1.

Cell membrane fluidity can be influenced by:

1. pH
2. type of intramembrane cholesterol
3. temperature
4. extramembrane osmotic pressure
5. blood pressure
6. hydrostatic pressure
7. the membrane potential
8. the types of phospholipids in the membrane
9. the type of secondary structure of the transmembrane segment of proteins
10. cholesterol/phospholipid ratio
2. About biomembranes it can be stated that:

1. are antientropic barriers

2. they have a thickness of 5-7 nm
3. the main types of membrane lipids are fatty acids
4. they consist of two layers of lipids between which there is a layer of
integral proteins
5. contain cholesterol
6. the microviscosity of the normal cell membrane is 10 times higher than the
viscosity of water
7. have non-selective permeability
8. the core of the membrane is hydrophobic and the surfaces are hydrophilic
9. the core of the membrane is hydrophilic and the surfaces are hydrophobic
10. they are mainly composed of lipids and proteins but also carbohydrates
3. About the notion of liquid crystal it can be stated that:

1. is part of a receiver
2. represents the expression of a property of the biomembrane, fluidity
3. it is especially the expression of the movements of membrane
phospholipids
4. it is the expression of a state that gives the membrane static equilibrium
5. refers to the constitution of water at 4℃
6. is dependent on the amount of intramembrane cholesterol
7. represents a temperature-dependent membrane characteristic
8. represents a model for the water molecule
9. represents the expression of a property of the biomembrane, enthalpy
10. it is the result of order and disorder in the membrane
4. Biomembranes have the following characteristic(s):

1. role in maintaining the fluidity of the extracellular environment

2. role in intercellular communication
3. role in maintaining extracellular hydrostatic pressure
 4. role in maintaining intracellular pH
5. role in maintaining cell volume
6. the core of the biomembrane is hydrophilic, and the surfaces (intra- and
extracellular) are hydrophobic
7. role in maintaining cellular ionic composition within certain limits
8. role in removing toxic substances from the cell
9. the core of the biomembrane is fluid, and the surfaces (intra- and
extracellular) are rigid
10. role in maintaining plasma cholesterol
5. About a membrane receptor it can be said that:

1. the intracellular domain is always the largest part of the protein because it
participates in receptor trafficking
2. the intracytoplasmic domain is involved in signal transduction and receptor
trafficking
3. the extracellular domain includes the ligand binding site
4. the intracytoplasmic domain includes a phosphorylation zone, in the case
of receptors with protein kinase activity
5. the transmembrane domain is the least stable portion of the receptor
6. the intracytoplasmic domain includes the area that participates in G
protein activation, in the case of G protein-coupled receptors
7. is a peripheral membrane protein
8. the extracellular domain always has an alpha helix structure
9. the transmembrane domain always crosses the membrane only once
10. the transmembrane domain usually includes a short chain of about 20
amino acids
6. Comparând canalele ionice cu transportorii membranari, se poate afirma că:

1. membrane transporters are always proteins that cross the cell membrane
only once and ion channels are proteins that cross the cell membrane
multiple times
2. ion channels present two conformational states, closed-open, for opening
being required a stimulus
3. both are passive transport systems
4. the rate of passage of ions is lower in the case of membrane transporters
compared to ion channels
5. the rate of ion passage is over 106 ions/second in the case of transporters
6. both are active transport systems
7. membrane transporters present two conformational states, closed-open,
for opening being required a stimulus
8. membrane transporters also have tissue specificity and ion channels only
have transport species specificity
9. transport by membrane transporters is a saturable process
10. both membrane transporters and ion channels mediate facilitated diffusion
7. About membrane transporters it can be stated that:
 1. mediates passive transport
2. transports molecules in the direction of the chemical gradient
3. are integral membrane proteins
4. transports molecules against the electrochemical gradient
5. works by pairing with a receiver
6. mediates simple diffusion
7. it works by association with an ion channel
8. shows reversibility
9. transport by conveyors is not a saturable process
10. shows specificity of transported species
8. About ion channels it can be stated that:

1. it works by association with an ion pump

2. they are always integral membrane-spanning proteins with a single alpha
helix chain
3. the transport speed of ions is higher than in the case of transporters
4. has tissue specificity
5. have specific blockers
6. transports molecules against the electrochemical gradient
7. transport through ion channels is a saturable process
8. shows ion selectivity
9. has two essential conformations (closed and open)
10. it only works by pairing with a receiver
9. About the voltage dependent Na+ channel it can be stated that:

1. can be specifically blocked with tetraethylammonium (TEA)

2. the intracellular segment presents a signal transduction system
3. the intramembrane segment crosses the membrane only once
4. the extracellular segment has a binding site
5. has tissue specificity
6. can be specifically blocked with tetrodotoxin (TTX)
7. it works in the direction of the Na+ electrochemical gradient
8. the transport speed of Na+ ions is of the order of picoSiemens
9. in the case of a conductance of 1 picoSiemens, 6.28 x 103 ions/second
pass through the respective ion channel
10. has two essential conformations (closed and open)
10. About Fick's first law it can be said that:

1. determine the factors on which the facilitated diffusion of a particle across

the membrane depends
2. one of the parameters in the equation is S, the membrane surface area
through which transport takes place
3. refers to the phenomenon of facilitated diffusion
4. establishes the factors on which the passive transport of a particle across
the membrane depends
5. in the equation appears U, the amount of energy required for transport
 6. is the principle equation of the patch-clamp method
7. the time in which the molecule is transported appears in the equation
8. refers to the phenomenon of simple membrane diffusion
9. the concentration of the transported molecule appears in the equation
10. refers to transport through ion channels
11. Types of passive transport include:

1. osmosis
2. transport through receptors
3. transport by carriers
4. ATP-ase
5. transport through ion channels
6. endocytosis
7. group translocation
8. simple diffusion
9. Donnan equilibrium
10. transport by ion pumps
12. About the cell surface membrane it can be said that:

1. it has a thickness of 5-7 mm

2. is a molecular assembly held together by single and double covalent
bonds
3. it is selectively permeable
4. represents an optimal environment for the functioning of molecules
(enzymes, ion pumps, receptors)
5. represents a delimitation of the intracellular compartment from the
extracellular one
6. allows water to pass through aquaporins
7. includes glycoproteins and glycolipids distributed in both membrane layers
8. are permeabilitate ridicată pentru oxigen și dioxid de carbon
9. it is semipermeable
10. includes the cytoskeleton
13. The following are energy-consuming transport systems found in the body:

1. the Na+/glucose transporter

2. Na+/Zn ATP-ase
3. H+/K+ ATP-ase
4. proton pump
5. aquaporins
6. the Na+ ion channel
7. Na+/K+ ATP-ase
8. Mg2+/Fe3+ ATP-ase
9. Na+/K+ pump
10. Ca2+ ATP-ase
14. The following molecule(s) may be part of the intracellular transduction chain of a
receptor coupled to a second messenger:
 1. protein kinase C
2. phospholipase C
3. protein G
4. protein lipase A
5. field
6. phosphokinase A
7. the primary messenger
8. protein kinase A
9. phosphokinase C
10. IP3
15. The following molecule(s) may be part of the intracellular transduction chain of a
receptor coupled to a second messenger:

1. an hsp protein
2. a ligand
3. a glycoprotein
4. DAG
5. a finger of Zinc
6. protein G
7. IP3
8. a primary messenger
9. cAMP
10. a second messenger
16. About protein kinase C it can be stated that:

1. it is the second enzyme in the signal transmission chain of a receptor with

generation of IP3 and DAG
2. is part of the transduction chain of a G protein-coupled receptor
3. it is part of a nuclear receptor
4. is part of the EGF receptor
5. it is an enzyme
6. is an enzyme that mediates the production of DAG and IP5
7. it is part of the transduction chain of a receptor coupled to second
messengers
8. it is part of the signal transduction chain of a membrane receptor
9. is part of a supply receiver
10. is the second enzyme in the signal transmission chain of a receptor with
generation of cAMP
17. A substance can pass freely, by simple diffusion, directly through the lipid bilayer
of the membrane ONLY IF:

1. is ionized
2. the concentration is higher in the compartment from which diffusion occurs
3. is lipophobic
4. it is small in size and has no electrical charge
5. is dispersed in large particles
 6. does not dissolve in water
7. it is hydrophilic
8. it is lipophilic
9. it is hydrophobic
10. presents numerous electrical charges
18. Regarding the phospholipids (PL) of the cell membrane, the following processes
take place (PL = phospholipids):

1. hydrophobic interactions of the PL head

2. vertical diffusion movements of PL
3. lateral diffusion movements of proteins
4. flip-flop movements of proteins
5. hydrophilic interactions of the unsaturated tails of PL with water
6. hydrophobic and hydrophilic interactions of PL with proteins
7. lateral diffusion movements of PL
8. hydrophilic interactions of the polar head of PL with water
9. hydrophilic interactions of the PL head with cholesterol
10. hydrophobic interactions at the level of PL fatty acid chains
19. Membrane phospholipids have the following characteristics:

1. they are usually arranged asymmetrically

2. they are linked together by covalent bonds
3. form hydrogen bonds between them
4. they are amphipathic molecules
5. are arranged in a monolayer
6. interact through noncovalent bonds
7. have a hydrophobic head
8. shows flip-flop movements
9. shows lateral diffusion movements
10. they have two hydrophilic tails
20. About a nuclear receptor it can be said that:

1. always couple with hydrophilic ligands

2. can couple cortisol
3. can couple vitamin A
4. structurally it presents two domains
5. can couple EGF
6. it features two regions called zinc fingers
7. can couple TSH
8. it consists of a chain of fatty acids
9. can couple thyroid hormone T3
10. can couple aldosterone
21. Biomembranes can be studied by:

1. cryofracture
 2. lyophilisation
3. X-ray diffraction
4. immersion optical microscopy
5. electronic transition spectroscopy
6. atomic force microscopy
7. the use of stable isotopes
8. scanning electron microscopy
9. NMR spectroscopy
10. polarimetry
22. Steroid hormone receptors:

1. include a ligand binding site

2. are associated with an hsp protein
3. include a DNA binding domain
4. include a G-protein coupling segment
5. can be studied by polarimetry
6. can be coupled to an ion channel
7. include two zinc fingers
8. are made up of amphoteric fatty acids
9. include in their structure a chain of amino acids
10. are integral membrane proteins
23. Zinc finger:

1. represents the blocking domain of receptor coupling to RNA

2. it is so named due to the presence of a Zn atom coordinatively linked to
cysteine residues
3. it consists of fatty acids
4. it is a prosthesis
5. it is part of a nuclear receptor
6. it is part of the DNA binding domain of the receptor
7. it consists of a sequence of amino acids
8. corresponds to the coupling domain of the receiver with a second
messenger
9. it is not a biosensor
10. may represent the G-protein coupling domain
24. In an intercellular communication system that includes a membrane receptor the
first messenger can be:

1. a virus
2. an antibody
3. IP3
4. cAMP
5. DAG
6. TSH
7. EGF
8. insulin
 9. cortisol
10. D vitamin
25. About the patch-clamp method it can be stated that:

1. allows the evaluation of the conductance of ion channels

2. Neher and Sakmann received the Nobel Prize for this method
3. uses non-polarizable calomel electrodes
4. allowed ion channels to be highlighted
5. Hodgkin and Huxley received the Nobel Prize for this method
6. 1pS = 6,28 x 108 ions/sec
7. measures the capacity of ion channels
8. it can be done on the whole cell or on a fragment of biomembrane,
isolated
9. the unit of measure of conductance is Siemens
10. it can be done on the cell membrane and on isolated phospholipids
26. From Fick's first law it can be seen that the diffusion of a particle depends on:

1. the shape of the diffusing particles

2. the partition coefficient of the transported particle
3. the longitudinal diameter of the particle, which also appears in equation (x)
4. the osmotic gradient
5. temperature, which also appears in equation (t)
6. the electrical gradient
7. hydrostatic pressure gradient
8. diffusion coefficient of the transported particle
9. particle size
10. the chemical gradient
27. Cell membranes have the following essential common characteristics:

1. include glyproteins and glycolipids arranged symmetrically between the 2

layers
2. they have a structure according to the fluid mosaic model
3. they are molecular assemblies associated by noncovalent bonds
4. they are in connection with the glycocalyx on the inner face of the
membrane
5. including cholesterol covalently bound to the surrounding phospholipids
6. they are molecular structures with a thickness of 5-7 nm
7. are thermodynamically stable
8. are metabolically active
9. it is one of the 3 components of the cell surface complex, along with the
cytoskeleton and the glycocalyx
10. include cholesterol only in the outer layer
28. About the transmembrane domain of a membrane receptor it can be stated that:

1. it is the most stable portion of the receptor

 2. it consists of amino acid residues
3. cross the membrane only once or several times
4. shows saturation
5. crosses the membrane with a short chain of amino acids, about 20
6. has secondary structure b folded
7. includes the ligand binding site
8. it is formed from residues of non-polar fatty acids
9. has α helix secondary structure
10. it is the most easily degradable part of the receiver
29. About the intracytoplasmic domain of a membrane receptor it can be stated that:

1. is involved in signal transduction

2. the amino acid chain has variable length
3. includes the region that participates in G protein activation, in the case of
G protein-coupled receptors
4. it has only α helix secondary structure
5. it is the most stable part of the receiver
6. it consists of fatty acid residues
7. includes the ligand binding site
8. includes a phosphorylation site, in the case of receptors with protein
kinase activity
9. is involved in the intracellular trafficking of the receptor
10. it's the biggest part of the receiver, always
30. Membrane receptors can be:

1. ligand internalization receptors

2. receptors associated with hsp proteins
3. receptors associated with membrane transporters
4. receptors associated with ion channels
5. G protein-coupled receptors
6. covalently bound to adjacent phospholipids
7. receivers with generation of second messengers
8. receptors associated with ion pumps
9. nuclear receptors
10. receptors with intrinsic protein-kinase activity
31. The functional characteristics of membrane receptors include the following:

1. the presence of three structural domains

2. ligand binding affinity
3. the presence of an extracellular domain
4. the presence of an intracellular domain
5. ligand specificity
6. ligand-receptor binding mechanism without covalent bonds
7. binding capacity (number of sites)
8. ligand-receptor binding mechanism through covalent bonds
9. the presence of a transmembrane domain
 10. tissue specificity
32. In the case of intramembrane molecules, the following types of intramembrane
movements can be encountered:

1. vertical diffusion of proteins

2. all types of intramembrane displacements occur for both lipids and
proteins
3. rotation about the axis in the case of proteins
4. flip-flop in the case of phospholipids
5. lateral diffusion
6. flexion of phospholipid tails
7. rotation about the axis in the case of phospholipids
8. flip-flop in the case of proteins
9. vertical diffusion of phospholipids
10. flexion of the amino acid chains
33. The following types of lipids can be found in the constitution of the membrane:

1. the glycogen
2. tryptophan
3. cholesterol
4. phospholipids
5. glutamic acid
6. phosphatidylserine
7. glycolipids
8. valine
9. phosphatidylcholine
10. glycoproteins
34. About the microviscosity of the membrane it can be said that:

1. increases with increasing amount of cholesterol in the membrane

2. varies according to the amount of fatty acids in the membrane
3. it is 100 times higher than the viscosity of water
4. decreases with increasing temperature
5. is lower than the viscosity of water
6. decreases with increasing degree of unsaturation of the hydrocarbon
chains of the phospholipids
7. it is 10 times higher than the viscosity of water
8. increases with increasing temperature
9. increases with decreasing amount of cholesterol in the membrane
10. it can be expressed in the same units as blood viscosity
35. From a structural point of view, a membrane receptor can have the following
characteristics:

1. can make covalent bonds with the ligand molecule

2. includes an extracellular domain
 3. shows binding affinity
4. includes a transmembrane domain
5. the transmembrane domain can cross the membrane only once
6. has tissue specificity
7. may include carbohydrate residues in the intracytoplasmic domain
8. the transmembrane domain can cross the membrane several times
9. shows ligand specificity
10. includes an intracytoplasmic domain
36. Among the membrane constituents can be mentioned:

1. glucose
2. serotonin
3. adrenalin
4. phosphatidyl ethanolamine
5. cholesterol
6. phosphatidylserine
7. phosphatidylcholine
8. sphingomyelin
9. LDL
10. lectin
37. The following are characteristics of membrane phospholipids:

1. they have a hydrophilic 'head'

2. at the level of the head is found the phospho group
3. they have two hydrophobic 'tails'
4. they are amphoteric
5. the right tail includes only saturated fatty acids
6. the presence of unsaturated amino acids determines the degree of tail
bending
7. at the level of the tails, terminally, the NH2 group is found
8. the head is non-polar
9. tails are polar
10. bent tail includes unsaturated fatty acids
38. Examples of increases in membrane fluidity in various physiological or
pathological states:

1. chronic alcoholism
2. liver diseases
3. getting older
4. atherosclerosis
5. genetic hypertension
6. radiation sickness
7. obesity
8. hepatoma
9. malignant hyperthermia
10. chronic hypoxemia
39. Membrane asymmetry is dependent on:

1. unequal distribution of intramembrane proteins between the two layers

2. external localization of carbohydrates
3. specific enzymes located exclusively on the external or internal side of the
membrane
4. intrinsic asymmetry of the distribution of phospholipids between the two
layers
5. the presence of glycoproteins only in the inner layer
6. the presence of cholesterol only in the outer layer
7. the presence of glycolipids only in the inner layer
8. flip-flop mobility of membrane proteins
9. external localization of LDL
10. regional membrane asymmetry for some membrane types
40. Facilitated transmembrane diffusion can be mediated by:

1. the K+ ion channel

2. the Na+ ion channel
3. liposomes
4. the Na+-K+ pump
5. certain glycoproteins on the inner face of the membrane
6. the glucose transporter
7. the Ca2+ ion channel
8. internalization receptors
9. G proteins
10. certain transmembrane proteins
41. The following may be types of movements of molecules in the mmembrane:

1. flip-flop movements of proteins

2. protein rotations around the longitudinal axis
3. protein rotation around the transverse axis
4. flip-flop movements of lipids
5. rotation of lipids around the transverse axis
6. lateral diffusion of proteins
7. atomic vibrations
8. lateral "jumps" of lipids
9. rotation of proteins between the two layers
10. lateral diffusion of glycogen
42. About the patch-clamp method it can be stated that:

1. the evaluated parameter is Conductance

2. was imagined by Hodgkin and Huxley
3. the evaluated quantity has the Siemens measurement unit
4. the evaluated quantity is measured in Ohm
5. allows ion channels to be highlighted
 6. was imagined by Neher and Sakmann
7. it is an The following can be said about ion pumps:technique
8. the researchers who imagined it received the Nobel Prize in Physiology or
Medicine
9. the evaluated parameter is Conductivity
10. allows simple diffusion to be highlighted
43. The following can be said about ion pumps:

1. can be connected to a receiver

2. they structurally have 3 domains: extracellular, transmembrane,
intramembrane
3. the Na-K pump has a single transmembrane domain
4. may be V-type ATPases
5. are integral membrane proteins
6. are active transport systems
7. may be F-type ATPases
8. promotes facilitated diffusion
9. may be P-type ATPases
10. they can be peripheral glycoproteins
44. The component parts of an intercellular communication system include:

1. signal transduction system

2. the electrochemical gradient
3. membrane cholesterol
4. a hormone
5. a growth factor
6. compartment
7. receiver
8. a second mediator
9. the first messenger
10. an enzyme
45. From a structural point of view, a membrane receptor can be said to:

1. the transmembrane domain can cross the membrane once or several

times
2. the intracytoplasmic domain may contain cysteine
3. is an integral membrane protein
4. the intracytoplasmic domain may contain carbohydrate residues
5. the extracellular domain includes an enzymatic site
6. homology sequences are located in the intracellular domain
7. the intracytoplasmic domain has variable dimensions
8. the intracytoplasmic domain has a high degree of structural conservation
9. the transmembrane domain is the most stable portion of the receptor
10. the extracellular domain represents the largest part of the receptor
46. About the extracellular domain of a membrane receptor it can be said that:
 1. contains the ligand attachment site
2. contains an enzyme site
3. includes a zinc finger for ligand coupling
4. is the domain responsible for signal transduction
5. it is a chain of amino acids and cannot have carbohydrate residues
6. this is where homology sequences are located
7. includes a site for coupling with the second messenger
8. represents the largest part of the receiver
9. may contain cysteine
10. contains oligosaccharide complexes
47. Regarding the ligand-receptor binding mechanism, it can be said that:

1. includes ionic interactions

2. covalent bonds can be made with the primary messenger
3. may involve hydrogen bonding
4. involves hydrophobic interactions
5. zinc finger bonds may be present
6. covalent bonds can be made with the second messenger
7. involve covalent bonds
8. Zinc ions are present
9. may include van der Waals forces
10. involves electrostatic bonding
48. The classification of membrane receptors includes:

1. receptors that have 3 structural domains

2. receptors that activate adenylate cyclase
3. receptors associated with ion channels
4. receptors that include carbohydrate residues in the intracytoplasmic
domain
5. receptors that bind to the ligand molecule
6. receptors that activate phospholipase C
7. receptors that show binding affinity
8. receptors that exhibit ligand specificity
9. G protein-activating receptors
10. receptors with intrinsic protein-kinase activity
49. About the affinity of a membrane receptor it can be said that:

1. the quantification method involves a sharing coefficient

2. is synonymous with binding capacity
3. quantification includes labeling the ligand with a radioisotope
4. the quantification method is carried out in several stages
5. involves the mass-action principle, which governs ligand-receptor coupling
6. it is an in vivo method
7. can be quantified by radioisotopic methods
8. the quantification method must take into account both specific and non-
specific binding
 9. is based on ligand-receptor covalent bonds
10. labeling is always done with gamma-emitting radioisotopes only
50. About intracellular (nuclear) receptors it can be said that:

1. it does not show tissue specificity

2. structurally, they have 2 domains
3. they have a very well conserved structure, with 400-800 fatty acids
4. ligands are small lipophilic molecules
5. domain B includes 2 zinc fingers
6. are transcription factor receptors
7. binds to DNA
8. does not show ligand specificity
9. the domain that includes the ligand binding site is the NH2-terminal
domain
10. the first domain includes a binding site for the specific ligand
51. Which of the following statements about the water molecule are true?

1. It contains an oxygen atom

2. It contains two hydrogen atoms
3. The thickness of the molecular membrane is less than 10 nanometers
4. It contains intermolecular hydrogen bonds
5. It presents two covalent O-H bonds
6. It is formed by the collision of electrons
7. It is a molecule made up of three atoms
8. The molecular membrane is selectively permeable
9. It can be cleaved by means of specific proteases
10. It is the component of the amino acid sequence in the polypeptide chains
52. Which of the following statements about the structure of ice are true?

1. Contains peptide bonds

2. Contains structured, empty spaces
3. It contains two polynucleotide chains from DNA
4. Water molecules are arranged tetrahedrally
5. Hydrogen bonds are very stable
6. Each molecule forms four hydrogen bonds with another molecule
7. It has a single chain structure
8. Its conformation changes through denaturation
9. Its density is lower than that of liquid water
10. It has the character of a wave associated with the moving electron
53. Which of the following statements about the properties of water are true?

1. It has a melting point of zero degrees Celsius

2. It has a boiling point of zero degrees Celsius
3. It has a boiling point of one hundred degrees Celsius
4. It provides mechanical protection for certain anatomical structures
 5. It emits monoenergetic electrons
6. It emits light in the fluorescent spectrum
7. It presents the phenomenon of birefringence
8. It has a melting point of one hundred degrees Celsius
9. It can accumulate heat
10. It is a very effective solvent for ionic substances
54. Which of the following statements about the role of water in biosystems are true?

1. It presents the ability to self-replicate

2. It is a universal solvent
3. It represents a transport medium
4. It participates in physiological processes in living organisms
5. It presents the ability to self-assemble
6. It is a suspended medium
7. It has the ability to receive, accumulate and convert information from the
environment
8. Encodes information from the environment
9. It enters the composition of the fluids of the human body
10. Regulates gene expression
55. Which of the following statements about hydrogen bonding in the structure of
water are true?

1. Hydrogen atoms can associate by giving and receiving two electrons

respectively
2. It involves the sharing of electron pairs
3. Water is classified as a polar molecule because of its hydrogen bonds
4. It favors the tetrahedral arrangement of water molecules
5. It is stronger than the covalent bond
6. It is more stable than the electrostatic bond
7. It is less stable than the covalent bond
8. It is weaker than the electrostatic bond
9. It forms an angle of approximately 104 degrees
10. It represents a particular dipole-dipole interaction
56. Which of the following statements about electrophoresis are true?

1. Macromolecules cannot be separated electrophoretically

2. It can be cleaved by means of specific proteases
3. Separated particles have electric charges
4. It takes place under the action of a magnetic field
5. It can separate electrolytes, cells, bacteria, viruses
6. It is the process related to the movement of a fluid relative to a solid wall
under the action of an electric field.
7. It is an analytical method of separation
8. It is selectively permeable
9. It takes place under the action of an electric field
10. The size of the separated particles is variable
57. Which of the following statements about protein electrophoresis are true?

1. Proteins are amphoteric

2. The electrical charge of proteins in a solution varies with the pH of the
solution
3. The viscosity of the medium in which electrophoresis is carried out is
independent of temperature
4. The electric force (Fe) determined by the applied external electric field will
be exerted on the electrically charged protein molecule
5. A protein molecule suspended in a solution shows a phenomenon of
dissociation of acidic or basic groups
6. Under isoelectric pH conditions, the mobility of the protein molecule
suspended in a solution is maximum
7. Low molecular weight proteins suspended in a solution migrate more
slowly
8. For each protein there is a characteristic pH value at which the number of
negative charges is equal to that of positive charges
9. At pH values higher than the isoelectric pH, the protein is a cation
10. Under isoelectric pH conditions the protein is a cation
58. Which of the following statements regarding the classification of electrophoresis
processes according to the medium in which the separation is performed are
true?

1. Electrophoresis in the free environment is also known as zone (zonal)

electrophoresis
2. Immunoelectrophoresis measures the total amount of albumin in the blood
3. Serum protein electrophoresis on filter paper is a routine, accessible
method
4. Electrophoresis in free medium (on a liquid column) is influenced by the
appearance of convection currents
5. The isoelectric point refers to the determination of the coefficient of
absolute viscosity of liquids
6. Isoelectric focusing, also known as electrofocusing, is a technique for
separating different molecules by differences in their molecular weight
7. Polyacrylamide (SDS) gel electrophoresis is a method for separating
proteins that are part of cell membranes
8. Electrophoresis in free medium (on a liquid column) does not lead to
complete separations of compounds
9. The isoelectric point represents the pH at which a given molecule is
completely negatively charged
10. Electrophoresis on stabilizing media is performed on porous supports
59. Which of the following statements about protein immunoelectrophoresis are true?

1. The action potential is the basis of the immunodiffusion phenomenon

2. Serum immunoelectrophoresis is a laboratory test that measures albumin
in the blood
 3. The antibody is placed in wells cut in the gel
4. Immunoglobulins M (IgM) and G (IgG) are entrained to the cathode by a
current of electroendosmosis
5. IgM and IgG have a positive electrical charge and migrate towards the
cathode
6. The electrokinetic potential (ζ) does not influence the electrophoretic
mobility of a protein
7. The electrokinetic potential (ζ) represents the maximum and opposite
charge potential that forms around a colloidal particle slowing its migration
speed
8. The cellular resting potential is the basis of the immunodiffusion
phenomenon
9. Immunodiffusion is used to characterize the antigen in a mixture
10. Immunoelectrophoresis combines the electrophoretic separation of
proteins with an antigen-antibody immune reaction.
60. Factors that influence the speed of migration of a protein in an electric field
include the following:

1. Electric force
2. The radius of the particle
3. Passive transport through ion channels
4. The viscosity of the medium
5. Cell potentials
6. Resting potential
7. Action potential
8. The electrical charge of the protein
9. Donnan equilibrium
10. Electric field intensity
61. Which of the following statements about protein electrophoresis are true?

1. Serum protein electrophoresis is a challenge test used to assess the

efficiency of glucose metabolism.
2. Electrophoresis is a method of purification of protein fractions from blood
serum
3. Total serum proteins are broken down into 5 protein fraction categories in
the electrophoresis process
4. Electrophoresis is a process that uses centrifugal force to separate
mixtures of proteins
5. Gamma globulins are also known as antibodies or immunoglobulins (IgA,
IgM, IgG, IgE, IgD).
6. Albumin is the protein with the highest concentration in the serum, it
transports other smaller molecules and is very important in maintaining the
colloidosmotic pressure of the blood
7. Serum protein electrophoresis is recommended for assessing a patient's
emotional status
 8. Albumin is the major protein component. Globulins comprise 4 fractions:
α-1 globulin, α-2 globulin, β-globulins and γ-globulins
9. On the electrophorogram, the proteins are visible as diffusion rings
10. Electrophoresis is a method of separating protein fractions from blood
serum
62. Which of the following statements about the clinical applications of
immunoelectrophoresis are true?

1. In approximately 75% of patients with multiple myeloma or Waldenström's

disease, a monoclonal light chain (Bence-Jones protein) is detected in the
urine
2. The method is mainly used to determine the optical activity of albumin in
blood serum
3. The method allows the treatment of some pathological conditions by
photocoagulation or vaporization
4. The method serves to determine isotropy and optical anisotropy of
different histological elements
5. The method aids in the diagnosis and assessment of therapeutic response
in many disease states affecting the immune system and also in the
diagnosis of multiple myeloma.
6. Waldenström disease is characterized by the obligatory presence in the
serum of a monoclonal IgM protein.
7. In multiple myeloma, 99% of patients present a monoclonal protein in
serum or urine.
8. Both fragments of heavy chains and free light chains can be found in the
urine of patients with multiple myeloma or amyloidosis.
9. The method is used to determine the concentration of glucose and
albumin in the urine of diabetic patients
10. The method is used in diabetic retinopathy
63. Changes in electrophoretically separated protein fractions occur in:

1. Urinary tract infections

2. Shingles area
3. Nephrotic syndrome
4. Attention deficit hyperkinetic disorder
5. Respiratory viruses
6. Acne
7. Monoclonal gammapathies
8. Liver diseases
9. Alpha 1-antitrypsin deficiency
10. Autoimmune diseases
64. Which of the following phenomena are involved in the production of
immunoelectrophoresis?

1. The phenomenon of electroosmosis

2. Electroluminescence phenomena
 3. The phenomenon of electrophoresis
4. Oscillation phenomena
5. Specific formation of antigen-antibody complexes
6. Refraction phenomena
7. Total reflection phenomena
8. Resonance phenomena
9. Precipitation phenomena
10. The phenomenon of diffusion in the liquid phase
65. The support medium for electrophoresis includes the following:

1. silica
2. Sodium chloride solution
3. Diluted ethyl alcohol
4. Polyacrylamide gels
5. Filter paper
6. Cellulose acetate
7. Potassium chloride solution
8. Glucose solution
9. Distilled water
10. agarose
66. The following statements refer to the classification of chromatographic methods
according to the separation mechanism:

1. Adsorption chromatography
2. Gas chromatography on liquid stationary phases
3. Gas chromatography on solid stationary phases
4. Affinity chromatography
5. Chromatography through capillary columns
6. Ion exchange chromatography
7. Size exclusion chromatography
8. Flame ionization chromatography
9. Permeation chromatography
10. Gas chromatography of gases
67. The classification of chromatographic techniques according to the nature of the
stationary phase includes the following:

1. Ion exchange chromatography

2. High Performance Thin Layer Chromatography (HPTLC)
3. Affinity chromatography
4. Adsorption chromatography
5. Exclusion chromatography
6. Permeation chromatography
7. Thin Layer Chromatography (TLC)
8. Gas-liquid chromatography
9. Gas-solid chromatography
10. Paper chromatography
68. The main advantages of chromatography as a separation method include the
following:

1. It allows the quantitative dosing of the components of a mixture

2. It indicates the extent to which a substance develops resistance to flow
3. It allows the identification of the components of a mixture
4. It allows the separation of the components of a mixture
5. There are no postoperative complications
6. It causes the blood flow to increase
7. The sensitivity of chromatographic methods is extremely high
8. It helps to relax the muscles
9. Measurement of extremely small mechanical forces is ensured
10. It can be applied to a very large number of compounds
69. The following statements about ion exchange chromatography are true:

1. Ion exchange chromatography is used to purify nucleic acid

2. The bound ions can then be eluted and collected
3. The mobile phase carries the sample over a column containing the
stationary phase
4. It is a chromatographic separation method based on the specific
interaction between receptor and ligand
5. The stationary phase consists of an ionizable functional group
6. Separate ions and polar molecules based on their affinity for an exchange
ion
7. Ion exchange chromatography is used for the purification of
macromolecular biological compounds
8. It is a chromatographic separation method based on the specific
interaction between enzyme and substrate
9. It is a chromatographic separation method based on the specific
interaction between antigen and antibody
10. A clinical application of ion exchange chromatography is the eluting with
sterile saline (NaCl) of the technetium-99m generator
70. The following statements about affinity chromatography are true:

1. It is a chromatographic separation method that can use the specific

interaction between antigen and antibody
2. It is a chromatographic technique for separating a compound using the
biological interactions between a specific ligand and its substrate
3. The mobile phase in affinity chromatography is an inert or non-reactive
carrier gas that passes through the stationary phase
4. The stationary phase is represented by the solid matrix with which the
ligand can react, forming stable covalent bonds.
5. The separation of the components is done according to the size of the
molecules
6. The target biomolecule is in the mobile phase
 7. The method is based on the property of nuclei with an odd number of
protons or neutrons or both, to present a non-zero nuclear spin
8. A solid matrix is used to which a specific ligand for the molecule to be
purified is attached and which reversibly binds to it
9. The method is based on electrostatic interactions, and the separation of
components is done according to their electrical charges
10. The method is based on comparing the spectra of structurally related
organic compounds
71. Typical biological interactions commonly used in affinity chromatography include
the following:

1. Direct or indirect interaction between two species that benefits only one
2. Enzyme-substrate interaction
3. Lectin-polysaccharide interaction
4. Direct interaction of a mutually beneficial nature
5. Interaction between antihypertensive agents and nonsteroidal anti-
inflammatory drugs
6. Interaction of a unilateral obligate nature maintained by species living in
direct contact with each other
7. Hormone-receptor interaction
8. Antigen-antibody interaction
9. Indirect interaction between two species
10. Interaction nucleic acids - complementary base sequences
72. The following statements about the partition or distribution coefficient (Pc) of an
analyte are true:

1. The partition coefficient (Pc) has no applicability in chromatography

2. The partition coefficient (Pc) of a substance is the coefficient of division of
the concentrations of an analyte into two phases
3. If Pc has a value equal to 3, it indicates that the analyte is 3 times more
concentrated in the mobile phase
4. The value of the partition coefficient is directly proportional to the molar
concentration of the analyte in the stationary phase
5. The partition coefficient (Pc) is variable at a given temperature
6. If Pc has a value above unity, the concentration of an analyte is higher in
the mobile phase
7. The value of the partition coefficient is inversely proportional to the molar
concentration of the analyte in the mobile phase
8. If Pc has a value equal to 0.3, it indicates that the analyte is 3 times more
concentrated in the stationary phase
9. If Pc has a subunit value, the concentration of an analyte is higher in the
stationary phase
10. The partition coefficient (Pc) serves as a measure of the relationship
between body weight and height
73. The following statements about permeation chromatography are true:
 1. The method is based on the existence of a combination of two electrodes,
which, being introduced into the mobile phase, form a small galvanic cell
2. It is a technique used in the separation of a mixture of volatile compounds,
based on their mobility through a stationary phase
3. It uses a gas mobile phase and a liquid stationary phase.
4. It separates protein molecules according to size
5. The stationary phase can be represented by a microscopic layer of
viscous liquid
6. The technique is used to separate proteins based on molecular weight
7. Gels are used as the stationary phase
8. It is used to measure the molecular weight of proteins
9. Permeation chromatography is almost exclusively performed in columns
10. The mobile phase is an inert gas
74. The following statements about ion exchange chromatography are true:

1. The technique is applicable to almost any type of electrically charged

molecule, including proteins, small nucleotides and amino acids.
2. The stationary phase is a porous paper (filter paper) that is irrigated by the
solvent by capillary forces
3. The main mechanism of retention is that of steric exclusion
4. The mobile phase in this technique is a gas
5. The analyte ions undergo ionic interactions with opposite charges
attached to the stationary phase, resulting in their retention.
6. The technique serves to separate ions and polar molecules based on their
affinity for an ion exchanger
7. It is based on the phenomena that occur when the mobile phase passes
through a filling layer with pores of certain sizes
8. The ion exchange process refers to an exchange of ions between the
stationary phase and the mobile phase
9. Certain ion exchange substances are used in the stationary phase
10. The stationary phase allows selection of the working wavelength
75. The following statements about adsorption chromatography are true:

1. The stationary phase is represented by a porous gel with pores of different

diameters
2. Adsorption chromatography is chromatography with a solid stationary
phase with adsorptive properties and a liquid mobile phase
3. The insoluble stationary phase has a specific ligand attached to the
molecule to be purified and reversibly binds to it
4. The separation depends on the size of the molecules of the mixture
5. It is defined as a type of chromatography in which separation takes place
on the basis of adsorption
6. Between the adsorbent support and the liquid that moves over the
stationary phase, intermolecular interactions are established that lead to a
physical adsorption
7. The separation depends on the pore size of the stationary phase
 8. It is a chromatographic technique for separating a compound using the
biological interactions between a specific ligand and its substrate
9. It takes place at the surface that separates two phases of a
heterogeneous system (solid/liquid separation surface)
10. Adsorption is a reversible physical phenomenon
76. Which of the following statements about X-ray diffraction is true?

1. It is the process by which water from a surface is discharged into the

atmosphere
2. It is the process by which water vapor in the air is converted into liquid
water
3. Defects and changes in the crystal can lead to diffuse scattering
4. It is an analysis method that can be used in the study of ordered
structures
5. It is the process by which the atoms or molecules of a body in the liquid
state accumulate enough energy to reach the gaseous state
6. The symmetry of the diffraction pattern is given by the symmetry of the
crystal lattice
7. It is an analysis method that can be used to study the conformational
structure of proteins
8. It is the natural process of forming solid crystals from a solution
9. The physical agent is represented by X-rays
10. It is the separation process that involves the passage of a liquid mixture
into a vapor state by boiling, followed by the condensation of the obtained
vapors
77. Which of the following statements regarding the production of X-rays is true?

1. When the electron and the anode collide, the electrons decelerate rapidly
2. X-ray is a therapeutic method that uses electric current
3. X-radiation is a physical effect in which a material acquires magnetic
properties
4. Electrons are thermionic emitted from a filament heated to high
temperatures
5. The anode is constructed of high melting point metals
6. X-radiation comes from the radioactive decay of atomic nuclei
7. Electrons are accelerated by a high potential difference
8. X-radiation is the electrical potential difference between the inside and
outside of a biological cell.
9. The electrons are accelerated towards a metal target - the anode
10. X-radiation is a fluid that changes its viscosity through the action of an
external electric field
78. Which of the following statements about Bragg's law is true?

1. The Bragg equation expresses the dependence of the gas pressure on the
average kinetic energy
2. The equation 2dsinθ = nλ is called the Bragg equation
 3. In the Bragg equation, 2dsinθ = nλ, θ is the angle at which the X-rays
interact with the crystal structure
4. In the Bragg equation, 2dsinθ = nλ, λ represents the path difference
between the incident ray and the reflected ray
5. The Bragg equation expresses the dependence of pressure on
temperature and the number of molecules in the unit volume
6. In the Bragg equation, 2dsinθ = nλ, the path difference between the
incident ray and the reflected ray must be an integer n
7. Scattered X-rays can be seen as they are reflected by the planes that
make up the crystal
8. In the Bragg equation, 2dsinθ = nλ, λ represents the wavelength of the X-
ray
9. In the Bragg equation, 2dsinθ = nλ, d represents the path difference
between the incident ray and the reflected ray
10. The Bragg equation expresses the dependence of the internal energy on
temperature
79. Which of the following statements about X-ray crystallography is true?

1. By analyzing the diffraction pattern, the position of each atom in the

composition of the studied crystal can be determined
2. X-ray crystallography is useful in the diagnosis of aphasia
3. The double-helical structure of DNA deduced from an X-ray diffraction
pattern
4. X-ray crystallography allowed the elucidation of the protein structure
5. A diffractometer is a device for measuring the diffraction of X-rays
6. It is a method of determining the arrangement of atoms in a crystal
7. X-ray crystallography is useful in anthropometric measurements
8. X-ray crystallography is used to determine the surface tension of liquids
9. X-ray crystallography is useful in determining body mass index
10. X-ray crystallography is useful in determining blood volume
80. Which of the following statements about X-rays is true?

1. X-rays are part of the visible spectrum

2. The linear spectrum of X-rays depends on the nature of the target material
3. In the case of the continuous spectrum of X-rays, the minimum
wavelength (λm) depends on the operating voltage of the tube
4. The continuous spectrum of X-rays is due to the braking of electrons in the
target
5. The continuous spectrum of X-rays is due to the transition of electrons
between atomic energy levels
6. Thermionic emission is the emission of protons from heated metals
7. The linear X-ray spectrum is independent of the operating voltage of the
tube
8. X-rays are electromagnetic radiations with a power of penetration directly
proportional to the wavelength
 9. They are electromagnetic radiation with short wavelengths, in the range of
ångströms
10. Bremsstrahlung (bremsstrahlung) has a line spectrum
81. The following statements about X-rays are true except:

1. They are electromagnetic radiation with short wavelengths, in the range of

ångströms
2. In the case of the continuous spectrum of X-rays, the minimum
wavelength (λm) depends on the operating voltage of the tube
3. The continuous spectrum of X-rays is due to the transition of electrons
between atomic energy levels
4. Thermionic emission is the emission of protons from heated metals
5. X-rays are part of the visible spectrum
6. X-rays are electromagnetic radiations with a power of penetration directly
proportional to the wavelength
7. The continuous spectrum of X-rays is due to the braking of electrons in the
target
8. The linear spectrum of X-rays depends on the nature of the target material
9. The linear X-ray spectrum is independent of the operating voltage of the
tube
10. Bremsstrahlung (bremsstrahlung) has a line spectrum
82. X-ray crystallography has been fundamental in the development of many
scientific fields, except:

1. Determination of protein structure

2. Cognitive processes
3. Atomic-scale differences between various materials, especially alloys
4. Determination of atomic structures
5. philosophy
6. Determination of the structure of drugs
7. Anthropology
8. Psychology
9. Determination of the structure of vitamins
10. Computational approach to language
83. When an electron hits the anode, the following phenomena occur:

1. It collides with atoms and is slowed down

2. Generates braking radiation
3. It causes the number of neutrons to increase
4. It causes the mass number to increase
5. Causes plastic center collisions
6. It determines the increase in the number of protons
7. It causes the mass number to decrease
8. It causes the appearance of X-rays with well-defined wavelengths
9. The electron loses a fraction of its energy
10. It causes atomic transitions
84. The steps in the study of proteins by X-ray diffraction include:

1. Renal hydroxylation
2. Primary protein desiccation
3. Preparation of protein in the form of powders
4. Air oxidation of amino acids
5. Protein sublimation
6. Extraction of amino acids from plasma
7. Electron density map of the protein
8. The conformational structural model of the protein
9. Preparation of the protein in the form of crystals
10. X-ray diffractogram
85. Which of the following statements about the limits of the X-ray diffraction
technique is true?

1. The structure of a membrane protein (hydrophobic environment) can be

different from the one obtained after purification and crystallization in the
presence of water
2. X-ray diffraction analyzes are carried out with the help of devices called
diffractometers
3. The most precise X-ray diffraction analyzes are performed on powder
samples
4. It is a non-destructive method
5. and a small amount of sample is required
6. Information is obtained only about the ordered areas of the protein
7. The X-ray diffraction pattern leads to the representation of a static image
of the protein structure
8. Currently, "wet" protein crystals are used
9. In a dehydrated ("dry") protein crystal, the protein tends to adopt a
disordered structure
10. X-rays interact with the spatial distribution of electrons in the sample
86. The following statements about lyophilization are true:

1. It is the most common separation method used for oil refining

2. It is a method of separating a mixture into its component parts
3. It is a separation method that involves the application of a centrifugal force
4. Freezing can be in liquid nitrogen
5. It is a method of purgation
6. The process is used in the pharmaceutical field
7. Primary desiccation corresponds to sublimation of product ice
8. It is based on freezing followed by pressure drop
9. It is a method to separate very fine particles dispersed in a liquid of equal
density
10. It is a dehydration method used to preserve food
87. The following statements about lyophilization are true:
 1. It is the process of separating particles from a fluid
2. Secondary drying is achieved by raising the temperature between 20 and
70 degrees Celsius and maintaining the temperature and vacuum for 2 to
6 hours
3. Primary desiccation corresponds to sublimation of product ice
4. It is the process by which a colloidal substance aggregates to form larger
aggregates, called flocs
5. It is a method that involves dehydration
6. It is the result of the interaction of two forces, one centripetal and the other
centrifugal
7. It is a method used to separate two miscible substances
8. It is a method of separating particles from an emulsion or suspension
9. It is a method that involves freezing
10. Freeze drying is also used to preserve food
88. The following statements refer to the advantages of the lyophilization method,
except:

1. Freeze-dried products preserve their biological properties

2. Food processing time decreases
3. Food processing time increases
4. Extraction of water vapor is done by electrophoresis
5. Lyophilized water is used by astronauts
6. Freeze-dried products are easily rehydrated by adding a liquid
7. Lyophilized water can be rehydrated very quickly
8. Freeze-dried products can be stored at room temperature
9. The weight decreases but the volume does not change significantly
10. Freeze-dried water shows the phenomenon of birefringence
89. The following statements refer to the advantages of the lyophilization method:

1. Freeze-dried products are easily rehydrated by adding a liquid

2. Freeze-dried products preserve their biological properties
3. Freeze-dried products regulate gene expression
4. Freeze-dried products have the ability to self-assemble
5. Freeze-dried products have the ability to self-replicate
6. Freeze-dried products encode information from the environment
7. Freeze-dried products do not require refrigeration
8. Freeze-dried products enter the composition of human body fluids
9. Freeze-dried products can be stored at room temperature
10. Freeze-dried products retain their shape and color, sometimes even their
smell
90. The following statements refer to the total separation of albumin from plasma, by
lyophilization:

1. Freeze-dried fruits can be eaten in breakfast cereals

2. The resulting powder will be placed sterilely in vacuumed containers
3. In an evacuated container, the sublimation process takes place
 4. Freeze-dried fruits are a good source of energy
5. The first step in the process is to collect the plasma
6. Albumin freezes at a low temperature
7. Albumin separates from plasma
8. It is mainly limited by spherical aberration
9. It is an effective and traditional method of desalination
10. Put into practice the use of the phase contrast phenomenon
91. Which of the following statements about proteins are true?

1. Peptide bond is a covalent bond that connects two amino acids

2. Proteins are subdivided into glycerophospholipids and sphingolipids
3. Proteins are esters of fatty acids
4. Four levels of organization of protein structure are defined
5. The primary structure of a protein defines the sequence of amino acid
residues in the polypeptide chain
6. They are polymers composed of amino acid chains or chains assembled
from monomers
7. Cholesterol is a protein bound to the human cell membrane
8. Proteins are also called triglycerides
9. The peptide bond connects two amino acids, between the carboxyl end of
one amino acid and the amino end of the next amino acid
10. Proteins are fractions of cholesterol and triglycerides necessary for the
proper functioning of the body
92. Which of the following statements about the peptide bond are true?

1. The peptide bond connects two amino acids, between the carboxyl end of
one amino acid and the amino end of the next amino acid
2. The peptide bond is a strong covalent bond
3. The peptide bond has a double bond character as a result of the
delocalization of the lone pair of electrons from the nitrogen atom
4. The peptide bond influences the three-dimensional arrangement that the
polypeptide chain adopts
5. Peptide bonds are manifested between electric dipoles that pre-exist in
molecules or arise by induction
6. A peptide bond is a type of chemical bond formed due to the existence of
electrostatic forces between two oppositely charged ions
7. The peptide bond is strong, rigid and planar with no possibility of rotation
around the carbon-nitrogen bond
8. Peptide bonds act between polar molecules and non-polar molecules
9. Peptide bonds are forces of an electrostatic nature that occur between
polar molecules (with a permanent dipole), resulting in the orientation of
the dipoles
10. Peptide bonds represent relatively small forces of attraction or repulsion
between neutral molecules
93. The following statements about amino acids in the structure of proteins are true:
 1. Serum protein electrophoresis is used to highlight the sequence of amino
acids in the protein structure
2. Amino acids have very low melting points and are insoluble in water
3. The human body can synthesize all amino acids
4. From a chemical point of view, amino acids contain an amino group and a
carboxyl group
5. Proline is an imino acid
6. The essential amino acids, which cannot be produced by the human body
and must be brought from outside, through food, are in number of 12
7. All proteins are polymers of amino acids
8. Amino acids are ionized at all pH values
9. From an electrical point of view, amino acids at neutral pH can be
classified into the following classes: aliphatic, aromatic, polar without
charge, polar with charge
10. An amino acid is natural if it is aromatic and beta
94. Which of the following statements about the quaternary structure of proteins are
true?

1. The quaternary structure of proteins represents a repetitive helical

structure in which all units are in identical spatial relationships with
neighboring units
2. Cholesterol is a quaternary protein
3. Quaternary structure is used to describe proteins composed of many
identical or different subunits
4. Glycerol is a quaternary protein
5. The quaternary structure of proteins represents the spatial arrangement of
the protein molecule on a single axis due to the hydrogen bridges (bonds)
that form intrachain or interchain
6. The quaternary structure of proteins is stabilized by non-covalent bonds or
weak interactions
7. Glucose is a quaternary protein
8. The quaternary structure of proteins characterizes only oligomeric proteins
9. The most common example used to illustrate quaternary structure is the
hemoglobin protein
10. Proteins formed from several polypeptide chains are called oligomeric
proteins
95. Which of the following statements about the secondary structure of proteins are
true?

1. The secondary structure of proteins can be separated by centrifugation

2. The alpha helix secondary structure is a frequently encountered structure
in globular proteins
3. General characteristics of secondary structure include ordering and
repetitiveness
4. The secondary structure of proteins defines the three-dimensional
configuration of the polypeptide chain
 5. Beta sheets are called folded
6. The partial double bond character of the peptide bond defines the
conformations that a polypeptide chain can take
7. In the secondary structure, each amino acid is surrounded by four other
amino acids, so that it forms a tetrahedron
8. The most common types of secondary structure are the alpha helix and
the folded beta sheet chains
9. The secondary structure of proteins characterizes only oligomeric proteins
10. Depending on their secondary structure, proteins can be classified into
globular and fibrillar
96. Which of the following statements about the tertiary structure of proteins are
true?

1. It is stabilized by hydrogen bonds

2. The tertiary structure of proteins consists of a single layer, forming a figure
similar to a sheet folded into an accordion
3. The tertiary structure of proteins is linear
4. It is stabilized by the electrostatic attraction between ionic groups with
opposite charges (-NH3+, -COO-)
5. The tertiary structure of proteins is made up of segments of polypeptide
chains oriented either parallel or antiparallel
6. The tertiary structure of proteins is alpha helix
7. It is stabilized by weak van der Waals forces
8. The tertiary structure of proteins defines the three-dimensional
configuration of the polypeptide chain
9. It is stabilized by disulfide bridges (-S, -S)
10. The tertiary structure of proteins contains the folded beta sheet chains
97. Which of the following statements about protein denaturation is true?

1. Protein denaturation can be caused by temperature

2. Protein denaturation can be caused by some organic solvents
3. Denaturation does not change the conformation of the protein
4. Protein denaturation can be caused by some high molecular weight metal
cations
5. Protein denaturation can be caused by detergents
6. Protein denaturation can be caused by acidic or alkaline reagents
7. The denaturation of proteins results in the increase of the biological
function associated with that protein
8. Denaturation increases the solubility of proteins
9. Denaturation does not change the three-dimensional structure of proteins
10. Protein denaturation has no effect on function
98. Which of the following statements about deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) is true?

1. DNA is responsible for generating energy in cellular processes

2. In the DNA molecule, the chemical bases are: adenine, guanine, cytosine
and thymine
 3. DNA is a nucleic acid
4. Adenine (A) and guanine (G) are pyrimidine nitrogenous bases
5. The DNA molecule is a linear polymer made up of basic units called
nucleotides
6. The DNA molecule has only one polynucleotide strand
7. The molecular structure of DNA contains uracil (U)
8. DNA carries genetic information
9. Cytosine (C) and thymine (T) are purine nitrogenous bases
10. The DNA molecule has a double helix structure
99. Which of the following statements about ribonucleic acid (RNA) is true?

1. The RNA molecule results from the binding of two pentose molecules
2. RNA has a central role in storing genetic information
3. The RNA molecule is single-stranded and does not have a regular helical
structure
4. Inside cells, messenger RNA (mRNA) is the RNA that will serve as a
template for protein synthesis
5. Most RNA is an alternating polymer of ribose and phosphate
6. Pentoses that enter the structure of RNA are D-2-deoxyribose
7. The sugar found in RNA is ribose which is related to deoxyribose
8. In the RNA molecule adenine replaces guanine
9. Messenger RNA is located in the cell nucleus
10. In the RNA molecule uracil (U) replaces thymine (T)
100. The following statements about deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) are true
except:

1. DNA carries genetic information

2. The DNA molecule has only one polynucleotide strand
3. The molecular structure of DNA contains uracil (U)
4. Cytosine (C) and thymine (T) are purine nitrogenous bases
5. DNA is a nucleic acid
6. The DNA molecule has a double helix structure
7. The DNA molecule is a linear polymer made up of basic units called
nucleotides
8. DNA is responsible for generating energy in cellular processes
9. Adenine (A) and guanine (G) are pyrimidine nitrogenous bases
10. In the DNA molecule, the chemical bases are: adenine, guanine, cytosine
and thymine
101. Next systems are biosystems:

1. A tissue
2. A desk control system
3. A transistor
4. An atom
5. The human body
6. The bone system
 7. A spectrum
8. An image
9. A cell
10. A dyode
102. The differences between living and non-living systems refer to:

1. aesthetic criteria
2. food intake
3. their functions
4. their structure
5. exchanges of matter and energy
6. the structure of living systems is completely unknown
7. living systems respect the principles of thermodynamics
8. living systems do not respect the principles of thermodynamics
9. living systems are cybernetic
10. living systems obey Moseley's law
103. In relation to the first principle of thermodynamics applied to living
systems, it can be stated that:

1. biological processes are reversible

2. Q represents the energy variation through thermal agitation
3. It implies the the universal gas constant (R)
4. U represents the sum of the energy of the particles in the system
5. muscle activity generate heat
6. it refers to the conservation of energy
7. It implies the kinetic molecular theory
8. biological processes are closed systems
9. L represents the variation of energy through the work
10. k represents the enthalpy
104. About systems it can be said that:

1. they can be living and non-living

2. They can be open, closed and isolated
3. are not clearly delimited
4. they are destructible
5. Behave based on thermodynamic principles
6. they are always mental representations
7. they are based on Ohm's law
8. they are never cybernetic
9. they obey Stokes' law
10. It has distinct components
105. From the enthalpy formula:

1. U represent the mechanical work of the system

2. H = entropy
 3. ΔH = Qp
4. H = U + pV
5. pV -thermal dilatation of the system
6. pV represents the exerted pressure
7. H = U + Qp
8. U the internal energy of the system
9. H is the enthalpy
10. ΔH = ΔU
106. Entropy:

1. Has this relation: the higher is the entropy, the higher is the order
2. is given by Boltzmann's formula (S= k ln N)
3. Has the symbol - W
4. is the result of the energy conservation principle
5. represents the 2nd principle of thermodynamics
6. is 0 in the case of a perfect crystal
7. measures the degree of disorder of a system
8. Has this relation: the lower is the entropy, the lower is the order
9. is depending of thermodynamic state probability
10. represents the 1st principle of thermodynamics
107. About Boltzmann's formula:

1. measures the heat received by the system

2. measures the degree of disorder of a system
3. k is Boltzmann's constant
4. R is the resistivity of the system
5. enthalpy is denoted by S
6. is a probability function
7. N is the initial number of systems
8. measures the complexity of chaos
9. S denotes entropy
10. N is the thermodynamic state of the system
108. Among the general characteristics of biosystems we can mention:

1. they do not obey gravity

2. they are informative
3. All the compounds assure new properties
4. Are in a dynamic equilibrium state
5. they are the result of an evolution
6. they have superior programs
7. they are not self-regulating
8. they are not the result of an evolution
9. shows unstable equilibrium state
10. have electronic components
109. Next affirmations about biosystems are true:
 1. Second thermodynamic principle it is about that not all the heat may be
transformed in work due entropy
2. Contains living structures (cells, organelles)
3. First thermodynamic principle it is about energy preservation
4. are closed systems
5. The enthalpy is a phase transfer parameter
6. Not all the biosystem have bioelectricity
7. are isolated systems
8. The entropy is a state parameter related with order degree
9. Not all biosystems need energy
10. Allow transformation of all the energy in work
110. From the point of view of exchanges with the external environment, the
following categories of systems can be distinguished:

1. Closed, when they do not exchange matter with the outside

2. Isolated, when they do not exchange matter, but do exchange energy
3. Closed, when they do not exchange matter and energy
4. Open, when there are exchanges of matter and energy
5. Biological, when there are exchanges of matter and energy
6. Isolated, when there is no exchange of matter or energy
7. Biological, when they do not exchange matter and energy
8. Closed, when they have no energy exchanges
9. Closed, when there is only energy exchange with the outside
10. Isolated, when they exchange matter and energy
111. Among the differences between living (biosystems) and non-living
(inorganic) open systems can be mentioned:

1. All non-living systems are cybernetic

2. In non-living systems there are command and communication processes
that adjust and regulate the activity of the systems
3. Exchanges of matter and energy are vital to both living and non-living
systems
4. In the case of biosystems, knowing the structures and functions is
insufficient, but sufficient for non-living systems
5. Nonliving systems and biosystems are cybernetic systems
6. Exchanges of matter and energy are vital to living systems, but they cause
the desegregation of non-living systems
7. All living systems are cybernetic
8. Nonliving systems are not cybernetic systems
9. For both biosystems and inorganic systems, knowing the structures and
functions is insufficient
10. Biosystems present a series of peculiarities as a result of the application
of the principles of thermodynamics
112. The equation ΔU = Q - L:

1. It represents the first principle of thermodynamics

 2. It is a law of conservation of energy
3. In biological systems L = pΔV (V = volume)
4. Q – represents heat measured in degrees Celsius
5. It is the law of conservation of temperature
6. It is Boltzmann's law
7. L is the mechanical work done by the system
8. Show that the change in internal energy is always zero
9. It represents the second law of thermodynamics
10. ΔU represents the change in internal energy
113. Regarding the second principle of thermodynamics, it can be stated:

1. For a biological system, it describes the decrease in the degree of

disorder with the passage of time
2. It shows the degree of disorder of a system
3. S in Boltzmann's formula represents the number of states in which the
system can exist
4. It has the equation: S = k lnN
5. It refers to a state parameter called entropy
6. The more disordered a system is, the more entropy increases
7. The entropy of a perfect crystal is equal to unity
8. It has the equation: S = lnN/k
9. It is also known as Boltzmann's formula
10. In the first part of the human organism's life, entropy increases
114. Biosystems have a number of general characteristics:

1. The lower and upper programs ensure the self-preservation of the system
2. Program – makes it possible to modify the system based on the exchange
of energy, matter and information
3. Dynamic equilibrium – although there is constant exchange with the
external environment, the biosystem remains unchanged
4. Biosystems have low complexity
5. Self-regulation is achieved through a feed-back loop
6. Informational character – biosystems have the ability to receive,
accumulate and transform information from the environment
7. Integrality – biosystems have new structural and functional characteristics
8. Biosystems are not the result of evolution
9. The steady state shows that the biological system does not receive
energy, matter and energy from the external environment
10. Higher programs ensure the preservation of the biological system
115. Regarding the variation of internal energy, according to the first principle
of thermodynamics it can be stated:

1. It can be calculated with the formula ΔU = H - pΔV

2. It is equal to unity if Q = L
3. It can be expressed in Kelvin or degrees Celsius
 4. It is given by the sum of the kinetic and potential energies of the
components of a biological system
5. It can be positive if the system does less mechanical work than the heat
received
6. It can be calculated with the formula ΔU = Q - L
7. It is zero when the heat received is equal to the mechanical work done by
the system
8. It is measured in joules (J)
9. It cannot be negative
10. It cannot be positive
116. The following affirmations about entropy are true:

1. It is a measure of the degree of disorder in a thermodynamic system

2. It cannot be greater than 0
3. It is zero for a perfect crystal
4. It will decrease as living systems naturally evolve
5. It is marked with the letter S
6. The more disordered a system is, the lower the entropy
7. Living organisms are antientropic
8. It is zero when the number of possible configurations N = 1
9. It is maximal when the number of possible configurations N = 1
10. It can be calculated with Kelvin's formula
117. The following affirmations about cybernetics are true:

1. biosystems do not translate information

2. it can be applied to living systems and machines
3. it is a science of communication
4. it can be theoretical and applied
5. cybernetics is a branch of computer science
6. refers to the presence of feedback loops
7. it only applies to cars
8. biosystems are not self-regulating
9. cybernetics is an economic science
10. refers to systems with automatic regulation
118. About the frog as an experimental animal (animal model) we can say that:

1. it has never been used as an animal model

2. in relation to his experiments on the frog, Luigi Galvani is called the father
of bioelectricity
3. it is a mathematical model
4. was used as a model of muscle contraction
5. was used in the study of biomechanics
6. is an experimental model of active transport
7. can be used in the study of action biopotential
8. it is a chemical model
9. it is a mental, abstract model
 10. was used as a model in the study of bioelectricity
119. About the information next affirmations are true:

1. it is based on Stokes' formula

2. is based on Bragg's formula
3. it is measured in decibels
4. it is measured in ohms
5. it is measured in bits
6. Is the variable most used in cybernetics
7. flow is measured in bound
8. it is based on Shannon's formula
9. is directly proportional to the probability
10. is inversely proportional to the probability
120. The following affirmations about thermodynamics are true:

1. The first law of thermodynamics states that energy can be created

2. Between any equilibrium states, the change in internal energy (U) is equal
to the summing of the heat transfer into the system and work done by the
system.
3. The work is all the time equal with heat transfer
4. The first law of thermodynamics states that energy can neither be created
nor destroyed
5. defines the relationship between the various forms of energy present in a
system
6. Any thermodynamic system in an equilibrium state possesses a transition
variable called the internal energy
7. Between any two equilibrium states, the change in internal energy (U) is
equal to the difference of the heat transfer into the system and work done
by the system.
8. Any thermodynamic system in an equilibrium state possesses a state
variable called the internal energy
9. The first law states that energy is not conserved in all thermodynamic
processes
10. The first law states that energy is conserved in all thermodynamic
processes
121. The following affirmations about thermodynamics are true:

1. K- Boltzman constant is expressed in J/kV

2. Q is the internal energy transfer into a system
3. The second law of thermodynamics helps put the first law into context
4. N from Boltzman law = thermodynamic heat transfer
5. Losing energy tendency= Entropy
6. S from Boltzman law = entalphy
7. Energy is never lost in a system
8. The second law states that entropy of the universe tends to a maximum
9. Energy is all the time lost in a system
 10. S= k ln N- Boltzman law
122. The following affirmations about thermodynamics are true:

1. Thermodynamics deals with the large-scale energy response of a system

2. is a branch of physics which deals with the energy and work of a system
3. The variations of internal energy are not related with mechanical work
4. thermodynamic system = any macroscopic system that have a limit
(border)
5. U = the sum of system particles energies
6. The molecules heat exchange can be object of the thermodynamics
7. Deals with the molecular level energy
8. The atoms heat exchange can be object of the thermodynamics
9. Entropy is a transition phase parameter
10. The membrane is not an antientropic barrier
123. The following affirmations about system approach are true:

1. Indirect way can’t be when is known the content of the system

2. Inductive way can’t be when is known the content of the system
3. Indirect way is when is not known the stimulus
4. Deductive way is when is not known the content of the system
5. Deductive way can be when is known the answer
6. Deductive way can’t be when is known the stimulus
7. Direct way is when is not known the answer
8. Direct way can’t be when is known the content of the system
9. Direct way can’t be when is known the stimulus
10. Inductive way is when is not known the function law
124. The following affirmations about thermodynamic systems are true:

1. Isolated system- only exchange for energy

2. Isolated system- no exchange for energy (as heat or work) with theexterior
(surroundings)
3. Open system no energy exchange with the exterior
4. Isolated system- internal energy variation is zero
5. Isolated system- no exchange matter
6. Isolated system- only matter
7. Open system no matter with the exterior
8. Closed system-energetic exchange is possible
9. Closed system- no matter exchange
10. Closed system- no energetic exchange
125. The following affirmatios about biosystem’s characteristics are true:

1. Have informational character

2. They are simple systems of maximum 2 compunds
3. They are functional based of a program
4. The dynamic equilibrium (steady state) is not a must
 5. They can’t self-regulate
6. Are in a dynamic equilibrium (steady state)
7. All the compounds offer the integrality
8. Is not the result of an evolution
9. Sometimes doesn’t have informational character
10. Are the result of an evolution
126. The following examples are of biosystems:

1. a diode
2. a microorganism
3. a tissue
4. a resistivity
5. an enzyme
6. an electrode
7. a resistance
8. a photocell
9. a chemoreceptor
10. an immunological agent
127. The following components can be a part of the artificial kidney model:

1. A selective membrane
2. Weastone bridge
3. Calomel electrode
4. A conductometer
5. A peristaltic pump
6. D’Arsonval electrode
7. A dialyzer
8. A heparin pump
9. Nicol prism
10. Faraday cage
128. The following affirmations about scientific observation are true:

1. is organized
2. it has no specific purpose
3. it is methodical
4. it does not depend on the qualities of the researcher
5. it has a purpose
6. it is done with the intervention of the researcher
7. it depends on the qualities of the researcher
8. first, a whole-body MRI scan is performed, in the case of clinical
observation
9. it is not important
10. has cognitive value
129. The following affirmations about scientifical experiment are true:
 1. has cognitive value
2. is based on systematic research
3. it is methodical
4. it only applies to humans
5. it depends on the qualities of the researcher
6. the results must not be reproducible
7. it does not depend on the qualities of the researcher
8. it is done without the intervention of the researcher
9. random results are obtained
10. it is intentional
130. The purposes of modeling in medicine are:

1. understanding a pathology using a research model

2. Improvement of organ transplantation
3. facilitating access understanding of the complex functions of the human
body
4. reducing the risks of a surgical intervention
5. replacing animal models with abstract ones
6. temporary replacement of some organs or functions in the body
7. making models for drug testing
8. replacement of some organs or functions in the body
9. making prostheses
10. making industrial robots
131. In the mathematical equation of modeling a squid axon the meaning of the
symbols is:

1. a = cable diameter
2. R = radius
3. I(v) = inductance
4. v = speed
5. x = distance
6. S = cable section
7. l = cable length
8. R = electrical resistance of the conductor
9. C = capacitance of the shell
10. C = conductance
132. Biomedical models can be:

1. geological
2. Pure chemical
3. material
4. biological
5. theoretical
6. demonstrational
7. historical
8. practical
 9. industrially
10. astronomical
133. The squid axon model can be considered a model:

1. chemical
2. practically
3. earthenware
4. similar
5. material
6. historic
7. theoretical
8. biological
9. unique
10. demonstrative
134. The artificial kidney model:

1. is used in hemodialysis
2. definitively replaces renal function
3. the pore diameter is less than the pore length
4. it is a cybernetic model
5. uses artificial silicone membrane
6. is used in hemolysis
7. temporarily replaces renal function
8. uses artificial cellophane membrane
9. it is a bionic model
10. the pore diameter is greater than the pore length
135. The pace maker model:

1. Is a functional model
2. Is a “black-box” model
3. Is a bionic model
4. Is a cybernetic model
5. It has a similar heart volume
6. Is used for hemodialysis
7. Is used in medical imaging
8. Is a medical device
9. It has heart shape
10. It controls the heart function
136. In the electronic model of the squid axon:

1. membrane polarization is replaced by a specific capacitance

2. the membrane is replaced by an electrical resistance
3. the membrane is replaced by a constant
4. ion pumps are replaced by specific resistors
 5. the resistance of the membrane to the passage of electric current is
measured
6. the cytoplasm is replaced by an electrical resistance
7. the number of sodium ions passing through an ion channel is measured
8. ion pumps are replaced by current amplifiers
9. the nerve impulse is replaced by an electric current
10. the cytoplasm is replaced by a transistor
137. Hodgkin and Huxley were awarded the Nobel Prize in Medicine in 1963
for:

1. identification of the erythrocyte membrane compounds

2. neural patterning by X-ray diffraction
3. patch-clamp method
4. studies on the transmission of nerve impulses
5. electronic modeling of an axon fragment
6. studies on the photoelectric effect
7. squid axon studies (animal model)
8. studies on intercellular communication
9. mathematical modeling of an axon fragment
10. the use in the experiment of an electric cable instead of the axon
138. About the modeling of the glomerular membrane during dialysis it can be
said that:

1. cellophane is used for modeling

2. artificial silicone membrane is used
3. temporarily replaces renal function
4. the membrane is permeable to proteins
5. the goal is to increase the dialysis surface
6. pore length is the modeled parameter, so it must be similar
7. pore diameter is the modeled parameter, so it must be similar
8. the total area must be identical
9. definitively replaces renal function
10. the membrane is impermeable to figurative elements
139. About the proteins structure it can be stated that:

1. tertiary structure can be alpha-helix and beta-fold

2. in tertiary structure proteins adopt a three-dimensional structure as a
result of electrostatic interactions of various types
3. the secondary structure can be beta-folded
4. primary structure is also called conformational structure
5. can be studied by X-ray diffraction
6. in the tertiary structure proteins adopt a two-dimensional structure as a
result of the establishment of some hydrogen or sulfur bridges
7. primary structure refers to the sequence of amino acids in the peptide
chain
8. can be clarified by a method of analysis called X-ray microscopy
 9. the secondary structure can be beta-helix type
10. the secondary structure can be alpha-helix type
140. Sickle cell disease is a hereditary disease determined by a change in:

1. Conformational structures of hemoglobin

2. The organization of the erythrocyte membrane
3. Alpha and beta subunits in the primary structure of hemoglobin
4. Rheology of circulating erythrocytes
5. The beta subunit in the primary structure of hemoglobin
6. Hemoglobin quaternary structure
7. Myoglobin tertiary structure
8. All the amino acids in the hemoglobin structure
9. the primary structure of hemoglobin
10. Insulin quaternary structure
141. The disease that occurs as a result of replacing glutamic acid with valine
in the hemoglobin structure is known as:

1. Pernicious anemia
2. A type of genetically hematological disease
3. Anemia with red blood cells in the shape of a circle
4. Drepanocytosis
5. Mediterranean avitaminosis
6. Falciform anemia
7. Iron deficiency anemia
8. Mediterranean anemia
9. Sickle cell anemia
10. Marine anemia
142. The study methods that led to the elucidation of the mechanism of sickle
cell disease include:

1. Chromatography
2. Computed tomography with X-rays
3. The polarizing microscope
4. Ion microscopy
5. immunelectrophoresis
6. Electron microscopy
7. X-ray diffraction
8. Optical microscopy
9. The phase contrast microscope
10. Nuclear microanalysis
143. Regarding sickle cell disease, it can be stated that:

1. The conformational structure of hemoglobin is not affected

2. A conformational change in hemoglobin occurs
3. Hemoglobin has a globular structure
 4. The primary structure of hemoglobin is not affected
5. Valine is replaced by glutamic acid
6. It is a genetic condition
7. Glutamic acid is replaced by valine
8. Red blood cells have the shape of a biconcave disc
9. It is transmitted autosomal recessively
10. The 6th amino acid of the beta chain in hemoglobin is replaced
144. The following study methods have NOT contributed to the elucidation of
the pathogenesis of sickle cell disease:

1. X-ray diffraction
2. Optical microscopy
3. Gamma ray diffraction
4. Phase contrast microscopy
5. Ion microscopy
6. Scintigraphy
7. Fluorescence microscopy
8. Chromatography
9. Ultrasound
10. Electron microscopy
145. The following statements about the precursors of Biophysics are true:

1. Calude Bernard has introduce the term of homeostasis

2. Santorio Santorio invented an instrument for measuring electrical activity
of the heart
3. Descartes was the first researcher to measure root pressure
4. Hales highlighted the therapeutic action of some physical agents
5. Marey set up an experiment to demonstrate muscle excitability
6. Santorio is recognized for the first metabolic experiment in medicine
7. Galvani is considered the father of bioelectricity
8. Galvani was the first to explain homeostasis
9. Santorio Santorio, through the balance chair experiment, laid the
foundations for the study of metabolism
10. Hales made the first measurement of osmotic pressure (on plant roots)
146. About Biophysics as a science, it can be stated that:

1. It studies the action and effects of physical factors on living organisms

2. It studies physical phenomena in living structures
3. Like mathematics it is a science that does not need the support of other
sciences
4. It studies the social factors that act on the human organism
5. It is a frontier science
6. Make available to medicine methods, techniques, instruments, apparatus
and procedures for research, diagnosis and treatment
7. Describe how the metabolic pathways are working in the human body
8. It uses laws, concepts, methods and techniques from physics
 9. It is a science that has appeared in its current form since Archemides
10. Describes the chemical action of some drugs in different pathologies
147. The following are NOT fields of biophysics:

1. Quantum physics
2. Bioengineering
3. Biorheology
4. Electronic optics
5. Biomechanics
6. Bioelectricity
7. Physics of the liquid state
8. Classical mechanics
9. Biological thermodynamics
10. hemodynamic
148. Understanding Biophysics, as a frontier science, requires knowledge of:

1. Philosophy
2. Economy
3. Sanitary management
4. Chemistry
5. Biochemistry
6. Mathematics
7. Biology
8. Sociology
9. Physics
10. Psychology
149. Regarding the classification of biophysics fields, it can be stated:

1. The field of biophysics corresponding to the physics of the liquid state is

called homeostasis
2. The field of biophysics corresponding to optics in physics is called
physiological optics
3. The field of biophysics corresponding to atomic and nuclear physics is
called nuclear resonance
4. The field of biophysics corresponding to optics in physics is called
photooptics
5. The field of biophysics corresponding to molecular physics and
thermodynamics is called biological thermodynamics
6. For the field of mechanical physics in biophysics corresponds the field of
biomechanics
7. The field of biophysics corresponding to the physics of the liquid state is
called haemorheology (in the case of blood)
8. The field of biophysics corresponding to the physics of the liquid state is
called hemolysis
9. The field of biophysics corresponding to electricity and magnetism in
physics is called bioenergetics
 10. Radiobiology corresponds to atomic and nuclear physics
150. Regarding the classification of the fields of biophysics according to the
levels of organization of biosystems it can be said:

1. Electronic biophysics studies intermolecular charge and energy transfers

2. Molecular biophysics allows the identification and characterization of the
properties of biological molecules
3. Molecular biophysics allows the determination of molecular structures
4. Electronic biophysics allows the characterization of the properties of
biological molecules
5. Electronic biophysics studies internal charge and energy transfers
6. Electronic biophysics studies the properties of biological molecules
7. Cellular biophysics studies internal energy transfers
8. Cellular biophysics studies biophysical aspects at the level of individual
cells
9. Cell biophysics allows the determination of molecular structures
10. Molecular biophysics studies internal transfers at the level of individual
cells
151. The following methods can be used in the study of proteins:

1. X-ray diffraction
2. Polarimetry
3. refractometers
4. Scintigraphy
5. Electrophoresis
6. Ultracentrifugation
7. Polarizing microscopy
8. Patch - clamp
9. CTX
10. Immersion microscopy
152. Regarding the optical microscope:

1. The resolution power cannot be changed

2. Resolution is directly proportional to the wavelength of light.
3. The condenser of the optical microscope has the role of focusing the light
on the specimen
4. The final image is virtual, magnified and upright
5. The refractive index of the medium between the preparation and the
objective can be changed
6. The mechanical part of the optical microscope has the role of supporting
the optical part
7. The resolving power of the optical microscope is inferior to the electron
microscope
8. The final image is real, scaled and flipped
9. The final image is virtual, enlarged and flipped
10. The objective of the optical microscope forms the final image of the object
153. In Abbé's relation:

1. u is half the opening angle of the light cone falling on the lens
2. n is the refractive index of the preparation
3. ε represents the molar extinction coefficient
4. ε represents the separable minimum
5. λ is the wavelength of the light used
6. n x sin u is the numerical aperture
7. n is the refractive index of the medium between the preparation and the
objective
8. u is half the angle of the light cone falling on the eyepiece
9. λ represents the radioactive constant
10. u is the opening angle of the light cone falling on the lens
154. Regarding the optical microscope, the following can be stated:

1. The resolution can be increased

2. In relation to the separable minimum, λ is the conductivity
3. The separating power is directly proportional to the light intensity
4. The diaphragm ensures the adjustment of the light flow
5. The resolving power depends on the separable minimum
6. Magnifying power is the most important quality
7. The diaphragm is located above the lens
8. Separating power is the most important quality
9. The diaphragm is a component of the mechanical part
10. The minimum resolution distance is given by Abbé's formula
155. Regarding the optical microscope, the following can be stated:

1. The magnifying power is given by the ratio between the magnifying power
of the objective and that of the eyepiece
2. It is used for the observation of structures with dimensions of the order of
nanometers
3. The diaphragm ensures the focus of the light on the preparation
4. The lenses have a focal length of a few millimeters
5. The unit of measure for resolving power is the meter
6. It is used for observing structures with dimensions of the order of
micrometers
7. The eyepiece has a focal length of the order of centimeters
8. Platinum is a component of the mechanical part
9. The condenser is a component of the optical part
10. The minimum resolution distance is given by Pulfrich's formula
156. The optical part of the optical microscope:

1. The lighting system is located under the turntable

2. It has a focusing device consisting of the macrometric and the micrometric
screw
 3. Support the mechanical part
4. The lighting system is composed of the light source, mirror, diaphragm
and condenser
5. Contains eyepieces and objective system
6. It is a centered optical system
7. The diaphragm ensures the focus of the light on the preparation
8. Contains objective micrometer
9. It is responsible for image formation
10. It consists of an illumination system and two converging lens systems
157. Regarding the optical part of the optical microscope:

1. Forms the final image of the preparation

2. Penetrating power is a quality of high magnification objectives
3. Forms the intermediate image through the lens
4. The condenser is a diverging lens that focuses the light on the preparation
5. The image formed by the microscope objective is magnified, inverted and
virtual
6. It is used for observing some structures with dimensions of the order of
picometers
7. The lenses have a focal length of a few millimeters
8. The penetrating power is inversely proportional to the size of the opening
angle of the lens
9. The eyepiece has a focal length of the order of centimeters
10. The condenser is a component of the optical part
158. The resolving power of an optical microscope depends on:

1. separable minimum
2. numerical aperture
3. the intensity of the light used and the refractive index of the blade
4. the intensity of the light source
5. the refractive index of the condenser lens
6. the wavelength of the light used
7. the refractive index of the preparation
8. focal length of the lens
9. the size of the opening angle of the lens
10. the refractive index of the medium between the objective and the
preparation
159. About the micrometric method it can be stated:

1. a single uncalibrated micrometer is used

2. divisions of 10 micrometers are marked on the ocular micrometer
3. a grid of squares is marked on the objective micrometer
4. the eyepiece micrometer image is given only by the eyepiece lens
5. calibrate the objective micrometer with a x10 objective
6. two micrometers are used
7. the objective micrometer is only magnified by the objective lens
 8. with its help, the dimensions of microscopic objects can be measured
9. the ocular micrometer is calibrated
10. 10 micrometer divisions are marked on the objective micrometer
160. The mechanical part of the optical microscope consists of the following
components:

1. platinum
2. condenser
3. macrometric screw
4. column of the microscope
5. cardioid capacitor
6. micrometer screw
7. Nicol prism
8. the sole of the microscope
9. micrometer
10. diaphragm
161. The types of optical microscopes are:

1. fluorescence microscope
2. ion microscope
3. phosphorescence microscope
4. phase contrast microscope
5. immersion microscope
6. microscope with bright background
7. tunnel effect microscope
8. polarizing microscope
9. amplitude contrast microscope
10. ultramicroscopic
162. Ultramicroscope:

1. is based on the phenomenon of total reflection

2. structural details can be highlighted by side lighting
3. highlights the shape and dimensions of the specimen
4. structural details of the transparent sample can be highlighted
5. highlights structural details through the refraction of light
6. it is called a dark background microscope
7. lighting is done from the side
8. is based on the Tyndall phenomenon
9. features a cardioid condenser
10. highlights sample structure through the Tyndall effect
163. The following can be said about the ultramicroscope:

1. can highlight birefringent structures

2. is based on the phenomenon of light diffusion
3. highlights the shape of the particles in the sample
 4. highlights the particle sizes of the sample
5. highlights anisotropic structures
6. highlights the movements of colloidal particles
7. shows a paraboloid condenser
8. uses fully polarized light
9. is based on the phenomenon of dichroism
10. can highlight structural details through side lighting
164. Regarding the ultramicroscope, it can be stated that:

1. light from the source cannot enter the lens directly

2. is based on the phenomenon of diffraction
3. the cardioid condenser uses immersion
4. the cardioid condenser lets the marginal rays through
5. can highlight Leptospira
6. can highlight Treponema pallidum
7. the image is formed with the extraordinary rays
8. features a quarter-wave blade
9. highlights the "Knights of Malta" cross
10. uses ultraviolet light
165. The resolving power of the optical microscope can be increased:

1. increasing the light intensity

2. increasing the optical power of the lens
3. increasing the numerical aperture
4. reducing the refractive index of the medium between the preparation and
the objective
5. using sources with λ as high as possible
6. using sources with λ as low as possible
7. increasing the angle u
8. using immersion objectives
9. decreasing the refractive index of the preparation
10. decreasing ε
166. The resolving power of the optical microscope can be increased:

1. using violet light

2. using long focal length lenses
3. using wet lenses
4. using the objective micrometer
5. using very short focal length lenses
6. using immersion condensers
7. increasing the optical power of the lens
8. increasing the diaphragm opening
9. putting cedar oil between the slide and objective
10. increasing the refractive index of the medium between the slide and the
lens
167. About the fluorescence microscope it can be said that:
 1. electron-opaque markers are used
2. fluorescent markers are used
3. the sample contains radioactive isotopes
4. the sample contains radiopharmaceuticals
5. uses infrared light
6. uses ultraviolet light
7. the sample contains fluorophores
8. it has lower resolution than the ordinary microscope
9. it has better resolution than ordinary microscope
10. in relation to this method, E. Betzig, S. Hell and W. Moerner were awarded
the Nobel Prize in 2014
168. About the fluorescence microscope (FM) it can be said that:

1. is based on the phenomenon of phosphorescence

2. the atoms of the preparation emit radiation with a shorter wavelength than
the absorbed one
3. uses X-rays
4. may have a resolution of less than 0.2 micrometers
5. the Stokes shift is given by the difference λ excitation and λ fluorescence
6. the sample contains chromophores
7. the atoms of the preparation emit radiation with a wavelength longer than
that absorbed
8. in relation to this method, A. Hodgkin and A. Huxley were awarded the
Nobel Prize in 1963
9. the Stokes shift is given by the difference λ excitation and λ
phosphorescence
10. allows examination of living cells
169. Regarding the phase contrast microscope, we can state that:

1. use white light

2. the obtained image has a lower resolution than the optical microscope
3. highlights the phenomenon of birefringence
4. uses UV light
5. transforms a phase contrast into an amplitude contrast
6. features a quarter-wave blade
7. features polarizing filters
8. allows the visualization of unstained samples
9. samples require staining
10. increases contrast in unfixed cells
170. Regarding the phase contrast microscope, we can state that:

1. for its invention, Frederik Zernike was awarded the Nobel Prize in 1953
2. the sample contains chromatophores
3. the images obtained have a higher resolution than the optical microscope
4. is based on the Tyndall phenomenon
5. presents a phase disk
 6. transforms the phase shift of light into a colored image
7. allows the visualization of living cells in their natural state
8. transforms sample thickness differences into brightness variations
9. for its invention, E. Neher and B. Sackmann were awarded the Nobel
Prize in 1991
10. to increase the contrast, the lighting is done from the side
171. The following microscopes are optical microscopes:

1. The scanning electron microscope

2. The confocal microscope
3. The phase contrast microscope
4. The diffraction microscope
5. The immersion microscope
6. The atomic force microscope
7. The phosphorescence microscope
8. The transmission electron microscope
9. The interference contrast microscope
10. The fluorescence microscope
172. The following statements can be made about the optical photon
microscope:

1. the final image is real, upright and magnified

2. to obtain a clear image the objective micrometer is rotated
3. the final image is virtual, inverted and enlarged
4. the lighting system contains an ultraviolet source
5. to get a clear image rotate the macro and micrometric vises
6. the final image is virtual, upright and magnified
7. rotate the revolver system to get a clear image
8. uses light from the visible range
9. the image given by the microscope objective is real, inverted and
magnified
10. the diaphragm regulates the light flow that falls on the sample
173. The following microscopes are optical microscopes:

1. The wet objective microscope

2. The color pulse microscope
3. Dark background microscope
4. The polarizing microscope
5. The tunneling microscope
6. The γ-ray microscope
7. The X-ray microscope
8. The ultramicroscope
9. The ordinary (photonic) microscope
10. The ionic microscope
174. The following methods are optical methods:
 1. Nuclear microanalysis
2. Densitometry
3. Atomic diffraction spectrometry
4. Fluorimetry
5. Nephelometry
6. Immunoturbidimetry
7. Flamphotometry
8. Phosphorimetry
9. Atomic force spectrometry
10. Refractometry
175. The following methods are optical methods:

1. Fluorimetry
2. Radiometry
3. Viscosimetry
4. Turbidimetry
5. Polarizing microscopy
6. Polarimetry
7. Ultramicroscopy
8. Fluorescence microscopy
9. Nephelometry
10. Photocolorimetry
176. The following statements about optical methods are true:

1. in flame photometry fluorescent markers are used

2. violet light is used in fluorimetry
3. in photocolorimetry the concentration of a colored solution is measured
4. nephelometry measures the intensity of light passing through a diluted
solution
5. nephelometry measures the intensity of diffused light
6. in turbidimetry, the intensity of reflected light is measured
7. white light can be used in refractometry
8. in polarimetry the critical angle for glucose is measured
9. in flame photometry, the concentration of a chemical element is measured
by exciting it in a flame
10. in polarimetry the concentration of an optically active substance is
measured
177. The following statements about optical methods are true:

1. γ radiation is used in turbidimetry

2. in refractometry the refractive index of a solution is measured
3. in nephelometry the amount of diffused light is inversely proportional to the
concentration of suspended particles
4. UV radiation is used in nephelometry
5. in flame photometry, the concentration of a chemical element is measured
by its thermal excitation
 6. IR radiation is used in flame photometry
7. in turbidimetry, the intensity of light passing through a diluted solution is
measured
8. in turbidimetry, the amount of light absorbed is inversely proportional to
the concentration of suspended particles
9. nephelometry is a more sensitive method than turbidimetry
10. in refractometry the limiting angle of a transparent solution is measured
178. In Lambert-Beer’s Law, It = I0e-εcd, the terms have the following meaning:

1. I0 = the intensity of the absorbed ray

2. It = intensity of the incident ray
3. d = the distance traveled by light through the absorbing medium
4. c = absorption coefficient (mol/L)
5. ε = absorption coefficient
6. ε = molar extinction coefficient
7. It = the intensity of the emerging ray
8. d = the distance between the objective and the sample
9. c = concentration (mol/L)
10. I0 = intensity of the incident ray
179. In the law of light absorption, It = I0e-kd, the terms have the following
meaning:

1. I0 = the intensity of the absorbed ray

2. e = base of the natural logarithm
3. It = the intensity of the emerging ray
4. d = the distance traveled by light through the refractive medium
5. k = molar extinction coefficient
6. It = intensity of the incident ray
7. e = extinction coefficient
8. d = the distance traveled by light through the absorbing medium
9. k = absorption coefficient
10. I0 = intensity of the incident ray
180. Regarding photocolorimetry, it can be stated that:

1. the concentration of γ -globulins can be measured

2. the dispersion of light can be measured
3. the concentration of β1-globulins can be measured
4. the light reflection can be measured
5. the dispersion of light can be measured by the Tyndall effect
6. the extinction of light can be measured
7. the dispersion of light can be measured
8. the albumin concentration can be measured
9. the concentration of α1-globulins can be measured
10. the light transmission can be measured
181. Regarding photocolorimetry, the following statements can be made:
 1. the principle of the method is based on the Lambert-Biot law
2. the absorption coefficient depends on the wavelength of the radiation
3. in the case of light absorption in colored media, the absorption coefficient
is proportional to the concentration of the substance
4. the principle of the method is based on the Lambert-Beer law
5. the concentration of β2-globulins can be measured
6. the absorption coefficient depends on the pressure of the solution
traversed by the ray
7. the intensity of the emerging ray decreases exponentially with the distance
traveled through the absorbing medium
8. is an optical method that uses monochromatic light
9. is a method of staining microscopic samples
10. the absorption coefficient depends on the nature of the medium traversed
by the ray
182. The following statements about the quantities used in photocolorimetry are
true:

1. the extinction is equal to the inverse of the natural logarithm of the

transmission
2. extinction is directly proportional to concentration when the solutions
contain the same dye and the light-transmitted layer has the same
thickness
3. extinction is inversely proportional to concentration when the solutions
contain the same dye and the light-transmitted layer has the same
thickness
4. transmission is the ratio between the intensity of the emerging ray and the
incident ray
5. absorbtion shows how the intensity of the incident light has decreased due
to the absorbing property of the solution
6. for high concentrations of colored solutions, extinction is not proportional
to concentration
7. extinction is equal to the natural logarithm of the reverse of transmission
8. transmission is the ratio between the intensity of the incident ray and the
emerging one
9. for high concentrations of colored solutions, the extinction is proportional
to the concentration
10. absorbtion shows how the intensity of incident light has increased due to
the absorbing property of the solution
183. The following statements about the photocolorimetric method are true:

1. the concentration of the colored solution depends directly proportionally on

the amount of proteins in each spot of the electrophorogram
2. is an optical method based on the Lambert-Beer law
3. for the wavelength of light at which absorption is maximum, transmission
will be minimum
 4. for high concentrations of colored solutions, the extinction is proportional
to the concentration
5. is an optical method based on Biot's law
6. the extinction is equal to the decimal logarithm of the inverse of the
transmission
7. with the help of this method, the percentage concentration of albumins can
be measured
8. is an optical method that allows the measurement of the light scattered by
the colloidal particles presented in the solution
9. by this method we can obtain the relative value (percentage) of each
protein fraction according to the total extinction
10. it is a separation method because we can obtain the percentage value of
each protein fraction
184. The following component parts belong to the Pulfrich photocolorimeter:

1. lighting device
2. monochromatic light source
3. the photocolorimeter table
4. measuring prism
5. 2 mirrors
6. vials support
7. ocular micrometer
8. photometric head
9. compensator
10. white light source
185. The following component parts belong to the Pulfrich photocolorimeter:

1. ocular
2. electrophoretic spots corresponding to protein fractions
3. graded cnob
4. diaphragms
5. 2 Nicol prisms
6. Amici prisms
7. cardioid condenser
8. colored filters in the solution complementary color
9. total reflection prism system
10. revolver system
186. Regarding refractometry, the following statements can be made:

1. the critical angle is the angle of rotation of the plane of the total reflected
light
2. with the help of this method we can evaluate the proteinemia
3. the refractive power of molecules does not depend on their size and their
state of aggregation
4. if i ˃ l, the phenomenon of reflection takes place
5. the refractive power of ions is greater than that of proteins
 6. the minimum value of the angle of refraction is of 90º
7. molecular refractive power depends on the structure of the molecule and
the number of the present atoms
8. uses a monochromatic UV light source
9. the critical angle is the angle of incidence for which the angle of refraction
is 90º
10. the maximum value of the angle of refraction is of 90º
187. Regarding refractometry, the following statements can be made:

1. in the case of mixtures, their refractive power is equal to the sum of the
refractive powers of the constituents
2. the critical angle is a reflection angle
3. if i ˃ l, the refraction phenomenon takes place
4. it is based on the law of light dispersion
5. n21 represents the relative refractive index of the second medium to the
first
6. the critical angle depends only on the indices of refraction of the two
media which are in contact
7. if i ˂ l, the refraction phenomenon takes place
8. with the help of this method we can evaluate the albumin concentration
9. the critical angle is an incidence angle
10. it is based on the Tyndall phenomenon
188. The parameters on which the value of the refractive index of a medium
depends are:

1. the wavelength of the radiation undergoing refraction

2. the volume of the liquid to be investigated
3. temperature
4. absorption coefficient
5. the density of the medium
6. the pH of the solution
7. the concentration of the substance in the liquid to be investigated
8. the state of aggregation of the substance in the liquid to be investigated
9. Half value layer
10. the speed of light in a vacuum
189. The following statements about the refractometric method are true:

1. the refractive index of serum depends on the concentration of proteins and

ions
2. the Abbé refractometer allows direct reading of the refractive index
3. the refractive index of the serum depends only on the protein content
4. to measure proteinemia, the critical angle of the blood serum is measured
5. atmospheric pressure strongly influences the refractive index of blood
serum
6. the Abbé refractometer allows direct reading of the critical angle
7. compared to proteins, ions have very high refractive power
 8. the refractive index is inversely proportional to the concentration of
molecules in the refractive medium
9. the refractive index depends directly proportionally on the concentration of
molecules in the refractive medium
10. allows the measurement of total protein concentration in blood serum
190. The following statements about the refractometric method are true:

1. the critical angle depends on the refractive index of the blood serum
2. the Pulfrich refractometer allows direct reading of the refractive index
3. the operation of the Pulfrich refractometer is based on the phenomenon of
total reflection
4. the blood serum critical angle can be converted to ion concentration
values
5. to measure proteinemia, we can measure the refractive index of blood
serum
6. to measure proteinemia, the molar refractive coefficient of the blood serum
is measured
7. to measure proteinemia, the concentration of the bromophenol blue
colored solution is measured
8. compared to proteins, ions have very low refractive power
9. the Pulfrich refractometer allows direct reading of the critical angle
10. the operation of the Pulfrich refractometer is based on the phenomenon of
total refraction
191. The following component parts belong to the Pulfrich refractometer:

1. objective system
2. measuring prism
3. lighten prism
4. compensator
5. monochromatic light source
6. thermometer
7. polarizer
8. Nicol prism system
9. platinum
10. ocular
192. The following component parts belong to the Pulfrich refractometer:

1. graded scale
2. Amici prism system
3. condenser
4. white light source
5. prism thermostat system
6. ultrathermostat
7. optical tube
8. calibration system
9. objective micrometer
 10. blood serum
193. The following statements about fluorimetry are true:

1. is an optical method in which molecules are excited in a flame

2. uses UV light
3. electron-opaque markers are used
4. is based on the phenomenon of fluorescence
5. is a method used in the assessment of cell membrane fluidity
6. the diffused UV light is measured
7. the radiation emitted by fluorophores has a shorter wavelength than the
absorbed one
8. it is an optical method
9. is a method used to measure the concentration of optically active
molecules
10. fluorescent markers are used
194. The following statements about fluorimetry are true:

1. the fluorescence lifetime depends on the environment in which the

fluorescent marker resides
2. the radiation emitted by fluorophores has a longer wavelength than the
absorbed one
3. the difference between the wavelength of the absorbed radiation and that
of the emitted radiation is called the Stokes shift
4. uses infrared light
5. is a method used to measure membrane cholesterol concentration
6. the intensity of the light reflected by the fluorescent molecules is
measured
7. it is also called fluorescence spectrometry or spectrofluorimetry
8. is based on the phenomenon of phosphorescence
9. phosphorescent markers are used in this method
10. is used to evaluate the movements of membrane phospholipids
195. The following statements about the refractometric method are true:

1. the light source used may be white

2. it is a direct method
3. the first stage of work is to check the accuracy of the refractometer
4. the Wagner table converts the critical angle to serum protein concentration
values
5. the refractive index increases if the globulin concentration decreases
6. is based on the Lambert-Beer law
7. requires fully polarized light
8. the refractive index increases if proteinemia increases
9. the working temperature must be constant and known
10. the Wagner table converts the critical angle to glucose concentration
values
196. Regarding the polarimetric method, the following statements can be made:
 1. can be used to measure glucose concentration in urine
2. the ordinary ray passes through the Nicol prism
3. the phenomenon of light dispersion takes place in the Nicol prism
4. it is an absolute method
5. optically active substances can be right-handed
6. it is a relative method
7. the concentration of glucose in the product to be researched can be
measured using a 5% galactose solution as a standard
8. is based on Biot's law
9. este o metodă indirectă
10. the rotation of the plane of totally polarized light is due to molecular
symmetry
197. Regarding the polarimetric method, the following statements can be made:

1. when the light passes through the Nicol prism, two plane polarized light
beams are obtained
2. it is a relative method because it is not very precise
3. optically active substances can be left-handed
4. it is a direct method
5. checking the accuracy of the polarimeter is done with the 5% glucose
standard solution
6. can be used to measure red blood cell concentrations in urine
7. the extraordinary ray passes through the Nicol prism
8. the standard solution must contain the same optically active substance as
the product to be investigated
9. is based on Bragg's law
10. rotation of the plane of fully polarized light is due to molecular asymmetry
198. About centrifugation, it can be stated that:

1. it is a method of separation.
2. compounds separate according to polarity.
3. involves a rotational movement of the sample.
4. is less efficient than sedimentation.
5. involves a rectilinear and uniform movement of the sample.
6. the compounds separate according to mass.
7. is used to separate biological macromolecules.
8. involves the action of an electrical force on the particles.
9. is used to separate individual atoms.
10. is used to separate the cells.
199. About the efficiency factor of a centrifuge, it can be stated that:

1. is inversely proportional to the radius of the centrifuge.

2. is independent of the mass of the centrifuged particles.
3. can only be calculated in the case of ultracentrifugation.
4. is inversely proportional to the weight of the centrifuged particles.
5. is inversely proportional to the rotation frequency.
 6. is directly proportional to the rotational speeds of the centrifuged particles.
7. it can be expressed as a number of g's ( g - gravitational acceleration).
8. is directly proportional to the weight of the centrifuged particles.
9. is inversely proportional to centrifugal force.
10. is directly proportional to the centrifugal force.
200. About differential centrifugation, it can be stated that:

1. To separate macromolecules, a centrifugation time of about 3 hours is

required.
2. to separate the mitochondria, a centrifugation time of about 10 minutes is
required.
3. at high-speed centrifugation (80000 g), microsomes can be separated.
4. at medium speed centrifugation (20000 g), mitochondria and lysosomes
can be separated.
5. to separate ribosomes, a centrifugation time of about 20 minutes is
required.
6. ribosomes can be separated by ultracentrifugation.
7. at low centrifugation speed (1000 g), cell nuclei can be separated.
8. at low centrifugation speed (1000 g), mitochondria can be separated.
9. at high centrifugation speed (80000 g), macromolecules can be separated.
10. at medium speed centrifugation (20000 g), microsomes can be separated.
201. The following statements are true:

1. The absolute density of a body is inversely proportional to the mass of the

body.
2. The absolute density of a body is directly proportional to the mass of the
body.
3. Relative density is measured in kg/m3.
4. The absolute density of a liquid varies with temperature.
5. The absolute density of a body is inversely proportional to the volume of
the body.
6. Absolute density has the same meaning as specific gravity.
7. The absolute density of a liquid is invariant to the temperature of the liquid.
8. Relative density is a dimensionless quantity.
9. The absolute density of a liquid is inversely proportional to the coefficient
of volume expansion of liquid
10. The absolute density of a body is directly proportional to the volume of the
body.
202. Urine density:

1. increases in diabetes.
2. increases with profuse sweating.
3. it cannot be modified by any pathological condition.
4. decreases in febrile states.
5. decreases in non-diabetic polyuria.
6. decreases in the case of a low-fluid diet.
 7. increases in non-diabetic polyuria.
8. it is lower in the adult than in the infant or newborn.
9. increased in nephrotic syndrome.
10. increases with a low-fluid diet.
203. The following statements are true:

1. Archimedes' law explains the turbulent flow of fluids

2. The density of pure alcohol is lower than that of water.
3. A body will sink completely in a liquid if its weight is greater than the
Archimedean force.
4. The Archimedean force is equal in mode to the weight of a body immersed
in a liquid.
5. Density meters are completely filled with mercury.
6. Parallax error cannot affect the reading of a densimeter.
7. The Archimedean force is equal to the weight of the volume of liquid
displaced by a body immersed in that liquid.
8. Archimedes' law applies to bodies immersed in liquids.
9. The density of pure alcohol is higher than that of water.
10. Hydrometers are glass instruments.
204. The following statements about blood are true:

1. polyglobulins can decrease blood viscosity.

2. saline or plasma transfusions can lower blood viscosity.
3. is a non-Newtonian fluid.
4. the increase in the concentration of total plasma proteins can cause an
increase in blood viscosity.
5. has a viscosity of structure.
6. is a Newtonian fluid.
7. blood and blood plasma are non-Newtonian fluids.
8. hypoproteinemias may increase blood viscosity.
9. has a laminar flow at all flow velocities.
10. blood plasma is a Newtonian fluid.
205. The following physical quantities are present in Poiseuille's law equation:

1. the flow time of the liquid.

2. the hydrostatic pressure under which liquid flow occurs.
3. the flow rate of a liquid through the capillary tube.
4. volume of liquid.
5. the absolute density of the liquid.
6. the radius of a drop of liquid.
7. the volume of a drop of liquid.
8. the relative density of the liquid.
9. the surface tension coefficient of the liquid.
10. liquid temperature.
206. The stalagmometric method:
 1. is based on Poiseuille's law.
2. involves the use of a reference liquid.
3. it is a direct method.
4. involves the use of a viscometer.
5. it is used to determine the surface tension of liquids.
6. involves the use of a stalagmometer.
7. it is an indirect and relative method.
8. is used to determine the absolute density of liquids.
9. it is used to determine the viscosity of liquids.
10. is based on Tate's law.
207. The following physical quantities are present in Newton's fundamental law
equation for liquids:

1. the surface tension coefficient of the liquid

2. the electrostatic force exerted on the liquid
3. the force between two layers of liquid
4. the coefficient of dynamic viscosity of the liquid
5. the velocity gradient
6. the distance between 2 liquid layers
7. the absolute density of the liquid
8. the surface of the liquid layer
9. the atmospheric pressure exerted on the liquid
10. gravitational acceleration
208. About dialysis, it can be stated that:

1. the concentration of the dialysate solution decreases exponentially with

time
2. it can be done both at the level of biological and artificial membranes.
3. is carried out against the concentration gradient.
4. it can only be done through biological membranes.
5. it is done in the direction of the electrochemical gradient.
6. the concentration of the dialysate solution decreases linearly with time.
7. is achieved through a selectively permeable membrane.
8. involves a separation of colloids of different sizes.
9. involves a separation of crystalloids from colloids.
10. it can only be achieved through an extracorporeal circuit.
209. The following are elements of a kidney dialysis facility:

1. blood pressure monitor

2. biopsy needles
3. venous pressure monitor
4. air filters
5. heparin pump
6. peritoneal membrane
7. dialysis
8. compressed air injector
 9. HEPA filters
10. hemostatic solution pump
210. The conductivity of solutions is influenced by:

1. ion mobility
2. the nature of the ions
3. superficial tension
4. the frictional forces between the particles and the medium
5. dialysis coefficient
6. atmospheric pressure
7. viscosity of the solution
8. gravitational acceleration
9. the degree of dissociation of the electrolyte solution
10. the concentration of electric charges
211. The following statements are true:

1. In conductors of the second order, electric current is transmitted by the

orderly movement of electrons.
2. The SI unit for conductivity is Siemens/m.
3. The concentration of the solution in the dialysis bath varies in inverse
proportion to the electrical resistance of the same solution.
4. The SI unit of measure for conductivity is Siemens/m2.
5. The unit of measure, in SI, for the resistivity of a conductor is Ω/m.
6. According to Ohm's law, the electrical resistance of a conductor is
inversely proportional to the cross section of the same conductor.
7. The concentration of the solution in the dialysis bath varies in inverse
proportion to the conductivity of the same solution.
8. The conductivity of a conductor is the inverse of the resistivity of the same
conductor.
9. According to Ohm's law, the electrical resistance of a conductor is
inversely proportional to the length of that conductor.
10. In second-order conductors, electric current is transmitted by the ordered
movement of ions.
212. The following statements about the Kohlrausch bridge are true:

1. The Kohlrausch bridge is identical to the Wheatstone bridge, only the way
of use differs.
2. The Kohlrausch bridge is an electrical assembly that uses 6 resistors.
3. The Kohlrausch bridge is powered by alternating current.
4. The conductivity of electrolytic solutions can be determined quantitatively
using the Kohlrausch bridge.
5. The Kohlrausch bridge contains a voltmeter.
6. Two d'Arsonval collection electrodes are inserted into the conductivity
vessel of a Kohlrausch bridge.
7. The Kohlrausch bridge is powered by direct current.
 8. The Kohlrausch bridge shows some constructive changes compared to
the Wheatstone bridge.
9. The Kohlrausch bridge contains a conductivity vessel.
10. Two platinum plated electrodes are inserted into the conductivity vessel of
a Kohlrausch bridge.
213. The following are centrifugation techniques:

1. Dalton centrifugation
2. linear centrifugation
3. preparative centrifugation
4. hypocentrifugation
5. isotopic centrifugation
6. isopycnic centrifugation
7. zonal centrifugation
8. analytical centrifugation
9. ultracentrifugation
10. total vacuum centrifugation
214. The following statements about the fractionation of a subcellular sample
are true:

1. The sample will first be ultracentrifuged, followed by cell separation and

membrane disruption.
2. Density gradient centrifugation can also be used.
3. Temperature gradient centrifugation can also be used.
4. Cell separation and membrane disruption can be achieved by mechanical
or ultrasonic homogenization.
5. Cell separation and membrane rupture can be achieved by osmotic shock
or chemical extraction.
6. The higher the speed and duration of centrifugation, the larger will be the
sizes of the separated cellular components in the sediment.
7. Separation of cells and rupture of membranes can be achieved by
incineration of the sample.
8. The first step in fractionating a subcellular sample is to separate the cells
and rupture the membranes.
9. The second step in fractionating a subcellular sample consists of a
differential or preparative centrifugation.
10. Centrifugation at high speeds cannot be used, as the sample will be
completely destroyed.
215. The following statements about blood flow are true:

1. There is no variation between the viscosity of arterial blood and the

viscosity of venous blood.
2. Blood has a laminar flow.
3. Cellular elements tend to accumulate in the middle of the vascular lumen.
4. Being a Newtonian fluid, blood has a eddy flow.
5. Total blood viscosity varies with the number of erythrocytes.
 6. Blood has a non-laminar, eddy flow.
7. Hemolysis can cause changes in blood viscosity.
8. Hypoproteinemia or hemodilution by saline transfusions increase blood
viscosity.
9. Total blood viscosity varies only with age.
10. Blood viscosity varies physiologically according to sex and age.
216. The following can be said about the main chromatography techniques:

1. The permeation method ensures the separation according to the shape

and size of the components
2. In the adsorption method, weak interaction forces intervene, which can be
easily broken
3. The permeation method ensures the separation of components that have
the same type of electrical charge
4. In ion exchange chromatography, the specific antigen-antibody reaction
takes place
5. Ion exchange chromatography is one of the chromatography methods
6. Adsorption chromatography involves the weak forces that form covalent
bonds
7. The phenomenon of adsorption, which is the basis of adsorption
chromatography, is different from the phenomenon of absorption
8. Affinity chromatography is also known as gel filtration chromatography
9. The affinity chromatography method is based on the specific antigen-
antibody reaction
10. Adsorption chromatography is also known as size exclusion
chromatography
217. The following can be said about adsorption chromatography:

1. The interaction forces that make adsorption possible are very high energy
forces
2. The interaction forces that make adsorption possible are weak energy
forces
3. It is based on the formation of strong covalent chemical bonds
4. Adsorption imply the existence of physical forces of electrostatic attraction
between charges of the same polarity
5. Van der Waals forces ensure the adsorption of mobile phase components
on the surface of the stationary phase
6. It is based on the retention on the surface of the stationary phase of a
component of the mobile phase
7. It is based on the retention on the surface of the mobile phase of a
component of the stationary phase
8. Van der Waals forces ensure the adsorption of the components of the
stationary phase on the surface of the mobile phase
9. Adsorption presupposes the existence of physical forces of electrostatic
attraction between charges with different polarities
 10. It is the first type of chromatography to appear, allowing the separation of
chlorophyll
218. About permeation chromatography it can be stated that:

1. It is also known as filter paper filtration

2. It assumes the existence of two phases: stationary and mobile
3. It is also known as size exclusion chromatography or molecular sieving
4. It is also known as gel filtration
5. The proteins in the mixture are separated according to their shape and
size
6. Often the mobile phase can consist of dextran
7. It is also known as ion exchange chromatography
8. Proteins in the mixture are separated according to their speed and polarity
9. It assumes the existence of two phases: a solid stationary one and a
mobile one in the form of a gel
10. Often the stationary phase can consist of dextran
219. About affinity chromatography it can be stated that:

1. The antibody mixture is the mobile phase

2. Only antibodies that will form antigen-antibody complexes will be retained
from the mobile phase
3. The solid phase contains a mixture of antibodies
4. Antigens will be collected in a container at the end of the process
5. It is also known as gel filtration chromatography
6. The solid phase contains the antigen
7. The mobile phase that is added on top of the stationary phase contains a
mixture of antigen-antibody complexes
8. By introducing a buffer solution the bonds between the antigen and the
specific antibody will be broken and the antibodies will be taken up by an
elution solution containing excess antigen
9. The immunoabsorbent contained in the chromatography column
represents the solid phase
10. It is a special case of immunoelectrophoresis, except that it is carried out
in one step
220. The following are types of chromatographic methods:

1. Of inclusion
2. Absorption
3. By vacuum filtration
4. Affinity
5. Permeation
6. Ion exchange
7. Of selectivity
8. By gel filtration
9. Adsorption
10. By exchanging cations with anions
221. According to de Broglie’s hypothesis,:

1. the wavelength of a moving particle is inversely proportional to the velocity

of the particle.
2. the movement of electrons can be associated with wave properties.
3. the wavelength of a moving particle is directly proportional to Planck's
constant.
4. the wavelength of a moving particle is directly proportional to the mass of
the particle.
5. the wavelength of a moving particle is directly proportional to the velocity
of the particle.
6. only photons can be assigned a wavelength.
7. the wavelength of a moving particle is inversely proportional to the mass
of the particle.
8. only electromagnetic radiation can be associated with a wavelength.
9. the wavelength of a moving particle is inversely proportional to Ohm's
constant.
10. any moving particle can be associated with a wavelength.
222. Among the signs resulting from the interaction of an electron beam with
the sample are:

1. alpha particles
2. Auger electrons
3. secondary electrons
4. heavy ions
5. characteristic X-rays
6. positrons
7. backscattered electrons
8. neutron
9. gamma radiation
10. transmitted electrons (for very thin samples)
223. Among the components of a transmission electron microscope (TEM), are:

1. sodium lamp
2. Nicol said
3. scintillation crystal
4. source of electrons
5. prisms Friends
6. converging lenses with short focal length
7. screen
8. objective lenses
9. support with preparation
10. condenser lenses
224. Among the components of a scanning electron microscope (SEM), are:
 1. photosensitive plates
2. scanning coils
3. electron detector
4. long focal length diverging lenses
5. objective lenses
6. prisms Friends
7. mercury lamp
8. polarizer
9. condenser lenses
10. source of electrons
225. The following statements, regarding the signals resulting from the
interaction of an electron beam with the sample, are true:

1. Auger electrons have the same energy regardless of the sample.

2. Elastically scattered (transmitted) electrons obey Bragg's law.
3. Auger electrons provide information about the composition of the
preparation.
4. Transmitted electrons are used in scanning electron microscopy (SEM).
5. The transmitted electrons are fully attenuated in the sample, regardless of
its thickness.
6. All electrons transmitted through the sample retain their original (incident)
direction of propagation.
7. Secondary electrons are used in scanning electron microscopy (SEM).
8. Characteristic X-rays are used in nuclear microanalysis.
9. Backscattered electrons are used to distinguish components of the sample
that have different atomic numbers.
10. Characteristic X-rays are used in transmission electron microscopy (TEM).
226. The following statements about electron microscopy are true:

1. The magnification of the electron microscope is clearly superior to that of

the optical microscope.
2. The resolving power of an electron microscope is about 4x104 higher than
that of a classical optical microscope.
3. There are 2 main types of electron microscopy: scanning (SEM) and
transmission (TEM).
4. The resolving power of an electron microscope is about 10 times higher
than that of a classic optical microscope.
5. The electron microscope uses an electron source.
6. The electron microscope uses converging optical lenses.
7. Types of electron microscopy include ultramicroscopy.
8. The electron microscope uses electrostatic lenses.
9. The electron microscope uses polarized light to form the image.
10. The electron microscope uses a visible light source.
227. The following statements about electron microscopy are true:

1. The electron microscope uses an electron source.

 2. The resolving power of an electron microscope is about 10 times higher
than that of a classic optical microscope.
3. The electron microscope uses polarized light to form the image.
4. Types of electron microscopy include ultramicroscopy.
5. The electron microscope uses converging optical lenses.
6. The electron microscope uses electrostatic lenses.
7. The resolving power of an electron microscope is about 4x104 higher than
that of a classical optical microscope.
8. The electron microscope uses a visible light source.
9. The magnification of the electron microscope is clearly superior to that of
the optical microscope.
10. There are 2 main types of electron microscopy: scanning (SEM) and
transmission (TEM).
228. Electron microscopy can provide the following information:

1. arrangement of surface molecules in biological membranes

2. the shape and size of the particles that make up the sample
3. crystallographic information
4. the component elements of the sample
5. the radioactive activity of the sample
6. individual proton images of atoms in the sample
7. the refractive index of the sample
8. individual neutron images of atoms in the sample
9. the half-thickness for gamma radiation of the sample
10. the type of conformational structure of the constituent molecules of the
sample
229. The following physical quantities are present in the mathematical
expression of Moseley's law:

1. the principal quantum numbers of the levels between which the transition
occurs
2. Riedberg's constant
3. universal ideal gas constant
4. absolute density
5. frictional force
6. the frequency of the characteristic X-ray emitted by the atom at the k-n
transition
7. the atomic number of the element
8. screen constant
9. gravitational acceleration
10. radioactive decay coefficient
230. The following are types of microscopy:

1. scanning electron microscopy (SEM)

2. polarizing electron microscopy
3. proton force microscopy
 4. scanning tunneling electron microscopy
5. transmission electron microscopy
6. electron microscopy by Doppler effect
7. ion microscopy
8. positron annihilation - electron microscopy
9. atomic force microscopy
10. alpha particle microscopy
231. The following statements about scanning tunneling electron microscopy
are true:

1. A lateral resolution of up to 2 angstroms can be obtained.

2. Magnetic coils are used to change the magnetic field of the sample.
3. The image is formed by capturing electrons transmitted through the
sample.
4. The source of the tunneling microscope is an electron gun.
5. The density of the electron cloud varies exponentially with distance.
6. Individual chemical elements cannot be identified, only molecular
compounds.
7. An external source of radiation is not required.
8. The electronic cloud has a specific configuration for each element.
9. The surface to be examined is prepared by immersion in cedar oil.
10. Chemical elements can be identified with the tunneling microscope.
232. About electron microscopy it can be said that:

1. It has a higher resolving power than optical microscopy

2. Uses glass lenses
3. It is governed by de Broglie's law
4. It is governed by Biot's law
5. It uses a gamma ray beam
6. It uses an electron beam
7. It uses a beam of photons
8. One method of electron microscopy is transmission
9. The preparation is illuminated with a monochromatic light source
10. One of the methods is scanning electron microscopy
233. The following statements about electron microscopy are true:

1. De Broglie's law establishes a relationship between the electrical charge

of the electron beam and their speed through the preparation
2. The electron beam originates from a monochromatic radiation source
3. Images obtained by electron microscopy are three-dimensional
4. Regardless of the electron microscopy method, the electron beam passes
through the specimen
5. The electron beam comes from an electron gun
6. Lenses that modify the electron beam are electromagnetic in nature
7. The objective lenses are constructed of glass
 8. The principle of the method is based on the fact that any moving particle
has an associated wavelength
9. The electron beam does not always pass through the sample being
analyzed
10. It uses beams of accelerated electrons
234. Regarding the law governing electron microscopy methods, the following
statements are valid:

1. de Broglie's law establishes a relationship between the wavelength

associated with the moving particle and the speed of light
2. de Broglie's law establishes a relationship between the wavelength
associated with the moving particle and its momentum
3. According to de Broglie's law all particles have the same wavelength
4. According to de Broglie's law the faster a particle's speed, the shorter its
associated wavelength
5. In de Broglie's law equation the momentum of the particle is the ratio of
the mass of the particle to its velocity
6. de Broglie's law establishes a relationship between the wavelength
associated with the moving particle and Boltzmann's constant
7. de Broglie's law can be stated as follows: the associated wavelength is
equal to the ratio of Planck's constant to the momentum of the moving
particle
8. de Broglie's law states that at constant velocity the greater the mass of a
particle the shorter the associated wavelength
9. In de Broglie's relation, momentum is the product of the particle's mass
and its velocity
10. According to de Broglie's law, the wavelength of the associated wave is
larger the larger the value of Plank's constant
235. The following statements are true about the transmission electron
microscopy method:

1. There are four condenser lenses

2. Condenser lenses are constructed of quartz glass
3. The image is obtained on a polarizing screen
4. The beam of electrons passing through the sample are monoenergetic
accelerated
5. Due to their high speed the electrons pass through the preparation without
being absorbed
6. The electron beam is accelerated
7. The image is formed on the side of the preparation
8. The method is based on de Broglie's law
9. The electron beam comes from an electron gun
10. The electron beam passes through the preparation to be examined
236. The following statements are true about the transmission electron
microscopy method:
 1. The electrons that reach the preparation are absorbed more or less
depending on the density they have with respect to electrons
2. The transmission electron microscopy image is formed in front of the
specimen
3. The image is formed on a fluorescent screen
4. The electrons from the electron source are focused by two condenser
lenses
5. The more the electrons are accelerated, the longer the associated
wavelength
6. Condenser lenses are electromagnetic in nature
7. The method uses electron-opaque markers to increase contrast
8. The image is given by the electrons that collide elastically with the atoms
and molecules of the preparation
9. The incident electrons come from a monochromatic light source
10. The image is formed on a photoluminescent screen
237. The following statements are true about the scanning electron microscopy
method:

1. In this method an electron beam sweeps the surface of the sample

2. The objective lens is made of glass
3. The resolution is lower than in transmission electron microscopy
4. In order to have the best possible contrast, the preparation must be
colored beforehand
5. Constructively, there are 2-3 projector lenses that direct the electron beam
onto the specimen
6. The electrons come from an electron gun
7. The image is given by the electrons that have passed to a greater or
lesser extent through the preparation
8. It is based on de Broglie's law
9. The incident electrons on the preparation then end up on a photographic
film
10. The resulting image is pseudo-3D
238. The following statements are true about the scanning electron microscopy
method:

1. The objective lens directs the electron beam to the image

2. The resolution is better than with transmission microscopy
3. There are 2-3 condenser lenses that are electromagnetic in nature
4. Secondary electrons have low energy
5. The incident electrons traverse each region of the sample
6. The obtained images are three-dimensional colored
7. The image is formed on a fluorescent screen
8. To increase the brightness, electron-opaque markers are used
9. Images of the sample surface are obtained
10. The image is given by the secondary electrons resulting from the
interaction of the incident electron beam with the sample
239. Which of the following statements about X-ray diffraction is true?

1. The physical agent is represented by X-rays

2. Defects and changes in the crystal can lead to diffuse scattering
3. It is the natural process of forming solid crystals from a solution
4. It is an analysis method that can be used in the study of ordered
structures
5. The symmetry of the diffraction pattern is given by the symmetry of the
crystal lattice
6. It is the process by which the atoms or molecules of a body in the liquid
state accumulate enough energy to reach the gaseous state
7. It is the process by which water vapor in the air is converted into liquid
water
8. It is an analysis method that can be used to study the conformational
structure of proteins
9. It is a separation process that involves the passage of a liquid mixture into
a vapor state by boiling, followed by the condensation of the obtained
vapors
10. It is the process by which water from a surface is discharged into the
atmosphere
240. Which of the following statements about the production of X-rays is true?

1. Electrons are accelerated by a high potential difference

2. Electrons are thermionic emitted from a filament heated to high
temperatures
3. X-radiation comes from the radioactive decay of atomic nuclei
4. The anode is constructed of high melting point metals
5. The electrons are accelerated towards a metal target - the anode
6. When the electron and the anode collide, the electrons decelerate rapidly
7. X-radiation is a fluid that changes its viscosity through the action of an
external electric field
8. X-ray is a therapeutic method that uses electric current
9. X-radiation is a physical effect in which a material acquires magnetic
properties
10. X-radiation is the electrical potential difference between the inside and
outside of a biological cell.
241. Which of the following statements about Bragg's law is true?

1. The Bragg equation expresses the dependence of the gas pressure on the
average kinetic energy
2. In the Bragg equation, 2dsinθ = nλ, θ is the angle at which the X-rays
interact with the crystalline structure
3. In the Bragg equation, 2dsinθ = nλ, d represents the path difference
between the incident ray and the reflected ray
4. The Bragg equation expresses the dependence of pressure on
temperature and the number of molecules in the unit volume
 5. In the Bragg equation, 2dsinθ = nλ, λ represents the path difference
between the incident ray and the reflected ray
6. Scattered X-rays can be seen as they are reflected by the planes from
which the crystal is made
7. In the Bragg equation, 2dsinθ = nλ, λ represents the wavelength of X-rays
8. The Bragg equation expresses the dependence of the internal energy on
temperature
9. Equation 2dsinθ = nλ is called the Bragg equation
10. In the Bragg equation, 2dsinθ = nλ, the path difference between the
incident ray and the reflected ray must be an integral number n
242. Which of the following statements about X-ray crystallography is true?

1. X-ray crystallography is useful in anthropometric measurements

2. By analyzing the diffraction pattern, the position of each atom in the
composition of the studied crystal can be determined
3. X-ray crystallography allowed the elucidation of the protein structure
4. A diffractometer is a device for measuring the diffraction of X-rays
5. X-ray crystallography is used to determine the surface tension of liquids
6. X-ray crystallography is useful in determining blood volume
7. It is a method of determining the arrangement of atoms in a crystal
8. The double-helical structure of DNA deduced from an X-ray diffraction
pattern
9. X-ray crystallography is useful in determining body mass index
10. X-ray crystallography is useful in the diagnosis of aphasia
243. Which of the following statements about X-rays is true?

1. The continuous spectrum of X-rays is due to the braking of electrons in the

target
2. Thermionic emission is the emission of protons from heated metals
3. In the case of the continuous spectrum of X-rays, the minimum
wavelength (λm) depends on the operating voltage of the tube
4. The linear X-ray spectrum is independent of the operating voltage of the
tube
5. The continuous spectrum of X-rays is due to the transition of electrons
between atomic energy levels
6. X-rays are part of the visible spectrum
7. The linear spectrum of X-rays depends on the nature of the target material
8. Bremsstrahlung ray has a line spectrum
9. X-rays are electromagnetic radiations with a power of penetration directly
proportional to the wavelength
10. They are electromagnetic radiation with short wavelengths, in the range of
ångströms
244. The following statements about X-rays are true except:

1. The continuous spectrum of X-rays is due to the braking of electrons in the

target
 2. X-rays are electromagnetic radiations with a power of penetration directly
proportional to the wavelength
3. The linear X-ray spectrum is independent of the operating voltage of the
tube
4. In the case of the continuous spectrum of X-rays, the minimum
wavelength (λm) depends on the operating voltage of the tube
5. Bremsstrahlung ray has a line spectrum
6. X-rays are part of the visible spectrum
7. The linear spectrum of X-rays depends on the nature of the target material
8. They are electromagnetic radiation with short wavelengths, in the range of
ångströms
9. The continuous spectrum of X-rays is due to the transition of electrons
between atomic energy levels
10. Thermionic emission is the emission of protons from heated metals
245. X-ray crystallography has been fundamental in the development of many
scientific fields, except:

1. Computational approach to language

2. Determination of the structure of drugs
3. Atomic-scale differences between various materials, especially alloys
4. Psychology
5. Philosophy
6. Determination of protein structure
7. Cognitive processes
8. Determination of atomic structures
9. Anthropology
10. Determination of the structure of vitamins
246. When an electron hits the anode, the following phenomena occur:

1. It causes the number of neutrons to increase

2. It causes the mass number to decrease
3. Causes center plastic collisions
4. Generates braking radiation
5. It causes atomic transitions
6. It causes the mass number to increase
7. It determines the increase in the number of protons
8. It collides with atoms and is slowed down
9. It causes the appearance of X-rays with well-defined wavelengths
10. The electron loses a fraction of its energy
247. Which of the following statements about the limits of the X-ray diffraction
technique is true?

1. Currently, "wet" protein crystals are used

2. It is a non-destructive method and a small amount of sample is required
3. The X-ray diffraction pattern leads to the representation of a static image
of the protein structure
 4. The structure of a membrane protein (hydrophobic environment) can be
different from the one obtained after purification and crystallization in the
presence of water
5. X-rays interact with the spatial distribution of electrons in the sample
6. X-ray diffraction analyzes, identifies and quantifies the constituent amino
acids of a protein
7. In a dehydrated ("dry") protein crystal, the protein tends to adopt a
disordered structure
8. The most precise X-ray diffraction analyzes are performed on powder
samples
9. X-ray diffraction analyzes are carried out with the help of devices called
diffractometers
10. Information is obtained only about the ordered areas of the protein
248. The following notions are encountered in optical microscopy:

1. Separable minimum
2. Microvisa
3. Dispersion
4. Imersion
5. Gamma radiation
6. Alpha radiation
7. Resolution
8. Diffraction
9. Fick's formula
10. Macrovisa
249. Regarding the relationship of resolution in optical mycroscopy, it can be
stated that:

1. defines the separable minimum

2. n is the refractive index of the medium between the preparation and the
objective
3. u is half the angle of the light beam falling on the condenser
4. n sin u is the numerical aperture
5. ε can be decreased
6. define extinction
7. ε is inversely proportional to the resolving power
8. n is the refractive index of the medium between the condenser and the
preparation
9. λ is the wavelength of gamma radiation
10. represents Fick's formula
250. Regarding the relationship of resolution in optical mycroscopy, it can be
stated that:

1. u is half the angle of the light beam falling on the condenser

2. defines the molar extinction coefficient
3. represents Pulfrich's formula
 4. a = n sin u
5. defines the maximum resolution distance
6. defines the minimum resolution distance
7. λ is the radioactive constant
8. n is the refractive index of the medium between the preparation and the
objective
9. represents Abbe's formula
10. defines the separable minimum
251. Which of the following statements about the radioactivity are true?

1.Nuclear radiation is low frequency electromagnetic radiation

2.It involves the emission of nuclear radiation
3.Nuclear radiation is short-wavelength electromagnetic radiation
4.Neutron radiation can be used for medical purposes
5.Half-life is not an important parameter in nuclear medicine
6.Radioactivity can be used in medicine for therapeutic purposes
7.Gamma rays cannot be halved in energy
8.Gamma radiation comes from the radioactive decay of energetically stable
isotopes
9. Beta plus radiation cannot be used in defining the half-thickness
10. Beta minus radiation cannot be used in medical imaging
252. Which of the following statements are related to medical imaging
methods?

1. involve the use of ionizing radiation

2. Infrared spectroscopy is based on the phenomenon of absorption
3. SPECT uses mainly X-rays
4. SPECT involves the use of gamma-emitting radioisotopes
5. PET involves the use of positron-emitting radioisotopes
6. Nuclear medicine is based on the use of nuclear resonance
7. involve the use of sounds
8. PET involves the use of gamma radiation due to the annihilation
phenomenon
9. MRI is based on the use of variable magnetic fields
10. NMR is based on the use of the electron resonance phenomenon
253. Which of the following statements about ultrasound are true?

1. the method of first choice in bone assessment

2. uses ionizing radiation
3. Ultrasounds generally have frequencies above 20kHz
4. Ultrasounds are electromagnetic waves
5. it cannot be used for anatomical localization
6. uses the principle of echolocation
7. The quartz crystal produces ultrasound based on the piezoelectric effect
8. It offers the possibility of evaluating the tissue structure
9. The degree of sound absorption is called opacity
 10. Ultrasounds in medical ultrasonography have frequencies with values
above 2 MHz
254. Which of the following statements about X-Rays are true?

1. X-ray diffraction is a medical imaging method

2. X-rays are obtained by breaking the electrons emitted by the cathode
3. The X-ray tube is powered by a direct current source
4. X-rays are ionizing particle radiation
5. braking X-rays are specific to radiological methods
6. Characteristic X-rays are not specifically used in radiographs
7. Continuous X-rays are obtained as a result of energy transitions between
the K and L electronic layers
8. X-rays are high-energy electromagnetic radiation
9. The X-ray tube involves the acceleration of electrons in an alternating
electric field
10. The characteristic X-rays are obtained by energy transitions between the
valence layers
255. Which of the following statements about radiological methods are true?

1. X-ray computed tomography = successive circumferential radiographs

reconstructed by the computer
2. The absorption of X-rays is expressed as (radio)opacity
3. The degree of absorption of X-rays is evaluated at the level of the
detectors
4. X-ray computed tomography can use nuclear radiation
5. The degree of absorption of X-rays is evaluated at the level of the
radiographic film
6. Mammography - the radiological method involves the use of ultrasound
7. Contrast angiography uses beta radiation
8. Radiology involves the use of X-rays
9. X-rays can assess quantification of the kidney function
10. brain x-ray can assess the degree of cognition related to dementia
256. Which of the following radioisotopes were present in the Chernobyl
nuclear accident?

1. In -111
2. One radioisotope with a half-life of 30 years
3. Yr-90
4. Co-67
5. I-131
6. Sr-90
7. Tc99m
8. One radioisotope with a half-life of 8 days
9. Cs-137
10. I-123
257. Which of the following statements about CT technique are true?
 1. Images can be obtained in coronal and sagittal sections afterwards
2. Unable to obtain 3D images
3. The images obtained are strictly 2D
4. use the computer
5. Alpha nuclear radiation can be used
6. it referred to obtaining images on axial section
7. Beta radiation can be used
8. Gamma radiation can be used
9. Electromagnetically nuclear radiation can’t be used
10. X-rays may be used
258. Which of the following statements regarding magnetic resonance imaging
(MRI) are true:

1. The precision movement of the proton translates into the emission of a

radio signal
2. it involves the use of the signal produced by radioactive isotopes
3. The precession movement is a result of the resonance phenomenon of the
proton
4. uses the signal produced by nuclear radiation
5. assumes the phenomenon of resonance
6. involves the phenomenon of electromagnetic induction
7. for medical purposes, it uses the signal produced by hydrogen atoms in
water
8. The external magnetic field contraindicates the use of the method for
patients with neurological conditions
9. The radiofrequency signal used in MRI can cause ionization
10. uses the signal produced by atoms with odd number of protons (non-zero
spin number)
259. Which of the following statements about radiography are true?

1. Chest X-ray is a functional investigation

2. The detector can be a digital cassette sensitive to X-rays
3. It is a planar imaging acquisition using X-rays
4. It is obtained by the summation effect of the X-rays attenuation degree
5. Radio-transparency (lucency) referred to an increased attenuation of X-
rays
6. The images obtained show the degree of attenuation of the X-ray beam
7. It provides structural and anatomical information
8. Radio-opacity refers to reduced attenuation of X-rays
9. The density of the irradiated organs cannot be appreciated
10. The elimination function of the gallbladder can be appreciated because
the bile is radiopaque
260. Which of the following statements about the gamma camera are true?

1. The collimator is the first element of the detection head that interacts with
the nuclear radiations
 2. It is a medical device that can detect gamma radiations
3. The photomultiplier tube accelerates the electrons emitted by the anode
4. Diodes are devices for amplifying the light signal
5. The electrons are accelerated and amplified inside the photomultiplier
tube
6. The scintillation crystal converts gamma radiations into visible radiations
7. It represents a medical device that can detect visible radiation
8. The collimator does not intercept gamma rays
9. The photomultiplier tube converts the light signal into an electrical pulse
10. The scintillation crystal has the role of reducing the intensity of nuclear
radiation
261. Which of the following statements regarding the “ideal radioisotope“ are
true?

1. It must quickly dissociate from the associated vector molecule

2. It can emit alpha radiation
3. Tc99m- cannot be considered an ideal radioisotope because it also emits
beta radiation.
4. The half-life must be long enough to be able to acquire images
5. The energy of gamma radiation is between 100-200 keV
6. It involves the emission of gamma radiation
7. It has to be cheap
8. It is preferable to be obtained in nuclear reactors - being thus easy to
procure
9. The half-life must be short in order not to irradiate the patient too much
10. It must not penetrate the blood-brain barrier
262. Which of the following statements about the radiobiological system are
true?

1. The absorbed dose characterizes the nuclear radiation source

2. The unit of measure of the absorbed dose is the Gray (Gy)
3. The Sivert is an accepted unit of measurement in the International System
4. In the international system, the expression in "rem" is accepted
5. The equivalent absorbed dose can be expressed in Ci
6. The equivalent absorbed dose can be expressed in Gy
7. The absorbed dose can be expressed in Sv
8. The equivalent absorbed dose is expressed in joules per kg of biological
tissue
9. The effectiveness of a nuclear radiation in inducing stochastic effects is
expressed in Sivert (Sv)
10. It evaluates the energy released per unit mass
263. Which of the following statements about the radiobiological system are
true?

1. Dentin is a highly radiosensitive tissue

2. The equivalent absorbed dose is expressed in Sv
 3. The effective biological dose can be expressed in Gy
4. The equivalent absorbed dose can be measured in the International
System in Gy
5. The neuron is a highly radiosensitive cell
6. The absorbed dose can be measured in the International System in "rad"
7. The ovary is one of the most radiosensitive tissues
8. The effective biological dose is expressed in Sv
9. The effective biological dose depends on the radiosensitivity of each
tissue type
10. The testis is one of the most radiosensitive tissues
264. Which of the following statements about hybrid imaging are true?

1. SPECT/CT involves the use of a radioisotope emitting gamma radiation

and an X-ray tube
2. SPECT acquisition is a tomographic image using X-rays
3. SPECT/CT involves the use of gamma radiation and X-rays
4. SPECT/CT examinations irradiate the patient beyond acceptable limits
5. involves the combination (overlay) of images obtained by two different
techniques with different information
6. SPECT/CT is performed on dedicated devices
7. SPECT/CT provides both structural and functional information
8. SPECT examination within SPECT/CT acquisitions can be done with X-
rays
9. SPECT/CT involves the use of X-rays only
10. CT examination within SPECT/CT acquisitions can be done with gamma
radiation
265. Which of the following statements about Positron emission tomography
(PET) imaging examinations are true?

1. The phenomenon of annihilation of positrons takes place at the level of the

X-ray tube
2. The X-rays emitted by radioisotopes are usually diametrically opposed
3. PET scans use liquid scintillation crystals (specific for beta radiation)
4. PET is a functional imaging method
5. PET uses radioisotopes that emit beta plus radiation
6. The positron emission is transformed into gamma radiation as a result of
the annihilation phenomenon
7. The annihilation phenomenon causes the emission of two opposite
gamma rays
8. PET irradiates the patient more than radiological examinations and should
be avoided
9. The energy of the gamma rays obtained as a result of the annihilation
phenomenon have energies above 400keV
10. Beta minus radiation can also be used in medical imaging
266. Which of the following statements regarding hybrid PET/CT imaging
evaluations are true?
 1. The obtained information is both functional and morphological
2. PET uses a ring-shaped scintillation crystal
3. Gamma radiation occurs as a result of the neutron annihilation
phenomenon
4. The radiation protection in the case of PET/CT examined patients is based
on protective lead shields
5. PET/CT can also be performed with the help of nuclear resonance
6. The presence of metal implants is a contraindication to the method
7. The detection of gamma rays is based on the coincidence phenomenon
8. The interaction of electrons with other electrons is the basis of the X-ray
emission used in PET/CT
9. CT evaluation uses X-rays and has the role of anatomical localization
10. The presence of metals in the field of interest has no influence on the
acquired images
267. Which of the following statements regarding hybrid PET/MRI imaging are
true?

1. MRI acquisitions are usually short and can be used in traumatic

emergencies
2. The presence of patient movements induces the appearance of artifacts
3. The anatomical detail of MRI acquisitions is superior to CT acquisitions
4. PET/MRI acquisitions can be done under good conditions only with beta
minus emitting radioisotopes
5. Patients with claustrophobia are contraindicated or require sedation
6. They allow obtaining functional-metabolic information
7. The presence of ferro-magnetic metal implants is not a contraindication for
MRI acquisition
8. The image resolution is superior to PET/CT images
9. Hybrid PET/MRI imaging combines X-ray emission and magnetic fields
10. PET acquisition involves the use of much higher doses of ionizing
radiation than multiphase CT acquisitions
268. Which of the following statements about nuclear magnetic resonance are
true?

1. The angular speed of rotation of the proton is not dependent on the

intensity of the external magnetic field
2. Electromagnetic induction is a phenomenon that allows the acquisition of
an electrical signal
3. An atom with spin number equal to zero (with an even number of protons)
can be the signal source in NMR
4. The resonance frequency of the protons of hydrogen atoms is in the range
of radio waves
5. Variable magnetic fields cannot induce the presence of electrical fields
6. Nuclear magnetic resonance occurs under conditions of emission of
nuclear radiation
7. magnetic resonance is dependent on the gyromagnetic factor
 8. Precession motion is determined by the Larmor equation
9. The strength of the external magnetic field is a determining factor in MRI
acquisitions
10. The orientation of protons occurs randomly in the presence of an external
magnetic field
269. Which of the following statements about radioactivity are true?

1. Wavelength is involved in the equation of the law of radioactivity

2. The half-life of a radioisotope is specific to each radioisotope
3. Half-life is equivalent to half-life for beta-emitting radioisotopes
4. It refers to the emission of nuclear radiation
5. The decay constant is specific to each type of radioisotope
6. It is a harmful phenomenon and cannot be used in medicine
7. Nuclear radiation is based on the phenomenon of nuclear resonance
8. It is an exponential (non-linear) phenomenon
9. The number of radioactive nuclei at time t depends on the initial number
10. It may decrease linearly if the radioisotope does not emit alpha radiation
270. Which of the following statements about medical imaging are true?

1. Angiography involves the visualization of blood vessels based on the

attenuation of X-rays by contrast agents
2. Characteristic X-rays are preferentially used in radiology
3. Nuclear magnetic resonance is similar to nuclear medicine
4. Scintigraphy is a type of functional medical imaging method
5. ultrasound analyzes ultrasound reflected by biological structures
6. Computed tomography allows analyses of the attenuation degree of X-
rays in the transversal section
7. Gradient coils are sensitive to radio frequencies
8. Ultrasounds cannot be heard by humans, so they cannot be a detected
signal
9. The radioisotopes used must emit neutron radiation
10. Radiography obtains information by measuring the degree of attenuation
of X-rays
271. Which of the following statements about scintigraphy are true?

1. The detection of gamma radiation is directly proportional to the amount of

radiopharmaceutical specifically uptake
2. The radiopharmaceutical can have toxic effects; therefore, it is
recommended to consult the ATI doctor before the examination
3. the radiopharmaceutical (RF) binds specifically to a target territory due to
the vector molecule (tracer)
4. Scintigraphy uses quartz crystals to detect radiation
5. Usually are planar images (2D)
6. The dose of radioactivity administered to the patient is high and requires
the patient to be equipped with a lead apron
7. The physical agent used in scintigraphy is beta minus radiation
 8. uses nuclear radiation
9. Usually intravascular administration of the radiopharmaceutical (RF) to the
patient is essential
10. Is based on alfa radiation uptake
272. Which of the following statements about nuclear medicine are true?

1. The radioisotopes used are produced in the biophysics laboratory

2. Includes imaging methods based on gamma radiation emission
3. It is based on the phenomenon of radioactivity
4. Gamma radiation is not electromagnetic radiation
5. It involves working in an environment with ionizing radiation
6. Beta plus radiation is not corpuscular radiation
7. uses radioisotopes emitting alpha/beta radiation for therapeutic purposes
8. The emission of beta plus radiation is specific to PET (positron emission
tomography)
9. The gamma camera can detect beta minus radiation
10. Alpha radiation is electromagnetic radiation
273. Which of the following statements about radiology are true?

1. It is based on the principle of attenuation of X-rays by different tissues

2. Lung radioscopy does not use continuous X-rays
3. Biological fluids are radiopaque
4. Uses X-rays emitted by a cathode (within the X-ray tube)
5. Uses X-rays emitted by an anode (within the X-ray tube)
6. Lung radiography uses X-rays of higher intensity than bone X-rays
7. Interventional radiology involves the use of X-rays and contrast agents
8. Angiography involves the use of X-rays and iodinated contrast material
9. The degree of attenuation is read using the degree of blackness of a
photographic film
10. X-rays are obtained by bombarding the cathode with accelerated electrons
274. Which of the following statements about magnetic resonance imaging are
true?

1. The protons of the oxygen atoms in the water molecule are the source of
the signal in magnetic resonance imaging
2. Electromagnetic induction is a harmful phenomenon and must be avoided
3. It measures the transverse (spin-spin) magnetization relaxation time T2
4. The molecule of – 18 F-deoxyglucose is a marker in magnetic resonance
imaging
5. It measures the vertical (lattice-spin) magnetization relaxation time T1
6. The gradient coils ensure tomographic acquisition
7. The resonance phenomenon cannot take place inside the body
8. Protons of hydrogen atoms in the glucose molecule can be the source of
the signal in magnetic resonance imaging
9. The antenna in the MRI facility component emits a radio frequency signal
10. The relaxation times T1 and T2 require different resonance frequencies
275. Which of the following statements regarding the radiobiological system
and the effects of nuclear radiation on biological systems are true?

1. The Gy is the unit of measurement accepted in the SI for the absorbed

dose
2. Coulomb (C) is the unit of measure for absorbed dose
3. The Sv represents the unit of measure accepted in the SI for the
equivalent of the absorbed dose
4. The absorbed dose equivalent is the absorbed dose multiplied by a
weighting factor that depends on the type of irradiated tissue
5. The Ci is an accepted SI unit for radioactivity
6. The absorbed dose represents the evaluation quantity of energy
dissipated per unit volume of biological tissue
7. The absorbed dose equivalent is the absorbed dose multiplied by a
weighting factor
8. Stochastic effects are not related to dose limits
9. The roentgen is a dosimetry unit
10. The absorbed dose represents the evaluation quantity of energy
dissipated per unit mass of biological tissue
276. Which of the following statements about the radiobiological system of
quantities and units are true?

1. does not characterize the source of nuclear radiation

2. differentiate between Gy and Sv
3. Radioactivity is a quantity included in the radiobiological system
4. evaluates the effects of exposure to ionizing radiation on living tissues
5. Ionizing radiation imaging acquisitions contain radiobiological data
6. evaluates the energy consumption associated with X-ray tubes
7. does not characterize the X-ray source
8. evaluates the intensity of radioactive emissions
9. The intensity of the electric current is a quantity derived from the
radiobiological system
10. The electron acceleration voltage in the X-ray tube is a radiobiological
quantity
277. Which of the following statements about magnetic resonance
spectroscopy are true?

1. Electron resonance can interfere with proton resonance

2. NMR spectroscopy is a method that uses ionizing radiation
3. NMR spectroscopy does not take into account the Larmor frequency
4. Uses the signal received from non-zero spin atoms (odd number of
protons) not just hydrogen
5. Spectroscopic analysis allows the detection of radioactive sources
6. Resonance frequency is also in the radio wave range
7. The unit of measurement for chemical shift is ppm (part per million) in
spectroscopy
 8. measures the variation of the chemical shift (the variation of frequencies
associated with hydrogen atoms within different types of molecules)
9. The NMR spectroscopy facility needs an external magnet
10. NMR spectroscopy is prohibited for "in vivo" studies
278. Which of the following statements about electron spin resonance are true?

1. The use of external magnetic fields is not recommended for this method
2. "in vivo" applications for this method are strictly controlled by
radioprotection measures
3. The phenomenon of electronic resonance can also occur by using a radio
frequency signal
4. The fluidity of the membranes can be analyzed
5. It represents a spectroscopic method of "in vitro" analysis
6. Proton relaxation is related to electron relaxation
7. It assumes the initiation of the resonance phenomenon of atoms with an
odd number of electrons
8. It allows the analysis of the molecular structure with the help of
paramagnetic probes
9. The use of this method can also be carried out for "in vivo" studies
10. The resonance signal is provided by electromagnetic waves in the
microwave range
279. Which of the following statements about the 1986 Chernobyl disaster are
true?

1. Administration of KI cannot prevent iodine absorption at the thyroid level

2. Blockage of the metabolism of radioactive iodine from the atmosphere
was prevented by administration of KCl
3. Cs-137 emissions halved in intensity in 2016
4. Iodine 131 was one of the radioisotopes released into the atmosphere
5. The explosion of the reactor determined the expulsion of a radioactive
cloud into the atmosphere
6. Cesium-137 was a radioisotope present in atmospheric emissions
7. It was the world's largest nuclear accident since World War II
8. The radioactive iodine spread in the atmosphere halved its radioactive
emissions 70 days after the accident
9. The concrete sarcophagus poured over the exploded reactor is meant to
completely stop/block the gamma radiation emissions
10. Strontium-90 was not present in the radioactive emissions
280. Which of the following statements about the 1986 Chernobyl disaster are
true?

1. Cs-137 has a half-life of the order of hundreds of years

2. Radioactive iodine emissions halved approximately 1 week after the
accident
3. No increased incidence of cancers other than thyroid has been reported
4. The incidence of thyroid cancer in children has increased
 5. The blocking of the metabolism of radioactive iodine from the atmosphere
was prevented by the administration of KI
6. Strontium-90 was not present in the radioactive emissions
7. The concrete sarcophagus poured over the exploded reactor is meant to
completely stop/block the gamma radiation emissions
8. Sr-90 emissions were halved only in 2016
9. Administration of KCl can prevent iodine absorption at the thyroid level
10. Radioactive iodine spread in the atmosphere halved its radioactive
emissions 70 days after the accident
281. Which of the following statements regarding the parameters that can
characterize a radioactive source are true:

1. Beta plus decay is related to isotopes with a surplus of protons

2. The half-life is the time required for half of the radioactive atoms in the
source to decay
3. For long periods of time, the phenomenon of radioactivity is represented
by an exponential equation
4. The phenomenon of radioactive emission is a random one for short
periods of time
5. Beta minus decay is related to isotopes with a surplus of neutrons
6. Alpha radiation is electromagnetic radiation
7. The decay constant is represented by the wavelength
8. The halving thickness is the thickness of material required to halve a
beam of alpha radiation
9. Gamma rays are corpuscular radiation (they have a rest mass)
10. Beta minus radiation is not ionizing radiation
282. Which of the following statements regarding the effects that occur when
ionizing radiation interacts with matter are true?

1. The photoelectric effect occurs when ionizing radiation interacts with

peripheral electrons
2. The Compton effect occurs as a result of interactions of X-rays with
central electrons
3. The characteristic X-radiation accompanies the photoelectric effect
4. The characteristic X-radiation appears as a result of energy transitions at
the level of the central electronic layers
5. The scintillation phenomenon occurs by excitation of Na impurities in the
case of thallium iodide
6. The Compton effect occurs when an X-ray or gamma ray interacts with
peripheral electrons
7. The photoelectric effect occurs when an X-ray (gamma) interacts with
central electrons (K-layer)
8. Liquid scintillation crystals are used for the detection of beta plus radiation
in the case of PET
9. Pairing is a common effect in medical applications
 10. Bremsstrahlung X-ray occurs when an electron is braked through the
electron shells of an atom
283. Which of the following statements about the working principle of the
scintillation counter are true?

1. The electrons are accelerated in the photomultiplier tube with the help of
alternating current
2. dynodes are special supports with the role of amplifying the electrical
signal
3. Positrons are detected in the case of the scintillation crystal of the PET/CT
device
4. The anode receives the amplified electronic signal in the form of an
electrical pulse
5. The photocathode is positively charged and emits electrons through the
external photoelectric effect
6. The NaI scintillation crystal with Tl impurities can also detect beta plus
radiation
7. The function of the scintillation crystal is to convert gamma photons into
light
8. The photocathode emits electrons through the Compton effect
9. The electric field at the level of the photomultiplier tube has the role of
accelerating the electrons
10. Diodes are amplification devices within the scintillation probe
284. Which of the following statements regarding the carcinogenesis induced
by exposure to ionizing radiation are true?

1. One of the most radiosensitive tissues is the testis

2. Neurons are among the most radiosensitive cells
3. Cancer (carcinogenesis) is initiated following the processes of exposure to
ionizing radiation above a certain limit value
4. Exposure to high doses of ionizing radiation leads to the genetic
transmission of acquired DNA defects
5. One of the most radiosensitive tissues is the ovary
6. Male sterility is found in genetic anomalies
7. In the case of the effects of the acute irradiation syndrome, they can also
be registered at values below the permitted threshold value
8. The effectiveness of ionizing radiation to induce stochastic effects (cancer)
is expressed in Sv
9. Radioactivity = the emission of nuclear radiation that can distort DNA
molecules
10. Tissue radiosensitivity is related to cell division status
285. Which of the following statements regarding the sizes and units of the
radiobiological system are true?

1. The absorbed dose can be expressed in "rad"

2. 1 Gy represents 100 rem
 3. The equivalent absorbed dose can be expressed in "rem"
4. The equivalent absorbed dose is expressed in the International System in
Sv
5. 1 Gy of gamma radiation is equivalent to 20 Sv
6. Radioactivity is measured in the International System in C
7. 1 Gy of X-radiation is equivalent to 10 Sv
8. Radioactivity is measured in the International System in Ci
9. The absorbed radiation dose is measured in J/kg
10. The effective biological dose is expressed in the International System in
Sv
286. Which of the following statements about how ionizing radiation interacts
with matter are true?

1. The Compton effect does not influence the acquisition of radioisotope

images
2. The Compton effect occurs at lower energies than the photoelectric effect
3. The energy of the recoil electron is minimum when it is backscattered
4. The photoelectric effect occurs as a result of the total absorption of the
energy of a gamma radiation beam by an electron in the K shell
5. The Compton effect involves the emission of a recoil electron with a lower
energy than the incident beam
6. The photoelectric effect involves the emission of a photoelectron and is
the basis of the principle of operation of the scintillation counter
7. The external photoelectric effect is the basis of the working principle of the
x-ray tube
8. The emergent radiation emitted is deflected and has a lower energy level
than the incident radiation
9. The Compton effect does not influence the acquisition of radiological
images
10. The photoelectric effect is the result of the production of X-bremsstrahlung
287. Which of the following statements about X-rays and their use in medical
imaging are true?

1. The characteristic X-rays are part of the beams emitted by the X-ray tubes
2. Continuous X-ray is used in obtaining angiographic images
3. Continuous X-rays are used to obtain images in the case of X-rays
4. The characteristic X-rays are used in X-ray diffraction
5. Bremsstrahlung cannot be used to obtain X-ray tomographic images
6. Bremsstrahlung X-ray is also called continuous X-ray
7. Characteristic X-rays are used in Angiography
8. The contrast agent absorbs continuous X-rays
9. The X-ray tube operates on alternating electrical current
10. Computed tomography can be performed exclusively with characteristic X-
rays
288. Which of the following statements about radiographs are true?
 1. Depending on the position of the patient and the distance to the film, the
radiographic images can be enlarged
2. Radiographic film is similar to photography in that it is sensitive to X-rays
3. The skeleton has a low degree of absorption of X-rays
4. The minimum energy level associated with X-rays used in radiography is
200keV
5. The high degree of absorption of X-rays in the urinary bladder is due to
the presence of urine
6. The high degree of absorption in radiological language corresponds to the
notion of radio opacity
7. Chest x-ray will reveal reduced X-ray attenuation at the costal level
8. Radiography, due to the small doses, is not contraindicated in pregnancy
9. It represents a planar summation image of the degree of absorption of X-
rays
10. The absorption of X-rays at the level of the lung parenchyma is reduced
due to the presence of air
289. Which of the following statements about radioactive sources are true?

1. Electromagnetic radiation can be in the microwave range

2. The half-life is a parameter specific to each radioisotope
3. They can be analyzed quantitatively using scintillation counters
4. They emit strictly corpuscular radiation
5. Half-life is equivalent to half-life
6. Each radioisotope has a specific spectrum of nuclear radiation
7. Nuclear radiation comes from the level of the valence electron shell
8. Half-life cannot be calculated for beta radiation
9. The energy of nuclear radiation has values specific to each radioisotope
10. They can emit ionizing radiation
290. Which of the following statements about the gamma camera are true?

1. It doesn't always use collimators

2. The detection of gamma radiation is not mediated by electrons
3. The electrons in the photomultiplier tube are accelerated and multiplied
4. It has at least one detection head in the component
5. The electrical signal is analyzed in x,y,z spatial coordinates
6. It can have several types of collimators
7. Light is proportionally converted into electrons
8. The gamma signal is converted into visible electromagnetic radiation
9. The direction of travel of the amplified electrons is from the cathode to the
anode
10. Computed tomography analysis is specific to X-rays only
291. Which of the following statements about scintigraphs are true?

1. Annually repeated scans are not recommended because they expose

patients too much
2. Radiopharmaceuticals emit radiation in the radio wave range
 3. They are obtained with the help of gamma radiation
4. The radiation doses received in renal scintigraphy are much higher than
those received in urography
5. They are functional images
6. Radiopharmaceuticals have a vector molecule ( tracer) in their component
7. Children cannot have scans because it is not recommended
8. It uses radiopharmaceuticals specific to the function under investigation
9. Positrons are annihilated in two diametrically opposed gamma rays
10. Vector molecules can have toxic isomers for the body
292. Which of the following statements about nuclear radiation are true?

1. They can be in corpuscular form

2. They can cause genetic abnormalities
3. It is always corpuscular radiation
4. Beta minus radiation is used in medical imaging
5. They can suffer from the phenomenon of optical dispersion
6. They can cause cancer if the allowed dose is exceeded
7. Determines deterministic (systematic) effects as a function of dose limit
8. They are represented by gamma photons
9. Alpha radiation can interfere constructively
10. The law of radioactivity defines an exponential equation
293. The scintillation counter parts are:

1. anode
2. dynode
3. the light source
4. lux meter
5. photocell
6. collimator
7. diodes
8. scintillation crystal
9. photocathode
10. piezoelectric crystal
294. Which of the following statements about half-thickness are true?

1. Radiation protection means are optional

2. It's big for aluminum
3. Alpha radiation has the largest half-life
4. It is a material characteristic
5. May have different values for Beta Radiation
6. It is measured in mm
7. It is determined by three measurements with different thicknesses
8. It is small for lead
9. It can be measured in minutes
10. Gamma radiation can be halved
295. Which of the following statements about film photodosimeter are true?
 1. Metal filters have the role of mediating the received signal
2. It can be reset
3. They can detect a high level of UV radiation
4. It is a medical radiation surveillance device
5. The film is sensitive to nuclear radiation
6. It can be digital
7. detect the natural radiation background
8. It cannot determine the degree of exposure in real time
9. It is not sensitive to X-Rays
10. It measures a cumulative value
296. The following units are specific to the radiobiological system:

1. W
2. J/kg
3. Gy
4. C
5. Ci
6. Kg
7. rad
8. Sv
9. J
10. rem
297. Are the following values expressed correctly?

1. 10 Sv = 100 rad
2. 10Gy = 1000 rad
3. 1 Gy =100 rem
4. 10 Gy = 10 rad
5. 1Sv = 100 rem
6. 20Sv =2000 rem
7. 20m Ci =740 MBq
8. 3700 MBq= 37 GBq
9. 10mCi = 37 MBq
10. 0,1 mCi =3,7 MBq
298. Are the following items part of an MRI facility?

1. Piezoelectric crystal
2. anode
3. Computer
4. External electromagnet
5. Antenna
6. photocathode
7. Microwave generator
8. Gradient coils
9. Table for the patient
10. diodes
299. Are the following notions related to the phenomenon of radioactivity?

1. radiofrequency
2. Optical dispersion
3. Bq
4. Half-life
5. Relaxing time
6. Ci
7. Doppler effect
8. X-ray diffraction
9. Relaxation T1
10. radioisotope
300. Which of the following statements about medical imaging are true?

1. Radiographs are obtained with X-rays

2. Nuclear magnetic resonance is based on radioactivity
3. Hybrid SPECT/CT imaging uses only gamma radiation
4. Ultrasound uses low sounds
5. Magnetic resonance is based on the magnetic field
6. Scintigraphs are obtained with gamma rays
7. Scintigraphies can be obtained with X-rays
8. X-rays cannot be obtained with gamma rays
9. Ultrasound is obtained with the help of ultrasound
10. Hybrid PET/CT imaging uses only X-rays