24/03/2023 CODE-B

Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456

FINAL TEST SERIES for NEET-2023

MM : 720 Test - 2 Time : 3 Hrs. 20 Mins.

Answers

1. (2) 41. (4) 81. (1) 121. (2) 161. (3)

2. (2) 42. (2) 82. (3) 122. (2) 162. (1)
3. (4) 43. (4) 83. (4) 123. (3) 163. (1)
4. (2) 44. (2) 84. (3) 124. (4) 164. (3)
5. (4) 45. (4) 85. (4) 125. (3) 165. (4)
6. (2) 46. (4) 86. (2) 126. (2) 166. (2)
7. (4) 47. (1) 87. (1) 127. (3) 167. (2)
8. (1) 48. (3) 88. (3) 128. (3) 168. (3)
9. (1) 49. (2) 89. (1) 129. (3) 169. (2)
10. (2) 50. (2) 90. (4) 130. (3) 170. (4)
11. (4) 51. (3) 91. (4) 131. (1) 171. (2)
12. (1) 52. (2) 92. (2) 132. (3) 172. (3)
13. (1) 53. (3) 93. (3) 133. (4) 173. (3)
14. (4) 54. (1) 94. (4) 134. (3) 174. (3)
15. (1) 55. (3) 95. (1) 135. (3) 175. (2)
16. (1) 56. (4) 96. (1) 136. (4) 176. (1)
17. (3) 57. (4) 97. (3) 137. (2) 177. (3)
18. (1) 58. (4) 98. (4) 138. (3) 178. (4)
19. (4) 59. (2) 99. (3) 139. (4) 179. (1)
20. (4) 60. (3) 100. (2) 140. (1) 180. (1)
21. (2) 61. (1) 101. (1) 141. (4) 181. (2)
22. (2) 62. (2) 102. (4) 142. (4) 182. (3)
23. (2) 63. (4) 103. (3) 143. (1) 183. (4)
24. (4) 64. (1) 104. (1) 144. (3) 184. (2)
25. (4) 65. (4) 105. (1) 145. (2) 185. (2)
26. (1) 66. (4) 106. (3) 146. (2) 186. (3)
27. (3) 67. (4) 107. (1) 147. (1) 187. (2)
28. (4) 68. (3) 108. (3) 148. (1) 188. (2)
29. (1) 69. (4) 109. (1) 149. (2) 189. (4)
30. (3) 70. (4) 110. (4) 150. (3) 190. (1)
31. (2) 71. (4) 111. (2) 151. (1) 191. (4)
32. (4) 72. (4) 112. (1) 152. (4) 192. (3)
33. (1) 73. (4) 113. (3) 153. (2) 193. (3)
34. (3) 74. (3) 114. (3) 154. (3) 194. (3)
35. (2) 75. (3) 115. (1) 155. (4) 195. (2)
36. (2) 76. (1) 116. (2) 156. (2) 196. (4)
37. (2) 77. (2) 117. (1) 157. (3) 197. (2)
38. (1) 78. (3) 118. (3) 158. (4) 198. (2)
39. (4) 79. (2) 119. (2) 159. (3) 199. (3)
40. (3) 80. (2) 120. (4) 160. (3) 200. (3)

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 24/03/2023 CODE-B

Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456

FINAL TEST SERIES for NEET-2023

MM : 720 Test - 2 Time : 3 Hrs. 20 Mins.

Answers and Solutions

PHYSICS

SECTION - A 3mg mg 3m 2 g 2
x02 − x0 + x0 − 0
=
1. Answer (2) k k k2

 3mg   mg 
0
 x0 − k   x0 + k  =
  
3mg
x0 =
k
3mg mg 2mg
resulting force on pulley Further compression = − =
k k k
2 2
 3T   T  2 4. Answer (2)
 5  +5 = 5
T
    Spring force = F = 2 mg
2. Answer (2) 2mg + mg
=aB = 3g
Wf + Wmg = 0 m
Wf = –Wmg = mg (h2 – h1) 5. Answer (4)
3. Answer (4) k′ =
6k =×
6 200 =
1200 N/m
The lower block would just lift if the extension in k ′′ 2=
= k ′ 2400 N/m
mg
the spring becomes . 6. Answer (2)
k
Using conservation of mechanical energy Tension = 10cos53° = 6 N
2 and T = mg
1  mg  1  mg 
−mg ( x0 ) + k ( x0 )2= mg  + k  ⇒ 6 = m × 10
2  k  2  k 
{x0 : is total initial compression} ⇒ m = 0.6 kg
7. Answer (4)
1 2 m 2g 2 m 2g 2
kx0 − mgx0 = + Angle of repose is different for the blocks of
2 k 2k
different material and it doesn’t depend on mass of
2mg 3m 2 g 2 the block. Since angle of repose is more for block
⇒ x02 − x0 − 0
=
k k2 B hence µB > µA.

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Final Test Series for NEET-2023 Test-2 (Code-B)_(Answers & Solutions)

8. Answer (1) 16. Answer (1)

2mv 2 × 2 × 10 ∂U
F= = = 50 × 10 × 4 = 2 kN F=
− <0
t 1/ 50 ∂x
9. Answer (1) Hence particle will move along negative x-axis
2m − m g 17. Answer (3)
=a1 = g 
2m + m 3 F = 9 + 16 + 200 = 225 = 15 N
2mg − mg
=a2 = g 15 = m × 5 ⇒ m = 3 kg
m
18. Answer (1)
Hence a1 : a2 = 1: 3
1 2
10. Answer (2) mv= mg ⋅ 2l
2
g sin(53°) − g sin(37°) g  4 3  v 2 = 4gl
a= =  − = 1m/s2
2 25 5
19. Answer (4)
11. Answer (4)
1
dm Pt = mv 2
F =u =200 × 0.04 =8 N 2
dt
2Pt
12. Answer (1) v=
m
Mass of stone m = 0.5 kg
20. Answer (4)
Mass of man M = 50 kg
Displacement in frame of elevator is zero
Applying conservation of linear momentum in
∴ Work done = zero
vertical direction
 21. Answer (2)
0 = 0.5 × 10 + 50v
Speed of bob after collision
 1
v = − m/s = 2× g × h = 2 × 10 × 20 = 20 m/s
10
20% of u = 20
20
=
Time taken to reach ground = 2 s u = 100 m/s
10
Height of man after 2 s 22. Answer (2)
Using conservation of energy
1
h = 20 + × 2 = 20.2 m mg l 1 mgl
10 − = mv 2 −
4 8 2 2
13. Answer (1)
Tension (T) = m(g + a) 1 2 l mgl 15mgl 15gl
mv = mg − = ⇒ v=
2 2 32 32 16
= 600 (10 + 2) = 12 × 600 = 7200 N
P = Tv = 7200 × 3 = 21600 W 23. Answer (2)
Linear momentum conservation
= 21.6 kW    
m1u1 + m2u2 =m1v1 + m2v 2
14. Answer (4)

Work done by kinetic friction may be positive, 2(2iˆ + 4 ˆj ) + 4(2iˆ)= 2(2iˆ + ˆj ) + 4v
negative or zero. 
4iˆ + 8 jˆ + 8iˆ = 4iˆ + 2 jˆ + 4v
15. Answer (1)
1 8iˆ + 6 jˆ 
∆V = × (1) × (2) + (2) × (3) = 7 m/s =v
2 4
V = (7 + 2) m/s = 9 m/s  ˆ 3 
ˆj  =
 2i + 2  v
P = Fv = mav = (4 × 2) (9) = 72 W  

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Test-2 (Code-B)_(Answers & Solutions) Final Test Series for NEET-2023

24. Answer (4) 31. Answer (2)

L = I ω = constant 3 4
Fx = 6 × + 4 × − 6.8 =0
5 5
1
ω∝
I Fy = 4sin37° – 6sin53°
Moment of inertia goes on decreasing, hence 3 4
= 4× − 6 × =2.4 − 4.8 =−2.4 N
angular speed and rotational kinetic energy will 5 5
increase.  2.4
25. Answer (4) =
a = 2 m/s2
1.2
  
τ= r ×F 32. Answer (4)

= (– iˆ + jˆ) × Fkˆ From angular momentum conservation about

contact point
= F (iˆ + ˆj )
mv 0R = mvR + mR 2ω
26. Answer (1)
=
mv 0
R mvR + mvR
I
I x + I y = Iz ⇒ 2I x = Iz ⇒ I x = z = 25 kg-m2 v0
2 v=
2
27. Answer (3)
33. Answer (1)
1 2
K= Iω Impulse on a body is equal to change in linear
2
momentum.
1500 × 2
= ω2 34. Answer (3)
1.2
Isystem = Σmr2
ω2 =2500
= 10 × 12
ω =50 rad/s
= 10 kg m2
ω = ω0 + αt 35. Answer (2)
50 = 25t The COM will continue moving in same parabolic
path.
t=2s
SECTION - B
28. Answer (4)
For any point lying on straight line the 36. Answer (2)
perpendicular distance between point and line of F =100 × 10−5 =10−3 N
motion of linear momentum is zero.
t 10−3 ×=
Impulse = F ∆= 3 3 mN s
Also angular momentum is going to remain
constant about a point away from line. 37. Answer (2)
29. Answer (1) In equilibrium
τ = Iα mg = kx
1 10 × 10 = 400 x
2×g × = [3 × 0.25 + 5 × 0.25]α
2 1
⇒ x = =0.25 m
20 × 0.5 = 2.0 α 4
20 × 0.5 38. Answer (1)
=α = 5 rad/s2
2 1 2 1 2
kx = µv
30. Answer (3) 2 2 rel
Since the block is moving with uniform velocity 1 1 6×3 
=(200) ( x 2 ) = (3)2 ⇒ x 0.3 m
hence, f = mgsinθ. 2 2  6 + 3 

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Final Test Series for NEET-2023 Test-2 (Code-B)_(Answers & Solutions)

39. Answer (4) 45. Answer (4)

0,2   0,2
= ∫ F .dr=
w
0,0 ∫0,0 ( xjˆ + yiˆ).(dxiˆ + dyjˆ + dzkˆ )
0,2
= [ xy ]0,0
=0
46. Answer (4)
1 1
The work done by normal reaction is always zero mv 2 = kx 2
2 2
mgR sin θ − mgR(1 − cos θ) = 0 m
x =v
sin θ − 1 + cos θ = 0 k
= 0.5 m
⇒ sin θ + cos θ =1
47. Answer (1)
⇒ Either θ= 90° or 0°
40. Answer (3)
mω2R = f
X cm =
∫ xdm
and f ≤ µN ∫ dm
⇒ mω2R ≤ µN 1

∫ (α + βx )x dx
µg = 0
R≤ 1
ω2
∫ (α + βx ) dx
0
0.4 × 10
R≤
10 × 10 3α + 2β
=
6α + 3β
R ≤ 0.04 m
48. Answer (3)
41. Answer (4)
As the same mass is removed then same mass is
dv glued hence the mass distribution remains same.
a= v = −2 m/s2
dx 49. Answer (2)
v = 2 m/s When all the particles are uniformly distributed at
distance R from origin then COM will lie at the
Power = mav = 2 × (– 2) × (2) = – 8 W
origin.
42. Answer (2)
When all the particle lie at single point at a distance
5 5 ‘R’ from origin then COM will lie at distance R.
∫0 Fdx
= ∫ (3 x 2
=
w − 2 x + 7) dx
0
In case of non-uniform distribution it will be less
3 2 5 than the distance R as it lies close to heavier
w = x − x + 7 x 125 − 25 + 35 = 135 J
0 particle.
43. Answer (4) 50. Answer (2)
Ratio of displacements θ 12t − 4t 3
=
d1 : d2 : d3 = 1 : 3 : 5 dθ
ω= = 12 − 12t 2
dt
⇒ Ratio of average power in first, second and
third second = 1 : 3 : 5 ω =0, when t = 1 s

44. Answer (2) dω

α= = −24t
  dt
P= F ⋅ v
[α]t = 1 = –24 rad/s2
= 4500 ⋅ 2 = 9000 = 9 kW

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Test-2 (Code-B)_(Answers & Solutions) Final Test Series for NEET-2023

CHEMISTRY
SECTION - A 59. Answer (2)
51. Answer (3) 1
11.2 L gas at STP = mol CH4 = 8 g CH4
In liquification of CO2, i.e. CO2 (g) → CO2 (l) , the 2
degree of randomness is decreased, therefore 60. Answer (3)
entropy decrease. At high temperature and low pressure, real gas
52. Answer (2) behaves as ideal gas.
∆G =∆H − T∆S 61. Answer (1)
van der Waals constant, b depends upon size of
At equilibrium, ∆G =0 particle.
So, ∆H = T∆S 62. Answer (2)
∆H 60,000 H2O and HCl both are polar molecules, so dipole-
T
∴= = dipole interaction are present.
∆S 200
63. Answer (4)
= 300 K Formal charge = number of valence e– – Non-
53. Answer (3) 1
bonded e– − (Bonded e–)
2
1
= 6 − 2 − (6) =+1
2
64. Answer (1)
In PF5, P has 10 electrons.
54. Answer (1)
Dalton’s law of partial pressure for non-reactive 65. Answer (4)
gases, PT = p1 + p2 +p3 ----- (at constant T, V) In BeF2, bond angle = 180°.
55. Answer (3) In CH4, all angles are 109.5°.
In BF3 all bond angles are 120°.
Gases mix uniformly in all directions without any
mechanical aid. In PCl5,
56. Answer (4) Axial Cl – P – Cl angle = 180°
Equatorial Cl – P – Cl angle = 120°
According to Boyle’s law PV = k.
66. Answer (4)
57. Answer (4)
Ions or molecules Bond order
V1 V2
= F2 1
T1 T2
N2 3
V0 Vt
= C22− 3
273.15 273.15 + t
58. Answer (4) N2+ 2.5
Suppose wt. of O2 and SO2 each are mixed
together. 67. Answer (4)

w Hybridisation of central atom

nO 32 2
=xO = 2 SF4 sp3d
2 nO + nSO w w =3
2 2 + H2O sp3
32 64
2 CO2 sp
PO =PT ⋅ x O = 9 × = 6 atm
2 2 3 XeF4 sp3d2

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Final Test Series for NEET-2023 Test-2 (Code-B)_(Answers & Solutions)

68. Answer (3) 74. Answer (3)

NH+4 is tetrahedral ion in which all the bond dipoles

cancel each other.

Dipole moment

NH3 1.47 In PCl5, 3 bonds are equatorial and 2 bonds are

axial bonds, and axial bonds are longer than
NF3 0.23 equatorial bonds.
75. Answer (3)
H2S 0.95
4O(g) → 2O2 (g), ∆rH =−a kJ
69. Answer (4)
−∆rH −( −a)
BDE(O − O)= =
2 2
a
= kJ
2
70. Answer (4) 76. Answer (1)
Higher the bond order, higher will be the stability. Bomb calorimeter measures heat content at
constant volume i.e. change in internal energy.
Bond order 77. Answer (2)
N2 3 Latent Heat
∆S =
Temperature
N2+ 2.5
3000 J / mol
=
2 300 K
N22+
= 10 J K–1 mol–1
71. Answer (4) 78. Answer (3)
w is a path function, therefore will not be zero for
π2 p1x a cyclic process whereas all state functions will be
• B2 : σ1s 2σ * 1s 2σ2s 2σ * 2s 2  1 zero.
π2 py
79. Answer (2)
π2 p1x For diatomic gas, γ =1.40
• C22+ : σ1s 2σ * 1s 2σ2s 2σ * 2s 2  1
π2 py 80. Answer (2)
The process in which pressure remains constant
π2 px2 π*2 p1x is isobaric process.
• O2 : σ1s 2σ * 1s 2σ2s 2σ * 2s 2σ2 pz2  2 1
π2 py π*2 py 81. Answer (1)
Intensive properties do not depend upon the
• O22− has no unpaired electrons therefore quantity or size of matter.
diamagnetic in nature. 82. Answer (3)
72. Answer (4) According to 1st law of thermodynamics
Lateral overlap of p orbital with s orbital is not ∆U = q + w
possible due to different orientation direction of Under isothermal conditions,
approach.
∆U =0
73. Answer (4)
∴ q =− w
83. Answer (4)
 Standard enthalpy for formation of an elements
in reference state i.e. its most stable state of
5 bond pairs and 1 lone pair of electrons. aggregation is taken as zero.

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Test-2 (Code-B)_(Answers & Solutions) Final Test Series for NEET-2023

84. Answer (3) 93. Answer (3)

∆ H = ΣBE − ΣBE u(CO2) = u(O2) at 27°C
r reactant products
3RT1 3RT2
= BE A + BEB − 2BE AB =
2 2 MCO2 MO2
= x + y − 2z
T1 T
85. Answer (4) = 2
MCO2 MO2
∆G =∆H − T∆S
300 × 44
For spontaneous process, ∆G < 0 T1 =
32
∴ ∆H < 0, And ∆S > 0
T1 = 412.5 K
SECTION - B
94. Answer (4)
86. Answer (2)
PM
π2p2 d=
2 2  2 x
2 RT
σ1s σ * 1s σ2s σ * 2s  2
σ2p2z
 π2p y 1× 44
=
No. of e– in antibonding molecular orbitals = 4. 0.0821× 320
87. Answer (1) = 1.67 g L–1
Strength of H-bonding is more in HF due to highly 95. Answer (1)
electronegative F. State function depends only on the state of a
88. Answer (3) system.
Greater is the bond order lesser is the bond length. 96. Answer (1)
89. Answer (1) P V
−2.303 nRT log 1 =
W= −2.303 nRT log 2
Combustion reactions are exothermic in nature. P2 V1
∴ ∆H < 0
97. Answer (3)
Since number of gaseous moles are increasing ∴
For 1 mole of gas, Cp – Cv = R
∆S > 0.
Since both are diatomic gases, therefore a = b
# Overall reaction will be spontaneous and ∆G < 0
98. Answer (4)
90. Answer (4)
London force is weakest intermolecular force. ∆H = ∆U + ∆ngRT

1 If ∆ng = 0, ∆H = ∆U
Interaction energy ∝
r6 99. Answer (3)
91. Answer (4) W = – P∆V
 an2  = – 2[2.5 – 0.5]
For real gas,  P + 2  (V − nb) =
nRT
V  = – 2 × 2 = –4 L bar

= – 4(100) J
a
For 1 mole gas at high P, P >>> = – 400 J
V2
100. Answer (2)
a
∴ P+ P H2(g) → 2H(g)
V2
⇒ P(V – b) = RT 4
Mole of H2 = ⇒ 2 mol
PV – Pb = RT 2
PV = Pb + RT Energy require to break 2 mole of H2 gas = 872 kJ
92. Answer (2) 1
∆H−HH =× 872
For a particular gas, at a particular temperature, 2
C* < C < C = 436 kJ mol–1.

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Final Test Series for NEET-2023 Test-2 (Code-B)_(Answers & Solutions)

BOTANY
SECTION - A 117. Answer (1)
101. Answer (1) Flowers in canna are irregular or asymmetric.
Cucumber and ray florets of sunflower have 118. Answer (3)
inferior ovary. In Allium cepa, primary root is short lived and is
102. Answer (4) replaced by a bunch of fibre like roots arising from
the base of stem and is known as fibrous root
Stilt roots are found in sugarcane and maize. system.
103. Answer (3) 119. Answer (2)
Belladonna is a medicinal plant of Solanaceae Heartwood does not conduct water due to
family. depositions of organic compounds that cause
104. Answer (1) blockage of the xylary elements.
Outermost whorl of flower is called calyx. 120. Answer (4)
105. Answer (1) Gamosepalous refers to a condition with fused
Roots are positively geotropic and negatively sepals.
phototropic. 121. Answer (2)
106. Answer (3) Parenchyma is the tissue forming the major
Cactus exemplifies phylloclade; which is an aerial component within various organs of the plants.
modification. 122. Answer (2)
107. Answer (1) Lenticel is formed during secondary growth.
Free central placentation is found in Primrose. 123. Answer (3)
108. Answer (3) Apical meristem is a primary meristem, so it does
not increase the girth of stems.
Pitcher or ‘pot shaped’ structure is modified lamina
of leaf. 124. Answer (4)
109. Answer (1) Sclerenchyma is present in monocots.
% is used to denote zygomorphic flower in floral 125. Answer (3)
formula. Trichomes prevent transpiration.
110. Answer (4) 126. Answer (2)
Perisperm is remains of nucellus persistent in Coconut is a drupe fruit with fibrous mesocarp.
some seeds. Apple and pear are false fruit.
111. Answer (2) Mango is a fleshy fruit.
In monocot seeds, plumule and radicle are 127. Answer (3)
enclosed in coleoptile and coleorhiza respectively.
Collenchyma is an elastic, living mechanical
112. Answer (1) tissue present in growing parts of the plant such
Marginal placentation is seen in pea and parietal as young stem and petiole of a leaf.
placentation is seen in mustard and Argemone. 128. Answer (3)
113. Answer (3) Vessel is long tube-like structure made up of many
Xylem, phloem, pith and pericycle constitute stele. cells. Tracheids have tapering ends.
114. Answer (3) 129. Answer (3)
Aleurone layer is proteinaceous outer covering of Interfascicular cambium is a secondary meristem
endosperm. and dedifferentiated tissue.
115. Answer (1) 130. Answer (3)
Calyx in Fabaceae family show gamosepalous The first formed primary xylem is called
condition, that is fused sepals. protoxylem and its vessels are dead at maturity.
116. Answer (2) 131. Answer (1)
Upper or adaxial epidermis contains bulliform Endarch xylem is found in stems while exarch
cells. xylem is found in roots.

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Test-2 (Code-B)_(Answers & Solutions) Final Test Series for NEET-2023

132. Answer (3) 142. Answer (4)

Phloem parenchyma is absent in most of the Endodermis of roots differs from epidermis of
monocots. roots in having casparian strips.
133. Answer (4) 143. Answer (1)
Intercalary meristem is primary meristem which Vascular bundles in dicot leaves are conjoint and
adds the length to stem. closed.
134. Answer (3) They are different in size due to reticulate
The albuminous cells occur in the gymnosperms venation.
in place of albuminous cells. 144. Answer (3)
135. Answer (3) In cymose inflorescence, floral axis always
Many vessel elements are fused to form the terminates with a flower thus, length of floral axis
vessel. is limited.
SECTION - B Younger flowers are present towards the base.
136. Answer (4) 145. Answer (2)
Dicot roots usually have two to four xylem patches Neem shows pinnately compound leaves while
while monocot roots have polyarch condition. palmately compound leaves are seen in silk
137. Answer (2) cotton.
Endodermis has casparian strips that are 146. Answer (2)
impervious to water. Variation in length of filaments in a flower is seen
138. Answer (3) in mustard, Salvia etc.
Sclerenchymatous hypodermis, scattered 147. Answer (1)
vascular bundles and water containing cavities in ⊕ or is the correct floral
vascular bundles are features of monocot stem. formula of Brassicaceae family.
Conjoint, collateral and open vascular bundles are 148. Answer (1)
present in dicot stem. Its cortex has three sub- Indigofera and Trifolium belong to Fabaceae
zones, hypodermis, cortical layer and family.
endodermis.
149. Answer (2)
139. Answer (4)
When all the four whorls are present in a flower,
Pith is large and well developed in monocot root. then it is a complete flower.
140. Answer (1) 150. Answer (3)
Tracheids are found in all vascular plants. Flower of chilli is radially symmetrical. It can be
141. Answer (4)
divided into two equal halves by more than one
Cells of pericycle layer give rise to lateral roots in
dicots. vertical plane passing through its centre.

ZOOLOGY
SECTION - A 154. Answer (3)
151. Answer (1) Compound epithelium is found in dry surface of
The tunica intima of blood vessels is constituted skin, moist surface of buccal cavity, inner lining of
by simple squamous epithelium called ducts of salivary glands and pharynx.
endothelium. 155. Answer (4)
152. Answer (4) Elastic cartilage constitutes pinna of ear, epiglottis
Dried and burnt tissue when subjected to high and eustachian tube. Its matrix is considerably
temperature, the organic structures are damaged pliable.
and it produces ash. Ash mainly consists of 156. Answer (2)
inorganic elements (Ca2+, Mg2+ etc.).
Adenine forms two hydrogen bonds with thymine
153. Answer (2)
or uracil.
The acid soluble pool roughly represents the
157. Answer (3)
cytoplasmic composition. They are monomeric
compounds soluble in polar solvents. Blood does not contain fibres.

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Final Test Series for NEET-2023 Test-2 (Code-B)_(Answers & Solutions)

158 Answer (4) 169. Answer (2)

PCT possesses microvilli which facilitate Second option is incorrect because nervous
reabsorption of useful substances through it. system of cockroach consists of a series of fused,
159. Answer (3) segmentally arranged ganglia joined by paired
Aromatic amino acids possess an aromatic ring. longitudinal connectives on the ventral side. Three
Cytosine is a nitrogenous base. ganglia lie in the thorax, and six in the abdomen.
The nervous system of cockroach is spread
160. Answer (3)
throughout the body.
Tight junction stops substances from leaking
170. Answer (4)
across tissues while gap junctions allow inter-
cellular communication and rapid transfer of ions. Cholesterol is a derived lipid and lipids are not
161. Answer (3) polymeric structures.

Glycerol is trihydroxypropane. In fats, glycerol is 171. Answer (2)

found esterified with fatty acids. They can be The Watson and Crick model suggests a
monoglycerides, diglycerides and triglycerides. secondary structure of DNA that exists as a
162. Answer (1) double helix and the two strands of
Inulin is a homopolymer of fructose and is used to polynucleotides are anti-parallel to each other.
determine the glomerular filtration rate. 172. Answer (3)
163. Answer (1) Each eye consists of about 2000 hexagonal
Head is triangular in shape and lies anteriorly at ommatidia (sing.: ommatidium). With the help of
right angle to the longitudinal body axis. It is several ommatidia, a cockroach can receive
formed by the fusion of six segments and shows several images of an object.
great mobility in all directions due to flexible neck. 173. Answer (3)
164. Answer (3) Hypopharynx act as a tongue.
Proteins are heteropolymers.
174. Answer (3)
165 Answer (4)
Neuroglial cells are not excitable, they are
Palmitic acid has 16 C, including the carboxyl supporting cells.
carbon.
175. Answer (2)
166. Answer (2)
The male external genitalia are represented by
Blood vascular system of cockroach is an open
male gonapophysis or phallomere (chitinous
type. Blood vessels are poorly developed and
asymmetrical structures, surrounding the male
open into space (haemocoel).
gonopore).
The respiratory system consists of a network of
trachea, that open through 10 pairs of small holes 176. Answer (1)
called spiracles present on the lateral side of the In female cockroach, each ovary is made up of 8
body. Thin branching tubes (tracheal tubes ovarioles.
subdivided into tracheoles) carry oxygen from the 177. Answer (3)
air to all the parts.
The y-axis represents the potential energy
167. Answer (2)
content. The x-axis represents the progression of
Lipids make up about 2 per cent of total cellular the structural transformation or states through the
mass. ‘transition state’. If ‘P’ is at a lower level than ‘S’,
168. Answer (3) the reaction is an exothermic reaction. One need
GLUT-4 facilitates transport of glucose in intestinal not supply energy (by heating) in order to form the
mucosa. product.
Collagen is intercellular ground substance. 178. Answer (4)
Insulin is a hormone. Tongue is a muscular organ covered by
Antibody fights against infectious agents. epithelium.

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Test-2 (Code-B)_(Answers & Solutions) Final Test Series for NEET-2023

179. Answer (1) 189. Answer (4)

Adult human haemoglobin consists of 4 subunits. Starch forms helical secondary structures. In fact,
Two of these are identical to each other. Hence, starch can hold I2 molecules in the helical portion.
two subunits of α type and two subunits of β type The starch-I2 is blue in colour. Cellulose does not
together constitute the human haemoglobin (Hb). contain complex helices and hence cannot hold I2.
180. Answer (1) 190. Answer (1)
Squamous epithelium forms diffusion boundaries, Areolar tissue is loose connective tissue and is the
while protection is the function of compound most abundant of all connective tissues. It is not a
epithelium. Cube-like cells are present in cuboidal specialised connective tissue.
epithelium.
191. Answer (4)
181. Answer (2)
Sucrose is a disaccharide, composed of glucose
There are two hydrogen bonds between A and T
and fructose as its monomeric units.
and three hydrogen bonds between G and C.
Adenine and guanine are purines. 192. Answer (3)
182. Answer (3) Rate of a physical or chemical process refers to
Fallopian tubes and most of the bronchioles are the amount of product formed per unit time. It can
lined by ciliated epithelium. be expressed as:

183. Answer (4) δP

rate =
δt
Ricin and abrin are toxins. Spices, scents and
gums are useful to humans. Rate can also be called velocity if the direction is
184. Answer (2) specified. Rates of physical and chemical
processes are influenced by temperature among
Amino acids, simple sugars etc are micro other factors.
molecules. They generally have lesser molecular
weight. 193. Answer (3)

185. Answer (2) Every enzyme has an active site to which

substrate binds.
Serine is an amino acid to form proteins but not
secreted in our body. 194. Answer (3)
SECTION - B Dry weight is obtained when all the water of the
186. Answer (3) tissue has evaporated.

In a nucleic acid, a phosphate moiety links the 3′- 195. Answer (2)
carbon of one sugar of one nucleotide to the 5′-
B. First, the substrate binds to the active site of
carbon of the sugar of the succeeding nucleotide.
the enzyme, fitting into the active site.
The bond between the phosphate and hydroxyl
group of sugar is an ester bond. A. The binding of the substrate induces the
enzyme to alter its shape, fitting more tightly
187. Answer (2)
around the substrate.
Neural tissue exerts the greatest control over the
body’s responsiveness to changing conditions. D. The active site of the enzyme, now in close
Neurons, the unit of neural system are excitable proximity of the substrate breaks the chemical
cells. bonds of the substrate and the new enzyme-
product complex is formed.
188. Answer (2)
C. The enzyme releases the products of the
Lipids are generally water insoluble. Acid insoluble reaction and the free enzyme is ready to bind
pool consists of proteins, nucleic acids, to another molecule of the substrate and run
polysaccharides and lipids. through the catalytic cycle once again.

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Final Test Series for NEET-2023 Test-2 (Code-B)_(Answers & Solutions)

196. Answer (4) 198. Answer (2)

Due to its close structural similarity with the
substrate, the inhibitor competes with the
substrate for the substrate binding site of the
enzyme. Consequently, the substrate cannot bind
and as a result, the enzyme action declines, e.g.,
inhibition of succinic dehydrogenase by malonate
which closely resembles the substrate succinate
in structure.
199. Answer (3)
Enzymes catalysing a transfer of a group, G (other
197. Answer (2)
than hydrogen) between a pair of substrate S and
With the increase in substrate concentration, the S’ e.g., S – G + S′ → S + S′ - G.
velocity of the enzymatic reaction rises at first. The
200. Answer (3)
reaction ultimately reaches a maximum velocity
(Vmax) which is not exceeded by any further rise in Enzymes are composed of one or several
concentration of the substrate. This is because the polypeptide chains. However, there are a number
enzyme molecules are fewer than the substrate of cases in which non-protein constituents called
molecules and after saturation of these molecules, co-factors are bound to the enzyme to make the
there are no free enzyme molecules to bind with enzyme catalytically active. Protein part of
the additional substrate molecules. holoenzyme is known as apoenzyme.

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