrace with
uninterrupted views of the river and mountains. A truly peaceful location in a picturesque village, but less
than ten minutes’ drive from the coast and all the amenities of a town. Owners live nearby and are happy to
help in any way they can.

D: Sleeps 2-5. Two-bedroom apartment in a complex with its own pool and beautiful views of the national
park. A peaceful location just 3 km from the town centre, where there are plenty of shops and excellent
sports facilities. Superb local golf courses within easy reach.

E: Sleeps 2-4. Modern one-bedroom first-floor apartment in the house, owners resident on the ground floor.
This great location offers easy access to all that this fantastic town has to offer, a few minutes’ drive from its
supermarket, bank, cafes, restaurants. The ferry to the island beach leaves from 100 m away. Ten minutes
walk from the new shopping centre, which has many shops, food hall, cinema and multi-storey car park.

F: Sleeps 2. One-bedroom first-floor apartment. Beautifully furnished, offering a high standard of comfort.
Situated in a peaceful location on the edge of an inland village, with attractive views of the golf course.
Many restaurants, bars, shops etc. are within easy walking distance. Garage available by arrangement with
the owners.

G: Sleeps 2-4. Two-bedroom apartment in central location in the busy street with shops, restaurants etc.
not far from the beach. The town has ideal facilities for holidays all year round, including swimming pool,
tennis courts and golf course.

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Questions 6-14

The text has seven sections, A-G. For which apartment are the following statements true?

Write the correct letter, A-G, in boxes 6-14 on your answer sheet.

NB You may use any letter more than once.

6. It overlooks a golf course.

7. It has its own parking space.
8. It is in the centre of a town.
9. The sea can be seen from it.
10. There is a swimming pool for residents of the apartment complex.
11. It is in a new apartment complex.
12. It is part of an apartment complex with its own supermarket.
13. It has a private outdoor area where you can sit.
14. The owners will organise parking on request
Answer:

1. TRUE 6. F 11. B
2. FALSE 7. B 12. A
3. NOT GIVEN 8. G 13. C
4. NOT GIVEN 9. A 14. F
5. NOT GIVEN 10. D

Section 2: Question 15-27

Read the text below and answers questions 15-27 on your answer sheet.
You should take around 20 minutes to complete this task.

GT Reading Sample - "GZJ TRAVEL – Recruitment Info" & "Hilton Laboratory"

Read the text below and answer Questions 15–21.

GZJ TRAVEL – Recruitment Info
We’re looking for keen and effective people who are passionate about travel to work as Travel Sales
Consultants in our rapidly-growing team. Our recruitment process has five stages. Here’s how it works:

The first stage is to use our online application form to apply for a current vacancy.
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This is your chance to tell us about yourself, and the qualities and experience you have that make you the
ideal person for the job. For the Travel Sales Consultant role, you’ll need to provide us with evidence that
you have extensive experience in a marketing environment, as well as a solid academic background. If
you’re interested in a career as a Corporate Travel Consultant, you’ll need at least one year’s experience as
a Travel Consultant.

If you reach Stage Two, we’ll arrange a telephone discussion, where you can find out more about us,
including the rewards on offer. For instance, once a year we like to acknowledge outstanding efforts and
celebrate successes with our co-workers, and we have prize-giving ceremonies designed to do just this.

In Stage Three we’ll be able to give you more information about GZJ Travel and find out more about you, at
an interview which you’ll attend with a small group of other applicants. We’ll be asking you about your
ambitions and of course your sales ability, the most vital quality for our business. You’ll also be required to
complete a psychometric test so we can find out more about your working style and characteristics. We’ll
also tell you about some of the perks – for example, as a Flight Center employee you can take advantage of
the free consultations conducted by our in-house health and wellbeing team, Healthwise.

Next, in Stage Four, you’ll be introduced to the Area Leader and you’ll also visit one of our shops, where
you’ll meet the team and find out more about the sort of work that’s involved. If you successfully pass Stage
Four, you’ve reached the final stage of the process and we’ll be in touch with a job offer! And if you accept,
we’ll book you into our Learning Center to get your training underway as soon as possible. Careerwise, the
department responsible for the training, will then organise individual coaching to assist in setting goals for
your career path.

Questions 15–21

Complete the process below.

Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the text for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 15-21 on your answer sheet.

GZJ Travel – Recruitment Process

Stage One – Application form

• Go online and apply for jobs advertised.

• Give proof of achievement so far both in education and in a 15 ……………… .

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(Note: additional requirements for applicants interested in the role of 16 …………………)

Stage Two – Telephone discussion

• More information is given about company and the 17 ……………… you could receive.
• Information about the annual event, where the prizes are given to those who have made 18
………………………

Stage Three – Group interview

• Chance to tell us about how good you are at selling, and also about the 19 ……………… you have.
• Take part in a 20 ……………… (used to learn about your way of working)
• Information given on benefits (e.g. health consultations)

Stage Four – Individual interview

• Meet a manager, and the 21 ……………… working in a particular store.

Stage Five – Job offer

• Job offer sent out to successful applicants.

Read the text below and answers Questions 22-27.

Hilton Laboratory
Health and safety in the workplace

Personal safety
You must be familiar with the emergency procedures in your building so that you know what to do in the
event of fire, spillages or other accidents. Do not enter restricted areas without authorisation, and at all
times observe the warnings given. Do not wedge open fire doors or tamper with door closures, and do not
block doorways, corridors or stairs, as obstructions may affect access in the event of a fire. Avoid leaving
drawers and doors open unnecessarily and do not trail cables or flexes across the floor.

How to dispose of rubbish safely

We aim to protect the environment by saving and recycling glass, waste paper, and an increasing range of
other materials. It is important to check materials carefully for contamination before placing them in
recycling containers. Never put sharp objects such as razor blades or broken glass into waste bins without
having wrapped the items carefully to protect those emptying the bins. Other waste procedures may vary –
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contact your Building Manager or Divisional Safety Officer for advice with regard to your particular
department.

How to handle heavy objects

Make sure that shelves are not overloaded and that glass and heavy objects are stored at working height
where they will be easier to reach. Use steps or ladders to reach items at height; never climb on benches,
tables or chairs. Never move anything that is beyond your capability. Wherever possible you should use the
trolleys provided in the workplace to do the job for you. If repetitive manual operations are routine in your
work, your department will ensure you receive appropriate instruction on safe working practices and
posture.

Staying alert
If you become mentally or physically tired during the working day, and find that you’re feeling drowsy or not
concentrating properly, you could be at risk of causing an accident or making a mistake that could harm you
or your colleagues. To prevent this, make sure that you take regular breaks when necessary.
Questions 22-27

Complete the sentences below.

Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the text for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 22-27 on your answer sheet.

22. There are certain places in the building that staff should avoid unless they have ………….……
23. To ensure people can get out easily, it is important that there are no …….………… to exits.
24. Items which could cause injury must be ……….……… before they are disposed of.
25. Not all departments have the same system for dealing with ……….……… so you need to check before
throwing things away.
26. ………….……are available to make tasks, which require moving objects easier.
27. You should have ………….…… while you are working.
Answer:
15. marketing environment
16. Corporate Travel Consultant
17. rewards
18. outstanding efforts
19. ambitions
20. psychometric test
21. team
22. authorization/authorisation
23. obstructions
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24. wrapped (carefully)

25. waste/rubbish
26. Trolleys
27. (regular) breaks

Section 3: Question 28-40

Read the text below and answers questions 28-40 on your answer sheet.
You should take around 20 minutes to complete this task.

GT Reading Sample - "The Zebras’ long walk across Africa"

Read the text below and answer Questions 28–40.

The Zebras’ long walk across Africa
James Gifford investigates some interesting new research into migration patterns of zebras living in
Botswana in southern Africa.
A.For any animal to travel over 270 km in Botswana partly across the sand and low bush terrain of the
Kalahari Desert is a remarkable achievement. But to do so in 11 days and without any obvious motivation,
as this zebra population does, is quite extraordinary. On average their journey involves an exhausting
round-trip of 588 km – between the Makgadikgadi salt pan area and the Okavango river – making it second
only to the great trek undertaken by the zebra herds in the Serengeti National Park. However, what is even
more incredible still in my view is that until recently it was completely unheard of.

B.Hattie Bartlam, a researcher, discovered this migration while she was tracking zebra groups, officially
known as harems, by the Okavango River for her PhD, Each harem consists of a stallion and his seven or
eight mares with juvenile foals. There is no loyalty between zebras beyond this social group, though harems
often gather together into so-called herds. For her study, Hattie had planned to compare the small-scale
movement patterns of 11 different zebra herds in the area.

C.In December, when the annual rains had transformed the roads into rivers, Hattie was, therefore, more
than a little surprised when she checked the data sent by the radio collars she fits to the zebras she is
tracking to find that six of the harems were 270 km away on the edge of the Makgadikgadi, a huge mineral-
rich area where salt has collected over the years as water evaporates in the heat. Then, when the last of the
moisture from the rains had disappeared in May the following year, five of those harems came wearily back
to the Okavango. This raised the question: why, despite a plentiful supply of food and water, were the
zebras being drawn eastwards to the salt pans? Even more difficult to understand was what made six of the
groups travel so far, while the other five remained by the Okavango.

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D.
This discovery created quite a buzz in the research community. I decided to visit Hattie and she explained
that a century ago the large number of Botswana’s zebra and wildebeest herds and the resulting
competition for grass made migration essential. One of the migration tracks went from the Okavango to
Makgadikgadi. But in the late 1960s, giant fences were put up to stop foot and mouth and other diseases
spreading between wildlife and domestic cattle. One of these went across the migration track. Though the
animals could get round the obstacle, each leg of their journey would now be 200 km longer – an impossible
distance given the lack of permanent water on the extended route. Even today, with the fence gone (it was
taken down in 2004), there is dangerously little drinking water to support the zebras on the return journey to
the Okavango.

E.
As a zebra can live up to 20 years, the migration must have skipped at least one generation during the 40 or
so years that the fences were up. This prompts another question: it has always been assumed that the
young of social herbivores like zebras learn migratory behaviour from their parents, so how did the latest
generation learn when and where to go? Not from their parents, who were prevented from migrating. Did
they follow another species, such as elephants? We may never know.

F.
Hattie’s data points to the conclusion that there are several zebra populations adopting different behaviour.
The first, like the vast majority of the Okavango zebras, take it easy, spending the entire year by the river.
The second group, 15,000-20,000 strong, work a bit harder. They divide their time between the
Makgadikgadi salt pans and the Boteti River, which is reasonably nearby. They sometimes struggle to find
water in the Boteti area during the dry season, often moving 30 km in search of fresh grazing. Their reward:
the juicy grass around the Makgadikgadi after the rains. The final group of zebras, whose numbers are
more modest (though as yet unknown), must surely be considered as among the animal kingdom’s most
remarkable athletes. By moving between the Okavango and the salt pans, they enjoy the best of both
worlds. But the price they pay is an extraordinary journey across Botswana.

G.
Endangered species naturally tend to grab the headlines, so it’s refreshing for a relatively abundant animal
like the zebra to be the centre of attention for once. Zebras are a vital part of the food chain: understanding
their migration, in turn, helps us to interpret the movements of their predators, and Hattie’s research has
shed light on the impact of fences on migratory animals. So what triggered her interest in zebras? She
explains that it is easier to get funding to study exciting animals like lions. Crucial as that undoubtedly is,

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she believes that herbivores like zebras are key to understanding any ecosystem. The scientific community
is fortunate that people like Hattie are willing to take the hard option.
Questions 28-34

The reading passage has seven sections, A-G.

Choose the correct heading for each section from the list of headings below.
Write the correct number i-x, in boxes 28-34 on your answer sheet.

i. A decrease in the zebra population

ii. An obstruction on the traditional route
iii. An unknown species
iv. Some confusing information
v. Staying permanently in the Makgadikgadi
vi. Nearly a record in the zebra world
vii. Three different ways of living
viii. The original aim of the work
ix. How was the information passed on?
x. Why it is important to study zebras
Questions 35-37

Complete the summary below. Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the text for each answer.
Write your answers in boxes 35-37 on your answer sheet.

Social behaviour in zebras

Zebras tend to live together in small units, which experts call 35 …………….. . Here, a male zebra has
charge of a number of adult 36 …………….. and their young. These units sometimes assemble in bigger
groupings or 37 …………….., but it is still clear that the zebras’ loyalty only extends to the small unit they
live in.
Questions 38-40
Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.
Write the correct letter in boxes 38-40 on your answer sheet.

38. How did Hattie feel when she heard some of the zebras had travelled so far?

A. annoyed because she would have to follow them to Makgadikgadi

B. disappointed that not all of them made it back to Okavango
C. frustrated as the rains had made the roads unusable
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D. unsure as to their real motivation for going

39. When describing the different Botswana zebra populations, the writer indicates

A. his admiration for the ones who migrate the furthest distance.
B. his sympathy for the ones who stay by the Okavango River.
C. his disbelief that those by the Boteti have difficulty finding food.
D. his anxiety that their migration patterns may not be able to continue.

40. What does the writer suggest in the final paragraph?

A. Too much time has been wasted on research into the predators like lions.
B. it is sometimes necessary to go against the trend in research matters.
C. Research will result in a ban on fences in areas where zebras live.
D. Research into animals which are not endangered will increase.
Answer:

28. vi 33. vii 38. D

29. viii 34. x 39. A
30. iv 35. harems 40. B
31. ii 36. mares
32. ix 37. herds

Part 1:

You are advised to spend 20 minutes on Questions 1-14.

General Training Reading Sample: Your Moulex Iron & Classic Tours

First, read the text below and answer Questions 1-8.

Your Moulex Iron

A Filling the reservoir

Your iron is designed to function using tap water. However, it will last longer if you use distilled water.

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-- Always unplug the iron before filling the reservoir.

-- Always empty the reservoir after use.

B Temperature and steam control

Your Moulex iron has two buttons which control the intensity of heat produced by the iron. You can,
therefore, adjust the temperature of the iron and the amount of steam being given off depending upon the
type of fabric being ironed.
-- Turn the steam control to the desired intensity.
-- Turn the thermostat control to the desired temperature.

Important: If your iron produces droplets of water instead of giving off steam, your temperature control is
set too low.
C Spray button
This button activates a jet of cold water which allows you to iron out any unintentional creases. Press the
button for one second.
D Pressing button
This button activates a super shot of steam which momentarily gives you an additional 40g of steam when
needed.
Important: Do not use this more than five successive times.
E Suits etc.
It is possible to use this iron in a vertical position so that you can remove creases from clothes on
coathangers or from curtains. Turning the thermostat control and the steam button to maximum, hold the
iron in a vertical position close to the fabric but without touching it. Hold down the pressing button for a
maximum of one second. The steam produced is not always visible but is still able to remove creases.
Important: Hold the iron at a sufficient distance from silk and wool to avoid all risk of scorching. Do not
attempt to remove creases from an item of clothing that is being worn, always use a coathanger.
F Auto-clean
In order that your iron does not become furred up, Moulex have integrated an auto-clean system and we
advise you to use it very regularly (1-2 times per month).
-- Turn the steam control to the off position.
-- Fill the reservoir and turn the thermostat control to maximum.
-- As soon as the indicator light goes out, unplug the iron and, holding it over the sink, turn the steam control
to auto-clean. Any calcium deposits will be washed out by the steam. Continue the procedure until the
reservoir is empty.

Questions 1-4:

Match the pictures below to the appropriate section in the instructions.

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Write the correct letter A-F in boxes 1-4 on your answer sheet.

Questions 5-8

Answer the following questions on the Moulex iron using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS. Write your
answers in boxes 5-8 on your answer sheet.
5. What sort of water is you advised to use?
6. What factor makes you decide on the quantity of steam to use?
7. What should you do if your iron starts to drip water?
8. What could damage your iron if you do not clean it?

Read the information below and answer Questions 9-14.

CLASSIC TOURS -- COACH BREAK INFORMATION
Luggage
We ask you to keep luggage down to one medium-sized suitcase per person, but a small holdall can also
be taken on board the coach.
Seat Allocation
Requests for particular seats can be made on most coach breaks when booking, but since allocations are
made on a first come first served basis, early booking is advisable. When bookings are made with us you
will be offered the best seats that are available on the coach at that time.

Travel Documents

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When you have paid your deposit we will send to you all the necessary documents and labels, so that you
receive them in good time before the coach break departure date. Certain documents, for example air or
boat tickets, may have to be retained and your driver or courier will then issue them to you at the relevant
point.

Special Diets
If you require a special diet you must inform us at the time of booking with a copy of the diet. This will be
notified to the hotel or hotels on your coach break, but on certain coach breaks the hotels used are tourist
class and whilst offering value for money within the price range, they may not have the full facilities to cope
with special diets. Any extra costs incurred must be paid to the hotel by yourself before departure from the
hotel.

Accommodation
Many of our coach-breaks now include, within the price, accommodation with private facilities, and this will
be indicated on the coach break page. Other coach breaks have a limited number of rooms with private
facilities which, subject to availability, can be reserved and guaranteed at the time of booking -- the
supplementary charge shown in the price panel will be added to your account. On any coach break, there
are only a limited number of single rooms. When a single room is available it may be subject to a
supplementary charge and this will be shown on the brochure page.

Entertainment
Some of our hotels arrange additional entertainment which could include music, dancing, film shows, etc.
The nature and frequency of the entertainment presented is at the discretion of the hotel and therefore not
guaranteed and could be withdrawn if there is a lack of demand or insufficient numbers in the hotel.

Questions 9-14:

Choose the appropriate letters A-D and write them in boxes 9-14 on your answer sheet.
9. If you want to sit at the front of the coach -

A ask when you get on the coach.

B arrive early on the departure date.
C book your seat well in advance.
D avoid travelling at peak times.
10. Your air tickets -

A will be sent to your departure point.

B must be collected before leaving.
C will be enclosed with other documents.
D may be held by your coach driver.
11. If you need a special diet you should -

A inform the hotel when you arrive.

B pay extra with the booking.

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C tell the coach company.

D book tourist class.
12. It may be necessary to pay extra for -

A a bathroom.
B boat tickets.
C additional luggage.
D entertainment.
13. Entertainment is available -
A at all hotels.
B if there is the demand.
C upon request.
D for an additional cost.

14. With every booking, Classic Tours guarantee you will be able to -

A request high-quality meals.

B take hand luggage on the coach.
C use your own personal bathroom.
D see a film if you want to.
Answer:
1. D 6. the (type of) fabric 10. D
2. A 7. turn up// increase 11. C
3. C temperature 12. A
4. E 8. calcium deposits//furring up 13. B
5. distilled (water) 9. C 14. B

Part 2:

GT Reading Sample: Clubs for Students & International Students House

You are advised to spend 20 minutes on Questions 15-29.

Questions 15-21:

Look at the article 'Clubs for Students'. Which club would you contact for each of the requirements below:
Write the appropriate letter A-G in boxes 15-21 on your answer sheet. You may use each letter more than
once.
The first one has been done for you as an example.

Example Answer
You wish to go swimming at 7 am every morning G

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15. You would like to take Spanish classes.

16. You want to join a club that has international branches.
17. You would like an opportunity to speak in public.
18. You would like to take part in amateur theatrical productions.
19. You want to visit some famous sites with a group of other students.
20. You are interested in finding out about part-time work.
21. You want to meet some English people who have started their careers.
CLUBS FOR STUDENTS
There are a variety of Clubs which provide social and cultural activities for those wishing to meet others with
similar interests from the same or from different national backgrounds.

A. Commonwealth Trust
Organised discussion meetings, learned talks, cultural events excursions to places of interest and
invitations to major British diary events Open to overseas visitors and students.
B. Charles Peguy Centre
French youth centre providing advice, support and information to young Europeans aged between 18-30.
Facilities include an information and advice service regarding education, work placement and general
welfare rights. Moreover, the centre holds a database of jobs, accommodation and au pair placements
specifically in London. Members may use a fax machine a copier and computers for CVs.
Hours - Monday: 14.00-17.00
Tuesday - Friday: 10.00-17.00
Membership: £35 per year, plus £5 per month.
C. Kensington Committee of
Friendship for Overseas Students KCOF is the society for young people from all countries. Each month
there are some 40 parties, discos, visits to theatres, concerts, walks and other gatherings where you will be
able to meet lots of people. A new programme is sent each month directly to members (£5 to join in
October, less later in the year). Events are free or at low often reduced prices. Office open 10.30-17.30
weekdays only.
D. Royal Overseas League
Open 365 days per year, this is a club with facilities in London and Edinburgh with restaurants, bars and
accommodation. There are branches around the world and 57 reciprocal clubs worldwide. Quarterly
magazine, literary lectures, annual music and art competitions, and summer and winter programme of
events for members. Membership fees overseas students aged 17- 24, £47 per year + initial joining fee
£23.50; others £70 per year + initial joining fee £35 (half price after July). Further information from the
Membership Secretary.

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E. YMCA London Central

Facilities include photography art drama, pottery, language courses, badminton, squash, exercise to music,
circuit training, sports clinic, fitness testing and other activities. Hours weekdays 07.00-22.30,
weekends 10.00-21.00. Membership fees: aged 16-17, £25 per year plus attendance charge of £1 30 per
visit; aged 18-19, £213 per year; aged 20- 25, £366 per year.
F. London Inter-Varsity Club (IVC)
IVC is an activity and social club with a varied range of events, from cycling and drama to windsurfing and
yoga. Most members are young English professionals, but overseas visitors are welcome. The club
arranges restaurant meals, dancing and parties, weekends away around Britain, plus a weekly club night in
a Covent Garden bar. There are usually over 25 different events every week run by IVG members for IVC
members. To find out more, telephone the club or write (Freepost) to the office.
G. Central Club
Provides accommodation and club facilities. No membership fee. Coffee shop open for all meals swimming
pool (open 06.00), multigym, hairdressing salon.
Questions 22-29:

Read the article on International Students House and look at the statements below. In boxes 22-29 on
your answer sheet write:

T if the statement is true

F if the statement is false
NG if the information is not given in the passage
The first one has been done for you as an example.

Example Answer
The club is for overseas students only. FALSE
22. The club has long-term dormitory accommodation.
23. Membership must be renewed monthly.
24. The club provides subsidised restaurant meals.
25. The club is open to non-members on Tuesday evenings.
26. STA Travel help finance the Students Adviser.
27. The services of the Students Adviser are free to all club members.
28. You must make an appointment to see the Students Adviser.
29. There will be a surcharge for accommodation over the Christmas period.

INTERNATIONAL STUDENTS HOUSE

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International Students House is a unique club and accommodation centre for British and overseas
students in London. It is located in the heart of London's West End and is close to all public transport
facilities
ACCOMMODATION
» comfortable accommodation for up to 450 people in single, twin, 3/4 bedded and multi-bedded rooms
» 44 self-contained flats for married students and families.
» long and short stays welcomed.

MEMBERSHIP
Club membership is open to all full-time students, professional trainees, student nurses and au pairs.
Membership costs are kept to an absolute minimum to enable the widest possible access. You can join for
as little as one month and for up to one year at a time. Membership entitles you to use the various facilities
of the House. It has:

* restaurants
* student bars and coffee shop
* study rooms
* clubs and societies
* aerobics and fitness training
* discos, dance, jazz and cinema
* travel and excursions and much more!
The best way to check out all we have on offer is to drop in any Tuesday evening between 7.15 pm and
8.30 pm for Open House in the Club Room. This is an opportunity for you to meet the staff and other club
members, enjoy a free cup of coffee and find out all about what's going on. You can take advantage of
special membership offers. (Useful tip: bring along 3 passport size photographs if you wish to take out
membership.)
ADVICE SERVICE
Thanks to the support of STA Travel and in association with LCOS (the London Conference on Overseas
Students) International Students House now provides the service of an International Students Adviser. This
new welfare service is open to all students at London's bona-fide academic institutions. It aims to provide
welfare support to help students overcome any personal or practical difficulties they may be experiencing
whilst studying in Britain. One of the key features of the Advice Service is that the Adviser can be seen
during the evenings until about 8 pm, Monday to Thursday.
CHRISTMAS & NEW YEAR
Unable to get home for Christmas? How about joining in the fun at International Students House! Check out
our special programme of activity taking place over the Christmas period. Even come and stay - the House
will be offering reduced accommodation rates for students wishing to spend a few days in London over

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Christmas. We'll also have an exciting New Year's Eve party so come and join us and ring in the new year
in the spirit of internationalism.
Answer:
15. E 20. B 25. T
16. D 21. F 26. T
17. A 22. T 27. NG
18. E 23. F 28. NG
19. A 24. NG 29. F

Part 3:

General Training Reading Sample: Paper Recycling

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 30-41 which are based on the Reading Passage below.
PAPER RECYCLING
A. Paper is different from other waste produce because it comes from a sustainable resource: trees. Unlike
the minerals and oil used to make plastics and metals, trees are replaceable. Paper is also biodegradable,
so it does not pose as much threat to the environment when it is discarded. While 45 out of every 100
tonnes of wood fibre used to make paper in Australia comes from waste paper, the rest comes directly from
virgin fibre from forests and plantations. By world standards, this is a good performance since the worldwide
average is 33 percent waste paper. Governments have encouraged waste paper collection and sorting
schemes and at the same time, the paper industry has responded by developing new recycling technologies
that have paved the way for even greater utilization of used fibre. As a result, industry’s use of recycled
fibres is expected to increase at twice the rate of virgin fibre over the coming years.

B. Already, waste paper constitutes 70% of paper used for packaging and advances in the technology
required to remove ink from the paper have allowed a higher recycled content in newsprint and writing
paper. To achieve the benefits of recycling, the community must also contribute. We need to accept a
change in the quality of paper products; for example, stationery may be less white and of a rougher texture.
There also needs to support from the community for waste paper collection programs. Not only do we need
to make the paper available to collectors but it also needs to be separated into different types and sorted
from contaminants such as staples, paperclips, string and other miscellaneous items.

C. There are technical limitations to the amount of paper which can be recycled and some paper products
cannot be collected for re-use. These include the paper in the form of books and permanent records,
photographic paper and paper which is badly contaminated. The four most common sources of paper for
recycling are factories and retail stores which gather large amounts of packaging material in which goods
are delivered, also offices which have unwanted business documents and computer output, paper
converters and printers and lastly households which discard newspapers and packaging material. The
paper manufacturer pays a price for the paper and may also incur the collection cost.

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D. Once collected, the paper has to be sorted by hand by people trained to recognise various types of
paper. This is necessary because some types of paper can only be made from particular kinds of recycled
fibre. The sorted paper then has to be repulped or mixed with water and broken down into its individual
fibres. This mixture is called stock and may contain a wide variety of contaminating materials, particularly if
it is made from mixed waste paper which has had little sorting. Various machineries are used to remove
other materials from the stock. After passing through the repulping process, the fibres from printed waste
paper are grey in colour because the printing ink has soaked into the individual fibres. This recycled
material can only be used in products where the grey colour does not matter, such as cardboard boxes but
if the grey colour is not acceptable, the fibres must be de-inked. This involves adding chemicals such as
caustic soda or other alkalis, soaps and detergents, water-hardening agents such as calcium chloride,
frothing agents and bleaching agents. Before the recycled fibres can be made into the paper they must be
refined or treated in such a way that they bond together.

E. Most paper products must contain some virgin fibre as well as recycled fibres and unlike glass, paper
cannot be recycled indefinitely. Most paper is down-cycled which means that a product made from recycled
paper is of an inferior quality to the original paper. Recycling paper is beneficial in that it saves some of the
energy, labour and capital that go into producing virgin pulp. However, recycling requires the use of fossil
fuel, a non-renewable energy source, to collect the waste paper from the community and to process it to
produce new paper. And the recycling process still creates emissions which require treatment before they
can be disposed of safely. Nevertheless, paper recycling is an important economic and environmental
practice but one which must be carried out in a rational and viable manner for it to be useful to both industry
and the community.
Questions 30-36

Complete the summary below of the first two paragraphs of the Reading Passage.

Choose ONE OR TWO WORDS from the Reading Passage for each answer.
Write your answers in boxes 30-36 on your answer sheet.

SUMMARY

Example
From the point of view of recycling, paper has two advantages over minerals and .....oil.....
in that firstly it comes from a resource which is ...... (30) ......and secondly it is less threatening to our
environment when we throw it away because it is ...... (31)...... Although Australia’s record in the re-use of
waste paper is good, it is still necessary to use a combination of recycled fibre and ...... (32)...... to make
new paper. The paper industry has contributed positively and people have also been encouraged by
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...... (33) ...... to collect their waste on a regular basis. One major difficulty is the removal of ink from used
paper but ...... (34) ...... are being made in this area. However, we need to learn to accept paper which is
generally of a lower ...... (35)...... than before and to sort our waste paper by removing ...... (36) ...... before
discarding it for collection.
Questions 37-41

Look at paragraphs C, D, and E and, using the information in the passage, complete the flow chart below.
Write your answers in boxes 37-41 on your answer sheet. Use ONE OR TWO WORDS for each answer.

Answer:
30. sustamable// replaceable 34. advances 39. (re)pulped
31. biodegradable 35. quality 40. de-ink// remove ink// make
32. virgin fibre// pulp 36. contaminants white
33. governments// the 37. offices 41. Refined
government 38. sorted
Section 1: Question 1-14
You are advised to spend 20 minutes on Questions 1-14.

GT Reading Sample: Mail Order Brochure & New Book Releases

Question 1-7:
MAIL ORDER BROCHURE
Want some great clothing ideas for your family?
Our key for clothing specials in July: M for men W for women C for children

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For under $10

Cotton socks C - made of pure cotton for long wearing
Woollen socks C - to keep young feet warm in winter
Sports socks M - to go with jeans and other casual clothes
Patterned belts W - to go with jeans and other casual clothes

For under $25

Cotton shirts W - for day and evening wear
Silk shirts M - five sizes, in designer colours, for that special social occasion
T-shirts C - hard-wearing, white with a variety of animal motifs
Colour T-shirts M W - cotton and polyester blend, plain colours, no ironing

For under $50

Blue jeans M W - non-shrink, colourfast, small sizes only
Silk shirts M W - plain and patterned, all sizes
Hooded jacket C - protects from the wind, 4 sizes, large strong pockets
jacket W - waterproof with zipper front, all sizes
Or you can buy a gift voucher so that someone else can choose. These come in $10, $20 and $50amounts.
Additional monthly specials for July to September
July - $10 voucher with any purchase over $60
August - Travel alarm clock worth $19.95 free with purchases of $80 or more!
September - Children's backpacks. Free with any credit card purchase over $75!
Note: Postage and packing charges
These are applied to each order as follows:

Within Australia:
$7.95 per address, regular post
$17.95 for Express Delivery Service (overnight)

Overseas:
Surface Mail (allow a minimum of two months for delivery)
Airmail (allow around two weeks delivery to most destinations)
Questions 1-7

Do the following statements agree with the information given in the text?

In boxes 1-7 on your answer sheet, write:

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TRUE if the statement agrees with the information

FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this
1. Women's cotton socks cost less than men's.
2. Men's silk shirts are available in more than five colours.
3. Children's T-shirts come in a variety of colours.
4. The child's jacket has four pockets.
5. If you buy clothes worth $80 in August, you will receive a free alarm clock.
6. The charge for special next-day delivery in Australia is $7.95.
7. All clothing is guaranteed to arrive within two months for international delivery.

Question 8-14:
New Book Releases
A. This book describes the creativity of Aboriginal people living in the driest parts of Australia. Stunning
reproductions of paintings, beautiful photography and informative text.
B. Pocket-sized maps and illustrations with detailed information on the nesting sites and migration patterns
of Australia. This is a classic booklet suitable for both beginner and expert.
C. Packed full of information for the avid hiker, this book is a must. Photographs, maps and practical advice
will guide your journeys on foot through the forests of the southern continent.
D. More than an atlas - this book contains maps, photographs and an abundance of information on the land
and climate of countries from around the globe.
E. Australia's premier mountain biking guidebook - taking you through a host of national parks and state
forests.
F. Here's the A-Z of Australian native animals - take an in-depth look at their lives and characteristics,
through fantastic photographs and informative text.
G. Graphic artists have worked with researchers and scientists to illustrate how these prehistoric animals
lived and died on the Australian continent.
H. A definitive handbook on outdoor safety - with a specific focus on equipment, nutrition, first aid, special
clothing and bush skills.
I. Detailed guides to 15 scenic car tours that will take you onto fascinating wilderness tracks and along
routes that you could otherwise have missed.
Questions 8-14

The list of New Book Releases on the following page has nine book descriptions A-I.
Choose the correct title for each book from the list of book titles below.

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Write the correct number i-xi in boxes 8-14 on your answer sheet.
List of Book Titles
i. Field Guide to Native Birds of Australia
ii. The Bush on Two Wheels: 100 Top Rides
iii. Bush Foods of Australian Aborigines
iv. A Pictorial History of the Dinosaur in Australia
v. Bush walking in Australia
vi. WorldGeographica
vii. Driving Adventures for 4-wheel-drive Vehicles
viii. Survival Techniques in the Wild
ix. Encyclopaedia of Australian Wildlife
x. Guide to the Art of the Australian Desert
xi. Field Guide to Animals of the World
8. Book A
9. Book B
10. Book C

Example Book D Answer vi

11. Book E
12. Book F
13. Book G
14. Book H

Example Book I Answer vii

Answer:
1. NOT GIVEN 6. FALSE 11. ii
2. NOT GIVEN 7. FALSE 12. ix
3. FALSE 8. x 13. iv
4. NOT GIVEN 9. i 14. viii
5. TRUE 10. v

Section 3: Question 28-40

You are advised to spend 20 minutes on Questions 28-40.

GT Reading Sample: The lack of sleep

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 28-40, which are based on the Reading Passage below.
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The Lack Of Sleep

Section A In the fifth stage, the rapid eye movement

It is estimated that the average man or woman (REM) stage, the heartbeat quickly gets back to
needs between seven-and-a-half and eight normal levels, brain activity accelerates to
hours' sleep a night. Some can manage on a lot daytime heights and above and the eyes move
less. Baroness Thatcher, for example, was constantly beneath closed lids as if the sleeper
reported to be able to get by on four hours' is looking at something. During this stage, the
sleep a night when she was Prime Minister of body is almost paralysed. This REM phase is
Britain. Dr Jill Wilkinson, senior lecturer in also the time when we dream.
psychology at Surrey University and co-author
of 'Psychology in Counselling and Therapeutic Section E
Practice', states that healthy individuals Sleeping patterns change with age, which is
sleeping less than five hours or even as little as why many people over 60 develop insomnia. In
two hours in every 24 hours are rare, but America, that age group consumes almost half
represent a sizeable minority. the sleep medication on the market. One theory
for the age-related change is that it is due to
Section B hormonal changes. The temperature rise occurs
The latest beliefs are that the main purposes of at daybreak in the young, but at three or four in
sleep are to enable the body to rest and the morning in the elderly. Age aside, it is
replenish, allowing time for repairs to take place estimated that roughly one in three people
and for tissue to be regenerated. One suffer some kind of sleep disturbance. Causes
supporting piece of evidence for this rest- can be anything from pregnancy and stress to
and¬repair theory is that production of the alcohol and heart disease. Smoking is a known
growth hormone somatotropin, which helps handicap to sleep, with one survey showing that
tissue to regenerate, peaks while we are ex-smokers got to sleep in 18 minutes rather
asleep. Lack of sleep, however, can than their earlier average of 52 minutes.
compromise the immune system, muddle
thinking, cause depression, promote anxiety Section F
and encourage irritability. Apart from self-help therapy such as regular
exercise, there are psychological treatments,
Section C including relaxation training and therapy aimed
Researchers in San Diego deprived a group of at getting rid of pre-sleep worries and anxieties.
men of sleep between Sam and lam on just one There is also sleep reduction therapy, where the
night, and found that levels of their bodies' aim is to improve sleep quality by strictly
natural defences against viral infections had regulating the time people go to bed and when
fallen significantly when measured the following they get up. Medication is regarded by many as

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morning. 'Sleep is essential for our physical and a last resort and often takes the form of sleeping
emotional well-being and there are few aspects pills, normally benzodiazepines, which are
of daily living that are not disrupted by the lack minor tranquillizers.
of it', says Professor William Regelson of
Virginia University, a specialist in insomnia. Section G
'Because it can seriously undermine the Professor Regelson advocates the use of
functioning of the immune system, sufferers are melatonin for treating sleep disorders. Melatonin
vulnerable to infection.' is a naturally secreted hormone, located in the
pineal gland deep inside the brain. The main
Section D function of the hormone is to control the body's
For many people, lack of sleep is rarely a biological clock, so we know when to sleep and
matter of choice. Some have problems getting when to wake. The gland detects light reaching
to sleep, others with staying asleep until the it through the eye; when there is no light, it
morning. Despite popular belief that sleep is secretes the melatonin into the bloodstream,
one long event, research shows that, in an lowering the body temperature and helping to
average night, there are five stages of sleep induce sleep. Melatonin pills contain a synthetic
and four cycles, during which the sequence of version of the hormone and are commonly used
stages is repeated. for jet lag as well as for sleep disturbance. John
In the first light phase, the heart rate and blood Nicholls, sales manager of one of America's
pressure go down and the muscles relax. In the largest health food shops, claims that sales of
next two stages, sleep gets progressively the pill have increased dramatically. He explains
deeper. In stage four, usually reached after an that it is sold in capsules, tablets, lozenges and
hour, the slumber is so deep that, if awoken, the mixed with herbs. It is not. effective for all
sleeper would be confused and disorientated. It insomniacs, but many users have weaned
is in this phase that sleep-walking can occur, themselves off sleeping tablets as a result of its
with an average episode lasting no more than application.
15 minutes.

Questions 28-37

The passage has seven sections labelled A-G.

Which section contains the following information?

Write the correct letter A-G in boxes 28-35 on your answer sheet.

NB You may use any letter more than once.

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28. the different amounts of sleep that people require

29. an investigation into the results of sleep deprivation
30. some reasons why people may suffer from sleep disorders
31. lifestyle changes which can help overcome sleep-related problems
32. a process by which sleep helps us to remain mentally and physically healthy
33. claims about a commercialised man-made product for sleeplessness
34. the role of physical changes in sleeping habits
35. the processes involved during sleep

Questions 36-40

Do the following statements agree with the information given in the passage?

In boxes 36-40 on your answer sheet, write:

TRUE if the statement agrees with the information
FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this
36. Sleep can cure some illnesses.
37. The various stages of sleep occur more than once a night.
38. Dreaming and sleep-walking occur at similar stages of sleep.
39. Sleepers move around a lot during the REM stage of sleep.
40. The body temperature rises relatively early in elderly people.

Answer:
28. A 33. G 38. FALSE
29. C 34. E 39. FALSE
30. E 35. D 40. TRUE
31. F 36. NOT GIVEN
32. B 37. TRUE
Section 1: Question 1-14
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-14.

GT Reading Sample: Consumer advice on buying shoes & Lost Cards

Read the text below and answer Questions 1- 8.

CONSUMER ADVICE ON BUYING SHOES
If you have a problem with shoes you’ve recently bought, follow this four-step plan.

Step 1
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Go back to the shop with proof of purchase. If you return faulty shoes at once, you have a right to insist on a
refund. It is also likely that you will get one if you change your mind about the shoes and take them back
immediately. But, if you delay or you’ve had some use out of the shoes, the shop may not give you all your
money back. It depends on the state of the shoes and how long you’ve had them.

If you are offered a credit note, you don’t have to accept it. If you accept it, you will usually not be able to
exchange it for cash later on. So, you may be left with an unwanted credit note, if you cannot find any other
shoes you want from the shop.

The shop may want to send the shoes back to head office for inspection. This is fair and could help to sort
things out. But don’t be put off by the shop which claims that it’s the manufacturer’s responsibility. This isn’t
true. It’s the shop’s legal duty to put things right.

Step 2
If you don’t seem to be getting anywhere, you can get help. Free advice is available from a Citizens Advice
Bureau (get the address from your telephone book), or from a local Trading Standards Department. Again,
consult the telephone directory under County, Regional or Borough Council. All these departments have
people who can advise you about faulty goods and what to do with them.

Step 3
Most shops are covered by the Footwear Code of Practice. If the shop you are dealing with is covered, you
can ask for the shoes to be sent to the Footwear Testing Centre for an independent opinion. The shop has
to agree with whatever the resulting report says. There is a charge of £21. You pay £7 and the shop pays
the rest (including postage).

Step 5
As a last resort, you can take your case to court. This is not as difficult as it sounds. The small claims
procedure for amounts up to £ 1000 (£750 in Scotland) is a cheap, easy and informal way of taking legal
action.

The relevant forms are available from your nearest County Court or, in Scotland, the Sheriff Court. You can
get advice and leaflets from the Citizens Advice Bureau. Alternatively, some bookshops sell advice packs
which contain the relevant forms.
Question 1-8:

Do the following statements agree with the information given in the text?

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In boxes 1-8 on your answer sheet, write:

TRUE if the statement agrees with the information

FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this

1. If you return unwanted shoes straightaway, with a receipt, the shop will probably give you a refund.
2. You are advised to accept a credit note if you are offered one.
3. The factory is responsible for replacing unwanted shoes.
4. You can ask any shoe shop to send shoes to the Footwear Testing Centre.
5. Shops prefer to give a credit note rather than change shoes.
6. The customer contributes to the cost of having faulty shoes tested.
7. The procedure for making a legal claim is easier in Scotland.
8. Legal advice and forms can be bought from certain shops.

Read the text below and answer Questions 9-14.

LOST CARDS
If you discover that your credit card, cheque book, debit card or cash card is missing, telephone the credit
card company or bank as soon as possible. Follow this up with a letter. If you suspect theft, tell the police as
well. In most circumstances, provided you act quickly, you will not have to pay any bills which a thief runs up
on your account. Most home insurance policies will also cover you against even this limited risk.

Because plastic money is now so common, central registration schemes such as Credit Card Shield and
Card Protection System exist to help customers whose cards are lost or stolen. Under the schemes, you file
details of all your cards - including cash cards and account cards issued by shops - with a central registry,
for a small annual fee. Then, if any or all of your cards are stolen, you need to make only one phone call to
the registry, which is open around the clock 365 days a year. As soon as you have called, your
responsibility for any bills run up by the thief ends and the scheme's staff make sure that all the companies
whose cards you had are notified.

What you stand to lose on a stolen card

CREDIT CARD You will not have to pay more than £50 of the bills a thief runs up with your card. If you
report the loss before the card is used, you will not have to pay anything.

CHEQUES AND GUARANTEE CARD Unless you have been careless - by signing blank cheques, say -
you will not have to pay for any forged cheques a thief uses. The bank or shop that accepts them will have
to bear the loss.

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DEBIT CARD (Switch or Visa Delta) The banks operate a system similar to that for credit cards, in that you
are liable for bills up to £50.

If your cash card is stolen

Legally, you can be made to pay back any sums a thief withdraws using your card, but only up to the time
you report the loss and up to £50, unless the bank can prove gross negligence, such as writing your
personal identification number on your card.

• Never keep your card and a note of your personal number (which does not appear on the card) together.
• Memorise your personal number if possible. If you must make a note of it, disguise it as something else - a
telephone number, say.
• The same rules and precautions apply to a credit card used as a cash card.
Question 9-14:

Chose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.

Write the correct letter in boxes 9-14 on your answer sheet.

9. What should you do first if you lose a credit card?

A. contact your insurance company
B. write a letter
C. contact the police
D. make a phone call

10. Credit Card Shield is

A. an insurance company which deals with card theft.
B. a system for registering people's card details.
C. an emergency telephone answering service.
D. an agency for finding lost or stolen cards.

11. When contacted, the Card Protection System company will

A. inform the police about the loss of the card.
B. get in touch with the relevant credit card companies.
C. ensure that lost cards are replaced.
D. give details about the loss of the card to shops.

12. You are fully covered by both banks and shops if you lose
A. a cheque that is signed but not otherwise completed.

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B. a blank unsigned cheque.

C. a Switch card
D. a credit card

13. If you have written your personal number on a stolen card, you may have to
A. join a different credit card protection scheme.
B. pay up to £50 for any loss incurred.
C. pay for anything the thief buys on it.
D. change your account to a different bank.

14. What happens if your cash card is stolen?

A. you arrange for the card to be returned.
B. the bank stops you withdrawing money.
C. you may have to pay up to £50 of any stolen money.
D. you cannot use a cash card in future.
Answer:
1. TRUE 6. TRUE 11. B
2. FALSE 7. NOT GIVEN 12. B
3. FALSE 8. TRUE 13. C
4. FALSE 9. D
5. NOT GIVEN 10. B
14. C

Section 2: Question 15-27

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 15-27.

GT Reading Sample: Recycling at work - handy hints to employers & How to answer any interview question

Read the text below and answer Questions 15-21.

Recycling at work - handy hints to employers
It is estimated that avoidable waste costs UK businesses up to 4.5% of their annual

revenue. Reducing waste in the workplace is about being efficient. By

becoming more efficient, businesses not only increase profits but they also save natural resources.
On the island of Jersey, for example, the amount of waste produced each year has doubled since 1980. In
2004 it topped 100,000 tonnes - and 60% is generated by local businesses. A lot of waste for a small island!
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Setting up a company scheme

Waste audit
Before starting a recycling scheme, perform an audit. This will make you aware of how much waste you are
producing in the company.

Company policy
Consider switching your office waste contractor to one that provides a recycling service.

Buy recycled paper. Although this is sometimes more expensive, costs can be reduced by lowering
consumption and using duplex printers.

Get everyone involved

• Raise awareness internally within the company, perhaps by putting up educational posters.
• Allocate a person to be the point of contact for anyone with queries.

There are also a couple of ways to increase motivation:

• Hold internal competitions between different departments. For example, see which can reduce their waste
the most within a specific time period.
• Send out regular newsletters reporting on all waste improvements. Staff will then see the impact their
actions are having.
What to recycle and how
Paper
According to a recent survey, 65% of waste produced is paper waste. The waste paper will inevitably be
produced in the workplace, but it is not necessary to discard it. It can serve a variety of purposes before it is
recycled, such as writing notes. Envelopes too can be re-used for internal mail.

Plastic cups
Rather than supplying disposable plastic cups in your workplace, get ceramic mugs that can be re-used.
Not only do they make your tea taste better, but they can reduce your office waste by up to 1%!

Electrical equipment
Rather than giving up on any old electrical equipment and just throwing it away, why not try upgrading it?
This reduces waste, as well as avoiding the need to manufacture a new machine - a process which creates
a large amount of waste. You could also consider donating your old computers to charities when it comes to
replacing them.
Questions 15-21

Answer the questions below.

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Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the text for each answer.
Write your answers in boxed 15-21 on your answer sheet.

15. What does the writer think should be carried out in a company before it starts recycling?

16. What machines can help to cut the stationery budget?

17. What can be displayed in the workplace to publicise the recycling scheme?

18. What can be distributed to motivate staff to recycle more?

19. What can unwanted paper be used for in the office?

20. What can be bought to cut down on the waste produced by staff refreshments?

21. Where can unwanted PCs be sent?

Read the text below and answer Questions 22-27.

How to answer any interview question
To start, take a tip from consultants who coach executives on how to handle media interviews. They say
you can deliver the message you want to an employer, regardless of the question you're asked.

’Unlike some politicians, who take no notice of press questions and immediately introduce a different topic
in response, job candidates must answer employers' queries,' says John Barford of the interview training
firm Genesis. 'However, you can quickly make the transition from your answer to the important points you
want to convey about your qualifications,' he says.

He advises candidates at job interviews to apply the formula Q = A + 1: Q is the question; A is the answer; +
is the bridge to the message you want to deliver; and 1 is the point you want to make.

Diligent preparation is also necessary to effectively answer any interview question, say senior executives.
They give a number of useful tips:

• Learn as much as you can beforehand. Ask company employees questions prior to job interviews to gain
as much insight as you can. If the company is publicly owned, find out how viable it is by reading
shareholder reports. You can then tailor what you say to the company's issues.

• Be prepared for questions that require you to show how you handled difficult challenges. These questions
require stories in response, but as it's unlikely that you'll have one that fits every situation, try to recall some
from your past experience that show how you coped with a range of issues.

• Count on being asked about a past mistake or blemish on your career record, and don't try to dodge the
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issue. Ms Murphy, president of the Murphy Group, a media interview training firm, says that it's important to
steer clear of lies at all costs. Just answer the question and move on.

• When discussing a mistake, focus on the positive outcomes. 7ou learn as much by dropping the ball as
you do by catching it,' says senior executive Mr Friedmann. When he was being interviewed for his current
job, he mentioned he had been involved in many successful turnarounds and one that failed. ’And I said
how I'd benefited in many ways from going through that experience,' he says.
Questions 22-27

Complete the sentences below

Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the text for each answer.
Write your answers in boxed 22-27 on your answer sheet.

22. The writer warns candidates not to imitate the way that ................. ignore questions in interviews.

23. Interviewees are recommended to follow a certain ................. to allow them to communicate their main points.

24. Senior executives advise candidates to request information from ................. before an interview.

25. A candidate can also learn about a business by studying its .................

26. The head of an interview training firm advises people to avoid telling .................

27. In his job interview, one executive explained how he had ................. considerably from a previous failure.

Answer:
15. audit// an audit// waste 19. (writing) notes 24. (company) employees
audit 20. (ceramic) mugs 25. shareholder reports
16. (duplex) printers 21. (to) charities 26. lies
17. (educational) posters 22. (some) politicians 27. benefited// benefitted
18. (regular) newsletters 23. formula

Section 3: Question 28-40

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 28-40.

GT Reading Sample: Talking Point

Read the text below and answer Questions 28- 40.

TALKING POINT
Learning a second language fuels children’s intelligence and makes their job prospects brighter. But the fact
is, in New Zealand, as in many other English-speaking countries, speakers of two or more languages are in
the minority. Eighty-four percent of New Zealanders are monolingual (speakers of only one language). This
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leaves a small number who claim to speak two or more languages - a small percentage of whom were born
in New Zealand.

No matter how proud people are of their cultural roots, to speak anything other than English is a marker of
difference here. That’s why eight-year-old Tiffany Dvorak no longer wishes to speak her mother-tongue,
German, and eight-year-old Ani Powell is embarrassed when people comment on the fact that she is able to
speak Maori *. As Joanne Powell, Ani’s mother, points out: ‘In Europe, it’s not unusual for kids to be
bilingual. But, if you speak another language to your children in New Zealand, there are some people who
think that you are not helping them to become a member of society.’

But in fact, the general agreement among experts is that learning a second language is good for children.
Experts believe that bilinguals - people who speak two languages - have a clear learning advantage over
their monolingual schoolmates. This depends on how much of each language they can speak, not on which
language is used, so it doesn’t matter whether they are learning Maori or German or Chinese or any other
language.

Cathie Elder, a professor of Language Teaching and Learning at Auckland University, says: ‘A lot of studies
have shown that children who speak more than one language sometimes learn one language more slowly,
but in the end, they do as well as their monolingual schoolmates, and often better, in other subjects. The
view is that there is an improvement in general intelligence from the effort of learning another language.’

Dr Brigitte Halford, a professor of linguistics at Freiburg University in Germany, agrees. ‘Bilinguals tend to
use language better as a whole,’ she says. They also display greater creativity and problem-solving ability,
and they learn further languages more easily.’

So with all of the benefits, why do we not show more enthusiasm for learning other languages? Parents and
teachers involved in bilingual education say pressure from friends at school, general attitudes to other
languages in English-speaking countries, and problems in the school system are to blame.

In New Zealand, immigrants face the possibility of culture being lost along with the language their children
no longer wish to speak. Tiffany’s mother, Susanne Dvorak, has experienced this. When she and husband
Dieter left Germany six years ago to start up a new life in New Zealand, they thought it would be the perfect
opportunity to raise their two-year-old as a bilingual. After all, bilingual Turkish families in Germany were
normal and Susanne had read all the books she could find on the subject.

The idea was to have home as a German language environment and for Tiffany to learn English at nursery
school. But when Tiffany went to nursery school she stopped talking completely. She was quiet for about
two or three months. Then, when she took up talking again, it was only in English. Concerned for her
language development, Dieter started speaking English to his daughter while Susanne continued in

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German.

Today, when Susanne speaks to her daughter in German, she still answers in English. ‘Or sometimes she
speaks half and half. I checked with her teacher and she very seldom mixes up German and English at
school. She speaks English like a New Zealander. It’s her German that’s behind,’ says Susanne.

Professor Halford, also a mother of two bilingual children, says, ‘It’s normal for kids to refuse to speak their
home language at the stage when they start to socialise with other kids in kindergarten or school’. But, she
says, this depends a lot on the attitudes of the societies in question. In monolingual societies, like New
Zealand, ‘kids want to be like all the others and sometimes use bilingualism as one of the battlefields for
finding their own identity in contrast to that of their parents.’

She supports Susanne’s approach of not pressuring her daughter. ‘Never force the child to use a specific
language, just keep using it yourself. The child will accept that. There is often a time when children or
teenagers will need to establish their own identity as different from their schoolmates and they may use their
other language to do so.’

Cathie Elder thinks immigrant parents should only speak English to their children if they are able to use
English well themselves. ‘What parents should do is provide rich language experiences for their children in
whatever language they speak well. They may feel like outsiders and want to speak the local language, but
it is more important for the child’s language development to provide a lot of language experience in any
language.’

There can be differences between children in attitudes to learning languages. Susanne Dvorak’s two-year-
old son, Danyon, is already showing signs of speaking German and English equally well. While her ‘ideal’
scenario hasn’t happened with Tiffany, she is aware that her daughter has a certain bilingual ability which,
although mainly passive at this stage, may develop later on.

Joanne Powell feels the same way about her daughter, Ani. ‘At the moment she may not want to speak
Maori but that’s okay because she’ll pick it up again in her own time. It’s more important that she has the
ability to understand who she is. By learning another language she can open the door to another culture.’

Donna Chan, 25, a marketing specialist for IBM, arrived here with her parents from Hong Kong when she
was four. She also remembers refusing to speak Chinese when she started primary school. But now she
appreciates she had the chance to be bilingual. ‘It’s quite beneficial speaking another language in my job.
Last year, my company sent me to a trade fair in Hong Kong because I could speak Chinese. Being
bilingual definitely opens doors,’ she says.
* Maori: the language spoken by the Maori people, the first native people of New Zealand.
Questions 28-31

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Do the following statements agree with the information given in the text?
In boxes 28-31 on your answer sheet, write:

TRUE if the statement agrees with the information

FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this

28. Most people who speak a second language in New Zealand were born in another country.
29. Most New Zealanders believe it is good to teach children a second language.
30. Chinese is the most common foreign language in New Zealand.
31. Some languages develop your intelligence more than others.
Questions 32-38

Look at the following statements (Questions 32-38) and the list of people below.
Match each statement with the correct person, A-E.
Write the correct letter, A-E, in boxes 32-38 on your answer sheet.
NB You may use any letter more than once.

32. Children learning two languages may learn one language faster.
33. It has been unexpectedly difficult to raise a bilingual child in New Zeland.
34. Her daughter sometimes speaks a mixture of two languages.
35. Children's attitudes to language depend on general social attitudes.
36. It is not important which language parents speak with their children.
37. Learning a second language provides opportunities to learn another culture.
38. Speaking a second language provides work opportunities.
List of People
A Cathie Elder
B Brigitte Halford
C Susanne Dvorak
D Joanne Powell
E Donna Chan

Question 39 Choose TWO letters, A-F. Write the correct letters in box 39 on your answer sheet.

39. Which TWO people stopped speaking one language as a child?

A Donna Chan
B Susanne Dvorak
C Tiffany Dvorak
D Cathie Elder
E Brigitte Halford
F Joanne Powell

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Question 40 Choose TWO letters, A-F. Write the correct letters in box 40 on your answer sheet.

40. Which TWO people think that their children's language may develop as they get older?

A Donna Chan
B Susanne Dvorak
C Tiffany Dvorak
D Cathie Elder
E Brigitte Halford
F Joanne Powell

Answer:
28. TRUE 33. C 38. E
29. NOT GIVEN 34. C 39. A, C [in either order, both
30. NOT GIVEN 35. B required for one mark]
31. FALSE 36. A 40. B, F [in either order, both
32. A 37. D required for one mark]
Section 1: Question 1-14
You are advised to spend 20 minutes on Questions 1-14.

General Training Reading Sample: Some places to visit & LearnWithUs courses

Read the text below and answer Questions 1-8.

Some places to visit
A Beautiful Kingsley House was built in the 18th century, and all the rooms are decorated and furnished
in the style of the time. They include the dining room, study and dressing room, which contains a display of
18th-century ladies’ clothing. Our volunteer guides in each room bring the house to life with stories of the
past.

B The Africa Museum was founded 50 years ago, and to commemorate the event, we have chosen 50
treasures from the permanent collection and put them together to tell the fascinating story of that continent.
This exhibition continues until the end of the year. The Folk Art Gallery opens to the public next month,
exhibiting traditional paintings and other objects from all over Africa.

C From the outside, 17 Mansfield Street may not look particularly exciting, but come inside, and you’ll
find yourself in a historic building that started life as a theatre, before becoming a bank and then a
restaurant, which is still in operation. On
Sundays and Mondays, when the restaurant is closed, a guide is available to show you round the building
and its fascinating architectural features.

D The Industrial Heritage Centre tells the fascinating story of a local family firm. Mr John Carroll started
his engineering business in this building exactly 150 years ago. The firm closed in 1969, but the factory has
been re-created, with machines like those that Mr Carroll was familiar with. See what working life could be
like in the 19th century, a life far removed from the elegance of the wealthy.

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E The Fashion Museum has only just opened. It is home to an outstanding collection of more than
30,000 objects worn by men, women and children, dating from the 17th century to the present day. You’ll
see how people used to dress! As well as
the permanent exhibits, you can currently see Dressing the Stars, which displays original costumes worn by
the stars of many popular films.

F Having spent the best part of two years being refurbished, the Mason Museum has recently opened its
doors again. It provides a magnificent setting for its art collection and for the beautiful 18th-century furniture
for which the Mason is famous. Open Mondays to Fridays 10-4, and weekends 10-6.
Questions 1-8

The text above has six descriptions of places to visit in the same city, A-F.

Which description mentions the following information?

Write the correct letter A-F, in boxes 1-8 on your answer sheet.

NB You may use any letter more than once.

1. clothes that well-known people have worn

2. a display that cannot be seen yet
3. people who talk in an entertaining way
4. the museum having just reopened
5. a building that has changed its function several times
6. furniture of the same kind that was used when the building was new
7. being open for tours on certain days of the week
8. a special event to mark an anniversary
Read the text below and answer Questions 9-14.
LearnWithUs courses
LearnWithlls courses are a great way to learn, because they’re so flexible. All our courses are taken online
using a computer, so you can work through the course at your own speed, and go back to any session
whenever you want to. For some courses there are workbooks, in addition to the computer course, to
provide extra written practice.

We offer hundreds of courses in a whole range of subjects from reading, writing and maths to business and
management. Many of these are specially designed for people whose first language isn’t English.

Step one: have a chat with a friendly member of staff in one of our 1,500 LearnWithUs centres around the

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country. They can advise you on the most suitable course. They’ll also work out whether you qualify for
funding, so that you won’t have to pay the full fee for the course.

You might want to try a taster lesson first. This is a single computer session in any subject of your choice,
and it will show you what learning with LearnWithUs is like.

When you’ve made your final decision, step two is to register on your course. Once you’ve done this, a staff
member will show you how to get started, whether you’re using a computer at home, at work or at a
LearnWithUs centre.

That’s all you need to do! When you start your course, you can contact your LearnWithUs centre by phone
(we’re open during normal office hours) or email if you need help.

Questions 9-14

Do the following statements agree with the information given in the text above?

In boxes 9-14 on your answer sheet, write

TRUE if the statement agrees with the information

FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this

9. You can work through parts of a course more than once.

10. The number of courses offered by LearnWithUs has increased enormously.
11. Many staff members have worked through a LearnWithUs course themselves.
12. You may have to pay to take a LearnWithUs course.
13. Everybody takes the same taster lesson.
14. LearnWithUs centres are open seven days a week.
Answer:
1. E 6. A 11. NOT GIVEN
2. B 7. C 12. TRUE
3. A 8. B 13. FALSE
4. F 9. TRUE 14. FALSE
5. C 10. NOT GIVEN

Section 2: Question 15-27

You are advised to spend 20 minutes on Questions 15-27..

GT ReadingSamples:
The benefits of having a business mentor &
A Planning Process for Middle-Sized Projects
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Read the text below and answer Questions 15-20.

The benefits of having a business mentor
Introduction:
If you're starting your own business, you probably need a mentor. This is a business person who volunteers
to give their time to help somebody else with their work - particularly somebody who is new to the business.
They have a wealth of experience they are willing to share, perhaps from setting up and running their own
company. The mentor's role is to support, develop, stimulate and challenge. However, business mentors
won't solve your problems for you or tell you what to do: they will talk things over with you, rather than acting
as consultants. Many people while setting up their first business have found that a mentor can have a very
positive effect on its success.

Why business mentoring is important:

If you have a gap in your knowledge or experience, then mentoring could work very well for you. For
example, you may have a great concept for a business but need a bit of assistance to turn it into a
successful venture.

A mentor can provide you with a number of benefits, such as:

• guidance on developing and improving your business

• help with decisions - particularly difficult ones
• ideas for new products or services, or for working practices that will improve your efficiency
• tips for your business that are gained from practical experience
• access to a network of contacts with other business people

A business mentor can also help you to:

• develop key business skills

• improve your problem-solving abilities
• build confidence
• work on your personal development

Face-to-face business mentoring:

If you decide that face-to-face business mentoring is right for you, mentor and mentee should decide in
advance on the nature of the relationship.

You will need to agree on the degree of involvement that suits you both. Some mentors and mentees work
extremely closely, keeping in touch with each other most weeks or even most days. In the majority of cases,
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however, a mentor will provide help every few weeks or months. In either case, they might meet, speak on
the phone, or exchange emails.

You should also agree on a level of structure to suit you both. Mentoring can be a very formal process with
regular meetings which follow a specific agenda and work towards a specific set of goals. It can also be
quite a casual arrangement, where the mentee calls on the mentor as and when problems or questions
arise.
Questions 15-20

Complete the notes below.

Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the text for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 15-20 on your answer sheet.

How can a mentor help somebody setting up a business?
A mentor 15............................. to help a new business person.

Mentors have a different role from 16 ............................. .

A mentor can:

• help you turn your idea into a successful business

• assist when you need to make 17............................. .
• suggest how your business can increase its 18 ............................. .
• introduce you to a business network
• help you to develop your skills, abilities and provide you with more 19 ............................. .

To be agreed:

• how much 20 ............................. the mentor should have

• how much structure the mentoring process should have.

Read the text below and answer Questions 21-27.

A Planning Process for Middle-Sized Projects
Any business project - such as reducing energy costs, or improving efficiency - needs to be planned, and
time spent planning will save far more time later on.

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The typical stages in this planning process are explained below.

 Your first task is to spot what needs to be done. Examine your firm’s current position, perhaps making a
formal analysis of its strengths and weaknesses. Then think about how you might improve that position:
what opportunities are there for achieving this?
 The next step is to decide precisely what the aim of your plan is. This is best expressed in a simple single
sentence, to ensure that it is clear and sharp in your mind. Doing this helps you to avoid wasting effort on
irrelevant side issues.
 Next you should work out how to do it. It is tempting just to grasp the first idea that comes to mind, but it is
better to consider a wide range of options: this way, you may come up with less obvious but better
solutions.
 Once you have explored the options available to you, the selection of which option to use is the next step.
If you have the time and resources, you might decide to evaluate all options, carrying out some planning,
such as costing, for each. Normally you will not have this luxury.
 You already have a broad idea of what your project will consist of. Now is the time to work out the full
details, identifying the most efficient and effective method of carrying it out, including answering the
questions of ‘who’, ‘what’ and ‘when’.
 The next stage is to review your plan and decide whether it will work satisfactorily. This evaluation
enables you to change to another option that might be more successful, or to accept that no plan is
needed.
 Once you have finished your plan and decided that it will work satisfactorily, it is time for implementation.
Your plan will cover how this is to be done.
 Once you have achieved a plan, you can close the project. At this point, it is often worth assessing the
project to see whether there are any lessons that you can learn.

Questions 21-27 Complete the flow-chart below.

Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the text for each answer.
Write your answers in boxes 21-27 on your answer sheet.

Suggested stages in a planning process

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Answer:

15. volunteers 20. involvement 25. evaluation

16. consultants 21. aim 26. implementation
17. decisions 22. range 27. lessons
18. efficiency 23. selection
19. confidence 24. details

Section 3: Question 28-40

You are advised to spend 20 minutes on Questions 28-40..

GT Reading Sample: The Penny Black

Read the text below and answer Questions 28-40.

The Penny Black
It might not have looked very impressive, but the Penny Black, now 170 years old, was the first stamp to be
created and it launched the modem postal system in Britain.

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Before 1840 and the arrival of the Penny Black, you had to be rich and patient to use the Royal Mail.
Delivery was charged according to the miles travelled and the number of sheets of paper used; a 2-page
letter sent from Edinburgh to London, for example, would have cost 2 shillings, or more than £7 in today’s
money. And when the top-hatted letter carrier came to deliver it, it was the recipient who had to pay for the
postage. Letter writers employed various ruses to reduce the cost, doing everything possible to cram more
words onto a page. Nobody bothered with heavy envelopes; instead, letters would be folded and sealed
with wax. You then had to find a post office - there were no pillar boxes - and hope your addressee didn't
live in one of the several rural areas which were not served by the system. If you were lucky, your letter
would arrive (it could take days) without being read or censored.

The state of mail had been causing concern throughout the 1830s, but it was Rowland Hill, an inventor,
teacher and social reformer from Kidderminster, who proposed a workable plan for change. Worried that a
dysfunctional, costly service would stifle communication just as Britain was in the swing of its second
industrial revolution, he believed reform would ease the distribution of ideas and stimulate trade and
business, delivering the same promise as the new railways.

Hill’s proposal for the penny post, which meant any letter weighing less than half an ounce (14 grams) could
be sent anywhere in Britain for about 30p in today’s money, was so radical that the Postmaster General,
Lord Lichfield, said, 'Of all the wild and visionary schemes which I ever heard of, it is the most extravagant.’
Lord Lichfield spoke for an establishment not convinced of the need for poor people to post anything. But
merchants and reformers backed Hill. Soon the government told him to make his scheme work. And that
meant inventing a new type of currency.

Hill quickly settled on 'a bit of paper covered at the back with a glutinous wash which the user might, by
applying a little moisture, attach to the back of a letter’. Stamps would be printed in sheets of 240 that could
be cut using scissors or a knife. Perforations would not arrive until 1854. The idea stuck, and in August
1839 the Treasury launched a design competition open to ‘all artists, men of science and the public in
general’. The new stamp would need to be resistant to forgery, and so it was a submission by one Mr
Cheverton that Hill used as the basis for one of the most striking designs in history. Cheverton, who worked
as a sculptor and an engineer, determined that a portrait of Queen Victoria, engraved for a commemorative
coin when she was a 15-year-old princess, was detailed enough to make copying difficult, and recognisable
enough to make fakes easy to spot. The words ‘Postage’ and ‘One Penny’ were added alongside flourishes
and ornamental stars. Nobody thought to add the word ‘Britain’, as it was assumed that the stamps would
solely be put to domestic use.

With the introduction of the new postal system, the Penny Black was an instant hit, and printers struggled to
meet demand. By the end of 1840, more than 160 million letters had been sent - more than double the

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previous year. It created more work for the post office, whose reform continued with the introduction of red
letter boxes, new branches and more frequent deliveries, even to the remotest address, but its lasting
impact on society was more remarkable.

Hill and his supporters rightly predicted that cheaper post would improve the ‘diffusion of knowledge’.
Suddenly, someone in Scotland could be reached by someone in London within a day or two. And as
literacy improved, sections of society that had been disenfranchised found a voice.

Tristram Hunt, an historian, values the ‘flourishing of correspondence’ that followed the arrival of stamps.
‘While I was writing my biography of Friedrich Engels I could read the letters he and Marx sent between
Manchester and London,’ he says. ‘They wrote to each other three times a day, pinging ideas back and
forth so that you can almost follow a real-time correspondence.’

The penny post also changed the nature of the letter. Weight-saving tricks such as cross-writing began to
die out, while the arrival of envelopes built confidence among correspondents that mail would not be stolen
or read. And so people wrote more private things - politically or commercially sensitive information or love
letters. ‘In the early days of the penny post, there was still concern about theft,’ Hunt says. ‘Engels would
still send Marx money by ripping up five-pound notes and sending the pieces in different letters.’ But the
probity of the postal system became a great thing and it came to be expected that your mail would not be
tampered with.

For all its brilliance, the Penny Black was technically a failure. At first, post offices used red ink to cancel
stamps so that they could not be used again. But the ink could be removed. When in 1842, it was
determined that black ink would be more robust, the colour of the Penny Black became a sort of browny
red, but Hill’s brainchild had made its mark.

Questions 28-30 Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.

Write the correct letter in boxes 28-30 on your answer sheet.

28. One of the characteristics of the postal service before the 1840s was that

A. postmen were employed by various organisations.

B. letters were restricted to a certain length.
C. distance affected the price of postage.
D. the price of delivery kept going up.

29. Letter writers in the 1830s

A. were not responsible for the cost of delivery.

B. tried to fit more than one letter into an envelope.
C. could only send letters to people living in cities.
D. knew all letters were automatically read by postal staff.

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30. What does the text say about Hill in the 1830s?

A. He was the first person to express concern about the postal system.
B. He considered it would be more efficient for mail to be delivered by rail.
C. He felt that postal service reform was necessary for commercial development.
D. His plan received support from all the important figures of the day.

Questions 31-34

Look at the following statements (Questions 31-34) and the list of people below.

Match each statement with the correct person, A, B , C or D.

Write the correct letter, A, B, C or D, in boxes 31-34 on your answer sheet.

NB You may use any letter more than once.

31. His inspiration came from a particular picture.

32. He claimed that the postal system would lead to the spread of information.
33. He organised the creation of the first stamp.
34. He expressed doubts about the plans to change the postal service.

List of People
A. Rowland Hill
B. Lord Lichfield
C. Cheverton
D. Tristram Hunt
Questions 35-40 Complete the notes below.
Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for each answer.
Write your answers in boxes 35-40 on your answer sheet.

The Penny Black

• Design came about as a result of a competition organised by the 35 ........................

• Based on an engraving of Queen Victoria featured on a 36 .........................

• Apart from the Queen’s face, the stamp had just three words and pictures of 37......................... as decoration

• No mention of 38......................... as plan was for stamps to be for domestic use only

• The 39........................., which was applied to indicate that the stamp had been used, proved to be ineffective

• In 1842, the 40......................... of the stamp was changed.

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Answer:
28. C 33. A 38. (word) Britain
29. A 34. B 39. (red) ink
30. C 35. Treasury 40. colour// color
31. C 36. (commemorative) coin
32. A 37. (ornamental) stars

Section 3: Question 27-40

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 27-40 which are based on the text below.
General Training Reading: The coal industry

Read the passage below and answer the questions from 27-40.
Questions 27

From the list below choose the most suitable title for the whole of the Reading Passage. Write the
appropriate letter A-D in box 27 on your answer sheet.

A Pollution control in coal mining

B The greenhouse effect
C The coal industry and the environment
D Sustainable population growth

Questions 28-31

The Reading Passage has four sections A-D.

Choose the most suitable heading for each section from the list of headings below.

Write the appropriate numbers i-viii in boxes 28-31 on your answer sheet.
List of Headings
i Global warming
ii The dangers of the coal industry
iii Superclean coal
iv Environment protection measures
v Coal as an energy source
vi Coal and the enhanced greenhouse effect
vii Research and development
viii Mining site drainage
28. Section A
29. Section B
30. Section C
31. Section D
A Coal is expected to continue to account for almost 27 per cent of the world’s energy needs. However,
with growing international awareness of pressures on the environment and the need to achieve sustainable
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development of energy resources, the way in which the resource is extracted, transported and used is
critical.

A wide range of pollution control devices and practices is in place at most modern mines and significant
resources are spent on rehabilitating mined land. In addition, major research and development programmes
are being devoted to lifting efficiencies and reducing emissions of greenhouse gases during coal
consumption. Such measures are helping coal to maintain its status as a major supplier of the world’s
energy needs.

B The coal industry has been targeted by its critics as a significant contributor to the greenhouse effect.
However, the greenhouse effect is a natural phenomenon involving the increase in global surface
temperature due to the presence of greenhouse gases - water vapour, carbon dioxide, tropospheric ozone,
methane and nitrous oxide - in the atmosphere. Without the greenhouse effect, the earth’s average surface
temperature would be 33-35 degrees C lower, or -15 degrees C. Life on earth, as we know it today, would
not be possible.

There is concern that this natural phenomenon is being altered by a greater build-up of gases from human
activity, perhaps giving rise to additional warming and changes in the earth’s climate. This additional build-
up and its forecast outcome has been called the enhanced greenhouse effect. Considerable uncertainty
exists, however, about the enhanced greenhouse effect, particularly in relation to the extent and timing of
any future increases in global temperature.

Greenhouse gases arise from a wide range of sources and their increasing concentration is largely related
to the compound effects of increased population, improved living standards and changes in lifestyle. From a
current base of 5 billion, the United Nations predicts that the global population may stabilise in the twenty-
first century between 8 and 14 billion, with more than 90 per cent of the projected increase taking place in
the world’s developing nations. The associated activities to support that growth, particularly to produce the
required energy and food, will cause further increases in greenhouse gas emissions. The challenge,
therefore, is to attain a sustainable balance between population, economic growth and the environment.

The major greenhouse gas emissions from human activities are carbon dioxide (CO2), methane and nitrous
oxide. Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) are the only major contributor to the greenhouse effect that does not
occur naturally, coming from such sources as refrigeration, plastics and manufacture. Coal’s total
contribution to greenhouse gas emissions is thought to be about 18 per cent, with about half of this coming
from electricity generation.

C The world-wide coal industry allocates extensive resources to researching and developing new

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technologies and ways of capturing greenhouse gases. Efficiencies are likely to be improved dramatically,
and hence CO2 emissions reduced, through combustion and gasification techniques which are now at pilot
and demonstration stages.

Clean coal is another avenue for improving fuel conversion efficiency. Investigations are under way into
super clean coal (3-5 per cent ash) and ultraclean coal (less than 1 per cent ash). Superclean coal has the
potential to enhance the combustion efficiency of conventional pulverised fuel power plants. Ultraclean coal
will enable coal to be used in advanced power systems such as coal-fired gas turbines which, when
operated in combined cycle, have the potential to achieve much greater efficiencies.

D Defendants of mining point out that, environmentally, coal mining has two important factors in its favour.
It makes only temporary use of the land and produces no toxic chemical wastes. By carefully pre-planning
projects, implementing pollution control measures, monitoring the effects of mining and rehabilitating mined
areas, the coal industry minimises the impact on the neighbouring community, the immediate environment
and long-term land capability.

Dust levels are controlled by spraying roads and stockpiles, and water pollution is controlled by carefully
separating clean water runoff from runoff which contains sediments or salt from mine workings. The latter is
treated and re-used for dust suppression. Noise is controlled by modifying equipment and by using
insulation and sound enclosures around machinery.

Since mining activities represent only a temporary use of the land, extensive rehabilitation measures are
adopted to ensure that land capability after mining meets agreed and appropriate standards which, in some
cases, are superior to the land’s pre-mining condition. Where the mining is underground, the surface area
can be simultaneously used for forests, cattle grazing and crop raising, or even reservoirs and urban
development, with little or no disruption to the existing land use. In all cases, mining is subject to stringent
controls and approvals processes.

In open-cut operations, however, the land is used exclusively for mining but land rehabilitation measures
generally progress with the mine’s development. As core samples are extracted to assess the quality and
quantity of coal at a site, they are also analysed to assess the ability of the soil or subsoil material to support
vegetation. Topsoils are stripped and stockpiled prior to mining for subsequent dispersal over rehabilitated
areas. As mining ceases in one section of the open-cut, the disturbed area is reshaped. Drainage within and
off the site is carefully designed to make the new land surface as stable as the local environment allows:
often dams are built to protect the area from soil erosion and to serve as permanent sources of water.
Based on the soil requirements, the land is suitably fertilised and revegetated.
Questions 32-36

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Choose the appropriate letters A-D and write them in boxes 32-36 on your answer sheet.

32 The global increase in greenhouse gases has been attributed to

A. industrial pollution in developing countries.
B. coal mining and electricity generation.
C. reduced rainfall in many parts of the world.
D. trends in population and lifestyle.

33 The proportion of all greenhouse gases created by coal is approximately

A. 14 per cent.
B. 18 per cent.
C. 27 per cent.
D. 90 per cent.

34 Current research aims to increase the energy-producing efficiency of coal by

A. burning it at a lower temperature.
B. developing new gasification techniques.
C. extracting CO2 from it.
D. recycling greenhouse gases.

35 Compared with ordinary coal, new, ‘clean’ coals may generate power
A. more cleanly and more efficiently.
B. more cleanly but less efficiently.
C. more cleanly but at higher cost.
D. more cleanly but much more slowly.

36 To control dust at mine sites, mining companies often use

A. chemicals which may be toxic.
B. topsoil taken from the site before mining.
C. fresh water from nearby dams.
D. runoff water containing sediments.

Questions 37- 40

Do the following statements reflect the opinions of the writer in the Reading Passage?

In boxes 37-40 on your answer sheet write:

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YES if the statement reflects the opinion of the writer

NO if the statement contradicts the writer
NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this

37. The coal industry should be abandoned in favour of alternative energy sources because of the
environmental damage it causes.
38. The greatest threats to the environment are the gases produced by industries which support the high
standard of living of a growing world population.
39. World population in the twenty-first century will probably exceed 8 billion.
40. CFC emissions have been substantially reduced in recent years.
Answer:

27. C 32. D 37. NO

28. v 33. B 38. YES
29. vi 34. B 39. YES
30. vii 35. A 40. NOT GIVEN
31. iv 36. D
Section 1: Question 1-15
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-15 which are based on the text below.

GT Reading: WHY MAGAZINE, Sydney Conservatorium & First Aid for snake bites

Questions 1 – 3 The following is a Contents page from a magazine.

Answer questions 1-3 by writing the appropriate page number or numbers where the information appears in
the magazine, in boxes 1-3 on pour answer sheet.

Example: On what page is the main article in the magazine?

Answer: 5

1. What page would you turn to for advice about money?

2. On what TWO pages can you read about art?
3. On what page is the new sports stadium discussed?

Questions 4 , To answer Question 4, use NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS. In the box 4 on your answer
sheet, write your answer.

4. How often does this magazine appear?

WHY MAGAZINE

From the Editor COVER STORY 5

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In this issue we publish some of the many letters Mike Mikeson: a new smash-hit movie, but
we received on the new Sports Stadium, our plans for a dramatic career change
cover story last month. Your reactions were
certainly mixed! Read our exclusive interview REGULAR FEATURES

with film-star Mike Mikeson and his plans to start Film Review 30

a fast-food chain. But there’s so much more… Crossword 31

enough to keep you going for the rest of the Letters to the Editor 32

month. What’s on Round Town 33

Art, Music, Theatre

Until next time,

The Editor

12 Getaway Holidays
Some popular and some unusual

18 Start Now
Marissa Brown of EastBank sets out a sound investment and savings plan for young
professionals

26 Best Wheels
Racing car driver Marco Leoni changes teams: will it be Ford or Ferrari?

28 The Met
Metropolitan Art Museum hosts a new exhibition of post-modern paintings

Questions 5 – 10

Read the advertisements for musical concerts below and answer the questions 5-10.

Write answers in boxes 5-10 on your answer sheet.

SYDNEY CONSERVATORIUM OF MUSIC CONCERTS

for January 2001

A. Sydney Youth Orchestra

Conservatorium High School students play a selection of Mozart concertos.

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Date: Sat. 4th and 11th January, 8.00 pm. $10 and $5.

B. Let’s Sing Together

An afternoon for the young and the young-at-heart. Led by the Giggles Band, sing children’s songs from your
childhood and from all over the world.

There will be a special appearance by Willy Wallaby, from the popular children’s programme, Hoppy!

Date: Sun. 5th January, 3.00 pm. $5.

C. One Romantic Evening

Bring someone special with you and listen to some of the greatest

love songs as you gaze at the stars together!

Date: Sat. 25th January, 8.00 pm. $20 and $12.

Note: This concert will be held in the Conservatorium Rose Carden, not in the Concert Hall.

D. Rock n’ Roll

Bop along ’til late to the rock hits of the last 10 years. Bands playing include The Hippies, The Hypers, and The
Heroes. If you have a special request, write it down at the ticket counter when you come in.

Date: Sat. 18th January, 8.00 pm. $10 and $5.

E. Flamenco!

World-famous classical guitarist Rodrigo Paras will play a selection of traditional Spanish Flamenco pieces.

Date: Sun. 19th and 26th January, 7.30 pm. $20 and $12.

Questions 5 – 10
Read the advertisements for musical events above.

Answer the questions below by writing the appropriate letter or letters, A-E, in boxes 5-10 on your answer
sheet.

NB Some answers may require more than one letter.

Example: At which concert will a television character appear?

Answer: B

5. At which concert will young performers play?

6. Which concert will be held outdoors?
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7. Which concerts will happen more than once?

8. Which concert will feature only one performer?
9. Which concert is NOT being held at night?
10. At which concert can the audience choose what will be performed?

Read the information below on treatment for snake bite and answer Questions 11-15.

FIRST AID FOR SNAKE BITES

Snakes are not normally aggressive and tend to bite only when they are threatened or mishandled. Some
snakes, e.g. the carpet snake, are not poisonous. Others, e.g. the brown snake, tiger snake and taipan, are
very poisonous.

A Prevention

◻ leave snakes alone and do not collect snakes

◻ do not put your hands in hollow logs, under piles of wood, or in rubbish
◻ be noisy when walking in the bush
◻ look carefully when walking through thick grass
◻use a torch around camps at night

B Symptoms and signs

These do not appear immediately, but from about 15 minutes to 2 hours after the casualty is bitten. There
are often no visible symptoms or signs. Take seriously any information from a casualty concerning:

◻ strong emotional reaction

◻ headache or double vision
◻ drowsiness, giddiness or faintness
◻ nausea and/or vomiting and diarrhoea
◻ puncture marks about 1 centimetre apart at the site of the bite. Bites are usually on the limbs,
especially the legs.
◻ breddening
◻ bruising
◻ sweating
◻ breathing difficulties

C Management

◻ reassure the casualty

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◻ apply a pressure immobilisation bandage over the bitten area and around the limb
◻ seek medical aid urgently

D Snakebite Warnings

◻ never wash the venom off the skin as this will help in later identification
◻ never cut or squeeze the bitten area
◻ never try to suck the venom out of the wound
Questions 11 – 15

The passage “First Aid for Snake Bites” explains what to do in the event of a snake bite.

Read the additional instructions below and choose the section A-D to which each instruction belongs.
Write the appropriate letter in boxes 11-15 on pour answer sheet.

Example: never use a tight bandage

Answer: D.

11. help the casualty to sit or lie down

12. wear stout shoes, walk-socks and jeans (or similar clothing) in areas where snakes could be present
13. pain or tightness in the chest or abdomen
14. do not try to catch the snake
15. swelling of the bitten area

Answer:
1. 18 6. C 11. C
2. 28, 33 [you have to write 7. A, E [You have to write both 12. A
both 28 & 33 to get a number.] A & E to get a number for this 13. B
3. 32 question.] 14. D
4. monthly//every month//each 8. E 15. B
month 9. B
5. A 10. D
Section 2: Question 16-25
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 16-25 which are based on the text below.
GT Reading: Student Accommodation at Northside University

Read “Student Accommodation at Northside University” below and answer the questions that follow.
STUDENT ACCOMMODATION AT NORTHSIDE UNIVERSITY

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Situated about 20km from the city centre, Northside University is not easy to get to by public transport.
However, students have several different alternatives for accommodation on or near the University campus.

Firstly, the University has several residential colleges; Burnside College, Boronia College and Helen Turner
College. Each of these colleges provides a single fully furnished room with shared bathroom facilities, and
meals. Burnside College is the most expensive, with 1996 fees ranging from $154 – $165 per week.
However, each student room is equipped with a private telephone and voice-mailing facilities, and within the
next few months, college students will have access to E-MAIL, On-Line library, INTERNET and AARNET
via a network with the University. Boronia College has similar room facilities but does not offer the same
computer access. It also offers only 17 meals per week, compared to Burnside’s 21. Fees vary from $147- $
157 per week. Helen Turner College is a college exclusively for women, with similar fees to Boronia
College. To attend classes, students have a short walk from the residential Colleges to the main University
campus.

The University also provides 23 self-contained furnished townhouses. These townhouses have either 3, 4 or
6 bedrooms each and student residents are expected to be studying full-time. Rents in 1996 ranged from
$54 per week for a room in a six bedroom flat to $68.50 per week for a room in a three-bedroom house.
Students wanting to live in university housing should apply to the university housing officer in August of the
previous year, as it is in high demand. Smoking is banned in University housing.

Off campus, there are many flats, townhouses and houses for rent in the local area. These can be found by
looking in the local newspaper under ACCOMMODATION, or by checking notices pinned up on the boards
around the university. There are always students advertising for housemates and you can even add a notice
of your own to the board. However, even sharing accommodation with others can be expensive; tenants are
usually required to pay a rental bond, rent in advance, and telephone/electricity/gas bills in addition to food
bills. Be sure that you know what you will be required to pay before you enter into any written agreement.
Questions 16 – 19

Choose the appropriate letter A-C and write it in boxes 16-19 on your answer sheet for questions 16-19.

16. The University Residential Colleges provide

A a place to live and regular classes
B regular classes only
C a place to live only.

17. Smoking is
A allowed in University housing
B not allowed in University housing
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C allowed only in certain areas in University housing.

18. University townhouses are available for

A full-time students only
B part-time students only
C all students.
19. Accommodation in the area surrounding the university is
A scarce
B plentiful
C scarce and expensive.
Questions 20 – 25

Complete the following sentences with information from the passage "Student Accommodation at
Northside University".

Write your answers in boxes 20-25 on your answer sheet.

A student living in a 3-bedroom University townhouse would pay (20) _____________ per week for a room;
in comparison, the cheapest accommodation available at Burnside College is (21) __________ per week.
The fee charged at Burnside College includes (22) ______________ meals per week, but at Boronia
College only (23) ______________ meals per week are included in the fee. Helen Turner College has a
similar fee structure to (24)_____________ College, but only (25)____________ may live there.

Answer:
16. C 20. $68.50 24. Boronia
17. B 21. $154 25. women
18. A 22. 21
19. B 23. 17
Section 3: Question 26-40
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 26-40 which are based on the text below.
GT Reading: Kormilda College
Read the passage "Kormilda College" below and answer questions 26-40 that follow.

Kormilda College
Section A
Kormilda College is a unique school situated near Darwin in Australia’s Northern Territory. For 20 years, to
1989, Kormilda College operated as a government-run, live-in school for high school Aboriginal students. In
1989 it was bought from the Government by two Christian church groups and since then it has expanded
enormously, to include a day school as well as boarders (residential students) in Years 8-12. Although 320
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pupils of the College’s total number are Aboriginal students, drawn mainly from isolated communities across
the Northern Territory, Kormilda also has a waiting list of non–aboriginal students. With a current enrolment
of 600, student numbers are expected to grow to 860 by 1999.

Section B
Central to the mission of the school is the encouragement of individual excellence, which has resulted in
programs designed especially for the student population. Specialist support programs allow’ traditional
Aboriginal students, who are often second language users, to understand and succeed in the mainstream
curriculum. A Gifted and Talented Program, including a special Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander Tertiary
Aspirations program, has been introduced, as has an Adaptive Education Unit. Moreover, in Years 11 and
12, students may choose to follow the standard Northern Territory Courses or those of the International
Baccalaureate (I.B.).

Section C
To provide appropriate pastoral care, as well as a suitable academic structure, three distinct sub-schools
have been established.

◼ Pre-Secondary: For Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander students in Years 8-10 who are of secondary
school age but have difficulties reading and writing.
◼ Supported Secondary: For Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander students who are of secondary school
age and operating at secondary school year levels 8-12 who need specific second language literacy and
numeracy support.
◼ Secondary: For multi-cultural Years 8-12 students.

Students remain in their sub-schools for classes in the main subject areas of English, Maths, Social
Education and Science. This arrangement takes into account both diverse levels of literacy and the styles of
learning and cultural understandings appropriate to traditional Aboriginal second-language users. In elective
subjects chosen by the students – which include Indonesian, Music, Art, Drama, Science for Life,
Commerce, Geography, Modem History, Woodwork, Metal Work, Economics and Legal Studies – students
mix on the basis of subject interest.

Section D
To aid the development of the Aboriginal Education program, a specialist curriculum Support Unit has been
set up. One of its functions is to re-package school courses so that they can be taught in ways that suit the
students.

The education program offered to Aboriginal students uses an approach which begins with the students’

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own experiences and gradually builds bi-cultural understanding. In one course, “Introducing Western
European Culture Through Traditional Story-Telling”, students are helped to build a common base for
approaching the English literature curriculum. Drawing on the oral culture of traditional Aboriginal
communities, they are introduced to traditional stories of other cultures, both oral and written. In a
foundational Year 10 course, “Theory of Learning”, concepts from Aboriginal culture are placed side by side
with European concepts so that students can use their own knowledge base to help bridge the cultural
divide.

Another project of the Support Unit has been the publication of several books, the most popular, Korniihla
Capers. The idea for Kormilda Capers came about when it became obvious that there was a lack of
engaging material for the school’s teenage readers. One of the stories in the book, “The Bulman Mob hits
the Big Smoke”, recounts the adventures of Kormilda pupils on their first visit to Sydney, Canberra and the
snow country. Focussing on experiences which have directly affected the lives of students at the College,
and on ideas and issues which are of immediate interest to Aboriginal students, Kormilda Capers has
earned enthusiastic support within and outside the school.
Questions 26 – 27

Complete the following sentences with a NUMBER OR DATE from the passage.

Write your answers in boxes 26-27 on your answer sheet.

26. Kormilda College opened as a school in ..............................

27. At the time of writing there were .............................. non-aboriginal students at Kormilda College.
Question 28

From the list below, choose the best heading for Section B of the reading passage.

Write the appropriate letter A-D in box 28 on pour answer sheet.

A Specialist teaching and teachers at Kormilda College

B Special Programmes at Kormilda College for Aboriginal students
C The new look Kormilda College
D Programmes at Kormilda College to promote individual excellence
Questions 29 – 33

The following diagram shows how Kormilda College is organised. Complete the diagram using information
from the text.

Use NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

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Write your answers in boxes 29-33 on your answer sheet.

Questions 34 – 40

Read the passage about Kormilda College and look at the statements below.

In boxes 34 – 40 on pour answer sheet write:

TRUE if the statement is true

FALSE if the statement is not true
NOT GIVEN if the information is not given in the passage

34. Kormilda College educates both Aboriginal and non-Aboriginal students.

35. Some students travel from Arnhem Land to attend Kormilda College.
36. Students must study both the International Baccalaureate and Northern Territory courses.
37. The Pre-Secondary School attracts the best teachers.
38. The specialist curriculum Support Unit adapts school courses so the students can approach them more
easily.
39. There are no oral traditional stories in Western communities.
40. The school helps the students make connections between Aboriginal and non-Aboriginal cultures.

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Answer:
26. 1969 31. secondary 36. FALSE
27. 280 32. English 37. NOT GIVEN
28. D 33. science 38. TRUE
29. pre-secondary 34. TRUE 39. NOT GIVEN
30. supported secondary 35. NOT GIVEN 40. TRUE
Section 1: Question 1-15
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-15 which are based on the text below.

GT Reading: Border Regulations and Visa Applications & Business School Online

Read the text below and answer Questions 1-11.

Border Regulations and Visa Applications
If you wish to come to the United Kingdom, either as a visitor or a student, you may need to apply for a visa.
Visas vary according to your age, the length of your stay and your level of English study.

The following visa types are available:

A. Child Student
B. Child Visitor
C. Adult Student
D. Student Visitor
E. Prospective Student

The UK operates a points-based system which will decide whether or not you can apply for a visa. You
need 40 points in order to apply for a visa. You will obtain 30 points if you have confirmation from the
college, university or school that you have been accepted on a course. Your chosen place of studies must
be registered on the UK Border Agency list of sponsors. You can obtain a list by clicking on the link below.

You will need to earn a further 10 by demonstrating that you cover the cost of your study fees and living
costs. In doing so, you can rest assured that you will avoid financial difficulties while you are studying.

If you wish to extend your study experience in the UK, you will need to pass a further points-based
assessment to ensure that you have been accepted on another course and that you can afford to pay the
fees and living costs.

To make your UK study experience even richer, you may be eligible for a work and study visa. Getting a job
while you are studying can improve your language skills and enhance your CV by showing that you are
flexible, team-oriented and well-organised. You will also be able to get a reference from your employer
which will help you gain employment in the future. Before accepting a job, you must find out whether your

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visa allows you to work in the UK, and the maximum number of hours you can work each week from the UK
Border Agency. Most UK places of study have a career service which will help you to access job listings,
write a CV or application form and prepare for a job interview.

To work in the UK you will need a National Insurance number. This number is used to deduct money from
your earnings to fund benefits for the unemployed, incapacitated and retired. To obtain a national insurance
number, you will need to attend an interview. You can make an appointment for an interview by calling 0845
600 0643 during usual office hours. You will need to take proof of identity, proof of your right to work in the
UK and written proof of your job offer. You may start work before your number is issued as long as your
employer deducts the appropriate national insurance contributions from your pay.

Question 1- 5

Each of the short paragraphs of the passage "Border Regulations and Visa Applications" gives information
about the five types of visa A-E.
Read each paragraph and choose which of the five links would contain this information.

Write letters, i- vi, in boxes 1-5 on your answer sheet

NB. There is one paragraph that you do not need.
Visa Types

1. A. Child Student
2. B. Child Visitor
3. C. Adult Student
4. D. Student Visitor
5. E. Prospective Student

paragraph i. If you have already completed a course of study in the UK and do not intend to study further,
you can apply for this visa to extend your stay. This visa allows you to work in the UK for a further 6 months.
paragraph ii. If you are under the age of 17 and wish to study for less than six months, you can apply for
this visa. If you wish to extend your course of study, you may not swap to a student visa while you are in the
UK. You must return to your home country and do so there.
paragraph iii. Students in post-16 education can apply for this visa. This visa is suitable for students
attending courses for over six months. Holders of this visa may be eligible to work in the UK.
paragraph iv. Students over the age of 18 who wish to study for up to six months can apply for this visa.
This visa does not allow students to work in the UK. Students may only extend their visa or switch to a
student visa by returning to their home country.

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paragraph v. You can apply for this visa if you are between the ages of 4 and 15 and intend to attend a full-
time, fee-paying independent school for a period of over six months or more. 16 and 17 year olds may
attend part-time, fee-paying establishments.
paragraph vi. If you want to come to the UK before choosing your course of study, you can apply for this
visa. You will need to start your course within 6 months of arrival. You may switch to an adult or child
student visa while in the UK without returning to your home country.
Question 6- 11

Choose the correct answer a, b, or c and write them in boxes 6-11 on your answer sheet.
6. You can obtain 30 points towards your visa if…
a) You have already paid your school or college fees.
b) You have been accepted onto a course of study...
c) You have proof that you can cover your study fees...

7. If you want to extend your study visa…

a) You only need to obtain 30 points
b) You do not need to repeat the point-assessment
c) You will need to do the process again

8. You can work in the UK if…

a) You are legally eligible
b) You are studying full time
c) You have 40 points

9. For advice on finding a job, the writer suggests that you contact…
a) The UK Border Agency
b) A Career Service
c) The National Insurance Agency

10. Your national insurance number will ensure that…

a) You receive all the money you earn
b) You receive money if you lose your job
c) Some money is taken from your earning

11. You can start work…

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a) After applying for a National Insurance Number

b) Once you have received your National Insurance Number
c) If your employer pays your contribution instead of you

Read the course outline below and answer Questions 12–15

Business School Online
Our courses can be started anytime from anywhere in the world and completed at your own pace. A
certificate is issued on successful completion of the course.

ADVERTISING AND PROMOTION COURSE

Duration: 100 Hours

Course Materials: Upon enrolment, you will receive all of the materials that are essential to complete the
course. Course materials include subject guides, printed notes, textbooks, videos and practical equipment.
In certain circumstances, you may be required to do extra research – in which case your tutor is able to
advise you where necessary.

Course Outline: There are ten lessons in this course, each requiring about 10-12 hours work by the
student. This course is designed as a program to help you understand the marketing world, then, to assist
you in making decisions and developing skills in marketing. Emphasis is placed on profitability and
efficiency!

EXAMPLES OF THE TYPE OF ASSIGNMENTS YOU MIGHT BE ASKED TO UNDERTAKE

A) Go shopping (your routine weekly shopping if you like). Take notice of how different sales staff
communicate with you. Note the techniques they use (verbal and non-verbal), and how effective they are.
Note the type of impression they seem to be creating. When you come home, write down notes on your
observations.

B) Look through newspapers or magazines at advertisements or articles which discuss products offered for
sale and find what you consider to be good examples of each of the following types of communication:
a. Verbal communication
b. Non-verbal communication
c. Combination of verbal and non-verbal communication

Explain why you think these are good examples?

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C) Select a product or service for which you would like to improve the marketing. This might be something
you are dealing with in your own business or a business you work for; or it might be something you think
has potential — an idea you would like to develop into a business OR something another business is
dealing with, but not handling as well as you think they could.

Questions 12-15 , Do the following statements agree with the "Business School Online" reading text?
In boxes 12-15 on your answer sheet write

TRUE if the statement agrees with the text

FALSE if the statement contradicts the text
NOT GIVEN if it is not given in the reading text

12. Someone from any part of the world can take this course.
13. If you take this course you will have to do extra research.
14. The course is designed to develop a student's skills in marketing.
15. A student has to complete three assignments to complete this course.
Answer:
1. v 7. c 13. FALSE
2. ii 8. a 14. TRUE
3. iii 9. b 15. NOT GIVEN
4. iv 10. c
5. vi 11. a
6. b 12. TRUE
Section 2: Question 16-28
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 16-28 which are based on the text below.

General Training Reading: Canterbury College

Read the text below and answer Questions 16-28.

STUDENT LIFE AT CANTERBURY COLLEGE
Most of the courses at Canterbury College only take up four days of the week, leaving one day free for
independent study. The atmosphere at the College is that of an adult environment where a relationship of
mutual respect is encouraged between students and tutors. Canterbury is a student city with several
institutes of Further and Higher Education. The city centre is just a five-minute walk from the College, easily
accessible in lunch or study breaks. Canterbury College has developed strong international links over the
years and, as a result, many students have the opportunity of visiting and working in a European country in
the course of their studies.

Students' Union and SRC

All students are automatically members of the Canterbury College Students' Union (CCSU) and can attend
meetings. The Union is very active and is run by an Executive Committee elected by students in the Autumn
Term. The President is elected every Summer Term to provide continuity for the next academic year.
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Representatives from each area of study form the Student Representative Council (SRC) which allows
every student a say in Union affairs. In addition to representing students internally in the College on the
Academic Board and with a subcommittee of the College Corporation, the CCSU also belongs to the
National Union of Students which represents the interests of students nationally. The Union also arranges
and supports entertainments, sporting activities and trips.

STUDENT FACILITIES
Learning Resources Centre (LRC)
The Corey Learning Resources Centre provides easy access to a wide range of printed and audiovisual
learning materials which can help students with coursework. There is ample space for quiet independent
study and there are also areas for group work. Resources provided include books, journals, audio and video
cassettes and CD-ROMs. Inter-library loans are available locally and nationally via the British Library. All
students are encouraged to use the Open Access Information Technology Centre situated on the first floor.
This has a variety of computing, word processing and desktop publishing software.
Bookshop
A branch of Waterstone's bookshops is located on campus, where you can buy a range of stationery,
drawing equipment, artists' materials and books, as well as many other useful items you may need.

Children's Centre
The College Children's Centre has places for under 5s with some subsidised places being available to
students. Places are limited, so, if you are interested, apply early to reserve a place by contacting Linda
Baker on the College telephone number.

Refectory
This provides refreshments between 08.30 and 19.00 with hot meals served three times a day. Healthy
eating options are available.

Coffee Shop
This is open during normal College hours and serves light snacks and drinks. Proceeds from the Coffee
Shop go to the Students' Union.
Crypt Restaurant
This is a training restaurant which offers good quality cuisine in pleasant surroundings. Meals are very
reasonably priced and you are invited to sample the students' highly skilled dishes when the restaurant is
open to the public during the week. Reservations can be made on 01227511244.

Chapel View Restaurant

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This is another training restaurant and is set up as a quick-service facility which offers a selection of snacks
and main courses at a modest price.
Questions 16-21

Do the following statements agree with the information given in the passage "Student life at Canterbury
College"?

In boxes 15-20 on your answer sheet, write

TRUE if the statement agrees with the information
FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this

16. Many students are allocated a job experience placement abroad.

17. The elections for the Union President and Executive Committee are held together.
18. There are staff in the LRC to help students use the facilities.
19. Nursery care is available on a first-came, first-served basis.
20. The Refectory serves fast-food options.
21. The Chapel View Restaurant is for students only.

CANTERBURY COLLEGE
LIST OF COURSES

COURSE A
This course will enable students to experience performing arts and the media at a basic level. It will give
them the experience to decide if they wish to pursue an interest in this field and to develop their potential
and adaptability for working in a performance company in either a performing or a technical role.

COURSE B
The aim of this course is to provide a thorough grounding in business-related skills and a comprehensive
knowledge of business practice. It is for students with a business studies background who can manage a
heavy workload that will contain a greater degree of academic study.

COURSE C
This course provides progression to a range of higher levels. Units will include maintaining employment
standards, salon management duties, providing facial massage and skin care, instruction on makeup, lash
and brow treatments, artificial nail structures and ear piercing.

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COURSE D
This course is designed to develop skills used in leisure operations. It covers preparing for and conducting
physical activities, maintenance of facility areas, building relationships with participants and colleagues,
handling sports equipment and health and safety issues.

COURSE E
This course gives a foundation for a career in caring for children, the elderly or people with special needs.
Core units are Numeracy, Communication and Information Technology. Work placements are an important
part of the course.

COURSE F
This course is designed to provide a foundation in graphic and visual communication skills. Students
complete units in picture composition and photographic processing alongside elements of graphic design,
and gain hands-on experience of desktop publishing and presentations.

COURSE G
This course is designed to provide an introduction to the construction industry. Units covered include Heat,
Light and Sound, Introduction to the Urban Environment, Communication Processes and Techniques and
Properties of Materials. AII students complete vocational assignments which are integrated with work
experience with reputable companies.

COURSE H
The qualifications gained and the skills developed on this course will provide a good basis for gaining
employment in office work. In addition to word processing, the course also covers spreadsheets,
computerised accounting, databases and desktop publishing. AII students are given chances to develop
their confidence, and advice and information is given on job search skills, presentation techniques and
personal appearance.

Questions 22-28

Look at the 'List of Courses at Canterbury College' A-H.

Which course would you recommend for people with the following career interests?
Write the correct letter A-H in boxes 22-28 on your answer sheet.

22. advertising
23. TV production
24. architecture

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25. company management

26. working with the disabled
27. secretariat tasks
28. beauty therapy

Answer:
16. TRUE 21. NOT GIVEN 26. E
17. FALSE 22. F 27. H
18. NOT GIVEN 23. A 28. C
19. TRUE 24. G
20. NOT GIVEN 25. B
Section 3: Question 29-41
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 29-41 which are based on the text below.

General Training Reading: Australia - Domestic Travel

Read the text below and answer Questions 29-41.

Australia
Domestic travel
Have you ever travelled to another part of your country and stayed for a few days? Travel within one's own
country is popular throughout the world. And, according to a survey carried out in Australia in 2002,
travellers are tending to spend more and more money on their holidays.

The Domestic Tourism Expenditure Survey showed that domestic travellers – those travelling within the
country – injected $23 billion into the Australian economy in 2002. As a result, domestic tourism became the
mainstay of the industry, accounting for 75 per cent of total tourism expenditure in Australia. International
tourism, on the other hand, added $7 billion to the economy. Overall, in present dollar terms, Australians
spent $7 billion more on domestic tourism in 2002 than they did when the first survey of tourist spending
was completed in 1991.

Thus, tourism has become one of Australia's largest industries. The combined tourist industry now accounts
for about 5 per cent of the nation's gross domestic product, compared with agriculture at 4.3 per cent and
manufacturing at 8 per cent. Tourism is, therefore, an important earner for both companies and individuals
in a wide range of industries. For example, the transport industry benefits from the extra money poured into
it. Hotels spring up in resort areas to provide accommodation, and the catering industry gains as tourists
spend money in restaurants. The retail sector benefits as well, as many tourists use their holidays to shop
for clothes, accessories and souvenirs.

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In most countries, the land is divided into different political areas. Australia is divided into six states and two
territories. Since people travel for different reasons, there are significant differences in the length of time
people stay in different locations and in the amount they spend while there.

In 2002, Australian residents spent $8.4 billion on day trips and almost twice that amount on trips involving
at least one night away from home. In that year, a total of 45 million overnight trips were made in Australia.
Of these, 14.9 million were spent in New South Wales, 10.3 million were spent in Queensland, and 9.2
million were spent in Victoria. Fewer nights were spent in the other states, with 3.7 million in South
Australia, 1.5 million in Tasmania and 5 million in Western Australia. Despite the popularity of destinations
such as Ayers Rock and Kakadu National Park, only 0.4 million overnight stays were recorded in the
Northern Territory.

New South Wales, Queensland and Victoria attracted the greatest tourism revenue, with $5.2 billion, $5.1
billion and $3.3 billion spent there respectively. The average expenditure for trips was $395 per person, with
accommodation the biggest expenditure, followed by meals and fuel. The survey also showed that costs
were higher for inter-state travellers, who each spent an average of $812 per trip compared with $255 for
those who travelled within one state. Trips to the Northern Territory were the most expensive, followed by
Queensland, with South Australia and Victoria the least.

Comparing the costs of trips for different purposes, the survey found that business trips were the most
expensive because they were more likely to involve stays in commercial accommodation. Trips taken for
educational reasons – to visit universities, museums etc. – were also expensive, especially as they usually
required inter-state plane tickets. Family holidays lay in the medium range, with transport and fares
contributing to the cost, but adventure parks the major expense. But while visits to friends and relatives
were the least expensive – due to lower accommodation, food and transport costs – these travellers spent
most on shopping.

The survey also estimates that Australians made 253 million day trips in 2002, visiting parks, beaches and
city attractions. The largest expenses were petrol costs (averaging $10 per day trip), followed by meals,
souvenirs and entry fees. Day trips tended to cost the most in the Northern Territory, while South Australia
was the cheapest. Overall, the survey found that men travelling alone spent more than any tourist group. In
particular, men spent more on transport and meals. Women travelling alone spent the most on clothes,
while souvenirs were bought more often by families than by other tourists.

The challenge for the tourism industry now is to encourage Australians to continue spending money on
travel and, if possible, to increase the amount they spend.

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Questions 29-31

Complete the table below.

Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the text for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 29-31 on your answer sheet.

Industries that benefit from tourism

transport

29 ..................

30 ..................

31 ..................
Questions 32-35

Complete the sentences below.

Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the text for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 32-35 on your answer sheet..

32. The state or territory in which the highest number of overnight trips was made was .................................
33. The state or territory in which the lowest number of overnight trips was made was ...............................
34. People travelling from state to state spent more than those travelling .............................
35. The TWO cheapest states or territories to travel to were ............................ and ................................
Questions 36-39
Complete the table below.
Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the text for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 36-39 on your answer sheet.

Major Expenses for different trips

Purpose of trip Major expense

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business accommodation

education 36....................

family holiday 37....................

visiting relatives 38....................

day trips 39....................

Questions 40 and 41
Complete the sentences below.
Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the text for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 12 and 13 on your answer sheet.

40. The category of people who spent the most on travel in Australia in 2002 were ................................
41. The category who spent the most on souvenirs were ................................
Answer:
29. accommodation // hotels 34. within one state 39. (petrol) costs
30. catering // restaurants 35. South Australia, Victoria 40. men (travelling/travelling
31. retail 36. (inter-state) plane tickets alone)
32. New South Wales 37. adventure parks 41. families.
33. (the) Northern Territory 38. shopping

Section 1: Question 1-14

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-14 which are based on the text below.

GT Reading: Your guide to Renting Accommodation in Stonington & Blossom Child Care

Read the text below and answer Questions 1-8.

Your guide to Renting Accommodation in Stonington

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This leaflet has been developed by the Stonington City Council to assist migrant and students who have
arrived in Stonington and are looking to rent long-term accommodation. The city of Stonington has 5
suburbs and in terms of accommodation, the suburbs vary significantly.

A Richmond
Richmond is the busiest and most expensive suburb in Stonington. Richmond Business Park hosts a total of
56 industries that employ approximately 5500 people which creates a steady demand for accommodation in
this area. From 2 to 20 stories, 1, 2 and 3 bedroom apartment-style living is the most common type of
accommodation in Richmond. Depending upon the number of bedrooms, rental prices range from $1600 -
$2500 per month. Richmond is well-known for its cosmopolitan environment.

B Crane Hills
This suburb is located in the southern hills of Stonington. The suburb offers a brilliant outlook over the city.
Accommodation is mostly duplex houses and bungalows. Rent ranges from $2000 to $3000 a month. The
largest park in Stonington is located here, along with a golf course, jogging track and children's playground.
The government has undertaken to expand the residential area through the western section of the hill and
this development will be completed by next year. It is anticipated that the building of around 500 new
houses will commence early in the new year.

C Blackburn
Although Blackburn is the smallest suburb in Stonington it has the most dwellings. A suburb of mostly
independent houses, rental prices for 1, 2 and 3 bedroom houses range from $1500 to $2000 per month.
Most homes are spacious with large backyards, however, rental accommodation in the area is not readily
available and what becomes available is quickly snapped up! Most tenants of rental homes commit to a
minimum 3-year lease. There is one primary school, a train station and a shopping centre in the area.

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D Malvern
Famous for its racecourse, Stonington’s oldest suburb is Malvern. Most of the houses in this suburb are
renovated - rent for a two and three bedroom home runs at around $800 and $1200 respectively. Homes
built in Malvern typically do not have any yards. Facilities include one supermarket, two shopping centres
and the Stonington Community Hospital. At the moment, there is no school although the state government
is reviewing a proposal to build one.

E Caulfield
Closest to the city centre and with most government department offices, is Caulfield. A variety of mixed
accommodation options from apartments to houses are available in Caulfield. Caulfield does not have a
train station, but its bus system is comprehensive. Caulfield is very much in a growth phase so a large
portion of available accommodation is newly-completed and modern. A spacious 3 bedroom house will cost
around $1500 a month while a 3 bedroom apartment averages around $1200 per month. Caulfield has 2
schools and 3 supermarkets, and accommodation in the suburb is typically good value for money.
Questions 1-8

Look at the five descriptions (A-E) of five suburbs in Stonington.

For which suburb are the following statements true?

Write the correct letter, A-E, in boxes 1-8 on your answer sheet.

NB You may use any letter more than once.

1. This suburb is expecting new buildings in the near future.

2. This suburb is the most popular rental area in Stonington.
3. This suburb has mostly new places to live in.
4. This suburb offers great views.
5. This suburb offers a variety of different housing options.
6. The accommodation in this suburb has limited outdoor living areas.
7. This suburb is influenced by many different countries.
8. This suburb has the lowest level of housing availability.
Read the following text and answer Questions 9-14.

Blossom Child Care

Service information and fees

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Blossom Child Care (BCC) is a privately owned child care centre which has been operating in five locations
in Wales for the past 10 years. Our services cater for children aged from 1 to 6 years old. We have a range
of childcare service to suit the needs of working parents. As an associate member of the National Child
Care Institute, all our employees are highly qualified.

We offer three levels of childcare:

I. Pre-Kindergarten
Children under two are in the Pre-Kindergarten group. BCC’s Teddy, Kinda and Koala rooms have been
allocated for this age group where we accommodate 15 children per room. We provide special care and
make sure that one of our highly qualified senior supervisors, in addition to three general staff, are always
available in each room. Please ensure your child has at least 4 nappies and 2 additional sets of clothes
every day.

Food: In addition to cow's milk, if your child is on solid food, we provide a nutritional blend of fruits and
vegetables. If your child is on formula, please inform us.

Toys: All Pre-Kindergarten rooms have toilet training toys which, along with other general toys, are always
maintained at the strictest hygiene standards.

Fees: Our Pre-Kindergarten service fee is $300 per week with a one-off registration fee of $30. Fees are
payable weekly.
II. Kindergarten
Children aged two to four are in the Kindergarten group. BCC has four allocated rooms for this group each
accommodates 20 children. Two staff are on duty in each room and one senior supervisor is in charge of all
four rooms.

Food: Children are provided with three full meals a day. All meals are cooked on the premises by a child
food specialist and the menus are rotated so that your child gets the right nutritional balance. If your child is
allergic to any food, please inform us by filling in the Food Allergy Form.

Toys: Our Kindergarten rooms are decorated with educational posters and are full of learning games and
puzzles. We discourage children bringing their own toys from home as they are often a source of contention
and argument.

Fees: The Kindergarten service fee is $250 per week with a one-off registration fee of $40. Fees are
payable weekly.

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III. Post-Kindergarten
Children aged four to six are in the Post-Kindergarten group. We have two dedicated rooms for this group
all decorated with artwork designed to stimulate learning. Each room accommodates 20 children and is
serviced solely by one general staff member. BCC arranges one excursion session for this group every four
weeks. The venues are generally parks, playgrounds, picnic-spots and the local zoo. As a legal
requirement, parents must fill in an Excursion Declaration Form before each trip which authorises the
Centre to take their children from the premises.

Food: Children in the Post-Kindergarten program get three meals a day – mostly meals with rice,
vegetables and chicken. Please speak to your child’s supervisor if you have any special dietary
requirements.

Toys: There are four life-sized cartoon toys in each room along with a large variety of books.

Fees: The Post-Kindergarten service fee is $200 per week with a one-off registration fee of $40. Fees are
payable weekly.
Questions 9-14

Classify each of the descriptions 9-14 as belonging to either A, B, C or D below.

Write your answers in boxes 9-14 on your answer sheet.

Groups

A Pre-Kindergarten
B Kindergarten
C Post-Kindergarten
D Does not belong to any group

9. A variety of prepared food is offered.

10. If needed, additional clothing is provided.
11. An outing is arranged once a month.
12. Children can see live animals.
13. A student report is included.
14. Any problems with diet should be dealt with in writing.
Click the button to Show/ Hide Answers

Answer:
1. B 4. B 7. A
2. C 5. E 8. C
3. E 6. D 9. B
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10. D 12. C 14. B

11. C 13. D

Section 2: Question 15-27

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 15-27 which are based on the text below.

GT Reading: The ABC's of CV Writing & Waiting at Jakarta Mahal

Read the text below and answer Questions 15-20.

THE ABC'S OF CV WRITING

Your Curriculum Vitae (CV) is one of the most important documents you will ever write. This summary of
your academic and work history is an essential tool in your job search and commonly the first form of
contact with a potential employer.

With so many people in the job market it is your responsibility to ‘sell’ yourself, so before you put pen to
paper, it is worthwhile taking time to carefully think about your approach. To assist you in this process we
have listed the most common advice for preparing your CV below:

A Your main goal is to demonstrate a match between your accomplishments and the position you are
applying for. The job description will outline the qualifications and requisites for the position, so read it
carefully.

B Update your CV each time you apply for a job, specifically tailoring it to each position.

C If you are applying for a position in another country, present your academic and work achievements in
terms your future employer will understand and demonstrate your familiarity with the culture and business
practices, where possible.

D The format of your CV is always important. A clear, concise presentation will make your application
stand out and be easier to read. A summary on page one, outlining your key strengths will draw attention to
your best features. The use of bullet points in the formatting can not only contribute to brevity, but also
increase the impact of your CV.

E Never send out a CV without a covering letter highlighting the areas of your CV that particularly relate to
the job being advertised.

F In their enthusiasm for a particular position, some people may be tempted to exaggerate on their CVs.
Employers are aware of this tendency and will check any claims you make concerning your experience,

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qualifications or remuneration levels. It pays to be truthful. If you are caught lying, your application will not
be considered.

G Grammatical and spelling errors are unacceptable in a CV however, they are one of the most common
problems. Your CV must have no mistakes and be attractively presented. A good strategy is to ask
someone to check it for you before it is submitted to make sure it is error-free.

H If you have difficulty writing your CV and feel that it will detract from your job application, there are
professional services that will assist you for a reasonable fee.
Questions 15-20

Complete each of the sentences below.

Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the text for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 15-20 on your answer sheet.

15. A CV is usually the initial .................. made with a future boss.

16. Writing a CV requires a well-considered .................. .
17. All .................. must show a relationship with the desired position.
18. The requirements of a position are explained in the .................. .
19. In addition to a CV, applications must also include a .................. .
20. If CV writing is too challenging, consider help from .................. .

Read the text below and answer Questions 21-27.

WAITING AT JAKARTA MAHAL

When you finally hear the words ‘Congratulations, you've been hired!’ from the supervisor of the famous
Jakarta Mahal Indian Restaurant, you might wonder ‘Now what do I do?’

On your first day, you will be assigned to an experienced employee who will act as your adviser for the first
week. Your mentor will also take you on a tour of the restaurant to familiarise you with the layout. Once you
know where everything is and have met the staff, you will be advised of the daily routine. An important key
to success is to memorise this and faithfully adhere to it.

Upon arrival at the restaurant, change into your uniform - ensure it is ironed and stain-free. Depending on
the time of the day, you may be required to lay the tables and stock the service areas with supplies of
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coffee, tea, clean tableware and linen. Once those tasks are complete, familiarise yourself with the menu
and any alterations made since you were last on duty. Pay particular attention to the daily specials and
check the drinks menu and wine list. It may be necessary to consult with the head waiter about the dishes
on offer so you can answer queries, which could include describing cooking methods and ingredients.

Be on hand to greet the patrons, answer their questions, and escort them to their table. When everyone is
seated and has a menu, take their drink orders and inform them of the specials of the day. Be prepared to
make recommendations if requested to do so.

Take the meal orders when the guests indicate they are ready and check to see if additional beverages are
needed. When the meals are ready they should be served quickly and efficiently.

A hallmark of an excellent waiter is table maintenance. During the meal ensure that empty glasses, dirty
dishes and unused cutlery are removed. Also, be alert for anyone looking around in need of assistance.

Be sure to check the bill before presenting it to the guests, making sure it is itemised and that the total and
sales tax is correct. After you have collected payment and taken leave of your patrons, it is time to reset the
table and begin again.

Questions 21-27

Complete the flow-chart below.

Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the text for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 21-27 on your answer sheet.

DAILY ACTIVITIES AT JAKARTA MAHAL

Waiters must put on a clean 21 ……..……

↓
Become aware of any changes to 22 ……..……
↓
Prepare for questions about the menu by talking to the 23 ……..……
↓
Tell guests about specials after they have been 24 ……..……

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↓
Once meal orders have been taken, inquire about 25 ……..……
↓
Writes all sales tax on 26 ……..……
↓
After guests have left, 27 ……..……
Answer:
15. contact 20. professional services 25. additional beverages
16. approach 21. uniform 26. the bill
17. accomplishments 22. the menu 27. begin again
18. job description 23. head waiter
19. covering letter 24. seated

Section 3: Question 28-40

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 28-40 which are based on the text below.

GT Reading: New Impressions Bring Controversy

Read the text below and answer Questions 28-40.

New Impressions Bring Controversy

A. Many of history’s pages reveal that renowned artists have often had to endure obstacles and criticisms
before eventually rising to the heights of success in their careers. Nineteenth-century artist Sir John Everett
Millais is certainly one of them.

B. Born in 1829 in Southampton, England the youngest son of John William and Emily Mary Millais’ two
sons, John Everett showed extraordinary artistic talent from an early age. In time, the family moved to
London and as residents, Everett’s parents were determined to give young John an opportunity to develop
his talent. A meeting with the president of the London Royal Academy of Art, Sir Martin Archer Shee, was
arranged. It was not long before Sir Martin also saw the extraordinary natural artistic ability Everett
possessed. As a result, in the summer of 1840 and at the age of 11, Everett became the youngest ever
pupil to study art at the academy. His ability and age led to all his teachers affectionately referred to him as
The Child. The extra attention shown to Everett eventually caused jealousy among his fellow students. At
the beginning of his studies Everett, a thinly-built boy, often found it difficult to cope with the bullying he
encountered at the art academy. However, as time went by and his peers became increasingly aware of his
artistic talent – even in the complex area of portrait painting – bullying gave way to awe.

C. Over the months and years, Everett spent at the academy he began to concentrate on the theoretical
aspects of art. His studies included reading the biographies of past great artists and almost all the books on

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art that the academy library had. Interestingly, the reading and studying of most of these books was not
needed in order to pass his exams. Everett, out of his genuine curiosity and passion for art, spent most of
his leisure time at the library. At the school’s practical painting classes, he was well-known for going to
considerable lengths to find the right elements needed for his painting - travelling long distances in search
of the right natural scenes and paying large sums of money to hire models for his portrait painting. Over the
course of his studies at the London Royal Academy of Art, he met two other like-minded artists - Holman
Hunt and Gabriel Rossetti - who would later become his lifelong friends and key supporters of his artistic
impressions.

D. In 1850, he held his first solo painting exhibition in London. It was a non-traditional exhibition in terms of
style and pattern and proved to be controversial in terms of the subject matter displayed – the social class
system. Everett displayed art on the topic of hierarchical or class distinctions between individuals and
groups in English society. Although a small portion of art lovers praised his exhibition, he was strongly
attacked by most of the art critics of the day. Some of his paintings on religious matters, which portrayed
religion as something quite ordinary, made the conservative segment of the society angry.

E. Over the years, with the support of his two best friends Holman Hunt and Gabriel Rossetti, Everett
started a movement which he named the Pre-Raphaelite Brotherhood (PRB). The intention of his PRB
movement was to reform art by rejecting the concept of the Renaissance(1) movement which, he believed,
was a mechanical approach to art influenced by narrow academic teaching. Once the PRB movement was
formally launched, attacks from art critics throughout England intensified. The PRB movement contradicted
the views of almost all the other established artists in the country and led to John Ruskin, the foremost art
critic of that time, formally meeting Everett with the intention of persuading him to cease the PRB. Everett
did not agree to give up his ideologies so no agreement between the two was reached. However, the
incident had a direct consequence on Everett’s personal life. Effie, Ruskin’s wife, met Everett and over a
period of time started to develop an attraction to him. Eventually, Effie divorced Ruskin and married Everett.

F. Art historians today believe that the marriage of Everett and Effie acted as a catalyst in turning public
opinion in his favour and inspired him to devote greater effort to his PRB movement. In 1865, Everett
finished a series of paintings based on his ideologies and in 1876 with such masterpieces as ‘Twins’, ‘The
Marquis of Salisbury’ and ‘The Lady Campbell’ became the most successful portrait painter of the day.

G. In 1890, he was awarded the title of Sir and was made the president of the England Royal Art Academy.
By that time, his works not only won the adoration of the masses in England but many other European
countries as well. Unfortunately, shortly after being given the title of Sir, he fell ill and was wrongly
diagnosed as having influenza. In 1894 it was discovered that he was actually suffering from cancer. During
July 1896, his situation became very critical and the queen of England personally contacted his doctors

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offering her full support. Sir John Everett however, passed away on the 13th of August in 1896.

(1)
A cultural movement from 14th to17th century, which originated in Italy and was spread all over Europe.
Questions 28-35

The passage has seven paragraphs A-G.

Which paragraph contains the following information?

Write the correct letter A-G in boxes 28-35 on your answer sheet.

NB You may use any letter more than once.

28. An event that led to a change in viewpoint.

29. A positive example of doing more than what was required.
30. An example of incorrect information being given.
31. A minority that showed appreciation.
32. An example of a positive change in human interaction.
33. A description of Everett’s physical appearance.
34. An example of an official organisational beginning.
35. An activity that was supposed to bring change.
Questions 36-40

Do the following statements agree with the information given in the text?

In boxes 36-40 on your answer sheet, write

TRUE if the statement agrees with the information

FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this

36. Everett’s parents moved to London so he could study at the London Royal Academy.
37. In time, both his peers and teachers admired Everett.
38. As a youngster, Everett was interested in other artists.
39. Everett’s second exhibition featured art about the economic and social position.
40. Everett’s plan for the PRB was to make art better.

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Answer:
28. F 33. B 38. TRUE
29. C 34. E 39. FALSE
30. G 35. E 40. TRUE
31. D 36. NG
32. B 37. TRUE

Section 1: Question 1-14

Read the text below and answers to the questions 1-14 on your answer sheet.

GT Reading: "Accommodation" & "Town of Morpeth"

Read the text below and answer Question 1-3.

Use NO MORE THREE WORDS AND/OR a NUMBER for each answer.
Write your answer in boxes 1-3 on your answer sheet.
Accommodation
Morpeth is today a small town about two hours’ drive north of Sydney. The town of Morpeth grew from an
original 2000 acres of land given to an English army officer, Lieutenant Edward Close (1790-1866), in 1821.
During the 1830s and 1840s Morpeth became a major river port, due to its favourable location. Produce,
hides and timber were brought to Morpeth from inland New South Wales and shipped down the Hunter river
to the coast and then to Sydney. However, in 1870 a railway line reached the town, and the importance of
river shipping began to decline. Today, Morpeth, with its beautiful old buildings, is a popular tourist
destination.

Questions 1-3

1. When was Lieutenant Close given the land on which Morpeth grew?
2. On what river is Morpeth situated?
3. When did trains first get to Morpeth?
Questions 4-7

There are four advertisements below for places to stay near Morpeth.

Answer the questions below by writing the letters of the appropriate advertisements, A-D, in boxes 4-7 on
your answer sheet.

4. Which place to stay has restaurant besides Country Comfort Inn?

5. Which place claims to offer the cheapest rate?

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6. For more information, to which place can you telephone free of charge?
7. At which place can the guests cook their own food?
WHERE TO STAY

A. Country Comfort Inn, Hunter Valley

The Country Comfort Inn, Hunter Valley, is a beautifully restored 125-year-old building just 20 minutes from
the vineyards.

Formerly an orphanage, the Inn is set on 10 acres of landscaped gardens complete with pool, sauna, tennis
court, spa, gym, billiard room, guest lounge, fireplace, cocktail bar, and two restaurants. Special packages
available.

New England Highway, Maitland.

Call toll-free 1800 065 064 or (049) 32 52 88.

B. Siesta Motel
“Spend a night – not a fortune”

That’s the Budget Motel chain motto. The Siesta Motel, rated 3-star, is conveniently placed at the gateway
to tire winery district and nearby to the historic towns of Morpeth and Wollombi.

The family-owned and operated Siesta offers air-conditioned comfort and a friendly atmosphere. A free light
breakfast is delivered to your suite and excellent meals are available at the Maitland City Bowling Club next
door. Quality of accommodation is assured and the tariff is the lowest in the district.

258 New England Highway, Maitland.

Phone (049) 32 83 22.

C. Endeavour East Maitland Motel

28 modern, comfortable 3-star units which open onto the swimming pool and barbeque area. All units
feature TV and videos, air- conditioning, 2 with spas.

Fully licensed restaurant with cocktail bar and lounge is open 7 nights. Close to all amenities.

New England Highway, East Maitland.

Phone (049) 33 54 88.

D. Eskdale Country Cottages

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Rustic cottages secluded amongst gum trees provide quietness and privacy on 200 acres. The cottages are
located on the historic beef cattle property, “Eskdale”, nestled in the Williams Valley. Each cottage is
completely self-contained having 2 bedrooms, full kitchen facilities, and sitting rooms with TV and video,
and offers comfortable rural accommodation to those who enjoy the delights of the country yet still retain
access to the city. Situated close to the towns of Morpeth, Maitland, Port Stephens & rainforests around
Dungog.

Nelson Plains Road, Seaham NSW 2324.

Phone (049) 88 62 07, 88 62 09
Fax (049)88 62 09.

Questions 8-14

Read the description below of the town of Morpeth and answer the questions that follow.
The best way to see Morpeth is to take the Morpeth Heritage Walk. This covers about three kilometres, and
takes visitors past many beautiful historical buildings. Starting at Fig Tree Hill, which has picnic facilities,
stroll past the Surgeon’s Cottage, built in 1845, formerly home of the local doctor, now shops. From there
you will come to Morpeth Bridge, erected in 1870, which replaced a ferry boat. Opposite it on the right is the
Courthouse, still in use today. Continue your walk past the historic Railway Station, then turn into George
Street. Stroll past gracious houses until you come to the Church of the Immaculate Conception on your
right, built of bricks made in Gosford. Continuing up George Street, you come to the shopping district;
browse through the shops or stop for refreshment. Your tour of Morpeth will finish at magnificent
Closebourne House, built in 1826 by Lieutenant Edward Close.

Questions 8-14

Using information from the text, fill in the names of the numbered tourist attractions on the map.

Write your answers in boxes 8-14 on your answer sheet.

The first one has been done for you as an example.

Note: there are more names than you will need

Tourist attractions

A Fig Tree Hill C George Street

B Ferry Boat D Gosford

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E Church of the Immaculate Conception I Surgeon’s Cottage

F Closebourne House J Railway Station
G Morpeth Bridge K Courthouse
H shopping district

NB. (2, 3, 4,...) are the number of the places on the map.

Example: 1 = A

8. .............. 12. ..............

9. .............. 13. ..............
10. .............. 14. ..............
11. ..............

Answer:
1. 1821 6. A 11. J
2. (The) Hunter (River) 7. D 12. E
3. 1870 8. I 13. H
4. C 9. G 14. F
5. B 10. K

Section 2: Question 15-27

Read the text below and answers to the questions 15-27 on your answer sheet.

GT Reading: "Numeracy Centre"

Read the text below and answer Question 15-27.

Numeracy Centre

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Many business and marketing courses require a knowledge of introductory statistics, computing or
mathematics. If you feel inadequately prepared for your course, you can get help from the Numeracy
Centre, which offers FREE elementary help in maths and statistics. Grab a timetable from the Centre and
drop in when it suits you.

COURSE A:
The first course available to students is a Revision Course in Basic Maths. This 3-hour lecture will review
mathematical concepts necessary for elementary statistics, such as fractions, area and percentages up to a
Year 8 level of mathematics. It is not necessary to book, so feel free to drop in. This session is FREE!

COURSE B:
For those students doing marketing courses, and other courses requiring statistical analysis, there is the
Bridging Course in Statistics for Marketing. This three-day course introduces ideas in elementary statistics
to provide a starting point for further developments in statistical skills later on in other courses. The course
is run in sessions of three hours, in the form of a one-hour lecture followed by a two-hour tutorial. Examples
will be drawn from the reference books listed. The tutorials will be interactive where possible (eg. drawing
random samples from the population of numbered cards in class) with hands-on experience of data
manipulation using MINITAB on a bank of PCs.

COURSE C:
Statistics for the Practitioner is slightly different to the previous course, which must be completed before this
course. This course is largely non-mathematical.

It will instead concentrate on the interpretation and application of statistics rather than on computation. The
statistical package MINITAB will be used as a teaching tool. This course will be conducted over two days in
the form of workshops and small group discussions, with a strong emphasis on hands-on experience of
data manipulation using computers.

COURSE D:
A further course of interest to many students is English for Computer Studies. Students with English as their
second language who will be needing elementary computing for their courses are encouraged to enrol in
this 8-hour course. Students will learn through workshops giving hands-on experience. The cost of the
course is $15 which includes notes and refreshments.
Questions 15-22

Below is a chart summarising information about the Numeracy Centre courses.

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Complete the required details using information from the passage.

Write your answers in boxes 15-22 on your answer sheet.

Questions 23-27

Courses A to D is each aimed at helping a specific group of students.

Below is a list of different students. Match the students to the course that would help them most.

In boxes 23-27 on your answer sheet write the letter A, B, C or D for the number of the course, or N if there
is no course available for the student’s needs.

23. Narelle, from Taiwan, has to use a computer to do assignments in her business studies classes.
24. Joe, who left high school 10 years ago, wants to brush up on his maths before he starts his studies for
the year.
25. Jenny needs an advanced course on computer graphics for her studies in Graphic Design.
26. Geoff, who has to read many articles containing statistics, needs to know how to interpret and apply the
facts and figures.
27. Bob needs to know how to perform some of the basic statistic equations for the assignments in his
business course.

Click the button to Show/ Hide Answers

Answer:
15. free 19. Course B // Statistics for 22. workshops
16. lecture Marketing 23. D
17. 9// nine 20. workshops 24. A
18. tutorial 21. 15 25. N

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26. C 27. B
Section 3: Question 28-40
Read the text below and answers to the questions 28-40 on your answer sheet.

GT Reading: "Business Planning"

Read the text below and answer Question 28-40.

Business Planning
What is a Business plan?
It is probably best described as a summary and evaluation of your business idea, in writing.

Preparation of a business plan is the first and most important task for the business starter. The plan should
include details concerning the industry in which you operate, your product or service, marketing, production,
personnel and financial strategies.

What purpose does it serve?

A business plan allows you to think through all the factors of a business, and to solve potential problems
before you come to them. It will identify strengths and weaknesses and help to assess whether the business
can succeed. It is a blueprint for starting, maintaining or expanding a business. It is a working plan to use in
comparing your achievements to the goals you set. It should provide information required by financial
institutions when finance is sought.

How to produce a Business plan

Step 1: Collect Information

Gather as much relevant information as possible concerning the industry in which you intend to operate (the
number of businesses already operating, the size of their operations, where they are located). Use books,
industry associations, and existing business owners to help you.

Collect all possible information regarding the market/s you are aiming for (who buys, why do they buy, what
are the key features the customer looks for).

Learn all you can about the product/s or services you intend to produce, distribute or offer.

Step 2: Analysis
Read over all the material you have collected and decide what is relevant to your business idea. You may
have to modify your idea depending on what your research shows. The key question to ask is:

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“Can you design a business that will earn enough to cover costs and pay a wage and reasonable profit to
you as a proprietor?”

When Steps 1 and 2 are completed, you should have decided if there is a market for your product or service
which is large enough and sufficiently accessible to make your new business financially worthwhile. Now
you are ready to commit your plan to paper.

Step 3: Strategy Formulation

Decide how the business will operate. You should describe how the business will be managed, and the staff
and organisational structure that will be in place. Diagrams may be useful to show how these areas will
work. Don’t forget to include the areas of responsibility for each member of staff. This is especially important
if some of your staff will be family members.

There are three further parts that go together to make a comprehensive business plan:

• A Marketing plan, which includes location, method of selling, packaging, pricing and so on. In all these
areas you must be aware of consumer trends to make sure that your business does not become outdated
or irrelevant.

• An Operational plan, which describes the day-to-day running of the business. You should include supply
sources, cost and quantities of materials, processes, equipment and methods of extending the services or
products offered.

• A Financial plan, which is a master budget for the operation and includes:

– cash flow forecast

– balance sheet
– profit and loss statement
– sources of finance
– sales forecast and target.

The financial aspects of the plan are most important and you should develop or access financial skills to
make sure this part of your plan is accurate and realistic. Don’t forget set-up costs and the money needed to
see you through an initial period of low cash flow when calculating your first year’s budget.

Update your Business plan

Nothing remains constant in business; circumstances change, markets change, fashions change, methods

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change.

From time to time you must check your sources of information and reassess your business plan. What is
relevant when you start is not necessarily so in five years’ time. You may also need to revise targets and
budgets if external factors (such as interest rates) vary.

Keep your information up-to-date and be prepared to change as circumstances demand. A business plan
should be thought of as flexible, not fixed. If you use these steps to develop a business plan, changing it
according to circumstances, you will be well on the way to a successful business.
Questions 28-34

Do the following statements agree with the views of the writer in the passage “Business Planning?”

In boxes 28-34 on your answer sheet write

YES if the statement agrees with the views of the writer

NO if the statement contradicts the views of the writer
NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this

28. A business plan must be written down.

29. Creating a business plan is only necessary for a new business.
30. A business plan should include a diagram of your proposed office or shop layout.
31. A business should generate enough money to pay salaries and some profit to the owner.
32. The roles of family members in the business must be clearly defined in the business plan.
33. You should expect not to earn much money in the first year.
34. Once a business plan is finished, no further changes will need to be made to it.
Questions 35-40

The text describes how to make a business plan.

Choose the correct word or phrase from the box to complete the following flow chart of how to make a
business plan.

Write its letter in boxes 35-40 on your answer sheet.

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A. Advertising
B. Keep your business up-to-date
C. Find information
D. Create a sample product
E. Find a good location
F. Organisational structure
G. Can I find good staff?
H. Operations
I. Create your business plan
J. Can my business make enough money?

Answer:
28. YES 30. NOT GIVEN 32. YES
29. NOT GIVEN 31. YES 33. YES
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34. NO 37. I 39. H

35. C 38. F 40. B
36. J
Section 1: Question 1-12
Read the text below and answers to the questions 1-12 on your answer sheet.

GT Reading: "The fun way to save!" & "Medicare - Your health insurer" &"International Postal Service"

Read the following advertisement and answer questions 1 and 2.

THE FUN WAY TO SAVE!
Join the Woolwich for Kids Club and you can save money and cam interest.

And you will have a lot of fun besides! As a club member, you will have your own passbook with a wallet to
keep it in and your own special money box. Until you are thirteen we will send you the club magazine,
edited by Henry’s Cat, every six months. It is full of fun and games, news, quizzes, things to do and sec,
and great competitions to enter. When it is your birthday, Henry’s Cat will send you a special birthday card.

If you are sixteen or under, Woolwich for Kids Club is specially for you. It’s the fun way to save!

Questions 1-2

Choose the appropriate letters A-D and write them in boxes 1-2 on your answer sheet.
1. What is the Woolwich for Kids Club?
A. a sports club
B. a banking service
C. a magazine
D. a club for people who like cats

2. How many magazines do children receive each year?

A. six
B. twelve
C. two
D. one

Read the following text and answer questions 3-6.

MEDICARE – YOUR HEALTH INSURER

What does Medicare cover?

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Doctors
Medicare helps pay for the doctor to treat you at the doctor’s surgery or wherever you need treatment.
Medicare helps pay for treatment by a specialist. If you need to see a specialist, you must be referred by
your doctor.

Other medical services

• X-rays
• pathology tests
• medical tests, examinations and procedures
Optometrists Medicare helps pay for eye tests, but not for the cost of glasses or contact lenses. Dentists
Routine dental services are not covered. However, some medical-type operations performed by approved
dentists are covered.

Hospitals

Public patient
If you choose to be treated under Medicare as a public patient in a public hospital. Medicare will cover all
hospital costs. You pay nothing.

Private patient
If you choose to be treated as a private patient in any hospital. Medicare will help to pay for services by your
doctor. However, Medicare will not pay for expenses such as theatre fees or your accommodation. These
charges can be covered by arranging private health insurance.
Questions 3-6

Look at the following statements after reading the notice about Medicare.

In boxes 3-6 on your answer sheet write:

TRUE if the statement is true

FALSE if the statement is false
NOT GIVEN if the information is not given in the notice

Example: Medicare does not pay for glasses.

Answer: TRUE

3. Medicare does not pay for any work done by dentists.

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4. Medicare pays for ambulance fees.

5. If you have not seen a doctor first, Medicare will not pay for you to see a specialist.
6. Medicare will pay at least some hospital doctor’s costs for both private and public patients.

Read the text below and answer Questions 7-12.

You want to send some international mail. Read the text 'International Postal Services' below and
answer questions 6-11.

Use NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 7-12 on your answer sheet.

7. If you do not pay enough postage for airmail, how may your letter or package be sent?
8. How much does it cost to send a postcard by airmail?
9. What does the post office use to follow the movement of priority mail?
10. Which is the best priority service if you want to send expensive jewellery abroad?
11. If you send something by either international recorded or international registered, what does the person
receiving it has to do?
12. What kind of service is faster than swiftair?

INTERNATIONAL POSTAL SERVICES

GETTING THE PRICE RIGHT
It pays to get the postage right when you’re sending mail abroad. Anything intended for airmail but
underpaid stands the risk of being sent by surface mail instead. So make sure that you check the postage
when mailing abroad.

STAMP BOOKS
For extra convenience, remember international stamp books. There are two available: 4 x 41p stamps with
airmail labels, for sending 10 g letters anywhere outside of Europe. 4 x 35p stamps with airmail labels, for
sending postcards to anywhere in the world.

PRIORITY TREATMENT

PRIORITY SERVICES FOR YOUR INTERNATIONAL MAIL

These three new services incorporate the latest barcode technology to track and trace your mail up to
despatch from the United Kingdom.

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1. INTERNATIONAL RECORDED
Peace of mind when posting abroad.

Like using recorded delivery in Britain, this service gives you a signature on delivery and is recommended
for items of little or no monetary value sent worldwide. Valuable items should be sent by the international
registered service.

Priced at £2.50 per item plus airmail postage, it provides compensation to a maximum of £25.
Advice of delivery (documentary confirmation of delivery) is available for an extra 40p.

2. INTERNATIONAL REGISTERED
Greater security for your valuables.
Gives you extra security in the UK and abroad, and a signature on delivery.

Available to 140 destinations, it costs £3.00 plus airmail postage for compensation up to £500; £4.00 plus
airmail postage for compensation up to £1000.
Lower limits apply to some destinations; to others, registered is not available. Please check at your local
post office. Advice of delivery (documentary confirmation of delivery) is available for an extra 40p.

3. SWIFTAIR
The express airmail service

Although it is not a courier service, and therefore cannot guarantee delivery the following day, swiftair is
faster than ordinary airmail, international recorded and international registered. It is the economical
alternative to courier services when next- day delivery is not essential.

Price £2.70 plus airmail postage.

Answer:
1. B 5. TRUE 9. barcode technology
2. C 6. TRUE 10. international registered
3. FALSE 7. by surface mail 11. sign on delivery
4. NOT GIVEN 8. 35 p 12. courier service

Section 2: Question 13-25

Read the text below and answers to the questions 13-25 on your answer sheet.

GT Reading: "School Excursions" & "Vocational Training"

The following notice gives information about school excursions. Each excursion is labelled A-J.

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Read the following notice and answer questions 13-19.

SCHOOL EXCURSIONS
A. Ancient and Modern Museum:
This is a museum with a difference. Along with the usual historical exhibits, this museum features an up-to-
date display of hands-on information technology.

B. Shortlands Wildlife Park:

This is not the usual “animal gaol”. Here exotic animals wander free in large compounds, separated in such
a way that they can’t harm one another.

C. Botanical Gardens:
Besides the many exotic plants one expects to see in a botanical garden, these gardens feature an array of
native birds and other wildlife.

D. Wax World:
If you’re interested in seeing how people used to live and dress, Wax World is the place for you. Featuring
over 100 wax models of famous people, this venue is well – suited to anyone interested in changing trends
in clothing.

E. The Central Art Gallery:

The art gallery has six chambers each exhibiting paintings from different periods, from the Middle Ages to
the present. The walking tour, recorded on tape, is designed for visitors interested in art history and
criticism.

F. Technology Park:
In the planetarium, you can observe features of the night sky, and learn about such historical events as the
origin of the crab nebula. This excursion also includes a visit to the Satellite Mapping Centre.

G. Parliament:
Students are met at the entrance by ushers who show them around the Houses. The tour includes the
Hansard library, the grand lounge, government and opposition offices and the public gallery.

H. St. Cedric’s Cathedral:

With the Bishops’ Throne as its central feature, this building is a classic example of the excesses of
architecture. This excursion is a must for any student interested in sculpture and stained glass as art forms.

I. The Light Fantastic:

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Find out about the fascinating process of candle making. This factory also holds the additional attraction of
illustrating the diverse uses that candles and other wax products can have – from the projection of film, to
their use in the art of sculpture and decoration.

J. Trolland’s Caves:
These caves, situated below the hills to the north of the city, are entered via the Widmore River. The caves
are home to colonies of glow worms that shine like stars on the ceilings and walls of the caves, casting an
eerie light on the many stalagmites and stalactites.
Questions 13-19

Writing the appropriate letters, A-J, in boxes 13-19 on your answer sheet.

Note: You may use any letter more than once.

Example: Which excursion would you choose if you are interested in famous people?
Answer: D

13. Which excursion would you choose if you wanted to know about the different uses of wax?
14. Where could students learn something about the animals of the country they are studying in?
15. On which excursion is it possible to learn something about the stars?
16. Which excursion would be suitable for students of fashion and design?
17. Which excursion would attract people interested in computers?
18. On which excursion would you expect to listen to an art critic?
19. On which excursion would you need to travel by boat?

Read the text below and answer Questions 20-25.

Chapter 5

VOCATIONAL TRAINING
Technical and Further Education

Australia’s Technical and Further Education (TAFE) sector is a nationally recognized government system of
vocational education and training and is the major provider of the skills required by the Australian workforce.

TAFE is the largest of the tertiary education sectors in Australia. It accounts for approximately 70 per cent of
post-secondary education enrolments. There are 232 major TAFE colleges in Australia.

Although each state and territory administers its own system of TAFE. the qualifications they award are
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transferable throughout Australia. Although TAFE colleges cannot award tertiary-level degrees, some TAFE
courses permit TAFE graduates to be admitted with advanced standing into degree courses offered by
universities.

TAFE courses provide initial and further education at professional, para-professional, post-trade, trade and
operative level. TAFE courses are developed in collaboration with industry and the community to ensure the
most up-to-date education and training is provided.

Private Post-secondary Institutions

These private institutions are like TAFE colleges because they teach special skills for jobs but each one of
them usually specializes in courses for one industry.

There are many private institutions in Australia offering a wide range of courses: English language
(ELICOS, see Chapter 6). secretarial studies, data processing, pilot training, business and management,
recreational courses and religious studies. (Other courses offered by private post-secondary institutions are
listed in Chapter 7, Special Studies.)

If you successfully complete these courses you receive a qualification called a ‘certificate’ or ‘diploma’.
These are widely recognized by professional associations and industries in Australia, and are sometimes
recognized by higher education institutions for credit. Before you undertake a course at a private post-
secondary institution you should check that the certificate or diploma offered is appropriate for your
particular purpose because some private institutions offer courses which are not recognized. If you want to
enter a higher education institution from a private post-secondary institution, you should ask the higher
education institution whether they accept the qualification before you start your course.
Questions 20-25

The reading passage “Vocational Training" comes from a book about studying in Australia.

Do the following statements correspond to the information given in the passage?

In the boxes 20-25 on your answer sheet write -

TRUE if the statement is true

FALSE if the statement is false
NOT GIVEN if the information is not given in the passage

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20. There are more people studying in TAFE colleges than in any other kind of higher education institution.
21. TAFE qualifications arc accepted anywhere in Australia.
22. Some TAFE colleges offer university degrees.
23. Each TAFE college specializes in teaching skills for working within one specific industry.
24. The next chapter deals with English language courses.
25. Certificates or diplomas from all private post-secondary institutions are recognized everywhere in
Australia.

Answer:
13. I 18. E 23. FALSE
14. C 19. J 24. TRUE
15. F 20. TRUE 25. FALSE
16. D 21. TRUE
17. A 22. FALSE

Section 3: Question 26-40

Read the text below and answers to the questions 13-25 on your answer sheet.

GT Reading: "Underground cities - Japan's answer to overcrowding"

The following notice gives information about school excursions. Each excursion is labelled A-J.
Read the following notice and answer questions 13-19.
UNDERGROUND CITIES—JAPAN’S ANSWER TO OVERCROWDING
A nation running out of room seeks a down-to-earth solution

The Japanese may find a solution to the nation’s space shortage right beneath their feet. Some of Japan’s
largest construction companies are planning underground cities that would not only ease urban crowding
but also provide protection against earthquakes and increase energy efficiency.

Japan’s soaring real-estate prices provide reason enough. In a country with nearly half as many people as
the United States, but squeezed onto an archipelago which is only one hundredth the size, land shortages
have led to construction becoming prohibitively expensive.

Another plus for subterranean construction is that the underground earth’s movement during an earthquake
is far less than the surface’s—a big consideration in earthquake-prone Japan. The devastation caused by
recent earthquakes in Japan could to some extent have been avoided if much of the cities affected were
largely located underground.

In addition, the near-constant temperature would reduce the fuel costs for subterranean cities. Underground

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areas would need much less heating in winter and much less cooling in summer.

Taisei Corporation of Tokyo is planning a network of ‘Alice Cities’, named after the fictional Lewis Carroll
heroine who fell down a rabbit hole into a wonderland. Taisei proposes turning cramped downtowns into
airy underground spaces connected by subway trains and subterranean roads. The cities will be designed
for self-sufficiency, but could be linked to sister cities by underground railway. Although some buildings and
roads would remain above ground, much surface space would be freed up for trees and public parks.

Each Alice City would be divided into three sectors. The first sector, Town Space, would comprise verdant
underground boulevards and open-air and atrium-type plazas—all free of automobile traffic. These
boulevards and plazas will include shopping malls, entertainment complexes and fitness centres. Secondly,
the Office Space sector will house business operations, hotels and parking lots. A solar dome above each
office complex will ease feelings of claustrophobia. Express elevators or an extension of the underground
railway system will run to the bottom level. Some workers will ride to work vertically horn residential areas
within the sector, while others will commute from the suburbs. Isolated from the town and office sectors will
be the third sector. Infrastructure Space. This will contain facilities for power generation. regional heating
and air-conditioning, waste recycling, and sewage treatment.

Existing cities could be redeveloped beneath the surface using the Alice system. The downtown areas could
be retained above ground in a slightly modified form and most of the future growth of the cities could be
accommodated underground.

An alternative to the Alice City concept is the Shimizu Corporation’s proposed Urban Geo Grid, a vast
network of smaller subterranean city spaces linked by tunnels. The $80.2 billion project would cover 485
square miles and accommodate a half-million people.

The Urban Geo Grid provides for a much more complicated interaction of many underground spaces over a
larger area. Each ‘grid station’—a complex of underground offices, shopping malls and hotels—would be
connected to several smaller ‘grid points’, which would provide local services such as public baths and
convenience stores. The Grid would provide a network for road and rail transportation, communication, and
energy supply both within a city and between cities. Individual facilities for various services such as power
generation and waste treatment will be on a smaller scale, but more numerous.

Whichever concept is ultimately applied, one obstacle that will need to be overcome before Japanese cities
have real ‘downtowns’ involves the nation’s geology. Japan’s densely populated lowlands are mostly
founded on loose geologic strata, making underground construction particularly difficult. Thus, Japanese
construction firms are conducting extensive research and development on technologies for drilling,

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excavation and underground construction.

Some of the technology is already available. Robots similar to those that built the Channel Tunnel between
France and England could be used for excavation and construction in some areas. It is anticipated that
within 10 to 15 years most of the remaining technological obstacles will be overcome.

Underground city spaces in Japan are therefore coming much closer to reality. It may be difficult to imagine
people adapting to life underground, but in Japan, it may be one of the most practical solutions to the
problem of limited living space. The next century may see many similar developments in other countries.
Questions 26-30

Indicate whether the following characteristics apply to Alice Cities or Urban Geo
Grids or both or neitherby writing:

AC if it applies to Alice Cities

UGG if it applies to Urban Geo Grids
BOTH if it applies to both
NEITHER if it applies to neither Alice Cities nor Urban Geo Grids

Write answers in boxes 26-30 on your answer sheet.

The first one has been done as an example.

Example: named after a storybook character

Answer: AC

26. cities linked by underground railways

27. a large number of separate underground spaces linked together
28. one large space for city facilities such as waste treatment
29. cities largely independent
30. construction has already started
Questions 31-35

Using information from the reading passage, complete the sentences below.

Use NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

31. Real estate is expensive in Japan because ....................

32. By moving many buildings and roads underground, surface land in Alice Cities could be used
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for ....................
33. In Alice Cities, some people will live in the sector called ....................
34. Underground cities in Japan cannot yet be built because of two factors: loose geologic strata
and ....................
35. In the Urban Geo Grid, hotels would be located in the ....................
Questions 36-40

The following is a brief summary of the reading passage.

Complete each gap in the summary by choosing a word from the list below the summary.

Write your answers in boxes 36-40 on your answer sheet.

Note: There are more words than gaps so you will not need to use them all. You may use any word more
than once.

Summary
Example: Japan is planning underground cities to solve problems of living space, earthquakes and energy.

One Japanese company plans to develop large cities underneath existing (36) ……..…… areas. Each of
these cities would be divided into three sectors: for (37) …………… , office and infrastructure spaces.
Another company plans a more spread out and complicated (38) …………… based on smaller spaces. The
main (39) …………….. to the construction of these cities is the unstable structure of the (40)
…….…….. itself.
Word List:
obstacle network ground technology
robots earthquakes developing leisure
downtown private rural

Answer:
26. BOTH 31. of land shortages 36. downtown
27. UGG 32. trees and parks 37. leisure
28. AC 33. office space 38. network
29. AC 34. not available yet 39. obstacle
30. NEITHER 35. grid station 40. ground
Section 3: Question 28-40
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 28-40.

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General Training Reading Sample: GLOW-WORMS

Read the text below and answer Questions 28-40.

GLOW - WORMS
by John Tyler
A
The glow-worm belongs to a family of beetles known as the lampyridae or fireflies. The fireflies are a huge
group containing over 2000 species, with new ones being discovered all the time. The feature which makes
fireflies and glow-worms so appealing is their ability to produce an often dazzling display of light. The light is
used by the adult fireFlies as a signal to attract a mate, and each species must develop its own 'call-sign' to
avoid being confused with other species glowing nearby. So within any one area each species will differ
from its neighbours in some way, For example in the colour or pattern of its light, how long the pulses of
light last, the interval between pulses and whether it displays in flight or from the ground.

B
The fireflies' almost magical light has attracted human attention for generations. It is described in an ancient
Chinese encyclopaedia written over 2000 years ago by a pupil of Confucius. Fireflies often featured in
Japanese and Arabian folk medicine. All over the world, they have been the inspiration for countless poems,
paintings and stories. In Britain, for example, there are plenty of anecdotes describing how glow-worms
have been used to read by or used as emergency bicycle lamps when a cyclist's batteries have failed
without warning. Early travellers in the New World came back with similar stories, of how the native people
of Central America would collect a type of click beetle and release them indoors to light up their huts. Girls
threaded them around their feet to illuminate the forest paths at night.
Fireflies very similar to those we see today have been found fossilised in rocks which were formed about
30 million years ago, and their ancestors were probably glowing long before then. It is impossible to be sure
exactly when and where the first Firefly appeared. The highest concentrations of firefly species today are to
be found in the tropics of South America, which may mean either that this is where they First evolved, or
simply that they prefer the conditions there.

Wherever they first arose, fireflies have since spread to almost every part of the globe. Today members
of the Firefly family can be found almost anywhere outside the Arctic and Antarctic circles.

C
As with many insects, the glow-worm's life is divided into four distinct stages: the egg, the larva (equivalent
to the caterpillar of a butterfly), the pupa (or chrysalis) and the adult. The glow-worm begins its life in the
autumn as a pale yellow egg. The freshly laid egg is extremely fragile but within a day its surface has
hardened into a shell. The egg usually takes about 35 days to hatch, but the exact time varies according to

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the temperature, from about 27 days in hot weather to more than 45 days in cold weather. By the time it is
due to hatch, the glow-worm's light organ is fully developed, and its glow signals that the egg will soon
hatch.
After it has left the egg, the larva slowly grows from a few millimetres into the size and shape of a
matchstick. The larval stage is the only time the insect can feed. The larva devotes much of its life to
feeding and building up its food reserves so that as an adult it will be free to concentrate all its efforts on the
task of finding a mate and reproducing. Throughout its time as a larva, approximately 15 months, the glow-
worm emits a bright light. The larva's light is much fainter than the adult female's but it can still be seen
more than five metres away.

In the final stage of a glow-worm's life, the larva encases itself in a pupa) skin while it changes from the
simple larva to the more complex adult fly. When the adult Ay emerges from the pupa the male seeks a
female with whom it can mate. After mating, the female lays about 120 eggs. The adult flies have no mouth
parts, cannot eat and therefore only live a few days. When people talk of seeing a glow-worm they normally
mean the brightly glowing adult female.

D
In some countries, the numbers of glow-worms have been falling. Evidence suggests that there has been a
steady decrease in the British glow-worm population since the 1950s and possibly before that. Possible
causes for the decline include habitat destruction, pollution and changes in climate. Thousands of acres of
grassland have been built upon and glow-worm sites have become increasingly isolated from each other.
The widespread use of pesticides and fertilisers may also have endangered the glow-worm. Being at the top
of a food chain it is likely to absorb any pollutants eaten by the snails on which it feeds. The effect of global
warming on rainfall and other weather patterns may also be playing a part in the disappearance of glow-
worms. A lot more research will be needed, however, before the causes of the glow-worm's gradual decline
are clear.

E
Although glow-worms are found wherever conditions are damp, food is in good supply and there is an over-
hanging wall, they are most spectacular in caves. For more than 100 years the glow-worm caves in New
Zealand have attracted millions of people from all over the world. The caves were first explored in 1887 by a
local Maori chief, Tane Tinorau, and an English surveyor, Fred Mace. They built a raft and, with candles as
their only light, they floated into the cave where the stream goes underground. As their eyes adjusted to the
darkness they saw myriad lights reflecting off the water. Looking up they discovered that the ceiling was
dotted with the lights of thousands of glow-worms. They returned many times to explore further, and on an
independent trip, Tane discovered the upper level of the cave and an easier access. The authorities were

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advised and government surveyors mapped the caves. By 1888 Tane Tinorau had opened the cave to
tourists.
Questions 28-33

The passage has five sections labelled A-E.

Which section contains the following information?
Write the correct letter A-E in boxes 28-33 on your answer sheet.

NB. You may use any letter more than once.

28 threats to the glow-worm

29 ways in which glow-worms have been used
30 variations in type of glow-worm
31 glow-worm distribution
32 glow-worms becoming an attraction
33 the life-cycle of a glow-worm
Questions 34-40

Do the following statements agree with the information given in the passage.

In boxes 34-40 on your answer sheet, write

TRUE if the statement agrees with the information
FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this

34 Scientists have only recently been able to list the exact number of glow-worm species.
35 The first fireflies appeared 30 million years ago.
36 Glow-worm populations are decreasing faster in some countries than in others.
37 Heat affects the production of glow-worm larvae.
38 Adulthood is the longest stage of a glow-worm's life.
39 The exact reason why glow-worm numbers are decreasing is unknown.
40 Glow-worms are usually found in wet areas.

Answer:
28 D 33 C 38 FALSE
29 B 34 NOT GIVEN 39 TRUE
30 A 35 FALSE 40 TRUE
31 B 36 NOT GIVEN
32 E 37 TRUE

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Section 2: Question 15-27

Read the text below and answers questions 15-27 on your answer sheet.
You should take around 20 minutes to complete this task.

GT Reading Sample - "Kenichi Software: Security Guidelines for Staff " & "Is Everyone Entitled to Paid Holidays?"

Read the text below and answer Questions 15–20.

Kenichi Software: Security Guidelines for Staff
General
It is in everyone's interest to maintain a high level of security in the workplace. You should immediately
challenge any person who appears to be on the premises without proper authorisation, or inform a senior
member of staff about any odd or unusual activity.

Company Property
You are advised that it is within the company's legal rights to detain any person on the grounds that they
may be involved in the unauthorised removal of company property. The company reserves the right to
search staff members leaving or entering the premises and to inspect any article or motor vehicle on
company property. It is a condition of employment that you submit to such action if requested.

It is in your own interest to ensure that you have proper authority before removing any item of company
property from a company building. Any member found removing company property from the building without
proper authority will be subject to disciplinary action.

Identity Badges
You will be issued with an identity badge, which should be worn at all times when you are on company
premises. The purpose of these badges is to safeguard our security. Badges are issued by Human
Resources, and contractors and people visiting the company on a one-off basis are also obliged to wear
them.

Confidential Matters
In the course of your work, you may have access to information relating to the company's business, or that
of a supplier or customer. Such material, even where it appears comparatively trivial, can have a serious
effect on the company, supplier or customer if it falls into the wrong hands. It is, therefore, essential that you
should at all times be aware of the serious view the company would take of disclosure of such material to
outsiders.

You must treat as confidential all information, data, specifications, drawings and all documents relating to
the company's business and/or its trading activities, and not divulge, use, or employ them except in the
company's service. Before you leave the company, you must hand over to your manager all private notes

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relevant to the company's business, activities, prices, accounts, costs etc. Legal proceedings may be
initiated for any misuse or unauthorized disclosure of such confidential information, whether during
employment or afterwards.
Questions 15–20

Complete the sentences below.

Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the text for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 15-20 on your answer sheet.

15. If you see anything suspicious, you should report it to a .................. employee.
16. If the company wants to stop you and .................. you, you have to agree to it.
17. If you take things belonging to the company without permission, you will face ..................
18. Staff, ................... and visitors must all wear a badge on company premises.
19. You must not pass on confidential information to .................. .
20. If you leave the company, you have to hand in any .................. you have made on matters concerning
the company.

Read the text below and answer Questions 21–27.

Is Everyone Entitled to Paid Holidays?
The Working Time Regulations (WTRs) introduced a new right to paid holidays for most workers. However,
some workers were not covered when the WTRs came into force in October 1998. Since the regulations
were amended, with effect from 1 August 2003, the majority of these workers have been entitled to paid
holidays, and since 1 August 2004, the regulations have also applied to junior doctors.

Workers who qualify are entitled to no fewer than four weeks of paid holiday a year, and public holidays
(normally eight days in England and Wales) count towards this. However, workers and employers can agree
longer holidays.

For the first year of work, special accrual rules apply. For each month of employment, workers are entitled
to one-twelfth of the annual holiday. After the first year of employment, you can take your holiday
entitlement at any time, with your employer's approval.

Before taking holidays, you must give your employer notice of at least twice the length of the holiday you
want to take: for instance, to take a five-day holiday, you must give at least ten days' notice. If your
employer does not want you to take that holiday, they can give you counter-notice equal to the holiday - for

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example, five days' notice not to take a five-day holiday.

If the employer wants you to take holiday at a given time, e.g. when there is a shutdown at the same time
every year,' they must give you notice of at least twice the length of the holiday. There is no right for the
worker to take that holiday at a different time.

Holiday cannot be carried over to the next year, unless your contract of employment allows this to happen.
Nor can you be paid in lieu of your holiday. However, when you leave the job, you are entitled to receive
payment for any outstanding holiday, provided your contract specifically allows for this.

It may be that your contract gives you better rights, or your holiday rights might be specified in a collective
agreement. Your union representative can advise you on this.

Questions 21–27 Answer the questions below.

Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER from the text for each answer.
Write your answers in boxes 21-27 on your answer sheet.

21. In what year were the regulations extended to cover most of the workers who were originally
excluded?
22. What is the minimum annual paid holiday which workers are entitled to?
23. During a worker's first year of employment, what proportion of their annual holiday does a
month's work give?
24. What can an employer give a worker to stop them taking holiday that they have requested?
25. What is given as a possible reason for an employee having to take a holiday at a certain time?
26. When an employee leaves their job, what should be given in place of any holiday they have not
taken?
27. Apart from a contract, what type of document may set out an employee's holiday rights?

Answer:
15. senior 21. (in) 2003 (a) shutdown
16. (to) search 22. 4 weeks (a year) 26. (a) (holiday) payment/
17. disciplinary action 23. one twelfth// one-twelfth (of outstanding holiday payment
18. contractors annual holiday(s)) 27. (a) collective agreement
19. outsiders 24. (equal) counter-notice
20. (private) notes 25. (the) (annual) shutdown //

Section 3: Question 28-40

Read the text below and answers questions 28-40 on your answer sheet.
You should take around 20 minutes to complete this task.

GT Reading Sample - "Snake Oil"

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Read the text below and answer Questions 28–40.

Questions 28-33
The text on following pages has eight sections, A-H.

Choose the correct heading for sections C-H from the list of headings below. Section A and Section B have
been done for you.

Write the correct number, i-xi, in boxes 28-33 on your answer sheet.
List of Headings
i. Where to buy the best Echinacea
ii. What 'snake oil' contained
iii. Growing Echinacea
iv. How to use the Echinacea plant
v. Earlier applications of Echinacea
vi. The origins of the term 'snake oil'
vii. Early research into the effectiveness of Echinacea
viii. How 'snake oil' was first invented
ix. The use of Echinacea in new locations
x. Modern evidence of the effectiveness of Echinacea
xi. Early kinds of 'snake oil'

Examples Answers
Section A vi
Section B xi
28. Section C
29. Section D
30. Section E
31. Section F
32. Section G
33. Section H
Snake Oil
A. Back in the days of America's Wild West, when cowboys roamed the range and people were getting
themselves caught up in gunfights, a new phrase - 'snake oil' – entered the language. It was a dismissive
term for the patent medicines, often useless, sold by travelling traders who always claimed miraculous
cures for everything from baldness to snakebite.

Selling 'snake oil' was almost as risky a business as cattle stealing; you might be run out of town if your
particular medicine, as you realised it would, failed to live up to its claims. Consequently, the smarter -
'snake oil' sellers left town before their customers had much chance to evaluate the 'cure' they had just
bought.

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B. The remarkable thing about many of the medicines dismissed then as 'snake oil' is not so much that
they failed to live up to the outrageous claims made for them - those that weren't harmless coloured water
could be positively dangerous. What's remarkable is that so many of the claims made for some of these
remedies, or at least their ingredients, most of them, plant based, have since been found to have at least
some basis in fact.

One, Echinacea, eventually turned out to be far more potent than even its original promoter claimed.
Echinacea first appeared in 'Meyer's Blood Purifier', promoted as a cure-all by a Dr H.C.F. Meyer - a lay
doctor with no medical qualifications. 'Meyer's Blood Purifier' claimed not only to cure snakebite, but also to
eliminate a host of other ailments.

C. Native to North America, the roots of Echinacea, or purple coneflower, had been used by the Plains
Indians for all kinds of ailments long before Meyer came along. They applied poultices of it to wounds and
stings, used it for teeth and gum disease and made a tea from it to treat everything from colds and measles
to arthritis. They even used it for snakebite.

D. Settlers quickly picked up on the plant's usefulness but until Meyer sent samples of his 'blood purifier' to
John Lloyd, a pharmacist, it remained a folk remedy. Initially dismissing Meyer's claims as nonsense, Lloyd
was eventually converted after a colleague, John King, tested the herb and successfully used it to treat bee
stings and nasal congestion.

In fact, he went much further in his claims than Meyer ever did and by the 1890s a bottle of tincture (1) of
Echinacea could be found in almost every American home, incidentally making a fortune for Lloyd's
company, Lloyd Brothers Pharmacy.

E. As modern antibiotics became available, the use of Echinacea products declined and from the 1940s to
the 1970s it was pretty much forgotten in the USA. It was a different story in Europe, where both French and
German herbalists and homeopaths continued to make extensive use of it.

It had been introduced there by Gerhard Madaus, who travelled from Germany to America in 1937,
returning with seed to establish commercial plots of Echinacea. His firm conducted extensive research on
echinacin, a concentrate they made from the juice of flowering tops of the plants he had brought back. It
was put into ointments, liquids for internal and external use, and into products for injections.

F. There is no evidence that Echinacea is effective against snakebite, but Dr Meyer – who genuinely
believed in Echinacea - would probably be quite amused if he could come back and see the uses to which

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modern science has put 'his' herb. He might not be surprised that science has confirmed Echinacea's role
as a treatment for wounds, or that it has been found to be helpful in relieving arthritis, both claims Meyer
made for the herb.

He might though be surprised to learn how Echinacea is proving to be an effective weapon against all sorts
of disease, particularly infections. German researchers had used it successfully to treat a range of infections
(2)
and found it to be effective against bacteria and protozoa .

There are many other intriguing medical possibilities for extracts from the herb, but its apparent ability to
help with our more common ailments has seen thousands of people become enthusiastic converts. Dozens
of packaged products containing extracts of Echinacea can now be found amongst the many herbal
remedies and supplements on the shelves of health stores and pharmacies. Many of those might be the
modern equivalents of 'snake oil', but Echinacea at least does seem to have some practical value.

G. Echinacea is a dry prairie plant, drought-resistant and pretty tolerant of most soils, although it does best
in good soil with plenty of sun. Plants are usually grown from seed but they are sometimes available from
nurseries. Echinacea is a distinctive perennial with erect, hairy, spotted stems up to a meter tall. Flower
heads look like daisies, with purple rayed florets and a dark brown central cone. The leaves are hairy; the
lower leaves are oval to lance-shaped and coarsely and irregularly toothed.

H. There are nine species of Echinacea in all but only three are generally grown for medicinal use. All have
similar medicinal properties. Most European studies have used liquid concentrates extracted from the tops
of plants, whereas extraction in the USA has usually been from the roots. Today most manufacturers blend
both, sometimes adding flowers and seeds to improve the quality.

For the home grower, the roots of all species seem equally effective. Dig them up in autumn after the tops
have died back after the first frost. Wash and dry them carefully and store them in glass containers. You can
harvest the tops throughout the summer and even eat small amounts of leaf straight from the plant.

Even if you don't make your fortune from this herb, there are few sights more attractive than a field of purple
coneflowers in all their glory. And with a few Echinacea plants nearby, you'll never go short of a cure.
----------------------------------------------------------
(1) a liquid containing a special ingredient
(2) a type of micro-organism

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Questions 34–40

Do the following statements agree with the information given in the text?

In boxes 34-40 on your answer sheet, write:

True if the statement agrees with the information

False if the statement contradicts the information
Not given if there is no information on this

34. 'Snake oil' sellers believed their product was effective.

35. Most people in the Wild West mistrusted 'snake oil'.
36. Some 'snake oils' were mostly water.
37. All 'snake oils' contained Echinacea.
38. Echinacea has been proven to kill microbes.
39. The highest quality Echinacea is grown in America.
40. More than one part of the Echinacea plant has a medicinal use.

Answer:
28. v 33. iv 38. TRUE
29. vii 34. FALSE 39. NOT GIVEN
30. ix 35. NOT GIVEN 40. TRUE
31. x 36. TRUE
32. iii 37. FALSE

Section 3: Question 28-40

Read the text below and answers to the questions 28-40 on your answer sheet.

GT Reading: "The Wonder of Diamonds!"

Read the passage below and answer Questions 28-40.

The Wonder of Diamonds!

A. Diamonds are not only one of the most precious natural materials in the world; they are also among the
hardest. For centuries diamonds have been renowned the world over as a natural material with matchless
physical attributes of superior abrasiveness and lustre.

B. It is believed that the Greek word 'adamas', meaning ‘unbeatable’, transformed linguistically over time to
the English version it is now known as diamond. Apparently, the ancient Greeks used the highly treasured
adamas as a religious icon. Prior to ancient Greece, diamonds were widely used as engraving tools to cut

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grooves into concrete surfaces. The popularity of diamonds among the masses started to increase at the
beginning of the 19th century when their supply increased significantly. The cutting and polishing of
diamonds were also improved upon at the time making them even more attractive for the masses. The rise
of the world economy and, at the same time, persuasive advertising campaigns, combined to elevate
diamonds to the status they have today. Today, about 130 million carats (around 26,000 kilograms) of
diamonds are mined yearly fetching a combined value of some 9 billion USD.

C. The central and southern regions of Africa combine to provide almost 50 percent of the world’s total
diamond production. Significant sources of diamonds have also been discovered in both Brazil and
Australia. Irrespective of where diamond mines are discovered, in reality, there are very few specialised
diamond mining companies who do the actual mining. The main reason for this is because they must be
given permission from respective governments to undertake the large-scale digging required - a very
complex, bureaucratic process.

D. Diamonds are mined through very sophisticated and complex processes. Diamond crystals are formed
by high pressure and temperature deep within the earth. In time, volcanic ‘pipes’ called ‘kimberlite’ and
‘lamproite’ rock transport the diamonds to the earth’s surface. These rocks are composed of minerals such
as olivine, phlogopite, pyroxene and garnet and a variety of other naturally occurring minerals, including
diamonds. Experienced diamond miners know that when they discover kimberlite’ and ‘lamproite’ in the
earth’s crust, there may very well be a rich source of diamonds not far away.

E. Considering they are located almost 150kms below the earth, it is a modern engineering marvel how
diamond-containing rocks are brought to the surface. Artificial volcanic forces are created beneath the area
where diamonds lie via man-made pipes. These forces push the rocks upward in the same way a volcano
erupts and ejects lava. The only difference, of course, is the force in the volcano occurs naturally whereas
the forces generated in diamond mining are artificial. As the diamond is pushed toward the earth’s surface,
a separation process occurs. The technology used for the separation process is different from that of the
extraction process – the former process requires man-made forces to move any and all rocks to the surface,
while the latter focuses only on locating diamond-containing rock once it reaches the surface. Testing is
conducted on the first few batches of rocks mined to determine whether the mine will be economically viable
or not. Whether or not the mining will continue on a larger scale depends on the ratio of diamond-containing
rocks to ordinary rocks that are mined. The more worthless rocks that are found in the test mining, the less
economically viable the mine is for a larger-scale operation.

F. From the deepest regions under the earth to the point where the diamonds finally reach the hands of the
miners, the 4 C’s come to the fore. The 4 C’s are the four standards by which all diamonds are measured
and judged. The first C stands for Carat. This refers to the unit of weight by which a diamond is measured.

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One carat equals exactly 200 milligrams. The value of a diamond increases mainly in relation to carat
weight and so, the other 3 C’s play a lesser role in determining the price of a diamond. Cut is the second
determinant. As the term suggests, this is all about the art of transforming a rough diamond into a sparkling
centerpiece. It requires significant technical knowledge, artistry and experience to cut a diamond. The
dimensions and angles of a diamond depend on how it is cut. The next C is colour. The colour of a
diamond can change significantly depending upon the chemical combinations and structural formations of
other minerals nearby as it is forming. The influence of neighbouring minerals can result in a diamond
ranging in colour from completely transparent, to bluish, and a host of colours in between. The final C is
clarity, which is a measure of a diamond’s internal inclusions1. These naturally occurring inclusions
determine the transparency of the diamond and according to how many there are, an inclusion rating is
given. In addition to the 4Cs, fluorescence in a diamond is also considered. Fluorescence refers to the
ability of a diamond to absorb invisible light and emit visible light.

G. Although diamonds are extremely important for industrialists and a sure symbol of love between a
husband and wife when joined in marriage, many environmental activists protest diamond mining. For this
reason, mining companies are often under pressure to minimise the negative effects of their mining
activities. In fact, a large number of mining companies nowadays regularly publish their process details in
order to demonstrate that they conduct their mining business in a socially and environmentally responsible
way.

1) a naturally occurring imperfection (spot, cloud or fracture) in a diamond.

Questions 28 - 35
The passage has seven sections labelled A-G.

Which section contains the following information?

Write the correct letter A-G in boxes 28-35 on your answer sheet.

NB. You may use any letter more than once.

28. the different areas in the world where diamonds are found
29. diamond mining and good corporate citizenship
30. the features of a diamond that determine the value
31. a primary reason for the early increase in diamond popularity
32. the creativity involved in beautifying diamonds
33. a formula for deciding whether or not diamond mining should continue
34. different minerals that exist with diamonds
35. the organisations from whom companies receive permission to mine
Questions 36 - 40

Do the following statements agree with the information given in the passage?

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In boxes 36-40 on your answer sheet, write

TRUE if the statement agrees with the information

FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this

36. Diamonds were first used for religious purposes.

37. Bringing diamonds up from deep underground is quite a simple process.
38. Diamond mining areas are decreasing in number.
39. The colour of a diamond is determined by minerals close by.
40. The 4 C’s are the only measures used to determine diamond value.

Answer:
28. C 33. E 38. NOT GIVEN
29. G 34. D 39. TRUE
30. F 35. C 40. FALSE
31. B 36. FALSE
32. F 37. FALSE

Section 3: Question 28-40

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 28-40 which are based on the text below.

General Training Reading: The history of cinema

Read the text below and answer Questions 28-40.

Questions 28-30
Which THREE possible reasons for American dominance of the film industry are given in the text 'The
history of cinema'?
Write answers A-F in boxes 28-30 on your answer sheet.

A plenty of capital to purchase what it didn't have

B making films dealing with serious issues
C being first to produce a feature film
D well-written narratives
E the effect of the First World War
F excellent special effects
28. .............
29. .............
30. .............
The history of cinema
The history of the cinema in its first thirty years is one of major and, to this day, unparalleled expansion and
growth. Beginning as something unusual in a handful of big cities - New York, London, Paris and Berlin - the
new medium quickly found its way across the world, attracting larger and larger audiences wherever it was
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shown and replacing other forms of entertainment as it did so. As audiences grew, so did the places where
films were shown, finishing up with the ‘great picture palaces’ of the 1920s, which rivalled, and occasionally
superseded, theatres and opera-houses in terms of opulence and splendour. Meanwhile, films themselves
developed from being short ‘attractions’ only a couple of minutes long, to the full-length feature that has
dominated the world's screens up to the present day.

Although French, German, American and British pioneers have all been credited with the invention of
cinema, the British and the Germans played a relatively small role in its worldwide exploitation. It was above
all the French, followed closely by the Americans, who were the most passionate exporters of the new
invention, helping to start cinema in China, Japan, Latin America and Russia. In terms of artistic
development it was again the French and the Americans who took the lead, though in the years before the
First World War, Italy, Denmark and Russia also played a part.

In the end, it was the United States that was to become, and remain, the largest single market for films. By
protecting their own market and pursuing a vigorous export policy, the Americans achieved a dominant
position in the world market by the start of the First World War. The centre of film-making had moved
westwards, to Hollywood, and it was films from these new Hollywood studios that flooded onto the worldís
film markets in the years after the First World War, and have done so ever since. Faced with total
Hollywood domination, few film industries proved competitive. The Italian industry, which had pioneered the
feature film with spectacular films like ìQuo vadis?î (1913) and "Cabiria" (1914), almost collapsed. In
Scandinavia, the Swedish cinema had a brief period of glory, notably with powerful epic films and comedies.
Even the French cinema found itself in a difficult position. In Europe, only Germany proved industrially
capable, while in the new Soviet Union and in Japan, the development of the cinema took place in
conditions of commercial isolation.

Hollywood took the lead artistically as well as industrially. Hollywood films appealed because they had
better-constructed narratives, their special effects were more impressive, and the star system added a new
dimension to the screen acting. If Hollywood did not have enough of its own resources, it had a great deal of
money to buy up artists and technical innovations from Europe to ensure its continued dominance over
present or future competition.

From early cinema, it was only American slapstick comedy that successfully developed in both short and
feature format. However, during this ëSilent Filmí era, animation, comedy, serials and dramatic features
continued to thrive, along with factual films or documentaries, which acquired an increasing distinctiveness
as the period progressed. It was also at this time that the avant-garde film first achieved commercial
success, this time thanks almost exclusively to the French and the occasional German film.

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Of the countries which developed and maintained distinctive national cinemas in the silent period, the most
important were France, Germany and the Soviet Union. Of these, the French displayed the most continuity,
in spite of the war and post-war economic uncertainties. The German cinema, relatively insignificant in the
pre-war years, exploded onto the world scene after 1919. Yet even they were both overshadowed by the
Soviets after the 1917 Revolution. They turned their back on the past, leaving the style of the pre-war
Russian cinema to the emigres who fled westwards to escape the Revolution.

The other countries whose cinemas changed dramatically are: Britain, which had an interesting but
undistinguished history in the silent period; Italy, which had a brief moment of international fame just before
the war; the Scandinavian countries, particularly Denmark, which played a role in the development of silent
cinema quite out of proportion to their small population; and Japan, where a cinema developed based
primarily on traditional theatrical and, to a lesser extent, other art forms and only gradually adapted to
western influence.

Questions 31-33

Answer the questions below using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the above reading passage for
each answer.
Write your answers in boxes 31-33 on your answer sheet.

31. Which TWO types of film were not generally made in major studios?
32. Which type of film did America develop in both short and feature films?
33. Which type of film started to become profitable in the 'silent' period?
Questions 34 - 40

Look at the following statements (Questions 34-40) and the list of countries below.
Match each statement with the correct country.

Write the correct letter A-J in boxes 34-40 on your answer sheet.

NB You may use any letter more than once.

34. It helped other countries develop their own film industry.

35. It was the biggest producer of films.
36. It was first to develop the 'feature' film.
37. It was responsible for creating stars.
38. It made the most money from 'avant-garde' films.

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39. It made movies based more on its own culture than outside influences.
40. It had a great influence on silent movies, despite its size.
List of countries

A. France F. Japan
B. Germany G. Soviet Union
C. USA H. Italy
D. Denmark I. Britain
E. Sweden J. China

Answer:
28-30. A, D, F (in either order) 33. (the) avant(-)grade (film(s)) 37. C
31. cartoons, serials 34. A 38. A
32. slapstick// slapstick 35. C 39. F
comedy // comedy 36. H 40. D

Section 1: Question 1-14

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-14 which are based on the text below.

GT Reading: CORNWALL & Bees

Read the text below and answer Questions 1-6.

CORNWALL
A love affair that lasts a lifetime
It’s hard not to fall in love with Cornwall. For some, it’s the happy memories of a childhood seaside holiday.
For others, it’s the brief fling of a teenage summer. For most, it’s a passionate affair that lasts a lifetime…
So let the affair begin!

Where is Cornwall?
Located in the far west of Great Britain, Cornwall is almost completely surrounded by the sea and has a
magnificent 300-mile coastline. It is also the location of mainland Great Britain's most southerly promontory,
The Lizard, and one of the UK’s most westerly points, Land's End.

What’s so special about it?

There are lots of things Cornwall is loved for; the dramatic coastline with its captivating fishing harbours; the
spectacular beaches and the pounding surf that provide a natural playground for a variety of water sports;
and of course the Cornish pasty and cream teas.

Expect the unexpected

But there are also lots of things about Cornwall that may surprise you. For instance, the wilderness of

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Bodmin Moor with its panorama of big skies. There's also the dynamic art scene found mainly in West
Cornwall, inspired by the naturally stunning landscapes. More recently, Cornwall has become known for a
food scene to rival London and beyond.

History and culture

Cornwall also has a tremendous history based on its Celtic roots; its Celtic Cornish culture; the warmth and
friendliness of the people; and the Cornish language that can be seen in the village names. Cornwall is truly
unique.

Why not visit some of Cornwall's most iconic experiences. From towering castles, beautiful gardens and
places steeped in legends and history, you'll be spoilt for choice. Here are a few to get you started.

Trebah Garden - near Falmouth

One of the great gardens of Cornwall and rated among the 80 finest gardens in the world, discover the
magic of this beautiful Cornish valley garden with over four miles of footpath.

Lanhydrock - Bodmin
Lanhydrock boasts a magnificent late Victorian country house with gardens and the wooded estate.
Discover two sides of Victorian life: those 'below stairs', and those ‘upstairs’.

Geevor Tin Mine - near Penzance

Geevor tin mine is one of the largest preserved mine sites in the country and a Cornish Mining World
Heritage Site. Housed in two acres of listed buildings, Geevor’s collections and guides bring the story of
Cornwall’s rich industrial past to life.
Questions 1-6

Complete the sentences below.

Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 1-6 on your answer sheet.

1. Cornwall has stunning coastal views including the most ........................ point in Great Britain.
2. Apart from the coastal views, the amazing landscapes have inspired an unexpected but thriving
........................ .
3. Cornwall can now be compared to ........................ for its food and amazing chefs.
4. One thing that makes Cornwall different from the rest of England is its ........................ heritage.

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5. The perfect place to discover insights into lifestyles from a bygone era is ....................... .
6. The perfect place to discover insights into Cornwall's industrial past is a ........................ .
Read the text below and answer Questions 7– 14.
Bees
Worker bees are between 8-19mm in length. They are divided into three distinct parts; head, thorax,
abdomen. They have an almost completely black head, a thorax that is golden brown and black with
patches of orange, and yellow bands can be easily seen on the abdomen. At the front of the head are two
antennae for sensing their environment.

They have four single wings. The largest are called forewings and the smallest hindwings. The hind legs are
specialized for collecting pollen - each leg is flattened to form a pollen basket near the end of each leg.

Love them or hate them, we need bees to pollinate many important food crops, including most fruit and
vegetables. Bee-pollinated crops are important sources of vitamins A and C, and minerals like calcium. By
pollinating attractive wildflowers like bluebells and poppies, bees also help support the natural environment
that people love – benefitting us culturally and economically, as well as ecologically. Calculations from the
University of Reading show that £510 million of annual total crop sales in the UK are pollinated by bees and
other insects.

What would happen if there were suddenly no more bees to pollinate these crops? This is a question being
asked by farmers, beekeepers, and scientists because bees are now dying in their millions and they want to
know why.

It’s widely recognised now that changes in agriculture are the main cause of bee decline across Europe. For
example, hay meadows, which are full of many different plant species, have declined by 97 per cent since
the 1930s, removing an important source of food for bees.

This has happened because of the trend towards growing the same crop (monocultures) over large fields.
This has reduced the diversity of flowers available and resulted in the removal of hedges. Species that have
more specialised food needs, like the Shrill Carder Bee, have been particularly hard hit. It is now listed as
an endangered species.

With less hedges, bees find it more difficult to move between feeding and nesting sites. This is because
hedges act as corridors for bees to move along, but with less hedges movement becomes more difficult.

Pests and diseases are also a major threat to honey bees and other managed bees. The Varroa mite is
thought to be one of the main causes of native honeybee loss. The impact on wild bees is harder to assess

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but ‘spill-over’ of diseases and pests between wild and managed bees has increasingly been observed.

Climate change has an effect as it can alter the timing of plant flowering or the time that bees come out of
hibernation, which means bees may emerge before there is enough food available.

Questions 7 - 14

Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.

Write the correct letter in boxes 7-14 on your answer sheet.

7. Apart from pollinating crops how else do bees help us?

A. economically
B. culturally
C. ecologically
D. all of the above

8. Why has the variety of flowers available for bees to pollinate fallen?
A. conservation measures
B. less hedges
C. fertilizers
D. urban development

9. There are many reasons for the decline in bees but what is one of the major reasons for
shrinking numbers of native honey bees?
A. Varroa mites
B. spill-over
C. managed bees
D. hard to assess

10. Why might bees end their hibernation at a different time?

A. to pollinate more flowers
B. to get more food
C. climate change
D. to emerge with other bees
Questions 11 - 14

The diagram below shows the worker bee.

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Label the diagram.

Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 11-14 on your answer sheet.

Answer:
1. southerly 6. tin mine 11. forewing // forewings
2. art scene 7. B 12. antennae
3. London 8. A 13. hindwing // hindwings
4. Celtic 9. D 14. pollen basket
5. Lanhydrock 10. C
Section 2: Question 15-27
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 15-27 which are based on the text below.

GT Reading: The Printing Process & Yoga

Read the text below and answer Questions 15-20.

The Printing Process

The world entered its first information revolution when the first printing press was built in 1450. Before this,
typical ways of recording information were to carve words onto clay tiles and bamboo, or to write on
parchment or papyrus. Fast forward to the digital age, the second information revolution, and it has now
become possible to self-publish, have books printed in paperback or as an e-book, and some books are
even free!

Digital warehouse

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Long gone are the days when every book was printed before there was a buyer. Why print thousands of
books only to find out that very few people want to buy them? Now it is possible to work with a printer in a
process called Print On Demand (POD) and only print a paperback when you have an order.

To do this a printer has a digital warehouse with every book stored electronically. Once an order is placed,
the printer has all of the electronic data necessary to print and deliver the book to its intended destination.
Every month money is sent to all of the authors that have sold books that month.

Giving your book to the printer

Once written, an author can send his book electronically to the printer in the form of a PDF file or as a
hardcopy that can be scanned and digitized by the printer.

Processing fees for all services from a printer are minimal but allow you to have access to large distribution
networks of not only online bookstores but also the bricks and mortar retailers. These people may not buy
your book but your book will be in their catalogues and they will order from the printer if someone asks for it.

Two Concerns
Speed is not the only priority for the printer, they are also concerned with quality and have 10 quality control
checks on each book before it is shipped.

Sharp graphics and crisp text make it virtually impossible to distinguish a POD book from the more
traditional offset copies. As technology continues to improve this can only get better.

As an author, it is possible to choose the type of book you want; paperback, hardback, or e-book (now the
most popular form of book), the size of your book, type of paper, and type of cover (laminated, cloth or
jacketed for hardbacks).
Questions 15– 20

Complete the sentences below.

Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 15– 20 on your answer sheet.

15. We experienced our first information revolution with the development of the ........................ .
16. It is no longer necessary to print books in their ........................ .
17. Print On Demand works by making sure that the printer has been given all of the relevant
........................ .
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18. If necessary the printer will scan and digitize your ........................ .
19. The latest technology makes the difference between offset printing and Print On Demand almost
.......................... to tell.
20. Apart from the traditional hardback and paperback books, authors can now publish in ..........................
form.
Read the text below and answer Questions 21– 27.

Yoga
Developed more than 5,000 years ago, yoga can be a way of life that benefits you physically, mentally, and
spiritually. But where to start? Here is a quick summary of five of the most common yoga styles practiced
today.

Hatha:
Originated in India in the 15th century. Slow-paced, gentle, and focuses on breathing and meditation

Purpose: Introduces beginners to yoga with basic poses and relaxation techniques.
Benefits: Relieves stress, provides physical exercise, and improves breathing.
Good for: Beginners wanting to learn the basics of yoga.

Vinyasa:
Similar to Hatha, basic poses and breath-synchronized movements. Stresses the Sun Salutation, 12 poses
where movement is matched to the breath.

Purpose: Links the breath with movement, builds lean muscle mass throughout the body.
Benefits: Helps improve strength and flexibility, tones the abdominal muscles, and reduces the risk of heart
disease, high blood pressure, and type 2 diabetes.
Good for: Beginners and advanced yogis alike seeking to strengthen their bodies.

Ashtanga:
Metaphorically focuses on eight limbs. Fast-paced, intense with lunges, push-ups.

Purpose: Helps improve one’s spiritual self.

Benefits: Relieves stress, improves coordination, and helps with weight loss.
Good for: Fit people looking to maintain strength, stamina, and spirituality.

Iyengar:
Covers all eight aspects of Ashtanga yoga and focuses on bodily alignment. Standing poses are
emphasized, and are often held for long periods of time.
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Purpose: Strengthens and brings the body into alignment.

Benefits: Helps improve balance, speeds up recovery from injury, builds up body strength
Good for: Beginners who want to learn the correct alignments in each pose and those with injuries, balance
issues, and chronic medical conditions like arthritis.

Bikram:
Practiced in a 95 to 100 degree room. A series of 26 poses that allows for a loosening of tight muscles and
sweating.

Purpose: Flushes out toxins and deeply stretches the muscles.

Benefits: Speeds up recovery from an injury, enhances flexibility, and cleanses the body.
Good for: Beginners, advanced yogis who want to push themselves and those with injuries.
Questions 21 - 27

Look at the following statements and the list of yoga styles below.

Match each statement with the correct style, A-E. Write the correct letter, A-E, in boxes 21-27 on your
answer sheet.

NB You may use any letter more than once.

Yoga Styles
A Hatha
B Vinyasa
C Ashtanga
D Iyengar
E Bikram

21. A style where breathing and movement are in harmony.

22. A style that focuses on improving your posture.
23. A style for starters wanting to improve their breathing.
24. A style that can help recovery from an injury and helps with posture.
25. A style for someone hoping to lose weight.
26. A style that helps muscles relax.
27. A style that helps you to develop your spirituality.

Answer:
15. printing press 17. electronic data 19. impossible
16. thousands 18. hard copy 20. e-book
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21. B 24. D 26. E

22. D 25. C 27. C
23. A

Section 3: Question 28-40

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 28-40 which are based on the text below.

GT Reading: New Impressions Bring Controversy

Read the text below and answer Questions 28-40.

New Impressions Bring Controversy

A. Many of history’s pages reveal that renowned artists have often had to endure obstacles and criticisms
before eventually rising to the heights of success in their careers. Nineteenth-century artist Sir John Everett
Millais is certainly one of them.

B. Born in 1829 in Southampton, England the youngest son of John William and Emily Mary Millais’ two
sons, John Everett showed extraordinary artistic talent from an early age. In time, the family moved to
London and as residents, Everett’s parents were determined to give young John an opportunity to develop
his talent. A meeting with the president of the London Royal Academy of Art, Sir Martin Archer Shee, was
arranged. It was not long before Sir Martin also saw the extraordinary natural artistic ability Everett
possessed. As a result, in the summer of 1840 and at the age of 11, Everett became the youngest ever
pupil to study art at the academy. His ability and age led to all his teachers affectionately referred to him as
The Child. The extra attention shown to Everett eventually caused jealousy among his fellow students. At
the beginning of his studies Everett, a thinly-built boy, often found it difficult to cope with the bullying he
encountered at the art academy. However, as time went by and his peers became increasingly aware of his
artistic talent – even in the complex area of portrait painting – bullying gave way to awe.

C. Over the months and years, Everett spent at the academy he began to concentrate on the theoretical
aspects of art. His studies included reading the biographies of past great artists and almost all the books on
art that the academy library had. Interestingly, the reading and studying of most of these books was not
needed in order to pass his exams. Everett, out of his genuine curiosity and passion for art, spent most of
his leisure time at the library. At the school’s practical painting classes, he was well-known for going to
considerable lengths to find the right elements needed for his painting - travelling long distances in search
of the right natural scenes and paying large sums of money to hire models for his portrait painting. Over the
course of his studies at the London Royal Academy of Art, he met two other like-minded artists - Holman
Hunt and Gabriel Rossetti - who would later become his lifelong friends and key supporters of his artistic
impressions.

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D. In 1850, he held his first solo painting exhibition in London. It was a non-traditional exhibition in terms of
style and pattern and proved to be controversial in terms of the subject matter displayed – the social class
system. Everett displayed art on the topic of hierarchical or class distinctions between individuals and
groups in English society. Although a small portion of art lovers praised his exhibition, he was strongly
attacked by most of the art critics of the day. Some of his paintings on religious matters, which portrayed
religion as something quite ordinary, made the conservative segment of the society angry.

E. Over the years, with the support of his two best friends Holman Hunt and Gabriel Rossetti, Everett
started a movement which he named the Pre-Raphaelite Brotherhood (PRB). The intention of his PRB
movement was to reform art by rejecting the concept of the Renaissance(1) movement which, he believed,
was a mechanical approach to art influenced by narrow academic teaching. Once the PRB movement was
formally launched, attacks from art critics throughout England intensified. The PRB movement contradicted
the views of almost all the other established artists in the country and led to John Ruskin, the foremost art
critic of that time, formally meeting Everett with the intention of persuading him to cease the PRB. Everett
did not agree to give up his ideologies so no agreement between the two was reached. However, the
incident had a direct consequence on Everett’s personal life. Effie, Ruskin’s wife, met Everett and over a
period of time started to develop an attraction to him. Eventually, Effie divorced Ruskin and married Everett.

F. Art historians today believe that the marriage of Everett and Effie acted as a catalyst in turning public
opinion in his favour and inspired him to devote greater effort to his PRB movement. In 1865, Everett
finished a series of paintings based on his ideologies and in 1876 with such masterpieces as ‘Twins’, ‘The
Marquis of Salisbury’ and ‘The Lady Campbell’ became the most successful portrait painter of the day.

G. In 1890, he was awarded the title of Sir and was made the president of the England Royal Art Academy.
By that time, his works not only won the adoration of the masses in England but many other European
countries as well. Unfortunately, shortly after being given the title of Sir, he fell ill and was wrongly
diagnosed as having influenza. In 1894 it was discovered that he was actually suffering from cancer. During
July 1896, his situation became very critical and the queen of England personally contacted his doctors
offering her full support. Sir John Everett however, passed away on the 13th of August in 1896.

(1)
A cultural movement from 14th to17th century, which originated in Italy and was spread all over Europe.
Questions 28-35

The passage has seven paragraphs A-G.

Which paragraph contains the following information?

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Write the correct letter A-G in boxes 28-35 on your answer sheet.

NB You may use any letter more than once.

28. An event that led to a change in viewpoint.

29. A positive example of doing more than what was required.
30. An example of incorrect information being given.
31. A minority that showed appreciation.
32. An example of a positive change in human interaction.
33. A description of Everett’s physical appearance.
34. An example of an official organisational beginning.
35. An activity that was supposed to bring change.
Questions 36-40
Do the following statements agree with the information given in the text?

In boxes 36-40 on your answer sheet, write

TRUE if the statement agrees with the information

FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this

36. Everett’s parents moved to London so he could study at the London Royal Academy.
37. In time, both his peers and teachers admired Everett.
38. As a youngster, Everett was interested in other artists.
39. Everett’s second exhibition featured art about the economic and social position.
40. Everett’s plan for the PRB was to make art better.
Answer:
28. F 33. B 38. TRUE
29. C 34. E 39. FALSE
30. G 35. E 40. TRUE
31. D 36. NG
32. B 37. TRUE

Section 1: Question 1-14

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-14 which are based on the text below.

GT Reading: The Employment Pages & Stanfield Theatre

Read the text below and answer Questions 1-8.

THE EMPLOYMENT PAGES Saturday Edition

Australia's biggest daily to find the selection of job ads -
helping perfect position for you
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Saturday Job Guide

A Government Positions (New South Wales)

B Higher Education (Academic staff)
C Primary and Secondary Schools (Academic staff)
D Hospitals and Medical (Medical staff)
E IT and Computing
F Accountancy and Finance (Private)
G Hospitality and Kitchen Staff
H Self-employment Opportunities
I Rural Posts (incl. farm work)
J Casual Work Available

Monday - Friday Job Highlights

TUESDAY:
Education
Local Government

THURSDAY:
Hospital and Medical
Government Health Vacancies (New South Wales)

Questions 1-6

Look at the ten categories of job advertisement A-J, in the Saturday Job Guide.

Write the correct letter A-J in boxes 1-6 on your answer sheet.

Which category of job advertisement should you look at if -

1. you are looking for a job as a university lecturer?

2. you want to start your own business?
3. you want a permanent job in a hotel?
4. you are looking for a job in public administration?
5. you are looking for agricultural work in the country?
6. you are looking for temporary work?

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Questions 7-8

Look at the information on the given page and answer Questions 7 and 8.

Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the text, for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 7 and 8 on your answer sheet.

7. On which two days does the newspaper advertise jobs for teachers?
8. On which two days does the newspaper advertise jobs for nurses?

Read the text below and answer Questions 9-14.

STANFIELD THEATRE

BOOKING
There are four easy ways to book seats for performances:

- in person
The Box Office is open Monday to Saturday, 10 am-8 pm.

- by post
Simply complete the booking form and return it to Stanfield Theatre Box Office, PO Box 220, Stanfield, ST55 6GF AII
cheques should be made payable to Stanfield Theatre.

- by telephone
Ring 01316 753219 to reserve your tickets or to pay by credit card (Visa, Mastercard and Amex accepted).

- online
Complete the online booking form at www.stanfieldtheatre.com

DISCOUNTS
Saver: £2 off any seat booked any time in advance for performances from Monday to Thursday inclusive, and for all
matinees. Savers are available for children up to 16 years old, over 60s, and full-time students.

Supersaver: half-price seats are available for people with disabilities and one companion. It is advisable to book in
advance. There is a maximum of eight wheelchair spaces available and one wheelchair space will be held until one
hour before the show (subject to availability).

Standby: best available seats are on sale for £6 from one hour before the performance for people eligible for Saver
and Supersaver discounts and thirty minutes before for all other customers.

Group Bookings: there is a ten per cent discount for parties of twelve or more.

Schools: school parties of ten or more can book £6 Standby tickets in advance and will get every tenth ticket free.

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Please note: we are unable to exchange tickets or refund money unless a performance is cancelled due to
unforeseen circumstances.

GIFT VOUCHERS
Gift vouchers for any value can be bought at the Box Office.

Questions 9-14

Do the following statements agree with the information given in the reading passage above?

In boxes 9-14 on your answer sheet, write

TRUE if the statement agrees with the information

FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this

9. It is possible to book tickets for performances using the Internet.

10. 60-year-olds who want to book in advance have to prove their age to get a discount.
11. Someone accompanying a wheelchair user to a performance receives a discount.
12. Students can get Standby tickets 45 minutes before a performance begins.
13. A group of ten adults going to a performance can claim a discount.
14. Theatre-goers who are unexpectedly unable to attend a performance can get their money back.

Answer:
1. B 6. J 11. TRUE
2. H 7. Saturday and Tuesday 12. TRUE
3. G 8. Saturday and Thursday 13. FALSE
4. A 9. TRUE 14. FALSE
5. I 10. NOT GIVEN

Section 3: Question 28-40

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 28-40 which are based on the text below.

GT Reading: Pterosaurs

Read the text below and answer Questions 28-40.

PTEROSAURS
Remains of the pterosaur, a cousin of the dinosaur, are found on every continent.
Richard Monastersky reports

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A. Pterosaurs stand out as one of nature's great success stories. They first appeared during the Triassic
period, 215 million years ago, and thrived for 150 million years before becoming extinct at the end of the
Cretaceous period. Uncontested in the air, pterosaurs colonised all continents and evolved into a vast array
of shapes and sizes.

B. Until recently, most scientists would not have put pterosaurs in the same class as birds in terms of flying
ability. Because pterosaurs were reptiles, generations of researchers imagined that these creatures must
have been cold-blooded, like modern snakes and lizards. This would have made flying awkward, as they
would have lacked the endurance to power their muscles for long periods of time.

C. In the past three decades, however, a number of fossil* discoveries have prompted researchers to re-
examine their views. The new picture of pterosaurs reveals that they were unlike any modern reptile. From
a fossil discovered in Kazakhstan, scientists suspect that pterosaurs had a covering resembling fur. If so,
this detail provides evidence of a warm-blooded body that could maintain the kind of effort needed to stay in
the air. Indeed, scientists now believe that many pterosaurs were gifted air¬borne predators, built to feed
while in flight. And, in fact, such controversy has surrounded pterosaurs since the first discovery of one in
the early 1700s.

D. Cosimo Alessandro Collini, the first natural historian to study the fossil and describe it, was unable to
classify it. It was not until 1791 that the great French anatomist Georges Cuvier deduced that the animal
was, in fact, a flying reptile, whose fourth finger supported a wing. He named the fossil Pterodactylus,
combining the Greek words for wing and finger. A few decades later, the name pterosaur, or winged reptile,
was adopted to describe the growing list of similar fossils.

E. In 1873, a remarkable pterosaur specimen came to light that confirmed Cuvier's deduction. Unlike earlier
fossils, this new find near the Bavarian town of Solnhofen contained delicate wing impressions, establishing
definitely that the extinct reptile was capable of flight. Even though over a thousand pterosaur specimens
are known today, such wing impressions remain rare. Normally only bones survive the fossilisation process.

F. But how pterosaurs learnt to fly remains a matter for disagreement. Most researchers conclude that
pterosaurs are descended from a small tree-dwelling reptile that spent its life jumping between branches.
This creature would have spread its limbs, and used flaps of skin attached to its limbs and body to help it to
land gently on the ground. Over many generations the fourth finger on each of its front 'arms' would have
grown longer, making the skin surface larger and enabling the animal to glide farther. Meanwhile, the
competing argument holds that pterosaurs developed from two-legged reptiles that ran along the ground,
perhaps spreading their arms for balance. Through gradual growth, the front arms would then have evolved
into wings. This difficult issue will only be resolved with the discovery of earlier forms of pterosaurs.
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G. 'It's very difficult to say how pterosaurs changed over time because the earliest fossils we have are of
pterosaurs whose fourth finger has already transformed into a wing,' says Fabio Dalla Vecchia, an Italian
researcher. In fact, the earliest known pterosaurs came from the mountains of northern Italy, where he has
spent years searching for flying reptiles. These species have shorter wings than later forms, but there is
evidence that they were skilful fliers, capable of catching fish over open water. Proof of this has been found
in the fossil of a Eudimorphodon, a 215-million-year-old pterosaur found near Bergamo, Italy. Under a
microscope, several fish scales can be seen in the abdomen of the specimen -the remains of the
pterosaur's last meal.

H. A different but equally impressive sight is the life-size model of Quetzalcoatlus northropi, which stares
down at visitors in the Museum of Flying in Santa Monica, California. It has a beak the size of a man and
wings wider than those of many of the planes exhibited nearby. This pterosaur had wings over 11 metres
wide, making it the largest flying animal ever known.

I. Quetzalcoatlus represents the height of pterosaur evolution. 'Unlike smaller pterosaurs, it could use
natural currents to stay in the air without having to move its wings continuously,' said Paul MacCready, an
aeronautical engineer. 'As pterosaurs got larger, they discovered the benefits of gliding on air currents,
making use of a free energy source. With their hollow bones, these pterosaurs had a very light construction,
ideal for such activity.'

J. As we walked beneath the Quetzalcoatlus model in Santa Monica, MacCready pointed out its similarity
to sailplanes, the most efficient kind of aeroplanes. Both have long slender wings designed to fly with
minimum power. During the flight, sailplane pilots routinely search for places where heat rises from the sun-
baked earth, creating hot air currents called thermals. Undoubtedly, Quetzalcoatlus would have used
thermals as well, lazily circling over the river deltas that once covered parts of Texas.

K. The triumphant reign of pterosaurs ended with this giant flier. At the end of the Cretaceous period 65
million years ago, a meteorite or comet slammed into the Earth. That calamity - and other events-wiped out
roughly three-quarters of all species, including all pterosaurs and dinosaurs. But before their disappearance,
pterosaurs enjoyed unequalled success. They flew into sunny skies before any other vertebrate. For 150
million years they sailed the winds on the strength of a fragile finger. What a glorious ride they had.
Questions 28-34

Reading Passage "Pterosaurs" has eleven paragraphs, A-K.

Which paragraph contains the following information?

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Write the correct letter, A-K, in boxes 28-34 on your answer sheet.

28. similarities between pterosaurs and mechanical flight

29. the identification of the type of creature a pterosaur actually was
30. conflicting theories about how pterosaurs came to fly
31. the cause of the widespread destruction of animal life on our planet
32. the fact that pterosaurs once existed all over the world
33. the first clear proof that pterosaurs could fly
34. concrete evidence that pterosaurs hunted their food from the air
Questions 35-38

Look at the following statements (Questions 35-38) and the list of people below.

Match each statement with the correct person, A, B, C or D.

Write the correct letter, A, B, C or D, in boxes 35-38 on your answer sheet.

35. He refers to the difficulty of determining how pterosaurs evolved without further evidence.
36. He failed to interpret the evidence before him.
37. He gave an appropriate name to the first pterosaur that was discovered.
38. He mentions the ability of pterosaurs to take advantage of their environment.
List of People

A Cosimo Alessandro Collini

B Georges Cuvier
C Fabio dalla Vecchia
D Paul MacCready

Questions 39 and 40

Answer the questions below.

Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER from the Reading Passage for each
answer.

Write your answers in boxes 39 and 40 on your answer sheet.

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39. So far, evidence of a total of ...................... pterosaurs has been discovered.

40. The wings of Quetzalcoatlus measured more than ...................... across.
Answer:
28. J 33. E 38. D
29. D 34. G 39. (over) a thousand
30. F 35. C 40. 11 meters/metres // eleven
31. K 36. A meters/metres
32. A 37. B

Section 1: Question 1-15

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-15 which are based on the text below.

GT Reading: Art Gallery & Advice to motorist

Read the text below and answer Questions 1-6.

Questions 1-6
Read the following notice.

Using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR NUMBERS answer the questions below.

Write your answers in boxes 1-6 on your answer sheet.

Example: How much will it cost a student to see the Greek Olympic Sculpture?
Answer: $6.00

1. Which exhibition can you visit in late August?

2. A student would like a headset for the Greek Olympic Sculpture. How much will it cost?
3. Which exhibition shows the work of young people?
4. How much must a member pay to see tine exhibition of art from the United States?
5. In which location would you find the oldest exhibits?
6. Which exhibit could a large group see most cheaply?
ART GALLERY
The Art Gallery’s mission is to bring diverse forms of art and craft to the people of this city.

New Year festivities: a multimedia exhibition from the four comers of the earth on show in the Hanson
Theatre, Level 2, Main Building.
Free
Opens January 1, closes March 20.

The art of the early West: American art of the westward expansion is on show in the South Gallery, Level
3.
$15 adults, $5.00 for members, $4.50 for students.
Opens March 13, closes June 30.
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Greek Olympic sculpture: a historical exhibit of work by ancient artists is in the North Gallery.
$10 adults, $8.00 for members, $6.00 for students
Opens July 1, closes August 7.

Developmental art: work by gifted local school children on show in the East Gallery.
$2.00. Donations may be left in the box attheexit, and will be gratefully received
Opens July 25, closes September 30

Headsets are available for the Greek Olympic Sculpture only.

A fee of $6.00 per adult, $5 00 for members and $4 50 for students will be charged

Read the text below and answer Questions 7-15.

Questions 7-11

Read the extract below from the service directory of a Motorists’ Association.

Answer the questions by writing the appropriate extension numbers in boxes 7-11 on your answer sheet.

What extension should you call if:

Example: you want to pay your bill by Visa card?

Answer: 344

7. you want to find out about a baby’s car seat?

8. you feel cheated by a repair shop near your home in Newcastle?
9. you have trouble hearing and you need road service?
10. you are going on a road trip and want to find out what activities are available?
11. you want advice on purchasing a vehicle?

Call our main number 9292 9222 then call these extensions

MEMBER SERVICES, TECHNICAL ADVICE 443 LEGAL ADVICE

ROAD SERVICE AND INSURANCE (8 30 am to 5 pm,
Monday to Friday)
(8 30 am to 5 pm, Monday to Friday, 8.30
All insurance enquiries 133 am to 11 Saturday) for road tests, car
buying, advice and assistance on

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motoring problems. Local call charge Sydney 191

Newcastle 132
Credit card payments 344 Wollongong
Visa, Mastercard for membership and 132
insurance policies (open 24 hours, 7 Child restraint enquiries 632 Canberra 426
days)

Recorded road report for major SMASH

highways 222 REPAIRS 900
Teleclaims 123 Repairs
For motor vehicle claims (open 24 guaranteed for life,
hours. 7 days) VEHICLE INSPECTIONS
(7am – 10 pm) (7.30 am to 5 pm,
Monday to Friday)
1 300 362 802
HELPLINE Batteries 111
DRIVE TRAVEL
122
Road Service 114 FINANCIAL SERVICES Local touring
(open 24 hours, 7 days) (8.30 am to 5 pm. Monday to Friday, 8.30 information and
am to 11 Saturday) attraction tickets

Home Loan 701 SERVICE

HOME SECURITY 553 Life Insurance 976 (HEARING
Alarm systems 554 Personal Loans 978 IMPAIRED)

Road Service
317
Insurance
enquiries 728
Questions 12- 15:
Advice to motorists
A: Always lock your car and never leave your keys in the car. Sounds obvious, but how often have you left your car
unlocked while you paid for fuel at a service station or dashed into a shop? A recently-passed law will ensure that you
never forget again – heavy penalties apply.

B: Always lock valuables in the boot. Most car crime is opportunistic, so don’t make it easy. And if something is too
valuable to lose, the golden rule is 'take it with you'.

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C: Thieves need little incentive. A lot of thefts from cars are carried out by youngsters after nothing more than a few
dollars, so don’t leave coin-holders if they can be seen from outside. The cost of repairs often far outweighs the value
of what is stolen.

D: At night, always try to park in a brightly-lit area where your vehicle can be seen by passers-by. Poorly-lit streets
are the thief’s favourite hunting ground.

E: Never park where you can see broken glass from car windows on the ground. Thieves are creatures of habit and
will return to the scene of past successes.

F: Install a car alarm.

G: Where available, use car parks that are well lit and have boom gates. Don’t leave your parking ticket in the car.

H: In high-risk areas leave your glove box and ashtray open to show thieves that there is nothing in the car worth
stealing.

I: Don’t buy goods offered for sale if the price seems suspiciously low. Chances are the goods have been stolen.
Questions 12-15
There are 9 paragraphs in the text 'Advice to motorists'.

Answer the questions 12-15 by writing the letter or letters of the appropriate paragraph or paragraphs, A-I, in boxes
12-15 on your answer sheet.

Which paragraph/ paragraphs -

Example: Suggests you add extra equipment to the car?

Answer: F

12. advise you to leave your glove box and ashtray open show there is nothing to steal from the car?
13. give advice about good places to park at night?
14. warns about the effects of a new law?
15. tells the reader how to protect valuable items?

Answer:
1. Developmental art 6. New Year festivities 12. H
2. 4.50/4.5 7. 632 13. D
3. Developmental art 8. 132 14. A
4. 5.00 dollars// 5 dollars// five 9. 317 15. B
dollars 10. 122
5. The North Gallery 11. 443

Section 3: Question 28-40

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 28-40 which are based on the text below.

GT Reading: "The end of the silver screen?"

Read the passage below and answer Questions 28-40.

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The end of the silver screen?

Cinema technology has remained much the same for over a century, so when will it go digital? Kevin Hilton
views the projections.
A. Cinema is full of contradictions. It is high-tech and old-fashioned at the same time. Today's films are full
of digital sound and computer-generated special effects. Yet they are still stored on celluloid film, the basis
of which is more than 100 years old. They are also displayed with projectors and screens that seem to
belong to our great-grandparents' generation.

B. Now that we are in the second century of cinema, there are moves to bring the medium right up to date.
This will involve revolutionising not just how films are made but also how they are distributed and presented.
The aim is not only to produce and prepare films digitally but to be able to send them to movie theatres by
digital, electronic means. High-resolution digital projectors would then show the film. Supporters say this will
make considerable savings at all stages of this chain, particularly for distribution.

C. With such a major technological revolution on the horizon, it seems strange that the industry is still not
sure what to call itself. This may appear a minor point, but the choices, 'digital' cinema and 'electronic'
cinema (e-cinema), suggest different approaches to, and aspects of, the business. Digital cinema refers to
the physical capture of images; e-cinema covers the whole chain, from production through post-production
(editing, addition of special effects and construction of soundtrack) to distribution and projection.

D. And what about the effects of the new medium? The main selling point of digital cinema is the high
resolution and sharpness of the final image. But those who support the old-fashioned approach to film point
to the celluloid medium's quality of warmth. A recurring criticism of video is that it may be too good:
uncomfortably real, rather like looking through an open window. In 1989, the director of the first full-length
American digital high-definition movie admitted that the picture had a 'stark, strange reality to it'.

E. Even the money-saving aspect of e-cinema is doubted. One expert says that existing cinemas will have
to show the new material and not all of them will readily or rapidly furnish themselves with the right
equipment. 'E-cinema is seen as a way of saving money because print costs a lot,' he says. Thus for that to
work, cinemas have to be showing the films because cinemas are the engine that drives the film industry.'

F. This view has prompted some pro-digital entrepreneurs to take a slightly different approach. HD Thames
is looking at reinventing the existing cinema market, moving towards e-theatre, which would use digital
video and projection to present plays, musicals and some sporting events to the public. This is not that
different from the large-screen TV system that was set up in New York in 1930, and John Logie Baird's
experiments with TV in the late 1920s and early 30s.

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Questions 28-33

The Reading Passage "The end of the silver screen?" has six paragraphs A–F.

Choose the correct heading for each paragraph from the list of headings below.

Write numbers, i-ix, in boxes 28-33 on your answer sheet.

List of Headings

i. Indecision about a name vi. Integrating other events into cinema

ii. Current problems with distribution vii. The plans for the future of films
iii. Uncertainty about financial advantages viii. An unexpected advantage
iv. The contrasts of cinema today ix. Too true to life?
v. The history of cinema

28. Paragraph A
29. Paragraph B
30. Paragraph C
31. Paragraph D
32. Paragraph E
33. Paragraph F
Questions 34-38

Complete the summary below.

Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 34-38 on your answer sheet.

There are big changes ahead for cinema if digital production takes place and the industry no longer
uses (34) ................ and gets rid of the old-fashioned (35) ................ and used to show movies. The main
advantage is likely to be that the final image will be clearer. However, some people argue that the digital
picture will lack (36) ................. In addition, digital production will only reduce costs if cinemas are willing to
buy new (37) ................. As a result, experiments with what is called (38) '...............' may mark a change in
the whole entertainment industry.

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Questions 39 and 40

Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.

Write letters A-D in boxes 39 and 40 on your answer sheet.

39. What does e-cinema concept cover?

A) physical capture of images
B) displaying cinemas with projectors
C) from production to distribution and projection
D) distributing cinemas electronically

40. the e-theatre concept would involve -

A) broadcasting live sporting events
B) up to date theatrical performance
C) digital capture of image
D) the use digital video and projection

Answer:
28. iv 33. vi 38. e-theatre
29. vii 34. celluloid // celluloid film 39. C
30. i 35. projectors, screens 40. D
31. ix 36. warmth
32. iii 37. equipment
Section 3: Question 28-40
Read the text below and answers to the questions 28-40 on your answer sheet.

GT Reading: "Calisthenics"

Read the text below and answer Question 28-40.

CALISTHENICS
The world’s oldest form of resistance training
A. From the very first caveman to scale a tree or hang from a cliff face, to the mighty armies of the Greco-
Roman empires and the gymnasiums of modern American high schools, calisthenics has endured and
thrived because of its simplicity and utility. Unlike strength training which involves weights, machines or
resistance bands, calisthenics uses only the body’s own weight for physical development.

B. Calisthenics enters the historical record at around 480 B.C., with Herodotus’ account of the Battle of
Thermopolylae. Herodotus reported that, prior to the battle, the god-king Xerxes sent a scout party to spy on
his Spartan enemies. The scouts informed Xerxes that the Spartans, under the leadership of King Leonidas,
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were practising some kind of bizarre, synchronised movements akin to a tribal dance. Xerxes was greatly
amused. His own army was comprised of over 120,000 men, while the Spartans had just 300. Leonidas was
informed that he must retreat or face annihilation. The Spartans did not retreat, however, and in the ensuing
battle, they managed to hold Xerxes’ enormous army at bay for some time until reinforcements arrived. It
turns out their tribal dance was not a superstitious ritual but a form of calisthenics by which they were
building awe-inspiring physical strength and endurance.

C. The Greeks took calisthenics seriously not only as a form of military discipline and strength but also as
an artistic expression of movement and an aesthetically ideal physique. Indeed, the term calisthenics itself
is derived from the Greek words for beauty and strength. We know from historical records and images from
pottery, mosaics and sculptures of the period that the ancient Olympians took calisthenics training seriously.
They were greatly admired – and still are, today – for their combination of athleticism and physical beauty.
You may have heard a friend whimsically sigh and mention that someone ‘has the body of a Greek god’.
This expression has travelled through centuries and continents and the source of this envy and admiration
is the calisthenics method.

D. Calisthenics experienced its second golden age in the 1800s. This century saw the birth of gymnastics,
an organised sport that uses a range of bars, rings, vaulting horses and balancing beams to display
physical prowess. This period is also when the phenomena of strongmen developed. These were people of
astounding physical strength and development who forged nomadic careers by demonstrating outlandish
feats of strength to stunned populations. Most of these men trained using hand balancing and horizontal
bars, as modern weight machines had not yet been invented.

E. In the 1950s, Angelo Siciliano – who went by the stage name Charles Atlas – was crowned “The World’s
Most Perfectly Developed Man”. Atlas’s own approach stemmed from traditional calisthenics and through a
series of mail-order comic books he taught these methods to hundreds of thousands of children and young
adults through the 1960s and 1970s. But Atlas was the last of a dying breed. The tides were turning, fitness
methods were drifting away from calisthenics, and no widely-regarded proponent of the method would ever
succeed him.

F. In the 1960s and 1970s, calisthenics and the goal of functional strength combined with physical beauty
was replaced by an emphasis on huge muscles at any cost. This became the sport of bodybuilding.
Although body building’s pioneers were drawn from the calisthenics tradition, the sole goal soon became an
increase in muscle size. Bodybuilding icons, people such as Arnold Schwarzenegger and Sergio Oliva,
were called mass monsters because of their imposing physiques. Physical development of this nature was
only attainable through the use of anabolic steroids, synthetic hormones which boosted muscle
development while harming overall health. These bodybuilders also relied on free weights and machines,

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which allowed them to target and bloat the size of individual muscles rather than develop a naturally
proportioned body. Calisthenics, with its emphasis on physical beauty and a balance in proportions, had
little to offer the mass monsters.

G. In this “bigger is better” climate, calisthenics was relegated to groups perceived to be vulnerable, such as
women, people recuperating from injuries and school students. Although some of the strongest and most
physically developed human beings ever to have lived acquired their abilities through the use of
sophisticated calisthenics, a great deal of this knowledge was discarded and the method was reduced to
nothing more than an easily accessible and readily available activity. Those who mastered the rudimentary
skills of calisthenics could expect to graduate to weight training rather than advanced calisthenics.

H. In recent years, however, fitness trends have been shifting back toward the use of calisthenics.
Bodybuilding approaches that promote excessive muscle development frequently lead to joint pain, injuries,
unbalanced physiques and weak cardiovascular health. As a result, many of the newest and most popular
gyms and programmes emphasize calisthenics-based methods instead. Modern practices often combine
elements from a number of related traditions such as yoga, Pilates, kettle-ball training, gymnastics and
traditional Greco-Roman calisthenics. Many people are keen to recover the original Greek vision of physical
beauty and strength and harmony of the mind-body connection.
Questions 28

Which of the following statement is true according to the passage?

Write A, B, C or D in the box 28 on your answer sheet.

28. Calisthenics is -
A. the world’s oldest form of sports training
B. a strength training
C. a battle technique
D. being emphasized by many popular gyms
Questions 29-35

The text has eight paragraphs, A–H. Which paragraph contains the following information?

Write the correct letter, A–H, in boxes, 29–35 on your answer sheet.

29. The origin of the word ‘calisthenics’.

30. The last popular supporter of calisthenics.
31. The first use of calisthenics as a training method.
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32. A multidisciplinary approach to all-round health and strength.

33. Reasons for the survival of calisthenics throughout the ages.
34. The use of a medical substance to increase muscle mass and strength.
35. A reference to travelling showmen who displayed their strength for audiences.
Questions 36-40

Complete the summary below.

Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the text for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 36–40 on your answer sheet.

During the sixties and seventies, attaining huge muscles became more important than (36) .................. or having an
attractive-looking body. The first people to take up this new sport of bodybuilding had a background in calisthenics
but the most famous practitioners became known as (37) .................. on account of the impressive size of their
muscles. Drugs and mechanical devices were used to develop individual muscles to a monstrous size. Calisthenics
then became the domain of ‘weaker’ people: females, children and those recovering from (38) .................. . Much
of the advanced knowledge about calisthenics was lost and the method was subsequently downgraded to the status
of a simple, user-friendly activity. Once a person became skilled at this, he would progress to (39) .................. .
Currently, a revival of calisthenics is underway as extreme muscle building can harm the body leaving it sore, out of
balance, and in poor (40) .................. .

Answer:
28. D 33. A 38. injuries
29. C 34. F 39. weight training
30. E 35. D 40. cardiovascular health
31. B 36. functional strength
32. H 37. mass monsters

Section 1: Question 1-14

Read the text below and answers to the questions 1-14 on your answer sheet.

GT Reading: "Bicycling for Recycling" & "Movie Mania – Upcoming Films"

Read the information below and answer Question 1-7.

Questions 1-7
Do the following statements agree with the information given in the passage “Bicycling for Recycling”?

In boxes 1-7 on your answer sheet write:

TRUE if the statement agrees with the information

FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this

1. Last year’s bike rally was a great success.

2. Compared to last year’s route, this year’s is longer.
3. Larger donations are expected from commercial companies.
4. Individual sponsors can donate any amount.
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5. Participants are invited to attend a press conference before the date of the rally.
6. Emergency support will NOT be available in isolated areas.
7. Some government officials will be present at the end-point of the rally.

Bicycling for Recycling

Dear Environmentally-Conscious Friend,
After the remarkable achievements of last year, we have again organised a Bicycle Rally to promote the
recycling of resources and usage of recycled goods for the protection of our environment. Unlike last year,
this year, the rally will start in Werribee and will cover a slightly shorter 45-kilometre route. The reduction in
distance is due to the new area being quite hilly!

This year we have set ourselves the goal of raising £50,000 for our worthy cause. To help us do this, we
have invited sponsorship from 20 large, commercial companies. If you would like to suggest a sponsor that
we might not have considered, please contact us – there is no minimum donation amount. The funds raised
will be used to launch our Recycled Resources, Recycled Goods countrywide awareness program in the
coming months. We have also contacted numerous social organisations who will help us to best utilise the
funds raised.

We will provide all support to participants including arranging bicycles for those who do not have one, all
safety measures throughout the route, food, drinks and transportation to and from Werribee - Western,
Northern and Southern suburbs will be covered. Here are the particulars:

DATE: 16 June 2007

START TIME: 8 AM
START POINT: Werribee
FINISH: Beacon Park
COST: £12

Channel 2 has agreed to be our media partner and will telecast the entire rally. Don’t miss your chance to
be on national TV!

You are also invited to attend a post-rally press conference at the National Press Auditorium. Contact G.
Jaisin on 0425 652 254 for more details.

Bicycling for Recycling: RALLY DETAILS

Enquiry and Assistance:

• General enquiries are welcome any time.

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• Sponsorship enquiries – at least 7 days prior to the rally.

• Any special needs, call during business hours – 021 254 256 231.

Safety measures:
The route has five designated checkpoints – Werribee, Mentone, Parade Ground, William Port and Beacon
Park. The first half of the route from Werribee to the Parade Ground passes through Bush Park and
continues along the Eastern Coast. This section is quite isolated so we will establish emergency stops and
drink booths with greater frequency. Each booth staff member will be issued with communication equipment
to report any emergency situation from all remote areas. All emergency assistance, including paramedics,
will be on standby.

Accessories:
Considering the unpredictable weather during this season you should be prepared for all conditions. This
means being prepared for all climatic possibilities! All participants are advised to do a complete check of
their bike brakes and gears prior to the start of the rally. Our bike mechanics will be on hand at the starting
point 2 hours prior to the start of the rally. This service is free for all participants.

Photo session:
The finishing line at the north gate of Beacon Park will have a stage with a backdrop containing our
Recycled Resources, Recycled Goods slogan. All the participants, upon finishing, will receive a bouquet
and individual placard – both highlighting our recycling message. There will be a photo session involving all
the participants. Photos will be forwarded to the local newspapers with a press release.

This year we have decided to put a Support Book at the finishing point. We encourage you to sign the book
and express your views on our rally theme or any other feedback you may care to provide. We are planning
to forward all comments to the respective government policymakers as well as to the Ministry of
Environment.

Thanks in advance for your support and see you on the big day!

G. Jaisin
President, Rally Committee

Questions 8 - 14

Look at the seven film descriptions A-G in paragraph “Movie Mania – Upcoming Films” and answer
questions 8-14.

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For which film(s) are the following statements true?

Write the correct letter A-G in boxes 8-14 on your answer sheet.

NB You may use one letter more than once.

8. This film is based on a book.

9. These TWO films are all about mysteries.
10. This film is based on imaginary animal behaviour.
11. This film demonstrates the importance of keeping a promise.
12. This film focuses on environmental issues.
13. The need to choose is a focus of this film.
14. These TWO films will best entertain a fun-loving audience.

Read the text below and answer Questions 8-14.

Movie Mania – Upcoming Films
A. Friends (June 1st)
A group of friends go on a vacation together. They book a hotel and, upon arrival, discover that due to a
misunderstanding, their booking got cancelled. In a new and strange city, they determine to spend the
whole night on the street. They meet some peculiar people and observe unusual behaviours not seen
during the daytime. A lot of laughs throughout!

B. Four Feet (June 7th)

An animation-based fantasy film where animals take control of a city. Excellent special effects, hilarious
scenarios and even some commentary about the environment! The animal’s adventures put human beings
into some difficult situations. In the home or office, in markets and on the streets, the animals make the
rules - although a friendly understanding between animal and man enables both to co-exist…eventually!

C. House Story (June 14th)

A rich family buys a large country-house and discovers the existence of pre-historic residents! With pre-
history meeting modern history, the clever plot intrigues from start to finish. People from the past keep
visiting the everyday environment of the family in the house. The suspense in this supernatural thriller
comes to a climax in a most interesting way.

D. Runner (June 21st)

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Peter Goode has made a commitment to literally run around the world. The final leg of his journey involves
running from New Mexico to Kansas, USA. Apparent mysteries stop him from time to time, but Peter’s will
proves there is a way and we learn that not every life is filled with fun. Experience Peter’s struggles and the
lengths to which one man will go to keep his word.

E. Silver Ring (June 28th)

A true romantic story of a young couple who aspire to wealth in order to lead a happy life. Dedicated to
Allison Walsh and based on her bestselling novel, this film shows that money and happiness are not
necessarily linked. Abstract love and affection on one side and material need and want on another – which
side must this young couple take?

F. The Creatures (July 5th)

This is a documentary film sponsored by The Zoological Society. The film focuses on Global Warming and
its effects on wild animals. Full of interesting facts and some expert interviews. Shot in the deep forests of
the world. Incredible wild animal action adds real excitement to the film. Real-life footage in digital surround
sound.

G. The Trigger (July 12th)

Having learned of the disappearance of two children, a retired detective undertakes a mission to locate
them. They are eventually found by the detective, living in a small town in Italy. Although missing, the kids
believe that they are still very much in their normal living environment. These American kids know Italy lane
by lane and can speak the local dialect fluently. Nobody ever taught them the language. From beginning to
end, unexplained occurrences keep the viewer guessing to the end.

Answer:
1. TRUE 7. NOT GIVEN 12. F
2. FALSE 8. E 13. E
3. NOT GIVEN 9. C, G [in either order, both 14. A, B [in either order, both
4. TRUE required for 1 mark] required for 1 mark]
5. FALSE 10. B
6. FALSE 11. D

Section 1: Question 1-14

Read the text below and answers to the questions 1-14 on your answer sheet.
You should take around 20 minutes to complete this task.

GT Reading Sample - "Sustainable School Travel Strategy" & "Flu: the facts"

Read the passage below and answer Questions 1-6.

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Sustainable School Travel Strategy

Over the last 20 years, the number of children being driven to school in England has doubled. National data suggests
that one in five cars on the road at 8.50 am is engaged in the school run. Children are subject to up to 3.9 times more
pollution in a car that is standing in traffic than when walking or cycling to school. Reducing cars around schools
makes them safer places, and walking and cycling are better for health and the environment. It has been noted by
teachers that children engaging in active travel arrive at school more alert and ready to learn.

The County Council has a strong commitment to supporting and promoting sustainable school travel. We collect data
annually about how pupils get to school, and our report on the Sustainable School Travel Strategy sets out in detail
what we have achieved so far and what we intend to do in the future. Different parts of the County Council are
working together to address the actions identified in the strategy, and we are proud that we have been able to
reduce the number of cars on the daily school run by an average of 1% in each of the last three years, which is
equivalent to taking approximately 175 cars off the road annually, despite an increase in pupil numbers.

All schools have a School Travel Plan, which sets out how the school and the Council can collaborate to help reduce
travel to school by car and encourage the use of public transport. Contact your school to find out what they are doing
as part of their School Travel Plan to help you get your child to school in a sustainable, safe way.
Questions 1-6

Do the following statements agree with the information given in the text?

In boxes 1-6 on your answer sheet, write

TRUE if the statement agrees with the information

FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this

1. More children are injured when walking or cycling to school than when travelling by car.
2. Children who are driven to school are more ready to learn than those who walk or cycle.
3. Every year the Council gathers information about travel to schools.
4. The Council is disappointed with the small reduction in the number of cars taking children to school.
5. The number of children in schools has risen in recent years.
6. Parents can get help with paying for their children to travel to school by public transport.

Read the text below and answer Questions 7-14.

Flu: the facts
A. Flu (influenza) is an acute viral respiratory infection. It spreads easily from person to person: at home, at school, at
work, at the supermarket or on the train.

B. It gets passed on when someone who already has flu coughs or sneezes and is transmitted through the air by
droplets, or it can be spread by hands infected by the virus.

C. Symptoms can include fever, chills, headache, muscle pain, extreme fatigue, a dry cough, sore throat and stuffy
nose. Most people will recover within a week but flu can cause severe illness or even death in people at high risk. It is
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estimated that 18,500-24,800 deaths in England and Wales are attributable to influenza infections annually.

D. Vaccination is the most effective way to prevent infection. Although anyone can catch flu, certain people are at
greater risk from the implications of flu, as their bodies may not be able to fight the virus. If you are over 65 years
old, or suffer from asthma, diabetes, or certain other conditions, you are considered at greater risk from flu and the
implications can be serious. If you fall into one of these ‘at-risk’ groups, are pregnant or a carer, you are eligible for a
free flu vaccination.

E. If you are not eligible for a free flu vaccination, you can still protect yourself and those around you from flu by
getting a flu vaccination at a local pharmacy.

F. About seven to ten days after vaccination, your body makes antibodies that help to protect you against any similar
viruses that may infect you. This protection lasts about a year.

G. A flu vaccination contains inactivated, killed virus strains so it can’t give you the flu. However, a flu vaccination can
take up to two weeks to begin working, so it is possible to catch flu in this period.

H. A flu vaccination is designed to protect you against the most common and potent strains of flu circulating so there
is a small chance you could catch a strain of flu not contained in the flu vaccine.

I. The influenza virus is constantly changing and vaccines are developed to predicted strains each year so it is
important to get vaccinated against the latest strains.

Speak to your GP or nurse today to book your flu vaccination.

Questions 7-14
The text has nine sections, A-I. Which sections contain the following information? Write the correct letter, A-I, in
boxes 7-14 on your answer sheet.
NB You may use any answer more than once.

7. examples of people who are likely to be particularly badly affected by flu

8. how to get a vaccination if you choose to pay for it
9. why new vaccines become available
10. how long a vaccine remains effective
11. reference to the possibility of catching a different type of flu from the ones in the vaccine
12. categories of people who do not have to pay for vaccination
13. information about what a vaccine consists of
14. signs that you might have flu

Answer:
1. NOT GIVEN 6. NOT GIVEN 11. H
2. FALSE 7. D 12. D
3. TRUE 8. E 13. G
4. FALSE 9. I 14. C
5. TRUE 10. F

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