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Kcse 2023 Smartgrade Mock s1

KCSE 2023 JOINT MOCK EXAMINATIONS. ALL subjects Included; Mathematics, English, Kiswahili, Biology, Chemistry, Physics, CRE, History, Geography, Business Studies, Agriculture, French, IRE, Home science &Computer Studies. Compiled by Mwalimu Consultancy Team. [email protected] Mr Isaboke Micah 0746-222-000 / 0742-999-000 Director Mwalimu Consulatncy Ltd.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)

626 views250 pages

Kcse 2023 Smartgrade Mock s1

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micah isaboke

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ALL SUBJECTS

A Joint Evaluation Examination Test for our KCSE 2023 Candidates. Special
Project by a Team of Veteran Experienced Examiners within the National
Group of Mwalimu Consultancy Ltd.

SUBJECTS COMPILED;
Mathematics, English, Kiswahili, Biology, Chemistry, Physics, CRE, Geography, History,
Business Studies, IRE, Home-science, Agriculture and Computer Studies.

SERIES 1

For Marking Schemes

Mr Isaboke 0746-222-000 /0742-999-000

MWALIMU CONSULTANCY
KCSE 2023 SMARTGRADE MOCK
Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.
SERIES 1
231/1 BIOLOGY Paper 1
(Theory)
Time: 2 Hours

NAME…………………………………………………………………………………………

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN…………………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
a) Write your name and admission number in the spaces provided above.
b) Sign in the spaces provided above.
c) Answer ALL questions in the spaces provided.
d) All workings MUST be clearly shown where necessary.

FOR EXAMINERS USE ONLY

QUESTION MAXIMUM SCORE CANDIDATES SCORE

1 – 30 80
Answer ALL questions in the spaces provided
1. Name the organelle that performs each of the following functions in a cell
(i) Protein synthesis. (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(ii) Transport of cell secretions. (1mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

2. (a) Define the term ‘parthenocarpy’. (1mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) Name two plant growth hormones that promote parthenocarpy. (2marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

3. The diagram below shows a longitudinal section of mammalian skin.

a) Name the parts labelled F and G. (2marks)

F………………………………………………………………………………………………..........

G………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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b) State one function of each of the parts labelled H and J (2marks)
H……………………………………………………………………………………………………

J ……………………………………………………………………………………………………

4. (a) State two characteristics used to divide the phylum Arthropoda into classes (2marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b)Name the class with the largest number of individuals in the phylum Arthropoda. (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

5. The diagram below represents a longitudinal section of a fruit

(i)Identify the mode of dispersal (1mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(ii) Describe two adaptations of the fruit to its mode of dispersal (2marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

6. (a) What causes the following diseases?

(i)Diabetes mellitus. (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) Diabetes insipidus. (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) An individual shows the symptoms for diabetes mellitus, how would you determine in the school
laboratory whether they are positive for the condition? (2marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

7. (a) Give two examples of natural selection in action. (2marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) List two features that make man the most dominant species on earth. (2marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

8. Study the diagram below of a neurone in human being.

(a)Identify the neurone. (1mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b)Name the part labeled B (1mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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9. Study the diagram of the mammalian tooth below and answer the questions that follow.

(a) Identify the tooth. (1mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) Give a reason for your answer in (a) above. (1mark)

(c) State one adaptation of the tooth to its function. (1mark)

10. It was found that during germination of pea seeds 9.3cm3 of carbon (iv) oxide was produced
while 9.1cm3 of oxygen was used up.
a) Calculate the respiratory quotient (RQ) of the reaction taking place. (2marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) Explain why it is difficult to measure respiratory quotient in plants during the day. (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
11. The diagrams below represent two types of bacteria species that causes some human diseases.

A B
Identify each bacterium and state the disease it causes. (4 marks)
A:
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
Disease it causes:
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
B:
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
Disease it causes:
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

12. a) What is metamorphosis? (1mark)

b) What is the biological significance of metamorphosis to an insect? (2marks)

13. Study and complete the table below. (3mks)

Feature Monocot Dicot
a) Number of stamens
b) Arrangement of vascular
bundle in stem
c) Type of root

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14. The diagrams below show embryos of certain vertebrates animals. Study them and answer the
question that follows.

a) Mention two observable structural features in these embryos that suggest that they have a
common ancestral origin. (2marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b)What phenomenon in organic evolution is exhibited by these diagrams of embryos? (1mark)

15. What is meant by the terms? (2marks)

a) Hypogynous flower
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
b) Dichogamy
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

16. What is the main difference between the phloem tissues of sub divisions Gymnospermaphyta
and Angiospermaphyta. (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
17. State two ways in which the skin of a frog is adapted for gaseous exchange. (2marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

18. What would be the effect of the following treatments on the nerve transmission?
(i) Inducing the axon with metabolic inhibitors. (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) Removing myelin sheath from a nerve fiber. (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

19. Give one reason why blood leaving the lungs may not be fully oxygenated (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

20. What is the importance of retina in vision? (2marks)

21.The diagram below represents a simple endocrine feedback mechanism in human male.

PITUITARY GLAND

HORMONE X HORMONE Y

TESTES

FOR MARKING SCHEMES CONTACT 0746-222-000 / 0742-999-000

(a)Name the hormone labelled X (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b)State two differences that may be observed between a normal male and one who is incapable of
producing hormone labelled Y. (2marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

22. a) Name the cartilage found between the bones of the vertebral column. (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) State the function of the cartilage named in (a) above. (1mark)

23. The cells shown below were obtained from two different plant cells which were immersed in
2% and 25% salt solutions

(a)Which of the two cells A and B was immersed in 2% salt solution? (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) Comment on the nature of 25% salt solution in relation to the cell sap. (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(c)What biological phenomenon leads to the observation made in A. (1mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
24. Name one structure found in the cortex of the kidney (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

25. The diagram below shows the internal structure of a leaf

(a)Name the part labelled B (1mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b)State the function of the part labelled C. (1mark)

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26. a) Distinguish between gaseous exchange and respiration. (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) Explain the disadvantages of anaerobic respiration in plant roots. (2marks)

27. a) Suggest the significance of the following adaptations in bony fish.

(i) Flexible vertebral column (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(ii) Presence of swim bladder (1mark)

b) State two features which reduce resistance in fish during swimming. (2marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

28. State two protective feature of human eye. (2marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
29. State two differences between photosynthesis and respiration (2marks)
PHOTOSYNTHESIS RESPIRATION

30. Explain why malaria cannot be transmitted through blood transfusion (2marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

THIS IS THE LAST PRINTED PAGE

FOR MARKING SCHEMES CONTACT 0746-222-000 / 0742-999-000

KCSE 2023 SMARTGRADE MOCK
Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.
SERIES 1
231/2 BIOLOGY Paper 2
(Theory)
Time: 2 Hours

NAME…………………………………………………………………………………………

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN…………………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
 Write your name and Index Number in the spaces provided above.
 This paper consists of two sections. Section A and section B.
 Answer ALL questions in section A in the spaces provided. In section B answer question 6
(compulsory) and either question 7 or 8 in the spaces provided after question 8

FOR EXAMINERS USE ONLY.

Section Question Maximum score Candidates score
A 1 8
2 8
3 8
4 8
5 8
B 6 20
7/8 20
Total score 80
QUESTIONS
1. The diagram below represents a plant tissue

a) Name the structures L and O. (2 marks)

L………………………………………………………………………………………………………
O………………………………………………………………………………………….....................

b) State the function of structure N and cell labelled M. (2marks)

N………………………………………………………………………………………………………
M………………………………………………………………………………………………………

c) Give two structural differences between phloem tissue and xylem tissue. (2marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

d) Distinguish between active and passive immunity. (2marks)

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2. The following figures represent the forelimb of a certain animal species. Study them and answer
the questions that follow

a) Name the bones labelled E and G. (2marks)

E…………………………………………………………………………………………...............
G………………………………………………………………………………...........................
b) State the type of skeleton represented by figure 1. (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
c) Name the type of joint at point Q. (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
d) Which two figures represent analogous structures? (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

e) Give adaptational differences between structures in figure 1 and 3. (3 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
3. Colour blindness is a disorder caused by gene mutation and it is controlled by a recessive gene. A
man with normal colour vision marries a carrier woman:
a) Using letter B to represent the gene for normal color vision, what is the chance that their son
will be colour blind? Show your working. (4marks)

b) Name another trait in humans inherited in the same way as colour blindness. (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

c) Briefly describe inversion in gene mutation. (1mark)

d) Distinguish between back cross and testcross. (2marks)

4. a) Nitrogen in the atmosphere cannot be directly utilized by plants. State two ways by which this
nitrogen is made available for plant use. (2marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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c) State the importance of saprophytic bacteria in the environment. (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

d) Briefly explain the how excessive use of fertilizers affects the large water bodies. (3marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

e) Explain how competition regulates the animal population in a habitat. (2marks)

5. The figure below shows the parts of the human digestive system. Study it and answer the
questions that follow.
a) Name the organs labelled A, B and D. (3marks)
A………………………………………………………………………………………………………
B………………………………………………………………………………………………………
D………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) State the role of part labelled C. (1mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

c) Name the two salivary glands in human beings. (2marks)

d) Give two adaptations of part labelled D to its function. (2marks)

6. An experiment was carried out to investigate transpiration and absorption of water in sunflower
plants in their natural environment with adequate supply of water. The amount of water was
determined in a two hour intervals. The results are as shown in the table below.
TIME OF THE DAY AMOUNT OF WATER IN GRAMMES
Transpiration Absorption
11:00-13:00 33 20
13:00-15:00 45 30

15:00-17:00 52 42
17:00-19:00 46 46
19:00-21:00 25 32
21:00-23:00 16 20
23:00-01:00 8 15
01:00-03:00 4 11

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a) Using the same axes, plot graphs to show transpiration and absorption of water in grammes
against time of the day. (7marks)

b) At time of the day was the amount of water the same for transpiration and absorption? (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

c) Account for the shape of the graph of :

i) transpiration (3marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii) absorption (3marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

d) What would happen to transpiration and absorption of water if the experiment was continued till
0500 hours? (2marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

e) Name two environmental factors that may affect rate of transpiration and absorption at any given
time. (2marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

f) Explain how the factors you named in (e) above affect transpiration. (2marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

7. a) Explain how blood sugar is regulated in the human body. (12marks)

b) Explain the adaptation of the mammalian skin to thermoregulation. (8marks)

8. a) Describe the factors that make the leaf of a terrestrial plant to absorb maximum light for
photosynthesis. (12marks)
b) Describe how support is achieved in herbaceous plants and shrubs. (8marks)

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KCSE 2023 SMARTGRADE MOCK
Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.
SERIES 1
231/3 BIOLOGY Paper 3
(Practical)
Time: 1¾ Hours

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN…………………………..

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.

CONFIDENTIAL
Each candidate should be provided with the following:
(1) Specimen K (Orange fruit)
(2) About 3cm3 of substance B (olive oil)
(3) About 3cm3 of liquid C (fresh cow milk)
(4) About 2cm3 of 0.01% DCPIP (supplied with a dropper)
(5) About 2cm3 of Iodine solution
(6) About 2cm3 NaHC03 solution (supplied with a dropper)
(7) 6 test tubes in a test tube rack
(8) Distilled water in a wash bottle
(9) Scalpel
(10) Two 10ml measuring cylinder
(11) One 100ml beaker
(12) 2 Labels
(13) Two droppers
KCSE 2023 SMARTGRADE MOCK
Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.
SERIES 1
231/3 BIOLOGY Paper 3
(Practical)
Time: 1¾ Hours

NAME…………………………………………………………………………………………

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN…………………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES:
a) Write your name and admission number in the spaces provided.
b) Sign and write date of examination in the spaces provided above
c) Answer all the questions in this paper.
d) You are required to spend the first 15 minutes of the 1¾ hours allowed for this paper reading the
whole paper carefully.

For Examiner’s Use only

QUESTIONS MAXIMUM SCORE CANDIDATE’S SCORE
1 17
2 11
3 12
TOTAL 40

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Answer all the questions in this paper.
1. You are provided with Specimen K .Carefully cut a transverse section through specimen K using
a scalpel provided.
(a) (i) By observing one of the two halves of specimen K, Give two reasons to prove that
specimen K has axile placentation (2marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(ii) Squeeze some juice from specimen K into 100ml beaker provided and label it as juice K.
Using a portion of juice K, carry out the food test using the reagents provided and complete the
table below. (NB preserve the remaining portion of juice K for use in question 2 ) (8marks)

Food substance Procedure Observation Conclusion

(iii) Name the deficiency disease that results from lack of the food substance present in juice K.
(1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(iv) Highlight two symptoms of the disease named in (a) (iii) above (2marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) Put 2cm3 of liquid labeled C into a test tube. Draw some of the juice from specimen K into
a dropper. Add 4 drops of the juice into the test tube with solution C and shake.
(i) State your observation. (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(ii) State the part of the human body where the process demonstrated above occurs and the enzyme
that carries out the process.
Part of body…………..…………………………………………………………………(1mark)
Enzyme…………...………………………………………………………………………(1mark)

(iii) Which gland produces the enzyme stated in (a) (ii) above? (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

2. (a) Take a small amount of substance B provided and add to it 2cm3 of sodium hydrogen
carbonate solution.
(i) State your observations (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(ii) Which process in the body is illustrated above? (1mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(iii) State the part of the body where the above process takes place (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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(iv) State two functions of substance B in the body (2marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(v) Name two diseases of the circulatory system caused by excess cholesterol in food. (2marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) Study the photographs below depicting plants growing in different habitats. Use them to
answer the questions that follow.

(i) Identify the habitats in which they are found (2marks)

Y ………………………………………………………………………………………………………
Z………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(ii) State the significance of the following structures found in the specimens shown above.(2marks)
R ………………………………………………………………………………………………………

S………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
3. (a) Below are photographs of Venus flytrap (an insectivorous plant). Study them and answer the
questions that follow.
A B C

Sensitive hairs Spines Trapped insect

(i) Name one major nutrient that is deficient in the soil where the above plant grows. (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(ii) Name the type of response shown by photograph C (1mark)

(iii) Describe how the above plant traps the insect (4marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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(b) The photographs below are of the same mammalian vertebra showing two views of the same
bone. Examine them carefully.

(i) Identify the vertebra………………………………………………………………… (1mark)

(ii) Name the region from which the vertebra is obtained. (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) Name the part marked X (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(iv) State the function of part X (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(c) State the functional difference between a tendon and a ligament (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(d) Name the bone that articulate with this vertebra at the distal end (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

THIS IS THE LAST PRINTED PAGE

KCSE 2023 SMARTGRADE MOCK
Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.
SERIES 1
233/1 CHEMISTRY Paper 1
(Theory)
Time: 2 Hours

NAME…………………………………………………………………………………………

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN…………………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
(a) Write your name, admission number, stream in the spaces provided above.
(b) Answer ALL the questions in the spaces provided and calculations MUST be clearly shown

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY

QUESTION MAXIMUM SCORE CANDIDATE’S SCORE

1-27 80

FOR MARKING SCHEMES CONTACT 0746-222-000 / 0742-999-000

Answer ALL the questions in the spaces provided
1a). State two reasons why most laboratory apparatus are made of glass (2marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) How can one increase the luminosity of a flame? (1marks)

2. The set – up below was used by a student to try to prevent the rusting of an Iron rod.

a) Did the student succeed in preventing the rusting of Iron using the set – up above?
Explain (2marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) Which method of rust prevention was the student investigating? (1mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
3. The apparatus below was set up to show the catalytic oxidation of ammonia. Study the diagram
and answer the questions that follow

Dry NH3(g)

Hot platinum
wire

i) Write an equation for the reaction that takes place in the gas jar (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

ii) What is the role of hot platinum wire? 1marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

iii) Write the formula of the complex ion formed when excess ammonia gas is passed through a
solution containing Zn2+ ions. (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

4. The atomic number of sulphur is 16. By calculating the of oxidation number of sulphur, state the
electron configuration of sulphur in the sulphate ion (SO42-) (2marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

5. Explain the following trends

i) Atomic radius of alkaline earth metals increase down the group (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

ii) Melting and boiling points of halogens increase down the group VII (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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iii) Aluminium metal is a better conductor than sodium metal (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

6 a) State Le Chatelier’s Principle (1mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
b) A dynamic equilibrium between dichromate and chromate ions is established as shown in the
equation below.
Cr2O72- (aq) + 2OH- (aq) 2CrO72- (aq) + H2O(l)
Orange Yellow
State and explain the observation made if a few drops of sodium hydroxide are added to the
equilibrium mixture. (2marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

7 a) Complete the nuclear equation below. (1mark)

24 24
Q R +
11 12

b) A radioactive element of mass 50g has a half-life of 10 seconds. Sketch a graph of mass against
time to show how the element mass varies with time (1mark)

50
40
Mass (g)

30
20
10

0 10 20 30 40
Time (sec)
c) Give one use of radioactive isotopes in medicine (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

8. The set-up below was used to investigate reaction between copper (II) oxide and hydrogen gas
Copper (II) oxide
Combustion tube
Hydrogen gas

heat Liquid T
heat

a) Identify liquid T (1mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) Write an equation for the reaction that took place in the combustion tube. (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

c) State an observation made in the combustion tube. (1mark)

9. The table below shows PH values of some solutions

Solution A B C D
PH values 13 7 1 6.5

a) Which solution reacts vigorously with Magnesium metal? (1mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) Which solution is likely to be that of Lemon juice? (1mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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c) Select any two solutions that are likely to react with aluminium hydroxide (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

10. The flow chart below shows some processes involved in the industrial extraction of zinc metal.

a) Name one ore from which zinc is extracted. (1mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) Write the equation for the reaction taking place in unit I. (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

c) State any one use of zinc metal. (1mark)

11. Chlorine gas was bubbled through water for some time. The pale yellow solution formed was
poured into a long glass tube and placed in the sun as shown in the diagram below.
Sun rays

Gas T

Green yellow solution

a) Give the chemical composition in the pale yellow solution? (1mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
b) Write an equation to show how gas T is formed (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
c) Give one use of chlorine (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

12. The solubility of potassium nitrate in water at 70OC is 155g/100g H2O while at 20oC, the solubility
is 31g/100g water. 50g of a saturated solution of potassium nitrate at 70oC was cooled to 20oC,
calculate the mass that crystallized out. (3marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

13. Substance L, M, N and P have the following properties.

Electrical conductivity
Substance M.P. Solubility in water
Solid state Liquid state
L Low Soluble Does not Does not
M High Soluble Does not Conducts
N High Soluble Conducts Conducts
P High Insoluble Does not Does not

a) Select the letter which represents a substance which is suitable for making kettle handles.(1mrk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
b) Which letter represents a substance which is likely to be sodium chloride? (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

c) Name the bond structure and bond type likely to be in L. (1mark)

i) Bond structure
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii) Bond type
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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14. The diagram below represents a set-up used to prepare oxygen gas.

a) Name substance Q. (1mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) Complete the set-up given, to show how DRY oxygen gas is collected. (2mrks)

15. Explain why a reaction between sodium carbonates powder with hydrogen chloride solution in
in water produces effervescence while the same reaction with hydrogen chloride solution in
methylbenzene does not produce effervescence (2marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

16. A hydrocarbon S contains 3.6g carbon by mass and 0.8g hydrogen. Given that 3dm³ of the
compound at s.t.p has a mass of 5.89g. Calculate the molecular formula (Molar gas volume at s.t.p
= 22.4dm³, C=12, H=1) (3marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
17. Name the following processes.
a) When anhydrous calcium chloride is left in an open beaker overnight a solution was formed
(1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
b) White sugar changes to black solid when mixed with excess concentrated sulphuric (VI) acid.
(1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

c) Sodium deca-hydrate crystals change to anhydrous sodium carbonate (powder) (1mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

18. Chlorine has two isotopes with mass number 35 and 37. If the relative atomic mass of chlorine
is 35.5. Determine the percentage abundance of each isotope of chlorine. (3marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

19 a) Explain why water containing some traces of common salt is considered to be hard water
(1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) i) State one method used to remove permanent hardness (1mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

ii) Give one advantage of using hard water for domestic purpose. (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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20. Study the flow chart below and use it to answer the questions that follow.

Step 3 NaOH Excess NaOH Colourless

White ppt (S) Solution (R) White ppt L
AgNO3 Step 1 Solution (Q)
Excess Step 2
Ammonia (NH3) HCl

Colourless Colourless
Solution (M) Solution (M)

a) Identify the cation and anion in solution (R) (1mark)

Cation
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

Anion
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) Write an ionic equation for the formation of compound S (1mark)

c) Write the formula for complex ion in solution Q. (1mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

21. The graph below shows the amount of calcium carbonate and calcium chloride varying with
time in the reaction.
CaCO3(s) + 2HCl(aq) CaCl2(aq) + H2O + CO2(g)
a) Which curve shows the amount of calcium chloride formed varying with time? (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) Explain why the two curves become horizontal after a given period of time. (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

c) Sketch on the graph, how curve I would appear if the experiment was repeated using a more
dilute hydrochloric acid solution. (1mark)

22 a) State Graham’s law of diffusion. (1mark)

b) 60cm3 of oxygen diffused through a porous plate in 20 seconds. How long will it take 120cm3 of
carbon (iv) oxide gas to diffuse through the same plate under the same conditions? (C=12 ,
O=16) (2marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

23. Methane undergoes combustion in oxygen as shown by the equation below.

CH4(g) + 2O2(g) CO2(g) + 2H2O(g)
a) Calculate the heat change for the reaction using bond energies in the table (3marks)
Bond Bond energy (KJ/mol)
C–H 413
O=O 497
C=O 740
O-H 463

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24. Describe how a DRY,PURE sample of Lead (II) chloride can be prepared using the following
reagents; dilute nitric (V) acid, dilute hydrochloric acid and lead carbonate (3marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

25.Hydrogen sulphide gas was passed through a solution of iron (III) chloride
i) State and explain the two observations made (2marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

ii) Write an ionic equation for the reaction taking place in (i) above (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

26. Study the diagram below and answer the questions that follow.

NH4 +(g) + Cl-(g)

Energy
H2
H1 NH4 +(aq) + Cl-(aq)

H3
NH4Cl(s

Reaction co-ordinate
a) What do ∆H1 and ∆H2 represent. (2marks)
∆H1…..…………………………………………….. ∆H2………………………………………………….

b) Write an expression to show the relationship between ∆H1, ∆H2 and ∆H3. (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

27. Use the information below and answer the questions that follow .The letters are not the actual
symbols of the elements.
2+
E(𝑎𝑞) + 2e E(s) -0.76V
3+
F(𝑎𝑞) + 3e F(s) -1.66V
2+
G(𝑎𝑞) + 2e G(s) -0.44V

a) Calculate the Eθ value for the electrochemical cell represented below. (2mark)
3+ 2+
F(s) F(𝑎𝑞) G(𝑎𝑞) 𝐺(𝑠)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) Arrange the elements in order of reactivity starting with the least reactive. (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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KCSE 2023 SMARTGRADE MOCK
Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.
SERIES 1
233/2 CHEMISTRY Paper 2
(Theory)
Time: 2 Hours

NAME…………………………………………………………………………………………

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN…………………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
(a) Write your name, admission number, index number, and stream in the spaces provided above.
(b) Sign and write the date of the examination in the spaces provided
(c) Answer ALL the questions in the spaces provided.
(d) Candidates MUST answer all questions in English.
(e) KNEC mathematical tables and silent non-programmable electronic calculators may be used.

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY.

QUESTION MAXIMUM SCORE CANDIDATE’S SCORE
1 09
2 13
3 12
4 11
5 14
6 11
7 10
TOTAL SCORE 80
Answer ALL the questions in the spaces provided.
1. a) The relationship between the pressure and volume of a fixed mass of gas was studied at 25oC.
The data was recorded as shown in the table below.
Volume (m3) 1 2 4 6

Pressure (Pa) x 105 12 6 3 2

Product of volume and pressure

(i) Complete the table by calculating the product of the volume and pressure. (2 marks)

(ii) Using the data, state the law governing the relationship between volume and pressure of a
fixed mass of a gas. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) The volume of nitrogen gas at 27oC and a pressure of 1 x 105 pa is 8m3. Calculate its volume at
128oC and a pressure of 3.2 x 105pa (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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(i) State the observation(s) that was made in tubes K and L after some time. (2 marks)
I. Tube K
……………………………………………………………………………………………
II. Tube L
……………………………………………………………………………………………

(ii) Name two processes that took place in tube K. (2 marks)

2. (a) Give the names of the following compounds.

(b) Describe a chemical test that can be carried out to distinguish between the compounds:(2 mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
c) Study the flow chart below and answer the questions that follow

(i) Name the compounds (2 marks)

I) L: ………………………………………………………………………………………………….
II) N: …………………………………………………………………………………………………

(ii) Draw the structural formula of compound M showing three repeating units. (1 mark)

(iii) Give the reagent and condition used in step 1 (2 marks)

(iv) State the type of reaction that takes place in: (2 marks)
I) Step 2: ………………………………………………………………………………………..
II) Step 3: ……………………………………………………………………………………..
(v) The molecular formular of compound P is C2H2Cl4. Draw the two structural formulae of
compound P (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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2. (a) The diagram below represents part of the structure of a sodium chloride crystal. The position
of one of the sodium ions in the crystal is shown as +.

(i) On the diagram, mark the positions of the other three sodium ions (3 marks)

(ii) The melting and boiling points of sodium chloride are 801 oC and 1413oC respectively.
Explain why sodium chloride does not conduct electricity at 25 oC but does at temperatures
between 801oC and 1413oC. (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(iii) (b) Give a reason why ammonia gas is highly soluble in water (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(iv) (c) The structure of an ammonium ion is shown below.

Name the types of bonds represented by the letters X and Y (1 mark)

X ………………………………………………………………………………………………………

Y ………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(d) Carbon exists in different crystalline forms. Some of these forms were recently discovered in
soot and are called fullerenes.
(i) What name is given to different crystalline forms of the same elements (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(ii) Fullerenes dissolve in methylbenzene while other forms of carbon do not. Given that soot is
a mixture of fullerenes and other solid forms of carbon, describe how crystals of fullerenes can
be obtained from soot. (3 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(iii) The relative molecular mass of one of the fullerenes is 720. What is the Molecular formula
of this fullerene? (C = 12.0) (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

3. The set up below was used by a student to investigate the product formed when aqueous Copper
(II) chloride was electrolysed using platinum electrodes.

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(a) (i) Write the equation for the reaction taking place at the cathode. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(ii) Name and describe a chemical test for the product initially formed at the anode when a
highly concentrated solution of Copper (II) chloride is electrolysed. (3 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(iii) How would the mass of the anode change if the platinum anode was replaced with copper
metal? Explain. (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) 0.6g of metal X were deposited when a current of 0.45A was passed through an electrolyte
for 1 hour and 12 minutes. Determine the charge on the ion of metal X. (RAM of X = 59 1
Faraday = 96500 C) (3 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(c) The electrode potentials for cadmium and zinc are given below
Explain why it is not advisable to store a solution of cadmium nitrate in a container made of zinc.
(2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

4. (a) (i) what is meant by the term Enthalpy of formation? (1 mark)

(ii) The enthalpies of Carbon, methane and hydrogen are indicated below: -
C (s) + O2 (g)  CO2 (g) ; ∆H = -393KJmol-1
H2 (g) + 1/2 O2 (g)  H2O (g) ∆H =-286KJmol-1
Enthalpy of combustion of CH4 = -890KJmol-1

I) Draw an energy cycle diagram that links the enthalpy of formation of methane to enthalpies of
combustion of carbon, hydrogen, and methane. (2 marks)

II) Determine the enthalpy of formation of methane. (2 marks)

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(b) An experiment was carried out where different volumes of dilute nitric (V) acid and
aqueous potassium hydroxide both at 25oC were mixed and stirred with a thermometer. The
highest temperature reached by each mixture was recorded in the table below.
Volume of nitric acid (cm3) 5 10 15 20 25 30 35 40 45
Volume of Potassium
45 40 35 30 25 20 15 10 5
hydroxide (cm3)
Highest temperature of
27.2 29.4 31.6 33.8 33.6 31.8 30.0 28.4 26.6
mixture (oC)

(i) On the grid provided, plot a graph of highest temperature (vertical axis) against volume of nitric
(V) acid. (3 marks)

(ii) Using your graph, determine the:

I) Highest temperature reached (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
II) Volume of acid and base reacting when highest temperature is reached. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(iii) Calculate the amount of heat liberated during the neutralization process. (Specific heat
capacity is 4.2Jg-1K-1 and density of solution is 1.0gcm-3). (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(iv) (c) The molar enthalpy of neutralisation between nitric (V) acid and ammonia solution was
found to be -52.2KJmol-1, while that of nitric (V) acid and potassium hydroxide was – 57.1
KJmol-1. Explain the difference in these values. (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

5. The scheme below shows the preparation of a certain salt. Study it and answer the questions that
follow.

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(a) Identify the following substances: (2 marks)
Solution A …………………………………………………………………………………………
Solution B …………………………………………………………………………………………...
Gas C: ………………………………………………………………………………………………..
Solid D ………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) (i) Write an ionic equation for the formation of solid D. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(ii) Write an equation for the formation of colourless solution E. (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(c) (i) Describe how the identity of gas C can be confirmed (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(ii) Name the catalyst that can be used in the reaction between zinc and dilute sulphuric (VI) acid.
(1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(d) Explain any two observations made when sodium reacts with water. (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(e) Describe how you can obtain from solution E:

(i) A hydrated salt (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) Anhydrous salt (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

6. A student set up the following arrangement to prepare and react gases V and W. Use it to answer
the questions that follow. (S =32, H =1, Cl =35.5).

Taps 1 and 2 were opened at the same time.

(i) Write an equation for the reaction that took place in flask A. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(ii) State and explain the observations that were made in: (2 marks)
I) Flask B
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
II) Combustion tube (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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(iii) Mark on the diagram the approximate position where reaction occurred in the combustion
tube. Explain your answer. (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(iv) State one possible objective of the experiment apart from testing whether gas W reacts with
gas V. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(v) Giving a reason, state one precaution that should be taken when carrying out this
experiment. (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

THIS IS THE LAST PRINTED PAGE

KCSE 2023 SMARTGRADE MOCK
Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.
SERIES 1
233/3 CHEMISTRY Paper 3
(Practical)
Time: 2¼ Hours

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN…………………………..

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.

CONFIDENTIAL
INSTRUCTIONS TO SCHOOLS
In addition to the fittings and apparatus found in a chemistry laboratory, each candidate will require
the following:
A: Each candidate
1. About 80cm3 of solution L
2. About 100cm3 of solution C
3. About 80cm3 of solution
4. One burette 0 – 50 ml
5. One pipette 25.0ml and a pipette filler
6. One Filter funnel
7. 100ml beaker
8. Solid K
9. Two clean dry 250 ml conical flasks
10. Six (6) clean and dry test tubes on a test tube rack
11. One boiling tube
12. 0.2g of solid sodium hydrogen carbonate supplied in a stoppered container
13. About 500cm3 of distilled water supplied in a wash bottle
14. One 250ml volumetric flask
15. 4 filter papers (125mm Whatman no. 1)
16. One 10ml measuring cylinder
17. Seven (7) labels
18. One metallic spatula

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19. One test tube holder
20. One stopwatch
21. A white tile
22. About 1.0g of solid E supplied in a stoppered container
23. About 0.5g of solid F supplied in a stoppered container

B: Access to:
1. Phenolphthalein indicator supplied with a dropper
2. Bunsen burner
3. 2.0M aqueous ammonia supplied with a dropper
4. 2.0M sodium hydroxide solution supplied with a dropper
5. Bromine water supplied with a dropper
6. 0.5M Barium (II) nitrate solution supplied with a dropper

C: Preparation of solutions and solids

1. Solution L is prepared by accurately adding 172cm3of concentrated hydrochloric acid (density
1.18gcm3) to about 500cm3 of distilled water and diluting with distilled water to make one litre
solution.
2. Solution C is prepared by dissolving 8.0g of sodium hydroxide in 700cm3 of distilled water and
diluting it to one litre.
3. Solid E is a mixture of zinc carbonate and magnesium sulphate in the ratio 1:1
4. Solid F is sodium benzoate
5. Solid K is 6 cm long Magnesium ribbon
KCSE 2023 SMARTGRADE MOCK
Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.
SERIES 1
233/3 CHEMISTRY Paper 3
(Practical)
Time: 2¼ Hours

NAME…………………………………………………………………………………………

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN…………………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.

Instructions to candidates
(a) Write your Name, admission number and class in the spaces provided in the question paper.
(b) Sign and write the date of examination in the spaces provided above.
(c) Answer ALL questions in the spaces provided on the question paper
(d) You are NOT allowed to start working with the apparatus for the first 15 minutes of the 2¼
hours allowed for this paper. This time is to enable you to read the question paper and make sure
you have all the apparatus and chemicals that you may need.
(e) All working MUST be clearly shown where necessary
(f) Mathematical tables and silent non-programmed electronic calculators may be used.

FOR EXAMINERS USE ONLY.

QUESTION MAXIMUM SCORE CANDIDATES SCORE
1 21

2 11

3 08

Total Score 40

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Answer ALL questions in the spaces provided
1. You are provided with:
 Solid K – Magnesium ribbon
 Solution L – 2.0M Hydrochloric acid
 Solution C – 0.4 M Sodium hydroxide solution
 Stopwatch
You are required to determine:
 the rate of reaction between magnesium and hydrochloric acid at different concentrations
 Mass of magnesium ribbon that reacted

PROCEDURE I
i) Place the five test tube on the test tube rack and label them 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5. Using a 10 cm3
measuring cylinder, measure out the volumes of 2.0 M hydrochloric acid, Solution L, as shown in
table 1 below and pour them into the corresponding test tube. RETAIN the remaining solution L
for use in question 2 and 3. Wash the measuring cylinder and use it to measure volumes of water
as indicated in the table and pour into the corresponding test tubes.
ii) Cut out FIVE pieces each of exactly 1 cm length of magnesium ribbon, Solid K.
iii) Transfer all the solution in test tube 1 into a clean 100 cm3 beaker. Place one piece of
magnesium ribbon into the beaker and start the stopwatch immediately. Swirl the beaker
continuously ensuring that the magnesium is always inside the solution. Record in the table the
time taken for the magnesium ribbon to disappear. TRANSFER carefully the contents of the
beaker into the 250ml volumetric flask. Add 10 cm3 of distilled water into the beaker, swirl and
add it to the volumetric flask. Retain this for Procedure II.
iv) Repeat procedure (iii) for each of the solutions in test tube 2, 3, 4 and 5 and complete the table
I below.
Table 1 (5 marks)
Test tube Number 1 2 3 4 5
Volume of solution L (cm3) 10 9 8 7 6
Volume of water added (cm3) 0 1 2 3 4
Time taken for the ribbon to
disappear (sec.)
 1  -1
Rate of reaction  s
 time 
b) i) Plot a graph of rate of reaction 
1 
 (y-axis) against volume of solution L. (3 marks)
 time 

ii) Using the graph, determine the time that would be taken for a 1 cm length of Magnesium
ribbon to disappear if the volume of the acid was 7.5 cm3. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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PROCEDURE II
To the contents of 250ml volumetric flask from Procedure I, add distilled water to the mark while
shaking. Label this as solution D. Fill the burette with solution C. Pipette 25 cm3 of solution D
into a 250 cm3 conical flask. Add three drops of phenolphthalein indicator and titrate with solution
C. Record the results in table 2. Repeat the titration and complete table 2.
Table 2 (4 marks)
I II III
Final burette reading (cm³)
Initial burette reading (cm³)
Volume of Solution C used (cm³)

(a) Determine the average volume of solution C used. (1 mark)

(b) Calculate the number of moles of:

(i) Sodium hydroxide in solution C used. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(ii) Hydrochloric acid in 25cm³ of solution D. (1 mark)

(iii) Hydrochloric acid in 250 cm3 of solution D. (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(iv) Hydrochloric acid in 40 cm3 of solution L (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(v) Hydrochloric acid that reacted with Magnesium. (1 mark)

(c) Determine the mass of Magnesium that reacted. (Mg =24.0) (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

2. You are provided with solid E. Carry out the following tests and write your observations and
inferences in the spaces provided.
(a) Place all of solid E in a boiling tube. Add about 10 cm3 of distilled water and shake
thoroughly. Filter the mixture into another boiling tube. Retain the filtrate for use in test 2(b)
below. Dry the residue using pieces of filter papers.
i) Place the residue in a dry test-tube. Add 4 cm3 of 2M hydrochloric acid, solution L. Retain the
mixture for test (iii) below.
OBSERVATIONS INFERENCES

,
( ½ mark) (1mark)

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ii) To 2 cm3 of the solution obtained in (i) above, add aqueous ammonia dropwise until in excess.
Observations Inferences

(1 mark) (1mark)

(b) Use about 2 cm3 of the filtrate obtained in (a) above for tests (i) to (iii) below.
i) Add aqueous ammonia dropwise until in excess.
Observations Inferences

(1mark)
(1 mark)

ii) Add about 2 cm3 of 2M hydrochloric acid, solution L.

Observations Inferences

(1 mark) (1mark)
iii) Add aqueous sodium hydroxide dropwise until in excess.
Observations Inferences

(½ mark) (1mark)

v) Add three drops of barium nitrate solution.

Observation Inference

(1mark) (1mark)

3. You are provided with solid F. Carry out the following tests. Write your observations and
inferences in the spaces provided.
a) Place all of solid F in a boiling tube. Add about 20 cm3 of distilled water and shake until all the
solid dissolves. Label the solution as solution F.
Add about half of the solid sodium hydrogen carbonate provided to 2 cm3 of solution F.
Observations Inferences

( ½ mark) ( ½ mark)

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b) (i) Add about 10 cm3 of dilute hydrochloric acid, solution L, to the rest of solution F in the boiling
tube. Filter the mixture. Wash the residue with about 2 cm3 of distilled water. Dry the residue
between filter papers. Place about one third of the dry residue on a metallic spatula and burn it in
a Bunsen burner flame.

Observations Inferences

(l mark) (l mark)

(ii) Place all the remaining residue into a boiling tube. Add about 10 cm3 of distilled water and
shake thoroughly. Retain the mixture for tests in (c).
Observations Inferences

(l mark) (l mark)

c) Divide the mixture into two portions:

(i) To the first portion, add the rest of the solid sodium hydrogen carbonate.
Observations Inferences

(½ mark) ( ½ mark)

ii) To the second portion, add two drops of bromine water.

Observations Inferences

(1 mark) (1 mark)

THIS IS THE LAST PRINTED PAGE

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KCSE 2023 SMARTGRADE MOCK
Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.
SERIES 1
232/1 PHYSICS Paper 1
(Theory)
Time: 2 Hours

NAME…………………………………………………………………………………………

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN…………………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.

INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATE:
(a) Write your name and index number in the spaces provided above.
(b) Sign and write the date of examination in the spaces provided above.
(c) This paper consists of two Sections A and B.
(e) Answer all the questions in sections A and B in the spaces provided.
(f) All working must be clearly shown in the spaces provided.
(g) Mathematical tables and electronic calculators may be used.

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY:

Section Question Maximum Score Candidate’s Score
A 1 – 12 25
13 08
B 14 10
15 09
16 07
17 12
18 09
Total Score 80
SECTION A: (25 MARKS)
1. A ball bearing is held between the anvil and spindle of a micrometer screw gauge as shown in the
Figure 1 below.

0 35
Figure 1
30

Ball bearing

What is the diameter of the ball bearing? (1 mark)

2. State two properties of a liquid that is suitable for use in a thermometer. (2marks)
......................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................

3. A column of air 15cm is trapped by mercury thread of 10cm as shown below. Calculate the length
of the trapped air when the tube is laid horizontally given that atmospheric pressure is 76cmHg.
(3 Marks)

10cm

15cm
L 10cm

......................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................

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4. Why are gases more compressible while liquids and solids are almost incompressible? (1mark)
......................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................

5. The graph shows variation of extension and stretching force F for a spring which obeys Hooke’s
law.

Extension e (cm)
12

0
0 4 8 12 16 20 24
Force F (N)
(i) Determine the spring constant in SI units. (1mark)
......................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................

(ii) The energy stored when the extension is 20cm. (2marks)

6. The figure 2 below shows a rod made of wood on one end and metal on the other end suspended
freely with a piece of thread so that it is in equilibrium.
The side made of metal is now heated with a Bunsen flame. State with a reason, the side to which
the rod is likely to tilt. (2 marks)
......................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................

7. State one factor that would increase the surface tension of pure water in a beaker of water. (1 mk)
......................................................................................................................

8. The figure below (figure 3) shows a uniform metal rod balanced at its Centre by different forces.

Figure 3

Determine the value of T. (3 marks)

9. Two rods of copper A and B of the same length but different thickness with
candle wax attached to either end are heated as shown below.

A Heat
B

Wax Wax

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State and explain the observation made. (2 marks)
......................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................

10. Figure 4 shows a manometer attached to a gas supply. If the atmospheric pressure is 1.0336
x 105Pa. Calculate the pressure of the gas supply.
(Density of mercury = 13600kg/m3) (2 marks)

11. A block of wood measuring 0.8m by 0.5m by 2m floats in water. 1.2m of the block is
submerged. (Density of water = 1000kg/m3 , g=10N/kg) Determine the weight of the water
displaced. (3 marks)
......................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................

12. The figure 5 below shows two light sheets of paper arranged as shown.

Fig. 5
Its observed that the papers move away from each other when strong air is blown at the same time
behind paper Q and in front of paper R as shown. Explain (2 marks)
......................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................

SECTION B (55 MARKS)

13. A block and tackle is made up of three pulley wheels on top and two pulley wheels at the
bottom in figure 6

(a) Complete the diagram by drawing the chain which passes over the wheels and indicate
where the effort is applied (2 marks)
(b) What is the velocity ratio (V.R) of the machine (1 mark)
......................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................

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(c) A load of 1120N is lifted by an effort of 250N
Determine
(i) The mechanical advantage (M.A) of the system (2 mark)
......................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................
(ii) The efficiency, E, of the system (2 marks)
......................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................

(e) Using the axes given below, sketch a graph of efficiency, E, against load (1 mark)

14. (a) What is meant by the term specific latent heat of fusion of a substance? (1 mark)
......................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................
(b) Water of mass 200g at a temperature of 60oC is put in a well lagged copper calorimeter of
mass 80g. A piece of ice at 0oC and mass 20g is placed in the calorimeter and the mixture stirred
gently until all the ice melts. The final temperature of the mixture is then measured (Latent heat
of fusion of ice = 334000Jkg-1, specific heat capacity of water = 4200Jkg-1K-1)
Determine:
(i) The heat absorbed by the melting ice at 0oC (2 marks)
......................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................
(ii) The heat absorbed by the melted ice (water) to rise to temperature T (2 marks)
......................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................

(iii) The heat lost by the warm water and the calorimeter (Specific heat capacity of the
calorimeter = 900Jkg-1K-1) (3 marks)
......................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................

(iv) The final temperature T of the mixture (2 marks)

15. A lead shot of mass 40g is tied to a string of length 70cm. It is swung vertically at 5
revolutions per second. (Take g=10m/s2)
(a) Determine;
(i) Periodic time, (1 mark)
......................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................

(ii) Angular velocity (2 marks)

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(iii) Linear velocity (2 marks)
......................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................

(iv) Maximum tension in the string. (2 marks)

(b) The figure 7 below shows a container with small holes at the bottom in which wet clothes have
been put. When the container is whirled in air at high speed as shown, it is observed that the
clothes dry faster. Explain how the rotation of the container causes the clothes to dry faster.
(2 marks)

Fig 7

16. (a)Give a reason why the inside of a helmet is lined with sponge. (1 mark)
......................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................
(b) The figure below shows a balloon filled with air.

When the mouth is suddenly opened, the balloon moves in the direction shown above by the
arrow. Explain that observation. (2 marks)
......................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................

(c) A rock of mass 150kg moving at 10m/s collides with a stationary rock of mass100kg. They
fuse after collision. Determine the
(i) Total momentum before collision. (2 marks)
......................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................

(ii)Their common velocity after collision. (2 marks)

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17. (a) On the axis below, sketch a graph to show how the pressure of a fixed mass of a gas
varies with volume at constant temperature. (1 mark)

(b) The set-up below shows an arrangement that can be used to Verify Charles’ law.

(i) State any one use of sulphuric acid index in the above set up. (1 mark)
......................................................................................................................

(ii) What is the use of the stirrer? (1 mark)

......................................................................................................................

(iii) State two measurements that should be taken in this experiment. (2 marks)
......................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................
(iv) Describe how the set up can be used to verify Charles’ law. (4 marks)
......................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................

(c) The volume of a gas enclosed with a movable piston is 300 cm3 when the temperature is
290K. Determine the temperature at which the volume of the gas increases to 355 cm3 (Assume
pressure does not change) (3 marks)
......................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................

18. (a). The section of the tape shown below was produced when a tape running down an incline
plane was attached to a ticker-tape timer of frequency 50Hz.

8cm 56cm

i) Indicate above the tape the direction in which the trolley was moving. (1 mark)

ii) What type of current was used to operate the ticker timer? (1 mark)
......................................................................................................................

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iii) Find the acceleration of the trolley in SI units. (3 marks)
......................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................

(b). A stone is projected vertically upwards with initial velocity of 40m/s from the ground.
Calculate:
i) Time taken to reach maximum height (2 marks)
......................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................
......................................................................................................................

ii) Maximum height reached (2 marks)

THIS IS THE LAST PRINTED PAGE. BEST OF LUCK.

KCSE 2023 SMARTGRADE MOCK
Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.
SERIES 1
232/2 PHYSICS Paper 2
(Theory)
Time: 2 Hours

NAME…………………………………………………………………………………………

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN…………………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
1) Write your name and your admission number in the spaces provided above.
2) Write the date and your signature.
3) This paper consists of two sections; A and B
4) Answer all questions in section A and B in the spaces provided.
5) All working must be clearly shown in the spaces provided in this booklet.
6) Non programmable silent electronic calculators may be used.

FOR EXAMINERS USE

SECTION QUESTIONS MAX SCORE SCORE

A 1 – 12 25
B 13 13
14 15
15 15
16 12
TOTAL 80

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SECTION A (25 MARKS)
1. An object pin is placed in front of a plane mirror. The image of the pin is viewed from position A.
Draw array diagram to show this image. (2 marks)

Figure 1

2. You are provided with two rods, a conductor and an insulator. Describe how you would use a
charged gold-leaf electroscope to distinguish between the insulator and a conductor. (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

3. A pin-hole camera of length 10 cm is placed 0.5 m away from a goalpost. A sharp image of the
goalpost 15 cm high is formed on the screen. Determine the height of the goalpost. (2 marks)
4. The figure 2 below shows a displacement- time graph of a particular progressive wave.

0.4
Displacement(m)
0
0.2 0.4 0.6 0.8
Time (s)
- 0.4

Figure 2

Draw on the same diagram, a wave which passes through the points with double frequency and half
amplitude of the first wave. (2 marks)

5. Explain how temperature affects the speed of sound is gases (1 mark)

6. A polythene charged strip is brought near two spheres A and B that are in contact as shown in
figure 3

A B A B

Figure 3(a) Insulating handle Figure 3(b)

(i) indicate the charge distribution the spheres when negatively charged polythene is brought near A.
(1 mark)

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(ii) draw the charge distribution on A and B shown in (b) when the spheres are separated and
immediately polythene withdrawn. (2 marks)

7. Three identical lamps X, Y, Z are connected as in figure 4. The E.m.f applied in the circuit 3.0
volts

x
switch
Z
y

Figure 4.

(i) State which lamp is brightest when circuit is closed? (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) Explain your answer in part (i) above. (2mrks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

8. Figure 5 shows an iron rod on which a wire is to be wound to make an electromagnet.

A B

Figure 5
By drawing, show how two cells are connected so that end A becomes North pole and end B south
pole. (2marks)

9. The force on a conductor carrying current in a magnetic field can be varied by changing, among
others, the magnitude of the current and magnetic field strength. State two other factors that can
be changed to vary the force. (2marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

10. Using domain theory explain the differences between a magnetic material and a magnet(2marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

11. Figure 6 shows water waves traveling from deep into shallow water.

Deep water shallow water

Figure 6
Complete the wave front to show how it travels in shallow water (1 mark)

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12. Figure 7. Shows two rays incident on a converging lens

f f

Figure 7.
(i) Draw the ray after refraction to show positions of the image. (2marks/)

(ii) State the application of this arrangement in (i) above (1 mk).

SECTION B(55 MARKS)

13. (a) Define refractive index of a material in terms of velocity of light. (1mark/)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) state the conditions necessary for a total internal refraction to occur (2marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(c)Figure 8 shows light ray traveling from air to glass and from glass to air. Ray of Light AO is
incident normally on the semicircular glass,

400
o

300

A
Figure 8
(i) Determine the refractive index of glass with respect to air. (3 marks)

(ii) In addition to the circular glass, you are provided with; a ray box (source of light ray),
four office pins, soft board, white paper and a protractor, describe how this apparatus may be used
to determine the critical angle of the glass. (4marks)

(iii) Determine the critical angle of this semicircular glass. (3 marks)

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14.(a)you are provided with three resistors 1 Ω, 3 Ω and 6 Ω.
(i) Draw a circuit diagram to show 6Ω and 3Ω resistors in parallel and this combination in series with
2Ω resistor and the 6 V battery. (2marks).

(ii) Determine the total effective resistance in the circuit drawn in (i) above (2 marks)

(iii) Calculate the p.d across a 2 Ω resistor (2 marks)

(iv) Determine the value of current through the 6 Ω resistor (3marks)

(b) Figure 9, shows a graph of potential difference (V) against current (I A) through a filament
lamp (bulb)

p.d(volt)

Figure 9. Current (A)

(i) Draw a well labeled working circuit diagram showing the apparatus that can be used to obtain a
set of readings used to draw the graph in (figure9). (2marks)

(ii) explain why the filament lamp does not obey ohm’s law (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(iii) Explain how resistance of the filament lamp varies as current increases. (1 mark).
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(iv) State the characteristics of material wire used in the filament lamp. (1 mark).
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

15. (a)define capacitance of a capacitor. (1 mark)

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(b) (i) Describe the essential features in the construction of a parallel plate capacitor. (3 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(iii) Explain how charge is distributed in such parallel capacitor in b(i) above. (2marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(c) In an experiment to charge a capacitor, the charge stored was measured for different values
of charging potential difference. A graph of charge stored Q (µc) (y-axis) against potential
difference p.d (v) was plotted as shown graph 1.

0
0 2 4 6 8 10 12 p.d(v)

0
(i) list down the apparatus used to perform this experiment (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(ii) draw a circuit diagram showing all connections of the listed apparatus in (i) above to perform
the experiment of charging a capacitor. (2 marks)

From the graph

(ii) determine the capacitance of the capacitor used in this experiment. (3 marks)

(iii)Calculate the energy stored in this capacitor. (2 marks)

(d) Three capacitors are connected a shown in figure 10.

3.0 uf

5.0 uf 4.0 uf

Figure 10

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Calculate:
(i) total effective capacitance in the circuit. (2 marks)

(ii) The charge on a 4.0 µF capacitor. (2 marks)

16. (a) Complete figure 11 by drawing two rays to show the final image formed by convex lens of
the object O, shown (2 marks)

f o f

Figure 11

(b) Describe the characteristics of the image formed in 16 (a) above (3 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(c) State the optical device that uses the arrangement in (a) above. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(d) A person viewing a near object switches attention to look at an aero-plane far away.
(i) State the change that occurs in his eye in order to see the aero-plane clearly. (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(ii) If this person fails to see the aero-plane clearly, what defect is he suffering from? (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(iii) Explain with a diagram how the defect can be corrected. (3 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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KCSE 2023 SMARTGRADE MOCK
Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.
SERIES 1
232/3 PHYSICS Paper 3
(Practical)
Time: 2½ Hours

NAME…………………………………………………………………………………………

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN…………………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.

INSTRUCTIONS
a) Answer all the questions in this paper
b) You are supposed to spend the first 15 minutes of the 2 1/4hours allowed for this paper reading
the whole paper carefully before starting your work.
c) Marks are given for clear record of the observations made, their suitability and accuracy and
the use made of them.
d) Candidates are advised to record observations as soon as they are made
e) Mathematical table and electronic calculators may be used.

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY

QUESTION TOTAL MARKS CANDIDATE’S SCORE
A 12
B 21
C 7
GRAND TOTAL 40
Answer all the questions
QUESTION 1
You are provided with the following:
- Lump of plasticine
- 50g mass
- Stand, boss and clamp
- 3 pieces of threads
- Meter rule
- Measuring cylinder
- Some water in a beaker

(a ) Put 50ml of water in a measuring cylinder.

Mould the plasticine into a shape that can fit into the measuring cylinder without touching it’s walls
and tie it with the thread and completely immerse it in water in the measuring cylinder to determine it’s
volume, V.
V=……………………cm3 (1mark)

V=……………………m3 (1mark)
(b) Given that upthrust, U experience by the plasticine in water is U=vρg
Where: v – volume of the 20g mass
ρ- density of water (1g/cm3)
g – acceleration due to gravity
Determine upthrust U on the of plasticine (3 marks
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(c) Tie the meter rule with the thread at the center (50cm mark) and suspend it on the stand as
shown on the figure below.
(d) Tie 50g mass with the thread and suspend it on the meter rule at a distance d 1 = 10cm from
the center as shown on the figure.
e) Suspend the plasticine on the meter rule and then adjust distance d2 of the plasticine such that the
system balances horizontally as shown in the set up below.

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Clamp
Meter rule

Stand

Loop
Plasticine

Loop
50g

(f) Using the principle of moment determine the weight, W of the plasticine when the system is
balancing horizontally. (3 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(g) Immerse the suspended plasticine in the water in the measuring cylinder and adjust distance d3
of the plasticine such that the system balances horizontally as shown below
Clamp
Meter rule

Stand
d3 Measuring cylinder
d1

Plasticine

Loops
50g Water
(h) Record the value of d3 (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
d3
i) Given R  determine the value of R (3marks)
d3  d2

QUESTION 2
You are provided with the following:
- Two dry cells and a cell holder
- One voltmeter (0 – 5V)
- One ammeter (0 – 1A) or (0 – 2.5A)
- Six resistors labeled AB
- One resistor labeled R
- A switch
- 6 connecting wires with crocodile clip at one end
- Jockey attached to a connecting wire

(a)Set up the circuit as shown in figure 1

V Figure 1

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(i) Close the switch S, Read and record the voltmeter and ammeter readings

V= (1mark)

I= (1mark)

V
(ii) Determine the value of R given that R  (3marks)
I
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) Set the circuit as shown in figure 2

Jockey

1 2 3 4 5 6
A B

Figure 2

(i) With the jockey across resistor 1 as shown above, close the switch, read and record the
ammeter and voltmeter readings in table.
(ii) Repeat the procedure b (i) with crocodile clips across resistors 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 respectively,
each time recording the corresponding values for V and I in table 1
Table 1
Number of resistors 1 2 3 4 5 6
p.d. (volts)
Current I (Amperes)
(6 marks)

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(d) Determine the slope of the graph (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(e) Given that E  V  Ir use your graph and this equation to determine the value of: (3 marks)
(i) E
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(ii) r
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

QUESTION 3
You are provided with the following:
 A semi-circular glass block
 Soft board
 White paper
 Four Optical pins
 Two Thumb pins
 Vernier calipers
Procedure
a) Measure the thickness of the glass block using the Vernier calipers provided

t = …………cm (1mark)
b) Fix the plain paper to the soft board using drawing/thumb pins
c) Place the semi-circular glass block on the paper and trace its outline. Remove the block and label
A and B as shown in figure above.
d) Identify the centre O of the plane and draw the normal at that point as shown in the figure above.
e) Measure incident angle i as 480 then draw the incident ray
d) Place two pins P1 and P2 on the incident ray as shown.
e) Move your eyes at curved face and locate the images of pins P1 and P2, place pins P3 and P4 such
that the four pins are aligned in a straight line.
f) Remove the glass block and join points P3 and P4 to meet the interface AB.
g) Measure the angle Y between incident ray and the reflected ray.
Y= ……………. (1 mark)

h) Find the value of M given that (3marks)

tY −1
M= ( )
2

i) Hand in the white paper used (2marks)

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KCSE 2023 SMARTGRADE MOCK
Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.
SERIES 1
443/1 AGRICULTURE Paper 1
Time: 2 Hours

NAME…………………………………………………………………………………………

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN…………………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
 Write your name, index number, admission number and class in the spaces provided.
 Sign and write the date in the spaces provided above.
 Answer all the questions in section A and B.
 Answer any two questions in section C.
 Answers should be written in the spaces provided.

FOR EXAMINERS USE ONLY

SECTIONS QUESTIONS MAXIMUM CANDIDATES
SCORE SCORE
A 1-20 30
B 21-24 20
C 20
20
TOTAL 90
SECTION A: (30 marks)
Answer all questions in this section in the spaces provided.
1. List two disadvantages of small scale farming. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

2. Name two ways by which predators affect agricultural production. (1 mark)

3. Name the role of each of the following chemicals in water treatment.

i) Alum (½ mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

ii) Soda ash (½ mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

4. State two ways in which crop rotation controls weeds. (1 mark)

5. State four characteristics of a good vegetable seedling. (2 marks)

6. Name two forms of horticulture practised in Kenya. (1 mark)

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7. State two mechanical methods of separating soil particles, according to size, during soil analysis.
(1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

8. State four reasons why a nursery is important in crop production. (2 marks)

9. Name the part used for vegetative propagation of each of the following plants. (2 marks)
a) Cassava …………………………………………………………………………………………...

b) Sisal ………………………………………………………………………………………….........

c) Pyrethrum ………………………………………………………………………………………...

d) Sweet potatoes ……………………………………………………………………………………..

10. State four reasons for applying phosphatic fertilizers during planting. (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

11. Give two reasons for testing soil. (2 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
12. State four management practices undertaken to improve natural pastures. (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

13. State four qualities of certified seeds. (2 marks)

14. Name four classes of weeds. (2 marks)

15. State three causes of land fragmentation in Kenya today. (1½ marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

16. State any three organic farming practices. (1½ marks)

17. What is meant by the term production function? (1 mark)

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18. What is meant by the term integrated pest management? (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

19. Give three examples of fixed costs in maize production. (11/2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

20. State three factors that determine the choice of water pipes used on the farm. (11/2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

SECTION B (20 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section in the spaces provided.
21. The diagram below shows a section of plant from which the planting material illustrated was
obtained.

a) Identify the planting material illustrated. (1 mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
b) Give two reasons why only the middle part of the plant was used to prepare the planting material.
(1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

c) Apart from using the middle part of the plant, explain three precautions that should be observed
when preparing the illustrated planting material. (3 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

22. The diagram below illustrates seed potato which has been prepared for planting. Study it
carefully and answers the questions that follow.

i) Name the practice that has been used to prepare the seed potato above for planting. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii) Describe the procedure followed in preparing seed potatoes for planting. (4 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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23. The diagram below illustrates a newly constructed cut-off drain. Study it carefully and answer
the questions that follow.

i) Identify the parts of cut off drains labeled A and B. (2 marks)

A ……………………………………………………………………………………………………
B ……………………………………………………………………………………………………..

ii) How can the part of the structure labeled B be stabilized after it has been constructed? (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

iii) State any one factor that would determine the width and depth of the cut-off drain. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

24. The diagrams below show a set up of an experiment to study an aspect of soil. The set up was
left undisturbed for five hours. Study it and answer the questions that follow.

a) What was the aim of the experiment? (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
b) State one observation that was made in each of the flasks labelled C and D. (2 marks)
C ……………………………………………………………………………………………………..
D ……………………………………………………………………………………………………..

c) Give a reason for each of your answers in (b) above. (2 marks)

C ……………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
D ……………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

SECTION C (40MARKS)
Answer any two questions from this section in the spaces provided after question 27.
25 a) Explain seven factors that should be considered when selecting seeds for planting. (7 marks)
b) State four benefits of adequate and reliable rainfall in vegetable crop production. (4 marks)
c) Explain four factors that determine the nutrient content of hay. (4 marks)
d) State five reasons for keeping farm records. (5 marks)

26a) State the importance of any five nursery management practices. (5 marks)
b) Explain seven cultural methods of soil and water conservation. (7 marks)
c) Describe the role of magnesium in crop production. (4 marks)
d) Describe four practices that a farmer should carry out to ensure uniform germination of seeds.
(4 marks)
27 a) Explain five factors that determine the spacing of crops. (5 marks)
b) Explain five factors that may encourage soil erosion. (5 marks)
c) Describe five management practices that should be carried out on a vegetable nursery after
sowing seeds until the seedlings are ready for transplanting. (5 marks)
d) State five soil factors that should be considered when selecting a crop to grow in an area.
(5 marks)

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KCSE 2023 SMARTGRADE MOCK
Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.
SERIES 1
443/2 AGRICULTURE Paper 2
Time: 2 Hours

NAME…………………………………………………………………………………………

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN…………………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.

INSTRUCTION TO CANDIDATES
 Write your name and index number in the spaces provided above.
 Sign and write the date of Examination in the space provided.
 This paper consists of three sections A, B and C.
 Answer ALL the questions in section A and B.
 Answer TWO questions in section C in the spaces provided.

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY.

SECTION QUESTIONS MAXIMUM SCORE CANDIDATES SCORE
A 1 – 15 30
B 16 – 19 20
C 20– 22 20
20
TOTAL
SCORE 90
SECTION A (30MKS|)
Answer all questions in this section on spaces provided.
1. State four non-chemical method used to control ticks (2marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

2. Highlight two management practices carried out on a broody hen (2marks)

3. Give four characteristics of a good fish pond (2marks)

4. Mention four physical characteristics of exotic beef cattle breeds (2marks)

5. Give four features of calf pen that help to control calf diseases (2marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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6. a) What is dry cow therapy (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
b) At what stage of gestation is dry cow therapy practiced (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

7. Name four farm structures used for handling livestock (2marks)

8. Give four symptoms of respiratory disorders in a sick cow (2marks)

9. Mention two characteristics of abdomen of a poor layers (2marks)

10. Distinguish between mothering ability and prolificacy (2marks)

11. List two factors that can lead to conception failure after female cow has been served
(2marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
12. Give four factors that may lead to a farmer culling dairy cattle (2marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

13. State four reasons for doing Agriculture as a discipline (2marks)

14. Name four tools that are used when laying concrete blocks during construction of a wall
(2marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

15. State four features on the animal which may pre-dispose it to livestock diseases (2marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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SECTION B (20 MARKS)
Answer ALL questions in this section in the spaces provided
16.The following is a diagram of an artificial incubator. Study it and answer questions that follow.

(a) Identify the following parts shown by letters A and B. (2marks)

A …………………………………………………………………….
B …………………………………………………………………….
(b) State three conditions that are necessary for a successful hatching. (3marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

17.Study the following farm implement and answer the questions below.
(a) Identify the above implement. (½mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) Identify the parts shown by letters C, D, E. (1½marks)
C ……………………………………………………..
D ……………………………………………………..
E ……………………………………………………..
(c) Give three reasons that make the implement better in land preparation. (3marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

18.Study the following diagram and answer questions below.

(a) Identify the above disease. (1mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) What causes the above disease? (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(c) Give two predisposing factors of the disease. (2marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(d) Give one control measure of the disease. (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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19.The illustration below shows a farm practice used in controlling external parasites in livestock.
Study it and answer the questions that follows.

(a) Identify the methods of parasite control in the illustration above (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) Name the equipment used for the practice in the illustration (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(c) State two factors that leads to maximum effectiveness when using the practice above in tick
control (2marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(d) Name any other equipment that is used for the same practice (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

SECTION C (40 MARKS)

Answer any two questions from this section.
20.(a) Explain eight practices you can carry out in a crush. (8 marks)
(b) Describe six advantages of rotational grazing. (6 marks)
(c) Describe six effects of parasites on livestock. (6 marks)
21 (a) Describe eight short term services that should be done to a farm tractor. (8 marks)
(b) Explain five reasons for maintaining farm tools and equipment. (5marks)
(c) State eight causes of long calving intervals. (7marks)
22.(a) Describe ten uses of fences on a farm. (10 marks)
(b) Explain five factors a farmer should consider in the construction of farm structures.
(10 marks)
KCSE 2023 SMARTGRADE MOCK
Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.
SERIES 1
565/1 BUSINESS SSTUDIES Paper 1
Time: 2 Hours

NAME…………………………………………………………………………………………

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN…………………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
(a) Write your name, admission number and class in the spaces provided above.
(b) This paper consist of 25 questions
(c) Answer all the questions in the spaces provided

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY

Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Marks

Questions 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25
Marks

TOTAL MARKS

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Answer all the questions in the spaces provided
1. List four types of utility. (4 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

2. Identify four items that is included in a business plan. (4 marks)

3. Highlight four features of oligopoly market structure. (4 marks)

4. State four advantages of audio-visual communication (4 marks)

5. The following are description of errors. Identify the type of error that matches the description given
in the table below. (4 marks)
Description Type of error
a) Occurs where a transaction is not recorded at all in
the books of accounts.
b) Occurs where errors is both the debit and credit
balance are of equal amounts.
c) Occurs when entries are made in the wrong class of
accounts.
d) Occurs where both the debit and credit entries are
made using similar but erroneous figures.

6. Highlight four assumptions of a two-sector economy (4 marks)

7. List four polices under marine insurance. (4 marks)

8. Give the right document that relates to the following statements. (4 marks)
Statement Document
a) Corrects an undercharge
b) Shows total amount expected from a number of
transactions in a given period.
c) It’s a booklet containing brief description of
goods.
d) Demands payment for goods sold on credit.

9. Highlight four measures that have been enacted by the government to protect consumers.(4 mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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10. Mention four characteristics of assets in an organization. (4 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

11. State four types of demands described in each of the following: (4 marks)
Description Type of Demand
a) A farmer needs to produce milk but must first of all breed
cows.
b) A farmer producing cotton for him to get clothes, pillows
and blankets
c) Buying a car leading to purchase of petrol
d) Consumer purchasing tea instead of coffee to satisfy his
needs

12. Highlight four ways through which a country can increase the volume of exports (4 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

13. State ways in which commercial banks facilitates payment on behalf of their customers.(4 mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
14. The following transactions took place during the month of March 2021 in the business of Ali
Traders.2021 March 5 Hodari traders returned goods amounting to sh. 1500. They were issued
credit note No. 204. On 15th, Otano returned part of the goods sold to him amounting to 1000. He
was issued with credit note No. 205. On 20th Milo a customer returned wrong sized goods which
had been sold to her earlier on, worth sh. 500. She was issued with the credit note No. 206
Required; prepare a relevant journal. (4 marks)

15. Outline four benefits that a country would get by encouraging businessmen to locate new
industries in rural areas. (4 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

16. Outline four elements that comprise the internal environment of a business. (4 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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17. Name four documents required for the registration of a limited liability company. (4 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

18. Outline four structural changes that may take place when a country is experiencing economic
development. (4 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

19. State Four differences between liners and tramps (4 marks)

LINERS TRAMPS

20. Mention four expenses incurred by intermediaries in the channel of distribution. (4 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

21. Highlight four requirements that are needed for a smooth functioning of a warehouse. (4 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
22. State four measures which are used to control inflation under monetary policy. (4 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

23. Outline four merits of replacing manual systems with automated ones in carrying out office
activities. (4 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

24. State four causes of seasonal unemployment in Kenya. (4 marks)

25. State the effects of the following transactions in the balance sheet by writing INCREASE or
DECREASE or NO EFFECT in each case. 4 marks)
Transactions Effect
a) Bought machinery on credit _________________________
b) Withdraw cash from the businesses for personal use __________________________
c) Purchased stock in cash __________________________
Paid outstanding loan by cheque __________________________

THIS IS THE LAST PRINTED PAGE

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KCSE 2023 SMARTGRADE MOCK
Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.
SERIES 1
565/2 BUSINESS SSTUDIES Paper 2
Time: 2½ Hours

NAME…………………………………………………………………………………………

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN…………………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.

Instruction to candidates
a) Write your name and stream in the space provided above.
b) This paper consists of six questions
c) Answer any five questions of your choice in the spaces provided.
d) All questions carry equal marks
e) Students should answer the questions in English only.

For examiner’s use only

Question Maximum Score Candidate’s Score

1 20
2 20
3 20
4 20
5 20
6 20
Total
Answer any five questions
1 (a). Explain five reasons why many people would prefer to start a partnership business.(10mrks)
(b). Explain five disadvantages of departmental stores. (10marks)

2 (a). Explain five problems encountered at plan implementation stage. (10marks)

(b). Explain five advantages of government involvement in business. (10marks)

3 (a). Explain five characteristics of land as factor of production. (10marks)

(b). Explain five factors that may lead to a country to experience unfavorable terms of trade.
(10marks)
4 (a). Give five differences between open office layout and enclosed office. (10marks)
(b). On 1 Jan 2020 Mulei traders had 180,000 cash in hand and a bank credit balance of sh. 57,500.
During the month the following transactions took place.
3rd cash sales sh.21, 800.
4th a debtor settled his account of sh.90, 000 by cheque.
10th paid salaries sh. 40,000 in cash.
12th took cash sh. 3,500 to settled a personal debt.
23rd received a cheque of sh.8, 460 from Nganda wholesalers after deducting 6% cash discount.
24th deposited sh. 10,000 in the bank from the office.
25th purchased stock worth sh. 8,950 on credit from Ngumo distributors.
26th cash sales banked directly sh. 38,000
29th settled creditors account sh. 6,000 by cheque less 3% cash discount.
31st banked all cash except sh. 40,000

Required: prepare Mulei traders 3 column cash book as at 31 Jan 2020 (10marks)

5 (a). Explain five disadvantages of newspapers advertising. (10marks)

(b). Explain five factors that influences the level of national income in a country. (10marks)

6 (a). Explain four benefits of intermediaries in the distribution channel (8marks)

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(b). The information below relate to the trial balance of Songo traders as at 30 June 2022.
Songo traders
Trial balance as at 30 June 2022
Particulars Dr shs. Cr shs.
Stock on 30/6/2021 4,00
Capital 13,870
Purchases and sales 3,500 7,000
Drawings 6,00
Furniture and fittings 2,000
Motor vehicle 15,000
Debtors and creditors 8,00 1,200
Returns 150 2,00
Discounts 90 80
Rent 1,00
Insurance 210
Bank 300
TOTAL 22,750 22,750

Additional information
Closing stock was valued at 500
Required:
(i). Prepare Songo trading, profit and loss account for the year ended 30/6/2022.
(ii). Balance sheet as at 30/6/2022 (12marks)
KCSE 2023 SMARTGRADE MOCK
Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.
SERIES 1
101/1 ENGLISH Paper 1
(Functional Skills)
Time: 2 Hours

NAME…………………………………………………………………………………………

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN…………………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.

Instructions to candidates
(d) Write your name, admission number and class in the spaces provided above.
(e) This paper has three sections: 1, 2 and 3.
(f) Answer ALL questions in this paper.

For Examiner’s Use Only

Section Maximum Score Candidate’s Score

1 20
2 10
3 30
Total 60

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Q1. FUNCTIONAL WRITING (20 Marks)
Your mother has asked you to write a recipe for your favourite main dish to be shared with
members of your family because you have made great improvements in your academic
performance. Write the recipe in the spaces provided.
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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Q2. CLOZE TEST
Read the passage below and fill in each blank space with the most appropriate word. (10 Mks)
Artificial intelligence describes the work processes of machines that would require intelligence if
(1)……………………………………….performed by humans. The term ‘artificial intelligence’
thus means ‘investigating intelligent problem-solving behaviour and creating (2)
……………………….. computer systems.’ There are two kinds of artificial intelligence: weak
and (3) …………………… artificial intelligence. In general, the economic use of AI can be
separated into several (4)………………………………………including deep learning that is;
machine learning based on a set of algorithms that attempt to model high-level abstractions in data.
( 5)…………………………… human workers, the machines are connected the whole time. If one
machine makes a mistake, all autonomous systems will keep this in mind and will avoid the same
mistake the next time.

In the (6)…………………………..run, thus, intelligent machines will win against every human
expert. Since the 19 th Century, production(7)…………………………have been replacing
employees because of the advancement in technology. They work more
(8)…………………………………………..than human beings and cost less. Creative solutions
like 3D printers and the self-learning (9)………………. of these production robots will replace
human workers. Customer profiling in terms of product offering i.e. credit card or a loan facility,
have been made simple through application of artificial intelligence tools. For students in Finance
and in other fields, this is an area one will (10)………………………….. to pay attention to.

Q3a. Read the oral narrative below and then answer the questions that follow.
An Elegy on the Death of a Mad Dog.
Good people all, of every sort,
Give ear unto my song;
And if you find it wond’rous short,
It cannot hold you long.

In Isling town there was a man,

Of whom the world might say,
That still a godly race he ran,
Whene’er he went to pray.
A kind and gentle heart he had,
To comfort friends and foes;
The naked every day he clad,
When he put on his cloaths.

And in that town a dog was found,

As many dogs there be,
Both mongrel, puppy, whelp, and hound,
And curs of low degree.

i) Describe the rhyme scheme of the poem and explain its effect. (3Marks)
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ii) Identify and illustrate any two sound features used in the poem. (4Marks)
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iii) Describe how you would say the following lines in the poem.
I. Give ear unto my song; (2Marks)
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II.Both mongrel, puppy, whelp, and hound,

And curs of low degree. (2Marks)
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b) Cluster words from this list based on pronunciation of vowel sounds (5Marks)
[Elephant, biscuit, cruise, deodorant, neither, eleven, leopard, guide, guise, neighbor, juice, Jeopardy,
built, electricity, guilt, either] An example has been given for you.
Neither
Either

c) James reports to you that he has received a call informing him that he has been successful in an
interview that he had attended recently. What could have been the possible reasons for his
success during the interview? (4Marks)
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d) Read the telephone conversation below and answer the questions that follow.
Wanjala: Hello! Is that Chaka Limited?
Sheilla: (Picking the phone) those shoes fit well, hello is anyone on this line?
Wanjala: Hello! Is that Chaka Limited?
Sheilla: What do you want?
Wanjala: Please confirm for me whether I called the right place Chaka Limited?
Sheilla: (Shouting) Which other company has a similar phone number as this?
Wanjala: May I then speak to the managing director?
Sheilla: I prefer the red pair of shoes (on phone) What did you say? oh, the Managing
Director can’t talk to you.
Wanjala: May I then leave a message which you can pass to him?
Sheilla: Why can’t you call him in his personal line… (anyway from the receiver) go for
the red ones
Wanjala: (Surprised) hello, excuse me madam, I am Wanjala Nicholus, and I am
requesting to talk to the Managing Director over an important matter
concerning one of your employees.
Sheilla: I told you the Managing Director is not in. (hangs up)
QUESTIONS
i) Explain FOUR things which make Sheila an ineffective communicator. (4Marks)
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ii) Explain FOUR things that one should observe if they are to effectively communicate over the
phone. (4Marks)
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iii) Identify any two responses that are improper in Sheila’s speech and rewrite them properly to
show etiquette. (2Marks)
Improper Response Correct Response

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KCSE 2023 SMARTGRADE MOCK
Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.
SERIES 1
101/2 ENGLISH Paper 2
(Comprehension, Literary Appreciation and Grammar)
Time: 2½ Hours

NAME…………………………………………………………………………………………

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN…………………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES.
1. Write your name, class, Admission number, signature and date in the spaces provided above.
2. Answer ALL questions in this question paper.
3. Write ALL your answers in the spaces provided.
4. Write legibly and neatly preferably in blue ink.

For Examiner’s use only.

Question Maximum Score Student’s Score
1. Unseen Passage 20
2. Extract 25
3. Oral Literature 20
4. Grammar 15

Total 80
COMPREHENSION
Read the passage below and answer the questions that follow
Even though tattoos are sometimes associated with rebellion, they have long standing history among
community. Tahitians, for instances used tattoos as a permanent way of preserving their culture
and to show social ranking. Early Christians, on the other hand, often had the sign of a cross
tattooed on their bodies, particularly their faces and arms, representing a permanent mark of the
believer’s faith.
The word ‘tattoo’ is derived from a Tahitian word tatau that means to mark. Tatau has been suggested
to be the onomatopoeic sound tap, tap made by the tapping of a tattoo instrument as it works on
skin while ‘au’ is associated with the cry of pain a person gives when being tattooed.
The first ever tattoo to be found on a human being was found on a mummified iceman in 3,300BC
with 58 tattoos on his body, which contained lines and dots. This is nothing, however, compared
to Scottish Tom Leopard, recorded as the world’s most tattooed person, with 99.9 percent of his
body covered in leopard, skin design. Guinness world records record that the only part of his body
that remained is the skin between his toes and inside of his ears.
When receiving a tattoo, the skin is pierced between 50 to 3,000 times per minute by a needle in the
tattoo machine. Most tattoo machines consist of four parts: the needle, the tube that holds thje ink,
an electric motor, and a foot pedal that controls the movement; almost similar to how a sewing
machine works.
Sterilization and disposable materials are crucial to tattooing because tattoos are created by thousands
of puncture marks to the skin, each of which could be infected. The autoclave is a safe popular way
to sterilize any tattoo equipment that is not disposable. A combination of heat, steam and pressure
kills all bacterial and organisms to prevent infection.
In the 18th and 19th centuries, tattoos were dangerous to have. European ‘head hunters’ caused a terror
by collecting tattooed Maori heads. As the odd sport became popular, more Maoris were murdered
to meet the demand. In the time, slaves began being tattooed so that their heads could be cut off
and sold. Luckily, however, Christian missionaries in the cook island condemned the practice of
tattooing quoting the Bible “....do not cut your bodies for the dead or put marks on
yourself......”They tried to stamp out the custom going as far as trying to remove tattoos by rubbing
the skin with sandstone in a practice was known as ‘holy stoning’. This was the primitive
forerunner to modern tattoo removal known as dermabrasion, where the skin is ‘sanded’ to remove
layers, dermabrasion has now largely given way to laser surgery as a popular means of tattoo
removal.

While tattoos bring colour to humanity, research has shown that unclean tattooing practices can
transmit diseases such as hepatitis B. Some pigments used in tattoos contain metals that can cause
pain during a Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) test, or even affect the resulting MRI image.
Because of the possible negative effects tattoos pose to humans, those keen on
getting one have to be very careful before they get one. That said, it is important to note that presently,
many tattoo artistes earn a good living out of the art.

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QUESTIONS
a) From paragraph one; state two historical uses of tattoos. (3mks)
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b) According to the writer state the origin of the word tattoo. (1mk)
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c) What is most striking about Tom leopard? (2mks)

d) Explain the meaning of the following words as used in the passage. (4mks)
-Mummified

-Sterilize

-Pigment

-Earn a good living.

e) What was the risk associated with tattooing in the 18th and 19th centuries. (2mks)
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f) State two modern ways of tattoo removal. (2mk)

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g) Many tattoo artists earn a good living out of the art. (Add a question tag) (1mk)
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h) In note form state the negative effects of tattooing. (3mks)

i) What are the benefits of tattooing as suggested in the passage? (2mks)

2. Read the excerpt below and then answer the questions that follow. (25 marks)
Krogstad: Are you aware that is a dangerous confession?
Nora: In what way? You shall have your money soon.
Krogstad: Let me ask you a question: Why did you not send the paper to
your father?
Nora: It was impossible: papa was so ill. If I had asked him for his signature, I should have had to
tell him what the money was to be used for: and when he was so ill himself, I couldn’t tell him
that my husband’s life was in danger – it was impossible.
Krogstad: It would have been better for you if you had given up your trip abroad.
Nora: No, that was impossible. That trip was to save my husband’s life. I couldn’t give that up.
Krogstad: But did it never occur to you that you were committing a fraud on me?
Nora: I couldn’t take that into account: I didn’t trouble myself about you at all. I couldn’t bear
you, because you put so many heartless difficulties in my way, although you knew what a
dangerous condition my husband was in.
Krogstad : Mrs. Helmer, you evidently do not realise clearly what it is that you have been guilty
of. But I can assure you that my one false step, which lost me all my reputation, was nothing
more or nothing worse than what you have done.
Nora: You? Do you ask me to believe that you were brace enough to run a risk to save your
wife’s life?
Krogstad: Foolish or not, it is the law by which you will be judged, if I produce this paper in
court.

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Nora: I don’t believe it. Is a daughter not to be allowed to spare her dying father anxiety and care?
Is a wife not to be allowed to save her husband’s life? I dont know much about law: but I am
certain that there must be laws permitting such things as that. Have you no knowledge of such
laws – you who are a lawyer? You must be very poor Mr Krogstad.
Krogstad: Maybe. But matters of business – such business as you and I have had together – do
you think I don’t understand that? Very well. Do as you please. But let me tell you this – if I
lose my position a second time, you shall lose yours with me. (He bows and goes out through the
hall) Nora (appears buried in thought for a short time, then tosses her head) Nonsense! Trying to
frighten me like that! – I am not so silly as he thinks. (begins to busy herself putting the
children’s things in order) And yet-? No it’s impossible! I did it for love’s sake.

QUESTIONS:
a) Briefly describe the dangerous confession Nora admits to in the onset of the excerpt.(3 marks)
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b) Explain why Nora did not send the paper to her father for signing. (3 marks)
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c) Explain two themes evident in the excerpt above. (4 marks)

d) Contrast Krogstad’s and Nora’s views on the law (2 marks)

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e) How is Krogstad portrayed in the excerpt (2 marks)
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f) The law cares nothing about motives. (Add a question tag) (1 mark)
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g) Krogstad informs Nora that “one false step, lost him all reputation.” Briefly explain how.
(2 marks)
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h) “……….If I lose my position a second time, you shall lose yours with me.” From elsewhere in
the play, show the truth of this statement (2 marks)
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i) What is the general tone in this excerpt? Explain your answer. (3 marks)
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j) Explain the meaning of the following words as used in the excerpt. (2 marks)
(a) defiantly

(ii) false step

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3. Read the poem below and answer the questions that follow
The in mates
Huddled together
Cold biting their bones,
Teeth chattering from the chill,
The air oppressive,
The smell offensive
They sit and they reflect

The room self-contained,

At the corner the ‘gents’ invites
With the nice fragrance of ammonia,
And fresh human dung,
The fresh inmates sit thoughtfully.

Vermin perform a guard of honour,

Saluting him with a bite here,
And a bite there,
‘Welcome to the world, they seem to say.

The steel lock of the door,

The walls insurmountable
And the one torching tortorous bulb
Stare vacantly at him.
Slowly he reflects about the consignment
That gave birth to his confinement
Locked in for conduct refinement
The reason they put him in the prison.

The clock ticks

But too slowly
Five years will be a long time
Doomed in the dungeon
In this hell of a cell
QUESTIONS
a) Who is the persona in the poem? (1mk)
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b) Briefly explain what the poem is about. (2mks)
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c) Identify and illustrate three a aspects of style in the poem. (6mks)

d) Give evidence from the poem which indicates the inmates are suffering. (3mks)
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e) Why is the fresh inmate in prison? (2mks)

f) Identify and explain the mood of the new convict. (2mks)

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g) Explain the meaning of the following lines as used in the poem
i) That gave birth to his confinement. (1mk)

i) The room is self contained. (1mk)

h) What does the steel lock of the door and the insurmountable walls suggest? (2mks)

GRAMMAR
A) Rewrite the following sentences according to the instructions given. (3mks)
i) It is not necessary for my parents to come. (Begin: There is..............................

ii) I am sorry you missed lunch. (Begin: I regret........................................

iii) But for my daughters prompt action, I would be dead by now.(Begin: Had it..........................

b) Change the following sentences into the passive. (3mks)

i) The farmer had planted the beans

ii) The principal gave the education officer the forms

iii) We expect the strike to end soon.

c) Fill in each blank space using the correct form of the words in brackets (3mks)
i) The hen had..................................................................eggs in the bushes near
the house. (lay)
ii) Tell me, ..............................................................a wise person search for
knowledge? (do)
iii) The watchman...............................................the lamps when he heard
commotion behind the office. (light)
d) Change the following sentences from direct speech. (2mks)
i) “You are invited to my birthday on Sunday,”Mwikali told me.

ii) “I will cook supper,” Wangui offered.

e) Fill in the blank spaces with the appropriate form of the word in brackets. (2mks)
i) His....................................................is amazing high. (popular)
ii) The shepherd travelled.....................................................in search of pasture. (east)

f) Rewrite the following sentences replacing the underlined idiomatic expressions. (2mks)
i) His friends made him lose heart on carrying out the project
ii) He was green with envy

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KCSE 2023 SMARTGRADE MOCK
Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.
SERIES 1
101/3 ENGLISH Paper 3
(Creative writing and set text essays)
Time: 2½ Hours

NAME…………………………………………………………………………………………

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN…………………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
(a) Write your name, admission number and class in the spaces provided above.
(b) This paper has three sections: A, B and C.
(c) Answer ONE question from each section.

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY

Section Maximum Score Candidate’s Score
1 20
2 20
3 20
Total 60
Answer three questions only.
QUESTIONS
1. Either (20 marks)
(a) Write a story entitled “Pride comes before a fall”
Or
(b) Write a story beginning with the words:
The whole neighbourhood was full of shouts…

2. Compulsory set book: “Blossoms of the Savannah”. (20 marks)

Mama Milanoi’s submissiveness results in the break up of her family. With clear illustrations
from the novel, Show the truth of this statement.

3. OPTIONAL TEXTS Either: (20 marks)

(a) “Inheritance’’ by David Mulwa.
Drawing illustrations from David Mulwa’s Inheritance, write an essay to show how moral decadence
among leaders affects the society.

Or:

(b) “Artist of the Floating World by Kazuo Ishiguro.

Intergenerational Conflicts are dominant in modern society. Basing your illustrations on An
Artist of The floating world, write an essay to validate this assertion.

Or:

(c) A silent Songs and Other Stories by Godwin Shiundu

In the face of affliction, faith is essential for man's survival. Write an essay to validate this
statement in reference to Leo Tolstoy’s God Sees the Truth, but Waits.

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KCSE 2023 SMARTGRADE MOCK
Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.
SERIES 1
102/1 KISWAHILI Paper 1
Insha
Time: 1¾ Hours

NAME…………………………………………………………………………………………

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN…………………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.

MAAGIZO
a) Andika insha mbili. Insha ya kwanza ni ya lazima.
b) Kisha chagua insha nyingine moja kati ya hizo tatu zilizobakia.
c) Kila insha isipungue maneno 400.
d) Kila insha ni alama 20.
e) Kila insha lazima iandikwe kwa lugha ya Kiswahili.
______________________________________________________
Kwa Matumizi ya Mtahini Pekee
Swali Upeo Alama
1 20
20
Jumla 40
1. Insha ya lazima
Umepata fursa ya kumhoji Waziri wa Ugatuzi nchini kuhusu mikakati ya kukabiliana na umaskini
nchini. Andika mahojiano yenu.

2. Mitandao ya kijamii imeleta hasara nyingi kuliko faida. Jadili.

3. Andika kisa kinachodhihirisha maana ya methali:

Mti mkuu ukigwa, wana wa ndege huyumba.

4. Andika insha itakayomalizikia kwa maneno yafuatayo:

…Nilijitolea mhanga na msaada wangu ukazaa natija kwa wengi.

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KCSE 2023 SMARTGRADE MOCK
Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.
SERIES 1
102/2 KISWAHILI Paper 2
(LUGHA)
Time: 2½ Hours

NAME…………………………………………………………………………………………

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN…………………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.

MAAGIZO
1. Karatasi hii ina maswali manne (Ufahamu, Ufupisho, Lugha na Isimujamii)
2. Jibu maswali yote kwenye nafasi zilizoachwa baada ya kila swali.

KWA MATUMIZI YA MTAHINI PEKEE

Swali Upeo Alama
1 15
2 15
3 40
4 10
JUMLA 80
1. UFAHAMU (ALAMA 15)
Soma kifuatacho kisha ujibu maswali.
Lugha inaweza kuelezwa kwa jumla kuwa ni mfumo wa kueleza chanzo au kiini cha mawasiliano na
sote tunakubaliana kuwa matumizi yake yameanza tangu kuumbwa kwa binadamu kwani ni
vigumu kukisia kuwepo kwa jamii ya watu bila lugha ya mawasiliano yoyote ile.
Katika taifa lolote,huwepo na lugha moja au hata zaidi ya moja ambayo huwa ndicho chombo zatika
cha mawasiliano ya taifa katika nyanja za:elimu, maandishi, siasa na biashara.Kwa mfano mataifa
ya Kanada hutumia lugha mbili kwa usawa kama lugha za taifa na za kikazi. Maana ya lugha ya
taifa ni lugha moja ambayo huteuliwa kutumika katika shughuli zote za taifa hasa katika nchi
yenye lugha nyingi za kikabila. Lugha ya taifa ni muhimu sana kwa maisha na maendeleo ya taifa
lolote lile.Lugha hii huwa ndiyo kiungo cha kueneza umoja na uelewano miongoni mwa jamii
nyingi tofauti na huwa kama kitambulisho kwao kwa kuwa wao ni ndugu wa jamii moja kubwa,
yaani taifa lao.
Kenya ni mfano mzuri wa taifa lenye lugha nyingi zinazozidi 40 za vikundi vidogo vidogo vya
kikabila.Hapo kabla ya miaka mia moja hivi iliyopita kila kimojawapo cha vikundi hivi
kilijitambulisha kama taifa huru.Baada ya kuja kwa serikali ya kikoloni na hasa baada ya Kenya
kujinyakulia uhuru,haja ya kuunganisha raia wote chini ya taifa moja lenye uongozi na shabaha
moja lilikuwa ndilo jambo lililozingatiwa sana.Kwa hivyo utamaduni wa taifa la Kenya ni
mchanganyiko wa tamaduni za watu wengi wenye mila,desturi,imani na itikadi tofauti. Utamaduni
humaanisha jumla ya amali na tabia za watu wa jamii fulani. Amali hizi zinafungamanisha fikira,
ustaarabu, mila, taasisi na sanaa za aina zote za jamii inayohusika. Ili kujieneza na
kujiimarisha,taifa huhitaji chombo hicho kuwasiliana na kuwaunganisha watu wake wenye asili
mbalimbali.Chombo hicho huwa ni lugha ambayo siyo tu kwamba ni sehemu ya utamaduni wa
jamii bali pia ni njia muhimu sana ya kutawanyia na kustawishia ule utamaduni.
Katika taifa lenye lugha nyingi kama Kenya kwa mfano,lugha ya taifa inayozungumzwa na
kueleweka na idadi kubwa ya raia ambayo imekiuka mipaka na tofauti za kikabila ni njia muhimu
sana ya kueneza maongozi ya taifa, bendera ya taifa, ndicho kielelezo cha taifa lolote lile lililo
huru. Lugha kama hiyo huvunja na hukomesha hisia za kibinafsi na kikabila na badala yake kuunda
moyo wa uaminifu wa kitaifa.
Zaidi ya kuwa chombo cha mawasiliano, lugha ni kielelezo cha fikira na hisia za binadamu.Lugha ya
watu fulani haituelezi tu ujuzi au maarifa yao bali pia mtazamo wao kimaisha, falsafa na mawazo
yao. Kwa ufupi lugha hutufahamisha namna akili za watu waizungumzayo ile lugha zinavyofikiri
na kutafanya maazimio.Lugha ni sehemu ya utamaduni wa taifa ilimozaliwa na lazima lugha hiyo
ifunzwe katika muktadha wa maisha ya jamii ihusikayo.Utamaduni wa jamii havitenganiki na
lugha yake.

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MASWALI
(a) Ni nini fasiri ya neno lugha? (alama 2)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) Tofautisha baina ya lugha ya taifa na lugha ya kikazi. (alama 2)

(c) Kwa nini lugha ya taifa huhitajika sana katika nchi kama Kenya? (alama 2)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(d) Taja kazi tatu kuu zinazotekelezwa na lugha ya taifa. (alama 3)

(e) Eleza maana ya msamiati ufuatao kulingana na taarifa. (alama 3)

(i) Haiyamkiniki: …………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) Amali na tabia za watu :………………………………………………............
……………………………………………………………………………..........

(iii) Kielelezo:……..………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………
(iv) Muktadha wa maisha ya jamii: ……………………………………………….
……………………………………………………………..................................
(f) Eleza majukumu mawili ya lugha kwa ujumla. (alama 2)
……………………………………………………………………………...............
……………………………………………………………………………………

2. UFUPISHO: (ALAMA 15)

Soma kifungu kifuatasho kisha ujibu maswali.
Kwa kawaida, binadamu huishi kwa kutangamana na binadamu wenzake. Katika kutangamana huku,
watu huathiriwa kitabia, kifikira, kimavazi na kimaisha kwa jumla. Watu wote katika jamii wana
uwezo wa kuathiri na kuathiriwa na wenzao wa umri mmoja. Hata hivyo, walio katika hatari ya
kuathiriwa zaidi na mahirimu wao ni vijana. Hali hii ya kuathiriana huitwa shinikizo-rika au
shinikizo-marika. Vijana huaminiana na kuthaminiana sana. Kwa sababu hiyo, ni rahisi sana
kuingizwa katika mitego na wenzao. Isiaminiwe kuwa vijana pekee ndio wanaoathiriwa na
shinikizo-rika. La hasha! Watu wazima pia huwafuata wenzao mithili ya bendera kufuata upepo.
Mwenzake akinunua gari, yeye pia hukimbilia mkopo kununua gari la sampuli iyo hiyo bila
kuwazia kima cha kibindo chake.
Wataalamu wa saikolojia husema kuwa kukabiliana na tatizo la shinikizo-rika si rahisi kwa sababu
shinikizo-rika huleta mtafaruku wa kinafsi akilini mwa anayeathiriwa. Nafsi moja humshawishi
kufuata wenzake huku nyingine ikimnasihi kuandamana upekee au ubinafsi wake. Shinikizo-rika
huathiri sana mahitaji ya kisingi ya binadamu. Ikumbukwe kuwa mahitaji haya ya kimsingi ni ya
kila mwanadamu, nayo ni kama vile kupata lishe, hewa safi, kupenda na kupendwa miongoni mwa
mengine. Kila mtu hutaka kujihusisha na kundi la watu ambao watamfanya kuhisi kuthaminiwa
na kukubalika. Kutokana na haja ya kutaka kukubalika, anayetaka kutambuliwa huridhia matakwa
ya wenzake bila hata kuyawazia.
Shinikizo-rika hujittokeza kwa sura nyingi. Mathalani, vijana huwafanya wenzao kuona kuwa wana
hatia wasipoafiki kutekeleza kama wanavyoshinikizwa. Kauli kama vile ‘tulifikiri wewe ni mmoja
wetu’ au ‘usiposhirikiana nasi utakuwa umetuvunja moyo’ hutamalaki. Wanaokataa kushinikizwa
hubezwa na kufanyiwa stihizai na wenzao na hata kutengwa. Vitisho hutolewa, wakati mwingine,
na anayeshinikiswa akidinda, mabavu hutumika.
Ni muhimu kwa watu, hasa vijana, kufahamu kuwa shinikizo-rika lipo na wanapokabiliwa na tatizo
hilo, watambue kuwa wana haki ya kusimama kidete kutetea msimamo wao dhidi ya wenzao.
Kumbuka, baridi huwazizima kondoo kwa namna tofauti.
Kama njia moja ya kukabiliana na shinikizo-rika, wanasaikolojia wanapendekeza watu kujiamini na
kuelewa kwamba wana haki ya kuwa tofauti na kuwa na upekee wao. Mtu anapojiamini na
kushikilia msimamo wake, anaweza kujiepusha na madhara yatokanayo na shinikizo-rika.
Asiyejiamini huwa mwepesi sana wa kuingizwa katika lindi la mashaka na wenzake.

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MASWALI
(a) Bila kupoteza maana, fupisha aya ya kwanza na ya pili kwa maneno (40).
(alama 8, 1 ya utiririko)
Nakala chafu
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
Jibu
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) Fupisha mambo muhimu ambayo mwandishi amezingatia katika aya tatu za mwisho. (man 30)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
Jibu
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
3. MATUMIZI YA LUGHA: (ALAMA 40)
(a) Tofautisha kati ya: (i) / e / (ii) / u / (alama 2)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) Onyesha muundo wa silabi ya kwanza katika maneno yafuatayo: (alama 2)

(i) Nyakua
(ii) Chura
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(c) Tunga sentensi kwa kutumia kibadala cha kiasi jumla. (alama 2)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(d) Changanua sentensi ifuatao kwa kutumia jedwali. (alama 4)

Mkongojo mrefu sana ulioletewa babu utauzwa na fundi mcheshi.

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(e) Andika kinyume cha sentensi ifuatayo:
Mtoto msichana anathema dawa. (alama 2)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(f) Kanusha: (alama 2)

Nikimpiku masomoni nitatuzwa zawadi.
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(g) Andika katika usemi halisi. (alama 3)

Chifu wetu alitwambia kuwa watu wanaopenda kukaa bwerere huishia kuwa wezi
wa mabavu.
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(h) Nyambua vitenzi vifuatavyo katika kauli zilizo mabanoni. (alama 2)

(i) (-la) (kauli tendeshea)
(ii) Toa (tendeka)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(i) Eleza matumizi ya alama zifuatazo za uakifishi. (alama 2)

(i) !
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) ?
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(j) Bainisha mofimu –Li- katika tungo hili. (alama 3)

Alivyolikimbilia
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(k) Tunga sentensi moja yenye shamirisho hizi. (alama 3)

(i) Kipozi
(ii) Kitondo
(iii) Ala
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(l) Ainisha vishazi. (alama 2)

Mhamiaji haramu aliyeshikwa amefikishwa mahakamani.
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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(m) Andika katika wingi karibu. (alama 2)
Mtu yuyo huyo aliubeba mzigo uo huo licha ya kukanywa.
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(n) Andika sentensi ifuatayo katika watati ujao timilifu. (alama 2)

Mbunge alitawazwa kabla ya mpinzani wake kufika.
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(o) Andika kwa wastani. (alama 1)

Magoma haya yatachezwa wanjani.
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(p) Taja na utoe mifano, matumizi mawili ya kiimbo. (alama 4)

(q) Eleza maana mbili za sentensi. (alama 2)

Nenda ukaniletee mbuzi.
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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4. SEHEMU YA D: ISIMU JAMII (ALAMA 10)
(a) Eleza mitazamo mine kuhusu chimbuko la Kiswahili. (alama 4)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) Eleza njia za uundaji wa maneno katika lugha ya Kiswahili. (alama 6)

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KCSE 2023 SMARTGRADE MOCK
Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.
SERIES 1
102/3 KISWAHILI Paper 3
FASIHI
Time: 2½ Hours

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MAAGIZO
a) Andika jina lako, nambari ya usajili, mkondo, sahihi na tarehe katika nafasi ulizoachiwa hapo
juu.
b) Jibu maswali manne pekee.
c) Swali la kwanza ni la lazima.
d) Maswali hayo mengine matatu yachaguliwe kutoka sehemu nne zilizobaki Riwaya, Tamthilia,
Hadithi Fupi na Fasihi Simulizi.
e) Usijibu maswali mawili kutoka sehemu moja.

Kwa matumizi ya mtahini pekee

SWALI UPEO ALAMA
1 20
20
20
20
JUMLA 80
SEHEMU A: USHAIRI.
1. Lazima
Soma shairi lifuatalo kisha ujibu maswali.
Miji yetu kwa yakini, kidogo kama Sodoma!
Haihitaji makini, kwa mwenye macho mazima
Utaona walakini, mradi ukitazama
Wanazini hadharani, wana kwa watu wazima
Yafanana na sodoma, miji yetu kwa yakini

Miji yetu kwa yakini, kidogo kama Sodoma!

Wanazini hadharani, wana kwa watu wazima
Wanatafuna maini, vijana na kina mama,
Hawana haya nyusoni, wameharamisha wema,
Yafanana na Sodoma, miji yetu kwa yakini

Miji yetu kwa yakini, kidogo kama Sodoma!

Hawana haya nyusoni, wameharamisha wema
Baba na binti ndani, wanacheza lelemama
Marijali wa mbioni, kujipagaza umama
Yafanana na Sodoma, miji yetu kwa yakini

Miji yetu kwa yakini, kidogo kama Sodoma!

Marijali wa mbioni, kujipagaza umama
Wameikataa dini, toka tumboni mwa mama
Wadai Wataliani, watajirisha mapema
Yafanana na Sodoma, miji yetu kwa yakini

Miji yetu kwa yakini, kidogo kama Sodoma!

Wadai Wataliani, watajirisha mapema
Hivyo mambo ya kigeni, yametunukiwa dhima
Uwaonapo fuoni, nusu uchi wa mnyama,
Yafanana na Sodoma, miji yetu kwa yakini

Miji yetu kwa yakini, kidogo kama Sodoma!

Uwaonapo fuoni, nusu uchi wa mnyama
Watu hawana Imani, umezidi uhasama,
Na viongozi wa dini, kuabudu darahima
Yafanana na Sodoma, miji yetu kwa yakini

Miji yetu kwa yakini, kidogo kama Sodoma!

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Na viongozi wa dini, kuabudu darahima
Wamekeuka yamini, kati yao na Rahima
Wamemuasi Manani, na kusahau kiyama
Yafanana na Sodoma, miji yetu kwa yakini
Miji yetu kwa yakini, kidogo kama Sodoma!
Wamemuasi manani, na kusahau kiyama,
Ya Illahi tuauni, tuwe watu maamuma
Tukue katika dini, siku zetu za uzima
Yafanana na Sodoma, miji yetu kwa yakini

Maswali
a) Lipe shairi hili kichwa mwafaka. (alama 1)
b) Bainisha bahari ya shairi hili ukijikita katika ruwaza zifuatazo. (alama 3)
i. Idadi ya mishororo
ii. Mpangilio wa maneno
iii. Vina
c) Ni ujumbe upi unaojitokeza katika shairi hili. (alama 5)
d) Bainisha mbinu zifuatazo za kimtindo katika shairi hili. (alama 3)
i. Tashbihi
ii. Taswira
iii. Tasfida
e) Eleza toni ya shairi hili. (alama 2)
f) Bainisha nafsinenewa katika shairi hili. (alama 2)
g) Andika ubeti wa tatu kwa lugha nathari. (alama 4)

SEHEMU B: RIWAYA
A.Matei: Chozi la Heri.
Jibu swali la 2 au la 3
2. “Alikuwa wapi siku kiduka changu ambacho mimi na aila yangu tumekitegemea kwa miaka
kumi kilipoporwa na kugeuzwa majivu?”
a) Eleza muktadha wa dondoo hili. (alama 4)
b) Tathmini umuhimu nne wa msemaji katika kuijenga riwaya hii. (alama 4)
c) Jadili umuhimu wa mandhari katika kujenga riwaya ya Chozi la Heri kwa kurejelea Msitu wa
Mamba. (alama 12)

3. (i) “Nina wazazi wawili, ila hawa ni wazazi tu, hawajadiriki kuwa walezi wangu, wala jina
‘mlezi’ haliwaafiki.”
Onyesha jinsi kauli iliyopigwa mstari inavyowaafiki baadhi ya wazazi katika Jumuiya ya
Wahafidhina ukirejelea riwaya Chozi la Heri. (alama 12)
(ii) “Tumeendelea kuwakweza akina dada huku tukididimiza nguzo ya jamii yetu.”
Kwa hoja nane, onyesha jinsi ambavyo nguzo ya jamii inadidimizwa kwa mujibu wa riwaya Chozi
la Heri. (alama 8)

SEHEMU C: TAMTHILIA
Timothy Arege: Bembea ya Maisha
Jibu swali la 4 au la 5
4. "Ukilazwa tayari unakuwa umeonja seli. Hata wahudumu wenyewe hawana mlahaka
mwema. Amri na vitisho kama askari."

(a) Eleza muktadha wa dondoo hili (alama4)

(b) Ainisha mbinu mbili za kimtindo katika dondo hili (alama2)
(c) Eleza sifa nne za msemaji (alama4)
(d) Dhibitisha kuwa mahali panaporejelewa palikuwa kama seli (alama4)
(e) Jadili maudhui ya utepetevu kama yanavyojitokeza katika tamthilia nzima (alama6)

5.
"Basi usijipandishe presha bure mama! " (alama4)
(a) Eleza muktadha wa dondoo hili
(b) Ainisha mbinu mbili za kimtindo zilizotumika katika dondoo hili (alama2)
(c) Eleza sifa nne za msemewa (alama6)
(d) Jadili maudhui ya utamaduni kama yanavyojitokeza katika tamthilia mzima (alama10)

SEHEMU D: HADITHI FUPI

Alifa Chokocho na Dumu Kayanda (wah): Tumbo Lisiloshiba na Hadithi Nyingine
Jibu swali la 6 au la 7
6. Fafanua dhana ya AJIRA katika hadithi mapambazuko ya machweo alama 20

7. Urumo umekita mzizi katika jumuiya ya Mapambazuko ya Machweo. Jadili (alama 20)

SEHEMU E: FASIHI SIMULIZI

8. Soma utungo ufuatao kisha ujibu maswali yanayofuata.
Ewe Mainga wa Ndumi
Siwe uloambia akina mama
Siku tulopiga foleni
Chakula cha msaada kupata
Turudishe vifaranga kwenye miji
Wageuke vijusi tena

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Njaa isiwaangamize?
Siwe ulopita
Matusi ukitema
Chumvi na sukarikuturushia ja samadi?
Uhitaji wetu ukatutuma
Kuokota vihela uloturushia
Ukatununua,kura ukapata?
Sasa miaka mitano imetimia
Waja tulaghai tena
Mainga wa Ndumi huna lolote safari hii
Ubunge umekudondoka ukitazama

MASWALI
a) Huu ni wimbo wa aina gani? alama 2)
b) Taja shughuli mojamoja ya kijamii na kiuchumi ambazo huendelezwa katika jamii ya utungo
huu. (alama 2 )
c) Wewe ni mwasilishaji wa kipera hiki jukwani, eleza mambo sita ambayo utazingatia katika
uwasilishaji wako. (alama 6)
d) Jadili jinsi jamii ya kisasa inavyojaribu kuendeleza fasihi simulizi. (alama 5)
e) Maandishi ni mojawepo ya vifaa vya kukusanya na kuhifadhi fasihi simulizi. Tathmini udhaifu
wa kutumia kifaa hiki. (alama 5)
KCSE 2023 SMARTGRADE MOCK
Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.
SERIES 1
313/1 Christian Religious Education Paper 1
Time: 2½ Hours

NAME…………………………………………………………………………………………

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN…………………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.

313/1
CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS EDUCATION
PAPER 1
TIME: 2½ HOURS

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
a) Write your name, school and index number in the spaces provided above.
b) Write the date of examination and sign in the spaces provided above.
c) This paper consists of six questions.
d) Answer any five questions in the answer booklet provided.

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY

Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 TOTAL SCORE

Candidates Score

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Answer any five questions
1. a) Identify five poetic books in the Bible. (5 marks)
b) Explain four effects of translating the Bible from original language into African local languages.
(8 marks)
c) Outline seven ways in which Christians in Kenya use the Bible today. (7 marks)

2. a) Describe the call of Abraham in Genesis 12:1-9. (7 marks)

b) Give six reasons why Israelites broke the covenant at Mt. Sinai. (6 marks)
c) What do Christians learn about the nature of God from the Exodus? (7 marks)

3. a) List six judges that ruled in Israel. (6 marks)

b) Outline seven failure of King Saul. (7 marks)
c) Give seven factors that have led to the increase of Christians denominations in Kenya today.
(7 marks)
4. a) Identify six reasons why prophet Amos was against the way the Israelites worshipped God.
(6 marks)
b) Explain the vision of the basket of summer fruits shown to prophet Amos by God. (Amos 8:1-3)
(7 marks)
c) How does the church punish errant members in Kenya today? (7 marks)

5. a) Describe the personal life of prophet Jeremiah. (8 marks)

b) Outline the stages followed in the renewal of the covenant during the time of Nehemiah.
(6 marks)
c) State six lessons Christians learn from prophet Jeremiah’s temple sermon. (6 marks)

6. a) Give six reasons why children are important in traditional African communities. (6 marks)
b) Explain seven factors contributing to harmony and mutual responsibility in African Traditional
communities (7 marks)
c) Identify seven factors that have affected kinship ties in the traditional African communities
today. (7 marks)

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KCSE 2023 SMARTGRADE MOCK
Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.
SERIES 1
313/2 Christian Religious Education Paper 2
Time: 2½ Hours

NAME…………………………………………………………………………………………

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN…………………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.

313/2
CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS EDUCATION
PAPER 2
TIME: 2½ HOURS

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY

Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 TOTAL SCORE

Candidates Score

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Answer any five questions
1 a) Describe the birth of Jesus in Luke 2:3-7. (7marks)
b) Highlight seven ways in which the early life of Jesus prepared Him for His earthly ministry.
(7marks)
c) How do Christians today celebrate the birth of Jesus? (6marks)

2 a) Give six reasons why Jesus performed miracles during His earthly ministry. (6marks)
b) Narrate the healing of Simon’s mother-in-law in Luke 4:38-39. (8marks)
c) Why are miracles rare in Christian churches in Kenya today? (6marks)

3 a) Name the people who were in the squad that arrested Jesus. (6marks)
b) Describe the Trial of Jesus before Herod in Luke 23:8-11. (8marks)
c) Mention six evidences proving that Jesus resurrected from the dead. (6marks)

4) a) Explain four effects of the Day of Pentecost to the disciples in Acts 2. (8marks)
b) Explain six Gifts of the Holy Spirit outlined in 1 Corinthians 12 (6marks)
c) Show how the gift of love is abused by Christians today. (6marks)

5 a) How is wealth acquired in Kenya today? (7marks)

b) Explain four importance of introduction of money economy in the society. (8marks)
c) Show how church leaders misuse their wealth in Kenya today. (5marks)

6 a) Outline four teachings of Jesus on Law. (8marks)

b) Give reasons why punishment is a remedy to social disorder in the society today. (6marks)
c) Identify six areas of church-state co-operation in Kenya today. (7marks)

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KCSE 2023 SMARTGRADE MOCK
Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.
SERIES 1
311/1 History and Government Paper 1
Time: 2½ Hours

NAME…………………………………………………………………………………………

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN…………………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
 This paper consists of three sections A,B and C
 Answer All questions in section A, three questions in section B and two Questions in section C
 Answer to all question must be written in the answer booklet provided
 Candidate should answer the questions in English

FOR EXAMINER USE ONLY

SECTION QUESTION MAX SCORE SCORE
A 1-17 25
B 15
15
15
C 15
15
TOTAL SCORE

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SECTION A (25 Marks)
Answer all questions in this section in the spaces provided at the end of question 24.
1. Give the main method used by anthropologists to gather their historical data. (1 mark)
2. Identify the method used in making Sangoan tools. (1 mark)
3. Give the main role of age –set system among the Agikuyu. (1 mark)
4. Identify one role played by theatre in Kenya. (1 mark)
5. Mention two functions of Portuguese Captains in administering the Kenyan coast. (2 marks)
6. Outline two ways in which a person can qualify to be a Kenyan citizen by birth. (2 marks)
7. Name two social factors that promote national unity in Kenya. (2 marks)
8. List one right of a person under arrest according to the Bill of Rights. (1 mark)
9. Give two factors that determined the type of constitution in Kenya. (2 marks)
10. Identify any two roles of the Commissioner according to the East Africa order in Council of
1897. (2 mks)
11. Identify one reason for the collapse of Gede as an early urban center. (1 mark)
12. Outline two developmental rights of Kenyan child. (2 mrks)
13. State two proposals made by the Lennox Boyd constitution. (2 mrks)
14. Give one commission that was established to look into African Education in colonial Kenya.
(1 mark)
15. Name the political paper that was published by the Kenya African Union (KAU) periodically.
(1 mark)
16. Mention one principle of the concept of natural justice. (1 mark)
17. State two major challenges facing Health sector in Kenya. (2 mrks)

SECTION B: (45 Marks)

Answer any THREE questions from this section in the space provided at the end of question 24.
18. (a)Mention five communities that comprise the highland Nilotes. (5 marks)
(b)Explain five social effects of Bantu migration into Kenya. (10 marks)
19. (a) State five reasons for the conflict between the Busaidi Sultan of Oman and the Mazrui
governors of Mombasa (5 marks)
(b) Explain five factors which led to the decline of the coastal settlements between 1500 and
1700. (10 marks)
20. (a) Name five Kenyan nationalists that were detained alongside Jomo Kenyatta in Kapenguria
in 1952. (5 marks)
(b) Describe five roles of Jaramogi Oginga Odinga in the struggle for independence in Kenya.
(10 marks)

21. (a)Identify five roles of national philosophies in Kenya’s development. (5 marks)

(b)Explain five problems that have undermined the performance of national philosophies in Kenya.
(10 marks)

SECTION C: (30 MARKS)

Answer any TWO questions from this section in the space provided at the end of question 24.
22. (a)State the composition of the National Defence Council in Kenya. (3 marks)
(b)Describe the challenges facing the Kenya Defence Forces. (12 marks)

23. (a)Give three sources of the Kenyan law. (3 marks)

(b)Explain six functions of the civil servants of the National Government of Kenya (12 marks)

24. (a)State three principles of devolution of government in Kenya. (3 marks)

(b)Discuss six functions of a county Governor in Kenya (12 marks)

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KCSE 2023 SMARTGRADE MOCK
Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.
SERIES 1
311/2 History and Government Paper 2
Time: 2½ Hours

NAME…………………………………………………………………………………………

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN…………………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.

FOR EXAMINER USE ONLY

SECTION QUESTION MAX SCORE SCORE
A 1-17 25
B 15
15
15
C 15
15
TOTAL SCORE
SECTION A (25MARKS)
ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS
1. Define the term pre-history (1mk)
2. Give two reasons for studying social history (2mks)
3. Give one custodian of oral tradition as a source of information in history. (1mk)
4. State one theory about the origin of iron working in Africa (1mk)
5. Mention two contribute of Louis Pasteur in the field of medicine. (2mks)
6. List two manmade factors that influenced the development of earl agriculture in Egypt (2mks)
7. Give the main reason for the growth of Kilwa (1mks)
8. Give two European activities in Africa before 1850 (2mks)
9. Give two economic benefits enjoyed by assimilated Africans in Senegal (2mks)
10. Identify one Portuguese colony in Africa (1mk)
11. Outline two shorting coming of Samori Toure's second empire (2mks)
12. What was Schielefen Plan (1mk)
13. Name two Congolese provinces that attempted to secede during crisis (2mks)
14. Identify the military wing of Economics Community of West Africa States (ECOWAS)(1mk)
15. Name two leader from Nigeria who attended the 1945 Manchester pan African conference
(2mks)
16. Give two military Alliance that formed during the Cold War (2mks)
17. Identify the body that elect the president of United States of America (1mk)

SECTION B (45 MARKS)

Answer Any Three Questions from This Section
18. (a) Identify three species of Homo Sapiens (3mks)
b) Describe the culture of early Man during old age period (12mks)

19. a) State three political benefits of modern means of communication (3mks)

(b) Explain six impacts of modern means of transportation (12mks)
20. a) Give three reasons why Odwira festival in the ancient Asante kingdom was important
(3mks)
(b) Describe social organization of the Shona in 19th century (12mks)

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21. a) Identify five challenges which Europe colonialist faced as they established their rule in
Africa (5mks)
b) Explain five reasons for rise of nationalism in Ghana (10mks)

SECTION C (30MARKS)
Answer Any Two Questions from This Section
22. a)State three roles of emirs in Northern Nigeria (3mks)
b) Explain six reasons why in direct rule was unsuccessful in Southern Nigeria. (12mks)

23. (a) Give five causes of first world war (1914_1918) (5mks)
b) Discuss the political effects of Second World War (10mks)

24. (a)State three sources of the British Constitution. (3mks)

(b)Discussion Six functions of British Prime Minister (12mks)
KCSE 2023 SMARTGRADE MOCK
Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.
SERIES 1
312/1 GEOGRAPHY Paper 1
Time: 2¾ Hours

NAME…………………………………………………………………………………………

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN…………………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.

Instructions to candidates
(a) Write your name, admission number and class in the spaces provided above.
(b) This paper has two sections: A and B.
(c) Answer all the questions in section A.
(d) Answer question 6 (compulsory) and any other two questions from section B.

For Examiner’s Use Only

SECTION QUESTIONS MAXIMUM CANDIDATE’S SCORE
SCORE
A 1-5 25
6 25
B 25
25
Total Score 100

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SECTION A (25 Marks)
Answer all the questions in this section in the spaces provided below each question
1. (a) Define the term Geomorphology. (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) Other than being a career subject, state three reasons why it is important for students in
secondary school to study geography. (3 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

2. The diagram below shows an instrument used in measuring one of the weather elements. Study it
and answer the questions that follow.

(a) Identify; (i) the instrument shown above. (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) the weather element measured using the instrument identified in (a) (i). (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) State three importance of the weather element identified in (a) (ii) in the atmosphere. (3 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
3. (a) Name the temperate grassland found in:
(i) New Zealand: ……………………………………………………………………....... (1 mark)

(ii) Central Asia: ………………………………………………………………………(1 mark)

(b) State three uses of vegetation. (3 marks)

4. (a) Name two output processes in the hydrological cycle. (2 marks)

(b) State three negative influences that rivers have on human environment. (3 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

5. (a) Define the term soil. (2 marks)

(b) State three causes of chemical degeneration of soils. (3 marks)

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SECTION B (75 Marks)
Answer question 6 (compulsory) and any other two questions in this section
6. Study the map of Nyeri 1:50,000 (Sheet 120/4) provided and answer the questions that follow.
(a) (i) Give the longitudinal extent of the area covered by the map. (2 mrks)
(ii) Name two districts in the area covered by the map. (2 marks)
(b) (i) Calculate the area of Nyeri forest. Give your answer in kilometres. 2 marks)
(ii) What is the magnetic variation of the area covered by the map. (1 mark)
(c) Describe the drainage of the area covered by the map. (6 marks)
(d) (i) Using a scale of 1 cm represents 50 metres, draw a cross-section along northing 64
between easting 68 and 74. 4 marks)
(ii) On the cross-section, mark and label the following;
 Hill. (1 mark)
 All weather road loose surface. (1 mark)
 River. (1 mark)
(iii) Calculate the vertical exaggeration of the cross-section. (2 marks)
(e) Citing evidence from the map, identify three social functions of the area covered by the
map. (3 marks)

7. Below is a world map showing the distribution of fold mountains. Use it to answer question (a).

(a) (i) Name the fold mountains marked A and B. (2 mrks)

(ii) Give the orogenies during which the fold mountains marked X and Y were formed. (2 mrks)
(b) With the aid of well labelled diagrams, describe the formation of anticlinorium and synclinorium
complex of folds. (6 mrks)
(c) (i) Give three features resulting from folding other than fold mountains. (3 mrks)
(ii) Describe how fold mountains were formed according to the proponents of contraction theory.
(3 mrks)
(d) Explain two positive significance of folding to human activities. (4 mrks)
(e) Your class intends to carry out a field study on folding;
(i) State three ways in which you would prepare for the field study. (3 mrks)
(ii) Give two methods of data collection you would use during the field study (2 mrks)

8. (a)(i) Differentiate between a mineral and a rock. (2 marks)

(ii) Describe the following characteristics of minerals:
 Tenacity (2 mrks)
 Streak (2 mrks)
(b) Describe the process of formation of the following rocks:
(i) Chemically formed sedimentary rocks. (5 marks)
(ii) Volcanic ejecta. (4 marks)
(c) State four characteristics of metamorphic rocks. (4 mrks)
(d) Explain three significance of rocks to human activities in Kenya. (6 marks)

9. (a)(i) What is a piedmont glacier? (2 mrks)

(ii) Give three ways through which ice moves. (3 marks)
(c) (i) Apart from roche mountonnee, name three other features formed by glacial erosion in
lowlands. (3 marks)
(ii) Using a well labelled diagram, describe the formation of a roche mountonnee. (6 mks)
(c) Your class is planning to carry out a field study on features formed by glacial erosion in
highlands;
(i) State two objectives you would have for the study. (2 mks)
(ii) Give three qualities of a good questionnaire you would prepare for collecting data. (3 mks)
(d)Explain three positive significance of glaciation in lowland areas. (6 mrks)

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10. (a)(i) Define the term denudation. (2 marks)
(ii) Explain how the following factors influence weathering:
 Mineral composition of the rocks (2 marks)
 Colour of the rocks (2 marks)
 Structure of the rocks (2 marks)
(b) The diagram below shows a process of mechanical weathering:

(i) Identify the process. (1 mark)

(ii) Describe how the process occurs. (5marks)
(c) State five evidences of soil creep. (5marks)
(d) Explain three significance of mass wasting on the physical and human environments.
(6marks)

-THIS IS THE LAST PRINTED PAGE-

KCSE 2023 SMARTGRADE MOCK
Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.
SERIES 1
312/2 GEOGRAPHY Paper 2
Time: 2¾ Hours

NAME…………………………………………………………………………………………

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN…………………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.

For Examiner’s Use Only

SECTION QUESTIONS MAXIMUM CANDIDATE’S SCORE
SCORE
A 1-5 25
6 25
B 25
25
Total Score 100

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SECTION A (25 Marks)
Answer all the questions in this section
1. (a) Define economic geography (2 marks)
(b) State three reasons why it is important to study human geography 3 marks)
2. (a) Name two towns where motor vehicle assembly plants are located in Kenya. (2 marks)
(b) State three ways in which proximity to Nairobi has favoured development of Thika Town.
(3 marks)
3. The diagram below represents the functional zones of an urban center.

(a) Name the zones marked X and Y. (2 marks)

(b) Give three functions of the Central Business District. (3 marks)

4. (a) Name two forest reserves found in the coastal region of Kenya. (2 marks)
(b) State three physical factors that favour the growth of natural forests in the coastal region of
Kenya. ` (3 marks)

5. (a) Differentiate between emigration and immigration. (2 marks)

(b) State three causes of urban to rural migration (3 marks)
SECTION B
Answer question 6 and any other two questions from this section.
6. (a) The table below passenger traffic that used different modes of transport between Mombasa
and Nairobi for the year 2017 to 2020.
MODE OF 2017 2018 2019 2020
TRANSPORT
SGR 700,000 1,500,000 1,600,000 1,700,000
BUSES 1,500,000 1,200,000 900,000 800,800
AIR 578,700 686,800 787,500 486,500

(i) Using a scale of 1cm rep 200,000 people, draw a comparative bar graph to represent data in the
table above. (8 marks)
(ii) State two disadvantages of using a comparative bar graph to represent the above data.(2 mks)
b) Give four reasons why there is limited use of river transport in Africa. (4 marks)
c) Identify any three activities involved in the development of St. Lawrence Seaway project.
(3 marks)
d) State four benefits of the Standard Gauge Railway to the economy of Kenya. (4 marks)
e) Explain how the following factors have negatively affected development of transport and
communication in Africa
 Rugged Terrain (2 marks)
 Civil wars (2 marks)

7. (a) (i) Define the term Fisheries. (2 marks)

(ii) Give four measures the Government has taken to conserve fresh water fisheries in Kenya.
(4 marks)
b) (i) Explain ways in which each of the following factors affect fishing in Kenya;
 Technology (2 marks)
 Fish eating culture (2 marks)
(ii) Describe how trawling method is used in catching Fish (4 marks)

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c) Study the Map below and use it to answer question 7 (c) (i) to (iii)

(i) Give two fish species caught in the above fishing ground (2 marks)
(ii) Name the ocean current marked B (1 mark)
(iii) Explain how the above ocean current influences fishing in the above fishing ground
(2 marks)
d) Explain the significance of fishing in Japan. (6 marks)

8. (a) (i) Define the term balance of trade. (2 marks)

(ii) Name two major imports to Kenya from European Union (2 marks)
b) State four factors that inhibit trade between Kenya and her neighbours. (4 marks)
c) Explain how the following factors influence trade in Kenya.
 Security (2 marks)
 Transport (2 marks)
d) (i) Name two member states of ECOWAS. (2 marks)
(ii) Give three roles played by SADC in the economies of her member states (3 marks)
(iii) Explain the measures the government of Kenya has taken to reduce her unfavourable balance
of trade. (8 marks)
9. (a) (i) Differentiate between domestic dairy farming and commercial dairy farming. (2 marks)
(ii) Name two breeds of dairy cattle reared in Kenya. (2 marks)
b) (i) Give four characteristics of dairy cattle breeds reared in Kenya. (4 marks)
(ii) Name three counties where dairy farming is practiced in large scale in Kenya.(3 marks)
(iii) State three physical factors favouring dairy farming in Kenya (3 marks)
c) Give reasons why Kenya’s dairy sector fails to meet its domestic demand. (5 marks)
d) State three differences between dairy farming in Kenya and Denmark. (6 marks)

10. a) Give three ways in which minerals occur. (3 marks)

b) Explain three factors that influence the mining of trona in Lake Magadi (6 marks)
c) Study the diagram below and use it to answer question c (i) and (ii)

(i) Identify the mining method shown on the diagram above (1 mark)
(ii) Describe how the method is used to extract minerals (5 marks)
(d) Explain three effects of mining on the environment (6 marks)
(e) Maranda high school students carried out a field study on the processing of trona on Lake
Magadi.
(i) Identify two methods they will use in recording data (2 marks)
(ii) Give two follow up activities they may have carried out 2 marks)

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KCSE 2023 SMARTGRADE MOCK
Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.
SERIES 1
121/1 MATHEMATICS Paper 1
Time: 2½ Hours

NAME…………………………………………………………………………………………

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN…………………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES.
(a) Write your name and index number in the spaces provided above.
(b) Sign and write the date of the examination in spaces provided above.
(c) This paper consists of two sections: Section I and II.
(d) Answer all the questions in section I and only five questions from section II.
(e) Show all the steps in your calculations, giving your answer at each stage in the space provided.
(f) Marks may be given for correct working even if the answer is wrong.
(g) Non-programmable silent electronic calculators and KNEC mathematical tables may be used,
except where stated otherwise.

For examiner’s use only

SECTION I
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 TOTAL

SECTION II
17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 TOTAL GRAND

SECTION I (50 MARKS):

Answer all the questions in this section in the spaces provided.
1. Without using a calculator evaluate.

1 1 25 3 (3 marks)
of 2    
9 3 33 2
2 1 1
of 3 
5 3 3

2. The distance between Jane’s home and her school is 4/5 of 8km. One day she run ¼ of the way and
walked the rest of the journey. What distance did she walk? (3marks)

3. Otiende works for a coffee processing company as a sales man. He is paid on Monthly basis as
per agreement below.
a) A basic pay of sh. 20,000 per Month.
b) A commission of 2% for goods sold up to a maximum of sh. 200,000.
c) A commission of 4% for goods sold over sh. 200,000 in that Month.
In a certain Month he sold goods worthy sh. 600,000. Calculate his total pay for that Month.(3mks)

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4. The figure below is a triangular prism of uniform cross-section in which AF = FB =3cm, AB =
4cm and BC = 5cm. Draw a clearly labeled net of the prism. (3marks)

5. Solve for y in the equation. 8𝑦+1 − 23𝑦+1 = 48 (3marks)

12𝑥 2 +𝑎𝑥−6𝑎2
6. Simplify the expression; (3marks)
9𝑥 2 −4𝑎2

7. A line P whose equation is 𝑦 = 1⁄3 𝑥 + 4 is parallel to another line Q. Find the equation of
line Q in the form 𝑦 = 𝑚𝑥 + 𝑐 given that it passes through Point ( 3, 6) (3marks)

8. The figure below shows a triangle ABC in which AB = 6cm, BC = 11cm and angle ABC = 100 0.
Calculate to the decimal places the length of AC. (3marks)

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9. A football match between Bercelona FC and Liverpoo FC started at 1500hrs. It lasted for the
official 90 minutes with a half time break of 15 minutes. The referee added five extra minutes for
injuries and other stoppages. Find the time the match ended. (3marks)

10. Find the region defined by the following inequalities (3marks)

2y < x + 4; 4y ≥ -x – 4; x ≤ 2
11. The GCD three numbers is 6 and their LCM is 900. If two of the numbers are 36 and 60, find
the least possible third number. (3 marks)

12. The mass of two similar cans is 960g and 15000g. If the total surface area of the smaller can
is 144cm2, determine the surface area of the larger can. (3 marks)

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13. The width of a rectangular hall of Busiada Girls Secondary School is 16m less than its length.
Calculate the length of the hall if its area is 32m2. Hence calculate its perimeter. (4marks)

14. Town A is 80km due east of town B. Town C is on a bearing of 2340 form town B. If town
C is 100km from town A, by scale drawing find the distance of town C from town B. (4marks)
7 4
15. a) Find the inverse of the matrix ( ). (1mark)
3 2

b) Using matrix method, solve the simultaneous equations. (2 marks)

7𝑥 + 4𝑦 = 14
3𝑥 + 2𝑦 = 8

16. Use tables of square roots and reciprocals to find the value of x. (3marks)
1 3
𝑥=√ +
15.36 1.302

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SECTION II (50 marks).
Answer only five questions in this section in the spaces provided.
17. The figure below shows a frustrum. The top and bottom radii are 5cm and 10cm
respectively, while the vertical height of the frustrum is 12cm.

Find the:-
a) Slant height of the frustum. (3marks)

b) Curved area of the frustum. (3marks)

c)Volume of the frustum. (4marks)

18. Bumala is a market centre 600km from Kisumu town.A bus starts from Kisumu for Bumala
at 7.00am at an average speed of 80 km/h. At 8.30 am a car started from Kisumu to Bumala and
moved at an average speed of 120 km/hr. Calculate
i)The distance bus covered before the car started moving. (3marks)

ii) The relative speed for the two vehicles. (2marks)

iii) The time the car overtook the bus. (1 mark)

iv) Distance covered by the car before overtaking the bus. (2marks)

v)Distance from Bumala to the car at the time the car was overtaking the bus. (2marks)

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19. The height of 36 students in a class was recorded to the nearest centimeter as follows:-
148 159 158 163 166 155 155 179 158
161 160 157 165 165 175 173 172 178
147 168 157 172 165 154 170 157 167
155 159 173 171 168 160 172 156 167

a) Make a frequency distribution table using a class interval of 5 and starting with the class
145 – 149. (2marks)

b) From the table above

i) Calculate the mean mark (3marks)
ii) Calculate the median (3marks)

d) Draw a frequency polygon using the table in (a) above. (2 marks)

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20. Bujumba Boys Secondary School. Intends to buy a certain number of chairs For Ksh.
16,200. The supplier agreed to offer a discount of Ksh. 60 per chair which will enable the school
to get 3 chairs more.
Taking y as the originally intended number of chairs:-
a) Write an expression in terms of y for
i) Original price per chair. (1mark)

ii) Price per chair after discount. (1mark)

b) Determine
i) The number of chair the school originally intended to buy. (4marks)

ii) Price per chair after discount. (2marks)

iii)The amount of money the school would have saved per chair of it got the intended number of
chairs at a discount of 15%. (2marks)
21. a) Without using a protractor, construct triangle ABC such that angle ABC = 60 0,
BC = 8cm and AC = 9cm.Measure AB. (3marks)

b) Drop a perpendicular from A to BC and measure its length. (2marks)

c) Hence calculate the area of triangle ABC. (2marks)
d) Locate a point D on BC such that the area of triangle ABC is three times that of triangle ABD.
(3marks)

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22. In triangle ABC, shown below, AB = a AC = b point M lies on AB such that AM: MB =
2:3 and point N lies on AC such that AN: NC = 5:1 line BN intersects line MC at X.

a) Express the following in terms of a and b

i) BN (1 mark)

ii) CM (1 mark)

b) Given that BX = kBN and CX = rCM where k and r are scalars

i)Write two different expressions for AX in term of a, b, k and r (4marks)

ii) Find the values of k and r (4 marks)

23. A triangle ABC has vertices A(2,1), B(5,2) and C(0,4).
(a)On the grid provided plot the triangle ABC. (2 marks)

2
(b) A1B1C1 is the image of ABC under a translation ( ). Plot A1B1C1 and state its coordinates.
−5
(2 marks)

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(c) Plot A11B11C11 the image of A1B1C1 after a rotation about the origin through a negative quarter
turn. State its coordinates. (3 marks)

(d) A111B111C111 is the image of A11B11C11 after a reflection on the line y = 0.

Plot A111B111C111 and state its coordinates. (3 marks)
24. The displacement h metres of a particle moving along a straight line after t seconds
is given by h = -2t3 + 3/2 t2 + 3t
(a) Find the initial acceleration. (3 marks)

(b) Calculate
(i) The time when the particle was momentarily at rest. (3marks)

(ii) Its displacement by the time it comes to rest momentarily. (2 marks)

(c) Calculate the maximum speed attained. (2 marks)

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KCSE 2023 SMARTGRADE MOCK
Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.
SERIES 1
121/2 MATHEMATICS Paper 2
Time: 2½ Hours

NAME…………………………………………………………………………………………

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN…………………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
a) Write your name and index number in the spaces provided above.
b) This paper consists of TWO sections: Section I and Section II.
c) Answer ALL the questions in Section I only five questions from Section II.
d) Show all the steps in your calculations, giving your answers at each stage in the spaces
provided below each question.

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY

Section I
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 Total

Section II
17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 Total
SECTION 1 (50 MARKS)
1. Evaluate using squares, cubes and reciprocal tables (4 marks)
1 3 -2
[3 + (0.071)2 ]
√27.56

𝑥4 − 4
2. Make x the subject in =K (3 marks)
𝑥2 − 2

3. Ali deposited Ksh.100,000 in a financial institution that paid simple interest at the rate of 12.5%
p.a. Mohamed deposited the same amount of money as Ali in another financial institution that
paid compound interest. After 4 years, they had equal amounts of money. Determine the
compound interest rate per annum to 1 decimal place. (3 marks)

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4. Simplify (3 marks)

-1
𝑎3 − 𝑎𝑏2
𝑎4 − 𝑏4

5. Expand 1 − 2𝑥 4 , hence find the value of 1.02 4 correct to 3 significant figures. (3 marks)

6. If sin 𝑥 = 2𝑏 and cos 𝑥 = 2𝑏 √3, find the value of b (3 marks)

𝑎 + 𝑏
7. Find the relative error in given that 𝑎 = 77𝑚𝑙, 𝑏 = 23𝑚𝑙,
𝑐− 𝑑

𝑐 = 36𝑚𝑙, and 𝑑 = 16𝑚𝑙. (3 marks)

8. Without using a calculator or mathematical tables, express

√3
in surd form and simplify. (3 marks)
1 −cos 30°

9. The equation 3𝑥 2 − 8𝑝𝑥 + 12 = 0 has real roots.

Find the value of P. (2 marks)

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10. A construction company employs 200 artisans and craftsmen in the ratio 1:3 every week.
An artisan is paid 2 ½ times as much as a crafts man. At the end of 3 weeks the company paid
ksh 1485000 to those employees. Find how much each artisan and each craftsman is paid. (a
working week has six days) (3 marks)

11. A dam containing 4158m3 of water is to be drained. A pump is connected to a pipe of

radius 3.5cm and the machine operates for 8 hours per day. Water flows through the pipe at the
rate of 1.5m per second. Find the number of days it takes to drain the dam. (4 marks)

12. Two brands of coffee Arabica and Robusta costs sh.4,700 and sh.4,200 per kilogram
respectively. They are mixed to produce a blend that costs shs.4,600 per kilogram. Find the ratio
of the mixture. (3 marks)
5𝑋 2
13. Under a transformation represented by a matrix , a triangle of area 10cm2
−3 𝑋
is mapped onto a triangle whose area is 110cm2. Find x (3 marks)

14. Find the distance between the centre 0 of a circle whose equation is
2𝑥 + 2𝑦 2 + 6𝑥 + 10𝑦 + 7 = 0 and a point 𝐵(−4,1).
2
(3 marks)

15. Solve for x in the equation:

(log 2 𝑥)² + log 2 8 = log 2 𝑥 4 (4 marks)

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16. The figure below shows a circle inscribed in an isosceles triangle ABC. If Q, P and R are
the points of contact between the triangle and the circle, O is the centre of the circle,
𝐵𝑂 = 19.5𝑐𝑚 and 𝐵𝑄 = 18𝑐𝑚. Find the radius of the circle and hence the length of the minor
arc PQ. (3 marks)

Q P
O

C
R A
SECTION II (50 MARKS)
ANSWER ONLY FIVE QUESTIONS
17. (a) Mr. Mackey pays a tax of Kshs.5,800 per month according to the income tax
table given below. He is married and entitled to a family relief of K 420p.a.€
Taxable income Rate (Ksh per K€ )
(K€ p.a.)
1 – 9,600 2
9,600 – 19,200 3
19,201 – 29,800 5
29,801 - 38,400 7
38,401 - 47,200 9
Over 47,200 10
Calculate Mackey’s gross annual salary in K€ (6marks)

(b) The difference between compound interest and simple interest on Kshs.P over
a duration of 36 months at the rate of 15% p.a. is Kshs.52,477.50. Calculate the value of P.
(4 marks)

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18. (a) Complete the table below for 𝑦 = 𝑥 3 + 4𝑥 2 − 5𝑥 − 5 (2 marks)
X -5 -4 -3 -2 -1 0 1 2

y 19 -5

(b) On the grid provided, draw the graph of 𝑦 = 𝑥 3 + 4𝑥 2 − 5𝑥 − 5 for

−5 ≤ × ≤ 2 (3 marks)
(c) i) Use the graph to solve the equation
𝑥 3 + 4𝑥 2 − 5𝑥 − 5 = 0 (2 marks)

ii) By drawing a suitable straight line on the graph, solve the equation
𝑥 3 + 4𝑥 2 − 5𝑥 − 5 = −4𝑥 − 1 (3 marks)

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19. OPQ is a triangle in which OP=𝑃 and OQ=q. 𝑥 is a point on OP such that OP:XP=5:2 and y
is another point on PQ such that PY:YQ=1:2. Lines OY and XQ intersect at T.
(a) Express the following vectors in terms of P and q
(i) 𝑃𝑄 (1 mark)

(ii) 𝑂𝑌 (1 mark)

(iii) 𝑂𝑋 (1 mark)

(b) If 𝑂𝑇 = 𝑘𝑂𝑌 and 𝑄𝑇 = ℎ𝑄𝑋 express 𝑂𝑇 in two different ways. Hence or otherwise find
the values of h and k. (6 mrks)

(c) Determine the ratio OT:TY (1 mark)

20. If (𝑥 − 1 1⁄8), x and (𝑥 + 3⁄2) are the first three consecutive terms of a geometric
progression;
(a) Determine the values of 𝑥 and the common ratio. (4 marks)

(b) Calculate the sum of the first 6 terms of this progression. (3 marks)

(c) Another sequence has the terms

-13, -16, -19, ……………………………-310.
Find the sum of this sequence. (3 marks)

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21. The figure below shows a belt passing round two pulleys of centres A and B.
The radius of the pulleys is 4cm and 6cm respectively and the distance between the centres is
25cm.

4cm
6cm
•
25cm

Calculate the length of the belt used for the pulley system. (10 marks)

22. The points P(2,1), Q(4,1) R(4,3) and S(3, 3) are coordinates of a quadrilateral.
(a) Plot the quadrilateral PQRS on the grid provided. (1 mark)

(b) Find the coordinates of P1Q1R1S1 the image of PQRS under the transformation represented
1 1
by the matrix 𝑀 = ( ) (2 marks)
2 0

(c) Draw and label P1Q1R1S1 on the same grid.

(d) Find the coordinates of P11Q11R11S11 on the image of P1Q1R1S1 under the transformation
−2 1
represented by the matrix 𝑁 = ( ) (2 marks)
0 1

(e) Draw and label P11Q11R11S11 on the same grid. (1 mark)

(f) Determine the matrix that maps PQRS directly onto P11Q11R11S11. (3 marks)

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23. The table below shows the ages of people in years who attended a wedding ceremony.
Age in years 10-19 20-29 30-39 40-49 50-59 60-69 70-79
Frequency 2 4 4 8 6 3 2
(a) State the modal class (1 mark)

(b) Using an assumed mean of 44.5 calculate

(i) The mean age (3 marks)

(ii) The standard deviation (3 marks)

(iii) The median age (3 marks)

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24. A supermarket is stocked with plates which come from two suppliers A and B. They are
bought in the ratio 3:5 respectively, 10% of plates from A are defective and 6% of the plates
from B are defective.
(a) A plate is chosen by a buyer at randon.
Find the probability that
i) It is from A (2 marks)

ii) It is from B and it is defective (2 marks)

iii) It is defective (2 marks)

(b) Two plates are chosen at random. Find the probability that;
i) Both are defective (2 marks)

ii) At least one is defective (2 marks)

KCSE 2023 SMARTGRADE MOCK
Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.
SERIES 1
451/1 COMPUTER STUDIES Paper 1
Time: 2½ Hours

NAME…………………………………………………………………………………………

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN…………………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.

Instruction to candidates
(a) Write your name and index number in the spaces provided above
(b) This paper consists of two sections A and B
(c) Answer ALL questions in section A
(d) Answer question 16 and any other THREE questions from section B
(e) All answers should be written in the spaces provided on the question paper

For Examiner’s Use Only

SECTION QUSTIONS CANDIDATE’S SCORE
A 1 -15
B 16
17
18
19
20
TOTAL SCORE

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SECTION A (40 MARKS)
Answer ALL the questions in SECTION
1. Mention two devices that can connected to the computer via HDMI cable (2marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

2. State three ways in which ICT can be used to enhance customer service delivery in a supermarket
(3marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

3. List two types of job opportunities that are available in the field of computer hardware (2marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

4. Mr. Kamau is a teacher at Chianda High School used Ms-Excel to process the marks obtained by
his student during the term. The table below shows the details entered in the Ms-Excel worksheet
A B C D E F G H I
1 Name CAT 1 CAT 2 CAT TOTAL POSITIO GRAD REMAR
TOTAL EX MARKS N E K
AM
2 Mark Jama 14 06 20 56 76 1
3 Caleb 13 08 21 34 55 6
Wekeza
4 Kanini 10 04 14 59 73 3
Mulue
5 Justine 11 07 18 57 75 2
Melanie
6 Julia 06 09 15 48 63 5
Wahome
7 Austin 08 07 15 50 65 4
Kilome
Hints
CAT1is out 15, CAT2 is out 15 and Exam is out 70
(a) Give the formula used to calculate the Total Marks for Julia Wahome (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) Write a function that gives each student his position in class based on the performance 2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(c) Write a logical function that will display the following remarks in column I (2marks)
Total Marks Remark
0 - 49 Fail
50 - 59 Above Average
60 - 69 Fair
70 - 79 Good
80 - 100 Excellent

5. Give two reasons to justify why SATA cables are used in modern computers to connect the hard
disk to the motherboard (2mrks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

6. Give three file systems supported by windows operating system 3marks)

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…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

7. Describe the use of the following keys found on a standard keyboard (2marks)
(a) Esc
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) Prt sc
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

8. Explain the following terms with references to algorithm

(a) Definiteness (2marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) Finiteness (2marks)

9. Mention two ICT related courses offered in Kenyan universities at undergraduate level (2marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

10. What is flaming (2marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
11. A Principal of a school wishes his school to have an internet connection in a bid to improve its
service delivery. Mention three internet connectivity requirements that must be present to enable
the connection. (3marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

12. Identify two limitations of traditional approach to system development (2marks)

13. Use flowchart to demonstrate how IF THEN and REPEAT...... UNTIL can be implemented
(2marks)

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14. State three functions of Repeater stations in data communication (3marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

15. Describe three layout guides available in DTP that assist a user to place an object in a preferred
position (3marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

SECTION B (60 MARKS)

16. a) State three features of a compiler (3marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) When writing a computer program programmers are always advised to use approaches and
techniques that make the program easy to follow and maintain. List four ways in which a
programmer can make program code easy to follow (4marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
c) Study the flowchart below and use it to answer the questions that follow

Start

Input a, b

T=a2+b2 Add 1 to a
Add 1 to b

No
T > 90

Yes

Print a, b

Stop

(i) Given that the user keyed in 3 as the value of a and 1 as the value of b get the final output of the
flowchart (3marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(ii)Use a pseudo code to represent the flowchart in (c) (5marks)

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17. a) Briefly describe the three main coding schemes (3marks)
b) Convert the following numbers to binary number
(i) B2.AAH (3marks)
13
(ii) base 10 (3marks)
64

c) The table below was created using Ms-Access use it to answer the questions that follow
Table Name: Product
Product ID Product Name Unit Cost Quantity Total
P00101 Milk 120 34 4080
P00201 Bread 100 56 5600
P00301 Beans 150 45 6750
(i) State the most appropriate data type for Product ID and Total (2marks)
(ii) Suggest how you would set the input mask for the Product Name so that the data entered in
that field appear the way they are in the table (2marks)
(iii) Represent the dynaset shown below in a SQL form given that the table Name is product
(2marks)
Product ID Product Name Unit Cost Quantity Total
P00101 Milk 120 34 4080

18. a) Describe four services available in the internet that support business (4marks)
b) Modern computing has embraced the use of drop box, google drive and OneDrive. These
platforms are hosted by the internet and many computer users prefer backing up their data using
these facilities. Give three reasons to justify this phenomenon (3marks)
c) Jeff a computer student from Ramba High school launched the browser to access the internet ,
the browser displayed an error message Server Not Found on the screen this didn’t allow Jeff to
access the internet. State three possible causes of this anomaly (3marks)
d) Briefly describe the following features of word processor (2marks)
(i) Subscript

(ii) Drop cap

e) State two arithmetic operation that can be performed on a row of a numeric data in a word
processor table (1 mark)
f) In each case of (e) above give the expression used (2marks)

19. a) Enumerate four breakthroughs in health care instigated by ICT (4marks)

b) Mention four application areas of Artificial Intelligence (3marks)
c) List three scanning devices available at Electronic Point Sale Terminal (3marks)
d) Describe two ways of preventing eavesdropping (2marks)
e) System failure is considered as threat to data security. Describe three measures an organization
should put in place to guard against system failure (3marks)

20. a) Identify modes of data communication represented in (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) below (4marks)
(i) Principal Addressing students in assembly using public address system
(ii) WhatsApp chat
(iii) Phone conversation
(iv) Walkie talkie conversation
b) List three challenges experienced by computer networks that are set up using twisted pair cables
(3marks)
c) Study the diagram below and use it to answer the questions that follow

(i) Identify the parts labelled A, B and C in the diagram above (3marks)
(ii)State function of the part labelled A (2marks)
d) Name any three components of virtual reality (3marks)
THIS IS THE LAST PRINTED PAGE

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KCSE 2023 SMARTGRADE MOCK
Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.
SERIES 1
451/2 COMPUTER STUDIES Paper 2
Practical
Time: 2½ Hours

NAME…………………………………………………………………………………………

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN…………………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
a) Indicate your name and index number at the right hand corner of each printout
b) Write your name and index number on the CD/removable storage medium provided
c) Write the name and version of the software used for each question attempted in the answer sheet
provided
d) Answer all the questions, All questions carry equal marks
e) This paper consists of 6 printed pages. Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain
that all the pages are printed as indicated and that no questions are missing.
f) Passwords should not be used while saving in the CD/removable storage Medium
g) Marked printout of the answers on the sheet
h) Hand in all the printouts and the CD/removable storage medium used

For Official Use Only

QUESTION MAX SCORE SCORE
ONE 50
TWO 50
TOTAL 100
1. KenTelcom is a company that engages in the sales of the following Mobile service providers:
Faiba, Gateway, Vodafone and SAF. The company uses sales representatives who operate at
various regions in Nairobi town. Each sales representative presents monthly sales to the manager
(Values are in Ksh).
A B C D E F
Mobile _ Accessories Sales LTD
Product type
Sales Rep. Faiba Gateway Vodafone SAF Total Sales

James 24000 37500 39500 49500

Peter 15000 26500 21500 25500
Beryl 5500 14800 3500 16500
Melanie 7000 15500 14500 64500
Mariana 11000 69000 2200 64500
Maggi 33500 12000 14500 23500
Valentine 15500 80000 17200 23500
(a) Using spreadsheet package,
(i) Enter the information given in the table above into a worksheet. Save workbook as

KenTelcomREPS and rename sheet 1 as Sales. (20 marks)

(ii) Validate all the cells in the Product Type columns to allow entry of numeric data from 0 to

80,000 only. A message, Invalid data!: should be displayed whenever a cell is typed with non-
compliant data.(3 marks)
(b) Using formulae, determine the;
(i) Total sales for each Sales representative (2 marks)
(ii) Product type Total Sales for each provider. (2 marks)
(c) Each sales person earns Bonus points for the sales of each product type based on the
following criteria.
 1 point for every sh. 50 for Faiba,
 2 points for every sh. 60 for Gateway,
 3 point for every sh. 50 for Vodafone,
 2 point for every sh. 60 for SAF.

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(d) Insert a column Bonus Points and compute the points of each sales person (5 marks)
(e) Insert a blank column Awards and based on the Bonus points earned by each sales
representative, use a function to display the remarks on Awards as follows: (5 marks)
Total Sales Awards
2,500 and above Cash
More than 1,000 and less than 2,500 Vouchers
1,000 and below try again

(f) Format the figures in worksheet as follows: (3marks)

 Title and subtitle:
(e) Double underline
(f) Font type – Algerian
(g) Font size
(g) Rotate, all the Product Type heading labels in the worksheet to -900. (1 mark)
(h) Generate a column chart to represent the Total sales for each sales representative. Label
your chart accordingly and place it in a new worksheet renamed as CHART. (7marks)
(i) Print Sales and CHART (2marks)

2. The table below shows list of students admitted to Mangu High School under different sponsors.
(a) Open a database program and create a database named MHS. (1mark)
(b) Create three tables named Students, Sponsor and Fees. (3marks)
(c) Using database file created in (a) above use the following field properties. (6marks)
Student Table
Field name Data types and properties
School-Code Default value = 427
AdmNo Text (Size = 4, Required = Yes )
Student Name Text (Size = 16)
Date of Birth Date and time (Size = 10)
Amount paid Text (Size = 4, Required = Yes )
SponsorID LookUp -sponsor table
BankID Text
Sponsor_Table
Field name Data types and properties
SponsorID Text (Size = 4, Required = Yes )
Sponsor Name Text (Size = 16)
Amount_Table
Field name Data types and properties
BankID Text
BankName Text (Size = 10)
Amount Per Student Number (Size = 8, Decimal Place = 2)
Mode of payment Text (Size = 12)
(i) Create the relationship between the tables. (2marks)
(ii) Enforce referential integrity between the tables. (1mark)
(iii) Create the three forms StudentForm, SponsorForm and AmountForm. (3marks)
(iv) Enter the following data in their respective tables using the respective forms. (8marks)
Table 1: Sponsor Table
SponsorID Sponsor Name
S1 Wings
S2 Majani
S3 Elimu
Table 2: Student Table
Sch-Code AdmNo SponsorID StudName BankID DateOfBirth
427 444 S1 Lilian Mwende 100 12/03/2000
427 443 S3 Ruth Akinyi 200 23/01/1998
427 445 S2 Frida Omondi 100 11/07/2002
427 442 S1 Bianca Godana 300 12/05/2005
427 410 S3 Christine Awuor 300 28/05/1999
427 413 S2 Baraka kalala 200 30/09/1998
427 449 S1 Rael Mokaya 100 18/02/2005
427 411 S3 Slivia Odanga 100 17/04/2001
427 412 S2 Jane Kawaswa 200 19/06/2004
427 415 S2 Jack Jake 100 22/03/2003

Table 3: Amount Table

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BankID BankName Amount Per Student Mode of payment
100 COOP 550,000 EFT
200 KCB 120,000 M-banking
300 EQUITY 420,000 Cheque

(d) Create a query to display the fields:

(i) AdmNo, Sponsor name, age and Students whose first name start with letter “B” and whose
payment Bank is “COOP” Save query as B-query. (5marks)
(ii) StdName, Sponsor name, Mode of payment and Amount per student. Calculate the total
amount received. Save query as AMount-query. (5marks)
(iii) Create Amountreport from Amount query display all the records grouped by mode of
payment and find the average per mode of payment (4 marks)
(e) Create a bar chart to display students and their respective amount received. Save chart as
S-chart. (2 marks)
(f) Create S-report to display the following. 5marks)
Report title Sponsorship Report 2022
AdNo, Student Name, Sponsor Name, Bank Name, Bank ID and Amount
(g) Print the following: (4marks)
(i) The Student table
(ii) The B- query
(iii) The chart
(iv) The S-report
KCSE 2023 SMARTGRADE MOCK
Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.
SERIES 1
441/1 HOME SCIENCE Paper 1
Time: 2½ Hours

NAME…………………………………………………………………………………………

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN…………………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
 Answer all questions in section A in the spaces provided
 Section B is compulsory
 Choose any two questions from section C

FOR EXAMINERS USE ONLY

Question Maximum score Candidate’s score
SECTION

Section A 1-39 40

Section B 40 20

Section C 41-43 40
Total score
100

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SECTION A
1. Give two uses of fruits in cake making . (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

2. Name two types of pleats (1 mark)

3. Name the biological raising agent used in bread making (1mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

4. List two methods of incorporating air into flour mechanically (1mark)

5. Give two functions of sebum (1mark)

6. State two ways in which a country with home scientists will benefit (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

7. Mention two minerals needed for healthy teeth (1mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
8. List any two ways of finishing wood (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

9. Mention two advantages of charcoal as a fuel (1mark)

10. Define the following terms: (1mark)

a) Fixed dirt
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
b) Fracture
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

11. Identify other two causes of anaemia other than nutritional deficiency (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

12. Give two reasons for food fortification (1mark)

13. Highlight two ways of conserving vitamin C during the storage of kales (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
14. Mention two signs and symptoms of marasmus (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

15. Write the following abbreviations in full (1mark)

a) AIDS
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
b) TBA
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

16. Give two functions of the S and U bend below every sink in the disposal of waste water
from the house (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

17. Detergents are classified into two groups .Name them (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

18. Mention two rules to observe in stain removal (1mark)

19. Name two the stain removal agents used in removing a banana sap stain from your t-shirt
(1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
20. Identify two methods suitable for disinfecting a kitchen towel (1mark)
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21. List two ingredients used in the making of laundry blue (1mark)
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22. Give two points to observe when taking body measurements (1mark)
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23. Name two conspicuous seams used to bring out style features in garment construction
(1mark)
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24. Give two examples of stitches used to neaten raw edges (1mark)
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25. Mention two possible causes of stiches looping when sewing with a sewing machine
(1 mark)
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26. List two examples of haberdashery /sewing notions in garment constuction (1mark)
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FOR MARKING SCHEMES CONTACT 0746-222-000 / 0742-999-000

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27. Give two ways you can identify elastofibres physically (1mark)
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28. Outline two examples of synthetic fibers (1mark)

29. Differentiate between aerobic and anaerobic food spoilage (1mark)

30. Apart from kitchen knife ,identify one other type of knife and give its function. (1mark)
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31. State two roles of advertisements (1mark)

32. Point out two styles of food service (1mark)

33. Outline two functions of darts in clothing and construction processes (1mark)?
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34. List two examples of basic pattern symbols and markings in garment construction (1mark)
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35. Identify suitable textile fiber for making lingerie (1mark)

36. Mention two methods of treating water at home (1mark)

37. Give two reasons for cleaning a house (1mark)

38. Outline two advantages of flats/apartments type of houses (1mark)

39. Suggest two ways of managing foreign body in the ear (1mark)
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40. Mention two dangers that arise from misuse of cosmetics (1mark)
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FOR MARKING SCHEMES CONTACT 0746-222-000 / 0742-999-000

SECTION B (Answer all the questions)
41. You are doing thorough cleaning at home on a Saturday morning. Describe how to;
a) Clean a white washable cotton mask you had used the previous day. (8marks)
b) Sweep an earthen sitting room floor (7marks)
c) Wash a Calabash that had been used to take porridge in the morning for breakfast.(5 marks)

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FOR MARKING SCHEMES CONTACT 0746-222-000 / 0742-999-000

SECTION C (Answer only two questions from this section.)
42.
a) Explain four factors to consider when planning meals (4marks)
b) Explain three merits of credit cards (3marks)
c) Explain four importance of immunization (4marks)
d) Describe how to make hand worked gathers (4marks)
e) State five points on the choice of brooms and brushes (5marks)

43.
a) Outline three steps in preparing a budget (3marks)
b) Give the importance of table setting (4marks)
c) Explain the importance of breastfeeding to a child (3marks)
d) Outline four qualities of a well-made stitch (4marks)
e) Explain three ways in which detergents aid in removal of dirt (6marks)

44.
a) Explain three reasons for making a shopping list prior to the actual buying (3marks)
b) Use the following dishes to organize a breakfast menu (3marks)
Tea with milk, Fried liver, Boiled arrowroot, Fresh passion juice, Wimbi porridge
c) Explain four ways of handling temper tantrums during habit training (4marks)
d) Describe how to make a plain seam on a skirt yoke (4marks)
e) Draw six care labels on drying in laundry work and explain the meaning of each (6marks)
KCSE 2023 SMARTGRADE MOCK
Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.
SERIES 1
441/2 HOME SCIENCE Paper 2
Time: 2½ Hours

NAME…………………………………………………………………………………………

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN…………………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.

441/2
CLOTHING AND TEXTILES
PAPER 2
PRACTICAL
21/2 HOURS

INSTRUCTIONS TO SCHOOLS
The following materials will be provided by the school
1. Plain light weight cotton 55 cm long by 70cm wide
2. Cotton sewing thread to match the fabric
3. Embroidery thread 130cm long
4. A4 envelope
FABRIC IN EXCESS OF THE AMOUNT SPECIFIED MUST NOT BE SUPPLIED TO THE
CANDIDATES.
These instructions consist of 1 printed page

FOR MARKING SCHEMES CONTACT 0746-222-000 / 0742-999-000

KCSE 2023 SMARTGRADE MOCK
Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.
SERIES 1
441/2 HOME SCIENCE Paper 2
Time: 2½ Hours

NAME…………………………………………………………………………………………

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN…………………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………

441/2
HOME SCIENCE (CLOTHING CONSTRUCTION)
PAPER 2
PRACTICAL
Time: 2 ½ hours

HOME SCIENCE
(CLOTHING CONSTRUCTION)
PAPER 2
PRACTICAL
TIME: 2 ½ HOURS

Instructions to candidates
 This paper consists of 3 printed pages.
 Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all pages are printed and no
questions are missing.
A pattern of a girl’s dress is provided. You are advised to study the sketches, instructions and
layout carefully before you begin the test.
Materials provided
1. Pattern pieces
A -Dress Front
B - Dress Back
C - Yoke
D - Pocket
2. Plain light weight cotton fabric 70cm wide by 55cm long.
3. Cotton thread to match the fabric.
4. Embroidery thread 130cm long.
5. A4 Envelope

THE TEST
Using the materials provided, cut out and make up the LEFT HALF of the dress to show the
following process.
1. Cutting out.
2. Working of double pointed dart at the dress back.
3. Preparation and attachment of the patch pocket to include the working of satin stitch to fill “O”
on the pocket.
4. Preparation of gathers on the dress front. DO NOT REMOVE GATHERING STITCHES.
5. Joining the dress front to the yoke using overlaid seam.
6. Joining the dress front to the dress back at the shoulder using double stitched seam.
7. Working the side seam using an open seam.
8. Managing the hem on the lower edge of the dress by;
(a) Holding the hem using even tackings. (DO NOT REMOVE TACKINGS)
(b) Working hemming stitches at the front part of the dress.
9. Presentation.
NB:

FOR MARKING SCHEMES CONTACT 0746-222-000 / 0742-999-000

At the end of the examination, firmly sew on your work on single fabric a label bearing your name,
class and admission number. Remove the needles, pins and unnecessary threads from your work.
Fold your work neatly and place it in the envelope provided.
DO NOT PUT SCRAPS OF FABRIC IN THE ENVELOPE AND DO NOT SEAL THE
ENVELOPE.
LAYOUT (NOT DRAWN TO SCALE)

A
Selvedge

55
C
D

VIEWS 70 cm
FRONT BACK
KCSE 2023 SMARTGRADE MOCK
Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.
SERIES 1
441/3 HOME SCIENCE Paper 3
Time: 1¾ Hours

NAME…………………………………………………………………………………………

SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN…………………………..

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO………………………

441/3
HOMESCIENCE
Paper 3
[FOOD AND NUTRITION]
Practical
Time: 3 1/4 Hours

Planning session: 30 minutes

Practical session 1 ¼ hours

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
 Read the test carefully.
 Textbooks and recipes may be used during planning session as reference materials
 You will be expected to keep to your order of work during the practical session.
 You are not allowed to bring additional notes to the practical session.

FOR MARKING SCHEMES CONTACT 0746-222-000 / 0742-999-000

THE TEST
Your cousin is coming to visit you at your home. Using the ingredients listed below, prepare, cook
and serve a one-course meal and a dessert for two of you.

Ingredients
- Rice/maize flour/wheat flour
- Beef/Chicken/Peas
- Tomatoes
- Onions
- Dhania
- Kales/cabbages
- Fruits
- Sugar
- Fat
- Royco
- Salt
- Capsicum

Planning Session.
Use separate sheets of paper for each task listed below and a carbon paper to make duplicate copies
and proceed as follows:-
(i). Identify the dishes and write down their recipes
(ii). Write down your order of work.
(iii). Make a list of the food stuff, equipment and materials you would require.

Instructions to the candidates

- Read the test carefully.
- Write your name and index number on every sheet of paper used.
- Text books and recipes may be used during planning session as reference materials.
- You will be expected to keep to your order of work during practical session.
- You are not allowed to bring any additional notes to the practical session.
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FOR MARKING SCHEMES CONTACT 0746-222-000 / 0742-999-000

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

THE END
FOR THE FOLLOWING;
 ONLINE TUITION
 REVISION NOTES
 SCHEMES OF WORK
 SETBOOKS VIDEOS
 TERMLY EXAMS
 QUICK REVISION KITS
 KCSE TOPICALS
 KCSE PREMOCKS
 TOP SCHOOLS PREMOCKS
 JOINT PREMOCKS
 KCSE MOCKS
 TOP SCHOOLS MOCKS
 JOINT MOCKS
 KCSE POSTMOCKS
 TOP SCHOOLS PREDICTIONS
 KCSE PREDICTIONS
 KCSE REVEALED SETS

FOR MARKING SCHEMES CONTACT 0746-222-000 / 0742-999-000

CALL/TEXT/WHATSAPP

0746-222-000
0742-999-000

[email protected]

This is a Copyright Property of Mwalimu

Consultancy Ltd.

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