Tahseely Al Kanz predicted questions 2024:-

Translated By:

Feras S

The
Countdown
Guy

Razan Bajabaa

AbooBakar

M. Baggag
Farida
1. The step that comes after the hypothesis
A) Experiment or verify the validity of a hypothesis
B)Note
C) Conclusion
D)Measurement
Ans : A) Experiment or verify the validity of a hypothesis
Explanation:
To test the validity of a hypothesis, scientific experiments are
designed and carried out, the results are recorded and
organized, and then analyzed in an attempt to explain the
results or predict new answers
2. Which of the following units is a unit of basic quantity
according to the international system?
A)Volts
B)Ampere
C)Ohm
D)Tesla
Ans: B) Ampere
Explanation:
Basic quantities are : (aka SI units)
Length is measured in m (meter).
Mass is measured in K (kilogam).
Time is measured in s (second).
Temperature is measured in Kelvin ().
The amount of substance is measured in moles.
Electric current is measured in A (ampere).
Luminous intensity is measured in candela

3. Which of the following is a vector quantity?

A) A car travelling at a speed of 30 m/s
B)Pushing a cart with a force of 700N
C)A stone falls down with a speed of 8m/s
D)A swimmer who dived 800 meters

Ans: C)A stone falls down with a speed of 8m/s

Explanation:
A vector quantity is expressed with direction and magnitude

4. Which represents a physical property?

A) Iron Rusting
B) Burning piece of wood
C) Silver has lost its luster
D) Copper conducts electricity

Ans: D) Copper conducts electricity

Explanation:
Conducting electricity is one of the physical properties of the
material, while any interaction of the material with the
external environment, such as burning, rusting, and loss of
luster, is a chemical change
5. A car accelerates from rest with a constant acceleration of
3 m/s² what is the amount of time required in seconds for its
speed to be 33 m/s?
A)30
B)11
C)36
D)99
Ans: B)11

Explanation:

6. According to the following figure, at which points during

the movement of the pendulum is the kinetic energy equal to
zero?
A) A
B) C
C) E,A
D) D,B
Ans: C) E,A

Explanation:
The kinetic energy is zero at the point E and A and the body
stops momentarily there

7. The following figure represents the location of an object

during a period of time. Which of the following statements is
correct?

A) At 6 s the object has travelled a distance of 30m

B)The average speed is 2 m/s
C) At 1 s the object has travelled a distance of 10m
D) Body is moving with variable speed
Ans: A) At 6 s the object has travelled a distance of 30m

Explanation:
Since the curve represents the body's location, from the
graph we can say that at 6 seconds object is at 30 m
Also the slope of the graph is constant so there is no change
in velocity of the body that means it is in a constant speed (or
velocity)
Here average speed is the slope of the graph is 5m/s which
can be found by taking any two points and obtaining the
difference between the y coordinates over difference between
the x coordinates

8. A child pulls the string attached to a kite at a speed of 6

m/s in the west direction. If the wind speed is 8 m/s in the
north direction, the resultant speed of the kite?
Explanation:
The two forces acting on the kite are at 90 degrees so sum of
vectors at 90 degree is to be used

9. What is the angular velocity in rad/hour of a celestial body

that rotates in 20 hours
A) π/20
B) 2π/20
C)π/40
D)2π/40
Ans: B) 2π/20

Explanation:

10. A box with a mass of 10 kg is pulled to the right with a

force of 100 N and to the left with a force of 150N. What is its
acceleration in m/s²?
A) 5 m/s² to the right
B) 5 m/s² to the left
C) 5 m/s² upwards
D) 5 m/s² downwards
Ans: B) 5 m/s² to the left

Explanation:

When two forces or vectors act in opposite direction the net

effect or movement will be in the direction of the larger vector
or force So here there is more force in left direction than right
so the net motion is towards the left

TIP:-
Notice here that you need not solve the numerical but only
figure out the direction as the options have the same
magnitude
11. A body is balanced under the influence of two or more
forces when
A) Resultant Force = 0 & Resultant Moment = 0
B) Resultant Force is not 0 & Resultant Moment = 0
C) Resultant Force = 0 & Resultant Moment is not 0
D) Resultant Force is not 0 & Resultant Moment is not 0
Ans: A) Resultant Force = 0 & Resultant Moment = 0

Explanation:
For a body to be stable the net force and net moment should
be completely cancelled out (i.e., ZERO or BALANCED)

12. What angle of θ will make gy greater than gx?

A) 45
B) 35
C) 65
D) 55
Ans: B) 35

Explanation:
here gy = g cosθ and gx = gsinθ
Relation between θ and cos θ is inverse so smaller angle
means greater cos θ So smallest angle is to be chosen
Also note that the opposite is true for sin θ

13.In the following figure, for the shape to reach equilibrium,

m1 must equal..

A) 2m2
B) 4m2
C) 3m2
D) 0.5m2
Explanation: For the shape to reach equilibrium, the torque
produced by each mass must be equal, meaning that:

14. A fixed spring with an elasticity of 400 N/m, in order for

this spring to maintain an elastic potential energy of 50J, it
must be affected by a force that results in an elongation of an
amount in meters equal to
A) 4
B) 2
C) 1/2
D) 1/4
Ans: C) 1/2

Explanation:
Using equation of elastic potential energy of a spring
15. If the weight of an astronaut on Earth is 980N and his
weight at a point in space is 490N, what is the acceleration
due to gravity in m/s at that point in space? Note that
(g=9.8m/s²)
A)9.8
B)7.35
C)4.9
D)2.45
Ans: C)4.9
Explanation:

16. The orbit of planets is elliptical and the sun is one of two
foci:
A) Keplers First law
B) Keplers Second law
C) Keplers Third law
D) Newtons First law
Ans: A) Keplers First law

Explanation:
Keplers laws:-
The first law: The orbits of the planets are elliptical and the
sun is in one of the two foci.
The second law: The imaginary line from the sun to the planet
covers equal areas in equal time.
The third law: The square of the ratio between the orbit times
of two planets around the sun is equal to the cube of the ratio
between their average distances from the sun

17. When landing in the elevator, the apparent weight

compared to the real weight is
A)less
B)larger
C)eqaul
D)no relation between the two
Ans: A)less

Explanation:
If you ride in an elevator that is accelerating downward, you
will feel lighter, and the scale reading is less than your real
weight.
18. A system is conserved when
A) Closed
B)Isolated
C)Unsealed and unisolated
D)Closed and Isolated
Ans: D)Closed and Isolated

Explanation:
A system is conserved when its mass and energy are constant,
i.e. closed and isolated

19. From the table who has greater potential energy?

A)1
B)2
C)3
D)4
Ans: B)2
Explanation:
Potential Energy = mgh
max mgh is for 2nd so it has highest potential energy

20. The work required to lift a body of mass 10 kg up a vertical

distance of 1 m is equal to the same work necessary to
change the speed of the same body horizontally from rest to a
speed of v m/s, knowing that (g = 10 m/s) find v
A)root 10
B)root 20
C)root 100
D)root 200
Ans: B)root 20
Explanation:
Work energy theorem is applied here

21. Two machines do the same work. If the efficiency of

Machine A is 99% and B is 98%, which of the following is true:
A) A needs to do more work
B) B needs to do more work
C) Both needs to do same work
D) Cant find without optimal efficiency
Ans: B) B needs to do more work
Explanation:
Efficiency = work produced, work done * 100%.
As long as you get the same work done, the relationship is
inverse between efficiency and work done
22. Calculate the power of a machine that does a work of
24.5J work in 3.5s
A)0.05W
B)20W
C)73.5W
D)7W

Ans: D) 7W

Explanation:

23. Which of the following temperature conversions is

incorrect?
A) -273 degree C = 0K
B)273 degree C = 546K
C)300 K = 361 degree C
D)88K = -185 degree C

Ans: C)300 K = 361 degree C

Explanation:
56. Find the electrical energy in kilowatts for a house that
pays 72 riyals per month, and the price of energy is 0.18 riyals
per kilowatt.
A. 300
B. 400
C. 600
D. 266

Ans: B

the explanation: We divide the total amount paid by the price

of one kilowatt per unit P= 72/0.18 = 400kW
57. To generate electromagnetic waves of large frequencies,
we use a coil and ___
A. Electrolytic capacitor in series
B. Electrolytic capacitor in series
C.Straight resistance
D. Resistance in parallel

Ans: A

the explanation: To obtain high energy waves we use an

electrical circuit in which the capacitor and coil are in series

58. The force between two charges is directly proportional to

the product of the two charges and inversely proportional to
the square of the distance between them is the law of
A. Coulomb's law
B. Hubble's law
C. Newton's law of motion
D. Universal law of attraction

Ans: A

Explanation: coulomb's law =( k × q1 × q2) ÷ r²

In the following figure, the total equivalent resistance of the
electrical circuit is in ohms?
A. 9.1
B. 5.2
C. 4.8
D. 1.25

Ans: B

60. A transformer has 500 turns in its primary winding and

2000 turns in its secondary winding. If its primary winding is
connected to an alternating voltage of 25, what is the voltage
of its secondary winding?
A. 6.25
B. 25
C. 100
D. 125

Ans: C
61. An electron moves in a magnetic field with an intensity of
0.2 × 10^-5 at a speed of 5 ×10⁶ m/s, so the electric field
strength in N/C:
A. 1 × 10^-12
B. 10
C. 100
D. 1 × 10¹²

Ans: B

62. Tesla unit (T) is equal to

63. A wire of length 2 m is affected by a magnetic force of 10

because it is placed vertically in a magnetic field of 5T. What
is the current flowing through the wire in units (A)?
A. 17
B. 15
C. 4
D. 1
Ans: D

64. To determine the direction of the conventional current

generated within a wire moving perpendicular to a magnetic
field we use the rule ...... for the right hand
A. First
B. Second
C. Third
D. Fourth

Ans : d

65. Which of the following causes or produces charges and

causes their acceleration?
A. Fluorescent layer
B. Philips bulbs
C. Electric and magnetic field
D. Cathode and anode

Ans: d

Explanation: Using a large potential difference between the

cathode (cathode) and the anode (anode) inside the cathode
ray tube, a cathode ray is generated An electric field causes
electrons to be emitted from the cathode and accelerate
towards the anode.

66.What is number of neutrons in C-13 isotope (atomic

number of carbon= 6)
A. 6
B. 7
C. 13
D. 19

Ans: B

67. Mass spectrometry is used to study:

A. Photoelectric effect
B. Half life
C. Radioactivity
D. Isotopes

Ans: D

the explanation: A mass spectrometer is a device used to

study isotopes and measure the ratio between a positive ion
and its mass.

68. The maximum number of electrons held by the fourth

energy level of an atom:
A. 32
B. 18
C. 12
D. 16

Ans: A

69. In the figure, when comparing the change in energy of a

photon in a hydrogen atom,...
A. ΔE1 =ΔE2 =ΔE3
B. ΔΕ3 > ΔΕ1
C. ΔE1 > ΔE3
D. ΔE2 > ΔE3

Ans: B

Explanation: The greater the distance between the energy

levels, the greater the difference in energy
70. An atom absorbed a photon with a frequency of 10¹² Hz. If
you know that Planck’s constant is 6.26× 10^-34 J/Hz, then
the energy of the atom will.
A. It increases by 6.626×10²⁴
B. It decreases by 6.626×10²⁴
C. It decreases by 6.626×10²²
D. It increases by 6.626×10^-22

Ans : d

72. The type of an unknown sample of gas can be determined

using...
A. Mass spectrometer
B. Van de Graaff generator
C. Electromagnetic induction
D. Emission spectrum

Ans: d

the explanation: An emission spectrum is a spectrum that

characterizes each specific type of atom and can therefore be
used to identify the type of atom

73. Find the de Broglie wavelength in meters accompanying a

bowling ball with momentum 2 × 10^-24 Kg.m/s(h = 6.63 ×
74. What is the value of the coupling of work in joules if the
threshold frequency of the filter is 4 × 10¹⁴ Hz? (h= 6.63 ×
10^-34)

75. The energy gap of germanium 0.7 eV .and for silicon 1.1
eV, it is therefore considered:
A. Germanium is more conductive than silicon
B. Silicon is more conductive than germanium
C. Germanium is an insulator and silicon is conductor
D. Silicon is an insulator and germanium is a conductor

Ans: A

explanation: The smaller the energy gap of an element, the

more conductive the element is
1. The phrase ( Energy can neither be created nor destroyed;
rather, it transforms from one form to another) is
A. Theory
B. Scientific Law
C. Conclusion
D. Hypothesis
Ans: b

Explanation: A scientific law that describes a relationship

created by God Almighty in nature, supported by several
experiments. Scientists must develop other hypotheses and
experiments to explain the existence of these relationships

2. Which of the following represents a quantitative

expression?
A. The clouds contain an amount of rain
B. Sodium is caustic - to the skin
C. The solution concentration is 1 molar
D. The salt dissolves in hot water
Ans: C
Explanation: The quantitative expression for concentration is
described as a ratio between the amount of solute and the
amount of solvent or the entire solution

3. A branch of chemistry that studies materials, their

interactions, and their properties.
A. organic chemistry
B. physical chemistry
C. Atomic chemistry
D. Biochemistry
Ans: B

4. Dissolved salts in sea water are considered a solution:

A. Solid - liquid
B. Liquid - liquid
C. Solid - solid D.
Gas - liquid
Ans : a

5. A point representing pressure and temperature beyond

which water cannot be in a liquid state: A. Origin point
B. Balance point
C. Critical point
D. Boiling point
Ans: c
6. The following represents the process of scattering light by
particles scattered in the colloidal mixture
A. Tindal effect
B. Brownian motion
C. Homogeneous mixture
D. Solubility
Ans: A

7. Which of the following is not a method of dissolution

A. Stirring
B. Increased temperature
C. Increase surface area
D. Reduce the temperature
Ans: D

8. If 12.2 g of x react with 78.9 g of y producing 91.1 g of XY

then this fulfill the law of:
A. Law of conservation of mass
B. Conservation of energy
C. Law of definite proportions
D. Law of multiple proportions
Ans: A
9. Which of the following has changed chemically?
A. Ice melting
B. Condensation of water vapor
C. Burning dead candle
D. Melting of mercury
Ans: C

10. Which of the following data is quantitative?

A. The water is colorless
B. 100ml glass beaker
C. Colorful fireworks
D. Lemon tastes sour
Ans: B

11. Which of the following are classified as exothermic

changes in the physical state?

A. evaporation
B. sublimation
C. boiling
D. Freeze
Ans: D
Explanation: Freezing turns a liquid into a crystalline solid. It
is the opposite of fusion. Condensation turns vapor into
liquid. Deposition is the process of changing a substance
from a gaseous state to a solid state without going through a
liquid state, which is the opposite of sublimation.

12. Which statement describes a substance in the solid

state?
A. Its particles are tightly packed together
B. Take the shape of the container, which are placed in it
C. Its particles flow over each other
D. It can be compressed to a smaller size
Ans : A

13. The main factor in determining the stability of an atom is

the ratio:
A. Neutrons to protons
B. Neutrons to electrons
C. Protons to electrons
D. Electrons to neutrons
Ans : A
14. The transformation responsible for emitting light with the
highest frequency:
A. E6 to E2
B. E3 to E6
C. E3 to E2
D. E5 to E2
Ans: A

15. A particle that has energy but no mass:

A. Electron
B. Proton
C. Photon
D. Neutrons
Ans: C

16. The emission of electrons when an electromagnetic ray

falls on an object.. It is called:
A. X- ray
B. Photoelectric effect
C. De Broglie waves
D. Atomic emission
Ans: B

17. What happens to an atom when it is at its lowest energy

level?
A. Be radiant
B. Be stable
C. Be in a state of excitement
D. Be in a state of excitement
Ans: B
 132
𝐶𝑠 Is
55
46. A solution that resists changes in pH values when specific
amounts of acids and bases are added is a
A. Buffer solution
B. Concentrated solution
c. Standard solution
Ans: A
Explantation : A buffer solution is a mixture of a weak acid
and its conjugate base, or a weak base and its conjugate
acid; The mixture of molecules and ions in the buffer solution
resists pH changes by interacting with any hydrogen ions or
hydroxide ions added to the buffer solution.

47. An acid, in Arrhenius theory, is a substance that contains -

----- and ionizes to produce its ions
A. Nitrogen B. Hydrogen C. Oxygen D. fluorine
Answer: (b)
The explanation: The Arrhenius theory of acids and bases
states that:
1. An acid is a substance that contains hydrogen, and it
ionizes in aqueous solutions, producing hydrogen ions.
2. A base is a substance that contains a hydroxide group, and
it dissociates in aqueous solution to produce a hydroxide
ion.
48. Which of the following considers a salt?
A. HCl B. NH3 C. CaCO3 D. CH3COOH
ANS: C
Explanation: Salts are chemical compounds that result from a
neutralization between an acid and an alkali. CaCO3 is the
product of neutralization between the acid CO and the base
CaOH.
49. The reducing agent in the equation:

A. Zn +2 B. Cu +2 C. Zn D. Cu
Ans: C
Explanation: The substance that is oxidized and loses
electrons is called a reducing agent. The substance that is
reduced and gains electrons is called an oxidizing agent. Zinc
here is the one that loses electrons, so it is the reducing
agent.
Ζn → Zn+2
50. The strongest oxidizing agent:
A. Br b. I c. Cl D. F
Ans: (d)
Explanation: The substance that is reduced gains electrons,
which is called an oxidizing agent. The ability to gain
electrons increases with increasing electronegativity.
Halogens are the highest electronegative elements, and the
highest electronegative element is fluorine... Therefore,
fluorine is considered the highest oxidizing agent. F2 > Cl2 >
Br2 > I2
51. Oxidation number of Fe in Fe(OH)3:
a. +1 b. +3 c. -2 d. +2
Ans: B
Explanation: Total charge of the compound = 0
[Fe] + [3xOH+] = 0
Since the charge of hydroxide = - 1
52. The minimum amount of energy needed to cause a
reaction:
a. ionization energy
b. potential energy
c. Activation energy
d. attractive energy
Ans: C
Explanation: The minimum energy of the reacting molecules
necessary to form the activated complex and cause the
reaction to occur is Activation energy.
53. Determine the order of the overall reaction whose rate is:
R=k[A][B]2
A. 1st b. 2nd c. 3rd d. 4th
Ans: C
Explanation: The overall order of the reaction is the sum of the
ranks of each reactant and the sum of the exponents.
54. It is the rate of change in the concentration (quantities)
of reactants or products per unit time. This text expresses:
a. chemical equilibrium
B. catalytic substance
c. neutralization
d. reaction speed
Ans: D
55. Calculate the equilibrium constant: Cl2 + 2H  2HCl
(H= 2M, Cl= 5M , HCl= 10M)
A.10 B. 5 C. 70 D. 20
Ans: B
the explanation: The equilibrium constant is the product of
the product concentrations multiplied by the product of the
reactant concentrations, and each concentration is raised to
a power equal to the coefficient of this substance in the
equilibrium equation.

56. When heat is increased in the following reaction then it

leads to:
CH4 + 2O2  Co2 + 2H2O + Heat
A. Amount of CH4 is decreased
B. B. Amount of O2 is decreased
C. Amount of CO2 is increased
D. D. Amount of H2O is decreased
Ans: D
Explanation: If an amount of heat is added to an equilibrium
system, the equilibrium - according to the Lucha-Telbeh
principle - tends towards the direction in which the heat is
consumed. Therefore, the equilibrium is shifted to the left,
and the concentration of products decreases and increases
Reactants (H2O and CO2) decrease in concentration
57. The type of hybridization of nitrogen in the N2O molecule
A. sp B. sp^2 C. sp^3 D. sp^3d
Ans: A
Explanation: The type of hybridization in the nitrogen atom is
sp because the central nitrogen is linked by two sigma bonds,
so the hybridization is sp
58. Reaction of the alkene with water produces:
A. aldehyde B. Alcohol C. ether d. esther
Ans: b
Explanation: The reaction of an alkene with water is an
addition reaction to the double bond and produces an
alcohol, as shown in the equation:

59 . Characteristic group of organic acids:

A. -COOH B. -NH2 C. CHO D. -O-
ANS: A
Explanation: Organic compounds containing a carboxyl group.
The carboxyl group consists of a carbonyl group linked to a
hydroxyl group
60. Starch is a
A. Monosaccharides
b. Disaccharides
C. Polysaccharides
D. Oligosaccharides
Ans: C
Explanation: Starch is a polysaccharide, which is a polymer
made up of simple sugars On 12 or more basic building
blocks. The basic units in polysaccharides are linked by the
same type. The bonds that combine two monosaccharides to
form a disaccharide.
61. The common functional group between aldehydes and
ketones:
A. Oxide group
B. Amide group
C. hydroxyl group
D. Carbonyl group
Ans: D
62. Alkene can be obtained from the compound CHCH2OH by:
A. Add a molecule of H2O
B. Delete the H2O molecule
C. Addition of H molecule
D.Delete the H part
Ans: B
Explanation: Alcohols are converted to alkene through a water
elimination reaction in which a hydrogen atom and a hydroxyl
group are lost and water is formed. In this reaction, the
alcohol turns into an alkene and water. Here The compound is
ethyl alcohol and turns into ethylene and water as shown in
the following equation:

63. The systematic name of the compound

 A. 1- Ethyl-63- dimethylbenzene
B. 2-Ethyl-41-dimethylbenzene
C. 4- Ethyl-41-dimethylcyclohexane
D. 4,1-Dimethyl-6-Ethylbenzene
Ans: B
Explanation: The structural compound is a benzene ring with 3
substituent groups, 2 of which are homologous. Therefore,
they are numbered so that the replacement groups take the
lowest numbering possible, as shown by the numbering on the
far right, where it contains The groups are less numbered.

64. Which of the following elements has the highest

electronegativity?
A. Cl B. O C. Br D. N
Ans: B
65. The calcium-40 atom tends to reach a stable state to:
a. lose electron
b. lose 2 electron
c. lose 3 electrons
d. lose 4 electrons
Ans: B
66. How many electrons can the (d) sublevel have?
A. 4 B. 6 C. 10 D. 14
ANS: C
67. Which secondary energy level has a greater energy s, p, d,
f
A. f B. s C. p D. d
Ans: A
68. Which of the following represents secondary levels that
have a spherical shape in the structure of the atom
A. 1s, 2s B. 1s,2p C. 3d, 2p D. 3d, 4f
Ans: A

69. Sp3 hybridization has the form:

A. Level triangle
B. Tetrahedron
C. linear
D. Octahedron
Ans: B
70. In any chemical or physical reaction, energy can be
transformed from one form to another, but it cannot be
transferred and do not introduce:
a. Chemical potential energy
B. Law of conservation of mass
C. Enthalpy
D. Law of conservation of energy
Ans: D
71. The reaction is so slow that it is impossible to measure the
change in enthalpy, we use the law of
A. Hess
B. Henry
C. Rutherford
D. Heisenberg
Ans: A
Explanation: Hess's law is used when a reaction occurs very
slowly, making it impossible to measure its change in
enthalpy. There are other reactions that occur in conditions
that are difficult to find in the laboratory, and there are also
reactions that give products other than the required products,
so Hess's law is used to find change in enthalpy.
Hess's law states that the heat of the reaction or the change
in enthalpy depends on the nature of the substances involved
in the reaction and the substances resulting from it, and not
on the steps or path in which the reaction takes place.
72. From secondary batteries
A. Galvanic battery B. Alkaline battery
C. Laptop battery D.Silver battery
Ans: C
73. One of the following methods is used to prevent iron from
oxidizing - rust –
A. Oxidation
BReduction
C. Carbonation
d-Galvanization
Ans: D
Explanation: Galvanization: Iron is coated with a metal that is
more resistant
to oxidation. The iron is coated with a layer of zinc; Either by
dipping the iron piece in molten zinc, or by electroplating the
body with zinc. Although zinc oxidizes easier than iron, it is
one of the elements that protects itself by forming a layer of
metal oxide that protects it from oxidation.
74. The electrode at which the reduction reaction occurs:
A. Anode
B.Cathode
C.Helipad
D.Salt bridge
Ans: B
the explanation:
Anode: The electrode at which the oxidation reaction occurs
Cathode The electrode at which the reduction reaction
occurs.
75. If you know that the reduction half reactions in a galvanic
cell are:
What is the standard cell voltage?
A. +0.45
B. B. +0.99
C. C. -0.45
D. D. -0.99
ANS: B
the explanation: In any galvanic cell, the half-reaction that
has a greater positive reduction potential occurs in the form
of reduction, while the half-reaction that has a greater
negative reduction potential occurs in the form of oxidation.
In the question, the half-cell that undergoes reduction is
iodine because it has a positive reduction potential. Iron will
have an oxidation reaction because the reduction potential is
negative.
The overall cell reaction becomes:

The cell voltage is calculated by the equation:

1. When the eight classification levels are arranged from
largest to smallest, the classification that represents the
third level is:

A. Class
B. Division
C. Order
D. Family
The answer: (B)
Explanation:
The arrangement from largest to smallest is: Kingdom >
Phylum > Class > Order > Family > Genus > Species.
Therefore, the classification representing the third level is
"Class".
2. After examining sewage water what type of prokaryote
would you find?
a) Cyanobacteria
b) Methanogen
c) Acidophilic
d) Halophiles
Answer: (B)
Explanation:
Methanogenic bacteria are found in sewage treatment
facilities, marshes, and near volcanic vents in the oceans, as
well as in the digestive tract of humans and animals.

3 The correct scientific name for the orange is:

A. Citrus sinensis
B. Citrus Sinensis
C. citrus sinensis
D. Citrus sinensis
Answer: (A)
Explanation:
Scientists follow specific rules when writing scientific names,
including capitalizing the first letter of the genus name while
keeping all other letters of the genus and species name
lowercase.

4. We have two plants, the first plant is watered once a week,

and the second plant is watered three times a week. In this
experiment, water is considered:

A. An independent variable
B. A constant
C. A dependent variable
D. A control
Answer: (A)
Explanation:
The independent variable is the factor we want to test, and it
can affect the outcome of the experiment, so it is a variable
that we manipulate to observe its effect.

5. Based on the figure, it can be described as:

A. Transmitted by touch
B. Cowpox virus
C. Influenza virus
D. Retrovirus
Answer: (D)
Explanation:
Retroviruses are RNA viruses instead of DNA, and they have a
complex replication cycle. Examples include HIV and some
cancer-causing viruses.
6. The tsetse fly transmits the disease:

A. Sleeping sickness
B. African sleeping sickness
C. Tuberculosis
D. Fever
Answer: (B)
Explanation:
The Anopheles mosquito transmits malaria caused by
Plasmodium, while the tsetse fly transmits African sleeping
sickness caused by Trypanosoma.

7. Algae, after their death, are used for metal polishing, metal
cleaning, mirror cleaning, and as preservative materials.

Choice:
a) Euglena
b) Green algae
c) Brown algae
d) Diatoms
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The cell wall of diatoms is composed of silica, which allows
them to persist long after they die. Accumulated silica walls
form diatomaceous deposits on the ocean floor, used in metal
polishing, teeth whitening, filtration and purification
processes, chemical and industrial manufacturing, cooking
oils, and sugar production.

And waste separation.

Remember: Diatoms reproduce sexually and asexually.

Remember, Euglena is algae with both plant and animal
characteristics, containing green plastids for photosynthesis
but lacking a cell wall, becoming heterotrophic in the
absence of light.

8. Which of the structures helps Paramecium to maintain

water balance and expel excess water?

A) False feet (Pseudopods)

B) Contractile vacuoles
C) Cilia
D) Contractile vacuoles
Answer: (D)
Explanation:
Since Paramesium often lives in aquatic environments with
low salt concentrations, water continuously enters the cell by
osmosis because the concentration of dissolved substances
is lower in the fluid outside the cell. Therefore, contractile
vacuoles collect excess water and expel it outside the cell.

Remember: Paramecium has two nuclei.

Remember: Amoeba moves with pseudopods, Paramecium
with cilia, and Trypanosoma with flagella; whereas
Plasmodium lacks a means of locomotion and moves by
gliding.

9. The cell wall of fungi is composed of:

A) Chitin
B) Cellulose
C) Keratin
D) Skin
Answer: (A)

Explanation:
The composition of the cell wall differs between fungi and
plants; in plants, it consists of cellulose, while in fungi, it is
composed of chitin. Chitin is a strong, flexible polysaccharide
and is also present in the external structure of insects and
arthropods.

10. The protozoans that cause diseases in insects like

silkworms and are used in pesticide production are called:

A) Microsporidium
B) Amoeba
C) BaramesiumD) Ascomycetes
Answer: (A)
Explanation:
Microsporidium is a microscopic obligate parasite that
infects insects and other creatures causing disease.
Ascomycetes are important biological indicators of
environmental purity or pollution
11. Living in water, which of the following is not a
characteristic of filamentous fungi:

A) Produces whip-like flagella

B) Multicellular
C) Majority are multicellular
D) Most live in water
Answer: (C)

12- Which of the following creatures is radially symmetric?

A) Jellyfish
B) Sponge
C) Adult starfish
D) Hoverfly
Answer: (B)

Explanation:
The sponge lacks tissues, organs, or a nervous system, and it
is radially symmetric, feeding by filtration.
The jellyfish and all adult echinoderms, including starfish,
exhibit radial symmetry.
The hoverfly has bilateral symmetry.
13. What type of cavity is in the adjacent image?

A) Pseudocoelom
B) Acoelomate
C) Coelomate
D) Diploblastic

Answer: (C)

Explanation:
A true coelom is filled with fluid and is located between the
digestive tract and the outer body wall, completely
surrounded by the mesoderm, as seen in earthworms. This is
unlike a pseudocoelom, which is surrounded by only the
mesoderm and endoderm layers, as in roundworms.

14. Which of the following living creatures have segmented

bodies?
A) Starfish
B) Spider
C) Octopus
D) Jellyfish
Answer: (B)
Explanation:
Animals with segmented bodies include:
Annelids, such as earthworms, bristle worms, and leeches
(leeches help prevent blood clotting after surgeries).
Arthropods, such as crustaceans, spiders, insects, and
millipedes.
15. Which worm infects humans when swimming in
contaminated water?
A) Schistosoma
B) Pinworm
C) Leech
D) Tapeworm
Answer: (A)
16.Which of the following represents the mantle?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Answer: (B)

The mantle is a membrane beneath the shell that surrounds

internal organs, playing a role in support, respiration, and
excretion. Note: The excretory system in mollusks is called the
nephridia.

17. Scorpions exchange gases (respire) through:

a) Book lungs
b) Tracheal tubes
c) Spiracles
d) Malpighian tubules
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Some terrestrial insects respire through tracheal tubes, like
beetles.
Spiders and scorpions respire through book lungs.
Marine arthropods respire through gills, like lobsters.
Scorpions belong to the class of arachnids that do not have
sensory antennae.

18. The structure that eliminates waste from insects and

helps maintain water balance in their bodies is:
a) Flame cells
b) Nephridia
c) Tracheal tubes
d) Malpighian tubules
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Malpighian tubules: This structure serves as the excretory
organ in most arthropods and insects.
Flame cells: Excretory organ in flatworms.
Nephridia: Excretory organ in annelids, mollusks, some
arthropods, and crustaceans.
Tracheal tubes are used for movement, respiration, and food
collection in echinoderms.

19. Which of the following contains chewing organs?

a) Starfish
b) Sea cucumber
c) Sea urchin
d) Sea dollar
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Most sea urchins have chewing organs located inside their
mouths.
Sea cucumbers have respiratory trees.
Starfish are not preyed upon due to their spiny skin and feed
on mollusks.
Note: Echinoderms are marine animals with an internal
structure of spines, a water vascular system, and tube feet.
Many, like starfish, can regenerate lost body parts.

20. What is the difference between bony and cartilaginous

fish?

a) Swim bladder
b) Scales
c) Lateral line system
d) Fins
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Swim bladder: It is a gas-filled sac like a balloon found in bony
fish, allowing the fish to control its diving depth.
Lateral line system: Helps fish detect subtle movements in the
water and aids in maintaining balance and equilibrium.
Fins: Structured like paddles, fins are used for balance,
changing direction of movement, and propulsion forward.
21. What type of scales do sharks have?

a) Ganoid scales
b) Placoid scales
c) Cycloid scales
d) Ctenoid scales
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
There are four types of scales:
Ganoid scales are composed of hard, heavy material and
resemble teeth.
Placoid scales are found in some bony fish.
Cycloid scales, found in sardines, are made of bone and skin
and are thin and flexible.
Ganoid scales cover the garfish and have a shiny enamel-like
appearance.
22.Which animals have a heart with 3 chambers and a closed
circulatory system?
a) Reptiles or amphibians
b) Amphibians and fish
c) Fish and marine mammals
d) Amphibians and birds

Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Amphibians and reptiles (except crocodiles) have a three-
chambered heart. Crocodiles, marine mammals, and birds
have a four-chambered heart.
Fish have a two-chambered heart.

23. Tadpole breathes through...

a) Skin
b) Gills
C) Limbs
d) Lungs
Answer: (b)

Explanation:
Abu Dhanibah, or the tadpole, is the larva of a frog without
limbs resembling a fish, and it breathes through gills. Frogs,
on the other hand, breathe through their skin, whether they
are outside or inside water, which allows them to survive the
winter protected from the cold in the mud at the bottom of a
water pond.

24. An snake's hearing is through:

a) Its ears
b) Jacobson's organs
c) Jaw bones
d) Its tail
Answer: (c)

Explanation:
Snakes detect sound vibrations through their jaw bones.
Snakes extend their tongue to smell odors, and the scent
particles then move to the Jacobson's organs.

25. Which of the following species does not have a urinary

bladder?
a) Deer
b) Wild donkey
c) Owl
d) Camel
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Birds do not have a urinary bladder to store urine, which is an
adaptation to reduce weight during flight.

26. Which of the following is a monotreme mammal?

a) Duck-billed platypus
b) Whale
c) Opossum
d) Kangaroo
Answer: (a)

Explanation:
-Monotreme mammals lay eggs like reptiles, such as the
duck-billed platypus and echidna.
-Marsupial mammals have a pouch where their young
completes development, like the opossum, kangaroo, and
koala.

27. Which of the following is a gaseous plant hormone that

affects fruit ripening?
a) Gibberellin
b) Auxin
c) Abscisic acid
d) Ethylene

Answer: (d)
Explanation:
-Ethylene is the only gaseous plant hormone that influences
fruit ripening.
-Gibberellin stimulates cell elongation and affects seed
germination.
-Auxin was the first plant hormone discovered, it promotes
apical dominance and delays fruit drop.
-Abscisic acid regulates seed dormancy and promotes seed
maturation.

What type of flowers is this

A. Single sex female
B. Bisexual flower
C. Incomplete flower
D. Single- sex male
Invasive