Thanks to visit codestin.com
Credit goes to www.scribd.com

Scribd
Upload
13 views2 pages

Integral Solution Using Series

The document presents the solution to calculating the integral of ln((1+e^(-2x))/(1-e^(-2x))) dx from 0 to infinity. It uses integration by parts, u-substitution, dominated convergence theorem, and properties of the Laplace transform and zeta functions to evaluate the integral to be π/8.

Uploaded by

David Mark Mueller
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as DOCX, PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
13 views2 pages

Integral Solution Using Series

The document presents the solution to calculating the integral of ln((1+e^(-2x))/(1-e^(-2x))) dx from 0 to infinity. It uses integration by parts, u-substitution, dominated convergence theorem, and properties of the Laplace transform and zeta functions to evaluate the integral to be π/8.

Uploaded by

David Mark Mueller
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as DOCX, PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
You are on page 1/ 2

( )

∞ −2 x
1+e
∫ ln 1−e
−2 x
dx=?
0

( )
−2 x
1+ e
by IBP: choose u = ln −2 x = ln ( 1+ e ) −ln ( 1−e−2 x )
−2 x
1−e
−2 x −2 x −2 x
−2 e 2e −4 e
du=¿
1+e
−2 x
−
1−e
−2 x = 1−e
−4 x

v = dx, dv = xdx

( )|
∞
1+ e−2 x ∞ −2 x
¿ xln
1−e−2 x 0
- ∫ −4 xe
1−e
−4 x
dx ,
0

letting u = 2x, du = 2dx


x = u/2, dx = du/2
Our new integral is
∞ −u
ue
¿∫ −2 u
du
0 1−e

∞
a
Now, recall from geometric series that ∑ ak = 1−a
k =1

Letting a = e
−2 u

[∑ ]
∞ ∞
u
Our equation now becomes ∫ −u (e−2 u )k du
0 e k=1

Using dominated convergence theorem to determine whether our sum sign and integral sign is
interchangeable,

|
∞
e−2ku ∞ 1
we choose f(u,k) = ∫ (e−2 u)k du = 2k 0
= 2 k , at k>0
0
Since it is convergent, we can interchange sum and integral sign:
∞ ∞ −2 ku ∞ ∞ ∞ ∞
ue
=∑ ∫ −u du
e
= ∑∫u e −2 ku +u
du =∑ ∫ u e −u (2k −1)
du
k =1 0 k =1 0 k =1 0

Now recall from Laplace transform


∞

∫ x n e−xs dx = snn +1!


0

From our equation, n = 1 and s = 2k + 1


∞
1!
¿∑ 2
k=1 (2 k −1)

Since our denominator is an odd function,


we can express it as k – 2k, which gives
∞ ∞
1! 1!
¿∑ −∑
k=1 k k=1 (2 k )2
2

Recall that the zeta function is


2
π
Where, ζ (2) = 6
∞ ∞ 2
1
Therefore, ∑ 1k 2! −∑ 41k!2 = ζ (2) - 4
ζ (2) =
π
8
k =1 k=1

Solution by: DM Mueller


Problem by: Kevin P.

You might also like