AGES

1. A father is nine times as old as his son and the mother is eight
times as old as the son. The sum of the father's and the mother's age
is 51 years. What is the age of the son ? (2015)

(a) 7 year
(b) 5year
(d) 4 year
(d) 3 year

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2.Directions for the following 2 (two) items: (2015)
Read the following passage and answer the 2 (two) items that
follow:
A, B, C, D, E and F are cousins.
No two cousins are of the same age, but all have birthdays on the
same day of the same month.
The youngest is 17 years old and the oldest E is 22 years old.
F is somewhere between B and D in age.
A is older than B.
C is older than D.
A is one year older than C.

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 2. Which one of the following is possible?

(a) D is 20 years old

(b) F is 18 years old
(c) F is 19 years old
(d) F is 20 years old

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 (continuation of previous question )

3. What is the number of logically possible orders of all six cousins

in terms of increasing age?

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4

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 4. The sum of the ages of 5 members comprising a family, 3 years ago
was 80 years. The average age of the family today is the same as it
was 3 years ago, because of an addition of a baby during the
intervening period. How old is the baby ? (2016)

(a) 6 months
(b) 1 year
(c) 2 years
(d) 2 years and 6 months

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5.The age of Mr. X last year was the square of a number and it would
be cube of number next year. what is the least number of years he
must wait for his age to become the cube of a number again ?
(2017)
a)42 b)38
c)25 d)16

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6.In 2002, Meenu’s age was 1/3rd of the age of Meera , whereas in 2010,
Meenu’s age was half of Meera. What is Meenu’s year of birth? (2019)

A) 1992

B)1994

C)1996

D)1998

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 7.Ena was born 4 years after the parent’s marriage. Her mother is 3
yrs younger than her father and 24 years older than Ena, who is 13
years old. At what age did Ena’s father get married? (2019)
A) 22 yrs
B) 23 yrs
C) 24 yrs
D) 25 yrs

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1.A student on her first 3 tests received an average score of N points.
If she exceeds her previous average score by 20 points on her fourth
test, then what is the average score for the first 4 tests? (2011)

(a) N + 20 (b) N + 10
(c) N + 4 (d) N + 5

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 2: Suppose the average weight of 9 persons is 50 kg. The average
weight of the first 5 persons is 45 kg, whereas the average weight of
the last 5 persons is 55 kg. Then the weight of the 5th person will be

(a) 45 kg

(b) 47.5 kg

(c) 50 kg

(d) 52.5 Kg

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3.The average monthly income of a person in certain family of 5 is
Rs.10000. What with average monthly income of a person in same
family if the income of one person increased by Rs. 1,20,000 per year ?
(2016)
a)12000
b)16000
c)20000
d)34000

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 4: The average rainfall in a city for the first four days was recorded
to be 0.40 inch. The rainfall on the last two days was in the ratio of
4: 3. The average of six days was 0.50 inch. What was the rainfall
on the fifth day? (2017)

(a) 0.60 inch

(b) 0.70 inch

(c) 0.80 inch

(d) 0.90 inch

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 5. A lift has the capacity of 18 adults or 30 children. How many
children can board the lift with 12 adults?

(a) 6
(b) 10
(c) 12
(d) 15

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6. In a garrison ,there was food for 1000 soldiers for one month. After
10 days , 1000 more soldiers joined them. How long would the
soldiers be able to carry on with the remaining food ? (2013)

A)25 days
B)20 day
C)15 days
D)10 days

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7.There are 13 two digit consecutive odd digit numbers. If 39 is the
mean of the first five such numbers, then what is the mean of all the
13 numbers?

A) 47
b) 49
c) 51
d) 45

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8. The average marks of 100 students are given to be 40. It was
found later that marks of one student were 53 which were
misread as 83. The corrected mean marks are
(2019)
A) 39
B) 39.7

C) 40
D) 40.3

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9. A family has two children along with their parents. The average of
the weights of the children and their mother is 50 kg. The average of
the weights of children and their father is 52 kg. if the weight of the
father is 60 kg , then what ids the weight of the mother ? (2019)
a) 48 kg
b) 50 kg
c) 52kg
d) 54kg

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10. Consider the following average data

Average marks in Average marks in

English Hindi
Girls 9 8
Boys 8 7
Overall average 8.8 X
marks
What is the value of X in above table ? (2020)
a) 7.8
b) 7.6
c) 7.4
d) 7.2
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11. The average age of a teacher and three students is 20 years. If all the three
students are of same age and the difference between the age of the teacher and
each student is 20 years, then what is the age of the teacher?

(a) 25 years

(b) 30 years

(c) 35 years

(d) 45 years

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12.In a class, there are three groups A, B and C. If one student from group A and two
students from group B are shifted to group C, then what happens to the average
weight of the students of the class?

(a) It increases.

(b) It decreases.

(c) It remains the same.

(d) No conclusion can be drawn due to insufficient data.

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13. The average score of a batsman after his 50th innings was 46.4. After 60th
innings, his average Score increases by 2.6. What was his average score in the last
ten innings?

(a) 122

(b) 91

(c) 62

(d) 49

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Blood Relations

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Blood Relations
2011
Read the following passage and answer the 3 (three) items that follow
:
A, B, C, D and E are members of the same family. There are two fathers,
two sons, two wives, three males and two females. The teacher was the
wife of a lawyer who was the son of a doctor. E is not a male, neither
also a wife of a professional. C is the youngest person in the family and
D is the eldest. B is a male.

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1. How is D related to E ?
(a) Husband (b) Son
(c) Father (d) Wife

2. Who are the females in the group ?

(a) C and E (b) C and D
(c) E and A (d) D and E
3. Whose wife is the teacher ?
(a) C (b) D
(c) A (d) B

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Q:4 Given that,
1-A is the brother of B.
2-C is the father of A.
3-D is the brother of E.
4-E is the daughter of B. Then, the uncle of D is (2012)

(a) A (b) B
(c) C (d) E

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 Q:5 Consider the following relationships among members of a family of six persons A,
B, C, D, E and F:
The number of males equals that of females. A and E are sons of F.

D is the mother of two, one boy and one girl. B is the son of A.

There is only one married couple in the family at present.

Which one of the following inferences can be drawn from the above?
(2017)

(a) A, B and C are all females.

(b) A is the husband of D.

(c) E and F are children of D.

(d) D is the daughter of F.

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2014
Directions for following 3 items :
Read the passage given below and answer items that follow –
A,B,C,D,E,F are members of the family. They are engineer, stenographer, doctor,
draughtsman, lawyer and judge(not in order). A, the engineer is married to the lady
stenographer. The judge is married to a lawyer. F, the draughtsman is the son of B
and brother of
E. C, the lawyer is daughter – in – law of D. E is unmarried doctor. D is the
grandmother of F. There are two married couples in the family.

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6).What is the profession of B?
a)Judge
b)Lawyer
c)Draughtsman
d)Can’t be determined

7).Which of the following is/are a couple/couples ?

a)AD only b)BC only

c)Both AD and BC d)Both AC and BD

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8).What is the profession of D ?

a)Judge b)Stenographer

c)Doctor d)Can’t be determined

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2019
9. A joint family consists of seven members A, B, C, D, E, F and G with three
females, G is a widow and sister-in-law of D’s father F, B and D are siblings and A is
daughter of B, C is cousin of B. Who is E?

1. Wife of F
2. Grandmother of A
3. Aunt of C
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
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d) 1,2 and 3
10.Consider the following: A + B means A is the Son of B. A-B means A is the wife of
B. What does the P + R - Q mean?

(a) Q is the son of P

(b) Q is the wife of P
(c) Q is the Father of P
(d) None of the above

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11. A family of two generations consisting of six members P, Q, R, S, T and U; has
three males and three females. There are two married couples and two unmarried
siblings. U is P’s daughter and Q is R’s mother in law. T is unmarried male and S is a
male. Which of the following is correct ? (2020)

A) R is U’s husband
B) R is S’s wife
C) S is unmarried
D) None of the above.

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 CALENDAR
1.If the 3rd day of a month is Monday, which one of the following
will be fifth day from 21st of this month ? (2014)

a) Monday
b) Tuesday
c) Wednesday
d) Friday

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 2: If second and fourth Saturdays and all the Sundays are taken as only
holidays for an office, what would be the minimum number of possible
working days of any month of any year? (2017)

(a) 22
(b) 21
(c) 20
(d) 23

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3.Mr. X has three children. The birthday of the first child falls on the
5th Monday of April ,that of the second one falls on the 5th
Thursday of November . On which day is the birthday of his third
child, which falls on 20th December ? (2019)

A) Monday
B)Thursday

C)Saturday

D) Sunday

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4. Which year has the same calendar as that of 2009 ?

A) 2018
B) 2017

C)2016

D) 2015

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5. In a particular year 12th January is a Sunday, then which one of the
following is correct ? (2020)

a) 15th July is a Sunday if the year is a leap year

b) 15th July is a Sunday if the year is not a leap year
c) 12th July is a Sunday if the year is a leap year
d) 12th July is a Sunday if the year is not a leap year

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 CLOCK
1: Assume that

1. The hour and minute hands of a clock move without jerking.

2. The clock shows a time between 8 o’clock and 9 o’clock.
3. The two hands of the clock are one above the other. (2014)

After how many minutes (nearest integer) will the two hands be again
lying one above the other?
(a) 60
(b) 62
(c) 65
(d) 67

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2.A bell rings every 18 minutes. A second bell rings every 24
minutes. A third bell rings every 32 minutes. If all the three bells
ring at the same time at 8 o’clock in the morning, at what other
time will they all ring together ?

a) 12:40 hrs b) 12:48 hrs

c) 12:56 hrs d) 13:04 hrs

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3.Between 6 PM and 7 PM the minute hand of a clock will be ahead
of the hour hand by 3 minutes at (2015)

a) 6:15 PM b) 6:18 PM

c) 6:36 PM d) 6:48 PM

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4. A class starts at 11:00 am and lasts till 2:27 pm. Four periods of
equal duration are held during this interval. After every period, a rest
of 5 minutes is given to the students. The exact duration of each
period is :

a)48 minutes b)50 minutes

c)51 minutes d)53 minutes

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5. A clock strike once at 1 o’clock, twice at 2 o’clock and thrice at 3
o'clock and so on. If it takes 12 seconds to strike at 5 o’clock,
what is the time taken by it to strike at 10 o’clock ? (2017)

a)20 seconds b)24 seconds

c)28 seconds d)30 seconds

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6. A watch loses 2 minutes in every 24 hours while another watch gains 2
minutes in every 24 hours . At a particular instant, the two watches showed
an identical time. Which of following statements is correct if 24-Hour clock is
followed ?

a)The two watches show the identical time again on completion of 30 days
b)The two-watches show identical time again on completion of 90 days
c)The two watches show identical time again o completion of 120 days
d) none of these is correct

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 7.A wall clock moves 10 minutes fast in every 24 hrs. The clock was set
right to show the correct time at 8 am on Monday. When the clock
shows 6 pm on Wednesday , what is the correct time ? (2019)

A) 5:36 pm

B) 5:30 pm

C)5:24 pm

D) 5:18 pm

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 2011
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1. Consider the four age pyramids given below
namely A, B, C and D representing four different
countries.
Which one of them indicates the declining population
?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
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2. The followings figures has four curves namely A,
B, C and D, Study the figure and answer the item
that follows.
Which curve indicates the exponential growth ?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D

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3.The following pie charts show the break-up of
disease categories recorded in the patients from two
towns, Town A and Town B. Pie charts plot the
disease Categories as percentage of the total
number of patients. Based on these, answer the two
items that follow the charts.

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3.1. Which of the two towns has a higher number of
persons with Diabetes?
(a) Town A
(b) Town B
(c) Same in Town A and Town B
(d) No inference can be drawn

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3.2 What can we say about persons with more than
one disease from these graphs ?
(a) There are likely to be persons with more than one
disease in Town A.
(b) There are likely to be persons with more than one
disease in Town B.
(c) There are likely to be persons with more than one
disease in both Towns A and B.
(d) No inference can be drawn.
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4. Consider the following Velocity-Time graph. It shows two trains starting
simultaneously on parallel tracks. With reference to the above graph,
which one of the following statements is not correct ?
(a) Train B has an initial acceleration greater than that of Train A.
(b) Train B is faster than Train A at all times.
(c) Both trains have the same velocity at time to'
(d) Both trains travel the same distance in time to units.

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 5. Consider the following distance - time graph. The graph
shows three athletes A, Band C running side by side for a 30
km race. With reference to the above graph consider the
following statements :
1. the race was won by A.
2. B was ahead of A up to 25 km mark.
3. C ran very slowly from the beginning.

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Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

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6. Consider the figure given below and answer the
items that follows: In the figure shown above, OP 1
and OP 2 are two plane mirrors kept perpendicular
to each other. S is the direction of a beam of light
falling on the mirror OP 1. The direction of the
reflected beam of light from the mirror OP 2 will be

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(a) Perpendicular to the direction S.
(b) At 45° to the direction S.
(c) Opposite and parallel to the direction S.
(d) At 60° to the direction S.

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 2012
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 2013
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8. x men, working at constant speed, do a certain job
in y days. Which one of these diagrams shows the
relation between x and y?
(a) diagram I
(b) diagram II
(c) diagram III
(d) diagram IV

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9.

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9. How many Physics professors belong to the age group
35 - 44?
(a) 18
(b) 16
(c) 14
(d) 12
9.1 Which one of the following disciplines has the
highest ratio of males to females?
(a) Physics
(b) Mathematics
(c) Chemistry
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9.2 What percentage of all Psychology professors are females?
(a) 40%
(b) 50%
(c) 60%
(d) 70%

9.3 If the number of female Physics professors in the age group 25 -

34 equals 25% of all the Physics professors in that age group, then
what is the number of male Physics professors in the age group 25 -
34?
(a) 9
(b) 6
(c) 3
(d) 2
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 9.4 If the Psychology professors in the
University constitute 2% of all the professors in
the University, then what is the number of
professors in the University?
(a) 400
(b) 500
(c) 600
(d) 700

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 2014
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10. The following graph shows the average profit of
two fruit-sellers A and B in thousands (Rs.) per year
from the year 1995 to 2000.

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 10.1 In which year is the average profit of A and B
same?
(a) 1995
(b) 1996
(c) 1997
(d) 1998

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10.2 What is the difference between the average
profit of B and A in the year 1998?
(a) - Rs. 100
(b) - Rs. 1,000
(c) + Rs. 600
(d) - Rs. 300

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10.3 How much more average profit did A make in
the year 2000 than in the year 1999?
(a) Rs. 200
(b) Rs. 1,000
(c) Rs. 1,500
(d) Rs. 2,000

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10.4 What is the trend of the average profit of B from
the year 1997 to the year 2000?
(a) Non-increasing
(b) Non -decreasing
(c) Steady
(d) Fluctuating

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11. The following table shows the marks obtained by
two students in different subjects:

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11.1 The difference in the mean aggregate
percentage marks of the students is
(a) 2.5%
(b) 13.75%
(c) 1.25%
(d) Zero

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12. The following table gives population and total
income of a city for four years.

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12.1 Which one of the following statements correct in
respect of the above data ?
(a) Population increased by 5% or more every year.
(b) Income increased by 10% or more every year.
(c) Per capita income was always above 5,000.
(d)Per capita income was highest in 1994.

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 2015
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13. The graph below depicts the earnings of A and B
over the period 2000 to 2010:

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13.1 From the graph, which one of the following can
be concluded?
(a) On the average A earned more than B during this
period.
(b) On the average B earned more than A during this
period.
(c) The earnings of A and B were equal during this
period.
(d) The earnings of A were less as compared to B
during this period.
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14. Year-wise variation of the price of a certain
commodity is shown in the following graph:

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The price of the commodity in the year 1990
(a) must have been Rs. 10/-
(b) must have been Rs. 12/-
(c) must have been anywhere between Rs. 10/- and
Rs. 20/-
(d) is higher than that in the year 1991

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15. The proportion of expenditure on various items by two families A and B
are represented in the following Bar Charts:

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From these charts, we can conclude that
(a) Family A spent more money on food than Family
B.
(b) Family B spent more money on food than Family
A.
(c) Family A and Family B spent the same amount on
food.
(d) The expenditure on food by Family A and Family
B cannot be compared.
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16. If for a sample data
Mean < Median < Mode
then the distribution is (2017)

(a) symmetric
(b) skewed to the right
(c) neither symmetric nor skewed
(d) skewed to the left.

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 2018
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17. The figure drawn below gives the velocity graphs
of two vehicles A and B. The straight line OKP
represents the velocity of vehicle A at any instant,
whereas the horizontal straight line CKD represents
the velocity of vehicle B at any instant. In the figure,
D is the point where perpendicular from P meets the
horizontal line CKD such that PD= 1/2 LD :

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What is the ratio between the distances covered by
vehicles A and B in the time interval OL?
(a) 1 : 2
(b) 2 : 3
(c) 3 : 4
(d) 1 : 1

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18.Consider the following graph :

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Which one of the following statements is not correct
with reference to the graph given above?
(a) On 1st June, the actual progress of work was
less than expected.
(b) The actual rate of progress of work was the
greatest during the month of August. (c) The work
was actually completed before the expected time.
(d) During the period from 1st April to 1st September,
at no time was the actual progress more than the
expected progress.
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19. Consider the following graph in which the
birthrate and death rate of a country are given, and
answer the two items that follow.

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19.1. Looking at the graph, it can be inferred that
from 1990 to 2010
(a) population growth rate has increased
(b) population growth rate has decreased
(c) growth rate of population has remained stable
(d) population growth rate shows no trend

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19.2. With reference to the above graph, consider the following
statements considering 1970 as base year:
1. Population has stabilized after 35 years.
2. Population growth rate has stabilized after 35 years.
3. Death rate has fallen by 10% in the first 10 years.
4. Birthrate has stabilized after 35 years.
Which of the above are the most logical and rational statements that can
be made from the above graph?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 2 and 4

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20. Average hourly earnings per year (E) of the
workers in a firm are represented in figures A and B
as follows :

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(a) values of E are different
(b) ranges (i.e., the difference between the maximum
and the minimum) of E are different
(c) slopes of the graphs are same
(d) rates of increase of E are different

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 21. Consider the following figures A and B :

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The manufacturing cost and projected sales for a
product are shown in the above figures A and B
respectively. What is the minimum number of pieces
that should be manufactured to avoid a loss?
(a) 2000
(b) 2500
(c) 3000
(d) 3500

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22. Consider the following graphs. The curves in the
graphs indicate different age groups in the
populations of two countries A and B over a period of
few decades:

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With reference to the above graphs, which of the following are the most
logical and rational inferences that can be made?
1. Over the last two and a half decades, the dependency ratio for country
B has decreased.
2. By the end of next two and a half decades, the dependency ratio of
country A will be much less than that of country B.
3. In the next two decades, the work-force relative to its total population
will increase in country B as compared to country A.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
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23. The graph given below indicates the changes in
key policy rates made by the Central Bank several
times in a year:

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Which one of the following can be the most likely
reason for the Central Bank for such an action?
(a) Encouraging foreign investment
(b) Increasing the liquidity
(c) Encouraging both public and private savings
(d) Anti-inflationary stance

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24. Directions for the following 2 (two) items :

The following table gives the GDP growth rate and

Tele-density data of different States of a country in a
particular year. Study the table and answer th.e two
items that follow.

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24.1 With reference to the above table, which of the following is/are the
most logical and rational inference! inferences that can be made?
1. Higher per capita income is generally associated with higher
Tele-density.
2. Higher GDP growth rate always ensures higher per capita income.
3. Higher GDP growth rate does not necessarily ensure higher Tele
density.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 only

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24.2 With reference to the above table, the following assumptions have
been made:
1. Nowadays, prosperity of an already high performing State cannot be
sustained without making further large investments in its telecom
infrastructure.
2. Nowadays, a very high Tele-density the most essential condition for
promoting the business and economic growth in a State.
Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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25. The following graph indicates the composition of
our tax revenue for a period of two decades :

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With reference to the above graph, which of the following is/are the most
logical and rational inference/ inferences that can be made?
1. During the given period, the revenue from Direct Taxes as percentage
of gross tax revenue has increased while that of Indirect Taxes decreased.
2. The trend in the revenue from Excise Duty demonstrates that the
growth of manufacturing sector has been negative during the given period
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) Both 1 and 2
D) Neither 1 nor 2

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26. Directions for the following 3 (three) items:

The following three items are based on the graph

given below which shows imports of three different
types of steel over a period of six months of a year.
Study the graph and answer the three items that
follow.
The figures in the brackets indicate the average cost
per ton over six months period.
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26.1 By how much (measured in thousands of tons)
did the import of sheet steel exceed the import of coil
steel in the first three months of the year?
(a) 11
(b) 15
(c) 19
(d) 23

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26.2 What was the approximate total value (in $) of
sheet steel imported over the six months period?
(a) 45,555
(b) 50,555
(c) 55,550
(d) 65,750

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26.3 What was the approximate ratio of sheet steel
and scrap steel imports in the first three months of
the year?
(a) 1 : 1
(b) 1.2 : 1
(c) 1.4 : 1
(d) 1.6 : 1

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Alpha Numeric Sequence

1)In the sequence 1,5,7,3,5,7,4,3,5,7, how many such 5s are there which
are not immediately preceded by 3 but are immediately followed by 7?

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) None

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DICE AND COLOURING OF
CUBE

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1.Six squares are coloured, front and back red (R), blue (B), yellow (Y),
green (G), white (W) and orange (O) and are hinged together as shown
in the figure given below. If they are folded to form a cube, what would
be the face opposite the white face? (2012)

(a)R (b)G

(c)B (d)O
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2. A cube has six numbers marked 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 on its faces.
Three
views of the cube are shown Above:

a) 2 and 3
b) 6 and 1
c) 1 and 4
d) 3 and 1
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 3). Each of the six different faces of a cube has been coated with a
different colour i.e., V, I, B, G, Y and O.
Following information is given:
1.Colours Y, O and B are on adjacent faces.
2.Colours I, G and Y are on adjacent faces.
3.Colours B, G and Y are on adjacent faces.
4.Colours O, V and B are on adjacent faces.
Which is the colour of the face opposite to the face coloured with O?
(a) B
(b) V
(c) G
(d) I

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 4). A cube has all its faces painted with different colours. It is cut into
smaller cubes of equal sizes such that the side of the small cube is
one-fourth the big cube. The number of small cubes with only one of
the sides painted is: (2016)
(a) 32
(b) 24
(c) 16
(d) 8

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 5): The outer surface of a 4 cm x 4 cm x 4 cm cube is painted
completely in red. It is sliced parallel to the faces to yield sixty four 1
cm x 1 cm x 1 cm small cubes. How many small cubes do not have
painted faces? (2017)

(a) 8

(b) 16

(c) 24

(d) 36

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Directions for the following 3 (three) items : Rotated positions of a single
solid are shown below. The various faces of the solid are marked with
different symbols like dots, cross and line. Answer the three items that
follow the given figures. (2018)

6). What is the symbol on the face opposite to that containing a single
dot?
(a) Four dots c) Two dots
(b) Three dots d) Cross

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 7). What is the symbol on the face opposite to that containing two
dots?

(a) Single dot

(b) Three dots
(c) Four dots
(d) Line

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 8) What is the symbol on the face opposite to that containing the
cross?

(a) Single dot

(b) Two dots
(c) Line
(d) Four dots

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 9). A solid cube of 3 cm side, painted on all its faces, is cut up
into small cubes of 1 cm side. How many of the small cubes
will have exactly two painted faces?

(a) 12
(b) 8
(c) 6
(d) 4

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 10). A solid cube is painted yellow, blue and black such that opposite
faces are of same colour. The cube is then cut into 36 cubes of two
different sizes such that 32 cubes are small and the other four cubes
are big. None of the faces of the bigger cubes is painted blue. How
many cubes have only one face painted?

(a) 4
(b) 6
(c) 8
(d) 10

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11. Three views of a cube following a particular motion are given below (2012)

What is the letter opposite to A ?

a) H

b) P

c) B

d) M
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Direction sense test

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Direction sense test
2011
1.The houses of A and B face each other on a road going north-south, A’s being on
western side. A comes out of his house, turns left, travels 5 km, turns right travels 5
km to front of D’s house. B does exactly the same and reaches the front of C’s
house. In this context, which one of the following statements is correct ?

a) C and D live on the same street

b) C’s house faces south
c) The houses of C and D are less than 20 km apart
d) None of the above

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 2014
2): Consider the following statements:
There are six villages A, B, C, D, E and F. F is 1 km to the west of D.
B is 1 km to the east of E. A is 2 km to the north of E. C is 1 km to the
east of A. D is 1 km to the south of A.
Which three villages are in a line?
(a) A, C, B
(b) A, D, E
(c) C, B, F
(d) E, B, D

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 3): Location of B is north of A and location of C is east of A. The
distances AB and AC are 5 km and 12 km respectively. The shortest
distance (in km) between the locations B and C is
(a) 60
(b) 13
(c) 17
(d) 7

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 4). A person X was driving in a place where all roads ran either
north-south or east-west, forming a grid. Roads are at a distance of 1 km
from each other in a parallel. He started at the intersection of two roads,
drove 3 km north, 3 km west and 4 km south. Which further route could
bring him back to his starting point, if the same route is not repeated?
(a) 3 km east, then 2 km south
(b) 3 km east, then 1 km north
(c) 1 km north, then 2 km west
(d) 3 km south, then 1 km north

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5. A person stood alone in a desert on a dark night and wanted to reach
his village which was situated 5 km east of the point where he was
standing. He had no instruments to find the direction but he located the
polestar. The most convenient way now to reach his village is to walk in
the (2012)

a) Direction facing the polestar

b) Direction opposite to the polestar
c) Direction keeping the polestar to his left
d) Direction keeping the polestar to his right

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6. A man walks to the backside of his house straight 25 meters, then turns
to the right and walks 50 meters again; then he turns left and again walk
25 meters. If his house faces to the East, what is his direction from the
starting point ? (2020)

a) South-east
b) South-west
c) North-east
d) North-west

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 GEOMETRY AND MENSURATION
1.A village having population of 4000 requires 150 litres of water per
head per day. It has a tank measuring 20 m × 15 m × 6 m. The water of
this tank will last for (2011)

a) 2 days b) 3 days
c) 4 days d) 5 days

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 2. Consider the following figure and answer the item that follows:

A square is divided into four rectangles as shown above. The

lengths of the sides of rectangles are natural numbers. The areas of
two rectangles are indicated in the figure. What is the length of each
side of the square ?
(a) 10
(b) 11
(c) 15
(d) Cannot be determined as the given data are insufficient
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3.In a plane, line X is perpendicular to line Y and parallel to line Z; line U
is perpendicular to both lines V and W; line X is perpendicular to both
lines V and W; line X is perpendicular to line V. (2015)

Which of following statement is correct ?

a) Z,U and W are parallel

b) X,V and Y are parallel

c) Z,V and U are perpendicular to W

d) Y,V and W are parallel

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 4. An agricultural field is in the form of a rectangle having length x1
meters and breadth x2 meters (x1 and x2 are variable). If x1 + x2 = 40
meters, then the area of the agricultural field will not exceed which
one of the following values? (2016)

(a) 400 sq m
(b) 300 sq m
(c) 200 sq m
(d) 80 sq m

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5.AB is vertical trunk of huge tree with A being the point where base of
trunk touches the ground. Due to a cyclone, the trunk has been
broken at C which is at height of 12 meters, broken part is partially
attached to vertical portion of trunk at C. If the end of broken part B
touches the ground at D which is at distance of 5 meters from A, then
the original height of trunk is : (2016)

a)20 m b)25 m

c)30 m d)35m

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6. A piece of tin is in the form of rectangle having length 12 cm and
width 8 cm. This is used to construct a closed cube. The side of the
cube is : (2016)

a)2 cm
b)3 cm
c)4 cm
d)6 cm

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7.A cylindrical overhead tank of radius 2m and height 7m is to be
filled from an underground tank of size 5.5m×4m×6m. How much
portion of the underground tank is still filled with water after filling
the overhead tank completely? (2016)

a)1/3
b)1/2
c)1/4
d)1/6

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8.There are three pillars X,Y and Z of different heights. Three spiders
A,B and C start to climb on these pillars simultaneously . In one
chance, A climbs on X by 6cm but slips down 1cm. B climbs on Y by 7
cm but slips down 3 cm. C climbs on Z by 6.5 cm but slips down 2
cm. If each of them requires 40 chances to reach the top of the
pillars, what is height of shortest pillar ?

a)161 cm
b)163 cm
c)182 cm
d)210 cm

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9.Two walls and ceiling of a room meet at right angles at a point P. A
fly is in the air 1m from one wall, 8 m from the other wall and 9 m
from point P. How many meters is fly from ceiling ?

a)4
b)6
c)12
d)15

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 10. There are 24 equally spaced points lying on the circumference of
a circle. What is the maximum number of equilateral triangles that
can be drawn by taking sets of three points as the vertices?

(a) 4
(b) 6
(c) 8
(d) 12

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 11. Twelve equal squares are placed to fit in at rectangle of diagonal 5
cm. There are three rows containing four squares each. No gaps are
left between adjacent squares. What is the area of each square?

(a) 5/7 sq cm
(b) 7/5 sq cm 5
(c) 1 sq cm
(d) 25/12 sq cm

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12. Let x, y be the volumes; m , n be the masses of the two metallic
cubes P and Q respectively. Each side of Q is two times that of P and
mass of Q is two times that of P. Let u = m/x and v = n/y. Which one of
the following is correct ?

a) u= 4v
b) u= 2v
c) v= u
d) v= 4u

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NUMBER RANKING
AND SEQUENCE

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 Number Ranking
1): Four tests—Physics , Chemistry, Mathematics and Biology are to be conducted on
four consecutive days, not necessarily in the same order. The Physics test is held
before the test which is conducted after Biology. Chemistry is conducted exactly after
two tests are held. Which is the last test held? (2017)

a) Physics

b) Biology

(c) Mathematics

d) Chemistry

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2) In a queue, Mr. X is fourteenth from the front and Mr. Y is seventeenth
from the end, while Mr. Z is exactly in between Mr. X and Mr. Y. If Mr. X is
ahead of Mr. Y and there are 48 persons in the queue, how many persons
are there between Mr. X and Mr. Z ?

(a) 6 (b) 7
(c) 8 (d) 9

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3) In a class of 45 students, a boy is ranked 20th. When two boys joined,
his rank was dropped by one. What is his new rank from the end? (2013)

a) 25th
b) 26th
c) 27th
d) 28th

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 4) There are seven persons up on a ladder, A, B, C, D, E, F and G (not in
that order). A is further up than E but is lower than C. B is in the middle. G is
between A and B. E is between B and F. If F is between E and D, the person
on the bottom step of the ladder will be
(a) B
(b) F
(c) D
(d) E

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 5) Consider that: (2014)

1. A is taller than B.
2. C is taller than A.
3. D is taller than C.
4. E is the tallest of all.
If they are made to sit in the above order of their height, who will occupy the mid
position?
(b) A
(c) B
(d) C
(e) D

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 6)Four children are sitting in a row. A is occupying the seat next to B but not
next to C. If C is not sitting next to D, who is/are occupying seat/seats
adjacent to D?
(a) B
(b) A
(c) B and A
(d) Impossible to tell

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 7) In a row ‘A’ is in the 11th position from the left and ‘B’ is in the 10th position
from the right. If ‘A’ and ‘B’ interchange, then ‘A’ becomes 18th from the left.
How many persons are there in the row other than ‘A’ and ‘B’?
(a) 27
(b) 26
(c) 25
(d) 24

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8)The letters L,M,N,O,P,Q,R,S,T in their order are substituted by nine
integers 1 to 9 but not in that order. 4 is assigned to P. The difference
between P and T is 5. The difference between N and T is 3. What is the
integer assigned to N? (2014)

a)7 b)5

c)4 d)6

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 9) If A runs less fast than B, and B runs as fast but not faster than C; then,
as compared to A, C runs

(a) slower than A

(b) faster than A
(c) with same speed as A
(d) Given data is not sufficient to determine

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 10) Usha runs faster than Kamala, Priti runs slower than Swati,
Swati runs slower than Kamala. Who is the slowest runner?
(a) Kamala
(b) Priti
(c) Swati
(d) Usha

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 11).In a class of 60 students, where the number of girls is twice that of
boys, Kamal, a boy, ranked seventeenth from the top. If there are 9
girls ahead of Kamal, the number of boys in rank after him is: (2016)

(a) 13
(b) 12
(c) 7
(d) 3

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 12): In a test, Randhir obtained more marks than the total marks obtained
by Kunal and Debu. The total marks obtained by Kunal and Shankar are
more than those of Randhir. Sonal obtained more marks than Shankar.
Neha obtained more marks than Randhir. Who amongst them obtained
highest marks?

(a) Randhir

(b) Neha

(c) Sonal

(d) Data are inadequate

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13).15 students failed in a class of 52.After removing the names of failed
students, a merit order list has been prepared in which the position of
Ramesh is 22nd from top. What is position from bottom ? (2017)

a)18th b)17th
c)16th d)15th

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NUMBER RANKING
AND SEQUENCE

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 Number Ranking
1): Four tests—Physics , Chemistry, Mathematics and Biology are to be conducted on
four consecutive days, not necessarily in the same order. The Physics test is held
before the test which is conducted after Biology. Chemistry is conducted exactly after
two tests are held. Which is the last test held? (2017)

a) Physics

b) Biology

(c) Mathematics

d) Chemistry

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2) In a queue, Mr. X is fourteenth from the front and Mr. Y is seventeenth
from the end, while Mr. Z is exactly in between Mr. X and Mr. Y. If Mr. X is
ahead of Mr. Y and there are 48 persons in the queue, how many persons
are there between Mr. X and Mr. Z ?

(a) 6 (b) 7
(c) 8 (d) 9

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3) In a class of 45 students, a boy is ranked 20th. When two boys joined,
his rank was dropped by one. What is his new rank from the end? (2013)

a) 25th
b) 26th
c) 27th
d) 28th

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 4) There are seven persons up on a ladder, A, B, C, D, E, F and G (not in
that order). A is further up than E but is lower than C. B is in the middle. G is
between A and B. E is between B and F. If F is between E and D, the person
on the bottom step of the ladder will be
(a) B
(b) F
(c) D
(d) E

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 5) Consider that: (2014)

1. A is taller than B.
2. C is taller than A.
3. D is taller than C.
4. E is the tallest of all.
If they are made to sit in the above order of their height, who will occupy the mid
position?
(b) A
(c) B
(d) C
(e) D

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 6)Four children are sitting in a row. A is occupying the seat next to B but not
next to C. If C is not sitting next to D, who is/are occupying seat/seats
adjacent to D?
(a) B
(b) A
(c) B and A
(d) Impossible to tell

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 7) In a row ‘A’ is in the 11th position from the left and ‘B’ is in the 10th position
from the right. If ‘A’ and ‘B’ interchange, then ‘A’ becomes 18th from the left.
How many persons are there in the row other than ‘A’ and ‘B’?
(a) 27
(b) 26
(c) 25
(d) 24

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8)The letters L,M,N,O,P,Q,R,S,T in their order are substituted by nine
integers 1 to 9 but not in that order. 4 is assigned to P. The difference
between P and T is 5. The difference between N and T is 3. What is the
integer assigned to N? (2014)

a)7 b)5

c)4 d)6

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 9) If A runs less fast than B, and B runs as fast but not faster than C; then,
as compared to A, C runs

(a) slower than A

(b) faster than A
(c) with same speed as A
(d) Given data is not sufficient to determine

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 10) Usha runs faster than Kamala, Priti runs slower than Swati,
Swati runs slower than Kamala. Who is the slowest runner?
(a) Kamala
(b) Priti
(c) Swati
(d) Usha

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 11).In a class of 60 students, where the number of girls is twice that of
boys, Kamal, a boy, ranked seventeenth from the top. If there are 9
girls ahead of Kamal, the number of boys in rank after him is: (2016)

(a) 13
(b) 12
(c) 7
(d) 3

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 12): In a test, Randhir obtained more marks than the total marks obtained
by Kunal and Debu. The total marks obtained by Kunal and Shankar are
more than those of Randhir. Sonal obtained more marks than Shankar.
Neha obtained more marks than Randhir. Who amongst them obtained
highest marks?

(a) Randhir

(b) Neha

(c) Sonal

(d) Data are inadequate

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13).15 students failed in a class of 52.After removing the names of failed
students, a merit order list has been prepared in which the position of
Ramesh is 22nd from top. What is position from bottom ? (2017)

a)18th b)17th
c)16th d)15th

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 1. A and B walk around a circular park. They start at 8
a.m. from the same point in the opposite directions. A and B
walk at a speed of 2 rounds per hour and 3 rounds per hour
respectively. How many times shall they cross each other after 8
00 a.m. and before 9.30.a.m.?
(a) 7
(b) 6
(c) 5
(d) 8

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2. A person has only Rs 1 and Rs 2 coins with her. If the total number of
coins that she has is 50 and amount of money with her is Rs 75, then the
number of Rs 1 and Rs 2 coins are, respectively

a) 15 and 35 b) 35 and 15
c) 30 and 20 d) 25 and 25

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3.Four friends A,B,C and D distribute some money among themselves in
such manner that A gets one less than B, C gets 5 more than D, D gets 3
more than B. who gets smallest amount ?

a)A b)B
c)C d)D

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4.A sum of Rs.700 has to be used to give seven cash prizes to students of
a school for their overall academic performance. If each prize is Rs.20
less than its preceding prize, what is the least value of prize ?

a)Rs 30 b)Rs 40
c)Rs 60 d)Rs 80

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 5: Five persons fire bullets at a target at an interval of 6,7,8,9 and
12 seconds respectively. The number of times they would fire the
bullets together at the target in an hour is (2014)
(a) 6
(b) 7
(c) 8
(d) 9

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6. For a charity show, total tickets sold were 420. Half of these
tickets were sold at the rate of Rs 5 each, one-third at rate of Rs 3
each and rest for Rs 2 each. What was total amount received ?
(2014)

a) 900 b) 1540
c) 1610 d) 2000

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7.Four persons, Alok, Bhupesh, Chander and Dinesh have a total of
Rs 100 among themselves. Alok and Bhupesh between them have
as much money as Chander and Dinesh between them, but Alok
has more money than Bhupesh; and Chander has only half the
money that Dinesh has. Alok has in fact Rs 5 more than Dinesh has.
Who has maximum amount of money ?

a)Alok b)Bhupesh
c)Chander d)Dinesh

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8. 12 people form a club. By picking lots, one of them will host a
dinner for all once in a month. The number of dinners a particular
member has to host in one year is
a) One b) Zero
c) Three d) cannot be predicted

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 9 A person is standing on the first step from the bottom of a
ladder. If he has to climb 4 more steps to reach
exactly the middle step, how many steps doe he ladder have?
(2016)

(a) 8
(b) 9
(c) 10
(d) 11

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 10.If R and S are different integers both divisible by 5, then
which of the following is not necessarily true? (2016)
(a) R - S is divisible by 5
(b) R + S is divisible by 10
(c) R x S is divisible by 25
(d) R2 + S2 is divisible by 5

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11. How many triplets (x, y, z ) satisfy the equation x+y+z =6 , where x ,
y and z are natural numbers ? (2019)

A) 4B)5 C) 9 D) 10

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 12. In aid of charity, every student in a class contributes as many
rupees as the number of students in that class. With the
additional contribution of Rs. 2 by one student only, the total
collection is Rs. 443. Then how many
students are there in the class?
(a) 12
(b) 21
(c) 43
(d) 45

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13. How many numbers are there between 100 and 300 which either
begin with or end with 2? (2016)

a) 110 b) 111
c) 112 d) None of the above

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 14: How many numbers are there between 99 and 1000 such
that the digit 8 occupies the units place? (2017)

(a) 64

(b) 80

(c) 90

(d) 104

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 NUMBER SYSTEM
15: There are certain 2-digit numbers. The difference between the
number and the one obtained on reversing it is always 27. How
many such maximum 2-digit numbers are there? (2017)

(a) 3

(b) 4

(c) 5

(d) None of the above

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16.A 2-digit number is reversed . The larger of the two numbers is divided
by smaller one. What is largest possible remainder ? (2017)

a)9 b)27
c)36 d)45

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17:There are thirteen 2-digit consecutive odd numbers . If 39 is mean of
the first five such numbers, then what is the mean of all thirteen
numbers ?

a)47 b)49
c)51 d)45

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18.What is total number of digits printed if a book containing 150 pages
is to be numbered from 1 to 150 ? (2017)

a)262 b)342
c)360 d)450

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 19. Consider the following sum :
•+1 • + 2 • + • 3+ • 1 = 21 • In the
above sum, • stands for (2018)
(a) 4
(b) 5
(c) 6
(d) 8

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 20. If X is between -3 and -1, and Y is between -1 and 1, then X2
- Y2 is in between which of the following? (2018)
(a) -9 and 1
(b) -9 and -1
(c) 0 and 8
(d) 0 and 9

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 21. X and Y are natural numbers other than 1, and Y is greater
than X. Which of the following represents the largest number?
(2018)

(a) XY
(b) X / Y
(c) Y / X
(d) (X + Y) /XY

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22. A number consists of three digits of which the middle one is
zero and their sum is 4. If the number formed by interchanging the
first and last digits is greater than the number itself by 198, the
difference between the first and last digits is (2018)
(a)1
(b)2
(c)3
(d)4

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 23. While writing all the numbers from 700 to 1000, how many
numbers occur in which the digit at hundred’s place is greater than
the digit at ten’s place, and the digit at ten’s place is greater than the
digit at unit’s place? (2018)
(a) 61
(b) 64
(c) 85
(d) 91

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 24.If x-y=8, then which of the following must be true ? (2018)
1. Both x and y must be positive for any value of x and y
2.If x is positive, y must be negative for any value of x and y 3.If x is

negative, y must be positive for any value of x and y

Select correct answer using code given below :

a)1 only b)2 only

c)Both 1 and 2d)None of the above

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25. A person has only Rs 1 and Rs 2 coins with her. If the total
number of coins that she has is 50 and amount of money with
her is Rs 75, then the number of Rs 1 and Rs 2 coins are,
respectively

a) 15 and 35 b) 35 and 15
c) 30 and 20 d) 25 and 25

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26. There are five hobby clubs in a college viz, photography, yachting,
chess, electronics and gardening. The gardening group meets every
second day, the electronics group meets every third day, the chess group
meets every fourth day, the yachting group meets every fifth day and the
photography group meets every sixth day. How many times do all the five
groups meet on the same day within 180days?

a) 3
b) 5
c) 10
d) 18

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27. Three persons start walking together and their steps measure 40
cm, 42 cm and 45 cm respectively. What is the minimum distance
each should walk so that each can cover the same distance in
complete steps ?
A.25m 20cm B.50m 40cm
C.75m 60cm D.100m 80cm

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28.If there is a policy that 1/3rd of a population of a community has
migrated every year from one place to some other place,what is the left
over population of that community after the 6th year,if there is no further
growth in the population during this period? (2017)

A) 16/243rd part of the population

B) 32/243rd part of the population

C) 32/729th part of the population

D) 64/729th part of the population

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29.An automobile owner reduced his monthly petrol consumption when
the prices went up. The price-relationship is as follows:

Price(in Rs/Lt) 40 50 60 75
Monthly consumption in Lt 60 48 40 32

If the prices goes up to 80/Lt his expected consumption in Lts will be

A)30B)28 C)26 D)24

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30. A bell rings every 18 minutes. A second bell rings every 24 minutes. A
third bell rings every 32 minutes. If all the bells ring at the same time at 8
o`clock in the morning , at what other time will they ring together ?
(2014)

A) 12:40 hrs

B) 12:48 hrs

C) 12:56 hrs

D) 13:04 hrs

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31. In a parking area ,the total number of wheels all the cars and
scooters is 100 more than twice the total number vehicles parked there.
The number of cars parked there are (2015)

A)35
B)45
C)50
D)55

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32. There are some nectar-filled flowers on a tree and some bees are
hovering over it. If one bee lands on each flower, one will be left out. If
two bees land on each flower , one will be left out. The number of flowers
and bees respectively are (2016)

A) 2, 4
B) 3, 2
C) 3, 4
D)4, 3

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33. A class starts at 11 am and lasts till 2:27 pm. Four periods of equal
duration are held during this interval. After every period a rest of 5
minutes is given to the students. The exact duration of each period is

A) 48 min
B) B)50 min
C) C) 51 min
D) D) 53 min

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34.In a class , there are 18 very tall boys. If these constitute 3/4 th of
the boys and the total number of boys is 2/3rd of the total number of
students in the class, what is the number of girls in the class? (2016)

A)6
b)12
c)18
D)21

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35. There are three pillars X, Y and Z of different heights . Three spiders A ,
B and C starts to climb on these pillars simultaneously. In one chance, A
climbs on X by 6 cm but slips down by 1 cm. B climbs on y by 7 cm but
slips down by 3 cm. C climbs on Z by 6.5 cm but slips down by 2 cm. if
each of them requires 40 chances to reach the top of the pillars , what is
the height of shortest pillar? (2017)

A ) 161 cm
B) 163 cm
C) 182 cm
D)210 cm

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36.The number of times the digit 5 will appear while writing the integers
from 1 to 1000 is

a) 259 b)271 c)300 d) 302

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37. In a school every student is assigned a unique identification number. A
student is a football player if and only if the identification number is
divisible by 4, whereas a student is cricketer if and only if the
identification number is divisible by
6. If every number from 1 to 100 is assigned to a student, then how
many of them play cricket as well as football? (2019)

a)4 b)8 c)10 d)12

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38. Rakesh and Rajesh together bought 10 balls and 10 rackets. Rakesh
spent rs 1300 and Rajesh spent rs 1500. If each racket costs three times a
ball does, then what is the price of a racket? (2019)

A) 70 B)90 C)210 D)240

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39.The ratio of a two-digit natural number to a number formed by
reversing it’s digits is 4:7. The number of such pairs is

A)5 B)4 C) 3 D)2

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40. Suppose you have sufficient amount of rupee currency in three
denominations ; rs1 , rs 10 and rs50. In how many ways can you pay a
bill of rs107? (2019)

A) 16 B)17 C) 18 D)19

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41. If the numerator and denominator of a proper fraction are
increased by the same positive quantity which is greater than zero, the
resulting fraction is (2019)

A) always less than the original fraction

B) always greater than the original fraction

C) always equal to the original fraction

D) such that nothing can be claimed definitely

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42. Number 136 is added to 5B7 and the sum obtained is 7A3 , where A
and B are integers. It is given that 7A3 is exactly divisible by 3. The only
possible value of B is (2019)

A) 2 B) 50 C) 7 D) 8

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43. Consider two statements S1 and S2 followed by a question:
S1: p and q both are prime numbers S2:

p+q is an odd integer

Question: Is pq an odd integer ? (2019)

A) S1 is alone sufficient to answer the question

B) S2 is alone sufficient to answer the question
C) Both S1 and S2 taken together are not sufficient to answer the
question
D) Both S1 and S2 are necessary to answer the question.

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 44: Certain 3-digit numbers following characteristics:

1. All the three digits are different.

2. The number is divisible by 7.
3. The number on reversing the digits is also divisible by 7.
How many such 3-digit numbers are there? (2017)

(a) 2

(b) 4

(c) 6

(d) 8

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45. An 8-digit number 4252746B leaves remainder 0 when divided
by 3 . How mny values of B are possible ? (2019)

A) 2 B)3 C)4 D)6

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46. Sunita cuts a sheet of paper ito three pieces. Length of first piece is
equal to the average of the three single digit odd prime numbers. Length
of the 2nd piece is equal to that of the first plus 1/3rd the length of the third.
The third piece is as long a the two pieces together. The length of the
original sheet of paper is

A) 13 UNITS

B) 15 UNITS

C) 16 UNITS

D) 30 UNITS

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47. Seeta and Geeta go for a swim after a gap of every 2 days and every 3
days resp. If on 1st January both of them went for a swim together , when
will they go together next ?

A) 7th January

B) 8th January

C) 12th January

D) 13th January

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48. How many zeroes are there at the end of the following product?

1 x 5 x 10 x 15 x 20 x 25 x 30 x 35 x 40 x 45 x 50 x 55 x 60

(a) 10

(b) 12

(c) 14

(d) 15

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49. Let XYZ be a three-digit number, where (x + y + Z) is not a multiple of 3. Then (XYZ + YZX + ZXY) is not
divisible by

(a) 3

(b) 9

(c) 37

(d) (X + Y + Z)

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50. Let p, q, r and s be natural numbers such that p - 2016 = q + 2017 = r – 2018 = s + 2019 which one of the
following is the largest natural number? (2020)

(a) p

(b) q

(c) r

(d) s

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51. How many five-digit prime numbers can be obtained by using all the digits 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 without
repetition of digits? (2020)

(a) Zero

(b) One

(c) Nine

(d) Ten

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52. In the sum @+1@+ 5@+@@ +@1 = 1@@ for which digit does the symbol @ stand? (2020)

(a) 2

(b) 3

(c) 4

(d) 5

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53. If you have two straight sticks of length 7.5 feet and 3.25 feet, what is the minimum length can you
measure? (2020)

(a) 0.05 foot

(b) 0.25 foot

(c) 1 foot

(d) 3.25 feet

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54. A simple mathematical operation in each number of the sequence 14, 18, 20, 24, 30, 32, ..... results in a
sequence with respect to prime numbers. Which one of the following is the next number in the sequence?
(2020)

(a) 34

(b) 36

(c) 38

(d) 40

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55. One page is torn from a booklet whose pages are numbered in the usual manner starting from the first
page as 1. The sum of the numbers on the remaining pages Is 195. The torn page contains which of the
following numbers? (2020)

(a) 5, 6

(b) 7, 8

(c) 9, 10

(d) 11, 12

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56. How many integers are there between 1 and 100 which have 4 as a digit but are not divisible by 4? (2020)

(a) 5

(b) 11

(c) 12

(d) 13

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57. For what value of it, the sum of digits in the number (10 n + 1) is 2?

(a) For n= 0 only

(b) For any whole number n

(c) For any positive integer n only

(d) For any real number n

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58. How many pairs of natural numbers are there such that the difference of whose squares is 63? (2020)

(a) 3

(b) 4

(c) 5

(d) 2

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59. A digit n > 3 is divisible by 3 but not divisible by 6. Which one of the following is divisible by 4?

(a) 2n

(b) 3n

(c) 2n + 4

(d) 3n + 1

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60. If x is greater than or equal to 25 and y is less than or equal to 40, then which of the following is always
correct ? (2019)

a) x is greater than y
b) (y-x) is greater than 15
c) (y-x) is less than or equal to 15
d) (x+y) is greater than or equal to 65

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61. A bookseller sold ‘a’ number of geography textbooks at the arte of Rs x per book, ‘a+2’ number of history
textbooks at the rate of Rs (x+2) per book and ‘a-2’ number of Mathematics textbooks at the rate of Rs (x-2)
per book. What is his total sale in Rs ? (2018)

a) 3x+3a
b) 3ax+8
c) 9ax
d) x3 a 3

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62. Which one of the following will have minimum change in its value if s is added to both numerator and
denominator of the fraction 2/3, 3/4, 4/5 and 5/6 ?

a) 2/3
b) 3/4
c) 4/5
d) 5/6

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63. There are some balls of red, green, and yellow color lying on the table. There are as many red balls as
there are yellow balls. There are twice as many yellow balls as there are green ones. The number of red balls
(2013)

a) Is equal to the sum of yellow and green balls

b) Is double the number of green balls
c) Is equal to the yellow balls minus green balls
d) Cannot be ascertained

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64. A gardener has 1000 plants. He wants to plant them in such a way that the number of rows and the
number of columns remains the same. What is the minimum number of plants that he needs more for this
purpose ?

a) 14
b) 24
c) 32
d) 34

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65. The recurring decimal representation 1.272727.. Is equivalent to (2020)

a) 13/11
b) 14/11
c) 127/99
d) 137/99

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66. What is the least 4 digit number when divided by 3, 4, 5 and 6 leaves a remainder 2 in each case ? (2020)

a) 1012
b) 1022
c) 1122
d) 1222

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67. What is the remainder when 51 x 27 x 35 x 62 x 75 is divided by 100 ? (2020)

a) 50
b) 25
c) 5
d) 1

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68. what is the largest number among the following? (2020)

(a) (1/2)-6

(b) (1/4)-3

(c) (1/3)-4

(d) (1/6)-2

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69. A frog tries to come out of a dried well 4.5 m deep with slippery walls. Every time the frog jumps 30 cm,

slides down 15 cm. what is the number of jumps required for the frog to come out of the well? (2020)

(a) 28

(b) 29

(c) 30

(d) 31

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70. What is the greatest length x such that 3 ½ m and 8 ¾ m are integral multiples of x? (2020)

(a) 1 ½ m

(b) 1 1/3 m

(c) 1 ¼ m

(d) 1 ¾ m

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1. In a group of persons, 70% of the persons are male and 30% of
the persons are married. If two-sevenths of the males are married,
what fraction of the females is single ? (2011)

(a) 2/7
(b) 1/3
(c) 3/7
(d) 2/3

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2.The tank-full petrol in Arun's motor-cycle lasts for 10 days. If he
starts using 25% more everyday, how many days will the tank-full
petrol last?

a)5

b)6
c)7
d)8

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 3: A and B decide to travel from place X to place Y by bus. A has Rs.
10 with him and he finds that it is 80% of the bus fare for two persons.
B finds that he has Rs. 3 with him and hands it over to A. In this
context, which one of the following statements is correct ? (2014)

(a)Now the money A has is just enough to buy two tickets.

(b)A still needs Rs. 2 for buying the tickets.

(c) After buying the two tickets A will be left with 50 paise.

(d) The money A now has is still not sufficient to buy two tickets.

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4.In a test, a candidate attempted only 8 questions and secured 50%
marks in each of the questions. If he obtained a total of 40% in test
and all questions in test carried equal marks, how many questions
were there in test ? (2015)

a)8 b)10
c)15 d)16

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5.A person ordered 5 pairs of black socks and some pairs of brown
socks. The price of a black pair was thrice that of brown pair. While
preparing Bill, the bill clerk interchanged the number of black and
brown pairs by mistake which increased the Bill by100%. What was
the number of pairs of brown socks in original order ?

a) 10 b) 15
c) 20 d) 25

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 6. Anita's mathematics test had 70 problems carrying equal marks
i.e., 10 arithmetic, 30 algebra and 30 geometry. Although she
answered 70% of the arithmetic, 40% of the algebra and 60% of the
geometry problems correctly, she did not pass the test because she
got less than 60% marks. The number of more questions she would
have to answer correctly to earn a 60% passing marks is: (2016)

(a) 1
(b) 5
(c) 7
(d) 9

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7. The monthly average salary paid to all the employees of a company
was Rs. 5000. The monthly average salary paid to male and female
employees was Rs. 5200 and Rs. 4200 respectively. Then the
percentage of males employed in the company is (2016)

(a) 75%
(b) 80%
(c) 85%
(d) 90%

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8. Two numbers X and Y are respectively 20% and 28% less than a
third number Z. By what percentage is the number Y less than the
number X ? (2016)

(a)12%
(b)10%
(c)9%
(d)8%

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 9: P = (40% of A) + (65% of B) and Q = (50% of A) + (50% of B), where
A is greater than B. In this context, which of the following statements
is correct? (2017)

(a) Q is greater than P.

(b) P is greater than Q.

(c) P is equal to Q.

(d) None of the above can be concluded with certainty.

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 PROBABILITY
1. A round archery target of diameter 1 m is marked with four
scoring regions from the centre outwards as red, blue, yellow and
white. The radius of the red band is 0.20 m. The width of all the
remaining bands is equal. If archers throw arrows towards the
target, what is the probability, that the arrows fall in the red region
of the archery target? (2016)
(a) 0.40
(b) 0.20
(c) 0.16
(d) 0.04

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2.A bag contains 15 red balls and 20 black balls. Each ball is numbered
either 1 or 2 or 3. 20% of the red balls are numbered 1 and 40% of them
are numbered
3. Similarly, among the black balls, 45% are numbered 2 and 30% are
numbered 3. A boy picks a ball at random. He wins if the ball is red and
numbered 3 or if it is black and numbered 1 or 2. What are the chances
of his winning? (2017)

(a) 1/2
(b) 4/7
(c) 5/9
(d) 12/13

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3. A bag contains 20 balls. 8 balls are green ,7 white and 5 red. What is
the min no. of balls that must be picked up from the bag blindfolded
(without replacement) to beassured of picking at least one ball of
each colour?

a) 17 b)16 c)13 d)11

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 Interest

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1.As per agreement with a bank, a businessman had to refund a loan
in some equal installments without interest. After paying 18
installments he found that 60% of his loan was refunded. How many
installments were there in agreement ? (2014)

a)22 b)24
c)30 d)33

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2. A person bought a refrigerator worth Rs.22,800 with 12.5% interest
compounded yearly. At the end of first year he paid Rs 8650 and at
the end of second year Rs 9125. How much will he have to pay at the
end of third year to clear debt ? (2018)

a)9990
b)10000
c)10590
d)11250

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1: If Sohan, while selling two goats at the same price, makes a
profit of 10% on one goat and suffers a loss of 10% on the other.
(2014)

A) he makes no profit and no loss.

B) he makes a profit of 1%.
C) he suffers a loss of 1%.
D) he suffers a loss of 2%.

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 2: A and B decide to travel from place X to place Y by bus. A has Rs.
10 with him and he finds that it is 80% of the bus fare for two
persons. B finds that he has Rs. 3 with him and hands it over to
A. In this context, which one of the following statements is correct
?

(a) Now the money A has is just enough to buy two tickets.
(b) A still needs Rs. 2 for buying the tickets.
(c) After buying the two tickets A will be left with 50 paise.
(d)The money A now has is still not sufficient to buy two tickets

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 3.A cow costs more than 4 goats but less than 5 goats. If a goat costs
between Rs 600 and Rs 800, which of the following is a most valid
conclusion ?

a) A cow costs more than Rs 2500

b) A cow costs less thamRs 3600

c)A cow costs between Rs 2600 and Rs 3800
d)A cow costs between Rs 2400 and Rs 4000

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 4. A person allows 10% discount for cash payment from the marked
price of a toy and still he makes a 10% gain. What is the cost price of
the toy which is marked Rs. 770? (2016)

(a) Rs. 610

(b) Rs. 620
(c) Rs. 630
(d) Rs. 640

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5.There is an order of 19000 quantity of a particular product from a
consumer. The firm produces 1000 quantity of that product per day
out of which 5% are unfit for sale. In how many days will the order be
completed?
a)18 b)19 c)20 d)22

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 6: Gopal bought a cell phone and sold it to Ram at 10% profit.
Then Ram wanted to sell it back be Gopal’s position if he
agreed? (2017)

(a) Neither loss nor gain

(b) Loss 1%

(c) Gain 1%

(d) Gain 0.5%

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 7. A shopkeeper sells an article at Rs. 40 and gets X% profit. However,
when he sells it at Rs. 20 gets X% loss. What is the original cost of the
article? (2018)

(a) Rs. 10
(b) Rs. 20
(c) Rs. 30
(d) Rs. 40

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8 .A bookseller sold ‘a’ number of Geography textbooks at the rate of
Rs x per book, ‘a+2’ number ofHistory textbooks at the rate of
Rs.(x+2) per book and ‘a-2’ number of Mathematics textbooks at rate
of Rs.(x-2) per book. What is his total sale in Rs?

a)3x + 3a b)3ax + 8

c)9ax d)x³a³

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9.Rakesh had money to buy 8 mobiles of a specific company. But the
retailer offered very good discount on that particular mobile. Rakesh
could buy 10 mobiles with the amount he had. What was the
discount retailer offered ?

A)15%

b) 20%

c) 25%

d) 30%

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 10. A person bought a car and sold it for Rs. 3,00,000. If he incurred a
loss of 20%, then how much did he spend to buy the car ?
(2020)

A) Rs. 3,60,000
B) Rs. 3,65,000
C) Rs. 3,70,000
D) Rs. 3,75,000

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Puzzle/Misc
Directions for following 5 items:
Examine the information given in following paragraph and
answer the items that follow :
Guest lectures on five subjects i.e., Economics, History, Statistics,
English and Mathematics have to be arranged in a week from Monday to
Friday. Only one lecture can be arranged on each day. Economics
cannot be scheduled on Tuesday. Guest faculty for History is available
only on Tuesday. Mathematics lecture has to be scheduled immediately
after the day of Economics lecture. English lecture has to be scheduled
immediately before the day of Economics lecture.

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2.Which lecture is scheduled on Monday ?
a)History b)Economics
c)Mathematics d)Statistics

3.Which lecture is scheduled between Statistics and English?

a)Economics b)History
c)Mathematics d)No lecture

4.Which lecture is last one in the week ?

a)History b)English

c)Mathematics d)Economics
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5.Which lecture is scheduled on Wednesday?
a)Statisticsb)Economics
c)English d)History

6.Which lecture is scheduled before the Mathematics lecture ?

a)Economics b)History
c)Statistics d)English

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Q7) Four political parties W,X,Y,Z decided to set up a joint candidate for coming
parliamentary election. The formula agreed by them was acceptance of
candidate by most of the parties. Four aspiring candidates A,B,C and D
approached the parties for their tickets.

A was acceptable to W but not to Z

B was acceptable to Y but not to X
C was acceptable to W and Y
D was acceptable to W and X
When candidate B was preferred by W and Z, candidate C was preferred by X
and Z, and candidate A was acceptable to X but not to Y; Who got the ticket?

a)A b)B c)C d)D

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 Q8):Only six roads A,B,C,P,Q,R connect a military camp to rest of
country. Only one out of A,P and R is open at any one point. If B is
closed, so is Q. Only one of A and B is open during storms. P is closed
during floods. In this context which one of the following statements is
correct?
a) Under normal conditions only three roads are open

b) During storms at least one road is open

c) During floods only three roads are open

d) During calamities all roads are closed.

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9):Read the passage given below and two statements that follow:
Four men are waiting at Delhi airport for Mumbai flight. Two are doctors and
other two are businessmen. Two speak Gujarati and two speak Tamil. No two of
the same profession speak the same language. Two are muslims and two are
Christians. No two of the same religion are of same profession, nor do they
speak the same language. The Tamil-speaking doctor is a Christian.

1.The Christian businessman speaks Gujarati

2.The Gujarati speaking doctor is a Muslim
Which of the above statements are correct conclusion?

a)1 only b)2 only

c)Both 1 and 2 d)Neither 1 nor 2
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10):Three persons A,B and C wore shirts of black, blue and Orange colors(not
necessarily in that order) and pants of green, yellow and Orange colors (not
necessarily in that order). No person wore shirt and pants of the same colour.
Further it is given that

1.A did not wear shirt of black colour

2.B did not wear shirt of Blue colour
3.C did not wear shirt of Orange colour
4.A did not wear pants of green colour
5.B wore pants of orange colour
What were the colours of pants and shirt worn by C,respectively?
a)Orange and black blue b)Green and
c)Yellow and Blue Black d)Yellow and
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Q11):The music director of a film wants to select four persons to work on
different aspects of composition of a piece of music. Seven persons are
available for this work; they are Rohit, Tanya, Shobha, Kaushal, Kunal, Mukesh,
and Jaswant. Rohit and Tanya will not work together. Kunal and Shobha will not
work together. Mukesh and Kunal want to work together.
Which of the following is most acceptable group of people that can be selected
by music director?

a) Rohit, Shobha, Kunal, Kaushal

b) Tanya, Kaushal, Shobha, Rohit

c) Tanya, Mukesh, Kunal, Jaswant

d) Shobha, Tanya, Rohit, Mukesh

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Directions for following 3 items:
Read the following passage and answer three items that
follow:
A tennis coach is trying to put together a team of four players for
the forthcoming tournament. For this 7 players are available:
males A,B,C; and females W,X,Y and Z. All players have equal
capability and at least 2 males will be there in the team. For a
team of four, all players must be able to play with each other. But,
B cannot play with W, C cannot play with Z and W cannot play
with Y.

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12).If Y is selected and B is rejected, the team will consist of
which of following groups?

a)A,C,W,Y
b)A,C,X,Y
c)A,C,Y,Z
d)A,W,Y,Z

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13).If B is selected and Y is rejected, the team will consist of which
one of the following group?

a)A,B,C,W
b)A,B,C,Z
c)A,B,C,X
d)A,W,Y,Z

14).If all the three males are selected, then how many combinations of
four member teams are possible ?

a)1 b)2 c)3 d)4

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Q15): Seven men A,B,C,D,E,F and G are standing in a queue in that
order. Each one is wearing a cap of different colour like violet, indigo,
blue, green, yellow, orange and red. D is able to see in front of him
green and blue but not violet. E can see violet and yellow, but not red.
G can see caps of all colors other than orange. If E is wearing an
Indigo coloured cap, then the colour of the cap worn by F is
a)Blue b)Violet c)Red d)Orange

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Examine carefully the following statements and answer the three
items that follow:
Out of four friends A, B, C and D, A and B play football and cricket, B
and C play cricket and hockey, A and D play basketball and football, C
and D play hockey and basketball.
16). Who does not play hockey?

A)D
B)C
C)B
D)A
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17). Who plays football, basketball and hockey?

A)D
B)C
C)B
D)A

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18). Which game do B, C and D play?
a)Cricket
b)Basketball

c)Football

d)Hockey

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19) A question paper must have a question on one of the eight poets : A,
B, C, D, E, F, G or H. The first four belong to the medieval period while
the rest are considered modern poets. Generally, modern poets figure
in the question paper in alternate years. Generally those who like H like
G also; and those who like F like E also. The paper-setter does not like
to ask about F as he has written a book on F, but he likes F. Last year,
the paper contained a question on A.
On the basis of the information given, this year's paper is most likely to
contain a question on

(a) C (b) E (c) F (d) H

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Q20): In a group of six women, there are four dancers, four vocal
musicians, one actress and three violinists. Girija and Vanaja are
among the violinists while Jalaja and Shailja do not know how to play
on the violin. Shailja and Tanuja are among the dancer. Jalaja, Vanaja,
Shailja and Tanuja are all vocal musicians and two of them are also
violinists. If Pooja is an actress, who among the following is both a
dancer and a violinist ? (2014)

A. Jalaja B. Shailja
C. Tanuja D. Pooja

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 Q21):Examine the following statements: (2014)
1.George attends Music classes on Monday
2.He attends Mathematics classes on Wednesday
3.His Literature classes are not on Friday
4.He attends History classes on the day following the day of his Mathematics
classes
5.On Tuesday he attends his Sports classes.
If he attends just one subject in a day and his Sunday is free, then he is also free
on

(a) Monday (b) Thursday

(c) Saturday (d) Friday

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Q:Directions for the following 3 (three) items consider the given
information and answer the three items that follow. (2017)
A, B, C, D, E, F and G are Lecturers from different cities—Hyderabad,
Delhi, Shillong, Kanpur, Chennai, Mumbai and Srinagar (not
necessarily in the same order) who participated in a conference. Each
one of them is specialized in a different subject, viz., Economics,
Commerce, History, Sociology, Geography, Mathematics and Statistics
(not necessarily in the same order). Further

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1.Lecturer from Kanpur is specialized in Geography
2.Lecturer D is from Shillong.

3.Lecturer C from Delhi is specialized in Sociology

4.Lecturer B is specialized in neither History nor Mathematics
5.Lecturer A who is specialized in Economics does not belong to
Hyderabad
6.Lecturer F who is specialized in Commerce belongs to
Srinagar
7.Lecturer G who is specialized in Statistics belongs to Chennai

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 22. Who is specialized in Geography?
(a) B
(b) D
(c) E
d)Cannot be determined as data are inadequate

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 23.To which city does the Lecturer specialized in Economics
belong?

(a) Hyderabad
(b) Mumbai
(c) Neither Hyderabad nor Mumbai
(d) Cannot be determined as data are inadequate

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 24. Who of the following belongs to Hyderabad?

(a) B
(b) E
(c) Neither B nor E
(d) Cannot be determined as data are inadequate

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 Q25): In a school, there are five teachers A, B, C, D and E. A and
B teach Hindi and English. C and B teach English and
Geography. D and A teach Mathematics and Hindi. E and B teach
History and French. Who teaches maximum numb, of subjects?

(a) A
(b) B
(c) D
(d) E

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Q: Directions for the following 3 (three) items : Consider the
given information and answer the three items that follow.
Eight railway stations A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are connected
either by two-way passages or one-way passages. One-way
passages are from C to A, E to G, B to F, D to H, G to C, E to C
and H to G. Two-way passages are between A and E, G and B, F
and D, and E and D.

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 26). While travelling from C to H, which one of the following
stations must be passed through?

(a) G
(b) E
(c) B
(d) F

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 27). In how many different ways can a train travel from F to A
without passing through any station more than once?

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4

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 28).If the route between G and C is closed, which one of the following
stations need not be passed through while travelling from H to C?

(a) E
(b) D
(c) A
(d) B

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Q Read the information given below and answer the six items that follow.
A, B, C and D are students. They are studying in four different cities, viz., P, Q,
R and S (not necessarily in that order).
They are studying in Science college, Arts college, Commerce college and
Engineering college (not necessarily in that order), which are situated in four
different States, viz., Gujarat, Rajasthan, Assam and Kerala (not necessarily in
that order). Further, it is given that (2018)

1-D is studying in Assam

2-Arts college is located in city S which is in Rajasthan

3-A is studying in Commerce college

4-B is studying in city Q

5-Science college is locatedFREE

inBYKerala
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29) A is studying in

a. Rajasthan
b. Gujarat
c. city Q
d. Kerala
30).Science college is located in
a. city Q
b. city S
c. city R
d. city

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31).C is studying in
a. Science college
b. Rajasthan
c. Gujarat
d. city Q

32). Which one of the following statements is correct?

a. D is not studying in city S.

b. A is studying in Science college.
c. A is studying in Kerala.
d. Engineering college is located in Gujarat.
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33). Which one of the following statements is correct
regarding Engineering college?

a.C is studying there.

b.B is studying there.

c. It is located in Gujarat.

d.D is studying there.

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34). Which one of the following statements is
correct?

a. Engineering college is located in Assam.

b. City Q is situated in Assam

c. C is studying in Kerala.

d. B is studying in Gujarat.

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35) Lakshmi, her brother, her daughter and her son are badminton
players. A game of doubles is about to begin: (2018)
Lakshmi's brother is directly across the net from her daughter.
Her son is diagonally across the net from the worst player's sibling.
The best player and the worst player are on the same side of the net.

Who is the best player?

a. Her brother b. Her daughter

c. Her son d. Lakshmi

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36).In five flats, one above the other, live five professionals. The professor has
to go up to meet his IAS officer friend. The doctor is equally friendly to all, has
to go up as frequently as go down. The engineer has to go up to meet his MLA
friend above whose flat lives professor’s friend.
From the ground floor to the top floor, in what order do the five
professionals live?
a)Engineer, Professor, Doctor, IAS officer, MLA
b)Professor, Engineer, Doctor, IAS officer, MLA

c)IAS officer, Engineer, Doctor, Professor, MLA

d)Professor, Engineer, Doctor, MLA, IAS officer

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Directions for the following 4 (four) items: (2011)

Read the following statements and answer the four items that
follow: Five cities P, Q, R, S and T are connected by different
modes of transport as follows: P and Q are connected by boat
as well as rail.

S and R are connected by bus and boat.

Q and T are connected by air only.
P and R are connected by boat only.
T and R are connected by rail and bus.

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37).Which mode of transport would help one to reach R
starting from Q, but without changing the mode of
transport?
a) Boat
b) Rail
c) Bus
d) Air

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38).If a person visits each of the places starting from P and gets back
to P, which of the following places must he visit twice?
a) Q
b) R
c) S
d) T

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39).Which one of the following pairs of cities is connected by any of
the routes directly without going to any other city?
a) P and T

b) T and S
c) Q and R
d) None of these

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40).Between which two cities among the pairs of cities given below
are there maximum travel options available?
a) Q and S
b) P and R
c) P and T
d) Q and R

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 Q:Direction for following 3 items :
Consider the given information and answer three items that follow.
When three friends A,B and C, it was found that each of them wore an outer
garment of different colour. In random order, the garments are : jacket, sweater
and tie: and the colors are :blue, white and black. Their surnames in random
order are: Ribeiro, Kumar and Singh.
Further we know that :
1.Neither B nor Ribeiro wore a white sweater
2.C wore a tie
3.Singh’s garment was not white
4.Kumar does not wear a jacket
5.Ribeiro doesn’t like to wear black colour
6.Each of the friends wore only one outer garment of only one colour
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41)What is C’s surname ?

a) Ribeiro b) Kumar
c) Singh d) Can’t be determined

42)What is colour of tie ?

a)Black b)Blue
c)White d)Can’t be determined

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43)Who wore the sweater ?

a)A b)B
c)C d)Can’t be determined

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44).Six boys A,B,C,D,E,F play a game of cards. Each has a pack of 10
cards. F borrows 2 cards from A and gives away 5 to C who in turn
gives 3 to B while B gives 6 to D who passes on 1 to E. Then the
number of cards possessed by D and E is equal to number of cards
possessed by ? (2017)

a)A,B and C b)B,C and F

c)A,B and F d)A,C and F

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45).There are some balls of red, green and yellow colour lying on a
table. There are as many red balls as there are yellow balls. There are
twice as many yellow balls as there are green ones. The number of
red balls
a)is equal to the sum of yellow and green balls.
b) is double the number of green balls.
c) is equal to yellow balls minus green balls.
d) cannot be ascertained.

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46). A bag contains 15 red balls and 20 black balls. Each ball is
numbered either 1 or 2 or 3. 20% of the red balls are numbered 1 and
40% of them are numbered 3.
Similarly, among the black balls, 45% are numbered 2 and 30% are
numbered 3. A boy picks a ball at random. He wins if the ball is red
and numbered 3 or if it is black and numbered 1 or 2. What are the
chances of his winning?

(a) 1/2
(b) 4/7
(c) 5/9
(d) 12/13

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 47). A five-storeyed building with floors from I to V is painted using
four different colors and only one colour is used to paint a floor.

Consider the following statements:

1.The middle three floors are painted in different colours.
2.The second (II) and the fourth (IV) floors are painted in different
colours.
3.The first (I) and the fifth (V) floors are painted red.

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To ensure that any two consecutive floors have different colors?

a) Only Statement 2 is Sufficient

b) Only Statement 3 is Sufficient

c)Statement 1 is not Sufficient, but Statement 1 along with statement
2 is sufficient
d)Statement 3 is not Sufficient, but Statement 3 along with statement
2 is sufficient

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48).Each face of cube can be painted in black or white colors. In how
many different ways can the cube be painted?

a)9
b)10
c)11
d)12

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Consider the following questions
A, B, C, D, E, F are the members of a family. They are engineer,
stenographer, doctor, draughtsman, lawyer and judge (not in order).
A, the engineer is married to the lawyer. F, the draughtsman is the son
of B and brother of E. C, the lawyer is the daughter-in-law of D. E is
the unmarried doctor. D is the grandmother of F. There are two
married couples in the family. (2014)

49. What is the profession of B ?

a) Judge
b) Lawyer
c) Draughtsman
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50. Which of the following is/are couple/couples ?

a) AD only
b) BC only
c) Both AD and BC
d) Both AC and BD

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51. What is the profession of D ?

a) Judge
b) Stenographer
c) Doctor
d) cannot be determined

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52. A ate grapes and pineapple, B ate grapes and oranges, C ate
oranges, pineapple and apple, D ate grapes, apple and pineapple.
After taking fruits, B and C fell sick. In the light of the above facts, it
can be said that the cause of sickness was (2016)

a) Apple
b) Pineapple
c) Grapes
d) Oranges

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53. There are five hobby clubs in a college- photography, yachting,
chess, electronics and gardening. The gardening group meets every
second day, the electronics group meets every third day, the chess
group meets every fourth day, the yachting group meets every fifth
day and the photography group meets every sixth day. How many
times do al the five groups meet on the same day within 180 days.
(2016)
a) 5
b) 18
c) 10
d) 3

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There are five persons in a group- P, Q ,R, S, and T. The group has one
doctor, one lawyer and one artist. P and S are unmarried students. T is
a man married to one of the group members. Q is the brother of P and
is neither doctor nor artist. R is not a doctor. (2016)

54. Who is a doctor ?

A) T
B) P
C) Q
D) R

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55. Who is a artist ?
a) P
b) Q
c) R
d) T

56. Who is the spouse of R ?

a) P
b) T
c) Q
d) S

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57. Who is a lawyer ?
a) P
b) Q
c) R
d) S

58. Who of the following is definitely a man ?

a) P
b) S
c) Q
d) None Of The Above.

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59. In a question paper there are 5 questions to be attempted and
answers to each question has two choices – True (T) or False (F). It is
given that no two candidates have given the answers to the five
questions in an identical sequence. For this to happen maximum
number of candidates is : (2016)

a) 10
b) 18
c) 26
d) 32

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60. If every alternative letter of the English alphabet from B onwards
(including B) is written in lower case (small letters) and the remaining
letters are capitalized , then how is the first month of the second half
of the year written ?

A) JuLY
B) jULy
C) jUly
D) jUlY

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 1. In a rare coin collection, there is one gold coin for every three
non-gold coins. 10 more gold coins are added to the collection and
the ratio of gold coins to non-gold coins would be 1:2 .Based on the
information; the total number of corns in the collection now becomes
(a) 90
(b) 80
(c) 60
(d) 50

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2.Out of 120 applications for post, 70 are a male and 80 have
driver’s license. What is ratio between the minimum to maximum
number of males having driver’s license ?

a) 1 to 2
b) 2 to 3
c) 3 to 7
d) 5 to 7

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3.The monthly incomes of Peter and Paul are in ratio of 4:3. Their
expenses are in ratio of 3:2. If each saves Rs 6000 at end of the
month, their monthly incomes respectively are

a)24000 and 18000

b)28000 and 21000
c)32000 and 24000
d)34000 and 26000

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4.The total emoluments of two persons are the same, but one gets
allowances to the extent of 65% of his basic pay and the other gets
allowances to the extent of 80% of his basic pay. The ratio of the basic
pay of the former to the basic pay of the latter is:

(a) 16 : 13
(b) 5 : 4
(c) 7 : 5
(d) 12 : 11

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5.In a class, there are 18 very tall boys. If these constitute
three-fourths of the boys and total number of boys is two –thirds of
total number of students in class, what is number of girls in the
class ?

a) 6
b) 12
c) 18
d) 21

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6. P works thrice as fast as Q, whereas P and Q together can work
four times as fast as R. If P, Q and R together work on a job, in what
ratio should they share the earnings?

(a) 3 : 1 : 1
(b) 3 : 2 : 4

(c) 4 : 3 : 4

(d) 3 : 1 : 4

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7. The monthly incomes of X and Y are in the ratio of 4:3 and their
monthly expenses are in ratio 3:2. However each saves Rs 6000 per
month . What is their total monthly income ?

a)28000 b)42000

c)56000 d)84000

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8.Two equal glasses of same type are respectively 1/3 and ¼ full of
milk. They are then filled up with water and the contents are mixed in a
pot. What is the ratio of milk and water in the pot?

A) 7:17
B) 1:3
C) 9:21
D) 11:23

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9. A man takes half time in rowing a certain distance downstream than
upstream. What is the ratio of speed in still water to the speed of
current ?

a) 1:2
b) 2:1
c) 1:3
d) 3:1

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SEATING ARRANGEMENT

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2016
1).A person climbs a hill in straight path from point ‘o’ on the ground in direction of
north-east and reaches a point ‘A’ after travelling a distance of 5 km. Then, from the
point ‘A’ he moves to point ‘B’ in direction of north-west. Let the distance AB be 12
km. Now how far is the person away from starting point ‘o’ ?

a)7 km b)13 km
c)17 km d)11 km

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 2017

2): Consider the following:

A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are standing in a row facing North. B is not neighbour of G.

F is to the immediate right of G and neighbour of E. G is not at the extreme end.

A is sixth to the left of E. H is sixth to the right of

C?

Which one of the following is correct in respect

of the above?

(a) C is to the immediate left of A.

(b) D is immediate neighbour of B and F.

(c) G is to the immediate right of D.

(d) A and E are at the extreme ends.

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 3). Five people A, B, C, D and E are seated about a round table. Every
chair is spaced equidistant from adjacent chairs.
(i) C is seated next to A
(ii) A is seated two seats from D
(iii) B is not seated next to A
On the basis of above information, which of the following must be
true?
1. D is seated next to B
2. E is seated next to A
3. D and C are separated by two seats
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 nor 3
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4) Five people A, B, C, D and E are, seated about a round table, Every
chair is spaced equidistant from adjacent chairs, (2016)
1.C is seated next to A.
2.A is seated two seats from D.
3.B is not seated next to A.

Which of the following must be true?

1.D is seated next to B.
2.E is seated next to A.
3. D and C are separated by two seats.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

A) 1 only b) 1 and 2 only

c) 3 only d) neither 1 nor 2 nor 3

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5 ) Seven men, A, B, C, D, E, F and G are standing in a queue in
that order. Each one is wearing a cap of a different colour like violet,
indigo, blue, green, yellow, orange and red. D is able to see in front of him
green and blue, but not violet. E can see
violet and yellow, but not red. G can see caps of all colours
other than orange. If E is wearing an indigo coloured cap, then the colour
of the cap worn by F is

a) Blue
b) Violet
c) Red
d) Orange

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6. Directions for the following 2 (two) items: Read the
following information and answer the two items that follow.
(2018)

The plan of an office block for six officers A, B, C, D, E and F is

as follows : Both B and C occupy offices to the right of the
corridor (as one enters the office block) and A occupies on the
left of the corridor. E and F occupy offices on opposite sides
of the corridor but - their offices do not face each other. The
offices of C and D face each other. E does not have a corner
office. Fs office is further down the corridor than A’s, but on
the same side.

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 6.1). If E sits in his office and faces the corridor, whose
office is to his left?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D

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 6.2). Who is/are F’s immediate neighbour/
neighbours?
(a) A only
(b) A and D
(c) C only
(d) B and C

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 Series/
Coding Decoding /
Character Puzzle

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 Series

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 2015
1. What is the missing number ‘X’ of the series
7, X, 21, 31, 43?
(a) 11
(b) 12
(c) 13
(d) 14

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2. 4/12/95,1/1/96,29/1/96,26/2/96,…….
What is next term of the series ? (2018)

b)25/3/96
a)24/3/96
d)27/3/96
c)26/3/96

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2019
3).What is X in the sequence
132,129,124,117,106,93,X?
a)74 b)75 c)76 d)77

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4). What is X in the sequence
4, 196 ,16 ,144 ,36 ,100 ,64 ,X ? (2019)

a) 48 b) 64 c) 125 d) 256

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5). Consider the following sequence that follows some
arrangement: c_accaa_aa_bc_b
The letters that appear in the gaps are
a) abba
b) cbbb
c) bbbb
d) cccc

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6. Consider the following arrangement that has some missing letters

abab_b_bcb_dcdcded_d

The missing letters which complete the arrangement are (2020)

a) a,b,c,d
b) a,b,d,e
c) a,c,c,e
d) b,c,d,e
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CODING DECODING

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 1. A military code writes
SYSTEM as SYSMET and NEARER
as AENRER. Using the same code, FRACTION can
be written as: (2016)
(a) CARFTION
(b) FRACNOIT
(c) NOITCARF
(d) CARFNOIT

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 2017
2): In a certain code, ‘256’
means ‘red colour chalk’, ‘589’ means ‘green
colour flower’ and ‘254’ means ‘white colour
chalk’. The digit in the code that indicates
`white’ is
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) 8
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 2018

3). If LSJXVC is the code for MUMBAI, the code

for DELHI is
(a) CCIDD
(b) CDKGH
(c) CCJFG
(d) CCIFE

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4). If RAMON is written as 12345 and DINESH
as 675849,
then HAMAM will be written as (2018)
(a) 92233
(b) 92323
(c) 93322
(d) 93232

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2019
5) If every alternative letter of the English alphabet from
B onwards (including B) is written in lower case (small
letters) and the remaining letters are capitalized, then
how is the first month of the second half of the year
written?
a) JuLY
b) jULy
c) jUly
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 6. If In a certain code SAND is VDQG and BIRD
is ELUG, then what is the code for LOVE?
(a) PRYG
(b) ORTG
(c) NPUH
(d) ORYH

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7. What is the missing term in the following ? (2020)

ACPQ : BESU :: MNGI : @

a) NPJL
b) NOJM
c) NPIL
d) NPJM

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8. The letters from A to Z are numbered from 1 to 26 respectively.
If GHI = 1578 and DEF = 912, then what is ABC equal to ? (2020)

a) 492
b) 468
c) 262
d) 246

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CHARACTER PUZZLE

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2011
1. Consider the following figures : What is
the missing number?

(a) 7 (b) 8
(c) 9 (d) 10

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 2013
2.Examine the following three figures in which
the numbers follow a specific pattern:

The missing number (?) in the third figure above is

(a)7 (b)16
(c) 21 (d)28
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2014
3): Consider the table given below in which
the numbers bear certain relationship
among themselves along the rows :

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 Which one of the following numbers is the
missing number indicated above by X ?
(a) 19
(b) 15
(c) 14
(d) 8

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4).Consider following pattern of numbers:
8 10 15 13
6 5 7 4
4 6 8 8
6 11 16 ?
What is the number at ? in above pattern ?
a)17 b)19
c)21 d)23

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5. Consider the following Matrix (2013)

3 370 7
2 224 6
1 730 X

What is the Number at ‘X’ in the above matrix?

(a)5
(b)8
(c)9
(d)11

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 6. Consider the following Matrix:
What is the missing number at ‘?’ in the matrix? (2015)
(a) 5
(b) 0
(c) 7
(d) 3
3 8 10 2 ? 1
6 56 90 2 20 0

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 Partnership-Amit Garg

1. A and B enter into a partnership investing Rs. 5000 and Rs. 4000 respectively. At the end of the year the
total profit was Rs. 2250. Find the share of A in the profit.

2. Three Partners Aman, Vijay, Chandan invest Rs 16000, Rs 18000 and Rs 23000 respectively in
business. How should they devide a profit of Rs 19380?

3. Ajay, Vijay and Sanjay enter into partnership. Ajay advances Rs 1200 for 4 months, Vijay Rs 1400 for 8
months, and Sanjay Rs 1000 for 10 months. They gain Rs 585 altogether. Find the share of each.

4. A, B and C entered into a partnership. A invested Rs. 1600 for 9 months, B invested Rs. 1200 for 6
months and C invested Rs. 800 for 12 months. At the end of the year, there was a profit of Rs. 2600.
Find the share of A in the profit.

5. Arun Starts a business with Rs 2000. Babita joins him after 3 months with Rs 4000. Chandan puts a sum
of Rs 10000 for 2 months only. At the end of the year the business gave a profit of Rs 5600. How should
the profit be divided among them?

6. Aman started a business by investing Rs. 60,000. Raju joined the business after some time and invested
Rs. 40,000. At the end of the year, profit was divided in the ratio of 2:1. After how many months did Raju
join the business?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5

7. A starts a business with Rs. 35000 as capital and after 5 months B joins A as a partner and invests some
capital of his own. After a year the profits are divided in the ratio of 2:3. How much did B contribute as
capital?

8. A and B started a business with initial investments in the ratio 5:7. If after one year their profits were in
the ratio 1:2 and the period for A’s investment was 7 months, then B invested the money for

9. A is a sleeping partner and B is a working partner. A puts Rs. 40000 and B puts Rs. 50000 as capital. B
received 25% of profit for managing the business and rest is divided in proportion to their capitals. Out of
a total profit of Rs. 4800, B’s share of profit is

10. A,B and C enter into partnership. A advances one-fourth of the capital for one fourth of the time. B
contributes one-fifth of the capital for half of the time. C contributes the remaining capital for the whole
time. How should they divide a profit of Rs 11400?

11. A and B enter into a business. A puts in Rs 50 and B puts in Rs 45. At the end of 6 months B withdraws
half of his capital. C then enters with a capital of Rs 70. At the end of 12 months, in what Ratio will the
profit be divide?

12. A, B and C enter into a partnership with capital in the ratio 5: 6: 8. After 4 months, A increases his share
by 50%. If the total profit at the end of one year be Rs. 15500, then B’s share in the profit is

13. The monthly income of Vinay and Monu are in the ratio of 4:3. Their monthly expenses are in the ratio of
3:2. However, both save Rs. 600 per month. What is their total monthly income?
(a) Rs. 8,400
(b) Rs. 5,600
(c) Rs. 4,200
(d) Rs. 2,800

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 Partnership-Amit Garg

14. X, Y and Z invested capital in the ratio 1:2:3, and the duration they stay invested is in the ratio 1:2:3. In
what ratio would the profit be distributed?
(a) 3 : 2 : 1
(b) 1 : 2 : 3
(c) 1 : 4 : 9
(d) 9 : 4 : 1

15. A, B and C invested capital in the ratio 2:5:7 and their profits are distributed in the ratio 6:25:49. Find the
ratio of duration of their investments.
(a) 3 : 7 : 5
(b) 7 : 5 : 9
(c) 6 : 5 : 8
(d) 3 : 5 : 7

16. A, B and C invest their capital in a business. If the ratio of their periods of investment is 2:5:6 and their
profits are in the ratio of 4:5:6 then find the ratio in which the investments are made by A, B and C.

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 Partnership-Amit Garg

ANSWERS
1. Rs 1250
2. 16 :18 :23
A- Rs 5440
B- Rs 6120
C - Rs 7820
3. Ajay Rs 108
Vijay Rs 252
Sanjay Rs 225
4. Rs 1200
5. 6 : 9 : 5
Arun – Rs 1680
Babita – Rs 2520
Chandan – Rs 1400
6. (b) 3 Months
7. Rs 90000
8. 10 Months
9. Rs 3200
10. 5 : 8 : 44
A- Rs 1000
B- Rs 1600
C- Rs 8800
11. 40 : 27 : 28
12. Rs 4500
13. (c) Rs 4200
14. (c) 1: 4 : 9
15. (d) 3 : 5 : 7
16. 2 : 1 : 1

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 (Problem on Ages- Amit Garg)

1. The Ratio of the ages of two persons is 4:7 and the age of them is 30 Yrs more than younger. The sum of
their ages(in Years) is
2. The respective ratio of the present ages of Ritu and Alka is 4:5. Six years hence, the respective ratio of their
ages will be 6:7. What is the difference between their ages?
3. 4 Year ago, the Ratio of the ages of A and B was 2:3 and after 4 Year it will become 5:7. Find their Present
Ages.
4. Ajay is 40 Years old and Sumit is 60 years old. How many years ago was the ratio of their ages 3:5?
5. The ratio of Present ages of two Brothers is 1:2 and 5 years back the ratio was 1:3. What will be the ratio of
their ages after 5 Years?
6. The sum of ages of 4 children born at the intervals of 2 years each is 48 years. What is the age of the
youngest child?
7. A man is 24 years older than his son. In two years, his age will be twice the age of his son. The present
age of Father is:
8. Father is three times as old as his son. 15 Years hence, he will be twice as old as his son. Sum of their ages?
9. The Present age of a father is 3 years more than three times the age of his son. 3 Years hence, father’s age
will be 10 years more than twice the age of the son. The father’s present age is.
10. In a family, the average age of father and mother is 35 years. The average age of the father, mother and
their only son is 27 years. What is the age of the son?
11. The Average age of A, B and C is 26, if the Average age of A and C is 29 Years, What is the age of B?
12. The average age of A, B, C and D is 50 years. With E joining them Now, the average age of all the five is 49
Years. How old is E?

Home Assignment
1. The sum of ages of 5 children born at the intervals of 3 years each is 50 years. What is the age of the
youngest child?
A. 4 years

B. 8 years

C. 10 years

D. None of these
2. Present ages of Sameer and Anand are in the ratio of 5 : 4 respectively. Three years hence, the ratio of
their ages will become 11 : 9 respectively. What is Anand's present age in years?
A. 24

B. 27

C. 40

D. None of these

3. Six years ago, the ratio of the ages of Kunal and Sagar was 6 : 5. Four years hence, the ratio of their
ages will be 11 : 10. What is Sagar's age at present?
A. 16 years

B. 18 years

C. 20 years

D. None of these

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 (Problem on Ages- Amit Garg)

4. At present, the ratio between the ages of Arun and Deepak is 4 : 3. After 6 years, Arun's age will be 26
years. What is the age of Deepak at present ?
A. 12 years

B. 15 years

C. 19 and half

D. 21 years

5. The sum of the present ages of a father and his son is 60 years. Six years ago, father's age was five
times the age of the son. After 6 years, son's age will be:
A. 12 years

B. 14 years

C. 18 years

D. 20 years
6. Sachin is younger than Rahul by 7 years. If their ages are in the respective ratio of 7 : 9, how old is
Sachin?
A. 16 years

B. 18 years

C. 28 years

D. None of these

7. A man is 24 years older than his son. In two years, his age will be twice the age of his son. The present
age of his son is:
A. 14 years

B. 18 years

C. 20 years

D. 22 years

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 (Problem on Ages- Amit Garg)

ANSWERS
1. 110 yrs
2. 3 yrs
3. A 36 Yrs B 52 Yrs
4. 10
5. 3:5
6. 9 yrs
7. 46Yrs
8. 60Yrs
9. 33 Yrs
10. 11 Yrs
11. 20 Yrs
12. 45 Yrs

Home assignment

1. 4Yrs
2. 24
3. 16 Yrs
4. 15 Yrs
5. 20 Yrs
6. None of These
7. 22 Yrs

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 (Problem on Ages- Amit Garg)

1. The Ratio of the ages of two persons is 4:7 and the age of them is 30 Yrs more than younger. The sum of
their ages(in Years) is
2. The respective ratio of the present ages of Ritu and Alka is 4:5. Six years hence, the respective ratio of their
ages will be 6:7. What is the difference between their ages?
3. 4 Year ago, the Ratio of the ages of A and B was 2:3 and after 4 Year it will become 5:7. Find their Present
Ages.
4. Ajay is 40 Years old and Sumit is 60 years old. How many years ago was the ratio of their ages 3:5?
5. The ratio of Present ages of two Brothers is 1:2 and 5 years back the ratio was 1:3. What will be the ratio of
their ages after 5 Years?
6. The sum of ages of 4 children born at the intervals of 2 years each is 48 years. What is the age of the
youngest child?
7. A man is 24 years older than his son. In two years, his age will be twice the age of his son. The present
age of Father is:
8. Father is three times as old as his son. 15 Years hence, he will be twice as old as his son. Sum of their ages?
9. The Present age of a father is 3 years more than three times the age of his son. 3 Years hence, father’s age
will be 10 years more than twice the age of the son. The father’s present age is.
10. In a family, the average age of father and mother is 35 years. The average age of the father, mother and
their only son is 27 years. What is the age of the son?
11. The Average age of A, B and C is 26, if the Average age of A and C is 29 Years, What is the age of B?
12. The average age of A, B, C and D is 50 years. With E joining them Now, the average age of all the five is 49
Years. How old is E?

Home Assignment
1. The sum of ages of 5 children born at the intervals of 3 years each is 50 years. What is the age of the
youngest child?
A. 4 years

B. 8 years

C. 10 years

D. None of these
2. Present ages of Sameer and Anand are in the ratio of 5 : 4 respectively. Three years hence, the ratio of
their ages will become 11 : 9 respectively. What is Anand's present age in years?
A. 24

B. 27

C. 40

D. None of these

3. Six years ago, the ratio of the ages of Kunal and Sagar was 6 : 5. Four years hence, the ratio of their
ages will be 11 : 10. What is Sagar's age at present?
A. 16 years

B. 18 years

C. 20 years

D. None of these

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 (Problem on Ages- Amit Garg)

4. At present, the ratio between the ages of Arun and Deepak is 4 : 3. After 6 years, Arun's age will be 26
years. What is the age of Deepak at present ?
A. 12 years

B. 15 years

C. 19 and half

D. 21 years

5. The sum of the present ages of a father and his son is 60 years. Six years ago, father's age was five
times the age of the son. After 6 years, son's age will be:
A. 12 years

B. 14 years

C. 18 years

D. 20 years
6. Sachin is younger than Rahul by 7 years. If their ages are in the respective ratio of 7 : 9, how old is
Sachin?
A. 16 years

B. 18 years

C. 28 years

D. None of these

7. A man is 24 years older than his son. In two years, his age will be twice the age of his son. The present
age of his son is:
A. 14 years

B. 18 years

C. 20 years

D. 22 years

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 (Problem on Ages- Amit Garg)

ANSWERS
1. 110 yrs
2. 3 yrs
3. A 36 Yrs B 52 Yrs
4. 10
5. 3:5
6. 9 yrs
7. 46Yrs
8. 60Yrs
9. 33 Yrs
10. 11 Yrs
11. 20 Yrs
12. 45 Yrs

Home assignment

1. 4Yrs
2. 24
3. 16 Yrs
4. 15 Yrs
5. 20 Yrs
6. None of These
7. 22 Yrs

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 Trains, Time Speed Distance, Boat, Race Extra Questions
1. What is the length of a running train crossing another 150 metre long train running in
the opposite direction?
I. The relative speed of the two trains was 30 kmph.
II. The trains took 10 seconds to cross each other.

A. I alone sufficient while II alone not sufficient to answer

B. II alone sufficient while I alone not sufficient to answer
C. Either I or II alone sufficient to answer

D. Both I and II are necessary to answer

2. What is the length of a running train?

I. The train crosses a man in 18 seconds.
II. The train crosses a 300 metre long platform in 30 seconds.

A. I alone sufficient while II alone not sufficient to answer

B. II alone sufficient while I alone not sufficient to answer
C. Either I or II alone sufficient to answer

D. Both I and II are necessary to answer

3. The length of the bridge, which a train 200 metres long and travelling at 54 km/hr can
cross in 30 seconds, is:
A. 200 m
B. 225 m
C. 245 m
D. 250 m
4. A train passes a station platform in 40 seconds and a man standing on the platform in 20
seconds. If the speed of the train is 54 km/hr, what is the length of the platform?
A. 120 m
B. 240 m
C. 300 m
D. None of these
5. A goods train runs at the speed of 72 kmph and crosses a 250 m long platform in 30
seconds. What is the length of the goods train?
A. 230 m

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 Trains, Time Speed Distance, Boat, Race Extra Questions

B. 240 m
C. 260 m
D. 350 m

6. The towns A, B and C are on a straight line. Town C is between A and B. The distance
from A to B is 240 km. How far is A from C?
I. The distance from A to B is 20% more than the distance from C to B.
II. The distance from A to C is 1/5 of the distance C to B.

A. I alone sufficient while II alone not sufficient to answer

B. II alone sufficient while I alone not sufficient to answer
C. Either I or II alone sufficient to answer
D. Both I and II are not sufficient to answer
7. Two cars pass each other in opposite direction. How long would they take to be 400 km
apart?
I. The sum of their speeds is 100 km/hr.
II. The difference of their speed is 25 km/hr.

A. I alone sufficient while II alone not sufficient to answer

B. II alone sufficient while I alone not sufficient to answer
C. Either I or II alone sufficient to answer
D. Both I and II are not sufficient to answer
8. If a person walks at 14 km/hr instead of 10 km/hr, he would have walked 40 km more.
The actual distance travelled by him is:
A. 100 km
B. 112 km
C. 140 km
D. 160 km
9. Excluding stoppages, the speed of a bus is 54 kmph and including stoppages, it is 45
kmph. For how many minutes does the bus stop per hour?
A. 9
B. 10
C. 12
D. 20

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 Trains, Time Speed Distance, Boat, Race Extra Questions
10. A man complete a journey in 10 hours. He travels first half of the journey at the rate of
42 km/hr and second half at the rate of 48 km/hr. Find the total journey in km.
A. 440 km
B. 448 km
C. 460 km
D. 468 km
11. A farmer travelled a distance of 61 km in 9 hours. He travelled partly on foot @ 4 km/hr
and partly on bicycle @ 9 km/hr. The distance travelled on foot is:
A. 14 km
B. 15 km
C. 16 km
D. 17 km
12. A motorboat, whose speed in 15 km/hr in still water goes 30 km downstream and
comes back in a total of 4 hours 30 minutes. The speed of the stream (in km/hr) is:
A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 10
13. A man can row at 5 kmph in still water. If the velocity of current is 1 kmph and it takes
him 1 hour to row to a place and come back, how far is the place?
A. 2.4 km
B. 2.5 km
C. 3 km
D. 3.6 km
14. In one hour, a boat goes 14 km/hr along the stream and 6 km/hr against the stream. The
speed of the boat in still water (in km/hr) is:
A. 3 km/hr
B. 5 km/hr
C. 8 km/hr
D. 10 km/hr
15. In a 1000 m race, A beats B by 100 m and C by 130 m. In a race of 180 m, B will beat C
by:
A. 5.4 m
B. 4.5 m

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 Trains, Time Speed Distance, Boat, Race Extra Questions

C. 5 m
D. 6 m

16. In a 100 m race, A can beat B by 25 m and B can beat C by 4 m. In the same race, A can beat
C by:
A. 21 m
B. 26 m
C. 28 m
D. 29 m

Answer Key

1. D
2. D
3. D
4. C
5. D
6. C
7. A
8. A
9. B
10. B
11. C
12. B
13. A
14. D
15. D
16. C

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 P & C and Probability PYQ

2022
1. The letter A, B, C, D and E are arranged in such a way that there are exactly two letters between A and E.
How many such arrangements are possible?
a) 12
b) 18
c) 24
d) 36

2. A,B and C are three places such that there are three different roads from A to B, four different roads from B
to C and three different roads A to C in how many different ways can one travel from A to C using these
roads?
a) 10
b) 13
C) 15
d) 36
3. How many 3-digit natural numbers (without repetition of digits) are there such that each digit is odd and
the number is divisible by 5?
a) 8
b) 12
c) 16
d) 24
4. The digit 1 to 9 are arranged in three rows in such a way that each row contains three digits, and the
number formed in the second row is twice the number formed in the first row; and the number formed in
the third row is thrice the number formed in the first row. Repetition of digit is not allowed. If only three of
the four digit 2,3,7 and 9 are allowed to use in the first row, how many be arranged in the three rows?
a) 4
b) 3
c) 2
d) 1
5.One non-zero digit, one vowel and one consonant from English alphabet (in capital) are to use in forming
passwords ,such that each password has to start with a vowel and end with a consonant. How many such
passwords can be generated?
a) 105
b) 525
c) 945
d) 1050
6. There are 9 cups placed on a table arranged in equal number of rows and columns out of which 6 cups
contain coffee and 3 cups contain tea. In how many ways can they be arranged so that each row should
contain at least one cup of coffee?
a) 18
b) 27
c) 54
d) 81
7. There is a numeric lock which has a 3-digit pin. The pin contains digits 1 to 7. There is no repetition of digit
the digit in the pin from left to right are in decreasing order. Any two digits in the pin differ by at least 2.how
many maximum attempts does one need to find out the pin with certainty?
a) 6

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b)8
c) 10
d) 12
2021
1. Integers are listed from 700 to 1000. In how many integers is the sum of the digits 10?
a) 6
b) 7
c) 8
d) 9
2. On a chess board, in how many different ways can 6 consecutive squares be chosen on the diagonals
along a straight path ?
a) 4
b) 6
c) 8
d) 12
3. There are 6 persons arranged in a row .another person has to shake hands with 3 of them so that he
should not shake hands with two consecutive persons. In how many distinct possible combinations can the
handshakes take place?
a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
d) 6
2020
1. How many five –digit prime numbers can be obtained by using all the digit 1,2,3,4 and 5 without
repetition of digits?
a) 0
b) 1
c) 9
d) 10
2. How many integers are there between 1 and 100 which have 4 as a digit but are not divisible by 4?
a) 5
b) 11
c) 12
d) 13
3. How many different 5-letter words (with or without meaning) can be constructed using all the letters of
the word has word ‘Delhi ‘so that each word has to start with D and end with I?
a) 24
b) 18
c) 12
d) 6
2019
1. Each face of a cube can be painted in black or white colours .in how many different ways can the cube be
painted?
a) 9
b) 10
c) 11
d) 12

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2. Suppose you have sufficient amount of rupee currency in three denominations:Rs.1 ,Rs.10 and Rs.50 .in
how many different ways can you pay a bill of Rs.107?
a) 16
b) 17
c) 18
d) 19
3. The number of times the digit 5 will appear while writing the integers 1 to 1000 is
a) 269
b) 271
c) 300
d) 302
2018
1.While writing all the numbers from 700 to 1000 , how many numbers occur in which the digit at hundred’s
place is greater than the digit at ten’s place , and the digit at ten’s place is greater than the digit the at unit’s
place?
a) 61
b) 64
c) 85
d) 91
2. A bag contains 15 red balls and 20 black balls. Each ball is numbered either 1or2 or 3 .20% of the red balls
are numbered 1 and 40% of them are numbered 3. Similarly, among the black balls, 45% are numbered 2
and 30% are numbered 3. A boy picks a ball at random .he wins if the ball is red and numbered 3 or if it is
black and numbered 1 or 2 what are the chances of his winning?
a) 1/2
b) 4/7
c) 5/9
d) 12/13
2017
1. A bag contains 20 balls .8 balls are green, 7 are white and 5 are red . What is the minimum number of balls
that must be picked up from the bag blindfolded (without replacing any of it ) to be assured of picking at
least one ball of each colour ?
a) 17
b) 16
c) 13
d) 11
2.If 2 boys and 2 girls are to be arranged in a row so that the girls are not next to each other, how many
possible arrangements are there?
a) 3
b) 6
c) 12
d) 24

PYQ 2011-2016

3.How many numbers are there between 100 and 300 which either begin with or end with 2 ?
a) 110
b) 111

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c) 112
d) None of the above

4. Four –digit numbers are to be formed using the digits 1, 2,3, and 4; and none of these four digits are
repeated in any manner . further,
1. 2 and 3 are not immediately follow each other
2. 1 is not to be immediately followed by
3. 4 is not to appear at the last place
4. 1 is not to appear at the first place
How many different numbers can be formed ?
a) 6
b) 8
c) 9
d) None of the above

5. A around archery target of diameter 1 m is marked with four scoring regions from the centre outwards as
red, blue, yellow and white. The radius of the red band is 0.20m. The width of all the remaining bands is
equal .if archers throw arrows towards the target, what is the probability that the arrows fall in the red
region of the archery target?
a) 0.40
b) 0.20
c) 0.16
d) 0.04
6. A selection is to be made for one post of principal and two posts of vice-principal .amongst the six
candidates called for the interview, only two are eligible for the posts of principal while they all are eligible
for the post of vice-principal. The number of possible combinations of selectees is
a) 4
b) 12
c) 18
d) None of the above
7. A student has to opt for 2 subject out of 5 subjects for a course , namely , commerce, economics ,
statistics, mathematics I and mathematics ii . mathematics ii can be offered only if mathematics I is also
opted . The number of different combinations of two subject which can be opted is
a) 5
b) 6
c) 7
d) 8

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 Permutation & combination -PYQ 2023

1. Raj has ten pairs of red, nine pairs of white and eight pairs of black shoes in a box. If he
randomly picks shoes one by one (without replacement) from the box to get a red pair of
shoes to wear, what is the maximum number of attempts he has to make ?
a) 27
b) 36
c) 44
d) 45

2. In how manyways can a batsman score exactly 25 runs by scoring single runs, fours and sixes
only, irrespective of the sequence of scoring shots ?
a) 18
b) 19
c) 20
d) 21

3. There are four letters and four envelopes and exactly one letter is to be put in exactly one
envelope with the correct address. If the letters are randomly inserted into the envelopes,
then consider the following statements :

1. It is possible that exactly one letter goes into an incorrect envelope.

2. There are only six ways in which only two letters can go into the correct envelopes.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

4. How many distinct 8-digit numbers can be formed by rearranging the digits of the number
11223344 such that odd digits occupy odd positions and even digits occupy even positions ?
a) 12
b) 18
c) 36
d) 72

5. ABCD is a square. One point on each of AB and CD; and two distinct points on each of BC and
DA are chosen. How many distinct triangles can be drawn using any three points as vertices
out of these six points ?

a) 16
b) 18
c) 20

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 d) 24

6. A box contains 14 black balls, 20 blue balls, 26 green balls, 28 yellow balls, 38 red balls and
54 white balls. Consider the following statements :

1. The smallest number n such that any n balls drawn from the box randomly mustcontain
one full group of at least one colour is 175.

2. The smallest number m such that any m balls drawn from the box randomly must contain
at least one ball of each colour is 167.

Which of the above statements is/are correct ?

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

7. What is the sum of all 4-digit numbers less than 2000 formed by the digits 1, 2, 3 and 4,
wherenone of the digits is repeated ?
a) 7998
b) 8028
c) 8878
d) 9238

8. What is the number of selections of 10 consecutive things out of 12 things in a circle taken in
the clockwise direction ?
a) 3
b) 11
c) 12
d) 66

9. In an examination, the maximum marks for each of the four papers namely P, Q, R and S are
100. Marks scored by the students are in integers. A student can score 99% in n different
ways. What is the value of n ?
a) 16
b) 17
c) 23
d) 35

10. A flag has to be designed with 4 horizontal stripes using some or all of the colours red, green
and yellow. What is the number of different ways in which this can be done so that no two
adjacent stripes have the same colour ?
a) 2
b) 18
c) 24
d) 36

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11. There are five persons P, Q, R, S and T each one of whom has to be assigned one task.
Neither P nor Q can be assigned Task-1. Task-2 must be assigned to either R or S. In how
many ways can the assignment be done ?
a) 6
b) 12
c) 18
d) 24

12. There are large number of silver weighing 2 gm, 5 gm, 10 gm, 25 gm, 50 gm each.
Consider the following statements :
1. To buy 78 gm of coins one must buy at least 7 coins.
2. To weigh 78 gm using these coins one can use less than 7 coins.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

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 (Unit Digit and RemainderTheorem)

1. What is the unit digit in {(74)93 x (25)17 x (4191)}?

A. 0 B. 2
C. 3 D. 5

2. Find the remainder when 66 + 55 + 1111 is divided by 10?

a. 1 b. 2
c. 6 d. 5

3. What will be remainder when 16200 is divided by 17?

A. 15 B. 16
C. 1 D. 2

4. What is the unit digit in (1795 - 1358)?

A. 0 B. 4
C. 6 D. 7

5. The last digit of the number obtained by multiplying the

numbers 91x92x93x94x95x96x97x98x99 will be
a) 0 b) 1
c) 18 d) 2

6. What will be the remainder obtained when

(89+1) will be divided by 7?
a. 4 b. 3
c. 1 d. 2

7. Find the units digit of the expression 2551+2628+2354.

a) 1 b)0
c)2 d)3

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8. Find the units digit of the expression
211+222+233+244+255+266.
a) 8 b)9
c)5 d)4

9. What is the units digit of the expression 122.133.144.155.

166.177
a)2 b)0
c)7 d)None of these

10. Find the units digit of 2543x63703x3228 is:

a)1 b)3
c)0 d) 6

11. The remainder when 368 is divided by 5 :

a. 3 b. 1
c. 2 d. None of these

12. The remainder when 751 is divided by 5.

a. 2 b.4
c.8 d.3

13. Find the unit digit of the expression 4141 × 4242 + 4343 × 4444
+ 4545 × 4646 ?
a.6 b.4
c.2 d.0

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 Basic Numeracy (Previous Year Question)

1. If ABC and DEF are both 3-digit numbers such that A, B, C,D,E and F are distinct non-zero digits
such that ABC + DEF = 1111, then what is the value of A + B+ C+ D+ E + F ? (2023)
a) 28
b) 29
c) 30
d) 31

2. A 3-digit number ABC, on multiplication with D gives 37DD where A, B, C and D are different
non-zero digits. What is the value of A+B+C ? (2023)
a) 18
b) 16
c) 15
d) Cannot be determined due to insufficient data

3. Let pp, qq and rr be 2-digit numbers where p < q < r. If pp + qq + rr = tt0, where tt0 is a 3-digit
number ending with zero, consider the following statements : (2023)
1. The number of possible values of p is 5.
2. The number of possible values of q is 6.

Which of the above statements is/are correct ?

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

4. AB and CD are 2-digit numbers. Multiplying AB with CD results in a 3-digit number DEF. Adding
DEF to another 3-digit number GHI results in 975. Further A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I are distinct
digits. If E = 0, F = 8, then what is A + B + C equal to ? (2023)
a) 6
b) 7
c) 8
d) 9

5. Let p be a two-digit number and q be the number consisting of same digits written in reverse
order. If pxq=2430, then what is the difference between p and q? (2022)
a) 45
b) 27
c) 18
d) 9

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6. Consider the following addition problem: 3P+4P+PP+PP = RQ2; where P, Q and R are different
digits. What is the arithmetic mean of all such possible sums? (2021)
a) 102
b) 120
c) 202
d) 220

7. Consider the following multiplication problem : (PQ)?3 = RQQ, where P, Q and R are different
digits and R≠ 0. What is the value of (P+R)÷Q? (2021)
a) 1
b) 2
c) 5
d) Cannot be determined due to insufficient data

8. In the sum ®+1®+5+®®+®]= 1®®, for which digit does the symbol ® stand? (2020)
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5

9. Let A3BC andDE2F be four-digit numbers where each letter represents a different digit greater
than 3. If the sum of the numbers is 15902, then what is the difference between the values of A
and D? (2020)
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

10. The letters from A to Z are numbered from 1 to 26 respectively. If GHI = 1578 and DEF = 912,
then what is ABC equal to ? (2020)
a) 492
b) 468
c) 262
d) 246

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11. Number 136 is added to 5B7 and the sum obtained is 7A3, where A and B are integers. It is given
that 7A3 is exactly divisible by 3. The only possible value of B is (2019)
a) 2
b) 5
c) 7
d) 8

12. Consider the following sum: .+1 .+2 .+ 3+ .1=21 (2018)

In the above sum, ? stands for

a) 4
b) 5
c) 6
d) 8

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 CSAT Paper 2021 PYQ
1. If 32019 divided by 10, then what is the remainder?

a) 1
b) 3
c) 7
d) 9

1. The number 3798125P369 is divisible by 7. What Is the value of the digit P?

a) 1
b) 6
c) 7
d) 9

2. A biology class at high school predicted that a local population of animals will double in size every 12 years. The
population at the beginning of the year 2021 was estimated to be 50 animals. If P represents the population after n
years, then which one of the following equations represents the model of the class for the population?
a) P = 12 + 50n
b) P = 50 + 12n
c) P = 50 (2)12n
d) P = 50 (2) n/12

3. Integers are listed from 700 to 1000. In how many integers is the sum of the digits 10?
a) 6
b) 7
c) 8
d) 9

4. Consider all 3-digit numbers (without repetition of digits) obtained using three non-zero digits which are multiples of 3.
Let S be their sum.

Which of the following is/are correct?

1. S is always divisible by 74.

2. S is always divisible by 9.

Select the correct answer using the code given

below:

a) 1 only
b) Both 1 and 2
c) 2 only
d) Neither 1 nor 2

5. Half of the villagers of a certain village have their own houses. One-fifth of the villagers cultivate paddy. One-third of the
villagers are literate. Four-fifth of the villagers are under 25 years of age. Which one of the following statements is
certainly correct?
a) All the villagers who have their own houses are literate.
b) Some villagers under 25 years of age are literate.
c) Only half of the villagers who cultivate paddy are literate.
d) No villager under 25 years of age has his own house.

6. A person P asks one of his three friends X as to how much money he had. X replied, "If Y gives me Rs. 40, then Y will have
half of as much as Z, N but if Z gives me Rs. 40, then three of us will have equal amount." What is the total amount of
money that X, Y and Z have?
a) Rs. 420
b) Rs. 360

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c) Rs. 300
d) Rs. 270

7. Consider the following addition problem: 3P+4P+PP+PP = RQ2; where P, Q and R are different digits. What is the
arithmetic mean of all such possible sums?
a) 102
b) 120
c) 202
d) 220

8. Consider the following multiplication problem : (PQ)?3 = RQQ, where P, Q and R are different digits and R+ 0. What is
the value of (P+R)-Q?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 5
d) Cannot be determined due to insufficient data

9. An amount of money was distributed among A, B and C in the ratio p : q : r. Consider the following statements :

1. A gets the maximum share if p is greater than (q+r).

2. C gets the minimum share if r is less than (p+q).

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 only
b) Both 1 and 2
c) 2 only
d) Neither 1 nor 2

10. Joseph visits the club on every 5th day, Harsh visits on every 24th day, while Sumit visits on every 9th day. If all three of
them met at the club N on a Sunday, then on which day will all three of them meet again?
a) Monday
b) Wednesday
c) Thursday
d) Sunday

11. . The difference between a 2-digit number and the number obtained by interchanging the positions of the digits is 54.

Consider the following statements:

1.The sum of the two digits of the number can be N determined only if the product of the two digits is known.

2. The difference between the two digits of the number can be determined.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

12. When a certain number is multiplied by 7, the product entirely comprises ones only (1111 ...). What is the smallest such
number?
a) 15713
b) 15723
c) 15783
d) 15783

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 CSAT Paper 2021 PYQ

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 CSAT Paper 2022 PYQ
1. An Identity Card has the number ABCDEFG, N not necessarily in that order, where each letter
represents a distinct digit (1, 2, 4, 5, 7, 8, 9 only). The number is divisible by 9. After deleting the
first digit from the right, the resulting number is divisible by. After deleting two digits from the
right of original number, the resulting number is divisible by 5. After deleting three digits from
the right of original number, the resulting number is divisible by 4. After deleting four digits from
the right of original number, the resulting number is divisible by 3. After deleting five digits from
the right of original number, the resulting number is divisible by 3. After deleting five digits from
the right of original number, the resulting number is divisible by 2. Which of the following is a
possible value for the sum of the middle three digits of the number?
a) 8
b) 9
c) 11
d) 12

2. Which number amongst 240,321 4118 and 812 is the smallest?

a) 240
b) 321
c) 418
d) 812

3. X and Y run a 3 km race along a circular course of length 300 m. Their speeds are in the ratio 3:2.
If they start together in the same direction, how many times would the first one pass the other
(the start-off is not counted as passing)?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
4. In a tournament of Chess having 150 entrants, a player is eliminated whenever he loses a match.

N It is given that no match results in a tie/draw. How many matches are played in the entire

tournament?

a) 151
b) 150
c) 149
d) 148

5. . Consider the Question and two Statements given below:

Question: Is x an integer?

Statement-1: x/3 is not an integer.

Statement- 2: 3x is an integer.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the Question and the Statements?

a) Statement-1 alone is sufficient to answer the Question

b) Statement-2 alone is sufficient to answer the Question
c) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are sufficient to answer the Question

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 d) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are not sufficient to answer the Question

6. On one side of a 1.01 km along road, 101 plants are planted at equal distance from each other.
What is the total distance between 5 consecutive plants?
a) 40m
b) 40.4m
c) 50m
d) 50.5

7. A has some coins. He gives half of the coins and 2 more to B, B gives half of the coins and 2 more
to C, C gives half of the coins and 2 more to N The number of coins D has now, is the smallest
two-digit number. How many coins does A have in the beginning?
a) 76
b) 68
c) 60
d) 52

8. In the series AABABACABCDABCDE …. ? which letters appears at the 100th place?

a) G
b) H
c) I
d) J

9. Five friends P, Q, X, Y and Z purchased some notebooks. The relevant information is given below:

1. Z purchased 8 notebooks more than X did.

2. P and Q together purchased 21 notebooks.

3. Q purchased 5 notebooks less than P did.

4. X and Y together purchased 28 note books.

P purchased 5 notebooks more than X did.

If each notebook is pried Rs 40, then what is the total cost of all the notebooks?

a) Rs 2,600
b) Rs 2,400
c) Rs 2,360
d) Rs 2,320

10. A person X wants to distribute some pens among six children A,B,C,D,E and F ,. Supposed A gets
twice the number of pens received by B, three times that of C, four times that of D, five times
that of C, four times that of D, five times that of E and six times that of F. What is the minimum
number of pens X should buy so that the number of pens each one gets is an even number?
a) 147
b) 150

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 CSAT Paper 2022 PYQ
c) 294
d) 300

11. Let A, B and C represent distinct non-zero digits. Suppose x is the sum of all possible 3-digit

numbers formed by A,B and C without repetition.

Consider the following statements

1. The 4-digit least value of x is 1332.

2. The 3-digit greatest value of x is 888.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 only
b) Both 1 and 2
c) 2 only
d) Neither 1 nor 2

12. There is a numeric lock which has a 3-digit PIN. The PIN contains digits 1 to 7. There is no
repetition of digits. The digits in the PIN from left to right are in decreasing order. Any two digits
in the PIN differ by at least 2. How many maximum attempts does one need to find out the PIN
with certainty?
a) 6
b) 8
c) 10
d) 12

13. What is the remainder when

91x92x93x94x95x96x97x98x99 is divided by 1261?

a) 3
b) 2
c) 1
d) 0

14. . When 70% of a number x is added to another number y, the sum becomes 165% of the value of
y. When 60% of the number x is added to another number z, then the sum becomes 165% of the
value of z which one of the following is correct?
a) z<x<y
b) y<x < Z
c) x<y <z
d) z< y<x

15. What is the smallest number greater than 1000 that when divided by any one of the numbers 6,
9, 12, 15, 18 leaves a remainder of 3?

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 a) 1063
b) 1073
c) 1083
d) 1183

16. Let p be a two-digit number and q be the number consisting of same digits written in reverse
order. If pxq=2430, then what is the difference between p and q?
a) 45
b) 27
c) 18
d) 9

17. Consider the following statements in respect of two natural numbers p and q such that p is a
prime number and q is a composite number:

pxq can be an odd number.

q/p can be a prime number.

p + q can be a prime number.

Which of the above statements are correct?

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1,2 and 3

18. If 15x14x13 x ...... x 3 x 2 x 1 = 3m

Where m and n are positive integers, then what is the maximum value of m?
a) 7
b) 6
c) 5
d) 4

19. The sum of three consecutive integers to equal to their product. How many such possibilities are
there?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) No such possibility is there

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 CSAT Paper 2023 PYQ
1. Raj has ten pairs of red, nine pairs of white and eight pairs of black shoes in a box. If he randomly picks shoes one by
one (without replacement) from the box to get a red pair of shoes to wear, what is the maximum number of attempts
he has to make ?
a) 27
b) 36
c) 44
d) 45

2. What is the remainder when 8 5 x 87 x 89 x 91 x 95 x 96 is divided by 100?

a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) 4

3. What is the unit digit in the expansion of (57242 ) 9x7x5x3x1 ?

a) 2
b) 4
c) 6
d) 8

4. If ABC and DEF are both 3-digit numbers such that A, B, C, D, E and F are non-zero digits such that ABC + DEF = 1111,
then what is the value of A+B+C+D+E+F?
a) 28
b) 29
c) 30
d) 31
e)
5. D is a 3-digit number such that the ratio of the number to the sum of its digits is least. What is the difference between
the digit at the hundred's place and the digit at the unit's place of D?
a) 0
b) 7
c) 8
d) 9

6. Three of the five positive integers p, q, r, s, t are even and two of them are odd (not necessarily in order). Consider the
following:
1. P + q + r - s - t is definitely even.
2. 2p + q + 2r - 2s + t is definitely odd.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

7. Consider the following in respect of prime number p and composite number c.

𝑝+𝑐
1. - can be even.
𝑝−𝑐
2. 2p + c can be odd.
3. pc can be odd.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

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8. A 3-digit number ABC, on multiplication with D gives 37DD where A, B, C and D are different non-zero digits. what is
'the value of A+B+C ?
a) 18
b) 16
c) 15
d) Cannot be determined due to insufficient data

9. For any choices of values of X, Y and Z, the 6-digit number of the form XYZXYZ is divisible by:
a) 7 and 11 only
b) 11 and 13 only
c) 7 and 13 only
d) 7, 11 and 13

10. If p, q, r and s are distinct single digit positive numbers, then what is the greatest value of (p + q)(r + _s) ?
a) 230
b) 225
c) 224
d) 221

11. A number N is formed by writing 9 for 99 times. What is the remainder if N is divided by 13 ?
a) 11
b) 9
c) 7
d) 1

12. Each digit of a 9-digit number is 1. It is multiplied by itself. What is the sum of the digits of the resulting number?
a) 64
b) 80
c) 81
d) 100

13. What is the sum of all digits which appear in all the integers from 10 to 100?
a) 855
b) 856
c) 910
d) 911

14. Let x be a positive integer such that 7x + 96 is divisible by x. How many values of x are possible ?
a) 10
b) 11
c) 12
d) Infinitely many

15. A box contains 14 black balls, 20 blue balls, 26 green balls, 28 yellow balls, 38 red balls and 54 white balls. Consider the
following statements:

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 CSAT Paper 2023 PYQ
1. The smallest number n such that any n balls drawn from the box randomly must contain one full group of at
least one colour is 175
2. The smallest number m such that any m balls drawn from the box randomly must contain at least one ball of
each colour is 167.

Which of the above statements is/are correct ?

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both n1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

16. How many natural numbers are there which give a remainder of 31 when 1186 is divided by these natural numbers ?
a) 6
b) 7
c) 8
d) 9

17. Let pp, gg and rr be 2-digit numbers where p<q <r. if pp+qq+rr=tt0, where tt0 is a 3-digit number ending with zero,
consider the following statements :
1. The number of possible values of p is 5.
2. The number of possible values of q is 6.
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both n1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

18. If today is Sunday, then which day is it exactly on 1010 th day ?

a) Wednesday
b) Thursday
c) Friday
d) Saturday.

19. There are three traffic signals. Each signal changes colour from green to red and then from red to green. The first signal
takes 25 seconds, the second signal takes 39 seconds and the third signal takes 60 seconds to change the colour from
green to red. The durations for green and red colours are same. At 2:00 p.m, they together turn green. At what time
will they change to green next, simultaneously ?
a) 4:00 p.m.
b) 1 4:10 p.m.
c) 4:20 p.m.
d) 4:30 p.m.

20. 40 children are standing in a circle and one of them (say child-1) has a ring. The ring is passed clockwise. Child-1 passes
on to child-2, ohild-2 passes on to child-4, child-4 passes on k child-7 and so on. After how many such changes
(including child-1) will the ring be in the hands of child-1 again ?
a) 14
b) 15
c) 16

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 d) 17

21. What is the middle term of the sequence

Z.Z, Y, Y, Y, X, X, X, X, W, W, W, W, W,.., A?
a) H
b) I
c) J
d) M

22. Question : Is p greater than q?

Statement-1: p xq is greater than zero.
Statement-2: p is greater than P².
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above Question and the Statements ?
a) The Question can be answered by using one of the Statements alone, but cannot be answered
using the other Statement alone.
b) The Question can be answered by using either Statement alone.
c) The Question can be answered by using both the Statements together, but cannot be answered using either
Statement alone.
d) The Question cannot be answered even by using both the Statements together.

23. Question: Is (p+q-r) greater then (p-q+r), where p,q and r are integers ?
Statement-1: (p-q) is positive.
Statement-2 : (p-r) is negative.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above Question and the Statements ?

a) The Question can be answered by using one of the Statements alone. but cannot be answered using the other
Statement alone.
b) The Question can be answered by using either Statement alone.
c) The Question can be answered by using both the Statements together, but answered using either cannot be
Statement alone.
d) The Question cannot be answered even by using both the Statements together.

24. Consider a 3-digit number. Question : What is the number?

Statement-1: The sum of the digits of the number is equal to the product of the digits
Statement-2: "The number is divisible by the sum of the digits of the Which one of number.
Which one of the following is correct in of the above Question and the Statements ?
a. The Question can be answered by using one of the Statements alone, but cannot be answered using the other
Statement alone.
b. The Question can be answered by using either Statement alone.
c. The Question can be answered by using both the Statements together, but cannot be answered using either
Statement alone.
d. The Question cannot be answered even by using both the Statements together.

25. Therearelarge number of silver coins weighing 2 gm, 5 gm, 10 gm, 25 gm, 50 gm each. Consider the following
statements :

1. To buy 78 gm of coins one must buy at least 7 coins.

2. To weigh 78 gm using these coins one can useless than 7 coins.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

a) 1 only
b) 2 only

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 CSAT Paper 2023 PYQ
c) Both n1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

26. Consider the following :

I. A + B means A is neither smaller nor equal to B.
II. A - B means A is not greater than B.
III. A x B means A is not smaller than B.
IV. A + B means A is neither greater nor equal to B.
V. A + B means A is neither smaller nor greater than B.

Statement : PxQ, P-T, T÷R, R±S

Conclusion-1 : Q ±T

Conclusion-2 : S + Q

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above Statement and the Conclusions ?

a) Only Conclusion-1 follows from the Statement.

b) Only Conclusion-2 follows from the Statement.
c) Both Conclusion-1 and Conclusion-2 follow from the Statement.
d) Neither Conclusion-1 nor Conclusion-2 follows from the Statement.

27. What is the remainder if 2192 is divided by 6 ?

a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) 4

28. AB and CD are 2-digit numbers. Multiplying AB with CD results in a 3-digit number DEF. Adding DEF to another 3-digit
number GHI results in 975. Further A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I are distinct digits. If E = 0, F = 8, then what is A + B + C equal to
?
a) 6
b) 7
c) 8
d) 9

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 Faulty Clock

1. A clock is set right at 8 a.m. The clock gains 48 minutes in 24 hours, what time the clock
will show at 1 p.m. on the following day?
2. A clock is set right at 8 a.m on Monday. The clock gains 4 minutes in 12 hours, what
time the clock will show at 1 p.m. on the Wednesday?
3. A clock is set right at 11 a.m on Monday. The clock losses 2 minutes in 12 hours, what
time the clock will show at 1 p.m. on the Wednesday?
4. A clock is set right at 8 a.m on Monday. The clock losses 12 minutes in 12 hours, what
time the clock will show at 5 p.m. on the Wednesday?
5. A clock is set right at 11 a.m on Monday. The clock gains 2 minutes in 12 hours, what
time the clock will show at 10 p.m. on the Wednesday?
6. A clock is set right at 8 a.m. The clock gains 48 minutes in 24 hours what will be the
true time when the clock indicates 11:30 p.m. on the same day?
7. A clock is set right at 8 a.m on Monday. The clock gains 3 minutes in 1 hour what will
be the true time when the clock indicates 5 a.m. on the Tuesday?
8. A clock is set right at 8 a.m on Moday. The clock gains 48 minutes in 24 hours what
will bethe true time when the clock indicates 10 p.m. on the Wednesday?
9. A clock is set right at 8 a.m. The clock gains 48 minutes in 24 hours what will be the
true timewhen the clock indicates 10:30 p.m. on the same day
10. A clock is set right at 8 a.m on Monday. The clock gains 3 minutes in 1 hour what will be
thetrue time when the clock indicates 3 a.m. on the Tuesday?

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 Race Handout

1. In a 1000 m race, A can give B 100 m and C 280 m. In the race of 1000m B can give C:

2. A and B take part in 100 m race. A runs at 5 kmph. A gives B a start of 8 m and still beats
him by 8 seconds. The speed of B is:

A. 5.15 kmph

B. 4.14 kmph

C. 4.25 kmph
D. 4.4 kmph

3. In a 500 m race, the ratio of the speeds of two contestants A and B is 3 : 4. A has a start of
140 m. Then, A wins by:
A. 60 m

B. 40 m

C. 20 m
D. 10 m

4. In a race of 200 m, A can beat B by 31 m and C by 18 m. In a race of 350 m, C will beat B by:

A. 22.75 m

B. 25 m

C. 19.5 m
4
D. 7 m
7

5. In 100 m race, A covers the distance in 36 seconds and B in 45 seconds. In this race A beats
B by:
A. 20 m

B. 25 m

C. 22.5 m
D. 9 m

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 Non verbal Reasoning Answer key (IASSETU)

Assignment: Non verbal reasoning 8. (b)

9. (c)
1. (c) 10. (c)
2. (a) 11. (a)
3. (a) 12. (d)
4. (b) 13. (c)
5. (c) 14. (a)
6. (a) 15. (b)
7. (e) 16. (d)
8. (c) 17. (d)
9. (c)
10. (b)
11. (d)
18. (c)
12. (e)
13. (b) 19. (a)
14. (d) Water –Image
15. (b)
1. (D)
Type II: 2. (b)
1. (d) 3. (c)
4. (a)
2. (e)
5. (c)
3. (a)
6. (c)
4. (c)
5. (c) 7. (b)
8. (d)
6. (d)
9. (a)
6A. (a) 10. (a)
11. (b)
7. (a) 12. (d)
8. (b) 13. (c)
9. (a) 14. (c)
10. (d) 15. (d)
11. (e) 16. (c)
Type III: 17. (b)
18. (b)
1. (d) 19. (b)
2. (a) 20. (C)
3. (a)
4. (b)
5. (b)
6. (d)
7. (c)

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 Class Test ( Arithmetic Progression) By Amit Garg

Q1:- 1 , 3 , 4, 4, 7, 5 , 10, 6, 13, 7...............................................

100
terms
Q2:- 1 , 2, 5, 3, 9, 4, 13, 5, 17, 6,
..............................................100
terms
Q3:- Find the sum of all 2 digits number which are exactly
divisibleby 3 ?
Q4:- Find the sum of all 2 digits number which are exactly
divisibleby 4 ?
Q5:- Find the sum of all 2 digits number which are exactly
divisibleby 6 ?
Q6:- Find the sum of all 2 digits number which are exactly
divisibleby 7 ?
Q7:- Find the sum of all 2 digits number which are exactly
divisibleby 8 ?
Q8:- Find the sum of all 3 digits number which are exactly
divisibleby 3 ?
Q9:- Find the sum of all 3 digits number which are exactly
divisibleby 4 ?
Q10:- Find the sum of all 3 digits number which are exactly
divisibleby 5 ?

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 Class Test ( Arithmetic Progression) By Amit Garg

Q11:- Find the sum of all 3 digits number which are exactly
divisibleby 6 ?
Q12:- Find the sum of all 3 digits number which are exactly
divisibleby 8 ?
Q13:- Find the sum of all 2 digits number which gives
remainder 1when divided by 3?
Q14:- Find the sum of all 2 digits number which gives
remainder 1when divided by 4 ?
Q15:- Find the sum of all 2 digits number which gives
remainder 2when divided by 5 ?
Q16:- Find the sum of all 2 digits number which gives
remainder 2when divided by 6 ?
Q17:- Find the sum of all 2 digits number which gives
remainder 3when divided by 5 ?

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 Basic Numeracy (Previous Year Question)

1. If ABC and DEF are both 3-digit numbers such that A, B, C,D,E and F are distinct non-zero digits
such that ABC + DEF = 1111, then what is the value of A + B+ C+ D+ E + F ? (2023)
a) 28
b) 29
c) 30
d) 31

2. A 3-digit number ABC, on multiplication with D gives 37DD where A, B, C and D are different
non-zero digits. What is the value of A+B+C ? (2023)
a) 18
b) 16
c) 15
d) Cannot be determined due to insufficient data

3. Let pp, qq and rr be 2-digit numbers where p < q < r. If pp + qq + rr = tt0, where tt0 is a 3-digit
number ending with zero, consider the following statements : (2023)
1. The number of possible values of p is 5.
2. The number of possible values of q is 6.

Which of the above statements is/are correct ?

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

4. AB and CD are 2-digit numbers. Multiplying AB with CD results in a 3-digit number DEF. Adding
DEF to another 3-digit number GHI results in 975. Further A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I are distinct
digits. If E = 0, F = 8, then what is A + B + C equal to ? (2023)
a) 6
b) 7
c) 8
d) 9

5. Let p be a two-digit number and q be the number consisting of same digits written in reverse
order. If pxq=2430, then what is the difference between p and q? (2022)
a) 45
b) 27
c) 18
d) 9

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6. Consider the following addition problem: 3P+4P+PP+PP = RQ2; where P, Q and R are different
digits. What is the arithmetic mean of all such possible sums? (2021)
a) 102
b) 120
c) 202
d) 220

7. Consider the following multiplication problem : (PQ)?3 = RQQ, where P, Q and R are different
digits and R≠ 0. What is the value of (P+R)÷Q? (2021)
a) 1
b) 2
c) 5
d) Cannot be determined due to insufficient data

8. In the sum ®+1®+5+®®+®]= 1®®, for which digit does the symbol ® stand? (2020)
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5

9. Let A3BC andDE2F be four-digit numbers where each letter represents a different digit greater
than 3. If the sum of the numbers is 15902, then what is the difference between the values of A
and D? (2020)
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

10. The letters from A to Z are numbered from 1 to 26 respectively. If GHI = 1578 and DEF = 912,
then what is ABC equal to ? (2020)
a) 492
b) 468
c) 262
d) 246

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11. Number 136 is added to 5B7 and the sum obtained is 7A3, where A and B are integers. It is given
that 7A3 is exactly divisible by 3. The only possible value of B is (2019)
a) 2
b) 5
c) 7
d) 8

12. Consider the following sum: .+1 .+2 .+ 3+ .1=21 (2018)

In the above sum, ? stands for

a) 4
b) 5
c) 6
d) 8

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CSAT Foundation Batch by Amit Garg (Handout Basic Numeracy)

1. Consider the following addition

problem:
2Q + 4Q + QQ + 7Q= RP4; where P and Q
are different digits.
What is the arithmetic mean of all such
possible sums?
(a) 144
(b) 179
(c) 194
(d) 204

2. Consider the following addition

problem:
CRY + CRY + CRY = BABY; where A, B, C, R Y
are different digits. B can have a value 1 or
2 only and Y is not equal to 0.
Find (A+R+ Y) ÷ B
(a) 4

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CSAT Foundation Batch by Amit Garg (Handout Basic Numeracy)

(b) 5
(c) 8
(d) 9

3. Consider the following multiplication

problem:
PP × 3= RQP; where P, R and Q are different
digits.
Find (R+ P) ÷ Q
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4

4. Consider the following addition

problem:
1P + PP + 3P + RP + 5P + QP + 7P = P94;
where P, Q and R different digits.
Find P + R + Q

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CSAT Foundation Batch by Amit Garg (Handout Basic Numeracy)

(a) 8
(b) 9
(c) 10
(d) 12

5. Consider the following multiplication

problem:
AACAAC = AAC × DEED; where A, C, D and E
are different digits
Find the value of D and E respectively
(a) 2 and 0
(b) 0 and 1
(c) 1 and 0
(d) 1 and 2
6. Consider the following multiplication
problem:
P7 × P= QQQ ; where P and Q are different
digits
Find P – Q?

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CSAT Foundation Batch by Amit Garg (Handout Basic Numeracy)

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) Cannot be determined due to
insufficient data

7. Consider the following multiplication

problem:
Q0P × Q0P = R0R0P; Where P and Q are
different digits
Find P + Q + R?
(a) 5
(b) 6
(c) 7
(d) Cannot be determined due to
insufficient data

8. Consider the following addition

problem:

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CSAT Foundation Batch by Amit Garg (Handout Basic Numeracy)

SUN + SUN + SUN = PQS ; where P, Q , S, U

and N are different digits and non zero
digits.
P= 3S and more than 7.
Find (P+ S) ÷ Q
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) Cannot be determined due to
insufficient data

9. Consider the following multiplication

problem:
PP × PP = Q02P; Where P and Q are
different digits
Find P - Q?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4

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CSAT Foundation Batch by Amit Garg (Handout Basic Numeracy)

(d) Cannot be determined due to

insufficient data

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 CSAT Handout Basic Numeracy (IASSETU)

Find Value of Y (without Pen and Paper WPP)

1) 29 × Y = 435
2) 37 × Y= 481
3) 26 × Y = 546
4) 31 × Y = 651
5) 23 × Y = 391
6) 39 × Y = 468
7) 27 × Y = 567
8) 41 × Y = 533
9) 33 × Y = 561
10)29× Y = 783

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 (Blood Relations -Amit Garg) Answer Key

Q 1. Given that,
1.A is brother of B
2.C is father of A
3.D is brother of E
4.E is daughter of B
Then the uncle of D is
(a) A (b) B
(c) C (d) E

2. Pointing to a photograph of a boy Navdeep said, "He is the son of the only son of my mother." How
is Navdeep related to that boy?
A.Brother B.Aunt
C.Father D.Either (b) or (c)
3. If A is the brother of B; B is the sister of C; and C is the father of D, how D is related to A?
A.Brother B.Sister
C.Nephew D.Cannot be determined

4. If A is the brother of B; B is the sister of C; and C is the father of D, how A is related to D?

a) Brother
b) Sister
c) Nephew
d) Uncle

5. Introducing a boy, a girl said, "He is the son of the daughter of the father of my uncle." How is the boy
related to the girl?

a) Brother
b) Nephew
c) Uncle
d) Son-in-law

6. A is father of C and D is son of B. E is brother of A. If C is sister of D, how is B related to E ?

a) Daughter
b) Brother
c) Husband
d) Sister-in-law

7. A is B's sister. C is B's mother. D is C's father. E is D's mother. Then, how is A related to D?

a) Grandfather
b) Grandmother
c) Daughter
d) Granddaughter

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 (Blood Relations -Amit Garg) Answer Key

8. A is the brother of B. B is the brother of C. D is the father of A. Based on these three statements,
which of the following statements cannot be definitely true ?
a) B is the brother of A.
b) B is the son of D.
c) A is the brother of C.
d) C is the brother of A.

9. A is the son of B. C, B`s sister has a son D and a daughter E. F is the maternal uncle of D. How is
A related to D ?
a) Cousin
b) Nephew
c) Uncle
d) Brother

10.Arjun(male) said - "This girl is the wife of the grandson of my mother

and I don’t have any brother and sister". How is Arjun related to the girl?
A. Brother
B. Grandfather
C. Husband
D. Father-in-law
11. Pointing to Varun, Mohit said, "I am the only son of one of the sons of his
father." How is Varun related to Mohit?
A. Nephew
B. Uncle
C. Father or Uncle
D. Father
12.Introducing a man, a woman said, "He is the only son of the mother of
my mother." How is the woman related to the man?
A. Mother
B. Sister
C. Niece
D. Maternal aunt

Read the following passage and answer the 3 (three) items that follow :
A, B, C, D and E are members of the same family. There are two fathers, two sons, two wives, three
males and two females. The teacher was the wife of a lawyer who was the son of a doctor. E is not a
male, neither also a wife of a professional. C is the youngest and unmarried person in the family and
D is the eldest. B is a male.

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 (Blood Relations -Amit Garg) Answer Key

Q 13. How is D related to E ?

(a) Husband (b) Son
(c) Father (d) Wife

Q 14. Who are the females in the group ?

(a) C and E (b) C and D
(c) E and A (d) D and E

Q 15. Whose wife is the teacher ?

(a) C (b) D
(c) A (d) B

16. If A + B means A is the mother of B; A - B means A is the brother B; A % B means A is the father
of B and A x B means A is the sister of B, which of the following shows that P is the maternal uncle of
Q?
A.Q - N + M x P B. P + S x N - Q
C.P - M + N x Q D.Q - S % P

17. If A + B means A is the brother of B; A - B means A is the sister of B and A x B means A is the
father of B. Which of the following means that C is the son of M?

A.M - N x C + F B. F - C + N x M
C.N + M - F x C D. M x N - C + F

BLOOD RELATIONS (Home Assignment)

1. Pointing to a photograph of a girl Anuj said, "She is the daughter of the only son of my father."
How is Anuj related to that girl?

A. Brother B. Father

C. Aunt D. Data Inadequate

2. If P - Q means P is the brother Q; P + Q means P is the mother of Q; P % Q means P is the father of

Q and P x Q means P is the sister of Q, which of the following shows that A is the maternal uncle of
B?

A. Q-N+MxA B. A+SxN-B

C. A-M+NxB D. B-S%A

3. If P is the brother of Q; Q is the sister of R; and R is the father of S, how P is related to S?

A. Uncle B. Niece

C. Nephew D. Cannot be determined

4. If S - R means S is the sister of R; S + R means S is the brother of R and S x R means S is the father
of R. Which of the following means that P is the son of Q?

A. Q-NxP+F B. F-PxNxQ

C. N+Q-FxP D. QxN-P+F

5. Introducing a girl, a boy said, "she is the only daughter of the daughter of the father of my uncle."
How is the boy related to the girl?

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 (Blood Relations -Amit Garg) Answer Key

A. Cousin B. Nephew

C. Uncle D. Son-in-law

6. Pointing to a photograph Sneha says, "She is the wife of the only son of my grandmother." How
is the girl in the photograph related to Sneha?

A. Sister B. Aunt

C. Mother D. Data is inadequate

7. If P + Q means P is the brother of B; P x Q means P is the son of Q; and P % Q means Q is the

daughter of P then which of the following means C is the maternal uncle of D?

A. C+TxD B. C%TxD+R

C. C+T%D D. None of these

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 (Blood Relations -Amit Garg) Answer Key

ANSWERS
1. (a)
2. (d) Either b or C
3. (d) Can’t determined
4. (d) uncle
5. (a) Brother
6. (d) Sister-in-Law
7. (d) Granddaughter
8. (d) C is the brother of A
9. (a) Cousin
10. (d) Father-in-Law
11. (C) Father or Uncle
12. (c) Niece
13. (a) Husband
14. (c)
15. (d)
16. (c)
17. (d)

Blood Relation- Home Assignment

1. B
2. C
3. A
4. D
5. A
6. D
7. D

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 (Calendar-Amit Garg)

1. Odd Days:
We are supposed to find the day of the week on a given date.
For this, we use the concept of 'odd days'.
In a given period, the number of days more than the complete weeks are called odd
days.

2. Leap Year:
(i) Every year divisible by 4 is a leap year, if it is not a century.
(ii) Every 4th century is a leap year and no other century is a leap year.
Note: A leap year has 366 days.
Examples:
(i) Each of the years 1944, 2008, 1776 etc. is a leap year.
(ii) Each of the years 400, 800, 1200, 1600, 2400 etc. is a leap year.
(iii) None of the years 2001, 2002, 2003, 2005, 2006, 1900, 2100, 2200 is a leap
year.

3. Ordinary Year:
The year which is not a leap year is called an ordinary years. An ordinary year has
365 days.

4. Counting of Odd Days:

1. 1 ordinary year = 365 days = (52 weeks + 1 day.)
1 ordinary year has 1 odd day.
2. 1 leap year = 366 days = (52 weeks + 2 days)
1 leap year has 2 odd days.
3. 100 years = 76 ordinary years + 24 leap years
= (76 x 1 + 24 x 2) odd days = 124 odd days.
= (17 weeks + days) 5 odd days.
Number of odd days in 100 years = 5.
Number of odd days in 200 years = (5 x 2) 3 odd days.
Number of odd days in 300 years = (5 x 3) 1 odd day.
Number of odd days in 400 years = (5 x 4 + 1) 0 odd day.
Similarly, each one of 800 years, 1200 years, 1600 years, 2000 years, 2400 years
etc. has 0 odd days.

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 (Calendar-Amit Garg)

Day of the Week Related to Odd Days:

No. of days: 0 1 2 3 4 5 6

Day: Sun. Mon. Tues. Wed. Thurs. Fri. Sat.

For Questions 1 to 28 take

1st Jan 2001- Monday as Reference
1. 1 Jan 2013
15. 1 Oct 2012

2. 1 Jan 2014
16. 15 Aug 2013

3. 1 Jan 2015
17. 27 Nov 2013

4. 1 Jan 2016
18. 02 Oct 2013

5. 1 Jan 2017
19. 19 May 2013

6. 1 Jan 2012
20. 26 Sep 2012

7. 1 Jan 2011
21. 15 July 2012

8. 1 Jan 2008
22. 4 Jan 2012

9. 1 Feb 2013
23. 1 Feb 2014

10. 1 March 2013

24. 7 July 2014

11. 1 April 2013

25. 7 march 2014

12. 1 May 2013

26. 15 Aug 2018

13. 1 Dec 2012

27. 15 Aug 2007

14. 1 Nov 2012

28. 2 July 2007

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 (Calendar-Amit Garg)

29. The calendar of year 2010 will (c) 2034

(d) 2040
repeat next in year _________
(a) 2016
(b) 2017 31. The calendar of year 2013 will
(c) 2021 repeat next in year _________
(d) 2038 (a) 2019
(b) 2022
30. The calendar of year 2012 will (c) 2024
(d) 2039
repeat next in year _________
(a) 2017
(b) 2023

HOME ASSIGNMENT
1. How many odd days are there in
742841 days? 3. What day of the week is the
(a) 3 (b) 2 Independence Day in a year if the
(c) 1 (d) zero Republic day in India that year is on
a Thursday?
(a) Thursday (b) Wednesday
(c) Monday (d) cannot be
determined

2. If 25 April 1993 was a Thursday,

then what day of the week was 6 th
November 1993? 4. Imagine that in a calendar year,
(a) Sunday (b) Wednesday there were 436 days and 9 days in
(c) Monday (d) Tuesday a week, then how many odd days
would be there in that year?
(a) 3 (b) 2
(c) 1 (d) 4

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 (Calendar-Amit Garg)

Feb of a particular year is a Friday,

is 25th Sep of that year a holiday?
(a) yes
(b) no
(c) yes, provided that the year is
definitely a leap year.
5. I met my friend on 3 April 1995, (d) yes, provided that the year is
which was a Monday and promised definitely not a leap year.
to meet him again in the month of
October in the same year – but only
on a Sunday. On which of the
following days could I meet my
friend?
a. 7th, 14th, 21st, 28th
b. 1st, 8th, 15th, 22nd, 29th 8. If today is Tuesday, what day will it
nd th th rd th
c. 2 , 9 , 16 , 23 , 30 be 2 years and 20 days from now?
d. none of these (a) Wednesday (b) Thursday
(c) Tuesday (d) cannot be
determined

9. If first day of the year 2005 was a

6. Which among the following is a leap Saturday, what would be the last
year? day of year 2009?
(a) 2600 (b) 2700 (a) Sunday (b) Saturday
(c) 2800 (d) 2900 (c) Thursday (d) Friday

7. If in a country, holidays are

declared only on Fridays and 19 th
4

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 (Calendar-Amit Garg)

13. January 1, 2007 was Monday.

10. Which of the following is not a leap What day of the week lies on Jan.
year? 1, 2008?
(a) 700 (b) 800 (a) Monday (b) Tuesday
(c) 1200 (d) 2000 (c) Wednesday (d) Sunday

14. It was Monday on Jan 1, 2007.

th
11. On 8 Dec, 2007 Saturday falls. What was the day of the week Jan
What day of the week was it on 1, 2010?
8th Dec, 2006? (a) Sunday (b) Saturday
(a) Sunday (b) Thursday (c) Friday (d) Wednesday
(c) Tuesday (d) Friday

15. What was the day of the week on

12. January 1, 2008 is Tuesday. What 28th May, 2008?
day of the week lies on Jan 1, (a) Thursday (b) Wednesday
2009? (c) Saturday (d) Sunday
(a) Monday (b) Wednesday
(c) Thursday (d) Sunday

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 (Calendar-Amit Garg)

16. What was the day of the week on

7th June, 1999?
(a) Monday (b) Tuesday
(c) Wednesday (d) Thursday
20. On what dates of April, 2011 did
Monday fall?
(a) 1st, 8th, 15th, 22nd, 29th
(b) 2nd, 9th, 16th, 23rd, 30th
(c) 3rd, 10th, 17th, 24th
(d) 4th, 11th, 18th, 25th

17. What will be the day of the week

15th August, 2015? 21. How many days are there
(a) Sunday (b) Monday in 2x weeks x days?
(c) Tuesday (d) Saturday (a) 7x2 (b) 15x
(c) 14x (d) 7

22. On 8th Feb, 2005 it was Tuesday.

What was the day of the week on
8th Feb, 2004?
18. Today is Tuesday. After 61 days, it (a) Tuesday (b) Monday
will be: (c) Sunday (d) Wednesday
(a) Wednesday (b) Sunday
(c) Tuesday (d) Thursday

23. The calendar for the year 2007 will

19. If 6th March, 2006 is Tuesday, what be the same for the year:
was the day of the week on (a) 2014 (b) 2016
th
6 March, 2003? (c) 2017 (d) 2018
(a) Sunday (b) Saturday
(c) Thursday (d) Friday

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 (Calendar-Amit Garg)

ANSWERS
Home assignment (Calendar)
Assignment Calendar 1. (c) 1
2. (b) Wednesday
1. Tuesday
3. (d)
2. Wed
4. (d) 4
3. Thursday
5. (b)
4. Fri
6. (c) 2800
5. Sun
7. (b) no
6. Sun
8. (d)
7. Saturday
9. (c) Thursday
8. Tuesday
10. (a) 700
9. Fri
11. (d) Friday
10. Friday
12. (c) Thursday
11. Monday
13. (b) Tuesday
12. Wednesday
14. (c) Friday
13. Saturday
15. (b) Wednesday
14. Thursday
16. (a) Monday
15. Mon
17. (d) Saturday
16. Thursday
18. (b) Sunday
17. Wednesday
19. (d) Friday
18. Wednesday
20. (d)
19. Sun
21. (b) 15x
20. Wednesday
22. (c) Sunday
21. Sunday
23. (d) 2018
22. Wednesday
23. Saturday
24. Monday
25. Friday
26. Wednesday
27. Wednesday
28. Monday
29. (c) 2021
30. (d) 2040
31. (a) 2019
7

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 Clock Handout (IASSETU)

1. Find the angle between minute hand and hour hand at 12:30
2. Find the angle between minute hand and hour hand at 12:40
3. Find the angle between minute hand and hour hand at 01:20
4. Find the angle between minute hand and hour hand at 02:30
5. Find the angle between minute hand and hour hand at 03:40
6. Find the angle between minute hand and hour hand at 05:50
7. Find the angle between minute hand and hour hand at 06:35
8. Find the angle between minute hand and hour hand at 08:50
9. At what time between 2’o clock and 3’o clock, the minute hand and the hour hand will coincide
with each other?
10. At what time between 3’o clock and 4’o clock, the minute hand and the hour hand will coincide
with each other?
11. At what time between 4’o clock and 5’o clock, the minute hand and the hour hand will coincide
with each other?
12. At what time between 5’o clock and 6’o clock, the minute hand and the hour hand will coincide
with each other?
13. At what time between 6’o clock and 7’o clock, the minute hand and the hour hand will coincide
with each other?
14. At what time between 7’o clock and 8’o clock, the minute hand and the hour hand will coincide
with each other?
15. At what time between 4’o clock and 5’o clock, the minute hand and the hour hand will make an
angle of 90 ᵒ with each other?
16. At what time between 4’o clock and 5’o clock, the minute hand and the hour hand will make an
angle of 60 ᵒ with each other?
17. At what time between 4’o clock and 5’o clock, the minute hand and the hour hand will make an
angle of 30 ᵒ with each other?
18. At what time between 5’o clock and 6’o clock, the minute hand and the hour hand will make an
angle of 90 ᵒ with each other?
19. At what time between 5’o clock and 6’o clock, the minute hand and the hour hand will make an
angle of 60 ᵒ with each other?
20. At what time between 6’o clock and 7’o clock, the minute hand and the hour hand will make an
angle of 30 ᵒ with each other?

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 Compound Interest (IASSETU)

Compound Interest
1. Sanjay invested an amount of Rs. 10,000 at compound interest rate of 10 per cent per annum for a
period of three years. How much amount will Sanjay get after 3 years?

2. Sandeep invested an amount of Rs. 16,000 for two years at compound interest and received an amount
of Rs. 17,640 on maturity. What is the rate of interest?

3. Pankaj invested an amount of Rs. 15,000 at compound interest rate of 10 percent per annum for a period
of 2 years. What amount will be received at the end of two years?

4. A sum of money at compound interest amounts to thrice of itself in three years. In how many years will it
be 9 times itself?

5. At what rate percent will the compound interest does a sum of money become four fold in 2 years?

6. A sum of Money Placed at compound Interest doubles itself in 4 Yrs. In how many years will it amount to
eight times itself?

7. Simple interest on a sum of 4% per annum for 2 years is Rs. 80. The compound interest on the same
sum for the same period is –

8. A sum of Money Placed at compound Interest triples itself in 3 Yrs. In how many years will it amount to
Twenty Seven times itself?

9. At what Rate percent compounded yearly will Rs 80000 amount to Rs 88200 in 2 yrs?

ANSWERS

1.Rs13310
2.5%
3.18150
4.6Years
5.100%
6. 12 Yrs
7.Rs81.6
8.9Yrs
9.5%

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 (Cubes)
No. of Cuts Minimum no. of pieces Maximum no. of pieces

10

12

13

16

19

14

21

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 CUBE

Introduction:
 In a cube or a cuboid there are six faces in all.
 In a cube, the length, breadth and height are same while in cuboid these are
different.
 In a cube the number of unit cubes = (side)3.
 In cuboid the number of unit cube = (l x b x h).

Example:
A cube of each side 4 cm has been painted black, red and green on opposite faces. It is
then cut into small cubes of each side 1 cm.

The following questions and answers are based on the information give above:

1. How many small cubes will be there?

Total no. of cubes = (sides)3 = (4)3 = 64.

2. How many small cubes will have three faces painted?

From the figure it is clear that the small cube having three faces coloured are
situated at the corners of the big cube because at these corners only three faces of
the big cube meet.
Therefore the required number of such cubes is always 8, because there are 8
corners.

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3. How many small cubes will
have only two faces
painted?
From the figure it is clear that
to each edge of the big cube
4 small cubes are connected
and two out of them are
situated at the corners of the
big cube which have all three
faces painted.

Thus, to edge two small

cubes are left which have two
faces painted. As the total no.
of edges in a cube are 12.

Hence the no. of small cubes with two faces coloured = 12 x 2 = 24

(or)
No. of small cubes with two faces coloured = (x - 2) x No. of edges
where x = (side of big cube / side of small cube)

4. How many small cubes will

have only one face painted?
The cubes which are painted on
one face only are the cubes at
the centre of each face of the
big cube.

Since there are 6 faces in the

big cube and each of the face of
big cube there will be four small
cubes.

Hence, in all there will be 6 x 4

= 24 such small cubes (or) (x -
2)2 x 6.

5. How many small cubes will

have no faces painted?
No. of small cubes will have no faces painted = No. of such small cubes
= (x - 2)3 [ Here x = (4/1) = 4 ]
= (4 - 2)3

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 = 8.

6. How many small cubes will have only two faces painted in black and green and
all other faces unpainted?
There are 4 small cubes in layer II and 4 small cubes in layer III which have two
faces painted green and black.
Required no. of such small cubes = 4 + 4 = 8.

7. How many small cubes will have only two faces painted green and red?
No. of small cubes having two faces painted green and red = 4 + 4 = 8.

8. How many small cubes will have only two faces painted black and red?
No. of small cubes having two faces painted black and red = 4 + 4 = 8.

9. How many small cubes will have only black painted?

There will be 8 small cubes which have only black paint. Four cubes will be form one
side and 4 from the opposite side.

10. How many small cubes will be

only red painted?
No. of small cubes having only
red paint = 4 + 4 = 8.

11. How many small cubes will be

only green painted?
No. of small cubes having only
green paint = 4 + 4 = 8.

12. How many small cubes will

have at least one face
painted?
No. of small cubes having at
least one face painted = No. of
small cubes having 1 face painted + 2 faces painted + 3 faces painted
= 24 + 24 + 8
= 56.

13. How many small cubes will have at least two faces painted?
No. of small cubes having at least two faces painted = No. of small cubes having two
faces painted + 3 faces painted

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 = 24 + 8
= 32.

The following questions (14 to 17) are based on the information given below:
1. All the faces of cubes are painted with green colour.
2. The cube is cut into 64 equal small cubes.

14. How many small cubes have only one face coloured?
A. 4 B. 8 C. 16 D. 24

15. How many small cubes have no faces coloured?

A. 24 B. 8 C. 16 D. 0

16. How many small cubes are there whose three faces are coloured?
A. 4 B. 8 C. 16 D. 24

17. How many small cubes are there whose atleast two adjacent faces are coloured
green?
A. 32 B. 8 C. 16 D. 24

The following questions (18 to 21) are based on the information given below:
All the opposite faces of a big cube are coloured with red, black and yellow colours. After
that is cut into 64 small equal cubes.

18. How many small cubes are there whose no faces are coloured?
A. 0 B. 4 C. 8 D. 16

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19. How many small cubes are there whose 3 faces are coloured?
A. 4 B. 8 C. 16 D. 24

20. How many small cubes are there whose only one face is coloured?
A. 32 B. 8 C. 16 D. 24

21. How many small cubes are there whose at least two faces are coloured?
A. 48 B. 56 C. 32 D. 24

The following questions (22 and 23) are based on the information given below:
All the faces of a cube are painted with Orange colour. Then it is cut into 125 small equal
cubes.
22. How many small cubes will be formed having only one face coloured?
A. 54 B. 8 C. 16 D. 24

23. How many small cubes will be formed having no face coloured?
A. 27 B. 8 C. 16 D. 24

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 Cube and Dice(AmitGarg)

1. How many dots lie opposite to the (a) Opposite of 2

face having three dots, when the (b) Opposite of 3
given figure is folded to form a (c) Opposite of 4
cube? (d) Opposite of 6

4. Four views of one cube are given

below. Each of the six faces of
cube is numbered. In Figure 3
which number will be opposite to
the face with number 3?

(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 5 (a) 1

(d) 6 (b) 2
(c) 5
(d) 6
2. Two different positions of the
same dice are shown below. If
digit 1 to be on the base, which 5. Two positions of a dice are shown.
When 4 is at the bottom, what
one among the following digits will
number will be on the top?
be on the top?

(a) 2 (a) 1
(b) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4 (c) 5

(d) 5 (d) 6

3. Where is the invisible number in 6. What will be the number at the

bottom, if 5 is at the top; the two
the two positions of the same
cube? positions of the dice being as
given below:

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 Cube and Dice(AmitGarg)

(d) 4
9. Two positions of a dice are shown
below:

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3 When number 3 is at the bottom,
(d) 6 which no. will be at the top?
(a) 4
7. What number is opposite 3 in the (b) 5
figure shown below? The given (c) 2
two positions are of the same dice (d) 1
whose each surface bears a
number among 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 & 6. 10. Two positions of a dice are shown
below. Identify the number at the
bottom when the top is '3'?

(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 5 (a) 2
(d) 6 (b) 4
(c) 5
8. The following diagram depicts (d) 6
various views of a cube. Each face
has some number. Which face is 11. Three positions of a dice are
opposite to 6? given. Based on them find out
which number is found opposite
the number 2 in the given cube.

(a) 1
(b) 5
(c) 6 (a) 6

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 Cube and Dice(AmitGarg)

(b) 5
(c) 3
(d) 1

12. The six faces of a dice have been

marked with alphabets A, B, C, D, (a) 3
E and F respectively. This dice is (b) 4
rolled down three times. The three (c) 5
positions are shown as: (d) 6

15. Some positions of dice are shown

below:

Find the alphabet opposite A.

(a) C
(b) D What is the number opposite to 4?
(c) E (a) 6
(d) F (b) 5
(c) 2
13. Three views of a cube following a (d) 1
particular motion are given below:
16. Two positions of a cube are given.
Based on them find out which
number is found opposite number
4 in a given cube?
What is the letter opposite to A?
(a) H
(b) P
(c) B
(d) M (a) 1
(b) 2
14. A dice is thrown four times and its (c) 3
four different positions are shown (d) 4
below. Find the number on the
face opposite the face showing 2. 17. Three positions of a cube are
given. Based on them, find out,

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 Cube and Dice(AmitGarg)

which number is found opposite 20. Each of the six different faces of a
number 2 in a given cube? cube has been coated with a
different colour, i.e. V, I, B, G, Y
and O. Following information is
given:
(i) Colours Y, O and B are on the
(a) 3 adjacent faces.
(b) 5 (ii) Colour I, G and Y are on the
(c) 1 adjacent faces.
(d) 6 (iii) Colour B, G and Y are on the
adjacent faces.
18. Two positions of a dice are shown (iv) Colour O, V and B are on the
below. When number 1 is on the adjacent faces.
top, what no. Will be at the Which is the colour of the face
bottom? opposite to the face coloured with
O?
(a) B
(b) V
(c) G
(a) 3 (d) I
(b) 5
(c) 2 21. A cube has six numbers marked 1,
(d) 6 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 on its faces. Three
views of the cube are shown
19. From the following two different below:
appearance of a die, find out the
colour which is opposite to Red:

(a) Blue
(b) White
(c) Yellow (a) 2 and 3
(d) None of these. (b) 6 and 1
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 3 and 1

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 Cube and Dice(AmitGarg)

22. A Cuboid has six sides of different 24. I Indigo, O Orange, V Violet, R
colours. The red side is opposite Red, G Green and B Blue. Which
to black. The blue side is adjacent colour is opposite to Green in the
to white. The brown side is figure given below?
adjacent to blue. The red side is
face down. Which one of the
following would be the opposite of
brown?
(a) Red (a) Indigo
(b) Black (b) Blue
(c) White (c) Violet
(d) Blue (d) Orange

23. Each of the different faces of a

cube has been coated with a 25.
different colour, i.e. Red, Yellow,
Blue, Green, White and Orange.
Following information is given:
(1) Colours white, Orange and Each of the six faces of a cube is
Blue are on the adjacent numbered by one of the six digits
faces. from 1 to 6. This cube is shown in
(2) Colours yellow, Green and its four different positions in the
white are on the adjacent different figures. Consider the
faces. following statements:
(3) Colours Blue, Green and (1) Figures II and III are sufficient
White are on the adjacent to know as to which face is
faces. opposite to the face numbered
(4) Colours Orange, Red and 6.
Blue are on the adjacent (2) Figures II and III are sufficient
faces. to know as to which face is
Which is the colour of the face opposite to the face numbered
opposite to the face coloured with 4.
Orange? (3) Figures I and IV are sufficient
(a) Blue to know as to which face is
(b) Red opposite to the face numbered
(c) Green 3.
(d) Yellow

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 Cube and Dice(AmitGarg)

Which of the statements given (b) Blue, black, red, yellow

above are correct? (c) Red, black, blue, yellow
(a) 1 and 3 only (d) None of these
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only 29. Which face is opposite to green?
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (a) Red
(b) Yellow
Directions to solve: (c) Blue
All the six faces of a cube are coloured (d) Brown
with six different colours - black, brown,
green, red, yellow and blue. 30. Six squares are coloured, front
(1) Red face is opposite to the black and back, red (R), blue (B), yellow
face. (Y), green (G), white (W) and
(2) Green face is between red and orange (O) and are hinged
black faces. together as shown in the figure
(3) Blue face is adjacent to yellow given below. If they are folded to
face. form a cube, what would be the
(4) Brown face is adjacent to blue face opposite the white face?
face.
(5) Red face is in the bottom.

26. The upper face is ________

(a) Yellow
(b) Black
(c) Brown
(d) None of these (a) R
(b) G
27. The face opposite to brown is (c) B
______ (d) O
(a) Blue
(b) Yellow 31. Three different positions of a dice
(c) Green are shown below. How many dots
(d) Red lie opposite 2 dots?

28. Which of the following is adjacent

to green?
(a) Black, yellow, brown, red

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 Cube and Dice(AmitGarg)

34. The following diagram shows the

(a) 1 different view of same cube. Find
(b) 3 out how many spots are on face
(c) 5 directly opposite to the face of the
(d) 6 cube having 6 spots:

32. Observe the dots on a dice (one to

six dots) in the following figures.
How many dots are contained on
the face opposite to that
containing four dots?
(a) 1
(b) 3
(c) 5
(d) 2
(a) 2
(b) 3 35. A dice is rolled twice and the two
(c) 5 positions are shown in the figure
(d) Cannot be determined below. What is the number of dots
at the bottom face when the dice is
33. Study the two different positions of in position (i)?
a cube given below with dots from
1 to 6 marked on its faces. Find
out how many dots are contained
on the face opposite to that
containing 4 dots.
(a) 1
(b) 5
(c) 6
(d) Cannot be determined

(a) 1 36. Below are depicted the three

(b) 2 different positions of a dice. Find
(c) 3 the number of dots on the face
(d) 5 opposite to the face with one dot.

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 Cube and Dice(AmitGarg)

(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 6 (a) 2
37. Two positions of a parallelepiped (b) 3
are shown below. When the (c) 4
number 3 will be on the top side, (d) 6
then which number will be at the 40. A cube of length 1 cm is taken out
bottom? from a cube of length 6 cm. What
is the weight of the remaining
portion?
(a) 5/6 of the weight of the
original cube
(b) 6/7 of the weight of the
(a) 1 original cube
(b) 4 (c) 35/36 of the weight of the
(c) 5 original cube
(d) 6 (d) 215/216 of the weight of the
original cube
38. If the total number of dots on 41. A cube of length 1cm is taken out
opposite faces of a cubical block is from a cube of length 8 cm. What
always 7, find the figure which is is the weight of the remaining
correct. portion?
(a) 7/8 of the weight of original
cube
(b) 8/9 of the weight of original
cube
(a) Fig. 1 (c) 63/64 of the weight of original
(b) Fig. 2 cube
(c) Fig. 3 (d) 511/512 of the weight of
(d) Fig. 4 original cube

39. Two positions of a block are given

below. When 1 is at the top, which
number will be at the bottom?

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 Cube and Dice(AmitGarg)

DiceAnswerKey 36. D
37. C
1. D
38. B
2. A
39. D
3. A
40. D
4. A
41. D
5. A
6. B
7. C
8. D
9. C
10. C
11. A
12. C
13. A
14. C
15. D
16. B
17. D
18. B
19. A
20. C
21. A
22. C
23. C
24. D
25. D
26. B
27. B
28. A
29. C
30. C
31. C
32. A
33. C
34. A
35. C
9

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 CSAT Handout by Amit Garg {Class Assignment (Pie-Chart)} IASSETU

Directions for questions 1 to 11: Study the given pie chart and answer the questions
that follow.

Pie – Chart given below represents the cost analysis of a book by Tata McGraw Hill.

1. What is the central angle (in

degrees) for ‘Paper Cost”? 4. What is the central angle (in
degrees) for ‘Royalty”?

2. What is the central angle (in

degrees) for ‘Printing”? 5. If the cost of Paper Cost is Rs
46,800 what would the cost of
Miscellaneous head be?
(a) 4,680
(b) 13,000
(c) 9,360
(d) 16,500
3. What is the central angle (in
degrees) for ‘Proof Reading”?
1

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 CSAT Handout by Amit Garg {Class Assignment (Pie-Chart)} IASSETU

6. If the cost of Printing is Rs 22,320, 9. The expenditure on Paper Cost of

what would the cost of book is more than the Proof
miscellaneous head be? Reading expenditure by
(a) 10,980 (a) 20%
(b) 11,150
(b) 125%
(c) 11,160
(c) 225%
(d) 12,400
(d) None of these

7. If Proof Reading expenditure

amounts to Rs. 36,000 then what is
the expenditure on Printing? 10. The expenditure on Proof Reading
(a) 40,000 of book is more than the Editing
(b) 42,000
expenditure by
(c) 40,500
(a) 25%
(d) None of these
(b) 4%
(c) 125%
(d) 33.33%

8. The expenditure on Royalty of book

is less than the Printing expenditure
by 11. The expenditure on Editing of book
(a) 10%
is less than the Proof Reading
(b) 44.44%
expenditure by
(c) 55.55%
(a) 25%
(d) Cannot be determined
(b) 33.33%
(c) 4%

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 CSAT Handout by Amit Garg {Class Assignment (Pie-Chart)} IASSETU

(d) None of these

Directions for questions 12 to 17: The following pie chart represents the percentage
breakup of monthly expenditure of Arun.

12. If Arun earns Rs. 48,000 monthly, 13. If Arun earns Rs. 48,000 monthly,
then how much more does he then how much less does he spend
spend on House Rent than on Food on House Rent than on Transport
and Clothes together? and Clothes together?
(a) 1920 (a) 1920
(b) 2400 (b) 2400
(c) 2880 (c) 2880
(d) 1440 (d) 1440

14. If a new pie chart is drawn by taking

the House Rent, Education and

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 CSAT Handout by Amit Garg {Class Assignment (Pie-Chart)} IASSETU

Transport expenses as one part and

Clothes, Food and Saving as the
second part what is the angle made 16. Arun deposits 40% of Savings in
by first part (House Rent, Education Post office amounting to Rs. 5000.
and Transport)? How much does he spend on
(a) 70° Clothes?
(b) 216° (a) 30,000
(c) 252° (b) 40,000
(d) Cannot be determined (c) 32,500
15. If a new pie chart is drawn by taking (d) 37,500
the House Rent, Education and
Transport expenses as one part and
Clothes, Food and Saving as the
second part what is the ratio of
angle made by first part (House
Rent, Education and Transport) and
second part (Clothes, Food and
Saving)? 17. If Arun spends 10,000 on
(a) 5:2 Education, then how much does he
(b) 3:7 spend on Clothes (approx)?
(c) 7:3 (a) 7140
(d) 7:10 (b) 6140
(c) 8140
(d) Cannot be determined

Directions for questions 18 to 26: Study the given pie chart and answer the questions
that follow. The Pie-Chart shows the Loan to various sectors namely industrial,
Agriculture, Home Loan, Animal husbandry, SME and Others for 2010-11 and 2011-12.

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 CSAT Handout by Amit Garg {Class Assignment (Pie-Chart)} IASSETU

2010-11 2011-12

18. By what %, Loan in Agriculture (c) 4 sectors

sector increased in 2011-12 over (d) Cannot be determined
2010-11?
(a) 66.66%
(b) 12%
(c) 166.66%
(d) Cannot be determined 21. What is the number of sectors in
which Loan has definitely
decreased over the given period?
(a) 2 sectors
(b) 3 sectors
19. By what % Loan in Industrial sector (c) 4 sectors
decreased in 2011-12 over (d) Cannot be determined
2010-11?
(a) 83.33%
(b) 20%
(c) 80%
(d) Cannot be determined 22. If the total Loan allocation in
2011-12 is 1.5 times of the total
loan allocation in 2010-11 then how
many sectors have definitely
increased loan allocation by more
20. What is the number of sectors in than 20% during the same period?
which Loan has definitely increased (a) 2 sectors
over the given period? (b) 3 sectors
(a) 2 sectors (c) 4 sectors
(b) 3 sectors (d) Cannot be determined

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 CSAT Handout by Amit Garg {Class Assignment (Pie-Chart)} IASSETU

25. If the total Loan allocation in

23. If the total Loan allocation in 2011-12 is 1.5 times of the total
2011-12 is 1.5 times of the total loan allocation in 2010-11 then what
loan allocation in 2010-11 then what is the percentage increase in Loan
is the percentage increase in Loan allocation in Agriculture sector in
allocation in Industrial sector in the the given period?
given period? (a) 20%
(a) 20% (b) 150%
(b) 25% (c) 250%
(c) 50% (d) None of these
(d) None of these

24. If the total Loan allocation in

2011-12 is 1.2 times of the total
loan allocation in 2010-11 then what
is the percentage increase in Loan 26. If the total Loan allocation in
allocation in Industrial sector in the 2011-12 is 1.5 times of the total
given period? loan allocation in 2010-11 then what
(a) 43% is the percentage increase in Loan
(b) 0% allocation in others sector in the
(c) 100% given period?
(d) Cannot be determined (a) 125%
(b) 100%
(c) 0%
(d) None of these

Directions for questions 27 to 35: Study the pie charts given below and answer the
following questions. The break-up of the volume share, in Delhi, by different car

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 CSAT Handout by Amit Garg {Class Assignment (Pie-Chart)} IASSETU

companies for years 2011-12 is shown in figure I. The breakup of the car market
according to different cities (in India) for year2011-12 is shown in figure II.

27. If in the year 2011-12, the total (d) Cannot be determined

number of cars sold in India were
4.5 lakh, then how many Marutis
were sold?
(a) 2 lakh
(b) 0.8 Lakh
(c) 1.6 lakh 29. If in the year 2011-12, the total
(d) Data inadequate number of Maruti cars sold in Delhi
were 0.4 lakh, then how many Cars
were sold in India?
(a) 2.5 lakh
(b) 2.25 lakh
(c) 2.30 lakh
28. If in the year 2011-12, the total (d) Cannot be determined
number of cars sold in India were
4.5 lakh, then how many Tata 30. If in the year 2011-12, the total
Motors were sold in Delhi? number of cars sold in India were
(a) 20,000 7.5 lakh, then how much more cars
(b) 40,000 were sold in Delhi than Mumbai and
(c) 60,000 Pune together?

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 CSAT Handout by Amit Garg {Class Assignment (Pie-Chart)} IASSETU

(a) 35,000 32. If in the year 2011-12, the total

(b) 37,500 number of cars sold in Delhi were
(c) 40,000 2.7 lakh, then how much less cars
(d) None of these were sold of Tata motors than
Hyundai?
(a) 30,000
(b) 24,000
(c) 15,000
31. If in the year 2011-12, the total (d) 12,000
number of cars sold in Delhi were
2.7 lakh, then how much more cars 33. Find the total sales of cars in the
were sold of Maruti than Hyundai? year 2011-12 in India if Maruti 800
(a) 25,000 constituted 10% of Maruti cars sold
(b) 75,000 in Delhi and 40,000 Maruti 800
(c) 40,000 were sold in Delhi in 2011-12?
(d) Cannot be determined (a) 20 Lakh
(b) 22.5 Lakh
(c) 27.5 Lakh
(d) Cannot be determined

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 CSAT (IASSETU)
Class Assignment (Data Interpretation – Lecture 2)
Directions for Questions 1 to 4: The Triangular diagram given below shows the
percentage of students having passed the X standard examination in I, II or III divisions. The
students belong to three schools- Emerald Public school, Delhi Public school and Salwan
Public school. The number of students in Emerald Public, Delhi Public and Salwan Public
schools are 500, 750 and 470 respectively. Refer to the diagram and answer the following
questions:

1. The total number of students Public School bears to the total

passing in I division from the three number of students passing in II
schools is: division from Emerald public
(a) 592 school, a ratio of:
(b) 666 (a) 5:6
(c) 588 (b) 2:5
(d) 572 (c) 7:11
(d) 5:2

4. The total number of students

2. The total number of students
passing in division II forms what
passing in II division from the
percentage of the total students in
three schools is:
X standard in the three schools
(a) 660
(Approx)?
(b) 625
(a) 58.9%
(c) 676
(b) 28.9%
(d) 619
(c) 35.9%
3. The total number of students
(d) 46.9%
passing in II division from Delhi

Directions for Questions 5 to 8:

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 CSAT (IASSETU)
Class Assignment (Data Interpretation – Lecture 2)

The Triangular diagram given above represents the percentage of students opting for
Medical, Non-Medical and Commerce as majors in the schools A to E.
The number of students in various schools is as follows:
A 100 C 300 E 500
B 200 D 400
5. The number of students who 7. The total number of enrolments in
opted for Medical in schools C and Medical for all the schools put
E together is: together is:
(a) 180 (a) 160
(b) 210 (b) 340
(c) 240 (c) 430
(d) None of these (d) None of these

6. The number of students who have 8. The number of students who

opted for Commerce in School E opted for Non Medical in school B
exceeds the number of students forms what percentage of the
who have opted for Commerce in people who opted for Commerce
School D by how much in school D?
percentage (approx)? (a) 25%
(a) 70% (b) 33.33%
(b) 40% (c) 50%
(c) 190% (d) Cannot be determined
(d) Cannot be determined
Directions for Questions 9 to 12: Refer to the diagram below and answer the questions
that follow. The following triangular graph shows the percentage break-up of the various
types of tax collections of four states namely Haryana (H), Punjab (P), Maharashtra (M) and
Karnataka (K).

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 CSAT (IASSETU)
Class Assignment (Data Interpretation – Lecture 2)

Percentage break-up of the tax collections of four countries

9. If the total tax collection of state M

is Rs 12,000 crores and that of 11. If the Sales Tax of state P is Rs
state K is Rs 10,000 crores, find 2,500 lakh, its Value Added Tax is
the difference in their Value Added ............ of its total tax collection
Tax collection. (a) 3/8
(a) 1500 Crore (b) 1/4
(b) 2000 Crore (c) 3/32
(c) 2500 Crore (d) Cannot be determined
(d) None of these
12. If the Entertainment Tax of state K
10. If the Entertainment Tax of state H is Rs 7,500 lakh, its Sales Tax is
amounts to Rs 5,000 lakh, then its ............ of its total tax collection.
Value Added Tax collection is ? (a) 1/8
(a) 2500 Lakh (b) 5/8
(b) 5000 Lakh (c) 5/64
(c) 7500 Lakh (d) None of these
(d) Cannot be determined

Directions for Questions 13-17: A wholesale dealer of readymade garments sent a

consignment of two brands of shirt to a retailer by goods-train. However, the consignment
was tempered in transit and the retailer refused to accept it. Meanwhile, the wholesaler also
lost the details of consignment in a fire in his accounting office. Later on only the following
data about the number of shirts sent could be recovered:

Brand Size

M L XL Total
A 63
B 252
Total 185

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 CSAT (IASSETU)
Class Assignment (Data Interpretation – Lecture 2)

A search for more data revealed the following facts about the consignment: 60% of all the
shirts were of size L or XL; Brand B shirts formed 45% of the consignment; 50% of Brand A
shirts were of M size. Based on the above information, kindly answer the following
questions:

13. What percentage of the Brand B (c) 63

shirts are of size L? (d) None of these
(a) 37%
(b) 25% 16. How many Brand B shirts are of
(c) 50% XL size?
(d) 33% (a) 88
(b) 63
14. What percentage of L size shirts (c) 94
belong to Brand A? (d) None of these
(a) 49%
(b) 42% 17. What is the ratio of Brand A to
(c) 52% Brand B shirts?
(d) 30% (a) 9:4
(b) 11:9
15. How many Brand A shirts are of L (c) 12:5
size? (d) 9:11
(a) 91
(b) 94
Directions for Questions 18-21: Two brothers, Harish and Sanjay bought four acres of land
in 1990 and started cultivating in 1991. They produced 1,000 kg Jowar per acre that year.
Being the elder brother, Harish decided the proportion in which the total production would be
shared. He retained 1,800 kg and gave the rest to Sanjay. In 1994, when the production was
twice that in 1991, Harish gave 60% of the production to Sanjay. Sanjay found that Harish
was more considerate in that year than in 1992, when he had received 2700 kg which was
only 200 kg more than Harish. In 1995, when the production was twice that of 1993, Harish
retained 9000 kg, which was 75% of the total production in 1995.

18. In 1991 Harish and Sanjay had 20. The quantity of Jowar received by
shared the production in the ratio: Harish in 1991 as a ratio of
(a) 1:1 quantity received in 1995 is closer
(b) 9:11 to:
(c) 11:9 (a) 1:2
(d) None of these (b) 1:3
(c) 1:5
19. The increase in the production (d) 1:4
between 1993 and 1994 was: 21. The quantity received by Sanjay in
(a) 1000 Kg 1994 was:
(b) 1500 Kg (a) Four times the production of
(c) 2000 Kg 1993
(d) 3500 Kg (b) One- fourth the production of
1993
(c) Twice the production of 1993
(d) 40% of the production of 1995

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 UPSC 2013:

1. How many Physics professors belong to the age group 35 - 44?

(a) 18 (b) 16 (c) 14 (d) 12

2. Which one of the following disciplines has the highest ratio of males to females?
(a) Physics (b) Mathematics (c) Chemistry (d) Economics

3. What percentage of all Psychology professors are females?

(a) 40% (b) 50% (c) 60% (d) 70%
4. If the number of female Physics professors in the age group 25 - 34 equals 25% of all the
Physics professors in that age group, then what is the number of male Physics professors in
the age group 25 - 34?
(a) 9 (b) 6 (c) 3 (d) 2

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5. If the Psychology professors in the University constitute 2% of all the professors in the
University, then what is the number of professors in the University?
(a) 400 (b) 500 (c) 600 (d) 700

Study the bar chart and answer the question based on it.

6. What was the percentage increase in the production of Rubber from 2005 to 2006?
(a) 33.33% (b) 60% (c) 25% (d) 15%

7. The average production of 2007 and 2008 was exactly equal to the average
production of which of the following pairs of years?
(a) 2005 and 2007 (b) 2009 and 2010
(c) 2008 and 2012 (d) 2005 and 2012

8. What was the percentage increase in production of Rubber in 2011 compared to that in
2005?
(a) 320% (b) 300% (c) 220% (d) 200%

9. In which year was the percentage increase in production as compared to the previous
year the maximum?
(a) 2011 (b) 2010 (c) 2006 (d) 2008

10. In how many of the given years was the production of Rubber less than the average
production of the given years?
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 4 (d) 5

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UPSC questions related to line graph

11. Consider the following Velocity - Time graph. It shows two trains starting
simultaneously on parallel tracks.

With reference to the above graph, which one of the

following statements is not correct?

(a) Train B has an initial acceleration greater than that of

Train A

(b) Train B is faster than Train A at all times.

(c) Both trains have the same velocity at time t0.

(d) Both trains travel the same distance in time t0 units.

12. Consider the following distance - time graph. The graph shows three athletes A, B
and C running side by side for a 30 km race.

With reference to the above graph, consider the following statements:

1. The race was won by A.

3

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 2. B was ahead of A up to 25 km mark.

3. C ran very slowly form the beginning.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

2013 prelims

13. Consider the following diagrams:

X men, working at constant speed, do a certain job in Y days. Which one of these
diagrams shows the relation between X and Y?

a) Diagram I b) Diagram II

c) Diagram III d) Diagram IV

Class Assignment:

The following sketch represents flow of Natural gas through pipelines between the cities A,
B, C, D and E. Answer the following questions.

14. What is the number of units demanded in B?

a) 350 b) 400

c) 450 d) 500

15. If the number of units demanded at C is 225, then what is the value of M?
a) 1075 b) 875
4

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 c) 775 d) 850

16. If the total demand in E is 80% of demand in A. What is the demand in A?

a) 2500 b) 2400

c) 4500 d) None of these

17. Assuming the information for Questions 1-3 to be true, what is the total demand in
the five cities?
a) 2925 b) 5775

c) 4325 d) Cannot be found

The following line graph gives the ratio of the amounts of imports by a company to the
amount of exports from that company over the period from 1995 to 2001.

Ratio of Value of Imports to Exports by a Company over the Years.

18. If the imports in 1998 was Rs. 500 crores and the total exports in the years 1998 and
1999 together was Rs. 1000 crores, then the imports in 1999 was?
(a) Rs. 500 crores (b) Rs. 600 crores
(c) Rs. 840 crores (d) Rs. 920 crores

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19. The imports were maximum proportionate to the exports of the company in the
year?
(a) 1995 (b) 1996
(c) 2001 (d) 2000

20. What was the percentage increase in imports from 1998 to 1999?
(a) 72 (b) 56
(c) 28 (d) Cannot be determined

21. If the imports of the company in 1998 was Rs. 275 crores, the exports from the
company in 1998 was ?
(a) Rs. 170 crores (b) Rs. 220 crores
(c) Rs. 280 crores (d) Rs. 275 crores

22. In how many of the given years were the imports more than the Exports?
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 4

23. In how many of the given years were the imports less than the Exports?
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 4

The following table gives the percentage of marks obtained by seven students in
six different subjects in an examination.

The Numbers in the Brackets give the Maximum Marks in Each

Subject.

Subject (Max. Marks)

Student English Hindi Sanskrit Physics Maths Chemistry
(150) (130) (120) (100) (100) (100)
Rohan 90 50 90 60 70 80
Anil 100 80 80 40 80 70
Sahid 90 60 70 70 90 70
Mohit 80 65 80 80 60 60
Komal 80 65 85 95 50 90
Amitabh 70 75 65 85 40 60
Tarvesh 65 35 50 77 80 80

24. What are the average marks obtained by all the seven students
6

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 in Sanskrit? (rounded off to two digit after decimal)
A. 74.26 B. 89.14

C. 91.37 D. 96.11

25. The number of students who obtained 60% and above marks in
all subjects is?
A. 1 B. 2

C. 3 D. None

26. What was the aggregate of marks obtained by Sahid in all the six
subjects?
A. 420 B. 430

C. 440 D. None of these

27. In which subject is the overall percentage the best?
A. English B. Hindi

C. Sanskrit D. Maths

28. What is the overall percentage of Tarvesh?

A. 52.5% B. 58%

C. 60% D. 63%

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 Direction Sense and Seating Arrangements(By Amit Garg) IASSETU

1. One morning Udai and Vishal were talking to each other face to face at a crossing. If
Vishal's shadow was exactly to the left of Udai, which direction was Udai facing?

2. One evening before sunset Rekha and Hema were talking to each other face to face. If
Hema's shadow was exactly to the right of Hema, which direction was Rekha facing?

3. One morning after sunrise, Vimal started to walk. During this walking he met Stephen
who was coming from opposite direction. Vimal watch that the shadow of Stephen to
the right of him (Vimal). To Which direction Vimal was facing?

4. Raghu was walking in North direction then he turned 45 ̊ in anti clockwise direction.
Then he again turned 180 ̊ in the same direction. Then he turned 90̊ in clockwise
direction. In which direction is he facing now?

5. Shalini started walking towards her school. She is walking in East direction, from there
she turned right in 90 ̊ and then she turned in clockwise direction 180 ̊. In which
direction is she facing?

6. Raju wants to go to the theater for which he started riding a bicycle in west direction
from where he turned 225 ̊ in anticlockwise direction. In which direction is he moving?

7. Shahida was walking in South –East direction from where she turned 45 ̊in clockwise
directions and from where she took 90 ̊ turn Clockwise. Which direction is she facing
now?

8. If “North” become “South-West” and “South –west” become “East”. What will West
become?

9. If “East” becomes “South-West” and “South – East” become “West”. What will “North –
East” become?

10. If “South “ becomes “South- East” and “West” becomes “South- West” . What will “East”
become?

11. If “South – West” become “East” and “North – West” becomes “South”. What will “South
– East” become?

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 Direction Sense and Seating Arrangements(By Amit Garg) IASSETU

12. Rahul started from his home to reach theater and cycled 5 km in north direction. Then,
he turned towards left and cycled 3km and then turned left and cycled 5km. In what
direction is he from his home?

13. Sashi started walking in north – east direction for 2km. Then he turned to his right and
walked 4km , then again he turned right and walked 2km and then finally he turned left
and walked 6km. Now he is in which direction with respect to the starting point?

14. Radhika started to walk in South – West direction for 4 km. Then she turned to her left
and walked 3km and then turned right and walked 3km and then again turned left and
walked 4km. How far is she from the starting point and in which direction?

15. Shivani walked 4km east and then she turned right and walked 3km and finally she
turned left and walked 5km. How far she is and in which direction with respect to the
starting point?

16. Rahul put his timepiece on the table in such a way that at 6 P.M. hour hand points to
North. In which direction the minute hand will point at 9.15 P.M. ?

17. A watch reads 5:15. If the minute hand faces west then in which direction will the hour
hand face?

18. Rajiv kept his watch in such a position that at 8:30 the hour hand points North-East. In
which direction will the minute hand face?

19. Lata kept her watch in a position such that at 7:00 the hour hand points to the North
direction. In which direction will the minute hand point?

20. Rajshree kept her watch in a position such that at 10:35 the hour hand points to North –
West. In which direction will the minute hand point?

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 Direction Sense and Seating Arrangements(By Amit Garg) IASSETU

ANSWERS
1. North
2. South
3. South
4. S-W
5. North
6. NE
7. West
8. S-E
9. South
10. NE
11. North
12. West
13. SE
14. SE
15. SE√90Km
16. West
17. NW
18. NorthWest
19. South/SouthEast
20. South/Southwest

LINEAR SITTING ARRANGEMENT

Direction for question No. (1-2)

P, Q, R, S, T are sitting in a straight line facing North not necessarily in same order. P is sitting next to
Q , R & S are sitting together. S is not sitting with T who is on the left end of the line, R is on the
second position from right. P is to the right of Q & T, P & R are sitting together.

1) which of the following is the position P is correct ?

a) Between T & Q
b) Between R & S
c) between Q & R
d) can’t be determined

2) If alphabets are arranged in alphabetic order whose position will not be altered?

a) P
b) Q

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 Direction Sense and Seating Arrangements(By Amit Garg) IASSETU

c) R
d) S

Direction for question No. (3-4)

A , B , C, D , E , F are sitting in a row facing North. E & F are in centre. A & B are at ends .C is sitting
to left of A

3) Who is sitting immediate right of B?

a) A
b) D
c) F
d) C

4) If position of B and A are interchanged then who is sitting immediate left of B?

a) B
b) F
c) C
d) E

Direction for question No. (5-8)

A , B , C, D , E , F , G, H are sitting in a Straight line facing North not necessarily in same order

1)C sits fourth to left of G. D sits second to right of G

2)only two people sit between D and A. B & F sits adjacent to each other

3)H is not an immediate neighbor of D . then answer the following

5) Who sits third to right of C?

a) B
b) H
c) E
d) A

6) Which of the following represent persons seated in two extreme ends?

a) CB
b) FA
c) HD

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 Direction Sense and Seating Arrangements(By Amit Garg) IASSETU

d) ED

7) How many persons are seated between A & E?

a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) Can’t be determined

8) What is the position of F with respect to H ?

a) Immediately to the left of H

b) Second to left of H
c) Third to right of H
d) Can’t be determined

Circular Arrangement
Direction for question (9-10)
Six people B, C, D ,E ,F, G facing away from centre not necessarily in the same order
1) E sits second to right of F
2) D who sits with G also sits second to left of C
3) C sits opposite to G who sits second to left of F. E doesn’t sit with D

9) Which of the following statements are not true regarding given sitting arrangement?
a) F and B are sitting together
b) D and C are sitting opposite to each other
c) In between F and D there are two persons sitting between them
d) All the given above statements are not true

10) If position of C & G are interchanged who is sitting to left of C?

a) F
b) E
c) D
d) B

Direction for question (11-14)

Eight persons are seating in a circular arrangement B,C,D,E,F,G,H,I not necessarily in same order and
are facing centre also given
1. B is second to the right of F who is neighbor of D & H

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 Direction Sense and Seating Arrangements(By Amit Garg) IASSETU

2. E is not the neighbor of B

3. H is the neighbor of G
4. C is between E & I .
Using these answer the following question

11) Who among the following are not neighbors?

a) DF
b) EG
c) BC
d) FH

12) Who is sitting opposite to I ?

a) F
b) G
c) B
d) H

13) Who are sitting in between E and C?

a) H
b) I
c) G
d) D

14) If position of E & G are interchanged then what will be the position of B with respect to G?
a) First to the left of G
b) Second to the left of G
c) Third to the right of G
d) Third to the left of G

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 Direction sense Test- Amit Garg

1. One morning Udai and Vishal were talking to each other face to face at a crossing. If
Vishal's shadow was exactly to the left of Udai, which direction was Udai facing?

2. One evening before sunset Rekha and Hema were talking to each other face to face.
If Hema's shadow was exactly to the right of Hema, which direction was Rekha
facing?

3. One morning after sunrise, Vimal started to walk. During this walking he met
Stephen who was coming from opposite direction. Vimal watch that the shadow of
Stephen to the right of him (Vimal). To Which direction Vimal was facing?

4. Raghu was walking in North direction then he turned 45 ̊ in anti clockwise direction.
Then he again turned 180 ̊ in the same direction. Then he turned 90̊ in clockwise
direction. In which direction is he facing now?

5. Shalini started walking towards her school. She is walking in East direction, from
there she turned right in 90 ̊ and then she turned in clockwise direction 180 ̊. In
which direction is she facing?

6. Raju wants to go to the theater for which he started riding a bicycle in west
direction from where he turned 225 ̊ in anticlockwise direction. In which direction is
he moving?

7. Shahida was walking in South –East direction from where she turned 45 ̊in clockwise
directions and from where she took 90 ̊ turn Clockwise. Which direction is she facing
now?

8. If “North” become “South-West” and “South –west” become “East”. What will West
become?

9. If “East” becomes “South-West” and “South – East” become “West”. What will “North
– East” become?

10. If “South “ becomes “South- East” and “West” becomes “South- West” . What will
“East” become?

11. If “South – West” become “East” and “North – West” becomes “South”. What will
“South – East” become?

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 Direction sense Test- Amit Garg

12. Rahul started from his home to reach theater and cycled 5 km in north direction.
Then, he turned towards left and cycled 3km and then turned left and cycled 5km. In
what direction is he from his home?

13. Sashi started walking in north direction for 2km. Then he turned to his right and
walked 4km , then again he turned right and walked 2km and then finally he turned
left and walked 6km. Now he is in which direction with respect to the starting point?

14. Radhika started to walk in South direction for 4 km. Then she turned to her left and
walked 3km and then turned right and walked 3km and then again turned left and
walked 4km. How far is she from the starting point and in which direction?

15. Shivani walked 4km east and then she turned right and walked 3km and finally she
turned left and walked 5km. How far she is and in which direction with respect to
the starting point?

16. Rahul put his timepiece on the table in such a way that at 6 P.M. hour hand points to
North. In which direction the minute hand will point at 9.15 P.M. ?

17. A watch reads 4:30. If the minute hand faces west then in which direction will the
hour hand face?

18. Rajiv kept his watch in such a position that at 7:30 the hour hand points North-East.
In which direction will the minute hand face?

19. Lata kept her watch in a position such that at 6:00 the hour hand points to the North
direction. In which direction will the minute hand point?

20. Rajshree kept her watch in a position such that at 10:30 the hour hand points
to North –West. In which direction will the minute hand point?

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 (Seating Arrangement- Amit Garg)

LINEAR SITTING ARRANGEMENT

Direction for question No. (1-2)

P, Q, R, S, T are sitting in a straight line facing North not necessarily in same order. P is sitting next
to Q , R & S are sitting together. S is not sitting with T who is on the left end of the line, R is on the
second position from right. P is to the right of Q & T, P & R are sitting together.

1) which of the following is the position P is correct ?

a) Between T & Q
b) Between R & S
c) between Q & R
d) can’t be determined

2) If alphabets are arranged in alphabetic order whose position will not be altered?

a) P
b) Q
c) R
d) S

Direction for question No. (3-4)

A , B , C, D , E , F are sitting in a row facing North. E & F are in centre. A & B are at ends .C is
sitting to left of A

3) Who is sitting immediate right of B?

a) A
b) D
c) F
d) C

4) If position of B and A are interchanged then who is sitting immediate left of B?

a) B
b) F
c) C
d) E

Direction for question No. (5-8)

A , B , C, D , E , F , G, H are sitting in a Straight line facing North not necessarily in same order

1)C sits fourth to left of G. D sits second to right of G

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 (Seating Arrangement- Amit Garg)

2)only two people sit between D and A. B & F sits adjacent to each other

3)H is not an immediate neighbor of D . then answer the following

5) Who sits third to right of C?

a) B
b) H
c) E
d) A

6) Which of the following represent persons seated in two extreme ends?

a) CB
b) FA
c) HD
d) ED

7) How many persons are seated between A & E?

a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) Can’t be determined

8) What is the position of F with respect to H ?

a) Immediately to the left of H

b) Second to left of H
c) Third to right of H
d) Can’t be determined

Circular Arrangement
Direction for question (9-10)
Six people B, C, D ,E ,F, G facing away from centre not necessarily in the same order
1) E sits second to right of F
2) D who sits with G also sits second to left of C
3) C sits opposite to G who sits second to left of F. E doesn’t sit with D

9) Which of the following statements are not true regarding given sitting arrangement?
a) F and B are sitting together
b) D and C are sitting opposite to each other
c) In between F and D there are two persons sitting between them
d) All the given above statements are not true

10) If position of C & G are interchanged who is sitting to left of C?

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 (Seating Arrangement- Amit Garg)

a) F
b) E
c) D
d) B

Direction for question (11-14)

Eight persons are seating in a circular arrangement B,C,D,E,F,G,H,I not necessarily in same order
and are facing centre also given
1. B is second to the right of F who is neighbor of D & H
2. E is not the neighbor of B
3. H is the neighbor of G
4. C is between E & I .
Using these answer the following question

11) Who among the following are not neighbors?

a) DF
b) EG
c) BC
d) FH

12) Who is sitting opposite to I ?

a) F
b) G
c) B
d) H

13) Who are sitting in between B and C?

a) H
b) I
c) G
d) D

14) If position of E & G are interchanged then what will be the position of B with respect to G?
a) First to the left of G
b) Second to the left of G
c) Third to the right of G
d) Third to the left of G

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 (Seating Arrangement- Amit Garg)

Seating Arrangement ANSWERS

1. C
2. B
3. B
4. C
5. D
6. C
7. B
8. D
9. D
10. D
11. C
12. D
13. B
14. D

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 Geometry and Mensuration Class 1-Amit Garg

Q. 1. Three sides of a triangle are 4m, 5m and 7m. Find its area.

Q. 2. Three sides of a triangle are 6m, 8m and 12m. Find its area.

Q. 3. The two adjacent sides of a parallelogram are 5cm and 4cm

respectively, and if the respective diagonal is 7cm then find its area:

Q. 4. The two adjacent sides of a parallelogram are 7cm and 5cm

respectively, and if the respective diagonal is 10 cm then find its area:

Q. 5. In a parallelogram, the lengths of adjacent sides are 12cm and

14cm respectively. If the length of one diagonal is 16cm, find the length of the
other diagonal.

Q. 6. The length of a rectangular hall is 5 meter more then, its breadth.

The area of the hall is 750m2. The length of the hall is:
(a) 15 m
(b) 20 m
(c) 25 m
(d) 30 m

Q. 7. The diagonal of the floor of a rectangular closet is 13 feet. The

shorter side of the closet is 5 feet. What is the area of the closet in square
feet?

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 Geometry and Mensuration Class 1-Amit Garg

Q. 8.

Find the area of shaded portion if the

width of all 4 shaded portions is same.

Q. 9. How many paving stones each measuring 2.5mx2m are require to

pave a rectangular courtyard which is 30m long and 16.5m wide?

Q. 10. How many meters of a carpet 75cm wide will be required to cover
the floor of a room which is 20m long 12m wide?

Q. 11. A rectangular hall is 12m long and 10m wide, is surrounded by a

verandan 2 meters wide. Find the area of the verandan?

Q. 12. A square field of 2 sq. km is divided into two equal parts by a

fence, which coincides with a diagonal. Find the length of the fence.

Q. 13. The perimeters of five squares are 24cm, 32cm, 40cm, 76cm and
80cm respectively. The perimeter of another square equal in the area to the
sum of the areas of these square.

Q. 14. The each sides of a square is increased by 50%. The ratio of the
area of the resulting square to that of the given square is:

Q. 15. The length and breadth of a square are increased by 40% and 30%
respectively. The area of the resulting rectangle exceeds, the area of square
by:

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 Geometry and Mensuration Class 1-Amit Garg

Q. 16. The circumference of a circular garden is 1012m. Garden is

surrounded by a road of 3.5m width. Calculate the area of this road.

Q. 17. The length of a rectangle is increased by 60%. By what percent

should the width be decreased to maintain the some area?

Q. 18. If the length and the breadth of a rectangle is increased by 5% and

4% respectively, then by what percent does the area of that rectangle
increases?

Q. 19. A wire can be bent in the form of a circle of radius 56cm. If it is

bent in the form of a square, then its area will be:

Q. 20. A square and rectangular field with measurements as given in the

figure has the same perimeter. Which of them has larger area?(Diagram not to
scale)

Square

60m 80m

Q. 21. Mrs. Sharma has a square plot with the measurements as shown in
the figure. She wants to construct a home in the middle of plot. A garden is
developed around the home. Find the total cost of developing a garden around
the house at the rate of Rs. 55 per m2.
25m

20m

25m 15m Home

Garden

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 Geometry and Mensuration Class 1-Amit Garg

Q. 22. The Shape of the top surface of a table is a trapezium. Find its
area if its parallel sides are 1cm and 2cm and perpendicular distance between
them is 0.8m.

Q. 23. The area of a trapezium is 32cm2 are the length of one of the
parallel sides is 10cm and its height is 4cm. find the length of the other parallel
side.

Q. 24. Find the area of a rhombus whose side is 13 cm and one of its
diagonal is 10 cm long. Find the length of the other diagonal.

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 Geometry and Mensuration Class 1-Amit Garg

ANSWERS
1. 4√6m2
2. √455m2
3. 8√6cm2
4. 4√66cm2
5. (a) √424cm(b) 343.176m2(c) Rs 165
6. 30 M
7. 60 feet2
8. 352cm2
9. 99
10. 32000cm
11. 104m2
12. 2 m
13. 124cm
14. 9:4
15. 82%
16. 3580.5
17. 37.5%
18. 9.2%
19. 7744cm2
20. Square
21. Rs 17875
22. 120
23. 6 cm
24. 4 √5

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 Geometry and Mensuration Class 2 -Amit Garg

1. The perimeters of two equilateral triangles are in the ratio of 2:1. What is the
ratio of their areas?

2. What is the area of an equilateral triangle of side 8 cm?

3. A wire is bent to form a rectangle of length 10 cm and breadth 12 cm. If it is

bent to form a circle, what is the circle’s area?

4. The sides of a triangle are in the ratio 3:4:5. If its perimeter is 36 cm, area of
the triangle is

5. The diameter of a coin is 4cm. If four of these coins be placed on a table so

that the rim of each touches that of the other two. Find the area of the
unoccupied space between them.

6. If the six sides of a regular Hexagon is increased by 30%. What is the

increase in its area?

7. Two poles, 15m and 27m high, stand upright in a playground. If their feet be
35m apart, find the distance between their tops?

8. The area of a square and rectangular field is 900m2each. If the perimeter of

the rectangular field is 2m more than that of the square field, calculate the
length and breadth of the rectangular field?

9. A rectangular park 16m x 10m is surrounded by a path 2.5m wide from

outside. Find the area of the path

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 Geometry and Mensuration Class 2 -Amit Garg

10. Find the area of largest circle inscribed in a square of side 14cm?

11. Find the area of largest square Inscribed in a circle of diameter 14 √2m?

12. The area of a parallelogram is 240 cm2and its height is 12 cm. The base of
the parallelogram is-

13. The wheel of a Bicycle has diameter 70cm. How many revolutions per
minute must the wheel make so that the speed of the Bicycle is kept 22km
per hour?

14. A circular road runs round a circular park. If the difference between the
circumferences of the outer circle and the inner circle is 66 metres, then find
the width of the road?

15. The perimeter of a rhombus is 40cm. If the length of one of its diagonal be
12cm, then find the length of other diagonal?

16. A rectangular lawn 80m x 60m has two roads each 10m wide running in the
middle of it, One parallel to the length and the other parallel to the breadth.
Find the cost of gravelling them at Rs.10 per SQm?

17. The ratio of the length of the parallel sides of a trapezium is 3:2. The
shortest distance between them is 15cm. If the area of the trapezium is 450
SQcm, find the sum of the lengths of the parallel sides?

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 Geometry and Mensuration Class 2 -Amit Garg

18. Find the length of the rope by which a cow must be tethered in order that it
may be able to graze an area of 3322 SQm.

19. A metallic hemisphere is melted and re-cast in the shape of a cone with the
same base having radius R as that of the hemisphere. Find the ratio of the
height of cone (H) with respect to R(radius).

20. A Copper sphere of diameter 18cm is drawn into a wire of diameter 4mm.
Find the length of the wire.

21. How many spherical bullets can be made out of a lead cylinder 28cm height
and 6cm radius, each bullet being 1.5cm in diameter?

Home Assignment

1. The perimeters of two equilateral triangles are in the ratio of 3:1. What is
the ratio of their areas?

2. What is the area of an equilateral triangle of side 4 cm?

3. A wire is bent to form a rectangle of length 16 cm and breadth 28 cm. If it is

bent to form a circle, what is the circle’s area?

4. The sides of a triangle are in the ratio 3:4:5. If its perimeter is 72 cm, area
of the triangle is

5. The diameter of a coin is 6cm. If four of these coins be placed on a table so

that the rim of each touches that of the other two. Find the area of the
unoccupied space between them.

6. A Copper sphere of diameter 20 cm is drawn into a wire of diameter 4mm.

Find the length of the wire.

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 Geometry and Mensuration Class 2 -Amit Garg

7. How many spherical bullets can be made out of a lead cylinder 21 cm height
and 7 cm radius, each bullet being 7 cm in diameter?

8. Calculate the area of rectangle 23 meter 7 decimal meter long and 14

meter and 4 decimal meter 8cm wide.

9. The length of a room is 5.5m and width is 3.75m. Find the cost of paving the
floor by slabs at the rate of Rs. 8.00 per square meter.

ANSWERS
1. 4:1
2. 16 √𝟑cm2
3. 154cm2
4. 54cm2
5. 24/7 cm2
6. 69%
7. 37
8. Length 36 M, Breadth 25 M
9. 155 cm2
10. 154cm2
11. 196m2
12. 20 cm
13. 500/3
14. 10.5 m
15. 16 cm
16. Rs 13000
17. 60 cm
18. √𝟏𝟎𝟓𝟕m

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 Geometry and Mensuration Class 2 -Amit Garg

19. 𝟐: 𝟏 4. 216 cm2

20. 24300 5. 54/7 cm2
21. 224 6. 100000/3
7. 18
Home Assignment 8. 343.176m2
1. 9:1
9. Rs 165
2. 4√𝟑cm2
3. 616 cm2

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 Number System (HCF and LCM)- Amit Garg

1. Find the L.C.M. of (v) 18,24,32

(i) 16,26

3. Find the L.C.M. of:

(ii) 24,36 (i) 6,8,10,12

(iii) 12,20
(ii) 15,20,25,30

(iv) 15,15

(iii) 4,12,15,16

(v) 10,25

(iv) 3,7,11,13
2. Find the L.C.M. of:
(i) 12,15,20

4. Find the L.C.M. of

2 4 6 8
(ii) 14,21,42 (a) 3 , 5, 7, 9

(iii) 12,16,25 10 4 6
(b) 4
, 5, 8

(iv) 6,9,21
14 18
(c) ,
15 25

5. Find the L.C.M of:

1

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 Number System (HCF and LCM)- Amit Garg

(a) 0.65, 0.35, 0.2 8. The smallest 2 digit no. Which is

exactly divisible by 5 and 7?

(b) 0.75, 2.25, 4.5

9. The Largest 4 digit no. Which is
exactly divisible by 5 and 7?

(c) 1.2, 3.2, 4.80

10. The Largest 4 digit no. Which

gives remainder 2 when divided by
6. Arrange the following into 5 and 7?
ascending order:
2 4 6 8
(a) 3 , 5, 7, 9

11. The greatest 3 digit number, which

10 4 6
(b) 4
, 5, 8 when divided by 5 and 7 leaves
remainder 3 and 5 respectively.

14 18
(c) ,
15 25

12. The smallest 3 digit no. Which is

exactly divisible by 9,15 and 21?

7. Arrange the following into

descending order:
3 7 14 34
, , ,
7 14 35 70

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 Number System (HCF and LCM)- Amit Garg

13. The largest four digit number (b) 25

(c) 30
which when divided by 9, 15 and (d) 40
21 leaves a remainder 4 in each
case.

17. Find the H.C.F. of

(i) 16,26

14. Five bells commence tolling

together and toll at intervals of 4,
(ii) 24,36
6, 8 10 and 15 seconds
respectively. In 60 minutes, how
many times do they toll together?

(iii) 120,260

15. Three consecutive traffic lights on (iv) 150,275

Ring Road change after 8, 12 and
20 seconds respectively. If the
lights are first switched on at 10:00
A.M. sharp, at what time will they (v) 105,205
change simultaneously?

18. Find the G.C.D. of:

(i) 120,150,200

16. Three runners running around a

circular field in the same direction,
can complete one revolution in 3,
6 and 10 hours respectively. After (ii) 140,210,420
how many hrs will they meet at the
starting point?
(a) 20
3

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 Number System (HCF and LCM)- Amit Garg

(iii) 120,160,250 10 4 6
(b) , ,
4 5 8

(iv) 60,90,201
14 18
(c) ,
15 25

(v) 108,204,320 21. Find the H.C.F of:

19. Find the H.C.F. of: (a) 0.65, 0.35, 0.2
(i) 6,8,10,12

(ii) 150,200,250,300
(b) 0.75, 2.25, 4.5

(iii) 40,102,150,160

(c) 1.2, 3.2, 4.80

(iv) 30,70,110,130

319
20. Find the H.C.F. of 22. Reduce 493 to lowest term
2 4 6 8
(a) 3 , 5, 7, 9

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 Number System (HCF and LCM)- Amit Garg

26. A rectangular hall 2.97 meters

long and 3.24 meters wide is to
23. The greatest number that exactly be paved exactly with square
divides195 and 135 is: tiles, all of the same size. What
(a) 11 is the largest size of tile which
(b) 15 could used for the purpose?
(c) 17 (a) 11 cms
(d) None of these (b) 12 cms
(c) 27 cms
24. The greatest number that exactly (d) 24 cms
divides195, 1001, 2535 is: 27. The greatest possible length which
(a) 11 can be used to measure exactly
(b) 13 the lengths 7m 35 cm, 4m 20 cm,
(c) 17 10m 85 cm is:
(d) None of these (a) 15 cm
(b) 25 cm
(c) 35 cm
(d) 45 cm

25. The greatest number which on

dividing 1085 and 1327 leaves 28. The H.C.F. of two number is 13
remainders 5 and 7 respectively, and Their L.C.M. is 1001, if one of
is: the number is 91 find the other:
(a) 123 (a) 117
(b) 120 (b) 143
(c) 135 (c) 156
(d) 205 (d) None of these
29. The ratio of two numbers is 3:4 and
their H.C.F. is 4. Their L.C.M. is:
(a) 12
(b) 16
(c) 24
(d) 48

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 Number System (HCF and LCM)- Amit Garg

(c) 127
(d) 131

30. The sum of two numbers is 232

and their H.C.F. is 29. The
numbers are:
(a) 116,116
(b) 92, 140
(c) 87, 203
(d) 29, 203

33. The H.C.F. of two numbers is 6.

Which one of the following can
never be their L.C.M.?
(a) 18
(b) 24
31. The H.C.F. of two numbers is 14 (c) 46
and their difference is 14. The (d) 54
numbers are:
(a) 72,86
(b) 54,68
(c) 44,58
(d) 98, 112
32. The Product of two numbers is
5043. if the H.C.F. of these
numbers is 41, then the greater 34. Two numbers, both greater than
number is: 29, have H.C.F 29 and L.C.M.
(a) 121 4147. Find the numbers.
(b) 123

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 Number System (HCF and LCM)- Amit Garg

Home Assignment (b) 36

1. Find the number of factors of the
following:
(a) 24
(b) 36 (c) 72

(c) 45
(d) 96

(d) 60

(e) 100

(e) 81

3. Which one of the following is NOT

a prime number?
(f) 100 (a) 31
(b) 69
(c) 97
(d) 41

(g) 150

4. Which one of the following is a

2. Find the sum of the factors of the
prime number?
following
(a) 131
(a) 25
(b) 57
(c) 123
(d) 91

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 Number System (HCF and LCM)- Amit Garg

5. Three bells ring together at 10:00

A.M. They ring after 2, 3 and 5
seconds respectively. How many 9. The smallest 4 digit number
times will they ring together in the exactly divisible by 51 is:
next 1 hour? (a) 1005
(a) 120 (b) 1051
(b) 240 (c) 1045
(c) 260 (d) 1020
(d) None of these

6. In the above question, after what 10. How many prime numbers are less
duration will the bell ring together? than 75?
(a) 15 sec (a) 19
(b) 30 sec (b) 21
(c) 60 sec (c) 20
(d) 90 sec (d) 18

7. Find the lowest common multiple 11. Find the G.C.D. of 24, 36, 48 and
of 16, 20 and 24. 64
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) None of these

8. What is the smallest 3 digit number

which when divided by 5, 7 and 9
leaves a remainder 2?
3 9 15 21
12. Find the L. C. M. Of , , ,
4 8 12 16

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 Number System (HCF and LCM)- Amit Garg

17. L.C.M. of two numbers is 100 and

their H.C.F. is 5. Find the numbers
if they are in the ratio 4:5.

18. L.C.M. of two numbers is 240 and

13. Find the L.C.M. of 2.4, 4.2, 0.48
their H.C.F. is 12, if one number is
48, find another:
(a) 24
(b) 36
(c) 72
(d) None of these

2 3 4
14. Find the L.C.M. of , ,
3 4 5

15. Find the L.C.M. of 0.90, 1.80, 2.70

and 0.45

16. Three runners running around a

circular field in the same direction,
can complete one revolution in 2, 4
and 10 hours respectively. When
will they meet at the starting point?
(a) 20
(b) 25
(c) 30
(d) 40

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Answer Key: Assignment Number System(LCM HCF)

1. (i) 208
(ii) 72
(ii) 60
(iv) 15
(v) 50

2. (i) 60 (ii) 42 (iii) 1200 (iv) 126 (v) 288

3. (i) 120 (ii) 300 (iii) 240 (iv) 3003

4. (a) 24 (b) 60 (c) 126/5

5. (a) 91/5 (b ) 4.5 (c) 9.6

6 (a) 2/3 <4/5 < 6/7 <8/9(b) 6/8 <4/5 <10/4

(c) 18/25 <14/15

7. 7/14 > 34/70> 3/7 >14/35

8. 35
9. 9975

10. 9977

11. 978

12. 315

13. 9769

14. 31

15 10:02 Min

16 c) 30

17. (i) 2 (ii) 12 (iii) 20 (iv) 25 (v) 5

18 (i) 10 (ii) 70 (iii) 10 (iv) 3 (v) 4

19 (i) 2 (ii) 50 (iii) 2 (iv) 10

20 (a) 2/315, (b) 1/20 (c) 2/75

21 (a) 1/20 (b) ¾ (c) 2/5

22. 11/17

11

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23. b) 15

24. b) 13

25. b) 120

26. c) 27

27. c) 35

28. b) 143

29. d) 48

30. d) 29,203

31. d) 98,112

32. b)123

33. c) 46

34. 319,377

Answer Key:
1.
(a) 6
(b) 9
(c) 6
(d) 12
(e) 5
(f) 9
(g) 12

2.
(a) 31
(b) 91
(c) 195
(d) 252
(e) 217

3. 69
4. 131
12

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5. 120
6. 30 secs
7. 240
8. 317
9. 1020
10. 21
11. 4
12. 315/4
13. 16.8
14. 12/1
15. 5.40
16. 20
17. 20,25
18. 60

13

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Type I

1. Select a suitable figure from the Answer Figures that would replace the question mark
(?).

Problem Figures: Answer Figures:

(A) (B) (C) (D) (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

A. 1 B. 2

C. 3 D. 4

E. 5

2. Select a suitable figure from the Answer Figures that would replace the question mark
(?).

Problem Figures: Answer Figures:

(A) (B) (C) (D) (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

A. 1 B. 2

C. 3 D. 4

E. 5

3. Select a suitable figure from the Answer Figures that would replace the question mark
(?).

Problem Figures: Answer Figures:

(A) (B) (C) (D) (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

A. 1 B. 2

C. 3 D. 4

E. 5

4. Select a suitable figure from the Answer Figures that would replace the question mark
(?).

Problem Figures: Answer Figures:

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 (A) (B) (C) (D) (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)
A. 1 B. 2

C. 3 D. 4

E. 5
5.
Select a suitable figure from the Answer Figures that would replace the question mark
(?).

Problem Figures: Answer Figures:

(A) (B) (C) (D) (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

A. 1 B. 2

C. 3 D. 4

E. 5

6. Select a suitable figure from the Answer Figures that would replace the question mark (?).

Problem Figures: Answer Figures:

(A) (B) (C) (D) (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

A. 1 B. 2

C. 3 D. 4

E. 5

7. Select a suitable figure from the Answer Figures that would replace the question mark (?).

Problem Figures: Answer Figures:

(A) (B) (C) (D) (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

A. 1 B. 2

C. 3 D. 4

E. 5
8. Select a suitable figure from the Answer Figures that would replace the question mark (?).

Problem Figures: Answer Figures:

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 (A) (B) (C) (D) (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)
A. 1 B. 2

C. 3 D. 4

E. 5
9. Select a suitable figure from the Answer Figures that would
replace the question mark (?).

Problem Figures: Answer Figures:

(A) (B) (C) (D) (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

A. 1 B. 2

C. 3 D. 4

E. 5
10. Select a suitable figure from the Answer Figures that would
replace the question mark (?).
Problem Figures: Answer Figures:

(A) (B) (C) (D) (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

A. 1 B. 2

C. 3 D. 4

E. 5
11. Select a suitable figure from the Answer Figures that would
replace the question mark (?).

Problem Figures: Answer Figures:

(A) (B) (C) (D) (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

A. 1 B. 2

C. 3 D. 4

E. 5
12. Select a suitable figure from the Answer Figures that would

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 replace the question mark (?).

Problem Figures: Answer Figures:

(A) (B) (C) (D) (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

A. 1 B. 2

C. 3 D. 4

E. 5

13. Select a suitable figure from the Answer Figures that would replace the question
mark (?).

Problem Figures: Answer Figures:

(A) (B) (C) (D) (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

A. 1 B. 2

C. 3 D. 4

E. 5
14. Select a suitable figure from the Answer Figures that would replace the question
mark (?).

Problem Figures: Answer Figures:

(A) (B) (C) (D) (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

A. 1 B. 2

C. 3 D. 4

E. 5
15. Select a suitable figure from the Answer Figures that would replace the question
mark (?).

Problem Figures: Answer Figures:

(A) (B) (C) (D) (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

A. 1 B. 2

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 C. 3 D. 4

E. 5

TYPE II

1. Select a figure from amongst the Answer Figures which will continue the
same series as established by the five Problem Figures.

Problem Figures: Answer Figures:

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

A. 1 B. 2

C. 3 D. 4

E. 5

2. Select a figure from amongst the Answer Figures which will continue the
same series as established by the five Problem Figures.

Problem Figures: Answer Figures:

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

A. 1 B. 2

C. 3 D. 4

E. 5

3. Select a figure from amongst the Answer Figures which will continue the
same series as established by the five Problem Figures.

Problem Figures: Answer Figures:

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

A. 1 B. 2

C. 3 D. 4

E. 5

4. Select a figure from amongst the Answer Figures which will continue the
same series as established by the five Problem Figures.

Problem Figures: Answer Figures:

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 (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

A. 1 B. 2

C. 3 D. 4

E. 5

5. Select a figure from amongst the Answer Figures which will continue the
same series as established by the five Problem Figures.

Problem Figures: Answer Figures:

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

A. 1 B. 2

C. 3 D. 4

E. 5

6. Select a figure from amongst the Answer Figures which will continue the same series as established by the five
Figures.

Problem Figures: Answer Figures:

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

A. 1 B. 2

C. 3 D. 4

E. 5

6A. Select a figure from amongst the Answer Figures which will continue the same series as established by the five
Figures.

Problem Figures: Answer Figures:

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

A. 1 B. 2

C. 3 D. 4

E. 5

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7. Select a figure from amongst the Answer Figures which will continue the same series as established by the five
Figures.

Problem Figures: Answer Figures:

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

A. 1 B. 2

C. 3 D. 4

E. 5

8. Select a figure from amongst the Answer Figures which will continue the
same series as established by the five Problem Figures.

Problem Figures: Answer Figures:

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

A. 1 B. 2

C. 3 D. 4

E. 5

9. Select a figure from amongst the Answer Figures which will continue the
same series as established by the five Problem Figures.

Problem Figures: Answer Figures:

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

A. 1 B. 2

C. 3 D. 4

E. 5

10. Select a figure from amongst the Answer Figures which will continue the
same series as established by the five Problem Figures.

Problem Figures: Answer Figures:

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

A. 1 B. 2

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 C. 3 D. 4

E. 5

11. Select a figure from amongst the Answer Figures which will continue the
same series as established by the five Problem Figures.

Problem Figures: Answer Figures:

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

A. 1 B. 2

C. 3 D. 4

E. 5

Type III

1. Choose the alternative which is closely resembles the mirror

image of the given combination.

A. 1 B. 2

C. 3 D. 4

2. Choose the alternative which is closely resembles the mirror

image of the given combination.

A. 1 B. 2

C. 3 D. 4

3. Choose the alternative which is closely resembles the mirror

image of the given combination.

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 A. 1 B. 2

C. 3 D. 4

4. Choose the alternative which is closely resembles the mirror

image of the given combination.

A. 1 B. 2

C. 3 D. 4

5. Choose the alternative which is closely resembles the mirror

image of the given combination.

A. 1 B. 2

C. 3 D. 4
6. Choose the alternative which is closely resembles the mirror
image of the given combination.

A. 1 B. 2

C. 3 D. 4

7. Choose the alternative which is closely resembles the mirror

image of the given combination.

A. 1 B. 2

C. 3 D. 4

8. Choose the alternative which is closely resembles the mirror

image of the given combination.

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 A. 1 B. 2

C. 3 D. 4

9. Choose the alternative which is closely resembles the mirror

image of the given combination.

A. 1 B. 2

C. 3 D. 4
10. Choose the alternative which is closely resembles the mirror
image of the given combination.

A. 1 B. 2

C. 3 D. 4

11.
Choose the correct mirror image of the given figure (X) from amongst
the four alternatives.

(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)

A. 1 B. 2

C. 3 D. 4

12. Choose the correct mirror image of the given figure (X) from
amongst the four alternatives.

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 (X) (1) (2) (3) (4)
A. 1 B. 2

C. 3 D. 4

13. Choose the correct mirror image of the given figure (X) from
amongst the four alternatives.

(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)

A. 1 B. 2

C. 3 D. 4

14. Choose the correct mirror image of the given figure (X) from
amongst the four alternatives.

(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)

A. 1 B. 2

C. 3 D. 4

15. Choose the correct mirror image of the given figure (X) from
amongst the four alternatives.

(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)

A. 1 B. 2

C. 3 D. 4
16. Choose the correct mirror image of the given figure (X) from
amongst the four alternatives.

(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)

A. 1 B. 2

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 C. 3 D. 4

17. Choose the correct mirror image of the given figure (X) from
amongst the four alternatives.

(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)

A. 1 B. 2

C. 3 D. 4

19. Choose the correct mirror image of the given figure (X) from
amongst the four alternatives.

(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)

A. 1 B. 2

C. 3 D. 4

20. Choose the correct mirror image of the given figure (X) from
amongst the four alternatives.

(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)

A. 1 B. 2

C. 3 D. 4

TYPE IV

1. Choose the alternative which is closely resembles the

water-image of the given combination.

A. 1 B. 2

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 C. 3 D. 4

2. Choose the alternative which is closely resembles the water-image

of the given combination.

A. 1 B. 2

C. 3 D. 4

3. Choose the alternative which is closely resembles the water-image

of the given combination.

A. 1 B. 2

C. 3 D. 4

4. Choose the alternative which is closely resembles the water-image

of the given combination.

A. 1 B. 2

C. 3 D. 4

5. Choose the alternative which is closely resembles the water-image

of the given combination.

A. 1 B. 2

C. 3 D. 4

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6. Choose the alternative which is closely resembles the water-image
of the given combination.

A. 1 B. 2

C. 3 D. 4

7. Choose the alternative which is closely resembles the water-image

of the given combination.

A. 1 B. 2

C. 3 D. 4

8. Choose the alternative which is closely resembles the water-image

of the given combination.

A. 1 B. 2

C. 3 D. 4

9. Choose the alternative which is closely resembles the water-image

of the given combination.

A. 1 B. 2

C. 3 D. 4

10. Choose the alternative which is closely resembles the water-

image of the given combination.

A. 1 B. 2

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 C. 3 D. 4
11. Choose the correct water image of the given figure (X) from
amongst the four alternatives.

A. 1 B. 2

C. 3 D. 4

12. Choose the correct water image of the given figure (X) from
amongst the four alternatives.

A. 1 B. 2

C. 3 D. 4

13. Choose the correct water image of the given figure (X) from
amongst the four alternatives.

A. 1 B. 2

C. 3 D. 4

14. Choose the correct water image of the given figure (X) from
amongst the four alternatives.

A. 1 B. 2

C. 3 D. 4

15. Choose the correct water image of the given figure (X) from
amongst the four alternatives.

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 A. 1 B. 2

C. 3 D. 4

16. Choose the correct water image of the given figure (X) from
amongst the four alternatives.

A. 1 B. 2

C. 3 D. 4

17. Choose the correct water image of the given figure (X) from
amongst the four alternatives.

A. 1 B. 2

C. 3 D. 4
18. Choose the correct water image of the given figure (X) from
amongst the four alternatives.

A. 1 B. 2

C. 3 D. 4

19. Choose the correct water image of the given figure (X) from
amongst the four alternatives.

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 A. 1 B. 2

C. 3 D. 4

20. Choose the correct water image of the given figure (X) from
amongst the four alternatives.

A. 1 B. 2

C. 3 D. 4

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 Home Assignment Number Systems (Assignment No-2)

1. Calculate: 9. If ‘a’ and ‘b’ are odd numbers, then

(499 + 505)2 - (499 - 505)2 which of the following is even?
-----------------------------------------------------
(a) ab+2
(499 x 505) (b) ab + 1
(a) 6 (c) ab
(b) 1004 (d) ab - 2
(c) 4
(d) 40

2. Express 0.043434343..... as a
fraction

3. Express 60.21212121.... as a
fraction
4. The sum of first
𝟔𝟔𝟖 × 𝟔𝟔𝟖 ×𝟔𝟔𝟖 + 𝟑𝟑𝟐 × 𝟑𝟑𝟐× 𝟑𝟑𝟐
25 natural numbers is: 10. 𝟔𝟔𝟖×𝟔𝟔𝟖 − 𝟔𝟔𝟖×𝟑𝟑𝟐+ 𝟑𝟑𝟐×𝟑𝟑𝟐
(a) 350 (a) 1000
(b) 300 (b) 536
(c) 540 (c) 500
(d) 325 (d) 268
11. (212 + 222 + 232 + ... + 302) =?
5. The sum of first fifteen (a) 9455
even numbers is: (b) 2870
(a) 240 (c) 6585
(b) 250 (d) None of these
(c) 225
(d) None of these

6. Solve:
8 + {4 ÷ 2 × 4 – (6 + 3)}
(a) -1/2
(b) 38/5
(c) 7
(d) None of these

7. Express 40.22222222..... as 12. 197 x 197 + 304 x 304 + 2 x 197 x

fraction 304 =?
(a) 250001
(b) 251001
8. Express 16.66666666.... as (c) 260101
fraction (d) 261001
13. Calculate:

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 Home Assignment Number Systems (Assignment No-2)

(699 + 511)2 - (699 - 511)2

---------------------------------
(699 x 511)
(a) 6
(b) 1210
(c) 4
(d) 188

14. Express 26.77777777.... as a

fraction

15. Express 0.73737373..... as a

fraction

16. The sum of first

75 natural numbers is:
(a) 2850
(b) 2300
(c) 2540
(d) None of these

17. The sum of first fifteen

odd numbers is:
(a) 225
(b) 240
(c) 255
(d) None of these

18. Solve:
18 + {14 ÷ 2 × 4 – (16 + 3)}
6
(a) 8
(b) -40
(c) 27
(d) None of these

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 Home Assignment Number Systems (Assignment No-2)

ANSWER KEY

1. 4

2. 43/990

3. 5961/99

4. 325

5. 240

6. 7

7. 362/9

8. 150/9

9. ab+1

10. 1000

11. 6585

12. 251001

13. 4

14. 241/9

15. 73/99

16. 2850

17. 225

18. 27

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Home Assignment Number Systems (Assignment No-2)

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1. Rajiv ranks fifteenth from the top and forty eighth from the bottom in a class. How
many students are there in the class?
a) 62
b) 66
c) 65
d) Cannot be determined

2. Some boys are sitting in a row. A is sitting fifteenth from the left and B is eighth from
the right. If there are five boys between A and B, how many boys are there in the row?

a) 25

b) 21

c) 28

d) 18

3. Radha is 9 ranks ahead of Sunil in a class of 40. If Sunil’s rank is 15thfrom the last,
what is Radha`s rank from the start?
a) 14th
b) 15th
c) 16th
d) 17th

4. Arun ranks fourteenth from the top and twenty-sixth from the bottom in a class. How many
students are there in class?

5. Mohan is seventh from the right end in a row of 50 boys. What is his position from the left
end?

6. In a queue, Asha is 15th from the front while Radhika is 20th from behind and Yash is just in the
middle of the two. If there are 60 people in the queue, what position does Yash occupy from
the front?

a) 20th
b) 28th
c) 19th

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 d) 17th

7. In a row of girls facing North, Aruna is sixteenth from the left end and Sunaina is sixteenth
from the right end. Babita, who is fourth to the right of Aruna, is fifth to the left of Sunaina
in the row. How many girls are there in the row?

8. Three persons Aamir, Salman and Sharukh are standing in a queue (facing same direction).
There are five persons between Aamir and Salman and eight persons between Salman and
Sharukh. If there is 3 persons ahead of Sharukh and 21 behind Aamir, then what could be
the minimum number of persons in the queue?

9. In a row of 40 Boys , when Kamal was shifted to his left by 4 places his number from the left
end of the row became 10. What was the number of Sunil from the right end of the row if
sunil was three places to the right of kamal’s original position?

10. Consider two statements and a Question:

Statement 1: Pankaj is 5 ranks below suraj and is 31st from the top.
Statement 2: Robin is 6 ranks above Suraj and is 31st from the bottom
Question: What is Suraj’s rank from the bottom in the class of 50 Students?
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the statements and the question?
(a) Statement-1 alone is not sufficient to answer the Question
(b) Statement-2 alone is not sufficient to answer the question
(c) Either statement-1 alone or statement-2 alone is sufficient to answer the question
(d) Both Statement-1 and statement-2 are required to answer the question.

11. In the English alphabet, the first 5 letters are written in opposite order; and the next 5 letters
are written in opposite order and so on. Which will be the fourth letter to the right of 13th
Letter?
(a) R
(b) S
(c) T
(d) None of these

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 Number Systems (Class 1) Assignment -1

Numbers

Real Imaginary

√-1

Rational Irrational
(Non terminating, non repeating - NTNR)

√2=1.41421356237..., √3=1.73205080756...

Integers (-3, -2, -1, 0, 1, 2, 3) Fraction

Terminating Non terminating but repeating-NTBR

½ = 0.5, 3/5= 0.6 1/3 = 0.33333333....,1/7=0.142857142857...

Whole Numbers (0,1,2,3,4,5...)

Natural Numbers (odd or even) (1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9...)

1 Prime numbers Composite numbers

(2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, (4, 6, 8, 9, 10, 12, 14,

17, 19, 23, 29, 31....) 15, 16, 18, 20, 21, 22..)

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 Number Systems (Class 1) Assignment -1

Natural Numbers:The group of numbers starting from 1 and including 1,2,3,4,5 and so
on, are known as natural numbers. Zero, Negative numbers and decimals are not
included in this group.

Whole Numbers: The group of numbers starting from 0 and including 1,2,3,4,5 and so
on, are known as whole numbers. Negative numbers and decimals are not included in
this group.

Integers:Any of the natural numbers (positive or negative) or zero; "an integer is a

number that is not a fraction"
Odd Numbers: 1,3,5,7 and so on

Even Numbers: 2,4,6,8 and so on

Rational Numbers: Any number that can be expressed as a ratio of two integers is
called a rational number.This group contains decimal that either do not exist(as in 6
which is 6/1), or terminate (as in 3.4 which as 34/10), or repeat with a pattern (as in
2.333...... , which is 7/3)

Irrational Numbers:Any number that cannot be expressed as the ratio of two integers is
called an irrational number. These numbers have decimals and those never terminate
and never repeat with a pattern.Examples include √2, √3, √5 etc. which are also
irrational quantities called surds
Prime Numbers: All the numbers that have only two divisors, 1 and the number itself,
are called prime numbers.Hence, a prime number can only be written as the product of 1
and itself. The numbers 2, 3,5,7,11,13, etc are prime numbers.2 is the smallest prime
no.

Composite Numbers: Composite numbers are numbers which have at least one more
divisors apart from 1 and itself. The numbers 4, 6, 9.... Etc are composite numbers.

1 is neither prime number nor composite no.

Proper Fractions: when numerator is less than denominator ( ½, ¾, 5/7 etc)

Improper Fractions: When numerator is more than denominator. ( 3/2, 4/3, 7/4 etc)
1 3 5
Mixed Fractions: integer plus a fraction(2 , 3 , 1 etc)
2 4 7

Co prime number: Two natural numbersa and b are said to be co prime if they are
having only 1 as common factor. For example (2,3) , (4,9) etc.

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 Number Systems (Class 1) Assignment -1

Divisibility

a. By 2: unit digit is even 0, 2, 4, 6, 8

Remainder (0,1) every odd no. gives remainder 1 when divided by 2

b. By 4: Last two digits should be divisible by 4.

c. By 8: Last three digit should be divisible by 8

d. By 5: unit digit should be either 0 or 5.

e. By 3: Sum of digits should be multiple of 3.

f. By 9: sums of the digits should be multiple of 9.

g. By 11: difference of sum of odd and even digits should be either 0 or multiple of 11.

h. By 6: divisibility by both 3 and 2.

i. By 12: divisibility by both 4 and 3.

j. By 14: divisibility by both 2 and 7.

k. By 21: divisibility by both 3 and 7.

l. By 15: divisibility by both 3 and 5.

m. By 18: even number divisible by 9.

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 Number Systems (Class 1) Assignment -1

Arithmetic Equations
1) a 3 + b3 = (a + b)(a 2  ab + b 2 )
2) a 3  b 3 = (a  b)(a 2 + ab + b 2 )
3) a 3 + b 3 = (a + b)3  3ab(a + b)
4) a 3  b 3 = (a  b)3 + 3ab(a  b)
5) (a  b)2 = (a  b)2  4ab
6) (a + b)2 = (a  b)2 + 4ab
7) (a + b + c)3 = a 3 + b 3 + c 3 + 3(b + c)(c + a)(a + b)
3 3 3
If a+b+c=0 then the value of a +b +c is 3abc
2 2 2 2
8) (a+b+c) = a +b +c +2(ab+bc+ca)
9) a2 – b2 = (a + b) (a –b)
10) (a + b)2 = a2 + b2 + 2ab
11) (a –b)2 = a2 + b2 -2ab

Odd + Odd = Even

Odd + even = odd
Even + even = even
Odd – odd = even
Odd – even = odd
Even – even = even
Odd × odd = odd
Odd × even = even
Even ×even = even
Odd ÷ Odd = odd/fraction
Even ÷ even = even/odd/fraction

n(n +1)
a. Sum of all the first n natural number=
2
b. Sum of 1st n odd number is= n2
c. Sum of 1st n even number is= n (n+1)
n(n + 1 )( 2n + 1 )
d. Sum of square of 1st n natural number=
6
2
st  n(n + 1 ) 
e. Sum of cubes of 1 n natural number= 
 2 

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 P & C and Probability PYQ

2022
1. The letter A, B, C, D and E are arranged in such a way that there are exactly two letters between A and E.
How many such arrangements are possible?
a) 12
b) 18
c) 24
d) 36

2. A,B and C are three places such that there are three different roads from A to B, four different roads from B
to C and three different roads A to C in how many different ways can one travel from A to C using these
roads?
a) 10
b) 13
C) 15
d) 36
3. How many 3-digit natural numbers (without repetition of digits) are there such that each digit is odd and
the number is divisible by 5?
a) 8
b) 12
c) 16
d) 24
4. The digit 1 to 9 are arranged in three rows in such a way that each row contains three digits, and the
number formed in the second row is twice the number formed in the first row; and the number formed in
the third row is thrice the number formed in the first row. Repetition of digit is not allowed. If only three of
the four digit 2,3,7 and 9 are allowed to use in the first row, how many be arranged in the three rows?
a) 4
b) 3
c) 2
d) 1
5.One non-zero digit, one vowel and one consonant from English alphabet (in capital) are to use in forming
passwords ,such that each password has to start with a vowel and end with a consonant. How many such
passwords can be generated?
a) 105
b) 525
c) 945
d) 1050
6. There are 9 cups placed on a table arranged in equal number of rows and columns out of which 6 cups
contain coffee and 3 cups contain tea. In how many ways can they be arranged so that each row should
contain at least one cup of coffee?
a) 18
b) 27
c) 54
d) 81
7. There is a numeric lock which has a 3-digit pin. The pin contains digits 1 to 7. There is no repetition of digit
the digit in the pin from left to right are in decreasing order. Any two digits in the pin differ by at least 2.how
many maximum attempts does one need to find out the pin with certainty?
a) 6

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b)8
c) 10
d) 12
2021
1. Integers are listed from 700 to 1000. In how many integers is the sum of the digits 10?
a) 6
b) 7
c) 8
d) 9
2. On a chess board, in how many different ways can 6 consecutive squares be chosen on the diagonals
along a straight path ?
a) 4
b) 6
c) 8
d) 12
3. There are 6 persons arranged in a row .another person has to shake hands with 3 of them so that he
should not shake hands with two consecutive persons. In how many distinct possible combinations can the
handshakes take place?
a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
d) 6
2020
1. How many five –digit prime numbers can be obtained by using all the digit 1,2,3,4 and 5 without
repetition of digits?
a) 0
b) 1
c) 9
d) 10
2. How many integers are there between 1 and 100 which have 4 as a digit but are not divisible by 4?
a) 5
b) 11
c) 12
d) 13
3. How many different 5-letter words (with or without meaning) can be constructed using all the letters of
the word has word ‘Delhi ‘so that each word has to start with D and end with I?
a) 24
b) 18
c) 12
d) 6
2019
1. Each face of a cube can be painted in black or white colours .in how many different ways can the cube be
painted?
a) 9
b) 10
c) 11
d) 12

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2. Suppose you have sufficient amount of rupee currency in three denominations:Rs.1 ,Rs.10 and Rs.50 .in
how many different ways can you pay a bill of Rs.107?
a) 16
b) 17
c) 18
d) 19
3. The number of times the digit 5 will appear while writing the integers 1 to 1000 is
a) 269
b) 271
c) 300
d) 302
2018
1.While writing all the numbers from 700 to 1000 , how many numbers occur in which the digit at hundred’s
place is greater than the digit at ten’s place , and the digit at ten’s place is greater than the digit the at unit’s
place?
a) 61
b) 64
c) 85
d) 91
2. A bag contains 15 red balls and 20 black balls. Each ball is numbered either 1or2 or 3 .20% of the red balls
are numbered 1 and 40% of them are numbered 3. Similarly, among the black balls, 45% are numbered 2
and 30% are numbered 3. A boy picks a ball at random .he wins if the ball is red and numbered 3 or if it is
black and numbered 1 or 2 what are the chances of his winning?
a) 1/2
b) 4/7
c) 5/9
d) 12/13
2017
1. A bag contains 20 balls .8 balls are green, 7 are white and 5 are red . What is the minimum number of balls
that must be picked up from the bag blindfolded (without replacing any of it ) to be assured of picking at
least one ball of each colour ?
a) 17
b) 16
c) 13
d) 11
2.If 2 boys and 2 girls are to be arranged in a row so that the girls are not next to each other, how many
possible arrangements are there?
a) 3
b) 6
c) 12
d) 24

PYQ 2011-2016

3.How many numbers are there between 100 and 300 which either begin with or end with 2 ?
a) 110
b) 111

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c) 112
d) None of the above

4. Four –digit numbers are to be formed using the digits 1, 2,3, and 4; and none of these four digits are
repeated in any manner . further,
1. 2 and 3 are not immediately follow each other
2. 1 is not to be immediately followed by
3. 4 is not to appear at the last place
4. 1 is not to appear at the first place
How many different numbers can be formed ?
a) 6
b) 8
c) 9
d) None of the above

5. A around archery target of diameter 1 m is marked with four scoring regions from the centre outwards as
red, blue, yellow and white. The radius of the red band is 0.20m. The width of all the remaining bands is
equal .if archers throw arrows towards the target, what is the probability that the arrows fall in the red
region of the archery target?
a) 0.40
b) 0.20
c) 0.16
d) 0.04
6. A selection is to be made for one post of principal and two posts of vice-principal .amongst the six
candidates called for the interview, only two are eligible for the posts of principal while they all are eligible
for the post of vice-principal. The number of possible combinations of selectees is
a) 4
b) 12
c) 18
d) None of the above
7. A student has to opt for 2 subject out of 5 subjects for a course , namely , commerce, economics ,
statistics, mathematics I and mathematics ii . mathematics ii can be offered only if mathematics I is also
opted . The number of different combinations of two subject which can be opted is
a) 5
b) 6
c) 7
d) 8

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 IAS SETU
[PART –I] Reading comprehension - Answer Bank

Basic Reading Skill – Practice sheet :

Passage 1) Topic sentence – First sentence

Passage 2) Topic sentence – First sentence
Passage 3) Topic sentence – Last sentence
Passage 4) Topic sentence – First sentence
Passage 5) Topic sentence – First sentence
Passage 6) Topic sentence – “This will pose conundrums”

Writing style :

Passage 7) - Persuasive Style

Passage 8) - Descriptive Style
Passage 9) - Expository Style
Passage 10) - Narrative Style

Tone & Tenor

Q1. B, Q2.d, Q3.b Q4.a Q5.a

Structure of a Passage
P10) – Idea – Eg. Format
P 11) - Comparison Format
P 12 – Generalization – Qualification Format
P13) – Cause –Effect Format:

Exercise on BRS
Passage – 1)
Topic - Mesothelioma
Sub – topics – Cause, Process, Symptoms
Writing Style - Descriptive Style

Passage – 2)
Writing Style – Expository
Structure – Generalization – Qualification Format

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 IAS SETU
Passage 3) Writing Style - Persuasive Structure – Idea – Explanation – E.g. Format.

Passage 4. Q1. (a) – Second Sentence (S2)

(b) – S4
(c) - S3
(d) – S1
Q2. No
Q3. A,
Q4.d,
Q5.C

Passage – 5) a – False, b. False, C. True D. True, E. False : Only

(iii) is a Suitable title.

Passage 6)
A- True, B. False, C. False, D. False, E. False, F. True, G. True, H.
False, I. False, Both (1) & (2) are Suitable titles.

Tone & Tenor Based Questions

Passage 1) A. Regret

Passage 2) Q. 1.b Q2.c, Q3. A

Exercise
CRUX BASED QUESTION
Passage 1) – a
Passage 2) – d
Passage 3) – d
Passage 4) – e
Passage 5) – c
Passage 6) – c
Passage 7) – c
Passage 8) – a
Passage 9) – c
Passage 10) – b
Passage 11) – a
Passage 12) – d

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Test -1
IAS SETU
Main - Idea Based Questions
Passage 1) – a
Passage 2) – c
Passage 3) – d
Passage 4) – d
Passage 5) – a
Passage 6) – a
Passage 7) – b
Passage 8) – d
Passage 9) – c
Passage 10) –d

Passage 11) – b
Passage 12) – a
Passage 13) – b
Passage 14) – c
Passage 15) – a
Passage 16) – b
Passage 17) – a
Passage 18) – b
Passage 19) – d
Passage 20) – a

Part – II
Logical Questions
Passage 1) – It is an Argument :
Conclusion - “For this reason……. Needs to curtailed”

Passage 2) – It’s an Argument Conclusion – “The similarities…… However.”

Passage 3 ) – It’s not an Argument Writing style – Descriptive

Passage 4) – It’s an Argument.

Conclusion – “However….. quit common
Logical Questions : Assumption
1. Neither I Nor II.
2. Only II is correct.
3. Both I & II are correct.

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 IAS SETU
4. Only II is Correct.
5. Only I is correct.
6. A
7. B
8. All are Correct.
9. B
10. B

Passage 1) – a,
Passage 2) – a,
Passage 3) – c,
Passage 4) – c,
Passage 5) – d,
Passage 6) – b,
Passage 7) – a,
Assumption , Asked in CSIT
P1). A P2). b P3). c P4). D
P5). d P6). d P7). b P8). A
P9). c P10). d P11). B P12). A
P13). B P14). b

Logical Questions Practice – Sheet

Passage 1) 1. DT
2. DI
3. PF

Passage 2) 1. DT
2. DI
3. DF
4. PF

Passage 3) 1. DF
2. DI
3. DT

Logical Questions : Inference

P1). A, P2). b, P3). d, P4). d, P5). c, P6). d,
P7). d, P8). b, P9). d, P10). D.

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 IAS SETU
Inference Based Qs Asked in CSAT
P1). C, P2). C, P3). d, P4). A, P5). A, P6). C,
P7). A, P8). C, P9). C, P10). B,

Logical Qs : Corollary
P1). A, P2). b, P3). a, P4). b, P5). a,

Logical Qs : Implication
P1). A, P2). b, P3). c, P4). a,

Logical Qs : Not Asked in CSAT

Parallel Reasoning Based
Passage 1) – c
Argument Based
Flaw in Argument :
P2). C P3). D
Strengthening Argument :
P4). C, P5). A P6). A
Weakening Argument :
P7). a, P8). d P9). C, P10). a,
Anomaly Based
P11). B
Bold face Based :
P12). C

Statements Based Logical Question

P1). a, P2). d P3). C, P4). a,
P5). d, P6). d P7). a, P8). d,
P9). a, P10). d P11). c, P12). d,
P13). d, P14). d P15). b, P16). d,
P17). d, P18). d P19). d, P20). a,
P21). d, P22). b,

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 IAS SETU
Short Notes on R.C.-Questions by Shakeel Sir

Hello Aspirants,
Preparing for R.C. Section of CSAT means having clarity on Commonly Asked
Questions (CAQ) ; the kind of information these questions seek as answer, their reach
and limits. These questions are-

The questions have single option or multi-statements. As you know, that each
statement/option is a claim/declaration/assertion based on the paragraph and
you need to ascertain-
 Whether the given claim/assertion can be accepted or not (reverberates
with the Author’s thought).
 Whether the information or data given in the passage is sufficient for that.
 Whether the data or facts used to make a claim, according to the paragraph
is accurate and not distorted.
 Whether the answer chosen by you is the answer to the question asked or
it’s irrelevant (to the question).

1. ASSUMPTION- The multi-statements based are the most confusable ones. The
answer can be-
(i) A central missing part on which the argument depends.
(ii) Such statements that support the Author’s thought/opinion mentioned in the
paragraph. You should put yourself in the author’s shoes and evaluate each statement
with reference to his thought or argument to ascertain whether he would agree with the
claim. All such statements that comply with the paragraph and work as hidden or unsaid
possible premises should be chosen.
Wrong statements/options- The other statements that belong to the following
categories should not be chosen.
1. Contradictory to or inconsistent with the main-argument or secondary points made
in the para.

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 IAS SETU
2. Such claims made in the statement (even though they synchronise with the Author’s
thought) for which the given data is not sufficient.
3. A factual repetition of the para.
2. INFERENCE- It is a logical deduction. Generally a single option or two statements
are given.
You need to be mindful of the data given. For the claim or assertion made in the
statement/option, sufficient information or data must be present in the para.
An inference can be based on a part of the para; a word or a sentence. It can be based
on the entire para as well. For a Critical Inference Question, the inference should be
based on the critical point made by the author.
Wrong Options- 1. Data-inadequate case
2. Data-distortion case
3. Just a factual-repetition case
4. Options with extreme words (most likely incorrect but not always)
3. CONCLUSION- By and large, the same approach as used for Inference Question
will be used here, with one underlying difference.
This is the difference between the very nature of the two. A conclusion is the main-
point or final-summation based on whole passage; whereas an Inference can be
based on the whole para or a part of the para.
Wrong option – Same as mentioned for Inference.
4. IMPLICATION- You may come across multi-statements here. The answer should
be evaluated on two accounts.
(i) The mentioned topic/issue/problem that will affect something else in future;
impact.
(ii) The way out/preventative measures/solution -to the problem discussed.
Wrong option- Such claims that have no logical-connectivity; direct or indirect,
whatsoever with the passage.
5. COROLLARY- It means a consequence or outcome based on an already proven
point/theory of the author. Identify the author’s main point/argument and scan the
options to find out the one which is an outcome or extension based on the Author’s
idea/point.
6. CRUX-BASED Such as-
 Central/key/Main/Essential-Idea
 Key note/ Best Sum up
 Essential/Critical-Message

Generally options are single statement here. The correct option should be based on
Evaluative Level of Comprehension. It must contain the essence or gist of the passage.
You can use the following Tricks discussed in class:

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 IAS SETU
 The key words
 The structure of the Passage
 How many times an idea has been mentioned by the Author in comparison to
other mentioned ideas.
 Reverse Approach
 Orange-Juice Analogy

8-9 such questions were asked in Paper-2021 and 14 questions in Paper-2023

An analogy with an orange will be helpful while evaluating the options here. The
passage is the orange and the juice is the answer to these questions.
Two important points you must remember.
#1. Suppose you want to have orange juice. You want juice that should come from an
orange, so you are watchful that no foreign material; water or sugary-syrup should
be added.
Similarly, You should not choose an option that claims something not given in the
para.
#2. You want the main content of the orange i.e. juice not other (unimportant) contents
such as –seeds, peel or pulp. So you filter them out.
Similarly, you must not choose such options that contain the secondary points of
the passage but must go for the main-point made.

**** You can be selective with Assumption questions. You can solve 80 % passages
with 80% accuracy.
**** You must go through CSAT Papers of last five years at least.

All the Very Best!

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 Class test - (Partnership) by Amit Garg

1.

Ravi, Gagan and Nitin are running a business firm in partnership. What is Gagan's share in the profit earned
by them if the time period for investment is same for all three?

I. Ravi, Gagan and Nitin invested the amounts in the ratio of 2 : 4 : 7.

II. Nitin's share in the profit is Rs. 8750.

a) I alone sufficient while II alone not sufficient to answer
b) II alone sufficient while I alone not sufficient to answer
c) Either I or II alone sufficient to answer
d) Both I and II are necessary to answer
2.

In what proportion would the annual profit be distributed among Rahul, Anurag and Vivek?

I. Rahul got one-fourth of the profit.

II. Rahul and Vivek contributed 75% of the total investment.

a) I alone sufficient while II alone not sufficient to answer
b) II alone sufficient while I alone not sufficient to answer
c) Either I or II alone sufficient to answer
d) Both I and II are not sufficient to answer
3.

How much did Rohit get as profit at the year-end in the business done by Nitin, Rohit and Kunal?

I. Kunal invested Rs. 8000 for nine months, his profit was times that of Rohit's and his investment was
four times that of Nitin.

II. Nitin and Rohit invested for one year in the proportion 1 : 2 respectively.

III. The three together got Rs. 1000 as profit at the year end.
a) Only I and II
b) Only I and III
c) Question cannot be answered even with the information in all the three statements.
d) All I, II and III

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 Class test - (Partnership) by Amit Garg

4.

What is R's share of profit in a joit venture?

I. Q started business investing Rs. 80,000.

II. R joined him after 3 months.

III. P joined after 4 months with a capital of Rs. 1,20,000 and got Rs. 6000 as his share profit.
a) All I, II and III
b) I and III only
c) II and III only
d) Even with all I, II and III, the answer cannot be arrived at
5.

Three friends, P, Q and R started a partnership business investing money in the ratio of 5 : 4 : 2 respectively
for a period of 3 years. What is the amount received by P as his share profit?

I. Total amount invested in the business in Rs. 22,000.

II. Profit earned at the end of 3 years is of the total investment.

III. The average amount of profit earned per year is Rs. 2750.
a) I or II or III
b) Either III only, or I and II together
c) Any two of the three
d) All I, II and III are required.

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 Partnership-Amit Garg

1. A and B enter into a partnership investing Rs. 5000 and Rs. 4000 respectively. At the end of the year the
total profit was Rs. 2250. Find the share of A in the profit.

2. Three Partners Aman, Vijay, Chandan invest Rs 16000, Rs 18000 and Rs 23000 respectively in
business. How should they devide a profit of Rs 19380?

3. Ajay, Vijay and Sanjay enter into partnership. Ajay advances Rs 1200 for 4 months, Vijay Rs 1400 for 8
months, and Sanjay Rs 1000 for 10 months. They gain Rs 585 altogether. Find the share of each.

4. A, B and C entered into a partnership. A invested Rs. 1600 for 9 months, B invested Rs. 1200 for 6
months and C invested Rs. 800 for 12 months. At the end of the year, there was a profit of Rs. 2600.
Find the share of A in the profit.

5. Arun Starts a business with Rs 2000. Babita joins him after 3 months with Rs 4000. Chandan puts a sum
of Rs 10000 for 2 months only. At the end of the year the business gave a profit of Rs 5600. How should
the profit be divided among them?

6. Aman started a business by investing Rs. 60,000. Raju joined the business after some time and invested
Rs. 40,000. At the end of the year, profit was divided in the ratio of 2:1. After how many months did Raju
join the business?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5

7. A starts a business with Rs. 35000 as capital and after 5 months B joins A as a partner and invests some
capital of his own. After a year the profits are divided in the ratio of 2:3. How much did B contribute as
capital?

8. A and B started a business with initial investments in the ratio 5:7. If after one year their profits were in
the ratio 1:2 and the period for A’s investment was 7 months, then B invested the money for

9. A is a sleeping partner and B is a working partner. A puts Rs. 40000 and B puts Rs. 50000 as capital. B
received 25% of profit for managing the business and rest is divided in proportion to their capitals. Out of
a total profit of Rs. 4800, B’s share of profit is

10. A,B and C enter into partnership. A advances one-fourth of the capital for one fourth of the time. B
contributes one-fifth of the capital for half of the time. C contributes the remaining capital for the whole
time. How should they divide a profit of Rs 11400?

11. A and B enter into a business. A puts in Rs 50 and B puts in Rs 45. At the end of 6 months B withdraws
half of his capital. C then enters with a capital of Rs 70. At the end of 12 months, in what Ratio will the
profit be divide?

12. A, B and C enter into a partnership with capital in the ratio 5: 6: 8. After 4 months, A increases his share
by 50%. If the total profit at the end of one year be Rs. 15500, then B’s share in the profit is

13. The monthly income of Vinay and Monu are in the ratio of 4:3. Their monthly expenses are in the ratio of
3:2. However, both save Rs. 600 per month. What is their total monthly income?
(a) Rs. 8,400
(b) Rs. 5,600
(c) Rs. 4,200
(d) Rs. 2,800

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 Partnership-Amit Garg

14. X, Y and Z invested capital in the ratio 1:2:3, and the duration they stay invested is in the ratio 1:2:3. In
what ratio would the profit be distributed?
(a) 3 : 2 : 1
(b) 1 : 2 : 3
(c) 1 : 4 : 9
(d) 9 : 4 : 1

15. A, B and C invested capital in the ratio 2:5:7 and their profits are distributed in the ratio 6:25:49. Find the
ratio of duration of their investments.
(a) 3 : 7 : 5
(b) 7 : 5 : 9
(c) 6 : 5 : 8
(d) 3 : 5 : 7

16. A, B and C invest their capital in a business. If the ratio of their periods of investment is 2:5:6 and their
profits are in the ratio of 4:5:6 then find the ratio in which the investments are made by A, B and C.

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 Partnership-Amit Garg

ANSWERS
1. Rs 1250
2. 16 :18 :23
A- Rs 5440
B- Rs 6120
C - Rs 7820
3. Ajay Rs 108
Vijay Rs 252
Sanjay Rs 225
4. Rs 1200
5. 6 : 9 : 5
Arun – Rs 1680
Babita – Rs 2520
Chandan – Rs 1400
6. (b) 3 Months
7. Rs 90000
8. 10 Months
9. Rs 3200
10. 5 : 8 : 44
A- Rs 1000
B- Rs 1600
C- Rs 8800
11. 40 : 27 : 28
12. Rs 4500
13. (c) Rs 4200
14. (c) 1: 4 : 9
15. (d) 3 : 5 : 7
16. 2 : 1 : 1

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 Percentage (Amit Garg)

PERCENTAGE

BASIC CONCEPTS BASED ON NCERT

Per cent is derived from Latin word ‘per centum’ meaning ‘per hundred’. Per cent is
represented by the symbol % and means hundredths too. That is 1% means
1 out of hundred or one hundredth. It can be written as:
1
1% =100= 0.01

Anwar found the Percentage of red beads like this

Out of 20 beads, the number of red beads are 8.
Hence, out of 100, the number of red beads are
8
20
×100=40(out of hundred) = 40%

Asha does it like this:

8 8×5 40
20
= 20×5= 100= 40%

How to find out percent value (Unitary method, use of 1%)

X% of Y = Z
EXAMPLE 1.
4% of 1600 =?
1% of 1600= 16
Hence 4% of 1600 = 4×16 = 64

EXAMPLE 2.
6% of Y= 72
If 6% = 72
72
Then 1% = 6 = 12

100% will be 1200.

1. In the atmosphere, 1 g of air contains:

.78 g Nitrogen = 78% Nitrogen
.21 g Oxygen or 21% Oxygen
.01 g Other gas = 1% Other gas

2. A shirt has:
3 2
cotton =60% Cotton and Polyester = 40% Polyester
5 5

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 Percentage (Amit Garg)

EXAMPLE 3
1
Write 3 as per cent.

SOLUTION
1 1 100 1 100%
We have, = × = × 100% = =33.33%
3 3 100 3 3

EXAMPLE 4
Out of 25 children in a class, 15 are girls. What is the percentage of girls?
SOLUTION
Out of 25 children, there are 15 girls.
15
Therefore, percentage of girls = ×100 = 60
25

There are 60% girls in the class.

EXAMPLE 5
5
Convert 4 intopercent.

SOLUTION
5 5
We have, = ×100% = 125%
4 4

CONVERTING DECIMALS TO PERCENTAGE

We have seen how fractions can be converted to per cents. Let us now find how
decimals can be converted to percents.

EXAMPLE 6
Convert the given decimals to per cents:
(a) 0.75 (b) 0.09 (c) 0.2
SOLUTION
75
(a)0.75 = 0.75 × 100 % = 100 × 100% = 75%

9
(b) 0.09 =100 × 100% = 9 %

2
(c) 0.2 = 10 ×100% = 20 %

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 Percentage (Amit Garg)

TRY THESE
1. Convert the following to percents:

12 49
(a) 16 (c) 50

(b) 3.5 2
(d) 2

(e) 0.05

2. (i) Out of 32 students, 8 are absent. What percent of the students are absent?

(ii) There are 25 radios, 16 of them are out of order. What percent of radios are out
of order?

(iii) A shop has 500 parts, out of which 5 are defective. What percent are defective?

(iv) There are 120 voters, 90 of them voted yes. What percent voted yes?

CONVERTING PERCENTAGES TO FRACTIONS OR DECIMALS

We have so far converted fractions and decimals to percentages. We can also do the
reverse. That is, given per cents, we can convert them to decimals or fractions. Look at
the
TRY THESE
Percent 1% 10% 25% 50% 90% 200%
𝟏 𝟏𝟎 𝟏
Fraction =
𝟏𝟎𝟎 𝟏𝟎𝟎 𝟏𝟎

Decimal .01 0.1

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 Percentage (Amit Garg)

Percentage

1 1 1
1 = 100%  20%  11.11%  11 %
5 9 9

1 1 2 1
 50%  16.66%  16 %  10%
2 6 3 10

1 1 1 2 1 1
 33.33%  33 %  14.28%  14 %  09.09%  09 %
3 3 7 7 11 11

1 1 1 1
 25%  12.5%  8.33%  8 %
4 8 12 3

 Every percent value can be expressed as a number (fraction) and every number
can be expressed in percent terms. E.g. 3 is 300/100 hence 300.

 Every percent value is based on a number and it belongs to that number only. E.g. if
someone says that they scored 80% marks then it is implied that these 80% are of
the maximum marks in the exam. Similarly a discount of 30% is calculated on MRP.
If someone’s salary raises by 20%, then this 20% is of the previous salary before
the raise.

 The increase (more than) and decrease (less than) percents between two fixed
numbers are never the same unless the two numbers are equal. E.g. between 40
and 50, 50 is 25% more than 40 but 40 is 20% less than 50. In other words, 40
should be increased by 25% to make 50, but then it should be decreased by 20% to
get it back to 40.
 Whenever we multiply or divide a number, we indirectly increase and decrease it by
certain percentages. E.g. if x is multiplied by 2, it becomes two times hence it
increases by 100%. Had x been multiplied by 2/3 it would have lost its 1/3 rd value,
therefore it would have lost 33.33% and would have remained 66.66%

MULTIPLYING FACTORS:
If x is increased by 20%, it means it would later become 120% of itself (since it already
was 100% of itself), hence it would be written as 1.2x after the increase.
If x is instead decreased by 20%, it would become 80% of itself, hence will be written as
0.8x

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 Percentage (Amit Garg)

These factors 1.2 or 0.8 etc are called multiplying factors. Looking at the multiplying
factors, we should be able to analyze as to how much percent has the number been
increased or decreased.

Q. After 20% discount, the price of an article became Rs.24.80. what was its MRP?
Sol. Let the MRP be x
After 20% discount, it would become 0.8x which is equal to 24.8, therefore x = 31

Q. After successive discounts of 20% and 25%, a bought a watch for Rs. 2400. Find its
MRP
Sol. Let the MRP be x
X *0.75 *0.8 = 2400
X = 4000

Q. A shopkeeper first increased the price of an article by 20% and then further
decreased it by 10%. By what percent has the price been changed on the whole?
Sol. Let the original price be x
Therefore x * 1.2 * 0.9 = 1.08x
Hence on the whole the net increase is 8% as finally x becomes 108% of itself.

Q. Calculate
I. 37.5% of 816?

VI. 6.25% of 1648?

II. 11.11% of 918?

VII. 8.33% of 1224?

III. 14.28% of 749?

VIII. 12.5% of 848?

IV. 33.33% of 342?

IX. 09.09% of 1133?

V. 133.33% of 330?
5

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 Percentage (Amit Garg)

X. 75% of 360?
XII. 28.56% of 749?

XI. 44.44% of 1836?

CONVERT PERCENTAGE INTO FRACTIONS:

1. 50%

9. 37.5%
2. 75%

10. 112.5%
3. 33.33%

11. 87.5%
4. 133.33%

12. 55.55%
5. 60%

13. 22.22%
6. 16.66%

14. 111.11%
7. 14.28%

15. 8.33%
8. 42.85%
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 Percentage (Amit Garg)

16. 91.67%
19. 93.75%
17. 6.67%

20. 5%
18. 6.25%

CONVERT FRACTIONS INTO PERCENTAGE:

1
1.
3
9
9.
8

1
2.
4
2
10.
9

1
3. 5
4
11. 9

3
4.
4
9
12. 11

1
5. 6
5
13. 11

5
6. 6
1
14. 12

1
7. 7
1
15. 15

5
8. 8

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 Percentage (Amit Garg)
1 15
16. 16
18.
16

14
17. 15

PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. If the length of a rectangle is should be reduced to get the same
increased by 50% by what work done?
percentage breadth should be
decreased so that his overall area
does not change?

4. If the speed is reduced by 20% then

by what percent time should be
increased to cover the same
2. The price of wheat rises by 33.33%. distance?
By what percentage a person can
decrease the consumption of wheat
so that his overall budget does not
change?

5. If one of the sides of a rectangle is

increased by 10% and the other is
decreased by 10%, find the percent
3. 16 men can do a piece of work in 15 value by which the area changes?
days. If the no. of men is increased
by 50% then by what percent days

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 Percentage (Amit Garg)

6. If the price is increased by 10% and 10. Two no. are respectively 20 % and
the sale is also increased by 10% 50% more than a third. What
then what will be the effect on percentage is the First of the
income? Second?

11. Two numbers are respectively 20%

and 80% more than a third. What
percentage is the first of the
second?
a. 60%
7. Side of a Square is decreased by b. 400%
10%, find the percent value by which c. 150%
the area changes? d. 66.66%

8. A shopkeeper makes the price of his

goods 12 % higher than its original
price. After that, he allows a discount 12. One number is 20% less and second
of 12%. What is his percentage profit number is 60% more than a third.
or loss? What percentage is the second of
the first?
a. 50%
b. 200%
c. 80%
d. None of these

13. A positive no. is divided by 2 instead

9. The salary of a worker is first of being multiplied by 2. What
increased by 10% thereafter it was percentage is the result of the
reduced by 10%. What was the required correct value?
change in his salary? a. 25%
b. 400%
c. 50%
9

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 Percentage (Amit Garg)

d. Cannot be determined
14. A positive no. is divided by 5 instead
of being multiplied by 5. What
percent is the result of the required
correct value?
15. From the salary of an officer, 10% is
deduced as house rent. 20% of the
rest he spends on conveyance, 20%
of the rest he pays as income tax
and 10% of the balance he spends
on clothes. Then, he is left with Rs.
15,552. Find his total salary.
a. Rs 20,000
b. Rs 30,000
c. Rs 50,000
d. Cannot be determined
UPSC CSP 2014:
1. A gardener increased the area of his 2. A and B decide to travel from place
rectangular garden by increasing its X to place Y by bus. A has Rs. 10
length by 40% and decreasing its with him and he finds that it is 80%
width by 20%. The area of the new of the bus fare for two persons. B
garden finds that he has Rs. 3 with him and
a. has increased by 20% hands it over to A. In this context,
b. has increased by 12% which one of the following
c. has increased by 8% statements is correct?
d. is exactly the same as the old a. Now the money A has is just
area enough to buy two tickets.
b. A still needs Rs. 2 for buying the
tickets.
c. After buying the two tickets A will
be left with 50 paise.
d. The money A now has is still not
sufficient to buy two tickets.

10

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 Percentage (Amit Garg)

3. As per agreement with a bank, a a. 22

businessman had to refund a loan in b. 24
some equal installments without c. 30
interest. After paying 18 installments d. 33
he found that 60 percent of his loan
was refunded. How many
installments were there in the
agreement ?

11

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 Percentage (Amit Garg)

Home Assignment
1. A monkey climbed 62½% of the height of the pole in one hour and in the next hour it
covered 12½% of the remaining height. If the height of the pole is 192 meters, then
distance climbed in second hour is:
a. 3 meters
b. 9 meters
c. 24 meters
d. 12 meters

2. If the speed is increased by 20% then by what percent time should be reduced to
cover the same distance?
a. 25%
b. 20%
c. 33.33%
d. 16.66%

3. Due to fall in manpower, the production in a factory decreases by 20 %. By what

percent should the working hour be increased to restore the original production?
a. 25%
b. 20%
c. 33.33%
d. None of these

4. The price of wheat falls by 16.66%. By what percentage a person can increase the
consumption of wheat so that his overall budget does not change?
a. 25%
b. 20%
c. 14.28%
d. None of these
12

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 Percentage (Amit Garg)

5. If the price of sugar rises from Rs. 6 per kg to Rs. 7.50 per kg, a person, to have no
change in his expenditure on sugar, will have to reduce the consumption of sugar by
(in percentage):
a. 25%
b. 20%
c. 33.33%
d. None of these

6. If the price is increased by 10% and the sale is decreased by 5% then what will be
the effect on income?
a. No change
b. 4.5 % decrease
c. 4.5 % increase
d. 5.5% increase

7. If the price is decreased by 12% and sale is increased by 10% then what will be the
effect on income?
a. 3.2% decrease
b. .8% increase
c. 2 % decrease
d. None of these

8. The number of seats in a Cinema hall is increased by 25%. The price on ticket is
also increased by 10%. What is the effect on the income collected?
a. 35% increase
b. 37.5% increase
c. 60 % increase
d. None of these

13

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 Percentage (Amit Garg)

9. If one of the sides of a rectangle is increased by 20% and the other is increased by
5%, find the percent value by which the area changes?
a. 25 % increase
b. 26 % increase
c. 20 % increase
d. None of these

10. The salary of a worker is first increased by 20% thereafter it was reduced by 20%.
What was the change in his salary?
a. no change
b. 4% increase
c. 4% decrease
d. None of these

14

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 Percentage (Amit Garg)

Answer Key Percentage

ANSWER
I. 306 VII. 102
II. 102 VIII. 106
III. 107 IX. 103
IV. 114 X. 270
V. 440 XI. 816
VI. 103 XII. 214

PERCENTAGE INTO FRACTIONS

7
1 11. 8
1. 2
5
3 12. 9
2. 4
2
1 13. 9
3. 3
10
4 14.
4. 9
3
1
3 15.
5. 12
5
11
1 16. 12
6.
6
1
1 17.
7. 7
15
1
3 18. 16
8. 7
15
3 19. 16
9. 8
1
9 20. 20
10.
8

FRACTIONS INTO PERCENTAGE:

1. 33.33% 7. 14.28%
2. 25% 8. 62.5%
3. 20% 9. 112.5%
4. 75% 10. 22.22%
5. 16.66% 11. 44.44%
6. 83.33% 12. 81.81%

15

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 Percentage (Amit Garg)

13. 45.45% 14. 8.33%

15. 6.67% 17. 93.33%
16. 6.25% 18. 93.75%

HOME ASSIGNMENT

1. (b) 9 meters 2. C
2. (d) 16.66% 3. C
3. (a) 25%
4. (b) 20%
5. (b) 20%
6. (c) 4.5% increase
7. (a) 3.2% decrease
8. (b) 37.5% increase
9. (b) 26% increase
10. (c) 4% decrease

Practice questions:

1. 33.33%
2. 25%
3. 33.33%
4. 25%
5. 1% Decrease
6. 21% Increase
7. 19% Decrease 8. 1.44%
Loss
9. 1% Decrease 10. 80%
11. 66.66%
12. 200%
13. 25%
14. 4%
15. Rs 30000

UPSC CSP 2014

1. B
16

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 Permutation and Combination & Probability (Amit Garg)

Permutation and Combination

Q1. In how many different ways can the letters of the word ROCK be arranged?

Q2. In how many different ways can the letters of the word DELHI be arranged?

Q3. In how many different ways can the letters of the word PENCIL be arranged?

Q4. In how many different ways can the letters of the word EQUATION be arranged?

Q5. In how many different ways can the letters of the word ROOM be arranged?

Q6. In how many different ways can the letters of the word MOOOC be arranged?

Q7. In how many different ways can the letters of the word EXCESSIVE be arranged?

Q8. In how many different ways can the letters of the word INTERNATIONAL be
arranged?

Q9. In how many different ways can the letters of the word BANANA be arranged?

Q10. In how many different ways can the letters of the word FOOTBALL be arranged such
that all vowels are always together?

Q11. In how many different ways can the letters of the word MARKER be arranged such
that all vowels are always together?

Q12. In how many different ways can the letters of the word EXCESSIVE be arranged such
that all consonants are always together?

Q13. Find the number of words formed with the letters of the word DELHI which

(i) Begins with D

(ii) Ends with I
(iii) Has the letter L always in the middle
(iv) Begins with D and Ends with I

Q14. There are 4 boys and 4 girls. In how many ways can they be seated in a row so that
all the girls do not sit together?

Probability

Q 1. 2 Coins are tossed, Find the probability of 2 tails?

Q 2. 2 Coins are tossed, Find the probability of exactly 1 tail?

Q 3. 2 Coins are tossed, Find the probability of no tails?

Q 4. 3 Coins are tossed, Find the probability of all the heads?

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 Permutation and Combination & Probability (Amit Garg)

Q 5. 3 Coins are tossed, Find the probability of Exactly 2 heads?

Q6. 3 Coins are tossed, Find the probability of Exactly 1 heads?

Q 7. 3 Coins are tossed, Find the probability of atleast 1 tail?

Q 8. 4 Coins are tossed, Find the probability of Exactly 3 tails?

Q 9. 4 Coins are tossed, Find the probability of Atleast 1 head?

Q 10. 5 Coins are tossed, Find the probability of all the tails?

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 Permutation and Combination & Probability (Amit Garg)

ANSWERS

1. 24 ways
2. 120 ways
3. 3. 720
4. 40320
5. 12
6. 20
7. 30,240
8. 129729600
9. 60
10. 1080
11. 120
12. 1200
13. (i) 24, (ii) 24, (iii) 24, (iv) 6
14. 37440

Probability
1. ¼
2. ½
3. ¼
4. 1/8
5. 3/8
6. 3/8
7. 7/8
8. ¼
9. 15/16
10. 1/32

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 2022
1. The letter A, B, C, D and E are arranged in such a way that there are exactly two letters between A and E.
How many such arrangements are possible?
a) 12
b) 18
c) 24
d) 36

2. A,B and C are three places such that there are three different roads from A to B, four different roads from B
to C and three different roads A to C in how many different ways can one travel from A to C using these
roads?
a) 10
b) 13
C) 15
d) 36
3. How many 3-digit natural numbers (without repetition of digits) are there such that each digit is odd and
the number is divisible by 5?
a) 8
b) 12
c) 16
d) 24
4. The digit 1 to 9 are arranged in three rows in such a way that each row contains three digits, and the
number formed in the second row is twice the number formed in the first row; and the number formed in
the third row is thrice the number formed in the first row. Repetition of digit is not allowed. If only three of
the four digit 2,3,7 and 9 are allowed to use in the first row, how many be arranged in the three rows?
a) 4
b) 3
c) 2
d) 1
5.One non-zero digit, one vowel and one consonant from English alphabet (in capital) are to use in forming
passwords ,such that each password has to start with a vowel and end with a consonant. How many such
passwords can be generated?
a) 105
b) 525
c) 945
d) 1050
6. There are 9 cups placed on a table arranged in equal number of rows and columns out of which 6 cups
contain coffee and 3 cups contain tea. In how many ways can they be arranged so that each row should
contain at least one cup of coffee?
a) 18
b) 27
c) 54
d) 81
7. There is a numeric lock which has a 3-digit pin. The pin contains digits 1 to 7. There is no repetition of digit
the digit in the pin from left to right are in decreasing order. Any two digits in the pin differ by at least 2.how
many maximum attempts does one need to find out the pin with certainty?
a) 6

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b)8
c) 10
d) 12
2021
1. Integers are listed from 700 to 1000. In how many integers is the sum of the digits 10?
a) 6
b) 7
c) 8
d) 9
2. On a chess board, in how many different ways can 6 consecutive squares be chosen on the diagonals
along a straight path ?
a) 4
b) 6
c) 8
d) 12
3. There are 6 persons arranged in a row .another person has to shake hands with 3 of them so that he
should not shake hands with two consecutive persons. In how many distinct possible combinations can the
handshakes take place?
a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
d) 6
2020
1. How many five –digit prime numbers can be obtained by using all the digit 1,2,3,4 and 5 without
repetition of digits?
a) 0
b) 1
c) 9
d) 10
2. How many integers are there between 1 and 100 which have 4 as a digit but are not divisible by 4?
a) 5
b) 11
c) 12
d) 13
3. How many different 5-letter words (with or without meaning) can be constructed using all the letters of
the word has word ‘Delhi ‘so that each word has to start with D and end with I?
a) 24
b) 18
c) 12
d) 6
2019
1. Each face of a cube can be painted in black or white colours .in how many different ways can the cube be
painted?
a) 9
b) 10
c) 11
d) 12

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2. Suppose you have sufficient amount of rupee currency in three denominations:Rs.1 ,Rs.10 and Rs.50 .in
how many different ways can you pay a bill of Rs.107?
a) 16
b) 17
c) 18
d) 19
3. The number of times the digit 5 will appear while writing the integers 1 to 1000 is
a) 269
b) 271
c) 300
d) 302
2018
1.While writing all the numbers from 700 to 1000 , how many numbers occur in which the digit at hundred’s
place is greater than the digit at ten’s place , and the digit at ten’s place is greater than the digit the at unit’s
place?
a) 61
b) 64
c) 85
d) 91
2. A bag contains 15 red balls and 20 black balls. Each ball is numbered either 1or2 or 3 .20% of the red balls
are numbered 1 and 40% of them are numbered 3. Similarly, among the black balls, 45% are numbered 2
and 30% are numbered 3. A boy picks a ball at random .he wins if the ball is red and numbered 3 or if it is
black and numbered 1 or 2 what are the chances of his winning?
a) 1/2
b) 4/7
c) 5/9
d) 12/13
2017
1. A bag contains 20 balls .8 balls are green, 7 are white and 5 are red . What is the minimum number of balls
that must be picked up from the bag blindfolded (without replacing any of it ) to be assured of picking at
least one ball of each colour ?
a) 17
b) 16
c) 13
d) 11
2.If 2 boys and 2 girls are to be arranged in a row so that the girls are not next to each other, how many
possible arrangements are there?
a) 3
b) 6
c) 12
d) 24

PYQ 2011-2016

3.How many numbers are there between 100 and 300 which either begin with or end with 2 ?
a) 110
b) 111

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c) 112
d) None of the above

4. Four –digit numbers are to be formed using the digits 1, 2,3, and 4; and none of these four digits are
repeated in any manner . further,
1. 2 and 3 are not immediately follow each other
2. 1 is not to be immediately followed by
3. 4 is not to appear at the last place
4. 1 is not to appear at the first place
How many different numbers can be formed ?
a) 6
b) 8
c) 9
d) None of the above

5. A around archery target of diameter 1 m is marked with four scoring regions from the centre outwards as
red, blue, yellow and white. The radius of the red band is 0.20m. The width of all the remaining bands is
equal .if archers throw arrows towards the target, what is the probability that the arrows fall in the red
region of the archery target?
a) 0.40
b) 0.20
c) 0.16
d) 0.04
6. A selection is to be made for one post of principal and two posts of vice-principal .amongst the six
candidates called for the interview, only two are eligible for the posts of principal while they all are eligible
for the post of vice-principal. The number of possible combinations of selectees is
a) 4
b) 12
c) 18
d) None of the above
7. A student has to opt for 2 subject out of 5 subjects for a course , namely , commerce, economics ,
statistics, mathematics I and mathematics ii . mathematics ii can be offered only if mathematics I is also
opted . The number of different combinations of two subject which can be opted is
a) 5
b) 6
c) 7
d) 8

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 (Time And Work and Pipe and Cistern Class 2- Amit Garg)

1. 8 men can do a piece of work in 10 children will take to complete the

days. How many men are needed work?
to complete the work in 40 days?
(a) 8 days
(b) 12 days
2. 12 boys can do a piece of work in 5 (c) 16 days (d) 6 days
days. How many boys are needed
to complete the work in 15 days?
5. A sum of money is sufficient to pay
Anil's wages for 20 days or Sunil's
3. 5 boys can prepare 10 dolls in 6 wages for 30 days. The money is
days working 6 hrs a day. Then in sufficient to pay the wages of both
how many days can 12 boys for ___ days.
prepare 16 dolls working 8 hrs a
day?
6. A sum of money is sufficient to pay
A's wages for 12 days or B's wages
4. 10 men can complete a work in 8 for 16 days. The money is sufficient
days and 10 children take 16 days to pay the wages of both for ___
to complete the same work. How days.
many days will 5 men and 10
Pipes and cisterns

1. Two pipes A and B can fill a tank in 2. Two pipes A and B can fill a tank in
20 and 30 minutes respectively. If 4 and 5 minutes respectively. If both
both the pipes are opened together, the pipes are opened together, then
then how long will it take to fill the how long will it take to fill the tank?
tank? 10 20
(a) 9
minutes (b) 9
minutes
(a) 15 minutes
(c) 6 minutes (d) 3
(b) 16 minutes minutes

(c) 20 minutes

(d) None of these 3. Pipe A can fill a tank in 5 hours,

pipe B in 10 hours and pipe C in 30
hours. If all the pipes are opened, in

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 (Time And Work and Pipe and Cistern Class 2- Amit Garg)

how many hours will the tank be 7. A tap can fill a cistern in 4 hours
filled? while it can be emptied by another
30 tap in 9 hours. If both the taps are
(a) 8
hrs
20
opened simultaneously, then after
(b) 6
hrs how much time will the cistern get
(c) 6 hrs filled?

(d) None of these (a) 7.2 hrs

(b) 14.4 hrs

4. Two pipes A and B can fill a tank in (c) 6 hrs

20 and 24 minutes respectively. If (d) Cannot be determined
both the pipes are used together,
then how long will it take to fill the
tank? 8. A Tap can fill a tank in 4 hours.
120 60 After half the tank is filled, three
(a) 11
minutes (b) 11 minutes
more similar taps are opened. What
(c) 16 minutes (d) 12 minutes is the total time taken to fill the tank
completely?

5. Pipe A can fill a tank in 5 hours, (a) 2.25 hrs (b) 2.75
pipe B in 10 hours and pipe C in 20 hrs
hours. If all the pipes are opened, in (c) 3 hrs (d) 2.5 hrs
how many hours will the tank be
filled?
20 30
(a) hrs (b) hrs
7 7
9. One pipe can fill a tank three times
(c) 4 hrs (d) 3 hrs
as fast as another pipe. If together
the two pipes can fill the tank in 16
6. Pipe A and B can fill a tank in 5 minutes, then the slower pipe alone
hours and 6 hours respectively. will be able to fill the tank in:
Pipe C can empty it in 12 hours. If (a) 81 min (b) 48 min
all the pipes are opened, then the
(c) 64 min (d) 92 min
tank will be filled in?
30 40
(a) 17 hrs (b) 17 hrs
60
(c) hrs (d) 4 hrs
17

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 (Time And Work and Pipe and Cistern Class 2- Amit Garg)

ANSWERS
Time and Work & Pipe and Cistern
1. 2 days
2. 4 Days
3. 3 Days
4. 8 Days
5. 12 Days
6. 48/7 Days

Pipe and Cistern

1. D
2. B
3. D
4. A
5. A
6. C
7. A
8. D
9. C

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 (Problem on Ages- Amit Garg)

1. The Ratio of the ages of two persons is 4:7 and the age of them is 30 Yrs more than younger. The sum of
their ages(in Years) is
2. The respective ratio of the present ages of Ritu and Alka is 4:5. Six years hence, the respective ratio of their
ages will be 6:7. What is the difference between their ages?
3. 4 Year ago, the Ratio of the ages of A and B was 2:3 and after 4 Year it will become 5:7. Find their Present
Ages.
4. Ajay is 40 Years old and Sumit is 60 years old. How many years ago was the ratio of their ages 3:5?
5. The ratio of Present ages of two Brothers is 1:2 and 5 years back the ratio was 1:3. What will be the ratio of
their ages after 5 Years?
6. The sum of ages of 4 children born at the intervals of 2 years each is 48 years. What is the age of the
youngest child?
7. A man is 24 years older than his son. In two years, his age will be twice the age of his son. The present
age of Father is:
8. Father is three times as old as his son. 15 Years hence, he will be twice as old as his son. Sum of their ages?
9. The Present age of a father is 3 years more than three times the age of his son. 3 Years hence, father’s age
will be 10 years more than twice the age of the son. The father’s present age is.
10. In a family, the average age of father and mother is 35 years. The average age of the father, mother and
their only son is 27 years. What is the age of the son?
11. The Average age of A, B and C is 26, if the Average age of A and C is 29 Years, What is the age of B?
12. The average age of A, B, C and D is 50 years. With E joining them Now, the average age of all the five is 49
Years. How old is E?

Home Assignment
1. The sum of ages of 5 children born at the intervals of 3 years each is 50 years. What is the age of the
youngest child?
A. 4 years

B. 8 years

C. 10 years

D. None of these
2. Present ages of Sameer and Anand are in the ratio of 5 : 4 respectively. Three years hence, the ratio of
their ages will become 11 : 9 respectively. What is Anand's present age in years?
A. 24

B. 27

C. 40

D. None of these

3. Six years ago, the ratio of the ages of Kunal and Sagar was 6 : 5. Four years hence, the ratio of their
ages will be 11 : 10. What is Sagar's age at present?
A. 16 years

B. 18 years

C. 20 years

D. None of these

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 (Problem on Ages- Amit Garg)

4. At present, the ratio between the ages of Arun and Deepak is 4 : 3. After 6 years, Arun's age will be 26
years. What is the age of Deepak at present ?
A. 12 years

B. 15 years

C. 19 and half

D. 21 years

5. The sum of the present ages of a father and his son is 60 years. Six years ago, father's age was five
times the age of the son. After 6 years, son's age will be:
A. 12 years

B. 14 years

C. 18 years

D. 20 years
6. Sachin is younger than Rahul by 7 years. If their ages are in the respective ratio of 7 : 9, how old is
Sachin?
A. 16 years

B. 18 years

C. 28 years

D. None of these

7. A man is 24 years older than his son. In two years, his age will be twice the age of his son. The present
age of his son is:
A. 14 years

B. 18 years

C. 20 years

D. 22 years

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 (Problem on Ages- Amit Garg)

ANSWERS
1. 110 yrs
2. 3 yrs
3. A 36 Yrs B 52 Yrs
4. 10
5. 3:5
6. 9 yrs
7. 46Yrs
8. 60Yrs
9. 33 Yrs
10. 11 Yrs
11. 20 Yrs
12. 45 Yrs

Home assignment

1. 4Yrs
2. 24
3. 16 Yrs
4. 15 Yrs
5. 20 Yrs
6. None of These
7. 22 Yrs

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 Class test (Profit And Loss) by Amit Garg

1. If selling price is doubled, the profit triples. Find the profit percent.

2
(a) 66 (b) 100
3

1
(c) 133 (d) 120
3

2. A man buys a Washing Machine for Rs. 7400 and sells it at a loss of 15%.
What is the selling price of the Washing Machine?

(a) Rs. 6090 (c) Rs. 6290

(b) Rs. 6460 (d) Rs. 7202

3. A dishonest shopkeeper professes to sell his goods at cost price, but delivers
900 gm instead of 1kg. What is the percentage of profit/loss made by him?

a. 10% loss c. 11.11% profit

b. 10% profit d. None of these

4. 100 bananas are bought at the rate of Rs. 450 and sold at the rate of Rs.
60 per dozen. The percentage of profit or loss is:

2
(a) 14 % gain (b) 11.11% gain
7

(c) 11.11% loss (d) 15 % loss

5. A trader mixes 16 kg of sugar at Rs. 20 per kg with 20 kg of sugar of other

variety at Rs. 26 per kg and sells the mixture at Rs. 25 per kg. His profit
percent is:

(a) No profit, no loss (c) 8%

(b) 5% (d) None of these

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 Class test (Profit And Loss) by Amit Garg

6. If cost price of an article is 60% of its selling price, what is the profit
percentage?

(a) 40% (c) 66.66%

(b) 150% (d) None of these

7. Cost price of 10 articles is equal to the selling price of 20 articles. Find

loss/gain percent.

(a) 50% profit

(b) 50% loss
(c) 33.33% loss
(d) None of these

8. Ashok buys Chocolates at 5 for Rs. 6 and sells them at 11 for Rs. 12. What
does his gain or loss percent?

(a) 9.09% profit (c) 9.09% loss

(b) 11.11% profit (d) 11.11% loss

9. The cost price of 10 Articles is equal to the selling price of 12 Articles. Find
the profit/loss percentage.

(a) 20% profit (c) 16.66% profit

(b) 20% loss (d) 16.66% loss

10. Cost price of 16 articles is equal to the selling price of 24 articles. Find
gain/loss percent.

(a) 50% profit (c) 33.33% loss

(b) 50% loss (d) None of these

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 Class Test - 2nd (Profit and Loss) by Amit Garg

Q. 1. Successive discounts of 10%, 20% and 30% amount to a single discount of:

Q 2. A boy, by mistake, calculated the profit percentage taking S.P. as the base and found its value to be
50%. What is the actual profit percentage?

Q.3. I sold a TV at 20% loss. Had I got Rs. 3000/- more for that TV, I would have made a profit of 20%.
What was the cost price of the TV for me?

Q. 4. A Mobile passes through three hands and each gain 20%. If the third sells it for Rs. 864, what did
the first pay for it?

Q. 5. A shopkeeper sells two items at the same price. If he sells one item at profit of 20% and the other at
loss of 20%. Find the percentage profit or loss.

Q.6. How much should a shopkeeper mark up the price of an article over cost price so that even after
giving a discount of 25%, he gains 50%?

Q. 7. An Article passes through three hands and each gain 20%. If the third sells it for Rs. 432, what did
the first pay for it?
(a) 200
(b) 240
(c) 250
(d) 300

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 (Profit and Loss- Amit Garg)

PROFIT, LOSS & DISCOUNT

IMPORTANT FACTS
Cost Price: The price, at which an article is purchased, is called its cost price,
abbreviated as C.P.

Selling Price: The price, at which an article is sold, is called its selling prices,
abbreviated as S.P.

Profit or Gain: If S.P. is greater than C.P., the seller is said to have a profit or gain.

Loss: If S.P. is less than C.P., the seller is said to have incurred a loss.

IMPORTANT FORMULAE
1. Gain = (S.P.) - (C.P.)

2. Loss = (C.P.) - (S.P.)

3. Loss or gain is always reckoned on C.P.

4. Gain Percentage: (Gain %)

Gain x 100
Gain % = ( )
C. P.
5. Loss Percentage: (Loss %)
Loss x 100
Loss % = ( )
C. P.
6. Selling Price: (S.P.)
(100 + Gain %)
SP = [ x = C. P. ]
100

7. Selling Price: (S.P.)

(100 − Loss %)
SP = [ x = C. P. ]
100

8. Cost Price: (C.P.)

100
CP = [ x S. P. ]
(100 + Gain%)

9. Cost Price: (C.P.)

100
CP = [ x S. P. ]
(100 − Loss%)

10. If an article is sold at a gain of say 35%, then S.P. = 135% of C.P.

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 (Profit and Loss- Amit Garg)

11. If an article is sold at a loss of say, 35% then S.P. = 65% of C.P.

Examples Based on NCERT

Finding cost price/selling price, profit % or loss %

Example 1: Sohan bought a second hand refrigerator for Rs 2,500 then spent Rs 500 on
its repairs and sold it for Rs 3,300. Find his loss or gain per cent.

Solution: Cost Price (CP) = Rs 2500 + Rs 500 (overhead expenses are added to give
CP)

= Rs 3000
Sale Price (SP) = Rs 3300
As SP > CP, he made a profit = Rs 3300 – Rs 3000 = Rs 300
His profit on Rs 3,000 is Rs 300. How much would be his profit on Rs 100?
Profit = 300 ×100% = 10%
3000

TRY THESE

Example 1: Find selling price (SP) if a profit of 5% is made on

(a) a cycle of Rs 700 with Rs 50 as overhead charges.

(b) a lawn mower bought at Rs 1150 with Rs 50 as transportation charges.
(c) a fan bought for Rs 560 and expenses of Rs 40 made on its repairs.

Solve on your own.

Example 2: A shopkeeper purchased 200 bulbs for Rs 10 each. However 5 bulbs were
fused and had to be thrown away. The remaining were sold at Rs 12 each. Find the gain
or loss %.

Solution: Cost price of 200 bulbs = Rs 200 × 10 = Rs 2000

5 bulbs were fused. Hence, number of bulbs left = 200 – 5 = 195
These were sold at Rs 12 each.
The SP of 195 bulbs = Rs 195 × 12 = Rs 2340
He obviously made a profit (as SP > CP).
Profit = Rs 2340 – Rs 2000 = Rs 340
On Rs 2000, the profit is Rs 340. How much profit is made on Rs 100?
Profit = 340 × 100% = 17%.
2000

Example 3: Meenu bought two fans for Rs 1200 each. She sold one at a loss of 5% and
the other at a profit of 10%. Find the selling price of each. Also find out the total profit or
loss.

Solution: Overall CP of each fan = Rs 1200. One is sold at a loss of 5%.

This means if CP is Rs 100, SP is Rs 95.

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 (Profit and Loss- Amit Garg)

Therefore, when CP is Rs 1200, then SP = Rs

95 × 1200 = Rs 1140
100

Also second fan is sold at a profit of 10%.

It means, if CP is Rs 100, SP is Rs 110.
Therefore, when CP is Rs 1200, then SP = Rs
110 × 1200 = Rs 1320
100

Was there an overall loss or gain?

We need to find the combined CP and SP to say
Whether there was an overall profit or loss.
Total CP = Rs 1200 + Rs 1200 = Rs 2400
Total SP = Rs 1140 + Rs 1320 = Rs 2460
Since total SP > total CP, a profit of Rs (2460 – 2400) or Rs 60 has been made.

Example 4: A shopkeeper bought two TV sets at Rs 10,000 each. He sold one at a profit
10% and the other at a loss of 10%. Find whether he made an overall profit or loss.

Solve on your own.

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 (Profit and Loss- Amit Garg)

PROFIT & LOSS

Q

. 1. Sunil buys an old scooter for Rs. Q. 4. A Vendor bought bananas at 6

4,700 and spends Rs. 800 on its for Rs. 10 and sold at 4 for Rs. 6.
repairs. If he sells the scooter for Find percentage of profit or loss
Rs. 5,800, his gain percent is: is:

Q. 2. If cost price of an article is 80% Q. 5. A boy buys oranges at 9 for Rs.

of its selling price, what is the 16 and sells them at 11 for Rs.
profit percentage? 20. What does his gain or loss
percent?

Q. 3. 100 oranges are bought at the

Rate of Rs. 350 and sold at Rate
of Rs. 48 per dozen. The
Q. 6. The cost price of 15 ice-creams
percentage of profit or loss is:
is equal to the selling price of 12
ice-creams. Find the profit/loss
percentage.

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 (Profit and Loss- Amit Garg)

Q. 7. Cost price of 24 articles is equal Q. 10. A dishonest dealer professes to

to the selling price of 16 articles. sell his goods at cost price, but
Find gain percent. he uses a weight of 950gm for
the Kg weight. Find his profit
percentage.

Q. 8. Cost price of 20 articles is equal

to the selling price of 24 articles.
Find loss percent.

Q.11. A milkman professes to sell milk

at cost price to the customers but
still he makes a profit of 16.66%
as he used to mix water in the
pure milk. What is the ratio of
milk to water in one lt of mixture?

Q.9. A dishonest shopkeeper

professes to sell his goods at
cost price, but delivers 800 gm
instead of 1kg. What is the
percentage of profit made by
him? Q. 12. Successive discounts of 10%,
12% and 15% amount to a single
discount of:

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 (Profit and Loss- Amit Garg)

Q 13. A boy, by mistake, calculated the

profit percentage taking S.P. as
the base and found its value to
be 33.33%. What is the actual Q. 16. A shopkeeper sells two items at
profit percentage? What if it was the same price. If he sells one
loss percentage? item at profit of 10% and the
other at loss of 10%. Find the
percentage profit and loss.

Q.14. I sold a radio at 10% loss. Had I

got Rs. 300/- more for that radio,
I would have made a profit 20%.
What was the cost price of the
radio for me?

Q. 15. A Watch passes through three

hands and each gain 25%. If the
third sells it for Rs. 250, what did
the first pay for it?

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 (Profit and Loss- Amit Garg)

HOME ASSIGNMENT
Practice Exercise

1. A school kid, by mistake calculated the value of profit percent on S.P. and found it to
be 16.66%. What was the actual profit %?
(a) 25% (b) 20% (c) 14.28% (d) 16.66%

2. A student calculated the loss percent as 16.66% on selling price. What must be the
actual loss percent?
(a) 25% (b) 20% (c) 14.28% (d) 16.66%

3. The cost price of 12 chairs is equal to the selling price of 16 chairs. Find the
profit/loss percent.
(a) 25% (b) 33.33% (c) 16.66% (d) no profit no loss

4. A man sold a car at the loss of 25%. Had he sold it at a gain of 25%, he would have
received Rs.2500 more. Find the cost price of the car.
(a) Rs.5050 (b) Rs.5000 (c) Rs.4920 (d) Rs.5550

5. A fruit seller bought 48 kg of apples for Rs.600. some of the apples were rotten so
were thrown away. He sold the remaining apples at Rs.20 per kg, thus making a
profit of Rs.200. calculate the percentage of the apples that were thrown away.
(a) 20% (b) 15.5% (c) 16.66% (d) 87.5%

6. A man buys chairs at the rate of Rs.600 for 3 chairs. He sells them for Rs.280 each.
How many chairs must he sell to get a profit of Rs.2640?
(a) 38 (b) 26 (c) 32 (d) 33

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 (Profit and Loss- Amit Garg)

7. Sahil owns a scooter worth Rs.15000, which he sells to Anil at a profit of 10%. If after
some time, Anil sells it to Sunil at a loss of 10%, what is the cost price of scooter for
Sunil?
(a) Rs.15000 (b) Rs.16500 (c) Rs.14850 (d) Rs.15150

8. A retailer buys toffees at the rate of 5 for Rs.6 and sells at the rate of 6 for Rs.5. find
the profit or loss%
(a) 25% profit (b) 25% loss
(c) 30.56% profit (d) 30.56% loss

9. A retailer buys chocolates at the rate of 5 for Rs.4 and sells at the rate of 4 for Rs.5.
find the profit or loss %.
(a) 25% profit (b) 25% loss (c) 20% profit (d) 56.25% Profit

10. A man sold two articles, each at Rs.99. on one he made a profit of 10% and on the
other he incurred a loss of 1%. Find the overall profit or loss percent.
4 9
(a) 1% profit (b) 4 % profit (c) 4 % loss (d) 1% loss
19 19
11. 60% goods are sold at 5% loss and the rest are sold at 10% profit. If there is a total
profit of Rs.100, then worth of the goods sold is
(a) Rs.6000 (b) Rs.5000 (c) Rs.10000 (d) none of these

12. What is the percentage profit in selling an article at a discount of 20% which was
earlier being sold at a 40% profit?
(a) 20% (b) 28% (c) 12% (d) 14%

13. By selling a cycle at Rs.1200, a shopkeeper incurs a loss of 20%. At what price
should he sell it to get a profit of 15%?
(a) Rs.1625 (b) Rs.1725 (c) Rs.1700 (d) Rs.1800

14. A dishonest shopkeeper professes to sell the goods at cost price but weighs 900 gms
instead of a kg. What is his profit percentage?
(a) 11.11% (b) 09.09% (c) zero % (d) 10%

15. A dishonest milkman claims to sell milk at cost price but mixes water with milk. How
much water must he be mixing with one-litre of milk if he makes a profit of 20%?
(a) 200ml (b) 250ml (c) 180 ml (d) 166.66 ml

16. A dishonest milkman mixes water with pure milk and claims to sell the milk at cost
price, thereby making a profit of 25%. How much water is there in one-litre that he
delivers to the customers?
(a) 200ml (b) 250ml (c) 180 ml (d) 166.66 ml

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 (Profit and Loss- Amit Garg)

ANSWER
1. 5.4%
2. 25%
3. 14.28%
4. 10%Loss
5. 2.27%Profit
6. 25%Profit
7. 50% Profit
8. 16.66% Loss
9. 25% Profit
10. 5.26%
11. 6:1
12. 32.68%
13. Actual Profit 50% if Loss 25%
14. Rs 1000
15. Rs 128
16. 1 % Loss

Profit and Loss(Home Assignment)

1. (b) 20%
2. (c) 14.28%
3. (a) 25%
4. (b) 5000
5. (c) 16.66%
6. (d) 33
7. (c) 14850
8. (d) 30.56% Loss
9. (d) 56.25%Profit
𝟒
10. (b) 𝟒 𝟏𝟗 % 𝑷𝒓𝒐𝒇𝒊𝒕
11. (c) Rs 10000
12. (c) 12%
13. (b) Rs 1725
14. (a) 11.11%
15. (a) 200 ml
16. (a) 200 ml

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 1
0
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 Puzzle Handout CSAT Batch

1. Study the following information carefully and answer the questions:

(i) B and E are good in Dramatics and Computer Science.
(ii) A and B are good in Computer Science and Physics.
(iii) A, D and C are good in Physics and History.
(iv) C and A are good in Physics and Maths.
(v) D and E are good in History and Dramatics.

2. Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
Ravi and Kunal are good in Hockey and Volleyball. Sachin and Ravi are good in Hockey and
Baseball. Gaurav and Kunal are good in Cricket and Volleyball. Sachin, Gaurav and Michael
are good in Football and Baseball.

3. (1) kailash , Govind and Harinder are intelligent.

(2) kailash , Rajesh and Jitendra are hard-working.
(3) Rajesh , Harinderand Jitendra are honest.
(4) Kailash , govind and jitendra are ambitious.

4. Madan and Rohit are in the same team of hockey. Parth defeated Rohit in badminton but lost to Sachin in
tennis. Nitin teams with Sagar in football and with Sachin in hockey. Rohit defeated Sachin in chess.
Those who play cricket do not play badminton, volleyball or tennis. Madan and Parth are in opposite
teams of basketball. Nitin represents his state in cricket while Sagar does so at the district level. Boys
who play chess do not play football, basketball or volleyball. Madan and Parth are together in the
volleyball team. Boys who play football also play hockey.

5. Nine cricket fans are watching a match in a stadium. Seated in one row, they are J, K, L, M,
N, O, P, Q and R. L is at the immediate right of M and at third place at the right of N. K is at
one end of the row. Q is seated adjacent to both O and P. O is at the third place at the left of
K. J is right next to left of O.

Read the following information carefully and answer the questions that follow :

(1) Five friends P, Q, R, S and T travelled to five different cities of Chennai, Kolkata, Delhi, Bangalore and Hyderabad
by different modes of transport of Bus, Train, Aeroplane, Car and Boat from Mumbai.

(2) The person who travelled to Delhi did not travel by boat.

(3) R went to Bangalore by car and Q went to Kolkata by aeroplane.

(4) S travelled by boat whereas T travelled by train.

(4) Mumbai is not connected by bus to Delhi and Chennai.

6. Which of the following combinations of person and mode is not correct ?

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 Puzzle Handout CSAT Batch

(a) P - Bus (b) Q – Aeroplane

(c) R- Car (d) S – Boat (e) T - Aeroplane

7. Which of the following combinations is true for S?

(a) Delhi – Bus (b) Chennai - Bus

(c) Chennai – Boat (d) Data inadequate (e) None of these

8. Which of the following combinations of place and mode is not correct ?

(a) Delhi – Bus (b) Kolkata – Aeroplane

(c) Bangalore - Car (d) Chennai - Boat (e) Hyderabad - Bus

9. The person travelling to Delhi went by which of the following modes ?

(a)Bus (b) Train (c) Aeroplane (d) Car (e) Boat

10. Who among the following travelled to Delhi ?

(a)R(b) S

(c) T (d) Data inadequate (e) None of these

Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below it :
There are six persons A, B, C, D, E and F in a school. Each of the teachers teaches two subjects, one compulsory
subject and the other optional subject. D's optional subject was History while three others have it as compulsory
subject. E and F have Physics as one of their subjects. F's compulsory subject is Mathematics which is an optional
subject of both C and E. History and English are A's subjects but in terms of compulsory and optional subjects, they
are just reverse of those of D's. Chemistry is an optional subject of only one of them. The only female teacher in the
school has English as her compulsory subject.

11. What is C's compulsory subject ?

(a) History (b) Physics (c) Chemistry (d) English(e) Mathematics

12. Who is a female member in the group ?

(a)A (b) B (c) C (d) D (e) E

13. Which of the following has same compulsory and optional subjects as those of F's?

(a)D (b) B (c) A (d) C (e) None of these

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 Puzzle Handout CSAT Batch

14 .Disregarding which is the compulsory and which is the optional subject, who has the same two subject
combination as F ?

(a)A (b) B (c) E (d) D (e) None of these

15.Which of the following groups has History as the compulsory subject ?

(a) A, C, D (b) B, C, D(c) C, D (d) A, B, C(e)A,D

Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions :

B, M, T, R, K, H and D are travelling in a train compartment with III-tier sleeper berth.Each of them has a different
profession of Engineer, Doctor, Architect, Pharmacist, Lawyer, Journalist and Pathologist. They occupied two lower
berths, three middle berths and two upper berths. B, the Engineer, is not on the upper berth. The Architect is the
only other person who occupies the same type of berth as that of B. M and H are not on the middle berth and their
professions are Pathologist and Lawyer respectively. T is a Pharmacist. D is neither a Journalist nor an Architect. K
occupies the same type of berth as that of the Doctor. (Bank P.O. 2004)

16.Who is the Architect ?

(a) Pharmacist (b) H (c) R

(d) Data inadequate (e) None of these

17.What isD’s profession ?

(a) Pharmacist (b) Lawyer

(c) Doctor (d) Engineer (e) Data inadequate

18.Which of the following pairs occupy the lower berth ?

(a) BT (b)BD

(c)BK (d)Data inadequate (e) None of these

19.Which of the following groups occupies the middle berth ?

(a)DKT (b)HKT

(c)DKR (d)DHT (e) None of these

20. Which of the following combinations of person-berth-profession is correct ?

(a) K - Upper - Lawyer (b) D - Upper – Doctor

(c) M - Lower – Journalist(d) R - Lower - Architect (e) All correct

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 Puzzle Handout CSAT Batch

Directions (Questions 21 to 24) : Rad the information given below and answer the questions that follow :

Four young men Raj, Prem, Ved and Ashok are friendly with four girls Sushma, Kusum, Vimla and Poonam. Sushma
and Vimla are friends. Ved'sgirl friend does not like Sushma and Vimla. Kusum does not care for Ved. Prem's girl
friend is friendly with Sushma. Sushma does not like Raj.

21. Who is Raj's girl friend ?

(a) Sushma (b) Kusum (c) Vimla(d) Poonam

22. With whom is Sushma friendly ?

(a) Raj (b) Prem (c) Ved (d) Ashok

23. Who is Poonam's boy friend ?

(a)Ashok (b) Ved(c) Prem (d) Raj

24. Who does not like Sushma and Vimla ?

(a)Poonam (b) Raj (c) Ashok(d) Ved

Directions(Questions25to29):Studythefollowing information carefully and answer the questions given below : (Bank
Recruitment, 2004) Seven boys A, D, Y, U, P, Q and J live in three different buildings - Ashiana, Top-view and Ridge.
Each of them is flying kites of different colours i.e. red, green, blue, white, black, yellow and pink, not necessarily in
that order. Not more than three or less than two stay in any of the buildings. Q is flying a pink kite and lives in the
same building as only J. i.e.Ashiana. Y is flying a black kite and does not live in Ridge building. U does not live in the
same building as A or P and is flying a yellow coloured kite. D lives in Ridge building with only one more person and is
flying a green kite. None in the Top-view building flies a white kite. P does not fly ablue kite.

25. Who live in Ridge building ?

(a)D, U (b) D, A, P(c) Y, A, P (d) A, P (e)one of these

26. Who is flying the blue kite ?

(a)A(b) J

(c)P (d) Data inadequate(e) None of these

27. Who flies the red kite ?

(a) A (b) J (c)P (d) Data inadequate (e) None of these

28. Who stay in Top-view building ?

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 Puzzle Handout CSAT Batch

(a) Y, J, P (b) A, P(c) A, P, D(d) Y, U, J(e) None of these

29.What coloured kite is J flying ?

(a) Blue (b) White

(c)Black (d) Data inadequate (e) None of these

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 Race and Circular Motion

1. In a 1000 m race, A can give B 100 m and C 280 m. In the race of 1000m B can give C:

2. A and B take part in 100 m race. A runs at 5 kmph. A gives B a start of 8 m and still beats
him by 8 seconds. The speed of B is:

A. 5.15 kmph

B. 4.14 kmph

C. 4.25 kmph

D. 4.4 kmph

3. In a 500 m race, the ratio of the speeds of two contestants A and B is 3 : 4. A has a start of
140 m. Then, A wins by:
A. 60 m

B. 40 m

C. 20 m

D. 10 m

4. In a race of 200 m, A can beat B by 31 m and C by 18 m. In a race of 350 m, C will beat B by:

A. 22.75 m

B. 25 m

C. 19.5 m

4
D. 7 m
7

5. In 100 m race, A covers the distance in 36 seconds and B in 45 seconds. In this race A beats
B by:
A. 20 m

B. 25 m

C. 22.5 m

D. 9 m

Circular Motion:-

1. There is a track with a length of 120 meters and 2 people, A & B, are running around it at 12
m/min and 20 m/min respectively in the same direction. When will A and B meet at the starting
point for the first time?
2. There is a track with a length of 120 meters and 2 people, A & B, are running around it at 12
m/min and 20 m/min respectively in the same direction. When will B overtake A for the 1st time?
3. There is a track with a length of 120 meters and 2 people, A & B, are running around it at 12
m/min and 20 m/min respectively in the same direction. At how many points will A and B meet?

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 Race and Circular Motion

4. In a circular race of 1200m, A and B start from the same point and at the same time with
speeds of 27kmph and 45 kmph. Find when will they meet again for the first time on the
trace when they are running in the same direction and Opposite direction?
a. 240, 60 Secs
b. 200, 60 secs
c. 200, 80 Sec
d. None of these

5. In a circular race of 1200 m length, A and B start with speeds of 18kmph and 27 kmph
starting at the same time from the same point. When will they meet for the first time at
the starting point when running in the same direction and opposite direction?
a. 240, 160
b. 480, 480
c. 240, 240
d. 160, 480

6. A, B and C run around a circular track of length 1200 m with respective speeds 9, 18, 27
kmph. If they started at the same time from the same point and run in the same direction
when will they meet for the first time?
a. 360 sec
b. 480 sec
c. 240 sec
d. None

7. P, Q, R run around a circular track 1200 m long with speed of 9, 18, 27 kmph. If they
start at the same point and at the same time in the same direction, when will they meet
again at the starting point?
a. 360 sec
b. 480 sec
c. 240 sec
d. None

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Average Questions:-

1. In the first 10 overs of a cricket game, the run rate was only 3.2. What should be the run rate in the
remaining 40 overs to reach the target of 282 runs?
2. A family consists of total 7 members (two grandparents, two parents and three grandchildren) . The
average age of the grandparents is 67 years, that of the parents is 35 years and that of the grandchildren
is 6 years. What is the average age of the family?
3. A grocer has a sale of Rs. 6435, Rs. 6927, Rs. 6855, Rs. 7230 and Rs. 6562 for 5 consecutive months.
How much sale must he have in the sixth month so that he gets an average sale of Rs. 6500?
4.

The average of 20 numbers is zero. Of them, at the most, how many may be greater than zero?
A. 0

B. 1

C. 10

D. 19

5. The average weight of 8 person's increases by 2.5 kg when a new person comes in place of one of them
weighing 65 kg. What might be the weight of the new person?
A. 76 kg

B. 76.5 kg

C. 85 kg

D. Data inadequate

6. The average monthly income of P and Q is Rs. 5050. The average monthly income of Q and R is Rs.
6250 and the average monthly income of P and R is Rs. 5200. The monthly income of P is:
7. The average age of husband, wife and their child 3 years ago was 27 years and that of wife and the child
5 years ago was 20 years. The present age of the husband is:

Ratio Questions:-

8. Two numbers are respectively 20% and 50% more than a third number. The ratio of the two numbers is:
9. A sum of money is to be distributed among A, B, C, D in the proportion of 5 : 2 : 4 : 3. If C gets Rs.
1000 more than D, what is B's share?
10. Seats for Mathematics, Physics and Biology in a school are in the ratio 5 : 7 : 8. There is a proposal to
increase these seats by 40%, 50% and 75% respectively. What will be the ratio of new seats (after
addition of increase seats)?
11. In a mixture 60 litres, the ratio of milk and water 2 : 1. If this ratio is to be 1 : 2, then the quantity of
water to be further added is:

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 12. The ratio of the number of boys and girls in a college is 7 : 8. If the percentage increase in the number of
boys and girls be 20% and 10% respectively, what will be the new ratio?
13. Salaries of Ravi and Sumit are in the ratio 2 : 3. If the salary of each is increased by Rs. 4000, the new
ratio becomes 40 : 57. What is Sumit's salary?
14. The sum of three numbers is 98. If the ratio of the first to second is 2 :3 and that of the second to the
third is 5 : 8, then the second number is:

Extra Questions

15. I have a few sweets to be distributed. If I keep 2, 3 or 4 in a pack, I am left with one sweet. If I
keep 5 in a pack, I am left with none. What is the minimum number of sweets I have to pack and
distribute ?

A. 25 B. 37

C. 54 D. 65

16. Which one will replace the question mark ?

A. 5 B. 6

C. 8 D. 9

17. Which of the following is necessarily Fraction?

(a) Odd/odd
(b) Odd/even
(c) Even/even
(d) Even/odd
18.
18. A milkman buys milk at Rs. 6.4/lts. He added water and sell mixture at Rs 8/lts thereby making
37.5% profit. The proportion of water to milk received by customer is:
(a) 1:10
(b) 1:15
(c) 1:20
(d) 1:30

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19. A trader gets a profit of 25% on an article. If he buys the article at 10% less and sell it for Rs 4
less, then he makes a profit of 33.33%, find the actual cost price of an article?
(a) 20
(b) 80
(c) 100
(d) 120
20. A reduction of 10% in the price of Banana enables a person to obtain one dozen more bananas for
Rs 180. Find the original price per dozen?
(a) Rs 18 per dozen
(b) Rs 20 per dozen
(c) Rs 25 per dozen
(d) Rs 30 per dozen

21. Two men A and B together can complete one work in 4 days and B alone takes 6 days extra as
compare to A alone to do the same work. Find in how many days A alone can complete the work?
(a) 10 days
(b) 6 days
(c) 15 days
(d) 30 days

22. In Central Secretariat there are three LDCs namely Gopi Chand, Hari Chand and Dhuni Chand
working on the same project. Dhuni Chand is twice as efficient asGopi Chand who in turn is
thrice as efficient asHariChand. Working together all three can complete the project in 9 days.
Find out how long Hari Chand will take to finish the same project alone?
i. 81 days
ii. 45 days
iii. 90 days
iv. 30 days

23. A number when divided by 8 leaves a remainder 3. When the square of the number is divided by
8, the remainder is:
(a) 1
(b) 4
(c) 2
(d) 3

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Type I

1. Select a suitable figure from the Answer Figures that would replace the question mark
(?).

Problem Figures: Answer Figures:

(A) (B) (C) (D) (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

A. 1 B. 2

C. 3 D. 4

E. 5

2. Select a suitable figure from the Answer Figures that would replace the question mark
(?).

Problem Figures: Answer Figures:

(A) (B) (C) (D) (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

A. 1 B. 2

C. 3 D. 4

E. 5

3. Select a suitable figure from the Answer Figures that would replace the question mark
(?).

Problem Figures: Answer Figures:

(A) (B) (C) (D) (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

A. 1 B. 2

C. 3 D. 4

E. 5

4. Select a suitable figure from the Answer Figures that would replace the question mark
(?).

Problem Figures: Answer Figures:

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 (A) (B) (C) (D) (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)
A. 1 B. 2

C. 3 D. 4

E. 5
5.
Select a suitable figure from the Answer Figures that would replace the question mark
(?).

Problem Figures: Answer Figures:

(A) (B) (C) (D) (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

A. 1 B. 2

C. 3 D. 4

E. 5

6. Select a suitable figure from the Answer Figures that would replace the question mark (?).

Problem Figures: Answer Figures:

(A) (B) (C) (D) (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

A. 1 B. 2

C. 3 D. 4

E. 5

7. Select a suitable figure from the Answer Figures that would replace the question mark (?).

Problem Figures: Answer Figures:

(A) (B) (C) (D) (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

A. 1 B. 2

C. 3 D. 4

E. 5
8. Select a suitable figure from the Answer Figures that would replace the question mark (?).

Problem Figures: Answer Figures:

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 (A) (B) (C) (D) (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)
A. 1 B. 2

C. 3 D. 4

E. 5
9. Select a suitable figure from the Answer Figures that would
replace the question mark (?).

Problem Figures: Answer Figures:

(A) (B) (C) (D) (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

A. 1 B. 2

C. 3 D. 4

E. 5
10. Select a suitable figure from the Answer Figures that would
replace the question mark (?).
Problem Figures: Answer Figures:

(A) (B) (C) (D) (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

A. 1 B. 2

C. 3 D. 4

E. 5
11. Select a suitable figure from the Answer Figures that would
replace the question mark (?).

Problem Figures: Answer Figures:

(A) (B) (C) (D) (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

A. 1 B. 2

C. 3 D. 4

E. 5
12. Select a suitable figure from the Answer Figures that would

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 replace the question mark (?).

Problem Figures: Answer Figures:

(A) (B) (C) (D) (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

A. 1 B. 2

C. 3 D. 4

E. 5

13. Select a suitable figure from the Answer Figures that would replace the question
mark (?).

Problem Figures: Answer Figures:

(A) (B) (C) (D) (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

A. 1 B. 2

C. 3 D. 4

E. 5
14. Select a suitable figure from the Answer Figures that would replace the question
mark (?).

Problem Figures: Answer Figures:

(A) (B) (C) (D) (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

A. 1 B. 2

C. 3 D. 4

E. 5
15. Select a suitable figure from the Answer Figures that would replace the question
mark (?).

Problem Figures: Answer Figures:

(A) (B) (C) (D) (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

A. 1 B. 2

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 C. 3 D. 4

E. 5

TYPE II

1. Select a figure from amongst the Answer Figures which will continue the
same series as established by the five Problem Figures.

Problem Figures: Answer Figures:

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

A. 1 B. 2

C. 3 D. 4

E. 5

2. Select a figure from amongst the Answer Figures which will continue the
same series as established by the five Problem Figures.

Problem Figures: Answer Figures:

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

A. 1 B. 2

C. 3 D. 4

E. 5

3. Select a figure from amongst the Answer Figures which will continue the
same series as established by the five Problem Figures.

Problem Figures: Answer Figures:

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

A. 1 B. 2

C. 3 D. 4

E. 5

4. Select a figure from amongst the Answer Figures which will continue the
same series as established by the five Problem Figures.

Problem Figures: Answer Figures:

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 (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

A. 1 B. 2

C. 3 D. 4

E. 5

5. Select a figure from amongst the Answer Figures which will continue the
same series as established by the five Problem Figures.

Problem Figures: Answer Figures:

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

A. 1 B. 2

C. 3 D. 4

E. 5

6. Select a figure from amongst the Answer Figures which will continue the same series as established by the five
Figures.

Problem Figures: Answer Figures:

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

A. 1 B. 2

C. 3 D. 4

E. 5

6A. Select a figure from amongst the Answer Figures which will continue the same series as established by the five
Figures.

Problem Figures: Answer Figures:

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

A. 1 B. 2

C. 3 D. 4

E. 5

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7. Select a figure from amongst the Answer Figures which will continue the same series as established by the five
Figures.

Problem Figures: Answer Figures:

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

A. 1 B. 2

C. 3 D. 4

E. 5

8. Select a figure from amongst the Answer Figures which will continue the
same series as established by the five Problem Figures.

Problem Figures: Answer Figures:

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

A. 1 B. 2

C. 3 D. 4

E. 5

9. Select a figure from amongst the Answer Figures which will continue the
same series as established by the five Problem Figures.

Problem Figures: Answer Figures:

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

A. 1 B. 2

C. 3 D. 4

E. 5

10. Select a figure from amongst the Answer Figures which will continue the
same series as established by the five Problem Figures.

Problem Figures: Answer Figures:

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

A. 1 B. 2

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 C. 3 D. 4

E. 5

11. Select a figure from amongst the Answer Figures which will continue the
same series as established by the five Problem Figures.

Problem Figures: Answer Figures:

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)

A. 1 B. 2

C. 3 D. 4

E. 5

Type III

1. Choose the alternative which is closely resembles the mirror

image of the given combination.

A. 1 B. 2

C. 3 D. 4

2. Choose the alternative which is closely resembles the mirror

image of the given combination.

A. 1 B. 2

C. 3 D. 4

3. Choose the alternative which is closely resembles the mirror

image of the given combination.

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 A. 1 B. 2

C. 3 D. 4

4. Choose the alternative which is closely resembles the mirror

image of the given combination.

A. 1 B. 2

C. 3 D. 4

5. Choose the alternative which is closely resembles the mirror

image of the given combination.

A. 1 B. 2

C. 3 D. 4
6. Choose the alternative which is closely resembles the mirror
image of the given combination.

A. 1 B. 2

C. 3 D. 4

7. Choose the alternative which is closely resembles the mirror

image of the given combination.

A. 1 B. 2

C. 3 D. 4

8. Choose the alternative which is closely resembles the mirror

image of the given combination.

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 A. 1 B. 2

C. 3 D. 4

9. Choose the alternative which is closely resembles the mirror

image of the given combination.

A. 1 B. 2

C. 3 D. 4
10. Choose the alternative which is closely resembles the mirror
image of the given combination.

A. 1 B. 2

C. 3 D. 4

11.
Choose the correct mirror image of the given figure (X) from amongst
the four alternatives.

(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)

A. 1 B. 2

C. 3 D. 4

12. Choose the correct mirror image of the given figure (X) from
amongst the four alternatives.

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 (X) (1) (2) (3) (4)
A. 1 B. 2

C. 3 D. 4

13. Choose the correct mirror image of the given figure (X) from
amongst the four alternatives.

(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)

A. 1 B. 2

C. 3 D. 4

14. Choose the correct mirror image of the given figure (X) from
amongst the four alternatives.

(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)

A. 1 B. 2

C. 3 D. 4

15. Choose the correct mirror image of the given figure (X) from
amongst the four alternatives.

(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)

A. 1 B. 2

C. 3 D. 4
16. Choose the correct mirror image of the given figure (X) from
amongst the four alternatives.

(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)

A. 1 B. 2

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 C. 3 D. 4

17. Choose the correct mirror image of the given figure (X) from
amongst the four alternatives.

(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)

A. 1 B. 2

C. 3 D. 4

19. Choose the correct mirror image of the given figure (X) from
amongst the four alternatives.

(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)

A. 1 B. 2

C. 3 D. 4

20. Choose the correct mirror image of the given figure (X) from
amongst the four alternatives.

(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)

A. 1 B. 2

C. 3 D. 4

TYPE IV

1. Choose the alternative which is closely resembles the

water-image of the given combination.

A. 1 B. 2

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 C. 3 D. 4

2. Choose the alternative which is closely resembles the water-image

of the given combination.

A. 1 B. 2

C. 3 D. 4

3. Choose the alternative which is closely resembles the water-image

of the given combination.

A. 1 B. 2

C. 3 D. 4

4. Choose the alternative which is closely resembles the water-image

of the given combination.

A. 1 B. 2

C. 3 D. 4

5. Choose the alternative which is closely resembles the water-image

of the given combination.

A. 1 B. 2

C. 3 D. 4

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6. Choose the alternative which is closely resembles the water-image
of the given combination.

A. 1 B. 2

C. 3 D. 4

7. Choose the alternative which is closely resembles the water-image

of the given combination.

A. 1 B. 2

C. 3 D. 4

8. Choose the alternative which is closely resembles the water-image

of the given combination.

A. 1 B. 2

C. 3 D. 4

9. Choose the alternative which is closely resembles the water-image

of the given combination.

A. 1 B. 2

C. 3 D. 4

10. Choose the alternative which is closely resembles the water-

image of the given combination.

A. 1 B. 2

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 C. 3 D. 4
11. Choose the correct water image of the given figure (X) from
amongst the four alternatives.

A. 1 B. 2

C. 3 D. 4

12. Choose the correct water image of the given figure (X) from
amongst the four alternatives.

A. 1 B. 2

C. 3 D. 4

13. Choose the correct water image of the given figure (X) from
amongst the four alternatives.

A. 1 B. 2

C. 3 D. 4

14. Choose the correct water image of the given figure (X) from
amongst the four alternatives.

A. 1 B. 2

C. 3 D. 4

15. Choose the correct water image of the given figure (X) from
amongst the four alternatives.

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 A. 1 B. 2

C. 3 D. 4

16. Choose the correct water image of the given figure (X) from
amongst the four alternatives.

A. 1 B. 2

C. 3 D. 4

17. Choose the correct water image of the given figure (X) from
amongst the four alternatives.

A. 1 B. 2

C. 3 D. 4
18. Choose the correct water image of the given figure (X) from
amongst the four alternatives.

A. 1 B. 2

C. 3 D. 4

19. Choose the correct water image of the given figure (X) from
amongst the four alternatives.

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 A. 1 B. 2

C. 3 D. 4

20. Choose the correct water image of the given figure (X) from
amongst the four alternatives.

A. 1 B. 2

C. 3 D. 4

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 CSAT Paper 2022 PYQ
1. An Identity Card has the number ABCDEFG, N not necessarily in that order, where each letter
represents a distinct digit (1, 2, 4, 5, 7, 8, 9 only). The number is divisible by 9. After deleting the
first digit from the right, the resulting number is divisible by. After deleting two digits from the
right of original number, the resulting number is divisible by 5. After deleting three digits from
the right of original number, the resulting number is divisible by 4. After deleting four digits from
the right of original number, the resulting number is divisible by 3. After deleting five digits from
the right of original number, the resulting number is divisible by 3. After deleting five digits from
the right of original number, the resulting number is divisible by 2. Which of the following is a
possible value for the sum of the middle three digits of the number?
a) 8
b) 9
c) 11
d) 12

2. Which number amongst 240,321 4118 and 812 is the smallest?

a) 240
b) 321
c) 418
d) 812

3. X and Y run a 3 km race along a circular course of length 300 m. Their speeds are in the ratio 3:2.
If they start together in the same direction, how many times would the first one pass the other
(the start-off is not counted as passing)?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
4. In a tournament of Chess having 150 entrants, a player is eliminated whenever he loses a match.

N It is given that no match results in a tie/draw. How many matches are played in the entire

tournament?

a) 151
b) 150
c) 149
d) 148

5. . Consider the Question and two Statements given below:

Question: Is x an integer?

Statement-1: x/3 is not an integer.

Statement- 2: 3x is an integer.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the Question and the Statements?

a) Statement-1 alone is sufficient to answer the Question

b) Statement-2 alone is sufficient to answer the Question
c) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are sufficient to answer the Question

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 d) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are not sufficient to answer the Question

6. On one side of a 1.01 km along road, 101 plants are planted at equal distance from each other.
What is the total distance between 5 consecutive plants?
a) 40m
b) 40.4m
c) 50m
d) 50.5

7. A has some coins. He gives half of the coins and 2 more to B, B gives half of the coins and 2 more
to C, C gives half of the coins and 2 more to N The number of coins D has now, is the smallest
two-digit number. How many coins does A have in the beginning?
a) 76
b) 68
c) 60
d) 52

8. In the series AABABACABCDABCDE …. ? which letters appears at the 100th place?

a) G
b) H
c) I
d) J

9. Five friends P, Q, X, Y and Z purchased some notebooks. The relevant information is given below:

1. Z purchased 8 notebooks more than X did.

2. P and Q together purchased 21 notebooks.

3. Q purchased 5 notebooks less than P did.

4. X and Y together purchased 28 note books.

P purchased 5 notebooks more than X did.

If each notebook is pried Rs 40, then what is the total cost of all the notebooks?

a) Rs 2,600
b) Rs 2,400
c) Rs 2,360
d) Rs 2,320

10. A person X wants to distribute some pens among six children A,B,C,D,E and F ,. Supposed A gets
twice the number of pens received by B, three times that of C, four times that of D, five times
that of C, four times that of D, five times that of E and six times that of F. What is the minimum
number of pens X should buy so that the number of pens each one gets is an even number?
a) 147
b) 150

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 CSAT Paper 2022 PYQ
c) 294
d) 300

11. Let A, B and C represent distinct non-zero digits. Suppose x is the sum of all possible 3-digit

numbers formed by A,B and C without repetition.

Consider the following statements

1. The 4-digit least value of x is 1332.

2. The 3-digit greatest value of x is 888.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 only
b) Both 1 and 2
c) 2 only
d) Neither 1 nor 2

12. There is a numeric lock which has a 3-digit PIN. The PIN contains digits 1 to 7. There is no
repetition of digits. The digits in the PIN from left to right are in decreasing order. Any two digits
in the PIN differ by at least 2. How many maximum attempts does one need to find out the PIN
with certainty?
a) 6
b) 8
c) 10
d) 12

13. What is the remainder when

91x92x93x94x95x96x97x98x99 is divided by 1261?

a) 3
b) 2
c) 1
d) 0

14. . When 70% of a number x is added to another number y, the sum becomes 165% of the value of
y. When 60% of the number x is added to another number z, then the sum becomes 165% of the
value of z which one of the following is correct?
a) z<x<y
b) y<x < Z
c) x<y <z
d) z< y<x

15. What is the smallest number greater than 1000 that when divided by any one of the numbers 6,
9, 12, 15, 18 leaves a remainder of 3?

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 a) 1063
b) 1073
c) 1083
d) 1183

16. Let p be a two-digit number and q be the number consisting of same digits written in reverse
order. If pxq=2430, then what is the difference between p and q?
a) 45
b) 27
c) 18
d) 9

17. Consider the following statements in respect of two natural numbers p and q such that p is a
prime number and q is a composite number:

pxq can be an odd number.

q/p can be a prime number.

p + q can be a prime number.

Which of the above statements are correct?

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1,2 and 3

18. If 15x14x13 x ...... x 3 x 2 x 1 = 3m

Where m and n are positive integers, then what is the maximum value of m?
a) 7
b) 6
c) 5
d) 4

19. The sum of three consecutive integers to equal to their product. How many such possibilities are
there?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) No such possibility is there

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 CSAT Paper 2023 PYQ
1. Raj has ten pairs of red, nine pairs of white and eight pairs of black shoes in a box. If he randomly picks shoes one by
one (without replacement) from the box to get a red pair of shoes to wear, what is the maximum number of attempts
he has to make ?
a) 27
b) 36
c) 44
d) 45

2. What is the remainder when 8 5 x 87 x 89 x 91 x 95 x 96 is divided by 100?

a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) 4

3. What is the unit digit in the expansion of (57242 ) 9x7x5x3x1 ?

a) 2
b) 4
c) 6
d) 8

4. If ABC and DEF are both 3-digit numbers such that A, B, C, D, E and F are non-zero digits such that ABC + DEF = 1111,
then what is the value of A+B+C+D+E+F?
a) 28
b) 29
c) 30
d) 31
e)
5. D is a 3-digit number such that the ratio of the number to the sum of its digits is least. What is the difference between
the digit at the hundred's place and the digit at the unit's place of D?
a) 0
b) 7
c) 8
d) 9

6. Three of the five positive integers p, q, r, s, t are even and two of them are odd (not necessarily in order). Consider the
following:
1. P + q + r - s - t is definitely even.
2. 2p + q + 2r - 2s + t is definitely odd.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

7. Consider the following in respect of prime number p and composite number c.

𝑝+𝑐
1. - can be even.
𝑝−𝑐
2. 2p + c can be odd.
3. pc can be odd.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

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8. A 3-digit number ABC, on multiplication with D gives 37DD where A, B, C and D are different non-zero digits. what is
'the value of A+B+C ?
a) 18
b) 16
c) 15
d) Cannot be determined due to insufficient data

9. For any choices of values of X, Y and Z, the 6-digit number of the form XYZXYZ is divisible by:
a) 7 and 11 only
b) 11 and 13 only
c) 7 and 13 only
d) 7, 11 and 13

10. If p, q, r and s are distinct single digit positive numbers, then what is the greatest value of (p + q)(r + _s) ?
a) 230
b) 225
c) 224
d) 221

11. A number N is formed by writing 9 for 99 times. What is the remainder if N is divided by 13 ?
a) 11
b) 9
c) 7
d) 1

12. Each digit of a 9-digit number is 1. It is multiplied by itself. What is the sum of the digits of the resulting number?
a) 64
b) 80
c) 81
d) 100

13. What is the sum of all digits which appear in all the integers from 10 to 100?
a) 855
b) 856
c) 910
d) 911

14. Let x be a positive integer such that 7x + 96 is divisible by x. How many values of x are possible ?
a) 10
b) 11
c) 12
d) Infinitely many

15. A box contains 14 black balls, 20 blue balls, 26 green balls, 28 yellow balls, 38 red balls and 54 white balls. Consider the
following statements:

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 CSAT Paper 2023 PYQ
1. The smallest number n such that any n balls drawn from the box randomly must contain one full group of at
least one colour is 175
2. The smallest number m such that any m balls drawn from the box randomly must contain at least one ball of
each colour is 167.

Which of the above statements is/are correct ?

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both n1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

16. How many natural numbers are there which give a remainder of 31 when 1186 is divided by these natural numbers ?
a) 6
b) 7
c) 8
d) 9

17. Let pp, gg and rr be 2-digit numbers where p<q <r. if pp+qq+rr=tt0, where tt0 is a 3-digit number ending with zero,
consider the following statements :
1. The number of possible values of p is 5.
2. The number of possible values of q is 6.
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both n1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

18. If today is Sunday, then which day is it exactly on 1010 th day ?

a) Wednesday
b) Thursday
c) Friday
d) Saturday.

19. There are three traffic signals. Each signal changes colour from green to red and then from red to green. The first signal
takes 25 seconds, the second signal takes 39 seconds and the third signal takes 60 seconds to change the colour from
green to red. The durations for green and red colours are same. At 2:00 p.m, they together turn green. At what time
will they change to green next, simultaneously ?
a) 4:00 p.m.
b) 1 4:10 p.m.
c) 4:20 p.m.
d) 4:30 p.m.

20. 40 children are standing in a circle and one of them (say child-1) has a ring. The ring is passed clockwise. Child-1 passes
on to child-2, ohild-2 passes on to child-4, child-4 passes on k child-7 and so on. After how many such changes
(including child-1) will the ring be in the hands of child-1 again ?
a) 14
b) 15
c) 16

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 d) 17

21. What is the middle term of the sequence

Z.Z, Y, Y, Y, X, X, X, X, W, W, W, W, W,.., A?
a) H
b) I
c) J
d) M

22. Question : Is p greater than q?

Statement-1: p xq is greater than zero.
Statement-2: p is greater than P².
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above Question and the Statements ?
a) The Question can be answered by using one of the Statements alone, but cannot be answered
using the other Statement alone.
b) The Question can be answered by using either Statement alone.
c) The Question can be answered by using both the Statements together, but cannot be answered using either
Statement alone.
d) The Question cannot be answered even by using both the Statements together.

23. Question: Is (p+q-r) greater then (p-q+r), where p,q and r are integers ?
Statement-1: (p-q) is positive.
Statement-2 : (p-r) is negative.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above Question and the Statements ?

a) The Question can be answered by using one of the Statements alone. but cannot be answered using the other
Statement alone.
b) The Question can be answered by using either Statement alone.
c) The Question can be answered by using both the Statements together, but answered using either cannot be
Statement alone.
d) The Question cannot be answered even by using both the Statements together.

24. Consider a 3-digit number. Question : What is the number?

Statement-1: The sum of the digits of the number is equal to the product of the digits
Statement-2: "The number is divisible by the sum of the digits of the Which one of number.
Which one of the following is correct in of the above Question and the Statements ?
a. The Question can be answered by using one of the Statements alone, but cannot be answered using the other
Statement alone.
b. The Question can be answered by using either Statement alone.
c. The Question can be answered by using both the Statements together, but cannot be answered using either
Statement alone.
d. The Question cannot be answered even by using both the Statements together.

25. Therearelarge number of silver coins weighing 2 gm, 5 gm, 10 gm, 25 gm, 50 gm each. Consider the following
statements :

1. To buy 78 gm of coins one must buy at least 7 coins.

2. To weigh 78 gm using these coins one can useless than 7 coins.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

a) 1 only
b) 2 only

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 CSAT Paper 2023 PYQ
c) Both n1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

26. Consider the following :

I. A + B means A is neither smaller nor equal to B.
II. A - B means A is not greater than B.
III. A x B means A is not smaller than B.
IV. A + B means A is neither greater nor equal to B.
V. A + B means A is neither smaller nor greater than B.

Statement : PxQ, P-T, T÷R, R±S

Conclusion-1 : Q ±T

Conclusion-2 : S + Q

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above Statement and the Conclusions ?

a) Only Conclusion-1 follows from the Statement.

b) Only Conclusion-2 follows from the Statement.
c) Both Conclusion-1 and Conclusion-2 follow from the Statement.
d) Neither Conclusion-1 nor Conclusion-2 follows from the Statement.

27. What is the remainder if 2192 is divided by 6 ?

a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) 4

28. AB and CD are 2-digit numbers. Multiplying AB with CD results in a 3-digit number DEF. Adding DEF to another 3-digit
number GHI results in 975. Further A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I are distinct digits. If E = 0, F = 8, then what is A + B + C equal to
?
a) 6
b) 7
c) 8
d) 9

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CSAT Foundation Batch by Amit Garg (Handout Basic Numeracy)

1. Consider the following addition

problem:
2Q + 4Q + QQ + 7Q= RP4; where P and Q
are different digits.
What is the arithmetic mean of all such
possible sums?
(a) 144
(b) 179
(c) 194
(d) 204

2. Consider the following addition

problem:
CRY + CRY + CRY = BABY; where A, B, C, R Y
are different digits. B can have a value 1 or
2 only and Y is not equal to 0.
Find (A+R+ Y) ÷ B
(a) 4

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CSAT Foundation Batch by Amit Garg (Handout Basic Numeracy)

(b) 5
(c) 8
(d) 9

3. Consider the following multiplication

problem:
PP × 3= RQP; where P, R and Q are different
digits.
Find (R+ P) ÷ Q
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4

4. Consider the following addition

problem:
1P + PP + 3P + RP + 5P + QP + 7P = P94;
where P, Q and R different digits.
Find P + R + Q

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CSAT Foundation Batch by Amit Garg (Handout Basic Numeracy)

(a) 8
(b) 9
(c) 10
(d) 12

5. Consider the following multiplication

problem:
AACAAC = AAC × DEED; where A, C, D and E
are different digits
Find the value of D and E respectively
(a) 2 and 0
(b) 0 and 1
(c) 1 and 0
(d) 1 and 2
6. Consider the following multiplication
problem:
P7 × P= QQQ ; where P and Q are different
digits
Find P – Q?

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CSAT Foundation Batch by Amit Garg (Handout Basic Numeracy)

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) Cannot be determined due to
insufficient data

7. Consider the following multiplication

problem:
Q0P × Q0P = R0R0P; Where P and Q are
different digits
Find P + Q + R?
(a) 5
(b) 6
(c) 7
(d) Cannot be determined due to
insufficient data

8. Consider the following addition

problem:

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CSAT Foundation Batch by Amit Garg (Handout Basic Numeracy)

SUN + SUN + SUN = PQS ; where P, Q , S, U

and N are different digits and non zero
digits.
P= 3S and more than 7.
Find (P+ S) ÷ Q
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) Cannot be determined due to
insufficient data

9. Consider the following multiplication

problem:
PP × PP = Q02P; Where P and Q are
different digits
Find P - Q?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4

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CSAT Foundation Batch by Amit Garg (Handout Basic Numeracy)

(d) Cannot be determined due to

insufficient data

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 CSAT Handout Basic Numeracy (IASSETU)

Find Value of Y (without Pen and Paper WPP)

1) 29 × Y = 435
2) 37 × Y= 481
3) 26 × Y = 546
4) 31 × Y = 651
5) 23 × Y = 391
6) 39 × Y = 468
7) 27 × Y = 567
8) 41 × Y = 533
9) 33 × Y = 561
10)29× Y = 783

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 Assignment (Trains-Amit Garg)

1. A train 350 m long, running with a speed of 72Km/hr will pass an electric pole
in?

2. A train running at a speed of 90km/hr crosses a pole in 12 seconds. What is the

length of the train?

3. A goods train, having a length of 175 meter is running at a speed of 56 kmph. In

what time, it will pass a bicycler who is cycling at a speed of 7 kmph in the
direction opposite to that of the train in?

4. A train 306m long is running at a speed of 54km/h. A person is walking in

opposite direction of train with a speed of 3m/sec. In how much time the train
will cross the person?

5. A train 360m long is running at a speed of 54km/h. A person is walking in same

direction of train with a speed of 3m/sec. In how much time the train will cross
the person?

6. How many seconds will a 250 meter long train take to cross a man walking with
a speed of 5Km/Hr in the direction of moving train if the speed of the train is
41Km/hr?

7. A train 250 m long passes a man, running at 6 km/hr in the same direction in
which the train is going, in 12.5 seconds. The speed of the train is:

8. The length of the bridge, which a train 150 meters long and traveling at 50 kmph
can cross in 27 seconds, is?

9. A train, 500 meter long is running with a speed of 80 km/hr. It crosses a tunnel
in 1 minute and 30 seconds. What is the length of the tunnel (in meters)?

10. A train 115 m long is moving at a speed of 50 km/hr . It crosses a train

105 m long coming from opposite direction in 6 seconds. What is the speed of
the second train?

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11. Two trains are running in opposite directions with the same speed. The
length of each train is 140 meter. If they cross each other in 28 seconds, the
speed of each train (in km/hr) is?

12. A train having a length of 510 meter is running at the speed of 110 kmph .
It crosses another train running in opposite direction at the speed of 90 kmph in
18 seconds. What is the length of the other train?

13. Two trains of equal length are running on parallel lines in the same
direction at 66 km/hr and 30 km/hr. The train passes each other in 50 seconds.
The length of each train is:

14. Two trains are running at 60 km/hr and 40 km/hr respectively in the same
direction. If the fast train completely passes the driver of the slower train in 9
seconds, the length of the fast train is :?

15. Two trains each 250 m long, are running in opposite directions on parallel
tracks. If their speeds are 35 km/hr and 40 km/hr respectively, the time taken
by the slower train to pass a man sitting in the faster one is?

16. A train crosses a tree in 15 seconds and a platform 200 m long in 30

seconds. The length of the train is:

17. A train takes 6 and 6.5 seconds to cross two persons walking at a speed of
5 km/hr and 6 km/hr respectively. What is the speed of the train if both the
persons are walking in the same direction as the train?

18. Two stations A and B are 150 km apart on a straight track. One train starts
from A at 9 a.m. and travels towards B at 15 kmph. Another train starts from B
at 10 a.m. and travels towards A at a speed of 30 kmph. At what time will they
meet?

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 ANSWERS
1. 17.5 Sec
2. 300 Mts
3. 10 Sec
4. 17 Sec
5. 30 Sec
6. 25 Sec
7. 78 Km/hr
8. 225 Mts
9. 1500 Mts
10. 82 Km/hr
11. 18 Km/hr
12. 490mts
13. 250 Mts
14. 50 Mts
15. 12 Minute
16. 200 Mts
17. 18 Km/hr
18. 1:00 Pm

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 (Time speed Distance & Boat streams- Amit Garg)

Time Speed Distance

1. If a bus travels 160 km in 4 hours and a train travels 320 km in

5 hours at uniform speeds, then what is the ratio of the

distances travelled by them in one hour ?

2. A man covers a certain distance on scooter at 30 Km/hr and he

returns back to the starting point riding on a bicycle at 20

Km/hr. Find his average speed for the whole journey.

3. Two cities A and B are 360 km apart. A car goes from A to B

with a speed of 40 km/hr and returns to A with a speed of 60
km/hr. What is the average speed of the car?

4. A car goes from A to B with a speed of 50 km/hr and returns to

A with a speed of 60 km/hr. What is the average speed of the
car?

5. A man completed a certain journey by Car. If he covered 30%

of the distance at the speed of 20 Km/hr. 60% of the distance
at 40 Km/hr and the remaining distance at 50 Km/hr, his
average speed for the whole journey was

6. A Car covers a journey in 70 hours, covering the first half at 60

Km/hr and second half at 80Km/hr. Find the distance of the
journey.

7. Sanjay covers a certain distance between his house and office

on scooter. Having an average speed of 60 km/hr, he is late by
20 minutes. However, when he moves with a speed of 80
km/hr, he reaches his office 10 minutes earlier. Find the
distance between his house and office.

8. Brijesh covers a certain distance between his house and office

on car. When he drives at a speed of 60 km/hr, he reaches his
office 10 minutes late. However, next day when he drives at a

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 (Time speed Distance & Boat streams- Amit Garg)

speed of 75 km/hr, he reaches office on time. Find the distance

he covers between his house and office.

9. Suresh walking at a speed of 20 Km/hr reaches his office 10

minutes late. Next time he increases his speed by 5 Km/hr,
but find that he is still late by 4 minutes. What is the distance
of his office from his house.

10. On the first day of his office Raman moves at a speed of

40 km/hr but reaches his office 10 minutes late. Next day he
moves at a speed of 50 km/hr, but still reaches 4 minutes late.
The distance between his house and office is

11. A worker reaches his factory 3 minutes late if his speed

from his house to the factory is 5 km/hr. If he walks at a speed
of 6 km/hr, then he reaches the factory 7 minutes early. The
distance of the factory from his house is

12. Pankaj takes 8 hours in walking to a certain place and

riding back. He would have gained 2 hours by riding both ways.
How long would he take to walk both ways?

13. A person can walk a certain distance and drive back in

six hours. He can also walk both ways in 10 hours. How much

time will he take to drive both ways

14. A thief running at 8 km/hr is chased by a policeman

whose speed is 10 km/hr. If the thief is 100 m ahead of the
policeman, then the time required for him to catch the thief
will be

15. A policeman goes after a thief who has 100 metres start.
If the policeman runs a kilometer in 8 minutes and the thief a
kilometer in 10 minutes, how far will the thief have gone
before he is overtaken?

16. Walking at 4/5th of his usual speed, a person is 12

minutes late for his office. Find the usual time taken by the

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 (Time speed Distance & Boat streams- Amit Garg)

person to cover the distance to his office if he moves at his

original speed.

17. Walking at ¾ of his normal speed Pankaj is 16 minutes

late in reach his office. The usual time taken by him to cover
the distance between his home and his office is –

18. Walking ½ of his usual speed, a person is 20 mins late to

his office. Find his usual time to cover the Distance.

19. Running Double of his usual speed, a person improves his

timing by 15 mins. Find his usual time to cover the Distance

20. Mr. Kumar drives to work at an average speed of 48

km per hour. The time taken to cover the first 60% of the
distance is 10 minutes more than the time take to cover the
remaining distance. How far is his office?

21. Two trains leave New Delhi at the same time. One travels
north at 60 km/hr and the other travels south at 40 km/hr. After
how many hours will the trains be 150 km apart?

Boat and Stream

Q. 1. In one hour, a boat goes 11km along the stream and 5km

against the stream. The speed of the boat in still water (in Km/Hr)

is:

Q. 2. A man can row upstream at 8kmph and downstream at

13kmph. The speed of the stream is:

Q. 3. A boat running down stream covers a distance of 16km in

2 hours while for covering the same distance upstream, it takes 4

hours. What is the speed of the boat is still water?

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 (Time speed Distance & Boat streams- Amit Garg)

Q. 4. A man can row 7Km/hr in still water. In a stream, which is

following at 3km/hr, it takes him 7hrs to row to a place and back

how far is the place?

Q. 5. In a stream running at 2kmph, a motorboat goes 10 km

upstream and back again to the starting point in 55 minutes. Find

the speed of motorboat in still water.

Q. 6. The current of a stream runs at the rate of 4km an hour. A

boat goes 6km and back to the starting point in 2 hours. What is

the speed of the boat in still water?

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 (Time speed Distance & Boat streams- Amit Garg)

ANSWERS
Time Speed Distance
1. 5:8
2. 24Km/hr
3. 48 km/hr
𝟔
4. 𝟓𝟒 𝟏𝟏 𝒌𝒎/𝒉𝒓
5. 31.25 km/hr
6. 4800 Km
7. 120 Km
8. 50 Km
9. 10 Km
10. 20 Km
11. 5 Km
12. 10 Hr
13. 2 Hr
14. 3 Min
15. 400 Mts
16. 48
17. 48
18. 20
19. 30
20. 40 Km
21. 1.5 Hr

Boat and Stream

1. 8 Km/hr
2. 2.5 Km/hr
3. 6 km/hr
4. 20 Km
5. 22Km/hr
6. 8 Km/hr

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 Geometry and Mensuration Class 1-Amit Garg

Q. 1. Three sides of a triangle are 4m, 5m and 7m. Find its area.

Q. 2. Three sides of a triangle are 6m, 8m and 12m. Find its area.

Q. 3. The two adjacent sides of a parallelogram are 5cm and 4cm

respectively, and if the respective diagonal is 7cm then find its area:

Q. 4. The two adjacent sides of a parallelogram are 7cm and 5cm

respectively, and if the respective diagonal is 10 cm then find its area:

Q. 5. In a parallelogram, the lengths of adjacent sides are 12cm and

14cm respectively. If the length of one diagonal is 16cm, find the length of the
other diagonal.

Q. 6. The length of a rectangular hall is 5 meter more then, its breadth.

The area of the hall is 750m2. The length of the hall is:
(a) 15 m
(b) 20 m
(c) 25 m
(d) 30 m

Q. 7. The diagonal of the floor of a rectangular closet is 13 feet. The

shorter side of the closet is 5 feet. What is the area of the closet in square
feet?

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 Geometry and Mensuration Class 1-Amit Garg

Q. 8.

Find the area of shaded portion if the

width of all 4 shaded portions is same.

Q. 9. How many paving stones each measuring 2.5mx2m are require to

pave a rectangular courtyard which is 30m long and 16.5m wide?

Q. 10. How many meters of a carpet 75cm wide will be required to cover
the floor of a room which is 20m long 12m wide?

Q. 11. A rectangular hall is 12m long and 10m wide, is surrounded by a

verandan 2 meters wide. Find the area of the verandan?

Q. 12. A square field of 2 sq. km is divided into two equal parts by a

fence, which coincides with a diagonal. Find the length of the fence.

Q. 13. The perimeters of five squares are 24cm, 32cm, 40cm, 76cm and
80cm respectively. The perimeter of another square equal in the area to the
sum of the areas of these square.

Q. 14. The each sides of a square is increased by 50%. The ratio of the
area of the resulting square to that of the given square is:

Q. 15. The length and breadth of a square are increased by 40% and 30%
respectively. The area of the resulting rectangle exceeds, the area of square
by:

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 Geometry and Mensuration Class 1-Amit Garg

Q. 16. The circumference of a circular garden is 1012m. Garden is

surrounded by a road of 3.5m width. Calculate the area of this road.

Q. 17. The length of a rectangle is increased by 60%. By what percent

should the width be decreased to maintain the some area?

Q. 18. If the length and the breadth of a rectangle is increased by 5% and

4% respectively, then by what percent does the area of that rectangle
increases?

Q. 19. A wire can be bent in the form of a circle of radius 56cm. If it is

bent in the form of a square, then its area will be:

Q. 20. A square and rectangular field with measurements as given in the

figure has the same perimeter. Which of them has larger area?(Diagram not to
scale)

Square

60m 80m

Q. 21. Mrs. Sharma has a square plot with the measurements as shown in
the figure. She wants to construct a home in the middle of plot. A garden is
developed around the home. Find the total cost of developing a garden around
the house at the rate of Rs. 55 per m2.
25m

20m

25m 15m Home

Garden

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 Geometry and Mensuration Class 1-Amit Garg

Q. 22. The Shape of the top surface of a table is a trapezium. Find its
area if its parallel sides are 1cm and 2cm and perpendicular distance between
them is 0.8m.

Q. 23. The area of a trapezium is 32cm2 are the length of one of the
parallel sides is 10cm and its height is 4cm. find the length of the other parallel
side.

Q. 24. Find the area of a rhombus whose side is 13 cm and one of its
diagonal is 10 cm long. Find the length of the other diagonal.

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 Geometry and Mensuration Class 1-Amit Garg

ANSWERS
1. 4√6m2
2. √455m2
3. 8√6cm2
4. 4√66cm2
5. (a) √424cm(b) 343.176m2(c) Rs 165
6. 30 M
7. 60 feet2
8. 352cm2
9. 99
10. 32000cm
11. 104m2
12. 2 m
13. 124cm
14. 9:4
15. 82%
16. 3580.5
17. 37.5%
18. 9.2%
19. 7744cm2
20. Square
21. Rs 17875
22. 120
23. 6 cm
24. 4 √5

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 Geometry and Mensuration Class 2 -Amit Garg

1. The perimeters of two equilateral triangles are in the ratio of 2:1. What is the
ratio of their areas?

2. What is the area of an equilateral triangle of side 8 cm?

3. A wire is bent to form a rectangle of length 10 cm and breadth 12 cm. If it is

bent to form a circle, what is the circle’s area?

4. The sides of a triangle are in the ratio 3:4:5. If its perimeter is 36 cm, area of
the triangle is

5. The diameter of a coin is 4cm. If four of these coins be placed on a table so

that the rim of each touches that of the other two. Find the area of the
unoccupied space between them.

6. If the six sides of a regular Hexagon is increased by 30%. What is the

increase in its area?

7. Two poles, 15m and 27m high, stand upright in a playground. If their feet be
35m apart, find the distance between their tops?

8. The area of a square and rectangular field is 900m2each. If the perimeter of

the rectangular field is 2m more than that of the square field, calculate the
length and breadth of the rectangular field?

9. A rectangular park 16m x 10m is surrounded by a path 2.5m wide from

outside. Find the area of the path

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 Geometry and Mensuration Class 2 -Amit Garg

10. Find the area of largest circle inscribed in a square of side 14cm?

11. Find the area of largest square Inscribed in a circle of diameter 14 √2m?

12. The area of a parallelogram is 240 cm2and its height is 12 cm. The base of
the parallelogram is-

13. The wheel of a Bicycle has diameter 70cm. How many revolutions per
minute must the wheel make so that the speed of the Bicycle is kept 22km
per hour?

14. A circular road runs round a circular park. If the difference between the
circumferences of the outer circle and the inner circle is 66 metres, then find
the width of the road?

15. The perimeter of a rhombus is 40cm. If the length of one of its diagonal be
12cm, then find the length of other diagonal?

16. A rectangular lawn 80m x 60m has two roads each 10m wide running in the
middle of it, One parallel to the length and the other parallel to the breadth.
Find the cost of gravelling them at Rs.10 per SQm?

17. The ratio of the length of the parallel sides of a trapezium is 3:2. The
shortest distance between them is 15cm. If the area of the trapezium is 450
SQcm, find the sum of the lengths of the parallel sides?

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 Geometry and Mensuration Class 2 -Amit Garg

18. Find the length of the rope by which a cow must be tethered in order that it
may be able to graze an area of 3322 SQm.

19. A metallic hemisphere is melted and re-cast in the shape of a cone with the
same base having radius R as that of the hemisphere. Find the ratio of the
height of cone (H) with respect to R(radius).

20. A Copper sphere of diameter 18cm is drawn into a wire of diameter 4mm.
Find the length of the wire.

21. How many spherical bullets can be made out of a lead cylinder 28cm height
and 6cm radius, each bullet being 1.5cm in diameter?

Home Assignment

1. The perimeters of two equilateral triangles are in the ratio of 3:1. What is
the ratio of their areas?

2. What is the area of an equilateral triangle of side 4 cm?

3. A wire is bent to form a rectangle of length 16 cm and breadth 28 cm. If it is

bent to form a circle, what is the circle’s area?

4. The sides of a triangle are in the ratio 3:4:5. If its perimeter is 72 cm, area
of the triangle is

5. The diameter of a coin is 6cm. If four of these coins be placed on a table so

that the rim of each touches that of the other two. Find the area of the
unoccupied space between them.

6. A Copper sphere of diameter 20 cm is drawn into a wire of diameter 4mm.

Find the length of the wire.

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 Geometry and Mensuration Class 2 -Amit Garg

7. How many spherical bullets can be made out of a lead cylinder 21 cm height
and 7 cm radius, each bullet being 7 cm in diameter?

8. Calculate the area of rectangle 23 meter 7 decimal meter long and 14

meter and 4 decimal meter 8cm wide.

9. The length of a room is 5.5m and width is 3.75m. Find the cost of paving the
floor by slabs at the rate of Rs. 8.00 per square meter.

ANSWERS
1. 4:1
2. 16 √𝟑cm2
3. 154cm2
4. 54cm2
5. 24/7 cm2
6. 69%
7. 37
8. Length 36 M, Breadth 25 M
9. 155 cm2
10. 154cm2
11. 196m2
12. 20 cm
13. 500/3
14. 10.5 m
15. 16 cm
16. Rs 13000
17. 60 cm
18. √𝟏𝟎𝟓𝟕m

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 Geometry and Mensuration Class 2 -Amit Garg

19. 𝟐: 𝟏 4. 216 cm2

20. 24300 5. 54/7 cm2
21. 224 6. 100000/3
7. 18
Home Assignment 8. 343.176m2
1. 9:1
9. Rs 165
2. 4√𝟑cm2
3. 616 cm2

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 Permutation and Combination & Probability (Amit Garg)

Permutation and Combination

Q1. In how many different ways can the letters of the word ROCK be arranged?

Q2. In how many different ways can the letters of the word DELHI be arranged?

Q3. In how many different ways can the letters of the word PENCIL be arranged?

Q4. In how many different ways can the letters of the word EQUATION be arranged?

Q5. In how many different ways can the letters of the word ROOM be arranged?

Q6. In how many different ways can the letters of the word MOOOC be arranged?

Q7. In how many different ways can the letters of the word EXCESSIVE be arranged?

Q8. In how many different ways can the letters of the word INTERNATIONAL be
arranged?

Q9. In how many different ways can the letters of the word BANANA be arranged?

Q10. In how many different ways can the letters of the word FOOTBALL be arranged such
that all vowels are always together?

Q11. In how many different ways can the letters of the word MARKER be arranged such
that all vowels are always together?

Q12. In how many different ways can the letters of the word EXCESSIVE be arranged such
that all consonants are always together?

Q13. Find the number of words formed with the letters of the word DELHI which

(i) Begins with D

(ii) Ends with I
(iii) Has the letter L always in the middle
(iv) Begins with D and Ends with I

Q14. There are 4 boys and 4 girls. In how many ways can they be seated in a row so that
all the girls do not sit together?

Probability

Q 1. 2 Coins are tossed, Find the probability of 2 tails?

Q 2. 2 Coins are tossed, Find the probability of exactly 1 tail?

Q 3. 2 Coins are tossed, Find the probability of no tails?

Q 4. 3 Coins are tossed, Find the probability of all the heads?

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 Permutation and Combination & Probability (Amit Garg)

Q 5. 3 Coins are tossed, Find the probability of Exactly 2 heads?

Q6. 3 Coins are tossed, Find the probability of Exactly 1 heads?

Q 7. 3 Coins are tossed, Find the probability of atleast 1 tail?

Q 8. 4 Coins are tossed, Find the probability of Exactly 3 tails?

Q 9. 4 Coins are tossed, Find the probability of Atleast 1 head?

Q 10. 5 Coins are tossed, Find the probability of all the tails?

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 Permutation and Combination & Probability (Amit Garg)

ANSWERS

1. 24 ways
2. 120 ways
3. 3. 720
4. 40320
5. 12
6. 20
7. 30,240
8. 129729600
9. 60
10. 1080
11. 120
12. 1200
13. (i) 24, (ii) 24, (iii) 24, (iv) 6
14. 37440

Probability
1. ¼
2. ½
3. ¼
4. 1/8
5. 3/8
6. 3/8
7. 7/8
8. ¼
9. 15/16
10. 1/32

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 CSAT Handout by Amit Garg {Class Assignment (Pie-Chart)} IASSETU

Directions for questions 1 to 11: Study the given pie chart and answer the questions
that follow.

Pie – Chart given below represents the cost analysis of a book by Tata McGraw Hill.

1. What is the central angle (in

degrees) for ‘Paper Cost”? 4. What is the central angle (in
degrees) for ‘Royalty”?

2. What is the central angle (in

degrees) for ‘Printing”? 5. If the cost of Paper Cost is Rs
46,800 what would the cost of
Miscellaneous head be?
(a) 4,680
(b) 13,000
(c) 9,360
(d) 16,500
3. What is the central angle (in
degrees) for ‘Proof Reading”?
1

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 CSAT Handout by Amit Garg {Class Assignment (Pie-Chart)} IASSETU

6. If the cost of Printing is Rs 22,320, 9. The expenditure on Paper Cost of

what would the cost of book is more than the Proof
miscellaneous head be? Reading expenditure by
(a) 10,980 (a) 20%
(b) 11,150
(b) 125%
(c) 11,160
(c) 225%
(d) 12,400
(d) None of these

7. If Proof Reading expenditure

amounts to Rs. 36,000 then what is
the expenditure on Printing? 10. The expenditure on Proof Reading
(a) 40,000 of book is more than the Editing
(b) 42,000
expenditure by
(c) 40,500
(a) 25%
(d) None of these
(b) 4%
(c) 125%
(d) 33.33%

8. The expenditure on Royalty of book

is less than the Printing expenditure
by 11. The expenditure on Editing of book
(a) 10%
is less than the Proof Reading
(b) 44.44%
expenditure by
(c) 55.55%
(a) 25%
(d) Cannot be determined
(b) 33.33%
(c) 4%

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 CSAT Handout by Amit Garg {Class Assignment (Pie-Chart)} IASSETU

(d) None of these

Directions for questions 12 to 17: The following pie chart represents the percentage
breakup of monthly expenditure of Arun.

12. If Arun earns Rs. 48,000 monthly, 13. If Arun earns Rs. 48,000 monthly,
then how much more does he then how much less does he spend
spend on House Rent than on Food on House Rent than on Transport
and Clothes together? and Clothes together?
(a) 1920 (a) 1920
(b) 2400 (b) 2400
(c) 2880 (c) 2880
(d) 1440 (d) 1440

14. If a new pie chart is drawn by taking

the House Rent, Education and

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 CSAT Handout by Amit Garg {Class Assignment (Pie-Chart)} IASSETU

Transport expenses as one part and

Clothes, Food and Saving as the
second part what is the angle made 16. Arun deposits 40% of Savings in
by first part (House Rent, Education Post office amounting to Rs. 5000.
and Transport)? How much does he spend on
(a) 70° Clothes?
(b) 216° (a) 30,000
(c) 252° (b) 40,000
(d) Cannot be determined (c) 32,500
15. If a new pie chart is drawn by taking (d) 37,500
the House Rent, Education and
Transport expenses as one part and
Clothes, Food and Saving as the
second part what is the ratio of
angle made by first part (House
Rent, Education and Transport) and
second part (Clothes, Food and
Saving)? 17. If Arun spends 10,000 on
(a) 5:2 Education, then how much does he
(b) 3:7 spend on Clothes (approx)?
(c) 7:3 (a) 7140
(d) 7:10 (b) 6140
(c) 8140
(d) Cannot be determined

Directions for questions 18 to 26: Study the given pie chart and answer the questions
that follow. The Pie-Chart shows the Loan to various sectors namely industrial,
Agriculture, Home Loan, Animal husbandry, SME and Others for 2010-11 and 2011-12.

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 CSAT Handout by Amit Garg {Class Assignment (Pie-Chart)} IASSETU

2010-11 2011-12

18. By what %, Loan in Agriculture (c) 4 sectors

sector increased in 2011-12 over (d) Cannot be determined
2010-11?
(a) 66.66%
(b) 12%
(c) 166.66%
(d) Cannot be determined 21. What is the number of sectors in
which Loan has definitely
decreased over the given period?
(a) 2 sectors
(b) 3 sectors
19. By what % Loan in Industrial sector (c) 4 sectors
decreased in 2011-12 over (d) Cannot be determined
2010-11?
(a) 83.33%
(b) 20%
(c) 80%
(d) Cannot be determined 22. If the total Loan allocation in
2011-12 is 1.5 times of the total
loan allocation in 2010-11 then how
many sectors have definitely
increased loan allocation by more
20. What is the number of sectors in than 20% during the same period?
which Loan has definitely increased (a) 2 sectors
over the given period? (b) 3 sectors
(a) 2 sectors (c) 4 sectors
(b) 3 sectors (d) Cannot be determined

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 CSAT Handout by Amit Garg {Class Assignment (Pie-Chart)} IASSETU

25. If the total Loan allocation in

23. If the total Loan allocation in 2011-12 is 1.5 times of the total
2011-12 is 1.5 times of the total loan allocation in 2010-11 then what
loan allocation in 2010-11 then what is the percentage increase in Loan
is the percentage increase in Loan allocation in Agriculture sector in
allocation in Industrial sector in the the given period?
given period? (a) 20%
(a) 20% (b) 150%
(b) 25% (c) 250%
(c) 50% (d) None of these
(d) None of these

24. If the total Loan allocation in

2011-12 is 1.2 times of the total
loan allocation in 2010-11 then what
is the percentage increase in Loan 26. If the total Loan allocation in
allocation in Industrial sector in the 2011-12 is 1.5 times of the total
given period? loan allocation in 2010-11 then what
(a) 43% is the percentage increase in Loan
(b) 0% allocation in others sector in the
(c) 100% given period?
(d) Cannot be determined (a) 125%
(b) 100%
(c) 0%
(d) None of these

Directions for questions 27 to 35: Study the pie charts given below and answer the
following questions. The break-up of the volume share, in Delhi, by different car

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 CSAT Handout by Amit Garg {Class Assignment (Pie-Chart)} IASSETU

companies for years 2011-12 is shown in figure I. The breakup of the car market
according to different cities (in India) for year2011-12 is shown in figure II.

27. If in the year 2011-12, the total (d) Cannot be determined

number of cars sold in India were
4.5 lakh, then how many Marutis
were sold?
(a) 2 lakh
(b) 0.8 Lakh
(c) 1.6 lakh 29. If in the year 2011-12, the total
(d) Data inadequate number of Maruti cars sold in Delhi
were 0.4 lakh, then how many Cars
were sold in India?
(a) 2.5 lakh
(b) 2.25 lakh
(c) 2.30 lakh
28. If in the year 2011-12, the total (d) Cannot be determined
number of cars sold in India were
4.5 lakh, then how many Tata 30. If in the year 2011-12, the total
Motors were sold in Delhi? number of cars sold in India were
(a) 20,000 7.5 lakh, then how much more cars
(b) 40,000 were sold in Delhi than Mumbai and
(c) 60,000 Pune together?

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 CSAT Handout by Amit Garg {Class Assignment (Pie-Chart)} IASSETU

(a) 35,000 32. If in the year 2011-12, the total

(b) 37,500 number of cars sold in Delhi were
(c) 40,000 2.7 lakh, then how much less cars
(d) None of these were sold of Tata motors than
Hyundai?
(a) 30,000
(b) 24,000
(c) 15,000
31. If in the year 2011-12, the total (d) 12,000
number of cars sold in Delhi were
2.7 lakh, then how much more cars 33. Find the total sales of cars in the
were sold of Maruti than Hyundai? year 2011-12 in India if Maruti 800
(a) 25,000 constituted 10% of Maruti cars sold
(b) 75,000 in Delhi and 40,000 Maruti 800
(c) 40,000 were sold in Delhi in 2011-12?
(d) Cannot be determined (a) 20 Lakh
(b) 22.5 Lakh
(c) 27.5 Lakh
(d) Cannot be determined

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 CSAT (IASSETU)
Class Assignment (Data Interpretation – Lecture 2)
Directions for Questions 1 to 4: The Triangular diagram given below shows the
percentage of students having passed the X standard examination in I, II or III divisions. The
students belong to three schools- Emerald Public school, Delhi Public school and Salwan
Public school. The number of students in Emerald Public, Delhi Public and Salwan Public
schools are 500, 750 and 470 respectively. Refer to the diagram and answer the following
questions:

1. The total number of students Public School bears to the total

passing in I division from the three number of students passing in II
schools is: division from Emerald public
(a) 592 school, a ratio of:
(b) 666 (a) 5:6
(c) 588 (b) 2:5
(d) 572 (c) 7:11
(d) 5:2

4. The total number of students

2. The total number of students
passing in division II forms what
passing in II division from the
percentage of the total students in
three schools is:
X standard in the three schools
(a) 660
(Approx)?
(b) 625
(a) 58.9%
(c) 676
(b) 28.9%
(d) 619
(c) 35.9%
3. The total number of students
(d) 46.9%
passing in II division from Delhi

Directions for Questions 5 to 8:

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 CSAT (IASSETU)
Class Assignment (Data Interpretation – Lecture 2)

The Triangular diagram given above represents the percentage of students opting for
Medical, Non-Medical and Commerce as majors in the schools A to E.
The number of students in various schools is as follows:
A 100 C 300 E 500
B 200 D 400
5. The number of students who 7. The total number of enrolments in
opted for Medical in schools C and Medical for all the schools put
E together is: together is:
(a) 180 (a) 160
(b) 210 (b) 340
(c) 240 (c) 430
(d) None of these (d) None of these

6. The number of students who have 8. The number of students who

opted for Commerce in School E opted for Non Medical in school B
exceeds the number of students forms what percentage of the
who have opted for Commerce in people who opted for Commerce
School D by how much in school D?
percentage (approx)? (a) 25%
(a) 70% (b) 33.33%
(b) 40% (c) 50%
(c) 190% (d) Cannot be determined
(d) Cannot be determined
Directions for Questions 9 to 12: Refer to the diagram below and answer the questions
that follow. The following triangular graph shows the percentage break-up of the various
types of tax collections of four states namely Haryana (H), Punjab (P), Maharashtra (M) and
Karnataka (K).

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 CSAT (IASSETU)
Class Assignment (Data Interpretation – Lecture 2)

Percentage break-up of the tax collections of four countries

9. If the total tax collection of state M

is Rs 12,000 crores and that of 11. If the Sales Tax of state P is Rs
state K is Rs 10,000 crores, find 2,500 lakh, its Value Added Tax is
the difference in their Value Added ............ of its total tax collection
Tax collection. (a) 3/8
(a) 1500 Crore (b) 1/4
(b) 2000 Crore (c) 3/32
(c) 2500 Crore (d) Cannot be determined
(d) None of these
12. If the Entertainment Tax of state K
10. If the Entertainment Tax of state H is Rs 7,500 lakh, its Sales Tax is
amounts to Rs 5,000 lakh, then its ............ of its total tax collection.
Value Added Tax collection is ? (a) 1/8
(a) 2500 Lakh (b) 5/8
(b) 5000 Lakh (c) 5/64
(c) 7500 Lakh (d) None of these
(d) Cannot be determined

Directions for Questions 13-17: A wholesale dealer of readymade garments sent a

consignment of two brands of shirt to a retailer by goods-train. However, the consignment
was tempered in transit and the retailer refused to accept it. Meanwhile, the wholesaler also
lost the details of consignment in a fire in his accounting office. Later on only the following
data about the number of shirts sent could be recovered:

Brand Size

M L XL Total
A 63
B 252
Total 185

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 CSAT (IASSETU)
Class Assignment (Data Interpretation – Lecture 2)

A search for more data revealed the following facts about the consignment: 60% of all the
shirts were of size L or XL; Brand B shirts formed 45% of the consignment; 50% of Brand A
shirts were of M size. Based on the above information, kindly answer the following
questions:

13. What percentage of the Brand B (c) 63

shirts are of size L? (d) None of these
(a) 37%
(b) 25% 16. How many Brand B shirts are of
(c) 50% XL size?
(d) 33% (a) 88
(b) 63
14. What percentage of L size shirts (c) 94
belong to Brand A? (d) None of these
(a) 49%
(b) 42% 17. What is the ratio of Brand A to
(c) 52% Brand B shirts?
(d) 30% (a) 9:4
(b) 11:9
15. How many Brand A shirts are of L (c) 12:5
size? (d) 9:11
(a) 91
(b) 94
Directions for Questions 18-21: Two brothers, Harish and Sanjay bought four acres of land
in 1990 and started cultivating in 1991. They produced 1,000 kg Jowar per acre that year.
Being the elder brother, Harish decided the proportion in which the total production would be
shared. He retained 1,800 kg and gave the rest to Sanjay. In 1994, when the production was
twice that in 1991, Harish gave 60% of the production to Sanjay. Sanjay found that Harish
was more considerate in that year than in 1992, when he had received 2700 kg which was
only 200 kg more than Harish. In 1995, when the production was twice that of 1993, Harish
retained 9000 kg, which was 75% of the total production in 1995.

18. In 1991 Harish and Sanjay had 20. The quantity of Jowar received by
shared the production in the ratio: Harish in 1991 as a ratio of
(a) 1:1 quantity received in 1995 is closer
(b) 9:11 to:
(c) 11:9 (a) 1:2
(d) None of these (b) 1:3
(c) 1:5
19. The increase in the production (d) 1:4
between 1993 and 1994 was: 21. The quantity received by Sanjay in
(a) 1000 Kg 1994 was:
(b) 1500 Kg (a) Four times the production of
(c) 2000 Kg 1993
(d) 3500 Kg (b) One- fourth the production of
1993
(c) Twice the production of 1993
(d) 40% of the production of 1995

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 UPSC 2013:

1. How many Physics professors belong to the age group 35 - 44?

(a) 18 (b) 16 (c) 14 (d) 12

2. Which one of the following disciplines has the highest ratio of males to females?
(a) Physics (b) Mathematics (c) Chemistry (d) Economics

3. What percentage of all Psychology professors are females?

(a) 40% (b) 50% (c) 60% (d) 70%
4. If the number of female Physics professors in the age group 25 - 34 equals 25% of all the
Physics professors in that age group, then what is the number of male Physics professors in
the age group 25 - 34?
(a) 9 (b) 6 (c) 3 (d) 2

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5. If the Psychology professors in the University constitute 2% of all the professors in the
University, then what is the number of professors in the University?
(a) 400 (b) 500 (c) 600 (d) 700

Study the bar chart and answer the question based on it.

6. What was the percentage increase in the production of Rubber from 2005 to 2006?
(a) 33.33% (b) 60% (c) 25% (d) 15%

7. The average production of 2007 and 2008 was exactly equal to the average
production of which of the following pairs of years?
(a) 2005 and 2007 (b) 2009 and 2010
(c) 2008 and 2012 (d) 2005 and 2012

8. What was the percentage increase in production of Rubber in 2011 compared to that in
2005?
(a) 320% (b) 300% (c) 220% (d) 200%

9. In which year was the percentage increase in production as compared to the previous
year the maximum?
(a) 2011 (b) 2010 (c) 2006 (d) 2008

10. In how many of the given years was the production of Rubber less than the average
production of the given years?
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 4 (d) 5

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UPSC questions related to line graph

11. Consider the following Velocity - Time graph. It shows two trains starting
simultaneously on parallel tracks.

With reference to the above graph, which one of the

following statements is not correct?

(a) Train B has an initial acceleration greater than that of

Train A

(b) Train B is faster than Train A at all times.

(c) Both trains have the same velocity at time t0.

(d) Both trains travel the same distance in time t0 units.

12. Consider the following distance - time graph. The graph shows three athletes A, B
and C running side by side for a 30 km race.

With reference to the above graph, consider the following statements:

1. The race was won by A.

3

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 2. B was ahead of A up to 25 km mark.

3. C ran very slowly form the beginning.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

2013 prelims

13. Consider the following diagrams:

X men, working at constant speed, do a certain job in Y days. Which one of these
diagrams shows the relation between X and Y?

a) Diagram I b) Diagram II

c) Diagram III d) Diagram IV

Class Assignment:

The following sketch represents flow of Natural gas through pipelines between the cities A,
B, C, D and E. Answer the following questions.

14. What is the number of units demanded in B?

a) 350 b) 400

c) 450 d) 500

15. If the number of units demanded at C is 225, then what is the value of M?
a) 1075 b) 875
4

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 c) 775 d) 850

16. If the total demand in E is 80% of demand in A. What is the demand in A?

a) 2500 b) 2400

c) 4500 d) None of these

17. Assuming the information for Questions 1-3 to be true, what is the total demand in
the five cities?
a) 2925 b) 5775

c) 4325 d) Cannot be found

The following line graph gives the ratio of the amounts of imports by a company to the
amount of exports from that company over the period from 1995 to 2001.

Ratio of Value of Imports to Exports by a Company over the Years.

18. If the imports in 1998 was Rs. 500 crores and the total exports in the years 1998 and
1999 together was Rs. 1000 crores, then the imports in 1999 was?
(a) Rs. 500 crores (b) Rs. 600 crores
(c) Rs. 840 crores (d) Rs. 920 crores

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19. The imports were maximum proportionate to the exports of the company in the
year?
(a) 1995 (b) 1996
(c) 2001 (d) 2000

20. What was the percentage increase in imports from 1998 to 1999?
(a) 72 (b) 56
(c) 28 (d) Cannot be determined

21. If the imports of the company in 1998 was Rs. 275 crores, the exports from the
company in 1998 was ?
(a) Rs. 170 crores (b) Rs. 220 crores
(c) Rs. 280 crores (d) Rs. 275 crores

22. In how many of the given years were the imports more than the Exports?
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 4

23. In how many of the given years were the imports less than the Exports?
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 4

The following table gives the percentage of marks obtained by seven students in
six different subjects in an examination.

The Numbers in the Brackets give the Maximum Marks in Each

Subject.

Subject (Max. Marks)

Student English Hindi Sanskrit Physics Maths Chemistry
(150) (130) (120) (100) (100) (100)
Rohan 90 50 90 60 70 80
Anil 100 80 80 40 80 70
Sahid 90 60 70 70 90 70
Mohit 80 65 80 80 60 60
Komal 80 65 85 95 50 90
Amitabh 70 75 65 85 40 60
Tarvesh 65 35 50 77 80 80

24. What are the average marks obtained by all the seven students
6

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 in Sanskrit? (rounded off to two digit after decimal)
A. 74.26 B. 89.14

C. 91.37 D. 96.11

25. The number of students who obtained 60% and above marks in
all subjects is?
A. 1 B. 2

C. 3 D. None

26. What was the aggregate of marks obtained by Sahid in all the six
subjects?
A. 420 B. 430

C. 440 D. None of these

27. In which subject is the overall percentage the best?
A. English B. Hindi

C. Sanskrit D. Maths

28. What is the overall percentage of Tarvesh?

A. 52.5% B. 58%

C. 60% D. 63%

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 Compound Interest (IASSETU)

Compound Interest
1. Sanjay invested an amount of Rs. 10,000 at compound interest rate of 10 per cent per annum for a
period of three years. How much amount will Sanjay get after 3 years?

2. Sandeep invested an amount of Rs. 16,000 for two years at compound interest and received an amount
of Rs. 17,640 on maturity. What is the rate of interest?

3. Pankaj invested an amount of Rs. 15,000 at compound interest rate of 10 percent per annum for a period
of 2 years. What amount will be received at the end of two years?

4. A sum of money at compound interest amounts to thrice of itself in three years. In how many years will it
be 9 times itself?

5. At what rate percent will the compound interest does a sum of money become four fold in 2 years?

6. A sum of Money Placed at compound Interest doubles itself in 4 Yrs. In how many years will it amount to
eight times itself?

7. Simple interest on a sum of 4% per annum for 2 years is Rs. 80. The compound interest on the same
sum for the same period is –

8. A sum of Money Placed at compound Interest triples itself in 3 Yrs. In how many years will it amount to
Twenty Seven times itself?

9. At what Rate percent compounded yearly will Rs 80000 amount to Rs 88200 in 2 yrs?

ANSWERS

1.Rs13310
2.5%
3.18150
4.6Years
5.100%
6. 12 Yrs
7.Rs81.6
8.9Yrs
9.5%

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 Puzzle Handout CSAT Batch

1. Study the following information carefully and answer the questions:

(i) B and E are good in Dramatics and Computer Science.
(ii) A and B are good in Computer Science and Physics.
(iii) A, D and C are good in Physics and History.
(iv) C and A are good in Physics and Maths.
(v) D and E are good in History and Dramatics.

2. Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
Ravi and Kunal are good in Hockey and Volleyball. Sachin and Ravi are good in Hockey and
Baseball. Gaurav and Kunal are good in Cricket and Volleyball. Sachin, Gaurav and Michael
are good in Football and Baseball.

3. (1) kailash , Govind and Harinder are intelligent.

(2) kailash , Rajesh and Jitendra are hard-working.
(3) Rajesh , Harinderand Jitendra are honest.
(4) Kailash , govind and jitendra are ambitious.

4. Madan and Rohit are in the same team of hockey. Parth defeated Rohit in badminton but lost to Sachin in
tennis. Nitin teams with Sagar in football and with Sachin in hockey. Rohit defeated Sachin in chess.
Those who play cricket do not play badminton, volleyball or tennis. Madan and Parth are in opposite
teams of basketball. Nitin represents his state in cricket while Sagar does so at the district level. Boys
who play chess do not play football, basketball or volleyball. Madan and Parth are together in the
volleyball team. Boys who play football also play hockey.

5. Nine cricket fans are watching a match in a stadium. Seated in one row, they are J, K, L, M,
N, O, P, Q and R. L is at the immediate right of M and at third place at the right of N. K is at
one end of the row. Q is seated adjacent to both O and P. O is at the third place at the left of
K. J is right next to left of O.

Read the following information carefully and answer the questions that follow :

(1) Five friends P, Q, R, S and T travelled to five different cities of Chennai, Kolkata, Delhi, Bangalore and Hyderabad
by different modes of transport of Bus, Train, Aeroplane, Car and Boat from Mumbai.

(2) The person who travelled to Delhi did not travel by boat.

(3) R went to Bangalore by car and Q went to Kolkata by aeroplane.

(4) S travelled by boat whereas T travelled by train.

(4) Mumbai is not connected by bus to Delhi and Chennai.

6. Which of the following combinations of person and mode is not correct ?

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 Puzzle Handout CSAT Batch

(a) P - Bus (b) Q – Aeroplane

(c) R- Car (d) S – Boat (e) T - Aeroplane

7. Which of the following combinations is true for S?

(a) Delhi – Bus (b) Chennai - Bus

(c) Chennai – Boat (d) Data inadequate (e) None of these

8. Which of the following combinations of place and mode is not correct ?

(a) Delhi – Bus (b) Kolkata – Aeroplane

(c) Bangalore - Car (d) Chennai - Boat (e) Hyderabad - Bus

9. The person travelling to Delhi went by which of the following modes ?

(a)Bus (b) Train (c) Aeroplane (d) Car (e) Boat

10. Who among the following travelled to Delhi ?

(a)R(b) S

(c) T (d) Data inadequate (e) None of these

Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below it :
There are six persons A, B, C, D, E and F in a school. Each of the teachers teaches two subjects, one compulsory
subject and the other optional subject. D's optional subject was History while three others have it as compulsory
subject. E and F have Physics as one of their subjects. F's compulsory subject is Mathematics which is an optional
subject of both C and E. History and English are A's subjects but in terms of compulsory and optional subjects, they
are just reverse of those of D's. Chemistry is an optional subject of only one of them. The only female teacher in the
school has English as her compulsory subject.

11. What is C's compulsory subject ?

(a) History (b) Physics (c) Chemistry (d) English(e) Mathematics

12. Who is a female member in the group ?

(a)A (b) B (c) C (d) D (e) E

13. Which of the following has same compulsory and optional subjects as those of F's?

(a)D (b) B (c) A (d) C (e) None of these

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 Puzzle Handout CSAT Batch

14 .Disregarding which is the compulsory and which is the optional subject, who has the same two subject
combination as F ?

(a)A (b) B (c) E (d) D (e) None of these

15.Which of the following groups has History as the compulsory subject ?

(a) A, C, D (b) B, C, D(c) C, D (d) A, B, C(e)A,D

Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions :

B, M, T, R, K, H and D are travelling in a train compartment with III-tier sleeper berth.Each of them has a different
profession of Engineer, Doctor, Architect, Pharmacist, Lawyer, Journalist and Pathologist. They occupied two lower
berths, three middle berths and two upper berths. B, the Engineer, is not on the upper berth. The Architect is the
only other person who occupies the same type of berth as that of B. M and H are not on the middle berth and their
professions are Pathologist and Lawyer respectively. T is a Pharmacist. D is neither a Journalist nor an Architect. K
occupies the same type of berth as that of the Doctor. (Bank P.O. 2004)

16.Who is the Architect ?

(a) Pharmacist (b) H (c) R

(d) Data inadequate (e) None of these

17.What isD’s profession ?

(a) Pharmacist (b) Lawyer

(c) Doctor (d) Engineer (e) Data inadequate

18.Which of the following pairs occupy the lower berth ?

(a) BT (b)BD

(c)BK (d)Data inadequate (e) None of these

19.Which of the following groups occupies the middle berth ?

(a)DKT (b)HKT

(c)DKR (d)DHT (e) None of these

20. Which of the following combinations of person-berth-profession is correct ?

(a) K - Upper - Lawyer (b) D - Upper – Doctor

(c) M - Lower – Journalist(d) R - Lower - Architect (e) All correct

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 Puzzle Handout CSAT Batch

Directions (Questions 21 to 24) : Rad the information given below and answer the questions that follow :

Four young men Raj, Prem, Ved and Ashok are friendly with four girls Sushma, Kusum, Vimla and Poonam. Sushma
and Vimla are friends. Ved'sgirl friend does not like Sushma and Vimla. Kusum does not care for Ved. Prem's girl
friend is friendly with Sushma. Sushma does not like Raj.

21. Who is Raj's girl friend ?

(a) Sushma (b) Kusum (c) Vimla(d) Poonam

22. With whom is Sushma friendly ?

(a) Raj (b) Prem (c) Ved (d) Ashok

23. Who is Poonam's boy friend ?

(a)Ashok (b) Ved(c) Prem (d) Raj

24. Who does not like Sushma and Vimla ?

(a)Poonam (b) Raj (c) Ashok(d) Ved

Directions(Questions25to29):Studythefollowing information carefully and answer the questions given below : (Bank
Recruitment, 2004) Seven boys A, D, Y, U, P, Q and J live in three different buildings - Ashiana, Top-view and Ridge.
Each of them is flying kites of different colours i.e. red, green, blue, white, black, yellow and pink, not necessarily in
that order. Not more than three or less than two stay in any of the buildings. Q is flying a pink kite and lives in the
same building as only J. i.e.Ashiana. Y is flying a black kite and does not live in Ridge building. U does not live in the
same building as A or P and is flying a yellow coloured kite. D lives in Ridge building with only one more person and is
flying a green kite. None in the Top-view building flies a white kite. P does not fly ablue kite.

25. Who live in Ridge building ?

(a)D, U (b) D, A, P(c) Y, A, P (d) A, P (e)one of these

26. Who is flying the blue kite ?

(a)A(b) J

(c)P (d) Data inadequate(e) None of these

27. Who flies the red kite ?

(a) A (b) J (c)P (d) Data inadequate (e) None of these

28. Who stay in Top-view building ?

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 Puzzle Handout CSAT Batch

(a) Y, J, P (b) A, P(c) A, P, D(d) Y, U, J(e) None of these

29.What coloured kite is J flying ?

(a) Blue (b) White

(c)Black (d) Data inadequate (e) None of these

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 (Venn Diagram & Clock- Amit Garg)

1. In an examination 40% of the student failed in Math, 30% failed in English

and 10% failed in both. Find the percentage of student who passed in
both the subject.

2. In a hostel, 60% had vegetarian lunch while 30 % had non-vegetarian

lunch and 15% had both types of lunch. If 960 people were present, how
many did not eat either type of lunch?

3. There are 600 boys in a hostel. Each plays either hockey or football or
both. If 75% play hockey and 45% play football, how many plays both?

(4-5) in a group of 1000 people. 700 can speak English and 500 can speak
Hindi. If all the people speak at least one of the two languages then find

4. How many can speak both the languages?

a) 150 b) 200 c) 250 d) None

5. How many can speak exactly one language?

a) 600 b) 750 c) 800 d) None
b)
6. Main street high school has 10 members on its football team and 14
members on its science club. 5 members at the school belong to both
the football and science teams. How many students belong to only
science club team or football team?

(Questions 7-12)
In the following figure, circle shows Literate, triangle shows
Unemployed, square Villagers. Study the diagram carefully & answer
the following question :

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 (Venn Diagram & Clock- Amit Garg)

7. Total no. of villagers is

8. Total no. of literate urban unemployed people is
9. No. of villagers which are illiterate & unemployed is
10. No. of literate villagers who are unemployed
11. Total no. of literate villagers is
12. Total no. of illiterate villagers who are employed is

(Questions 13-15)

In the following diagram, triangle shows rich, circle shows rural

population, rectangle shows school going population & square shows

boys.

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 (Venn Diagram & Clock- Amit Garg)

13. The village boys not going to school are denoted by which number?
14. The village girls not going to school are denoted by which number?

15. What is represented by number 4?

(A) School going Girls

(B) Children who are Girls

(C) Children who are from village.

(D) School going boys who are not from village.

16. In a town of 500 people, 285 read Hindu and 212 read Indian Express
and 127 read Times of India, 20 read Hindu and Times of India and 29 read
Hindu and Indian Express and 35 read Times of India and Indian express . 50
read no news paper. Then how many read only one paper ?

17. Out of 120 students in a school, 5% can play all the three games
Cricket, Chess and Carroms. If so happens that the number of players who can
play any and only two games is 30. The number of students who can play the
Cricket alone is 40. What is the total number of those who can play Chess
alone or Carroms alone ?

Clock

1. Find the angle between the hour hand and the minute hand of a clock when the time
is 12:30.
2. Find the angle between the hour hand and the minute hand of a clock when the time
is 1:30.
3. Find the angle between the hour hand and the minute hand of a clock when the time
is 2:30.
4. Find the angle between the hour hand and the minute hand of a clock when the time
is 4:30.
5. Find the angle between the hour hand and the minute hand of a clock when the time
is 2:25.
6. Find the angle between the hour hand and the minute hand of a clock when the time
is 3:25.

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 (Venn Diagram & Clock- Amit Garg)

7. Find the angle between the hour hand and the minute hand of a clock when the time
is 8:15.
8. At what time between 2 and 3 o’clock will the hands of a clock be together?

9. At what time between 6 and 7 o’clock will the hands of a clock be together?

10. At what time between 9 and 10 o’clock will the hands of a clock be together?
11. At what time between 4 and 5 o’clock will the hands of a clock be at Right angle?
12. At what time between 7 and 8 o’clock will the hands of a clock be at Right angle?
ANSWERS
1. 40%
2. 240
3. 120
4. (b) 200
5. (c) 800
6. 14
7. 43
8. 12
9. 10
10. 4
11. 13
12. 20
13. 10(2 and 8)
14. 6
15. D
16. 321
17. 44

Assignment Clocks

1. 165◦
2. 135◦
3. 105◦
4. 45◦
5. 77.5◦
6. 47.5◦
7. 7.5◦
𝟏𝟎
8. 2:10𝟏𝟏
𝟖
9. 6:32
𝟏𝟏
𝟏
10. 9:49𝟏𝟏
𝟓 𝟐
11. 4:5𝟏𝟏, 4:38𝟏𝟏
𝟗 𝟔
12. 7:21𝟏𝟏,7:54𝟏𝟏

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 Allegation By Amit Garg

Allegation

1. There are 100 students in a class. 6000 rupees are distributed among them so that each boy gets Rs
100 and each girl gets Rs 50. Find the number of boys and girls in that class?
(a) 30, 70
(b) 40, 60
(c) 20, 80
(d) 35, 65

2. There are 120 students in a class. 4800 rupees are distributed among them so that each boy gets Rs
20 and each girl gets Rs 80. Find the number of boys and girls in that class?

3. There are 40 students in a class. 4000 rupees are distributed among them so that each boy gets Rs
25 and each girl gets Rs 125. Find the number of boys and girls in that class?

4. In a zoo, there are rabbits and pigeons. If heads are counted, there are 50 and if legs are counted,
there are 140. How many pigeons are there?
(a) 20
(b) 25
(c) 30
(d) None of these

5. In a zoo, there are rabbits and pigeons. If heads are counted, there are 100 and if legs are counted,
there are 320. How many pigeons are there?
6. In a zoo, there are rabbits and pigeons. If heads are counted, there are 100 and if legs are counted,
there are 380. How many pigeons are there?

7. The population of a town is 8000. If the number of males increases by 9% and number of females by
16%, the population will be 9000. Find the ratio of males and females in the town.
(a) 2 : 3
(b) 3 : 2
(c) 5 : 3
(d) 1 : 1
8. The population of a town is 20000. If the number of males increases by 20% and number of females
by 30%, the population will be 25000. Find the ratio of males and females in the town.
9. The population of a town is 40000. If the number of males increases by 10% and number of females
by 50%, the population will be 48000. Find the ratio of males and females in the town.

10. A merchant has 2000 kg of Wheat, part of which he sells at 10% profit and rest at 30% profit. He
gains 15% on the whole. The quantity sold at 10% profit is
(a) 400 kg
(b) 500 kg
(c) 1500 kg
(d) 640 kg

11. A merchant has 1000 kg of sugar, part of which he sells at 8% profit and rest at 18% profit. He gains
14% on the whole. The quantity sold at 18% profit is
(a) 400 kg
(b) 560 kg
(c) 600 kg
(d) 640 kg

12. The average salary of the entire staff in TCS is Rs. 40000 per month. The average salary of officers is
Rs. 80000 and that of non-officers is Rs. 20000. Provided that office staff consists of only officers and
non-officers, if the number of officers is 50, then find the number of non-officers in the office.

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 Allegation By Amit Garg

13. The average salary of the entire staff in TCS is Rs. 60000 per month. The average salary of officers is
Rs. 90000 and that of non-officers is Rs. 20000. Provided that office staff consists of only officers and
non-officers, if the number of officers is 120, then find the number of Total Staff in the office.

14. The average salary of the entire staff in an office is Rs. 130 per month. The average salary of officers
is Rs. 540 and that of non-officers is Rs. 114. Provided that office staff consists of only officers and
non-officers, if the number of officers is 16, then find the number of non-officers in the office.
(a) 410
(b) 140
(c) 515
(d) 220
15. The average of marks obtained by 77 candidates in a certain examination is 17. If the average marks
of passed candidates are 19 and that of the failed candidates are 8, then what is the number of
candidates who passed the examination?
(a) 36
(b) 63
(c) 44
(d) 54

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 Allegation By Amit Garg

Allegation

1. C 20,80
2. Boys 80, Girls 40
3. Boys 10, Girls 30
4. C 30
5. 40
6. 10
7. (d) 1:1
8. 1:1
9. 3:1
10. C 1500 Kg
11. C 600 Kg
12. If officers 50, non-officers 100, if officers 150 non officers 300
13. 210
14. A 410
15. (b) 63

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 2022
1. The letter A, B, C, D and E are arranged in such a way that there are exactly two letters between A and E.
How many such arrangements are possible?
a) 12
b) 18
c) 24
d) 36

2. A,B and C are three places such that there are three different roads from A to B, four different roads from B
to C and three different roads A to C in how many different ways can one travel from A to C using these
roads?
a) 10
b) 13
C) 15
d) 36
3. How many 3-digit natural numbers (without repetition of digits) are there such that each digit is odd and
the number is divisible by 5?
a) 8
b) 12
c) 16
d) 24
4. The digit 1 to 9 are arranged in three rows in such a way that each row contains three digits, and the
number formed in the second row is twice the number formed in the first row; and the number formed in
the third row is thrice the number formed in the first row. Repetition of digit is not allowed. If only three of
the four digit 2,3,7 and 9 are allowed to use in the first row, how many be arranged in the three rows?
a) 4
b) 3
c) 2
d) 1
5.One non-zero digit, one vowel and one consonant from English alphabet (in capital) are to use in forming
passwords ,such that each password has to start with a vowel and end with a consonant. How many such
passwords can be generated?
a) 105
b) 525
c) 945
d) 1050
6. There are 9 cups placed on a table arranged in equal number of rows and columns out of which 6 cups
contain coffee and 3 cups contain tea. In how many ways can they be arranged so that each row should
contain at least one cup of coffee?
a) 18
b) 27
c) 54
d) 81
7. There is a numeric lock which has a 3-digit pin. The pin contains digits 1 to 7. There is no repetition of digit
the digit in the pin from left to right are in decreasing order. Any two digits in the pin differ by at least 2.how
many maximum attempts does one need to find out the pin with certainty?
a) 6

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b)8
c) 10
d) 12
2021
1. Integers are listed from 700 to 1000. In how many integers is the sum of the digits 10?
a) 6
b) 7
c) 8
d) 9
2. On a chess board, in how many different ways can 6 consecutive squares be chosen on the diagonals
along a straight path ?
a) 4
b) 6
c) 8
d) 12
3. There are 6 persons arranged in a row .another person has to shake hands with 3 of them so that he
should not shake hands with two consecutive persons. In how many distinct possible combinations can the
handshakes take place?
a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
d) 6
2020
1. How many five –digit prime numbers can be obtained by using all the digit 1,2,3,4 and 5 without
repetition of digits?
a) 0
b) 1
c) 9
d) 10
2. How many integers are there between 1 and 100 which have 4 as a digit but are not divisible by 4?
a) 5
b) 11
c) 12
d) 13
3. How many different 5-letter words (with or without meaning) can be constructed using all the letters of
the word has word ‘Delhi ‘so that each word has to start with D and end with I?
a) 24
b) 18
c) 12
d) 6
2019
1. Each face of a cube can be painted in black or white colours .in how many different ways can the cube be
painted?
a) 9
b) 10
c) 11
d) 12

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2. Suppose you have sufficient amount of rupee currency in three denominations:Rs.1 ,Rs.10 and Rs.50 .in
how many different ways can you pay a bill of Rs.107?
a) 16
b) 17
c) 18
d) 19
3. The number of times the digit 5 will appear while writing the integers 1 to 1000 is
a) 269
b) 271
c) 300
d) 302
2018
1.While writing all the numbers from 700 to 1000 , how many numbers occur in which the digit at hundred’s
place is greater than the digit at ten’s place , and the digit at ten’s place is greater than the digit the at unit’s
place?
a) 61
b) 64
c) 85
d) 91
2. A bag contains 15 red balls and 20 black balls. Each ball is numbered either 1or2 or 3 .20% of the red balls
are numbered 1 and 40% of them are numbered 3. Similarly, among the black balls, 45% are numbered 2
and 30% are numbered 3. A boy picks a ball at random .he wins if the ball is red and numbered 3 or if it is
black and numbered 1 or 2 what are the chances of his winning?
a) 1/2
b) 4/7
c) 5/9
d) 12/13
2017
1. A bag contains 20 balls .8 balls are green, 7 are white and 5 are red . What is the minimum number of balls
that must be picked up from the bag blindfolded (without replacing any of it ) to be assured of picking at
least one ball of each colour ?
a) 17
b) 16
c) 13
d) 11
2.If 2 boys and 2 girls are to be arranged in a row so that the girls are not next to each other, how many
possible arrangements are there?
a) 3
b) 6
c) 12
d) 24

PYQ 2011-2016

3.How many numbers are there between 100 and 300 which either begin with or end with 2 ?
a) 110
b) 111

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c) 112
d) None of the above

4. Four –digit numbers are to be formed using the digits 1, 2,3, and 4; and none of these four digits are
repeated in any manner . further,
1. 2 and 3 are not immediately follow each other
2. 1 is not to be immediately followed by
3. 4 is not to appear at the last place
4. 1 is not to appear at the first place
How many different numbers can be formed ?
a) 6
b) 8
c) 9
d) None of the above

5. A around archery target of diameter 1 m is marked with four scoring regions from the centre outwards as
red, blue, yellow and white. The radius of the red band is 0.20m. The width of all the remaining bands is
equal .if archers throw arrows towards the target, what is the probability that the arrows fall in the red
region of the archery target?
a) 0.40
b) 0.20
c) 0.16
d) 0.04
6. A selection is to be made for one post of principal and two posts of vice-principal .amongst the six
candidates called for the interview, only two are eligible for the posts of principal while they all are eligible
for the post of vice-principal. The number of possible combinations of selectees is
a) 4
b) 12
c) 18
d) None of the above
7. A student has to opt for 2 subject out of 5 subjects for a course , namely , commerce, economics ,
statistics, mathematics I and mathematics ii . mathematics ii can be offered only if mathematics I is also
opted . The number of different combinations of two subject which can be opted is
a) 5
b) 6
c) 7
d) 8

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 Direction sense Test- Amit Garg

1. One morning Udai and Vishal were talking to each other face to face at a crossing. If
Vishal's shadow was exactly to the left of Udai, which direction was Udai facing?

2. One evening before sunset Rekha and Hema were talking to each other face to face.
If Hema's shadow was exactly to the right of Hema, which direction was Rekha
facing?

3. One morning after sunrise, Vimal started to walk. During this walking he met
Stephen who was coming from opposite direction. Vimal watch that the shadow of
Stephen to the right of him (Vimal). To Which direction Vimal was facing?

4. Raghu was walking in North direction then he turned 45 ̊ in anti clockwise direction.
Then he again turned 180 ̊ in the same direction. Then he turned 90̊ in clockwise
direction. In which direction is he facing now?

5. Shalini started walking towards her school. She is walking in East direction, from
there she turned right in 90 ̊ and then she turned in clockwise direction 180 ̊. In
which direction is she facing?

6. Raju wants to go to the theater for which he started riding a bicycle in west
direction from where he turned 225 ̊ in anticlockwise direction. In which direction is
he moving?

7. Shahida was walking in South –East direction from where she turned 45 ̊in clockwise
directions and from where she took 90 ̊ turn Clockwise. Which direction is she facing
now?

8. If “North” become “South-West” and “South –west” become “East”. What will West
become?

9. If “East” becomes “South-West” and “South – East” become “West”. What will “North
– East” become?

10. If “South “ becomes “South- East” and “West” becomes “South- West” . What will
“East” become?

11. If “South – West” become “East” and “North – West” becomes “South”. What will
“South – East” become?

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 Direction sense Test- Amit Garg

12. Rahul started from his home to reach theater and cycled 5 km in north direction.
Then, he turned towards left and cycled 3km and then turned left and cycled 5km. In
what direction is he from his home?

13. Sashi started walking in north direction for 2km. Then he turned to his right and
walked 4km , then again he turned right and walked 2km and then finally he turned
left and walked 6km. Now he is in which direction with respect to the starting point?

14. Radhika started to walk in South direction for 4 km. Then she turned to her left and
walked 3km and then turned right and walked 3km and then again turned left and
walked 4km. How far is she from the starting point and in which direction?

15. Shivani walked 4km east and then she turned right and walked 3km and finally she
turned left and walked 5km. How far she is and in which direction with respect to
the starting point?

16. Rahul put his timepiece on the table in such a way that at 6 P.M. hour hand points to
North. In which direction the minute hand will point at 9.15 P.M. ?

17. A watch reads 4:30. If the minute hand faces west then in which direction will the
hour hand face?

18. Rajiv kept his watch in such a position that at 7:30 the hour hand points North-East.
In which direction will the minute hand face?

19. Lata kept her watch in a position such that at 6:00 the hour hand points to the North
direction. In which direction will the minute hand point?

20. Rajshree kept her watch in a position such that at 10:30 the hour hand points
to North –West. In which direction will the minute hand point?

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 (Seating Arrangement- Amit Garg)

LINEAR SITTING ARRANGEMENT

Direction for question No. (1-2)

P, Q, R, S, T are sitting in a straight line facing North not necessarily in same order. P is sitting next
to Q , R & S are sitting together. S is not sitting with T who is on the left end of the line, R is on the
second position from right. P is to the right of Q & T, P & R are sitting together.

1) which of the following is the position P is correct ?

a) Between T & Q
b) Between R & S
c) between Q & R
d) can’t be determined

2) If alphabets are arranged in alphabetic order whose position will not be altered?

a) P
b) Q
c) R
d) S

Direction for question No. (3-4)

A , B , C, D , E , F are sitting in a row facing North. E & F are in centre. A & B are at ends .C is
sitting to left of A

3) Who is sitting immediate right of B?

a) A
b) D
c) F
d) C

4) If position of B and A are interchanged then who is sitting immediate left of B?

a) B
b) F
c) C
d) E

Direction for question No. (5-8)

A , B , C, D , E , F , G, H are sitting in a Straight line facing North not necessarily in same order

1)C sits fourth to left of G. D sits second to right of G

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 (Seating Arrangement- Amit Garg)

2)only two people sit between D and A. B & F sits adjacent to each other

3)H is not an immediate neighbor of D . then answer the following

5) Who sits third to right of C?

a) B
b) H
c) E
d) A

6) Which of the following represent persons seated in two extreme ends?

a) CB
b) FA
c) HD
d) ED

7) How many persons are seated between A & E?

a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) Can’t be determined

8) What is the position of F with respect to H ?

a) Immediately to the left of H

b) Second to left of H
c) Third to right of H
d) Can’t be determined

Circular Arrangement
Direction for question (9-10)
Six people B, C, D ,E ,F, G facing away from centre not necessarily in the same order
1) E sits second to right of F
2) D who sits with G also sits second to left of C
3) C sits opposite to G who sits second to left of F. E doesn’t sit with D

9) Which of the following statements are not true regarding given sitting arrangement?
a) F and B are sitting together
b) D and C are sitting opposite to each other
c) In between F and D there are two persons sitting between them
d) All the given above statements are not true

10) If position of C & G are interchanged who is sitting to left of C?

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 (Seating Arrangement- Amit Garg)

a) F
b) E
c) D
d) B

Direction for question (11-14)

Eight persons are seating in a circular arrangement B,C,D,E,F,G,H,I not necessarily in same order
and are facing centre also given
1. B is second to the right of F who is neighbor of D & H
2. E is not the neighbor of B
3. H is the neighbor of G
4. C is between E & I .
Using these answer the following question

11) Who among the following are not neighbors?

a) DF
b) EG
c) BC
d) FH

12) Who is sitting opposite to I ?

a) F
b) G
c) B
d) H

13) Who are sitting in between B and C?

a) H
b) I
c) G
d) D

14) If position of E & G are interchanged then what will be the position of B with respect to G?
a) First to the left of G
b) Second to the left of G
c) Third to the right of G
d) Third to the left of G

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 (Seating Arrangement- Amit Garg)

Seating Arrangement ANSWERS

1. C
2. B
3. B
4. C
5. D
6. C
7. B
8. D
9. D
10. D
11. C
12. D
13. B
14. D

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Average Questions:-

1. In the first 10 overs of a cricket game, the run rate was only 3.2. What should be the run rate in the
remaining 40 overs to reach the target of 282 runs?
2. A family consists of total 7 members (two grandparents, two parents and three grandchildren) . The
average age of the grandparents is 67 years, that of the parents is 35 years and that of the grandchildren
is 6 years. What is the average age of the family?
3. A grocer has a sale of Rs. 6435, Rs. 6927, Rs. 6855, Rs. 7230 and Rs. 6562 for 5 consecutive months.
How much sale must he have in the sixth month so that he gets an average sale of Rs. 6500?
4.

The average of 20 numbers is zero. Of them, at the most, how many may be greater than zero?
A. 0

B. 1

C. 10

D. 19

5. The average weight of 8 person's increases by 2.5 kg when a new person comes in place of one of them
weighing 65 kg. What might be the weight of the new person?
A. 76 kg

B. 76.5 kg

C. 85 kg

D. Data inadequate

6. The average monthly income of P and Q is Rs. 5050. The average monthly income of Q and R is Rs.
6250 and the average monthly income of P and R is Rs. 5200. The monthly income of P is:
7. The average age of husband, wife and their child 3 years ago was 27 years and that of wife and the child
5 years ago was 20 years. The present age of the husband is:

Ratio Questions:-

8. Two numbers are respectively 20% and 50% more than a third number. The ratio of the two numbers is:
9. A sum of money is to be distributed among A, B, C, D in the proportion of 5 : 2 : 4 : 3. If C gets Rs.
1000 more than D, what is B's share?
10. Seats for Mathematics, Physics and Biology in a school are in the ratio 5 : 7 : 8. There is a proposal to
increase these seats by 40%, 50% and 75% respectively. What will be the ratio of new seats (after
addition of increase seats)?
11. In a mixture 60 litres, the ratio of milk and water 2 : 1. If this ratio is to be 1 : 2, then the quantity of
water to be further added is:

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 12. The ratio of the number of boys and girls in a college is 7 : 8. If the percentage increase in the number of
boys and girls be 20% and 10% respectively, what will be the new ratio?
13. Salaries of Ravi and Sumit are in the ratio 2 : 3. If the salary of each is increased by Rs. 4000, the new
ratio becomes 40 : 57. What is Sumit's salary?
14. The sum of three numbers is 98. If the ratio of the first to second is 2 :3 and that of the second to the
third is 5 : 8, then the second number is:

Extra Questions

15. I have a few sweets to be distributed. If I keep 2, 3 or 4 in a pack, I am left with one sweet. If I
keep 5 in a pack, I am left with none. What is the minimum number of sweets I have to pack and
distribute ?

A. 25 B. 37

C. 54 D. 65

16. Which one will replace the question mark ?

A. 5 B. 6

C. 8 D. 9

17. Which of the following is necessarily Fraction?

(a) Odd/odd
(b) Odd/even
(c) Even/even
(d) Even/odd
18.
18. A milkman buys milk at Rs. 6.4/lts. He added water and sell mixture at Rs 8/lts thereby making
37.5% profit. The proportion of water to milk received by customer is:
(a) 1:10
(b) 1:15
(c) 1:20
(d) 1:30

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19. A trader gets a profit of 25% on an article. If he buys the article at 10% less and sell it for Rs 4
less, then he makes a profit of 33.33%, find the actual cost price of an article?
(a) 20
(b) 80
(c) 100
(d) 120
20. A reduction of 10% in the price of Banana enables a person to obtain one dozen more bananas for
Rs 180. Find the original price per dozen?
(a) Rs 18 per dozen
(b) Rs 20 per dozen
(c) Rs 25 per dozen
(d) Rs 30 per dozen

21. Two men A and B together can complete one work in 4 days and B alone takes 6 days extra as
compare to A alone to do the same work. Find in how many days A alone can complete the work?
(a) 10 days
(b) 6 days
(c) 15 days
(d) 30 days

22. In Central Secretariat there are three LDCs namely Gopi Chand, Hari Chand and Dhuni Chand
working on the same project. Dhuni Chand is twice as efficient asGopi Chand who in turn is
thrice as efficient asHariChand. Working together all three can complete the project in 9 days.
Find out how long Hari Chand will take to finish the same project alone?
i. 81 days
ii. 45 days
iii. 90 days
iv. 30 days

23. A number when divided by 8 leaves a remainder 3. When the square of the number is divided by
8, the remainder is:
(a) 1
(b) 4
(c) 2
(d) 3

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Average Questions:-

1. In the first 10 overs of a cricket game, the run rate was only 3.2. What should be the run rate in the
remaining 40 overs to reach the target of 282 runs?
2. A family consists of total 7 members (two grandparents, two parents and three grandchildren) . The
average age of the grandparents is 67 years, that of the parents is 35 years and that of the grandchildren
is 6 years. What is the average age of the family?
3. A grocer has a sale of Rs. 6435, Rs. 6927, Rs. 6855, Rs. 7230 and Rs. 6562 for 5 consecutive months.
How much sale must he have in the sixth month so that he gets an average sale of Rs. 6500?
4.

The average of 20 numbers is zero. Of them, at the most, how many may be greater than zero?
A. 0

B. 1

C. 10

D. 19

5. The average weight of 8 person's increases by 2.5 kg when a new person comes in place of one of them
weighing 65 kg. What might be the weight of the new person?
A. 76 kg

B. 76.5 kg

C. 85 kg

D. Data inadequate

6. The average monthly income of P and Q is Rs. 5050. The average monthly income of Q and R is Rs.
6250 and the average monthly income of P and R is Rs. 5200. The monthly income of P is:
7. The average age of husband, wife and their child 3 years ago was 27 years and that of wife and the child
5 years ago was 20 years. The present age of the husband is:

Ratio Questions:-

8. Two numbers are respectively 20% and 50% more than a third number. The ratio of the two numbers is:
9. A sum of money is to be distributed among A, B, C, D in the proportion of 5 : 2 : 4 : 3. If C gets Rs.
1000 more than D, what is B's share?
10. Seats for Mathematics, Physics and Biology in a school are in the ratio 5 : 7 : 8. There is a proposal to
increase these seats by 40%, 50% and 75% respectively. What will be the ratio of new seats (after
addition of increase seats)?
11. In a mixture 60 litres, the ratio of milk and water 2 : 1. If this ratio is to be 1 : 2, then the quantity of
water to be further added is:

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 12. The ratio of the number of boys and girls in a college is 7 : 8. If the percentage increase in the number of
boys and girls be 20% and 10% respectively, what will be the new ratio?
13. Salaries of Ravi and Sumit are in the ratio 2 : 3. If the salary of each is increased by Rs. 4000, the new
ratio becomes 40 : 57. What is Sumit's salary?
14. The sum of three numbers is 98. If the ratio of the first to second is 2 :3 and that of the second to the
third is 5 : 8, then the second number is:

Extra Questions

15. I have a few sweets to be distributed. If I keep 2, 3 or 4 in a pack, I am left with one sweet. If I
keep 5 in a pack, I am left with none. What is the minimum number of sweets I have to pack and
distribute ?

A. 25 B. 37

C. 54 D. 65

16. Which one will replace the question mark ?

A. 5 B. 6

C. 8 D. 9

17. Which of the following is necessarily Fraction?

(a) Odd/odd
(b) Odd/even
(c) Even/even
(d) Even/odd
18.
18. A milkman buys milk at Rs. 6.4/lts. He added water and sell mixture at Rs 8/lts thereby making
37.5% profit. The proportion of water to milk received by customer is:
(a) 1:10
(b) 1:15
(c) 1:20
(d) 1:30

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19. A trader gets a profit of 25% on an article. If he buys the article at 10% less and sell it for Rs 4
less, then he makes a profit of 33.33%, find the actual cost price of an article?
(a) 20
(b) 80
(c) 100
(d) 120
20. A reduction of 10% in the price of Banana enables a person to obtain one dozen more bananas for
Rs 180. Find the original price per dozen?
(a) Rs 18 per dozen
(b) Rs 20 per dozen
(c) Rs 25 per dozen
(d) Rs 30 per dozen

21. Two men A and B together can complete one work in 4 days and B alone takes 6 days extra as
compare to A alone to do the same work. Find in how many days A alone can complete the work?
(a) 10 days
(b) 6 days
(c) 15 days
(d) 30 days

22. In Central Secretariat there are three LDCs namely Gopi Chand, Hari Chand and Dhuni Chand
working on the same project. Dhuni Chand is twice as efficient asGopi Chand who in turn is
thrice as efficient asHariChand. Working together all three can complete the project in 9 days.
Find out how long Hari Chand will take to finish the same project alone?
i. 81 days
ii. 45 days
iii. 90 days
iv. 30 days

23. A number when divided by 8 leaves a remainder 3. When the square of the number is divided by
8, the remainder is:
(a) 1
(b) 4
(c) 2
(d) 3

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 Race and Circular Motion

1. In a 1000 m race, A can give B 100 m and C 280 m. In the race of 1000m B can give C:

2. A and B take part in 100 m race. A runs at 5 kmph. A gives B a start of 8 m and still beats
him by 8 seconds. The speed of B is:

A. 5.15 kmph

B. 4.14 kmph

C. 4.25 kmph

D. 4.4 kmph

3. In a 500 m race, the ratio of the speeds of two contestants A and B is 3 : 4. A has a start of
140 m. Then, A wins by:
A. 60 m

B. 40 m

C. 20 m

D. 10 m

4. In a race of 200 m, A can beat B by 31 m and C by 18 m. In a race of 350 m, C will beat B by:

A. 22.75 m

B. 25 m

C. 19.5 m

4
D. 7 m
7

5. In 100 m race, A covers the distance in 36 seconds and B in 45 seconds. In this race A beats
B by:
A. 20 m

B. 25 m

C. 22.5 m

D. 9 m

Circular Motion:-

1. There is a track with a length of 120 meters and 2 people, A & B, are running around it at 12
m/min and 20 m/min respectively in the same direction. When will A and B meet at the starting
point for the first time?
2. There is a track with a length of 120 meters and 2 people, A & B, are running around it at 12
m/min and 20 m/min respectively in the same direction. When will B overtake A for the 1st time?
3. There is a track with a length of 120 meters and 2 people, A & B, are running around it at 12
m/min and 20 m/min respectively in the same direction. At how many points will A and B meet?

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 Race and Circular Motion

4. In a circular race of 1200m, A and B start from the same point and at the same time with
speeds of 27kmph and 45 kmph. Find when will they meet again for the first time on the
trace when they are running in the same direction and Opposite direction?
a. 240, 60 Secs
b. 200, 60 secs
c. 200, 80 Sec
d. None of these

5. In a circular race of 1200 m length, A and B start with speeds of 18kmph and 27 kmph
starting at the same time from the same point. When will they meet for the first time at
the starting point when running in the same direction and opposite direction?
a. 240, 160
b. 480, 480
c. 240, 240
d. 160, 480

6. A, B and C run around a circular track of length 1200 m with respective speeds 9, 18, 27
kmph. If they started at the same time from the same point and run in the same direction
when will they meet for the first time?
a. 360 sec
b. 480 sec
c. 240 sec
d. None

7. P, Q, R run around a circular track 1200 m long with speed of 9, 18, 27 kmph. If they
start at the same point and at the same time in the same direction, when will they meet
again at the starting point?
a. 360 sec
b. 480 sec
c. 240 sec
d. None

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 GMA
1. Study the following figure : A person goes from A to
B always moving to the right or downwards along the
lines. How many different routes can he adopt?
(2011)

Select the correct answer from the codes given

below:
(a) 4 (b) 5
(c) 6 (d) 7
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2. Consider the following figure and
answer the item that follows : (2011)

What is the total number of

triangles in the above grid ?
(a) 27 (b) 26
(c) 23 (d) 22
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3.There are 4 routes to travel from city A to
city B and six routes from city B to city C.
How many routes are possible to travel
from city A to city C? (2011)
a)24
b)12
c)10
d)8

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4: With reference to the figure given
below, the number of different routes
from S to T without retracing from U
and / or V, is (2014)
(a)3
(b)6
(c)9
(d)18
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5. From each end, the first point is at distance of 1 cm
from the end, the second point is at a distance of 2 cm
from the first point and third point is at distance of 3 cm
from the second point and so on. If the end points on
the ends are not counted and the common points are
counted as one, what is number of points ?

a)10 b)12

c)14 d)16
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 2014
6: A group of 630 children is seated in rows
for a group photo session. Each row contains
three less children than the row in front of it.
Which one of the following number of rows
is not possible?
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) 6
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 7. The number of parallelograms that can be formed from a set of four
parallel lines intersecting another set of four parallel lines, is
(a) 18
(b) 24
(c) 32
(d) 36

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8. What is the minimum number of different colors required
to paint he given figure such that no two adjacent regions
have the same color? (2011)

(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) 6

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9. Consider the following figure and answer the item that
follows ? (2011)

A square is divided into four rectangles as shown

above. The lengths of the sides of rectangles
are natural numbers. The areas of two rectangles
are indicated in the figure. What is the length
of each side of the square?

a) 10
b) 11
c) 15
d) Cannot be determined as the given data are insufficient

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 10. A, B, C, D and E belong to five different cities P, Q, R, S and T (not necessarily in
that order). Each one of them comes from a different city. Further it is given that :
1. B and C do not belong to Q (2013)
2. B and E do not belong to P and R
3. A and C do not belong to R, S and T
4. D and E do not belong to Q and T.

Which one of the following statements is not correct ?

a) C belongs to P
b) D belongs to R
c) A belongs to Q
d) B belongs to S

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11. In a plane a line X is perpendicular to line Y and parallel to line Z , line U is
perpendicular to both lines V and W , line X is perpendicular to line V.

Which one of the following statements is correct ?

a) Z, U and W are parallel.

b) Z, V and Y are parallel
c) Z, V and U are all perpendicular to W.
d) Y, V and W are parallel

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12. There are 4 horizontal and 4 vertical lines, parallel and
equidistant to one another on a board. What is the maximum number
of rectangles and squares that can be formed ? (2016)

a) 16
b) 24
c) 36
d) 42

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Continuous Series Extra Handout (Note:- For extra handouts hard
copies will not be provided)
1. _ stt _ tt _ tts _
A. tsts

B. ttst

C. sstt

D. tsst

2. gfe _ ig _ eii _ fei _ gf_ ii

A. eifgi

B. figie

C. ifgie

D. ifige

3. _ a _ b _ abaa _ bab _ abb

A. aaabb

B. ababb

C. babab

D. babba

4. abca _ bcaab _ ca _ bbc _ a

A. ccaa

B. bbaa

C. abac

D. abba

5. _ tu _ rt _ s _ _ usrtu _
A. rtusru

B. rsutrr

C. rsurtr

D. rsurts

6. _ _aba _ _ ba _ ab
A. abbba

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Continuous Series Extra Handout (Note:- For extra handouts hard
copies will not be provided)
B. abbab

C. baabb

D. bbaba

7. c _ bbb _ _ abbbb _ abbb _

A. aabcb

B. abccb

C. abacb

D. baebb

8. _ bbca _ bcca _ ac _ a _ cb
A. abeba

B. acbab

C. bacab

D. bcaajb

9. a _ bbc _ aab _ cca _ bbcc

A. bacb

B. acba

C. abba

D. caba

10. ac _ cab _ baca _ aba _ acac

A. aacb

B. aebe

C. babb

D. bcbb

11. _ aa _ ba _ bb _ ab _ aab
A. aaabb

B. babab

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Continuous Series Extra Handout (Note:- For extra handouts hard
copies will not be provided)
C. bbaab

D. bbbaa

12. c _ bba _ cab _ ac _ ab _ ac

A. abebe

B. acbcb

C. babec

D. bcacb

13. ba _ cb _ b _ bab _
A. acbb

B. bacc

C. bcaa

D. cabb

14. _ bc _ ca _ aba _ c _ ca
A. abcbb

B. bbbec

C. bacba

D. abbec

15. ab _ _ baa _ _ ab _
A. aaaaa

B. aabaa

C. aabab

D. baabb

16. ab _ aa _ bbb _ aaa _ bbba

A. abba

B. baab

C. aaab

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Continuous Series Extra Handout (Note:- For extra handouts hard
copies will not be provided)
D. abab

17. _ nmmn _ mmnn _ mnnm _

A. nmmn

B. mnnm

C. nnmm

D. nmnm

1. Answer: Option D
Explanation:
The series is tst/tst/tst/tst. Thus, the pattern 'tst' is repeated.

2. Answer: Option C
Explanation:
The series is gfeii/gfeii/gfeii/gfeii. Thus, the pattern 'gfeii' is repeated.

3. Answer: Option D
Explanation:
The series is baa/bba/baa/bba/baa/bb. Thus, the pattern baa/bba is repeated.

4. Answer: Option C
Explanation:
The series is abc/aabc/aabbc/aabbcc/a.
5. Answer: Option D
Explanation:
The series rtus/rtus/rtus/rtus. Thus, the pattern 'rtus' is repeated.
6. Answer: Option B
Explanation:
The series is ab/ab/ab/ab/ab/ab. Thus, the pattern 'ab' is repeated.
7. Answer: Option B
Explanation:
The series is cabbbb/cabbbb/cabbbb. Thus, the pattern 'cabbbb' is repeated.
8. Answer: Option B
Explanation:
The series is abbc/ac/bcca/ba/caab/cb.
9. Answer: Option B
Explanation:
The series is aabbcc/aabbcc/aabbcc. Thus, the pattern 'aabbcc' is repeated.
10. Answer: Option A
Explanation:
The series is acac/abab/acac/abab/acac. Thus, the pattern acac/abab is repeated
11. Answer: Option C
Explanation:
The series is baab/baab/baab/baab. Thus, the pattern 'baab' is repeated.
12. Answer: Option B
Explanation:
The series is cabbac/cabbac/cabbac. Thus, the pattern 'cabbac' is repeated.
13. Answer: Option B
Explanation:
The series is babc/babc/babc. Thus, the pattern 'babc' is repeated.
14. Answer: Option A
Explanation:
The series is abc/bca/cab/abc/bca, Thus, the letters change places in a cyclic order.
15. Answer: Option B
Explanation:
The series is aba/aba/aba/aba. Thus, the pattern 'aba' is repeated.
16. Answer: Option B

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Continuous Series Extra Handout (Note:- For extra handouts hard
copies will not be provided)
Explanation:
The series is abb/aaabbb/aaaabbbb/a. Thus the letters are repeated twice, then thrice, then four times and so
on.
17. Answer: Option C
Explanation:
The series is nnmm/nnmn/nnmm/nnmm. Thus, the pattern 'nnmm' is repeated.

Source:- www.Indiabix.com

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 (Unit Digit and RemainderTheorem)

1. What is the unit digit in {(74)93 x (25)17 x (4191)}?

A. 0 B. 2
C. 3 D. 5

2. Find the remainder when 66 + 55 + 1111 is divided by 10?

a. 1 b. 2
c. 6 d. 5

3. What will be remainder when 16200 is divided by 17?

A. 15 B. 16
C. 1 D. 2

4. What is the unit digit in (1795 - 1358)?

A. 0 B. 4
C. 6 D. 7

5. The last digit of the number obtained by multiplying the

numbers 91x92x93x94x95x96x97x98x99 will be
a) 0 b) 1
c) 18 d) 2

6. What will be the remainder obtained when

(89+1) will be divided by 7?
a. 4 b. 3
c. 1 d. 2

7. Find the units digit of the expression 2551+2628+2354.

a) 1 b)0
c)2 d)3

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8. Find the units digit of the expression
211+222+233+244+255+266.
a) 8 b)9
c)5 d)4

9. What is the units digit of the expression 122.133.144.155.

166.177
a)2 b)0
c)7 d)None of these

10. Find the units digit of 2543x63703x3228 is:

a)1 b)3
c)0 d) 6

11. The remainder when 368 is divided by 5 :

a. 3 b. 1
c. 2 d. None of these

12. The remainder when 751 is divided by 5.

a. 2 b.4
c.8 d.3

13. Find the unit digit of the expression 4141 × 4242 + 4343 × 4444
+ 4545 × 4646 ?
a.6 b.4
c.2 d.0

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 (Venn Diagram & Clock- Amit Garg)

1. In an examination 40% of the student failed in Math, 30% failed in English

and 10% failed in both. Find the percentage of student who passed in
both the subject.

2. In a hostel, 60% had vegetarian lunch while 30 % had non-vegetarian

lunch and 15% had both types of lunch. If 960 people were present, how
many did not eat either type of lunch?

3. There are 600 boys in a hostel. Each plays either hockey or football or
both. If 75% play hockey and 45% play football, how many plays both?

(4-5) in a group of 1000 people. 700 can speak English and 500 can speak
Hindi. If all the people speak at least one of the two languages then find

4. How many can speak both the languages?

a) 150 b) 200 c) 250 d) None

5. How many can speak exactly one language?

a) 600 b) 750 c) 800 d) None
b)
6. Main street high school has 10 members on its football team and 14
members on its science club. 5 members at the school belong to both
the football and science teams. How many students belong to only
science club team or football team?

(Questions 7-12)
In the following figure, circle shows Literate, triangle shows
Unemployed, square Villagers. Study the diagram carefully & answer
the following question :

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 (Venn Diagram & Clock- Amit Garg)

7. Total no. of villagers is

8. Total no. of literate urban unemployed people is
9. No. of villagers which are illiterate & unemployed is
10. No. of literate villagers who are unemployed
11. Total no. of literate villagers is
12. Total no. of illiterate villagers who are employed is

(Questions 13-15)

In the following diagram, triangle shows rich, circle shows rural

population, rectangle shows school going population & square shows

boys.

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 (Venn Diagram & Clock- Amit Garg)

13. The village boys not going to school are denoted by which number?
14. The village girls not going to school are denoted by which number?

15. What is represented by number 4?

(A) School going Girls

(B) Children who are Girls

(C) Children who are from village.

(D) School going boys who are not from village.

16. In a town of 500 people, 285 read Hindu and 212 read Indian Express
and 127 read Times of India, 20 read Hindu and Times of India and 29 read
Hindu and Indian Express and 35 read Times of India and Indian express . 50
read no news paper. Then how many read only one paper ?

17. Out of 120 students in a school, 5% can play all the three games
Cricket, Chess and Carroms. If so happens that the number of players who can
play any and only two games is 30. The number of students who can play the
Cricket alone is 40. What is the total number of those who can play Chess
alone or Carroms alone ?

Clock

1. Find the angle between the hour hand and the minute hand of a clock when the time
is 12:30.
2. Find the angle between the hour hand and the minute hand of a clock when the time
is 1:30.
3. Find the angle between the hour hand and the minute hand of a clock when the time
is 2:30.
4. Find the angle between the hour hand and the minute hand of a clock when the time
is 4:30.
5. Find the angle between the hour hand and the minute hand of a clock when the time
is 2:25.
6. Find the angle between the hour hand and the minute hand of a clock when the time
is 3:25.

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 (Venn Diagram & Clock- Amit Garg)

7. Find the angle between the hour hand and the minute hand of a clock when the time
is 8:15.
8. At what time between 2 and 3 o’clock will the hands of a clock be together?

9. At what time between 6 and 7 o’clock will the hands of a clock be together?

10. At what time between 9 and 10 o’clock will the hands of a clock be together?
11. At what time between 4 and 5 o’clock will the hands of a clock be at Right angle?
12. At what time between 7 and 8 o’clock will the hands of a clock be at Right angle?
ANSWERS
1. 40%
2. 240
3. 120
4. (b) 200
5. (c) 800
6. 14
7. 43
8. 12
9. 10
10. 4
11. 13
12. 20
13. 10(2 and 8)
14. 6
15. D
16. 321
17. 44

Assignment Clocks

1. 165◦
2. 135◦
3. 105◦
4. 45◦
5. 77.5◦
6. 47.5◦
7. 7.5◦
𝟏𝟎
8. 2:10𝟏𝟏
𝟖
9. 6:32
𝟏𝟏
𝟏
10. 9:49𝟏𝟏
𝟓 𝟐
11. 4:5𝟏𝟏, 4:38𝟏𝟏
𝟗 𝟔
12. 7:21𝟏𝟏,7:54𝟏𝟏

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 Permutation & Combination and Probability questions by Amit Garg

1. In a bag there are 5 Red and 4 Black balls, 3 balls are picked at random find the probability of
getting 2 red and 1 Black.
2. In a bag there are 6 Red and 4 Black balls, 4 balls are picked at random find the probability of
getting 2 red and 2 black.
3. In a bag there are 6 Green and 4 Black balls, 4 balls are picked at random find the probability of
getting 3 Green and 1 Black.
4. In a bag there are 5 green and 4 Blue balls, 3 balls are picked at random find the probability of
getting either all three green or all three blue.
5. In a bag there are 7 Red and 5 Black balls, 2 balls are picked at random find the probability of
getting either both are red or one red and one Black.
6. In a bag there are 8 Yellow and 4 Black balls, 3 balls are picked at random find the probability of
getting none is Black.
7. In a bag there are 5 Red and 4 Black balls, 3 balls are picked at random find the probability of
getting none is red.
8. In a bag there are 7 Red and 5 Black balls, 3 balls are picked at random find the probability of
getting atleast one black.
9. In a bag there are 5 Red and 4 Black balls, 3 balls are picked at random find the probability of
getting atleast 2 black.
10. In a bag there are 5 Red and 4 Black balls, 3 balls are picked at random find the probability of
getting atmost 1 red.
11. In a bag there are 5 Red and 4 Black balls, 3 balls are picked at random find the probability of
getting exactly 2 balls are red.
12. In a bag there are 7 Green and 4 Blue balls, 3 balls are picked at random find the probability of
getting exactly 2 balls are Blue.
13. In a bag there are 5 Red and 4 Black balls, 3 balls are picked at random find the probability of
getting none is Black.
14. Ina single throw of 2 dice find the probability of getting a total of 10.
15. Ina single throw of 2 dice find the probability of getting a total of 11.
16. Ina single throw of 2 dice find the probability of getting a total of 8.
17. Ina single throw of 2 dice find the probability of getting a total of 7.
18. Ina single throw of 2 dice find the probability of getting a total of 6.
19. Ina single throw of 2 dice find the probability of getting a total of 9.
20. Ina single throw of 3 dice find the probability of getting a total of 10.
21. Ina single throw of 3 dice find the probability of getting a total of 11.
22. Ina single throw of 3 dice find the probability of getting a total of 14.
23. Ina single throw of 3 dice find the probability of getting a total of 16.
24. Ina single throw of 3 dice find the probability of getting a total of 18.
25. Ina single throw of 3 dice find the probability of getting a total of 7.
26. 2 coins are tossed; find the probability of getting 1 head.
27. 3 coins are tossed; find the probability of getting 2 head.
28. 4 coins are tossed; find the probability of getting 2 head.
29. 7 coins are tossed; find the probability of getting 2 head.

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 Permutation & Combination and Probability questions by Amit Garg

30. 10 coins are tossed; find the probability of getting 2 head.

31. 8 coins are tossed; find the probability of getting atleast 1 head.
32. 10 coins are tossed; find the probability of getting 4 tail.
33. 6 coins are tossed; find the probability of getting 1 tail.
34. 7 coins are tossed; find the probability of getting atmost 1 head.
35. 8 coins are tossed; find the probability of getting 4 head.
36. 9 coins are tossed; find the probability of getting 3 tail.
37. 10 coins are tossed; find the probability of getting atleast 2 tail.
38. In how many different ways can the letters of word LAPTOP be arranged?
39. In how many different ways can the letters of word PIZZA be arranged?
40. In how many different ways can the letters of word EXAMINATION be arranged?
41. In how many different ways can the letters of word PUBLIC be arranged?
42. In how many different ways can the letters of word CONSTITUTION be arranged?
43. In how many different ways can the letters of word CULTURE be arranged?
44. In how many different ways can the letters of word LAPTOP be arranged such that vowels are
always together?
45. In how many different ways can the letters of word SCHOOL be arranged such that vowels are
always together?
46. In how many different ways can the letters of word GRADUTION be arranged such that vowels
are always together?
47. In how many different ways can the letters of word MARKETING be arranged such that vowels
are always together?
48. In how many different ways can the letters of word BANANA be arranged such that vowels are
always together?
49. In how many different ways can the letters of word MATHEMATICS be arranged such that
vowels are always together?
50. In how many different ways can the letters of word ‘VOWELS ‘be arranged such that consonants
are always together?

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 Statement Based Questions Handout II by Amit Garg

Q 1. Consider the following statements and a Q 4. Consider the following statements :

question: 1. A is 11th from the left end
Question: Is Mandeep Kuldeep's father? 2. B is 20th from the right end
Statements : 3. Total students in the row are 60.
1. Mandeep is the only child of Ria. 4. M is 26th from left end
2. Ria is Grandmother of Kuldeep. 5. M is 35th from right end
Which one of the following is correct in respect How many statements given above are
of the statements and question? required to determine that M is sitting exactly
(a) Statement-1 alone is sufficient to answer at middle position between A and B?
the Question. (a) Only two
(b) Statement-2 alone is sufficient to answer (b) Only three
the Question. (c) Only four
(c) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 together (d) All five
is sufficient to answer the Question.
(d) Neither Statement-1 alone nor Statement-2 Q 5. Consider the following statements :
alone is sufficient to answer the Question. 1. A is 25th from the left side.
2. B is 20th from the right side.
Q 2. Consider the following statements : 3. Between A and B there are 10 person
1. A and B are Married couple and How many statements given above are
grandparents of E. required to find number of person in the
2. C and D are parents of E queue?
3. A is husband of B. (a) Only one
How many statements given above are (b) Only two
required to determine who is the eldest among (c) All three
A,B,C, D and E? (d) None of these
(a) Only one
(b) Only two Q 6. Consider the following statements :
(c) All three 1. H.C.F. of 2 numbers is 15.
(d) None of these 2. Ratio of the given number is 2:3
3. One of the given numbers is 30.
Q 3. Consider the following statements : How many statements given above are
1. A, B,C,D,E and F are sitting around the circle required to find the L.C.M. of given number?
and facing the centre not in the same order. (a) Only one
2. A and C are sitting opposite to each other. (b) Only two
3. E and F are sitting opposite to each other. (c) All three
4. B and D are sitting opposite to each other. (d) None of these
5. E is sitting immediate left of C.
How many statements given above are Q7. Consider the following statements :
required to determine that who is sitting 1. A is the brother of B
immediate left of A?
2. B is the sister of C
a) Only two
b) Only three 3. C is the father of D
c) Only four How many statements given above are
d) All five required to determine how D is related to A?

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 Statement Based Questions Handout II by Amit Garg

(a) Only one (c) All three

(b) Only two (d) None of these
(c) All three
Q11. Consider the following statements:
(d) None of these
1. In a queue, A is 15th from the front.
2. B is 20th from behind
Q 8. If D is the brother of B, how B is related to
3. C is just in the middle of the two.
C? To answer this question which of the
4. There are 60 people in the queue .
statements is/are necessary?
How many statements given above are
1. The son of D is the grandson of C.
required to determine what position does C
2. B is the sister of D.
occupy from the front?
(a) Only 1
(a) Only one
(b) Only 2
(b) Only two
(c) Either 1 or 2
(c) Only Three
(d) 1 and 2 both are required
(d) All Four

Q9. Consider the following statements:

1. A is sitting fifteenth from the left. Q12. Consider the following statements with
2. B is eighth from the right. respect to P, Q, R, S, T are sitting in a straight
3. If there are five people between A and B line facing North not necessarily in same order.
How many statements given above are 1. P is sitting next to Q , R & S are sitting
required to determine how many people are together.
there in the row? 2. S is not sitting with T who is on the left
(a) Only one end of the line,
(b) Only two 3. R is on the second position from right.
4. P is to the right of Q & T.
(c) All three
How many statements given above are
(d) None of these
required to determine the position of P
a) Only two
Q10. Consider the following statements with b) Only three
respect to row of girls facing North: c) All four
1. Aruna is sixteenth from the left end d) None of these
2. Sunaina is sixteenth from the right end.
3. Babita, who is fourth to the right of Q13. Consider the following statements with
Aruna, is fifth to the left of Sunaina in the respect to P, Q, R, S, T are sitting in a straight
row. line facing North not necessarily in same order.
How many statements given above are 1. P is sitting next to Q
required to determine How many girls are
2. R & S are sitting together.
there in the row?
3. S is not sitting with T who is on the left
(a) Only one
end of the line,
(b) Only two 4. R is on the second position from right.

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 Statement Based Questions Handout II by Amit Garg

5. P is to the right of Q & T. arrangement B,C,D,E,F,G,H,I not necessarily in

How many statements given above are same order and are facing center also given
required to determine the position of T. 1. B is second to the right of F who is neighbor
a) Only two of D & H
b) Only three
2. E is not the neighbor of B
c) Only four
d) All five 3. H is the neighbor of G
4. C is between E & I .
Q14. Consider the following statements : How many statements given above are
1. A , B , C, D , E , F are sitting in a row facing required to determine who is sitting opposite of
North. F.
2. E & F are in centre. a) Only two
3. A & B are at ends . b) Only three
4. C is sitting to immediate left of A c) All four
How many statements given above are d) None of these
required to determine the position of A
a) Only two Q17. Consider the following statements with
b) Only three respect to Given that,
c) All four 1. A is brother of B
d) None of these 2. C is father of A
3. D is brother of E
Q15. Consider the following statements with 4. E is the daughter of B
respect to Six people B, C, D ,E ,F, G facing away How many statements given above are
from centre not necessarily in the same order required to determine who is the uncle of D.
(1) E sits second to right of F a) Only two
(2) D who sits with G also sits second to left of C b) Only three
(3) C sits opposite to G who sits second to left c) All four
of F. d) None of these
(4) E doesn’t sit with D
How many statements given above are Q18. Consider the following statements:
required to determine who is sitting opposite of 1. A is the brother of B
D. 2. B is the sister of C
a) Only two 3. C is the father of D
b) Only three How many statements given above are
c) All four required to determine how D is related to A.
d) None of these (a) Only one
Q16. Consider the following statements with (b) Only two
respect to Eight persons are seating in a circular (c) All three
(d) None of these

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 Statement Based Questions Handout II by Amit Garg

Based on above given statements, which of the

Q19. Consider the following statements: following statements cannot be definitely true
1. A is the brother of B ?
2. B is the sister of C a. B is the brother of A.
3. C is the father of D b. B is the son of D.
How many statements given above are
c. A is the brother of C.
required to determine how A is related to D.
(a) Only one d. C is the brother of A.
(b) Only two
(c) All three Q23. Consider the following statements:
(d) None of these 1. A is the son of B.
2. C, B’s sister has a son D and a daughter E.
3. F is the maternal uncle of D.
Q20. Consider the following statements: How many statements given above are
1. A is father of C required to determine how A is related to D.
2. D is son of B. (a) Only one
3. E is brother of A and C is sister of D, (b) Only two
How many statements given above are (c) All three
required to determine how B is related to E. (d) None of these
(a) Only one
(b) Only two Q24. Consider the following statements:
(c) All three 1. P is the brother of Q
(d) None of these 2. Q is the sister of R
3. R is the father of S
Q21. Consider the following statements: How many statements given above are
1. A is B's sister. required to determine how P is related to S.
2. C is B's mother. (a) Only one
3. D is C's father and E is D's mother (b) Only two
How many statements given above are (c) All three
required to determine how A is related to D. (d) None of these
(a) Only one
(b) Only two Q25. Statement based questions:-
(c) All three A is a natural number and having 7 factors
(d) None of these Statement 1: A is always perfect square
number.
Q22. Consider the following statements: Statement 2: A is always perfect cube number.
1. A is the brother of B. Which of the statements given above is/are
2. B is the brother of C. correct?
3. D is the father of A. (a) 1 only

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 Statement Based Questions Handout II by Amit Garg

(b) 2 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) 1 and 4 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) 1,2 , 3 and 4

Q26. Consider the following in respect to odd Q29. How many different value of N is/are
natural number and even natural number. Possible?
1. Odd + odd can be prime number. Statement 1:- N is a 2 digit number.
2. Odd + Even can be prime number. Statement 2:- N is a perfect cube number.
3. Even + Even can be prime number. Statement 3:- Number of factors are odd.
Which of the statements given above are (a) 1
correct? (b) 2
(a) 1 and 2 only (c) 3
(b) 2 and 3 only (d) 4
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1,2 and 3 Q30. How many different value of N is/are
Possible?
Q 27. Consider the following statements in Statement 1:- N is a 3 digit number.
respect to composite number Statement 2:- N is a perfect cube number.
Statement 1: Sum of 2 distinct odd natural Statement 3:- Number of factors are odd.
numbers is always composite number. (a) 1
Statement 2: Sum of 2 even natural number is (b) 2
always composite number. (c) 3
Which of the statements given above is/are (d) 4
correct?
(a) 1 only Q31. How many different value of N is/are
(b) 2 only Possible?
(c) Both 1 and 2 Statement 1:- N is a 4 digit number.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Statement 2:- N is a perfect cube number.
Statement 3:- Number of factors are odd.
Q 28. Consider the following statements in (a) 1
respect to perfect cube number N. (b) 2
1. Number of factors of N can be 4. (c) 3
2. Number of factors of N can be 5. (d) 4
3. Number of factors of N can be 6.
4. Number of factors of N can be 7. Q32. How many different value of N is/are
Which of the statements given above are Possible?
correct? Statement 1:- N is a 2 digit number.
(a) 1 and 2 only Statement 2:- N is a prime number.

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 Statement Based Questions Handout II by Amit Garg

Statement 3:- N+2 is also Prime number.

(a) 5
(b) 6
(c) 7
(d) 8

Q33. Consider the following statements for five

digit number AB0AB where AB stands for 13th
Prime number and middle digit is zero.
Statement 1:- Number of factors of AB0AB is
16.
Statement 2:- AB0AB is divisible by 143.
Which of the statements given is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q34. If A and B are positive integers, then

consider the following statements:
1. A2 –B2 =143
2. A is greater than B
How many different value of A is/are possible?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) None of these

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 Theme Based lecture 1 by Amit Garg

1. The current of a stream runs at the rate of 4km an hour. A boat goes 6km and back to thestarting
point in 2 hours. What is the speed of the boat in still water?
a) 6 Km/hr
b) 8 km/hr
c) 10 km/hr
d) 12 km/hr
2. Two men A and B together can complete one work in 4 days and B alone takes 6 days extra as
compare to A alone to do the same work. Find in how many days A alone can complete the work?
a) 10days
b) 6days
c) 15days
d) 30days
3. Two candidates X and Y contested an election. 80% of voters cast their vote and there were no invalid votes. There
was no NOTA (None of the above) option. X got 56% of the votes cast and won by 1440 votes. What is the total number
of voters in the voters list?
a) 15000
b) 12000
c) 9600
d) 5000
4. The length of a rectangular hall is 5 meter more then, its breadth. The area of the hall is750m2.
The length of the hall is:
(a) 15 m
(b) 20 m
(c) 25 m
(d) 30 m
5. The area of a square and rectangular field is 900m2each. If the perimeter of the rectangular field is2m more
than that of the square field, calculate the length and breadth of the rectangular field?
a) 40, 25
b) 36, 25
c) 30, 30
d) 40, 21
6. A watch loses 2 minutes in every 24 hours while another watch gains 2minutes in every 24 hours
. Ata particular instant, the two watches showed an identical time. Which of following statements is correct if
24-Hour clock is followed?

a. The two watches show the identical time again on completion of 30 days

b. The two-watches show identical time again on completion of 90 days

c. The two watches show identical time again on completion of 120 days

d. none of these is correct

7. A wall clock moves 10 minutes fast in every 24hrs.The clock was set right to show the correct time at 8 am
on Monday. When the clock shows 6pm on Wednesday, what is the correct time?
a) 5:36pm

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 Theme Based lecture 1 by Amit Garg

b) 5:30pm
c)5:24pm
d)5:18pm

8. The Number 3798125P369 is divisible by 7. What is the Value of the digit P?

a) 1

b) 6

c) 7

d) 9

9. A biology class at high school predicted that a local population of animal will double in size every 12years.
The Population at the Beginning of the year 2021 was estimated to 50 animals. If P represents the Population
after n years, then which one of the following equation represents the model of the class for the Population?

a) P = 12+50n

b)P = 50+12n

c) P = 50(2)12n

d)P = 50(2)n/12

10. When a certain number is multiplied by 7, the product entirely comprises ones only (1111…).What is
the Smallest such number?

a) 15713

b) 15723

c) 15783

d) 15873
11. A group of 630 children is seated in rows for a group photo session. Each row contains three lesschildren
then the row in front of it. Which one of the following number of rows is not possible?
a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
d) 6
12. A person has only Rs 1 and Rs 2 Coins with her. If the total number of coins that she has is 50 andthe
amount of money with her is Rs 75, then the numbers of Rs 1 and Rs 2 coins are, respectively
a) 15 and 35
b) 35 and 15
c) 30 and 20
d) 25 and 25
13. There are some nectar-filled flowers on a tree and some bees are hovering on it. If one bee lands oneach
flower, one bee will be left out. If two bees land on each flower, one flower will be left out The number of
flowers and bees respectively are:
a) 2 and 4
b) 3 and 2
c) 3 and 4

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 Theme Based lecture 1 by Amit Garg

d) 4 and 3
14) Find the smallest number that leaves a remainder of 4 on division by 5, 5 on division by 6, 6 ondivision by 7,
7 on division by 8 and 8 on division by 9?
a) 5039
b) 1079
c) 979
d) 2519
15. The first two terms of a geometric progression add up to 12. The sum of the third and the fourthterms is
48. If the terms of the geometric progression are alternately positive and negative, then the first term is:
a) -4
b) 4
c) -12
d) 12
16. The sum of two numbers is 232 and their H.C.F. is 29. The numbers are:

(a) 116,116
(b) 92, 140
(c) 87, 203
(d) 29, 203
17. The H.C.F. of two numbers is 14 and their difference is 14. The numbers are:(a)
72,86
(b) 54,68
(c) 44,58
(d) 98, 112
18. The Product of two numbers is 5043. if the H.C.F. of these numbers is 41, then thegreater
number is:
(a) 121
(b) 123
(c) 127
(d) 131

19. The H.C.F. of two numbers is 6. Which one of the following can never be their L.C.M.?
(a) 18
(b) 24
(c) 46
(d) 54

20. A number consists of 3 digits whose sum is 14. The middle digit is equal to the sum of the other two and the
number will be decreased by 297 if its digits are reversed. The number is
a) 266
b) 275
c) 374
d) 572

21. A two-digit number is such that the product of the digits is 21. When 36 is added to the number, then the
digits are reversed. The number is:
a) 73
b) 48
c) 59
d) 37
22. The smaller of the two numbers whose product is 900 and their sum exceeds their difference by 30 is
a) 15
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 Theme Based lecture 1 by Amit Garg
c) 75
d) 60

23. If a five digit number 65x3y is divisible by 70 then find the value of x + y?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 7

24. If three numbers are added in pairs, their sums come out to be 10, 19 and 21. What are these three numbers?
(a) 4, 6, 10
(b) 6, 4, 15
(c) 3, 5, 10
(d) 2, 5, 15

25. Rahul divided Rs. 1400 into three parts in such a way that half of the first part, one-fourth of the second part
and one-eighth of the third part were equal. What are these three parts?
(a) Rs. 300, Rs. 600, Rs. 500
(b) Rs. 200, Rs. 400, Rs. 800
(c) Rs. 100, Rs. 400, Rs. 1000
(d) None of these

26. If number 959xy is divisible by 44 and y > 3, then what are the appropriate values of digits x and y? (a) x =7,
y=6
(b) x = 4, y = 8
(c) x = 6, y = 4
(d) x = 2, y = 9

27. A number is in the form of p/q. Value of q is 3 more than p. If p is increased by 7 and q is decreased by 2,
then the value of the number becomes 2. What is the original value of the number in the form of p/q?
(a) 1/4
(b) 5/8
(c) 7/10
(d) 8/11

28. How many seconds in total are there in x weeks, x days, x hours, x minutes and x seconds?
a) 11580x
b) 11581x
c) 694860x
d) 694861x

29. A has some coins. He gives half of the coins and 2 more to B. B gives half of the coins and 2 more to C. C
gives half of the coins and 2 more to D. The number of coins D has now, is the smallest two digit number. How
many coins does A have in the beginning?
a) 76
b) 68
c) 60
d) 52

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 Theme Based lecture 2 by Amit Garg
Put Value

1. Integers are listed from 700 to 1000. In how many integers is the sum of the digits 10?
a) 6
b) 7
c) 8
d) 9
2. In the sum ®+1®+5®+®® +®1 =1®® for which digit does the symbol ® stand?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
3. Let p,q,r and s be natural numbers such that p-2016 = q+2017 = r-2018 = s+2019 which
one of thefollowing is the largest natural number?
a) p
b) q
c) r
d) s
4. A number when divided by 8 leaves a remainder 3. When the square of the number is
divided by 8,the remainder is:
a) 1
b) 4
c) 2
d) 3
5. A biology class at high school predicted that a local population of animal will double in
size every 12 years. The Population at the Beginning of the year 2021 was estimated to 50
animals. If P represents the Population after n years, then which one of the following
equation represents the model of the class for the Population?
a) P = 12+50n
b) P = 50+12n
c) P = 50(2)12n

d) P = 50(2)n/12
6. If x is Greater than or equal to 25 and y is less than or equal to 40, then which one of
the followingis always correct?
a) x is greater than y
b) (y-x) is greater than 15
c) (y-x) is less than or equal to 15
d) (x+y) is greater than or equal to 65
7. How many triplets (x,y,z) satisfy the equation x+y+z=6, where x,y and z are natural number?
a) 4
b) 5
c) 9
d) 10

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8. A number consists of three digits of which the middle one is zero and their sum is 4. If
the number formed by interchanging the first and last digit is greater than the number
itself by 198, then the difference between the first and the last is
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
9. X and Y are the natural numbers other than 1, and Y is greater than X. Which of the
following represents the largest number?
a) XY
b) X/Y
c) Y/X
d) (X+Y)/XY
10. If ‘a’ and ‘b’ are odd numbers, then which of the following is even?
a) ab+2
b) ab + 1
c) ab
d) ab – 2
11. For what value of it, the sum of digits in the number (10n + 1) is 2?
a) For n= 0 only
b) For any whole number n
c) For any positive integer n only
d) For any read number n
Assumption
12. In Central Secretariat there are three LDCs namely Gopi Chand, Hari Chand and Dhuni
Chand working on the same project. Dhuni Chand is twice as efficient as Gopi Chand who in
turn is thrice as efficient as Hari Chand. Working together all three can complete the project
in 9 days. Find out how long Hari Chand will take to finish the same project alone?
a) 81days
b) 45days
c) 90days
d) 30days

13. One pipe can fill a tank three times as fast as another pipe. If together the two pipes can
fill the tank in 16 minutes, then the slower pipe alone will be able to fill the tank in:
a) 81min
b) 48min
c) 64min
d) 92min

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14. If cost price of an article is 80% of its selling price, what is the profit
percentage?
15. Cost price of 24 articles is equal to the selling price of 16 articles. Find gain
percent.
16. In adult Population or a city, 40% men and 30% women are married. What is
the percentage of married adult population if no man marries more than one
woman and no women marries more than one man; and there are no widows
and widowers?
a) 33 1/7%
b) 34 %
c) 34 2/7%
d) 35
17. A car travels from a place X to place Y at an average Speed of v km/hr from
Y to X at an average speed of 2v km/hr, again from X to Y at an Average speed
of 3v km/hr and Again from Y to X at an Average speed of 4v km/hr. Then the
average speed of the car for the entire journey
a) Is less than v km/hr
b) Lies between v and 2v km/hr
c) Lies between 2v and 3v km/hr
d) Lies between 3v and 4v km/hr
18. Rakesh had money to buy 8 mobile handsets of a specific company. But the
retailer offered very good Discount on that particular Handset. Rakesh could
Buy 10 mobile handsets with the amount he had. What was the discount the
retailer offered?
a) 15%
b) 20%
c) 25%
d) 30%
19. A man completed a certain journey by Car. If he covered 30% of the

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 distance at the speed of 20 Km/hr. 60% of the distance at 40 Km/hr and the
remaining distance at 50 Km/hr, his average speed for the whole journey was
20. Rakesh travels first 1/3 rd of the total distance at the speed of 10 km/hr
and the next 1/3 rd distance at the speed of 20 km/hr and the last 1/3 rd
distance at the speed of 60 km/hr. The average speed of Rakesh is :
a) 15 km/hr
b) 18 km/hr
c) 25 km/hr
d) 30 km/hr
21. A shop owner offers the following discount options on an article to a
customer:
1. Successive discounts or 10% and 20%, and then pay a service tax of 10%
2. Successive discounts of 20% and 10%, and then pay a service tax of 10%
3. Pay a service tax or 10% first, then successive discounts of 20% and 10%
Which one of the following is correct?
a) 1 only is the best option for the customer.
b) 2 only is the best option for the customer.
c) 3 only is the best option for the customer.
d) All the options are equally good for the customer.

22. A can do a piece of work in 30 days. He alone started the work and left the
job after 6 days and then B joined and finishes it in next 16 days. In what time
can A and B together complete it?
a) 11 days
b) 13 days
c) 12 days
d) 18 days
23. In a class, 60% of students are from India and 50% of the students are girls.
If 30% of the Indian students are girls, then what percentage of foreign
students are boys?
a) 45%
b) 40%
c) 30%
d) 20%
24. If the Price of an Article is decreased by 20% and then the new price is
increased by 25%, then what is the net change in the price?
a) 0%
b) 5% increase
c) 5% decrease

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 d) Cannot be determined due to insufficient data
25. Half of the villagers of a certain village have their own houses. One-fifth of
the villagers cultivate paddy. One-third of the villagers are literate. Four-fifth
of the villagers are below twenty-five. Then which one of the following is
certainly true?
a) All the villagers who have their own houses are literate
b) Some villagers under twenty-five are literate
c) A quarter of the villagers who have their own houses cultivate paddy
d) Half of the villagers who cultivate paddy are literate
26. A and B are two heavy steel blocks. If B is placed on the top of A, the weight
increases by 60%. How much weight will reduce with respect to the total weight
of A and B, if B is removed from the top of A?
a) 60%
b) 45.5%
c) 40%
d) 37.5%
27. Two numbers are respectively 20% and 28% less than a third number Z. By
what percentage is the number Y less than the number X?
a) 12%
b) 10%
c) 9%
d) 8%

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 Theme Based Lecture- 3
Manual

1. How many integers are there between 1 and 100 which have 4 as a digit but are not divisible by
4?
a) 5
b) 11
c) 12
d) 13
2. Suppose you have sufficient amount of rupee currency in three denominations: Rs. 1,
Rs. 10, andRs. 50. In how many different ways can you pay a bill of Rs. 107 ?
a) 16
b) 17
c) 18
d) 19
3. Suppose you have sufficient amount of rupee currency in three denominations: Rs. 1, Rs. 10,
andRs. 100. In how many different ways can you pay a bill of Rs. 113?
4. Using 2,2,3,3,3 as digits, how many distinct numbers greater than 30000 can be formed?
a) 3
b) 6
c) 9
d) 12
5. There are 6 persons arranged in a row. Another person has to shake hands with 3 of
them so that he should not shake hands with two consecutive persons. In how many
distinct possible combinationscan the handshakes take place?
a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
d) 6
6. While writing all the numbers from 700 to 1000, how many numbers occur in which the
digit at hundred’s place is greater than the digit at ten’s place, and the digit at ten’s place
is greater than thedigit at unit’s place?
a) 61
b) 64
c) 85
d) 91
7. Integers are listed from 700-1000. In how many integers is the sum of the digits 11?
a) 12
b) 13
c) 14
d) 15

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 8. Sum of three Natural numbers a, b and c is 10. How many ordered triplets (a, b, c) exist?
a) 45
b) 36
c) 54
d) 27
9. The sum of three consecutive integers is equal to their product. How many such possibilities are
there?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only Three
d) No such possibility is there
10. Consider all 3-digit numbers (without repetition of digits) obtained using three non-zero
digits which are multiples of 3. Let S be their sum. Which of the following is/are correct?

1. S is always divisible by 74.

2. S is always divisible by 9.
select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
11. A person X from a place A and another person Y from a place B set out at the same time to
walk towards each other. The places are separated by a distance of 15 km. X walks with a
uniform speed of 1.5 km / hr and Y walks with a uniform speed of 1 km / hr in the first hour,
with a uniform speed of 1.25 km / hr in the second hour and with a uniform speed of 1.5 km /
hr in the third hour and so on.
Which of the following is / are correct?
1. They take 5 hours to meet.
2. They meet midway between A and B.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
12. There are thirteen 2-digit consecutive odd numbers. If 39 is the mean of the first live
such numbers, then what is the mean of all the thirteen numbers?
a) 47
b) 49
c) 51
d) 45
13. Six boys A, B, C, D, E and F play a game of cards. Each has a pack of 10 cards. F borrows 2
cards from A and gives away 5 to C who in turn gives 3 to B while B gives 6 to D who passes 1
to E. Then the number of cards possessed by D and E is equal to the number of cards
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possessed by
a) A, B and C
b) B, C and F
c) A, B and F
d) A, C and F
14. Four-digit numbers are to be formed using the digits 1,2,3 and 4; and none of these four
digits are repeated in any Further,
I. 2 and3 are not to immediately follow each other
II. 1 is not to be immediately followed by 3
III. 4 is not to appear at the last place
IV. 1 is not to appear at the first place
How many different numbers can be formed?
a) 6
b) 8
c) 9
d) None of the above
15.The age of Mr. X last year was the cube of a number and it is perfect square number
this year. whatis the least number of years he must wait for his age to become the
cube of a number again?
a) 7 Years
b) 8 Years
c) 18 Years
d) 17Year

Extreme Value

1. In a group of 150 persons, 100 are male and rest are female. Further 90 persons in
the group canplay cricket. The number of Male who can play cricket is

a) 30
b) 40
c) 50 or less
d) 50 or more
2. In a group of 120 persons, 80 are Indians and rest are foreigners. Further, 70 persons
in the groupcan speak English. The number of Indian who can speak English is

a) 20
b) 30
c) 30 or less
d) 30 or more
3. In a conference, out of a total 100 participants, 70 are Indians. If 60 of the total
participants arevegetarian, then which of the following statement is/are correct?

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 I. At least 30 Indian participants are vegetarian.
II. At least 10 Indian participants are non-vegetarian.
Select the correct answer using the codes below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
4. All members of a club went to Mumbai and stayed in a hotel. On the first day, 80%
went for shopping and 50% went for sightseeing, whereas 10% took rest in the
hotel. Which of the followingconclusion(s) can be drawn from the above data?

I. 40% members went for shopping as well as sightseeing.

II. 20% members went for only shopping.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
5. In a school, 60% students play cricket, A student who does not play cricket, plays
football. Every football player has got a two-wheeler. Which of the following
conclusion cannot be drawn from theabove data?
I. 60% of the students do not have two-wheelers.
II. No cricketer has two-wheeler.
III. Cricket players do not play football.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
2 2
6. If X is between -3 and -1, and Y is between -1 and 1, then X -Y is in between
which of thefollowing?
a) -9 and 1
b) -9 and -1
c) 0 and 8
d) 0 and 9
7. A bag contains 20 balls. 8 balls are green, 7 are white and 5 are red. What is the
minimum number of balls that must be picked up from the bag blindfolded (without
replacing any of it) to be assured ofpicking at least one ball of each colour?

a) 17
b) 16
c) 13
d) 11

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 8. Out of the 120 applications for a post, 70 are male and 80 have a driver’s licence. What
is the ratiobetween the minimum to maximum number of males having driver’s licence?

a) 1 to 2
b) 2 to 3
c) 3 to 7
d) 5 to 7
Rule of Counting Principles
1. In the series AABABCABCDABCDE.. . Which letter occupies the 200th position?
2. One page is torn from a booklet whose pages are numbered in the usual manner starting
from the first page as 1. The sum of the numbers on the remaining pages is 195. The torn
page contains which of the following numbers?
a) 5, 6
b) 7, 8
c) 9, 10
d) 11, 12
3. Akshay can buy goods at the rate of Rs. 40 per good. The particular good is part of an
overall collection and the value is linked to the number of items that are already on
the market. So, the merchant sells the first good for Rs. 2, second one for Rs. 4, third
for Rs. 6...and so on. If he wants to make an overall profit of at least 50%, what is the
minimum number of goods he should sell?
a) 54
b) 50
c) 56
d) 59
4. When ten persons shake hands with one another, in how many ways is it possible
5. There are 20 stations on Northern Railway Line that connects Delhi and Amritsar at the two
ends of it. How many different kinds of tickets of second class must be printed in order to
make a passenger buy a ticket so that he can travel from one station to any other station?

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 Theme Based Lecture 4 (Statement Based Questions by Amit Garg)
1. Consider the Question and two d) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are
Statements given below in respect of not sufficient to answer the Question
three cities P, Q and R in a State:
3. Consider the Question and two
Question: How far is city P from city Q?
Statements given below:
Statement-1: City Q is 18 km from city R.
Question: Is x an integer?
Statement-2: City P is 43 km from city R.
Statement-1: x/3 is not an integer.
Which one of the following is correct in
respect of the Question and the Statements? Statement-2: 3x is an integer.

a) Statement-1 alone is sufficient to Which one of the following is correct in

answer the Question respect of the Question and the Statements?
b) Statement-2 alone is sufficient to
a) Statement-1 alone is sufficient answer
answer the Question
the Question
c) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are
b) Statement-2 alone is sufficient to
sufficient to answer the Question
answer the Question
d) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are
c) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are
not sufficient to answer the Question
sufficient to answer the Question
d) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are
2. Consider the Question and two
not sufficient to answer the Question
Statements given below:

Question: Is Z brother of X? 4. A bill for Rs 1,840 is paid in the

denominations of Rs 50, RS 20 and Rs
Statement-1: X is a brother of Y and Y is a 10 notes. RS 50 notes in all are used.
brother of Z Consider the following statements:
Statement-2: X, Y and Z are siblings. 1) 25 notes of Rs 50 are used and the
remaining are in the denominations of
Which one of the following is correct in Rs 20 and Rs 10.
respect of the Question and the Statements? 2) 35 notes of Rs 20 are used and the
a) Statement-1 alone is sufficient to remaining are in the denominations of
answer the Question Rs 50 and Rs 10.
b) Statement-2 alone is sufficient to 3) 20 notes of Rs 10 are used and the
answer the Question remaining are in the denominations of
c) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are Rs 50 and Rs 20.
sufficient to answer the Question

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 Theme Based Lecture 4 (Statement Based Questions by Amit Garg)
Which of the above statements are not 7. Let A, B and C represent distinct
correct? nonzero digits. Suppose x is the sum of
all possible 3-digit numbers formed by
a) 1 and 2 only
A, B and C without repetition.
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only Consider the following statements:
d) 1, 2 and 3
1) The 4-digit least value of x is 1332.
2) The 3-digit greatest value of x is 888.
5. Consider the following statements in
respect of two natural numbers p and Which of the above statements is/are
q such that p is a prime number and q correct?
is a composite number:
a) 1 only
1) p x q can be an odd number.
b) 2 only
2) q/p can be a prime number.
c) Both 1 and 2
3) p + q can be a prime number.
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Which of the above statements are
correct? 8. 24 men and 12 women can do a piece
of work in 30 days. In how many days
a) 1 and 2 only
can 12 men and 24 women do the
b) 2 and 3 only
same piece of work?
c) 1 and 3 only
a) 30 days
d) 1, 2 and 3
b) More than 30 days
c) Less than 30 days or more than
6. Consider the following statements:
d) Data is inadequate to draw any
1) Between 3:16 p.m. and 3:17 p.m., both
conclusion
hour hand and minute hand coincide.
2) Between 4:58 p.m. and 4:59 p.m., both
9. Consider the following statements in
minute hand and second hand
respect of a rectangular sheet of length
coincide.
20cm and breadth 8cm:
Which of the above statements is/are 1) It is possible to cut the sheet exactly
correct? into 4 square sheets.
2) It is possible to cut the sheet into 10
a) 1 only
triangular sheets of equal area.
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2 Which of the above statements is are
d) Neither 1 nor 2 correct?

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 Theme Based Lecture 4 (Statement Based Questions by Amit Garg)
a) 1 only Statement-1: B is sitting opposite to C and D
b) 2 only is sitting opposite to E.
c) Both 1 and 2
Statement-2: F is sitting on the immediate
d) Neither 1 nor 2
left of B.

10. Five friends P, Q, X, Y and Z purchased Which one of the following is correct in
some notebooks. The relevant respect of the Question and the Statements?
information is given below:
a) Statement-1 alone is sufficient to
1) Z purchased 8 notebooks more than X
answer the Question
did.
b) Statement-2 alone is sufficient to
2) P and Q together purchased 21
answer the Question
notebooks.
c) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are
3) Q purchased 5 notebooks less than P
sufficient to answer the Question
did.
d) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are
4) X and Y together purchased 28
not sufficient to answer the Question
notebooks.
5) P purchased 5 notebooks more than X
12. Consider the Question and two
did.
Statements given below:
If each notebook is priced Rs 40, then what is
Question: What is the age of Manisha?
the total cost of all the notebooks?
Statement-1: Manisha is 24 years younger
a) Rs. 2,600
than her mother.
b) Rs. 2,400
c) Rs.2,360 Statement-2: 5 years later, the ages of
d) Rs.2,320 Manisha and her mother will be in the ratio 3:
5.
11. Six persons A, B, C, D, E and F are
Which one of the following is correct in
sitting equidistant from each other
around a circular table (facing the? respect of the Question and the Statements?
centre of the table). a) Statement-1 alone is sufficient to
answer the Question
Consider the Question and Statements given
b) Statement-2 alone is sufficient to
below:
answer the Question
Question: Who is sitting on the immediate c) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are
left of A? sufficient to answer the Question

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 Theme Based Lecture 4 (Statement Based Questions by Amit Garg)
d) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are Which one of the following is correct in
not sufficient to answer the Question respect of the statements and the question?
a) Statement-1 alone is sufficient to
13. Six lectures A, B, C, D, E and F, each of answer the Question
one hour duration, are scheduled b) Statement-2 alone is sufficient to
between 8:00 a.m. and 2:00 p.m. answer the question
c) Either statement-1 alone or statement-
Consider the Question and two Statements 2 alone is sufficient to answer the
given below: question
Question: Which lecture is in the third d) Both Statement-1 and statement-2 are
period? required to answer the question.

Statement-1: Lecture F is preceded by A and 15. Question: The last Sunday of a month
followed by C. fell on which date ?
Statements:
Statement-2: There is no lecture after lecture
I. 1. That month have minimum number of days
B.
for that particular year.
Which one of the following is correct in II. 2. The last day of that month was Friday.
respect of the Question and the Statements? Which one of the following is correct in
respect of the statements and the question?
a) Statement-1 alone is sufficient to
answer the Question a) Statement-1 alone is sufficient to
b) Statement-2 alone is sufficient to answer the Question
answer the Question b) Statement-2 alone is sufficient to
c) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are answer the question
sufficient to answer the Question c) Both Statement-1 and statement-2 are
d) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are required to answer the question.
not sufficient to answer the Question d) Both Statement-1 and statement-2
together are not sufficient to answer
14. Question: Who among P, Q, T, V and M the question.
is exactly in the middle when they are
arranged in ascending order of their 16. Question: How many children are
heights? there between P and Q in a row of
children?
Statements: Statements:
I. V is taller than Q but shorter than M. I. 1. P is fifteenth from the left in the row.
II. T is taller than Q and M but shorter than P.

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 Theme Based Lecture 4 (Statement Based Questions by Amit Garg)
II. 2. Q is exactly in the middle and there are ten Which one of the following is correct in
children towards his right. respect of the statements and the question?
Which one of the following is correct in
a) Statement-1 alone is sufficient to
respect of the statements and the question?
a) Statement-1 alone is sufficient to answer the Question
answer the Question b) Statement-2 alone is sufficient to
b) Statement-2 alone is sufficient to answer the question
answer the question c) Either statement-1 alone or statement-
c) Either statement-1 alone or statement- 2 alone is sufficient to answer the
2 alone is sufficient to answer the question
question d) Both Statement-1 and statement-2 are
d) Both Statement-1 and statement-2 are required to answer the question.
required to answer the question.
19. Question: How is Y related to X?
Statements:
17. Question: How is T related to K?
Statements: I. Y and Z are children of D who is wife of
X.
I. R's sister J has married Ts brother L, who is
the only son of his parents. II. R's brother X is husband to Y’s mother.
Which one of the following is correct
II. K is the only daughter of L and J.
Which one of the following is correct in in respect of the statements and the
respect of the statements and the question? question?
(a) Statement-1 alone is sufficient to
a) Statement-1 alone is sufficient to answer the Question
answer the Question (b) Statement-2 alone is sufficient to
b) Statement-2 alone is sufficient to answer the question
answer the question (c) Either statement-1 alone or
c) Either statement-1 alone or statement- statement-2 alone is sufficient to
2 alone is sufficient to answer the answer the question
question (d) Both Statement-1 and statement-2
d) Both Statement-1 and statement-2 are together are not sufficient to
required to answer the question. answer the question.

18. Question: How is X related to Y? 20. Question: On which date of the month
Statements: was Anjali born in February 2004?
I. Y and Z are children of D who is wife of X. Statements:
II. R's brother X is husband to Y’s mother. I. Anjali was born on an even date of the
month.

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 Theme Based Lecture 4 (Statement Based Questions by Amit Garg)
II. Anjali's birth date was a prime number. I. Vishakha who is fifth from the left end
Which one of the following is correct in is eighth to the left of Ashish who is
respect of the statements and the question? twelfth from the right end.
II. Rohit is fifth to the left of Nisha who is
a) Statement-1 alone is sufficient to seventh from the right end and
answer the Question eighteenth from the left end.
b) Statement-2 alone is sufficient to Which one of the following is correct
answer the question in respect of the statements and the
c) Either statement-1 alone or statement- question?
2 alone is sufficient to answer the a) Statement-1 alone is sufficient to
question answer the Question
d) Both Statement-1 and statement-2 are b) Statement-2 alone is sufficient to
required to answer the question. answer the question
c) Either statement-1 alone or statement-
21. Question: How is X related to Y? 2 alone is sufficient to answer the
Statements: question
I. Y says, "I have only one brother". d) Both Statement-1 and statement-2 are
required to answer the question.
II. X says, "I have only one sister".
Which one of the following is correct in
respect of the statements and the question? 23. Question: Among T, V, B, E and C, who
is the third from the top when
a) Statement-1 alone is sufficient to arranged in the descending order of
answer the Question their weights?
b) Statement-2 alone is sufficient to Statements:
answer the question I. B is heavier than T and C and is less heavier
c) Both Statement-1 and statement-2 than V who is not the heaviest.
together are not sufficient to answer II. C is heavier than only T.
the question. Which one of the following is correct in
d) Both Statement-1 and statement-2 are respect of the statements and the question?
required to answer the question. a) Statement-1 alone is sufficient to
answer the Question
22. Question: How many children are b) Statement-2 alone is sufficient to
there in the row of children facing answer the question
North? c) Either statement-1 alone or statement-
Statements: 2 alone is sufficient to answer the
question

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 Theme Based Lecture 4 (Statement Based Questions by Amit Garg)
d) Both Statement-1 and statement-2 are c) Either statement-1 alone or statement-
required to answer the question. 2 alone is sufficient to answer the
question
24. Question: What is Gagan's age? d) Both Statement-1 and statement-2 are
Statements: required to answer the question.
I. Gagan, Vimal and Kunal are all of the same
26. Question: How many sons does
age.
Saranya have?
II. Total age of Vimal, Kunal and Anil is 32 years
and Anil is as old as Vimal and Kunal together. Statements:
Which one of the following is correct in
I. Saranya is the mother of X, who is the
respect of the statements and the question? brother of Y.
a) Statement-1 alone is sufficient to II. Saranya’s daughter Diksha has only two
answer the Question brothers.
b) Statement-2 alone is sufficient to
a) Data in statement I alone is sufficient
answer the question
to answer the question, while the data
c) Either statement-1 alone or statement- in statement II alone is not sufficient to
2 alone is sufficient to answer the answer the question.
question
d) Both Statement-1 and statement-2 are b) Data in statement II alone is sufficient
to answer the question, while the data
required to answer the question.
in statement I alone is not sufficient to
answer the question.
25. Question: Gaurav ranks eighteenth
from the top in a class. What is his rank c) Data in statement I alone or in
from the last? statement II alone is sufficient to
Statements: answer the question.
I. There are 47 students in the class. d) Data in both the statement I and II is
II. Jatin who ranks 10th in the same class, ranks not sufficient to answer the question.
38th from the last.
27. Question: How many boys are smaller
Which one of the following is correct in
than Shanaya in her class, when
respect of the statements and the question?
students of Shanaya’s class are ranked
a) Statement-1 alone is sufficient to in ascending order of their height from
bottom to top?
answer the Question
b) Statement-2 alone is sufficient to Statements:
answer the question
I. Shanaya’s rank is 13th from the top among

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 Theme Based Lecture 4 (Statement Based Questions by Amit Garg)
all the students and 6th among girls. in statement I alone is not sufficient to
answer the question.
II. Shanaya’s rank from the bottom on the
basis of height among girls is 14th and among c) Data in statement I alone or in
students is 31st. statement II alone is sufficient to
answer the question.
a) Data in statement I alone is sufficient
to answer the question, while the data d) Data in both the statement I and II is
in statement II alone is not sufficient to not sufficient to answer the question.
answer the question.
29. Question: Deepanshu, Akshit, Daya,
b) Data in statement II alone is sufficient Karun and Abhishek are sitting in a
to answer the question, while the data straight line facing north and south. In
in statement I alone is not sufficient to which direction is Abhishek facing?
answer the question.
I. Deepanshu sits to the right of
c) Data in statement I alone or in Karun.
statement II alone is sufficient to II. Karun sits exactly in the middle
answer the question. facing south. Abhishek sits to the
extreme right end of Karun.
d) Data in both the statement I and II is III. No two adjacent person facing
not sufficient to answer the question. same direction
a) I and II only
28. Question: How many kilometres did
b) II and III only
Mansi drive? (The number of
c) I and III only
kilometre’s driven was a multiple of
d) I, II and III
ten)
30. Five people Kratika, Bhavesh, Chetan,
I. Mansi’s friend correctly remembers that Deepanshu and Rishi are seated about
Mansi drove more than 40 kms but less than a round table. Every chair is spaced
110 kms. equidistant from adjacent chairs.
I. Chetan is seated next to Kratika
II. Mansi correctly remembers that she drove II. Kratika is seated two seats from
less than 80 kms but more than 30 kms. She Deepanshu
also correctly remembers that the number of III. Bhavesh is not seated next to Kratika
kms that she drove was a multiple of three.
On the basis of above information, which of
a) Data in statement I alone is sufficient the following must be true?
to answer the question, while the data 1) Deepanshu is seated next to Bhavesh
in statement II alone is not sufficient to 2) Rishi is seated next to Kratika
answer the question. 3) Deepanshu and Chetan are separated
b) Data in statement II alone is sufficient by two seats
to answer the question, while the data Select the correct answer using the code

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 Theme Based Lecture 4 (Statement Based Questions by Amit Garg)
given below: Which of the above statements is/are
correct?
a) 1 Only
a) I Only
b) 1 and 2 Only
b) II Only
c) 3 Only
c) Both I and II
d) Neither 1, nor 2 and nor 3
d) Neither I and nor II
31. There are two societies Dhauladhar
and Shivalik having 25 and 30 33. Consider the following statements:
members respectively. In Dhauladhar,
the highest age of any member is 21 Three numbers which are co-prime to each
and lowest age is 17. In Shivalik the other are such that:
highest age of any member is 30 and
lowest age is 22. Four members are I. The product of the first two is 551
shifted from Dhauladhar to Shivalik. II. The product of the last two is 1073.
Consider the following statements: The sum of the three numbers is:
I. The average age of Shivalik will a) 45
definitely decrease.
b) 75
II. The average age of Dhauladhar will
definitely increase. c) 65

Which of the above statements is/are d) 85

correct?
34. Consider two statements and a
a) I Only Question:

b) II Only I. Each of Aditi and Deepanshu is lighter

than each of Bhawna, Eshika and
c) Both I and II Farrukh, but none of them is lightest.
d) Neither I and nor II II. Aditi is lighter than Deepanshu, but is
32. Consider the following statements: heavier than Chitra.

I. If P is a prime number, then P-2 may Question: Who is lightest among Aditi,
also be the prime number. Bhawna, Chitra, Deepanshu and Eshika.

II. The sum of all natural numbers Which of the following is correct in respect of
between 100 and 200 which are Statements and the Question?
multiples of 3 is 4950. a) Statement I alone is sufficient to

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 Theme Based Lecture 4 (Statement Based Questions by Amit Garg)
answer the question. II. The product of 5 consecutive natural
numbers cannot be equal to their sum.
b) Statement II alone is sufficient to
answer the question. Which of the above statements is/are
correct?
c) Both Statement I and Statement II are
required to answer the question. a) I only

d) Neither Statement I alone nor b) II only

Statement II alone is sufficient to
answer the Question. c) Both I and II

35. Gaurav starts from Chandigarh and d) Neither I nor II

Saurav starts from Kasauli at 11 a.m. 37. An amount of money was distributed
towards each other. The places are among Aastha, Ankush and Avdesh in
separated by a distance of 30 km. the ratio p:q: r.
Gaurav walks with a uniform speed of
3 km/hr and Saurav walks with a Consider the following statements:
uniform speed of 2 km/hr in the first
hour, witha uniform speed of 2.5 I. Aastha gets maximum share if p is
km/hr in the second hour and with a greater than (q+r).
uniform speed of 3 km/hr in the third II. Avdesh gets the minimum share if r <
hour and so on.
(p+q).
Which of the following is/are correct?
Which of the above statements is/are
I. They take 5 hours to meet. correct?

II. They meet midway between a) I only

Chandigarh and Kasauli. b) II only
Select the correct answer using the code c) Both I and II
given below:
d) Neither I nor II
a) I only
38. Consider two statements and a
b) II only
question:
c) Both I and II
I. The last day of the month is Monday.
d) Neither I nor II
II. The third Thursday of the month was
36. Consider the following statements: the fifteenth day.

I. The sum of 7 consecutive integers can Question: What day is the twelfth of the
be 140.

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 Theme Based Lecture 4 (Statement Based Questions by Amit Garg)
given month? I. The ratio of the present ages of P and
Q is 3: 4.
Which of the following is correct in respect of
the statements and the question? II. Five years ago, the ratio of their ages
was 5: 7.
a) Statement I alone is sufficient to
answer the question. Question: Find their present ages.

b) Statement II alone is sufficient to Choose the correct answer from the options
answer the question. given below:

c) Both Statement I and Statement II are a) 10,20

required to answer the question.
b) 20,30
d) Neither Statement I alone nor
Statement II alone is sufficient to c) 30,40
answer the Question. d) 40,50
39. Total expenses of a Tent house are 41. Consider the following statements:
partly fixed and partly varying linearly
with tile number of boarders. I. A fruit seller has books, pens and
pencils in the ratio 2:5:8.
Consider the following statements:
II. The number of pens is more than the
I. The average expense per boarder is Rs. number of books by a number that is a
700 when there are 25 boarders. multiple of both 6 and 8.
II. The average expense per boarder is Rs. Question: What is the minimum number of
600 when there are 50 boarders. Articles in his shop?
Question: What is the average expense per Choose the correct answer from the options
boarder when there are 100 boarders? given below:
Choose the correct answer from the options a) 90
given below:
b) 120
a) 550 Rs.
c) 360
b) 580 Rs.
d) 240
c) 540 Rs.
42. A, B and C have a few coins with them.
d) 560 Rs.
Consider the following statements:
40. Consider the following statements:
I. 7 times the number of coins that A has

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 Theme Based Lecture 4 (Statement Based Questions by Amit Garg)
is equal to 5 times the number of coins Statements:
B has. I. Mathematics period ended at 10.00 a.m.,
which was preceded by Biology.
II. 6 times the number of coins B has is
equal to 11 times the number of coins II. Physics was scheduled in the last period.
C has.
III. Mathematics period was immediately
Question: What is the minimum number of followed by Chemistry.
coins with A, B and C put together?
a) Only I
Choose the correct answer from the options b) Either I only or II only
given below: c) Only II
d) Only I and either II or III
a) 154
45. Question: How is the girl in the
b) 165 photograph related to Kunal?
Statements:
c) 174 I. Pointing to the photograph, Kunal said, "She
is the mother of my father's only
d) 110 granddaughter".
43. Question: Among P, Q, R, S and T, Q is
II. Kunal has no siblings.
the second tallest and S is immediate
taller than the shortest. Who among III. Pointing to the photograph, Kunal said, "She
them is in the middle when they stand is the only daughter-in-law of my mother."
in the order of their heights?
Statements: a) Any two of the three
I. T is not the shortest. b) Only I and II
c) Only II and III
II. R is taller than S but shorter than Q. d) Either only III or only I and II
III. P ranks third in height above S when all are
arranged in the order of height.

a) Only I and II
b) Either II only or I and III only
c) Only II
d) Only II and III
44. Question: Four subjects - Physics,
Chemistry, Mathematics and Biology -
were taught in four consecutive
periods of one hour each starting from
8.00 a.m. At what time was the
Chemistry period scheduled?

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 Number system observations based Test by Amit Garg

1. Numbers of factors of a perfect square number are

(a) Odd
(b) Even
(c) Either odd or even
(d) Cannot be determined
2. Numbers of factors of a non perfect square number are
(a) Odd
(b) Even
(c) Either odd or even
(d) Cannot be determined
3. Which of the following can’t be number of factors in a perfect cube
number?
(a) 4
(b) 7
(c) 8
(d) 10
4. Which among the following statement/s is /are correct?
1. Numbers of factors of square of prime number is always 3.
2. Numbers of factors of cube of prime number is always 7.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
5. Which of the following can’t be unit digit of a perfect square number?
(a) 4
(b) 5
(c) 8
(d) 0
6. The difference between the squares of two consecutive Natural number is
241. Find the numbers
7. The Difference between the squares of two consecutive odd natural
number is always divisible by
(a) 5

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 Number system observations based Test by Amit Garg

(b) 6
(c) 7
(d) 8
8. The Difference between the squares of two consecutive even natural
number is always divisible by
(a) 4
(b) 6
(c) 7
(d) 8
9. The Square of an odd Number when divided by 8, always leave a remainder
of
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
10.How many integers are there such that cube of the integer is equal to
integer itself
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) None of these
11.N is a 3 digit perfect number, find numbers of factors of N
12.Smallest 4 digit prime number is _________ .
13.Smallest 3 digit prime number is ___________ .
14.Smallest 4 digit perfect square number, whose unit place and ten place
digit are same is _____ .
15.Largest 4 digit perfect square number, whose unit place and ten place digit
are same is _____ .

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 Theme Based Lecture 6 by Amit Garg (Faulty Clock Number System)

1. A clock becomes 12 s fast in every 3 h. If it is made correct at 3 O' clock in the afternoon of Sunday,
then what time will it show at 10 O' clock Tuesday morning?
a) 2 min 52 s past 10
b) 2 min 54 s past 10
c) 2 min 50 s past 10
d) 2 min 48 s past 20

2. A watch Gains 5 seconds in 3 minutes was get right at 6:00 am. What time will it show at 8:00 Pm on
the same day?

3. Two clocks are set correctly at 10 am on Sunday. One clock loses 3 min in an hour while the other gains
2 min in an hour. By how many minutes do the two clocks differ at 4 pm on the same day ?

a) 25 min
b) 20 min
c) 35 min
d) 30 min

4. Two clocks are set correctly at 10 am on Sunday. One clock loses 6 min in an hour while the other gains
4 min in an hour. By how many minutes do the two clocks differ at 4 pm on Monday?

5. Imagine that your watch was correct at noon, but then it began to lose 30 minutes each hour. It now
shows 4 p.m. What is the correct time now?

6. Imagine that your watch was correct at noon, but then it began to lose 30 minutes each hour. It now
shows 4 p.m. but it stopped 5 hours ago. What is the correct time now?

a) 9:30 p.m.
b) 11 p.m.
c) 1 a.m.
d) 1.30 a.m.

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 Theme Based Lecture 6 by Amit Garg (Faulty Clock Number System)
7. How many times are the hands of a clock at right angle in 12 hrs?
a) 22
b) 24
c) 44
d) 48

8. How many times the hands of a clock are coincide with each other?Number

System

1. Let P be a two- digit number and q be the number consisting of same digits written in reverse order. If
p×q=2430, then what is the difference between p and q?
a) 45
b) 27
c) 18
d) 9

2. The difference between a two-digit number and the number obtained by interchanging the positions of
its digits is 36. What is the difference between the two digits of that number?
a) 3
b) 4
c) 9
d) Cannot be determined
3. The difference between a two-digit number and the number obtained by interchanging the positions of
its digits is 72. What is the difference between the two digits of that number?

4. The difference between a three-digit number and the number obtained by interchanging the positions of
its digits is 297. What is the difference between the first and last digits of that number?

5. The difference between a three-digit number and the number obtained by interchanging the positions of
its digits is 495. What is the difference between the first and last digits of that number?

6. The difference between a 2-digit number and the number obtained by interchanging the positions of the
digit is 54.
Consider the following statements:
1. The sum of the two digits of the number can be determined only if the product of the two digits is
known.
2. The difference between the two digits can be determined.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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 Theme Based Lecture- 7 by Amit Garg ( Topic Miscellenous)

1. Excluding stoppages, the speed of a bus is 54 kmph and including stoppages, it is 45 kmph. For how
many minutes does the bus stop per hour?
a) 9
b) 10
c) 12
d) 20
2. Excluding stoppages, the speed of a bus is 80 kmph and including stoppages, it is 60 kmph. For how
many minutes does the bus stop per hour?
a) 9
b) 10
c) 15
d) 20
3. A shopkeeper sells two articles at same price if he sells one at profit at 20% and other at loss of 10%.
Find his actual profit or loss
4. A shopkeeper sells two articles at same price if he sells one at profit at 30% and other at loss of 20%.
Find his actual profit or loss
5. A reduction of 10% in the price of Apple enables a dealer to purchase 25 kg more Apple for Rs 22500.
What is the reduced price per Kg of Apple.
6. A reduction of 20% in the price of Sugar enables a dealer to purchase 5 kg more Sugar for Rs 2000.
What is the reduced price per Kg of Sugar.
7. Find the greatest number that will divide 43, 91 and 183 so as to leave the same remainder in each
case.
a) 4
b) 7
c) 9
d) 13
8. Let N be the greatest number that will divide 1305, 4665 and 6905, leaving the same remainder in
each case. Then sum of the digits in N is:
a) 4
b) 5
c) 6
d) 8
9. The product of two numbers is 4107. If the H.C.F. of these numbers is 37, then the greater number
is:
a) 101
b) 107

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c) 111
d) 185
10. The least number which when divided by 5, 6 , 7 and 8 leaves a remainder 3, but when divided by 9
leaves no remainder, is:
a) 1677
b) 1683
c) 2523
d) 3363
11. Three numbers which are co-prime to each other are such that the product of the first two is 551
and that of the last two is 1073. The sum of the three numbers is:
12. 21 mangoes trees, 42 apples trees and 56 oranges trees have to be planted in rows such that each
row contains the same number of trees one variety only. Minimum number of rows in which the
above trees may be planted is?
13. Find the largest number which divides 1305, 4665 and 6905 leaving same remainder in each case.
Also, find the common Remainder.
a) 1210, 158
b) 1120, 158
c) 1120, 185
d) 1210, 185
14. On one side of a 1.01 km along road, 101 plants are planted at equal distance from each other. What
is the total distance between 5 consecutive plants?
a) 40 m
b) 40.4 m
c) 50 m
d) 50.5 m
15. A frog tries to come out of a dried well 4.5 m deep with slippery walls. Every time the frog jumps 30
cm, slides down 15 cm. What is the number of jumps required for the frog to come out of the well?
a) 28
b) 29
c) 30
d) 31
16. There are three pillars X, Y and Z of different heights. Three spiders A, B and C start to climb on these
pillars simultaneously. In one chance, A climbs on X by 6 cm but slips down 1cm. B climbs on Y by
7cm but slips down 3 cm. C climbs on Z by 6.5 cm but slips down 2 cm. If each of them requires 40
chances to reach the top of the pillars, what is the height of the shortest pillar?
a) 161 cm
b) 163 cm
c) 182 cm
d) 210 cm
17. Two persons, A and B are running on a circular track. At the start, B is ahead of A and their positions
make an angle of 30? at the centre of the circle. When A reaches the point diametrically opposite to

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 his starting point, he meets B. What is the ratio of speeds of A and B, if they are running with uniform
speeds?
a) 6:5
b) 4:3
c) 6:1
d) 4:2
18. There is a milk sample with 50% water in it. If 1/3rd of this milk is added to equal amount of pure
milk, then water in the new mixture will fall down to
a) 25%
b) 30%
c) 35%
d) 40%
19. If there is a policy that 1/3rd of a population of a community has migrated every year from one place
to some other place, what is the leftover population of that community after the sixth year, if there
is no further growth in the population during this period?
16 rd
a) part of the population
243
32 rd
b) part of the population
243
32 th
c) part of the population
729
64 th
d) part of the population
729
20. In a race, a competitor has to collect 6 apples which are kept in a straight line on a track and a bucket
is placed at the beginning of the track which is a starting point. The condition is that the competitor
can pick only one apple at a time, run back with it and drop it in the bucket. Ifhe has to drop all the
apples in the bucket, how much total distance he has to run if the bucket is 5 meters from the first
apple and all other apples are placed 3 meters apart?
a) 40m
b) 50m
c) 75m
d) 150m
21. Four friends A, B, C and D need to cross a bridge. A maximum of two persons can cross it at a time.
It is night and they just have one lamp. Persons that cross the bridge must carry the lamp to find the
way. A pair must walk together at the speed of slower person. After crossing the bridge, the person
having faster speed in the pair will return with the lamp each time to accompany another person in
the group. Finally, the lamp has to be returned at the original place and the person who returns the
lamp has to cross the bridge again without lamp. To cross the bridge, the time taken by them is as
follows:
I. A take 1 minute
II. B take 2 minutes
III. C take 7 minutes
IV. D take 10 minutes.

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What is the total minimum time required by all the friends to cross the bridge?

a) 23 minutes
b) 22 minutes
c) 21 minutes
d) 20 minutes
22. In a society it is customary for friends of the same sex to hug and for friends of opposite sex to shake
hands when S they meet. A group of friends met in a party and there were 24 handshakes. Which
one among the following numbers indicates the possible number of hugs?
a) 39
b) 30
c) 21
d) 20
23. An agricultural field is in the form of a rectangle having length X, meters and breadth X, meters (X,
and X, are variable). If X, + X, = 40 meters, then the area of the agricultural field will not exceed which
one of the following values?
a) 400 sq m
b) 200 sq m
c) 300 sq m
d) 80 sq m
24. The total emoluments of two persons are the same, but one gets allowances to the extent of 65%
of his basic pay and the other gets allowances to the extent of 80% of his basic pay. The ratio of the
basic pay of the former to the basic pay of the latter is:
a) 16:13
b) 5:4
c) 7:5
d) 12: 11
25. If for a sample data Mean < Median < Mode then the distribution is
a) symmetric
b) skewed to the right
c) neither symmetric nor skewed
d) skewed to the left
26. Find the value of a – b on the basis of following statements:
I. A 4-digit number of the form aabb.
II. The four-digit no. aabb is a perfect square.
a) 3
b) 5
c) 7
d) 6

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 Theme Based lecture 8 by Amit Garg

1. Two varieties of rice R1 and R2 cost Rs. 20 and Rs. 50 per kg. In what ratio must R1 and
R2 be mixed such that the cost price of the resultant rice is Rs. 45 per kg?
a) 1:4
b) 3:8
c) 2:7
d) 1:5
2. In what ratio must acid solutions of concentrations 10%, 15% and 50% be mixed to get
an acid solution of 40% concentration?
a) 2:2:11
b) 1:1:6
c) 2:3:15
d) 5:4:9
3. Two solutions have milk:water ratio of 2:3 and 4:5. In what ratio must they be mixed
such that the resultant solution has milk:water ratio of 3:4?
a) 8:3
b) 3:8
c) 5:9
d) 9:5
4. Four containers (equal in size) have mixtures of milk and water in the ratio 4:3, 5:4, 1:2
and 2:5 respectively. Mixtures from all the four containers are poured into a big vessel
which is 4.2 times of the size of each container and the remaining part of big vessel is
filled with water. Find the ratio of milk to water in the big vessel?
a) 110:154.6
b) 40:120
c) 12:14
d) 168:504
5. In what ratio must 3 varieties of rice whose price is 20, 25 and 40 rupees per kg have to
be mixed such that the resulting mixture has a price of 30 rupees per kg?
a) 1:1:1
b) 1:2:1
c) 1:2:2
d) 1:1:2
7. Two blends of a commodity costing Rs.40 and Rs.45 per kg respectively are mixed in the
ratio 1:3 by weight. If one-fourth of the mixture is sold at Rs. 53 per kg and the remaining
at the rate of Rs. 57 per kg, the profit percent is:
a) 25%
b) 37%
c) 28%
d) 40%

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 Theme Based lecture 8 by Amit Garg

8. A container contains 40 litres of milk. From this container, 4 litres of milk were taken out
and replaced by water. This process was repeated further two times. How much milk is
now contained by the container?
a) 31.5 litre
b) 32 litres
c) 29.16 litres
d) 30.56 litres
9. A can contains 60 litres of milk. 10 litres of this milk is taken out and 25 litre of water
was added to it and after that 60% of the mixture is taken out and sold to the customer.
Another mixture of 40 litres contains 60% of milk and the rest syrup. If two mixtures are
mixed than find the final ratio of milk, water and syrup.
a) 5:20:10
b) 11:12:13
c) 6:1:25
d) 22:5:8
10. In how many different ways 6 persons can seat around a circular table?
11. In how many different ways 8 persons can seat around a circular table?

12. In how many ways can 3 men and 3 women be seated at around table such that no two
men sit together?
13. In how many ways can 4 men and 4 women be seated at around table such that all the
women do not sit together?
14. If a leap year is selected at random, what is the chance that it will contain 53 Tuesdays?
15. The probability that three men hit a target are 0.3, 0.5and 0.4respectively. Each man fires
once at the target. (Assume that the three events that each hits the target are independent).
a) Find the probability that they all: (i) hit the target; (ii) miss the target.

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