1. An obstetrical patient has had 3 pregnancies.

es. Her first baby was healthy, the second was jaundices at birth and required and exchange
transfusion, while the third was still born. Which of the following is the most likely cause?

Rh incompatibility

2. The Kell (K1) antigen is?

Strongly immunogenic

3. A patient has an anti-I (4+), anti-i (1+) and anti-i (+/-). What is the phenotype of the patient?
T

Adult I

4. 3+ reactions of indirect anti-globulin tests were obtained in a pre-transfusion testing

Presence of warm autoantibodies

5. No. 57 of BOC (9x9)

81

6. A blood donor has the genotype: hh, AB. What is his red blood cell phenotype?
O

7. Donor results show: anti-D (+), anti-C (+), anti-E (-), anti-c and anti-e (-). What is his genotype?
R1r

8. No. 84 of BOC (alleged father, mother and child)

Paternity can be excluded on the basis of Rh testing

9. Lutheran antibody best detected at a lower temperature

a
Anti-Lu

10. PCH is associated with?

P blood group

11. Cold agglutinin syndrome is associated with?

I blood group

12. A unit of FFP was inadvertently thawed and then immediately refrigerated at 4C on Monday morning. On Tuesday evening, this unit may still
be transfused as a replacement for?

Factor IX

13. A newborn demonstrates petechiae, ecchymosis and mucosal bleeding. What should be transfused?
Platelets

14. Which of the following is associated with HDFN?

Kell

15. In suspected cases of HDFN, a baby’s blood smear provides what information?
Presence of spherocytes

16. The liley method of predicting the severity of HDFN is based on?
Change in optical density at 450nm

17. A kleihauer-betke stain of a post-partum blood film reveals 0.3% fetal cells. What is the estimated volume of the fetomaternal haemorrhage?
15mL

18. Mixed field agglutination encountered in ABO grouping with no history of transfusion would most likely be due to?
A3

19. A patient received 2 units of RBCs and had a delayed transfusion reaction. Pretransfusion antibody screen records indicate no agglutination
except after the addition of IgG sensitized cells. Repeat testing of the specimen detected an antibody at the AHG phase. What is the most likely
explanation?

Patient serum has been omitted in the initial test

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 20. The major crossmatch will detect?
Recipient antibodies against donor antigens

21. No. 196 of BOC (donor 1 incompatibility)

Single alloantibody

22. During emergency situations when there is no time to determine the ABO and Rh type on a current sample for transfusion, the patient is
known to be A+. What should be released?

O Rh positive

23. A patient received 4 units of blood 2 years previously and now has multiple antibodies. He has not been transfused since that time. It would
be most helpful to?

Phenotype his cells

24. A 56y/o female with cold agglutinin syndrome has a positive DAT. When the DAT is repeated using monospecific antiglobulin sera, which of
the following is most likely to be detected?

C3d

25. Serological results are: IgG (-), C3d (+) and eluate (-)
Cold agglutinin syndrome

26. Indirect antiglobulin tests showed positive, what is the best way to find a compatible blood?
Warm autoadsorption

27. A trauma patient who has just received 10 units of blood may develop what?
Thrombocytopenia

28. Washed red blood cells would be a product of choice for patients with?
Anti-IgA

29. What is the cause of the presence of polyagglutination?

Red cell alloimmunization

30. If platelet concentrates are pooled at 4:35pm, until when will it be viable?
8:35pm (4hrs)

31. Post transfusion purpura occurs if patients are transfused with?

Platelets

32. A patient received units of platelet concentrates. After transfusion, he had a platelet increment of 37,000. The patient is?
Responding well (double check computation)

33. Blood group antigen or antibody that was once or is related to HLA
Bg (Bennett Goodspeed)

34. Blood group that confers susceptibility to E.coli

P blood group

35. How minutes should a light spin be?

3 minutes

36. What is the temperature of the centrifuge to be used in preparing FFP from whole blood?
1-6°C

37. How many seconds should the iodine be in contact with the skin?
30 seconds

38. How many mL of red blood cells present in platelet concentrates will require crossmatching?

39. Babies with HDFN will exhibit which of the following:

➢ enlarged organs

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 ➢ decreased albumin production
➢ portal hypotension
Enlarged organs and decreased albumin

40. A patient has antibodies to cellano antigen… what is the phenotype?

41. If a patient is AB- what is the least red blood cell of choice to be transfused?
O Rh negative

42. Computation for the volume to be transfused in exchange transfusion:

➢ Total weight = 1040 grams
➢ Pre transfusion HCT = 13%
➢ Post transfusion HCT = 39%
➢ HCT of unit transfused = 85%
➢ 0.14g/mL
44.53mL

43. A positive direct antiglobulin test is seen in which of the following:

➢ Disease states
➢ Transfusion reaction
➢ Delayed HTR

44. Allowable volume to be donated if donor is only 105lbs

430mL

45. How many times should the patient be monitored during the first hour after transfusion?
Every 15 minutes

46. Rate of transfusion per minute?

2mL/min

47. What is the minimum HCT of RBC pheresis product?

80%

48. What is the HCT of RBC units stored after 24hours?

33%

49. During blood donation, donors are to pump their fist every after?
10-12 seconds

50. “Area” to be scrubbed during aseptic technique

4cm (1.5cm)

51. Blood donated must not exceed how many mL per body weight?
10.5 mL per kilogram body weight without the volume of anticoagulant

52. Operational techniques and activities used to monitor and eliminate causes of unsatisfactory performance at any stage of a process.
Quality control

53. Measurable aspects of processes or outcomes that provide an indication of the conditions or direction of performance over time
Quality indicators

54. All are advantages of blood donation except?

➢ Supplements blood supply

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 ➢ Prevents transfusion transmitted disease
➢ Prevents red cell alloimmunization
➢ Eliminates the risk of ABO incompatibility error
Eliminates the risk of ABO incompatibility error

55. Antibody screen

Anti-C

56. ISBT number of the blood group

ISBT 004

57. CD marker found in the blood group

CD240

58. How many samples should be tested if 3 units of Fya- blood are needed? 90.8% incidence of FYa+
4

59. Citrate phosphate dextrose

Gibson

60. Cold ethanol fractionation

Cohn

61. First successful blood transfusion with prior crossmatching or testing

Hecktoen

62. If a solid phase red cell agglutination is employed, how long will the reaction be stable?

63. If EDTA is used as an anticoagulant of a pretransfusion specimen, how long can the sample be stored at 20C?
Pretransfusion samples are kept for at least 7 days

64. A false positive gel diffusion is seen in:

➢ Multiple myeloma
➢ Waldenstrom macroglobulinemia
➢ Plasma expanders of low molecular weight

65. Specific gravity of copper sulphate

1.053

66. In ABO HDFN, what is the best sample to be used?

Maternal serum

67. Minimum granulocyte concentration per unit in granulopheresis

10
1.0 x 10

68. Conditions that is/are contraindicated for autologous donation:

➢ Visible infection
➢ Unstable angina
➢ Cyanotic heart disease
➢ Patient with pulmonary disease but has been cleared by the physician for surgery
Visible infection

69. Viability of FFP if stored at -65C

7 years

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 70. Viability of RBCs treated with high glycerolization technique
10 years

71. Viruses can be removed from cryoprecipitate by?

➢ Heating in liquid form
➢ Heating in lyophilised form
➢ UV radiation

72. Blood unit that is most associated with the possibility of causing sepsis
Platelets

73. If a tourniquet is to be used, at what mmHg should it be maintained?

40-60mmHg

74. Platelets can be prepared from whole blood donation if it was stored at what temperature?
20-24°C

75. Conditions that are related to an ABO discrepancy of weak or missing antigens
Acquired B phenomenon, Leukemia, Hodgkin’s disease, Malignancy and ABO subgroups

76. Initial temperature used in low glycerol method of freezing RBCs

-196°C

77. Donor blood collection usually takes how many minutes?

7-10 minutes, maximum of 15 minutes

78. Donors for apheresis are screened for total protein, what is the normal value accepted?
60mg/dL

79. Storage lesion effects

Increased plasma potassium

80. During blood donation, only 400mL was collected, what should be done?
➢ Discard the specimen
➢ Label as Low blood volume
➢ Transfuse as packed red blood cell

81. Second only to D in immunogenicity

Kell

82. Solid phase red cell adherence is used in which of the following:
➢ Crossmatching
➢ Antibody screen
➢ Antibody identification
Crossmatching and antibody screen

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 1. Most blood group systems are inherited as: Autosomal
codominant
2. A donor is tested with Rh antisera with the following result:
Anti D (+), Anti C (+), Anti E (0), Anti c (+), Anti e (+):
Rr 1

3. Relationship testing produces the following red cell

phenotyping results: Paternity may be excluded on the basis
of Rh typing
ABO Rh
Alleged Father B D+C-c+E+e-
Mother O D+C+E-c-e+
Child O D+C+E-c+e+

4. The antibody in the Lutheran system that is best detected at

lower temperatures: anti-Lu a

5. Cold agglutinin syndrome is associated with an antibody

specificity toward which of the following?: I
6. A unit of Fresh Frozen Plasma was inadvertently thawed
and then immediately refrigerated at 4 C on Monday
o

morning. On Tuesday evening this unit may still be

transfused as a replacement for: Factor IX
7. A newborn demonstrates petechiae, ecchymosis, and
mucosal bleeding. The preferred blood component for this
infant would be: Platelets
8. An obstetrical patient has had 3 previous pregnancies. Her
first baby was healthy, the second was jaundiced at birth
and required an exchange transfusion, while the third was
stillborn. Which of the following is the most likely cause?:
Rh incompatibility
9. Which of the following antigens is most likely to be
involved in Hemolytic Disease of the Newborn?: Kell
 10. A group A, Rh positive infant of a group O, Rh positive
mother has a weakly positive direct antiglobulin test and a
moderately elevated bilirubin 12 hours after birth. The most
likely cause is: ABO incompatibility
11. In suspected cases of Hemolytic Disease of the Newborn,
what significant information can be obtained from the
baby’s blood smear?: Determination of the presence of
spherocytes
12. The results of a Kleihauer-Betke stain indicate a
fetomaternal hemorrhage of 35mL of whole blood. How
many vials of Rh immune globulin would be required? 2
13. A Kleihauer-Betke stain of a postpartum blood film
revealed 0.3% fetal cells. What is the estimated volume
(mL) of the fetomaternal hemorrhage expressed as whole
blood?: 15
14. Mixed field agglutination encountered in ABO grouping
with no history of transfusion would most likely be due to:
A red cells
3

15. The following results were obtained in pretransfusion

testing: A warm autoantibody
37oC IAT
Screening Cell I 0 3+
Screening Cell II 0 3+
Autocontrol 0 3+
16. A 42-year-old female is undergoing surgery tomorrow and
her physician requests that 4 units of RBCs be
crossmatched. The following results were obtained. What is
the most likely cause of the incompatibility of donor 1?:
Single Alloantibody
IS 37oC IAT
Screening Cell I 0 0 0
Screening Cell II 0 0 0
Screening Cell III 0 0 0

Crossmatch IS 37oC IAT

Donor 1 2+ 1+ 1+
Donor 2,3,4 0 0 0
17. A patient received 4 units of blood 2 years previously and
now has multiple antibodies. He has not been transfused
since that time. It would be most helpful to: Phenotype his
cells to determine which additionally alloantibodies may be
produced
18. Autoantibodies demonstrating blood group specificity in
warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia are associated more
often with which blood group system? Rh
19. What increment of platelets/uL (platelets/L), in the typical
70kg human, is expected to result from each single unit of
Platelets transfused to a non-HLA sensitized recipient?
5,000-10,000
20. Washed RBCs would be the product of choice for a
patient with: Anti-IgA antibodies
21. The most serious hemolytic transfusion reactions are due
to incompatibility in which of the following blood group
systems?: ABO
22. Severe intravascular hemolysis is most likely caused by
antibodies of which blood group system?: ABO
23. Which of the following blood group systems is most
commonly associated with delayed hemolytic transfusion
reactions?: Kidd
24. A trauma patient who has just received ten units of blood
may develop: Thrombocytopenia
25. Posttransfusion anaphylactic reactions occur most often in
patients with: IgA deficiency
26. Which of the following is a nonimmunologic adverse
effect of a transfusion?: Congestive Heart Failure
27. Irradiation of donor blood is done to prevent which of the
following adverse effects of transfusion? Transfusion
associated graft-vs-host disease
28. Frozen RBC: Initial freezing temperature - -80 C ; Long
o

term temperature - -65 C 10 years

o
29. Washed RBCs: PNH, severe allergic reactions, IgA
deficiency, febrile, anaphylactic
30. A 70-kg man has a platelet count of 15,000/uL, and there
are no complicating factors such as fever or HLA
sensitization. If he is given a platelet pool of 6 units, what
would you expect his posttransfusion count to be?: 45,000-
75,000/uL
31. Red blood cells, liquid: 1-6 C o

Red blood cells, frozen: -65 C o

Fresh-frozen plasma: -18 Co

Cryoprecipitate: -18 C
o

Platelet Concentrate: 20-24 C o

32. Which of the following is generally detected at the

antiglobulin phase of testing?: Anti-Jk (IgG: Jk , Duffy, Rh,
a a

Kell)
33. Which of the blood group system is associated with
antibodies that are generally IgM?: Lewis (IgM: M, P, I,
Lewis)
34. A patient showed positive results with screening cells and
4 donor units. The patient autocontrol was negative. What
is the most likely antibody?: Anti-k
35. The crossmatch is performed using: Donor’s red cells and
recipient’s serum
36. A unit of whole blood is collected at 10:00am ad stored at
20-24oC. What is the last hour platelet concentrates may be
made from this unit?: 6:00pm
37. A patient has a hemoglobin value of 8.1 g/dL. The
surgeon wants to raise the hemoglobin to 10 g/dL before
surgery. How many units of RBC need to be administered
to this patient to raise the hemoglobin to the required
level?: 2 (1g/dL × 2 = 2 + 8 = 10g/dL)
38. Cryoprecipitate may be used to treat all of the following,
except: Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)
39. What component(s) is (are) indicated for patients who
 have anti-IgA antibodies?: Washed or deglycerolized RBCs
40. How many bags (units) should be thawed and pooled to
provide 2g of fibrinogen?: 8 (0.25g/unit)
41. What type of transfusion reaction is often diagnosed by a
positive DAT and a gradual drop in the patient's
hemoglobin level?: Delayed hemolytic
42. FFP can be transfused without regard for: Rh type
43. Which is the class of immunoglobulin uniquely associated
with hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN)?: IgG
(IgG3)
44. A blood supplier ships 3 units of pooled cryoprecipitate.
Each pool consists of 5 units of cryoprecipitate. If one unit
is thawed at 5:00pm when must it be dispensed from the
blood bank? Before 9:00 pm
45. Autologous donations: Prevention of transfusion-
transmitted diseases, prevention of alloimmunization,
supplementing blood supply, prevention of febrile and
allergic reactions, reassurance of patient
46. Sepsis blood component
47. Greater risk of autologous blood donation: unstable
angina, recent myocardial infarction or cerebrovascular
accident, significant cardiac or pulmonary disease with
ongoing symptoms but without an evaluation by the
treating physician, untreated aortic stenosis
48. Introduced the formula for the preservative ACD? Loutit
and Mallison
49. Ethanol fractionation (albumin, gamma globulin,
fibrinogen)? Edwin cohn
50. First to perform blood transfusion using blood typing and
crossmatching? Reuben Ottenberg
51. Cold agglutinin syndrome: Anti I
52. E. coli: Anti P
Bb
[ ] ISBT 001,2,4,6,8,9
[ ] Minor blood groups
[ ] Converting antigens to other naming systems
[ ] Antibody panel
[ ] Forward and reverse typing, troubleshoot and implications
[ ] History , inventors, pioneers
[ ] Reagents
[ ] Blood transfusion
[ ] Blood transfusion calculations
[ ] No deferral periods
[ ] Antigens and antibodies
[ ] Disease associated to blood group systems
[ ] HLA
[ ] Test principles , indications and contraindications
[ ] Warm and cold reactinf antibodies
Ab panel
Antithetical blood group
Ax, A3
How many minutes matuyo yung iodophore
Ilang minutes according to WHO yung pag-monitor ng 1st time
donees
Gano dapat kabilis pag-infuse ng blood: 1mL/min, 2mL/min,
6mL/min, 8mL/min
Rh blood group din
BLOOD BANK
1. Most blood group systems are inherited as: Autosomal codominant

2. A donor is tested with Rh antisera with the following result: Anti D (+), Anti C (+), Anti E (0), Anti
c (+), Anti e (+): R1r

3. Relationship testing produces the following red cell phenotyping results: Paternity may be
excluded on the basis of Rh typing

ABO Rh

Alleged Father B D+C-c+E+e-

Mother O D+C+E-c-e+

Child O D+C+E-c+e+

4. The antibody in the Lutheran system that is best detected at lower temperatures: anti-Lua

5. Cold agglutinin syndrome is associated with an antibody specificity toward which of the
following?: I

6. A unit of Fresh Frozen Plasma was inadvertently thawed and then immediately refrigerated at
4oC on Monday morning. On Tuesday evening this unit may still be transfused as a replacement
for: Factor IX

7. A newborn demonstrates petechiae, ecchymosis, and mucosal bleeding. The preferred blood
component for this infant would be: Platelets

8. An obstetrical patient has had 3 previous pregnancies. Her first baby was healthy, the second
was jaundiced at birth and required an exchange transfusion, while the third was stillborn. Which
of the following is the most likely cause?: Rh incompatibility

9. Which of the following antigens is most likely to be involved in Hemolytic Disease of the
Newborn?: Kell

10. A group A, Rh positive infant of a group O, Rh positive mother has a weakly positive direct
antiglobulin test and a moderately elevated bilirubin 12 hours after birth. The most likely cause is:
ABO incompatibility

11. In suspected cases of Hemolytic Disease of the Newborn, what significant information can be
obtained from the baby’s blood smear?: Determination of the presence of spherocytes

12. The results of a Kleihauer-Betke stain indicate a fetomaternal hemorrhage of 35mL of whole
blood. How many vials of Rh immune globulin would be required? 2

13. A Kleihauer-Betke stain of a postpartum blood film revealed 0.3% fetal cells. What is the
estimated volume (mL) of the fetomaternal hemorrhage expressed as whole blood?: 15 (% of fetal
cells × 50)
14. Mixed field agglutination encountered in ABO grouping with no history of transfusion would most
likely be due to: A3 red cells

15. The following results were obtained in pretransfusion testing: A warm autoantibody

37oC IAT

Screening Cell I 0 3+

Screening Cell II 0 3+

Autocontrol 0 3+

16. A 42-year-old female is undergoing surgery tomorrow and her physician requests that 4 units of
RBCs be crossmatched. The following results were obtained. What is the most likely cause of the
incompatibility of donor 1?: Single Alloantibody

IS 37oC IAT

Screening 0 0 0
Cell I

Screening 0 0 0
Cell II

Screening 0 0 0
Cell III

Crossmatch IS 37oC IAT

Donor 1 2+ 1+ 1+

Donor 2,3,4 0 0 0

17. A patient received 4 units of blood 2 years previously and now has multiple antibodies. He has
not been transfused since that time. It would be most helpful to: Phenotype his cells to determine
which additionally alloantibodies may be produced

18. Autoantibodies demonstrating blood group specificity in warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia are
associated more often with which blood group system? Rh

19. What increment of platelets/uL (platelets/L), in the typical 70kg human, is expected to result from
each single unit of Platelets transfused to a non-HLA sensitized recipient? 5,000-10,000

20. Washed RBCs would be the product of choice for a patient with: Anti-IgA antibodies

21. The most serious hemolytic transfusion reactions are due to incompatibility in which of the
following blood group systems?: ABO
22. Severe intravascular hemolysis is most likely caused by antibodies of which blood group
system?: ABO

23. Which of the following blood group systems is most commonly associated with delayed hemolytic
transfusion reactions?: Kidd

24. A trauma patient who has just received ten units of blood may develop: Thrombocytopenia

25. Posttransfusion anaphylactic reactions occur most often in patients with: IgA deficiency

26. Which of the following is a nonimmunologic adverse effect of a transfusion?: Congestive Heart
Failure

27. Irradiation of donor blood is done to prevent which of the following adverse effects of
transfusion? Transfusion associated graft-vs-host disease

28. Frozen RBC: Initial freezing temperature - -80oC ; Long term temperature - -65oC 10 years

29. Washed RBCs: PNH, severe allergic reactions, IgA deficiency, febrile, anaphylactic

30. A 70-kg man has a platelet count of 15,000/uL, and there are no complicating factors such as
fever or HLA sensitization. If he is given a platelet pool of 6 units, what would you expect his
posttransfusion count to be?: 45,000-75,000/uL

31. Red blood cells, liquid: 1-6oC

Red blood cells, frozen: -65oC

Fresh-frozen plasma: -18oC

Cryoprecipitate: -18oC

Platelet Concentrate: 20-24oC

32. Which of the following is generally detected at the antiglobulin phase of testing?: Anti-Jka (IgG:
Jka, Duffy, Rh, Kell)

33. Which of the blood group system is associated with antibodies that are generally IgM?: Lewis
(IgM: M, P, I, Lewis)

34. A patient showed positive results with screening cells and 4 donor units. The patient autocontrol
was negative. What is the most likely antibody?: Anti-k

35. The crossmatch is performed using: Donor’s red cells and recipient’s serum

36. A unit of whole blood is collected at 10:00am ad stored at 20-24 oC. What is the last hour platelet
concentrates may be made from this unit?: 6:00pm

37. A patient has a hemoglobin value of 8.1 g/dL. The surgeon wants to raise the hemoglobin to 10
g/dL before surgery. How many units of RBC need to be administered to this patient to raise the
hemoglobin to the required level?: 2 (1g/dL × 2 = 2 + 8 = 10g/dL)

38. Cryoprecipitate may be used to treat all of the following, except: Idiopathic thrombocytopenic
purpura (ITP)
39. What component(s) is (are) indicated for patients who have anti-IgA antibodies?: Washed or
deglycerolized RBCs

40. How many bags (units) should be thawed and pooled to provide 2g of fibrinogen?: 8 (0.25g/unit)

41. What type of transfusion reaction is often diagnosed by a positive DAT and a gradual drop in the
patient's hemoglobin level?: Delayed hemolytic

42. FFP can be transfused without regard for: Rh type

43. Which is the class of immunoglobulin uniquely associated with hemolytic disease of the newborn
(HDN)?: IgG (IgG3)

44. A blood supplier ships 3 units of pooled cryoprecipitate. Each pool consists of 5 units of
cryoprecipitate. If one unit is thawed at 5:00pm when must it be dispensed from the blood bank?
Before 9:00 pm

45. Autologous donations: Prevention of transfusion-transmitted diseases, prevention of

alloimmunization, supplementing blood supply, prevention of febrile and allergic reactions,
reassurance of patient

46. Greater risk of autologous blood donation: unstable angina, recent myocardial infarction or
cerebrovascular accident, significant cardiac or pulmonary disease with ongoing symptoms but
without an evaluation by the treating physician, untreated aortic stenosis

47. Introduced the formula for the preservative ACD? Loutit and Mallison

48. Ethanol fractionation (albumin, gamma globulin, fibrinogen)? Edwin Cohn

49. First to perform blood transfusion using blood typing and crossmatching? Reuben Ottenberg

50. Cold agglutinin syndrome: Anti I

51. E. coli: Anti P

52. Deglycerolized RBC: Autologous transfusion

53. Platelet concentrate preparation, light spin: 3200g for 2-3 minutes

54. Hematocrit level of PRBC: <80% (65-80%)

55. Low glycerol 20%w/v glycerol (fast freezing): -196oC

56. 2 bags cryoprecipitate: 160IU (80IU per bag)

57. Granulocyte concentrate contains: 1×1010 granulocytes

58. Plasmapheresis (Donation Eligibility): More than 2 days

59. Type II Discrepancy

Anti A Anti B A cells B cells

 + + + 0

60. Kell (K): Second to D in terms of immunogenicity (D>K>c>E>C>e)

61. Allelic gene of K: k (Cellano)

62. HTLA: York

63. Copper Sulfate (CuSO4) specific gravity: 1.053

64. Best anti-sera in identifying subgroups of A: Anti-A and anti-A 1

65. Shelf life of platelet concentrate after pooling (Open system): 4 hours

66. Cellano: k

67. Lewis antibodies of pregnant women exhibit the: Le(a-b-)

68. Light spin: 2-3 minutes at 22oC

69. Bacterial contamination (sepsis) is most likely in which of the following blood products?: Platelets

70. A 26 year old female is admitted with anemia of undetermined origin. Blood samples are
received with a crossmatch request for 6 units of red blood cells. The patient is group A,
Rh-negative and has no history of transfusion or pregnancy. The following results were obtained
in pretransfusion testing: Perform a warm autoadsorption

IS 37oC IAT

Screening cell 0 0 3+
I

Screening cell 0 0 3+
II

Autocontrol 0 0 3+

All 6 donors 0 0 3+

71. (-) IgG, (+) C3d: Cold agglutinin syndrome, paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria, warm autoimmune
hemolytic anemia

72. (+) IgG, (-) C3d, (+) DAT: WAIHA

73. (+) IgG, (-) C3d, (-)DAT: …

74. (+) IgG, (+) C3d: Mixed type AIHA (warm and cold)

75. Le, sese, hh, : Oh Le (a+ b-)

76. 400mL of blood was drawn: Unit must be discarded

77. Most sensitive DAT method: Gel test / gel card

78. Donors are allowed to donate no more than 10.5 mL/kg of their body weight. This amount
includes the samples used for testing drawn at the time of collection.

79. Plateletpheresis should contain a minimum of: 3.0 × 1011 platelets

80. Monitor infusion every 15 minutes (?) within an hour

81.
REREFUCK BLOOD BANKING
1. Cold ethanol fraction (obtaining fraction I to V by cold ethanol fractionation method – Cohn’s method)
a. Edwin J Cohn
Edwin Cohn
b. Loutit and Mollison
2. Discovers the AHG
a. Coombs, Race, and Mourant Coombs, Race, and Mourant
b. Karl Landsteiner
3. Introduced the formula for the preservative ACD?
a. Loutit and Mollison Loutit and Mollison
4. First to perform blood transfusion using the ABO blood typing and crossmatching?
a. Karl Landsteiner
Reubern Ottenberg
b. Reubern Ottenberg
5. Percentage of hemoglobin in 1 unit of blood
6. Percentage of hemoglobin in whole blood
7. Freeze dried FFP storage time 7 years
8. Total hematocrit of whole blood ~38%
9. Frequency of checking the patient in the first hour of transfusion
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
10. 105 lbs, how much blood to be collected?
a. 450 mL
b. 440 mL 430 mL [How to Get: (105/110) x 450 mL]
c. 430 mL
d. 427 mL
11. How many bags (units) should be thawed and pooled to provide 2g of fibrinogen?
a. 8 (0.25g/unit) 8 units
12. What type of transfusion reaction is often diagnosed by a positive DAT and a gradual drop in the patient’s
hemoglobin level?
delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction
a. Delayed hemolytic
13. A unit of Fresh Frozen Plasma was inadvertently thawed and then immediately refrigerated at 4oC on Monday
morning. On Tuesday evening this unit may still be transfused as a replacement for:
a. Factor IX
b. Factor X Factor IX
c. Factor VIII
d. Factor VII
14. A patient has a hemoglobin A patient has a hemoglobin value of 8.1 g/dL. The surgeon wants to raise the
hemoglobin to 10 g/dL before surgery. How many units of RBC need to be administered to this patient to
raise the hemoglobin to the required level? (1g/dL × 2 = 2 + 8 = 10g/dL)
a. 1
b. 2 2
c. 3
d. 4
15. A unit fo whole blood is collected at 10:00 am and stored at 20-24degC. What is the last hour platelet
concentrated may be made from this unit?
a. 8:00 pm
b. 9:00 pm 6:00 PM
c. 6:00 pm
16. Antibody screen (-), AHG (+)
a. Neutralized by AHG patient's serum was omitted from the original testing
b. Absence of serum in original …

BAUTISTA, C.
 17. Acute normovolemic hemodilution
18. Le phenotype of pregnant women
a. Le (a+b-)
b. Le (a-b+) Le(a-b-)
c. Le (a-b-)
d. Le (a+b+
19. CCI computation
20. The crossmatch is performed using:
a. Donor’s red cells and recipient’s serum Donor's red cells and recipient's serum
21. A patient showed positive results with screening cells and 4 donor units. The patient autocontrol was
negative. What is the most likely antibody?
a. Anti-k
b. Anti-M
c. Anti-Fya Anti-k
d. Anti-P
22. Which of the blood group system is associated with antibodies that are generally IgM? (IgM: M, P, I, Lewis)
a. Le
b. Rh
Le
c. Jka
d. Fya
23. Which of the following is generally detected at the antiglobulin phase of testing? (IgG: Rh, Duffy, Kell,
Kidd)
a. Jka
b. M Jk^a
c. P
d. ABO
24. Cold agglutinin syndrome is associated with an antibody specificity toward which of the following
a. I
b. Fy:3
c. Rh:1 I antigen
d. P
25. Antisera for detection of A1 and A2
26. Relationship testing produces the following red cell phenotyping results:
ABO Rh
Alleged Father B D+C-c+E+e-
Mother O D+C+E-c-e+
Child O D+C+E-c+e+

a. Paternity may be excluded on the basis of ABO typing Paternity may be excluded on the basis
b. Paternity may be excluded on the basis of HLA typing of Rh typing
c. Paternity may be excluded on the basis of Rh typing
27. Which class of immunoglobulin uniquely associated with HDN? Severe HDN requires exchange transfusion
a. IgG1
b. IgG2
c. IgG3 IgG1
d. IgG4
28. What blood type is the least to be transfused to a patient with type AB RhD (-)?
a. O RhD (-)
b. A RhD (-)
c. O (DCE (-))
d. AB RhD (-)

BAUTISTA, C.
 29. A donor is tested with Rh antisera with the following result: Anti D (+), Anti C (+), Anti E (0), Anti c (+),
Anti e (+)
a. R1r
b. R1R1 R1r
c. R2R2
d. rr
30. Relationship testing produces the following red cell phenotyping results: What conclusion may be made?

ABO Rh
Alleged father B D+C-c+E+e-
Mother O D+C+E-c-e+
Child O D+C+E-c+e+

a. There is no exclusion of paternity

b. Paternity may be excluded on the basis of ABO typing Paternity may be excluded on the
c. Paternity may be excluded on the basis of Rh typing basis of Rh typing
d. Paternity may be excluded on the basis of both ABO and Rh typing
31. A newborn demonstrates petechiae, ecchymosis, and mucosal bleeding. The preferred blood component for
this infant would be:
a. Platelets.
b. Cryoprecipitated AHF Platelets
c. RBCs
d. Leukocytes
32. HDFN
a. Decreased production of albumin by the liver
b. Portal hypotension
c. Splenomegaly
33. The antibody in the Lutheran system that is best detected at low temperatures:
a. Lua
b. Leb anti-Lu^a
34. A patient is typed with the following results: Patient’s cells with Anti - A, B (2+), Patient’s serum with A1
red cells (2+), B red cells (4+), Ab screen (0). The most probable reason for these findings is that the patient
is group:
a. A
b. A1 Ax, with an anti-A1
c. AB
d. O
35. Deglycerolized RBC is used mainly for
a. … leukoagglutinins For patients with PNH and IgA deficiencies with anti-IgA
b. … platelet antibodies
36. The following results were obtained in pretransfusion testing:
37degC IAT
Screening cell 0 3+
I
Screening cell 0 3+
II
Autocontrol 0 3+
The most probable cause of these results is:
a. Rouleaux
b. A warm autoantibody A warm autoantibody
c. A cold autoantibody
d. Multiple alloantibodies

BAUTISTA, C.
 37. A Kleihauer-Betke stain of a postpartum blood film revealed 0.3% fetal cells. What is the estimated volume
(mL) of the fetomaternal hemorrhage expressed as whole blood?
a. 5
b. 15 15
c. 25
d. 35
38. Transfusion with screening – WHO
39. The major crossmatch will detect a(n):
a. Recipient antibody directed against antigens on the donor red cells recipient antibody direct against
b. Recipient antigen against donor red cells antigens on the donor red cells
40. Cryoprecipitate (Cryoprecipitated antihemophilic factor): (1) >/- 150 mg of fibrinogen (2) >/- 80IU/bag of
Factor VIII (3) A cold insoluble portion of plasma (4)
a. 1, 2, 3
b. 1 and 2 1,2,3
c. 2, 3, 4
d. 1, 2, 3, 4
41. An assay of plasma from a bag of Cryoprecipitated AHF yields a concentration of 9 international units (IU)
of Factor VIII per mL of Cryoprecipitated AHF. If the volume is 9 mL, what is the Factor VIII content of the
bag in IU?
a. 9
b. 18 81
c. 27
d. 81
42. In a quality assurance program, Cryoprecipitated AHF must contain a minimum of how many international
units of Factor VIII?
a. 60
b. 70 80
c. 80
d. 90
43. Cryoprecipitated AHF contains how many units of Factor VIII?
a. 40
b. 80
c. 130 80
d. 250
44. An individual has been sensitized to the k antigen and has produced anti-k. What is her most probable Kell
system genotype?
a. Kk
b. KK KK
c. Kk
d. K0K0
45. Most blood group systems are inherited as:
a. Sex-linked dominant
b. Sex-linked recessive Autosomal codominant
c. Autosomal recessive
d. Autosomal codominant
46. Copper sulphate method
a. 0.51
b. 0.53
1.053 is the density of the copper sulfate solution
c. 0.55
d. 0.57
47. 90.8%
a. 32
b. 33
c. 34
d. 35

BAUTISTA, C.
 48. Which of the following antigens gives enhanced reactions with its corresponding antibody following
treatment of the red cells with proteolytic enzymes?
a. Fya
b. E E
c. S
d. M

49. Which one of the following is an indicator of polyagglutination?

a. RBCs typing as weak D+
b. Presence of red cell autoantibody Agglutination with normal adult ABO
c. Decreased serum bilirubin compatible sera
d. Agglutination with normal adult ABO compatible sera
50. The following results were obtained in pretransfusion testing:
37oC IAT
Screening Cell I 0 3+
Screening Cell II 0 3+
Autocontrol 0 3+

a. Multiple alloantibodies
b. A warm autoantibody
A warm autoantibody
c. A cold autoantibody
d. Single alloantibody
51. A 42-year-old female is undergoing surgery tomorrow and her physician requests that 4 units of RBCs be
crossmatched. The following results were obtained: What is the most likely caused of the incompatibility of
donor 1?
IS 37degC IAT
Screening cell I 0 0 0
Screening cell II 0 0 0
Screening cell III 0 0 0

Crossmatch IS 37degC IAT

Donor 1 2+ 1+ 1+
Donors 2, 3, 4 0 0 0

a. Single alloantibody
b. Multiple alloantibodies Single alloantibody
c. Rh incompatibilities
d. Donor 1 has a positive DAT
52. A patient received 4 units of blood 2 years previously and now has multiple antibodies. He has not been
transfused since that time. It would be most helpful to:
a. Phenotype his cells to determine which additional alloantibodies may be produced
b. Recommend the use of directed donors, which are more likely to be compatible
c. Use proteolytic enzymes to destroy the “in vitro” activity of some of the antibodies
d. Freeze the patient’s serum to use for antigen typing of compatible units

phenotype his cells to determine which additional alloantibodies may be produced

BAUTISTA, C.
 53. A 26-year-old female is admitted with anemia of undetermined origin. Blood samples are received with a
crossmatch request for 6 units of RBCs. The patient is group A, Rh-negative and has no history of transfusion
or pregnancy. The following results were obtained in pretransfusion testing:
IS 37degC IAT
Screening cell I 0 0 3+
Screening cell II 0 0 3+
Autocontrol 0 0 3+
All 6 donors 0 0 3+

a. Do an antibody identification panel

b. Use the saline replacement technique Perform a warm autoadsorption
c. Use the pre-warm technique
d. Perform a warm autoadsorption

54. Severe intravascular hemolysis is most likely caused by antibodies of which blood group system?
a. ABO
b. Rh
c. Kell ABO
d. Duffy
55. Anti-LW
a. R1R1
b. R0R0
c. R2R2
d. rr
56. Bacterial sepsis
a. RBCs
b. Platelets transfuse leukocytes
c. Leukocytes
57. Which of the following is a nonimmunologic adverse effect of a transfusion?
a. Hemolytic reaction
b. Febrile nonhemolytic reaction
c. Congestive heart failure Congestive heart failure
d. Urticaria
58. A trauma patient who has just received 10 unites of blood may develop:
thrombocytopenia
a. Thrombocytopenia
59. Posttransfusion anaphylactic reactions occur most often in patients with:
a. IgA deficiency IgA deficiency
60. Which of the following blood group systems is most commonly associated with delayed hemolytic
transfusion systems?
a. Duffy
b. Kidd Kidd
c. ABO
d. Rh
61. What component(s) is (are) indicated for patients who have anti-IgA antibodies?
Washed RBCs
a. Washed or deglycerolized RBCs
62. Washed RBCs would be the product of choice for patient with: (1) PNH (2) Severe allergic reactions (3) IgA
deficiency
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 3 2 and 3 [Frozen RBCs is indicated for PNH]
c. 1 and 3
d. 1, 2, 3

BAUTISTA, C.
 63. What increment of platelets/uL (platelets/L), in the typical 70kg human, is expected to result from each single
unit of Platelets transfused to a non-HLA sensitized recipient? 5,000-10,000
a. 5,000 – 10,000
b. 10,000 – 15,000 5,000 to 10,000
c. 15,000 – 25,000
d. 25,000 – 35,000
64. Increase in platelets per unit of blood
a. 25,000 – 35,000
b. 40,000 - 50,000
c. 50,000 – 100,000
65. Nonimmunologic
a. Thermal injury
b. Emotional stress
66. Anti-IgG (+); Anti-C3d (-); Antibody screen (+); Eluate (+)
a. Drug induced
b. HDN, Passively acquired antibody only Drug-induced
c. Passively acquired antibody only
d. Cold agglutinin, Passively acquired antibody only
67. Anti-IgG (-); Anti-C3d (+); Antibody screen (+); Eluate (-)
a. Drug induced
b. HDN, Passively acquired antibody only Cold agglutinin, passively acquired antibody only
c. Passively acquired antibody only
d. Cold agglutinin, Passively acquired antibody only
68. Anti-IgG (+); Anti-C3d (-); Antibody screen (-); Eluate (-)
a. Drug induced HDN, passively acquired antibody only
b. HDN, Passively acquired antibody only
c. Passively acquired antibody only
d. Cold agglutinin, Passively acquired antibody only
69. Initial hemoglobin content of whole blood
70. Blood component preparation time
71. Autoantibodies demonstrating blood group specificity in warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia are associated
more often with which blood group system?
a. ABO
b. Rh Rh Blood Group System
c. HLA
72. Mixed field agglutination encountered in ABO grouping with no history of transfusion would most likely be
due to:
a. A3 red cells
b. Positive IAT
A3 Red Cells
c. Bombay phenotype (Oh)
d. T activation
73. The results of a Kleihauer-Betke stain indicate a fetomaternal hemorrhage of 35mL of whole blood. How
many vials of Rh immune globulin would be required?
a. 1
b. 2
2 vials for whole blood
c. 3
d. 4
74. Cells of the A3 subgroup will:
a. React with Dolichos biflorus
b. bE – with anti-A
c. give a mixed-field reaction with anti-A, B mixed-field agglutination
d. bE – with anti-H

BAUTISTA, C.
 75. Proteolytic enzyme treatment of red cells usually destroys which antigen?
a. Jka
b. E Duffy Antigen (Fy^a)
c. Fya
d. k
76. In suspected cases of Hemolytic Disease of the Newborn, what significant information can be obtained from
the baby’s blood smear?
a. Determination of the presence of spherocytes Determination of the presence of spherocytes
b. s
77. Anti-Fya is:
a. Usually a cold-reactive agglutinin
b. More reactive when tested with enzyme-treated red blood cells Capable of causing HTR
c. Capable of causing HTR
d. Often an autoagglutinin
78. HLA antigens typing is important in screening for:
c. ABO incompatibility
d. a kidney donor
a kidney donor
e. Rh incompatibility
f. A blood donor
79. DR antigens in the HLA system are:
a. Significant in organ transplantation
b. Not detectable in the lymphocytotoxicity test Significant in organ transplantation
c. Expressed on platelets
d. Expressed on granulocytes
80. A group A, Rh positive infant of a group O, Rh positive mother has a weakly positive direct antiglobulin test
and a moderately elevated bilirubin 12 hours after birth. The most likely cause is:
a. ABO incompatibility
b. Rh incompatibility ABO incompatibility
c. HLA incompatibility
81. Which of the following antigens is most likely to be involved in HDFN?
a. Kell
b. Duffy Kell
c. M
d. P
82. An obstetrical patient has had 3 previous pregnancies. Her first baby was healthy, the second was jaundiced
at birth and required an exchange transfusion, while the third was stillborn. Which of the following is the
most likely cause?
a. ABO incompatibility Rh incompatibility
b. Rh incompatibility
83. 400 mL blood collected low volume of blood
a. 8.5 kg/mL including all …
b. 8.5 kg/mL not including …
10.5 mL/kg including all samples for pretransfusion testing
c. 10.5 kg/mL including all …
d. 10.5 kg/mL not including …
84. 400 mL blood collected: (1) Store at 1-6degC (2) Label as “Low Volume RBC” (3) Can be used as PRBC
(4)
a. 1, 2, 3
b. 2, 3, 4 1,2,3 [If I can remember correctly, (4) is about discarding it.
c. 1, 2, 3, 4
d. 1 and 2
85. 40%w/v high glycerol content, May 12, 2013 If they're asking for expiration date of frozen RBCs, just add 10 years.
86. FFP can be transfused without regard for?
a. Rh type Rh Type

BAUTISTA, C.
 87. Blood group associated with HTLV
a. Wr
b. Bga This is supposed to be HTLA [High-Titer, Low-Avidity]; Yk^a
c. Yk
d. Coa
88. Ideal blood collection time
a. 2-8 minutes
b. 10-15 minutes According to DOH: 10-15 minutes
c. 12-20 minutes
89. Removal of virus
a. Lyophilized UV Rays
b. UV
90. Surface area
a. 1.1 m2
b. 1.2 m2
c. 1.3 m2
d. 1.4 m2
91. Rate of blood transfusion in an infant using a blood warmer
a. 5 mL/kg/hr
b. 10 mL/kg/hr
c. 15 mL/kg/hr
d. 20 mL/kg/hr
92. Low glycerol concentration temperature
a. -65degC
b. -80degC
Initial Temp: -196C; Maximum Storage Temp: -120C
c. -120degC
d. -196degC
93. Whole blood in 24 hours hematocrit 33%
94. Pre-transfusion serum sample at -20 can be stored at for 3 Days
95. A blood supplier ships 3 units of pooled cryoprecipitate. Each pool consists of 5 units of cryoprecipitate. If
one unit is thawed at 5:00pm when must it be dispensed from the blood bank? Before 9:00 pm
a. Before 9:00 pm Before 9:00 PM
96. Autologous donations: (1) Prevention of transfusion-transmitted diseases (2) Prevention of alloimmunization
(3) Supplementing blood supply (4) Prevention of febrile and allergic reactions (5) Reassurance of patient
a. 1, 2, 3
b. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
c. 3, 4, 5
d. 2, 3, 4
97. Greater risk of autologous blood donation: (1) Unstable angina (2) Recent myocardial infarction or
cerebrovascular accident (3) Significant cardiac or pulmonary disease with ongoing symptoms but without
an evaluation by the treating physician (4) Untreated aortic stenosis
a. 1, 2, 3
b. 1, 2, 3, 4
c. 2, 3, 4
d. 2 and 3
98. Anti-i: 3+; Anti-I: 1+; Anti-TI: +/-
a. Adult I
Adult i [Rationale: Notice descending grades of agglutination]
b. Adult i
99. Plasmapheresis should be at least
a. 4.5
b. 5.0
c. 5.5 6.0 [Rationale: This is the lower limit of the normal total protein value.]
d. 6.0

BAUTISTA, C.
 100. Granulocyte pheresis granulocyte count 1.0 x 10^10
101. Frozen RBCs: Initial freezing temperature -80degC; Long term temperature -65degC for 10 years For High Glycerol ONLY
102. Red cell pheresis hemoglobin content
103. Storage temperature
Red blood cells, liquid 1-6degC
Red blood cells, frozen -65degC
FFP -18degC
Cryoprecipitate -18degC
Platelet concentrate 20-24degC

104. False (+) IAT

a. Over centrifugation Overcentrifugation
b. Excess washing
105. Le/sese/hh/A
a. A Le(a-b+) Oh, Le(a+b-) [Rationale: The patient is a non-secretor as well as a Bombay
b. A Le(a+b-) phenotype]
c. H Le(a-b-)
106. E. coli, unchanged by enzyme
a. Anti-K
b. Anti-M
c. Anti-Fya Anti-M
d. Anti-P1
107. During the preparation of platelet concentrates from whole blood, the blood should be:
a. Cooled towards 6degC
b. Cooled towards 20-24degC
Cooled towards 20-24C
c. Warmed to 37degC
d. Heated to 57degC
108. Once thawed, FFP must be transfused within
a. 4 hours
b. 8 hours
c. 12 hours 24 Hours
d. 24 hours
109. According to AABB standards, platelets must be
a. Gently agitated if stored at room temperature
b. Separated within 12 hours of whole blood collection Gently agitated if stored at room temperature.
c. Suspended in sufficient plasma to maintain a pH of 5.0 or lower
d. Prepared only from whole blood units that have been stored at 4degC for 6 hours
110. Of the following blood components, which one should be used to prevent HLA alloimmunization of the
recipient?
a. RBCs
b. Granulocytes Leukocyte-reduced RBCs
c. Irradiated RBCs
d. Leukocyte-Reduced RBCs
111. An individual’s RBCs give the following reactions with Rh antisera: Anti-D (4+); Anti-C (3+); Anti-E (0);
Anti-c (3+); Anti-e (3+); Rh control (0). The individual’s most probable genotype is:
a. DCe/DcE
b. DcE/dce DCe/dce
c. Dce/dce
d. DCe/dce
112. Which of the following is proper procedure for preparation of platelets from whole blood?
a. Light spin followed by a hard spin
b. Light spin followed by 2 hard spins Light spin followed by a hard spin
c. 2 light spins
d. Hard spin followed by a light spin

BAUTISTA, C.
 113. Paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria (PCH) is associated with antibody specificity toward which of the
following?
a. Kell
b. Duffy P antigen
c. P
d. I
114. The antibodies of the Kidd blood group system:
a. React best by the IAT
b. Are predominantly IgM React best by the IAT
c. Often cause allergic transfusion reactions
d. Do not generally react with antigen-positive, enzyme-treated RBCs
115. A 10 mL fetal maternal hemorrhage in an Rh-negative woman who delivered an Rh-positive abby means
that the:
a. Mother’s antibody screen will be positive for anti-D
b. Rosette test will be positive
Rosette test will be positive.
c. Mother is not a candidate for Rh immune globulin
d. Mother should receive 2 doses of Rh immune globulin
116. The rosette test will detect a feto-maternal hemorrhage (FMH) as small as:
a. 10 mL
b. 15 mL
c. 20 mL 10 mL
d. 30 mL
117. Some blood group antibodies characteristically hemolyze appropriate red cells in the presence of
a. Complement
b. Anticoagulants Complement
c. Preservatives
d. Penicillin
118. A 40-year-old man with autoimmune hemolytic anemia due to anti-E has a hemoglobin level of 10.8 g/dL
(108 g/L). This patient will most likely be treated with:
a. RBC
b. Whole blood No transfusion
c. FFP
d. No transfusion
119. A patient is group A2B Rh (+) and has an antiglobulin reacting anti-A1 in his serum. He is in the operating
room bleeding profusely and group A2B RBCs are not available. Which of the following blood types is first
choice for crossmatching?
a. B, Rh-positive
b. B, Rh-negative B, Rh-positive
c. A1B, Rh-positive
d. O, Rh-negative
120. A 10% red cell suspension in saline is used in a compatibility test. Which of the following would most likely
occur?
a. False (+) result due to antigen excess
b. False (+) result due to the prozone phenomenon False-negative result due to antigen
c. False (-) result due to the prozone phenomenon excess
d. False (-) result due to antigen excess
121. One of the most effective methods for the elution of warm autoantibodies from RBCs utilizes:
a. 10% sucrose
b. LISS
c. Change in pH Change in pH
d. Distilled water
122. The purpose of testing with anti-A,B is to detect:
a. Anti-A1
b. Anti-A2 Subgroups of A
c. Subgroups of A
d. Subgroups of B

BAUTISTA, C.
 123. Which of the following medications is most likely to cause production of autoantibodies
a. Penicillin
b. Cephalothin
Methyldopa
c. Methyldopa
d. Tetracycline
124. A person’s saliva incubated with the following antibodies and tested with the appropriate A2, O, and B
indicator cells, gives the following test results: Anti-A (reactive); Anti-B (Inhibited); Anti-H (Inhibited). The
person’s red cells ABO phenotype is:
a. A
b. AB Type B [Rationale: Secretion testing uses the principle of agglutination inhibition,
c. B whereby inhibition of any form of clumping is considered a positive result.
d. O
125. Platelet prepared by apheresis should contain at least
a. 1×10^10 platelets
b. 3×10^10 platelets
c. 3×10^11 platelets 3x10^11 Platelets for Apheresis/Single Donors
d. 5×10^11 platelets
126. ….
a. Verification
b. Quality control
127. …
a. Quality control
b. Quality indicator
c. Both A and B
d. Verification
128. Components of AHG monospecific
a. IgG
b. IgM Either Anti-IgG or Anti-C3d
c. Anti-C3d

BAUTISTA, C.
 BLOOD BANK
1. Methods used for investigation of warm antibodies
➔ 37C incubation phase with enhancement medium for agglutinating IgG warm antibodies
➔ AHG for non-agglutinating IgG warm antibodies
➔ DAT for warm autoantibodies
2. What could result to false (+) DAT results
➔ Spontaneous red blood cell agglutination
➔ Wharton's jelly in cord blood specimen
➔ Improper agitation
➔ Poor washing technique
➔ Over centrifugation: RBCs pack too tightly
➔ Delay in testing
➔ Clotted specimen
➔ Reagent issues

3. Ideal pressure of blood pressure cuff during blood letting

➔ 40 to 50 mmhg
4. Iodophor stand at room temp for how many seconds during collection
➔ 30 secs
5. What could cause false (+) using gel technology
➔ Bacterial or chemical contamination
➔ Inadequate incubation time or temperature
➔ Improper centrifugation
➔ Improper storage of materials
➔ Rouleaux formation
6. Transfusion rate at the start of blood transfusion
➔ 1 to 2 ml per min first 15 mins
7. At to what time interval does the patient should be monitored after start of blood transfusion
➔ 30 mins
8. Indications for use of washed red blood cells
➔ Increase red cell mass and oxygen carrying capacity
 ➔ Generally indicated when Hgb is 7 gm or Hct 21 unless active cardiac disease is present.
➔ Decrease risk for alloimmunization to leukocyte or HLA antigens
➔ Reduce incidence of urticarial and anaphylactic reactions to plasma proteins
➔ Only ordered when reactions not controllable with meds and leukodepleted products
9. What volume of red cells in a unit of platelet concentrate would require to conduct a cross matching between
donor and recipient
➔ If the product contains more than 2 mL of RBCs, a pilot sample must be attached to the product and
used by the transfusing facility to crossmatch the product with the intended recipient.
10. Hgb content in one red cell unit via apheresis
➔ One unit of pRBCs should raise the hemoglobin of an average adult by 1 g/dL and the hematocrit by 3%
11. CCI computation
➔ CCIRDP = (Posttransfusion PC – Pretransfusion PC) x BSA ÷ Number of RDP Transfused x 0.55
➔ CCISDP = (Posttransfusion PC – Pretransfusion PC) x BSA÷ Number of SDP Transfused x 3
➔ Interpretation:
• >10,000/µL for RDP or >60,000/µL for SDP (after 1 hour posttransfusion) = Good Increment
• <5,000/µL for RDP or <20,000/µL for SDP (after 1 hour posttransfusion) = Refractoriness (i.e., poor
response to platelet transfusion)
12. IgG type most associated with severe type of HDFN
➔ IgG3
13. Intrauterine transfusion volume computation

14. Autologous transfxn limit

➔ CONTRAINDICATIONS
◆ Unstable angina
◆ Recent myocardial infarction or cerebrovascular accident
◆ Significant cardiac or pulmonary disease with ongoing symptoms but without an evaluation by
the treating physician, or
◆ untreated aortic stenosis
➔ CRITERIA
◆ A prescription or order from the patient’s physician.
◆ Minimum hemoglobin concentration of 11 g/dL or hematocrit of 33%.
◆ Collection at least 72 hours before the anticipated surgery or transfusion.
◆ Deferral for conditions presenting a risk of bacteremia.
◆ Use only for the donor-patient if labeled “autologous use only.”
15. Blood warmer flow rate
➔ >50ml/kg/1hr in adults, >15ml/kg/hr in children and for exchange transfusion in infants.
16. 1SPRCA stability
➔ 2 days
17. Diameter of scrubbing iodophor
➔ 4cm or1.5inches
18. Antibody discrepancy - proper identification investigation performed
19. Seconds of fist pumping during blood collection
➔ 10 to 12 secs
20. Centrifuge temp when separating plasma from whole blood
➔ Plasma from whole blood donations may also remain in a liquid state, stored at 1° to 6°C
➔ NOT SURE BAKA YAN DIN TEMP
21. SG of copper sulfate method
➔ 1.053
22. Deglycerolyzed RBC indicated for
➔ Patients with rare phenotypes, for autologous use, and for the military to maintain blood inventories
around the world for U.S. military use. The resulting deglycerolized product is free of leukocytes,
platelets, and plasma due to the washing process.
➔ Since all donor plasma is removed, deglycerolized, and washed, red blood cells can be used for patients
with paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria and IgA deficiency with circulating anti-IgA.
23. Virus is inactivated by which process
➔ Heat - HIV is exquisitely heat labile, and effective eradication can be accomplished with heat or a
combination of heat and pressure. Hepatitis viruses are more resistant to heat inactivation than HIV,
although the degree of eradication improves with increased temperature, moisture, and length of
heating. One problem with heat treatment of factor concentrates is a reduction in factor yield.
➔ Solvent and detergent treatments - For Plasma-derived FVIII concentrates. HIV and hepatitis B and C
viruses are lipid-coated viruses and are readily inactivated with a combination of solvent and detergent
treatments. Plasma-derived FVIII concentrates treated with solvent and detergent with the combination
of the solvent trin-butyl phosphate and the detergent polysorbate-80.
24. Le, sese, hh, what is the most probable genotype
➔ Lea
25. Low glycerol technique
➔ Low Glycerol (20% Weight per Volume) - In this method, the cryoprotection of the glycerol is minimal,
and a very rapid, more controlled freezing procedure is required. Liquid nitrogen (N2) is routinely used
for this method. The frozen units must be stored at –120°C or below, which is the temperature of liquid
N2 vapor. Because of the minimal amount of protection by the glycerol, temperature fluctuations during
storage can cause RBC destruction.
26. High glycerol technique
➔ High Glycerol (40% Weight per Volume) This method increases the cryoprotective power of the glycerol,
thus allowing a slow, uncontrolled freezing process using a mechanical freezer that provides storage at
–65°C or below.

27. Paternity testing

RELATIONSHIP TESTING
➔ Alleged father: Man accused of being the biological father; the putative father
➔ Obligatory gene: Gene that should be inherited from the father to prove paternity
➔ Direct exclusion: Exclusion of paternity when a child has a trait that neither parent shows
➔ Indirect exclusion: Failure to find an expected marker in a child when the alleged father is apparently
homozygous for the gene

28. Screening panel for antibodies

29. Most probable genotype Rh version (study fisher-race and weiner terminologies)

30. Causes of ABO typing discrepancies

Categories of ABO Discrepancies
Group I Discrepancies: WEAKLY REACTING OR MISSING antibodies
Common populations with discrepancies in this group are:
● Newborns (the production of ABO antibodies is not detectable until 4 to 6 months of age)
● Elderly patients (the production of ABO antibodies is depressed)
● Patients with a leukemia (e.g., chronic lymphocytic leukemia) or lymphoma (e.g., malignant lymphoma)
demonstrating hypogammaglobulinemia
● Patients using immunosuppressive drugs that yield hypogammaglobulinemia
● Patients with congenital or acquired agammaglobulinemia or immunodeficiency diseases
● Patients with bone marrow or stem cell transplantations (patients develop hypogammaglobulinemia from
therapy and start producing a different RBC population from that of the transplanted bone marrow)
● Patients whose existing ABO antibodies may have been diluted by plasma transfusion or exchange
transfusion
● ABO subgroups
Group II Discrepancies: WEAKLY REACTING OR MISSING ANTIGENS
● Subgroups of A (or B) may be present (see the “ABO Subgroups” section)
● Leukemias may yield weakened A or B antigens and Hodgkin’s disease has been reported in some
cases to mimic the depression of antigens found in leukemia.
● The “acquired B” phenomenon will show weak reactions with anti-B antisera and is most often
associated with diseases of the digestive tract (e.g., cancer of the colon).
● Rare Group II discrepancies
○ Excess amounts of Blood group-specific soluble (BGSS) substances present in the plasma in
association with certain diseases such as carcinoma of the stomach and pancreas
○ Antibodies to low-incidence antigens in reagent anti-A or anti-B
○ Chimerism
Group III Discrepancies: PROTEIN OR PLASMA ABNORMALITIES RESULTING IN ROULEAUX FORMATION
OR PSEUDOAGGLUTINATION
● Elevated levels of globulin from certain disease states, such as multiple myeloma,
 ● Waldenström’s macroglobulinemia, other plasma cell dyscrasias, and certain moderately advanced
cases of Hodgkin’s lymphomas
● Elevated levels of fibrinogen
● Plasma expanders, such as dextran and polyvinylpyrrolidone
● Wharton’s jelly in cord blood samples
Group IV Discrepancies: MISCELLANEOUS PROBLEMS
● Cold reactive autoantibodies in which RBCs are so heavily coated with antibody that they spontaneously
agglutinate, independent of the specificity of the reagent antibody
● Patient has circulating RBCs of more than one ABO group due to RBC transfusion or marrow/stem cell
transplant
● Unexpected ABO isoagglutinins
● Unexpected non-ABO alloantibodies
● Rare Group IV discrepancies
– Antibodies other than anti-A or anti-B may react to form ag-ab complexes that may then adsorb onto
patient’s RBCs
Example: Some individuals have antibodies against acriflavine in their serum Patient’s antibody
combines with the dye and attaches to the patient’s rbcs, resulting in agglutination in the forward
grouping
– Cis-AB refers to the inheritance of both AB genes from one parent carried on one chromosome and an
O gene inherited from the other parent. This results in the offspring inheriting three ABO genes instead
of two. Weak anti-B (present in the serum of most cis-AB individuals) leads to an ABO discrepancy in
the reverse grouping.

31. Antibody panel with follow-up questions

○ Identify the antibody
○ ISBT name of the antibodies
○ CD markers of the antibodies GAG
32. 450 yung blood bag, 400 nacollect ano gagawin - tanungin sa staff ano gagawin GAGO KA BA? DEMERIT.
➔ Red Blood Cells Low Volume
➔ A red blood cell product that is prepared from a whole blood collection that was lower than “standard” for
the given collection container. In the US, two main collection volume targets are used, 450 ml and 500
ml (with the latter more common). The lower limit of a “standard” collection for each bag is -10% (in other
words, 450-45=405 for a 450 ml bag, and 500-50=450 for a 500 ml bag). By definition, “low volume”
RBC units contain between 66 and 90% of the target volume (that works out to 300 to 404 mL for a 450
mL bag or 333 to 449 mL for a 500 mL bag). Many facilities elect not to use red cells in this situation, as
the ratio of anticoagulant/preservative to red cells is altered (and platelets and plasma cannot be made
from low volume collections).
33. FFP stored at -65 C

Shelf life Storage temperature

1 year ≤–18°C

7 years ≤–65°C

34. PRBC + CPDA-1 ano HCT

➔ 65% to 80% for CPDA-1 RBCs
35. AHF
➔ Cryoprecipitated antihemophilic factor (AHF) is the cold precipitated concentration of factor VIII, also
known as the antihemophilic factor.
➔ The process for isolating factor VIII also harvests fibrinogen, factor XIII, von Willebrand factor (vWF),
cryoglobulin, and fibronectin
36. Ideal time of collection of blood (how long)
➔ 7-10 minutes
37. Whole blood for platelet prep temp
➔ Maintained at 20° to 24°C before and during platelet preparation
38. Pooled plt
➔ All of the units for a single platelet dose (typically 4 to 8 units for an adult) can be pooled into a single
bag before transfusion. Once pooled, the product must be transfused within 4 hours of pooling if
prepared in an open system. The pooled unit must be given a unique pool number, which must be
placed on the label.
39. Mother's first child is normal, 2nd is with jaundice, 3rd is stillborn. What is the case?
➔ HDFN is caused by maternal antibody crossing the placenta and destroying fetal antigen-positive red
cells. Unlike ABO antibodies, which are naturally-occurring and can affect the first pregnancy, Rh
antibodies are not produced until the mother has been exposed to Rh-positive red cells, usually during
delivery of the first Rh-positive child Once immunized, subsequent pregnancies with Rh-positive infants
are affected, usually with increasing severity.
40. What is observed in fetal PBS with a case of HDN?
➔ Hypochromic RBCs and spherocytes
➔ Number of immature nucleated RBCs
41. Antibody associated with PCH

42. Interpret the following: anti-IgG (+) anti-C3d (-) antibody screen (+) eluate (+)
○ WAIHA
43. Interpret the following: anti-IgG (-) anti-C3d (+) antibody screen (+) eluate (-)
○ Cold Agglutinin Syndrome
44. Interpret the following: anti-IgG (+) anti-C3d (-) antibody screen (-) eluate (-)
○ Drug-induced NOT SURE
45. The Ii antigen status in newborn cord blood erythrocyte is
➔ Both I and i are high-prevalence antigens
➔ Infant RBCs are rich in i; I is almost undetectable.
➔ During the first 18 months of life, the quantity of i slowly decreases as I increases until adult proportions
are reached.
➔ Adult RBCs are rich in I.
46. The allelic gene of K is
47. What antigen was previously associated to HTLA
➔ HTLA (high titer, low avidity) antibody
➔ These antibodies, directed against high-prevalence antigens, are observed at the AHG phase of testing
with weakly positive reactions.
➔ Examples: anti-Ch, anti-Rg, anti-Csa, anti-Yka, anti-Kna, anti-McCa, and anti-JMH.
48. Characteristic of anti-k
➔ Rare because they are high-incidence antigen with expression in approximately 98%
➔ Capable of mediating hemolytic transfusion reactions
49. The Kell (K1) antigen is:
➔ strongly immunogenic
50. In the Lutheran system, which antigen reacts best at lower temperature
➔ anti-Lua
51. Autologous donation indication

52. Who invented the alcohol something method

53. Who first did testing prior to transfusion

➔ 1907 Ludvig Hektoen suggests that the safety of transfusion might be improved by crossmatching blood
between donors and patients to exclude incompatible mixtures. Reuben Ottenberg performs the first
blood transfusion using blood typing and crossmatching in New York. Ottenberg also observed the
mendelian inheritance of blood groups and recognized the “universal” utility of group O donors.
➔ Highlights of Transfusion Medicine History

54. WBCpheresis what granulocyte cnc min

➔ A minimum therapeutic dose is 1 × 10^10
granulocytes per day.
55. RBC apheresis hemoglobin conc
➔ Since the volume of RBCs being collected during
a 2RBC procedure is greater than it would be for
a whole blood donation, the requirements for
donor hematocrit are more stringent. The
hematocrit must be at least 40% regardless of
gender, and the level (hemoglobin or hematocrit)
must be determined by a quantitative method; the
use of copper sulfate is not acceptable

56. 2 questions on Quality control, validity, quality assessment,

etc
57. Cryoprecipitated AHF provides which?
➔ Each unit (15 mL) contains 80-120 units of FVIII
➔ 150-250 mg of fibrinogen, and significant amounts of FXIII and fibronectin
58. Frozen, Deglycerolized Red Blood Cells
➔ PNH and IgA deficiency
 59. RDP = 5.5 × 10^10 platelets
60. Frozen plasma stored at –65°C or below for 7y
➔ Plasma from a whole blood donation can be manufactured into a variety of different components.
➔ The plasma may be frozen within 8 hours and labeled as fresh-frozen plasma
➔ (FFP) or frozen within 24 hours and labeled as plasma frozen within 24 hours (PF24).
➔ Plasma frozen within 8 hours can be further manufactured into cryoprecipitate and cryo-poor plasma.
➔ Frozen plasma is stored at –18°C or colder for 1 year or at –65°C or below for 7 years with FDA
approval.
➔ Plasma from whole blood donations may also remain in a liquid state, stored at 1° to 6°C, and be
labeled as liquid plasma (LP). LP expires 5 days after the whole blood shelf life from which it was
collected.
61. Accidentally thawed cryo/FFP will replace factor IX (labile factors V and VIII are destroyed)
62. Granulocyte concentrate = 1 × 10^11 granulocytes (therapeutic dose for 5 days)
63. Granulocyte concentrate = 1 × 10^10 granulocytes (apheresis granulocytes)

Others: Study BOC and Ciulla. Add Harr if you have extra time.