TIPS! TIPS! TIPS!

(FORENSIC)
Jesmar C. Lobo (Dei Gratia)

1. In taking fingerprints ____ are rolled away from the body of the subject.
a. All fingers
b. All finger except the thumbs
c. Both thumbs
d. Both little fingers

2. What ridge divides it into two or more branches that meet to form the original figure?
A. bifurcation
B. lake ridge
C. island ridge
D. convergence

3. A short horizontal ridge found inside a recurving ridge which has spoiled the inner line of
flow from the inner delta to the center of the pattern. This is also found in the second type of
central pocket loop.
a. bar
b. appendage
c. uptrust
d. obstruction

5. A point along the recurving ridge in which the ridge curves inward?
A. Sufficient recurve
B. Obstruction ridge
C. Appendage
D. Shoulder of loop

6. What type of a ridge is that which curves back to the direction from which it started?
A. Diverging ridge
B. Converging ridge
C. Recurving ridge
D. Bifurcation

7. What is that ridge that divides into two ridges and which resembles a fork structure
A. Divergence
B. Bifurcation
C. Convergence
D. nclosure

8. What fingers are rolled towards the body in taking a rolled impression?
A. both little finger
B. all finger except thumb
C. both thumb finger
D. both index finger

9. What will be the primary division if all fingers are missing or cut?
A. 1/1
B. 32/32
C. 31/31
D. 16/16

10. Which is not a process of developing using the ninhydrin method?

A. immersion
B. spraying
C. dusting
D. brushing

11. It is a type of a whorl pattern in which when course was traced the tracing ridge flows
below the right delta and there are three intervening ridges.
A. Outer Whorl
B. Inner Whorl
C. Meeting Whorl
D. Accidental Whor

12. How deep the cut in order to be produced permanent scar?

A. more than 1 cm
B. more than 1mm
C. 1 m
D. 1 dm

13. It appears as tiny black line with white dots (Pores) in an inked finger impression?
A. sweat pores
B. ridges
C. furrows - white line/white space/widespace
D. sweat duct

14. What are the depressed portions or canal structure of the friction skin?
A. pores
B. furrows
C. indentions
D. duct

15. What PRINCIPLE in fingerprint identification is not determined by its general shape or
pattern only?
a. Infallibility
b. Credibility
c. Permanency
d. Individuality

16. The core and delta are also termed as?

A. Inner Terminus
B. Focal Point
C. Outer Terminus
D. Pattern Area

17. A point along a ridge formation, which is found in front or near the center of the diverging
typelines.
A. Core
B. Delta
C. Island Ridge
D. Convergence

18. If all the fingers in the right hand are whorl pattern while in the left hand are all loop
pattern, what will be the primary classification?
A. 25/29
B. 24/28
C. 25/1
D. 32/32

19. What are the three patterns involved in the secondary classification (small-lettered group)?
a. Plain Whorl, Plain Arch, Ulnar Loop
b. Plain Arch, Tented Arch, Radial loop – RAT or ART
c. Accidental Whorl, Central Pocket Loop, Double Loop Whorl
d. None of these

20. In the Sub-secondary classification, if the loop pattern appears on the middle finger and
there are 12 ridge counts, what will be the interpretation?
A. Ring
B. Outer
C. Inner
D. Middle

10 - Index
11 - Middle
14 – Ring
NOTE: Lahat Outer

21. In the Major Division, what table should be used for the right thumb when the left thumb
reaches 17 or more?
A. Table No. 1
B. Table No. 3
C. Table No. 2
D. Table No. 4

22. What is the classification formula that is represented by a numerical value appearing on
the whorl pattern only but the value only depends on what finger it appears?
A. Key Division
B. Major Division
C. Primary Division
D. Sub-secondary Division

23. In the distribution of percentage in the fingerprint pattern, 35% is being represented by
what group?
A. Loop – 60%
B. Whorl
C. Arch – 5%
D. Radial Loop

24. When a ridge bifurcates, it sends two ridges across the imaginary line, how is it counted?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Six

Note: If it does not touch the ridges that splits, it is counted as 1.

25. What type of a pattern possesses an angle, an upthrust, or two of the three basic
characteristics of the loop?
A. Plain Arch
B. Tented Arch
C. Accidental Whorl
D. Ulnar Loop

26. Which is NOT true about accidental whorl?

a. It has a combination of two different patterns
b. It has two deltas
c. The plain arch is not included in the combination
d. It is subject of ridge tracing in the Key Division – ridge counting

27. It is a kind of gait or manner of walking of a person in which he/she walks in a swaying
movement due to knock-knee feet.
A. Ataxic Gait
B. Cow’s Gait
C. Spastic Gait
D. Paretic Gait

28. It is the lower or the inner layer of the skin that must not be destructed for it could possibly
create a permanent injury that may result to the lost of the ridges. What is that canal like
structure found between the ridges?
A. Dermis
B. Epidermis
C. Furrows
D. Delta

29. A delta may be any of the following, EXCEPT

A. bifurcation opening towards the delta
B. dot or fragment as thick as the other ridges
C. a point on the first recurving ridge located nearest to the center and in front of the
divergence of the type lines
D. a meeting of two ridges

30. What is the rule when there is a choice between a bifurcation and other type of delta
found in the fingerprint?
A. Bifurcation is selected
B. the other type of delta is selected
C. Bifurcation is disregarded
D. the one towards the core is selected

31. What is a point in whorl and loop prints which lies within three-prolonged shaped
structure?
A. Ridge
B. Furrow
C. Core
D. DELTA

32. A New Mexico Geologist who adopted the first individual use of fingerprints in August 8,
1882, by using his own thumb mark as a protection to prevent tampering with the pay order
he issued.
A. John Kenneth Ferrier
B. Philipps
C. Gilbert Thompson
D. Francisca Rojas

33. What is the SYSTEM in assigning number and letters nonspecific general pattern, shape,
limited ridge flow and some limited ridge counts between common and landmarks?
A. Classification pointers
B. Natural classification output
C. Fingerprint classification formula
D. Fingerprint border lines

34. What is used in an investigation of crimes and presentation in court in order to connect a
suspect to the crime to show that the evidence cannot be questioned?
A. Witness
B. Fingerprint
C. Clothes
D. Gun

35. The type of an impression made or printed on the card by individually rolling the ten
fingers of the subject.
A. Latent Prints
B. Plain Impression
C. Rolled Impression
D. Patent fingerprint

36. It refers to a point on the ridge formation location at the center as heart of the pattern.
A. Delter
B. Core
C. Radial loop
D. Ulinar loop

37. These are the tiny portions or is a hill-like structure found on the epidermis of friction skin
containing sweat, with pores appearing as black lines in a fingerprint impression.
A. Imaginary lines
B. Furrows
C. Black lines
D. Ridges

38. What do you do with fingerprinting in case of temporary disabilities?

A. Delayed until wounded finger is cleaned up
B. Done with care so that pressure shall not be felt
C. Held back until injury is healed
D. Taken three days after

39. In an accidental whorl type of pattern, what pattern is not included in the combination?
A. Ulnar Loop
B. Tented Arch
C. Plain Whorl
D. Plain Arch

40. What is the rule where there are two or more possible bifurcation deltas which conform to
the definition of delta?
A. the one nearest the core should be chosen
B. the one away from the core should be counted
C. the one which does not open towards the core is counted
D. the one towards the core should be counted

41. What pattern type has the ridges that enter on one side of the pattern and flow to the
other side with a rise in the center?
A. Loop
B. Plain Arch
C. Tented Arch
D. Exceptional Arch

42. What is that spreading of two ridges that previously running side by side?
A. Bifurcation ridge
B. Divergence ridge
C. Convergence ridge
D. Enclosure ridge

43. What type of a pattern has two deltas in which at least one ridge makes a turn through one
complete circuit?
A. Arch
B. Accidental Whorl
C. Loop
D. Plain Whorl

44. The type of impression taken simultaneously and serves as a guide in checking the proper
rolling of the finger in the card?
A. Rolled Impression
B. Contaminated with colored substance
C. Plain Impression
D. Chance print

45. What classification in the fingerprint classification is derived by ridge counting a loop and
tracing a whorl on the thumb?
A. Key Classification
B. Major Classification
C. Final Classification
D. Secondary Classification

46. What helps investigators to track criminal records of previous crimes committed, arrests
and convictions and admissible to court to prove that the defendant is guilty?
A. Police report
B. Fingerprint
C. Witness
D. Items used in crime

47. What classification SYSTEM in fingerprint that assigns each finger according to the order of
location starting with the right thumb as to number one (1) to the left little finger as number
ten?
A. Henry
B. Stewart
C. Edward
D. Galton

48. The word “forensic” came from the Latin word “forum” which literally means?
A. Market place
B. Public
C. Place of discussion
D. Legal

49. On the night of August 2, 2010, a certain burglary happened on the store of a Japanese
Merchant. On the scene of the crime, laying the dead body of the victim stained by his own
blood and the presence of several evidences found including the fingerprints of the three
unidentified persons. If you are one of those three persons whose fingerprints were found on
the scene of the crime. What will be basis of the investigators in case they will hold you as one
of the responsible regarding the commission of the crime?
A. Principle of individuality
B. Principle of permanency
C. Principle of infallibility
D. All of these

50. The first conviction in the Philippine Case which gives recognition to the science of
fingerprint?
A. People Vs. Medina
B. People Vs. Jennings
C. Miranda Vs. Arizona
D. West Case

• People Vs. Jennings - identified through 14 points of identification.

• People vs. Medina - 10 points of identification.

51. What fingerprint pattern does not have ridge count?

A. Whorls
B. Arches
C. Radial loops
D. Ulnar loops

52. Which of the following is also called “delta” in fingerprint identification?

A. Lower ridge
B. Inner terminus
C. Outer terminus
D. Enclosures

53. Who was the French criminologist that invented the first scientific approach to identify
criminals?
A. Alphonse Bertillon
B. Edmond Locard
C. Edward Galton
D. James Herschel

54. The person who used fingerprints in replacement for signature to avoid impersonation
among Indian native.
A. William Herschel
B. Francis Galton
C. Henry Faulds
D. Sir Edward Henry

55. He was considered to be the Father of Modern Fingerprint? His system of classification was
accepted in almost all English speaking country.
A. Edward Richard Henry
B. Alphonse Bertillon
C. Juan Vucetich
D. Dr. Hans Gross

56. In the presentation of fingerprints in court, who decides if the evidence will be approved?
A. Fingerprint examiner
B. Judge
C. Defense
D. Prosecutor

57. He is considered to be the Father of Poroscopy.

A. Francis Galton
B. John Herschel
C. Marcelo Malpighi
D. Edmond Locard

58. The scientific study of the tiny opening across the ridges.
a. Podoscopy
b. Chiroscopy
c. Poroscopy
d. Edgeoscopy
59. That part of the friction skin between the epidermis and dermis layer which responsible
for the ridge formation
a. Generating layer
b. Sweat glands
c. Dermal papillae
d. Dermis Papillary

60. What DIVISION is composed of the pattern types present in the index fingers, the number
2 and number 7?
A. Sub-secondary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. Primary

61. He is credited in the creation of the first crime laboratory in US which is founded in
Berkeley, California
A. Alexander Lacassagne
B. Sir Arthur Conan Doyle
C. Hans Gross
D. August Vollmer

62. Most of the time, a suspect will leave behind evidence known as latent print which are
made up of what substance?
A. Furrows of the skin
B. Sweat and oil of the skin’s surface
C. Ridge formation
D. Ridges of the skin

63. The illegitimate mother of the two murdered children whom she was accused because of
the latent prints that has been found on the scene of the crime. Who is that person in which
without his participation the case will not be solved?
A. Francisca Rojas
B. Francis Galton
C. Juan Vucetich
D. Edward Richard Henry

64. Investigators can preserve a person’s fingerprints up to how many YEARS from the date the
samples were taken from the crime scene which can be presented in court? (1000 stars)
A. Three (3)
B. Fifteen (15)
C. Twelve (12)
D. Ten (10)

65. Can there be an accidental whorl even if there is only one delta?
A. no
B. yes
C. sometimes
D. it depends

66. What prints are plain finger impressions left in the stomach surfaces unconsciously by a
person committing an offense?
A. Accidental
B. Visible
C. Strange
D. Standard

67. Can latent footprints be seen by naked eye?

A. No
B. Yes, at all times
C. Yes but not at all times
D. Maybe

68. What type of bifurcation with one short ridge and branching off a longer ridge?
A. Whorl
B. Spurs – ridge hook
C. Delta
D. Loop

69. It is located along the undersides of the fingers, palms, toes, and soles appear corrugated
skin structure known to the fingerprint examiner as
A. friction skin
B. handprints
C. fingerprints
D. volar skin

• Volar Skin - term used by the biologist.

70. What is that portion of the fingerprint bounded by the type lines where the characteristics
needed for interpretation/classification is found?
A. Loops
B. Ridges
C. Double lines
D. Pattern area

71. Patterns possess all the characteristics needed on the investigation that may be bring light
on a certain case. What kind of sweat gland that can be found underneath these patterns?
A. Sebaceous gland
B. Eccrine gland
C. Lacrimal gland
D. Apocrine gland

72. How many standard fingerprint patterns are there?

A. Three
B. Eight
C. Two
D. Nine

• Nine - patterns under the Edward-Henry Classification System.

73. The bifurcation which does not remain open but whose legs after a long side by side for
short distance, come together to form a single ridge once more is referred to as…
A. Enclosure – Lake Ridge or Eyelet
B. Converging ridges
C. Island ridge
D. Closed ridges

74. It refers to all fingerprints left at the crime scene including those left accidentally or
unconsciously.
A. Chance Impressions
B. Latent Prints
C. Smudge Prints
D. Fragmentary Prints

General yung tanong

75. It refers to a bone condition wherein the finger joints cannot be bent.
a. Ankylosis
b. Chiroscopy
c. Calcar
d. Webb Finger

76. In the Sub-secondary classification, if the loop pattern appears on the index finger and
there are 11 ridge counts, what will be the interpretation?
A. I
B. M
C. O
D. L

77. The unknown area of friction ridge structure (latent impression) must be examined. The
specific area of the finger, palm or sole of the foot suspected of making the impression is
determined. The clarity of the impression and the variety of details present are established.
A. Analysis
B. Comparison
C. Evaluation
D. Verification

78. When the innermost sufficient recurve contains a/an ____ of rods rising as high as the
shoulder, the core is placed upon the two center rods being treated as though they were
connected by a recurving ridge.
A. Odd number
B. Even number
C. Uneven number
D. Equal number

Note:
When the innermost sufficient recurve contains an uneven number of rods rising as high as the
shoulders of the loop, the core is placed upon the end of the center rod whether it touches
the looping ridge or not.

79. The forms of delta are the following, except:

A. Dot
B. Ending Ridge
C. Lake
D. Bifurcation

80. It is a protein dye, which can be used to develop latent prints made with blood stained
friction skin. It is necessary to take sample of bloodstains for typing before using this.
A. Black powder
B. Cyanoacralate
C. Amino Black
D. White powder

81. Latent prints are made through which of the following?

A. Ridge of the skin
B. Furrows of the skin
C. Ridge formation
D. Perspiration on top of the finger

Pag made by – ang sagot ridge formation.

82. Considered as the established method for perceiving detail in two prints and making
decisions.
A. ACE-V Method
B. Fingerprint Analysis
C. DNA Fingerprinting
D. Ninhydrin Method
83. Which of the following statements that can best describe a loop pattern?
A. One (1) core at the point of divergence
B. It has a bifurcation as the delta
C. Presence of one (1) sufficient recurve
D. No bifurcation is found

84. The principle involves in Personal Identification.

A. Law of Individuality
B. Law of Infallibility
C. Law of Multiplicity of Evidence
D. Law of Constancy

85. In case of an amputated finger, what shall be the interpretation of the left index finger if
the right index finger is amputated?
A. Plain whorl and meet tracing
B. The classification in the left index finger shall be same of that the right index.
C. The classification of the right index finger shall be the same of that the left index finger.
D. There is no interpretation at all.

Note: Ang right index finger kasi ang nangongopya

86. In taking photographs, what type of SHOT must an investigator produce the entire image of
the crime scene to be used during the investigation?
a. Wide-angle
b. Normal
c. Bright
d. Clear

87. Which of the following supports the entire unit of the enlarger, which usually holds the
easel that carries the photographic paper?
A. Focusing mechanism
B. Baseboard
C. Condenser lenses
D. Elevating control knob

88. A British scientist who made the first miniature cameras, the so-called “mouse trap”
cameras.
A. Joseph Nicephore Niepce
B. Louis Jacques Mande Daguerre
C. William Henry Fox Talbot
D. Sir John Herschel
89. It is the range in front of and behind a sharply focused subject in which details also look
sharp in the final photographic image.
A. Focus
C. Camera trick
B. Depth of field
D. Aperture

90. An artificial light source which contains in its tube certain powders capable of illuminating
with some support from small amount of electricity. It is commonly used in the house or
commercial establishment.
A. Incandescent lamp
B. fluorescence lamp
C. photo flood lamp
D. flash bulb

91. What lens system of the camera reflects the light passing the lens and mirror making the
image possible to be viewed from the viewfinder?
A. pentaprism
B. shutter
C. condenser
D. filter

92. A part of the camera which controls the passage of light reaching the sensitized material?
It compared to the eyelid of the human eye.
A. lens
B. lens opening
C. shutter
D. Focal plane shutter

93. It is the distance measured from the optical center of the lens is set to focus at infinite
position. It is also known as the fundamental characteristics of a lens that will determine the
size of an image and area of coverage of the lens
A. Focal Length
B. Hyperfocal Distance
C. Depth of Field
D. Relative Aperture

94. A distance at which lens of a camera is focused with a given particular diaphragm opening
which will give the maximum depth of field is
A. Focal distance
B. subject distances
C. hyper focal distance
D. focal length
95. The distance between the nearest and the farthest object in apparent sharp focus when
the lens is focused at a given point.
A. Angle of view
B. Focal Length
C. Depth of Field
D. Focus

96. It is a focal lens not longer than the diagonal half of the negative which is useful in taking
photograph at short distance with wider area coverage.
A. Normal or Medium Focus >35mm70mm
B. Wide Angle or Short Focus <35mm
C. Long or Telephoto Lens >70mm
D. Zoom Lens (variable lens) - positive and negative lens

97. The photographer in crime scene investigation has to get as many photographs as he can.
The first shot that he should make just after reaching the crime scene is the house where the
crime of murder was committed to one of its ten rooms. In getting the façade of the house,
what lens should he utilize?
A. telephoto lens
B. macro lens
C. normal lens
D. wide angle lens

98. At least three photos must taken of every evidence, which is not included in the following?
A. Medium view
B. Close-up
C. Wide-angle view
D. Over-all scene

99. What type of lens can be used to take very close up image of small evidence such as tool
marks or trace evidence?
a. Normal
b. Micro
c. Focusing
d. Macro

100. It is photographing of object at greater that 1:1 ratio up to nine (9) times magnification. It
is the making of enlarge copies of prints such as photographs of tampered serial number of
firearms, engine number and chassis number of motor vehicle and the like.
A. Macro photography
B. Micro photography
C. Close-up photography
D. Extreme close-up photography
101. It is a lighting condition where object in open space cost a deep and uniform or distinct
shadow.
A. Bright sunlight
B. Hazy sunlight – object in an open space cast a transparent or bluish shadow
C. Dull sunlight
D. Cloudy dull

102. It is an artificial light describes as containing wire filaments that connects them which
sustains the electrical charge that combines them.
A. Photoflood Lamp
B. Fluorescent Lamp
C. Incandescent Bulb
D. Flash Bulb

103. What will be the lighting condition if you are going to take a photograph using a film
speed of ISO 200 and a shutter speed of 1/250 with an aperture of f8?
A. bright
B. hazy
C. dull
D. open light

104. What refers to the film and photographic paper that is composed of emulsion containing
silver halides and suspended in gelatin?
A. Photo Paper
B. Film
C. Silver Halides
D. Sensitized Material

105. What part of a camera with a central aperture which is adjustable for its size in order to
regulate the amount of light to enter the lens or optical system?
A. Diaphragm
B. Shutter
C. Shutter speed dial
D. Aperture

106. Which kind of lights have wavelength 30-400?

A. Ultraviolet light
B. Visible light
C. X-ray
D. Infrared light

107. When MUST investigators place evidence markers while taking photographs?
a. Before taking shot
b. Do not place evidence markers
c. After and shoot again
d. After taking shots

108. When the lighting in the crime scene is not enough produce the desired image for
investigation, what can an investigator do?
a. Change the bulb
b. Change the camera
c. Use a flash
d. Return to the base

109. What are useful in supplying significant view with exact measurement of crime scene and
location where crime occurred?
a. Police exhibits
b. Printed material
c. Photographs
d. Photographs

110. What are widely used in business in our present time because of their ability to create fast
and the same documents?
a. Computers
b. Printers
c. Scanners
d. Photocopiers

111. What is the theory of light which opposes the wave stating that light has its effect by the
very small particles such as electrons?
A. Wave Theory
B. Corpuscular Theory (Isaac Newton)
C. Modified Wave Theory
D. Quantum Theory

112. What is NOT included when an examiner needs to identify a particular typewriter used in
questioned document? (1000 stars)
a. Relation of the characters and the vertical and horizontal alignment
b. Size and design
c. Vertical position of the characters in relation to the line of writing
d. Brand and make

113. This part of a camera is used to allow light to enter through the lens for a predetermined
time interval.
A. shutter
B. holder of sensitized material
C. view finder
D. lens
114. A part of a camera used in focusing the light from the subject
A. View finder
B. Shutter
C. Lens
D. Light tight box

115. What refers to the small rectangular opening found on top of the camera which allows
the photographer to compose and frame the shot?
A. Aperture
B. View finder
C. Shutter
D. Image sensor

116. Photographic papers are classified into according to its emulsion speed, physical
characteristics, surface texture, color, and contrast. What are the essential classifications of
photographic paper which is considered as ideal to police work?
A. Silver bromide Paper, Single Weight, Glossy, Cream, and Velox #2
B. Silver bromide Paper, Light Weight, Glossy, White, and Velox #3
C. Silver bromide Paper, Single Weight, Glossy, White, and Velox #2
D. Silver chloride Paper, Single Weight, Glossy, White, and Velox #0

117. While taking picture of a victim, location, and injuries, what MUST an investigator do with
the images taken?
a. To keep
b. To highlight
c. To protect
d. To bring to the station

118. What is an important player in determining the lens opening because its quality can limit
the effective maximum opening called “the maximum aperture”?
a. Condenser
b. Focusing mechanism
c. Lens
d. View finder

119. There are two types of color films, the negative and the reversal. Which of the following
suffix indicates the negative one?
A. Color
B. Chrome - reversal
C. Ortho
D. Pan
120. A part of digital single lens reflex (DSLR) that converts the light into electrical signal at the
start of forming digital image.
a. digital signal processor
b. analogue-to-digital converter
c. charged-coupled device
d. digital coupled converter

121. Which of the following technical equipment is used for night photography?
A. wide-aperture standard lens for pictures featuring people
B. Use of zoom lens for light blurs effects
C. Cable release
D. All of these

122. What type of lens is that whose center is thicker and the sides thinner?
A. Concave
B. Micro
C. Diverging
D. Positive

123. What photography makes use of a microscope and is used to record minute evidence
such as powdered debris, stains, hairs and fibers?
A. Microphotography – Specific answer: Photomicrography
B. Camcorders
C. Ultra violet
D. Infra red luminous

124. What is the first setting a photographer considers when photographing anything at the
crime scene in order because it controls the focus?
a. Shutter
b. Cable release
c. View finder
d. Aperture

125. A part of the camera which provides a means of determining the extent of the area
coverage of a given lens?
A. lens
B. shutter
C. view finder
D. pentaprism

126. How will the police photographer fix a captured image in order for preservation?
a. Permanently
b. Carefully
c. Beautifully
d. Beautifully

127. The determining factor of the size of an image as well as the area of coverage of a given
camera lens is the?
A. Focal length
B. Hyper focal distance
C. Diaphragm opening
D. Flare

128. What is considered as the utmost used of photography in police work?

A. For identification
B. For preservation – ultimate purpose of photography
C. For record purpose
D. For court presentation

129. Photographs as evidence means that someone must testify that the photograph should
accurately portrays the scene as viewed by the ____.
A. Victim
B. Investigators
C. Photograph
D. Witness

130. Before a photograph can be introduced as evidence, aside from being properly identified
what must be shown?
A. Immaterial
B. Clear
C. Accuracy
D. Irrelevant

131. The study of the fundamentals of photography, its application to police work and the
preparation of photographic evidence:
A. Cinematography
B. Police Photography
C. Forensic photography
D. Photography

Note: Preparation pa lang naman for photographic evidence, pero pag applied na sa court ang
sagot natin ay Forensic Photography.

132. There are several METHODS used by law enforcement agencies, which is NOT a basic
crime scene search pattern?
A. Line
B. Grid
C. Stripe – pag strip to Line isagot
D. Quadrant

133. The “View from the Window at Le Gras” is a holographic image and considered to be the
oldest surviving photograph and it was created by ____.
A. Niepce (Nicephore Niepce)
B. Zahn
C. Gabor – invented the hologram
D. Mozi

134. Who designed the FIRST camera in 1685?

A. Mozi
B. Nicephore Niepce
C. Ibn al-Haytham
D. Johann Zahn

135. What controls the duration between the opening and closing the shutter of a camera?
(1000 stars)
A. Shutter speed
B. Shutter controller
C. Shutter mechanism
D. Shutter lift

136. Which of the following parts of a camera that is used to bring light to a fixed focal point?
A. Filter
B. Shutter
C. Lens
D. Light finder

137. What is the degree of difference between two colors or between the lightness lights or
the darkest darks in an image?
A. Distinction
B. Variance
C. Contrast
D. Disparity

138. What kind of light is already existing in an indoor or outdoor setting that is NOT caused by
any illumination supplied by the photographer?
a. Split
b. Steady
c. Ambient
d. Short
139. In police photography, in order to show the details of the crime by taking the individual
photography of every evidence at the scene of the crime, what type of LENS is used by the
police investigations?
a. Telephoto
b. Single
c. Zoom – variable lens
d. Double

140. After the capturing of image needed for investigations, what is an important procedure
the police photographer must do?
a. To show to friends
b. To document
c. To keep
d. To show to friends

141. Which controls the brightness of the image that passes through the lens and falls on the
image sensor?
A. Aperture
B. View Finder
C. Shutter
D. Lens

142. If investigators mark new evidence, the whole series of shots including all evidence
shots, what MUST the investigators do?
A. No need to re-shoot
B. Re-shoot for new evidence
C. Secure the area
D. Collect all the evidence

143. What process an investigator must do in order to make the captured image available
anytime when needed for the investigation?
A. Collating
B. Preservation
C. Collection
D. Visualizing

144. After the crime has been established, photographs were taken, what should investigators
do in order to keep the exact picture of the crime scene?
A. Investigate
B. Clean
C. Observe
D. Secure
145. In taking photograph on tool marks evidence for court presentation, what is the BEST film
to use to provide more contrast and details?
A. Black-and-White
B. Color reversal
C. Color Positive
D. Color

146. What part of a camera that indicates the timing of the shutter to open and close, sets the
length of time in which the lights allowed to enter the camera?
a. Shutter release button
b. Shutter speed dial
c. Shutter
d. Shutter lock

147. Assuming all conditions will be the same, which film gives the finest of grains?
A. ASA 300
B. ASA 100
C. ASA 200
D. ASA 400

The rule is:

 The lower the emulsion speed rating of the film, the finer is the grain and conversely,
 The higher the emulsion speed rating, the bigger are the grain.

148. Crime scene photography first began with the documentation of criminals in 1840s, in
what country it happened?
A. Denmark
B. USA
C. UK
D. Belgium

149. What is that process of omitting an object during printing and enlarging process?
A. Dodging – eliminating unwanted portions
B. Burning-In
C. Vignetting
D. Cropping

150. A process of additional exposure to a desired portion of the negative?

A. Dodging
B. Burning - In
C. Vignetting
D. Cropping
151. The process of obtaining a magnified photograph of a small object done by attaching a
camera to the ocular of a compound microscope?
A. Photomacrography
B. Microphotography
C. Photomicrography
D. Macrophotography

152. A black and white films possess several characteristics such as speed, spectral and
granularity. The speed will be referring to the sensitivity of the film to light and the spectral is
the sensitivity to.
A. Film Speed
B. Wavelength
C. Electromagnetic Energy
D. all of these

153. It is a type of film according to spectral sensitivity wherein the film is sensitive to UV light
up to the green light only.
A. Blue-Sensitive Film
B. Orthochromatic Film
C. Panchromatic Film
D. Infra-red Film

154. What emulsion speed indicator is express in an arithmetic form?

A. ISO
B. DIN
C. ASA
D. GNP

155. A type of camera in which the lens and shutter mounted to body by means of an
accordion-pleated bellows, which can be folded into camera foe ease of carrying.
A. accordion camera
B. folding camera
C. bellowed camera
D. SLR

156. It is the part of the film holder of the camera that usually houses the film cartridge.
A. Sprocket
B. Locking catch
C. Guide roller
D. Cavity

157. This is attach to the shutter to prevent accidental movement of the camera during the
exposure period.
A. Tripod
B. Cable release
C. Light meter
D. Extinction meter

158. What is the timing of the camera shutter and the flash so that when the shutter is fully
opened, that’s the time that the flash will yield its highest peaks of illumination called?
A. Bounce flash
B. Synx
C. On camera flash
D. Synchronization

159. The Fish–eye lens is a special type of camera having a view angle of:
A. 60 degrees
B. 180 degrees
C. 90 degrees
D. 360 degree

160. Which of the following is TRUE about the shutter speed of the camera?
A. The faster the shutter speed, the more light it can transmit.
B. The shutter speed setting of ½ is slower than the shutter speed of 1/60.
C. The shutter speed setting of 1/250 is faster than the shutter speed of 1/500.
D. The slower the shutter speed, the less light it can transmit

161. Refers to the range of illumination or the light allowed to affect the sensitized material at
a given time.
A. Exposure
B. Aperture
C. Shutter
D. Shutter speed

162. It is a part of the camera which defines as the ratio between the diameter of the whole
lens in relation to the focal length of the lens is referred to as,
A. Lens Aperture
B. Lens Opening
C. Focal Distance
D. Both A and B

163. A device made of thin overlapping metal leaves within a lens or camera which can be
adjusted to specific apertures of f-stops to control the amount of light that strikes the film.
A. shutter
B. diaphragm
C. aperture
D. diaphragm opening
164. All practical lens images such as point a small blur which changes in character with the
change of lens aperture. The statement best describe:
A. Diaphragm as a controller of depth of field
B. Diaphragm as a controller of speed
C. Diaphragm as a controller of definition
D. Aperture

165. It is the mechanism of the camera designed to control the degree of sharpness of the
object to be photograph.
A. Range Finder
B. Ground Glass
C. Focusing
D. Scale Bed

• Range Finder- refers to the coincidence or split image type

• Groundglass- object will be viewed to be blurred and will turn sharp once adjusted.
• Scale Bed - estimating the distance of the object and adjusting the camera control.

166. In photography using microprism, the image on focus will usually shatter of an out of focus
image and when it is exactly in focus the prisms seems to disappear. These microprisms are
primarily found on:
A. lens
B. filter
C. viewfinder
D. groundglass

167. Pedro was taking a snap shot and expecting it to be sharp but an alteration happened to
the expected image because it can be seen in two viewpoints. What is that phenomenon?
A. out of focus
B. coincidence
C. parallax
D. split image

Focusing Malfunctions:
• Out of Focus (Coincidence)- a single object will appear double.
• Split-image- the image that is photographed will split into two parts.

168. It is the medium or mean which converges or diverges light rays that passes through it
and able to form an image.
A. Lens
B. Camera
C. Mirror
D. None of these
169. It is an inherent lens aberration wherein the lens has an inability to focus light passing
through it and producing an image that is sharp in the center and blurred at the side.
A. Spherical Aberration
B. Coma
C. Chromatic Aberration
D. Flare

170. It is a type of lens which is capable of correcting astigmatism.

A. Meniscus Lens
B. Anastigmat Lens
C. Rapid Rectilinear Lens
D. Achromatic Lens

• Meniscus Lens - lens with no correction.

• Achromatic Lens - correcting chromatic aberration.
• Rapid Rectilinear Lens - lens corrected of distortion.
• Apochromatic Lens - lens used to correct both astigmatism and chromatic aberration.

171. A lens defect that can affect resolution and clarity making it hard to obtain sharp images.
A. curvature of field
B. spherical aberration – sharp at the center blurred at the side.
C. chromatic aberration
D. coma

• Curvature of Field - Dome-like image. Relation of the images of the different points are
incorrect.
• Chromatic aberration – Color dispersion, inability of the lens to focus light of varying
wavelength.
• Flares – Producing multiple images
• Astigmatism – Inability of the lens to focus both horizontal and vertical lines.

172. This effect causes images to be spherized which means the edges of images look curved
and bowed to the human eye. – bowed ibig sabihin yung curving is outward
A. pincushion distortion
B. spherical aberration
C. barrel distortion
D. wavy field curvature

Distortion – Defect in shape not in sharpness.

1. Pincushion- curves inward.
2. Barrel – curving outward

Coma (Lateral Aberration) – inability of the lens to focus light that travels straight or lateral,
thus making it blurred.
1. Positive Coma – Scattering radially toward its axis.
2. Negative Coma – Scattering radially away from its axis.

173. In order for the investigators to prove that a suspect who was reported that he fired a
gun during the New Year's eve, which is not allowed what TEST must be applied to determine
if the reported case is positive?
A. Faraffin
B. Takayama = for blood
C. Paraffin
D. Luminescence

174. In the United States, crimes are committed by juvenile using a homemade firearm known
as:
A. Freakish Gun
B. Zip Gun
C. Flare Gun
D. Matchlock

175. Is that mechanism of the firearm by which empty shells or ammunition are thrown out
from the gun?
A. Ejector
B. Extractor
C. Firing Pin
D. Trigger

176. A mechanism of the firearm by which the empty shell or ammunition is thrown from the
firearm.
A. Extractor – pulled out from the chamber
B. Ejector
C. Trigger
D. Breechblock

177. It refers to the mobility or the movement of the projectile once it leaves the muzzle and
until it reaches the target or fall in the ground.
A. Motion
B. Ballistics
C. Ballista
D. Trajectory

178. This is the actual curved path of the bullet during its flight from the gun muzzle and target.
A. Air Resistance
B. Velocity
C. Trajectory
D. Pull of Gravity
179. This refers to the deflection of the bullet from its normal path after striking a resistant
surface.
A. Misfire
B. Mushroom
C. Ricochet
D. Keyhole shot

180. This refers to the helical grooves cut in the interior surface of the bore.
A. Swaging
B. Ogive
C. Rifling
D. Breaching

181. The following conditions are NOT attributed to external ballistics, EXCEPT:
A. Firing pin hitting the primer.
B. Ignition of the priming mixture.
C. Energy generated at the muzzle point.
D. Rotation of the bullet inside the muzzle.

182. It is the distance at which the gunner has the control of shot where the bullet travel
straight.
A. Maximum Range
B. Maximum Effective Range
C. Accurate Range
D. Effective Range

183. PINS Tina Moran was tasked to examine whether the questioned bullet was fired from the
suspected firearm and prepare her deductions for court testimony. The situation was part of
what branch of ballistics?
A. Firearms Identification
B. Technical examination
C. Legal proceeding
D. Forensic ballistics

184. A field of forensic ballistics that includes the expert examination of firearms, bullets and
shells that would determine whether or not a particular bullet is fired from a particular firearm,
and whether or not a particular shell is loaded and ejected from the same firearm and it is
conducted in a forensic laboratory. What phase of forensic ballistics best describes the
statement?
A. Field investigation
B. Technical examination
C. Legal proceedings
D. None of the above
185. The rearward movement termed as recoil of the firearm is a natural phenomenon because
of the expansion and explosion which was put into used by ____ to create a fully automatic
mechanism of the firearm.
A. John M. Browning
B. Tyler Henry
C. Hiram Maxim
d. Horace Smith

186. He patented the very first practical revolver in which the cylinder will rotate if the hammer
is cocked known as the single action mechanism. The statement is referring to Samuel Colt but
that mechanism was put into used because of the percussion system by:
A. Samuel Colt
B. Hiram Maxim
C. David Williams
D. Alexander John Forsyth

187. He gave his name to a whole class of firearms; he is also the manufacturer of the Pocket
Pistol.
A. John M. Browning
B. Samuel Colt
C. Col. Calvin H. Goddard
D. Henry Derringer

188. The very first self-exploding cartridges were invented on 1836 and it was called as the pin-
fire cartridge which came into realization through the invention of:
A. Le Faucheux
B. Hiram Maxim
C. Flobert
D. Alexander John Forsyth

• Flobert - developed the Rim-fire cartridge.

189. It is the most prominent American maker of repeating firearms since 1850.
A. Volcanic repeating arms company
B. Browning firearms company
C. Winchester repeating arms company
D. All of these

190. The following are the laws that give the legal and technical definition of Firearms:
A. Sec. 877 of the Revised Administrative Code
B. Sec. 290 of the National Internal Revenue Code
C. Republic Act No. 8294
D. All of the Above

191. This refers to the firearms that propels projectile with more than one (1) inch in diameter.
A. Artillery
B. Small Arms
C. Rifles
D. Carbine

• Small Arms- propel projectile that is one (1) inch or less in diameter.

192. A shooting incident was happened wherein five people were found dead on the scene of
the crime. During the incident, it was found out that the firearm involve uses a pistol size
ammunition but having contains a shoulder stock because it was fired in a distance. The scene
was filled by cartridge cases but there was only one empty magazine recovered. If you are the
investigator, what type of firearm was used?
A. machine gun
B. sub machine gun
C. automatic firearm
D. none of these

193. It is an early muzzle-loaded firearm used in the 15th to 17th centuries. Like its successor,
the musket, it is a smoothbore firearm, but it is lighter and easier to carry. It is a forerunner of
the rifle and other long-arm firearms. (1000 stars)
A. arquebus
B. musket
C. blunderbuss – early predecessor of modern shotgun
D. rifle

194. It is a barrel construction of a shotgun in which there is a diminishing bore diameter

towards its muzzle.
A. Cylinder Bore Type Shotgun
B. Choke Bore type shotgun
C. Paradox Type Shotgun
D. Single Barrel Shotgun

• Cylinder Bore Type Shotgun - bore size is the same up to the barrel.
• Paradox Type Shotgun - rifling a few each at the muzzle end.

195. The chemical eating away of the bore of a firearm due to rusting of the action of salts
deposited from the gunpowder is:
A. pressure
B. corrosion
C. erosion
D. decomposition
196. The Morse cartridge in 1858 marked the beginning of the rapid development of the
A. Pin-fire cartridge
B. Center-fire cartridge
C. Rim fire cartridge
D. None of these

• Pin-fire (La Facheux)- ignition cap is hidden inside the cartridge.

• Rim Fire (Flobert)- primer is at the rim of the cartridge.
• Center Fire- primer is at the center of the base

197. What should be the classification of a shell when the diameter of the rim is larger than the
diameter of the shell’s body?
A. Belted type
B. Rimless case
C. Rebated type
D. Rimmed case

• Rimless - the shell’s diameter is equal. No rim.

• Rebated - rim diameter is smaller than the shell.
• Belted Type - a belt is located around the shell’s body.

198. The unit of measurement of a shotgun is expressed in gauge, however, it is still convertible
into inch. What is the equivalent of 10 Gauge shotgun to inch?
A. .410 inch
B. .775 inch
C. .729 inch
D. .670 inch

199. A cartridge case is a metallic or non-metallic container that holds the bullet, primer and the
gunpowder into one or otherwise known as the shell or casing. What does the cartridge case
made up of?
A. 30% copper and 70% zinc
B. 40% nitroglycerine and 60% nitrocellulose
C. 70% copper and 30% zinc
D. 75% potassium nitrate, 15% charcoal, and 10% sulfur

200. According to the diameter of the base or rim of the cartridge cases, which is common to
revolver and shot gun cartridges?
A. Diameter is greater than the body
B. Presence of extracting grooves
C. Diameter of rim is equal to the body
D. Made of brass case
201. It is the part of the cartridge case designed to limit the forward movement of the
cartridge to the chamber.
A. Extracting Grooves
B. Base
C. Primer Pocket
D. Rim

• Extracting grooves- for the withdrawal of the case.

• Base - bottom portion of the case.
• Primer Pocket - hold primer in place.

202. It is a hole at the bottom of the primer pocket where the ignited priming mixture will pass
through to impart an ignition to the propellant.
A. Cannelure
B. Crimp
C. Vent or Flash Hole
D. Base

• Cannelure - prevent the bullet from being pushed down.

• Crimp - prevent bullet from being pulled out.

303. It is the ignition system of the cartridge used in a center fire type, containing a highly
sensitive chemical compound that would ignite into flame once hit by the firing pin.
A. Primer
B. Priming Mixture
C. Anvil
D. Disc

• Priming Mixture (percussion powder) - highly sensitive compound. The one that ignites.
• Anvil - absorbs the blow of firing pin and initiates ignition.
• Disc - protect primer from moisture attack.

304. Fired Cartridge case/shell are usually mark at the ?

A. At the base
B. Side or body of the shell
C. At the rim
D. Any of these

305. It is that mixture of chemicals of various compositions designed to propel the projectile by
means of expansive force of gases when burned.
A. Propellant
B. Gun Powder
C. Potassium Nitrate
D. Either A or B
306. Smokeless powders were first invented by Paul Vielle making its way to become the very
first satisfactory smokeless powder. It was first release in what place?
A. Italy
B. France
C. England
D. Rome

307. The most important single process in a barrel manufacture from the standpoint of the
identification expert is:
A. Reaming operation
B. Rifling operation
C. Lapping operation
D. Drilling operation

Manufacture of Barrel:
• Drilling- creating a hole in the firearm.
• Reaming- smoothens and polishing the hole.
• Rifling- making helical grooves on the barrel.
• Lapping- applying breech face at the rear of the barrel.

308. It refers to the measure of the twisting of the lands and grooves or one complete turn.
A. Pitch of rifling
B. Bore diameter
C. Lands and grooves
D. Bullet twisting

Class Characteristics
• Bore Diameter - the measure between two lands.
• Lands and grooves - both have the same number inside the barrel.

309. A fired bullet with six lands and grooves twisted to the right is fired from the barrel of a
firearm with identical class characteristics as that of:
A. Browning
B. Colt
C. Smith and Wesson
D. Steyer

310. A shaving marks on a bullet is due to:

A. Oversized barrel
B. Poor alignment of the cylinder to the bore of the barrel
C. Oily barrel
D. Delayed combustion
Marks found at the Fired Bullets
• Land Marks- caused by lands of the firearm.
• Groove Marks- caused by grooves of the firearm.
• Skid Marks- caused by the forward motion of the bullet inside the chamber.
• Stripping Marks- due to loose fit barrel.
• Shaving Marks- due to poorly aligned cylinder.
• Slippage Marks- passing through oily or oversized barrel.

311. It is a mark found at the base portion of the mouth of the shell caused by backward
movement to the breech face of the block of the firearm.
A. Firing Pin Mark
B. Breech Face Mark
C. Extractor Mark
D. Magazine Lip Mark

Marks found on Fired Shells

• Firing Pin Mark- found at the base portion due to firing pin of the firearm.
• Extractor Mark- found at the extracting groove due to its withdrawal.
• Ejector Mark- located near the rim of the cartridge after he shell have been thrown out.
• Shearing Mark- “Secondary Pin Mark”
• Magazine Lip Mark- found at the rim due to loading of cartridge to the magazine.
• Chamber Mark- around the body of the cartridge because of the firearms chamber.

312. What do you call the type of instrument used in measuring pitch of rifling firearms?
A. Torsion Balance
B. Helixometer
C. Thermometer
D. Caliper

• Torsion Balance - measure the weight of bullet.

• Caliper - measure the caliber of firearm.

313. What instrument is used in measuring the velocity of the bullet?

A. Calipher
B. Torsion Balance
C. Helixometer
D. Chronograph

314. The person accredited as successful inventor of gun powder.

A. Horace Smith
B. Alexander John Forsyth
C. Berthhold Schwartz
D. Col Calvin H. Goddard
315. A Greek word from which the word “ballistics” was derived which means “to throw”.
A. Ballien or ballo
B. Catapult
C. Ballistics
D. Ballista - roman gigantic catapult

Latin - CHARTA- paper

Italian Word - Pistoia/Pistola – A city
Boullette – small ball
Cartouche – Rolled paper
Mousquette – small hawk

316. The FP-45 (Liberator gun or Woolworth gun) was put into service use by American troops
during WWII against insurgent, it could effectively in an 8 yards range. The Liberator gun use
what caliber of ammunition?
a. Caliber .50
b. Caliber .38
c. Caliber .357
d. Caliber .45

317. What type of a firearm contains rifling only a few inches from the muzzle point?
A. cylinder type
B. choke bore
C. rifled bore
D. Paradox

318. It is known as the smallest pistol commercially available center fire cartridge and
patented by Franz Pfannl in 1914.
a. Kolibri
b. Miniature Revolver C1ST – smallest revolver
c. Handgun Caliber .50 - most powerful gun
d. UZ

319. A part of a firearm which houses all the other parts.

a. Receiver
b. Barrel
c. Frame
d. Chamber

320. Is a complete unfired unit consisting of bullet, primer, gun powder and shell:
A. Ammunition
B. Cartridge
C. Shotgun cartridge
D. Missile
321. A metallic or non-metallic cylindrical container which serves as the projector for the
propellant against moisture?
A. Bullet
B. Primer
C. Cartridge case
D. Paper disc

322. Black powder basically composed of:

A. 75% potassium chlorate, 15% charcoal and 10% sulfur.
B. 75% potassium nitrate, 15% charcoal and 10% sulfur.
C. 75% potassium chlorate, 10 % charcoal and 15 % sulfur.
D. 75% potassium nitrate, 10% charcoal and 15% sulfur.

323. Handguns that can be fired several times by means of cartridge stored in the handle are
called.
A. Pistols
B. Revolver
C. Self-loading pistol
D. Automatic Firearm

324. It is a type of firearm designed to fire several loads (shot) in one loading.
A. Single Shot Firearms
B. Repeating Firearms
B. Double Action
D. Single Action

• Single Shot Firearms- only one shot for every loading.

• Repeating Arms- fire several shots in one loading.
• Single Action- revolver; manual cocking of the hammer.
• Double Action- revolver; not need manual cocking.

325. These are devices that are not really designed to become a weapon but because of its
mechanism that is the same as those in the firearm they are already considered as
miscellaneous guns.
A. Tool
B. Zip guns
C. Traps
D. Cane guns

326. What is the best way of picking a suspected firearm at the crime scene?
A. Picking it through the handle
B. Picking it through the barrel
C. Inserting a handkerchief or string straw at the trigger guard
D. Inserting a rod at the barrel

327. How is the serial number of a firearm or engine number of vehicle restored?
A. By polishing stamped serial number
B. By cleaning obliterated surface
C. By removing the zone of strain
D. By applying etching reagent

328. What part of a cartridge which are made of copper or brass alloy that initiates the
combustion of a gun powder?
A. Primer
B. Flash holes
C. Rifling
D. Hammer

329. What is an unexpected delay in the triggering of a firearm and the ignition of the
propellant that is due to poor quality of gun powder?
A. Hang fire
B. Trajectory
C. Ricochet
D. Swaging

330. Are all bullets made up of metals?

A. Yes
B. No
C. Maybe
D. Sometimes

331. If the smallest caliber of a gun is 22 caliber, what is the biggest caliber?
A. Caliber 60
B. Caliber 45
C. Caliber 50
D. Caliber 40

332. Refers to a projectile propelled from a firearm by means of expansive force of gasses
coming from burning gun powder.
A. Cartridge
B. Bullet
C. Gun powder
D. Primer

333. What is the term used for the measurement of the bore diameter?
A. Striation
B. Caliber
C. Drift
D. Gauge

334. Which of the following is the science that deals with the launching, flight behavior and
impact effects of projectile.
A. Internal ballistics
B. Ballistics – general yung definition - pangkalahatan
C. Terminal Ballistics
D. Eternal Ballistics

335. What is the motion or curve path of the bullet during in flight from the gum muzzle to the
target?
A. Rifling
B. Swaging
C. Ricochet
D. Trajectory

336. What is a short barreled firearm, having a magazine enclosed in its grip?
A. Riffle
B. Machine gun
C. Revolver - cylinder
D. Pistol

337. The importance of individual marks left on a bullet by a gun barrel is that it is useful in
directly identifying the:
A. Bullet which caused the fatal wound
B. Person who fired the particular firearm
C. Gun from which a bullet was fired
D. Possible direction of shot

338. What is a blasting explosive that is based nitroglycerine?

A. Black powder
B. Ammonium nitrate
C. Dynamite
D. Low Explosives

339. The unburned or partially burned powder grains embedded in the skin surrounding the
point of entry in gunshot wound produce:
A. Tattooing
B. Stippling
C. Peppering
D. All of the above

340. Which of the following is the characteristics of a gunshot wound of exit?

A. Contusion collar – ENTRANCE WOUND
B. Tattoing or Smudging – ENTRANCE WOUND
C. Wound larger than the bullet
D. Edges of the wound are inverted – ENTRANCE WOUND

341. This is a part of the firearm which causes firing mechanism.

A. Hammer
B. Trigger
C. Barrel
D. Ejector

342. The portion of the primer against which the priming mixture is crushed by a blow from
the firing pin.
A. Disc
B. Anvil
C. Primer Cup
D. Flash hole

343. When a writer fixed a portion of a writing by going back over another stroke that is not
readable or not acceptable. What was done by the writer?
A. Retracing
B. Recall
C. Shading
D. Reverse

344. What was done, when one retouches or goes back over a defective portion of a writing
stroke?
A. retracing
B. Pen pressure
C. Patching - retouching
D. Pen shading

345. A name of a person signed by himself on a document as an indication of acceptance and

recognition of its contents.
A. Forgery
B. Penmanship
C. Signature
D. Autograph

346. Which of the following is the major concern when a document is being questioned?
A. Ownership
B. Authenticity
C. Quality of paper used
D. Age

347. These are sets of authentic document which will serve as a basis for comparison with
other matters in question?
A. Questioned document
B. Standard document
C. Sample
D. Exemplar

348. The signature on the check issued by John Dy Chua is suspected to have been forged, and
he cannot remember if he issued the check or not. The signatures were exactly the same in size
and strokes compared to another issued check. If you are the examiner, what will be your
conclusion?
A. Forged, because no signatures are exactly the same in all details/ aspect
B. Genuine, because Mr. Dy forgot when he issued the check
C. Genuine because no one is allowed to his office when he is not around
D. Genuine, because the two signatures are exactly the same

349. What is one of the most valuable tools of the question document examiner which
supplements any visual examination of a document? (1000 stars)
A. Microscopy
B. Electrostatic detection apparatus
C. Hand magnifying
D. Video spectral comparator

350. What is the device that is used to reveal indentions or impressions in a document that is
unnoticed?
A. Electro-microscope
B. Microscope
C. Video spectral comparator
D. Electrostatic Detector apparatus

351. A specimen of writing which was executed without intention of changing the usual
writing habits. It is executed normally by the writer.
A. Natural writing
B. Guided writing
C. Disguised writing
D. Assisted writing

352. What is that interruption in a stroke, caused by sudden removal of the writing instrument
from the paper surface?
A. Pen emphasis --pen pressure + pen speed + Pen shading
B. Pen lift
C. Pen scope --lawak ng pagsulat
D. Pen position

353. It refers to the sudden increased in pressure or the intermittently forcing the pen against
the paper surface with an increase in speed.
A. Pen Pressure – average or usual pressure applied
B. Pen Shading
C. Pen Emphasis
D. Retouching

354. Is a light examination in which the source of illumination strikes the surface of the paper
from the back or at the bottom, usually designed in identification of water markings?
A. Direct Light
B. Oblique Light
C. Side Light
D. Transmitted Light

355. This is usually used for the detection of counterfeited bills but can actually be used to
detect security features of qualified document.
a. Infra-red viewer
b. Ultra-violet lamp
c. Shadowgraph
d. Transmitted Light Gadget

356. It is the usual or the normal force applied by a writer every time he executes a natural
writing.
A. Pen Pressure
B. Retracing
C. Pen Emphasis
D. Retouching

357. It is the process of making clear what is otherwise is illegible or that which is not visible
to the naked eye.
A. Restoration
B. Development
C. Decipherment
D. Examination

358. It refers to any form of changes either an addition or a deletion to the original content of a
document.
A. Erasure
B. Alteration
C. Addition
D. Substitution
359. What is an imaging device that allows an examiner to analyze inks , visualize security
features and reveals alteration on a document?
A. Electro-microscope
B. Microscope
C. Magnifying glass
D. Video spectral comparator

360. What is the basic for a positive comparison and handwriting analysis?
A. Class characteristics
B. Uniqueness of characteristics
C. Normal handwriting
D. One unique characteristic

361. What type of writers deliberately misspell words and commit errors?
A. Handicapped writers
B. Educated person
C. Illiterate person
D. Apprehensive writers

362. The most common method which a forger will use to disguise his handwriting is to
A. Change the direction of the slant
B. Write very rapidly
C. Write very slowly
D. Write larger than usual

363. What are abnormal or maladjustment in a typewriter which is reflected in its work and
lead to its identification?
A. Deficiency
B. Flaw
C. Defects
D. Weakness

364. What type of fraudulent SIGNATURE in which there is no apparent attempt imitation or
simulation?
A. Evidential
B. Spurious – simple
C. Altered
D. Forged

365. What characteristic is whether writing is inclined to left, right straight up or down or
combination of these, the degree of inclination exists? (1000 stars)
A. Pen lifts
B. Shading
C. Connection strokes
D. Slant

366. What FONT has short cross-strokes that project from the top and bottom of the main
stroke of letter?
A. Rebound
B. Serif
C. San-serif
D. Off its feet

367. A PNP applicant tried to manipulate his birth certificate to qualify him for acceptance in the
service, on his application form discrepancies in a form of some deletion and addition of
number. What will be the findings of this document?
A. Obliterated
B. Altered
C. Forged
D. Disputed

368. What do you call the cylinder that serves as the bucking of the paper which absorbs the
blow from the typeface? (1000 stars)
A. Off its feet
B. Platen
C. Shift
D. Rebound

369. In questioned documents, what kind of SIGNATURE is used by a forger tried to reproduce
without the knowledge of the owner of the signature for financial gain? (1000 stars)
A. Model
B. Actual
C. Real
D. Evidential

370. Which of these refers to the art of determining the character or disposition of person by
analyzing his handwriting?
A. Calligraphy
B. Graphology
C. Haplography
D. QD Examination

371. What is an identifying typewriter characteristic that can be eliminated by cleaning and
replacing the ribbon? (1000 stars)
A. Rebound
B. Serif
C. Transitory
D. Off its feet
372. It is a line whether imaginary or straight line in which the writing rest.
A. Slant
B. Baseline
C. Cursive Line
D. Rhythm

373. Refers to the design of letters which are fundamental to a writing system.
a. Copy book form
B. Line
C. System of Writing
D. Writing Movement

374. It is a type of standard document executed in the day to day activities and is being
produced in the regular course of man’s activity.
A. Notarized Document
B. Contemporary Document
C. Collected/Procured Document
D. Requested/Dictated Document

• Requested/Dictated Document (Post Litem Motam)- executed upon request

375. In this class of questioned documents, papers, inks, watermarks and the continuity of all
the writing in the document is being considered and scrutinized.
A. documents attacked on the question of their age and date
B. documents attacked on the question of materials in their production
C. holograph documents questioned or disputed
D. documents containing alleged fraudulent alterations

376. In the history of questioned document examination, who was the British examiner of
questioned document who said that an intelligent police investigator can detect almost 75% of
all forgeries by careful inspection of a document with simple magnifiers and measuring tools
was;
A. Al phonse Bertillion
B. Detective Allan Pinkerton
C. Dr. Wilson Harrison
D. Richard Henry

377. Contemporary handwriting standards means that the age of the standards should be
within?
A. 8 years from the date of the question document
B. 10 years prior to the date of the questioned document
C. 5 years prior to the date of the questioned document
D. 15 years prior to the date of the questioned document
378. What is the Latin word for “paper”
A. Cartouche (French)
B. Penna
C. Charta
D. Papyrus (Egyptian)

379. It is the combination of the basic shape and designs of letter and the writing instrument
which was taught in school.
a. Copy Book Form
b. System of Writing
C. Handwriting
D. Writing Movement

• Copy Book Form - illustration of the basic design of letters.

• Writing Movement - factors in connection to the motion of the pen.
• Handwriting - a visible effect of bodily movement.

380. It refers to any repeated elements of a person’s handwriting which serves as identifying
characteristics.
A. Handwriting
B. Significant Writing Habits – may keyword na unique
C. Writing
D. Writing Habits

Development of Writing
• Writing - visible result of a very complicated series of acts.
• Handwriting - visible effect of bodily movement that is unconsciously done.
• Writing Habits
• Significant Writing Habits- unique and well fixed and a concrete basis of individuality.

381. Mr. A, a Chief of the Intelligence Division of PNP, will sign a “Confidential” file as an
approval regarding the operation against the notorious drug syndicate in their locality. What
class of signature does Mr. A executed?
A. Formal or Complete
B. Informal or Cursory
C. Careless Scribble
D. Forgery

Classes of Signature
• Formal or Complete - for vital documents.
• Informal/Cursory - for daily or routine documents.
• Careless Scribble - not very important document.
382. A document becomes questioned documents when ____ or alterations, this usually affect
the original meaning of a document.
a. Forge
b. Fraudulent
c. Changes
d. Signature

383. Mr. Peter is a good writer in town. Many of his books were successfully published and were
being loved by his fans because of the trademark of Mr. Peter’s penmanship. If you are going to
examine the handwriting of Mr. Peter, what will be the right term for Mr. Peter’s trade mark of
penmanship?
A. Writing Maturity
B. Personal Legibility
C. Writing skill
D. Individual Characteristic

384. The rounded inner part of an upper curve, bend or crook of a letter.
A. Humps
B. Blunt
C. Arc
D. Beard

• Beard or Double Hitch - introductory up and down stroke.

• Humps- outer part of the upper curve.
• Blunt - abrupt beginning or end.

385. It is the body of the letter which is described as a small rounded or circular strokes.
a. Central Part
b. Buckle Knot
c. Ductus-link
d. Eyelet-eyeloop

• Buckle Knot - horizontal loop strokes to complete letters.

• Ductus-link - connection between letters.
• Eyelet - small oblong strokes.

386. It is an introductory backward strokes found in most capital letters.

A. Hiatus
B. Hitch
C. Knob
D. Loop

• Hiatus - obvious gap between letters.

• Knob - tiny pool of ink at beginning or end of letters.
• Loop - oblong strokes.

387. It is term as “the backbone of the letter” characterized by a long downward stroke.
A. Stem
B. Initial/terminal Spur
C. Through
D. Whirl

Note: Pag downward – Stem, Pag upward – Whirl

• Whirl - long upward stroke opposite the stem.
• Initial/terminal Stroke - long running initial or terminal stroke.
• Through - garland form of strokes.

388. One points that should be considered in QD examination is the familiarization of the shape
and design of individual letters of the source which was referred to as the:
A. Characteristics
B. Form
C. Individual characteristics
D. Rhythm

389. It is a type of writing movement which is usually found on a child who starts to learn how
to write or draw.
A. Hand Movement
B. Finger Movement
C. Forearm Movement
D. Whole Arm Movement

Types of Movement
• Finger - used by beginners and there is lack of freedom.
• Hand - limited freedom.
• Forearm - most skillful type of movement.
• Whole Arm - for ornamental or large writing.

390. PINSP. Dalisay is investigating a fraudulent handwriting having clear cut strokes and an
evident lack of freedom. This is an indication that:
a. The writer is using his fingers in writing
b. The has intentionally slowing his writing speed to disguise it
c. The writer has a very fine handwriting
d. All of these

391. In the recognition of handwriting characteristics, it offers ability of distinguishing

characteristics which are normal and disguised. What was being emphasized in the statement?
a. Examination
b. Distinguishing
c. Familiarization
d. Analysis

392. This are usually the result from contact with the other writings.
A. Folds and Creases
B. Blots
C. Perforation
D. Smears

393. In a conventional typewriter, it refers to the printing surface of the type block in which
each letter will be found.
A. Characters
B. Typeface
C. Alphabet
D. None of these

394. It is an abnormality in the type printing in which it refers to the actual damage to the
typeface metal.
A. Mal-Alignment
B. Permanent Defects
C. Typeface Defects
D. Transitory Defects

395. It is the identifying of similarities and dissimilarities, determination of likelihood of

occurrence, and weighing down of the significance of each factor.
A. Analysis
B. Comparison
C. Evaluation
D. All of these

396. In order to attain sound conclusions regarding the certain questioned document, the QD
examiner should collect all the desired standards from the person suspected or alleged to have
committed a certain act. How many exemplars should at least be collected if the issue is about
signatures.
A. 10
B. 11
C. 7
D. 25

397. In the course of your examination, you encountered a very important document to a
particular case, however said document allegedly contain erasures done mechanical abrasion
which resulted in the translucency of the document. Under the situation what best method can
be employed to detect such erasure?
A. Oblique light
B. Transmitted light
C. Ordinary light
D. Infrared viewer

398. A document completely written and signed by one person is known as _____.
A. Holograpic document
B. Questioned document
C. Standard document
D. None of the above

399. It serves as the focal points of all document examination and it is where the document
examiner relies as to the determination of the appropriate examination and the extent of the
problem involved.
A. Questioned document
B. Standard document
C. Private document
D. Commercial document

400. The combination of the basic designs of letter and the writing movement involved in the
writing?
A. Copy book form
B. System of writing
C. Erasure
D. Writing movement “Mobility”

401. The visible record of the written strokes resulting from a combination of various factors
associated to the motion of the pen? Is the overall quality of the strokes?
A. Obliteration
B. Writing habits
C. Line quality
D. Significant writing habits

402. What is that introductory up and down stroke found in almost all capital letters?
A. Hitch – introductory backward strokes
B. Humps – outer portion of an upper curve, bend or crook.
C. Beard – double hitch
D. Whirl – opposite the stem

403. Forged signature made by free hand movement and constant practice is called:
A. Traced forgery - drawing
B. Simple forgery
C. Simulated forgery - copied
D. spurious signature
404. A type of forgery which involves fraudulent signature executed by actually following the
outline of a genuine signature with a writing instrument?
A. Carbon outline process
B. Indention process
C. Projection or transmitted light process
D. Traced

405. It is one of the most expensive instruments used for examination of documents that
would show three dimensional enlargements?
A. Stereoscopic microscope
B. infrared gadget
C. ultraviolet light
D. Electrostatic Detection Apparatus

406. An illegible form of a writing which is characterized by partially visible depression

appearing underneath the original writing.
A. Invisible writing
B. Indented writing
C. Charred document
D. Contact writing

407. A type of abnormality/defects in typewriter that can easily be corrected by simply cleaning
the machine or replacing the ribbon?
A. Temporary defect - transitory
B. Clogged type face – dirty prints
C. Permanent defect
D. Actual breakage

408. It is a principle of polygraphy which says that a polygraph (refers to the machine) is
capable of making graphic record consisting of dependable information regarding the
physiological changes of the body.
A. Psychological Leg Basic Premise - happens in the central nervous system.
B. Physiological Leg Basic Premise - physiological changes after the following the stimulation of
the Central Nervous System.
C. Mechanical Leg Basic Premise
D. None of these

409. “Is this stained with blood pants yours?” is what type of question?
A. Irrelevant
B. Relevant
C. Conclusive
D. Control

410. “Have you been to USA” is what type of question?

A. Conclusive
B. Relevant
C. Control
D. Irrelevant

411. When the tracings of galvanometer is normal, what is the indication?

A. Increased heart rate
B. No increase or decrease of sweat production
C. No change in heart rate
D. Increase in muscle movement

412. The examiner noticed that the subject is NOT relax and sweating is profusely, what
component of the polygraph machine is being observed?
A. Pneumograph
B. Cardiograph
C. Kymograph
D. Galvanometer

413. When the tracings of the cardiograph is getting higher, what is the indication?
A. Increased sweat production
B. Low blood pressure
C. Increase heart rate
D. All of the above

414. American psychologist who constructed an instrument in 1926 which is capable of

continuously recording all the three phenomena-blood pressure, pulse and respiration s -
during the entire period of the test.
A. John A. Larson - 1921
B. Leonarde Keeler
C. John E. Reid
D. Marcelo Malpighi

415. One of this is a principal use of polygraph instrument;

A. Invaluable aid in investigation
B. To determine the facts of the case
C. To determine the guilt or innocence of the subject
D. A very good substitute of the investigation

416. When a decreased in the cardiograph shows what indication?

A. Pulse rate is high
B. Blood pressure is low
C. Increased muscle movement
D. Increased sweat production
417. When no increase or decrease in cardiograph tracings, what is the indication?
A. Pulse rate is high
B. Increased sweat production
C. Blood pressure is normal
D. Increased muscle movement

418. What is the normal emotional response induced by specific threat or danger which is
most of the time beyond one's defensive power?
A. Panic
B. Response
C. Confidence
D. Fear

419. "Did you ever hurt your wife” what type of question?
A. Conclusive
B. Control
C. Irrelevant
D. Relevant

420. The type of question designed to established normal response from the subject?
A. Relevant
B. Control
C. Irrelevant
D. Knowledge

421. What part or component of a polygraph machine that records the speed and force of the
chest when breathing while the subject is questioned?
A. Galvanometer
B. Cardiosphygmograph
C. Pneumograph
D. Kymograph

422. “Did you shoot Maru last night” is an example of what question?
A. Irrelevant Question
B. Relevant Question
C. Control Question
D. NOTA

423. What type of question when an investigator ask a suspect of rape "Are you left handed”?
A. Irrelevant
B. Relevant
C. Conclusive
D. Control
424. What is an unpleasant often strong emotion caused by anticipation or awareness of
danger when a subject subjected to polygraph examination?
A. Fear
B. Irritation
C. Panic
D. Nervousness

425. Which of the following is one among the major components of the polygraph?
A. Sphygmomanometer
B. Blood Pressure Cuff
C. Kymograph
D. Cardiospygmograph

426. What is the best desirable statement at the end of the interview?
A. “It’s been a pleasure talking with you”
B. “Our second interview is tomorrow at 10:00 AM. See you”
C. You were observed speaking to the victim last night. Why?”
D. Would you care to sign this statement?”

427. When the subject keeps on rocking his chair, what will be in the mind of the investigator
on the subject's reaction?
A. Fear
B. Nervousness
C. Irritation
D. Panic

428. “Is this muddy pair of rubber shoes yours?” is what type of question?
a. Irrelevant
b. Control
c. Relevant
d. Conclusive

429. Gun powder residue maybe determined by?

A. Takayama Test
B. Diphenylamine
C. Paraffin Test
D. Florence Test

430. IMPRESSIONS (sweat) are possible left in the door knobs of a case of robbery, what TEST
can be applied to determine the suspect?
A. Density gradient
B. DNA
C. Barberio's
D. Paraffin

431. As regards to the depth of the wound, when the wound involves only the layers of the
skin.
a. Superficial
b. Penetrating
c. Deep
d. Perforating

432. Effusion of blood into the tissue underneath the skin due to the rupture of blood vessels
as a result of the application of a blunt force.
a. Contusion
b. Shock
c. Hemorrhage
d. Hematoma

433. What is the first step to be done in a pre-test interview?

A. ask the subject regarding all information the circumstances surrounding the commission of
the crime
B. examiner tells the nature and characteristics of the polygraph examination to the subject
C. you are informed of your rights against self incrimination and your right to a counsel
D. facts of the case must be prepared prior to the questioning of the subject to monitor
response

Note: Basahan mo ng karapatang pangtao kasi pwede ka baliktarin

434. This is the longest and the second pen of the instrument.
A. Pneumograph (5-inch)
B. Galvanograph (7inch)
C. Cardiosphygmograph (5-inch)
D. Kymograph

435. What part of the polygraph instrument that drives the chart paper at six inches per
minute during the test?
A. Kymograph assembly
B. Electronic motor drive
C. Chart drive mini-motor
D. Reactograph drive motor

436. What is the most important thing to consider in a polygraph result?

A. the competence of the examiner
B. the knowledge of the examiner
C. the training of the examiner
D. the experience of the examiner
437. The primary purpose of pre-test interview.
A. Obtain confession
B. Prepare subject for polygraph test
C. Make the subject calm
D. Explain the polygraph test procedures

438. Prior to the examination the subject should have at least hours of sleep.
A. 5 hours
B. 12 hours
C. 2 hours
D. 3 hours

• 12 hours - should avoid taking drugs

• 2 hours - stop smoking

439. Under backster zone comparison test technique, color zones are applied in identifying so
many questions used during the test. If the color zone for irrelevant question is yellow, what
then is the color zone for strong relevant questions?
A. Red
B. Black (Symptomatic Questions)
C. Green
D. Orange

Color Zones in BZCT

Red - Strong Relevant
Yellow - Irrelevant/Sacrifice Q
Green - Probable lie/Comparison Q/Control Q
Black - Symptomatic/Outside Issues

440. “Were you in the place of the Mr. Fundador on the night of April 27, 2016?” is an example
of what question?
A. Relevant question
B. Irrelevant question
C. Weak relevant question
D. Strong relevant question

441. These are questions unrelated to the matter under investigation but are of similar nature.
A. Relevant Questions
B. Irrelevant Questions
C. Control Questions
D. Conclusive Questions

442. The deviation from normal tracing of the subject in the relevant question.
A. Reaction
B. Normal response
C. Positive response
D. Specific response

443. If polygraph tracing of a subject indicates that he is truthfu l, the examiners finding should
be:
A. Conclusive
B. Inconclusive
C. Negative
D. Positive

444. What test is given if a subject of interrogation is not yet informed of the details of the
offense for which he is being interrogated by the investigation, or by other persons or from
other sources like the print media?
A. Peak of Tension test
B. Control test
C. IQ Test
D. Guilt Complex Test

445. In a polygraph test, what test technique does the examiner used if he utilized padding
questions?
A. Peak of tension test
B. Stimulation test
C. General question test
D. Zone comparison test

• General Question Test - series of relevant and irrelevant question in a proper order.

446. It is a type of question in which it is designed to establish response from an innocent

subject.
A. Relevant Question
B. Control Question
C. General Question Test
D. Peak of Tension Test

447. The person who devises an instrument that can record changes of blood pressure, pulse
beat and respiration simultaneously which he called the “Bread board Lie Detector”.
A. Angelo Mosso – used fear as a sign of deception
B. John E. Reid – Silent Answer Test
C. John A. Larson
D. William M. Marston – Systolic BP – Discontinous Technique
448. In to be admitted in court as evidence, it must have a probable value to the case. Aside
from relevance what is the other basic requirement?
a. Authenticity
b. Size
c. Paper used
d. Color

449. Aside from being authentic, what other requirement for a photograph be admissible as
evidence?
a. Colorful
b. Correct size
c. Clear
d. Relevant

450. When should a polygraph examiner perform chart probing and determine the truthfulness
of the subject?
A. At the end of each polygraph test
B. During the onset of the polygraph examination
C. When the subject is relaxed
D. While questioning is on-going

451. A component of the polygraph machine which is designed to detect changes of electro
dermal response:
A. Kymograph
B. Cardiosphymograph
C. Galvanograph
D. Pneumograph

452. Which are performed and incorporated by probers as part of the standard procedures?
(1000 stars)
A. Accessory
B. General
C. Supplementary
D. Control

453. Which of the following methods is NOT used in detecting deception? (1000 stars)
A. Polygraphy
B. Hypnotism
C. Administer truth serum
D. Electro encephalogram

454. What refers to any activity aroused in an organism caused by stimulus, an action or
mental attitude induced by external influence? (1000 stars)
A. Response
B. Reaction
C. Panic
D. Fear

455. What is the PROCESS that measures the changes in conductivity produced in the skin due
to increase in the sweat glands?
A. Sub-motor nerve activity
B. Skin conductance level
C. Electrodermal activity
D. Activity sensor

456. A part of the pneumograph component which was attached to the body of the subject
with the usual length of 10 inches.
A. Beaded chain
B. Rubber convoluted tube
C. Finger electrode plate
D. Blood pressure cuff

457. An attachment of the cardiosphygmograph which placed above the brachial artery.
A. arm cuff – blood pressure cuff
B. infant cuff
C. Wrist cuff
D. hand cuff

458. A short horizontal line in a cardio tracing located at the middle of the diastolic stem?
A. Dicrotic
B. Diastolic - downward tracing
C. Diastotic
D. Systolic -upward tracing

459. Is the normal rate of pulse beat of an adult subject in a polygraph test?
A. 60 –65
B. 70 – 75
C. 6- 12
D. 13- 15

460. What should be the mark placed on a chart paper at the start of the test?
A. X/60/1.5 A
B. X/50/2.5 A
C. XX/60/1.5 A
D. XXX/60/2.5 A

461. A type of test designed to overly responsive subject, consisting of questions that are
purely fictitious incident of a similar nature to the one that is under investigation?
A. General question test
B. Symptomatic questions – outside issues
C. Guilt complex test – gawa gawang krimen
D. Silent answer test

462. What is the part of the cardio component which indicate the system in millimeters of
mercury?
A. Hydro Sphygmomanometer
B. Sphygmomanometer
C. Stethoscope
D. Microscope

463. “Between the ages of 20-28, have you ever taken anything not yours?” is an example of
_______ question.
A. Comparison question
B. Probable lie
C. Exclusive
D. Inclusive

464. This question introduces the relevant question to the subject.

A. Relevant question
B. Introductory question
C. Sacrifice relevant question
D. Symptomatic question

465. This is designed to ensure that the examiner will not ask un-reviewed questions or that
the examinee is not afraid that the examiner will ask un-reviewed questions.
A. Relevant question
B. Introductory question
C. Sacrifice relevant question
D. Symptomatic question

466. It is used to determine details of a crime that are not known to officials, such as the
location of an unrecovered body, but would be known to a participant in the crime.
A. Peak of Tension Test
B. Known Peak of Tension Test
C. Searching Peak of Tension test
D. Collected Peak of Tension test

467. A type of reliability in polygraph examination which pertains to an examiner’s agreement

with his own decisions.
A. Intra-rater agreement
B. Accuracy
C. Reliabilty
D. Interrater reliability – other opinion of examiner

468. A type of error that occurs when a test or analysis produces a positive result or incorrect
result when it should not have.
a. False negative – incorrect decision that deception was not practiced by the examinee
b. False positive
c. Negative
d. Inconclusive

469. Physiological abnormalities which would invalidate a polygraph test include the
following, except:
A. Psychopathy
B. Excessive high or low blood pressure
C. Heart diseases
D. Respiratory Disorder

470. The two typical fly in forensic entomology which usually arrive at the dead body scene
are
a. blow flies and cheeseflies
b. blowfly and fleshfly
c. fleshfly and skinfly
d. blowfly and skinfly

471. These are mixtures of chemicals that burn very rapidly, but sub sonically meaning that
they “deflagrate.” They consist typically of fuel and an oxidizer. The black powder used in
fireworks is one example of this.
a. High explosives
b. Low explosives - propellants
c. Bomb
d. Urea nitrate

472. There is flushing of the face, with exaggerated mood, but a person is able to control his
behavior. He shows no signs of mental impairment, incoordination of movement and difficulty
of speech.
a. Slight Inebriation - reddening of the face
b. Moderate Inebriation – over confident
c. Drunk – behavior is uncontrollable
d. Very Drunk, "Dead drunk"- Mind is disoriented

473. This reagent produces a blue flaky precipitate in the presence of cocaine. The test is not
reliable as many other drugs and diluents respond in the same manner.
a. Marquis Test
b. Dillie Koppanyi Test
c. Cobalt Thiocyanate Test – Tandaan ang Co para sa Cocaine
d. Duquenois-Levine Test

474. The clumping together of living cells as a result of a reaction between the cells and an
appropriate immune serum is called
a. agglutination
b. absorption
c. laceration
d. corrosion

475. Blood that is directed back toward its source of energy. It is often associated with gunshot
wounds of entrance.
a. front spatter
b. blood typing
c. cyanosis
d. back spatter

476. The rarest blood type among the ABO blood group.
a. A
b. O
c. AB
d. AB negative

477. Bluish discoloration of the skin and mucous membrane due to deficient oxygenation of
the blood; usually evident when reduced hemoglobin exceeds 5%. It is present in many heart
and respiratory conditions.
a. front spatter
b. blood typing
c. Cyanosis
d. back spatter

478. It is a colorless, transparent gas, sweetish taste and emitting an odor similar to a rotten
egg. The gas is soluble in water to form carbonic acid and it burns in the air with a pale blue
flame.
a. Carbon Monoxide
b. Carbon Dioxide
c. Hydrogen Sulfide – H2S
d. Hydrogen Cyanide

479. A standard for determining the reliability of scientific expert testimony in court currently
adopted by many jurisdictions. Five factors are utilized to assess the scientific theory or
technique testing of theory, use of standard and controls, peer review, error rate, and
acceptability in the relevant scientific community.
a. Miranda doctrine
b. Frye Test
c. Daubert Test
d. Medina vs PP

480. The most commonly used preliminary test for blood?

A. Guaiacum Test
B. Phenolphthalein
C. Benzidine Test
D. Leucomalachite

481. Which of the following METHODS in hair analysis is NOT included?

A. Benzidine
B. Dry Mount
C. Parallel Mounting
D. Wet Mount

482. Preliminary test in blood in a solution of 1 to 300,000 dilution is

A. Benzidine
B. Guaicum
C. Phenolphtalein
D. Leucomalachite

483. All of the following are accurate tests for the presence of alcohol in the human body
except one:
A. Saliva test
B. Harger Breath Test
C. Fecal tests
D. Blood test

484. This is a property possessed by various substances that glow when exposed to light of a
short wavelength. The phenomenon in which some substances absorb light and re-emit part of
it as light of a longer wavelength.
a. light
b. infrared
c. fluorescence
d. brightness

485. A method of choice for the detection of occult (usually not noticeable to the naked eye)
blood at a crime scene that was cleaned up or escaped detection for extended periods of time.
a. Barbero’s test
b. Benzidine test
c. Moulage
d. Luminol test – fluoresces bluish-violet
486. A class of fibers of vegetable (e.g., cotton, flax, ramie), animal origin (e.g., silk, wool, and
specially fur), or mineral origin (e.g., asbestos).
a. Artificial
b. Synthetic
c. Natural fibers
d. Any of these

487. This is a chemical reaction in which oxygen combines with another substance.
a. toxic
b. explosion
c. oxidation
d. combustion

488. An individual who, through their examination of evidence, characterizes and identifies
blood and body fluids.
a. Chemist
b. Biologist
d. Criminalist
d. Serologist

489. A test for marijuana in which positive result is shown by purple color in the chloroform
layer.
a. Marquis Test
b. Dillie Koppanyi Test
c. Van Urk Test
d. Duquenois- Levine Test

490. Persons with blood alcohol below ____ are not considered intoxicated.
a. 10%
b. 0.05%
c. 0.15%
d. 100%

491. This is the original chemical test for the detection of the spatial distribution of nitrates in
gunpowder residue.
a. Barberio’s test
b. Leuchomalachite test
c. Luminol test
d. Walker test

492. The study of the occurrence and distribution of disease among people.
a. Disorder
b. Bacteriology
c. Epidemiology
d. Biology

493. This reagent turns blue-purple in the presence of LSD. However, owing to the extremely
small quantities of LSD in illicit preparations, this test is difficult to conduct under field
conditions.
a. Marquis Test
b. Dillie Koppanyi Test
c. Van Urk Test
d. Duquenois- Levine Test

494. The specimen that is preferably used in the determination of abused drugs in the body is:
a. Blood
b. Spermatozoa
c. Saliva
d. Urine

495. Highly irritant substance that causes local distraction of tissues and characterized by
nausea, vomiting and great local distress.
a. Irritant poisons
b. Tetanic poisons
c. Corrosive poisons
d. Antidote

496. These are also called blasting agents. They are so insensitive to shock that they cannot be
reliably detonated.
a. Primary explosive
b. Secondary explosive
c. Tertiary explosive
d. Explosive

497. Condition resulting from insufficient intake of oxygen: symptoms include breathing
difficulty, impairment of senses, and, in extreme, convulsions, unconsciousness and death.
a. Death
b. Cardiac arrest
c. Asphyxia
d. Cyanosis

498. Post-mortem examination of the organs and body tissue to determine cause of death or
pathological condition.
a. Post-mortem examination
b. Autopsy
c. Opening
d. Examination
499. This is one of the byproducts of complete combustion of the gunpowder and other
elements with the propellant. It is light, almost black, and lack sufficient force to penetrate the
skin. It is merely deposited on the target and readily wiped off.
a. Tattooing
b. Powder burns
c. Smoke
d. Blood

500. This is a substance that causes evacuation of the intestinal contents.

a. Serum
b. Laxative
c. Antipyretic
d. Emetic

501. A substance that is chemically harmful to the cells of the kidney.

a. Infection
b. Antidote
c. Nephrotoxic
d. Venom

502. Watery proteinaceous portion of the blood that remains after clotting.
a. Plasma – Fluid or portion of blood where the cells are suspended.
b. Serum
c. saliva
d. semen

503. This is the metabolic conversion of a potentially toxic substance to a product that is more
toxic.
a. Toxification
b. Detoxification
c. Saponification
d. Palor mortis

504. For cocaine abusers, this is the feeling as if grains of sand are lying under the skin or small
insects (cocaine bugs) are creeping on the skin.
a. Insect syndrome
b. Hallucination
c. Agglutination
d. Magnan’s symptom

505. This refers to dizziness; an illusion of movement as if the external world were revolving
around an individual or as if the individual were revolving in space.
a. Vomiting
b. Vertigo
c. Dipsomania
d. Hemorrhage

506. There is prompt and marked disturbance of function or death within a short period of
time. It is due either by taking a strong poison in excessive single dose or several doses at short
interval.
a. Acute poisoning
b. Sub-acute poisoning
c. Chronic poisoning
d. Suicidal poisoning

507. Determines whether blood is a human or non-human origin, and if non-human, the
specific animal family from which it originated.
a. benzidine test
b. precipitin test
c. confirmatory test
d. preliminary test

508. A hallucinogenic drug, also considered a club drug, that is abused among juveniles and
young adults taking part in parties or ‘raves’. It is used as an animal anaesthetic, and the only
illicit source of the drug is through theft, mostly from veterinary clinics.
a. MDMA
b. Cannabis
c. LSD
d. Ketamine

509. A high explosive used commercially and in the military. The chemical name for the
compound is cyclotrimethylenetrinitramine, and it is also known as ‘cyclonite’ and ‘hexogen’.
a. Dynamite
b. Molotov cocktail
c. RDX
d. Grenade

510. It is a confirmation test used to detect blood spots. Based on the research results this test
can still be used to identify dried blood spots on clothing aged 20 years, and able to detect
positively the presence of blood with the formation of pink/ salmon- colored crystals.
a. Takayama test
b. Teichmann’s test
c. Barberio’s test
d. guaiacum test

511. How many percent is the NaNO3 composition of black powder?

a. 15
b. 20
c.75
d. 35

512. Balistite, axite and ambertite are example of?

A. Smokeless powder
B. Blackpowder
C. nitrate sulfate
D. All of the above

513. It refers to a rapid combustion, decomposition of gases and consequent/violent increase of

pressure, usually causing a loud report.
a. Explosive
b. Explosion
c. Detonation
d. Dynamite

514. How many percent is the sulfur composition of black powder?

a. 15
b. 10
c. 85
d. 95

515. A mercury fulminate is as example of what explosive?

A. Low
B. High
C. Primary
D. None

516. Red Blood Cells contains antigen or the so called?

a. Lanstenier
b. Agglutinogen
c. Precipition
d. Agglutination

517. Smokeless powder was first used in what year?

a. 1984
b. 1864
c. 1898
d. None of the above

518. What is the universal recipient of blood?

A. grouping A
B. grouping B
C. grouping O – universal donor
D. grouping AB

519. The most sensitive method of determining differences of composition in glass samples
depends upon the study of?
A. Chemical
B. X-ray difraction
C. Physical properties of Glass
D. Durability

520. This refers to analysis of glass in which it is done through the determination of its pattern
and composition.
a. X-ray diffraction Analysis
b. Spectographic Analysis
c. Physical activities.
d. None of the above

521. This refers to analysis of glass in which the effectiveness lies on the trace elements, this is
done by analyzing two sample of glass whether it is common.
a. X-ray diffraction Analysis
b. Spectographic Analysis
c. Physical activities
d. None of the above

522. Extensive studies have been made to glass establish the relationship between refractive
index and?
a. Polish Mask
b. Spectographic
c. Glass
d. Composition

523. An average man has _____ amount of blood.

a. 6 meters
b. 6 quartz
c. 5 gallon
d. 1 drum

524. This test for blood may be made by the policeman on the crime scene.
a. Preliminary test
b. Secondary Test
c. Teichman Test
d. Drug Test

525. This type of test is very delicate and never fails to detect blood.
a. Preliminary test
b. Benzidine Test
c. Nakayama test
d. Teichman Test

526. Phenolphtalein test is also known as?

A. Kastle-meyer test
B. Nakayama test
C. Drug test
D. Sugar test

527. This examination for blood is the most dilicate and reliable test for determining the
presence of blood in both old and recent stains.
a. Microscopic test
b. Spectroscopic test
c. Microchemical test
d. Teichman

528. It refers to the clear liquid of blood that separates when the blood is allowed to clot.
a. Cells
b. Serum – where the cells are suspended
c. WBC
d. Platelets

529. Blood is red in color due to the presence of?

a. Bacteria
b. Serum
c. Hemoglobin
d. Platelets – prevent and stop bleeding

530. The crowning glory a woman is her hair. What is the coloring pigment of the hair?
a. Pheomelanin
b. Nueromelanin
c. Eumelanin
d. Melanin

531. 55% of blood of human is composed of?

a. Plasma
b. Serum
c. Cells – 45%
d. RBC

532. 90% of plasma is composed of?

a. Serum
b. Water
c. Platelets
d. Solid – 10%

533. This test determine the protein content of the blood.

a. Haemin Test
b. Spectroscopic test
c. Precipitin test
d. Teichman

534. Color of blood when exposed to the atmosphere.

a. Red
b. Clay
c. Reddish-brown
d. Black

535. Is the amount of blood found in the crime scene can determine the length of time that the
victim survived the attack?
A. Yes, because when person is dead blood pressure falls to zero and bleeding ceases
B. No, it depends on the wound of the victim
C. It depends upon the situation
D. All of the above

536. The following are the importance of the study of blood except,
a. For disputed parentage
b. As circumstantial
c. As conclusive evidence – cannot disputed
d. As corroborative evidence

537. This kind of projected bloodstain pattern is usually caused by blood from an internal injury
mixing with air from the lungs being expelled through the nose, mouth or an injury to the
airways or lungs. Expirated spatter tends to form a very fine mist due to the pressure exerted by
the lungs moving air out of the body. Small air bubbles in the drops of blood are typically found
in this type of spatter.
A. Expirated spatter
B. Arterial Spurt
C. cast-off
D. gunshot spatter

538. What is the type of bloodspatter wherein the blood of the victim is ejected from the exit
wound and travels in the same direction as the bullet?
a. forward spatter
b. backspatter
c. bleeding
d. everted
539. This refers to the spurt of blood released when a major artery is severed. The blood is
propelled out of the breached blood vessel by the pumping of the heart and often forms an
arcing pattern consisting of large, individual stains, with a new pattern created for each time the
heart pumps
A. Expirated spatter
C. Cast-off
B. Arterial Spurt
D. Gunshot spatter

540. Who is the father of bloodstain patter analysis?

A. Leon lattes
B. Herbert Leonne MacDonnel
C. Rudolf Virchow
D. Victor balthazard

541. Which of the following is the race determinant part of the hair?
a. Medulla
b. Cortex
c. Cuticle
d. none of these

542. Is the relationship between the diameter of the medulla and the diameter of the whole
hair? Its determination is performed under a microscope with micrometer eyepiece.
A. medullary index
B. medullar radius
C. medullary ratio
D. none of these

543. Fiber is the smallest textile. There are two divisions of fiber these are?
a. Animal and Plant
b. Human and Plant
c. Animal and Human
d. Artificial and Natural

544. Rate of growth of human hair.

a. 0.4 to 0.5 mm./day
b. 0.5 to 0.6 mm./day
c. 0.6 to 0.6 mm./day
d. 0.7 to 0.8 mm./day

545. The cuticle of the animal hair is:

A. Rounded
B. Serrated
C. Oblong
D. Circular

546. The human hair normally will turn gray at the age of ____ due to decreasing of supply of
melanin to hair.
a. 20 years old
b. 40 years old
c. 30 years’ old
d. 50 years’ old

547. It is a biological test for blood?

A. Benzidine test
B. Blood grouping/typing
C. Takayama test
D. Precipitin test

548. Police Capt. X conducts a test that will possibly identify blood or determines whether the
blood stains really contained blood. This test is called
a. Precipitin test
b. Confirmatory test
c. Blood grouping test
d. Preliminary test

549. ___ was the 1st poison for which the analytical test called a Marsh test was developed by
british chemist James Marsh.
a. Arsenic
b. Atropine
c. Acetic Acid
d. acetone

550. A German Swiss physician/alchemist who 1st stress the chemical nature of poison and its
experimentation. He introduced the dose concept.
a. Orfila
b. Paracelsus
c. Hippocrates
d. Swartz

551. A posion found in a rugby and has been described as a colorless and inflammable liquid
that burns with smoky flame
a. Toulene
b. Quinine
c. Protamaine
d. Picrotoxin
552. In what mode of administration that poison can be absorbed rapidly?
a. Oral
b. Anal
c. Inhalation
d. Injection

553. A person who fired a gun would be positively identified when DPA solution is used and the
visible result is
a. Blue specs with tailing
b. Bluish florescence
c. Green specs
d. Orange spec

554. A branch of science that treats of the form and quantity of medicine to be administered
within a certain period
a. Toxicology
b. Serology
c. Biology
d. Posology

555. What color of crystals is produced if the result in barberio’s test is positive?
a. Blue
b. Purple
c. Yellow
d. Red

556. The following are the chemical examination for semen and seminal stain, except.
a. Florence test
b. Acid phosphatase test
c. Barberio’s test
d. Benzidine test

557. What part of the hair can DNA be best found?

A. Shaft
B. Tip
C. Root
D. Cuticle

558. Which of the following test for blood the can give dark brown rhombic crystals of haemin?
a. Teichmann test
b. Leucomalachite green test
c. Luminol test
d. Benzidine test
559. In the crime scene investigation, the blood collected from the scene should be preserved
by what chemical?
a. Sodium Chloride
b. Sodium Bromide
c. Sodium Fluoride
d. Sodium Thiopenthotal

560. The center core of a strand of the hair, which form the bulk of the fiber.
A. Cuticle - outermost
B. Medulla
C. Cortex – intermediate and thickest layer
D. Anagen

561. What is known as the reproduction of an impression made on soft surface by utilizing
casting materials
A. Dry fusion
B. Metallic aides
C. Moulage
D. Plaster of paris

562. The chemical substance found in all cells whose composition have been passed on from
parents to their children.
A. RNA
B. Genotype
C. DNA
D. Phenotype

563. Any material which can be changed from plastic or liquid state to solid condition.
a. Casting material
b. Imprint
c. Moulage
d. Impression

564. A branch of science which treats of poison, their origin, physical and chemical properties,
physiological action, treatment of their harmful effect, and methods of detection.
a. Poison
b. Chemistry
c. Toxicology
d. Serology

565. It is the white mineral obtained from sedimentary rock.

a. Quartz
b. Dolomite
c. Calcite
d. Feldspar

566. The art of extracting and working on metals by the application of chemical and physical
knowledge.
a. Metallography
b. Etching
c. Metallurgy
d. Petrography

567. The complex chemical in the chromosomes by which heredity characteristics are
transmitted.
a. Chromosomes
b. Gene
c. Gamete
d. Alleles

568. This blood contains a high number of deodorleins bacillus, it does not clot and has acidic
reactions.
a. Arterial blood
b. Venous blood
c. Menstrual blood
d. Human blood

569. Dark red in color, with low oxygen content and usually does not spill far from the wound.
a. Arterial blood
b. Venous blood
c. Menstrual blood
d. Human blood

570. DNA, is found in all nucleated cells of the body, it is regarded as the fingerprint of life.
What does it stands for?
a. Deonatural acid
b. Dynamic natural anti-body
c. Deoxyribonucleic acid
d. Deoxyribunucliec acid

571. Actions of poison wherein the disturbance produced in distinct places a way from the site
of application.
a. Local
b. Remote
c. Combined
d. Nota

572. Body fluids routinely tested because they are good sources of cells.
a. Saliva and tears
c. Urine and semen
b. Semen and saliva
d. Semen and blood

573. In moulage casting of impression, the most ideal substance added to plaster to Paris to
harden faster is
A. Calcium Carbonate
B. Sodium Chloride
C. Sodium hydroxide
D. Hydrochloric acid

574. The confirmatory test for the presence of blood in an alleged bloodstain specimen is
A. Phenolphthalein
B. Takayama
C. Benzidine
D. Luminal

575. Methamphetamine is a secondary amine substance, therefore it will respond to

A. Marquis test
B. Fast blue salt test
C. Simon’s test – S for Shabu
D. Ruybals’s test

576. Process of eliminating poison by causing production of Sweat.

a. SUDORIFICS - Sweat may first letter S
b. DIURETICS – Urine (Hint: Ure)
c. EMETIC – vomiting (Mit katunog) sa met
d. Cathartic – intestinal evacuation, tinatae (Hint:arti)

577. Protein found in human hair is referred to as

a. Fibrinogen
b. Keratin
c. Choline
d. Lecithin

578. Tools marks which are produced by a single application of the tool in one area of contact
is called
A. Striation marks
B. Compression marks
C. Friction marks
D. None of these
579. Forensic evidence usually overlooked by the investigators in the scene of the crime
known as matters in the wrong place is:
A. Flammable substance Impressions
B. Smoke
C. Neither
D. dust and dirt

580. Is brown and is used for backing and strengthening the hominid.
a. Degocoll
b. Hominit
c. Celerit
d. NOTA

581. Refers to any agent that neutralizes poison and its effects
A. Emetics
B. Antidotes
C. Antibiotics
D. Alkaloids

582. The amount of blood alcohol considered dangerous to life is –

A. 5.0%
B. 0.15%
C. 2.5%
D. 0.05%

583. Poisons are more absorbed rapidly through the body when in the form of -
A. Liquid
B. Aerosol
C. Solid state
D. Gaseous

584. Gaseous poison which emanates from the incomplete combustion of fuels causes death
on the victim by preventing the normal transportation and supply of oxygen to the cells forming
Carboxyhemoglobin,
A. Carbon Dioxide
B. Carbon Monoxide
C. Sulfur Dioxide
D. Ammonia

585. Antidote for Arsenic Poisoning.

a. Thiamine
b. Pyridoxine
c. Succimer
d. Fabahistine
586. A violent volatile poison producing an almond odor in vomit’s of the victim.
a. Plasma
b. Cyanide
c. Sulfur
d. Lead

587. The morphological constituents of human hair.

a. Medulla, Cortex, Cuticle
b. Root, Shaft, Tip
c. Anagen, Catagen, Telogen
d. Refracting index, Birefringence, Density

588. Human hair has medullary index of less than ________, and animal hair has a medullary
index of greater than _________.
a. 0.1, 0.2
b. 0.2, 0.3
c. 0.3, 0.5
d. 0.5, 0.7

589. DNA is a chemical substance found in all cells and individuals has a unique DNA and only
________ share the same DNA pattern.
a. Mother and child
b. Father and child
c. Mother and father
d. Identical twin

590. Which among the following exhibits bluish fluorescence when exposed to ultra violet
light?
A. Urine
B. Semen
C. Saliva
D. Blood

591. Poisons which produce stupor and less feeling.

A. Narcotics
B. Irritants
C. Depressants
D. Stimulants

592. Also known as the Chemistry Law enacted on June 18, 1954.
a. RA 754
b. RA 745
c. RA 775
d. RA 547

593. The following are the golden rules in the practice of chemistry except;
a. Go slowly
b. Be thorough
c. Take notes
d. NOTA

594. A French criminologist, the father of modern forensics and he established the world’s first
crime laboratory in Lyons, France (1910)
a. Cesare Lombroso
b. Hans Gross
c. Edmond Locard
d. Alphonse Bertillon

595. If the body is found in water, the fleas may be found in the woolen clothings, If the fleas
still could move, then the body has been in water for a period of?
a. more than 24 hrs - if flea is dead
b. 2 hrs
c. less than 24 hrs
d. none of the above

596. It is a color brown superficial veins during the process of decomposition that develops on
both flanks of abdomen, root of the neck and shoulders.
a. Marbolization – interlacing discoloration
b. Saponification- adipocere
c. Rigor Mortis
d. Maceration - fetus

597. A discoloration of the body after death when the blood tends to pool in the blood vessels
of the most dependent portions of the body and starts 20 to 30 minutes after death and is
completed by 12 hours.
a. Livor mortes
b. Edgar mortes
c. Livor mortis
d. Regor mortis

598. Ordinarily, the color of post-mortem lividity is dull-red or pink or purplish in color, but in
death due to carbon monoxide poisoning, it is?
a. Bright red
b. Bright pink
c. Brown
d. Sky-blue
599. A type of lividity wherein the blood merely gravitates into the most dependent portions of
the body but still inside the blood vessels and still fluid in form and any change of position of
the body leads to the formation of the lividity in another place
a. Post mortem livor
b. Pugilistic attitude
c. Hypostatic lividity
d. Diffusion lividity - blood has coagulated inside the blood vessels or has diffused into the
tissues of the body

600. The rise of temperature of the body after death due to rapid and early putrefactive
changes or some internal changes.
a. Ante-Mortem
b. Post-Mortem Caloricity – 2 hours after death
c. Post-Mortem Flaccidity
d. Rigor Mortis

601. This test is used to determine the presence of nitrates, or whether a person has fired a
gun or not.
a. Paraffin test
b. Walker’s test - for gunshot residue on clothing
c. Ignition test
d. Van urk test

602. The scope of forensic chemistry includes the following, except:

a. It includes the legal side of criminal investigation.
b. It includes the analysis of any material, the quality of which may give rise to legal proceeding.
c. It is not limited to purely chemical questions involved in legal proceedings.
d. It has invaded other branches of forensic sciences notably legal medicine, ballistics,
questioned documents, dactyloscopy, and photography.

603. Below are the roles of the forensic chemist in the scientific criminal investigation, except:
a. Determining whether or not a place/ location is a clandestine laboratory.
b. Examination of marked bills/ suspects during entrapment (extortion case)
c. Taking paraffin test.
d. Filing the case in court.

604. The following are the four stages of work of a forensic chemist, except:
a. Collection or reception of the specimen or evidence to be examined
b. The actual examination of the specimen
c. Communication of results of the examinations
d. Deciding the outcome of the examinations
605. This scientific equipment is used for the qualitative and quantitative determination of a
volatile or non-volatile compound based on the chromatographic separation of its
components.
a. Enzyme multiple immuno assay technique
b. High powered liquid chromatography
c. Fourier transform infrared spectroscopy
d. Scanning electron microscope

606.Equipment used for screening of abused urine samples.

a. Enzyme multiple immuno assay technique
b. Fourier transform infrared spectroscopy
c. Ultra violet spectrophotometer
d. High powered liquid chromatography

607. This test includes a series of color tests producing characteristic color for each family or
group of drugs.
a. Screening test
b. Conclusive test
c. Confirmatory test - to validate the screening test
d. Characteristics test

608. Characteristic of glass is that when it breaks, the fracture edges appear shell like in form -
that is, having elevations or depressions in the shape of a shell
a. Conchoidal fractures
b. Radial cracks
c. Concentric cracks
d. Concentrum cracks

609. When there are two bullet holes in the window, one from each side, the problem of
which one was first becomes important to determine who the aggressor is. The sequence of
impacts can be determined since crack propagation is:
a. Stopped by later cracks
b. Stopped by earlier cracks
c. Stopped by future cracks
d. All of the above

610. When there is heavy flaking or chippings on the left side of the glass it indicates that:
a. shooter’s position angle from the right
b. shooter’s position angle from the left
c. shooter’s position perpendicular shot
d. 90 degrees angle shot

611. Factors that determines the age of the fracture of the glass in which there is presence of a
short extension lines at the end of the radial fracture.
a. Fresh fracture - exhibits a regular pattern of radial/concentric fracture
b. Old fracture
c. Future fracture
d. Concentric fracture

612. A funnel-shaped area of damage caused by a high velocity impact produced when an
object passes through a solid, such as a bullet through glass.
a. Concentric fractures
b. Radial fractures
c. Conchoidal cracks
d. Hertzian cone/ crater

613. A type of poison one that increases suddenly in its intensity of action after gradual
additions of it.
a. Corrosive poison - destruction when in contact
b. True poison - still poison no matter how diluted it is
c. Cumulative poison
d. Acute poison

614. Substances or agents that produces vomiting.

a. diuretics
b. emetics – katunog ang emit sa vomit
c. demulcent – relieve inflammation or irritation
d. non-volatile poison

615. A type of mechanical antidotes which are capable of forming a protective coating on the
gastric mucous membrane thus preventing the damage caused by the poisons.
a. Charcoal - activated charcoal- delaying absorption of poison in stomach
b. Diuretics - increased flow of urine
c. Sudorifics - increased the sweating
d. Demulcents - fatty products, eggs, milk, oil

616. Are agents that makes the poison harmless by chemically altering it , it inhibits the action
of poison by forming harmless or insoluble compounds or by oxidizing poison when brought
into contact with them.
a. Physical Antidotes
b. Mechanical antidotes
c. Chemical Antidotes
d. Physiological antidotes

617. The intermediate and the thickest layer of the hair and is composed of elongated, spindle-
shaped fibrils which cohere. They contain pigment granules in varying proportion depending on
the type of hair.
a. melanin
b. cortex
c. core
d. cuticle

618. The fluid portion of the blood where the cells are suspended.
a. Leukocytes – White Blood Cells
b. Plasma
c. Erythrocytes – Red Blood Cells
d. Thrombocytes – Blood Platelets

619. Functions to transport oxygen from the lungs to the body tissues and in turn remove
carbon dioxide from tissues/organ and transporting it out to the body through lungs.
a. Leukocytes/ white blood cells - destroys harmful microorganism, fight infections
b. Plasma - cells are suspended
c. Erythrocytes
d. Thrombocytes - prevents/stops bleeding

620. Functions to transport oxygen from the lungs to the body tissues and in turn remove
carbon dioxide from tissues/organ and transporting it out to the body through lungs.
a. Leukocytes/ white blood cells - destroys harmful microorganism, fight infections
b. Plasma- cells are suspended
c. Erythrocytes
d. Thrombocytes- prevents/stops bleeding

621. This preliminary blood test will result to a blue color.

a. Precipitin Test
b. Guaiacum Test
c. Takayama Test
d. Teichman Test

622. A physical preliminary examination of blood wherein stains on dark fabric mixed with
mud, paint, etc. emit bluish white in a darkroom by spraying some solutions.
a. Heat test
b. Solubility test
c. Luminescence test
d. Benzidine test

623. The following are Legal Importance of the Study of Blood, except?
a. As direct or conclusive evidence against the accused
b. Determination of the approximate time the crime was committed
c. Determination of the presence of certain diseases
d. Determination of the cause of death
624. As a chemical examination of blood, what color for positivity may arise if blood is examined
in Kastle Meyer test?
a. blue-indigo
b. pink or rose color
c. bluish green or peacock-blue
d. bluish white

625. Confirmatory blood test which gives dark brown rhombic prisms of chloride of hematin
are formed. This is considered as the best of the micro-chemical test.
a. Takayama test
b. Teichmann’s test
c. Wagenhaar test
d. Precipitin test

626. This examination depends on the principle that blood pigments have the power to absorb
light of certain wave length and produce certain characteristic absorption bands on the
spectrum.
a. Precipitin test
b. Biologic examinations
c. Micro-chemical tests
d. Spectroscopic examinations

627. In this method of color test for accelerants, the accelerants are allowed to evaporate and
vapors reacted with this chemical until pink color of solution which indicates presence of such
accelerant.
a. Gas chromatography
b. Sudan black
c. Benzidine test
d. Precipitin test

628. This is a test to determine whether the semen is of human origin or not.
a. Precipitin test
b. Spermato-precipitin
c. benzidine test
d. Takayama test

629. Mr. A has been found to have low sperm count. His condition is known as:
a. Aspermia – no spermatozoa
b. Oligospermia
c. Impotency
d. all of the above

630. What method of scientific analysis can be used in examining cigarette butts with
lipsticks?
a. Ultra-violet
b. fluorescence
c. cosmic rays
d. infra-red

631. Rapid combustion, end charred and break sharply; smell of burning wood; vapor turns
blue litmus to red. What type of fiber is this?
a. vegetable fibers - blue litmus to red
b. animal fibers
c. hair of human
d. none of these

632. Chemical substance used as reagent or solvent in the illegal manufacture of controlled
substances.
a. immediate precursors
b. essential chemicals
c. controlled drugs
d. regulated drugs

633. SPO3 Gardo Dalisay is a forensic expert. He is conducting examination. This will make him
confident that in case of doubtful result, he can still have enough samples to repeat or to
proceed to the succeeding examinations.
a. sufficiency of samples
b. standard of comparison
c. maintenance of individuality
d. labelling and sealing

634. A specimen containing either substance that is not a normal constituent for that type of
specimen or containing an endogenous substance at a concentration that is not a normal
physiological concentration.
a. Diluted specimen - less than normal physiological constituents
b. Adulterated specimen
c. Substituted specimen - switching or replacement of the original sample.
d. Tampered specimen

635. The following are the ways to Adulterate urine samples, EXCEPT:
a. Addition of salt
b. addition of water – diluted
c. addition of juice
d. addition of detergent

636. What derivative of opium which is five times more powerful than morphine.
a. Heroin
b. Codeine
c. Iodine
d. Caffeine

637. When a criminal fires a gun, what is thrown everywhere?

a. Evidence
b. fingerprints and DNA
c. bullets and cartridge cases
d. firearm

638. What is the technical name for the small pressure receptor charge in a cartridge case?
a. primer
b. remote control
c. gunpowder
d. firing pin

639. Hair is a part of what system of the body?

a. Internal system
b. External System
c. Integumentary system
d. Extegumentary system

640. When the basic ingredient is only nitrocellulose?

a. single based
b. double based
c. triple based
d. RDX

641. How many hours does the stomach completely digest a medium meal?
A. 2-3 hours
B. 3-4 hours
C. 5-6 hours
D. 1 hour

642. Characteristic of post-mortem symptom of carbon monoxide poisoning is a –

A. Vary texture and appearance of the skin
B. Contorted position of the body
C. Pinkish lividity of all part of the body
D. Marked protuberance of the eyeballs

643. It is the death of individual cells that usually occurs at about___.

a. 12-24 hours
b. 3-6 hours
c. 12 hours maximum
d. 1-2 hours
644. The different test to determine peripheral circulation are the following, except
a. Magnus test
b. Diaphanous test
c. Icard’s test
d. Winslow’s test

645. This is a branch of geology that deals with the systematic classification and identification
of rocks, rock forming minerals and soil. Also includes study of dust, dirt, safe insulation,
ceramics and other such materials, both natural and artificial.
a. petrography
b. dactyloscopy
c. metallurgy
d. none of the above

646. This kind of explosive is extremely sensitive to detonation by heat, shock, friction and
impact. It detonates without burning, like lead azide and mercury fulminate. This is used
primarily to start an explosion.
a. High explosives
b. Low explosives
c. Primary and initiating explosive
d. Inorganic explosives

647. Process of decomposition of material to simpler compounds brought about by heat from
fire.
a. pyromaniac
b. pyrolysis
c. flame
d. non-luminous flame

648. Under this process, if human red cells is mixed with its own serum or the serum of a similar
group, the cells remain even. If the cells are mixed with the serum of another group, cell
clumps.
a. Putrefaction
b. Deviation
c. Agglutination
d. Precipition

649. These are properties or “principles” contained in the serum which cause agglutination or
clumping together of the red blood cells.
a. agglutinogen - antigen- produces antibody
b. antibody - agglutinin
c. blood cells
d. DNA
650. If no rust formation can be detected inside the barrel of the gun, this indicates that
a. firearm has been fired
b. firearms has not been fired
c. firearm has been uncleaned
d. firearm has cleaned

651. In liquid form of blood collected in body of the person, aa is used in tubes. What does
EDTA means
a. etheylenedichrotetra acid
b. etheylenedismorphinetetra acid
c. etheylenediaminetriacetic acid
d. etheylenediaminetetraacetic acid - prevent blood from clotting

652. How many percent is the KNO3 composition of black powder?

a. 25
b. 10
c. 85
d. 75

653. It is a branch of chemistry which deals with the application of chemical principles in the
solution of problems that arise in connection with the administration of justice.
A. Legal Medicine
B. Forensic Chemistry
C. Analytical Chemistry
D. Chemistry

654. He is considered as the Father of Forensic Chemistry in which he is credited to have

authored the book
A. Imhotep
B. Mathieu Orfila
C. Anacleto Del Rosario
D. Paulus Zacchias

655. Mr. X, a forensic chemist, after thorough examination on the physical evidence, the
forensic chemist submitted the technical report to the assigned investigator. At what stage of
work of forensic chemistry best fits the scenario above?
A. Collection or Reception of Evidence
B. Actual Examination of Specimen
C. Communication of results of the Examinations
D. Court Appearance
656. As a forensic chemist, it is also relevant to seek advice from someone with years of
experience in the field of forensic chemistry. What golden rule in the practice of forensic
chemistry best describes the statement?
A. Take note and consult others
B. Be Thorough
C. Avoid Complicated theories
D. Use Imagination

657. In the application of chemistry in the solution of crime, it must be taken into consideration
the accuracy of the result reported using appropriate tools and substances in the analysis of
physical evidence ensuring that all findings will be presented in the court of law. What golden
rule in the practice of forensic chemistry best describes the statement?
A. Take note and consult others
B. Be Thorough
C. Avoid Complicated theories
D. Go slowly

658. In the application of chemistry in the solution of crime, it must be taken into consideration
to make a careful and minute examination of physical evidence and do not be satisfied with a
qualitative analysis. What golden rule in the practice of forensic chemistry best describes the
statement?
A. Take note and consult others
B. Be Thorough
C. Avoid Complicated theories
D. Go slowly

659. It pertains to the sample being analyzed having an unknown identity.

A. Questioned Sample
B. Evidence
C. Scientific Method
D. Knowledge Sample

660. In the scientific examination of physical evidence, those evidence collected from the crime
scene and brought to the crime laboratory are called questioned samples. Which of the
following example best describes a questioned sample?
A. A test bullet recovered from the firearm of the lead suspect
B. Standard signature from the Complainant
C. Fired Bullet embedded in the body of the corpse
D. Hair Sample from the nearest kin

661. It is an Act to Further Strengthen the Anti-Drug Campaign of the Government, Amending
for purpose Section 21 of Republic Act No. 9165.
A. Republic Act No. 10640
B. Republic Act No. 7624
C. Republic Act No. 9165
D. Republic Act No. 6425

662. Which of the following is NOT the important factors to follow when collecting evidence?
A. Allow swabs to dry thoroughly and dry with cold air only
B. Label each specimen collected with the information such as date, place, and circumstances of
collection
C. All specimen must be packed in a sealed plastic bag
D. Swabs must be used in collecting biological evidence such as buccal, oral, skin, and rectal
fluids

663. In the processing of crime scene, appropriate and immediate response in the collection
and reception of the physical evidence is crucial since fragile evidence deteriorates in the
passage of time. What principle used in forensic chemistry best describes the statement?
A. Law of Individuality
B. Law of Progressive Change
C. Law of Probability
D. Law of Comparison

664. Mr. and Mrs. Iniyot claimed that a 2-year old baby named Cutie Baby is their lost child after
an unexpected earthquake happened in a hospital to where the child was delivered. Mr. A, a
DNA analyst, examine the hair sample of Cutie Baby with that of Mr. and Mrs. Iniyot. The result
of the DNA test renders positive result with a 99.9% probability of paternity and maternity.
What characteristics of tools and techniques does DNA shows in the scenario?
A. Sensitivity
B. Rapidity
C. Exactness
D. Specificity

665. It is a technique used in materials to determine the crystallographic structure of material

commonly used in the examination of amorphous substance in drugs, explosive powder,
residues from arson and textile fibers.
A. Spectrograph
B. X-ray diffraction
C. Chromatography
D. Atomic Absorption Spectrometry

666. It is a classification of explosives in which the mixtures of chemicals burn rapidly but
subsonic.
A. Low Explosive
B. High Explosive
C. Mechanical Explosive
D. Chemical Explosive
667. It is a test used to determine the presence of lead residues left by the bullet in an item of
evidence particularly around the bullet hole.
A. Diphenylamine Test
B. Paraffin Test
C. Griess Test
D. Sodium Rhodizonate Test

668. It is a slightly alkaline fluid made up of water, cells enzymes, proteins and inorganic
substances that circulate throughout the vascular system carrying nourishment, transporting
oxygen and waste.
A. Semen
B. Blood
C. Urine
D. Saliva

669. How many glasses of blood are there in the average human body?
A. 5-10
B. 12-14
C. 10-12
D. 16-18

670. One of the characteristics of blood is its viscosity. According to study, how many times is
the thickness of blood than water?
A. 10x
B. 7x
C. 5x
D. 11x

671. It is the fluid portion of the blood composed principally of water and other constituents
such as proteins, enzyme, nutrients, and glucose.
A. Plasma
B. Serum
C. Fibrin
D. Fibrinogen

672. It is a medical condition in which the number of RBC or the amount of hemoglobin are
low due to excessive bleeding
A. Leukemia
B. Auto-Immune Disease
C. Anemia
D. Vaginismus

673. It is a test conducted in a suspected blood at the crime scene to determine the possibility
of the presence of blood. This test is also known as color test.
A. Confirmatory Test
B. Presumptive Test
C. Precipitin Test
D. RBO Grouping

674. It is known as phenolphthalein test?

A. Kastle-Mayer Test
B. Leucomalachite Green Test
C. Van Deer’s Test
D. Guaiacum Test

675. It is a confirmatory test for the presence of blood with a micro-chemical characteristics of
a large rhombic crystals with salmon color due to detection of hemoglobin in the sample.
A. Acetone Haemin test
B. Teichmann Test
C. Takayama Test
D. Electrophoresis

676. Precipitin test is one of the vital examinations applied in the determination of blood
whether it is of human or animal origin. Which of the following results of precipitin test
indicates that the blood specimen is of human origin once injected by animal serum?
A. Production of visible bright, blue-colored specks around the skin surface
B. Development of white cloudy precipitate at the middle of the specimen
C. Appearance of microcrystalline dark brown rhombic prisms of chloride
D. Development of yellow tint stain

677. According to Peter Adamo’s Blood Type Diet, those individuals who are vegetarian and
with ancestors of farmers are those people with what blood type?
A. Type O
B. Type A
C. Type B
D. Type AB

678. Mr. X, an investigator, found a pool of blood at the crime scene. When the specimen was
subjected to blood grouping analysis, the blood sample agglutinated with that of serum-A and
serum-B. What do you think is the blood type of the said specimen?
A. Type O
B. Type A
C. Type B
D. Type AB

679. This indicates that the individual’s blood type has B antigen on the surface of the red
blood cells and A antibodies in your blood plasma.
A. Type O
B. Type A
C. Type B
D. Type AB

680. It pertains to the physical, geometric image created by blood contacting a surface or by a
surface contacting blood.
A. Blood Spatter Analysis
B. Blood Spatter
C. Bloody Shit
D. Single Blood Spatter

681. A blood spatter analyst examines the size, shape, distribution and location of the
bloodstain to form opinions about what did or did not happen in crime scene. As a blood
spatter analyst, which of the following scenario is not one of the description of blood spatter
analysist?
A. Straight linear bloodstain on the ceiling of the crime scene
B. Dark brown stain on the wall indicating that the bloodshed occurred 12 hours ago
C. Analysis of the diameter of the parent spatter
D. Direction of the elongation of blood as it hits the point of impact

682. It is a blood spatter resulting from a forceful impact between an object and wet blood,
causing the blood to break into smaller droplets.
A. Single Drop
B. Cast-Off Stain
C. Impact Spatter
D. Transfer Bloodstain

683. The appearance of the bloodstain spatter will vary depending on the velocity of the blood
from its source towards the target. Which of the following best describes a medium velocity
stain?
A. A blood spatter created through a blunt trauma
B. A blood spatter produced from the first blow of a weapon on a target
C. A blood spatter characterized a mist-like stain
D. None of the above

684. This type of bloodstain pattern result from the discharge of pressurized blood onto a
target surface, for instance the ejection of blood from a punctured artery.
A. Projected Bloodstain
B. Pool Stains
C. Transfer Bloodstain
D. Expiration stains
685. An investigator found a suspected seminal fluid at the crime scene. The sample was
subjected to microscopic examination and no spermatozoa were found at the specimen . Will
that automatically render the specimen inconclusive to be considered as a semen?
A. Yes, because a man cannot produce semen without spermatozoa
B. No, because the absence of spermatozoa does not mean that the specimen is not a semen
C. Yes, semen and spermatozoa must be produced together
D. No, because there are certain individuals who can choose to release semen with or without
sperm cells

686. It is the part of the spermatozoa responsible for its flagella consisting of mitochondria .
A. Head
B. Tail
C. Midpiece
D. Yamite

687. It is a test for semen which results to a microcrystalline samples of slender yellow tinted
rhomboid needle shape of spermine picrate.
A. Florence Test – Dark brown crystals
B. Acid Phosphatase Enzyme Test - purple
C. Barberio’s Test
D. Alternative Acid Phosphatase Test

688. The following are the physical examination of dried seminal stain found on a fabric,
EXCEPT: A. Movement of minute spermatozoa under the microscope – hindi na yan gumagalaw
B. Exhibiting color fluorescence under UV Light
C. Appearance of a contour map along the suspected surface
D. A dry and starchy texture on the surface of the suspected fabric

689. Starch-iodine test is one of the presumptive tests used to determine the presence of saliva
in the crime scene. If the amylase in starch reacts strongly with iodine, it will result to what
color?
A. Dark Blue Complex
B. Reddish Purple Color
C. Yellow Stain
D. Brownish Pigment

690. The following scenario shows the proper collection of hair specimen, Except;
A. It must be obtained from the body of the victim with its root intact
B. It must be sealed in the paper packet
C. Use special vacuum cleaner in collecting hairs and fibers on cloths and fibers
D. Acquire hair from both suspect and victim

691. It is the most distinct part of the hair which is located at the top portion of the skin.
A. Root
B. Shaft
C. Tip
D. Cuticle

692. It is the outer layer of the hair shaft responsible in the shiny appearance of the hair.
A. Cuticle
B. Medulla
C. Cortex
D. Core

693. Which of the following statements is not true about the difference of animal and human
hair?
A. Medulla in the human hair is smaller while it is thicker in animals
B. The medullary index of human is greater than one-third than that of animal
C. Pigmentation in animal hair is denser than human hair
D. Animal hair can change colors in banded patterns; human hair cannot

694. The word textile fiber derived from the French word, “textere” means;
A. To suck
B. To weave
C. To silk
D. To shave

695. This is a strong mark produced by pressure that goes below the surface. This can refer to
stamp, form or figure resulting from physical contact.
A. Impression
B. Moulage
C. Compression Marks
D. Friction Marks

696. It is a branch of science that defines the nature, effects and detection of substance that is
present to a specific matter.
A. Clinical Toxicology
B. Posology
C. Forensic Chemistry
D. Toxicology

697. Types of poisoning produced by a single massive dose. Death occurs very rapidly without
showing any signs and symptoms
A. Subacute Poisoning
B. Hyperacute Poisoning
C. Chronic Poisoning
D. Acute Poisoning
698. Any substance capable of producing cancer in living tissues
A. Carcinogen
B. Arsenic
C. Antidote
D. Corrosive

699. In order to determine the racial origin of the suspect hair strands left in the crime scene,
after microscopic and physical examinations, why is it that the forensic experts are positive that
the suspect is a black man or a negro?
a. Tightly colled, medulla and contains heavy pigment
b. Straight and wavy
c. Cross section is oval, contains fine pigment
d. Lightly pigmented and the medulla is round in shape

700. What stage of DEATH is when the respiration and metabolism of the body tissues ceased
and death of the cells?
A. Alger motes
B. Rigor motes
C. Recur motes
D. Molecular

701. Refers to an abrasion due to pressure applied and with accompanying movement over the
skin.
a. Pressure abrasion
b. Imprint abrasion
c. Impact abrasion
d. Graze

702. When the positive result in screening test of blood is BLUE, what test was applied?
A. Wagenhaar
B. Guaiacum
C. Takayama
D. Hemin crystal

703. How long the death of individual cells of the body start to occur?
a. Three to six hours
b. Twenty-four hour
c. immediately after death
d. Twelve hours

704. What is the condition of a dead body characterized by hardening of the muscles due to
solidification of fats when the body is exposed to cold temperature?
A. Flaccidity
B. Putrefaction
C. Cold stiffening
D. Cadaveric spasm

705. What is the type of wound that occurs when your skin rubs or scrape against a rough or
hard surface?
A. Stab
B. Punctured
C. Abrasion
D. Laceration

706. Which of the following is a genderless act which involves unconventional sexual acts of
violence and aggression committed on the genital, oral or anal orifices of another person?
A. Defloration
B. Rape – general yung tanong
C. Sexual assault
D. Sexual harassment

707. What kind of a solution is used in the restoration of serial numbers?

A. saturated solution of sodium bicarbonate
B. colloidal magnesium
C. etching solution
D. borax solution

708. What is the chemical or solution used for macro etching?

A. Cuprichydrocloric
B. Amino solution
C. Lysergic acid
D. Sulfuric acid

709. The brain injuries characterized by malfunctioning of the brain itself is:
a. brain rupture
b. cerebral concussion
c. cerebral fracture
d. brain convulsive

710. When a rape case is being investigated, Investigators know that SOMETHING IS LEFT in the
crime scene, presence of semen is possible, what test can be applied to determine the
presence?
A. Acid-phosphatase
B. Paraffin
C. Phenolphthalein
D. Density gradient

711. The other name of cordage is:

a. rope
b. metal
c. textile
d. poison

712. Microscopic examination is a:

a. conformity test
b. physical test
c. physiological test
d. Scientific test

713. Proofs of poisoning maybe obtained from the postmortem examination and by:
a. toxicologic
b. pathologic analysis of the tissues
c. necropsy
d. chemical analysis of the organs

714. What type of characteristics are the particular idiosyncrasies of a particular person?
A. Comparison
B. Evaluation
C. Individual
D. Class

715. What are discriminating elements of the unknown, observed or determined through
analysis, examination or study must be compared with those known, observed of the standard
items? (1000 stars)
A. Comparison
B. Evaluation - similarities or dissimilarities in discriminating elements will each have a certain
value for discrimination purposes, determined by their cause, independence, or likelihood of
occurrence.
C. Identification
D. Analysis - The unknown item and the known items must, by analysis, examination, or study,
be reduced to a matter of their discriminating elements.

716. What is the science or study of handwriting based on the fundamental strokes, the curve
and the straight?
A. Graphometry – analysis and comparison with measurement.
B. Graphology – determining the character or disposition of person by analyzing his handwriting
C. Graphometrics
D. Graphoanalysis

717. Which of the following instruments used in questioned documents which makes it
possible to see physical evidence on documents which could otherwise remain invisible ?
A. Magnifying Glass
B. Electrostatic Detection Apparatus
C. Fingerprint live scanner
D. Microscope

718. What is device used by examiners to study and evaluate similar colored documents?
A. Video Spectral Comparator
B. Magnifying Glass
C. Microspectrophotometer
D. Electro-microscope

719. Which provides forensic examiners with a non-destructive a method to examine indention
of a document and to discover physical markings left on documents by printer and photocopier?
A. Liquid Chromatography
B. Video Analysis
C. Electro-photo detector
D. Electrostatic detector

720. What is described whether a writer writes along a straight line, or writes with a
downward slope, upward slope, bent in the middle?
A. Connecting Stoke - a continuous line joining two adjacent letters or words in cursive
writing. It can be angular, straight, curved; short or wide spaced; heavy or thin; threadlike,
shaded or plain.
B. Shading
C. Slant
D. Baseline habit

721. What is the RATIO of height to width consistent in each letter?

a. Connecting
b. Size
c. Baseline
d. Line

722. What is the interruption or gap in writing stroke in forming a letter when a writing
instrument leaves the paper? (1000 stars)
a. Pen lifts
b. Patching
c. Pen emphasis
d. Hiatus

723. What is retouching of defective portion of a writing stroke which is common defect in
questioned documents examination? (1000 stars)
a. Patching
b. Shading
c. Altering
d. Retracing

724. What type of document when an examiner finds a change either deleted or added to the
question document?
A. Obliterated
B. Disputed
C. Altered
D. Counterfeit

725. When polygraph examiner uses “truth serum” such as sodium pentothal or phenobarbital
during questioning, what type of test is being applied?
A. Psychiatric
B. Psychological
C. Narcoanalysis
D. Chemical

726. When the subject is starting to sweat and trying to wipe his face with a handkerchief,
what feeling or reaction he is showing?
A. Panic
B. Irritated
C. Nervousness
D. Comfortable

727. What component in a polygraph machine that records graphically the movement of the
heart and radial pulse?
a. Pneumograph
b. Cardiosphygmograph
c. Kymograph
d. Galvanograph

728. “Did you steal the money of Mrs. Susan Roces?” is what kind of question?
A. Control
B. Important
C. Relevant
D. Irrelevant

729. “Have you stolen anything before” is what type of question for suspect of theft?
A. Conclusive
B. Irrelevant
C. Relevant
D. Control
730. A police investigator discovered Mario floating in a river, initial examination revealed that
the stomach is not bloated and a stab wound on his left side of the chest , what is the possible
conclusion of Mario’s death?
A. Homicide
B. Drowning
C. Suicide
D. Accident

731. Which refers to the stiffness of the muscles and joints after death due to chemical
changes?
A. Post-mortem lividity
B. Post-mortem caloricity
C. Rigor mortis
D. Post-mortem lividity

732. What occurs when the heart is no longer pumping blood and the gravity pulls the blood
down, resulting in the pooling of blood at the lowest point of the body?
A. Post-mortem lividity
B. Post-mortem rigidity
C. Post-mortem caloricity
D. Decomposition

733. What is the type of death when all the vital organs cease to function?
A. Physiologic
B. Psychologic
C. Sociologic
D. Psychic

734. What type of wound produced by a sharp and pointed object like icepick, characterized by
a deep and small opening which may not bleed?
A. Abrasion
B. Incised
C. Punctured
D. Laceration

735. What type of wound is caused by sharp-edged and sharp object such as knife and broken
glass?
A. Stab
B. Abrasion
C. Punctured
D. Laceration

736. What is the color of blood in post mortem lividity?

A. Red-purple
B. Bright red
C. Bluish
D. Brownish

737. In torturing a person by hanging to death, how long the heart continuous to beat?
A. Two hours
B. Three hours
C. Five to ten seconds
D. Twenty to thirty minutes

738. After thorough investigation, who determines the cause, manner of death that may fall
into category of homicide, suicide, murder or natural?
A. Medical examiner
B. Police officer
C. Judge
D. Investigator

739. What process is applied in identifying and quantifying specimens of illegal drugs ?
A. Forensic Drug Analysis
B. Drug Testing
C. Chemical Analysis
D. Confirmatory

740. The forensic investigators were able to collect shirt as evidence, what test can be applied
to determine the presence of gunpowder residue?
A. Phenolphtalein
B. Benzidine
C. Walker’s
D. Diphenylamine

741. Phenolphtalein test is presumptive test for the presence of hemoglobin, a component of
red blood cells in blood, a positive reaction is observed when the colorless phenolphthalein
solution turns to what color as it is oxidized?
A. Pink
B. Yellow
C. Blue
D. Orange

742. When paraffin test is not available, the gun collected can be examine in order to
determine if the particular was fired, what test can be applied?
A. Density gradient
B. Gunpowder residue
C. Acid-phosphatase
D. Benzidine
743. In Florence test using potassium trioxide to determine the presence of semen, resulting
to the formation of crystals will indicate the presence of _____.
A. Choline
B. Pus
C. Water
D. Blood

744. To detect gunpowder nitrates, what test refers to the use of access to the nuclear reactors
and facilities to determine radiation?
A. Gunshot range
B. Gunpowder Residue
C. Paraffin
D. Neutron activation analysis

745. Fingerprints don’t lie, meaning whatever the result of fingerprint identification is reliable;
what principle show in this statement?
A. Credebility
B. Individuality
C. Permanency
D. Infallibility

746. What classification system in fingerprint that assigns each finger according to the order or
location starting with the right thumb as to number one to the left little finger as number ten
(10)?
A. Henry
B. Edward
C. Stewart
D. Galton

747. What is a point in fingerprint where a ridge divides and forms two ridges?
A. Ridge ending
B. Minutiae
C. Ridge Counting
D. Bifurcation

748. What is a point in whorl and loop prints which lies within three-prolonged shaped
structure?
A. Ridge
B. Core
C. Furrow
D. Delta
749. Which crime scene photograph consists of basic types of photographs, which of the
following is NOT included?
A. Close-up
B. Mid-range
C. Over-all
D. From top to bottom

750. There are several METHODS used by law enforcement agencies, which is NOT a basic crime
scene search pattern?
A. Line
B. Grid
C. Stripe
D. Quadrant

751. What is the unit of measurement that is used to express the bore diameter of the barrel
of a firearm used by criminal?
A. Frame
B. Gauge
C. Caliber
D. Chamber

752. When crime is committed, the officer-in-charge request the assistance of the PNP Crime
Laboratory trained team to ensure more systematic approach in looking, recognizing, packing,
preservation and transmittal of physical evidence is referred to as ____.
A. Forensic Anthropology
B. Forensic Pathology
C. Scene of Crime Operatives
D. Forensic Science

753. What are the most often found at the crime incidents involving semi-automatic and fully
automatic weapons?
A. Bullets
B. Fired Cartridge Cases
C. Primes
D. Wad

754. What is referred as the rotation of the nose of the projectile away from the line of its
flight or trajectory?
A. Rifling
B. Yaw
C. Ricochet
D. Recoil
755. What type of explosives that have detonation velocity of 7,000+k/sec that creates a blast
pressure effect that travels 360 degrees?
A. High
B. Low
C. Black Powder
D. Gun Powder

756. What is the most explosive chemical compound ever created and also part of a class of
chemicals as high-energetic materials?
A. Nitroglycerine
B. Nitrous Oxide
C. Azidoazide Azide
D. Sodium Azide

757. What is a chemical rearrangement of molecules causing the high explosives to exert or
giving rise to shock wave, the speed varies depending on explosives, but in some as high as
7,000 feet per second?
A. Combustion
B. Explosion
C. Detonation
D. Decomposition

758. In restoring altered serial number of firearm, what is the most common and successful
method on a metal surface by using reagents of which most are copper and iron containing less
toxic, less hazardous compound?
A. Chemical
B. Heat Treatment
C. Chemical Etching
D. Ultrasonic Cavitation

759. During Investigation, what are microscopic marks left on the forward face at the rim of a
rim fire cartridge case when it is forced against the breech end of the chamber by the firing
pin.
A. Chamber
B. Land
C. Breech face
D. Ejector

760. What would be the most helpful to crime investigation using the polygraph examination?
a. The subject is willing to undergo test
b. Several direct pieces of evidence are available against the suspect but not enough to establish
the guilt
c. The investigations need to know the truth
d. The investigators must connect the suspect to the crime
761. When the subject keeps on rocking his chair, what will be in the mind of the investigator
on the subject's reaction?
A. Fear
B. Nervousness
C. Irritation
D. Panic

762. What is the examination of a disputed handwriting, a discriminatory process that

compares writing habits and evaluation of similarities and differences?
a. Identification
b. Projection
c. Comparison
d. Elimination

763. What is the chemical reaction caused by powder gases and combustion residue, heat
from burning propellant or pressure of powder gases combustion?
A. Erosion
B. Corrosion
C. Decomposition
D. Disintegration

764. Which of the following refers to legally admissible and authentic samples of handwriting
which is of known origin used for comparison with a questioned writing?
a. Personal letters
b. Warrant
c. Composition
d. Exemplars

765. What is the most important part of a camera that determines the quality of image and
responsible in focusing the light from the subject?
a. Lens
b. Sensor
c. Shutter
d. Aperture

766. What must be included photographing the evidence in order to determine the exact size?
a. Wires
b. Scale
c. Illustration
d. Drawing

767. A police investigator must know that he can freeze a moving object to help him visualize its
position at any given moment, what kind of shutter will produce the image?
a. Fast
b. Slow
c. Normal
d. General

768. Which of the following is a manner in which the writer stops writing to form new letters
or words?
a. Shading
b. Connecting strokes
c. Baseline habits
d. Pen lifts

769. Which of the following is a complete unfired round of ammunition which contains a
primer and gun powder which can be used by investigators for examining a gun?
A. Muzzle
B. Cartridge
C. Rifling
D. Casing

770. Where does a police officer usually put markings on the recovered fired cartridge or
shell?
A. Will not mark
B. At the rim
C. At the side or body
D. At the base

771. What is referred as the dissection and examination of the body in order to determine the
cause of death?
A. Necropsy
B. Autopsy
C. Biopsy
D. Exhumation

772. What is the science or study of projectiles and firearms?

A. Ballistics
B. Forensic Ballistics
C. Applied Ballistics
D. Modified Ballistics

773. Who is the clergyman that invented the FIRST workable percussion cap for the ignition of
gunpowder in firearm in 1807 and produced a percussion lock between 1805 and 1807?
A. Hiram Maxim
B. John Colt
C. Alexander John Forsyth
D. Samuel Colt

774. When a document was examined, it was found out that it lacks authenticity, claimed by
another person and not by the real author, the examiner classify this as ____?
A. Special
B. Traced
C. Disguised
D. Spurious – simple forgery, no attempt of imitating other signature

775. After a thorough investigation, it was proven that Miguel Santiago, the suspect in a robbery
case is guilty because his fingerprints were taken from the cashier table. What principle is
applied by the investigators?
A. The process is available anytime
B. No two persons have identical fingerprints
C. It is the most practical in identification
D. Fingerprints show racial origin

776. He was a Frenchman who invented the FIRST rimfire metallic cartridge in 1845?
A. John Grand
B. Alexander Forsyth
C. Louis Nicolas Flobert - invented the rim-fire cartridge
D. John Thomson

777. What is a written presentation of thought by which an obligation is established?

A. Opinion
B. Document
C. Certification
D. Warrant

778. This is where the handwriting rests ______?

A. Vase
B. Rhythm
C. Base
D. Vaseline

779. What are those brandish strokes which are usually added by the author to the capital
letters in order to make them attractive and may become the writer’s identity or special
feature?
A. Peculiarities
B. Knot
C. Beard – double hitch, introductory up and down strokes found in some capital letters
D. Spur

780. Who among the following introduced the first system of classification of fingerprints?
A. Robert James Pitts – A man without fingerprint
B. Sir William Herschel -Father of Chiroscopy
C. Johannes Evangelista Purkynje – Father of Dactyloscopy, identify 9 types of pattern, Professor
of Germany
D. Marcello Malpighi – Grandfather of Dactyloscopy, Professor of Italy, Discovery of Dermis and
Epidermis

781. What is caused by the lens dispersion, with different colors of light travels at various
speeds while passing through the lens?
A. Chromatic aberration – inability of the lens to focus light of varying wavelength
B. None of these
C. Coma – lateral aberration, inability of the lens to focus light that travel straight or lateral, thus
making it blurred
D. Curvature of Filed – relation of the images of the different points are incorrect

782. Which of the following central nervous system disorder in which brain activity becomes
abnormal causing seizures?
A. Cataplexy
B. Catatonia
C. Epilepsy
D. Hysteria

783. Handwriting exhibits identifying properties of elements which are used by the examiners
in order to identify the author. This refers to _____.
A. Identifying characteristics
B. Personal characteristics
C. Individualism
D. Individual Characteristics

784. What do you call the ridge endings and bifurcations?

A. Ulnar loop
B. Island
C. Minutiae
D. Accidental

785. A type of wound wherein the instrument used pierces a solid organ or tissues?
A. Deep
B. Penetrating
C. Superficial
D. Thrust

786. What type of LENS that refers whose focal length is substantially smaller than the focal
length and also less than the diagonal of its negative presentation?
A. Standard prime
B. Zoom
C. Macro
D. Wide Angle

787. The helical groove pattern that is machined into internal surface of a gun’s barrel ,
designed to give a spin to the projectile for accuracy and carrying power is ______.
A. Riffling – mali spelling
B. Gauge
C. Erosion
D. Lands and Grooves

788. What kind of forgery wherein copying or animation of a genuine signature or writing as
to assemble in the model?
A. Simulated
B. Traced
C. Natural
D. Simple

789. Who was the first to show scientifically how fingerprint could be used to identify individual
and studied fingerprints to seek out hereditary traits?
A. William Herschel
B. Francis Galton
C. Juan Vucetich
D. John Faulds

790. What are the microscopic contour variations found at the surface of a bullet which are
left on the fired bullet, in which firearm examiners use them for comparison/investigation?
A. Groove marks
B. Striation
C. Grooves
D. Bore

791. What fingerprint pattern with at least two deltas and a ridge whose circuit maybe spiral,
oval or circular in shape.
A. Plain whorl
B. Ulnar loop
C. Central pocket
D. Double loop

792. Which of the following refers to the transmission of an electrical signal from a logging unit
the logging cable to the blasting cap and it happens when a high explosive is ignited?
A. Detonation
B. Explosion
C. Shattering
D. Deflagration

793. The German psychologist who invented the kymograph in the 1840’s and it was first
device to monitor blood pressure was ___.
A. Carl Ludwig
B. Joseph Ludwig
C. James Ludwig
D. John A. Larson

794. What is the type of wound characterized by the tearing of soft body tissue, irregular and
jagged and most of the time contaminated with bacteria and debris from the object that
caused the cut?
A. Incised
B. Punctured
C. Open
D. Lacerated

795. What chemical is used in order to accelerate the developer solution?

A. Sodium Carbonate - accelarator
B. Sodium Oxide
B. Sodium Nitrate
C. Sodium Sulfide

Preservative – Sodium Sulfate

Restrainer – Pottasium Bromide (Pottasium Alum)

796. In writing a holographic will, all letters are in majuscule in order to make it clear and
concise, in what form it is written?
A. Script style
B. Cursive
C. Capitalized
D. Block style

797. It is used in chemical analysis and in curing and hardening of different items for industrial
purposes.
A. long wave UV – sikat ng araw
B. medium wave UV
C. short wave UV – ginagamit sa pera
D. ultraviolet rays

798. What is the most remarkable event in 1964 in the history of the study of fingerprinting?
A. The PNP created the identification division
B. Computerization of Scotland Yard
C. Hundreds of criminals were identified in New York
D. Creation of FBI Identification Division

799. What are the marks on the bullet caused by the barrel of a firearm and the most common
form of evidence investigators may detect and collect.
A. Breech
B. Friction
C. Compression
D. Impression

800. What type of camera that typically uses a mirror and prism system that permits the
photographer to view through the lens, what image to be captured?
A. Double lens
B. Compact lens
C. Tri-lens
D. Single-lens reflex

801. What is the physical force applied in contact of the writing instrument on the paper
which he can be estimated from any questioned documents?
A. Pen lift
B. Pen emphasis
C. Pen analysis
D. Pen pressure

802. What term is used when an adult female whose hymen is still intact or not broken,
meaning never experience sexual intercourse?
A. Virgo Intacta
B. Moral Virginity
C. Intra Virginity
D. Physical Virginity

803. Studies have shown that only half of the fingerprints present on paper can be made
_____.
A. Irrational
B. Visible
C. Focal Point
D. Imaginary

804. What TEST is given when the examiner knows which alternative is the only one truly
connected to the incident or case and evaluates the examinees pattern of responses of
evidence of his involvement in the incidents?
A. Peak of Tension
B. Peak of Control
C. Controlled
D. Peak of Evidence
805. What is the focal point of a fingerprint wherein the ridge line terminates?
A. Ridge end
B. Bifurcation
C. Arch endings
D. Furrows

806. The very first thing to do in fingerprint classification is ____.

A. To clean the ink slab
B. To be sure that the rolled impressions are in proper place
C. Check if the hands of the subject is dry
D. To be sure that the subject is not hungry

807. Whenever the number of interesting lines had been THREE, then this would have been
_____.
A. Inner tracing
B. Multi tracing
C. Meet tracing
D. Poly tracing

808. It is an accepted fact that many polygraph examinations are inclusive, which one below is
NOT included??
A. The subject is nervous because of depression
B. The subject is suffering from disease
C. When the subject is ready physically to take the test - positive
D. Maybe the subject is angry while taking the test

809. How do you call the ruled or imaginary line which letter rest.
A. Stationed
B. Formed
C. Actual
D. Base
810. Gun powder residue maybe determined by?
A. Takayama Test
B. Diphenylamine
C. Paraffin Test
D. Florence Test

811. A type of light examination in which the source of light is coming from one side hitting the
surface of the paper/object at a very low angle. It is best used in examination of indented
writing as well as erasure.
a. direct light examination
b. oblique light examination
c. side light examination
d. transmitted light examination

812. Type of filter to improve the contrast of latent print impression with gray powder in a
yellow background?
a. Yellow
b. Green
c. Red
d. Violet

813. What type of forgery is made when the writer’s exerts no effort to effect resemblance or
facsimile between the forged and the genuine signatures?
A. Spurious
B. Traced
C. Simulated
D. Forged

814. An impression or cast made for use especially as evidence in a criminal investigation.
a. Casting material
b. Imprint
c. Moulage
d. Impression

815. A part of the cardiosphygmograph which indicates the amount of air pressure in the
system?
A. Air Pump
B. Arm Cuff
C. Sphygmomanometer
D. Connecting Plug

816. An instrument for recording variations in pressure, e.g., in sound waves or in blood within
blood vessels, by the trace of a stylus on a rotating cylinder.
a. Kymograph
b. Pneumograph
c. Galvanograph
d. Cardiosphygmograph

817. It is the process of blotting over or smearing over an original writing.

a. Indention
b. Alteration
c. Obliteration
d. Addition

818. An examination to detect alterations made on inks.

a. Electrostatic Detection Apparatus
b. Oblique Light Examination
c. Video Spectral Comparator
d. Ink Eradicator

819. Questioned document examination used in deciphering indented writings.

a. Video Spectral Comparator
b. Electrostatic Detection Apparatus
c. Red jumpsuit apparatus
d. Projection light examination

820. Objects in open space cast no shadow and visiblity of distant objects is already limited.
a. Dull Sunlight
b. Bright Sunlight
c. Cloudy Bright Sunlight
d. Cloudy Dull Sunlight

Cloudy bright - objects in open space cast no shadow but objects at far distance are clearly
visible.

821. A form of over lapping thin metal leaves arranged in a circle, it can be made to expand or
contrast and thus to admit into the camera greater and smaller amount of light.
a. Aperture
b. Diaphragm
c. Shutter
d. Light tight box

822. It is the harmonious recurrence of stroke or impulse and is a quality of movement that
produces a natural result.
a. Alignment
b. Shading
c. Quality
d. Rhythm

823. In taking photograph of evidence, what must be done?

a. Take photograph with measurements
b. Take photograph without measurements
c. Take photography without measurements, then with measurements
d. Take photographs with measurements then without measurements

824. If all fingers are amputated or missing since birth, the classification will be___.
a. W 32 M WWW/ W 32 M WWW
b. M 32 M WWW/ M 32 M WWW
c. M 32 W WWW/ M 32 W WWW
d. M 32 W MMM/ M 32 W MMM