1. Which cells of the retina are responsible for scotopic vision?
a. bipolar cells
b. rod cells
c. ganglion cells
d. cone cells
2. Retina develops from
a. surface ectoderm
b. mesoderm
c. optic vesicle
d. embryonic fissure
3. All the following bones form part of orbit except:
a. Greater wing of sphenoid.
b. Frontal bone.
c .Maxillary bone.
d. Nasal bone.
5. Hyaluronic acid is found in ?
a. Vitreous humor
b. Synovial fluid
c. Cartilage
d. Cornea
6. Lamina cribrosa is present in
a. choroid
b. ciliary body
c. sclera
d. retina
7. Innermost nuclear zone of lens
a. Embryonic
b. Fetal
c. Infantile
d. Adult
8. Human colour vision is
a. Monochromatic
b. Deuchromatic
c. Trichromatic
d. None
9. Treatment option for congenital colour blindness
a. Tinted glasses
b. Tinted contact lens
c. Both
d. None
10. When all the three types of cones are stimulated equally and simultaneously, the color
perceived will be:
a. Black.
b. Brown.
c. Orange.
d. White.
11. The trichromatic theory of colour vision has been propounded by
a. Schiotz
b. von Graefe
c. Young-Helmholtz
d. none of the above
12. Functional hypermetropia occur in
a. Aphakia
b. Pseudophakia with under correction
c. Paralysis of accommodation
d. Acquired cortical sclerosis
13. 1mm increase in radius of curvature of cornea results in
a. 6D myopia
b. 6D hypermetropia
c. 3D myopia
d. 3D hypermetropia
14. Test not used in diagnosis of astigmatism
a. Astigmatic fan
b. Stenopaec slit
c. Bagolini striated glasses
d. retinoscopy
15. When a cycloplegic retinoscopy has been performed using cycloplentolate, how many
dioptres should be deducted to compensate the ciliary tone?
a. 1.00D
b. 0.75D
c. 0.50D
d. 1.50D
16. In duochrome test, slightly myopic patient see letters in _____ sharper.
a. Red
b. Green
c. Both clear
d. Both blurred
17. Which of the following is not a cycloplegic drug
a. atropine
b. cyclopentolate
c. homatropine
d. Pilocarpine
18. Skiascopy is another name for
a. Distant direct ophthalmoscopy
b. Retinoscopy
c. Perimetry
d. Gonioscopy
19. How much angle should each letter substend at the nodal point of the eye at the given
distance in the snellen's chart
a. 1 minutes
b. 5 minutes
c. 1 degrees
d. 5 degrees
20. Which colour of light deviates maximum in the dispersion of white light by prism?
a. Violet
b. Blue
c. Green
d. Red
21. The image of an object formed by reflection at a plane surface is not:
a. Erect
b. Virtual
c. Real
d. Laterally inverted
22. In cycloplegic retinoscopy using 1%atropine, the amount of diopters deducted to
compensate ciliary muscle tone is
a. 0 D
b. 0.5 D
c. 1 D
d. 1.5 D
23. In retinoscopy, Use of cycloplegic drugs are contraindicated in patients with ______
a. Primary open angle glaucoma
b. Primary angle closure glaucoma
c. Cataract
d. Spasm of Accommodation
24. Which of the following is the best term that implies perfect vision?
a. Ametropia
b. Emmetropia
c. Isometropia
d. Orthophoria
25. Out of the following which is the shortest acting mydriatic
a. tropicamide
b. homatropine
c. cyclopentolate
d. atropine
26. People with which type refractive error are at high risk for PACG
a. Myopia
b. Hypermetropia
c. Astigmatism
d. Presbyopia
27. power of a lens with focal length 10cm?
a. 10D
b. 1/10D
c. 1D
d. 100D
28. The power -2.00DS/+1.5DC x 75 is
a. Simple myopic astigmatism
b. Compound myopic astigmatism
c. Compound hypermetropic astigmatism
d. Mixed astigmatism
29. In compound hypermetropic astigmatism
a. both the foci are in front of retina
b. both the foci are behind the retina
c. one focus is in front and one focus is behind the retina
d. none of the above
30.The complications of myopia include all EXCEPT
a. vitreous degeneration
b. retinal detachment
c. cataract
d. closed angle glaucoma
31. All are causes of irregular astigmatism except
a. Pterygium
b. Keratoconus
c. Corneal scarring
d. Cataract surgery
32. Blurring of vision for near work occurs in
a. hypermetropia
b. presbyopia
c. both of the above
d. none of the above
33. The most diagnosis sign of anterior uveitis is
a. Aqueous flare
b. KPs
c. Miosis
d. Raised IOP
34. Chalazion is the infection of:
a. Meibomian gland
b. Zeis gland
c. Lacrimal gland
d. Molls gland
35. Koeppe's nodules are seen on
a. Lid margin
b. Pupillary margin
c. Limbus
d. Conjunctiva
36. Abnormal dryness is seen in
a. Xerophthalmia
b. Trichiasis
c. Hordeolum
d. Pterygium
37. The deposits seen in arcus senilis is
a. lipid
b. calcium
c. hyaline
d. none of the above
38. Anterior uveitis include all except
a. Iritis
b. Iridocyclitis
c. Anterior cyclitis
d. Pars planitis
39. Abnormally eccentric placed pupil is known as
a. Iredermia
b. Corectopia
c. Heterochromia
d. Polycoria
40. Watery discharge is seen in which conjunctivitis
a. Bacterial
b. Viral
c. Chlamydial
d. All
41. Phakolytic glaucoma is best treated by:
a. Peripheral iridectomy
b. Cataract extraction
c. Trabeculectomy
d. Miotics and Beta blockers
42. Rapid change in presbyopic correction is a classical feature of
a. Retinal detachment
b. open angle glaucoma
c. closed angle glaucoma
d. Senile Cataract
43. In absence of light pupil will
a. Dilate
b. Constrict
c. Remains same
d. None
44. Lesion of the optic tract causes
a. homonymous hemianopia
b. bitemporal hemianopia
c. binasal hemianopia
d. ipsilateral blindness
45. Scotopic vision is due to
a. cones
b. rods
c. both
d. none
46. _____ is also known as Infraduction
a. Depression
b. Intorsion
c. Adduction
d. Abduction
47. Worth’s Four Dot Test can be used for
a. refinement of final sphere in refraction
b. Assessment of BSV
c. Both
d. None
48. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors lower IOP by
a. Decreasing trabecular outflow
b. Increasing trabecular outflow
c. Increasi uveo-scleral outflow
d. Decreasing aqueous production
49. Side effect of corticosteroid
a. Cataract
b. Glaucoma
c. Delayed wound healing
d. All
50. What is the definition of low vision
a. Best corrected vision 6/9- 3/60
b. Best corrected vision less than 6/18- 3/60
c. Best corrected vision less than 6/18- 6/60
d. Best corrected vision 6/9- 6/60
