SW 21- COMPENDIUM OF SOCIAL WORK

APPROACHES
SOCIAL WELFARE PROJECT/PROGRAM DEVELOPMENT and
MANAGEMENT
Instruction- This is a 109 –item examination pertaining to concepts, perspectives, processes,
and tools for different development and management of social welfare projects in the
context of institutions, communities, and/or peoples’ organizations in which social work
operates. Please choose the best answer. Kindly use a separate clean sheet of paper for
your answers. Please answer with all your honesty. DO NOT OPEN REFERENCES
WHEN ANSWERING FOR YOU TO EVALUATE YOUR KNOWLEDGE IN THIS
AREA. OTHERWISE, YOU WILL BE DECEIVING YOURSELF.

1. Programme/Project Cycle Management is a term used to describe the management activities and
decision-making procedures used during the life-cycle of a programme/project (including key tasks,
roles and responsibilities, key documents and decision options). Which of the following is the
purpose of project cycle management EXCEPT?

A. projects are supportive of overarching policy objectives of the EC and of development partners;
B. projects are relevant to an agreed strategy and to the real problems of target groups/beneficiaries;
C. projects are feasible, meaning that objectives can be realistically achieved within the constraints
of the operating environment and capabilities of the implementing agencies;
D. benefits generated by projects are likely to be sustainable.
E. None of these.

2. Baum in 1970 identified four main development stages in the project cycle. She later added one stage
to close the circle. Which of the following is the correct project development stages did Baum
identified?
A. Identification, preparation, appraisal and selection, implementation, evaluation
B. Initiation, planning, implementation, evaluation, closure
C. Conceptualization, planning, implementation, evaluation and monitoring, closure
D. Preparation, identification, appraisal, implementation, monitoring
E. None of these

3. In practice, the duration and importance of each phase of the cycle will vary for different projects due
to this reason(s) EXCEPT:
A. Project scale
B. Project scope
C. Operating modalities
D. Amount of funding
E. All of these

4. Project identification is the stage at which the initial project proposal is conceived and formulated. At
this stage, the project idea is assessed in relation to which of the following?
A. development policy and priorities of the country
B. the donor's overall guidelines for development aid
C. related on-going development activities in the country

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 D. All of these
E. None of these

5. Feasibility study includes the data collection, analysis and assessment necessary in order to prepare
for project design. Which statement best describe feasibility?
A. The feasibility study should not go into detail on anticipated activities and inputs in the project
itself, but provide a thorough background.
B. The overall justification for the project (perspectives, purpose, goal).
C. The potential target groups, their needs and anticipated positive/ negative effects of the project
important assumptions which may be decisive for the success or failure of the project
D. The specific outputs necessary in order to achieve the objectives.
E. All of these

6. Monitoring is important because

A. Tracking the physical progress of the project also the impact of the project, and developments in
its environment (external factors).
B. It has unified format for monitoring and reporting throughout the life of the project.
C. This will help provide a solid basis for analyzing trends and defining strategies, and will be
particularly useful when there is a change of personnel, management and decisionmakers.
D. The format of progress reports should be such that inputs, activities and outputs are monitored
with a reference to the purpose and goal and measured with objectively verifiable indicator.
E. All of these

7. This is an independent assessment of the impact, relevance and sustainability of the project,
undertaken by external collaborators. The purpose of this is a combination of learning, guidance and
control based on an assessment of what has been achieved by the project.
A. Monitoring
B. Evaluation
C. Education and training
D. Project closure
E. None of these

8. Which of these are not project stakeholders?

A. Project partners
B. Beneficiaries
C. Target groups
D. Funders
E. None of these

9. SWOT is undertaken in three main stages, namely:

A. Ideas are generated about the internal strengths and weaknesses of a group or organization, and
the external opportunities and threats;
B. The situation is analysed by looking for ways in which the group/organisation’s strengths can be
built on to overcome identified weaknesses, and opportunities can be taken to minimize threats;
C. A strategy for making improvements is formulated (and then subsequently developed using a
number of additional analytical planning tools)
D. It can be used either as a tool for general analysis, or to look at how an organization might
address a specific problem or challenge.
E. All of these.

10. These are the processes, techniques, tools, events, technology, and actions of the planned program.

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 A. Factors B. Outcome C. Inputs D. Activities E. Impacts

11. These are the direct results of program activities.

A. Outputs B. Outcome C. Inputs D. Activities E. Impacts

12. These are usually described in terms of the size and/or scope of the services and products delivered or
produced by the program. A. Outputs B. Outcome C. Inputs D. Activities E. Impacts

13. They indicate if a program was delivered to the intended audiences at the intended “dose.”
A. Outputs B. Outcome C. Inputs D. Activities E. Impacts

14. example, might be the number of classes taught, meetings held, or materials produced and distributed;
program participation rates and demography; or hours of each type of service provided.
A. Outputs B. Outcome C. Inputs D. Activities E. Impacts

15. These are specific changes in attitudes, behaviors, knowledge, skills, status, or level of functioning
expected to result from program activities and which are most often expressed at an individual level.
A. Outputs B. Outcome C. Inputs D. Activities E. Impacts

16. These are organizational, community, and/or system level changes expected to result from program
activities, which might include improved conditions, increased capacity, and/or changes in the policy
arena.
A. Outputs B. Outcome C. Inputs D. Activities E. Impacts

17. Proponent of the Gantt Chart.

A. Henry Gantt B. Dickson Gantt C. John Gantt D. Gantt Gantt E. Bradshaw Gantt

18. Which of the following describes Gantt Chart?

A. A Gantt chart is a popular tool in project management.
B. It basically drills down activities which need to be done by a fixed time period.
C. It is commonly used for tracking project schedules.
D. All of the above

19. Uses of Gant Chart EXCEPT

A. Gantt chart is a useful tool in planning and scheduling the projects.
B. It keeps the management updated as to when the project will get completed.
C. It also keeps the management informed about any additional resources that are required, and
manage dependencies between tasks.
D. None of the above

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20. Which of the following steps comprises the CPM or critical path method?
A. Specify the individual activities
B. Estimate the completion of time for each activities
C. Determine the flow of activities
D. Critical funding scheme
E. None of these

21. Reasons for undertaking monitoring and evaluation of project activities EXCEPT
A. Improve performance
B. Accountability
C. Learning
D. Communication
E. Termination

22. If the purchasing process is managed well, substantial savings can be made. These can be spent on
other personal processes such as tour and shopping. A. True B. False

23. If the project is not managed properly then costs can spiral out of control. A. True B. False

24. These are typical cost components EXCEPT

A. Profit B. Materials C. Supplies D. Labor E. Loss

25. This is an approach to project management based on clearly defined results and the methodologies
and tools to measure and achieve them.
A. Results monitoring
B. Process (activity)
C. Result-based Monitoring
D. Context
E. None of these

26. This is the systematic analysis of significant or lasting changes either positive or negative.
A. Results monitoring
B. Process
C. Result-based Monitoring
D. Impact Assessment
E. All of the above

27. Which of the following does the program manager execute prior to project closing?
A. Compare the planned Gantt chart with the actual chart
B. Compare the resources allocated and actual used
C. Document what went well and needs to improve.
D. Conduct staff evaluation
E. All of the above

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28. It is a systematic study using a participatory action research to collect and analyze data.
A. Impact evaluation
B. Impact assessment
C. Project evaluation
D. Result-based monitoring
E. All of these

29. Two types of evaluation

A. Formal and informal
B. Internal and external
C. Verbal and non-verbal
D. Terminal and post-implementation

30. Common type of monitoring EXCEPT

A. Beneficiary monitoring
B. Compliance monitoring
C. Financial monitoring
D. Organization monitoring
E. None of the above

31. A picture of how your organization does its work – the theory and assumptions underlying the
program.
A. Program logic model
B. Logical framework
C. Log frame
D. All of the above
E. None of these

32. It links outcomes (both short- and long-term) with program activities/processes and the theoretical
assumptions/principles of the program.
A. Logic model
B. Activities
C. Outcome
D. Inputs

33. Which of the following is part of the logframe?

A. Research B. Timeline C. Process flow D. Objective

34. Which of the following is TRUE about logic model?

A. The Logic Model process is a tool that has been used for more than 20 years by program
managers and evaluators to describe the effectiveness of their programs. The model
B. Describes logical linkages among program resources
C. narrative or graphical depictions of processes in real life that communicate the underlying
D. Assumptions upon which an activity is expected to lead to a specific result

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 E. All of the above

35. Statement provides an opportunity to communicate the relevance of the project

A. Inputs B. Activities C. Situation D. Outputs E. Impact

36. A statement of the problem question EXCEPT

A. What are the causes?
B. What are the social, economic, and/or environmental symptoms of the problem?
C. What are the likely consequences if nothing is done to resolve the problem? What are the
actual or projected costs?
D. None of these

37. This statement establishes a baseline for comparison at the close of a program.
A. Inputs B. Activities C. Situation D. Outputs E. Impact
38. Describing who is affected by the problem allows assessment of who has benefited.
A. True B. False

39. This includes those things that we invest in a program or that we bring to bear on a program.
A. Inputs B. Outputs C. Activities D. Outcome E. Impact

40. These are those things that we do (providing products, goods, and services to program customers) and
the people we reach (informed consumers, knowledgeable decision Buy-In
A. Inputs B. Outputs C. Activities D. Outcome E. Impact

41. The Philippine Development Plan focuses on the social development itemized below EXCEPT:
A. Health and nutrition status improved
B. Knowledge and skills enhanced
C. Vulnerabilities reduced
D. Social protection expanded
E. None of these

42. Which of the following underscores the gender and development (GAD) principle in mainstreaming
gender in all development agenda
A. Equality between women and men is a key womenis human right;
B. Participation in development is crucial to the empowerment of women and men;
C. Gender equality means promoting the equal participation of women as agents of economic,
social, and political change; and
D. Achieving equality between women and men may involve the introduction of specific
measures designed to eliminate prevailing gender inequalities and inequities.
E. All of these

43. A gender-responsive development planning means

A. Assessment of gender impact of past performance and challenges, through the analysis of sex-
disaggregated data and gender-related information.
B. Inclusion in goals, objectives, and results (outcomes and outputs) of GAD statements intended to
address key gender equality, women’s development or empowerment issues.

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 C. Identification of policies and legislative agenda, and strategies, programs and projects that will
help achieve gender equality, women’s development or empowerment goals, and address
constraints to achieving these goals while pursuing the overall goal of the development plan.
D. Before finalization of the plan, assessment of the draft development plan to avoid negative
gender-related impact and to minimize constraints to women’s participation in the benefits of
development.
E. All of these

44. Gender analysis is a critical element of development planning, as it is in designing a gender-

responsive program or project. This should be conducted at two points:
I. Analyzing the gender impact of performance of past policies or interventions and an
assessment of the gender dimension of challenges are critical parts of development planning.
II. A development plan needs to be monitored and evaluated against targets of the articulated
goals, objectives, or results.
III. Assessing the likely gender impacts of the draft development plan.
IV. Evaluate the funds being utilized to infrastructures projects.
A. I, II
B. I, III
C. II, IV
D. I, IV
E. III, IV

45. Gender equality and women’s empowerment results that are expected to emanate or to be produced
by the plan are specific to the challenges present in the current situation and the continuing issues that
have not been addressed by previous policies or strategies. Harmonized GAD Guidelines is created to
assess areas of development that could include
I. Welfare
II. Access
III. Conscientization
IV. Participation
V. Control

A. I, II, III, V
B. I, III, IV, V
C. I, II, III, IV, V
D. II, III, IV, V
E. None of these

46. The framework for gender equality in ASEAN and other developing countries development
cooperation is embedded in sever-al international agreements and conventions. The most important
are:

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 I. The Convention on the Elimination of All Forms of Discrimination against Women (CEDAW, 1979),
committing all signatory states to the principle of non-discrimination.
II. The Convention on the Rights of the Child (1989), emphasizing the human rights of children and the
need for protection against abuse and exploitation.
III. The Beijing Platform for Action (1995), advancing women’s rights, freedoms and opportunities.
IV. The OECD/DAC Guidelines for Gender Equality and Women’s Empowerment in Development Co-
operation, seeking to support implementation of gender equality commitments with common approaches,
strategies and partnerships.
V. UN-Resolution 1325 (2000), reaffirms the important role of women in the prevention and resolution of
conflicts, peace negotiations, peace-building, peacekeeping, humanitarian response and in post-conflict
reconstruction.
VI. The 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development

A. I, II, III, IV, V, VI

B. II, III, V, VI
C. I, III, IV, V
D. III, IV, V
E. I, III, IV, V

47. In humanitarian arena, gender definition could be which of the following:

A. is socially constructed
B. is culturally learned
C. can differ across and even within societies and cultural contexts
D. is changeable and adaptable over time
E. All of these
48. It is a strategy that integrates women’s and men’s different concerns and interests into the planning,
implementation, monitoring and evaluation stages of all policies, programmes, projects, policies and
laws at all levels and in all economic, political and societal spheres.
A. Gender equality
B. Gender mainstreaming
C. Gender equity
D. Gender balance
E. All of these

49. Citizens already do many things for more sustainable development, often for environmental reasons.
By reducing your consumption of over-packaged products; research shows that the following helps
EXCEPT
A. by walking instead of using elevator/escalator,
B. bicycling or using public transit instead of your car;
C. by sweeping your driveway instead of using the hose,
D. by not letting the tap run to avoid wasting water
E. All of these

50. It emphasises the participation of the local community in development initiatives so that they can
select their own goals and the means of achieving them.
A. Top-down approach
B. Bottom-up approach
C. Pantawid Pamilya Pilipino Program
D. Social services

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 E. Do-No-Harm approach

51. The process by which policymakers - legislators, government agencies try to solve community
problems or improve conditions in the community by devising and implementing policies intended to
have certain results.
A. Social planning
B. Policy change
C. Plan formulation
D. Community development
E. Community organizing

52. Why should policymakers engage in a participatory social planning process?

A. Community members can inform policymakers about changes in circumstances that demand changes in
policy over time.
B. Community participation can create community relationships and partnerships among diverse groups who
can then work together.
C. Community participation helps keep community building going over the long run.
D. Community participation contributes to institutionalizing the changes brought about by changes in policy.
E. All of these.
53. Reason(s) why should the community engage in a participatory social planning process EXCEPT?
A. Participation provides the opportunity to educate policymakers to the community's real needs and
concerns.
B. Participation allows community members to help create policy that really works to meet their
needs.
C. Participation affords community members the respect they deserve.
D. Participation puts community members in control of their own fate.
E. None of these

54. When is social planning and policy change appropriate EXCEPT?

A. The community asks for it
B. An issue or problem has reached crisis proportions, and it's obvious to everyone that something
must be done.
C. There is a long-standing major issue - poverty, violence, housing, hunger, etc.
D. There are resources made available to address the issue.
E. None of the above.

55. Mark which of the following best way to achieve maximum community participation?
A. Hold a community meeting to explain your purpose and start recruiting community members to
participate in assessment and planning.
B. Schedule the next funders meeting, and start the planning process only with them.
C. Send electronic mails to the potential politicians for more support.
D. Hold a meeting with the non-government organizations operating in the area.
E. All of these.

56. You are a social worker. What are steps you will employ for community leaders and activists to
ensure community involvement?
A. Get to know and maintain contact with policymakers from the beginning, so that when issues of
policy arise, you'll have an open communication line.
B. Try to anticipate the community's policy needs, and approach policymakers before they have
decided to act.

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 C. Equip yourself with as much information as possible, both about the benefits of a participatory
process and about the issue itself.
D. Mobilize the community.
E. All of these

57. Which of the following needs assessment determines EXCEPT?

A. What needs exist in the community.
B. What group (who) needs the services.
C. What other programs and services already exist to address the problem.
D. How the business sectors introduced their marketing strategies.
E. Whether resources are adequate.

58. This is the most important part of the proposal. This is where you document a need for your services
with detailed information on your target community and its unmet needs.
A. Budget
B. Evaluation
C. Implementation Plan
D. Logical Framework
E. Statement of the Problem

59. In the real practice, these are factors that Influence Good Leadership EXCEPT
A. Your commitment. Commitment is a combination of confidence and motivation. To be an
effective leader, you must be committed to achieving a vision and have enough motivation to
initiate the action required.
B. Your willingness to be democratic. People will better understand the program’s vision and be
more committed to working toward accomplishing that vision when a democratic leadership style
is used.
C. Good communication and listening skills. As a leader, you must clearly communicate the
program’s mission, goals and objectives. You must also be a good listener, willing to accept
suggestions and ideas for incorporation into final decisions.
D. Your competence. Your competence is the product of the skills gained from education, training
and experience. Good leaders also make use of the skills of people around them.
E. None of these.

60. Social infrastructure plays an important role in both the economic development of a nation and the
development of society’s quality of life. Social infrastructure enhances social wellbeing and furthers
economic growth by providing basic services and facilities which allow businesses to develop and
flourish. Which of the following addresses social infrastructure?
A. Access to information including services such as internet, libraries, current affairs.
B. Services that prolong life and promote human health.
C. Transport services such as sidewalks and rail.
D. Spaces for enjoying nature, sports, recreation, family, social activities and personal reflection.
E. All of these.

61. The DO NO HARM in Project management means

A. "Do no harm" is to avoid exposing people to additional risks through our action.
B. "Do no harm" means taking a step back from an intervention to look at the broader context and
mitigate potential negative effects on the social fabric, the economy and the environment.
C. Recognition of the potential negative effects of interventions and the need to take them into
consideration.
D. A, B and C

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 E. None of these.

62. This Do No Harm related principle that covers respect for human dignity, and states that the
operational response of organisations must not harm the dignity of individuals, their physical
integrity, or worsen their situation.
A. Humanity
B. Neutrality
C. Impartiality
D. Confidentiality
E. All of these

63. This Do No Harm related principle that entails helping individuals on the basis of their suffering and
giving priority to the most urgent cases of distress.
A. Humanity
B. Neutrality
C. Impartiality
D. Confidentiality
E. All of these

64. This Do No Harm related principle that allows humanitarian workers to negotiate access to local
people. In order to maintain access to beneficiaries we may involuntarily sustain or even fuel conflict
(for example, diversion of aid, looting, taxation to fund an armed group).

A. Humanity
B. Neutrality
C. Impartiality
D. Confidentiality
E. All of these

65. An ethical dilemma in applying Do No Harm EXCEPT

A. When are negative effects acceptable and when are they not?
B. What about the cultural perception of what is negative or not?
C. Who decides that the positive effects justify a certain level of negative effects?
D. When, and based on which criteria, should we decide to end an operation?
E. The competent workers fire due to pilferage.

66. According to McGregor motivational theory, this theory believes that workers need to be watched,
hate work and responsibility. Managers must use coercion, threats & various control schemes to get
workers to meet objectives.
A. Theory X
B. Theory Y
C. Ouchy’s Theory Z
D. Maslow Theory of Needs
E. Bradshaw Taxonomy of Needs

67. According to McGregor motivational theory, this theory claims that workers can work without
supervision, they want to achieve, and can make their own decisions. Workers enjoy the satisfaction
of esteem and self- actualization needs.
A. Theory X
B. Theory Y

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 C. Ouchy’s Theory Z
D. Maslow Hierarchy of Needs
E. Bradshaw Taxonomy of Needs

68. This motivational theory is based on the participative management style of the Japanese. Workers are
motivated by a sense of commitment, opportunity & advancement.
A. Theory X
B. Theory Y
C. Ouchy’s Theory Z
D. Maslow Hierarchy of Needs
E. Bradshaw Taxonomy of Needs

69. Hygiene Theory suggests factors that deal with work environment issues. Those factors prevent
dissatisfaction but do not necessarily bring satisfaction such as:
A. Salary and job security
B. Responsibilities
C. Recognition
D. Achievements
E. Advancement and growth

70. This Theory states that the expectation of a positive outcome drives motivation. People will behave in
certain ways if they think there will be good rewards for doing so. This theory also says that people
become what you expect of them.
A. Achievement Theory
B. Expectancy Theory
C. Pro-active Theory
D. McGregor Theory X & Y
E. All of these

71. This theory says that people are motivated by the need for three things: achievement, power, and
affiliation.
A. Achievement Theory
B. Expectancy Theory
C. Pro-active Theory
D. McGregor Theory X & Y
E. All of these

72. Which sequence works during project team acquisition stage:

I. Acquisition (hiring from external agencies).
II. Multi-criteria Decision Analysis (Multi selection criteria: availability, cost, experience, ability,
knowledge, skills, attitude and international factors).
III. Negotiation (Staff assignments can be done by negotiating with the functional manager).
IV. Pre-Assignment (Specialist’s available within the organizations can be assigned at the time of
preparation of project charter).
V. Virtual Teams (Teams working at different geographical locations)

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 A. V, IV, III, I, II
B. I, II, III, IV, V
C. IV, III, I, V, II
D. II, IV, V, III, I
E. IV, V, II, I, III

73. In human resource management, dealing with conflict suggests that hearing problems from all the
parties and providing solutions which satisfies all the parties and all the parties are give-way and
agreed to the project manager. This conflict resolution is called
A. Forcing
B. Withdrawal
C. Compromising
D. Smoothing
E. Confronting

74. This conflict management strategy is ensuring that both the parties by focusing on points which are
agreeable to all the parties rather than on differences, but the problem will again resurface when these
team do the same process next time.
A. Forcing
B. Withdrawal
C. Compromising
D. Smoothing
E. Confronting

75. This project manager’s power refers to the charisma or personality:

A. Coercive power
B. Expert power
C. Legitimate power
D. Reward power
E. Referent power

76. Mr John, a program Manager, demoted Kurt for tardiness issues. This implies the power of:
A. Coercive power
B. Expert power
C. Legitimate power
D. Reward power
E. Referent power

77. Which of the following is NOT project manager responsibilities?

A. Negotiate with resource managers for the best available resources.
B. Understand the team members’ needs for training related to the project and make sure they
get it.
C. Do the field survey and interviews.
D. Create a formal staffing plan.
E. Prepare reports for team members’ performance.

78. In project management, it means assuming consequences for performance and behaviors of those who
are assigned responsibility for the task. This also means the “responsible use of power”.
A. Responsibility

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 B. Terms of reference
C. Service contract
D. Accountability
E. Obligations

79. Which of the following is NOT among the relevance of project monitoring and evaluation?
A. assess the stakeholders’ understanding of the project;
B. minimise the risk of project failure;
C. promote systematic and professional management;
D. assess progress in implementation
E. None of these

80. This is a process which determines as systematically and as objectively as possible the relevance,
effectiveness, efficiency, sustainability and impact of activities in the light of a project / programme
performance, focusing on the analysis of the progress made towards the achievement of the stated
objectives.
A. Monitoring
B. Reporting
C. Review
D. Evaluation
E. Assessment

81. Project evaluation takes place only during the ending or closure phase.
A. This statement is true since evaluation report is being submitted during the terminal reporting.
B. This statement is false. The project evaluation begins during the planning phase and comes even
after the project has ended.
C. This statement is relatively true to those NGOs taking sustainability mechanisms to their projects.
D. Both B & C
E. Both A, B, & C

82. Evaluation is important because:

A. It assists to determine the degree of achievement of the objectives.
B. It determines and identifies the problems associated with programme planning and
implementation.
C. It generates data that allows for cumulative learning which, in turn, contributes to better designed
programmes, improved management and a better assessment of their impact.
D. It ensures staffs job security when the project is going longer.
E. It assists in the reformulation of objectives, policies, and strategies in projects / programmes.

83. Many practitioners overlook the project closing process group. To them, successful project delivery is
defined by the completion of deliverables as per the objectives of time and cost. They consider
project closing as overburden, work that is done to satisfy organizational require. Which of the factors
do not allow project closure?
A. Assurance that all the work has been completed,
B. Assurance that all agreed upon project management processes have been executed, and
C. Formal recognition of the completion of a project—everyone agrees that it is completed.
D. The donor terminates the funding contract due to pandemic.

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 E. Request of the local implementer to put hold the project.

84. Another result of inadequate project closure is the lack of a proper hand over or transition of the
project deliverables to business as usual (or operations). When a deliverable is produced, the parties
involved with operating and maintaining that product need to receive the appropriate training,
awareness, and tools to do their job effectively and efficiently. They also need to understand—and
commit—to their new responsibility. The number of organizations that fail to conduct this process
adequately, comprehensively, and in a timely manner, is alarming. This phenomenon is called:
A. The never ending project
B. The endless funds
C. The Orphan Product
D. The broken promise
E. Corruption

85. In the stages of project management, the project closure helps avoid:
A. Repeating mistakes on future projects and objectives
B. Having final products or deliverables without dedicated support and resources
C. Failing to identify the team or individuals who will own and maintain the solution following final
delivery
D. Creating liability issues resulting from incomplete payments, contracts, or deliverables
E. All of these

86. The purpose of this report is to take the steps to finalise, close-out and document the status of the
project at completion.
A. Terminal report
B. Closure report
C. Final report
D. Handover report
E. Evaluation report

87. How memorandum of agreement differs from memorandum of understanding?

A. The agreement is a document in which two or more parties agreed upon to work together for a
common objective, whereas the Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) is a written document
which describes the terms of an agreement.
B. The elements of an agreement are Offer, Acceptance while the elements of a MoU are Offer,
Acceptance, Intention, and Consideration.
C. The significant difference between An Agreement and a MoU is that an Agreement can be made
enforceable in the court of law, but a MoU cannot be made enforceable, but however parties are
bind by estoppel.
D. An Agreement is of binding nature, whereas a MoU is binding upon the parties if the
memorandum is signed in exchange for monetary consideration.
E. All of these

88. This document helps NGOs plan a project from the idea stage to reality. It provides a way to flesh
out, explain, test, prove, critique, and share the project details.
A. Project report

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 B. Project concept note
C. Grant
D. Module
E. Project proposal

89. This document is a summary of a proposal containing a brief description of the idea of the project and
the objectives to be pursued.
A. Project report
B. Project concept note
C. Grant
D. Module
E. Project proposal

90. During the project midterm or final term evaluation, an evaluator writes a report called
A. Interim report
B. Terminal report
C. Inception report
D. Performance report
E. Project update

91. Universalism as a basis of social allocation is BEST defined as:

A. Resources that adequately meet all existing needs of clients
B. Benefits made available to an entire population as a basic right
C. Services that are consistently provided regardless of geographic locale
D. Distribution of assistance that disproportionately benefits those in power

92. An example of cultural blindness in social work practice is:

A. Viewing the needs of all clients, not just those in the dominant culture, as equally important
B. Identifying cultural norms that have impacted on clients’ presenting problems
C. Advocating for the rights of all clients regardless of culture, race, and/or ethnicity
D. Applying helping approaches universally to all clients without considering cultural diversity
E. All of these

93. Every project will encounter change, because aspects and components in a project change. These
include requirements, markets, client preferences, finances, available technology, or resources, to
name a few. Changes, both positive and negative, is a natural and expected phenomenon for any project.
There are times when it can be beneficial but mostly the cons outweigh the pros. Accordingly, 52% of
project teams reported facing scope creep in 2017 and the trend is continuing upwards. This untoward
and a definite risk and disadvantage to project is called:
A. Scope creep
B. Entropy
C. Inadequate risk management
D. Lack of clear goals and success criteria
E. All of these

ANUAR M. MUSTAPHA, RSW, MTSW

94. Change is inevitable, and scope creep can occur in every occasion of change. Project managers cannot
totally stop scope creep and should always expect it. They should document requirements properly,
create a clear project schedule, and engage the project team. Creating a change control process
enables a project team to positively handle scope creep. This process includes all of the following
EXCEPT:
A. Monitoring the project’s status and comparing it with the baseline scope
B. Determining the cause, source, and degree of the changes from the scope creep
C. Terminate the contract with funders
D. Setting up a change management process that handles change requests, impact assessment, and
recommendation or approval.
E. Regular communication, verification, and reporting with project sponsors and stakeholders

95. Due to COVID-19 pandemic, there are projects requested for additional time beyond the established
expiration date stated in the agreement to ensure adequate completion of the originally
approved project. This also means allowing the completion of project aims without additional funds
being provided by the sponsor.
A. Project expansion
B. Project extension
C. No-cost extension
D. Project continuation
E. None of this
96. According to Bruce Tuckman, during this phase the team begins to address the project work, the
technical decisions and the project management approach. If the team members are not collaborative
or open to different ideas the environment can become counterproductive.
A. Norming
B. Storming
C. Forming
D. Performing
E. Adjourning

97. In Tuckman work, project team is starting to work normally together. The team members begin to
work together and adjust their work habits and behaviors to support the team instead of just working
individually or thinking that everyone has a better way. Maybe we’re starting to come together as a
team. The team members are learning to trust each other.
A. Norming
B. Storming
C. Forming
D. Performing
E. Adjourning

98. This phase is where team members meet and learn about the project and their formal roles and
responsibilities. Team members tend to be independent and not as open in this phase, so we’re still
not really a collective team, we’re just independent people coming together. We’re still a little bit
wary.
A. Norming

ANUAR M. MUSTAPHA, RSW, MTSW

 B. Storming
C. Forming
D. Performing
E. Adjourning

99. In this phase, Tuckman describes the project team’s feeling: we are performing as a team, and this is
where it’s a well-organized unit, we are we are really thinking as one team here. We’re
interdependent, not independent. We have our skills but we are working towards one goal very
collaboratively, and we work through issues smoothly and effectively because we all feel as though
we’re the one team.
A. Norming
B. Storming
C. Forming
D. Performing
E. Adjourning

100. In project management, this refers to the set of boundaries that define the extent of a project.
Understanding this part allows the project manager and project team to understand what falls inside
or outside the boundaries of the project.
A. Risks
B. Assumptions
C. Length
D. Timeline
E. Scope

101. Henri Fayol and Henry Gantt are the forefathers of Project Management (Chiu Y., 2010). While
some may disagree with this statement, many will agree that both Fayol and Gantt have made
significant contributions to the management field. Through observation, Fayol identified five
functions of management, which he believed are universal. Fayol’s five functions of management are:
A. planning, organizing, commanding, coordinating and controlling
B. Initiation, planning, execution, control, closure
C. Forming, norming, storming, performing, adjourning
D. Conceptualization, proposal, review, testing, close-out
E. None of these

102. Which one of the following is not an attribute of a project?

A. Definite starting date
B. Has no definite end date
C. Creates a product, service, or result
D. Requires resources
E. All of these

103. You are explaining to a junior engineer the difference between a project and operations. Which
one of the following is true only of operations?
A. They are performed by people.
B. They are constrained by limited resources.
C. They are on-going.
D. They are planned, executed, and controlled.
E. None of these

ANUAR M. MUSTAPHA, RSW, MTSW

104. Project managers are not responsible for which one of the following in most organizations?
A. Identifying the project requirements
B. Selecting the projects to be initiated
C. Balancing demands for time, cost, scope, and quality
D. Establishing clear and achievable project objectives
E. All of these

105. You and William, a project stakeholder, are discussing risks within your project. Which one of
the following best describes risk?
A. Any event that can cause your project to fail.
B. Any event that may have a positive or negative effect on your project's team.
C. An uncertain event that may have a positive or negative effect on your project.
D. An event that will cause time and cost constraints to be broken.
E. All of these

106. Which knowledge area includes the creation of the project charter?
A. Project scope management
B. Project cost management
C. Project integration management
D. Project communications management
E. All of these

107. Who is usually responsible for portfolio management within an organization?

A. Project managers
B. Project sponsors
C. Stakeholders
D. Senior management
E. None of these

108. Which one of the following is an interpersonal skill a project manager must have to be
successful?
A. Sales and marketing
B. Leadership
C. Health and safety practices
D. Information technology experience
E. All of these

109. Nancy is the project manager of the INCORP1 Project. She and the stakeholders created a scope
two months ago, but since then, the scope has evolved and now provides much more detail about the
project. The process of the scope evolving is also known as which one of the following terms?
A. Decomposition
B. Scope verification
C. Scope creep
D. Progressive elaboration
E. None of these

ANUAR M. MUSTAPHA, RSW, MTSW