Examinations Guide September 2018
Examinations Guide September 2018
Examinations guide
Examinations guide
Disclaimer
The information set out in this report is current at the date of first publication and is intended for use as
a guide of a general nature only and may or may not be relevant to particular circumstances. Nor is this
publication exhaustive of the subject matter. Persons implementing any recommendations contained in this
publication must exercise their own independent skill or judgement, or seek appropriate professional advice
relevant to their own particular circumstances when so doing.
Accordingly, The Royal Australian College of General Practitioners (RACGP) and its employees and agents
shall have no liability (including without limitation liability by reason of negligence) to any users of the
information contained in this publication for any loss or damage (consequential or otherwise), cost or expense
incurred or arising by reason of any person using or relying on the information contained in this publication
and whether caused by reason of any error, negligent act, omission or misrepresentation in the information.
www.racgp.org.au
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This guide
The ‘RACGP examinations guide’ is designed for current and prospective Royal Australian College of General
Practitioners (RACGP) Fellowship examinations candidates.
Everything candidates need to know about the Applied Knowledge Test (AKT), Key Feature Problem (KFP) exam
and Objective Structured Clinical Examination (OSCE) is contained within this guide, which outlines the standards,
processes and features used to develop each exam and provides examples of question types and tips for
preparation.
The purpose of this guide is to ensure that candidates are informed about every aspect of the RACGP Fellowship
examinations, from theory to quality assurance and results.
This guide does not cover details of enrolment, Fellowship pathways, exam delivery, education standards, policy or
appeals. It is purely focused on the exams.
Visit www.racgp.org.au/education/fellowship/fellowship-of-the-racgp/policies for the policy framework.
Visit www.racgp.org.au/becomingagp for details about GP pathways.
Visit www.racgp.org.au/education/fellowship/exams/exam-enrolments for further information about enrolment.
Visit www.racgp.org.au/education/curriculum/2016-curriculum for further information about education standards
and curriculum.
Fellowship
Fellowship of the RACGP (FRACGP) is admission to the specialty of general practice and an important recognition
of a candidates’ skills by their college and peers.
FRACGP allows a general practitioner (GP) to:
• practice unsupervised anywhere in Australia
• work unsupervised in general practice
• claim A1 Medicare rebates
• use the post-nominal ‘FRACGP’
• be recognised as a Fellow through the RACGP’s reciprocal arrangements with the Royal New Zealand College
of General Practitioners, the Irish College of General Practitioners and the College of Family Physicians Canada.
RACGP Fellowship examinations are of the highest quality, developed by GPs for GPs. The RACGP’s rigorous
development processes are subject to closely monitored quality assurance and continuous improvement. The
exams are delivered in various locations across Australia and internationally.
The RACGP Fellowship examinations assess a candidate’s competency for unsupervised general practice
anywhere in Australia. Each exam has a unique and targeted approach to assessing knowledge and ability.
This guide focuses on the:
• AKT – an online exam
• KFP exam – an online exam
• OSCE – a face-to-face exam comprising a series of stations.
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• Time management is critical – candidates should not spend too long on questions they consider to be difficult.
Questions can be flagged for review later during the exam, time permitting. Candidates should be sure to
check the time and their progress on the computer screen.
• There is no negative marking for the AKT, so candidates are encouraged to select an option rather than leave
any questions unanswered.
Example 2. SBA
John Anderson, aged three, is brought into the practice by his mother because he has been coughing at night for the
past four weeks. His mother went with him to pre-school yesterday and was surprised to see him sitting down during
a game of ‘hide and seek’. He is well apart from mild eczema. Clinical examination reveals normal tonsils and adenoids.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Asthma
B. Non-specific persistent cough
C. Oesophageal reflux
D. Post-nasal drip
E. Post-viral cough
(See page 5 for answer)
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Example 3. MEMQ
Ken, aged 34, has noticed a firm, slightly sore swelling on the lateral aspect of his left knee over the past three
months. He vaguely remembers ‘twisting’ his knee some weeks prior to this and the knee was painful for a few
days. These symptoms have almost resolved, although he does get pain in the area of the swelling after activity.
Ken has not noticed any locking, giving way or decreased movement in the knee. On examination, there is a small,
‘bony hard’, tender lump situated on the lateral side of the joint. The knee is otherwise unremarkable.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Anterior cruciate tear
B. Baker’s cyst
C. Chondromalacia patellae
D. Crystal arthropathy
E. Meniscal cyst
F. Meniscal tear
G. Osgood Schlatter’s disease
H. Osteoarthritis
I. Osteochondritis dessicans
J. Osteosarcoma
K. Patellar subluxation
L. Prepatellar bursitis
M. Rheumatoid arthritis
N. Suprapatellar bursitis
(See page 5 for answer)
Example 4. MEMQ
Danny is aged six months. He presents at the start of winter with a two-day history of runny nose, sneezing, cough
and mild fever. He has trouble finishing his bottle and has vomited three times. On examination, Danny has watery
eyes and a snuffly nose. His respiratory rate is 50 per minute, he has audible wheezes, subcostal and intercostal
recession and bilateral crepitations.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Acute bronchitis
B. Acute asthma
C. Bronchiolitis
D. Haemophilus influenza pneumonia
E. Influenza
F. Inhaled foreign body
G. Mycoplasma pneumonia
H. Pneumococcal pneumonia
I. Tuberculosis
J. Viral croup
(See page 5 for answer)
RACGP Education
Examinations guide
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Example 2. SBA
A. Asthma
Asthma is the only condition in this list that causes both a cough and impaired exercise tolerance. When cough
is the result of asthma, it is usually accompanied by some wheeze and episodes of shortness of breath. It is
uncommon for cough to be the only symptom of asthma.
Recurrent non-specific cough is a very common symptom in preschool-aged children. There is usually no
associated atopy or family history of asthma. The child usually develops a cough in association with an upper
respiratory tract infection.
There is no information in the clinical scenario to support a diagnosis of post-nasal drip or oesophageal reflux
Example 3. MEMQ
E. Meniscal cyst
A meniscal cyst is a similar lesion to a ganglion. It arises from the outer part of the meniscus and forms a tense
swelling at the joint line. Meniscal cysts arise from small meniscal tears which act as one-way valves, allowing
pumping of synovial fluid out of the joint into the cyst. The presentation of a meniscal cyst is with a small lump that
is usually situated on the lateral side of the joint.
There is often a history of injury to the knee joint. Meniscal cysts most often manifest as pain that is aggravated by
activity. On examination, the lump may feel ‘bony hard’ and have localised tenderness over it.
Baker’s cyst or popliteal cyst is normally located in the popliteal fossa and may cause pain and swelling in the
calf. Prepatellar and suprapatellar bursitis are usually anterior to the knee and fluctuant rather than ‘bony hard’.
Osteosarcoma is a possibility, although less likely with this scenario. The pain tends to be constant, increasing and
worse at night rather than after activity.
Example 4. MEMQ
C. Bronchiolitis
Bronchiolitis, a common disease of the lower respiratory tract of infants, results from inflammatory obstruction of
the small airways. It occurs during the first two years of life with a peak incidence at around six months.
Symptoms usually start with a mild upper-respiratory tract infection followed by paroxysmal wheezy cough,
dyspnea and irritability. As the respiratory rate rises, feeding gets difficult. Asthma is the condition most commonly
confused with bronchiolitis.
One or more of following favours a diagnosis of asthma: a family history of asthma, repeated episodes in a same
infant, sudden onset without preceding symptoms, and a favourable response to single dose of bronchodilator.
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AKT marking
In the period between a candidate sitting the exam and their results being released, the RACGP implements several
key quality assurance processes to ensure that all results are accurate, fair and reflect the appropriate standards.
The AKT has a single mark assigned to each question, with 150 marks assigned to each exam. Each question is
therefore worth 0.67% of a raw score.
However, the psychometrics of the exam performance occasionally may indicate a need for some items to undergo
post-exam review. One outcome of such a review may be an alteration to or removal of the item/s from the exam.
This will invariably increase the weighting of each remaining question.
There is no negative marking: incorrect answers simply do not attract a mark.
As all questions are multiple-choice and each question has only one correct answer, the exam does not require
human marking and is auto-marked. This provides a raw score for all candidates that is then quality assured as
indicated above. Before results can be established and released, however, a pass mark needs to be established
through a process called ‘standard-setting’ (refer to ‘Standard-setting’ section of this guide).
RACGP Education
Examinations guide
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The case
Phillip Huang is a 45-year-old landscaper with a past history of hypertension and hyperlipidaemia. He is currently
taking telmisartan/hydrochlorothiazide (40/12.5 mg) and atorvastatin (40 mg) daily. Recent routine blood tests
revealed a low sodium of 126 mmol/L (normal range 135–145 mmol/L) and a low chloride of 89 mmol/L (normal
range 97–105 mmol/L). Other electrolytes, urea and creatinine are normal.
Phillip feels well and is not confused. He does not drink excessive amounts of water and his physical examination is
unremarkable.
Question 1
What is the most likely cause for Phillip’s hyponatraemia? (provide a single answer)
Question 2
Phillip’s hyponatraemia persists despite your initial management and you now need to investigate further. What
would be the most useful investigations to perform next? (select up to five investigations from the list)
• Bone scan
• Blood glucose level
• Chest X-ray
• Computed tomography (CT) brain scan
• CT abdomen scan
• ESR/CRP
• Full blood count (FBC)
• Iron studies
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Examinations guide
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• Liver enzymes
• Morning serum cortisol
• Oral glucose tolerance test
• Parathyroid hormone
• Prostate-specific antigen
• Serum and urine osmolality
• Serum calcium
• Serum renin level
• Serum uric acid
• Thyroid function tests
• Urine protein-to-creatinine ratio
• Urine sodium concentration
Consider the answers below.
Question 1
Question 1 is an example of a ‘write-in question’ that asks for a single diagnosis. Some questions may ask for
several answers, but they always specify how many and there is a line for each answer in the online exam.
This question is asking for the most likely cause of hyponatraemia in this specific patient, rather than just a list of
causes of hyponatraemia. Candidates need to take notice of the information that the patient is well, not confused,
does not drink excessive amounts of water and has an unremarkable physical examination, as these facts help to
rule out other likely causes.
The question is assessing whether candidates know the most likely cause of hyponatraemia in someone who is
asymptomatic, but taking medications that could be significant.
It is important to recognise that hydrochlorothiazide is a class of diuretic medication can cause hyponatraemia.
The more specific candidates are in their answer, the higher the mark they score, eg ‘medication side effect’ is
correct, but may only score one mark, whereas specifying ‘side effect of the diuretic component of irbesartan/
hydrochlorothiazide' is much more specific and would score higher.
If the candidate had provided multiple answers – eg ‘polydypsia’, ‘medication side effect’ and ‘syndrome of
inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion’ – when only one was requested, they would have been penalised.
This is called ‘over-coding’ or ‘extra responses’ (refer to ‘Extra responses’ section below).
Please note: exam standard is to use generic drug names, which remain constant even if there are multiple brands
for many drugs.
Question 2
Question 2 involves a selection list. Many of the answers might be correct, but the key investigations are:
• Blood glucose level
• Chest X-ray
• Morning serum cortisol
• Serum and urine osmolality
• Thyroid function tests
• Urine sodium concentration
The important issue in this example is that the case has progressed. The patient’s hyponatraemia persists despite
management, so candidates now have to consider other possible causes and determine the key investigations to
best assess the possible differential diagnoses.
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In order to develop feedback for both successful and unsuccessful candidates, the examiners provide feedback on
the question they have marked at the end of each exam cycle, highlighting common errors and what constituted
good and poor responses. This document is available to all candidates when the results are released.
In order to select these key investigations, candidates need to consider the most likely causes, apart from your
answer in Question 1, for this patient’s hyponatraemia. They also need to consider which investigations will best
help differentiate between the most likely underlying causes.
Candidates must remember to choose the responses that are most likely in this patient, an asymptomatic 45-year-
old male with hypertension and hyperlipidaemia who has a normal physical examination. This would mean that
cancer is an unlikely cause in this context, so investigations to find an underlying cancer would not be the most
useful as your initial investigations for the cause in this patient.
Candidates should avoid choosing investigations they may consider routine, but which will not necessarily help find
the cause of the hyponatraemia. They should not choose options that would normally only be needed if a previous
investigation was inconclusive, eg select ‘blood glucose level’ rather than ‘oral glucose tolerance test’.
It is also important to note that there are six answers that score marks, but the questions asks for five. This is how
some of the KFP exams are marked and means that candidates do not have to list every possible correct answer.
In the case of selection lists, candidates will only be able to select the number of answers requested – five in this
case. If candidates make a mistake, they need to uncheck other boxes. They cannot provide extra responses on a
selection list.
Selection lists are usually used in investigation questions as this reflects what GPs do in practice; clinical systems
usually have all of the investigations available to select as appropriate. This can vary; selection lists may be used
for other types of question and, likewise, there may be write-in questions for investigations, especially when asking
about single most important investigations or if a very limited list of investigations is requested.
Extra responses
The KFP exam identifies candidates that are able to determine the most appropriate response in light of the clinical
scenario and the absence of peripheral determinations. Extra responses (over-coding) are those answers provided
by candidates over and above the requested amount. If a question specifies that a candidate ‘write two serious
complications in note form’, two spaces will be provided and two answers expected. If four answers are provided,
two extra responses have been recorded and penalties will be applied to the final mark.
Each extra response attracts a penalty point of approximately 0.25% of a mark. The penalties are applied to the
candidate’s final mark and are not applied within the individual case or question.
• Read each clinical scenario carefully, at least twice, and select the key features of the case.
• Read each question carefully. Candidates often provide answers appropriate to the scenario, but do not
answer the specific question asked. If a question asks for investigations, that is what they need to provide, not
examination, history or management steps.
• Provide answers in context to the scenario provided. Take note of factors such as the gender and age, as the
critical steps may be different depending on these features.
• In most cases, when asked for investigations there will be a selection-list or multiple-choice question, so
candidates do not have to consider how to group investigations. There may be exceptions when only a limited
range of investigations is required. Candidates should only check the maximum number of answers requested in
selection-list questions; if it specifies five investigations they can only check up to five boxes.
• The question may ask for ‘note form’, which is only a few words. Candidates should not provide a paragraph to
justify their answer or to try and impress the examiners with their knowledge of the subject. There is a limit to the
number of words – approximately 250 – in the answer and candidates should need far fewer than this.
• Do not provide more answers than the question specifies. Extra responses will be penalised and marks
deducted. If they are writing the word ‘and’ or including commas or justifying answers, candidates will effectively
be creating a list and providing more answers than requested and will be penalised for additional answers.
• Be specific. Generalisations – eg ‘referral’, ‘general examination’, ‘start medication’, ‘refer’, etc – do not score
well. Expand on these types of answers to be more specific if that is warranted by the clinical scenario – eg
‘refer to a paediatrician’, ‘urgent referral to the appropriate specialist’.
• Separate each answer. There will be the same number of lines as number of answers requested.
• Watch spelling. Candidates are not penalised for bad spelling, but they should ensure their answers are legible
and make sense, and should not type answers with the Caps lock on.
• Do not use abbreviations or shorthand. These can have different meanings, eg ‘IBD’ might represent ‘irritable
bowel disease’ or ‘inflammatory bowel disease’.
• Pace yourself. Candidates should check the time and their progress on the computer screen as they complete
the exam, and attempt to answer all questions. The exam is designed to be completed in three hours, with an
extra 30 minutes awarded to all candidates (as noted earlier). It may be helpful to check that you have reached
the half-way point (at least the 13th case) after 1.5 hours
• Each of the 26 cases contributes equally to the final mark, so it is important to try to answer all of them.
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History taking
Ability to take a relevant and organised history, following appropriate cues and eliciting positive and negative details
important to the assessment and management of the patient. Mental state assessment is rated is this area.
Physical examination
Ability to perform an appropriate and systematic examination that is appropriately focused and not overly inclusive.
Candidates should be able to detect physical examination findings accurately and interpret them correctly. Specific
positive and negative findings relevant to the case should be elicited.
Candidates should demonstrate respect for the patient and concern for their comfort. This includes obtaining oral
consent for examination where appropriate. Candidates should also demonstrate correct hand hygiene.
Peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) and oximetry (sO2) are included in this rating area.
Investigations
Ability to select relevant, cost-effective investigations in an appropriate sequence, including surgery tests such as
electrocardiogram (ECG), urine dipsticks, glucometry and spirometry. The candidate should display consideration
for the safety and comfort of the patient.
Diagnosis
Ability to make an accurate diagnosis based on interpretation of the history, physical examination and
investigations. This rating area includes differential diagnosis, probability diagnosis and the formulation of a problem
definition list.
Management
Ability to manage the issues raised in the case. This may include immediate management (eg emergency
measures), short-term management (eg safety-netting for the patient) and long-term management (eg prevention
of recurrence), and preventive health. Candidates should consider both pharmacological treatment and non-
pharmacological methods.
Candidates should offer patients effective explanations, education and choices, and be able to prioritise the
required actions, as well as negotiate agreement on a plan. The communication skills needed in management are
rated in ‘Communication and rapport’.
Consideration should be given to involvement of family and support persons, and relevant community resources.
Procedural skills
Ability to perform the procedure appropriately and competently, with regard for patient safety and comfort.
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Candidate Information
Total 2 pages
• This is an 8 minute station.
• Read the following scenario.
• Take an appropriate history from the child’s parent.
• You can assume that physical examination is normal.
• Outline your conclusions and proposed management plan to the child’s parent.
• Note there will be no child actually present during the consultation.
• This consultation takes place in a single session.
Scenario
One of Zac’s parents has come to see you. They have whispered to your receptionist that they wish to talk to you
about Zac, who has been left playing but supervised in the waiting room.
A copy of the patient record summary sheet is attached.
Social history Lives with parents Karen and Peter and two sisters, Zoe (12) and Anita (5)
Family history Father wet the bed until the age of 10 and paternal cousin still wets the bed at the age of 9
Immunisations Up to date
Conflicts of interest
OSCE candidates should be aware they may encounter examiners who are known to them or whom they have met
on previous occasions, such as during their general practice training. This does not normally constitute a conflict of
interest.
All examiners are provided with a list of candidates whom they will be examining and are required to notify the
RACGP if there is a perceived or actual conflict of interest.
A conflict of interest will be considered in circumstances where examiners and candidates:
Standard-setting
A standard is a conceptual boundary between acceptable and unacceptable performance. The standard of
performance required of candidates for the RACGP Fellowship exams is demonstration of competence for
unsupervised general practice in Australia.
Standard-setting is the process by which a standard is translated into a passing score, that divides a group of
candidates into those who are at or above the standard, and those whose performance is below the standard.
Although the overall pass mark varies from exam to exam, the standards used in determining those pass marks
remain constant. The processes employed by the RACGP in determining pass marks are less arbitrary than simply
choosing an adequate score. They involve judgments by examiners and analysis of actual candidate performance
in the assessment tasks. The result is a fair and accurate process.
Results
Candidate exam results (assessment and enrolment statement)
Candidates can access their results with their username and password via the RACGP website (www.racgp.org.
au/education/fellowship/exams/exam-results) after the release date has passed.
A summary of exam results is also emailed to candidates (unless they have specifically elected not to use this
option). Exam results will not be provided by telephone or fax.
Regional training organisations (RTOs) receive the results of their registrars at the same time as the registrars
themselves.
Ratification of results
Results need to be ratified prior to being released. The RACGP Board of Censors is responsible for reviewing and
ratifying all exam results on behalf of the Council. The Board of Censors reviews the administration of the exam
segment, quality assurance processes followed, pass marks, and the overall result for each candidate. The
information provided to the Board of Censors is de-identified to ensure each censor is unaware of a candidate’s
identity at the time of ratification.
Examination support
From 1 January 2019, the RACGP is updating the preparation and feedback support it offers candidates. Exam
candidates will be given information on the new program as part of their pre-exam packs, and updates will be
published on the RACGP website.
RACGP Education
Examinations guide
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Candidates may find it helpful to invite a trusted colleague to spend time watching them consult, either in the
practice or by videotape (such methods would require informed patient consent), and then asking for constructive
feedback. Candidates can then become aware of their own performance in clinical situations and alter any aspects
they consider appropriate. Performing well in actual practice makes it easier to translate these behaviours into the
exam situations.
gplearning
The gplearning platform (http://gplearning.racgp.org.au) is the RACGP’s interactive online Quality Improvement
and Continuing Professional Development (QI&CPD) service containing more than 200 activities on a wide range
of subject areas, including Category 1 and Category 2 activities. Dedicated gplearning modules are available to
support candidates studying for the exams.
gplearning also offers the Exam Support Online (ESO) program, which gives candidates the opportunity to learn
about the elements of the AKT, KFP and OSCE. This is a free service available to all members of the RACGP.
gplearning is free to RACGP members, while non-members can purchase an annual subscription. Contact the
gplearning team on 1800 284 789 or at [email protected] for more information.
Pre-exam courses
RACGP state faculties provide a range of pre-exam courses for candidates. Visit www.racgp.org.au/education/
fellowship/exams/pre-exam-courses for details of upcoming courses.
QI&CPD
Many activities that are promoted through the RACGP’s QI&CPD program may also be useful to candidates
preparing for the exams. Potentially useful activities include clinical audits, supervised clinical attachments,
lectures, workshops, small group learning, online learning programs, and many more. Candidates interested in
accessing these activities can visit www.racgp.org.au/education/courses/activitylist for information on the QI&CPD
department in their state faculty or to search for activities.
RACGP Education
Examinations guide
21
check
The RACGP’s check program is a versatile self-education program and QI&CPD activity that provides a range of
cases written by expert clinicians. Each case includes a brief clinical scenario, followed by a series of questions
designed to highlight the important issues for practitioners to consider in the clinical history, examination,
investigation and/or management of a problem. Visit www.racgp.org.au/education/courses/check for more
information.