and the longitudinal CG-position is at 3.10 m.

Determine the longitudinal CG

31.3.2.4 (1717)
Length of the mean aerodynamic chord = 1 mMoment arm of the forward cargo:
-0,50 mMoment arm of the aft cargo: + 2,50 mThe aircraft mass is 2 200 kg and its
centre of gravity is at 25% MACTo move the centre of gravity to 40%, which mass
has to be transferred from the forward to the aft cargo hold?
a) 110 kg
b) 183 kg
c) 165 kg
d) 104 kg

31.3.3.1 (1718)
Loads must be adequately secured in order to:
a) avoid unplanned centre of gravity (cg) movement and aircraft damage.
b) avoid any centre of gravity (cg) movement during flight.
c) prevent excessive 'g'-loading during the landing flare.
d) allow steep turns.

31.3.3.2 (1719)
Assume:Aeroplane gross mass: 4750 kgCentre of gravity at station: 115.8What will
be the new position of the centre of gravity if 100 kg is moved from the station 30
to station 120?
a) Station 117.69
b) Station 118.33
c) Station 120.22
d) Station 118.25

32.1.1.0 (1720)
Density altitude is the
a) pressure altitude corrected for 'non standard' temperature
b) altitude reference to the standard datum plane
c) altitude read directly from the altimeter
d) height above the surface

32.1.1.0 (1721)
The Density Altitude
a) is used to determine the aeroplane performance.
b) is equal to the pressure altitude.
c) is used to establish minimum clearance of 2.000 feet over mountains.
d) is used to calculate the FL above the Transition Altitude.

32.1.1.0 (1722)
Given that:VEF= Critical engine failure speed VMCG= Ground minimum control
289
speedVMCA= Air minimum control speed VMU= Minimum unstick speedV1= Take-
off decision speedVR= Rotation speedV2 min.= Minimum take-off safety speedThe
correct formula is:
a) VMCG<=VEF < V1
b) 1.05 VMCA<= VEF<= V1
c) 1.05 VMCG< VEF<= VR
d) V2min<= VEF<= VMU

32.1.1.0 (1723)
Given:VS= Stalling speedVMCA= Air minimum control speed VMU= Minimum
unstick speed (disregarding engine failure)V1= take-off decision speedVR=
Rotation speedV2 min.= Minimum take-off safety speedVLOF: Lift-off speed The
correct formula is:
a) VS< VMCA< V2 min
b) VR< VMCA< VLOF
c) VMU<= VMCA< V1
d) V2min< VMCA> VMU

32.1.1.0 (1724)
Regarding take-off, the take-off decision speed V1:
a) is the airspeed on the ground at which the pilot is assumed to have made a
decision to continue or discontinue the take-off.
b) is always equal to VEF (Engine Failure speed).
c) is an airspeed at which the aeroplane is airborne but below 35 ft and the pilot is assumed to
have made a decision to continue or discontinue the take-off .
d) is the airspeed of the aeroplane upon reaching 35 feet above the take-off surface.

32.1.1.0 (1725)
The point where Drag coefficient/Lift coefficient is a minimum is
a) the point where a tangent from the origin touches the drag curve.
b) the lowest point of the drag curve.
c) at stalling speed (VS).
d) on the ""back side"" of the drag curve.

32.1.1.0 (1726)
Which of the following statements is correct?
a) Induced drag decreases with increasing speed.
b) Induced drag increases with increasing speed.
c) Induced drag is independant of the speed.
d) Induced drag decreases with increasing angle of attack.

32.1.1.0 (1727)
The point at which a tangent out of the origin touches the power required curve
a) is the point where the Lift to Drag ratio is a maximum.
b) is the point where Drag coefficient is a minimum.
c) is the point where the Lift to Drag ratio is a minimum.
d) is the maximum drag speed.

32.1.1.0 (1728)
On a reciprocating engined aeroplane, to maintain a given angle of attack,
configuration and altitude at higher gross mass
a) the airspeed and the drag will be increased. 290
b) the airspeed will be decreased and the drag increased.
c) the lift/drag ratio must be increased.
d) the airspeed will be increased but the drag does not change.

32.1.1.0 (1729)
On a reciprocating engined aeroplane, to maintain a given angle of attack,
configuration and altitude at higher gross mass
a) an increase in airspeed and power is required.
b) a higher coefficient of drag is required.
c) an increase in airspeed is required but power setting does not change.
d) requires an increase in power and decrease in the airspeed.

32.1.1.0 (1730)
On a reciprocating engined aeroplane, with increasing altitude at constant gross
mass, angle of attack and configuraton the drag
a) remains unchanged but the TAS increases.
b) remains unchanged but the the CAS increases.
c) increases at constant TAS.
d) decreases and the CAS decreases too because of the lower air density.

32.1.1.0 (1731)
On a reciprocating engined aeroplane, with increasing altitude at constant gross
mass, angle of attack and configuraton the power required
a) increases and the TAS increases by the same percentage.
b) increases but TAS remains constant.
c) decreases slightly because of the lower air density.
d) remains unchanged but the TAS increases.

32.1.1.0 (1732)
A lower airspeed at constant mass and altitude requires
a) a higher coefficient of lift.
b) less thrust and a lower coefficient of lift.
c) more thrust and a lower coefficient of lift.
d) more thrust and a lower coefficient of drag.

32.1.1.0 (1733)
The coefficient of lift can be increased either by flap extension or by
a) increasing the angle of attack.
b) increasing the TAS.
c) decreasing the 'nose-up' elevator trim setting.
d) increasing the CAS.

32.1.1.0 (1734)
The speed VS is defined as
a) stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed at which the aeroplane is
controllable.
b) safety speed for take-off in case of a contaminated runway.
c) design stress speed.
d) speed for best specific range.
291
32.1.1.0 (1735)
The stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed at which the aeroplane is
controllable in landing configuration is abbreviated as
a) VSO.
b) VS1.
c) VS.
d) VMC.

32.1.1.0 (1736)
In unaccelerated climb
a) thrust equals drag plus the downhill component of the gross weight in the flight
path direction.
b) lift is greater than the gross weight.
c) lift equals weight plus the vertical component of the drag.
d) thrust equals drag plus the uphill component of the gross weight in the flight path direction.

32.1.1.0 (1737)
Which of the equations below expresses approximately the unaccelerated
percentage climb gradient for small climb angles?
a) Climb Gradient = ((Thrust - Drag)/Weight) x 100
b) Climb Gradient = ((Thrust + Drag)/Lift) x 100
c) Climb Gradient = ((Thrust - Mass)/Lift) x 100
d) Cimb Gradient = (Lift/Weight) x 100

32.1.1.0 (1738)
The rate of climb
a) is approximately climb gradient times true airspeed divided by 100.
b) is the downhill component of the true airspeed.
c) is angle of climb times true airspeed.
d) is the horizontal component of the true airspeed.

32.1.1.0 (1739)
Any acceleration in climb, with a constant power setting,
a) decreases the rate of climb and the angle of climb.
b) improves the climb gradient if the airspeed is below VX.
c) improves the rate of climb if the airspeed is below VY.
d) decreases rate of climb and increses angle of climb.

32.1.1.0 (1740)
Which force compensates the weight in unaccelerated straight and level flight ?
a) the lift
b) the thrust
c) the drag
d) the resultant from lift and drag

32.1.1.0 (1741)
In which of the flight conditions listed below is the thrust required (Tr) equal to
the drag (D)?
a) In level flight with constant IAS
b) In accelerated level flight
292
c) In a climb with constant IAS
d) In a descent with constant TAS

32.1.1.0 (1742)
The load factor in a turn in level flight with constant TAS depends on
a) the bank angle only.
b) the radius of the turn and the bank angle.
c) the true airspeed and the bank angle.
d) the radius of the turn and the weight of the aeroplane.

32.1.1.0 (1743)
The induced drag of an aeroplane
a) decreases with increasing airspeed.
b) decreases with increasing gross weight.
c) is independent of the airspeed.
d) increases with increasing airspeed.

32.1.1.0 (1744)
The induced drag of an aeroplane at constant gross weight and altitude is highest
at
a) VSO (stalling speed in landing configuration)
b) VS1 (stalling speed in clean configuration)
c) VMO (maximum operating limit speed)
d) VA (design manoeuvring speed)

32.1.1.0 (1745)
What is the most important aspect of the 'backside of the power curve'?
a) The speed is unstable.
b) The aeroplane will not stall.
c) The altitude cannot be maintained.
d) The elevator must be pulled to lower the nose.

32.1.2.0 (1746)
Take-off performance data, for the ambient conditions, show the following
limitations with flap 10° selected:- runway limit: 5 270 kg- obstacle limit: 4 630
kgEstimated take-off mass is 5 000kg.Considering a take-off with flaps at:
a) 5°, the obstacle limit is increased but the runway limit decreases
b) 5°, both limitations are increased
c) 20°, the obstacle limit is increased but the runway limit decreases
d) 20°, both limitations are increased

32.1.2.1 (1747)
An increase in atmospheric pressure has, among other things, the following
consequences on landing performance:
a) a reduced landing distance and improved go-around performance
b) an increased landing distance and degraded go-around performance
c) an increased landing distance and improved go-around performance
d) a reduced landing distance and degraded go around performance

293
32.1.2.1 (1748)
How does the thrust of fixed propeller vary during take-off run ? The thrust
a) decreases slightly while the aeroplane speed builds up.
b) increases slightly while the aeroplane speed builds up.
c) varies with mass changes only.
d) has no change during take-off and climb.

32.1.2.1 (1749)
A decrease in atmospheric pressure has, among other things, the following
consequences on take-off performance:
a) an increased take-off distance and degraded initial climb performance
b) a reduced take-off distance and improved initial climb performance
c) an increased take-off distance and improved initial climb performance
d) a reduced take-off distance and degraded initial climb performance

32.1.2.1 (1750)
An increase in atmospheric pressure has, among other things, the following
consequences on take-off performance:
a) a reduced take-off distance and improved initial climb performance
b) an increases take-off distance and degraded initial climb performance
c) an increased take-off distance and improved initial climb performance
d) a reduced take-off distance and degraded initial climb performance

32.1.2.2 (1751)
(For this question use annex 032-2219A or Performance Manual SEP1 1 Figure
2.4 )With regard to the graph for landing performance, what is the minimum
headwind component required in order to land at Helgoland airport?Given:Runway
length: 1300 ftRunway elevation: MSLWeather: assume ISA conditionsMass: 3200
lbsObstacle height: 50 ft
a) 10 kt.
b) No wind.
c) 5 kt.
d) 15 kt.

32.1.2.2 (1752)
(For this question use annex 032-6590A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure
2.4)Using the Landing Diagramm, for single engine aeroplane, determine the
landing distance (from a screen height of 50 ft) required, in the following
conditions: Given : Pressure altitude: 4000 ftO.A.T.: 5°CAeroplane mass: 3530
lbsHeadwind component: 15 ktFlaps: Approach settingRunway: tarred and
dryLanding gear: down
a) 1400 ft
b) 880 ft
c) 1550 ft
d) 1020 ft

32.1.2.2 (1753)
(For this question use annex 032-6569A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure
2.4)With regard to the landing chart for the single engine aeroplane determine the
landing distance from a height of 50 ft .Given :O.A.T : 27 °CPressure Altitude: 3000
ftAeroplane Mass: 2900 lbsTailwind component: 5 ktFlaps: Landing position 294
(down) Runway: Tarred and Dry
a) approximately : 1850 feet
b) approximately : 1120 feet
c) approximately : 1700 feet
d) approximately : 1370 feet

32.1.2.2 (1754)
(For this question use annex 032-6570A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure
2.4)With regard to the landing chart for the single engine aeroplane determine the
landing distance from a height of 50 ft .Given :O.A.T : ISA +15°CPressure Altitude:
0 ftAeroplane Mass: 2940 lbsTailwind component: 10 ktFlaps: Landing position
(down) Runway: Tarred and Dry
a) approximately : 1300 feet
b) approximately : 950 feet
c) approximately : 1400 feet
d) approximately : 750 feet

32.1.2.2 (1755)
(For this question use annex 032-6571A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure
2.4)With regard to the landing chart for the single engine aeroplane determine the
landing distance from a height of 50 ft .Given :O.A.T : ISAPressure Altitude: 1000
ftAeroplane Mass: 3500 lbsTailwind component: 5 ktFlaps: Landing position
(down) Runway: Tarred and Dry
a) approximately : 1700 feet
b) approximately :1150 feet
c) approximately : 1500 feet
d) approximately : 920 feet

32.1.2.2 (1756)
(For this question use annex 032-6572A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure
2.4)With regard to the landing chart for the single engine aeroplane determine the
landing distance from a height of 50 ft .Given :O.A.T : 0°CPressure Altitude: 1000
ftAeroplane Mass: 3500 lbsTailwind component: 5 ktFlaps: Landing position
(down) Runway: Tarred and Dry
a) approximately : 1650 feet
b) approximately : 1150 feet
c) approximately : 1480 feet
d) approximately : 940 feet

32.1.2.2 (1757)
(For this question use annex 032-6573A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure
2.4)With regard to the landing chart for the single engine aeroplane determine the
landing distance from a height of 50 ft .Given :O.A.T : ISA +15°CPressure Altitude:
0 ftAeroplane Mass: 2940 lbsHeadwind component: 10 ktFlaps: Landing position
(down) Runway: short and wet grass- firm soilCorrection factor (wet grass): 1.38
a) approximately :1794 feet
b) approximately : 1300 feet
c) approximately : 2000 feet
d) approximately : 1450 feet

295
32.1.2.2 (1758)
(For this question use annex 032-6574A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure
2.1)With regard to the take off performance chart for the single engine aeroplane
determine the take off distance to a height of 50 ft .Given :O.A.T : 30°CPressure
Altitude: 1000 ftAeroplane Mass: 3450 lbsTailwind component: 2.5 ktFlaps: up
Runway: Tarred and Dry
a) approximately : 2470 feet
b) approximately : 1440 feet
c) approximately : 2800 feet
d) approximately : 2200 feet

32.1.2.2 (1759)
(For this question use annex 032-6575A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure
2.1)With regard to the take off performance chart for the single engine aeroplane
determine the maximum allowable take off mass .Given :O.A.T : ISAPressure
Altitude: 4000 ftHeadwind component: 5 ktFlaps: up Runway: Tarred and
DryFactored runway length: 2000 ftObstacle height: 50 ft
a) 3240 lbs
b) 3000 lbs
c) 2900 lbs
d) > 3650 lbs

32.1.2.2 (1760)
(For this question use annex 032-6576A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure
2.2)With regard to the take off performance chart for the single engine aeroplane
determine the take off distance to a height of 50 ft.Given :O.A.T : -7°CPressure
Altitude: 7000 ftAeroplane Mass: 2950 lbsHeadwind component: 5 ktFlaps:
Approach settingRunway: Tarred and Dry
a) approximately : 2050 ft
b) approximately : 1150 ft
c) approximately : 2450 ft
d) approximately : 1260 ft

32.1.2.2 (1761)
(For this question use annex 032-6577A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure
2.1)With regard to the take off performance chart for the single engine aeroplane
determine the take off speed for (1) rotation and (2) at a height of 50 ft.Given
:O.A.T : ISA+10°CPressure Altitude: 5000 ftAeroplane mass: 3400 lbsHeadwind
component: 5 ktFlaps: up Runway: Tarred and Dry
a) 71 and 82 KIAS
b) 73 and 84 KIAS
c) 68 and 78 KIAS
d) 65 and 75 KIAS

32.1.2.2 (1762)
(For this question use annex 032-6578A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure
2.2)With regard to the take off performance chart for the single engine aeroplane
determine the take off distance to a height of 50 ft.Given :O.A.T : 38°CPressure
Altitude: 4000 ftAeroplane Mass: 3400 lbsTailwind component: 5 ktFlaps:
Approach settingRunway: Dry GrassCorrection factor: 1.2
a) approximately : 3960 ft
b) approximately : 3680 ft 296
c) approximately : 4200 ft
d) approximately : 5040 ft

32.1.2.2 (1763)
(For this question use annex 032-6580A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure
2.2)With regard to the take off performance chart for the single engine aeroplane
determine the take off distance over a 50 ft obstacle height.Given :O.A.T :
30°CPressure Altitude: 1000 ftAeroplane Mass: 2950 lbsTailwind component: 5
ktFlaps: Approach settingRunway: Short, wet grass, firm subsoilCorrection factor:
1.25 (for runway conditions)
a) 2375 ft
b) 1900 ft
c) 1600 ft
d) 2000 ft

32.1.3.0 (1764)
Assuming that the required lift exists, which forces determine an aeroplane's angle
of climb?
a) Weight, drag and thrust.
b) Weight and drag only.
c) Thrust and drag only.
d) Weight and thrust only.

32.1.3.0 (1765)
How does the best angle of climb and best rate of climb vary with increasing
altitude?
a) Both decrease.
b) Both increase.
c) Best angle of climb increases while best rate of climb decreases.
d) Best angle of climb decreases while best rate of climb increases.

32.1.3.0 (1766)
The 'climb gradient' is defined as the ratio of
a) the increase of altitude to horizontal air distance expressed as a percentage.
b) the increase of altitude to distance over ground expressed as a percentage.
c) true airspeed to rate of climb.
d) rate of climb to true airspeed.

32.1.3.0 (1767)
A higher outside air temperature
a) reduces the angle and the rate of climb.
b) increases the angle of climb but decreases the rate of climb.
c) does not have any noticeable effect on climb performance.
d) reduces the angle of climb but increases the rate of climb.

32.1.3.0 (1768)
A headwind component increasing with altitude, as compared to zero wind
condition, (assuming IAS is constant)
a) has no effect on rate of climb.
b) does not have any effect on the angle of flight path during climb.
297
c) improves angle and rate of climb.
d) decreases angle and rate of climb.

32.1.3.0 (1769)
A constant headwind
a) increases the angle of the descent flight path.
b) increases the angle of descent.
c) increases the rate of descent.
d) increases the descent distance over ground.

32.1.3.0 (1770)
A constant headwind component
a) increases the angle of flight path during climb.
b) increases the best rate of climb.
c) decreases the angle of climb.
d) increases the maximum endurance.

32.1.3.1 (1771)
(For this question use annex 032-11661A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure
2.1)An extract of the flight manual of a single engine propeller aircraft is
reproduced in annex.Airport characteristics: hard, dry and zero slope runwayActual
conditions are:pressure altitude: 1 500 ftoutside tempereature: +18°Cwind
component: 4 knots tailwindFor a take-off mass of 1 270 kg, the take-off distance
will be:
a) 525 m
b) 415 m
c) 440 m
d) 615 m

32.1.3.1 (1772)
(For this question use annex 032-6587A or Flight planning Manual SEP 1 Figure
2.4) Using the Range Profile Diagramm, for the single engine aeroplane, determine
the range, with 45 minutes reserve, in the following conditions: Given :O.A.T.: ISA
+16°CPressure altitude: 4000 ftPower: Full throttle / 25,0 in/Hg./ 2100 RPM
a) 865 NM
b) 739 NM
c) 851 NM
d) 911 NM

32.1.3.1 (1773)
(For this question use annex 032-6588A or Flight planning Manual SEP 1 Figure
2.4) Using the Range Profile Diagramm, for the single engine aeroplane, determine
the range, with 45 minutes reserve, in the following conditions:Given :O.A.T.: ISA
-15°C Pressure altitude: 12000 ftPower: Full throttle / 23,0 in/Hg./ 2300 RPM
a) 902 NM
b) 875 NM
c) 860 NM
d) 908 NM

32.1.3.1 (1774)
(For this question use annex 032-6579A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 298
2.3)With regard to the climb performance chart for the single engine aeroplane
determine the climb speed (ft/min).Given :O.A.T : ISA + 15°CPressure Altitude: 0
ftAeroplane Mass: 3400 lbsFlaps: upSpeed: 100 KIAS
a) 1290 ft/min
b) 1370 ft/min
c) 1210 ft/min
d) 1150 ft/min

32.1.3.1 (1775)
(For this question use annex 032-6581A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure
2.3)Using the climb performance chart, for the single engine aeroplane, determine
the ground distance to reach a height of 2000 ft above the reference zero inthe
following conditions:Given :O.A.T. at take-off: 25°CAirport pressure altitude: 1000
ftAeroplane mass: 3600 lbsSpeed: 100 KIASWind component: 15 kts Headwind
a) 18 347 ft
b) 21 505 ft
c) 24 637 ft
d) 18 832 ft

32.1.3.1 (1776)
(For this question use annex 032-6582A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure
2.3)Using the climb performance chart, for the single engine aeroplane, determine
the ground distance to reach a height of 1500 ft above the reference zero inthe
following conditions:Given : O.A.T at Take-off: ISAAirport pressure altitude: 5000
ftAeroplane mass: 3300 lbsSpeed: 100 KIASWind component: 5 kts Tailwind
a) 16 665 ft
b) 18 909 ft
c) 18 073 ft
d) 20 109 ft

32.1.3.1 (1777)
(For this question use annex 032-6583A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure
2.3)Using the climb performance chart, for the single engine aeroplane, determine
the rate of climb and the gradient of climb in the following conditions:Given : O.A.T
at Take-off: ISAAirport pressure altitude: 3000 ftAeroplane mass: 3450 lbsSpeed:
100 KIAS
a) 1120 ft/min and 9,3%
b) 1030 ft/min and 8,4%
c) 1170 ft/min and 9,9%
d) 1310 ft/min and 11,3%

32.1.3.1 (1778)
(For this question use annex 032-6584A or Flight Planning Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.2
Table 2.2.3)Using the Power Setting Table, for the single engine aeroplane,
determine the manifold pressure and fuel flow (lbs/hr) with full throttle and cruise
lean mixture in the following conditions:Given:OAT: 13°CPressure altitude: 8000
ftRPM: 2300
a) 22,4 in.Hg and 69,3 lbs/hr
b) 23,0 in.Hg and 69,0 lbs/hr
c) 22,4 in.Hg and 71,1 lbs/hr
d) 22,4 in.Hg and 73,8 lbs/hr
299
32.1.3.1 (1779)
(For this question use annex 032-6585A or Flight planning Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.2
Table 2.2.3)Using the Power Setting Table, for the single engine aeroplane,
determine the cruise TAS and fuel flow (lbs/hr) with full throttle and cruise lean
mixture in the following conditions:Given:OAT: 13°CPressure altitude: 8000 ftRPM:
2300
a) 160 kt and 69,3 lbs/hr
b) 158 kt and 74,4 lbs/hr
c) 160 kt and 71,1 lbs/hr
d) 159 kt and 71,7 lbs/hr

32.1.3.1 (1780)
(For this question use annex 032-6586A or Flight planning Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.3
Table 2.3.1)Using the Power Setting Table, for the single engine aeroplane,
determine the cruise TAS and fuel flow (lbs/hr) with full throttle and cruise lean
mixture in the following conditions:Given :OAT: 3°CPressure altitude: 6000
ftPower: Full throttle / 21,0 in/Hg./ 2100 RPM
a) 134 kt and 55,7 lbs/hr
b) 136 kt and 56,9 lbs/hr
c) 131 kt and 56,9 lbs/hr
d) 125 kt and 55,7 lbs/hr

32.1.3.2 (1781)
With regard to a unaccelerated horizontal flight, which of the following statement
is correct?
a) The minimum drag is proportional to the aircraft mass.
b) The minimum drag is a function of the pressure altitude.
c) The minimum drag is is a function of the density altitude.
d) The minimum drag is independant of the aircraft mass.

32.1.3.2 (1782)
Which of the following statements is correct?If the aircraft mass, in a horizontal
unaccelerated flight, decreases
a) the minimum drag decreases and the IAS for minimum drag decreases.
b) the minimum drag increases and the IAS for minimum drag decreases.
c) the minimum drag increases and the IAS for minimum drag increases.
d) the minimum drag decreases and the IAS for minimum drag increases.

32.1.3.2 (1783)
(For this question use annex 032-2211A)Which of the following diagrams correctly
shows the movement of the power required curve with increasing altitude .(H1 <
H2)
a) Figure d
b) Figure b
c) Figure c
d) Figure a

32.1.3.2 (1784)
The maximum indicated air speed of a piston engined aeroplane, in level flight, is
reached:
a) at the lowest possible altitude.
300
b) at the optimum cruise altitude.
c) at the service ceiling.
d) at the practical ceiling.

32.1.3.2 (1785)
The pilot of a single engine aircraft has established the climb performance. The
carriage of an additional passenger will cause the climb performance to be:
a) Degraded
b) Improved
c) Unchanged
d) Unchanged, if a short field take-off is adopted

32.1.3.3 (1786)
What affect has a tailwind on the maximum endurance speed?
a) No affect
b) Tailwind only effects holding speed.
c) The IAS will be increased.
d) The IAS will be decreased.

32.2.1.0 (1787)
At a given mass, the stalling speed of a twin engine aircraft is 100 kt in the landing
configuration. The minimum speed a pilot must maintain in short final is:
a) 130 kt
b) 115 kt
c) 125 kt
d) 120 kt

32.2.1.1 (1788)
The critical engine inoperative
a) increases the power required because of the greater drag caused by the
windmilling engine and the compensation for the yaw effect.
b) does not affect the aeroplane performance since it is independent of the power plant.
c) decreases the power required because of the lower drag caused by the windmilling engine.
d) increases the power required and decreases the total drag due to the windmilling engine.

32.2.1.1 (1789)
A multi engine aeroplane is flying at the minimum control speed (VMCA). Which
parameter(s) must be maintainable after engine failure?
a) Straight flight
b) Straight flight and altitude
c) Heading, altitude and a positive rate of climb of 100 ft/min
d) Altitude

32.2.1.1 (1790)
The speed V1 is defined as
a) take-off decision speed.
b) take-off climb speed.
c) speed for best angle of climb.
d) engine failure speed.
301
32.2.1.1 (1791)
The speed VLO is defined as
a) landing gear operating speed.
b) design low operating speed.
c) long distance operating speed.
d) lift off speed.

32.2.1.1 (1792)
VX is
a) the speed for best angle of climb.
b) the speed for best rate of climb.
c) the speed for best specific range.
d) the speed for best angle of flight path.

32.2.1.1 (1793)
The speed for best rate of climb is called
a) VY.
b) VX.
c) V2.
d) VO.

32.2.2.1 (1794)
Which of the following speeds can be limited by the 'maximum tyre speed'?
a) Lift-off groundspeed.
b) Lift-off IAS.
c) Lift-off TAS.
d) Lift-off EAS.

32.2.2.1 (1795)
Changing the take-off flap setting from flap 15° to flap 5° will normally result in :
a) a longer take-off distance and a better climb.
b) a shorter take-off distance and an equal climb.
c) a better climb and an equal take-off distance.
d) a shorter take-off distance and a better climb.

32.2.2.1 (1796)
If other factors are unchanged, the fuel mileage (nautical miles per kg) is
a) lower with a forward centre of gravity position.
b) independent from the centre of gravity position.
c) lower with an aft centre of gravity position.
d) higher with a forward centre of gravity position.

32.2.2.1 (1797)
The result of a higher flap setting up to the optimum at take-off is
a) a shorter ground roll.
b) an increased acceleration.
c) a higher V1.
d) a longer take-off run.

302
32.2.2.2 (1798)
Which of the following combinations adversely affects take-off and initial climb
performance ?
a) High temperature and high relative humidity
b) Low temperature and high relative humidity
c) High temperature and low relative humidity
d) Low temperature and low relative humidity

32.2.2.2 (1799)
What effect has a downhill slope on the take-off speeds? The slope
a) decreases the take-off speed V1.
b) decreases the TAS for take-off.
c) increases the IAS for take-off.
d) has no effect on the take-off speed V1.

32.2.2.2 (1800)
The effect of a higher take-off flap setting up to the optimum is:
a) an increase of the field length limited take-off mass but a decrease of the climb
limited take-off mass.
b) a decrease of the field length limited take-off mass but an increase of the climb limited
take-off mass.
c) a decrease of both the field length limited take-off mass and the climb limited take-off
mass.
d) an increase of both the field length limited take-off mass and the climb limited take-off
mass.

32.2.2.2 (1801)
When the outside air temperature increases, then
a) the field length limited take-off mass and the climb limited take-off mass
decreases.
b) the field length limited take-off mass and the climb limited take-off mass increases.
c) the field length limited take-off mass decreases but the climb limited take-off mass
increases.
d) the field length limited take-off mass increases but the climb limited take-off mass
decreases.

32.2.2.2 (1802)
Due to standing water on the runway the field length limited take-off mass will be
a) lower.
b) higher.
c) unaffected.
d) only higher for three and four engine aeroplanes.

32.2.2.2 (1803)
On a dry runway the accelerate stop distance is increased
a) by uphill slope.
b) by headwind.
c) by low outside air temperature.
d) by a lower take-off mass because the aeroplane accelerates faster to V1.

303
32.2.2.2 (1804)
Which of the following are to be taken into account for the runway in use for take-
off ?
a) Airport elevation, runway slope, outside air temperature, pressure altitude and
wind components.
b) Airport elevation, runway slope, standard temperature, standard pressure and wind
components.
c) Airport elevation, runway slope, standard temperature, pressure altitude and wind
components.
d) Airport elevation, runway slope, outside air temperature, standard pressure and wind
components.

32.2.2.2 (1805)
What is the effect of increased mass on the performance of a gliding aeroplane?
a) The speed for best angle of descent increases.
b) There is no effect.
c) The gliding angle decreases.
d) The lift/drag ratio decreases.

32.2.2.2 (1806)
A higher pressure altitude at ISA temperature
a) decreases the field length limited take-off mass.
b) decreases the take-off distance.
c) increases the climb limited take-off mass.
d) has no influence on the allowed take-off mass.

32.2.2.2 (1807)
The take-off distance required increases
a) due to slush on the runway.
b) due to downhill slope because of the smaller angle of attack.
c) due to head wind because of the drag augmentation.
d) due to lower gross mass at take-off.

32.2.2.2 (1808)
A runway is contaminated by a 0,5 cm layer of wet snow. The take-off is
nevertheless authorized by a light-twin's flight manual. The take-off distance in
relation to a dry runway will be:
a) increased
b) unchanged
c) decreased
d) very significantly decreased

32.2.2.2 (1809)
A runway is contaminated with 0.5 cm of wet snow.The flight manual of a light
twin nevertheless authorises a landing in these conditions. The landing distance
will be, in relation to that for a dry runway:
a) increased
b) unchanged
c) reduced
d) substantially decreased
304
32.2.3.0 (1810)
What is the effect of a head wind component, compared to still air, on the
maximum range speed (IAS) and the speed for maximum climb angle respectively?
a) Maximum range speed increases and maximum climb angle speed stays
constant.
b) Maximum range speed decreases and maximum climb angle speed increases.
c) Maximum range speed decreases and maximum climb angle speed decreases.
d) Maximum range speed increases and maximum climb angle speed increases.

32.2.3.1 (1811)
The stopway is an area which allows an increase only in :
a) the accelerate-stop distance available.
b) the take-off run available.
c) the take-off distance available.
d) the landing distance available.

32.2.3.1 (1812)
For a turboprop powered aeroplane, a 2200 m long runway at the destination
aerodrome is expected to be ""wet"". The ""dry runway"" landing distance, should
not exceed:
a) 1339 m.
b) 1771 m.
c) 1540 m.
d) 1147 m.

32.2.3.1 (1813)
Which of the following factors favours the selection of a low flap setting for the
take-off?
a) High field elevation, distant obstacles in the climb-out path, long runway and a
high ambient temperature.
b) Low field elevation, close-in obstacles in the climb-out path, long runway and a high
ambient temperature.
c) High field elevation, no obstacles in the climb-out path, low ambient temperature and short
runway.
d) Low field elevation, no obstacles in the climb-out path, short runway and a low ambient
temperature.

32.2.3.1 (1814)
Field length is balanced when
a) take-off distance equals accelerate-stop distance.
b) calculated V2 is less than 110% VMCA and V1, VR, VMCG.
c) all engine acceleration to V1 and braking distance for rejected take-off are equal.
d) one engine acceleration from V1 to VLOF plus flare distance between VLOF and 35 feet are
equal.

32.2.3.1 (1815)
What is the advantage of a balanced field length condition ?
a) A balanced field length gives the minimum required field length in the event of
an engine failure.
b) A balanced take-off provides the lowest elevator input force requirement for rotation.
c) For a balanced field length the required take-off runway length always equals the available
305
runway length.
d) A balanced field length provides the greatest margin between ""net"" and ""gross"" take-off
flight paths.

32.2.3.1 (1816)
The take-off distance of an aircraft is 600m in standard atmosphere, no wind at 0
ft pressure-altitude.Using the following corrections: ""± 20 m / 1 000 ft field
elevation"" ""- 5 m / kt headwind"" ""+ 10 m / kt tail wind"" ""± 15 m / %
runway slope"" ""± 5 m / °C deviation from standard temperature""The take-off
distance from an airport at 1 000 ft elevation, temperature 17°C, QNH 1013,25
hPa, 1% up-slope, 10 kt tail wind is:
a) 755 m
b) 715 m
c) 555 m
d) 685 m

32.2.3.1 (1817)
An aircraft has two certified landing flaps positions, 25° and 35°.If a pilot chooses
35° instead of 25°, the aircraft will have:
a) a reduced landing distance and degraded go-around performance
b) a reduced landing distance and better go-around performance
c) an increased landing distance and degraded go-around performance
d) an increased landing distance and better go-around performance

32.2.3.1 (1818)
Following a take-off, limited by the 50 ft screen height, a light twin climbs on a
gradient of 5%.It will clear a 160 m obstacle in relation to the runway
(horizontally), situated at 5 000 m from the 50 ft point with an obstacle clearance
margin of:
a) 105 m
b) 90 m
c) 75 m
d) it will not clear the obstacle

32.2.3.1 (1819)
If the airworthiness documents do not specify a correction for landing on a wet
runway, the landing distance must be increased by:
a) 15%
b) 5%
c) 10%
d) 20%

32.2.3.1 (1820)
Following a take-off determined by the 50ft (15m) screen height, a light twin
climbs on a 10% over-the-ground climb gradient.It will clear a 900 m high
obstacle in relation to the runway (horizontally), situated at 10 000 m from the 50
ft clearing point with an obstacle clearance of:
a) 115 m
b) 100 m
c) 85 m
d) It will not clear the obstacle 306
32.2.3.1 (1821)
An aircraft has two certified landing flaps positions, 25° and 35°.If a pilot chooses
25° instead of 35°, the aircraft will have:
a) an increased landing distance and better go-around performance
b) a reduced landing distance and better go-around performance
c) an increased landing distance and degraded go-around performance
d) a reduced landing distance and degraded go-around performance

32.2.3.1 (1822)
The take-off distance of an aircraft is 800m in standard atmosphere, no wind at 0
ft pressure-altitude.Using the following corrections : ""± 20 m / 1 000 ft field
elevation "" ""- 5 m / kt headwind "" ""+ 10 m / kt tail wind "" ""± 15 m / %
runway slope "" ""± 5 m / °C deviation from standard temperature ""The take-off
distance from an airport at 2 000 ft elevation, temperature 21°C, QNH 1013.25
hPa, 2% up-slope, 5 kt tail wind is :
a) 970 m
b) 890 m
c) 870 m
d) 810 m

32.2.3.2 (1823)
During climb to the cruising level, a headwind component
a) decreases the ground distance flown during that climb.
b) increases the amount of fuel for the climb.
c) increases the climb time.
d) decreases the climb time.

32.2.3.2 (1824)
The angle of climb with flaps extended, compared to that with flaps retracted, will
normally be:
a) Smaller.
b) Larger.
c) Not change.
d) Increase at moderate flap setting, decrease at large flap setting.

32.2.3.2 (1825)
Which of the following combinations basically has an effect on the angle of descent
in a glide?(Ignore compressibility effects.)
a) Configuration and angle of attack.
b) Mass and altitude.
c) Altitude and configuration.
d) Configuration and mass.

32.2.3.2 (1826)
Two identical aeroplanes at different masses are descending at idle thrust. Which
of the following statements correctly describes their descent characteristics ?
a) At a given angle of attack, both the vertical and the forward speed are greater
for the heavier aeroplane.
b) There is no difference between the descent characteristics of the two aeroplanes.
c) At a given angle of attack the heavier aeroplane will always glide further than the lighter
aeroplane. 307
d) At a given angle of attack the lighter aeroplane will always glide further than the heavier
aeroplane.

32.2.3.2 (1827)
When flying the ""Backside of Thrustcurve"" means
a) a lower airspeed requires more thrust.
b) the thrust required is independent of the airspeed.
c) a thrust reduction results in an acceleration of the aeroplane.
d) a lower airspeed requires less thrust because drag is decreased.

32.2.3.2 (1828)
In a steady descending flight (descent angle GAMMA) equilibrium of forces acting
on the aeroplane is given by:(T = Thrust, D = Drag, W = Weight)
a) T + W sin GAMMA = D
b) T - W sin GAMMA = D
c) T - D = W sin GAMMA
d) T + D = - W sin GAMMA

32.2.3.2 (1829)
An aeroplane executes a steady glide at the speed for minimum glide angle. If the
forward speed is kept constant, what is the effect of a lower mass? Rate of descent
/ Glide angle / CL/CD ratio
a) increases / increases / decreases
b) decreases / constant / decreases
c) increases / increases / constant
d) increases / constant / increases

32.2.3.2 (1830)
An aeroplane is in a power off glide at best gliding speed. If the pilot increases
pitch attitude the glide distance:
a) decreases.
b) increases.
c) remains the same.
d) may increase or decrease depending on the aeroplane.

32.2.3.2 (1831)
Which of the following provides maximum obstacle clearance during climb?
a) The speed for maximum climb angle Vx.
b) 1.2Vs.
c) The speed for maximum rate of climb.
d) The speed, at which the flaps may be selected one position further UP.

32.2.3.2 (1832)
Which of the following factors will lead to an increase of ground distance during a
glide, while maintaining the appropriate minimum glide angle speed?
a) Tailwind.
b) Increase of aircraft mass.
c) Decrease of aircraft mass.
d) Headwind.

308
32.2.3.2 (1833)
Which of the following factors leads to the maximum flight time of a glide?
a) Low mass.
b) High mass.
c) Headwind.
d) Tailwind.

32.2.3.2 (1834)
What is the influence of the mass on maximum rate of climb (ROC) speed if all
other parameters remain constant ?
a) The ROC speed increases with increasing mass.
b) The ROC speed decreases with increasing mass.
c) The ROC is affected by the mass, but not the ROC speed.
d) The ROC and the ROC speed are independant of the mass.

32.2.3.2 (1835)
(For this question use annex 032-4744A)Considering a rate of climb diagram (ROC
versus TAS) for an aeroplane. Which of the diagrams shows the correct curves for
""flaps down"" compared to ""clean"" configuration?
a) a
b) b
c) c
d) d

32.2.3.2 (1836)
With an true airspeed of 194 kt and a vertical speed of 1 000 ft/min, the climb
gradient is about :
a) 3°
b) 3%
c) 5°
d) 8%

32.2.3.2 (1837)
On a twin engined piston aircraft with variable pitch propellers, for a given mass
and altitude, the minimum drag speed is 125 kt and the holding speed (minimum
fuel burn per hour) is 95 kt.The best rate of climb speed will be obtained for a
speed:
a) equal to 95 kt
b) inferior to 95 kts
c) is between 95 and 125 kt
d) equal to 125 kt

32.2.3.2 (1838)
A climb gradient required is 3,3%. For an aircraft maintaining 100 kt true
airspeed , no wind, this climb gradient corresponds to a rate of climb of
approximately:
a) 330 ft/min
b) 3 300 ft/min
c) 3,30 m/s
d) 33,0 m/s
309
32.2.3.2 (1839)
The climb gradient of an aircraft after take-off is 6% in standard atmosphere, no
wind, at 0 ft pressure altitude.Using the following corrections: ""± 0,2 % / 1 000 ft
field elevation"" ""± 0,1 % / °C from standard temperature"" "" - 1 % with wing
anti-ice"" "" - 0,5% with engine anti-ice""The climb gradient after take-off from an
airport situated at 1 000 ft, 17° C, QNH 1013,25 hPa, with wing and engine anti-ice
operating for a functional check is :
a) 3,90%
b) 4,30%
c) 4,70%
d) 4,90%

32.2.3.3 (1840)
During climb with all engines, the altitude where the rate of climb reduces to 100
ft/min is called:
a) Service ceiling
b) Absolute ceiling
c) Thrust ceiling
d) Maximum transfer ceiling

32.2.3.3 (1841)
The maximum rate of climb that can be maintained at the absolute ceiling is:
a) 0 ft/min
b) 125 ft/min
c) 500 ft/min
d) 100 ft/min

32.2.3.3 (1842)
Considering TAS for maximum range and maximum endurance, other factors
remaining constant,
a) both will increase with increasing altitude.
b) both will decrease with increasing altitude.
c) both will stay constant regardless of altitude.
d) TAS for maximum range will increase with increased altitude while TAS for maximum
endurance will decrease with increased altitude.

32.2.3.3 (1843)
A twin engined aeroplane in cruise flight with one engine inoperative has to fly
over high ground. In order to maintain the highest possible altitude the pilot
should choose:
a) the speed corresponding to the maximum value of the lift / drag ratio.
b) the long range speed.
c) the speed corresponding to the minimum value of (lift / drag)^3/2.
d) the speed at the maximum lift.

32.2.3.3 (1844)
The maximum horizontal speed occurs when:
a) The maximum thrust is equal to the total drag.
b) The thrust is equal to the maximum drag.
c) The thrust is equal to minimum drag.
d) The thrust does not increase further with increasing speed. 310
32.2.3.3 (1845)
With respect to the optimum altitude, which of the following statements is
correct ?
a) An aeroplane sometimes flies above or below the optimum altitude because
optimum altitude increases continuously during flight.
b) An aeroplane always flies below the optimum altitude, because Mach buffet might occur.
c) An aeroplane always flies at the optimum altitude because this is economically seen as the
most attractive altitude.
d) An aeroplane flies most of the time above the optimum altitude because this yields the
most economic result.

32.2.3.3 (1846)
How does the lift coefficient for maximum range vary with altitude?(No
compressibility effects.)
a) The lift coefficient is independant of altitude.
b) The lift coefficient decreases with increasing altitude.
c) The lift coefficient increases with increasing altitude.
d) Only at low speeds the lift coefficient decreases with increasing altitude.

32.2.3.3 (1847)
The optimum altitude
a) increases as mass decreases and is the altitude at which the specific range
reaches its maximum.
b) decreases as mass decreases.
c) is the altitude at which the specific range reaches its minimum.
d) is the altitude up to which cabin pressure of 8 000 ft can be maintained.

32.2.3.3 (1848)
To achieve the maximum range over ground with headwind the airspeed should be
a) higher compared to the speed for maximum range cruise with no wind.
b) equal to the speed for maximum range cruise with no wind.
c) lower compared to the speed for maximum range cruise with no wind.
d) reduced to the gust penetration speed.

32.2.3.3 (1849)
The absolute ceiling
a) is the altitude at which the rate of climb theoretically is zero.
b) can be reached only with minimim steady flight speed
c) is the altitude at which the best climb gradient attainable is 5%
d) is the altitude at which the aeroplane reaches a maximum rate of climb of 100 ft/min.

32.2.3.3 (1850)
The pilot of a light twin engine aircraft has calculated a 4 000 m service ceiling,
based on the forecast general conditions for the flight and a take-off mass of 3 250
kg.If the take-off mass is 3 000 kg, the service ceiling will be:
a) higher than 4 000 m.
b) less than 4 000 m.
c) unchanged, equal to 4 000 m.
d) only a new performance analysis will determine if the service ceiling is higher or lower than
4 000 m.
311
32.2.3.4 (1851)
Which statement regarding the relationship between traffic load and range is
correct?
a) The traffic load can be limited by the desired range.
b) The maximum zero fuel mass limits the maximum quantity of fuel.
c) The maximum landing mass is basically equal to the maximum zero fuel mass.
d) The maximum traffic load is not limited by the reserve fuel quantity.

32.2.3.5 (1852)
The speed for maximum lift/drag ratio will result in :
a) The maximum range for a propeller driven aeroplane.
b) The maximum range for a jet aeroplane.
c) The maximum endurance for a propeller driven aeroplane.
d) The maximum angle of climb for a propeller driven aeroplane.

32.2.3.5 (1853)
Maximum endurance for a piston engined aeroplane is achieved at:
a) The speed that approximately corresponds to the maximum rate of climb speed.
b) The speed for maximum lift coefficient.
c) The speed for minimum drag.
d) The speed that corresponds to the speed for maximum climb angle.

32.2.3.5 (1854)
(For this question use annex 032-2929A)Consider the graphic representation of
the power required versus true air speed (TAS), for a piston engined aeroplane
with a given mass. When drawing the tangent from the origin, the point of contact
(A) determines the speed of:
a) maximum specific range.
b) maximum endurance.
c) maximum thrust.
d) critical angle of attack.

32.2.3.5 (1855)
For a piston engined aeroplane, the speed for maximum range is :
a) that which gives the maximum lift to drag ratio.
b) that which givesthe minimum value of drag.
c) that which givesthe maximun value of lift
d) 1.4 times the stall speed in clean configuration.

32.2.3.5 (1856)
The flight manual of a light twin engine recommends two cruise power settings, 65
and 75 %. The 75% power setting in relation to the 65 % results in:
a) an increase in speed, fuel consumption and fuel-burn/distance.
b) same speed and an increase of the fuel-burn per hour and fuel-burn/distance.
c) an increase in speed and fuel-burn/distance, but an unchanged fuel-burn per hour.
d) same speed and fuel-burn/distance, but an increase in the fuel-burn per hour.

32.2.4.1 (1857)
(For this question use annex 032-4743A or Performance Manual MEP1 Figure
3.2)With regard to the graph for the light twin aeroplane, will the accelerate and
stop distance be achieved in a take-off where the brakes are released before take-
312
off power is set?
a) No, the performance will be worse than in the chart.
b) Performance will be better than in the chart.
c) Yes, the chart has been made for this situation.
d) It does not matter which take-off technique is being used.

32.3.1.0 (1858)
Provided all other parameters stay constant. Which of the following alternatives
will decrease the take-off ground run?
a) Decreased take-off mass, increased density, increased flap setting.
b) Increased pressure altitude, increased outside air temperature, increased take-off mass.
c) Increased outside air temperature, decreased pressure altitude, decreased flap setting.
d) Decreased take-off mass, increased pressure altitude, increased temperature.

32.3.1.1 (1859)
An airport has a 3000 metres long runway, and a 2000 metres clearway at each
end of that runway. For the calculation of the maximum allowed take-off mass, the
take-off distance available cannot be greater than:
a) 4500 metres.
b) 6000 metres.
c) 4000 metres.
d) 5000 metres.

32.3.1.1 (1860)
During the certification flight testing of a twin engine turbojet aeroplane, the real
take-off distances are equal to:- 1547 m with all engines running- 1720 m with
failure of critical engine at V1, with all other things remaining unchanged.The
take-off distance adopted for the certification file is:
a) 1779 m.
b) 1978 m.
c) 1547 m.
d) 1720 m.

32.3.1.1 (1861)
The take-off decision speed V1 is:
a) a chosen limit. If an engine failure is recognized before reaching V1 the take-off
must be aborted.
b) not less than V2min, the minimum take-off safety speed.
c) a chosen limit. If an engine failure is recognized after reaching V1 the take-off must be
aborted.
d) sometimes greater than the rotation speed VR.

32.3.1.1 (1862)
Minimum control speed on ground, VMCG, is based on directional control being
maintained by:
a) primary aerodynamic control only.
b) primary aerodynamic control and nosewheel.
c) primary aerodynamic control, nosewheel steering and differential braking.
d) nosewheel steering only.

313
32.3.1.1 (1863)
The take-off performance requirements for transport category aeroplanes are
based upon:
a) failure of critical engine or all engines operating which ever gives the largest
take off distance.
b) all engines operating.
c) only one engine operating.
d) failure of critical engine.

32.3.1.1 (1864)
Which of the following distances will increase if you increase V1?
a) Accelerate Stop Distance
b) Take-off distance
c) All Engine Take-off distance
d) Take-off run

32.3.1.1 (1865)
The length of a clearway may be included in:
a) the take-off distance available.
b) the accelerate-stop distance available.
c) the take-off run available.
d) the distance to reach V1.

32.3.1.1 (1866)
The one engine out take-off run is the distance between the brake release point
and:
a) the middle of the segment between VLOF point and 35 ft point.
b) the lift-off point.
c) the point where V2 is reached.
d) the point half way between V1 and V2.

32.3.1.1 (1867)
What is the advantage of balancing V1, even in the event of a climb limited take-
off?
a) The safety margin with respect to the runway length is greatest.
b) The take-off distance required with one engine out at V1 is the shortest.
c) The accelerate stop distance required is the shortest.
d) The climb limited take-off mass is the highest.

32.3.1.1 (1868)
Which statement is correct?
a) The climb limited take-off mass depends on pressure altitude and outer air
temperature
b) The performance limited take-off mass is the highest of:field length limited take-off
massclimb limited take-off massobstacle limited take-off mass.
c) The climb limited take-off mass will increase if the headwind component increases.
d) The climb limited take-off mass increases when a larger take-off flap setting is used.

32.3.1.1 (1869)
Maximum and minimum values of V1 are limited by :
a) VR and VMCG 314
b) V2 and VMCA
c) VR and VMCA
d) V2 and VMCG

32.3.1.1 (1870)
Take-off run is defined as the
a) horizontal distance along the take-off path from the start of the take-off to a
point equidistant between the point at which VLOF is reached and the point at
which the aeroplane is 35 ft above the take-off surface.
b) distance to V1 and stop, assuming an engine failure at V1.
c) distance to 35 feet with an engine failure at V1 or 115% all engine distance to 35 feet.
d) Distance from brake release to V2.

32.3.1.1 (1871)
The minimum value of V2 must exceed ""air minimum control speed"" by:
a) 10%
b) 15%
c) 20%
d) 30%

32.3.1.1 (1872)
Which of the following statements is correct ?
a) A stopway means an area beyond the take-off runway, able to support the
aeroplane during an aborted take-off.
b) An underrun is an area beyond the runway end which can be used for an aborted take-off.
c) A clearway is an area beyond the runway which can be used for an aborted take-off.
d) If a clearway or a stopway is used, the liftoff point must be attainable at least at the end of
the permanent runway surface.

32.3.1.1 (1873)
The decision speed at take-off (V1) is the calibrated airspeed:
a) below which take-off must be rejected if an engine failure is recognized, above
which take-off must be continued.
b) at which the take-off must be rejected.
c) below which the take-off must be continued.
d) at which the failure of the critical engine is expected to occur.

32.3.1.1 (1874)
Which of the following set of factors could lead to a V2 value which is limited by
VMCA?
a) Low take-off mass, high flap setting and low field elevation.
b) Low take-off mass, low flap setting and low field elevation.
c) High take-off mass, high flap setting and low field elevation.
d) High take-off mass, low flap setting and high field elevation.

32.3.1.1 (1875)
During the flight preparation a pilot makes a mistake by selecting a V1 greater
than that required. Which problem will occur when the engine fails at a speed
immediatly above the correct value of V1?
a) The stop distance required will exceed the stop distance available.
315
b) The one engine out take-off distance required may exceed the take-off distance available.
c) V2 may be too high so that climb performance decreases.
d) It may lead to over-rotation.

32.3.1.1 (1876)
Which of the following statements is correct?
a) The climb limited take-off mass is independant of the wind component.
b) The performance limited take-off mass is independant of the wind component.
c) The accelerate stop distance required is independant of the runway condition.
d) The take-off distance with one engine out is independant of the wind component.

32.3.1.1 (1877)
Which of the following statements is correct?
a) VR is the speed at which the pilot should start to rotate the aeroplane.
b) VR should not be higher than V1.
c) VR should not be higher than 1.05 VMCG.
d) VR is the speed at which, during rotation, the nose wheel comes off the runway.

32.3.1.1 (1878)
Complete the following statement regarding the take-off performance of an
aeroplane in performance class A. Following an engine failure at (i) ........... and
allowing for a reaction time of (ii) ........... a correctly loaded aircraft must be
capable of decelerating to a halt within the (iii) .........
a) (i) V1 (ii) 2 seconds (iii) Accelerate - stop distance available.
b) (i) V2 (ii) 3 seconds (iii) Take-off distance available.
c) (i) V1 (ii) 1 second (iii) Accelerate - stop distance available.
d) (i) V1 (ii) 2 seconds (iii) Take-off distance available.

32.3.1.1 (1879)
With regard to a take-off from a wet runway, which of the following statements is
correct?
a) The screen height can be lowered to reduce the mass penalties.
b) When the runway is wet, the V1 reduction is sufficient to maintain the same margins on the
runway length.
c) In case of a reverser inoperative the wet runway performance information can still be used.
d) Screen height cannot be reduced.

32.3.1.1 (1880)
The take-off run is
a) the horizontal distance along the take-off path from the start of the take-off to a
point equidistant between the point at which VLOF is reached and the point at
which the aeroplane is 35 ft above the take-off surface.
b) 1.5 times the distance from the point of brake release to a point equidistant between the
point at which VLOF is reached and the point at which the aeroplane attains a height of 35 ft
above the runway with all engines operative.
c) 1.15 times the distance from the point of brake release to the point at which VLOF is
reached assuming a failure of the critical engine at V1.
d) the distance of the point of brake release to a point equidistant between the point at which
VLOF is reached and the point at which the aeroplane attains a height of 50 ft above the
runway assuming a failure of the critical engine at V1.

316
32.3.1.1 (1881)
Can the length of a stopway be added to the runway length to determine the take-
off distance available ?
a) No.
b) No, unless its centerline is on the extended centerline of the runway.
c) Yes, but the stopway must be able to carry the weight of the aeroplane.
d) Yes, but the stopway must have the same width as the runway.

32.3.1.1 (1882)
Which is the correct sequence of speeds during take-off?
a) VMCG, V1, VR, V2.
b) V1, VMCG, VR, V2.
c) V1, VR, VMCG, V2.
d) V1, VR, V2, VMCA.

32.3.1.1 (1883)
Which statement regarding V1 is correct?
a) V1 is not allowed to be greater than VR.
b) V1 is not allowed to be greater than VMCG.
c) When determining the V1, reverse thrust is only allowed to be taken into account on the
remaining symmetric engines.
d) The V1 correction for up-slope is negative.

32.3.1.1 (1884)
When an aircraft takes off with the mass limited by the TODA:
a) the actual take-off mass equals the field length limited take-off mass.
b) the distance from brake release to V1 will be equal to the distance from V1 to the 35 feet
point.
c) the ""balanced take-off distance"" equals 115% of the ""all engine take-off distance"".
d) the end of the runway will be cleared by 35 feet following an engine failure at V1.

32.3.1.1 (1885)
VR cannot be lower than:
a) V1 and 105% of VMCA.
b) 105% of V1 and VMCA.
c) 1.2 Vs for twin and three engine jet aeroplane.
d) 1.15 Vs for turbo-prop with three or more engines.

32.3.1.1 (1886)
V2 has to be equal to or higher than
a) 1.1 VMCA.
b) 1.15 VMCG.
c) 1.1 VSO.
d) 1.15 VR.

32.3.1.1 (1887)
V1 has to be
a) equal to or higher than VMCG.
b) equal to or higher than VMCA.
c) higher than than VR.
317
d) equal to or higher than V2.
32.3.1.1 (1888)
The speed VR
a) is the speed at which rotation to the lift-off angle of attack is initiated.
b) must be higher than V2.
c) must be higher than VLOF.
d) must be equal to or lower than V1.

32.3.1.1 (1889)
The speed V2 is
a) the take-off safety speed.
b) that speed at which the PIC should decide to continue or not the take-off in the case of an
engine failure.
c) the lowest airspeed required to retract flaps without stall problems.
d) the lowest safety airspeed at which the aeroplane is under control with aerodynamic
surfaces in the case of an engine failure.

32.3.1.1 (1890)
Which take-off speed is affected by the presence or absence of stopway and/or
clearway ?
a) V1
b) V2
c) VMCG
d) VMCA

32.3.1.1 (1891)
The speed V2 is defined for jet aeroplane as
a) take-off climb speed or speed at 35 ft.
b) lift off speed.
c) take-off decision speed.
d) critical engine failure speed.

32.3.1.1 (1892)
The take-off mass could be limited by
a) the take-off distance available (TODA), the maximum brake energy and the
climb gradient with one engine inoperative.
b) the maximum brake energy only.
c) the climb gradient with one engine inoperative only.
d) the take-off distance available (TODA) only.

32.3.1.1 (1893)
Which of the following is true with regard to VMCA (air minimum control speed)?
a) Straight flight can not be maintained below VMCA, when the critical engine has
failed.
b) The aeroplane is uncontrollable below VMCA
c) The aeroplane will not gather the minimum required climb gradient
d) VMCA only applies to four-engine aeroplanes

32.3.1.1 (1894)
Which of the following will decrease V1?
a) Inoperative anti-skid.
b) Increased take-off mass. 318
c) Inoperative flight management system.
d) Increased outside air temperature.

32.3.1.1 (1895)
In case of an engine failure recognized below V1
a) the take-off must be rejected.
b) the take-off may be continued if a clearway is available.
c) the take-off should only be rejected if a stopway is available.
d) the take-off is to be continued unless V1 is less than the balanced V1.

32.3.1.1 (1896)
In case of an engine failure which is recognized at or above V1
a) the take-off must be continued.
b) the take-off must be rejected if the speed is still below VLOF.
c) a height of 50 ft must be reached within the take-off distance.
d) the take-off should be rejected if the speed is still below VR.

32.3.1.1 (1897)
The take-off distance available is
a) the length of the take-off run available plus the length of the clearway available.
b) the runway length minus stopway.
c) the runway length plus half of the clearway.
d) the total runway length, without clearway even if this one exists.

32.3.1.1 (1898)
The take-off safety speed V2min for turbo-propeller powered aeroplanes with
more than three engines may not be less than:
a) 1.15 Vs
b) 1.3 Vs
c) 1.2 Vs
d) 1.2 Vs1

32.3.1.1 (1899)
The take-off safety speed V2 for two-engined or three-engined turbo propeller
powered aeroplanes may not be less than:
a) 1.2 Vs
b) 1.3 Vs
c) 1.15 Vs
d) 1.15 Vs1

32.3.1.1 (1900)
Which statement regarding V1 is correct ?
a) VR may not be lower than V1
b) V1 may not be higher than Vmcg
c) When determining V1, reverse thrust may only be used on the remaining symmetric
engines
d) The correction for up-slope on the balanced V1 is negative

32.3.1.2 (1901)
How does runway slope affect allowable take-off mass, assuming other factors 319
remain constant and not limiting?
a) A downhill slope increases allowable take-off mass.
b) An uphill slope increases take-off mass.
c) Allowable take-off mass is not affected by runway slope.
d) A downhill slope decreases allowable take-off mass.

32.3.1.2 (1902)
Uphill slope
a) increases the take-off distance more than the accelerate stop distance.
b) decreases the accelerate stop distance only.
c) decreases the take-off distance only.
d) increases the allowed take-off mass.

32.3.1.2 (1903)
If the take-off mass of an aeroplane is brake energy limited a higher uphill slope
would
a) increase the maximum mass for take-off.
b) decrease the maximum mass for take-off.
c) have no effect on the maximum mass for take-off.
d) decrease the required take-off distance.

32.3.1.2 (1904)
Which statement related to a take-off from a wet runway is correct?
a) A reduction of screen height is allowed in order to reduce weight penalties
b) The use of a reduced Vr is sufficient to maitain the same safety margins as for a dry
runway
c) In case of a reverser inoperative the wet runway performance information can still be used
d) Screenheight reduction can not be applied because of reduction in obstacle clearance.

32.3.1.2 (1905)
Which statement regarding the influence of a runway down-slope is correct for a
balanced take-off? Down-slope...
a) reduces V1 and reduces take-off distance required (TODR).
b) increases V1 and reduces the accelerate stop distance required (ASDR).
c) reduces V1 and increases the accelerate stop distance required (ASDR).
d) increases V1 and increases the take-off distance required (TODR).

32.3.1.3 (1906)
The required Take-off Distance (TOD) and the field length limited Take-off Mass
(TOM) are different for the zero flap case and take-off position flap case. What is
the result of flap setting in take-off position compared to zero flap position?
a) Decreased TOD required and increased field length limited TOM.
b) Increased TOD required and decreased field length limited TOM.
c) Increased TOD required and increased field length limited TOM.
d) Decreased TOD required and decreased field length limited TOM.

32.3.1.3 (1907)
The determination of the maximum mass on brake release, of a certified turbojet
aeroplane with 5°, 15° and 25° flaps angles on take-off, leads to the following
values, with wind:Flap angle: 5° 15° 25°Runway limitation (kg): 66 000 69 500 71
5002nd segment slope limitation: 72 200 69 000 61 800Wind correction: Head 320
wind:+120kg / kt Tail wind: -360kg / ktGiven that the tail wind component is
equal to 5 kt, the maximum mass on brake release and corresponding flap angle
will be:
a) 67 700 kg / 15 deg
b) 69 000 kg / 15 deg
c) 72 200 kg / 5 deg
d) 69 700 kg / 25 deg

32.3.1.3 (1908)
Reduced take-off thrust should normally not be used when:
a) windshear is reported on the take-off path.
b) it is dark.
c) the runway is dry.
d) the runway is wet.

32.3.1.3 (1909)
Reduced take-off thrust should normally not be used when:
a) anti skid is not usable.
b) it is dark.
c) the runway is wet.
d) the OAT is ISA +10°C

32.3.1.3 (1910)
Reduced take-off thrust should normally not be used when:
a) the runway is contaminated.
b) it is dark.
c) the runway is wet.
d) obstacles are present close to the end of the runway.

32.3.1.3 (1911)
The use of reduced take-off thrust is permitted, only if:
a) The actual take-off mass (TOM) is lower than the field length limited TOM.
b) The take-off distance available is lower than the take-off distance required one engine out
at V1.
c) The actual take-off mass (TOM) including a margin is greater than the performance limited
TOM.
d) The actual take-off mass (TOM) is greater than the climb limited TOM.

32.3.1.3 (1912)
Which statement about reduced thrust is correct?
a) Reduced thrust can be used when the actual take-off mass is less than the field
length limited take-off mass.
b) Reduced thrust is primarily a noise abatement procedure.
c) Reduced thrust is used in order to save fuel.
d) In case of reduced thrust V1 should be decreased.

32.3.1.3 (1913)
If the take-off mass of an aeroplane is tyre speed limited, downhill slope would
a) have no effect on the maximum mass for take-off.
b) decrease the maximum mass for take-off.
321
c) increase the maximum mass for take-off.
d) increase the required take-off distance.

32.3.1.3 (1914)
Reduced take-off thrust
a) has the benefit of improving engine life.
b) can be used if the actual take-off mass is higher than the performance limited take-off
mass.
c) is not recommended at very low temperatures (OAT).
d) can be used if the headwind component during take-off is at least 10 kt.

32.3.1.4 (1915)
What will be the effect on an aeroplane's performance if aerodrome pressure
altitude is decreased?
a) It will decrease the take-off distance required.
b) It will increase the take-off distance required.
c) It will increase the take-off ground run.
d) It will increase the accelerate stop distance.

32.3.1.4 (1916)
What will be the influence on the aeroplane performance if aerodrome pressure
altitude is increased?
a) It will increase the take-off distance.
b) It will decrease the take-off distance.
c) It will increase the take-off distance available.
d) It will increase the accelerate stop distance available.

32.3.1.4 (1917)
How is VMCA influenced by increasing pressure altitude?
a) VMCA increases with increasing pressure altitude.
b) VMCA is not affected by pressure altitude.
c) VMCA decreases with increasing pressure altitude.
d) VMCA increases with pressure altitude higher than 4000 ft.

32.3.1.4 (1918)
Which one of the following is not affected by a tail wind?
a) the climb limited take-off mass.
b) the field limited take-off mass.
c) the obstacle limited take-off mass.
d) the take-off run.

32.3.1.4 (1919)
Other factors remaining constant and not limiting, how does increasing pressure
altitude affect allowable take-off mass?
a) Allowable take-off mass decreases.
b) Allowable take-off mass increases.
c) There is no effect on allowable take-off mass.
d) Allowable take-off mass remains uninfluenced up to 5000 ft PA.

322
32.3.1.4 (1920)
For a take-off from a contaminated runway, which of the following statements is
correct?
a) The performance data for take-off must be determined in general by means of
calculation, only a few values are verified by flight tests.
b) The greater the depth of contamination at constant take-off mass, the more V1 has to be
decreased to compensate for decreasing friction.
c) Dry snow is not considered to affect the take-off performance.
d) A slush covered runway must be cleared before take-off, even if the performance data for
contaminated runway is available.

32.3.1.4 (1921)
How is wind considered in the take-off performance data of the Aeroplane
Operations Manuals ?
a) Not more than 50% of a headwind and not less than 150% of the tailwind.
b) Unfactored headwind and tailwind components are used.
c) Not more than 80% headwind and not less than 125% tailwind.
d) Since take-offs with tailwind are not permitted, only headwinds are considered.

32.3.1.5 (1922)
The lowest take-off safety speed (V2 min) is:
a) 1.15 Vs for four-engine turboprop aeroplanes and 1.20 Vs for two or three-
engine turboprop aeroplanes.
b) 1.20 Vs for all turbojet aeroplanes.
c) 1.15 Vs for all turbojet aeroplanes.
d) 1.20 Vs for all turboprop powered aeroplanes.

32.3.1.5 (1923)
Which of the following answers is true?
a) V1 <= VR
b) V1 > Vlof
c) V1 > VR
d) V1 < VMCG

32.3.1.5 (1924)
Which statement is correct?
a) VR is the speed at which rotation should be initiated.
b) VR is the lowest climb speed after engine failure.
c) In case of engine failure below VR the take-off should be aborted.
d) VR is the lowest speed for directional control in case of engine failure.

32.3.1.5 (1925)
Which statement is correct?
a) VR must not be less than 1.05 VMCA and not less than V1.
b) VR must not be less than VMCA and not less than 1.05 V1.
c) VR must not be less than 1.1 VMCA and not less than V1.
d) VR must not be less than 1.05 VMCA and not less than 1.1 V1.

32.3.1.5 (1926)
Which of the following represents the minimum for V1?
323
a) VMCG
b) VLOF
c) VMU
d) VR

32.3.1.5 (1927)
Which of the following represents the maximum value for V1 assuming max tyre
speed and max brake energy speed are not limiting?
a) VR
b) VMCA
c) V2
d) VREF

32.3.1.5 (1928)
How is V2 affected if T/O flaps 20° is chosen instead of T/O flaps 10°?
a) V2 decreases if not restricted by VMCA.
b) V2 has the same value in both cases.
c) V2 increases in proportion to the angle at which the flaps are set.
d) V2 has no connection with T/O flap setting, as it is a function of runway length only.

32.3.1.5 (1929)
The speed V2 of a jet aeroplane must be greater than:
a) 1.2Vs.
b) 1.2VMCG.
c) 1.05VLOF.
d) 1.3V1.

32.3.1.5 (1930)
If the value of the balanced V1 is found to be lower than VMCG, which of the
following is correct ?
a) The take-off is not permitted.
b) The one engine out take-off distance will become greater than the ASDR.
c) The VMCG will be lowered to V1.
d) The ASDR will become greater than the one engine out take-off distance.

32.3.1.6 (1931)
During certification test flights for a turbojet aeroplane, the actual measured take-
off runs from brake release to a point equidistant between the point at which VLOF
is reached and the point at which the aeroplane is 35 feet above the take-off
surface are:- 1747 m, all engines operating- 1950 m, with the critical engine failure
recognized at V1, the other factors remaining unchanged.Considering both
possibilities to determine the take-off run (TOR). What is the correct distance?
a) 2009 m.
b) 2243 m.
c) 2096 m.
d) 1950 m.

32.3.1.6 (1932)
During certification flight testing on a four engine turbojet aeroplane the actual
take-off distances measured are:- 3050 m with failure of the critical engine
recognised at V1- 2555 m with all engines operating and all other things being
equalThe take-off distance adopted for the certification file is: 324
a) 3050 m
b) 3513 m
c) 2555 m
d) 2938 m

32.3.1.6 (1933)
During the flight preparation the climb limited take-off mass (TOM) is found to be
much greater than the field length limited TOM using 5° flap. In what way can the
performance limited TOM be increased? There are no limiting obstacles.
a) By selecting a higher flap setting.
b) By selecting a higher V2.
c) By selecting a lower V2.
d) By selecting a lower flap setting.

32.3.2.0 (1934)
In the event of engine failure below V1, the first action to be taken by the pilot in
order to decelerate the aeroplane is to:
a) reduce the engine thrust.
b) reverse engine thrust.
c) apply wheel brakes.
d) deploy airbrakes or spoilers.

32.3.2.0 (1935)
If the antiskid system is inoperative, which of the following statements is true?
a) The accelerate stop distance increases.
b) The accelerate stop distance decreases.
c) It has no effect on the accelerate stop distance.
d) Take-off with antiskid inoperative is not permitted.

32.3.2.0 (1936)
In which of the following distances can the length of a stopway be included?
a) In the accelerate stop distance available.
b) In the one-engine failure case, take-off distance.
c) In the all-engine take-off distance.
d) In the take-off run available.

32.3.2.1 (1937)
Which statement concerning the inclusion of a clearway in take-off calculation is
correct?
a) The field length limited take-off mass will increase.
b) The usable length of the clearway is not limited.
c) V1 is increased.
d) V1 remains constant.

32.3.2.1 (1938)
Balanced V1 is selected
a) if the accelerate stop distance is equal to the one engine out take-off distance.
b) for a runway length limited take-off with a stopway to give the highest mass.
c) for a runway length limited take-off with a clearway to give the highest mass.
d) if it is equal to V2.
325
32.3.2.1 (1939)
A 'Balanced Field Length' is said to exist where:
a) The accelerate stop distance is equal to the take-off distance available.
b) The clearway does not equal the stopway.
c) The accelerate stop distance is equal to the all engine take-off distance.
d) The one engine out take-off distance is equal to the all engine take-off distance.

32.3.2.1 (1940)
If the field length limited take off mass has been calculated using a Balanced Field
Length technique, the use of any additional clearway in take off performance
calculations may allow
a) a greater field length limited take off mass but with a lower V1
b) a greater field length limited take off mass but with a higher V1
c) the obstacle clearance limit to be increased with no effect on V1
d) the obstacle clearance limit to be increased with an higher V1

32.3.2.2 (1941)
Before take-off the temperature of the wheel brakes should be checked. For what
reason?
a) Because overheated brakes will not perform adequately in the event of a
rejected take-off.
b) To ensure that the brake wear is not excessive.
c) To ensure that the wheels have warmed up evenly.
d) To ensure that the thermal blow-out plugs are not melted.

32.3.2.2 (1942)
Concerning the landing gear, which of the following factors would limit the take-
off mass?
a) Rate of rotation of the wheel at lift off and brake energy.
b) Tyre pressure and brake temperature.
c) Rate of rotation of the wheel and tyre pressure.
d) Nitrogen pressure in the strut and brake temperature.

32.3.2.2 (1943)
Which combination of circumstances or conditions would most likely lead to a tyre
speed limited take-off?
a) A high runway elevation and tail wind.
b) A low runway elevation and a cross wind.
c) A high runway elevation and a head wind.
d) A low runway elevation and a head wind.

32.3.2.2 (1944)
The 'maximum tyre speed' limits:
a) VLOF in terms of ground speed.
b) V1 in kt TAS.
c) VR, or VMU if this is lower than VR.
d) V1 in kt ground speed.

32.3.2.2 (1945)
May anti-skid be considered to determine the take-off and landing data ?
a) Yes. 326
b) No.
c) Only for take-off.
d) Only for landing.

32.3.2.2 (1946)
A higher outside air temperature (OAT)
a) decreases the brake energy limited take-off mass.
b) increases the field length limited take-off mass.
c) increases the climb limited take-off mass.
d) decreases the take-off distance.

32.3.3.0 (1947)
If there is a tail wind, the climb limited TOM will:
a) not be affected.
b) increase.
c) decrease.
d) increase in the flaps extended case.

32.3.3.0 (1948)
Which of the following sets of factors will increase the climb-limited TOM?
a) Low flap setting, low PA, low OAT.
b) High flap setting, low PA, low OAT.
c) Low flap setting, high PA, high OAT.
d) Low flap setting, high PA, low OAT.

32.3.3.1 (1949)
(For this question use annex 032-1562A or Performance Manual MRJT 1 Figure
4.4 )For a twin engine turbojet aeroplane two take-off flap settings (5° and 15°)
are certified.Given:Field length avalaible= 2400 mOutside air temperature=
-10°CAirport pressure altitude= 7000 ftThe maximum allowed take-off mass is:
a) 56 000 kg
b) 55 000 kg
c) 70 000 kg
d) 52 000 kg

32.3.3.1 (1950)
In relation to the net take-off flight path, the required 35 ft vertical distance to
clear all obstacles is
a) the minimum vertical distance between the lowest part of the aeroplane and all
obstacles within the obstacle corridor.
b) based on pressure altitudes.
c) the height by which acceleration and flap retraction should be completed.
d) the height at which power is reduced to maximum climb thrust.

32.3.3.1 (1951)
The minimum climb gradient required on the 2nd flight path segment after the
take-off of a jet aeroplane is defined by the following parameters:1 Gear up2 Gear
down3 Wing flaps retracted4 Wing flaps in take-off position5 N engines at the
take-off thrust6 (N-1) engines at the take-off thrust7 Speed over the path equal to
V2 + 10 kt8 Speed over the path equal to 1.3 VS9 Speed over the path equal to
327
V210 At a height of 35 ft above the runwayThe correct statements are:
a) 1, 4, 6, 9
b) 2, 3, 6, 9
c) 1, 4, 5, 10
d) 1, 5, 8, 10

32.3.3.1 (1952)
The requirements with regard to take-off flight path and the climb segments are
only specified for:
a) the failure of the critical engine on a multi-engines aeroplane.
b) the failure of any engine on a multi-engined aeroplane.
c) 2 engined aeroplane.
d) the failure of two engines on a multi-engined aeroplane.

32.3.3.1 (1953)
At which minimum height will the second climb segment end?
a) 400 ft above field elevation.
b) 35 ft above ground.
c) When gear retraction is completed.
d) 1500 ft above field elevation.

32.3.3.1 (1954)
A head wind will:
a) increase the climb flight path angle.
b) increase the angle of climb.
c) increase the rate of climb.
d) shorten the time of climb.

32.3.3.1 (1955)
The second segment begins
a) when landing gear is fully retracted.
b) when flap retraction begins.
c) when flaps are selected up.
d) when acceleration starts from V2 to the speed for flap retraction.

32.3.3.1 (1956)
For take-off obstacle clearance calculations, obstacles in the first segment may be
avoided
a) by banking not more than 15° between 50 ft and 400 ft above the runway
elevation.
b) by banking as much as needed if aeroplane is more than 50 ft above runway elevation.
c) only by using standard turns.
d) by standard turns - but only after passing 1500 ft.

32.3.3.1 (1957)
Which statement, in relation to the climb limited take-off mass of a jet aeroplane,
is correct?
a) The climb limited take-off mass decreases with increasing OAT.
b) The climb limited take-off mass is determined at the speed for best rate of climb.
c) 50% of a head wind is taken into account when determining the climb limited take-off
mass.
328
d) On high elevation airports equipped with long runways the aeroplane will always be climb
limited.

32.3.3.1 (1958)
The first segment of the take-off flight path ends
a) at completion of gear retraction.
b) at completion of flap retraction.
c) at reaching V2.
d) at 35 ft above the runway.

32.3.3.1 (1959)
The climb limited take-off mass can be increased by
a) a lower flap setting for take-off and selecting a higher V2.
b) selecting a lower V1.
c) selecting a lower V2.
d) selecting a lower VR.

32.3.3.1 (1960)
During take-off the third segment begins:
a) when acceleration to flap retraction speed is started.
b) when landing gear is fully retracted.
c) when acceleration starts from VLOF to V2.
d) when flap retraction is completed.

32.3.3.1 (1961)
The take-off mass of an aeroplane is restricted by the climb limit. What would be
the effect on this limit of an increase in the headwind component?
a) None.
b) The effect would vary depending upon the height of any obstacle within the net take-off
flight path.
c) The climb limited take-off mass would increase.
d) The climb limited take-off mass would decrease.

32.3.3.1 (1962)
Which of the following statements with regard to the actual acceleration height at
the beginning of the 3rd climb segment is correct?
a) The minimum value according to regulations is 400 ft.
b) A lower height than 400 ft is allowed in special circumstances e.g. noise abatement.
c) The minimum value according to regulations is 1000 ft.
d) There is no legal minimum value, because this will be determined from case to case during
the calculation of the net flight path.

32.3.3.1 (1963)
On a segment of the take-off flight path an obstacle requires a minimum gradient
of climb of 2.6% in order to provide an adequate margin of safe clearance. At a
mass of 110000 kg the gradient of climb is 2.8%. For the same power and
assuming that the sine of the angle of climb varies inversely with mass, at what
maximum mass will the aeroplane be able to achieve the minimum gradient?
a) 118455 kg
b) 102150 kg
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c) 121310 kg
d) 106425 kg

32.3.3.2 (1964)
A four jet-engined aeroplane (mass = 150 000 kg) is established on climb with all
engines operating. The lift-to-drag ratio is 14.Each engine has a thrust of 75 000
Newtons. The gradient of climb is:(given: g= 10 m/s²)
a) 12.86%.
b) 1.286%.
c) 27%.
d) 7.86%.

32.3.3.2 (1965)
Which of the following statements is applicable to the acceleration height at the
beginning of the 3rd climb segment ?
a) The maximum acceleration height depends on the maximum time take-off
thrust may be applied.
b) The minimum legally allowed acceleration height is at 1500 ft.
c) There is no requirement for minimum climb performance when flying at the acceleration
height.
d) The minimum one engine out acceleration height must be maintained in case of all engines
operating.

32.3.3.3 (1966)
Given that the characteristics of a three engine turbojet aeroplane are as
follows:Thrust = 50 000 Newton / Engineg = 10 m/s²Drag = 72 569 NMinimum
gross gradient (2nd segment) = 2.7%SIN(Angle of climb) = (Thrust- Drag) /
WeightThe maximum take-off mass under 2nd segment conditions is:
a) 101 596 kg
b) 286 781 kg
c) 74 064 kg
d) 209 064 kg

32.3.3.4 (1967)
The net flight path climb gradient after take-off compared to the gross climb
gradient is:
a) smaller.
b) larger.
c) equal.
d) depends on type of aircraft.

32.3.3.4 (1968)
An operator shall ensure that the net take-off flight path clears all obstacles. The
half-width of the obstacle-corridor at the distance D from the end of the TODA is at
least:
a) 90m + 0.125D
b) 0.125D
c) -90m + 1.125D
d) 90m + D/0.125

330
32.3.3.4 (1969)
When V1 has to be reduced because of a wet runway the one engine out obstacle
clearance / climb performance:
a) decreases / remains constant.
b) increases / increases.
c) remains constant / remains constant.
d) decreases / decreases.

32.3.3.4 (1970)
Which of the following statements, concerning the obstacle limited take-off mass
for performance class A aeroplane, is correct?
a) It should be determined on the basis of a 35 ft obstacle clearance with the
respect to the ""net take-off flight path"".
b) It should not be corrected for 30° bank turns in the take-off path.
c) It should be calculated in such a way that there is a margin of 50 ft with respect to the
""net take off flight path"".
d) It cannot be lower than the corresponding climb limited take-off mass.

32.3.3.4 (1971)
Regarding the obstacle limited take-off mass, which of the following statements is
correct?
a) A take-off in the direction of an obstacle is also permitted in tail wind condition.
b) Wind speed plays no role when calculating this particular mass.
c) The obstacle limited mass can never be lower than the climb limited take-off mass.
d) The maximum bank angle which can be used is 10°.

32.3.3.4 (1972)
In the event that the take-off mass is obstacle limited and the take-off flight path
includes a turn, the bank angle should not exceed
a) 15 degrees up to height of 400 ft.
b) 10 degrees up to a height of 400 ft.
c) 20 degrees up to a height of 400 ft.
d) 25 degrees up to a height of 400 ft.

32.3.3.4 (1973)
Which speed provides maximum obstacle clearance during climb?
a) The speed for which the ratio between rate of climb and forward speed is
maximum.
b) V2 + 10 kt.
c) The speed for maximum rate of climb.
d) V2.

32.3.4.0 (1974)
(For this question use annex 032-915A)What is the maximum vertical speed of a
three engine turbojet aeroplane with one engine inoperative (N-1) and a mass of
75 000 kg?Using the following: g = 10 m/s² 1 kt = 100 ft/min SIN( Angle of climb)
= (Thrust- Drag)/ Weight
a) +1267 ft / min.
b) -1267 ft / min.
c) 0 ft / min.
d) +3293 ft / min. 331
32.3.4.1 (1975)
What is the effect of tail wind on the time to climb to a given altitude?
a) The time to climb does not change.
b) The time to climb increases.
c) The time to climb decreases.
d) The effect on time to climb will depend on the aeroplane type.

32.3.4.1 (1976)
You climb with a climb speed schedule 300/.78. What do you expect in the
crossover altitude 29 200 ft (OAT = ISA) ?
a) The rate of climb increases since the constant IAS-climb is replaced by the
constant Mach-climb.
b) The rate of climb decreases since climb performance at a constant Mach number is grossly
reduced as compared to constant IAS.
c) During the acceleration to the Mach number .78 the rate of climb is approximately zero.
d) No noticeable effect since the true airspeed at 300 kt IAS and .78 Mach are the same (at
ISA temperature TAS=460 kt)

32.3.4.1 (1977)
If the climb speed schedule is changed from 280/.74 to 290/.74 the new crossover
altitude is
a) lower.
b) higher.
c) unchanged.
d) only affected by the aeroplane gross mass.

32.3.4.1 (1978)
(For this question use annex 032-3590A or Performance Manual MRJT 1 Figure
4.5)With regard to the take-off performance of a twin jet aeroplane, why does the
take-off performance climb limit graph show a kink at 30°C, pressure altitude 0?
a) At higher temperatures the flat rated engines determines the climb limit mass.
b) At higher temperatures the VMBE determines the climb limit mass.
c) At lower temperatures one has to take the danger of icing into account.
d) The engines are pressure limited at lower temperature, at higher temperatures they are
temperature limited.

32.3.4.1 (1979)
(For this question use annex 032-3591A or Performance Manual MRJT 1 Figure
4.5)Consider the take-off performance for the twin jet aeroplane climb limit chart.
Why has the wind been omitted from the chart?
a) The climb limit performances are taken relative to the air.
b) The effect of the wind must be taken from another chart.
c) There is no effect of the wind on the climb angle relative to the ground.
d) There is a built-in safety measure.

32.3.4.2 (1980)
Vx and Vy with take-off flaps will be:
a) lower than that for clean configuration.
b) higher than that for clean configuration.
c) same as that for clean configuration.
d) changed so that Vx increases and Vy decreases compared to clean configuration.
332
32.3.4.2 (1981)
Other factors remaining constant, how does increasing altitude affect Vx and Vy:
a) Both will increase.
b) Both will remain the same.
c) Both will decrease.
d) Vx will decrease and Vy will increase.

32.3.4.2 (1982)
How does TAS vary in a constant Mach climb in the troposphere?
a) TAS decreases.
b) TAS increases.
c) TAS is constant.
d) TAS is not related to Mach Number.

32.3.4.2 (1983)
A jet aeroplane is climbing at a constant IAS and maximum climb thrust, how will
the climb angle / the pitch angle change?
a) Reduce / decrease.
b) Reduce / remain constant.
c) Remain constant / decrease.
d) Remain constant / become larger.

32.3.4.2 (1984)
With a jet aeroplane the maximum climb angle can be flown at approximately:
a) The highest CL/CD ratio.
b) The highest CL/CD² ratio.
c) 1.2 Vs
d) 1.1 Vs

32.3.4.2 (1985)
What happens to the drag of a jet aeroplane if, during the initial climb after take
off, constant IAS is maintained?(Assume a constant mass.)
a) The drag remains almost constant.
b) The drag increases considerably.
c) The drag decreases.
d) The drag increases initially and decreases thereafter.

32.3.4.2 (1986)
Which of the following sequences of speed for a jet aeroplane is correct ? (from
low to high speeds)
a) Vs, maximum angle climb speed, maximum range speed.
b) Vs, maximum range speed, maximum angle climb speed.
c) Maximum endurance speed, maximum range speed, maximum angle of climb speed.
d) Maximum endurance speed, long range speed, maximum range speed.

32.3.4.2 (1987)
A jet aeroplane is climbing at constant Mach number below the tropopause. Which
of the following statements is correct?
a) IAS decreases and TAS decreases.
b) IAS increases and TAS increases.
333
c) IAS decreases and TAS increases.
d) IAS increases and TAS decreases.

32.3.4.2 (1988)
Which of the following three speeds of a jet aeroplane are basically identical?The
speeds for:
a) holding, maximum climb angle and minimum glide angle.
b) maximum drag, maximum endurance and maximum climb angle.
c) maximum range, minimum drag and minimum glide angle.
d) maximum climb angle, minimum glide angle and maximum range.

32.3.4.2 (1989)
What happens when an aeroplane climbs at a constant Mach number?
a) The lift coefficient increases.
b) The TAS continues to increase, which may lead to structural problems.
c) IAS stays constant so there will be no problems.
d) The ""1.3G"" altitude is exceeded, so Mach buffet will start immediately.

32.3.4.2 (1990)
A jet aeroplane is climbing with constant IAS. Which operational speed limit is
most likely to be reached?
a) The Maximum operating Mach number.
b) The Stalling speed.
c) The Minimum control speed air.
d) The Mach limit for the Mach trim system.

32.3.4.2 (1991)
Higher gross mass at the same altitude decreases the gradient and the rate of
climb whereas
a) VY and VX are increased.
b) VX is increased and VY is decreased.
c) VY and VX are not affected by a higher gross mass.
d) VY and VX are decreased.

32.3.4.2 (1992)
As long as an aeroplane is in a positive climb
a) VX is always below VY.
b) VX is sometimes below and sometimes above VY depending on altitude.
c) VX is always above VY.
d) VY is always above VMO.

32.3.4.2 (1993)
The best rate of climb at a constant gross mass
a) decreases with increasing altitude since the thrust available decreases due to
the lower air density.
b) increases with increasing altitude since the drag decreases due to the lower air density.
c) increases with increasing altitude due to the higher true airspeed.
d) is independent of altitude.

334
32.3.4.2 (1994)
Given a jet aircraft. Which order of increasing speeds in the performance diagram
is correct?
a) Vs, Vx, Maximum range speed
b) Maximum endurance speed, Long range speed, Maximum range speed
c) Vs, Maximum range speed, Vx
d) Maximum endurance speed, Maximum range speed, Vx

32.3.5.0 (1995)
The optimum long-range cruise altitude for a turbojet aeroplane:
a) increases when the aeroplane mass decreases.
b) is always equal to the powerplant ceiling.
c) is independent of the aeroplane mass.
d) is only dependent on the outside air temperature.

32.3.5.1 (1996)
Which statement with respect to the step climb is correct?
a) Executing a desired step climb at high altitude can be limited by buffet onset at
g-loads larger than 1.
b) A step climb must be executed immediately after the aeroplane has exceeded the optimum
altitude.
c) A step climb is executed because ATC desires a higher altitude.
d) A step climb is executed in principle when, just after leveling off, the 1.3g altitude is
reached.

32.3.5.1 (1997)
Which of the following factors determines the maximum flight altitude in the
""Buffet Onset Boundary"" graph?
a) Aerodynamics.
b) Theoretical ceiling.
c) Service ceiling.
d) Economy.

32.3.5.1 (1998)
Which data can be extracted from the Buffet Onset Boundary Chart?
a) The values of the Mach number at which low speed and Mach buffet occur at
various masses and altitudes.
b) The value of maximum operating Mach number (MMO) at various masses and power
settings.
c) The value of the critical Mach number at various masses and altitudes.
d) The value of the Mach number at which low speed and shockstall occur at various weights
and altitudes.

32.3.5.1 (1999)
The aerodynamic ceiling
a) is the altitude at which the speeds for low speed buffet and for high speed
buffet are the same.
b) depends upon thrust setting and increase with increasing thrust.
c) is the altitude at which the best rate of climb theoretically is zero.
d) is the altitude at which the aeroplane reaches 50 ft/min.
335
32.3.5.1 (2000)
The maximum operating altitude for a certain aeroplane with a pressurised cabin
a) is the highest pressure altitude certified for normal operation.
b) is dependent on aerodynamic ceiling.
c) is dependent on the OAT.
d) is only certified for four-engine aeroplanes.

32.3.5.1 (2001)
Why are 'step climbs' used on long distance flights ?
a) To fly as close as possible to the optimum altitude as aeroplane mass reduces.
b) Step climbs are only justified if at the higher altitude less headwind or more tailwind can be
expected.
c) Step climbs do not have any special purpose for jet aeroplanes, they are used for piston
engine aeroplanes only.
d) To respect ATC flight level constraints.

32.3.5.1 (2002)
Which statement with respect to the step climb is correct ?
a) Performing a step climb based on economy can be limited by the 1.3-g altitude.
b) In principle a step climb is performed immediately after the aircraft has exceeded the
optimum altitude.
c) A step climb may not be performed unless it is indicated in the filed flight plan.
d) A step climb provides better economy than a cruise climb.

32.3.5.2 (2003)
With all other things remaining unchanged and with T the outside static air
temperature expressed in degrees K, the hourly fuel consumption of a turbojet
powered aeroplane in a cruise flight with a constant Mach Number and zero
headwind,is as follows:
a) proportional to T
b) proportional to 1/T²
c) proportional to 1/T
d) independent from T

32.3.5.2 (2004)
Two identical turbojet aeroplanes (whose specific fuel consumption is assumed to
be constant) are in a holding pattern at the same altitude. The mass of the first one
is 95 000 kg and its hourly fuel consumption is equal to 3100 kg/h. Since the mass
of the second one is 105 000 kg, its hourly fuel consumption is:
a) 3259 kg/h
b) 3602 kg/h
c) 3787 kg/h
d) 3426 kg/h

32.3.5.2 (2005)
A jet aeroplane equipped with old engines has a specific fuel consumption of 0.06
kg per Newton of thrust and per hour and, in a given flying condition, a fuel
mileage of 14 kg per Nautical Mile. In the same flying conditions, the same
aeroplane equipped with modern engines with a specific fuel consumption of 0.035
kg per Newton of thrust and per hour, has a fuel mileage of:
a) 8.17 kg/NM.
336
b) 14 kg/NM.
c) 11.7 kg/NM.
d) 10.7 kg/NM.

32.3.5.2 (2006)
At a given altitude, when a turbojet aeroplane mass is increased by 5% - assuming
the engines specific consumption remains unchanged -, its hourly consumption is
approximately increased by:
a) 5%
b) 7.5%
c) 10%
d) 2.5%

32.3.5.2 (2007)
For jet-engined aeroplanes, what is the effect of increased altitude on specific
range?
a) Increases.
b) Decreases.
c) Does not change.
d) Increases only if there is no wind.

32.3.5.2 (2008)
(For this question use annex 032-1014A)Assuming constant L/D ratio, which of the
diagrams provided correctly shows the movement of the ""Thrust Required Curve .
(M1>M2).
a) c
b) a
c) b
d) d

32.3.5.2 (2009)
Long range cruise is a flight procedure which gives:
a) a specific range which is about 99% of maximum specific range and higher
cruise speed.
b) a 1% higher TAS for maximum specific range.
c) an IAS which is 1% higher than the IAS for maximum specific range.
d) a specific range which is 99% of maximum specific range and a lower cruise speed.

32.3.5.2 (2010)
With zero wind, the angle of attack for maximum range for an aeroplane with
turbojet engines is:
a) equal to that of maximum lift to drag ratio.
b) equal to that maximum endurance.
c) equal to that corresponding to zero induced drag.
d) lower than that of maximum lift to drag ratio.

32.3.5.2 (2011)
Two identical turbojet aeroplane (whose specific fuel consumptions are considered
to be equal) are at holding speed at the same altitude.The mass of the first aircraft
is 130 000 kg and its hourly fuel consumption is 4300 kg/h. The mass of the
337
second aircraft is 115 000 kg and its hourly fuel consumption is:
a) 3804 kg/h.
b) 4044 kg/h.
c) 3365 kg/h.
d) 3578 kg/h.

32.3.5.2 (2012)
A jet aeroplane is flying long range cruise. How does the specific range / fuel flow
change?
a) Increase / decrease.
b) Increase / increase.
c) Decrease / increase.
d) Decrease / decrease.

32.3.5.2 (2013)
During a cruise flight of a jet aeroplane at constant flight level and at the
maximum range speed, the IAS / the drag will:
a) decrease / decrease.
b) increase / decrease.
c) increase / increase.
d) decrease / increase.

32.3.5.2 (2014)
The lowest point of the drag or thrust required curve of a jet aeroplane,
respectively, is the point for
a) minimum drag.
b) maximum specific range.
c) maximum endurance.
d) minimum specific range.

32.3.5.2 (2015)
For a jet transport aeroplane, which of the following is the reason for the use of
'maximum range speed' ?
a) Minimum specific fuel consumption.
b) Minimum fuel flow.
c) Longest flight duration.
d) Minimum drag.

32.3.5.2 (2016)
Consider the graphic representation of the power required versus true air speed
(TAS), for a jet aeroplane with a given mass. When drawing the tangent out of the
origin, the point of contact determines the speed of:
a) maximum endurance.
b) minimum power.
c) maximum specific range.
d) critical angle of attack.

32.3.5.2 (2017)
A jet aeroplane is performing a maximum range flight.The speed corresponds to:
a) the point of contact of the tangent from the origin to the Drag versus TAS curve.
b) the minimum drag.
c) the minimum required power. 338
d) the point of contact of the tangent from the origin to the power required (Pr) versus TAS
curve.

32.3.5.2 (2018)
In the drag versus TAS curve for a jet aeroplane, the speed for maximum range
corresponds with:
a) the point of contact of the tangent from the origin to the drag curve.
b) the point of intersection of the parasite drag curve and the induced drag curve.
c) the point of contact of the tangent from the origin to the parasite drag curve.
d) the point of contact of the tangent from the origin to the induced drag curve.

32.3.5.2 (2019)
The pilot of a jet aeroplane wants to use a minimum amount of fuel between two
airfields. Which flight procedure should the pilot fly?
a) Maximum range.
b) Maximum endurance.
c) Holding.
d) Long range.

32.3.5.2 (2020)
Which of the following is a reason to operate an aeroplane at 'long range speed'?
a) It is efficient to fly slightly faster than with maximum range speed.
b) In order to achieve speed stability.
c) The aircraft can be operated close to the buffet onset speed.
d) In order to prevent loss of speed stability and tuck-under.

32.3.5.2 (2021)
""Maximum endurance""
a) is achieved in unaccelerated level flight with minimum fuel consumption.
b) is the same as maximum specific range with wind correction.
c) can be flown in a steady climb only.
d) can be reached with the 'best rate of climb' speed in level flight.

32.3.5.2 (2022)
The speed for maximum endurance
a) is always lower than the speed for maximum specific range.
b) is the lower speed to achieve 99% of maximum specific range.
c) can either be higher or lower than the speed for maximum specific range.
d) is always higher than the speed for maximum specific range.

32.3.5.2 (2023)
Which of the equations below defines specific range (SR)?
a) SR = True Airspeed/Total Fuel Flow
b) SR = Indicated Airspeed/Total Fuel Flow
c) SR = Mach Number/Total Fuel Flow
d) SR = Groundspeed/Total Fuel Flow

32.3.5.2 (2024)
Long range cruise is selected as
a) the higher speed to achieve 99% of maximum specific range in zero wind. 339
b) the speed for best economy.
c) the climbing cruise with one or two engines inoperative.
d) specific range with tailwind.

32.3.5.2 (2025)
The airspeed for jet aeroplanes at which power required is a minimum
a) is always lower than the minimum drag speed.
b) is always higher than the minimum drag speed.
c) is lower than the minimum drag speed in the climb and higher than the minimum drag
speed in the descent.
d) is the same as the minimum drag speed.

32.3.5.2 (2026)
Moving the center of gravity from the forward to the aft limit (gross mass, altitude
and airspeed remain unchanged)
a) decreases the induced drag and reduces the power required.
b) increases the power required.
c) affects neither drag nor power required.
d) increases the induced drag.

32.3.5.2 (2027)
The centre of gravity near, but still within, the aft limit
a) improves the maximum range.
b) increases the stalling speed.
c) improves the longitudinal stabiity.
d) decreases the maximum range.

32.3.5.2 (2028)
The speed range between low speed buffet and high speed buffet
a) narrows with increasing mass and increasing altitude.
b) decreases with increasing mass and is independent of altitude.
c) is only limiting at low altitudes.
d) increases with increasing mass.

32.3.5.2 (2029)
The danger associated with low speed and/or high speed buffet
a) limits the maneuvering load factor at high altitudes.
b) can be reduced by increasing the load factor.
c) exists only above MMO.
d) has to be considered at take-off and landing.

32.3.5.2 (2030)
Which of the jet engine ratings below is not a certified rating?
a) Maximum Cruise Thrust
b) Maximum Continuous Thrust
c) Go-Around Thrust
d) Maximum Take-off Thrust

32.3.5.2 (2031)
At constant thrust and constant altitude the fuel flow of a jet engine
340
a) increases slightly with increasing airspeed.
b) is independent of the airspeed.
c) decreases slightly with increasing airspeed.
d) increases with decreasing OAT.

32.3.5.2 (2032)
At a constant Mach number the thrust and the fuel flow of a jet engine
a) decrease in proportion to the ambient pressure at constant temperature.
b) increase with increasing altitude.
c) are independent of outside air temperature (OAT).
d) increase in proportion to the ambient pressure at constant temperature.

32.3.5.2 (2033)
The thrust of a jet engine at constant RPM
a) increases in proportion to the airspeed.
b) does not change with changing altitude.
c) is independent of the airspeed.
d) is inversely proportional to the airspeed.

32.3.5.2 (2034)
The intersections of the thrust available and the drag curve are the operating
points of the aeroplane
a) in unaccelerated level flight.
b) in descent with constant IAS.
c) in accelerated level flight.
d) in unaccelerated climb.

32.3.5.2 (2035)
At speeds below minimum drag
a) a lower speed requires a higher thrust.
b) a higher speed requires a higher thrust.
c) the aeroplane can not be controlled manually.
d) the aeroplane can be controlled only in level flight.

32.3.5.2 (2036)
A higher altitude at constant mass and Mach number requires
a) a higher angle of attack.
b) a lower coefficient of lift.
c) a lower coefficient of drag.
d) a lower angle of attack.

32.3.5.2 (2037)
The long range cruise speed is in relation to the speed for maximum range cruise.
a) Higher
b) Lower
c) Depending on the OAT and net mass.
d) Depending on density altitude and mass.

32.3.5.2 (2038)
The optimum cruise altitude is 341
a) the pressure altitude at which the best specific range can be achieved.
b) the pressure altitude at which the fuel flow is a maximum.
c) the pressure altitude up to which a cabin altitude of 8000 ft can be maintained.
d) the pressure altitude at which the speed for high speed buffet as TAS is a maximum.

32.3.5.2 (2039)
The optimum cruise altitude increases
a) if the aeroplane mass is decreased.
b) if the temperature (OAT) is increased.
c) if the tailwind component is decreased.
d) if the aeroplane mass is increased.

32.3.5.2 (2040)
Below the optimum cruise altitude
a) the Mach number for long range cruise decreases continuously with decreasing
altitude.
b) the IAS for long range cruise increases continuously with decreasing altitude.
c) the TAS for long range cruise increases continuously with decreasing altitude.
d) the Mach number for long range cruise increases continuously with decreasing altitude.

32.3.5.2 (2041)
Under which condition should you fly considerably lower (4 000 ft or more) than
the optimum altitude ?
a) If at the lower altitude either considerably less headwind or considerably more
tailwind can be expected.
b) If the maximum altitude is below the optimum altitude.
c) If the temperature is lower at the low altitude (high altitude inversion).
d) If at the lower altitude either more headwind or less tailwind can be expected.

32.3.5.2 (2042)
On a long distance flight the gross mass decreases continuously as a consequence
of the fuel consumption. The result is:
a) The specific range and the optimum altitude increases.
b) The speed must be increased to compensate the lower mass.
c) The specific range increases and the optimum altitude decreases.
d) The specific range decreases and the optimum altitude increases.

32.3.5.2 (2043)
If the thrust available exceeds the thrust required for level flight
a) the aeroplane accelerates if the altitude is maintained.
b) the aeroplane descends if the airspeed is maintained.
c) the aeroplane decelerates if it is in the region of reversed command.
d) the aeroplane decelerates if the altitude is maintained.

32.3.5.2 (2044)
In a given configuration the endurance of a piston engined aeroplane only depends
on:
a) altitude, speed, mass and fuel on board.
b) altitude, speed and mass.
c) speed and mass.
d) speed, mass and fuel on board. 342
32.3.5.2 (2045)
Which of the following statements with regard to the optimum cruise altitude (best
fuel mileage) is correct?
a) An aeroplane sometimes flies above the optimum cruise altitude, because ATC
normally does not allow to fly continuously at the optimum cruise altitude.
b) An aeroplane always flies below the optimum cruise altitude, as otherwise Mach buffet can
occur.
c) An aeroplane always flies on the optimum cruise altitude, because this is most attractive
from an economy point of view.
d) An aeroplane usually flies above the optimum cruise altitude, as this provides the largest
specific range.

32.3.5.3 (2046)
An aeroplane operating under the 180 minutes ETOPS rule may be up to :
a) 180 minutes flying time to a suitable airport in still air with one engine
inoperative.
b) 180 minutes flying time to a suitable airport under the prevailing weather condition with
one engine inoperative.
c) 180 minutes flying time from suitable airport in still air at a normal cruising speed
d) 90 minutes flying time from the first enroute airport and another 90 minutes from the
second enroute airport in still air with one engine inoperative.

32.3.5.3 (2047)
ETOPS flight is a twin engine jet aeroplane flight conducted over a route, where no
suitable airport is within an area of
a) 60 minutes flying time in still air at the approved one engine out cruise speed.
b) 60 minutes flying time in still air at the normal cruising speed.
c) 30 minutes flying time at the normal cruising speed.
d) 75 minutes flying time at the approved one engine out cruise speed.

32.3.5.3 (2048)
(For this question use annex 032-3589A or Performance Manual MRJT 1 Figure
4.24)With regard to the drift down performance of the twin jet aeroplane, why
does the curve representing 35 000 kg gross mass in the chart for drift down net
profiles start at approximately 3 minutes at FL370?
a) Because at this mass it takes about 3 minutes to decelerate to the optimum
speed for drift down at the original cruising level.
b) Because at this mass the engines slow down at a slower rate after failure, there is still some
thrust left during four minutes.
c) Due to higher TAS at this mass it takes more time to develop the optimal rate of descent,
because of the inertia involved.
d) All the curves start at the same point, which is situated outside the chart.

32.3.5.3 (2049)
A twin jet aeroplane is in cruise, with one engine inoperative, and has to overfly a
high terrain area. In order to allow the greatest clearance height, the appropriate
airspeed must be the airspeed
a) of greatest lift-to-drag ratio.
b) giving the lowest Cl/Cd ratio.
c) giving the highest Cd/Cl ratio.
d) for long-range cruise.
343
32.3.5.3 (2050)
The drift down requirements are based on:
a) the obstacle clearance during a descent to the new cruising altitude if an engine
has failed.
b) the actual engine thrust output at the altitude of engine failure.
c) the maximum flight path gradient during the descent.
d) the landing mass limit at the alternate.

32.3.5.3 (2051)
Which of the following statements is correct?
a) When determining the obstacle clearance during drift down, fuel dumping may
be taken into account.
b) The drift down regulations require a minimum descent angle after an engine failure at
cruising altitude.
c) The drift down procedure requires a minimum obstacle clearance of 35 ft.
d) An engine failure at high cruising altitude will always result in a drift down, because it is not
permitted to fly the same altitude as with all engines operating.

32.3.5.3 (2052)
With all engines out, a pilot wants to fly for maximum time. Therefore he has to fly
the speed corresponding to:
a) the minimum drag.
b) the critical Mach number.
c) the minimum angle of descent.
d) the maximum lift.

32.3.5.3 (2053)
After engine failure the aeroplane is unable to maintain its cruising altitude. What
is the procedure which should be applied?
a) Drift Down Procedure.
b) Emergency Descent Procedure.
c) ETOPS.
d) Long Range Cruise Descent.

32.3.5.3 (2054)
'Drift down' is the procedure to be applied
a) after engine failure if the aeroplane is above the one engine out maximum
altitude.
b) after cabin depressurization.
c) to conduct an instrument approach at the alternate.
d) to conduct a visual approach if VASI is available.

32.3.5.3 (2055)
If the level-off altitude is below the obstacle clearance altitude during a drift down
procedure
a) fuel jettisoning should be started at the beginning of drift down.
b) the recommended drift down speed should be disregarded and it should be flown at the
stall speed plus 10 kt.
c) fuel jettisoning should be started when the obstacle clearance altitude is reached.
d) the drift down should be flown with flaps in the approach configuration.
344
32.3.5.3 (2056)
With one or two engines inoperative the best specific range at high altitudes is
a) reduced.
b) improved.
c) not affected.
d) first improved and later reduced.

32.3.5.3 (2057)
(For this question use annex 032-4732A or Performance Manual MRJT 1 Figure
4.24)With regard to the drift down performance of the twin jet aeroplane, what is
meant by ""equivalent gross weight at engine failure"" ?
a) The equivalent gross weight at engine failure is the actual gross weight
corrected for OAT higher than ISA +10°C.
b) The increment represents fuel used before engine failure.
c) This gross weight accounts for the lower Mach number at higher temperatures.
d) The increment accounts for the higher fuel flow at higher temperatures.

32.3.5.4 (2058)
The drift down procedure specifies requirements concerning the:
a) obstacle clearance during descent to the net level-off altitude
b) engine power at the altitude at which engine failure occurs
c) climb gradient during the descent to the net level-off altitude
d) weight during landing at the alternate

32.3.5.4 (2059)
Which one of the following statements concerning drift-down is correct?
a) When determining the obstacle clearance during drift-down, fuel dumping may
be taken into account.
b) The drift-down procedure requires a minimum descent angle after an engine failure at
cruising altitude.
c) The drift-down procedure requires a minimum obstacle clearance of 35 ft.
d) An engine failure at high cruising altitude will always result in a drift-down, because it is not
permitted to fly the same altitude with one engine inoperative as with all engines operating.

32.3.6.1 (2060)
During a descent at constant Mach Number, the margin to low speed buffet will:
a) increase, because the lift coefficient decreases.
b) remain constant, because the Mach number remains constant.
c) increase, because the lift coefficient increases.
d) decrease, because the lift coefficient decreases.

32.3.6.1 (2061)
During a glide at constant Mach number, the pitch angle of the aeroplane will:
a) decrease.
b) increase.
c) increase at first and decrease later on.
d) remain constant.

32.3.6.1 (2062)
An aeroplane carries out a descent from FL 410 to FL 270 at cruise Mach number,
and from FL 270 to FL 100 at the IAS reached at FL 270.How does the angle of 345
descent change in the first and in the second part of the descent?Assume idle
thrust and clean configuration and ignore compressibility effects.
a) Increases in the first part, is constant in the second.
b) Increases in the first part, decreases in the second.
c) Is constant in the first part, decreases in the second.
d) Decreases in the first part, increases in the second.

32.3.6.1 (2063)
The lift coefficient decreases during a glide with constant Mach number, mainly
because the :
a) IAS increases.
b) aircraft mass decreases.
c) TAS decreases.
d) glide angle increases.

32.3.6.1 (2064)
A jet aeroplane descends with constant Mach number. Which of the following
speed limits is most likely to be exceeded first?
a) Maximum Operating Speed
b) Never Exceed Speed
c) High Speed Buffet Limit
d) Maximum Operational Mach Number

32.3.6.1 (2065)
Which statement is correct for a descent without engine thrust at maximum lift to
drag ratio speed?
a) The higher the gross mass the greater is the speed for descent.
b) The higher the gross mass the lower is the speed for descent.
c) The higher the average temperature (OAT) the lower is the speed for descent.
d) The mass of an aeroplane does not have any effect on the speed for descent.

32.3.6.1 (2066)
Which statement is correct for a descent without engine thrust at maximum lift to
drag ratio speed?
a) A tailwind component increases the ground distance.
b) A headwind component increases the ground distance.
c) A tailwind component increases fuel and time to descent.
d) A tailwind component decreases the ground distance.

32.3.6.1 (2067)
Is there any difference between the vertical speed versus forward speed curves for
two identical aeroplanes having different masses ? (assume zero thrust and wind)
a) Yes, the difference is that for a given angle of attack both the vertical and
forward speeds of the heavier aeroplane will be larger.
b) No difference.
c) Yes, the difference is that the heavier aeroplane will always glide a greater distance.
d) Yes, the difference is that the lighter aeroplane will always glide a greater distance.

32.3.6.3 (2068)
A flight is planned with a turbojet aeroplane to an aerodrome with a landing
distance available of 2400 m. Which of the following is the maximum landing 346
distance for a dry runway?
a) 1 440 m.
b) 1 250 m.
c) 1 090 m.
d) 1 655 m.

32.3.6.3 (2069)
For a turbojet aeroplane, what is the maximum landing distance for wet runways
when the landing distance available at an aerodrome is 3000 m?
a) 1565 m.
b) 1800 m.
c) 2609 m.
d) 2 070 m.

32.3.6.3 (2070)
The approach climb requirement has been established so that the aeroplane will
achieve:
a) minimum climb gradient in the event of a go-around with one engine
inoperative.
b) obstacle clearance in the approach area.
c) manoeuverability in the event of landing with one engine inoperative.
d) manoeuverability during approach with full flaps and gear down, all engines operating.

32.3.6.3 (2071)
For jet aeroplanes which of the following statements is correct?
a) When determining the maximum allowable landing mass at destination, 60% of
the available distance is taken into account, if the runway is expected to be dry.
b) In any case runway slope is one of the factors taken into account when determining the
required landing field length.
c) An anti-skid system malfunction has no effect on the required landing field length.
d) The required landing field length is the distance from 35 ft to the full stop point.

32.3.6.3 (2072)
Which of the following is true according to JAA regulations for turbopropeller
powered aeroplanes not performing a steep approach?
a) Maximum Landing Distance at the destination aerodrome and at any alternate
aerodrome is 0,7 x LDA (Landing Distance Available).
b) Maximum Landing Distance at destination is 0,95 x LDA (Landing Distance Available).
c) Maximum Take-off Run is 0,5 x runway.
d) Maximum use of clearway is 1,5 x runway.

32.3.6.3 (2073)
To minimize the risk of hydroplaning during landing the pilot should:
a) make a ""positive"" landing and apply maximum reverse thrust and brakes as
quickly as possible.
b) use maximum reverse thrust, and should start braking below the hydroplaning speed.
c) use normal landing-, braking- and reverse technique.
d) postpone the landing until the risk of hydroplaning no longer exists.

32.3.6.3 (2074)
347
Approaching in turbulent wind conditions requires a change in the landing
reference speed (VREF):
a) Increasing VREF
b) Lowering VREF
c) Keeping same VREF because wind has no influence on IAS.
d) Increasing VREF and making a steeper glide path to avoid the use of spoilers.

32.3.6.3 (2075)
What margin above the stall speed is provided by the landing reference speed
VREF?
a) 1,30 VSO
b) 1,05 VSO
c) 1,10 VSO
d) VMCA x 1,2

32.3.6.3 (2076)
Required runway length at destination airport for turboprop aeroplanes
a) is the same as at an alternate airport.
b) is less then at an alternate airport.
c) is more than at an alternate airport.
d) is 60% longer than at an alternate airport.

32.3.6.3 (2077)
The landing reference speed VREF has, in accordance with international
requirements, the following margins above stall speed in landing configuration:
a) 30%
b) 15%
c) 20%
d) 10%

32.3.6.3 (2078)
The maximum mass for landing could be limited by
a) the climb requirements with one engine inoperative in the approach
configuration.
b) the climb requirements with one engine inoperative in the landing configuration.
c) the climb requirements with all engines in the approach configuration.
d) the climb requirements with all engines in the landing configuration but with gear up.

32.3.6.3 (2079)
The landing field length required for turbojet aeroplanes at the destination (wet
condition) is the demonstrated landing distance plus
a) 92%
b) 67%
c) 70%
d) 43%

32.3.6.3 (2080)
The landing field length required for jet aeroplanes at the alternate (wet condition)
is the demonstrated landing distance plus
a) 92%
b) 43%
348
c) 70%
d) 67%

32.3.6.3 (2081)
(For this question use annex 032-4733A or Performance Manual MRJT 1 Figure
4.28)What is the minimum field length required for the worst wind situation,
landing a twin jet aeroplane with the anti-skid inoperative?Elevation: 2000 ftQNH:
1013 hPaLanding mass: 50 000 kgFlaps: as required for minimum landing
distanceRunway condition: dryWind: Maximum allowable tailwind: 15 ktMaximum
allowable headwind: 50 kt
a) 3100 m.
b) 2600 m.
c) 2700 m.
d) 2900 m.

32.3.6.3 (2082)
The approach climb requirement has been established to ensure:
a) minimum climb gradient in case of a go-around with one engine inoperative.
b) obstacle clearance in the approach area.
c) manoeuvrability in case of landing with one engine inoperative.
d) manoeuvrability during approach with full flaps and gear down, all engines operating.

32.3.6.3 (2083)
By what factor must the landing distance available (dry runway) for a turbojet
powered aeroplane be multiplied to find the landing distance required? (planning
phase for destination).
a) 0.60
b) 115/100
c) 1.67
d) 60/115

32.3.6.3 (2084)
According to JAR-OPS 1, which one of the following statements concerning the
landing distance for a turbojet aeroplane is correct?
a) When determining the maximum allowable landing mass at destination, 60% of
the available landing runway length should be taken into account.
b) Reverse thrust is one of the factors always taken into account when determining the
landing distance required.
c) Malfunctioning of an anti-skid system has no effect on the required runway length.
d) The landing distance is the distance from 35 ft above the surface of the runway to the full
stop.

32.3.7.2 (2085)
If a flight is performed with a higher ""Cost Index"" at a given mass which of the
following will occur?
a) A higher cruise mach number.
b) A lower cruise mach number.
c) A better maximum range.
d) A better long range.

349