5 Model Test paper

Physics
6. If a vector i 2iˆ + 3jˆ + 8kˆ s perpendicular to
1. If E, G, J and m represent energy, universal the vector 4jˆ - 4iˆ + αkˆ , then the value of  is:
gravitational constant angular momentum
a. -1 b. - 1 c. 1 d. 1
and mass respectively, then dimensions of 2 2
EJ 2
are those of: 7. The Boolean equation for the circuit given
m5 G 2 in the figure:
a. Mass b. Length c. Time d. Angle
2. Time period of a simple pendulum measured
inside a stationary lift is T. If the lift starts
g
moving upwards with an acceleration of ,
what will be its time period: 3
a.=
Y A. B + C b.
= Y A. ( B + C )
a. T b. 3T c. 3 T d. 3 T
3 2 2 c. Y A. ( B + C )
= d.
= Y A. ( B + C )
3. Particle of mass 0.3kg is subjected to a force 8. The surface energy of a liquid drop is u. It
F = -kx with k = 15N/m. What will be its is splitted into 103 equal droplets. Then its
initial acceleration of it is released form a surface energy becomes:
point 20cm away from the origin: a. u b. 10u c. 100u d. 1000u
a. 3m/s2 b. 5m/s2 c. 15m/s2 d. 10m/s2
9. If the momentum of an electron is changed
4. The diagram shows the change x in length of by P, then the de-Broglie wavelength
a thin uniform wire caused by the application associated with it changes by 0.5%. The
of stress F, at two different temperatures T1& initial momentum of electron will be:
T2. The variations shows suggest that: a. 200P b. 400P c. P d. 100P
200
10. A magnetic needle is placed in a uniform
magnetic field and is aligned with the field.
The needle is now rotated by an angle of
60o and the work is W. The torque on the
magnetic needle at this position is:
a. 2 3 W b. 3 W c. 3 W d. 3 W
a. T1> T2 b. T1< T2 c. T1 = T2 d. None 2 4

5. A particle of mass m moves with constant 11. If an electron in hydrogen atom jumps from
speed along a circular path of radius r under an orbit of level n = 3 to an orbit or level n =
the action of a force F. Its speed is: 2, emitted radiated has a frequency:
a. 3Rc b. Rc c. 8Rc d. 5Rc
a. rF b. F c. Fmr d. F 27 25 9 36
m r mr
 103
NEET Practice Set
12. Circular loop of a wire and a long straight For using the transistor as amplifier it has to
wire carry current Ic and Ie respectively as operate in the region:
shown in figure. Assuming that these are a. Active b. Cut off
placed in the same plane. The magnetic field c. Saturation d. Cut off and saturation
will be zero at the centre of the loop when
the separation H is: 17. Which one of the following graphs shows
the variation of acceleration due to gravity
with depth h from the surface:

a. b.

a. Ie R b. Ic R c. πIc d. Ie π
Ic π Ie π Ie R Ic R c. d.
13. Force F on a particle moving in a straight
line varies with distance d as shown in the
figure. The work done on the particle during 18. A current of 5A is flowing at 220V in the
its displacement of 12m is: primary coil of a transformer. If the voltage
produced in the secondary coil is 220V and
50% of power is lost, then the current in
secondary will be:
a. 2.5A b. 5A c. 0.25A d. 0.5A
19. A racing car is traveling along a track at a
constant speed of 40m/s. A TV cameraman
a. 21J b. 26J c. 13J d. 18J is recording the event from a distance of 30
m directly away from the track as shown in
14. Light of wavelength 0.6μm from a sodium figure in order to keep the car under view,
lamp falls on a photo cell and causes the at what angular speed must the camera be
emission of photoelectrons for which the rotated [in rad/sec]:
stopping potential is 0.5V with light of
wavelength 0.4μm from a sodium lamp, the
stopping potential is 1.5V, with this data the
h
value of is:
e
a. 4 × 10-19 V.s b. 0.25 × 10-15 V.s
c. 4 × 10-15 V.s d. 4 × 10-8 V.s
a. 1 b. 3 c. 5 d. 4
15. The compressibility of water is 6 ×10-10 N -1 m 2
20. In a potentiometer of one metre length, an
. If 1(ltr) is subjected to a pressure of
unknown emf voltage source is balanced at
4 ×107 N / m 2 , the decrease in its volume is: 60cm length of potentiometer wire, while a
a. 10cc b. 24cc c. 15cc d. 12cc 3V battery is balanced at 45cm length. Then,
the emf of the unknown voltage source is:
16. The transfer characteristics of a base biased
transistor has the operation regions, namely, a. 3V b. 2.25V c. 4V d. 4.5V
cut off, active region and saturation region.
104
Model Test Paper - 5
26. The masses of the wires of copper are in
21. If radius of the 27
Al13 nucleus is taken to be the ratio 5 : 3 : 1 and their lengths are in
R Al , then the radius of 125
Te53 nucleus is the ratio 1 : 3 : 5. The ratio of their electrical
nearly. resistances is:
1 1 a. 5 : 3 : 1 b. 125 :15 :1
a.  13  R Al b.  53  R Al
3 3
c. 1 : 15 : 125 d. 1 : 3 : 5
 53   15 
   
27. A stone falls freely under gravity it covers
c. 5 R Al d. 3 R Al distances h1, h2 and h3 in the first 5sec, the
3 5 next five sec and the further next 5sec
22. An ideal gas is taken through a cyclic thermo respectively. The relation between h1, h2 and
dynamical process through four steps Q4 h3 is:
= 3645J, respectively. The corresponding a. h1 = 2h2 = 3h3
works involved are W1 = 2200J, W2 = -825J h 2 h3
W3 = -1100J and W4 respectively. The value b. h=
1 =
of W4 is: 3 5
c. h2 = 3h1 and h3 = 3h2
a. 1315J b. 275J c. 765J d. 675J
d. h1 = h2 = h3
23. An asteroid of mass m is approaching earth,
initially at a distance of 10Re with speed V1. 28. One mole of an ideal monoatomic gas
It hits the earth with a speed Vf (Re and Me undergoes a process described by the
radius and mass of earth), then: equation PV3 = constant. The heat capacity
2GM  1 of the gas during this process is:
a. Vf2 =V12 + 1-
M e R  10 
a. R b. 3R c. 5R d. 2R
2GM  1 2 2
b. Vf2 =V12 +  1+ 
R e  10  29. The wavelength of the light used in Young’s
2GMe  1 double slit experiment is λ. The intensity at
c. V =
2
V + 1-
2

R e  10  a point on the screen is I, where the path
f 1

λ
2GM  1  difference is . If Io denotes the maximum
d. Vf2 =
V12 + 1- 6
R e  10  intensity, then the ratio of I and Io is:

24. A spherical ball A of mass 4kg, moving in a a. 0.866 b. 0.5 c. 0.707 d. 0.75
straight line strikes another spherical ball B
30. Which of the following graphs cannot
of mass 1kg at rest. After the collision, A and
possible represent one dimensional motion
B move with velocities V1m/s and V2m/s,
of a particle:
respectively makes angles of 30o and 60o
with respect to the original direction of
V
motion of A. the ratio 1 will be:
V2
a. 3 b. 4 c. 1 d. 3
4 3 3
25. If the length of an open organ pipe is 33.3cm,
then the frequency of fifth overtone is: (Vsound
= 333m/s)
a. 3000Hz b. 1500Hz
c. 2500Hz d. 1250Hz
 105
NEET Practice Set
a. I b. II c. III & IV d. All a. 100V b. 200V c. 400V d. 800V
31. When a resistance R1 is connected across the 36. A 50Hz AC current of crest value 1A flows
terminal of a cell, the current is I1, when the through the primary coil of transformer.
resistance is changed to R2, the current is I2. If mutual induction between primary and
The internal resistance of the cell is: secondary is 1.5H, the crest voltage induced
in the secondary coil is:
a. I1 R1 + I 2 R 2 b. I1 R 2 + I 2 R1 a. 272V b. 320V c. 415V d. 471V
I1 + I 2 I1 + I 2
37. Two particles of masses 1kg and 3kg have
position vectors 2iˆ + 3jˆ + 4kˆ and -2iˆ + 3jˆ - 4kˆ
c. I1 R 2 + I 2 R1 d. I 2 R 2 + I1 R1
I1 - I 2 I1 - I 2 respectively. The centre of mass has a posi-
tion vector:
32. A transparent cube of 15cm edge contains a
a. ˆi + 3jˆ - 2kˆ b. -ˆi - 3jˆ - 2kˆ
small air bubble. Its apparent depth when
viewed through one face is 6cm and when c. -ˆi + 3jˆ + 2kˆ d. -ˆi + 3jˆ - 2kˆ
viewed through the opposite face is 4cm. 38. The potential energy at a point due to
Then, the refractive index of the material of an electric dipole will be maximum and
the cube is: minimum when the angles between the axis
a. 2 b. 2.5 c. 1.6 d. 1.5 of the dipole and the line joining the point
33. A smooth block is released at rest on a 45o to the dipole are respectively:
incline and then slides a distance d. The time a. 90o and 180o b. 0o and 90o
taken to slide is n times as much to slide on c. 90 and 0
o o
d. 0o and 180o
rough incline, than on a smooth incline. The 39. A jet of water with cross sectional area ‘a’ is
coefficient of friction is: striking against a wall at an angle θ to the
1 1 horizontal and rebounds elastically. If the
a. µ k = 1 - b. µ k = 1- velocity of water jet is v and the density is ρ,
n2 n2
the normal force acting on the wall is:
1 1
c. µs = 1 - d. µs = 1-
n2 n2 a. 2av 2 ρ cos θ b. av 2 ρ cos θ
c. 2avρ cos θ d. av cos θ
34. A stream line body with relative density ρ1
falls into air from a height h on the surface 40. The potential difference between A and B in
of a liquid of relative density ρ2, where ρ2 > the following figure is:
ρ1 the time of immersion of the body into the
liquid will be:
2h ρ1 2h ρ2 a. 32V b. 48V c. 24V d. 14V
a. t
= × b. t
= ×
g ρ2 g ρ1
41. The temperature of n moles of an ideal gas is
2h 2h ρ1 increased from T to 4T through a process for
c. t = d. t
= × a
g g ρ2 - ρ1 which pressure P = where a is constant.
T
35. In the figure a potential of 1200V is given to The work done by gas is:
point A and point B is earthed, what is the a. nRT b. 4nRT c. 2nRT d. 6nRT
potential at the point P:
42. A stone of mass 2kg is tied to a string of
length 0.5m if the breaking tension of the
string is 900N, then the maximum angular
velocity, the stone can have in uniform
circular motion is:
106
Model Test Paper - 5
a. 30rad/s b. 20rad/s Chemistry
c. 10rad/s d. 40rad/s
43. Which of the substances A, B and C has the 46. Ozone in the stratosphere is depleted by:
lowest heat capacity, if heat is supplied to a. CF2 Cl2 b. C7 H16 c. C6 H 6 Cl6 d. C6 F6
all of them at equal rates. The temperatures
versus time graph is shown: 47. LPG mainly contains:
a. Methane
b. Methane and ethane
c. Hydrogen, methane and ethane
d. Butane and isobutane
48. (CH3)3MgCl on reaction with D2O produces:
a. ( CH 3 )3 CD b. ( CH 3 )3 OD
c. ( CD3 )3 CD d. ( CD3 )3 OD
a. A b. B
49. The IUPAC name for the compound:
c. C d. Equal for all
44. A cubical block of side 10cm floats at the
interface of an oil and water. The pressure
above that of atmosphere at the lower face a. 2-cyclopentylpropane
of the block is: b. 1,1-dimethyl-1-cyclopentylmethane
c. (1-methylethyl) cyclopentane
d. 1-cyclopentyl propane
50. Which of the following imparts green colour
to the burner flame?
a. B ( OMe )3 b. NaOMe
a. 200N/m2 b. 680N/m2
c. 400N/m2 d. 800N/m2 c. Al ( O Pr )3 d. Sn ( OH )2

45. A rod of length L and mass M is acted on by 51. The number of possible alkynes with
two unequal forces F1 and F2 (< F1) as shown molecular formula C5H8 is:
in the figure. The tension in the rod at a a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5
distance y from the end A is given by:
52. Tautomerism is not exhibited by:
a. b.

c. d.
 y y
a. F1 1 -  + F2  
 L L
 y  y 53. Kp/Kc for the reaction:
b. F2 1 -  + F1  
 L L 1
CO ( g ) + O 2 ( g ) 
 CO 2 ( g ) is:
y 2
c. ( F1 - F2 ) a. 1 b. RT c.1/ RT d. ( RT ) 2
1

L
d. None of these 54. The strongest base of the following species
is:
a. NH 2 - b. OH - c. O 2 - d. S2 -
 107
NEET Practice Set
55. Oxidation state of Cl in CaOCl2 is/are: c. More than that of KF
a. 0 b. +1 c. -1 d.+1, -1 d. Equal to that of NaF
56. Nascent hydrogen consists of: 67. Which of the following element outermost
a. Hydrogen atoms with excess energy orbit’s last electron has magnetic quantum
b. Hydrogen molecules with excess energy number m = 0?
c. Hydrogen ions in the excited state
d. Solvated protons a. Na b. O c. Cl d. N

57. Brine solution on electrolysis will not give: 68. A metal crystallises into two cubic phases,
face centred (FCC) & body centred (BCC)
a. NaOH b. Cl2 c. H2 d. O2 o o
whose unit cell lengths are 3.5 A and 3.0 A
58. Which of the following species has a linear respectively. Calculate ratio of their densi-
shape: ties:
a. NO +2 b. O3 c. NO -2 d. SO 2 a. 1 : 26 b. 1 : 20 c. 1 : 10 d. 1 : 15
59. Which exhibits the weakest intermolecular 69. In NaCl, the chloride ions occupy the space
forces? in a fashion of:
a. NH3 b. HCl c. He d. H2O a. fcc b. bcc c. Both d. None
60. In [Ag(N)2]-, the number of π bonds is: 70. If an aqueous solution of glucose is allowed
a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 6 to freeze, then crystals of which will be
separated out first?
61. The standard free energy change, ∆G o is
a. Glucose b. Water c. Both d. None
related to equilibrium constant Kp as:
71. The Van’t Hoff factor for BaCl2 at 0.01
 e  M concentration is 1.98. The percentage
a. K p =
-RT ln ∆G o
b.=
Kp   ∆G
o

 RT  dissociation of BaCl2 at this concentration is:

-∆G o a. 49 b. 69 c. 100 d. 98
c. K p = d. K p= e - ∆G o ( RT )
RT
72. What will be the emf of the given cell:
62. The correct order of bond angles/smallest
first/in H2S, NH3, BF3 and SiH4 is: Pt H 2 ( P1 ) H + ( aq.) H 2 ( P2 ) Pt
a. H2S < SiH4 < NH3 < BF3 a. RT ln P1 b. RT ln P1
b. NH3 < H2S < SiH4 < BF3 F P2 2F P2
c. H2S < NH3 < SiH4 < BF3
d. H2S < NH3 < BF3 < SiH4 c. RT ln P2 d. None
F P1
63. Which of the following is not electron
deficient? 73. DDT on exposure to water decomposes.
Half life = 10 years. How much time will it
a. NH3 b. BF3 c. AlCl3 d. BH3 take for its 90% decomposition?
64. The maximum number of molecules is a. 50 years b. 70 years
present in: c. 500 years d. 700 years
a. 15L of H2 gas STP b. 5L of N2 gas STP 74. Blood may be purified by:
c. 0.5g of H2 gas d. 10g of O2 gas
a. Dialysis b. Electro-osmosis
65. The spectrum of He is expected to be similar c. Coagulation d. Filtration
to that of:
75. The potential energy diagram for reaction
a. H b. Na c. He+ d. Li+
R → P is given below: ∆H o of the reaction
66. The bond length in LiF will be: corresponds to the energy:
a. Less than that of Naf
b. Equal to that of KF
108
Model Test Paper - 5

d.

83. Phenol, when it first reacts with concentrated

H2SO4 and then with concentrated nitric
acid, gives:
a. Nitrobenzene b. 2, 4, 6-trinitrobenzene
a. a b. b c. c d. a + b b. o-nitrophenol d. p – nitrophenol
76. Which of the following is the most basic 84. Which of the following has the most acidic
oxide? hydrogen?
a. SeO2 b. Al2O3 c. Sb2O3 d. Bi2O3 a. 3-hexanone b. 2, 4-hexanedione
c. 2, 5- hexanedione d. 2, 3-hexanedione
77. During electrolytic refining of copper some
metals present as impurity settles as ‘anode 85. A mixture of benzaldehyde and
mud’. There are: formaldehyde on heating with aqueous
a. Sn and Ag b. Pb and Zn NaOH solution gives:
c. Ag and Au d. Fe and Ni a. Benzyl alcohol and sodium formate
b. Sodium benzoate and methyl alcohol
78. Which can do glass etching?
c. Sodium benzoate and sodium formate
a. HIO4 b. SiF4 c. HF d. HNO3 d. Benzyl alcohol and methyl alcohol
79. Which compound does not dissolve in hot
dilute HNO3?
a. HgS b. PbS c. CuS d. CdS
86.
80. For decolourization of 1 mole of KMnO4, the
moles of H2O2 required is:
a. 1/2 b. 3/2 c. 5/2 d. 7/2
What is X?
81. The complex used as an anticancer agent is:
a. mer – [CO(NH3)3Cl3]
b. cis – [PtCl2(NH3)2] a. b.
c. cis – K2[PtCl2Br2]
d. Na2COCl4
82.
c. d.

A (predominantly) is:
87. Which amino acid has phenolic OH group as
a.
its backbone?
a. Glycine b. Leucine
c. Serine d. Tyrosine
b.
88. Which of the following is a chain growth
polymer?
c. a. Starch b. Nucleic acid
c. Polystyrene d. Proteins
 109
NEET Practice Set
b. Because of Isotonicity
89. X is c. Because of Tonicity
d. Because of Hypotonicity
98. Prokaryotic genetic system has:
a. b.
a. Either DNA or histones
b. Both DNA or histones
c. d. c. DNA but no histones
d. Neither DNA nor histones

90. Nylon threads are made of: 99. A vector should have which of the following
properties:
a. Polyethylene polymer
i) MCS ii) Small size
b. Polyvinyl polymer
c. Polyester polymer iii) Multiple ori iv) Low replication speed
d. Polyamide polymer a. i, ii, iii b. ii, iii, iv
c. i, ii, iv d. i, ii, iv

Biology 100. Biopiracy is related to which of the

following:
a. Traditional knowledge
91. Which tissue is required to be present in b. Bioresources
between stock and scion during grafting? c. Bimolecules
a. Phloem b. Meristem d. All of the above
c. Xylem d. Both (a) and (c)
101. The chromosomes in eukaryotic organisms
92. The atmosphere is measured in terms of: are best studied in:
a. Todson unit b. Dobson unit a. Non dividing cell b. Stage of interphase
c. Mobson unit d. None of the above c. Metaphase b. Late prophase
93. How many species are present line in the 102. Which one of the following is not an effect
sea? of tobacco?
a. 3,74,000 b. 2,32,600 a. Blood vessels are dilated
c. 2,10,000 d. 2,30,000 b. Blood pressure increases
c. Nerve cells are stimulated
94. Antheridium is present in:
d. Heartbeat increases
a. Marchantia b. Chara
c. Sweet potato d. Onion 103. Onco genes is another name for:
a. Promoter gene b. Inducer gene
95. Fern Gametophyte is nutritionally:
c. Structural gene d. Cancer causing gene
a. Chemoautotrophy
b. Parasite 104. Which of the following bacteria is found in
c. Sporophyte symbiotic association with legumes?
d. Photoautotroph a. Azotabacter b. Rhizobium
c. Azospirillum d. Bacillus
96. Structure of a sporophyte consists of a foot,
setae and: 105. In gastrulation, which is/are formed?
a. Endoderm
a. Vacuole b. Cell membrane b. Mesoderm
c. Cell wall d. Capsule c. Ectoderm and endoderm
d. Ectoderm, mesoderm and endoderm
97. Why concentration of solute is higher in
external solution: 106. Which of the following is included in
a. Because of Hypertonicity biopesticide?
110
Model Test Paper - 5
a. Viruses and bacteria graphical isolation
b. Viruses, bacteria and fungi c. Due to artificial selection
c. Viruses, bacteria, fungi, protozoa and d. Due to polymorphism
mites
116. Which of the following is used in biowar?
d. Viruses, bacteria, fungi and protozoa
a. A pathogen
107. Surface appendage of bacteria meant for b. Toxin from a pathogen
cell-cell attachment during conjugation is: c. A delivery system for the bioweapon agent
a. Pili b. Flagella d. All of the above
c. Spinal d. Cilia
117. A person with blood group A possesses:
108. A gene showing codominance: a. Antigen A and antibody B
a. Has alleles tightly linked on the same chro- b. Antigen B and antibody A
mosome c. Antigen A and antibody B
b. Has one allele dominant to other d. No antigen and no antibody
c. Has both alleles independently expressed
118. In which one pair both the plants can be
in the heterozygote
vegetatively propagated by leaf pieces?
d. Has alleles expressed at the sometime in
a. Bryophyllum and Kalanchoe
development b. Chrysanthemum and Agave
109. RNA molecules that acts as enzymes are c. Agave and kalanchoe
called: d. Asparagus and Bryophyllum
a. Polymerase b. Ribozymes 119. The concept of biological species defines
c. Transcriptase d. Both (a) and (b) species as a group of:
110. Which of the following also acts as catalyst a. Individuals occupying a specific area
in bacterial cell: b. Interbreeding individuals
a. hn RNA b. 5sr RNA c. Individuals producing fertile hybrid
c. Sn RNA d. 23 Sr RNA d. Reproductively isolated individuals
111. Alfatoxin is produced by: 120. The function of the operator gene is:
a. Bacteria b. Virus a. Structural gene b. Promoter gene
c. Fungi d. Nematode c. Regulator gene d. Induces gene

112. The perianth is the term used when: 121. Which of the following birth control
a. Androecium and gynoecium are similar measures can be considered as the safest?
b. Calyx and corolla are similar a. The rhythm method
c. Androcium and calyx are similar b. The use of physical barriers
d. Gynoecium and corolla are similar c. Termination of unwanted pregnancy
113. Placentation in tomato and lemon is: d. Sterlisation techniques.
a. Axile b. Marginal 122. Industrial melanism is an example of:
c. Parietal d. Free central a. Protective resemblance with the surround-
ing
114. Introduction of recombinant DNA into b. Drug resistance
bacterial cell by using current is called: c. Defensive adaptation of skin against UV
a. Transformation b. Electroporation radiations
c. Recombination d. Transduction d. Darkening of skin due to industries
123. Hydroponics is:
115. Sympatric speciation is the formation of
species: a. Growing of aquatic plants
b. Growing off floating aquatic plants
a. In grographically isolated areas
c. Soilless cultivation of plants
b.Within a single population without geo-
d. Growing of plants inside water.
 111
NEET Practice Set
124. Basement membrane is made up of: 133. Self - incompability due to the genotype of
a. No cell product of epithelial cell the pollen grain itself termed as:
b. Epidermal cells only a. Sporphytic incompatibility
c. Endodermal cell b. Gametophytic in compatibility
d. Both b and c c. Stigmatic incompactibility
d. Apomixis
125. The fruit of gramineae is:
a. Caruncle b. Caryopsis 134. Induce acetic acid belongs to the group of
c. Achene d. Nut hormones called:
a. Auxins b. Gibberellins
126. Cork cambium and vascular cambium are:
c. Cytokinins d. Abscisic acid
a. Parts of secondary xylem and phloem
b. Parts of pericycly 135. Children suffering from SCID cannot make
c. Lateral meristem the following enzyme:
d. Apical meristem a. Adenosine deaminase
b. Adenosine triphosphate
127. Bordered pits are found in: c. Adenosine diphosphate
d. Hirudin
a. Sieve cells b. Vessel wall
c. Companion cells d. Sieve tube wall 136. The R - strain of a bacteria Diplococcus
128. Which one of the following is wrongly pnemoniae:
matched: a. Are not virulant
b. Form rough colonies
a. Cassia - Imbricate aestivation
c. Are capsulated
b. Root pressure - Guttation
d. Are non capsulated
c. Puccinia - Smut
d. Root - Exarch protoxylem 137. Restriction endonucleases are most widely
used in recombinant DNA technology. They
129. Which series ends with the cohort
are obtained from:
umbellales in Bentham and Hooker’s system
of classification. a. Bacteriophages b. Bacterial cells
c. Plasmids d. All prokaryotic cells
a. Heteromerae b. Disciflorae
c. Thalamiflorae d. Calyciflorae 138. Global radiation:
130. If the linked genes are present not very far a. Direct radiation - Diffuse radiation
b. Direct radiation + Diffuse radiation
off on the chromosome, the recombinant c. Direct radiation / Diffuse radiation
frequency would be: d. Diffuse radiation / Direct radiation
a. 50 % b. Less than 50%
c. More than 50% d. 75% 139. A prokaryotic autotrophic nitrogen fixing
symbiont found in?
131. The tumour inducing capacity of a. Pisum b. Alnus
Agrobacterium tumefaciens is located in c. Cycas d. Cicer
large extra chromosomal plasmid called:
140. The process of embryo formation without
a. Tiplasmid b. Lamda phage fertilization is known as:
c. pBR322 d. Tiplasmid
a. Apospory b. APogomy
132. The recessive genes located on X chromosome c. Parthenocarpy d. Polyembryony
in humans are always:
141. An egg - apparatus contains:
a. Sub-lethal
a. An egg + two antipodals
b. Expressed in males
b. An egg + Secondary nucleus
c. Expressed in females
c. Antipodal cell + synergid
d. Lethal
d. An egg + Two synergids
112
Model Test Paper - 5
142. A gas rquired for germination of pea seed is: d. Aquaculture - Mosquito
a. Nitrogen b. Oxygen
152. Amphetamines have the following effect on
c. Hydrogen d. Water vapours
the body:
143. A triploblastic unsegmented animal with a. Cause drowsiness b. Bring hallucinations
complete alimentary canal could be a: c. Stimulate the body d. Depress the body
a. Roundworm b. Planaria
153. The earth originated approximately:
c. Liverfluke d. Hydra
a. 3.6 x 106 years ago b. 4.6 x 106 years ago
144. Which of the following is found in sponges c. 4.6 x 109 years ago d. 3.6 x 109 years ago
only:
154. Ectomycorrhiza is an association of:
a. Mesoglea b. Nerve cells
a. Bacteria and plant roots
c. One exit d. Numerous inlets
b. Cyanobacteria and plant roots
145. The body cavity formed by splitting of c. Fungi and plant roots
mesoderm is called: d. Bacteria and fungi
a. Pseudocoelom b. Coelom 155. Haemolytic disease of the new born (HDN)
c. Haemocoel d. Blastocoel occurs when:
146. Pneumatophores are special features of a. Rh - mother bears Rh + foetus
plants growing in: b. Rh + mother bears Rh - foetus
a. Water c. O + mother bears A + foetus
b. Mangrove forests
d. O + mother bears A - foetus
c. Dry and heat conditions
d. Oligotrophic soils 156. In a counter flow system in the gills of fish
the direction of flow in water is:
147. Which of the following is the most common
tree species in Indian tropical rainforests? a. Parallel to the flow of blood
b. Opposite to the flow of blood
a. Dipterocarpus b. Shorea robusta
c. At right angle to the flow of blood
c. Acacia d. Overcus
d. None of these
148. Biodiversity varies with change in latitude
157. Krebs cycle take place in:
and altidude. It:
a. Mitochondria b. Cytoplasm
a. Decrease from high to low latitudes
b. Decreases from low to high altitudes c. Grana d. Endoplasmic reticulum
c. Decreases from high to low altitude 158. Which of the following hormones is released
d. Decrease from low to high altitude by duodenum and acts on gall bladder?
149. The longwavy, unbranched fibres present in a. Gastrin b. Secretin
bundles in connective tissue? c. Cholecystokinin d. GIP
a. Collagen fibre b. Elastic fibre 159. Trypsin acts on:
c. Reticulate fibre d. Yellow fibre
a. Proteins in a acidic medium
150. The cutting down of trees and setting them b. Proteins in alkaline medium
on fire and raising crops on the resulting ash c. Depepticles in a acidic medium
is called: d. Dipeptides in alkaline medium
a. Pyrolysis b. Jhum cultivation 160. What had happened when heat killed R cells
c. Taungyasystem d. Shift cultivation along with the live R cells were injected into
151. What is correctly mathced? mice?
a. Apiculture - Honeybee a. Mice survived and showed lines cells
b. Pisiculture - Silk moth b. Mice died and showed live cells
c. Sericulture - Fish c. Mice survived and showed live R cells
 113
NEET Practice Set
d. Mice died and showed live R cells c. In outer chamber
161. F1 particles are present in the mitochondria: d. In inner chamber
a. In matrix 170. Each pollen tube has:
b. On outer membrane a. One generative nuclues and one tube
c. On inner membrane nucleus
d. In intercristae space b. One generative nucleus and two tube
162. Phylogeny represent the: nuclei
a. Embryological history of animals c. Two generative nuclei and one tube nucle-
b. Comparative anatomy of animals us
c. Evolutionary history of animal d. Two generative nuclei one two tube nuclei
d. Fossilisation of animal 171. In the human female, mensturation can be
163. The enzyme that polymerises deoyribonu- deffered by administrations of:
cleotides in 5’ → 3’ direction only is called: a. Combination of estrogen and progesterone
a. Helicase b. Primase b. FSH only
c. DNA polymerase d. DNA ligase c. LH only
d. Combination of FSH and LH
164. Which one of the following is a psychedelic
drug? 172. Unisexualituy of flowers prevents:
a. Opium b. LSD a. Autogamy and geitonogamy
c. Cocaine d. Morphine b. Both geitonogamy and Xenogamy
c. Autogamy but not geitonogamy
165. In vitro fertilization or test tube babies d. Geitonogamy but not xenogamy
technique involves:
173. The use of sunflower oil is recommended by
a. Fertilisation outside the female body the doctors because it is:
b. Development of foetus in the test tube
c. Both the above a. Rich in saturated fatty acids
d. None of the above b. Rich in unsaturated fatty acids
c. Good for reducing weight
166. The vascular bundles of a dicot stem are: d. Rich source of energy
a. Closed, collateral and exarch 174. Carbon monoxide poisoning is due to the
b. Open, collateral and exarch formation of:
c. Closed, collateral and endarch
d. Open, collateral and endarch a. Carboxyhaemoglobin
b. Carbaminohaemoglobin
167. Cilia and flagella both have: c. Carbonic acid
a. 9 + 2 arrangement d. Carbonic and hydrase
b. 9 + 0 arrangement 175. Which of the following does not have a
c. Symmetrical berts medusa stage:
d. 100 μm
a. Hydra b. Jellyfish
168. Somaclonal variation on can be obtained by: c. Obilia d. Corals
a. Application of colchicine 176. Which of the following level of organisation
b. Hybridisation is found in coelenterate?
c. Irradiation with gamma rays
d. Tissue culture a. Cellular b. Tissue
c. Organ d. Organ system
169. The enzyme for electron transport chain are
present: 177. Which extraembryonic membrane in
humans prevents desiccation of the embryo
a. On outer membrane inside the uterus?
b. On inner membrane
114
Model Test Paper - 5
a. Allantois b. Yolk sac
c. Amnion d. Chorion 3
T" = T
2
178. A normal women whose father was colour
blind marries a normal man. Her sons would 3. (d) mass = 0.3kg, x = 20cm
be:
K = 15 N/m
a. 75% colour blind b. 50% colour blind
c. All normal d. All colour blind F = -kx = ma
179. If DDT is sprayed in a lake, its highest 20
concentration will be found in: -15 × =
0.3a
100
a. Phytoplankton b. Zooplanktons
c. Fish eating birds d. Fishes a = -10m/s2

180. What is false for population attributes: -ve sign indicates acceleration is towards
a. Group of organism living in well defined mean position
geographical area 4. (a)
b. It has birth rate and death rate
c. It has sex ratio
d. It has sex

Solution
Stress
=Y ∝ slope
2 -2 2 -1
Strain
1. (d) E ML
= = =
T , J ML T , G M -1 L3 T -2
2 FL
EJ 2 ML T  ML T 2 -2 2 -1
slope ∝
Dimension
= = x
m5 G 2 M 5  M -1 L3 T -2 
2
As temperature increases, elasticity decreases
= M=o o o
LT Angle slope of curve 1 is less, elasticity is less for
temperature T1
2.(c) Time period of simple pendulum
T1 > T2
l
T = 2π 5. (a) Centripetal force under the action of which
g eff body moves in circle

l mv 2
T = 2π When lift stationary Fcentripetal =
g r

When lift starts moving upwards with an mv 2

F=
g r
acceleration
3 rF
v=
l m
T = 2π
g+a
6. (b)Vectors are perpendicular to each other
g
a= Cross product is zero
3 
A = 2iˆ + 3jˆ + 8kˆ
l 3l
T" =
2π =
2π 
g+
g 4g B= 4ˆj - 4iˆ + αkˆ
3
 115
NEET Practice Set
 
A.B = 0 = MB -
MB
2
-8 + 12 + 8α =0
MB .....(1)
8α = -4 W=
2
τ (= ) MBSin60=o
1 3 3
α=- θ 60o= =
MB × 2W
= 3W
2 2 2

7. (d) using equation (1) in this we get

τ (= ) MBSin60=o τ (= ) MBSin60=o
3 3 3 3
θ 60o= =
MB × 2W = θ 360
Wo= =
MB × 2W
= 3W
2 2 2 2
1 1 1
11. (d)
= R 2 - 2
λ  n 2 n1 

= T.4πR 2
8. (b) Surface energy (U) 1  1 1 
= R 2 - 2
λ  ( 2 ) ( 3) 
This big drop of radii R is splitted into 103
small droplets of radius r
1  1 1  5R
4 3 4 = R  - =
πr = 103 × πr 3 λ  4 9  36
3 3
c
R = 10r f=
λ
R
E= 103 × 4π × r 2 × T ∴=
r 5R 5Rc
1
10 f =×
c =
36 36
E1 = 10U
12. (a) Magnetic field due to closed loop of radius
h R
9. (a) λ = [de Broglie wavelength]
p  µ I
B1 = o c  Out of the plane
h 2R
P=
λ Magnetic field due to straight wire carrying
∆P ∆λ current Ie
= -
P λ  µo Ie
=B2 ⊗ Into the plane
P
=
0.5 2πH
Pinitial 100 
It is given that Bnet at loop centre is zero
 
Pinitial = 200P B1 - B2 = 0
 
10. (d) B1 = B2
µo Ic µo Ie
=
2R 2πH
RIe
H=
πIc
=
θ1 0o , =
θ2 60p
13. (c) Work done = Area under F-x graph
W = PE1 – PE2 1
= 2 × ( 7 - 3) + × 2 × (12 - 7 )
2
= MB cos 0o – MB cos60o = 2 × 4 + 5 = 13 Joule
116
Model Test Paper - 5
14. (d) Equation of photo electric effect
g
g =' g -   h
W = Wo + eVo
 Re 
hc compare this with straight line equation
= Wo + e × 0.5 ..…(1)
0.6µm y = c + mx
hc x = h, y = g’
= Wo + 1.5e …..(2)
0.4µm -g
m= -ve slope
Re
(2) - (1)
18. (a) In a transformer
 1 1 
hc  - =e
 0.4µm 0.6µm  η=
Po
Pi
0.2µm
=hc = e 50 Vs Is
0.24µm =
100 Vp I p
hc
=e 1 220 × Is
12 = ×5
2 220
h 12 12
= = Is = 2.5A
e c 3 × 108
h 19. (b) In ∆ABC
4 × 10-8 V - s
=
e x
1 tan φ =
15. (b) Compressibility factor ( K ) = h
B =x h tan φ
1 1
= =
B differentiates w.r.t time
K 6 × 10-10 N -1 m 2
dx dφ  d ( tan φ ) 
P =
h sec 2 φ  =
sec 2 φ 
B= dt dt  dt 
∆V
-
V =v h sec 2 φω
∆V P 4 × 107 N / m 2 ν
- = = ω=
V B  1  -1 2 h sec 2 φ
 6 × 10-10  N m v cos 2 φ
  ω=
h
∆V
24 10-3 L =
=× 24cc ⇒ [10-3 L =
1cc] 40
ω = cos 2 30
V 30
2
16. (a) When the transistor is used in the cut off or 40  3 
= × 
saturation region it acts as a switch. On the 30  2 
other hand for using the transistor as an
amplifier, it has to operate in the active region. = 1 rad/sec

20. (c) emf ∝ balanced length

17. (c) The acceleration due to gravity at a depth
‘h’ below the earth surface E1 = k1 …(1)
 h  E 2 = k 2 …(2)
=
g ' g 1 -  E1 = E, E2 = 3V
 Re 
=1 60,=  2 45
 117
NEET Practice Set
24. (a)
E k × 60
=
3 k × 45
E = 4V
1
21. (c) Radius of Nucleus ∝ A 3
∴ When nothing specified, assume collision to
1
A 3
∴ A = mass number be elastic
R Al = ( 27 )
1
3
In elastic collision
R Te = (125 )
1
3
Momentum conserved, K.E. conserved.
R Al 3
= Momentum conserved in x, y direction
R Te 5 p x1 = p x 2 and p y1 = p y2
5
R Te = R Al
3 p y1 = p y2

22. (c) In a cyclic process ∆U =0 4 ×=

0 + 1× 0 4v1Sin30o - v 2 Sin60o

Ist law of thermodynamics v2 ×

3
= 4v1 ×
1
2 2
Q =∆U + W
Q1 + Q2 + Q3 + Q4= W1 + W2 + W3 + W4 v1 3
=
v2 4
5960 – 5585 – 2980 + 3645 = 2200 – 825 – 1100 + W4
W4 = 1040 - 275 25. (a) Frequency of 5th O.T
= ( 5 + 1)
v
2L
W4 = 765J
6 × 333
f=
1
23. (c) Kinetic energy of asteroid = mv12 2 × 33.3 × 10-2
2
f = 3000Hz
-GMm
P.E of asteroid = 10R
ρ  ρ 2 ρ ρ2  2
e
26. (b)
= R = =
Apply law of energy conservation A  V ρ m
(volume=Area length)
K1 + P1 = K2 + P2 2
 2 2 mass
1 GMm 1 GMm R1 : R 2 : R 3 = 1 : 2 : 3 ρ=
mv12 - = mv f2 - m1 m 2 m3 volume
2 10R e 2 Re
( 5) ( 3) (1)
2 2 2

v12 GM GM v f2 = : :
- + = 1 3 5
2 10R e R e 2
9 1
v12 GM  1  v f2 = 25 : : or 125 : 15 : 1
+ 1- = 3 5
2 R e  10  2
1
2GM  1 27. (b) h=
1 g × t12
v =
2
fv + 2
1 1-  2
R e  10 
t1 = 5sec
h1 = 125m
g
= (10 )  -=
2
h2 125 375m
2
118
Model Test Paper - 5
31. (d)
g
h3 = (15) - (10 ) = 625
2 2

2 
h1 : h2 : h3

125 : 375 : 625 E E

I1 = I2 =
h h r + R1 r + R2
h1 : 2 : 3
3 5
I1 r + R 2
28. (a) PV3 = constant =
I 2 r + R1
R
=
C Cv + I1 r + I1 R1 =I 2 r + I 2 R 2
1- x
x=3 r ( I1 - I 2 )= I 2 R 2 - I1 R1
3 R 3 I 2 R 2 - I1 R1
=
C R+ ∴ C v =R
2 1- 3 2 r=
I1 - I 2
for monoatomic
32. (d) Assume ‘x’ be the real depth from one side
3R R
=
C - x 15 - x
2 2 µ= =
C=R 6 4

2π x=9
29. (d) Phase difference =
φ ∆x x 9
λ µ= =
2π λ 6 6
φ=
λ 6 μ= 1.5
π
φ= 33. (c)
3
φ
I = Io Cos 2  
2
I  π 
= Cos 2  
Io  3× 2 
I π
= Cos 2
Io 6 1
S= g Sin45 t 2 …(1)
I 3 2
= = 0.75
Io 4 For rough inclined plane
1
π 3 =S g Sin45o - µg Cos45o  t 2 n 2 …(2)
∴ Cos = 2
6 2
a g Sinθ - µg Cosθ where
= = θ 45o 
30. (d) I does not represent the 1-D motion; total
distance covered by a particle increases and By (1) and (2)
decreases with time.
g 1 2 g 1 µ  2 2
I and III do not represent the 1-D motion, × t =  - n t
because at a particular time, there cannot 2 2 2  2 2
be two values of position IV is not possible, 1 (1 - µ )
because speed can never be negative. = n2
2 2
 119
NEET Practice Set
37. (d) Position vector of centre of mass
1
= 1- µ m1 r1 + m 2 r2
n2 rcm =
m1 + m 2
1
µ = 1- r1 = 2iˆ + 3jˆ + 4k,
ˆ m = 1kg
1
n2
r2 =-2iˆ + 3jˆ - 4k,
ˆ m =
2 3kg
34. (d) When the body falls from height h, the
velocity by which it hit the surface of liquid
rcm =
( ) (
1 2iˆ + 3jˆ + 4kˆ + 3 -2iˆ + 3jˆ - 4kˆ )
= 2gh 1+ 3

When the body immersed in liquid of density -4iˆ + 12ˆj - 8kˆ

=
ρ2 4
=-i + 3j - 2kˆ
Up thrust = Vρ2g

Weight of body = Vρ1g K P Cosθ

38. (d) V =
r2
retardation V
Net = ρ2 g - Vρ1 g ( ρ2 - ρ1 ) V ∝ Cosθ
= g
Vρ1 ρ1
Vmax at θ =0o
Time of immersion for body to acquire final
velocity zero Vmin at θ =180o
 ρ - ρ1 
v = v o + at ⇒ 0 = 2gh -  2 g t
 ρ1  39. (a)

2gh ρ1 2h ρ1
=t ⇒
g ρ2 - ρ1 g ρ2 - ρ1

35. (c) 3μF and 6μF are connected in series

q 3 = q6
Newton’s second law of motion
C1V1 = C2V2 dp
Fext =
3(1200 - VP) = 6(VP - VB) dt
VB =0 [Grounded] Fext= p 2 - p1
mass m
1200 – VP = 2VP =p 2 mv Cosθ = =
volume av
3VP = 1200 =p2 ( av ) =
v Cosθ av 2 Cosθ
VP = 400V
pi =-ev 2 Cosθ
36. (d)=I Io Sinω
= t Io Sin2πft volume flow rate = velocity × area

di d Fext= p 2 - p= av 2 Cosθ - ( -av 2 Cosθ )

= M ( Io Sin2πft )
i
=
E max M
dt dt =Fext 2av 2 Cosθ
E=
max MIo 2πft
= 2πMIo 40. (b)

=2 × 3.14 × 1.5 × 50
= 471 volt
120
Model Test Paper - 5
Substance having more heat capacity
VA - VB = 2 × 6 + 12 + 9 × 2 - 4 + 2 × 5 takes longer time to get heated to a higher
= 12 + 12 + 18 – 4 + 10 temperature and longer time to get cooled. If
we draw a line parallel to the time axis, then it
= 48V cuts the given graphs at three different points
∴ Sign conventions corresponding points on the time axis show
that t C > t B > t C or CC > CB > CA
For potential drop = +ve
For potential rise = -ve 44. (d) P= Po + ρ1 gh1 + ρ2 gh 2
In current direction = +ve P - Po = 600 × 10 × 0.1 + 1000 × 10 × 0.02
In reverse to current = -ve = 600 + 200
P – Po = 800 N/m2
41. (d) PV = nRT 45. (a)
nRT
V=
P

=
V
nRT
=T
nRT 2
∴
= P
a Net force on the rod = F1 – F2
a a T F1 - F2
2nRT Acceleration of rod =
dV = dt M
a Rod of length ‘L’ has mass = M
M
Rod of length ‘y’ has mass = L y
4T 4T 4T
2nRT a 2nRT
=
dW ∫=
PdV ∫ P. =
a
dt ∫ .
t a
dt
M
T T T
F1 - T = y.a
W = 6nRT L
M F -F
F1 - T = y 1 2
42. (a) L M
 y y
T = F1 1 -  + F2
 L L

Chemistry
T - mg =mω2 
900 - 2 × 10 = 2ω2 × 0.5
46. (a) CF2Cl2
ω2 =880
Freons introduced in the atmosphere from
ω = 29.66
aerosol sprays, in which they act as coolants.
ω = 30 rad/sec hν
CF2 Cl2  → CF2 Cl + Cl
43. (a) hν
CFCl3  → CFCl2 + Cl
The reactive chlorine atoms then destroy
the ozone through following sequence of
reactions.
Cl + O 2 → ClO + O 2
ClO + O → Cl + O 2
 121
NEET Practice Set
47. (b) Butane and isobutane
LPG is the mixture of butane and isobutane kp
= ( RT )
∆n
used as a fuel in homes as well as industry. kc
1
= ( RT )
-
48. (a) (CH3)3CD 2

When it reacts with heavy water, kp 1

=
( CH3 )3 CMgCl + D2O  → kc RT
( CH3 )3 CD + Mg ( OD ) Cl 54. (a) NH 2-
49. (c) (1-methylethyl) cyclopentane Due to highest electron density on N in NH2-,
it can accept protons most easily and hence is
the strongest base.

55. (d) +1, -1

50. (a) B(OMe)3 CaOCl2
Only the vapours of triethylborate when  +1  -1
Ca 2 +  O C l-  Cl
ignited burns with a green edged flame. This  
form the basis for detecting borates and boric Therefore,
acid in a qualibative analysis.
Oxidation of two Cl atoms are +1 and -1.
51. (b) 3
56. (b) Hydrogen molecules with excess energy
C5H8 Nascent hydrogen can be produced even at
1. CH 3 CH 2 CH 2 C ≡ CH room temperature and can never be isolated.
It consists of hydrogen molecules with excess
2. ( CH 3 )2 CH - C ≡ CH energy.
3. CH 3 CH 2 C ≡ CCH 3 57. (d) O2
On electrolysis of brine solution,
52. (a)
Outer compartments, NaCl 
→ Na + + Cl-
There ae two conditions for a molecule to
H2O being a weak electrolyte
exhibit tautomerism:
 H + + OH -
H 2 O 
1. The compound must have a electron egative
atom (i.e. N, O or S) bonded by a double or At anode
triple bond, i.e C = O, C ≡ N , N = O, C = NH Cl- 
→ Cl + e - , Cl + Cl 
→ Cl2 ↑
etc.
At cathode
2. The compound must have atleast one acidic
 – hydrogen. Na + + e - → Na
2Na + xHg → Na 2 .Hgx
53. (c) 1/ RT Sod. Amalgam
For reaction Central compartment
CO ( g ) + 1 O 2 ( g ) 
 CO 2 ( g ) → Na + + OH -
NaOH 
2
 H + + OH -
H 2 O 
∆n g = n p - n r
At cathode,
 1 1
=-
1 1 +  =- H + + e - 
→ H; H + H 
→ H2 ↑
 2 2
At anode,
122
Model Test Paper - 5

OH - 
→ OH + e - 22.4 L of any gas
= 6.02 × 1023 molecules
Na 2 Hgx + 2OH 
→ 2NaOH + xHg 6.02 × 1023
∴ 15L H 2= ×=
15 4.03 × 10
23

58. (a) NO +2 22.4

+
O= N= O is linear 6.02 × 1023
∴ 5L N=
2
=× 5 1.344 × 10
23

22.4
All others are bent molecules/ions.
2gH
= 2
6.02 × 1023 molecules
59. (c) He
6.02 × 1023
Intermolecular forces: Forces of attraction ∴ 0.5 g H 2 = × 0.5
existing among molecules of a substance 2
polar molecules such as HCl have greator = 1.505 × 1023 molecules
intermolecular forces of attraction than non-
polar molecules He. 32 g =
O2 6.02 × 1023 molecules
Further H2O can form hydrogen bond have 6.02 × 1023
higher B.P than their counterparts such as ∴ 10g O=
2 × 10
32
NH3 which do not form hydrogen bond. = 1.88 × 10= 23 molecules
60. (c) 4 65. (d) Li+
[ N ≡ C - Ag - C ≡ N ]
-
Spectrum of He is expected to be similar to that
∴ π Bond are 4. of Li+. As both He and Li+ has two electrons.

66. (a) Less than that of NaF

61. (d) k p = e -∆G
o
/RT
Due to smaller size of Li than Na or K, LiF has
∆ Go =
-RT ln k p smaller bond length than NaF and KF.
∆G As, smaller the size small will be bond length
- =n k p and vice versa.
RT
67. (a) Na
Or k p = e -∆G
o
/RT

11 Na = 1s 2 2s 2 2p 6 3s1
62. (c) H 2 S < NH 3 < SiH 4 < BF3 i.e for last electron, l = 0
Bond angle compound ∴ m=0
o o
92 6 H2S
107 o NH3 ρFCC
68. (a)=
ZFCC
×
( a 3 )BCC
ρBCC (a3 ) ZBCC
109o 28 ' SiH4 FCC

4 × ( 3.0 )
3
BF3 1
120o = = = 1 : 26
2 × ( 3.5 )
3
26
63. (a) NH3
In NH3, octet of N is complete, Therefore it 69. (a) fcc
does need any extra electron. NaCl has fcc arrangement in which Cl- ions
occupy the corners and face centres of a cube
Hence, it is not electron deficient. while Na+ ions are present at the edge centres
64. (a) 15L of H2 gas STP and body centre.

At STP, Coordination number,

Na + 6,=
= Cl- 6
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NEET Practice Set
70. (b) Water
= 66.5years  70years
If an aqueous solution of glucose is allowed to
freeze, than crystals of water will be separated 74. (a) Dialysis
out first. As solute (glucose is solid), then The process of separating the particles of
Solvent (water) will freeze out first. colloids from those of crystalloids by diffusion
of mixture through a parchment or an animal
71. (a) 49 membrane.
 Ba 2 + + 2Cl-
BaCl2 
It is used in the purification of blood in the
Initial 1 mol 0 0 artificial kidney. The dialysis membrane
permits small particles of excess ions and
After dissociation 1- α α 2α waste products to pass though whereas
Total = 1 + 2α colloid sized particles such as haemoglobin
do not pass through membrane.
i = 1 + 2α
75. (c) c
i -1 ∆H is the enthalpy change during the reaction
= α
2 at a particular temperature. It remains
constant because it depends only the nature
1.98 - 1 0.98
⇒=
α = = 0.49 of reactants and products as shown in figure.
2 2
i.e. 49 % 76. (d) Bi2O3
The size of Bi3+ is very large and has very
72. (b)
RT P
ln 1 weak +ve field around it. Therefore, it does
2F P2 not interact with H2O to release H+ ions.

 H 2 ( P2 ) Bi3+ + 3H - O - H → Bi ( OH )3 + 3H +
R.H.S 2H + + 2e - 
In contrast O2 is small and has a stronge –ve
L.H.S H 2 ( P1 ) 
 2H + + 2e - electric field around it. It, therefore interact
with water releasing OH – ions.
Overall reaction H 2 ( P1 ) 
 H 2 ( P2 )

RT P
=
E Eo - ln 2
nF P1 Thus, Bi2O3 is strong basic oxide.

= O-
RT P
ln 2 77. (c) Ag and Au
2F P1 Silver and gold do not react with CuSO4 +
H2SO4 solution.
RT P
= ln 1
2F P2 78. (c) HF
Although, weak, HF is the most reactive of all
73. (b) 70 years
halogen acids. It can attack glass because of its
0.693 ability to displace oxygen from silicate ion to
k= year -1 (1) form fluorosilicate ion.
10
2.303 a Na 2 SiO3 + 6HF 
→ Na 2 SiF6 + 3H 2 O
k= log
t a - 0.99a (glass)
2.303 Thats why HF is used for etching of glass, in
= log102 making thermometers, burettes etc.
t
2.303 × 10 × 2 79. (a) HgS
or t = form (1)
0.693 HgS does not dissolve in hot dil. HNO3 while
124
Model Test Paper - 5
all other sulphides (PbS, CuS, CdS) dissolve 83. (c) o-nitrophenol
in hot dil. HNO3 forming their corresponding
nitrates.

80. c) 5/2
2KMnO 4 + 3H 2 SO 4 
→ K 2 SO 4 + 2MnSO 4
+ 3H 2 O + 5 ( O )
H 2 O 2 + ( O ) 
→ H 2 O + O2 × 5
2KMnO 4 + 3H 2 SO 4 + 5H 2 O 2 
→

K 2 SO 4 + 2MnSO 4 + 8H 2 O + 5O 2
Thus, 2 moles of KMnO4 react with H2O2 = 5 o-nitrophenol
moles
5
Here, 1 mole of KMnO4 = -SO3H group are knocked out on boiling with
2 H2O.
81. (b) Cis –[PtCl2(NH3)2]
84. (b) 2, 4-hexanedione
Cis – platin
1, 3-diketones i.e, 2, 4-hexanedione has the
most acidic hydrogen since the carbanion (I)
left after the removal of a proton is stabilized
by resonance.

It is used in the treatment of cancer.

82. (d)

85. (a) Benzyl alcohol and sodium – formate

+ +HCHO 
HCHO →→CC66HH5CH 2 OH++HCOONa
NaO
NaOH
CC
6H6H 5 CHO
5 CHO 5 CH2 OH
HCOONa
Benzaldehyde fomaldehyde

Cross – cannizzaro reaction gives benzyl

alcohol and sodium formate.

86. (b)

Thus (d) is correct

 125
NEET Practice Set
Biology

91. (a) Phloem

92. (b) Dobson unit
The atmosphere is measured in term of
Since NHCOCH3 is a more powerful electron-
Dobson units.
donating group than CH3 group, bromination
of group to the yield of (II). 93. (d) 2,30,000
2,30,000 species are present line in the sea.
87. (d) Tyrosine
94. (c) Sweet potato
Structure of amino acids Antheridium is present in Chara (monoecious
plant).

Amino acid R It is the male sex organ of algae, mosses, ferns

and other non-flowering plants.
(a) glycine H
95. (d) Photoautotroph
(b) Leuccine CH2CH(CH3)2 Fern Gametophyte is nutritionally photoau-
totroph.
(c) Serine CH2OH
96. (d) Capsule
(d) Tyrosine Structure of a sporophyte consists of a foot,
seta and capsule
88. (c) Polysterene 97. (c) Because of Tonicity
Monomer unit – (C6H5CH=CH2) It is commoly used when describing the
response of cells immersed in an external
solution.
Structure. addition polymer 98. (c) DNA but no histones
As prokaryotic DNA has longloop called a
It involves successive addition of monomer nucleoid and features DNA binding proteins
units to the growing chain carrying reaction but no histones because it does not have to
intermediate such as free radical. coil as tightly as eukaryotic DNA to fit into a
fixed nuclear envelope.
99. (c) i, ii, iv
89. (b)
A vector has small size
Diazonium salts of benzyl amine is not stable, 100. (d) All of the above
it decomposes, on site, to form benzyl alcohol. Biopiracy is related to bioresources and
biomolecules with traditional knowledge.
90. (d) Polyamide polymer
101. (c) Metaphase
Polymers having amide linkages are The chromosomes in eukaryotic organisms
called poly amides. These are prepared by are best studied in metaphase because of
condensation polymerization of dibasic acids their high degree of condensation.
with diamines or their equivalents. These
102. (a) Blood vessels are dilated
polymers commonly called nylons.
103. (d) Cancer causing gene
Oncogenes is another name for cancer
causing gene.
104. (b) Rhizobium
Rhizobium bacteria found in symbiotic
association with leguments.
126
Model Test Paper - 5
105. (d) Ectoderm, mesoderm and endoderm 120. (c) Regulator gene
In gastrulation, all are formed. The function of the operator gene is regulator
106. (d) Viruses, bacteria, fungi and protozoa gene
Viruses, bacteria, fungi and protozoa are 121. (d) Sterlisation techniques
included in biopesticide Sterilisation technique is the safest method to
107. (a) Pili control birth, beause this method is surgical,
The appendages called pili are also tubes they involve anaesthesia.
that protrude from the bacteria surface. 122. (a) Protective resemblance with the sur-
108. (c) Both alleles independently expressed in rounding
the heterozygote Industrial melanism is an example of
A gene showing codominance has both alleles protective resemblance with the surrounding
independently expressed in heterozygote. peppered moths provide one example.

109. (b) 123. (c) Soil less cultivation of plants

Hydroponic are soil less cultivation of plants.
110. (d) 23 Sr RNA 124. (a) No cell product of Epithelial cell
23 Sr RNA is also acts as catalyst in bacterial Basal membrane are double layered, the
cell. outer layer being secreted by the epithelial
111. (c) Fungi cells and the inner layer by connective tissue.
Alfatoxin is produced by fungi (Aspergillus 125. (b) Caryopsis
lavis), amold found on corn. The fruit of gramineae is caryopsis
112. (b) Calyx and corolla are not distinguished 126. (c) Lateral meristem
form each other. Both are responsible for secondary growth of
113. (a) Axile stem. It also increases the grith of stem.
Placentation in tomato and lemon is axile 127. (b) Vessel wall
and ovules are attached to it. Bordered pits are found in vessel wall.
114. (b) Electroporation 128. (c) Puccinia - Smut
Introduction of recombinant of DNA into Puccinia - rust fungi
bacterial cell by using current is called
electroporation. 129. (d) Calyciflorae
Calyciflorae series ends with the cohort
115. (b) Within a single population without umbellales in Benthan and Hooker’s system
geographical isolation of classification. It shows cup shaped
116. (d) All of the above thalamus structure.
Biowar refers to biological war. It means that 130. (b) Less than 50%
biological organisms are used as weapons to If two genes occur on the same chromosome,
carry out the war. they may not assort independently at
117. (c) Antigen A and antibody B anaphase of meiosis. These genes are said to
A person with blood group a possesses be linked.
antigen A antibody b 131. (d) Tiplasmid
118. (a) Bryophyllum and kalanchor Extrachromosomal plasmid is Tiplasmid
Bryophyllum and kalanchoe. In Bryophyllum
and kalanchoe, plants can be vegetatively 132. (c) Expressed in females
propagated by leaf pieces. The recessive genes located on X chromosome
119. (b) Interbreeding individuals in humas are always express of in females
Interbreeding individuals. Biological species 133. (b) Gametophytic in compatibility
defines species as a group of inter breeding Self incompatibility due to the genotype of
individuals. the pollen grain itself termed as gametophytic
 127
NEET Practice Set
incompatibility. These are the collagen fibres
134. (a) Auxins 150. (b) Jhum
Indole acetic acid belongs to the group of The resulting ash is called Jhum
hormones called auxins. 151. (a) Apiculture - honeybee
135. (a) Adenosine deaminase Apiculture - Honeybee is correctly matched.
Children suffering from SCID cannot make 152. (c) Stimulate the body
the enzyme adenosine deaminase. Amphetamines stimulates the body.
136. (b) Form rough colonies 153. (c) 4.6 x 109 years ago
The R-strain of bacteria diplococcos The earth originated approximately 4.6 x 109
pnemoniae form rough colonies. years ago.
137. (b) Bacterial cells 154. (c) Fungi and plant roots
Restriction endonuclease are obtained from Ectomycorrhiza is an association of fungi
bacterial cells. and plant roots.
138. (b) Direct radiation + Diffuse radiation 155. (a) Rh- mother bears Rh+ foetus
Global radiation = Direct radiation + Diffuse
radiation. 156. (b) Opposite to the flow of blood
The direction of flow of water in fish is
139. (c) Cycas opposite to the flow of blood.
Anabaena cyacadae is a BGA found in corolloid
root of cycas 157. (a) Mitochondria
Krebs cycle take place in matrix of
140. (b) A Pogomy mitochondria.
Apogomy is the process of embryo formation
without fertilization. 158. (c) Cholecystokinin
Cholecystokinin hormone is released by
141. (d) An egg + Two synergids duodenum and act an gall bladder.
An egg apparatus contains an egg and two
synergids which have finger like projections 159. (a) Proteins in a acidic medium
at micropylar end. Trypsin, enzyme that acts to degrade protein.
142. (b) Oxygen 160. (b) Mice died and showed live cells
Oxygen is required for germination of pea They belived that the types were fixed
seed. and unchangeable from one generation to
another
143. (a) Roundworm
Triploblastic animal could be round worm 161. (c) On inner membrane
F1 particles are present in the mitochondria
144. (d) Numerous inlets on inner membrane. F2 particles also called
Numerous inlets are only found in sponges oxysomes which contain ATPase, involve in
145. (b) Coelom ATP synthesis.
The body cavity formed by splitting of 162. (c) Evolutionary history of animal
mesoderm is called coelom. Phylogeny represents the evolutionary
146. (b) Mangroves forests history of animals.
Pnematophores are special features of plants 163. (d) DNA ligase
growing in mangious forests. The enzyme that polymerises
147. (a) Dipterocarpus deoxyribonucleotides in 5’ → 3’ direction is
Dipterocarpus is the most common tree called DNA ligase.
species in indian tropical rainforests. 164. (b) LSD
148. (d) Decrease from low to high altitude LSD is psychedelic drug. It is a hallucinogenic
149. (a) Collagen fibres drug.
128
Model Test Paper - 5
165. (a) Fertilisation outsie the female body 173. (b) Rich in unsaturated fatty acids
Seen in vitro fertilisation techniques involved Because sunflower oil is rich in unsaturated
fertilisation on outside the female bodies fatty acids and Vitamin E
166. (d) Open, collateral and endarch 174. (a) Carboxyhaemoglobin
The vascular bundles of a dicot stem are CO Poisoning is due to the formation of
open, collateral and endarch. carboxyhaemoglobin
167. (a) 9 + 2 arrangement 175. (a) Hydra
Cilia and flagella both have 9 + 2 Hydra does not have medusa stage.
arrangements. 176. (b) Tissue
168. (d) Tissue culture Tissue level of organisation found in
Somaclonal variation can be obtained by coelentrerates
tissue culture. 177. (c) Amnion
169. (b) On inner membrane Amnion membrane in humans prevents
The enzyme for electron transport chain are desiccation of embryo by providing aquatic
present on inner membrane. environment to it.
170. (a) One generative nuclues and one tube 178. (b) 50% colour blind
nucleus Her son would be 50 % colourblind because
Each pollen tube has one generative nucleus female was carrier for thil disease.
and one tube nucleus 179. (c) Fish eating birds
171. (a) Combination of estrogen and If DDT is sprayed in the lake, its highest
progesterone concentration will be found in fish eating
Menstruation can be deffered by combination birds because of toxic accumulation in
of FSH and LH. successive trophic level. This process is also
172. (c) Autogamy but not geitonogamy known as Biomagnification.
Unisexuality of flowers prevents autogamy 180. (b) It has birth rate & death
but not geitonogamy. Rate because it has both birth rate & death
rate.