1) What is a Docker container?
a. A running instance of a Docker image
b. A lightweight virtual machine
c. A storage volume
d. A service running on Docker Swarm
2) Which of the following is true about a private cloud?
a. It is highly scalable and accessible to the public.
b. It is owned and operated by multiple organizations.
c. It offers greater control and security compared to public clouds.
d. It relies on third-party providers for management
3) What type of organization typically utilizes a private cloud?
a. Small businesses
b. Government agencies
c. Individual consumers
d. Non-profit organizations
4) What is Amazon Route 53 primarily used for?
a. Database management
b. Content delivery
c. Domain Name System (DNS) web service
d. Virtual private networking
5) Which volume type is designed for frequently accessed workloads and provides
a balance of price and performance?
a. General Purpose SSD (gp2)
b. Provisioned IOPS SSD (io1)
c. Throughput Optimized HDD (st1)
d. Magnetic (standard)
6) What is the maximum number of VPN connections supported by AWS VPN?
a. 1
b. 5
c. 10
d. 50
7) Which load balancer type provides support for TCP and UDP traffic?
a. Network Load Balancer
b. Application Load Balancer
c. Classic Load Balancer
d. None of the above
8) Which of the following is a managed load balancing service provided by AWS?
a. Elastic Beanstalk
b. Elastic Load Balancing
c. Amazon EC2
d. Amazon S3
9) Which AWS service is used to manage AWS VPN connections?
a. AWS Direct Connect
b. AWS VPN CloudHub
c. Amazon VPC
d. AWS Management Console
10) What is the purpose of AWS VPN?
a. To distribute application traffic across multiple targets.
b. To store and retrieve data objects.
c. To establish secure connections between on-premises networks and AWS.
d. To manage virtual private networks (VPNs) within an AWS VPC.
11) What is Amazon EBS primarily used for?
a. Object storage
b. File storage
c. Block-level storage
d. NoSQL database storage
12) What type of storage does Amazon S3 provide?
a. Block-level storage
b. File-level storage
c. Object storage
d. NoSQL database storage
13) Which of the following is NOT an instance type offered by Amazon EC2?
a. T2
b. M5
c. R4
d. X1
14) Which AWS service can be used to monitor the status and health of VPN
connections?
a. AWS CloudTrail
b. AWS CloudWatch
c. Amazon VPC Flow Logs
d. AWS VPN CloudHub
15) Which AWS service enables you to publish custom metrics to Amazon
CloudWatch?
a. AWS Lambda
b. AWS S3
c. Amazon RDS
d. Amazon EC2
16) Which of the following database engines is not supported by Amazon RDS?
a. MYSQL
b. Postgress
c. MongoDB
d. Oracle
17) Which load balancer type operates at the transport layer (Layer 4) of the
OSI model?
a. Network Load Balancer
b. Application Load Balancer
c. Classic Load Balancer
d. None of the above
18) What is the minimum size for an Amazon EBS volume?
a. 1GB
b. 10GB
c. 100GB
d. 1TB
19) Which of the following is a benefit of a private cloud?
a. Reduced control over security
b. Lower initial investment compared to public clouds
c. Increased customization and control over resources
d. Dependency on third-party providers for maintenance
20) Protocols are supported for receiving emails in Amazon SES?
a. SMTP and IMAP
b. POP3 and HTTP
c. FTP and SSH
d. SNMP and TCP
21) What does the Dockerfile contain?
a. Compiled source code
b. Docker images
c. Binary data
d. Instructions for building a Docker image
22) Which AWS service allows you to create and manage a virtual private
cloud (VPC)?
a. AWS CloudTrail
b. AWS config
c. AWS CloudFormation
d. Amazon VPC
23) What does Amazon RDS stand for?
a. Relational Database Service
b. Redshift Database Service
c. Reliable Data Storage
d. Remote Database Service
24) Which service is used to scale EC2 instances automatically based on
demand?
a. Amazon RDS
b. AWS Lambda
c. Amazon EC2 Auto Scaling
d. Amazon ECS
25) What is the maximum size of a single object that can be stored in Amazon
S3?
a. 1 GB
b. 5 GB
c. 10 GB
d. 5TB
26) What is an Amazon Machine Image (AMI) in AWS?
a. A type of database service
b. A pre-configured template for creating virtual servers
c. A tool for monitoring network traffic
d. A security feature for protecting data at rest
27) Which AWS service is responsible for managing backups in Amazon RDS?
a. Amazon S3
b. Amazon RDS itself
c. Amazon Glacier
d. Amazon EBS
28) What feature allows you to create point-in-time snapshots of Amazon EBS
volumes?
a. Amazon Glacier
b. Amazon S3
c. Amazon EBS Snapshots
d. Amazon CloudWatch
29) Which VPN protocol is commonly used with AWS VPN?
a. SSL/TLS VPN
b. PPTP VPN
c. IPsec VPN
d. L2TP VPN
30) Which AWS service allows you to reserve capacity for EC2 instances and
reduce costs?
a. AWS Cost Explorer
b. AWS Budgets
c. AWS Trusted Advisor
d. AWS Savings Plans
31) Which AWS service provides a fully managed virtual private cloud for
running containerized applications?
a. Amazon EC2
b. Amazon S3
c. Amazon VPC
d. Amazon ECS
32) What is the purpose of a VPN in the context of network security?
a. To encrypt data between the client and the server.
b. To provide secure remote access to a private network.
c. To prevent unauthorized access to a website.
d. To optimize network performance.
33) What does PaaS stand for?
a. Platform as a service
b. Platform as a software
c. Parallel as a service
d. None
34) Which of the following instance types in Amazon EC2 is optimized for high-
performance databases and large-scale in-memory caching?
a. T2 instances
b. M5 instances
c. R5 instances
d. C5 instances
35) What is the maximum number of Elastic IP addresses that can be
associated with an EC2 instance by default?
a. 5
b. 10
c. 50
d. 20
36) What is the default durability level provided by Amazon S3 for storing
objects?
a. 99.90%
b. 99.99%
c. 99.999999999% (11 9's)
d. 99.9999999% (9 9's)
37) Which AWS service can be integrated with Amazon S3 for data transfer
and processing?
a. Amazon EC2
b. Amazon DynamoDB
c. AWS Lambda
d. All of the above
38) Which of the following volume types offers the highest level of
performance?
a. General Purpose SSD (gp2)
b. Provisioned IOPS SSD (io1)
c. Cold HDD (sc1)
d. Throughput Optimized HDD (st1)
39) What is Amazon Redshift primarily used for?
a. Document storage
b. Real-time data processing
c. Data warehousing and analytics
d. Content delivery
40) Which service is used to create a logically isolated section within the AWS
Cloud?
a. VPC
b. Route53
c. VPN
d. S3
41) Which service provides domain registration and DNS web service?
a. VPC
b. Route53
c. VPN
d. S3
42) What does VPN stand for?
a. Virtual Public Network
b. Virtual Personal Network
c. Virtual Private Network
d. Virtual Protected Network
43) Which AWS service is used to establish a secure connection between an
on-premises network and an AWS VPC?
a. VPC Peering
b. Direct Connect
c. VPN
d. Route53
44) Which service provides scalable DNS web services?
a. VPC
b. Route53
c. VPN
d. S3
45) How does VPC help with network security in AWS?
a. It provides encryption for data in transit.
b. It isolates resources and provides control over inbound and outbound
traffic.
c. It provides secure access to AWS services.
d. It ensures compliance with industry standards.
46) Which AWS service is used to route traffic between different VPCs or
networks?
a. VPC Peering
b. Direct Connect
c. VPN
d. Route53
47) Which protocol is commonly used for VPN connections?
a. HTTP
b. UDP
c. TCP
d. IPSec
48) What is the most important concern of cloud computing?
a. Cost
b. Space
c. Security
d. Platform
49) In cloud computing, the client is on which end.
a. Backend
b. Frontend
c. Depends
d. Both a and b
50) In which year was Google Compute Engine released?
a. 2019
b. 2009
c. 2012
d. 2006
51) Which type of database does Amazon Redshift belong to?
a. Relational database
b. NoSQL database
c. Columnar database
d. Graph database
52) What does Amazon RDS stand for?
a. Relational Database Service
b. Redshift Database Service
c. Reliable Data Storage
d. Remote Database Service
53) What type of database is Amazon DynamoDB?
a. Relational database
b. NoSQL database
c. Graph database
d. Document database
54) Which Elastic Load Balancer type provides support for routing traffic based
on content of the request, such as URL path or host?
a. Application Load Balancer (ALB)
b. Network Load Balancer (NLB)
c. Classic Load Balancer (CLB)
d. None of the above
55) How does Elastic Load Balancing enhance the availability of applications?
a. By distributing incoming traffic across multiple targets
b. By automatically replicating data across multiple regions
c. By encrypting data in transit
d. By implementing firewalls at the network perimeter
56) How are Amazon Machine Images (AMIs) stored?
a. In Amazon S3 buckets
b. In Amazon RDS instances
c. In Amazon EBS volumes
d. In Amazon CloudFront distributions
57) How does Amazon S3 Glacier ensure data durability?
a. By replicating data across multiple Availability Zones
b. By replicating data across multiple regions
c. By using cross-region replication
d. By storing data across multiple facilities in a region
58) Total types of cloud computing services are?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
59) Which service in AWS is used for managing user access and permissions?
a. S3
b. IAM
c. EC2
d. RDS
60) Which of the following is a valid IAM entity in AWS?
a. Group
b. Role
c. User
d. All of the above
61) What is an IAM role used for?
a. Authenticating users
b. Defining policies for resources
c. Granting temporary permissions
d. Managing billing information
62) Which component of Docker is responsible for creating and managing
containers?
a. Docker Engine
b. Docker Hub
c. Docker Compose
d. Docker Swarm
63) What is a Docker image?
a. A running instance of a Docker container
b. A lightweight virtual machine
c. A template for creating Docker containers
d. A container registry in the cloud
64) What is Kubernetes?
a. An open-source container orchestration platform
b. A cloud storage service
c. A database management system
d. A programming language
65) What is a Kubernetes deployment?
a. A configuration file for deploying a single container
b. A specification for scaling applications in a cluster
c. A tool for monitoring cluster performance
d. A command-line interface for managing Kubernetes resources
66) What is the maximum message size allowed in SQS?
a. 64 KB
b. 256 KB
c. 1 MB
d. 10 MB
67) Which type of messaging is supported by SQS?
a. Point-to-Point (P2P)
b. Publish-Subscribe
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
68) What is a topic in SNS?
a. A message queue
b. A collection of subscribers
c. A storage bucket
d. A virtual machine instance
69) Which protocol is NOT supported by SNS for message delivery?
a. HTTP
b. HTTPS
c. SMTP
d. SMS
70) Which protocols are supported by SES for sending emails?
a. SMTP
b. RESTful API
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
71) What is the maximum email size allowed in SES?
a. 5 MB
b. 10 MB
c. 25 MB
d. 50 MB
72) What is the maximum number of environments allowed per AWS account
in Elastic Beanstalk?
a. 5
b. 10
c. 25
d. There is no limit
73) Which of the following is NOT a component of Elastic Beanstalk?
a. Application version
b. Environment
c. Load Balancer
d. Instance type
74) What is the purpose of Docker containers?
a. To manage virtual machines
b. To deploy web applications
c. To package and run applications and their dependencies
d. To monitor network traffic
75) Which of the following statements about Docker containers is true?
a. Containers share the host operating system's kernel
b. Each container has its own complete operating system
c. Containers are slower to start compared to virtual machines
d. Containers cannot be moved between different hosts
76) What is a Docker image?
a. A running instance of a container
b. A file system snapshot
c. A template for creating containers
d. A container registry
77) How can you create a Docker container from a Dockerfile?
a. Using the docker start command
b. Using the docker create command
c. Using the docker run command
d. Using the docker build command
78) What is the purpose of a Dockerfile?
a. To run commands inside a Docker container
b. To manage Docker container resources
c. To define the environment and configuration for a Docker image
d. To monitor Docker container performance
79) Which command is used to list running Docker containers?
a. docker list
b. docker ps
c. docker status
d. docker info
80) How can you stop a running Docker container?
a. docker kill <container_id>
b. docker stop <container_id>
c. docker pause <container_id>
d. docker remove <container_id>
81) What is the purpose of Docker Hub?
a. To provide networking for Docker containers
b. To store and share Docker images
c. To monitor Docker container performance
d. To manage Docker container configuration
82) Which Docker command is used to remove a Docker image?
a. docker delete
b. docker remove
c. docker rmi
d. docker erase
83) Which of the following is a cloud?
a. Hadoop
b. Web applications
c. Intranet
d. None
84) What does SaaS stand for?
a. Scalability as a service
b. Software as a service
c. Service as a software
d. None
85) Total types of hypervisors are?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
86) Total types of PaaS are?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
87) GAE stands for?
a. Google apps engine
b. Google applied to engineer
c. Google architecture engineering
d. None
88) What does IaaS stand for?
a. Information as a service
b. Infrastructure as a service
c. Infrastructure as a software
d. None
89) What does IAM stand for in AWS?
a. Internet Access Management
b. Identity and Access Management
c. Infrastructure Access Management
d. International Account Manager
90) IAM policy documents are written in which format?
a. JSON
b. XML
c. YAML
d. HTML
91) Which of the following is not a component of IAM?
a. Roles
b. Users
c. Organizational Units
d. Groups
92) In AWS, IAM identities are categorized into how many parts?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
93) What kind of data can you store in S3?
a. Images
b. PDF files
c. Word files
d. All of the above
94) What capacity of files can you store in S3?
a. 100TB
b. 50TB
c. 5TB
d. 25TB
95) What is the default registry used by Docker?
a. Docker Store
b. Docker Hub
c. Docker Registry
d. Docker Repository
96) How can you run a command inside an existing Docker container?
a. docker exec -it container_id /bin/bash
b. docker run -it container_id /bin/bash
c. docker start -it container_id /bin/bash
d. docker attach -it container_id /bin/bash
97) What is Docker?
a. Programming Language
b. Text Editor
c. Containerization Platform
d. Web Server
98) Which command is used to create a new Docker image?
a. docker build
b. docker pull
c. docker run
d. docker commit
99) What is Kubernetes?
a. An open-source container orchestration platform
b. A container registry
c. A container runtime
d. A containerization tool
100) What is a Kubernetes Pod?
a. A group of containers
b. A unit of deployment in Kubernetes
c. A network segment
d. A virtual machine
101) Kubernetes or K8S was built by which company?
a. Meta
b. Apple
c. Google
d. Microsoft
102) What is the basic operational unit of Kubernetes or K8S?
a. Task
b. Pod
c. Nodes
d. Container
103) What is AWS Elastic Beanstalk?
a. A managed container orchestration service
b. A serverless computing platform
c. A platform-as-a-service (PaaS) offering
d. A database management system
104) Which programming languages are supported by AWS Elastic Beanstalk?
a. Java, Python, and Ruby
b. Java, C++, and PHP
c. Java, Ruby, and Perl
d. Java, C#, and JavaScript
105) What is Amazon CloudWatch?
a. A cloud storage service
b. A serverless compute service
c. A monitoring and observability service
d. A content delivery network
106) What type of data does Amazon CloudWatch primarily collect and
monitor?
a. Network traffic
b. Log files
c. Performance metrics and logs
d. Storage capacity
107) What is the purpose of CloudWatch Alarms?
a. To trigger automatic scaling actions
b. To store log data
c. To create virtual private networks
d. To manage security groups
108) What is Amazon SQS primarily used for?
a. Data warehousing
b. Messaging and queuing
c. Content delivery
d. File storage
109) What are the two types of queues in SQS?
a. Standard and Express
b. Basic and Advanced
c. FIFO and LIFO
d. Simple and Complex
110) What is Amazon SES primarily used for?
a. File storage
b. Messaging and notifications
c. Sending and receiving emails
d. Database storage
111) What types of emails can be sent using Amazon SES?
a. Only transactional emails
b. Only marketing emails
c. Both transactional and marketing emails
d. Only internal emails
112) What is Amazon SNS used for?
a. Database storage
b. Messaging and notifications
c. Content delivery
d. Virtualization
113) What is the primary concept in SNS for delivering messages to multiple
subscribers?
a. Channels
b. Topics
c. Queues
d. Buckets
114) What is the primary purpose of AWS Directory Service?
a. Host websites in the AWS Cloud
b. Connect on-premises Active Directory to the AWS Cloud
c. Manage virtual machines in AWS
d. Monitor network traffic in real-time
115) Which AWS service provides a fully managed Microsoft Active Directory in
the AWS Cloud?
a. AWS IAM
b. AWS Cognito
c. AWS Directory Service
d. AWS Lambda
116) What does VPC stand for in the context of Amazon Web Services (AWS)?
a. Virtual Private Connection
b. Virtualized Provisioning Control
c. Virtual Private Cloud
d. Visualized Processing Center
117) What is the primary purpose of Amazon VPC?
a. To manage virtual servers
b. To provide cloud storage
c. To create a private network within AWS
d. To analyze big data
118) Which of the following is a valid IP address range for a VPC subnet?
a. 10.0.0.0/8
b. 172.16.0.0/12
c. 192.168.0.0/16
d. All of the above
119) What is the primary benefit of leveraging cloud computing for
businesses?
a. Increased physical security
b. Reduced operational costs
c. Decreased flexibility
d. Limited resource access
120) Which AWS service provides natural language processing capabilities to
extract insights and relationships from text?
a. Amazon Lex
b. Amazon SageMaker
c. Amazon Comprehend
d. Amazon Forecast
121) In cloud computing, what does the term 'elasticity' refer to?
a. The ability to stretch physical servers
b. The flexibility in network configurations
c. The ability to scale resources up and down as needed
d. The stretchability of cloud storage
122) Which of the following is a key consideration for backup and recovery in
the cloud?
a. Color scheme of the interface
b. Speed of internet connection
c. Frequency of backups
d. Type of coffee in the office
123) What is Amazon SageMaker used for?
a. Building conversational interfaces
b. Text-to-speech conversion
c. Building, training, and deploying machine learning models
d. Managing relational databases
124) Which AWS service is primarily used for identity and access management?
a. AWS Lambda
b. Amazon IAM
c. Amazon S3
d. AWS IAM
125) What is a primary legal challenge in cloud computing?
a. Deciding on the color of the cloud
b. Copyright laws
c. Choosing cloud service providers
d. Selecting the right cloud storage size
126) What does Amazon Lex specialize in?
a. Machine Learning
b. Voice and text chatbot service
c. Text extraction from documents
d. Language translation
127) What is the purpose of Amazon Textract?
a. Managing databases
b. Extracting text and data from scanned documents
c. Forecasting trends based on data
d. Detecting fraudulent activities
128) Which of the following AWS services helps in fraud detection?
a. Amazon Comprehend
b. Amazon Forecast
c. Amazon Fraud Detector
d. Amazon Lex
129) Inter-country legal frameworks in cloud computing primarily address what?
a. Color schemes for websites
b. The legal interoperability of cloud services across borders
c. Choosing the right coffee for developers
d. The speed of internet connections
130) What role does Amazon Elastic Beanstalk play in AWS?
a. Database management
b. Email services
c. Application deployment and management
d. Virtual server management
131) How do AWS services contribute to business continuity?
a. By providing physical storage
b. Through online advertising
c. By ensuring high availability and disaster recovery
d. By offering employee training programs
132) Which AWS tool is used for comprehensive cloud security posture
management?
a. Amazon Inspector
b. AWS Shield
c. AWS Security Hub
d. Amazon Guard Duty
133) What is the main benefit of using Amazon S3 for data storage?
a. Unlimited coffee supply
b. Scalability and durability
c. Instant data deletion
d. Limited storage capacity
134) Amazon RDS is designed to simplify what aspect of cloud computing?
a. Social networking
b. Relational database management
c. Email marketing
d. Video streaming
135) Amazon CloudFront is best described as what type of service?
a. A machine learning service
b. A global content delivery network service
c. An email sending service
d. A virtual server service
136) What feature of Amazon DynamoDB helps in maintaining fast performance
as the database grows?
a. Cross-Region Replication
b. DynamoDB Accelerator (DAX)
c. Manual Sharding
d. SQL Query Layer
137) AWS WAF is primarily used for what purpose?
a. Protecting against web application exploits and bots
b. Email filtering
c. Data encryption
d. Performance monitoring
138) What is the primary function of Amazon QuickSight?
a. Real-time gaming
b. Business analytics and visualization
c. Social media analysis
d. Virtual desktop infrastructure
139) In the context of AWS, what are containers used for?
a. Storing physical goods
b. Isolating and packaging applications
c. Encrypting data
d. Managing user identities
140) What is Kubernetes primarily used for?
a. Container orchestration
b. Text translation
c. Data encryption
d. User authentication
141) Which service is used for deploying scalable applications on AWS?
a. Amazon RDS
b. Elastic Beanstalk
c. Amazon EC2
d. AWS IAM
142) What is AWS CloudFormation used for?
a. Social media analytics
b. Provisioning application resources
c. Text-to-speech services
d. Managing IoT devices
143) What does AWS Lambda allow developers to run?
a. Physical servers in their office
b. Code without provisioning or managing servers
c. Only static websites
d. A private social network
144) AWS IAM provides what type of control at a granular level?
a. Coffee preferences
b. Access control to AWS services and resources
c. Website color schemes
d. Email account configurations
145) The AWS Compliance program is designed to help organizations meet what
type of requirements?
a. Coffee quality standards
b. Regulatory compliance
c. Website design trends
d. Social media marketing goals
146) What is a Docker container typically used for?
a. Brewing coffee
b. Running applications in isolated environments
c. Storing physical goods
d. Conducting online surveys
147) Which AWS service is specifically designed for real-time communication
applications?
a. Amazon Chime
b. Amazon Connect
c. Amazon SNS
d. Amazon SES
148) What is the main advantage of using AWS Elastic Beanstalk over AWS EC2
directly?
a. It provides unlimited storage
b. It automatically handles the deployment, from capacity provisioning, load
balancing, and auto-scaling to application health monitoring
c. It offers free domain registration
d. It allows for physical server access
149) What does Amazon Translate provide?
a. Natural language processing
b. Speech recognition
c. Text translation services
d. Fraud detection analysis
150) AWS Key Management Service is used for what purpose?
a. Managing social media accounts
b. Securing data by managing keys
c. Provisioning computing instances
d. Automating software deployment
151) What is the focus of AWS Security?
a. Physical security of AWS data centers
b. Provisioning and managing resources
c. Protecting data and applications in the cloud
d. Creating and managing user interfaces
152) What is a Docker primarily used for in cloud computing?
a. Managing emails
b. Containerization of applications
c. Data analysis
d. Game development
153) How does Amazon Forecast assist businesses?
a. By providing email services
b. By detecting fraudulent activities
c. By translating languages
d. By predicting future trends based on historical data
154) Which AWS service helps in understanding and analyzing documents?
a. Amazon Textract
b. Amazon Comprehend
c. Amazon Kendra
d. Amazon Forecast
155) What is the main advantage of using Amazon Transcribe?
a. Creating databases
b. Voice to text conversion
c. Managing access to AWS resources
d. Building machine learning models
156) The AWS Directory Service is primarily used for?
a. Storing files in the cloud
b. Database management
c. Directory-based identity management
d. Email marketing campaigns
157) What is the primary purpose of data encryption in AWS?
a. Improving website aesthetics
b. Securing data at rest and in motion
c. Increasing storage capacity
d. Enhancing the speed of data transfer
158) Which AWS service focuses on securing data during transmission?
a. AWS Direct Connect
b. AWS Key Management Service
c. Amazon VPC
d. Securing Data in Motion
159) Amazon EC2 provides scalable computing capacity in the AWS cloud
primarily for what purpose?
a. Email archiving
b. To reduce the time required to obtain and boot new server instances
c. Physical server maintenance
d. Printing services
160) What does Amazon CloudWatch provide?
a. Social media analytics
b. Monitoring for AWS cloud resources and applications
c. Cloud storage for photos
d. Email marketing tools
161) Which AWS service is used for collaborative software development and
version control?
a. AWS Code Commit
b. Amazon S3
c. AWS Lambda
d. Amazon EC2
162) How does AWS ensure data protection and privacy?
a. By offering free coffee
b. Through comprehensive security and compliance controls
c. By limiting internet speeds
d. By encouraging paper record keeping
163) What does Amazon Route 53 effectively manage?
a. Domain name system (DNS) records
b. Coffee deliveries
c. Social media posts
d. Physical inventory
164) AWS Budgets is used for what primary purpose?
a. Tracking coffee consumption
b. Managing cloud spending against budgets
c. Scheduling social media posts
d. Email server configuration
165) Which feature of Amazon S3 ensures data is automatically replicated across
multiple zones?
a. S3 Versioning
b. S3 Transfer Acceleration
c. S3 Intelligent-Tiering
d. S3 Cross-Region Replication
166) How does Amazon RDS Backup work for disaster recovery?
a. By storing backups in a single availability zone
b. By automatically backing up the database to S3 in real time
c. By manual backup only
d. By using AWS Backup service
167) What does AWS CloudTrail primarily monitor and record?
a. CPU usage and performance metrics
b. User activity and API usage across AWS infrastructure
c. Email traffic
d. Social media activity
168) Which AWS service offers a managed Kubernetes service?
a. Amazon ECS
b. Amazon EKS
c. Amazon RDS
d. Amazon S3
169) Amazon VPC allows users to do what?
a. Launch virtual private networks
b. Provision a logically isolated section of the AWS cloud
c. Brew coffee virtually
d. Store physical inventory in the cloud
170) What is the significance of data portability in cloud computing?
a. It allows data to be moved from one cloud provider to another easily
b. It involves carrying physical data servers
c. It is a type of cloud storage
d. It refers to mobile data plans
171) Which AWS service is focused on sending and receiving messages between
software components?
a. Amazon SES
b. Amazon SNS
c. AWS Lambda
d. Amazon SQS
172) The main function of Amazon Kinesis is to?
a. Stream live video
b. Process and analyze real-time streaming data
c. Brew coffee
d. Provide social media analytics
173) What does Amazon Elastic Cache offer?
a. A web-based email service
b. A virtual reality platform
c. Improved performance for web applications by allowing you to retrieve
information from fast, managed, in-memory caches
d. Physical storage units
174) The primary use of AWS Glue is for?
a. Web scraping
b. ETL (Extract, Transform, Load) services
c. Brewing coffee
d. Physical data storage
175) What challenge does AWS Direct Connect aim to solve?
a. It provides a dedicated network connection from on-premises to AWS
b. It solves the problem of insufficient coffee supplies
c. It addresses the issue of creating social media content
d. It focuses on improving physical server security
176) Which AWS service helps in understanding customer conversations and
feedback?
a. Amazon Lex
b. Amazon Comprehend
c. Amazon Connect
d. Amazon Polly
177) How can AWS Lambda integrate with Amazon S3?
a. By triggering a Lambda function in response to S3 events
b. By storing Lambda function code in S3 only
c. By converting S3 buckets into Lambda functions
d. By using S3 to manually invoke Lambda functions
178) In terms of IAM, what is the best practice for granting permissions?
a. Grant full access by default
b. Use IAM roles and temporary credentials when accessing services
c. Share root account credentials with team members
d. Use a single IAM user for all employees
179) What is a characteristic of a hybrid cloud deployment model?
A. Limited scalability
B. Single-tenant architecture
C. Geographic restriction
D. Combination of public and private clouds
180) Which cloud deployment model provides a high level of security and
control?
A. Public cloud
B. Private cloud
C. Hybrid cloud
D. Community cloud
181) What is the main advantage of a hybrid cloud model?
A. Lower costs
B. Enhanced flexibility
C. Increased scalability
D. Improved security
182) Which cloud service model offers complete applications to end-users over
the internet?
A. IaaS (Infrastructure as a Service)
B. PaaS (Platform as a Service)
C. SaaS (Software as a Service)
D. Cloud scalability
183) In Amazon EC2, what is an instance type?
A. A template for virtual servers
B. A collection of storage devices
C. A specification for hardware
D. A security configuration
184) What is the primary use case for Amazon EC2 instances?
A. Storing large amounts of data
B. Running virtual servers
C. Managing relational databases
D. Distributing content
185) What is a key benefit of using Amazon EC2 for computing tasks?
A. High durability
B. Low latency
C. Elasticity of compute capacity
D. Unlimited storage
186) What is the purpose of an Amazon EC2 security group?
A. To manage user permissions
B. To define firewall rules
C. To configure auto scaling policies
D. To monitor CPU usage
187) What is the columnar storage used by Amazon Redshift designed for?
Real-time data processing
Analyzing large volumes of data quickly
OLTP applications
Transactional data processing
188) Which AWS service is designed for IoT applications and time series data?
Amazon DynamoDB
Amazon Timestream
Amazon RDS
Amazon Redshift
189) What type of cloud deployment model is accessible only by a single
organization?
A. Public cloud
B. Private cloud
C. Hybrid cloud
D. Community cloud
190) Which cloud deployment model combines aspects of both public and private
clouds?
A. Public cloud
B. Private cloud
C. Hybrid cloud
D. Community cloud
191) Which service model provides users with access to virtualized hardware
resources over the internet?
A. IaaS (Infrastructure as a Service)
B. PaaS (Platform as a Service)
C. SaaS (Software as a Service)
D. Cloud scalability
192) What does PaaS stand for in cloud computing?
A. Infrastructure as a Service
B. Platform as a Service
C. Software as a Service
D. Cloud scalability
193) What cloud service model allows users to access applications via the internet
without installation?
A. IaaS (Infrastructure as a Service)
B. PaaS (Platform as a Service)
C. SaaS (Software as a Service)
D. Time to Market
194) Which feature of Auto Scaling helps maintain application availability and
performance?
A. Launch configurations
B. Lifecycle hooks
C. Health checks
D. Load balancers
195) What is the primary storage engine used by Amazon DocumentDB?
MongoDB-compatible
SQL-compatible
PostgreSQL-compatible
Cassandra-compatible
196) Amazon RDS supports which of the following database engines?
MySQL, PostgreSQL, SQL Server, Oracle
MongoDB, Cassandra, DynamoDB
Redis, Memcached, Couchbase
MariaDB, SQLite, Firebase
197) In Amazon RDS, what is Multi-AZ deployment used for?
High availability
Data analytics
Data warehousing
Data archiving
198) Which AWS service is designed for petabyte-scale data warehousing?
Amazon Redshift
Amazon DynamoDB
Amazon RDS
Amazon DocumentDB
199) What type of cloud service model offers ready-to-use software applications
over the internet?
A. IaaS (Infrastructure as a Service)
B. PaaS (Platform as a Service)
C. SaaS (Software as a Service)
D. Cloud scalability
200) What is the main characteristic of a public cloud?
A. Shared infrastructure
B. Limited accessibility
C. Geographic restriction
D. Private access
201) What deployment model involves sharing computing resources among
several organizations?
A. Public cloud
B. Private cloud
C. Hybrid cloud
D. Community cloud
202) What is one of the primary benefits of using a community cloud?
A. Limited access
B. Enhanced security
C. Geographic restriction
D. Shared concerns
203) What is the role of the Amazon EC2 API?
A. To manage IAM policies
B. To provision virtual servers
C. To configure security groups
D. To monitor network traffic
204) What are the primary phases in the cloud data lifecycle?
Data generation, data storage
Data collection, data analysis
Data ingestion, data transformation
Data creation, data transmission
205) Which of the following is not a type of cloud data storage?
Object storage
Block storage
File storage
Relational database storage
206) Which Amazon storage service is designed for low-cost archiving and long-
term backup?
S3 Glacier
S3 Standard
S3 Intelligent-Tiering
S3 One Zone-IA
207) What does the term "Buckets and Objects" refer to in Amazon S3 storage?
Buckets are containers for data objects, and objects are individual files stored within
buckets
Buckets represent data regions, and objects are data partitions within those regions
Buckets are temporary storage areas, and objects are processed data units
Buckets serve as access control mechanisms, and objects are data encryption keys
208) Which storage service is ideal for managing vast amounts of structured data
in the cloud?
Amazon S3
Amazon EBS
Amazon Glacier
Amazon RDS
209) What does IaaS stand for in cloud computing?
A. Internet as a Service
B. Infrastructure as a Service
C. Integration as a Service
D. Interface as a Service
210) Which cloud service model offers development tools and infrastructure to
create and manage applications?
A. IaaS
B. PaaS
C. SaaS
D. DaaS
211) What is the primary focus of SaaS in cloud computing?
A. Providing hardware
B. Offering software
C. Delivering platforms
D. Supplying networking tools
212) Which cloud service model provides software applications over the internet
on a subscription basis?
A. IaaS
B. PaaS
C. SaaS
D. MaaS
213) Which cloud service model offers virtualized hardware resources, including
storage and networking?
A. IaaS
B. PaaS
C. SaaS
D. XaaS
214) What is the role of the Amazon EC2 API?
A. To manage IAM policies
B. To provision virtual servers
C. To configure security groups
D. To monitor network traffic
214) What is the primary use case for Amazon EC2 instances?
A. Storing large amounts of data
B. Running virtual servers
C. Managing relational databases
D. Distributing content