Section I

Maximum Marks – 60 Time – 45 minutes

Instructions: - 1. There are total 60 question in this section.

2. All question have four choices out of which only one is correct.
3. There is no negative marking.

1. Find the unit place of 3674 x 8596 + 5699 x 1589

a) 3 b) 4
c) 5 d) 6

2. What will be the highest three digit number which when divided by 3, 7 and
21 leaves remainder 2?
a) 978 b) 982
c) 983 d) 989

3. Two persons A & B travelling towards each other from P & Q respectively
which is 396 kms apart meet after 11 hours. Speed of A is 6 kms/hr more than B.
Find the speed of B.
a) 15 b) 18
c) 21 d) 24

4. Train travelling at a speed of 90 km/hr crosses a man standing on a platform

in 8 seconds. Find the time taken by the train to cross the platform of length 250
kms.
a) 15 sec b) 16 sec
c) 18 sec d) 20 sec

5. There are three numbers A, B and C. A is 50% of C and B is 75% of C, then A

is what percentage of B?
 a) 66.66% b) 50%
c) 75% d) 80%

6. A = 36% B, B = 6% C. If C = 100 then A is equal to –

a) 2.18 b) 2.21
c) 2.16 d) 2.24

7. A shopkeeper purchased two qualities of rice A & B. He bought 10 kg of rice A

at Rs.35/kg and 20 kg rice B at Rs. 47/kg. Find the overall cost price per kgs if he
mixes both types of rice.
a) 43 b) 42
c) 41 d) 40
8. Sachin has a batting average of 99 in 80 innings. He was out for duck in his
th
80 innings. If he were to have a batting average of 100 how much should have
been scored by him in his 80th match?
a) 80 b) 180
c) 99 d) 100

9. A and B together can complete a particular task in 4 days. If A alone can

complete the same task in 6 days, how many days will B take to complete the task if
he works alone?
a) 8 b) 7
c) 12 d) None of these

10. If the perimeter of a rectangle is 138 metres and the difference between the
length and the breadth is 7 metres, what is the area of the rectangle?
a) 1216 square meters b) 1147 square metres
c) 1184 square metres d) 1178 square metres

11. What will come in place of question mark (?) in the following question?
25% of 84 × 24% of 85 =?
a) 144.4 b) 244.4
 c) 428.4 d) 333.4

12. If in a triangle ABC, AB = AC, ∠A = x + 15°, ∠B = 2x + 25° then value of ∠C

a) 71° b) 51°
c) 61° c) 41°

13. A point P is located outside the circle with centre O. A tangent from point P
touches the circle at A and a secant from P cuts the circle at B and C respectively.
PA =12cm PC= 16cm. Find the length of chord BC.
a) 12 b) 8
c) 9 d) None of these

14. If sinA + sin2A = 1 then what is the value of cos2A + cos4A?

a) 0 b) 1
c) -1 d) 2

15. The length of a rectangular field is increased by 30% and breadth is

decreased by 30%. What is the per cent increase or decrease in its area?
a) 9% increase b) 21% decrease
c) 21% increase d) 9% increase

16. If a + b + c = 9, ab + bc + ca = 26, a3 + b3 = 91, b3 + c3 = 72 and c3 +

a = 35, then what is the value of abc?
3

a) 23 b) 24
c) 25 d) 26

17. The value of x for which the expressions 19 - 5x and 19x + 5 become equal is
______.
a) 7/24 b) 7/12
c) 11/12 d) 11/24
18. If x + y = 10 and x2 + y2 = 68, then find xy
a) 18 b) 24
c) 17 d) 16

19. The mode and mean is given by 7 and 8, respectively. Then the median is:
a) 1/13
b) 13/3
c) 23/3
d) 33

20. If Mean of a, a+3, a+6, a+9 and a+12 is 10, then a is equal to;
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

Directions (21 – 25): Below each four pairs of words have been denoted by
numbers (a), (b), (c), and (d). Find out which pair of words can be filled up in the
blanks in the sentence in the same sequence to make the sentence meaningfully
complete.

21. Mr. Srinivasan is ___ to become Chairman of the group ____ the retirement
of his father.
(a) set, following (b) voted, subsequent
(c) selected, despite (d) approved, because

22. ___ to your error the ___ consignment has been delayed by a week.
(a) According, important (b) Duly, urgent
(c) Owing, entire (d) Added, crucial
23. On account of the ___ in sales the software firm has achieved an eight per
cent ___ in net profit.
(a) surge, fall (b) increase, rise
(c) decline, slope (d) hike, loss

24. We are proud to say that today ___ 26 per cent of our total accounts are ___
by women and senior citizens.
(a) approximate, held (b) nearly, authorized
(c) over, maintain (d) above, open

25. The company has _____ special training to employees on _____ to trade
online.
(a) announced, benefits (b) offered, course
(c) imparted, risks (d) sanction, skills

26. In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the word similar
in meaning to the word given.
Cynicism
a) Conviction b) Bitterness
c) Credence d) Intuition

27. In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the word similar
in meaning to the word given.
Pinnacle
a) Culmination b) Nadir
c) Nethermost d) Basal

28. In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the word
opposite in meaning to the word given.
Befuddle
a) Baffle b) Daze
c) Fluster d) Explicate
29. In the following question, a sentence has been given in Direct/Indirect
speech. Out of the four alternatives suggested, select the one which best express
the same sentence in Indirect/Direct speech.
John said, "There is a monkey outside the window."

a) John said that there was a monkey outside the window.

b) John said that there is a monkey outside the window.
c) John says that there was a monkey outside the window.
d) John says that there is a monkey outside the window.

30. In the following question, a sentence has been given in Direct/Indirect

speech. Out of the four alternatives suggested, select the one which best express
the same sentence in Indirect/Direct speech.
She said, “I will have cooked the food by the time they arrive”.

a) She said that she will have cooked the food by the time they would arrive.
b) She said that she would cooked the food by the time they will arrive.
c) She said that she would have cooked the food by the time they will arrive.
d) She said that she would have cooked the food by the time they arrived.

In the following question Q31 – Q32, a sentence has been given in Active/Passive
Voice. Out of the four alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses
the same sentence in Passive/Active Voice.
31. You’ll be missing the sunshine in home.
a) You’ll miss the sunshine in home.
b) You would be missing the sunshine in home.
c) You’ll are going to be missing the sunshine in home.
d) None of the above.

32. The presiding officer vetoed the committee’s decision.

a) The committee’s decision is vetoed by the presiding officer.
 b) The committee’s decision was vetoed by the presiding officer.
c) The committee’s decision has been vetoed by the presiding officer.
d) The committee’s decision is being vetoed by the presiding officer.

33. In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative
which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.
Tight - lipped
a) To have very thin lips
b) To be boisterous
c) To have a thin voice
d) Unwilling to speak about an event

34. Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the
given words/sentence.
To confirm with the help of evidence
a) Philanthropist
b) Bilingual
c) Refute
d) Corroborate

35. In the following question, one part of the sentence may have an error. Find
out which part of the sentence has an error and click the button corresponding to it.
If the sentence is free from error, click the "No error" option.
Rohan had been playing (1) for his club since fifteen years, (2) but then
his elbow got injured. (3) No error (4)
a) Rohan had been playing
b) for his club since fifteen years,
c) but then his elbow got injured.
d) No error

36. When was the Constitution of India amended for the first time?
a) 1951 b) 1952
c) 1950 d) 1953

37. Who wrote the book Indica?

a) Megasthenese b) Aristotle
c) Chanakya d) None of these

38. Soil contains decayed remains of living organisms. This is called ______.
a) Minerals b) Biosphere
c) Saline Soil d) Humus

39. Dairy comes under which sector of economic activity?

a) Tertiary sector b) Primary sector
c) Secondary sector d) Quaternary sector

40. Who is appointed as the first Lt. Governor of Union Territory of Ladakh?
a) Raj Manohar Joshi b) G C Murmu
c) Satyapal Malik d) R K Mathur

41. What phenomenon is responsible for twinkling of stars?

a) Diffraction b) Refraction
c) Dispersion d) Scattering of Light
42. What will be the power consumption of two 300 W bulbs, three 100 W fans
and one 1200 W Refrigerator for continuous operation of 30 hours?
a) 54 kWh b) 60 kWh
c) 63 kWh d) None of these

43. What type of image is formed by the eye lens on the retina?
(a) Real and erect
(b) Virtual and inverted
(c) Real and inverted
(d) Virtual and erect

44. The magnetic field is the strongest at

(a) middle of the magnet.
(b) north pole.
(c) south pole.
(d) both poles.

45. The heating element of an electric iron is made up of:

(a) copper
(b) nichrome
(c) aluminium
(d) iron

46. A zygote which has an X-chromosome inherited from the father will develop
into
(a) girl
(b) boy
(c) either boy or girl
(d) X-chromosome does not influence the sex of a child.

47. The ability of a cell to divide into several cells during reproduction in
Plasmodium is called
(a) budding
(b) multiple fission
(c) binary fission
(d) reduction division

48. Tomato is a natural source of which acid?

(a) Acetic acid
(b) Citric acid
(c) Tartaric acid
(d) Oxalic acid
49. Which of the following has more inertia – a rubber ball and a stone of same
size?
a) Rubber ball
b) Stone
c) Both have equal inertia
d) Both have zero

50. A bus at rest starts moving with an acceleration of 0.1 m/s2. What will be its
speed after 2 minutes?
a) 15 m/s
b) 18 m/s
c) 9 m/s
d) 12 m/s

51. Select a figure from amongst the Answer Figures which will continue the
same series as established by the five Problem Figures.
Problem Figures: Answer Figures:

A B C D C 1 2 3 4 5
a) 4 b) 3
c) 1 d) 2

52. Marathon is to race as hibernation is to

a) winter b) bear
c) dream d) sleep
53. Choose the correct order of letters which are required to form a correct
meaningful word
VARSTE
a) 2,3,1,6,4,5
b) 3,2,4,5,6,1
c) 4,5,2,3,1,6
d) 6,3,4,5,2,1

54. In these series, you will be looking at both the letter pattern and the number
pattern. Fill the blank in the series.
SCD, TEF, UGH, ____, WKL
a) CMN b) VIJ
c) IJT d) UJI

55. Introducing a boy, a girl said, "He is the son of the daughter of the father of
my uncle." How is the boy related to the girl?
a) Brother b) Nephew
c) Uncle d) Son-in-law

56. How many dots lie opposite to the face having three dots, when the given
figure is folded to form a cube?

a) 2 b) 3
c) 5 d) 6

57. Find out which of the figures (1), (2), (3) and (4) can be formed from the
pieces given in figure (X).
 a) 2 b) 3
c) 1 d) 4

58. Which of the following diagrams indicates the best relation between
Travelers, Train and Bus ?

a)

b)

c)

d)

59. In a certain code language,

'134' means 'good and tasty';
'478' means 'see good pictures' and
'729' means 'pictures are faint'.
Which of the following digits stands for 'see'?
a) 1 b) 9
c) 8 d) None of these

60. Which one will replace the question mark ?

a) 24 b) 36
c) 29 d) 41
 Section IV (Electronics)

Maximum Marks – 50 Time – 30 minutes

Instructions: - 1. There are total 50 question in this section.

2. All question have four choices out of which only one is
correct.
3. There is no negative marking.

1. Three capacitors of capacity 8 µF, 16 µF and 32 µF are connected in series,

the total capacitance will be
(a) 32/7 µF (b) 7.32 µF (c) 56 µF (d) None of these

2. The voltage supplied by one cell of Lead acid battery is approximately

(a) 0.5 V (b) 1.11 V (c) 2 V (d) None of these

3. The maximum value of potential gradient in a cable occurs in

(a) Conductor (b) insulation (c) outer sheath (d) None of these

4. Time constant in an R-L circuit is defined as the time taken by the current to
become
(a) 36.8% of the final value (b) 36.8% of the initial value
(c) 63.2% of the final value (d) None of these

5. An R-C circuit is fed by a DC source. The current in the circuit is maximum at

(a) t = 0 (b) t = infinity (c) t = RC (d) None of these

6. The Fourier transform of a unit step function is given by

(a) F (jw) = 1/w (b) F(jw) = j/w (c) F(jw) = 1/jw (d) None of these

7. Ripple factor for half wave rectifier

(a) 1.11 (b) 1.21 (c) 1.5 (d) None of these

8. The material useful for manufacture of transformers and large turbo-

alternator is
(a) Hot Rolled Grain Oriented Steel
(b) Cold rolled Grain Oriented Steel
(c) Cast Steel
(d) None of these
9. Annealing of metals
(a) Removes internal stress (b) increases size of grains
(c) decreases conductivity (d) None of these

10. The shunt element of a prototype High pass filter is

(a) Resistive (b) Inductive
(c) Capacitive (d) None of these
11. A hole in a semiconductor is defined as ….
(a) A free electron (b) The incomplete part of an electron pair
bond
(c) A free proton (d) None of these

12. A pn junction acts as a ___

(a) Controlled switch (b) Bidirec-tional switch
(c) Unidirectional switch (d) None of the above

13. A 1,000 V power supply would use ___ as a filter capacitor

(a) paper capacitor (b) air capacitor
(c) mica capacitor (d) electrolytic capacitor

14. The height of the geostationary satellite is-

(a) 35930 km (b) 45930 km
(c) 55930 km (d) None of these

15. Value of i (0+) for the system whose transfer function is given by the
equation-
I(s) = 2s + 3
(s + 1) (s + 3)
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) None of these

16. According to Hurwitz criterion, the characteristic equation

s + 8s3 + 18s2 + 16s + 5 = 0 is
4

(a) Unstable (b) Marginally stable

(c) Conditionally stable (d) None of these

17. An advantage of RC coupling scheme is the ___

(a) Good impedance matching (b) Economy
(c) High efficiency (d) None of these

18. In practice, voltage gain is expressed ___

(a) In db (b) In volts (c) As a number (d) None of these

19. In transistor amplifiers, we use ___ transformer for impedance matching

(a) Step up (b) Step down (c) Same turn ratio (d) None of these
20. Transistor biasing is generally provided by a ___
(a) Biasing circuit (b) Bias battery (c) Diode (d) None of these

21. A crystal diode is used as ___

(a) an amplifier (b) a rectifier (c) an oscillator (d) None of these

22. Mains a.c. power is converted into d.c. power for ___
(a) lighting purposes (b) heaters
(c) using in electronic equipment (d) none of the above

23. The battery connections required to forward bias a pn junction are ___
(a) +ve terminal to p and –ve terminal to n
(b) –ve terminal to p and +ve terminal to n
(c) –ve terminal to p and +ve terminal to n
(d) None of the above

24. The bandwidth of a single stage amplifier is ___ that of a multistage amplifier
(a) More than (b) The same as (c) Less than (d) Data insufficient

25. An astable mutivibrator has component values RB1 = RB2 = R = 10kΩ and C1 =
C = 120 PF. The frequency of circuit oscillation is given by –
(a) 58.4 Hz (b) 5.84 kHz (c) 5.84 Hz (d) None of these

26. Miller integrator voltage sweep generator uses –

(a) Negative feedback
(b) Positive feedback
(c) Both negative and positive feedback simultaneously
(d) None of these

27. The operating point is also called the ___

(a) Cut off point (b) Quiescent point
(c) Saturation point (d) None of the above

28. A current of 4.8 Amp is flowing in a conductor. The number of electrons

flowing per second through the conductor in electron/sec will be –
(a) 3 x 1019 (b) 76.8 x 1020
(c) 7.68 x 1020 (d) None of these

29. When was FORTRAN developed by IBM?

(a) 1954 (b) 1968
(c) 1978 (d) None of these

30. Digital circuit can be made by the repeated use of ____

(a) OR gates (b) NOT gates (c) NAND gates (d) None of these
31. In Boolean algebra, the bar sign (-) indicates ____
(a) OR operation (b) AND operation (c) NOT operation (d) None of these

32. The inverter is ____

(a) NOT gate (b) OR gate (c) AND gate (d) None of these

33. Bit stands for ____

(a) binary information term (b) binary digit
(c) binary tree (d) None of these

34. TCP/IP is necessary if one is to connect to the ____

(a) Phone Lines (b) Internet (c) LAN (d) None of these

35. If a computer provides database services to other, .then it will be known as.
(a) Web server (b) Application server
(c) Database server (d) None of these

36. The springs used in railway wagons and road vehicles belong to the category
of
(a) Leaf springs (b) Cylindrical helical springs
(c) Spiral springs (d) None of these

37. FMR as referred to brakes is

(a) Force multiplication ratio (b) Frictional moment ratio
(c) Friction multiplication ratio (d) None of these

38. SMPS stand for ____

(a) Simple mode power supply (b) Switch mode power supply
(c) Surge mode power supply (d) None of these

39. The biometric device is____

(a) Output device (b) Power supply (c) Input device (d) None of these

40. Solder which is used for joining metal pieces is an alloy of

(a) Tin and lead (b) Zinc and lead (c) Tin and zinc (d) None of these

41. Class power amplifier has the highest collector efficiency

(a) C (b) A (c) B (d) None of these

42. Thermal runaway occurs when ____

(a) Collector is reverse biased (b) Transistor is not biased
(c) Emitter is forward biased (d) None of these
43. Dielectric strength of a material implies its
(a) Energy storage capacity
(b) Magnetic strength
(c) Capacity to withstand high voltage
(d) None of the above

44. The emitter of a transistor is ____doped

(a) lightly (b) heavily (c) moderately (d) none of these

45. The piezoelectric effect in a crystal is ____

(a) A voltage developed because of mechanical stress
(b) A change in resistance because of temperature
(c) A change in frequency because of temperature
(d) None of the above

46. Over-modulation results in ____

(a) Weakening of the signal (b) Excessive carrier power
(c) Distortion (d) None of the above

47. In a radio receiver, noise is generally developed at ____

(a) IF stage (b) Receiver (c) RF stage (d) None of these

48. If a radio receiver amplifies all the signal frequencies equally well, it is said to
have high____
(a) Sensitivity (b) Selectivity (c) Fidelity (d) None of these

49. The major advantage of FM over AM is ____

(a) Reception is less noisy (b) Higher carrier frequency
(c) Smaller bandwidth (d) Small frequency deviation

50. The IF is 455 kHz. If the radio receiver is tuned to 855 kHz, the local oscillator
frequency is ____
(a) 455 kHz (b) 1310 kHz (c) 1500 kHz (d) None of these