Important question for question bank

Electricity chapter
1.Study the following electric circuit and find (i) the current flowing in the circuit and (ii)
the potential difference across 10 Ω resistor.

2.Find the current drawn from the battery by the network of four resistors Shown in the
figure.

3.Draw a labelled circuit diagram showing three resistors R1, R2 and R3 connected in
series with a battery (E), a rheostat (Rh), a plug key (K) and an ammeter (A) using
standard circuit symbol. Use this circuit to show that the same current flows through
every part of the circuit. List two precautions you would observe while performing the
experiment.
4.The figure below shows three cylindrical copper conductors along with their face areas
and lengths. Discuss in which geometrical shape the resistance will be highest.

5.Draw a schematic diagrams of an electric circuit comprising of 3 cells and an electric

bulb, ammeter, plug-key in the ON mode and another with same components but with
two bulbs in parallel and a voltmeter across the combination.
6.Out of the two wires X and Y shown below, which one has greater resistance? Justify
your answer.

Acid bases salt

1. The acid used in making of vinegar is –

(1) Formic acid (2) Acetic acid (3) Sulphuric acid (4) Nitric acid
2. Common name of H2SO4 is-
(1) Oil of vitriol (2) Muriatic acid (3) Blue vitriol (4) Green
vitriol
3. CuO + (X) → CuSO4 + H2O. Here (X) is-

(1) CuSO4 (2) HCI (3) H2SO4 (4) HNO3

4. Which of the following is the weakest base?
(1) NaOH (2) NH4OH (3) KOH (4) Ca(OH)2
5. Reaction of an acid with a base is known as-
(1) decomposition (2) combination

(3) redox action (4) Neutralization

6. pH of Blood is-
(1) 6.4 (2) 7.4 (3) 4.7
(4) 6.4
7. If ph of solution is 13, means that it is-
(1) weakly acidic (2) weakly basic
(3) strongly acidic (4) strongly basic
8. Which is a base and not an alkali?
(1) NaOH (2) KOH
(3) Fe(OH)3 (4) None is true
9. Energy released in neutralization reaction which occurs between strong acid and strong
base is-
(1)57.8 KJ (2) 57.1 kJ
(3) 13.6 KJ (4) 27.2KJ
10. On dilution, the pH value of base

(1) decreases (2) increases

(3) remain same (4) none of these
11. The chemical name of marble is –
(1) calcium carbonate (2) Magnesium carbonate
(3) calcium chloride (4) calcium sulphate
12. Washing soda has the formula –

(1) Na2CO3.7H2O (2) Na2CO3.10H2O

(3) Na2CO3.H2O (4) Na2CO3

13. The raw materials required for the manufacture of NaHCO3 by Solvay process are –
(1) CaCI2, (NH4)2CO3, NH3 (2) NH4Cl,NaCI,Ca(OH)2
(3) NaCI ,(NH4)2CO3,NH3 (4) NaCl,NH3,CaCO3,H2 O
14. Plaster of Paris hardens by-
(1) giving off CO2 (2) changing into CaCO3
(3) combining with water (4) giving out water.
15. The difference in number of water molecules in gypsum and plaster of Paris is-
(1) 5/2 (2) 2 (3) ½ (4) 3/2

16. What product will form on decomposition of sodium bicarbonate-

(1) Sodium carbonate(2) Carbon dioxide (3) water (4) All of the above

17. Carbon dioxide when dissolve in lime water, lime water turns milky. It is due to-
(1) Formation of Ca(OH)2

(2) Formation of CaO

(3) Formation of CO2
(4) Formation of CaCO3
18. In a chemical reaction
P4 + NaOH ⟶ PH3 + NaH2PO2

Which of the following is oxidising and reducing agent respectively-

(1) P4 ,NaOH(2) PH3 , NaOH(3) PH3 , P4 (4) P4 , P4

19. What product will be formed when Cu mix in ZnSO4 solution-

(1) CaSO4 (2) H2(3) O2 (4) No reaction found

20. What happen when Aluminium react with dilH2SO4 -

(1) H2 gas liberated
(2) Salt formed
(3) SO2 gas liberated

(4) 1 and 2 only

21. Which of the following is an organic acid
(1) H2SO4 (2) H3PO4 (3) HCOOH (4)HCI
22. What product formed when magnesium burn in air at high temperature
(1) MgO, Mg3N2, MgCO3
(2) MgO, MgCO3
(3) MgCl2 MgO
(4) Only MgO
23. Copper sulphate is
(1) Acidic Salt(2) Weak Salt

(3) Basic Salt(4) Neutral Salt

24. How many electron aluminium loss during formation of AlCl3-
(1) 1(2) 2
(3) 3(4) 4
25. What product will be formed on electrolysis of brine Solution-
(1) NaOH(2) Cl2 (3) H2(4) All of the above

26. Which gas evolve when iron react with dil hydrochloric acid-
(1) NO2(2) Cl2 (3) H2 (4) 1 & 3

27. Calcium chloride conduct electricity in-

(1) Fused State (2) Solid state

(3) Both 1 & 2(4) None

28. Which of the following grouping consist only basic Oxide-

(1) CO2
(2) CO2 NO2 Al2O3
(3) CaO,MgO, Na2O
(4) NO2 HO SIO2

In metal nonmetal
10th – HMT
CHEMISTRY : METAL & NON-METAL

Q-1 Zn + xHCI ZnCI2 + Z,

In above equation Z &x are
(1) H2, 2 (2) CI2, 1 (3) H2, 3 (4) H2, 4
Q-2 When sodium reacts with cold water, then the product formed will be-
(1) Na2O (2) NaOH (3) Na2CO3 (4) All of these
Q-3 Zn + H2O (Steam)  A + B
In the above equation (A) and (B) are
(1) Zn & H2 (2) ZnH2& O2 (3) ZnO2& O2 (4) ZnO& H2
Q-4 Ionic bond is formed between -
(1) two electropositive elements.
(2) two electronegative elements.
(3) Electropositive & electronegative elements.
(4) None of these
Q-5 During formation of ionic bond -
(1) there is force of repulsion between two negative ions.
(2) there is force of repulsion between two positive ions.
(3) there is force of attraction between positive & negative ions.
(4) none of these.
Q-6 Ionic compounds conduct electricity in-
(1) solid state (2) fused state.
(3) gaseous state. (4) Do not conduct electricity at all.
Q-7 Which of the following is/are oxide ore(s) ?
(1) Bauxite (2) Cuprite (3) Haematite (4) All of these
Q-8 Horn silver is a/an -
(1) sulphate ore (2) halide ore (3) sulphide ore (4) oxide ore
Q-9 Carnallite is -
(1) Al2O3 (2) CaSO4.2H2O
(3) KCI. MgCI2. 6H2O (4) Na3AlF6
Q-10 Match column A with column B and select the correct option -
Column A Column B
(Ore) (Nature of ore)
(a) Copper glance (i) Sulpahte ore
(b) Calamine (ii) Halide ore
(c) Rock salt (iii) Sulphide ore
(d) Epsom salt (iv) Carbonate ore

(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (2) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i)
(3) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) (4) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii)
Q-11 Removal of impurities from ore is known as -
(1) crushing and grinding (2) concentration of ore
(3) minerals (4) gangue
Q-12 Forth floatation method is used for the concentration of -
(1) oxide ores (2) sulphide ores (3) sulphate ores (4) halide ores
Q-13 Heating of concentrated ore in absence of air for conversion in oxide ore in known as -
(1) roasting (2) calcination (3) reduction (4) none of these
Q-14 Which reducing agent is used in chemical reduction ?
(1) C (2) CO (3) AI (4) All of these
Q-15 In thermite process reducing agent is -
(1) C (2) CI (3) AI (4) None of these
In biology part
CHAPTER – 6 LIFE PROCESSES
1. Some diagram based questions can be added chapterwise .
1- Draw a diagram of human excretory system and label kidneys, ureters ,urinary
bladder and urethra.

2-(a) Name the site of exchange of material between the blood and surrounding cells.
(b) Draw a schematic representation of transport and exchange of oxygen and carbon
dioxide in human body.

3 (a) Draw a diagram to show open stomatal pore and label on it:
(i) guard cells
(ii) chloroplast
(b) State two functions of stomata.
(c) How do guard cells regulate the opening and closing of stomatal pore?

4. Draw the structure of a nephron and label the following on it:

Glomerulus, Bowman’s capsule, Renal artery, Collecting duct.
(b) What happens to glucose that enters the nephron along with filtrate?

5. In the diagram label A B C D E F G H I J parts.

 CHAPTER – 8 HOW DO ORGANISMS REPRODUCE ?
6. In the diagram label the following : ovary , egg cell, pollen tube ,stigma ,style,
pollen grain.

7.Label 1 to 5 given in diagram .

CHAPTER- 15OUR ENVIRONMENT

8. Write the appropriate names of trophic levels Z and X in the figure

2 consumer
II

Producer
Answer of electricity
1.(i)0.1A
(ii)1 V
2.0.4A
3.Diagram

4.(i)R1=R
(ii)R2=4R
(iii)R3=R/4
5.Diagram

6.Y, because resistance is directly proportional to the length of wire

Answer of acid base and salt
1.2
2.1
3.3
4.2
5.4
6.2
7.4
8.3
9.3
10.1
11.1
12.2
13.4
14.3
15.4
16.4
17.4
18.4
19.4
20.4
21.3
22.1
23.1
24.3
25.4
26.3
27.3
28.3
Answer of metal and nonmetal
1.1
2.2
3.4
4.3
5.3
6.2
7.4
8.2
 9.3
10.3
11.2
12.2
13.2
14.4
15.3

BIOLOGY

1. Answer.

2. Answer.Site - Capillaries
3. Answer.(a)

(b) Two functions of stomata are:

(i) Exchange of gases between the plant and the atmosphere takes place through stomata.
(ii)Transpiration in plants takes place through stomata.
(c) Opening and Closing of Stomatal Pore: The opening and closing of the pore is a function
of the guard cells. The guard cells swell when water flows into them causing the stomatal
pore to open. Similarly, the pore closes if the guard cells shrink. As large amount of water is
lost through these stomata, the plant closes these pores when it does not require carbon
dioxide for photosynthesis.

4.Answer.(a)

(b) During excretion in human beings, glucose which enters the nephron along with filtrate gets
reabsorbed by blood capillaries surrounding the nephron.
Answr 5
 Answer 6

Ans7: 1- fallopian tube, 2 – ovary, 3- uterus , 4-cervics , 5- vagina

Ans8 . X – Primary consumer
Z - Tertiary consumer
 Chapter 1 Chemical reactions and equations

Short answer type

1. Is it correct to say that decomposition of vegetable matter into

compost is an example of an exothermic reaction?
2. In the refining of silver, the recovery of silver from silver nitrate
solution involved displacement by copper metal. Write down the
balanced chemical equation for the reaction involved.
3. A shiny brown coloured element 'X' on heating in air becomes black
in colour. Name the element and the black coloured compound
formed.
4. A solution a substance ‘X’ is used for white washing. Name the
substance ‘X’ and write its formula.
5. What is the colour of hydrated Copper Sulphate crystals?
6. Name the type of reaction in which two or more substances combine
to form one product.
7. Limestone is heated to form quicklime and carbon dioxide. Which
type of chemical reaction is this?
8. Name the law which is kept in mind while we balance a chemical
reaction.
9. Write chemical formula and chemical name of slaked lime.
10. Why magnesium ribbon is cleaned before burning in air?
11. Name the gas which evolves when dilute Hydrochloric acid is added
to Zinc granules.
12. Name the type of reaction in which energy is released along with the
formation of products.
13. Which gas evolves at anode during electrolysis of water?
14. In the following reaction

Fe2O3 + 2Al ----------------- > Al2 O3 + 2 Fe

a. Aluminum is getting reduced.

b. Iron is getting oxidized.
c. Iron oxide is getting oxidized.
d. Aluminum is getting oxidized.
15. ZnCO3 (S) ------------------- > ZnO (s) ++ CO2 (g) Which of the
following statement is true for the above reaction
 a. It is an example of oxidation reaction.
b. It is an example of decomposition reaction.
c. In this reaction ZnCO3 is getting oxidized.
d. It is an unbalanced equation.
16. A white salt upon heating decomposes to give brown fumes
and a residue is left behind. The salt is
a. Copper Sulphate
b. Lead oxide
c. Lead nitrate
d. Aluminium Sulphate
17. Which of the following is an example of chemical change?
a. Dissolution of salt in water.
b. Melting of wax.
c. Boiling of water to form water vapours.
d. Combustion of Liquefied Petroleum Gas (LPG)
18. Identify the correct statement/ statements
i. Oxidation is gain of oxygen.
ii. Reduction is loss of oxygen.
iii. Oxidation is loss of oxygen.
iv. Reduction is gain of hydrogen

Now choose the correct option

a. i only
b. ii only
c. i, ii and iv
d. ii and iv

19. What happens when dilute hydrochloric acid is added to iron

filings ? Choose the correct answer.
a. Hydrogen gas and iron chloride are produced
b. Chlorine gas and iron hydroxide are produced
c. No reaction takes place
d. Iron salt and water are produced.
20. Ba Cl2 (aq) + Na2SO4 (aq) -----------> BaSO4(s) + 2
NaCl (aq)

Barium Chloride Sodium Sulphate Barium Sulphate

Sodium Chloride
Above reaction is an example of

a. Precipitation reaction.
b. Combination reaction.
c. Double displacement reaction.
d. Both a and c

21. On heating blue coloured powder of copper (II) nitrate in a

boiling tube, copper oxide (black ) oxygen gas and a brown gas X is
formed. The brown gas X evolved is
a. Oxygen
b. Nitrogen dioxide
c. Copper oxide
d. Sulphur dioxide
22. Which of the following chemical equation is unbalanced?
a. 2 Fe + 3 H2 O ------------------------- > Fe2 O3 + 3H2
b. N2 + H 2 ----------------------- > 2 NH3
c. CH4 + 2O2 -------------------------- > CO2 + 2H2O
d. 2 KClO3 --------------------------- > 2KCl + 3O2
23. Rusting of iron and respiration :
a. Both are endothermic
b. Both are exothermic
c. Rusting is endothermic, respiration is exothermic
d. Rusting is exothermic, respiration is endothermic
24. When magnesium ribbon is burnt in air and the ash is collected in a
china dish. It contains:
a. Magnesium oxide only
b. Magnesium nitride only
c. Magnesium oxide and Magnesium carbide
d. Both magnesium oxide and Magnesium nitride
25. A student took solid quicklime in a china dish and added a
small amount of water. He heard
a. popping sound
b. a crackling sound
c. a hissing sound
d. no sound at all
26. On heating ferrous sulphate crystals, one would get
a. sweet smell
b. rotten egg smell
 c. irritating choking smell
d. none of the above
27. Hydrated ferrous sulphate is commonly known as
a. blue vitriol
b. green vitriol
c. yellow vitriol
d. brown vitriol
28. On passing limited C02 gas through the product formed by the
reaction between CaO and H20, solution becomes
a. red
b. pink
c. black
d. white.
29. On heating ferrous sulphate in a test tube it undergoes
a. combination reaction
b. decomposition reaction
c. displacement reaction
d. double displacement reaction
30. An iron nail is placed in a solution of copper sulphate. The nail
is taken out after 10 minutes. The nail will be found to be covered
with
a. brown deposit
b. black deposit
c. white deposit
d. yellow deposit

Assertion reason type

The questions given below consist of an assertion and the reason. Use the
following key to choose the appropriate answer.
(a) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct and the Reason is the
correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) The Assertion and the Reason are correct but the Reason is not the
correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but the Reason is false.
(d) The statement of the Assertion is false but the Reason is true.

31. Assertion: During electrolysis of acidified water the volume of gas

collected in the negative electrode (cathode) is double the volume of
the gas collected on the positive electrode (anode).
 Reason: Acidified water undergoes electrolysis producing H2 and O2
gases in the ration of 2: 1by volume.
32. Assertion: Oxidation reaction is just opposite of the reduction
reaction.
Reason: Oxidation may be defined as a chemical reaction which
involves the addition of oxygen while reduction may be defined as
the removal of oxygen from a substance.
33. ASSERTION: Combustion reactions are also called exothermic
oxidation reactions
REASON: In combustion reactions heat energy is absorbed.

34. ASSERTION: Colour of copper sulphate does not change when

an iron nail is kept in
REASON: Iron is more reactive than copper and displaces iron from
its salt solution.
35. ASSERTION: White silver chloride turns grey in the presence
of sunlight. REASON: In the presence of the sunlight, silver chloride
decomposes into silver metal and chlorine gas.
36. ASSERTION: Calcium carbonate on heating breaks into
Calcium Oxide and Carbon dioxide gas.
REASON: Calcium carbonate is a base.
37. ASSERTION: Rusting of iron is a chemical change.
REASON: The chemical properties of hydrated iron oxide are
different from iron and oxygen.
38. ASSERTION: The chemical reaction during which hydrogen is
lost is called as reduction reaction.
REASON: Reducing agent removes hydrogen.
39. ASSERTION: Nitrogen is flushed in potato chip packets to
preserve acidity of potato chips
REASON: Nitrogen prevents contact of chips to air and thus prevents
oxidation
40. Assertion: Iron is protected from rusting by covering it with a layer
of Zinc metal. Zinc corrodes itself but saves the object.
Reason: Zinc metal is more reaction then iron.
41. Burning of natural gas is an exothermic reaction. True / False
42. The black coating developed on silver articles is of Silver
Sulphide. True/ False
43. Decomposition of ferrous Sulphate into ferric oxide, and oxides
of sulphur is electrolytic decomposition. True/ False
44. White silver Chloride turns green in sunlight. True / false
45. Calcium Oxide is also known as quick lime. True / False
46. Antioxidants help to prevent rusting of Iron. True / false
47. Precipitation reactions produce insoluble salts. True / false
48. The reaction 2K + Cl2 ---------- > 2KCl is an example of
combination reaction. True/ False
49. Photosynthesis is an endothermic reaction. True/ False
50. Zinc and lead are more reactive elements than copper. True/ false
51. Match the type of reaction given in column A with examples given
in column B
Column A Column B
Decomposition reaction Ba Cl2 + Na2SO4 ---------> BaSO4 +
2 NaCl
Double displacement N2 + H 2 ----------- > 2
reaction NH3
Redox reaction CuO +H2 -----> Cu +H2O
Combination reaction 2 KClO3 ---------- > 2KCl +
3O2
 Chapter 2 Acids, bases and salts
Short answer type
1. What happens when sodium carbonate solution is added to dilute
hydrochloric acid?(Write balanced chemical equation only)
2. When in copper oxide dilute HCl is added the solutions blue-green.
Why?
3. What is the pH of pure water at 25 C (298K)?
4. What according to you should be the pH of dil. HCl and dil. NaOH
solutions?
5. On opening the soda water bottle the dissolved CO2 comes out. Would
the pH of the solution increase or decrease as the gas comes out?
Explain your answer either way.
A solution ‘X’ gives orange colour when a drop of universal indicator
is added to it. On the other hand, another solution ‘Y’ gives bluish-
green colour when a drop of universal indicator is added to it.What
are the types of solution ‘X’ and ‘Y’ and what type of pH would they
have?
6. Hydrochloric acid is a strong acid while acetic acid is a weak acid.
Why?
7. What is an acid-base indicator?
8. Give any two examples of synthetic indicators.
9. Five solutions P, Q, R, S and T when tested with universal indicator
showed pH of 13, 8, 1, 7 and 5 respectively. Arrange the pH in the
increasing order of hydrogen ion concentration.

Multiple Choice questions

10. On putting a few drops of an unknown liquid on the pH strip ,

the colour of pH strip changed to violet. The liquid taken is likely to
be
a. dilute hydrochloric acid
b. dilute sodium hydroxide
c. water
d. dilute acetic acid.
11. Bottle ‘A’ contains oxalic acid and bottle ‘B’ contains sodium
carbonate solution. When pH paper is dipped in each of the solutions,
the colour seen in ‘A’ and ‘B’ respectively be
a. orange, blue
b. blue, orange
c. green, blue
d. orange, green
12. Solid Sodium bicarbonate was placed on a strip of pH paper.
The colour of the strip turned blue didn’t change turned green and
then yellow turned light pink
13. A student adds a few drops of universal Indicator to a solution
of hydrochloric acid taken in a test tube. He would observe that the
solution changes from Colourless to blue Colourless to violet green
to red colourless to red
14. A fruit juice is tested for its pH value .What would be the
possible pH if the colour changes to yellow less than 3.5 more than
7.5 between 6.5-7.5
15. Observe the following figures and choose the correct option.

a. pH of I is greater than II and IV

b. pH of I is less than III and IV
c. pH of IV is less than I,II,III.
d. pH of the IV is the higher.
16. Four students studied reaction of zinc and sodium carbonate
with dilute HCl and dilute NaOH solution and presented their results
as follows The (√) represents evolution of gas whereas x represents
no reaction.

The right set of observations is that of students

a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
17. A metal powder was added to dilute HCl and dilute NaOH taken
in separate test tubes. On mixing, the contents react in both the test
 tubes .Hydrogen gas was formed in both the cases. The metal used
will be
a. Copper
b. Zinc
c. Iron
d. Lead
18. A few drops of liquid X were added to distilled water , it was
observed that the pH of water decreased. The liquid X is
a. Lemon Juice
b. Sugar solution
c. Common salt solution
d. Baking soda solution
19. What is the pH value of pure water?
a. 6
b. 7
c. 0
d. -7
20. The compound also known as blue vitriol is
a. FeSO4.7H2O
b. CaSO4.2H2O
c. CuSO4.5H2O
d. None of the above

Assertion reason type

The questions given below consist of an assertion and the reason. Use
the following key to choose the appropriate answer.
(a) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct and the Reason is
the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) The Assertion and the Reason are correct but the Reason is not
the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but the Reason is false.
(d) The statement of the Assertion is false but the Reason is true.
21. Assertion: Lichen is a plant belonging to the division
Thallophyta. Reason: Litmus solution is a purple dye , which is
extracted from lichens and used as acid base indicator.
22. Assertion: Caustic soda ( NaOH) is basic in nature. Reason:
Caustic soda (NaOH) gives pink colour with Phenolphthalein solution.
23. Assertion: When Dilute Sulphuric acid is added to Zinc
granules, Hydrogen gas bubbles are formed. Reason: Hydrogen is
more reactive than Zinc metal.
24. Assertion: Lime water gives white precipitate when excess of
CO2 is added to it. Reason: Excess CO2 reacts with Lime water to
produce Calcium carbonate.
25. Assertion: Excess acid produced in stomach due to indigestion
can be neutralized by using Milk of magnesia. Reason: Milk of
magnesia contains Magnesium Hydroxide which is a mild acid.
26. Assertion: The strength of acids depends on the number of H+
ions produced. Reason: Strong acids produce more H+ ions.
27. Assertion: Sodium hydrogen carbonate is an ingredient in
antacids. Reason: Being alkaline, Sodium hydrogen carbonate
neutralizes excess acid in the stomach and provides relief.
28. Assertion: When crystals of Copper Sulphate are heated turns
white. Reason: On heating copper sulphate produce copper oxide
which is white in colour.
True / False
29. Water of crystallization is the fixed number of water molecules
chemically attached to each formula unit of a salt in crystalline form.
30. Neutralization reaction is an exothermic reaction.
31. The strength of a base can be tested by using pH scale.
32. On heating Gypsum at 373 K it loses water of crystallization
and converts into calcium oxide.
33. One of the chemicals used to remove permanent hardness of
water is also known as washing soda.
34. Hydrogen is used to clean water in swimming pools.
35. Our body works within the pH range of 6.5 to 7.9.
36. While diluting a mineral acid, water should be added to acid
without stirring.
37. Acids liberate H+ ions in aqueous solution but bases don’t.
38. Tomatoes contain oxalic acid.
 Chapter 3 Metals and non metals

Very Short answer type

1. Name – the most ductile metal.

2. Name the two metals which are the best conductor of heat.
3. Why electric wires are coated with materials like polyvinylchloride
(PVC) or rubber?
4. Name one metal and non metal which are in liquid state at room
temperature.
5. Name – a non metal with lustrous surface, a soft metal, a non metal
good conductor of electricity, a metal with low melting point.
6. Write balanced chemical reactions only to prove amphoteric nature
of aluminium oxide.
7. Potassium is stored in kerosene. Why?
8. When water is added to calcium, it is observed that after sometime
calcium starts floating on water. Why?
9. Arrange the following metals in increasing order of reactivity-
Magnesium, Aluminium, Zinc, Iron.
10. Write the composition of Aqua regia.

Multiple choice question

11. Bauxite is an ore of

a. Iron
b. Aluminium
c. Mercury
d. Copper

12. The sulphide ores are converted into oxides by heating

strongly in the presence of excess air. This process is known as

a. Roasting
b. combination
c. Calcination
d. Refining

13. In electrolytic refining, the cathode is made up of

a. Pure metal
 b. Impure metal
c. Alloy
d. Metallic salt

14. In the following chemical reaction identify X Al2O3 + NaOH --

---------- > X + H2O

a. NaAlO2
b. Na3Al
c. Na2O3
d. NaAl2O3

15. Which of the following pairs will give displacement reactions?

a. NaCl , Cu
b. MgCl2 ,Al
c. FeSO4 , Ag
d. AgNO3 , Cu

16. Which of the following pairs of reactants will go undergo a

displacement reaction?

a. CuSO4 + Fe
b. ZnSO4 + Fe
c. MgSO4 + Fe
d. Ca(SO4)2 + Fe

17. Which of the following alloys contains a non-metal as one of its

constituents?

a. Steel
b. Brass
c. Amalgam
d. Bronze

18. A mineral is known as ore if

a. metal cannot be produced from

b. it can be produced from metal
c. It can be extracted from it profitably
d. Is very costly

19. The earthy impurities associated with mineral used in

metallurgy are called
 a. mineral
b. waste
c. Gangue
d. Ore

20. An iron nail was suspended in CuSO4 solution and kept for a while
the solution –

a. Remained blue and coating was found on the nail.

b. turned green and a coating was formed on the nail
c. remained blue and no coating was formed on the nail
d. turned green and no coating was formed on the nail

21. Chemically rust is

a. Hydrated ferrous oxide

b. Hydrated ferric oxide
c. only ferric oxide
d. none of these

22. Which of the following method is suitable for preventing an iron fry
pan from rusting?

a. Applying grease
b. applying paint
c. Applying coating of zinc
d. All of the above

Assertion reason type

The questions given below consist of an assertion and the reason. Use the
following key to choose the appropriate answer.
(a) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct and the Reason is the
correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) The Assertion and the Reason are correct but the Reason is not the
correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but the Reason is false.
(d) The statement of the Assertion is false but the Reason is true.

23. Assertion: Gold is alloyed with silver or copper to make

jewellery. Reason: Pure gold is very soft.
24. Assertion: Brass is poor conductor of electricity.
Reason: Brass is a non metal.
25. Assertion: Solder, an alloy of lead and tin is used for welding
electrical wires together.
Reason: Solder being an alloy has low melting point.
26. Assertion: phosphorous is a non metal .
Reason: phosphorous can easily loose electrons to form cation.
27. Assertion: Sodium oxide is acidic in nature.
Reason: Non metals oxides are acidic in nature.
28. Assertion: Food cans are coated with tin and not with zinc.
Reason: Zinc is costlier than tin.
29. Assertion: During electrolysis of molten sodium chloride,
sodium is deposited at the cathode.
Reason: sodium is less reactive metal.
30. Assertion: Sodium chloride has high melting point.
Reason: A considerable amount of energy is enquired to break strong
inter ionic bond between sodium ions and chloride ions.
31. Assertion: Hydrogen gas is not evolved when a metal reacts
with Nitric acid. Reason: Nitric acid being strong oxidizing agent,
oxidizes the hydrogen gas evolved to water and itself reduces to
oxides of nitrogen.
32. Assertion: Anodising protects iron from corrosion.
Reason: Anodized iron article has a layer of aluminium oxide which is
resistance to reaction.

True / False type

33. Sodium chloride is an ionic compound.

34. Electrovalent compounds are solid because of strong
electrostatic force between ions.
35. Magnesium oxide contains covalent bond.
36. The elements or compounds which occur naturally in the
earth’s crust are known as minerals.
37. Highly reactive metals are found in free state in nature.
38. Calcinations is the process of heating ores in absence/limited
supply of air or oxygen.
39. Metals of low reactivity exist in nature as sulphide ores.
40. When zinc oxide is heated with carbon, it reduces to zinc.
41. Thermit reaction is an example of decomposition reaction.
42. Electrolysis can be used to refine metals.
 Chapter 4 Carbon and its compounds

1. Write the name and formula of the 2nd member

of the series of carbon compounds whose general formula is C nH2n +1 OH,

2. Write the name and formula of the 2nd member of homologous

series having general formula CnH2n
3. Select saturated hydrocarbons from the following: C3H6, C5H10 C4H10
C6H14, C2H4. .
4. Write the name and molecular formula of the fourth member of
alkane series.
5. Write the name and formula of the 2nd member of homologous
series having general formula C nH2n - 2
6. Write the name and formula of the 2nd member of homologous
series having general formula Cn H2n+2
7. Name the functional group present in each of the following organic
compounds: (i) C2H5 CI (it) C2H5OH
8. Name the functional group present in each of the following organic
compounds: (i) CH3COCH3 (ii) C2H5COOH Write the name and
formula of the second member of the carbon compounds having
functional group -OH.Ans. CH3 CH2 OH Ethanol
9. Write the name and formula of the first member of the carbon
compounds having functional group -COOH. Draw the structure for
ethanoic acid molecule, CH3COOH.
10. Name one hydrocarbon which undergoes substitution
reaction. Name the functional group present in each of the following
compounds: (i) HCOOH (ii) CH3CHO (iii) CH3 - CH2 —COOH
(Carboxylic acid) (ii) CHO (Aldehyde)
11. A functional group mainly determines the
(a) physical properties (b) chemical properties (c) both (d) none of
these Carbon exists in the atmosphere in the form of (a) carbon
monoxide only (1) carbon monoxide in traces and carbon dioxide (c)
carbon dioxide only (d) coal
12. Which of the following statements are usually correct for
carbon compounds? These (i) are good conductors of electricity (ii)
are poor conductors of electricity (iii) have strong forces of attraction
 between their molecules (iv) do not have strong forces of attraction
between their molecules (a) (i) and (i) (b) (i) and (ii) (c) (i) and (iv)
(d) (i) and (iv)
13. The self linkage property (catenation) is maximum in (a) carbon (C)
sulphur (b) silicon " (d) phosphorus
14. CH3CH2OHCH3COOH ----Alkaline KMnO4 + heat ----- > In the above
given reaction, alkaline KMnO, acts as (a) reducing agent (b) oxidising
agent (c) catalyst (d) dehydrating agent
15. Assertion: Methane is simplest saturated hydrocarbon which is a
major component of natural gas.
Reason: Methane belongs to alkene series. Assertion: Ethanol is present in
alcoholic drinks.
Reason: Ethanol has formula CH,OH.
16. Assertion: Ethanoic acid reacts with ethyl alcohol in presence
of conc H2SO4 to form ethyl ethanoate.
Reason: Esters are used in ice creames and cold drinks.
17. Assertion: Vegetable oils are unsaturated, react with hydrogen
in presence of nickel to form vegetable ghee.
Reason: This reaction is saponification.
18. Assertion: Carbon forms a large number of organic compounds.
Reason : Carbon atom contains 6 valence electrons.
19. Assertion: Soaps are 100% biodegradable but do not work
well with hard water.
Reason: Some detergents are not bio-degradable but work well with hard
water.

20. Assertion: Ethanoic acid liberates hydrogen with Sodium metal.

Reason: More reactive sodium displaces hydrogen from ethanoic
acid.
21. Assertion: During the reaction esterification esters are
produced. Reason: Esters are sweet smelling compounds.
22. Assertion: Soaps are not threat to environment.
Reason : Soaps are biodegradable.
23. Graphite and diamond are ................ of carbon.
24. Carbon burns in oxygen to produce ......... ,heat and light.
25. .............. hydrocarbons will generally give a clean flame.
26. Pentane has ........ structural isomers.
27. Some substances are capable of adding oxygen to others. These
substances are known as ............. .
28. Unsaturated hydrocarbons add hydrogen in the presence of
catalysts such as palladium or nickel to give .............................. .
29. .................... is formed by dehydration of ethanol.
30. Sodium Hydrogen Carbonate can be used to distinguish
between ethanol and ethanoic acid. True/False
31. Detergents are bio- degradable. True/False
32. Esters are sweet smelling compounds and are used in making
perfumes. True/False
33. Butane has three structural isomers. True/False
34. Hydrocarbons are covalent compounds. True/False
35. Unsaturated hydrocarbons decolourises bromine water.
True/False
 Chapter 5 Periodic Classification of Elements

Short Answer type

Read the given text and answer the questions given after the text.

1. When Mendeléev started his work, 63 elements were known. He

examined the relationship between the atomic masses of the
elements and their physical and chemical properties. Among
chemical properties, Mendeléev concentrated on the compounds
formed by elements with oxygen and hydrogen. He selected
hydrogen and oxygen as they are very reactive and formed
compounds with most elements. The formulae of the hydrides and
oxides formed by an element were treated as one of the basic
properties of an element for its classification. He then took 63 cards
and on each card he wrote down the properties of one element. He
sorted out the elements with similar properties and pinned the cards
together on a wall. He observed that most of the elements got a place
in a Periodic Table and were arranged in the order of their increasing
atomic masses. It was also observed that there occurs a periodic
recurrence of elements with similar physical and chemical
properties. On this basis, Mendeléev formulated a Periodic Law,
which states that ‘the properties of elements are the periodic
function of their atomic masses’. Mendeléev’s Periodic Table contains
vertical columns called ‘groups’ and horizontal rows called ‘periods’

a. How many elements were known at the time of Mendeleev?

b. Which two basic chemical properties of elements were selected for
classification by Mendeleev?
c. Write the chemical formulae of oxides of elements belonging to
group I and II of Mendeleev’s periodic table.
d. Write statement of Mendeleev’s periodic law.

2. The valency of an element is determined by the number of valence

electrons present in the outermost shell of its atom. The combining
capacity of the atoms of other elements, that is, their tendency to
react and form molecules with atoms of the same or different
elements, was thus explained as an attempt to attain a fully-filled
outermost shell. For example, hydrogen/lithium/sodium atoms
contain one electron each in their outermost shell, therefore each one
 of them can lose one electron. So, they are said to have valency of
one. If the number of electrons in the outermost shell of an atom is
close to its full capacity, then valency is determined in a different
way. For example, the fluorine atom has 7 electrons in the outermost
shell, and its valency could be 7. But it is easier for fluorine to gain
one electron instead of losing seven electrons. Hence, its valency is
determined by subtracting seven electrons from the octet and this
gives you a valency of one for fluorine.

a. What do you understand by the valency of an element ?

b. What is the valency of magnesium with atomic number 12 and
sulphur with atomic number 16?
c. How does the valency vary in a period on going from left to right?
d. How does the valency vary in going down a group?

Multiple choice Questions

3. How many periods and groups are present in the modern periodic
table?

a) 7 periods and 18 groups

b) 8 periods and 7 groups

c) 7 periods and 7 groups

d) 8 periods and 8 groups

4. Which of the following forms the basis of the modern periodic table?

a) Atomic mass

b) Atomic number

c) Number of nucleons

d) All of these

5. The electronic configuration of an element M is 2, 8, 4. In modern

periodic table, the element M is placed in

a) 4th group

b) 2nd group

c) 14th group

d) 18th group

6. Element X forms a chloride with the formula XCl2, which is a solid with a
high melting point. X would most likely be in the same group of the Periodic
Table as

a) Na

b) Mg

c) Al

d) Si

7. Which of the following elements has 2 shells and both are completely
filled?

a) Helium

b) Neon

c) Calcium
d) Boron

8. The elements A, B and C belong to group 2, 14 and 16 respectively, of the

periodic table. Which of the two elements will form covalent bonds?

a) A and B

b) B and C

c) C and A

d) None of these

9. An element M is in group 13th of the periodic table, the formula for its
oxide is

a) MO

b) M2O3

c) M3O2

d) None of these

10. Upto which element Newland’s law was found applicable.

a) Calcium

b) Aluminium

c) Oxygen

d) Sulphur

11 Oxides of metal are ______ in nature.

a) acidic

b) basic

c)amphoteric

d) None of these

12. The group number and period number respectively of an element with
atomic number 8 is.
 a) 6,2
b) 16,2
c) 6,8
d) 16,4
13. In the third period of the periodic table the element having smallest
size is

a) Na
b) S
c) Cl
d) Si

14. An element with atomic number will form a basic oxide________

a) 7
b) 17
c) 14
d) 11
15. Electronic configuration of Al+3 is

a) 2,8,3
b) 2,8,8
c) 2,8
d) 2,8,8,3

Assertion reason type

16. Assertion: In a period as we move from left to right nature of oxides

gradually changes from basic to acidic.
Reason: On moving left to right in a period non metallic character
increases.
17. Assertion: In modern periodic table non metals are found on top
right hand side. Reason: On moving left
to right in a period electronegativity increases.
18. Assertion: Elements having same number of valence shell are placed
in same group. Reason: In a group
metallic character increases from top towards bottom.
19. Assertion: Calcium belongs to fourth period of modern periodic table.
Reason: Calcium has two valence electrons in its outermost shell.
 20. Assertion: The term atomic size refers to the radius of an atom.
Reason: Atomic size depends on number of protons present in an
atom.
21. Assertion: Lithium and Sodium belong to same group.
Reason: Lithium and sodium both have same atomic number.
22. Assertion: Valency of an element is determined by the number of
valence electrons present in outermost shell of its atom.
Reason: Valence electrons are present in innermost shell of an atom.
23. Assertion: K shell of an atom can accommodate maximum 2
electrons. Reason: K shell is
always the outermost shell of an atom.

True / False type

24. Lithium, Sodium, Potassium constitute Dobereiner’s triad.

25. Law of octaves was given by Mendeleev.
26. Newland’s law of octaves was applicable only up to Calcium.
27. Position of hydrogen is not justified in modern periodic table,
28. Mendeleev’s periodic table was based on increasing order of atomic
number.
29. Isotopes of an element occupy same position in modern periodic
table.
30. Elements present in same group have similar electronic
configuration.
31. Phosphorous and Calcium belong to same period in modern periodic
table.
32. Classification of elements helps in systematic study of elements with
less effort in less time.
33. First period of modern periodic table contains eight elements.
 Chapter 6 Life processes

CHOOSE THE BEST OPTION FROM EACH OF THE FOLLOWING

1. Amoeba shows the following kind of nutrition

a) Autotrophic
b) Holozoic
c) Saprotrophic
d) Parasitic

2. The process by which blood is cleared of metabolic wastes in case of

kidney failure is called a) Artificial kidney
b) Dialysis
c) Transplantation
d) Filtration

3. In Human beings the process of digestion of food begins in

a) Stomach
b) Food Pipe
c) Mouth
d) Small Intestine

4. Which of the following organisms have parasitic mode of nutrition?

a) Penicillium
b) Plasmodium
c) Paramecium
d) Rhizobium

5. During contraction of heart, what prevents backflow of blood?

a) Thin walls of atria
b)Thick muscular walls of ventricles
c) Valves in heart
d) All of the above

6. Trachea do not collapse when there is not much air because they are
a) thick and muscular
b) having cartilaginous rings
c) Have valves
d) supported by larynx.
7.Which one of the following blood vessels contains only deoxygenated
blood? a) pulmonary vein
b) pulmonary artery
c) capillaries
d) Aorta.

8. The filtration units of kidneys are called

a) Ureter
b) Urethra
c) Neurons
d) nephrons.

9. Name the part of alimentary canal receiving bile from the liver.
a) Oesophagus
b) Stomach
c) Small intestine
d) Large intestine

10.Gestric juice contains

a) Pepsin
b) Tripsin
c) Amylase
d) None of these

Fill in the blanks

1. Emulsification of fat is carried out by___________________.

2. _________________are the main sites of photosynthesis in plants.
3. Amoeba takes in food by using finger like_______________.
4. The common products of aerobic respiration are ___________ ,
___________________ and____________.
5. The muscular structure that separates the thorasic cavity and abdominal
cavity_______.
6. Respiratory tube supported by cartilaginous rings_____________.
7. Blood corpuscles which help in blood clotting with the site of injury
are________________.
8. The loss of water in the form of water vapour from the exposed aerial
parts of the plant is called ____________________.
9. ______________________is the respiratory pigment in human.
10 . _______________is called the white vascular connective tissue.
Mark the following statements as true or false

1 .Exchange of gases takes place in leaves through stomata.

2. Amylase acts on starch and glycogen and changes into fatty acid and
glycerol.
3. Fishes respire through their skin.
4. The energy released during cellular respiration is immediately used to
synthesise a molecule called ATP.
5. Osmosis is the net movement of particles of a substance from the reason
of their higher concentration to the region of their lower concentration.
6. The transportation of food occurs through xylem.
7. The chief nitrogenous waste product in human urine is urea.
8. The rate of breathing in aquatic animals is very slow.

Answer the following questions in short.

1. Name the pigment present in plants, which can absorb solar energy.
2. Which of the four chambers of the human heart has the thickest
muscular walls? 3. Name the cartilaginous flap which
closes the glottis to check the entry of food into it during swallowing .
4. Which equipment is used to facilitate breathing during serious breathing
problems? 5. What do you mean by double
circulation of blood?
6.What is the mode of nutrition in fungi and plasmodium?
7.Name excretory organ in amoeba and earthworm.
8. Name the plant tissue through which water and minerals are transported
in plants. 9. What is the role of saliva in
digestion of food? 10.
Name the respiratory organs of- Fish and insect.

Green plants are autotrophs they are capable of trapping solar energy and
converting it into chemical
Energy that is stored as carbohydrates. Photosynthesis is the process by
which green plants prepare their food in the form of carbohydrates using
carbon dioxide and water. Chloroplasts are the
main sites of photosynthesis in plants .Exchange of gases take place in
leaves through stomata .the basic organic compound formed in
photosynthesis is glucose. However the storage product of plants is
commonly starch. The chemical equation for photosynthesis is
6 CO2 + 12 H2O C6 H12 O6 + 6 O2 + 6 H2O
Answer the questions-

11.Photosynthesis in green plants require:

a) Chlorophyll only
b) Light
c) Carbon dioxide and water
d) All of the above
12. What is the final product of photosynthesis?
a) Glucose
b) Fat
c) Vitamin c
d) Lactose
13. The food is stored in green plants in the form of_______________?
14. Where do you think oxygen evolves from- CO2 or water?

Respiration is the process by which living organisms produce energy for

their metabolic activities.Glucose is oxidized into a three Carbon molecule
called Pyruvate in the cell cytoplasm. Pyruvate is broken down by different
ways with the help of oxygen or in absence of oxygen.The following chart
shows the different pathways to provide energy from glucose.

Answer the questions

15. Name the products formed by the oxidation of glucose in the presence
of air.
16. Which of the following is most appropriate for aerobic respiration?
17. Name the product formed by oxidation of glucose in lack of oxygen in
human muscle cells.
18. Conversion of Glucose into alcohol in absence of oxygen by yeast is
known as______________.

Chapter 7 Control and Coordination

1. Junction of two neurons is called.

a) Synapse
b) Synapsis
c) Joint
d) Junction
2.Which of the following is a plant hormone?
a) Insulin
b) Thyroxin
c) Oestrogen
d) Cytokinin
3. Iodine is necessary for the synthesis of
(a) Adrenaline
(b) Thyroxine
(c) Auxin
(d) Insuline
4. Which one of the endocrine glands is known as master gland?
a) Pituitary
b) Adrenal
c) Thyroid
d) Parathyroid
5. The growth of tendrils in pea plants is due to
a) Effect of light
b) Effect of gravity
c) Rapid cell division in tendrillar cells in contact with the support
d) Rapid cell divisions in tendrillar cells that are away from the support.
6. Dwarfism results by
a) Excess secretion of thyroxin
b) Less secretion of growth hormone
c) less secretion of adrenaline
d) Excess secretion of growth hormone.
7.The neurons that carry nerve impulse from spinal cord to effectors are
called –
a) Sensory neurons
b) motor neurons
c) Inteneurons
d) spinal neurons
8. Select the mismatched pair
a) Adrenaline – Pituitary gland
b) Testosterone – Testes
c) Estrogen – Ovary
d) Thyroxin – Thyroid gland.
9. Which one of the following is a nastic movement in plants?
a) Bending of plants towards light
b) Growing of roots towards gravity.
c) Droping of touch – me – not leaflets on touch
d) Movement of pollen tubes towards chemicals. Ans. Drooping of touch me
– no leaflets on touch
10. Which of the following is a plant hormone?
(a) Insulin
(b) Thyroxin
(c) Oestrogen
(d) Cytokinins

Fill in the blanks

1. The _________________is the main thinking part of the brain.

2._________________ is a part of the hind brain responsible for maintaining
posture and balance.
3. Gustatory receptors detect _______________while olfactory receptors
detect____________________.
4. The pathway taken by nerve impulses in a reflex action is called
the_________________________.
5. The function of insulin is to regulate how our body uses and
stores___________________.
6. shoot bends ________________light while root bends____________from it.
7. _______________Induces wilting of leaves in plants.
8. A plant's response to gravity is called______________.
9. In a nerve cell information is acquired at the _________________ trip.
10. Plant responses are regulated by chemical substances
called_________________.

Mark the following statements as true or false

1. Heart is the target organ of the adrenaline hormone.

2. Deficiency of growth hormone in childhood leads to goitre.
3. Iodine is necessary for the thyroid gland to make thyroxine hormone.
4. Cytokinin promote cell division in plants.
5. Auxins help in breaking the dormancy in seeds and buds.
6.The movement of a plant part in response to water is called
thigmotropism.
7. At the end of axon electrical impulse sets off the release of chemical.
8. Shoot bends away from light and roots bend towards light

Answer the following questions in short

1. Write the function of hormone “thyroxine” produced in our body.

2. Name the hormones secreted by pancreas.
3. Name the hormone which promotes plant growth.
4. Name the structural and functional unit of nervous system.
5.Who transmits nerve impulse across the synapse?
6. Which gland secrets digestive enzymes as well as hormones?
7.If we step on something sharp accidently we move our foot away at once
what is this type of response known as?
8. Apart of the hind brain makes possible activities like walking, skating,
riding a bicycle and picking up a pencil.Name this part of the hind brain
9. Name the plant hormone: (a) which inhibits growth and causes wilting of
leaves. (b) which promotes cell division..
10. Name one sex hormone.

Observe the diagram

The reflex arc is the nerve pathway that is followed by reflex action. An
example of the reflex arc is it happens when we accidentally touch
something hot. The change in temperature is detected by the receptor first.
Then electrical impulses are sent to relay neuron which is located in the
spinal cord. Sensory neurons are connected to motor neurons by sensory
neurons. An effector receives electrical impulses through the motor
neuron. A response is produced by the effector.

11. What do you mean by reflex action?

12. Name the neuron that receives stimuli.
13 Give any two examples for reflex action.
14.Name the organ that controls the reflex actions.

ASSERTION (A) and REASON(R)

The following two questions consists of two statements-ASSERTION (A)
and REASON(R),
answer these questions selecting the appropriate option given below
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation for A
b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation for A
c) A is true but R is false
d) A is false but R is true
i) ASSERTION (A): Insulin regulates blood sugar level.
REASON(R): insufficient secretion of insulin will cause diabetes.
ii ASSERTION (A): a nerve impulse is an electrochemical event.
REASON(R): In a nerve impulse there are changes in the resting potential
which spread down the nerve fiber

Chapter 8 Reproduction

1. Pollen grains are produced by

(a)Ovary
(b) Ovule
(c) Corolla
(d) Anther
2. Most common method of reproduction in majority of fungi is :
(a)Spore formation
(b) Budding
(c) Binary fission
(d) Multiple fission.
3. What provides oxygen and nutrition to the developing embryo in the
female body
(a) Fallopian tube
(b) Ovary
(c) Uterus
(d) Placenta
4. Which of the following is caused by Virus
(a) AIDS
(b) Gonorrhoea
(c) Syphilis
(d) All the above.
5. The time period for the development of fetus inside the mother’s body is
called:
(a) Gestation
(b) Ovulation
(c) Menarche
(d) Menopause
6. In vegetative reproduction, the new individuals are genetically
a) Similar
b) Dissimilar
c) Abnormal
d) None of these
7. When an organism breaks into a number of parts and each part develop
into an individual, it is called a) Budding
b) Binary fission
c) Regeneration
d) Spore formation
8. In man, fertilization of ovum takes place in
a) Vagina
b) ovary
c) uterus
d) Fallopian tubes
9. Which part of the flower forms the fruit?
a) Whole flower
b) Only stamens and carpel
c) Only ovary
d) Only carpel.
10.Which of the following is not a part of fem(a) Ovary ale reproductive
system in human beings?
(b) Uterus
(c) Vas deferens
(d) Fallopian tube
Fill in the blanks

1. Multiple fission occurs in______________________.

2. Hydra reproduces by ___________and_______________.
 3. Plants raised by ____________________________can bear flowers and fruits
earlier than those produced from seeds .
4.Simple animals like ________________and _____________________can be cut into
any number of pieces and each piece grows into a complete organism.
5. Vegetatively propagated plants are genetically__________________.
6._______________________fertilization occurs in frogs and fishes.
7. The normal duration of menstrual cycle is ___________________.
8.A multicellular organism starts its life from a _________formed through
sexual reproduction.
9. The testes produce _________________and the ovaries produce
___________________and ________________hormones.
10.The structure which provides vascular connection between foetus and
uterus is called__________________________.
Mark the following statements as true or false
1.The swollen bottom part of a carpel is called stigma.
2. Stamens and carpels are the reproductive part of a flower.
3. The zygote divides to form an embryo outside an ovule.
4.after fertilization, the ovary ripens to form fruit whereas an ovule
matures to form seed.
5. The radical of the seed grows to form shoot.
6. The surgical birth control method carried out in females is called
vasectomy.
7. The sperms get temporary stored in a coil tube called epididymis.
8. Copper T provides protection from sexually transmitted diseases.
Answer the following questions in short
1. Name the plant in which vegetative propagation takes place by leaves..
2.Write scientific term for the following: a) Release of ovum from ovary. b)
Onset of menstrual cycle in a female..
3. Where does fertilization takes place in human female?
4. The simple animals such as planaria can be cut into number of pieces
and each piece grows into a complex organism. What is this process known
as?
5. Name the unicellular organism which caused the disease known as kala-
azar. 6. Which process
taking place in the nucleus of a cell leads to variation in the offspring during
reproduction?
7. Which type of layering is done in Jasmine?
8. Name the male and female gamets in animals.
9.Name any two unisexual flowers.
10 Write the functions of the overy of human female reproductive system.
sexual reproduction, two parents are involved in producing a new
individual. Offspring is produced by the fusion of gametes (sex cells) from
each parent. Animals like dog, cats, humans, etc.all reproduce sexually.
This fundamental process of reproduction is DNA replication. In other
words, if an organism wants to continue its species, then they need to
transfer their traits to the next generation by DNA (genetic information)
copying which occurs during the process of reproduction.
We know asexually reproducing organisms copy their DNA and divide
themselves into new cells which are their clones. Since the process of
replication is not completely reliable, there are chances of variation, but
they are quite limited. Organisms need to adapt themselves to the changing
environment; the creation of variants needs to be hastened for this reason.
This will only happen when there is a union of two different DNAs. This
highlights the significance of Sexual reproduction in organisms
11. Write full form of DNA.
12. In ______________ reproduction two parents are involved in producing
new indivisual.
13. How can an organism continue its species.
14. Describe the significance of Sexual reproduction in organisms.

ASSERTION QUESTIONS: The following questions consists of two

statements-
Assertion (A) and Reason (R).Answer these questions selecting the
appropriate option given below: (a) Both A and R are true and R is correct
explanation for A.
(b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation for A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
i. Assertion: In human beings the female produces two types of gametes.
Reason: Female has two X chromosomes..
ii. Assertion: A bisexual flower produces ova as well as the pollen.
Reason: Ova and pollen are produced in the carpel.
 Chapter 9 Heredity and Evolution
1. Two pea plants one with round green seeds (RRyy) and another with
wrinkled yellow (rrYY) seeds produce F1 progeny having round, yellow
(RrYy) seeds. When F1 plants are selfed, the F2 progeny will have the
following combination of characters
(a) 15:1
(b) 9:3:3:1
(c) 9:3:4
(d) 12:3:1
2.Some dinosaurs had feathers although they could not fly but birds
have feathers that help them to fly. In the context of evolution this
means that-
(a) Reptiles have evolved from birds
(b) There is no evolutionary connection between reptiles and birds
(c) Feathers are homologous structure in both the organisms
(d) Birds have evolved from reptiles
3. The genetic constitution of an organism is called.
(a) Genotype
(b) Phenotype
(c) Variation
(d) Gene.
4. Two coloured flowers on crossing results in 3 red and 1white flower
progeny. The nature of the cross is-
(a) Cross pollination
(b) Self-pollination
(c) Double fertilization
(d) No fertilization
5. A basket of vegetable contains carrot, potato, radish, and tomato.
Which of them represent the correct homologous structure
(a) Carrot and potato
(b) Carrot and tomato
(c) Radish and carrot
(d) Radish and potato
6. Select the group which shares maximum number of common
characters- (a) two genera of two
families
(b) two species of a genus
 (c) two genera of a family
(d) two individuals of a species
7. Two pea plants one with round green seeds (RRyy) and another with
wrinkled yellow (rrYY) seeds produce progeny having round, yellow
(RrYy) seeds. When plants are selfed, the progeny will have the
following combination of characters
(a) 15:1
(b) 9:3:3:1
(c) 9:3:4
(d) 12:3:1.
8.Some dinosaurs had feathers although they could not fly but birds
have feathers that help them to fly. In the context of evolution this
means that-
(a) reptiles have evolved from birds
(b) there is no evolutionary connection between reptiles and birds
(c) feathers are homologous structure in both the organisms
(d) Birds have evolved from reptiles. Ans. (d) Birds have evolved from
reptiles.
9. Which of the following scientist gave the principles of inheritance?
(a) Mendel
(b) Griffin
(c) Johanssen
(d) Watson and Crick
10. Which of the following is not correct-
(a) For every hormone there is a gene.
(b) For every protein there is a gene.
(C) For production of every enzyme there is a gene
(d) For every molecule of fat there is a gene.

Fill in the blanks

1. Exchange of genetic materials takes place in

_________________reproduction.
2.The theory of evolution of species by natural selection was given
by____________________.
3. The number of pair of sex chromosomes in the zygote of humans
is__________________.
 4.A zygote which has an X chromosome inherited from the father will
develop into a ______________
5. Speciation means the origin of new_____________.
6. In mendel's experiment the traits which did not appear in the F1
generation was said______________________.
7. Fore limbs of dog and those of humans are _________________organs.
8. The passing of phenotypic traits to the next generation is
called__________________.
9. A pair of ______________ of every traits is present in every somatic cells
10. Darwin explained _________________with the help of his theory of
natural selection.

Mark the following statements as true or false

1. John Mendel is known as father of genetics.

2 . 44 chromosomes are present in the somatic cell in human .
3.Genes control the inherited characteristics such as hair colour ,skin
colour etc.
4.Variation decreases the chance of survival of an organism in a
changing environment.
5 . No two individuals are absolutely a like in a population.
6. Life originated in the sea water.
7. Organs having same design but different functions are analogous
organ.
8. All variations in a species have equal chance of survival.

Answer the following questions in short

1. What is monohybrid cross?

2. What are autosomes and sex chromosomes?,
3.Which determine the sex of child is called sex chromosome.
4.Who coined the term ‘gene’?
5. What are dominant genes?
6. Write the scientific name of the plant on which Mendel carried out his
experiments. 7. How many autosome are present in human
sperm?
8. Who is called father of genetics?
9. What is the scientific name of human being?
10. What is heredity?
The natural phenomena of transferring traits or characteristics through
genes from both the parent to their offspring are defined as Heredity. It is
the tool for continuity of features from one generation to the next
generations which are observed in all sexual reproduction
and occurs during meiosis cell division and fertilization process.
Gregor Mendel, a German scientist, who is known as the Father of Genetics
conducted many research and several experiments on pea plants to prove
the inheritance of traits. According to his experiments, Laws of Inheritance
can be summarized under the following categories:
 Law of Dominance
 Law of Segregation
 A principle of Independent Assortment

i) Define Heredity.
ii) Who is known as the Father of Genetics?
iii) Name the plant used by Scientist Mendel in his experiments to
work the inheritance of traits
iv) What are Mendel’s three laws of inheritance?

Evolution is generally defined as the changes in the genetic features of the

progeny over successive generations. Charles Robert Darwin, a naturalist,
geologist, biologist, and is best known for his contributions to the science of
evolution. Based on his theories and ideas on Evolution, he is considered as
the father of Evolution. According to Charles Darwin’s theory, evolution
takes place through the process of natural selection.
Charles Darwin, an English biologist, was the first person to describe the
theory of evolution. In his book, On the Origin of Species, he has explained
that all living organisms change their physical and anatomical structure
over a long period of time to adapt to the changing environment. He also
proposed that this change is by natural process and those organisms which
do not adhere to it will eventually go extinct. Hence, he coined the phrase
“Survival of the fittest.”
Evolution helps us to better understand how a new species come into
existence, how it becomes extinct, and various other aspects such as their
habitats and behaviour. It can also be observed that there is an inbuilt
tendency for variation during the reproduction process and these are
mainly caused by the combining of genetic material from two parents and
errors in DNA copying during sexual reproduction.
15. What is evolution?
16.The theory of evolution of species by natural selection was given by
(a) Mendel
(b) Darwin
(c) Lamarck
(d) Weismann
17. The process of evolution of a species whereby characteristics which
help individual organisms to survive and reproduce are passed on to their
offspring and those characteristics which do not help are not passed on is
called
(a) Artificial selection
(b) Speciation
(c) Hybridization
(d) Natural selection
18. What is the cause of variation in organisms.
 Chapter 10 Light : Reflection and Refraction

Short answer type

1. The ability of a lens to converge or diverge light rays depends on its

focal length. For example, a convex lens of short focal length bends
the light rays through large angles, by focussing them closer to the
optical centre. Similarly, concave lens of very short focal length
causes higher divergence than the one with longer focal length. The
degree of convergence or divergence of light rays achieved by a lens
is expressed in terms of its power. The power of a lens is defined as
the reciprocal of its focal length. It is represented by the letter P. The
power P of a lens of focal length f is given by P = 1 / f The SI unit of
power of a lens is ‘dioptre’. It is denoted by the letter D. If f is
expressed in metres, then, power is expressed in dioptres. Thus, 1
dioptre is the power of a lens whose focal length is 1 metre. 1D = 1m–
1. You may note that the power of a convex lens is positive and that of
a concave lens is negative. Opticians prescribe corrective lenses
indicating their powers. Let us say the lens prescribed has power
equal to + 2.0 D. This means the lens prescribed is convex. The focal
length of the lens is + 0.50 m. Similarly, a lens of power – 2.5 D has a
focal length of – 0.40 m. The lens is concave.
a. What do you understand by power of lens?
b. Define 1 dioptre of power of a lens.
c. Find the power of a concave lens of focal length 2 m.
d. A person uses lens having power - 0.5 D. Find the type of lens.

2. Light seems to travel along straight-line paths in a transparent

medium. What happens when light enters from one transparent
medium to another? Does it still move along a straight-line path or
change its direction? We shall recall some of our day-to-day
experiences. Have you seen a pencil partly immersed in water in a
glass tumbler? It appears to be displaced at the interface of air and
water. In this case of the apparent displacement of a pencil, partly
immersed in water. The light reaching you from the portion of the
pencil inside water seems to come from a different direction,
compared to the part above water. This makes the pencil appear to
 be displaced at the interface. Does a pencil appear to be displaced to
the same extent, if instead of water, we use liquids like kerosene or
turpentine? You will find that the extent of the effect is different for
different pair of media. This observation indicate that light does not
travel in the same direction in all media. It appears that when
travelling obliquely from one medium to another, the direction of
propagation of light in the second medium changes. This
phenomenon is known as refraction of light. Refraction is due to
change in the speed of light as it enters from one transparent
medium to another. Experiments show that refraction of light occurs
according to certain laws. The following are the laws of refraction of
light.

(i) The incident ray, the refracted ray and the normal to the interface of two
transparent media at the point of incidence, all lie in the same plane.
(ii) The ratio of sine of angle of incidence to the sine of angle of refraction is a
constant, for the light of a given colour and for the given pair of media. This
law is also known as Snell’s law of refraction.
If i is the angle of incidence and r is the angle of refraction, then,
sin i / sin r = constant
This constant value is called the refractive index of the second medium
with respect to the first.
The refractive index can be linked to an important physical quantity, the
relative speed of propagation of light in different media. It turns out that
light propagates with different speeds in different media. Consider a ray of
light travelling from medium 1(air) into medium 2,
Refractive index of medium = Speed of light in medium air / Speed of light
in medium
=c/v
n = Speed of light in air/Speed of light in the medium
= c/v
a. Define refraction of light.
b. Write Snell’s law of refraction.
c. The refractive index of water is 1.33. What will be the speed of light
in water?
d. You are given three media A, B and C of refractive index 1.33, 1.65
and 1.46. In which medium the light will travel fastest?

3. What is the relation connecting focal length and radius of a spherical

mirror?
4. A concave mirror forms a sharp image of a distant tree. What name is
given to the distance between the concave mirror and screen on
which sharp image is formed?
5. For what position of the object does a concave mirror forms a real
image which is highly enlarged?
6. Size of the image formed on a concave mirror is highly diminished,
state the position of object and image.
7. When object is placed at centre of centre of curvature of concave
mirror, where is the image formed?
8. Which mirror, concave or convex always converges the light rays?
9. In what condition, the image formed by a concave mirror is virtual?
10. Redraw the diagram given below in your answer book and
show the direction of the light ray after reflection from the mirror.

11. For what position of object, a concave mirror forms a real

image equal to size of object?

Multiple choice types

12. An object is placed at a distance of 0.25 m

in front of a plane mirror. The distance between the object and image
will be
(a) 0.25 m
(b) 1.0 m
(c) 0.5 m
(d) 0.125 m
13. The angle of incidence for a ray of light having zero reflection
angle is
(a) 0
(b) 30°
(c) 45°
(d) 90°
14. Which of the following mirror is used by a dentist to examine a
small cavity?
(a) Convex mirror
(b) Plane mirror
(c) Concave mirror
(d) Combination of convex and concave mirror
15. The image formed by concave mirror is real, inverted and of
the same size as that of the object. The position of object should be
(a) at the focus
(b) at the centre of curvature
(c) between focus and centre of curvature
(d) beyond centre of curvature
16. A divergent lens will produce
(a) always real image
(b) always virtual image
(c) both real and virtual image
(d) none of these
17. When object moves closer to a concave lens the image by it
shift
(a) away from the lens on the same side of object
(b) toward the lens
(c) away from the lens on the other side of lens
(d) first towards and then away from the lens
18. In which of the following cases the distance between the
optical centre and point of convergence is called focal length?
19. Magnification produced by a rear view mirror fitted in vehicles
(a) is less than one
(b) is more than one
(c) is equal to one
(d) can be more than or less than one depending upon the position of
the object in front of it.
20. A full length image of a distant tall building can definitely be
seen by using
(a) a concave mirror
(b) a convex mirror
(c) a plane mirror
(d) both concave as well as plane mirror
21. In torches, search lights and headlights of vehicles the bulb is
placed
(a) between the pole and the focus of the reflector
(b) very near to the focus of the reflector
(c) between the focus and centre of curvature of the reflector
(d) at the centre of curvature of the reflector
22. The laws of reflection hold good for
(a) plane mirror only
(b) concave mirror only
(c) convex mirror only
(d) all mirrors irrespective of their shape
23. In which of the following, the image of an object placed at
infinity will be highly diminished and point sized?
(a) Concave mirror only
(b) Convex mirror only
(c) Convex lens only
(d) Concave mirror, convex mirror, concave lens and convex lens.
24. The image formed by a convex lens can be
(a) virtual and magnified
(b) virtual and diminished
(c) virtual and of same size
(d) virtual image is not formed
25. Study the diagram given below:

The diagram showing the correct path of the ray after refraction from
 the convex lens is

26. A student suggested the following guidelines to his friend for

performing the experiment to draw the images of an object formed
by a convex lens, when placed at various positions:
(i) A ray of light from the object, parallel to the principal axis, after
refraction from a convex j lens will pass through the principal focus
on the other side of the lens.
(ii) A ray of light passing through the principal focus will emerge
parallel to the principal axis.
(iii) A ray of light passing through the optical centre of a lens will
emerge without any deviation from the lens.
(iv)The convex lens drawn should be thick and of large aperture to
obtain the clarity of ray diagram.
When he showed these guidelines to his teacher, the teacher
corrected and modified one of the following guidelines:
(a) (i) (b) (ii) (c) (iii) (d) (iv)
27. To draw the images of an object formed by a convex lens for its
various positions, a student summarised the New Cartesian Sign
Convention as given
(A) Light rays from the object falls on the lens from the left hand side.
(B) All measurements should be taken from the first principal focus
of the lens.
(C) All measurements taken to the right side of optical centre are
taken as positive.
(D) Distance measured from the optical centre to left side are taken
as negative.
Which of the above statements in his summarization is incorrect?
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D
28. Identify the correct ray diagram drawn by a student

29. For making the ray diagrams for a convex lens, a student must
consider at least two refracted rays to locate the position of image.
Out of the three rays shown by him, the incorrect one is

(a) I (b) II (c) III (d) I and II both

30. In order to find the image distance for varying object distance
in case of convex lens, a student was asked to measure the image
distance on getting the sharp image of the lighted candle placed in
 front of the convex lens at twice of its focal length, she should
measure the distance between
(a) lens and lighted candle. (b) tip of the lighted candle and centre
of the screen.
(c) centre of lens and centre of the screen. (d) centre of a lens and
vertex of a screen.
31. In the set-up shown below, a clear image of a distant object is
obtained on the screen. The focal length of the concave mirror is

(a)11.4 cm (b)9.4 cm (c)9.8 cm (d)9.9 cm

32. Four students A, B, C and D carried out measurement of focal
length of a concave mirror as shown in the following four diagrams.

The best result will be obtained by student

(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D
33. A student determines the focal length of a device X, by
focussing the image of a far off object on the screen positioned as
shown in the figure below.
 The device X is a
(a) convex lens (b) concave lens (c) convex
mirror (d) concave mirror
34. To find the focal length of a concave mirror Rahul focuses a
distant object with his mirror. The chosen object should be
(a) a tree (b) a building (c) a window (d) the sun
35. While doing an experiment, a student found that if the object
moves from infinity towards pole of a mirror, the image also moves
from pole to infinity. The mirror must be
(a) plane mirror (b) concave (c) convex (d) all of these
36. The diagram, correctly showing the image of the tree on the
screen, is diagram

(a) A and the device X is a convex lens (b) A and the device X is a
concave mirror
(c) B and the device X is a convex lens (d) B and the device X is a
concave mirror
37. In an experiment to determine the focal length of a convex lens,
a student obtained a sharp and inverted image of a distant tree on the
screen behind the lens. She then removed the screen and looked
through the lens in the direction of object. She will see
(a) an inverted image of the tree at the focus of the lens. (b) no image
as the screen has been removed. (c) a blurred image on the wall
of the laboratory (d) an erect image of tree on the lens.
38. While performing an experiment on determining
the focal length of a convex lens, a student obtains a sharp and
inverted image of the laboratory ; window grill on the screen and
measures the distance d between the screen and the lens. She then
repeats the experiment and takes a distant tree as the object in the
second case. In order to get a sharp image on the screen, she will
 now need to move the screen
(a) slightly nearer to the lens (b) slightly farther away from the
lens
(c) very close to the lens (d) very far away from the lens
39. If you are to determine the focal length of a convex lens, you
should have
(a) a convex lens and a screen. (b) a convex lens and a lens holder.
(c) a lens holder, a screen holder and a scale. (d) a convex lens, a
screen, holders for them and a scale.
40. After performing the experiment to determine focal length of a
convex lens by focussing a distant object, a teacher asked Asha to
draw a ray diagram of her experiment and show where did she place
the screen for getting sharp image. The figure drawn by her is given
below

The point at which she had placed the screen during her experiment
was
(a) at A
(b) at B
(c) at C
(d) at D

Assertion reason type

The questions given below consist of an assertion and the reason. Use the
following key to choose the appropriate answer.
(a) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct and the Reason is the
correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) The Assertion and the Reason are correct but the Reason is not the
correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but the Reason is false.
(d) The statement of the Assertion is false but the Reason is true.

41. Assertion: Concave mirror is used by dentists.

Reason: Concave mirror forms enlarged image when object is
between its pole and focus.
42. Assertion: Incident light is reflected in only one direction from
a smooth surface.
Reason: Since the angle of incidence and the angle of reflection are
same, a beam of parallel rays of light falling on a smooth surface is
reflected as a beam of parallel light rays in one direction only.
43. Assertion: The word AMBULANCE on the hospital vans is
written in the form of its mirror as
Reason: The image formed in a plane mirror is same size of the
object.
44. Assertion: Concave mirror is used in vehicle headlights to get
powerful parallel beams of light.
Reason: When a ray of light passes through focus after reflection
from concave mirror it becomes parallel to principal axis.
45. Assertion: Myopic person cannot see the distant object clearly.
Reason: The far point of an eye suffering, from myopia is less than
infinity.
46. Assertion: Pupil is black in colour.
Reason: Pupil is black in colour as no light is reflected in it.
47. Assertion: The rainbow is a man made spectrum of sunlight in
the sky.
Reason: The rainbow is formed in the sky when the sun is shining
and it is raining at the same time.

True / False type

48. New Cartesian sign conventions are followed for spherical

mirrors and lenses.
49. The SI unit of power of lens is per cm.
50. Magnification of mirror is the ratio of height of the image to the
height of the object.
51. When object is at infinity a convex lens forms its image at
optical centre.
52. Real and inverted image can be obtained by using convex lens.
53. A concave lens always forms virtual and erect image.
54. Convex lens is conversing in nature.
55. The ratio of sine of angle of incidence to the sine of angle of
refraction is always a constant for the given pair of media.
56. The focal length of a convex mirror is always negative.
57. For a concave mirror virtual and erect image can be obtained by
placing object between its pole and focus.
 Chapter 11 Human eye and the colourful world

1. The human eye is one of the most valuable and sensitive sense
organs. It enables us to see the wonderful world and the colours
around us. The human eye is like a camera. Its lens system forms an
image on a light-sensitive screen called the retina. Light enters the
eye through a thin membrane called the cornea. It forms the
transparent bulge on the front surface of the eyeball. The eyeball is
approximately spherical in shape with a diameter of about 2.3 cm.
Most of the refraction for the light rays entering the eye occurs at the
outer surface of the cornea. The crystalline lens merely provides the
finer adjustment of focal length required to focus objects at different
distances on the retina. We find a structure called iris behind the
cornea. Iris is a dark muscular diaphragm that controls the size of the
pupil. The pupil regulates and controls the amount of light entering
the eye. The eye lens forms an inverted real image of the object on
the retina. The retina is a delicate membrane having enormous
number of light-sensitive cells. The light-sensitive cells get activated
upon illumination and generate electrical signals. These signals are
sent to the brain via the optic nerves. The brain interprets these
signals, and finally, processes the information so that we perceive
objects as they are.
a. In a human eye, name the following parts:
(i) a thin membrane which allows light to enter the eye.
(ii) the part on which image is formed.
b. Name the part of our eyes that helps us to focus near and distant
objects in quick succession.
c. Name the part the human eye made up of light sensitive cells.
d. Name the component of eye that is responsible for controlling the
size of pupil.
e. What is the nature of eye lens of human eye and that of the image
formed at the retina of the eye by it?
f. Mention the role of optic nerve in the human eye.

2. There are mainly three common refractive defects of vision. These

are (i) myopia or near-sightedness, (ii) Hypermetropia or
farsightedness, and (iii) Presbyopia. These defects can be corrected
by the use of suitable spherical lenses. Myopia is also known as near-
sightedness. A person with myopia can see nearby objects clearly but
cannot see distant objects distinctly. A person with this defect has the
 far point nearer than infinity. Such a person may see clearly upto a
distance of a few metres. In a myopic eye, the image of distant object
is formed in front of the retina and not at the retina itself. This defect
may arise due to (i) excessive curvature of the eye lens, or (ii)
elongation of the eyeball. This defect can be corrected by
using a concave lens of suitable power. A concave lens of suitable power
will bring the image back on to the retina and thus the defect is corrected.
Hypermetropia is also known as far-sightedness. A person with
hypermetropia can see distant objects clearly but cannot see nearby objects
distinctly. The near point, for the person, is farther away from the normal
near point (25 cm). In this defect image if formed behind the retina. This
defect arises either because (i) the focal length of the eye lens is too long, or
(ii) the eyeball has become too small. This defect can be corrected by using
a convex lens of appropriate power. The power of accommodation of the
eye usually decreases with ageing. For most people, the near point
gradually recedes away. They find it difficult to see nearby objects
comfortably and distinctly without corrective eye-glasses. This defect is
called Presbyopia. It arises due to the gradual weakening of the ciliary
muscles and diminishing flexibility of the eye lens.

a. Write main causes of myopia.

b. In which eye defect image of an object is formed before retina?
c. In which direction, the near point of hypermetropic eye is shifted
from the normal near point?
d. A person suffering from an eye defect uses lenses of power 1 D.
Name the defect he is suffering from and the nature of lens used.
e. What is the other name of old hypermetropia?

3. Very fine particles scatter more of ____________ colour.

4. Red light is used for signals as it is ____________ scattered.
5. Bi-focal lens is used to correct ____________ refractive error.
6. Hypermetropic eye is corrected by using ____________ lens.
7. The dispersion of white light occurs because colours of white light at
different ____________ through the glass prism.
8. The ability of the eye to focus both near and distant objects, by
adjusting its focal length, is called the________________ of the eye.
9. _________________of light causes the blue colour of sky and reddening of
the Sun at sunrise and sunset.
10. Most of the refraction of light rays entering the eye occurs at
the outer surface of the _________________
 11. Due to the greater converging power of the eye lens in a
myopic eye, the image of distant object is formed ___________________
the retina.
12. A person suffering from both myopia and hypermetropia uses
______lenses.
13. Reddening of the sun at sunrise is due to splitting of light.
[True/False]
14. 28 frames are projected per second in motion picture.
[True/False]
15. Myopia is caused due to excessive curvature in cornea.
[True/False]
16. Dispersion of light is splitting of white light into its constituent
colours. [True/False]
17. Violet coloured light scatter the most. [True/False]
18. A lens of higher focal length has less power. [True/False]
19. Power of accommodation for a normal eye is 4 dioptre.
[True/False]
20. Atmospheric refraction of light is responsible for twinkling of
stars. [True/False]
21. The optical nerves carry signals to the brain. [True/False]
22. Isaac Newton was the first to use a glass prism to obtain spectrum
of sunlight.
23. Match Column I with Column II.
.

Column I Column II
(i) Twinkling stars (A) Suspended water drops
(ii) Blue sky (B) Group of colours
(iii) Rainbow (C) Scattering
(iv) Spectrum (D) Changing atmosphere

Assertion reason type

In the following Questions, the Assertion and Reason have been put
forward. Read the statements carefully and choose the correct alternative
from the following:
(a) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct and the Reason is the
correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) The Assertion and the Reason are correct but the Reason is not the
correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but the Reason is false.
(d) The statement of the Assertion is false but the Reason is true.

24. Assertion: Having two eyes is an advantage.

Reason: It gives wider field of view.
25. Assertion: Blind spot is a small area of the retina which is
insensitive to light where the optic nerve leaves the eye.
Reason: There are no rods or cones present at the junction of optic
nerve and retina in the eye.
26. Assertion: The sun is visible to us about 2 minutes before the
actual sunrise.
Reason: Red light is scattered the most hence it reaches the observer
before any other light colour.
27. Assertion: The near-point of a hypermetropic eye is more than
25 cm away.
Reason: Hypermetropia is corrected using spectacles containing
concave lenses.
28. Assertion: Myopia is the defect of vision in which a person
cannot see the distant objects clearly.
Reason: This due to eye-ball being too short.
29. Assertion: The splitting of white light into its component
colours is called dispersion.
Reason: Scattering of light causes the blue colour of sky.
30. Assertion: Concave mirrors are used as reflectors in torches,
vehicle head-lights and in search lights.
Reason: When an object is placed beyond the centre of curvature of a
concave mirror, the image formed is real and inverted.
31. Assertion: The light emerges from a parallel-sided glass slab in
a direction perpendicular with that in which enters the glass slab.
Reason: The perpendicular distance between the original path of
incident ray and emergent ray coming out of glass slab is called
lateral displacement of the emergent ray of light.
32. Assertion: The human eye can focus on distant and near
objects. Reason: This is due to its ability to
change focal length of eye lens.
33. Assertion: When a pencil is partly immersed in water and held
obliquely to the surface, the pencil appears to bend at the water
surface.
Reason: The apparent bending of the pencil is due to the refraction of
light when it passes from water to air.
34. The muscular diaphragm that controls the size of the pupil is
(a) cornea
(b) ciliary muscles
(c) iris
(d) retina
35. Having two eyes facilitates in
A : Increasing the field of view
B : Bringing three-dimensional view
C : Developing the concept of distance/ size
Then the correct option is/are
(a) A only
(b) A and B only
(c) B only
(d) A, B and C
36. The black opening between the aqueous humour and the lens
is called
(a) retina
(b) iris
(c) cornea
(d) pupil
37. Near and far points of a young person normal eye respectively
are
(a) 0 and infinity
(b) 0 and 25 cm
(c) 25 cm and infinity
(d) 25 cm and 150 cm.
38. The defect of vision in which the person is able to see distant
object distinctly but cannot see nearby objects clearly is called
(a) Long-sightedness
(b) Far-sightedness
(c) Hypermetropia
(d) All above
39. The ability of eye lens to adjust its focal length to form a sharp
image of the object at varying distances on the retina is called
(a) Power of observation of the eye
(b) Power of adjustment of the eye
(c) Power of accommodation of the eye
(d) Power of enabling of the eye
40. Myopia and hypermetropia can be corrected by
(a) Concave and plano-convex lens
(b) Concave and convex lens
 (c) Convex and concave lens
(d) Plano-concave lens for both defects.
41. Bi-focal lens are required to correct
(a) astigmatism
(b) coma
(c) myopia
(d) presbyopia
42. The image formed on the retina of the human eye is
(a) virtual and inverted
(b) real and inverted
(c) real and erect
(d) virtual and erect
43. Refraction of light by the earth’s atmosphere due to variation
in air density is called
(a) atmospheric reflection
(b) atmospheric dispersion
(c) atmospheric scattering
(d) atmospheric refraction
44. In an experiment on tracing the path of the rays of light passing
through a glass prism, the correct setting of protractor (D) for
measuring the angle of incidence ∠i in diagram is

(a) (i) (b) (ii) (c) (iii) (d) (iv)

45. To trace the path of the ray of light through a glass prism, four
students A, B, C and D did the following:
A: Kept the eyes at certain moderate distance from the glass prism
while placing both the image pins.
B: Kept the eyes close to the glass prism while placing both the image
pins.
C: Kept the eyes close to the glass prism while placing first image pin
and far from the prism while placing the second image pin.
D: Kept the eyes at 45° angle while placing both the image pins on a
line which makes an angle of 30° with the normal.
The correct procedure is that of the student
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D
46. A student showed the following traces of the path of a ray of
light passing through a glass prism:

The trace most likely to have been done correctly by her, is (a) (i)
(b) (ii) (c) (iii) (d) (iv)
47. For the refraction of a ray of light through a glass prism, the
path of a ray of light is shown below.

The angle of incidence, the angle of emergence and the angle of

deviation respectively have been represented by (a) Y, N, Z (b)
X, Z, M (c) X, N, Z (d) X, M, Z
48. While performing experiment to trace the ray of light through a
triangular glass prism, a student is asked to draw the boundary of a
prism on a paper. This is done to
(a) see whether the given prism is triangular or not.
(b) ensure that the prism is always kept within the boundary during
experiment.
(c) check whether the edges of the prism are broken or not.
(d) make the diagram more clear.
49. At noon the sun appears white as
(a) light is least scattered
(b) all the colours of the white light are scattered away
(c) blue colour is scattered the most
(d) red colour is scattered the most
50. Twinkling of stars is due to atmospheric
(a) dispersion of light by water droplets
(b) refraction of light by different layers of varying refractive indices
 (c) scattering of light by dust particles
(d) internal reflection of light by clouds.
51. The danger signals installed at the top of tall buildings are red
in colour. These can be easily seen from a distance because among all
other colours, the red light
(a) is scattered the most by smoke or fog
(b) is scattered the least by smoke or fog
(b) is absorbed the most by smoke or fog
(c) moves fastest in air
The medical condition in which the lens of the eye of a person
becomes progressively cloudy resulting in blurred vision is called
(a) myopia
(b) hypermetropia
(c) presbyopia
(d) cataract
 Chapter 12 Electricity
1. When electric charge flows through a conductor (for example,
through a metallic wire), we say that there is an electric current in
the conductor. A continuous and closed path of an electric current is
called an electric circuit. Electric current is expressed by the amount
of charge flowing through a particular area in unit time. In other
words, it is the rate of flow of electric charges. In circuits using
metallic wires, electrons constitute the flow of charges. However,
electrons were not known at the time when the phenomenon of
electricity was first observed. Conventionally, in an electric circuit
the direction of electric current is taken as opposite to the direction
of the flow of electrons, which are negative charges. If a net charge Q,
flows across any cross-section of a conductor in time t, then the
current I, through the cross-section is I = Q / t . The SI unit of electric
charge is coulomb (C), which is equivalent to the charge contained in
nearly 6 × 1018 electrons.The electric current is expressed by a unit
called ampere (A), named after the French scientist, Andre-Marie
Ampere (1775–1836). One ampere is constituted by the flow of one
coulomb of charge per second, that is, 1 A = 1 C/1 s. An instrument
called ammeter measures electric current in a circuit. It is always
connected in series in a circuit through which the current is to be
measured.
a. What does an electric circuit mean?
b. Define the unit of electric current.
c. How an ammeter is connected in a circuit?
d. What amount of charge is carried by 6 X 10 18 electrons?
2. For flow of charges in a conducting metallic wire, the electrons move
only if there is a difference of electric pressure – called the potential
difference – along the conductor. This difference of potential may be
produced by a battery, consisting of one or more electric cells. In
order to maintain the current in a given electric circuit, the cell has to
expend its chemical energy stored in it. We define the electric
potential difference between two points in an electric circuit carrying
some current as the work done to move a unit charge from one point
to the other – Potential difference (V) between two points = Work
done (W)/Charge (Q)V = W/Q The SI unit of electric potential
difference is volt (V), named after Alessandro Volta (1745–1827), an
Italian physicist. One volt is the potential difference between two
points in a current carrying conductor when 1 joule of work is done
to move a charge of 1 coulomb from one point to the other.
Therefore, 1 volt =1 joule / 1 coulomb 1 V = 1 J C–1 The potential
 difference is measured by means of an instrument called the
voltmeter. The voltmeter is always connected in parallel across the
points between which the potential difference is to be measured.
a. What do you understand by potential difference?
b. Name a device that helps to maintain a potential difference across a
conductor.
c. Define 1 volt.
d. How voltmeter is connected in a circuit?
3. Name the physical quantity whose unit is volt/ampere.
4. Which of the following term does not represent electric power
(a) I2R (b) VR2 (c) VI (d) V2/R
5. Unit of Electric Power (a)Kwh (b) Kw (c) Ohms meter (d) Joule
6. The commercial unit of electric energy is (a)Kwh (b) Kw (c) Ohms
meter (d) Joule
7. One kilowatt hour is equal to (a) 3.6 x 106j (b) 6.3 x 106j (c) 3.6
x105j (d) 6.3 x 105 Joule
8. Find total resistance in
the fig .
(a) 9Ω (b) 16Ω (c) 3Ω
(d) 1/2Ω

9. Voltage is always remains constant in(a) Series (b) parallel (c) none
of these(d) never remains constant.

10. A wire of length l having resistivity ρ is cut into four parts of

equal length. New resistivity of each part is equal to (a) ρ/4 (b) ρ/2
(c) ρ (d) 4ρ

11. What is the maximum resistance which can be made using five
resistors each of 1/5 Ω ? (a) 1/5 Ω (b) 1Ω (c) 5 Ω (d) 10Ω

In the following Questions, the Assertion and Reason have been put
forward. Read the statements carefully and choose the correct
alternative from the following:
(a) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct and the Reason is
the correct explanation of the Assertion.
 (b) The Assertion and the Reason are correct but the Reason is not
the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but the Reason is false.
(d) The statement of the Assertion is false but the Reason is true.

12. When a battery is short circuited, the terminal voltage is zero.

Reason: In short circuit, the current is zero.

13. Assertion: Conductors allow the current to flow through

themselves.
Reason: They have free charge carriers

14. Assertion: In an open circuit, the current passes from one

terminal of the electric cell to another.
Reason: Generally, the metal disc of a cell acts as a positive terminal.

15. Assertion: Bending of wire decrease the resistance of electric

wire.
Reason: The resistance of a conductor depends on length, thickness,
nature of material and temperature of the conductor.

16. Assertion: Tungsten is used almost exclusively for making the

filament of bulb.
Reason : Tungsten has very high melting point.

17. Assertion: Commercial unit of electric power is kilowatt hour.

Reason: 1 Kilowatt hour is equal to 3.6 X 10 6 joules.

18. Assertion: Voltmeter is always connected in series in a circuit.

Reason: Voltmeter measures electric current in a circuit.

19. Assertion: Series combination is used in domestic electrical

circuits.
Reason: In series combination equal current flows through all
resistors.
20. Assertion: Electric power is the amount of electric energy
consumed per unit time.
Reason: Kilowatt is the unit of electric power.
21. SI unit of electric potential is __________________
22. Ohm is the SI unit of _____________________
23. The amount of electric work done in one second is called
__________
24. ______________ metal is used almost exclusively for the filament
in electric bulb .
25. Nichrome has high ________________ than Iron and hence used in
making heating filament.
26. Connecting many resistors in parallel, will ____________ the
resistance of the circuit.
27. Work done on unit charge is called as ____________
28. Current is a ____________ quantity
29. Alloys have ______________ resistivity than a pure metal.
30. ________________ metal is the best conductor of electricity.
31. When bulbs are connected in series, the lower power bulb
glows brighter. [True/False]
32. Devices of higher power used at home have lower resistance.
[True/False]
33. The product of Volt and Ampere is equal to watt. (True/False)
34. The commercial unit of electric energy is watt hour.
(True/False)
35. The SI unit of resistivity is ohm metre. (True/ False)
36. One horse power is equal to 746 watts.(True / False)
37. 6.25 X 10 18 electrons carry one coulomb charge. ( True / False
)
38. Resistance of a conductor does not depend on its length. (True/
False)
39. Resistivity is a constant value for a given conductor. (True /
False )
40. Match Column I with Column II.

Column I Column II
(i) Fuse wires A. Rheostat

(ii) Bulbs B. Higher resistance

(iii) Higher power C. Parallel

(iv) Potential divider D. Series

(v) Lower current E. Lower resistance

 Chapter 13 Magnetic effects of Electric Current

1. An electric motor is a rotating device that converts electrical energy

to mechanical energy. Electric motor is used as an important
component in electric fans, refrigerators, mixers, washing machines,
computers, MP3 players etc. An electric motor consists of a
rectangular coil ABCD of insulated copper wire. The coil is placed
between the two poles of a magnetic field such that the arm AB and
CD are perpendicular to the direction of the magnetic field. The ends
of the coil are connected to the two halves P and Q of a split ring. The
inner sides of these halves are insulated and attached to an axle. The
external conducting edges of P and Q touch two conducting
stationary brushes X and Y, respectively, Current in the coil ABCD
enters from the source battery through conducting brush X and flows
back to the battery through brush Y. The current in arm AB of the coil
flows from A to B. In arm CD it flows from C to D, that is, opposite to
the direction of current through arm AB. On applying Fleming’s left
hand rule for the direction of force on a current-carrying conductor
in a magnetic field We find that the force acting on arm AB pushes it
ownwards while the force acting on arm CD pushes it upwards. Thus
the coil and the axle O, mounted free to turn about an axis, rotate
anti-clockwise. At half rotation, Q makes contact with the brush X and
P with brush Y. Therefore the current in the coil gets reversed and
flows along the path DCBA. A device that reverses the direction of
flow of current through a circuit is called a commutator. In electric
motors, the split ring acts as a commutator. The reversal of current
also reverses the direction of force acting on the two arms AB and CD.
Thus the arm AB of the coil that was earlier pushed down is now
pushed up and the arm CD previously pushed up is now pushed
down. Therefore the coil and the axle rotate half a turn more in the
same direction. The reversing of the current is repeated at each half
rotation, giving rise to a continuous rotation of the coil and to the
axle. The commercial motors use (i) an electromagnet in place of
permanent magnet; (ii) large number of turns of the conducting wire
in the current carrying coil; and (iii) a soft iron core on which the coil
is wound. The soft iron core, on which the coil is wound, plus the
coils, is called an armature. This enhances the power of the motor.
a. Name any two appliances where electric motor is used.
b. Which rule is used to detect the direction of movement of coil in an
electric motor?
c. What is the role of commutator?
d. Which part in electric motors acts as commutator?
e. How efficiency of commercial motor is increased?(write one
difference)

2. What is the direction of magnetic field lines outside a bar magnet ?

3. What is the direction of magnetic field lines inside a bar magnet?
4. What is SI unit of magnetic field ?
5. What does crowding of magnetic field lines indicate ?
6. What does the degree of closeness of magnetic field lines near the poles
signify ?
7. What is frequency of AC in India ?
8. State the frequency of power supply generated in India.
9. How is the direction of magnetic field at a point determined ?
10. What are magnetic field lines?
11. At what place of the magnet are the magnetic field lines denser
?
12. How many times does AC used in India change direction in one
second ?
13. What is the nature of magnetic field lines around a current
carrying wire ?
14. Name the rule used to determine the direction of magnetic field
produced around a straight conductor carrying current.
15. What is a solenoid ?
16. Write one application of magnetic field of current carrying
solenoid.
17. What is the meaning of the term “frequency" of an alternating
current ?
18. What is its value in India
19. Name a device which converts electrical energy into
mechanical energy.
20. What is electric generator ?
21. State one advantage of A.C. over D.C.
22. If a bar magnet was cut initially into two pieces. Then each of
the new pieces was cut into two more pieces and the process was
repeated one more times, find out the number of the North pole
generated?
 (a) 2
(b) 7
(c) 1
(d) 8
23. Which of the following produces magnetic field as well as
respond to external magnetic field?
(a) Only magnetic.
(b) Magnetic and current carrying wires.
(c) Only current carrying wires
(d) None of these.
24. Electromagnetic induction refer to the:
(a) Charging of a body with a positive charge.
(b) Production of current by relative motion between a magnet and a
coil.
(c) Rotation of the coil of an electric motor.
(d) Generation of magnetic field due to a current carrying solenoid.

25. Which of the following property of a proton can charge while it

moves freely in uniform magnetic field?
(a) Mass
(b) Speed
(c) Velocity
(d) Charge
26. Which of the following statement are true?
(a) AC generator supplies direct current.
(b) DC generator has a commutator
(c) AC generator supplies alternating current.
(d) AC generator has slip rings.
27. An MCQ cuts off the electricity supply in case of short circuiting
or overloading it works on the principle of.
(a) Chemical effect of current
(b) Heating effect of current
(c) Magnetic effect of current
(d) Law of conservation of momentum
28. The magnetic field lies insides a long current carrying solenoid
are nearly……. in shape.
 (a) Linear
(b) Circular
(c) Parabolic
(d) Elliptical
29. The strength of magnetic field inside a long current carrying
solenoid is:
(a) Found to increase from one end to the other
(b) Minimum in the middle
(c) Same at all points
(d) Found to be maximum at the centre
30. When the live wire and the natural wires come in contact then
the current suddenly increase the circuit causing spark and damage
to the circuit this situation is known as:
(a) Electic fuse
(b) Short circuit
(c) Overloading
(d) Either short - circuit or overloading.
31. What happens in the fuse which melt it to break the electric
circuit?
(a) Short circuit
(b) Joule`s heating
(c) Overloading
(d) Decreasing in voltage
32. The most suitable material for making the case of an an
Electromagnet is:
(a) Soft iron
(b) Brass
(c) Aluminum
(d) Steel
33. If the direction of current in the the conductor and the
magnetic field are the same it in which way will the conductors
move?
(a) It will not move
(b) At an acute angle with the direction of the current.
(c) Perpendicular to the direction of the current
(d) In the direction of the current
34. When magnetic field lines are closes the Magnet field is:
 (a) Strange
(b) Non-existent
(c) Weaker
(d) Random
35. We use Fleming`s right hand rule in which of these cases?
(a) While working with and electric motor
(b) While working with the electric generator
(c) While determining the force on a current carrying circular coil.
(d) While determining the force on a current carrying straight
conductor.
36. If a current carrying conductor is placed near of heap of iron
filings we can observe some disturbance in iron filling because of:
(a) Electric field produced by current
(b) Magnetic field produced by current
(c) Gravitational field
(d) Electromagnetic induction
37. Assertion: When electric current is passed through a copper
wire, magnetic needle kept near this wire shows deflection.
Reason: the electric current through copper wire has produced
magnetic field.
38. Assertion: No two magnetic field lines cross each other.
Reason: It is not possible to have two different directions at same
point.
39. Assertion: Electro magnet is a temporary magnet.
Reason: A current carrying solenoid acts as a magnet.
40. Assertion: Moving magnet can induce electric current.
Reason: Metallic conductors conduct electricity due to electrons.
41. Assertion: Galvanometer is an instrument used to detect the
presence of current in a circuit.
Reason: A Galvanometer induces electric current in a circuit.
42. The Fleming`s left hand roll can be applied to find the direction
of magnetic field. True /False
43. A wire with a green insulation is usually the live wire of an
electric supply. True /False
44. During short circuit the current increase drastically at the short
circuit spot. True /False
45. Magnetic field lines new intersect each other. True /False
46. In Fleming`s left hand rule, the middle represent the direction
of magnetic field. True /False
47. An electric motor convert mechanical energy into electrical
energy. True /False
48. The magnetic field inside a long straight solenoid carrying
current is the same at all points. True /False
49. A magnetic needle which is kept near a conductor gets
deflected when cussed is passed through the conductor. True /False
50. Two magnets always attract each other. True /False
51. The space around a magnet in which other magnetic object get
influenced by it is called magnetic field. True /False
52. A soft iron bar is is placed inside a current carrying solenoid
the magnetic field inside the solenoid will__________.
 Chapter 14 Sources of energy

1. Cow-dung and various plant materials like the residue after

harvesting the crops, vegetable waste and sewage are decomposed in
the absence of oxygen to give bio-gas. Since the starting material is
mainly cow-dung, it is popularly known as gobar-gas. Bio-gas is
produced in a plant as shown in figure given below .The plant has a
dome-like structure built with bricks. A slurry of cow-dung and water
is made in the mixing tank from where it is fed into the digester. The
digester is a sealed chamber in which there is no oxygen. Anaerobic
micro-organisms that do not require oxygen decompose or break
down complex compounds of the cow-dung slurry. It takes a few days
for the decomposition process to be complete and generate gases like
methane, carbon dioxide, hydrogen and hydrogen sulphide. The bio-
gas is stored in the gas tank above the digester from which they are
drawn through pipes for use. Bio-gas is an excellent fuel as it contains
up to 75% methane. It burns without smoke, leaves no residue like
ash in wood, charcoal and coal burning. Its heating capacity is high.
Bio-gas is also used for lighting. The slurry left behind is removed
periodically and used as excellent manure, rich in nitrogen and
phosphorous. The large-scale utilisation of bio-waste and sewage
material provides a safe and efficient method of waste-disposal
besides supplying energy and manure.

a. Is bio-mass a renewable source of energy?

b. Which gas is the major constitute of bio gas?
c. What is the use of slurry produced in a gobar gas {bio gas}plant?
d. Name the part of bio gas plant where decomposition of organic waste
takes place.

2. Name the two forms of energy usually used at our homes.

3. Name two gases, other than carbon dioxide, that are given out during
burning of fossil fuel and contribute towards acid rain formation.
4. Name two renewable or non-conventional sources of energy.
5. How is charcoal obtained from wood ?
6. Name two activities in our daily life in which solar energy is used.
7. Which type of micro-organisms are able to carry out the process of
decomposition in a biogas plant?
8. Name the residue obtained when wood is burnt in a limited supply of
air.
9. Name the device which directly converts solar energy into electric
energy.
10. What is the range of temperature attained inside a box type solar
cooker when placed in the sun for two to three hours ?
11. A solar cell transforms energy of one form into another form.
What are these two forms of energy ?
12. State the energy conversion taking place in solar panels. State
one limitation of solar energy available from solar cells
13. In a hydro plant
a. Potential energy possessed by stored water is convert into electricity.
b. Kinetic energy possessed by stored water is convert into potential
energy.
c. Electricity age extracted from water.
d. Water is converted into steam to produce electricity.

14. Which is the ultimate source of energy?

a. Water
b. Sun
c. Uranium
d. Fossil fuels

15. Which one of the following forms of energy leads to least

environmental pollution in the process of its harnessing and
utilisation?
a. Nuclear energy
b. Thermal energy
c. Solar energy
d. Geothermal energy
 16. Ocean thermal energy is due to
a. Energy stored by which in the ocean.
b. Temperature difference at different levels in the ocean.
c. Pressure different at different levels in the ocean.
d. Tides arising out in the ocean.

17. The major problem in harnessing energy is how to

a. Split nuclei?
b. Sustain the reaction?
c. Dispose off spent fuel safely?
d. Convert nuclear energy into electrical energy?

18. Which part of solar cooker is responsible for green house

effect?
a. Coating with black colour inside the box
b. Mirror
c. Glass sheet
d. Outer cover of the solar cooker

19. The power generated in a windmill

a. Is more rainy season since damp air would mean more air mass
hitting the blades
b. Depends on the height of the tower
c. Depend on wind Velocity
d. Can be increased by planting tall trees close to the tower
20. Choose the correct statement
a. Sun can be taken as an inexhaustible source of energy
b. There is infinite storage of fossil fuel inside the earth
c. Hydro and wind energy plants are non-polluting
d. Waste from a nuclear power plant can be easily disposed off.

21. Assertion: Fuel has to be burnt t obtain heat energy.

Reason: the minimum temperature to which of fuel must be heated so
that it may catch fire and start burning is known as ignition temperature.
22. Assertion: The major constituent of biogas is methane.
 Reason : bio gas is produced by the aerobic degradation by animal
wastes like cow ding in the presence of water.
23. Assertion : Wind energy farms cannot be established every
where.
Reason : The wind energy farms can be established only at those places
where wind blows for most part of the year.

24. Assertion : Coke is a better fuel than coal.

Reason : Burning of coke cause air pollution.

25. Assertion : Non-conventional source of energy for generating

electricity in power plant.
Reason : Coal and petroleum are non-conventional energy source.

26. Mirrors used for solar cooker are_________.

27. Fossil fuel do not cause pollution.
28. Acid rain is formed by acidic oxides of carbon, sulphur and
nitrogen.
29. The use of turbine is essential for the production of electrical
energy.
30. The approximate percentage of energy met by India with the
use of hydel energy is 25%.
31. Windmills require giant structural erection and vast space.
 Chapter 15 Our Environment

1. All organisms such as plants, animals, microorganisms and human

beings as well as the physical surroundings interact with each other
and maintain a balance in nature. All the interacting organisms in an
area together with the non-living constituents of the environment
form an ecosystem. Thus, an ecosystem consists of biotic components
comprising living organisms and abiotic components comprising
physical factors like temperature, rainfall, wind, soil and minerals.
For example, if you visit a garden you will find different plants, such
as grasses, trees; flower bearing plants like rose, jasmine, sunflower;
and animals like frogs, insects and birds. All these living organisms
interact with each other and their growth, reproduction and other
activities are affected by the abiotic components of ecosystem. So a
garden is an ecosystem. Other types of ecosystems are forests, ponds
and lakes. These are natural ecosystems while gardens and crop-
fields are human made (artificial) ecosystems.
a. Define ecosystem.
b. Name two components of an ecosystem.
c. Give examples of abiotic components of an ecosystem.
d. What are two main types of ecosystem?
2. In nature we see that a series of organisms feeding on one another.
This series or organisms taking part at various biotic levels form a
food chain. Each step or level of the food chain forms a trophic level.
The autotrophs or the producers are at the first trophic level. They fix
up the solar energy and make it available for heterotrophs or the
consumers. The herbivores or the primary consumers come at the
second, small carnivores or the secondary consumers at the third and
larger carnivores or the tertiary consumers form the fourth trophic
level. We know that the food we eat acts as a fuel to provide us
energy to do work. Thus the interactions among various components
of theenvironment involves flow of energy from one component of
the system to another. The autotrophs capture the energy present in
sunlight and convert it into chemical energy. This energy supports all
the activities of the living world. From autotrophs, the energy goes to
the heterotrophs and decomposers. When one form of energy is
changed to another, some energy is lost to the environment in forms
which cannot be used again. The flow of energy between various
components of the environment has been extensively studied and it
has been found that – *The green plants in a terrestrial ecosystem
capture about 1% of the energy of sunlight that falls on their leaves
and convert it into food energy. *When green plants are eaten by
 primary consumers, a great deal of energy is lost as heat to the
environment, some amount goes into digestion and in doing work
and the rest goes towards growth and reproduction. An average of
10% of the food eaten is turned into its own body and made available
for the next level of consumers. *Therefore, 10% can be taken as the
average value for the amount of organic matter that is present at each
step and reaches the next level of consumers.
a. Define the term trophic level.
b. Give an example of food chain.
c. What percent of energy is available for next trophic level in a food
chain?
d. Mention the role of autotrophs in a food chain.
3. List any one criterion of measuring the biodiversity of an area. Ans.
One measure of the biodiversity of an area is the number of species
found there. Secondly, the range of different life forms is also
important.
4. Name two decomposers operating in our ecosystem. Ans. Bacteria
and fungi.
5. In a food chain, 10,000 joules of energy is available to the producer.
How much energy will be available to the secondary consumer to
transfer it to the tertiary consumer? Ans. 10J of energy will be
available to the secondary consumer to transfer to the tertiary
consumer.
6. Consider the following food chain which occurs in a forest:
Grass -------- > Deer------ > Lion If 10000 J of solar energy is available
to the grass, how much energy would be available to the deer to
transfer it to the lion? Ans. 1 J energy will be available to deer to
transfer it to lion.
7. In the following food chain, 100 J of energy is available to the lion.
How much energy was available to the producer?
Plants------> Deer ------- >Lion Ans. 1,000,000 J of energy was
available to the producer.
8. Trophic level in an ecosystem represents (a) oxygen level (b) water
level (c) energy level (d) salt level
9. Which of the following is an autotroph? (a) Lion (b) Insect (c) Tree
(d) Mushroom
10. In the garden ecosystem, which of the following are producers?
(a) Insects (b) Snakes (c) Grasses (d) Rabbits
11. Which one of the following is an artificial ecosystem?(a) Pond
(b) Crop field (c) Lake (d) Forest
12. An ecosystem includes (a) all living organisms (b) non-living
objects (c) both living organisms and non-living objects (d)
sometimes living organisms and sometimes
13. Excessive exposure of humans to UV-rays results (1) damage to
immune system (ii) damage to lungs (iii) skin cancer (iv) peptic ulcer
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iv) (c) (i) and (iii) (d) (iii) and (iv)
14. Which group of organisms are not constituents of a food chain?
(a) Grass, lion, rabbit (b) Plankton, man, fish, grasshopper (c) Wolf,
grass, snake, tiger (d) Frog, snake, eagle, grass, grasshopper
15. Which of the following is biodegradable? (a) Plastic mugs (6)
Leather belts (c) Silver foil (d) Iron nails
16. Which of the following is non-biodegradable? (a) Wool (b)
Nylon (c) Animal bones (d) Tea leaves
17. Which one of the following will undergo fastest bio-
degradation? (a) Mango seed (b) Wood(c) Mango peel (d) Mango
pulp
18. If a grasshopper is eaten by a frog, then the energy transfer will be
from (a) producer to decomposer (b) producer to primary consumer
(c) primary consumer to secondary consumer (d) secondary
consumer to primary consumer
In the following Questions, the Assertion and Reason have been put
forward. Read the statements carefully and choose the correct
alternative from the following: (a) Both the Assertion and the Reason
are correct and the Reason is the correct explanation of the
Assertion. (b) The Assertion and the Reason are correct but the
Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion. (c) Assertion is
true but the Reason is false. (d) The statement of the Assertion is
false but the Reason is true.
19. Assertion: Vegetarian food habit is more beneficial to
organisms.
Reason: Only 10% energy is available as food from one trophic level
to next. Ans. (a) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct and
the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
20. Assertion: Accumulation of harmful chemicals is maximum in
case of organisms at higher trophic level.
Reason: Food chain normally do not go beyond 3 or 4 trophic level.
Ans. (b) The Assertion and the Reason are correct but the Reason is
not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
21. Assertion: Ozone layer is getting depleted at upper atmosphere
which is a cause of concern.
Reason: CFC reacts with ozone and breaks it. Ans. (a) Both the
Assertion and the Reason are correct and the Reason is the correct
explanation of the Assertion.
22. Assertion: Autotrophs can produce food on its own. Reason:
Green plants can absorb 1% energy of sunlight that fall on the leaves.
Ans. (b) The Assertion and the Reason are correct but the Reason is
not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
23. Food chains generally consist of three or four organisms.
True/False] Ans. True.
24. Disposal of waste means recycling of wastes. [True/False] Ans.
False.
25. The disposal of wastes by putting it in low-lying areas of
ground and covering it with earth is called landfill.True/False] Ans.
True.
Direction: Match Column I with Column II.
26. Column I Column II
1. Producers (i) Bacteria 2.
Primary consumers (ii) Grass 3. Secondary
(iii) Lion 4. Decomposers (iv) Dear
Ans. 1 (ii), 2 (i), 3 (iv), 4 (iii).
 Chapter 16 Sustainable management of natural resources
Short answer type
1. All the things we use or consume – food, clothes, books, toys,
furniture, tools and vehicles – are obtained from resources on this
earth. The only thing we get from outside is energy which we receive
from the Sun. Even this energy is processed by living organisms and
various physical and chemical processes on the earth before we make
use of it. Why do we need to use our resources carefully? Because
these are not unlimited and with the human population increasing at
a tremendous rate due to improvement in health-care, the demand
for all resources is increasing at an exponential rate. The
management of natural resources requires a long-term perspective
so that these will last for the generations to come and will not merely
be exploited to the hilt for short term gains. This management should
also ensure equitable distribution of resources so that all, and not
just a handful of rich and powerful people, benefit from the
development of these resources. Another factor to be considered
while we exploit these natural resources is the damage we cause to
the environment while these resources are either extracted or used.
For example, mining causes pollution because of the large amount of
slag which is discarded for every tonne of metal extracted. Hence,
sustainable natural resource management demands that we plan for
the safe disposal of these wastes too.
a. What do you understand by sustainable development?
b. Name two perspectives of management of natural resources.
c. Write one harmful effect of exploiting our resources for short term
gains.
d. Mention one negative effect of mining on environment.
2. Forests are ‘biodiversity hot spots’. One measure of the biodiversity
of an area is the number of species found there. However, the range
of different life forms (bacteria, fungi, ferns, flowering plants,
nematodes, insects, birds, reptiles and so on) is also important. One
of the main aims of conservation is to try and preserve the
biodiversity we have inherited. Experiments and field studies suggest
that a loss of diversity may lead to a loss of ecological stability. When
we consider the conservation of forests, we need to look at the
stakeholders who are –(i) the people who live in or around forests
are dependent on forest produce for various aspects of their life (ii)
the Forest Department of the Government which owns the land and
controls the resources from forests. (iii) the industrialists – from
those who use ‘tendu’ leaves to make bidis to the ones with paper
mills – who use various forest produce, but are not dependent on the
 forests in any one area. (iv) the wild life and nature enthusiasts who
want to conserve nature in its pristine form.
a. Define the term biodiversity.
b. Give one example of biodiversity hotspot.
c. What is the effect of loss of biodiversity on ecosystem?
d. Mention four stakeholders of forest.
3. Narmada Bachao Amdolan is against which of the following reasons ?
(a) Water flowing in canal
(b) Raising the height of dam.
(c) Reserving water in reservoir.
(d) Covering the area.
4. Which of the following R's is not used to save the environment ?
a. Reduce
b. Recycle
c. Reuse
d. Remove
5. Which of the following fuels are formed by the degradation of
biomass ?
a. CNG
b. Nuclear
c. Biogas
d. Coal and petroleum
6. Van Mahotsava is meant for
a. Deforestation
b. Afforestation
c. Commercial forestry
d. Starting grazing season
7. Ground water will not depleted due to
a. Afforestation
b. Thermal power plants
c. Loss of forest, and decrease rainfall
d. Cropping of high water demanding crops
8. Pick the right combination terms which has no fossil fuel.
a. Wind, Ocean and Coal
b. Kerosene, Wind and tide
c. Wind, wood, sun
d. Petroleum, wood, sun
9. Which one of the following is an example of renewable resource ?
a. Coal
 b. Petroleum
c. Wildlife
d. Wind
10. Which one of the following is an example of non-renewable
resource ?
a. Water
b. Vegetation
c. Wind
d. Coal and minerals
11. From the list given below pick the item that is not a natural
resource
a. Soil
b. Water
c. Electricity
d. Air
12. The main cause for abundant Coliform bacteria in the river
Ganga is
a. Disposal of human excreta directly.
b. Discharge of effluents from electroplating industries
c. Washing of clothes
d. Immersion of ashes.
13. Khadins are common in __________.
14. Chipko Andolan originated in __________.
15. __________ Of water can be tested by using universal indicators.
16. __________ Store large quantity water for irrigation and
electricity.
17. Khadins, Budhins, Ahars and Khattas are ancient structures
that are examples for __________.
18. The bacteria present in contaminated water is _________.
19. Large-scale deforestation decreases __________
20. Sardar Sarovar Dam is situated on river __________.
21. Tehri Dam is being constructed on __________.
22. Kulhs system of irrigation is common in __________ state of India.
23. Monoculture forestry is more suitable for industries but it is
not good for the environment. [True / False]
24. Control of local people over their own water resources may
cause mismanagement and over-exploitation of these resources.
[True / False]
25. The river water is said to be polluted with acidic wastes when
pH of the river water above 7. [True / False.]
26. Match the column I with Column II
Column I Column II

(I) Arabari forests, (A) Khejri trees

Mindnapore

(II) Amrita Devi Bishnoi (B) Ganga river

(III) Rani Village Garhwal (C) Sal tree

(IV) Ganga Action Plan (D) Chipko Andolan

27. Match the column I with Column II

Column I Column II

(I) Reduce (A) Reprocess to

make desired things
(II) Recycle (B) Use again and again

(III) Reuse (C) Sustainable

development
(IV) Safe disposal of waste (D) Less use of things

28. Match the Column I with Column II

Column I Column II

(I) Himachal Pradesh (A) Surangams

(II) Rajasthan (B) Bhandars

(III) Bihar (C) Kulhs

(IV) Karnataka (D) Khadins

(E) Kattas

(F) Ahars
 Answers

Chapter 1 Chemical reactions and equations

Short answer type

1. Yes it is correct to say that decomposition of vegetable matter into

compost is an example of an exothermic reaction.
2. AgNO3 + Cu --------- > CuNO3 + Ag
3. Copper , Copper oxide
4. Calcium oxide , CaO
5. Blue
6. Combination reaction
7. Decomposition reaction
8. Law of conservation of mass.
9. Calcium hydroxide Ca(OH) 2
10. To remove layer of basic magnesium oxide
11. Hydrogen.
12. Exothermic
13. Which gas evolves at anode during electrolysis of water?
14. d. Aluminum is getting oxidized.
15. b. It is an example of decomposition reaction.
16. c. Lead nitrate
17. d.Combustion of Liquefied Petroleum Gas (LPG)
18. c. i, ii and iv
19. a.Hydrogen gas and iron chloride are produced
20. d.Both a and c
21. b.Nitrogen dioxide
22. b. N2 + H 2 ----------------------- > 2 NH3
23. c.Both are exothermic
24. D.Both magnesium oxide and Magnesium nitride
25. C.a hissing sound On heating ferrous sulphate crystals, one
would get
26. b. rotten egg smell
27. a.blue vitriol
28. d. white.
29. decomposition reaction
30. a.brown deposit
31. (a) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct and the Reason is
the correct explanation of the Assertion.
32. (a) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct and the Reason is
the correct explanation of the Assertion.
33. (c) Assertion is true but the Reason is false.
34. (d) The statement of the Assertion is false but the Reason is true.
35. (a) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct and the Reason is
the correct explanation of the Assertion.

36. (b) The Assertion and the Reason are correct but the Reason is
not the correct explanation of the Assertion.

37. (a) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct and the
Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
38. (c) Assertion is true but the Reason is false.
39. (d) The statement of the Assertion is false but the Reason is true.
40. (a) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct and the Reason is
the correct explanation of the Assertion.
41. Burning of natural gas is an exothermic reaction. True
42. The black coating developed on silver articles is of Silver Sulphide.
True/ False
43. Decomposition of ferrous sulphate into ferric oxide, and oxides of
sulphur is electrolytic decomposition. False
44. White silver Chloride turns green in sunlight. False
45. Calcium Oxide is also known as quick lime. True
46. Antioxidants help to prevent rusting of Iron. False
47. Precipitation reactions produce insoluble salts. True
48. The reaction 2K + Cl2 ---------- > 2KCl is an example of
combination reaction. False
49. Photosynthesis is an endothermic reaction. True
50. Zinc and lead are more reactive elements than copper. True
51. Match the type of reaction given in column A with examples given in
column B
Column A Column B
Decomposition reaction 2 KClO3 ---------- > 2KCl
+ 3O2
Double displacement reaction Ba Cl2 + Na2SO4 --------->
BaSO4 + 2 NaCl
Redox reaction CuO +H2 -----> Cu +H2O
Combination reaction N2 + H 2 ----------- >
 2 NH3

Chapter 2 Acids , bases and salts Answers

1- Equation- Na2CO3 +2Hcl=2NaCl+Co2+H2O.

2 -When dil.HCl to CuO powser, blue-green colour is imparted due to the
formation of copper chloride.(CuCl2).
3- PH of pure water at 25°C is 7.00.
4- PH of dil.HCl is found to be 2 and pH of dil.NaOh is 14.Solutions with pH
=0-3 are strongly acidic,so dil.HCl is a strong acid.
5- Increases
6- HCl releases high no.of hydrogen ions,whereas acetic acid releases very
less hydrogen ions.
7 -Those substances which change colour with ph.They also known as pH
indicator.
8 -Two examples of synthetic indicators are -: i)Phenopthelien.ii)Methyl
orange.
9- In increasing order- P,Q,S,T, and R.
10- A
11- A
12- NaHCo3 is basic in nature or it is a basic salt.Now.it means when we
place strip of pH paper in aqueous sodium bicarbonate,the colour of strip
turns into red.Hence,strip colour didn't change.
13-The colour of solution changes from colourless to red.
14- 6.5-7.5.
15- Option -D.
16- Option- A
17- Option-B.
18- A.
19- 7.00.
20- C
21-B
22 -A
23-A
24-C
25- C
26- A
27- A
28- C
29- TRUE
30- TRUE
31- TRUE
32- FALSE
33- TRUE
34- FALSE
35- FALSE
36- FALSE
37- FALSE
38- TRUE

Chapter 3 Metals and non metals

Answers
1. Gold
2. Silver, Copper
3. Electrical wires are covered with rubber because,Rubber is poor
conductor of electricty. ... The purpose of insulation covering the
metal part of an electrical wire is to prevent accidental contact
with other conductors of electricity.
4. Metal- mercury, non metal – Bromine
5. a non metal with lustrous surface, - Iodine , a soft metal- Sodium
or potassium, a non metal good conductor of electricity-
Carbon(graphite), a metal with low melting point- Lead
6.

7. The reason behind storing the potassium and sodium in kerosene

is because they are highly reactive in air and could burn any time.
 They are preserved in kerosene or dry mineral oil. These metals
are stored in kerosene to protect this element from moisture or
water content.
8. Calcium starts floating because the bubbles of hydrogen gas which
are formed during the reaction stick to the surface of the metal
and hence calcium floats on water.
9. Iron , zinc, aluminium, magnesium
10. Aqua regia - a mixture of nitric acid and hydrochloric acid in a
ratio of 1:3.
11. .b
12. .a
13. .a
14. .a
15. .d
16. .a
17. .a
18. .c
19. .c
20. .b
21. .b
22. .c
23. .a
24. .c
25. .a
26. .c
27. .a
28. .c
29. .c
30. .a
31. .a
32. .a
33. True
34. True
35. False
36. True
37. False
38. True
 39. True
40. True
41. False
42. True

Chapter 4 Carbon and its Compounds Answers

1. Ethanol, C2H5OH
2. Ans. Propene, C3H6
3. Ans. C4H10 C6H14 are saturated hydrocarbons
4. Ans. Butane, C4H10
5. Ans. Propyne, C3H4.
6. Ans. Ethane, C2H6
7. Ans. (i) (C1) Halogen (Chloro)
(ii) (OH) Alcohol
8. Ans. (1) Ketone (ii) Carboxylic acid (COOH)
9. Ans. HCOOH Methanoic acid
10. Ans. Methane
11. Ans. (b)
12. Ans. (d)
13. Ans. (a)
14. Ans. (b)
15. Ans. (c) Assertion is true but the Reason is false.
16. Ans. (b) The Assertion and the Reason are correct but the
Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
17. Ans. (c) Assertion is true but the Reason is false.
18. Ans.(c)
19. Ans. (b) The Assertion and the Reason are correct but the
Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion
20. Ans.(a)
21. Ans.(b)
22. Ans.(d)
23. Allotropes
24. Carbon dioxide
25. Saturated
26. 3
27. Oxidising agents
28. Saturated Hydrocarbons
29. Ethene
30. True
31. False
32. True
33. False
34. True
35. True

Chapter 5 Periodic Classification of Elements ANSWERS

1. a.63 b. Hydride and oxide of elements c. M2O , MO d. Properties of
elements are periodic function of their atomic masses.
2. a.combinig capacity is called valency b. Mg-2 S-4 c first increases than
decreses d. remains constant.
3. a. 4. d 5. a 6.b 7. b 8. b 9. b 10. a 11. b 12. b 13.c 14.d 15.c 16.a 17.a
18.b 19.b 20.c 21.c 22.c 23. C 24. T 25.F 26.T 27.F 28.F 29.T 30. T 31. F
32. T 33. F
Chapter 6 Life Processes Answers
4. ANS: MCQS 1 (b), 2(b), 3 (c), 4 (b), 5(c) , 6 ( b) ,7 (b) ,8 (d) ,9 (c) ,10
(a)
5. Fill in the blanks 1. Bile juice 2.Chloroplast 3.Pseudopodia 4.
5. Diaphram 6. Trachea 7.Pletlets 8. Transpiration
9.Haemoglobin 10.Lymph
6. True/False 1. T 2.F 3.F 4.T 5.F 6.F 7.T 8. F
7. Ans1. Chlorophyll.
Ans2 . Right ventricle.
Ans3. Epiglottis
Ans 4. Ventilator
Ans 5. Blood passes through the heart twice for each cycle of the
body Ans6. Fungi – Saprophytic
, Plasmodium- parasitic
Ans7. Amoeba – Cell membrane, Earthworm –skin.
 Ans8. Xylem
Ans:9 Digests starch
8. Ans.10 Gills and Trachea
9. Ans11.d) All the above
10. Ans12. A) Glucose
11. Ans13.Starch
12. Ans 14. Water
13. Ans 15. Carbon di oxide and water
14. Ans16.b
15. Ans17.Lactic Acid
16. Ans18.Fermentation

Chapter 7 Control and Coordination Answers

MCQS
ANS-1(a),2(d),3(b) ,4 (a) , 5(d),6 (d) ,7 (b),8 (a), 9 (c), 10 (d)
Fill in the blanks
1.Cerebrum
2.Cerebellum
3. taste ,smell
4. Reflex Arc
5.Glucose
6. towards ,away
7.Absisic acid
8.Geotropism
9.Dendrtic
10.Phytohormones
True /False
1.T 2.F 3.T 4.T 5.T 6.F 7.T 8. F
Ans 1. It controls overall metabolic rate of the body.
Ans 2. Insulin and Glucagon.
Ans 3. Auxin
Ans.4 Neuron (nerve cell)
Ans.5 Neurotransmitters
Ans.6 Pancreas
Ans7. Reflex action
Ans8. Cerebellum
Ans 9. a. Abscisic acid. b. Cytokinins
Ans10. Testosterone
Ans 11. Spontaneous,involuntary response to a stimuli.
Ans 12.Sensory Neuron
Ans 13. Withdraw of hand when pricked,secretion of saliva on sight of
delicious food
Ans 14.Spinal cord
Assertion i) ANS-(a)
Assertion ii)ANS-(a)

Chapter 8 Reproduction in Human beings Answers

MCQS 1. (d) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (d) 5. (a) 6.( a) 7.(c) 8. (d) 9. c)

10. (c)

Fill in the blanks

1.Plasmodium 2.Budding ,regeneration 3. Vegetatively propagation

4.Hydra,Planaria 5.identical 6.External 7. 28 days 8.Zygote 9.
Testesterone,estrogen ,progestron 10. Placenta
True/False
1.F 2.T 3.T 4.T 5.T 6.F 7.T 8.T
Ans1) Bryophyllum
Ans. 2 a)Ovulation b) Menarche
Ans.3 Oviduct (fallopian tube)
Ans.4 Regeneration
Ans. 5 Leishmania
Ans.6 DNA copying
Ans. 7 Air Layering (Gootee)
Ans.8 sperm and ova
Ans.9Watermelon and papaya
Ans.10 To produce female gamet , to secret female hormone
Ans.11 Deoxyribo neuclic acid
Ans.12 sexual
Ans.13 They need to transfer their traits to the next generation by DNA
copying which occurs during the process of reproduction.
Ans.14 Organisms need to adapt themselves to the changing
environment; the creation of variants needs to be hastened for this
 reason. This will only happen when there is a union of two different
DNAs.
Assertion i : (d) A is false but R is true
Assertion ii: (c) Atrue is but R is false

Chapter 9 Heredity and Evolution

MCQs
1.(b) 2.(d) 3. (a) 4. (a) 5. (c) 6. (d) 7. (b) 8 . 9. (a) 10. (b)
Fill in the blanks
1.sexual 2.Charlse Darwin 3.1 4. Girl 5. Species 6. recessive7. Homologous
8. Heredity 9 .alleles 10.evolution
True/false
1.T 2.F 3.T 4.F 5.T 6.T 7. F 8.F
Ans.1 The cross which occurs between the plants showing two alternate
forms of a trait (character).
Ans.2 Humans cell contain 23 pairs of chromosomes. Out of 23 pairs, 22
pairs are called autosomes, rest of 1pair
Ans.3
Ans. 4 Johannsen (1909) coined the term gene.
Ans.5 Ans. Gene which expresses itself is called dominant gene.

Ans.6 Pisum sativum

Ans.7 22
Ans.8 Gregor Mendel.
Ans.9 Homo sapiens
Ans.10. The inheritance of character from parents to offsprings is called
heredity
Ans.11 The phenomena of transferring traits or characteristics through
genes from both the parent to their offspring are defined as Heredity
Ans.12 Gregor Mendel
Ans.13 Pea plant
Ans.14 1. Law of Dominance
2.Law of Segregation
3.A principle of Independent Assortment

Ans.15 Evolution is generally defined as the changes in the genetic features

of the progeny over successive generations.
Ans.16 b
Ans.17 d
Ans.18 DNA copying during sexual reproduction
Chapter 10 Light Reflection and refraction Answers

1.

(a)Power of lens is the ability of the lens to converge the rays of light
falling on it. It can also be defined as P = 1/f where f is the focal
length.
(b) 1 Dioptre = 1m-1
(c) Focal length is given 2m
Power of lens p = 1/f

P = 1/-2

P = -0.5 D

(d) Concave lens

2.

(a) Refraction is the bending of light when it enters from one medium to
other.

(b)sin i/sin r constant

(c) Formula of refractive index

N = c/v where n = refractive index

c = 299792458 Speed of light in a vacuum in meter per

second

v = phase velocity of light in the medium

Solve for v

V = c/n

V= 299792458 / 1.33

V = 225407863.1 m/s

(d) Medium A light will travel the fastest.

3. Focal length is equal to half of radius of curvature.

4. Focal length
5. When the object is placed at the prinicipal focus (F) of a concave mirror,
a highly enlarged image is formed at infinity.

6. Position of object – At infinity

Position of image – At focus

7. At the centre of curvature (20 cm from mirror).

8. A concave lens or a convex mirror diverges the light whereas a convex

lens or a concave mirror converges the light rays. The extent that light rays
bend depends on the lens material and the curvative of the lens surfaces.
Light entering a convex lens is refracted toward a focal point on the other
side of the lens.

9. When the object is placed between the pole and the principal focus in
front of the concave mirror, then the object formed is virtual. When the
object is placed between the pole and focus in front of a concave mirror,
then the image formed virtual.

10. after reflection ray becomes parallel to the principal axis.

11. The object should be placed at 2F (centre of curvature) to form the

same size of image behind the mirror.

12. (c) 0.5 m

13. (a) 0

14. (c) Concave mirror

15. (b) at the centre of curvature

16. (b) always virtual image

17. (d) first towards and then away from the lens

18. (c)

19. (a) is less than one

20. (b) a convex mirror

21. (b) very near by the focus of the reflector

22. (d) all mirrors irrespective of their shape

23. (d) Concave mirror, convex mirror, concave lens, convex lens

24. (a) virtual and magnified

25. (b)

26. (d) iv

27. (b) B

28. (d) All are correct

29. (c) III

30. (c) Centre of lens and centre of the screen.

31. (c) 9.8 cm

32. (a) A

33. (d) concave mirror

34. (d) the sun

35. (b) concave

36. (a) A and the device X is a convex lens

37. (a) an inverted image of trees at focus of lens

38. (a) slightly nearer to the lens

39. (d) a convex lens, a screen, holders for them and a scale.

40. (a) at A

41. (a) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct and the Reason is
the correct explanation of the Assertion.
42. (a) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct and the Reason is the
correct explanation of the Assertion.
43. (b) The Assertion and the Reason are correct but the Reason is not the
correct explanation of the Assertion.

44. (a) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct and the Reason is the
correct explanation of the Assertion.

45. (a) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct and the Reason is the
correct explanation of the Assertion.

46. (a) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct and the Reason is the
correct explanation of the Assertion.

47. (d) The statement of the Assertion is false but the Reason is true.

48. True

49. False

50. True

51. False

52. False

53. True

54. True

55. True

56. True

57. True
 Chapter 11 Human eye and the colourful world Answers
1. a. Cornea,retina b. Eyelens c. Retina d. Iris e. Eyelens- conversing,
image- real , inverted
2. a. (i) excessive curvature of the eye lens, or (ii) elongation of the
eyeball. b.myopia c.near point recedes away d.hypermetropia,
convex e. Presbyopia
3. Blue 4. Least 5. Presbyopia 6. Convex 7. Speed 8. Power of
accommodation 9. Scaterring 10. Cornea 11. Befire 12. Bifocal 13. F
14. F 15. T 16. T 17. F 18. T 19. T 20. T 21. T 22. T 23 i-d , ii-c , iii- a, iv-
b 24 . a 25. A 26. C 27. C 28. C 29. B 30. b 31. d 32. a 33. a 34. c 35. d
36. d 37. c 38. d 39. c 40 b 41 d 42 b 43 d 44 b 45 a 46 a 47 c 48 b 49
a 50 b 51 b 52 d.

Chapter 12 Electricity
1. a.continuous and closed path for the flow of electric current.
b.Ampere- when 1 coulomb of charge flows for 1 second. C. in series
d. 1 coulomb
2. a . the electric potential difference between two points in an
electric circuit carrying some current as the work done to move a
unit charge from one point to the other b. cell battery c. One volt is
the potential difference between two points in a current carrying
conductor when 1 joule of work is done to move a charge of 1
coulomb from one point to the other. 3.Resistance 4.b 5.(b) 6.(a)
7.(a) 8.(b) 9.(b) 10. (c) 11.(b) 12.(c) 13.(a) 14.(d) 15.(c)
16.(a) 17.(b) 18.(c) 19.(c) 20.(c) 21.volt 22. Resistance
23.Electric Power 24.Tungsten 25. Melting Point 26. Decrease
27. Potential Difference 28. Vector 29. High 30. Silver 31.(T)
32.(T) 33.(F) 34.(F) 35.(T) 36.(T) 37.(T)

Chapter 13 Magnetic effects of electric current Answers

ANS.1-:
A)- Electric fans and Refrigerators.
B)- Fleming left hand rule.
C)- It reserves the direction of flow of current through circuit.
D)- The split rings of motor act as commutator.
ANS.2-: North to South.
ANS.3-: South to North.
ANS.4-: Tesla.
ANS.5-: It indicate that there is strong magnetic field.
ANS.6-: Crowding of magnetic lines.
ANS.7-: 50Hz.
ANS.8-: 220-250 Volts or 50Hz.
ANS.9-: By placing a small compass.
ANS.10-:.Lines of force of magnet.
ANS.11-: At centre.
ANS.12-: 100 Times.
ANS.13-: Concentric circles with centre at the axis of conductor.
ANS.14-: Right hand thumb rule.
ANS.15-: A cylindrical coil of wire acting as a magnet when carrying electric
current.
ANS.16-: Electromagnet.
ANS.17-: How many times number of signal(Current/Voltage)reaches its
maximum or minimum in one second.
ANS.18-: Please check in WhatsApp.
ANS.19-: Electric motor.
ANS.20-: A device who converts mechanical energy into electrical energy.
ANS.21 - Ans. AC can be transmitted to long distant places without much
loss of electric energy
ANS.22-: Option-D.
ANS.23-: Option-B.
ANS.24-: Option-B.
ANS.25-: Option-C.
ANS.26-: Option-B.
ANS.27-: Option-B.
ANS.28-: Option-B.
ANS.29-: Option-C.
ANS.30-: Option-A.
ANS.31-: Option-A.
ANS.32-: Option-A.
ANS.33-: Option-C.
ANS.34-: Option-A.
ANS.35-: Option-B.
ANS.36-: Option-B.
ANS.37-: a
ANS.38-: b
ANS.39-: a.
Ans 40- a.
ANS.41-:b.
ANS.42-: T.
ANS.43-: F.
ANS.44-: T.
ANS.45-: F.
ANS.46-: T.
ANS.47-: T.
ANS.48-: F.
ANS.49-: T.
ANS.50-: F.
ANS.51-: T.
ANS.52-: Increase the strength of the magnetic field inside the solenoid
Chapter 14 Sources of energy Answers

1.(a). Yes (b).Methane (c). Used as manure (d). Digester

2. Electricity , Solar Energy ( Wind Energy , Geothermal Energy , Biomass

Energy , Natural Gas , etc) 3. Oxides of Sulphur , Oxides of Nitrogen 4.
Wind Energy , Solar energy 5. Dry Distillation of wood 6. Solar Cooker ,
Solar Furnace 7. Anaerobic 8.Charcoal 9. Photovoltaic cell 10. The
range can be between 150 F (66c) to 400 F (240c) if you have well made
solar cooker 11. Photovoltaic(electricity) and Thermal(heat) 12.(a) 13.
(b) 14.(c) 15.(b) 16.(c) 17.(b) 18.(c) 19.(a) 20.(b) 21.(c)
22.(a) 23.(c) 24.(d) 25.Convex 26. (F) 27.(T) 28.(T) 29.(T)
30.(T)

Chapter 15 Our Environment

1. a. All the interacting organisms in an area together with the non-

living constituents of the environment form an ecosystem.
b.An ecosystem consists of biotic components and abiotic
components.
c.Soil,temperature,rainfall
d.Naturall and manmade
2. a.Each step or level of the food chain forms a trophic level. b. Grass-
dear-lion or Any other correct example. C.10 %d.The autotrophs or
the producers are at the first trophic level. They fix up the solar
energy and make it available for heterotrophs or the consumers.
3. One measure of the biodiversity of an area is the number of species
found there. Secondly, the range of different life forms is also
important.
4. Ans. Bacteria and fungi.
5. Ans. 10J of energy will be available to the secondary consumer to
transfer to the tertiary consumer.
6. Ans. 1 J energy will be available to deer to transfer it to lion.
7. Ans. 1,000,000 J of energy was available to the producer.
8. (c) energy level
9. (c) Tree
10. (c) Grasses
11. (b) Crop field
12. (c) both living organisms and non-living objects
13. (c) (i) and (iii)
14. (c) Wolf, grass, snake, tiger
15. (b) Leather belts
16. (b) Nylon
17. (d) Mango pulp
18. (c) primary consumer to secondary consumer
19. (a) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct and the
Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
20. (b) The Assertion and the Reason are correct but the Reason is
not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
21. (a) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct and the
Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
22. (b) The Assertion and the Reason are correct but the Reason is
not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
23. True.
24. False.
25. True.
Direction: Match Column I with Column II.
26. Ans. 1 (ii), 2 (i), 3 (iv), 4 (iii).

Chapter 16 Sustainable management of natural resources

 Short answer type
1.
e. Sustainable development means fulfilling present needs with
preserving resources for future generations.
f. Two perspectives of management of natural resources are short term
gains and long term gains.
g. Extinction of forests , natural resources, environmental pollution. .
h. Environmental pollution, destruction of flora and fauna.
2.
e. Biodiversity is the diversity in living forms.
f. forests
g. Loss of ecological stability.
h. Government, Industrialist, NGO, Nature enthusiast, People living
inside forests
3. b.Raising the height of dem
4. d. Remove
5. c.biogas
6. Van Mahotsava is meant for b.Afforestation
7. b. Thermal power plants
8. C.wind,wood,sun.
9. d.wind
10. d.coal and minerals
11. c.elctricity
12. a.Disposal of human excreta directly.
13. Khadins are common in _Rajasthan.
14. Chipko Andolan originated in _uttarakhand_.
15. ___pH____ Of water can be tested by using universal indicators.
16. _Dams_ Store large quantity water for irrigation and electricity.
17. Khadins, Budhins, Ahars and Khattas are ancient structures
that are examples for __water conservation_.
18. The bacteria present in contaminated water is e. coliform_.
19. Large-scale deforestation decreases Rainfall__
20. Sardar Sarovar Dam is situated on river _Narmada__.
21. Tehri Dam is being constructed on __Ganga__.
22. Kulhs system of irrigation is common in Himachal Pradesh_
state of India.
23. Monoculture forestry is more suitable for industries but it is
not good for the environment. [True ]
24. Control of local people over their own water resources may
cause mismanagement and over-exploitation of these resources. [
False]
25. The river water is said to be polluted with acidic wastes when
pH of the river water above 7. [False.]
26. Match the column I with Column II
Column I Column II

(i) Arabari forests, (C) Sal tree

Mindnapore

(ii) Amrita Devi Bishnoi (A) Khejri trees

(iii) Rani Village Garhwal (D) Chipko Andolan

(iv) Ganga Action Plan (B) Ganga river

27. Ans. – (I) (D), (ii) (A), (III) (B), (iv) (C)
28. Ans. – (I) (C), (ii) (D), (III) (F), (iv) (E)