Republic of the Philippines

Department of Education
Region Ill

REGIONAL DIAGNOSTIC TEST IN SCIENCE 8

Direction: Choose the letter of the correct answer. Write the letter of your choice in
the answer sheet.

1. You are riding in a bus and the driver suddenly applied his force to the brakes.
You notice that your body moves forward, the bus moves again and your body moves
backward. Which property of matter illustrates this observation?
A. Force C. Mass
B. Inertia D. Net force

2. At what point is the kinetic energy of the child playing in a slide maximum?
A. at the top of the slide C. in the middle of the slide
B. at any point of the slide D. before the end of the slide

3. Which quantity has the greatest influence on the amount of kinetic energy that a
vehicle has while traveling down the road?
A. Mass C. Velocity
B. Size D. Weight

4. In 1947, Chuck Yeager became the first pilot in history confirmed to have
exceeded the speed of sound in level flight. Why did Chuck Yeager’s team choose a
high altitude to break the sound barrier?
A. when the temperature is lower, the speed of sound is faster
B. when the temperature is higher, the speed of the sound is faster
C. when the temperature is higher, the speed of the sound is slower
D. when the temperature is constant, the speed of sound is also constant

5. A rainbow can be seen in the sky after a rain. Which of the following statements
best explain this spectacular phenomenon?
A. The white clouds served as a prism made of different colors.
B. The raindrops act like a prism that separates sunlight to different colors.
C. The colors of the rainbow were derived from the raindrops in the atmosphere.
D. The sunlight is reflected from the ground to sky and separated into different
colors.

6. Metals are good conductors of heat and electricity. Which of the following justify
why metals are conductors of heat and electricity?
A. high elasticity of metals
B. relatively high density of metals
C. looseness of the outer electron in the metal atom
D. similarity between thermal and electrical conductivity
7. Which of the following electrical components is the symbol of resistor?
A. B. C. D.

8. Ohm’s law describes the relationship among current, potential difference (voltage),
and resistance. Which of the following statements describe Ohm’s law?
A. Current is directly related to resistance
B. Voltage is inversely related to current
C. At constant voltage, as the resistance increases, current decreases
D. At constant voltage, as the resistance increases, current also increases

9. In the table given below, which of the following electrical appliances has the
highest amount of current flowing in it?

A. TV C. Washing machine
B. Rice cooker D. Electric fan

10. In a series circuit, if one light bulb is burned out, what will happen to the other
light bulbs?
A. They will not light up C. The brightness will increase.
B. They will continue to light up D. The brightness will decrease.

11. Which of the following is a disadvantage of connecting too many bulbs in a

parallel connection?
A. Even if you switch off one bulb, other bulbs are not affected.
B. It requires the use of several conducting wires of varying sizes.
C. All bulbs in parallel connection are directly connected to the voltage source.
D. Even if one of the light bulbs is damaged, all other light bulbs will still function.

12. Most of the appliances around the house use electricity that is why it is a must
to have several safety devices to prevent fire and electrocution. Which of the
following statements is NOT true about safety devices used at home?
A. use to prevent electric shock.
B. cut the flow of current in case of overloading.
C. used to provide an alternative route for current in the case of a grounded circuit.
D. supply an unsteady amount of voltage to protect appliances against overloading.

13. The Bohol fault system in Bohol Province, Philippines is an example of a fault
where an upper block of rock slides over a lower block which is separated from it by
the fault. What do you call this type of fault?

a. lateral fault
b. normal fault
c. reverse fault
d. strike-slip fault

14. Most earthquakes occur on faults. A fault is a thin zone of crushed rock between
two blocks of rock and can be any length, from centimeters to thousands of
kilometers. When an earthquake occurs on a fault, the rock on one side of the fault
slips with respect to the other, but how do faults produce earthquakes?
 a. Tectonic plates which collide produce earthquakes.
b. Magma which spreads beneath the rock layers produces faults.
c. Rock materials from underneath that go out along faults produce
earthquakes.
d. Energy from inside the Earth makes the ground move. Once friction is
overcome, a fault slips producing an earthquake.

15. What do you call the place inside Earth's crust where an earthquake originates?
a. Fault c. Mantle
b. Focus d. Epicenter

16. You are a seismologist trying to find out the exact location of a recent destructive
earthquake. Which of the following sequences must be applied?
I. Obtain data from three seismic stations.
II. Solve for epicentral distance from the stations.
III. Use a triangulation method to locate the earthquake's epicenter.
IV. Determine the time interval between the arrival of the P and S waves.

a. I, II, III, IV c. I, IV, II, III

b. I, IV, III, II d. II, III, IV, I

17. How do geologists locate the epicenter of an earthquake? They measure the ____
a. largest surface wave to hit the surface.
b. total damage of the p wave, s wave, and surface wave.
c. difference between seismic waves on the first seismograph to receive the wave.
d. difference between seismic waves on three or more seismographs. The
epicenter is where the circles intercept.

18. Which of the following seismic waves travels the fastest?

a. Long Wave c. Secondary Wave
b. Primary wave d. Body wave

19. How would you describe the weather in the eye of a typhoon?
a. calm c. intense
b. windy d. violent

20. Where do typhoons usually start to develop?

a. mountain ranges c. high-pressure area
b. low-pressure area d. area with high-temperature

21. Which of the following is the MOST LIKELY reason why a typhoon dies as it hits
the landmass?
a. Its pressure remains constant.
b. Its wind speed is affected by the barrier trees.
c. Its wind speed is affected by steep mountains
d. It has not had enough fast-rising water vapor to sustain it.

22. What do you call the tropical cyclones that are found in the North western
Pacific Ocean?
a. Cyclone c. Tornado
b. Typhoon d. Hurricane
23. The Philippines is above the equator and in the northern hemisphere of the
globe. How does the wind blow in the northern hemisphere?
a. clockwise c. b only
b. counterclockwise d. both a & b

24. How does the orbit of a comet compare to the orbit of a planet?
a. Comets and planets have the same orbit
b. Comets have a shorter rounder orbit than a planet
c. Comets have a longer more oblong like orbit than a planet
d. Comets do not have an orbit while a planet has the least eccentric orbit.

25. Which of the following refers to rocky bodies that have fallen from space and hit
the earth’s surface?
a. Meteors
b. Asteroids
c. Meteorites
d. Meteoroid

26. Which of the following states of matter has the weakest attraction force?
a. Gas c. Plasma
b. Liquid d. Solid

27.Which of the following combination of temperatures would change the state of

liquid water?
a. 00 C and 1000 C c. -40 C and 500 C
b. 20 C and 320 C d. -50 C and 370 C

28.Which of the following changes in matter demonstrates an example of a chemical

property?
a. Boiling water c. Melting of ice
b. Dissolving salt d. Tarnishing of silver plate

29.Which of the following indicates that a chemical reaction has occurred?

a. Deformed shape c. Formed Gas
b. Dissolved salt d. Melted Ice

30.In which state of matter are the particles exhibiting a vibrating motion and
moving the least random?
a. Gas c. Plasma
b. Liquid d. Solid

31.What do you call the process of changing the solid phase without passing
through the liquid state?
a. Condensation c. Melting
b. Deposition d. Sublimation

32.Which of the following situation demonstrates a physical change in matter?

a. Burned paper c. Fermented Fish
b. Rusted Iron d. Crumpled Paper
33.Which process is the reverse of evaporation?
a. Boiling c. Freezing
b. Condensation d. Meltin

34. Where does the massive part of an atom come from?

a. Masses of p+ and e- c. masses of p+ and n0
b. Masses on n0 and e- d. Masses of e-

35. Which of the sub-atomic particles of an atom is the lightest?

a. Nucleons
b. Electrons
c. Neutrons
d. Proton

36.What chemical property determines the element in the periodic table?

a. Number of electrons
b. Number of Protons
c. Number of neutrons
d. Number of Nucleus

37.Clara is investigating which among the sample of materials will react vigorously
with cold water. She labeled the first sample as element A, the second as
element B, The third as element C, and the fourth as element D. She found out
that Element C reacted vigorously with cold water. Which among the following
elements is referred as the element C?

A. Copper C. Lithium
B. Iron D. Manganese

38.Maria was eating with her friends. She was talking excitedly when she suddenly
got choked. Which of the following might not have closed properly?

A. epiglottis C. trachea
B. stomach D. tongue

39. The digestive system works like a factory. Materials are converted into usable and
unusable forms. The usable materials are transported to the cells to nourish the
human body. What happens to unusable materials?
A. It goes to the liver to await disposal.
B. It goes into the stomach to await disposal.
C. It goes into the small intestine to await disposal.
D. It goes into the large intestine to await disposal.

40. Marvin observes an onion root tip cell under a compound microscope and sees
that there are dark stained chromosomes at the center of the cell. In what phase of
mitosis does the cell undergo?
 A. Anaphase C. Prophase
B. Metaphase D. Telophase

41. The teacher tells her class that the number of daughter cells produced in mitosis
and meiosis is different. How do these two processes differ?
A. Meiosis produces 2 identical cells, while mitosis produces 4 identical cells.
B. Mitosis produces 4 different cells, while meiosis produces 2 identical cells.
C. Meiosis produces 4 identical cells, while mitosis produces 2 identical cells.
D. Mitosis produces 2 identical cells, while meiosis produces 4 different cells.

42. Maintaining the chromosome number in meiosis is very important. Which of the
following would probably happen if its correct number was not maintained during
the process?
A. it will cause a successful pregnancy.
B. it will cause a nondisjunction of the chromosome.
C. it will decrease the likelihood of chromosomal abnormalities.
D. it will enable living organisms to grow and self-sustain their bodies.

43. Brown eyes (B) are dominant and will cover up the blue eyes (b) upon expression.
In a Punnett square shown below, predict the probability of the offspring inheriting
brown eyes from the parents.

A. 25% C. 75%
B. 50% D. 100%

44. Species are the lowest level in the hierarchy of biological classification. It is the
lowest and the real basic unit of classification. Which of the following statements
describe a species based on the biological species concept?
A. It has a similar structure and appearance.
B. It can hybridize with each other to produce infertile offspring.
C. It can successfully interbreed but cannot breed with other groups.
D. It is physically separated from other organisms with a similar appearance.

45. An unknown organism was shown to the class by their teacher using a
compound microscope. Upon careful observation, the class found out that it is
unicellular, exhibits locomotion through flagella and can be found usually in aquatic
environments. In what kingdom does this organism belong?

A. Animalia C. Plantae
B. Fungi D. Protista

46. Stability of an ecosystem refers to its capability to return to a steady state after
an external disturbance. Which of the following correctly matches the relationship
between stability and biodiversity?
A. low biodiversity - low stability
B. high biodiversity - low stability
C. low biodiversity - high stability
D. high biodiversity - high stability
 47. The transfer of energy on organisms varies from each trophic level. Based on
the illustrated food web below, which organism receives the least amount of energy
from the producers?

A. Hawk C. Rabbit
B. Mouse D. Snake

48. Each type of organism in our planet plays a significant role in the cycling of
nutrients in an ecosystem. Based on the illustration below, which of the following
groups could contribute much to the abrupt reduction in the amount of energy if
removed from the cycle?

A. Consumers C. Inorganic Nutrients

B. Decomposers D. Producers

49. Which scenario does NOT justify the relationship of each organism on our planet
in the cycling of materials in the ecosystem?
A. Number of top predators increases in an ecosystem.
B. Organisms break apart dead organisms into simpler inorganic materials.
C. Plants absorb carbon from the environment in photosynthesis and return it in
respiration.
D. Organisms return minerals and nutrients back to the environment so that the
materials can then be used by other organisms.

50. Human beings are the primary characters involved in environmental

conservation. Which of the following are NOT involved in reducing negative
environmental impact?
I. Recycling
II. Driving less
III. Reduction of electronic usage
IV. Promoting the use of disposable items
V. Growing variety of crops rather than just one crop
VI. Application of herbicides and pesticides

A. III and V
B. IV and VI
C. I, II and III
D. IV, V and VI
51. What do you call the device used as early as 200 B.C. to show the expansion of
air when there was an increase in temperature?
A. thermoscope
B. thermograph
C. thermometer
D. thermopile

52. Digestive enzymes are the primary tools for the digestion of food. But before
everything else happens, digestion begins in the mouth. Which of the following is NOT
true?
A. The tongue performs chemical digestion.
B. The digestive juices react easier with food when chewed.
C. The salivary glands secretes enzymes that aids digestion
D. The mouth and teeth facilitate in the breaking down of food into smaller pieces.

53. Marvin wants to match the types of cells with how they are produced in the cell
division cycle. Which of the following correctly matches a type of cell with how it is
produced?
A. Egg cell → meiosis in males
B. Sperm cell → mitosis in males
C. Body cell → mitosis in females
D. Body cell → meiosis in females

54. In a mountain, where you can find different plants and animals inhabiting the
area, we can conclude that the stability is high. What factor helps the mountain to
maintain its stability?
A. environment
B. high biodiversity
C. low biodiversity
D. population

55. The Industrial Revolution had made more advancement in the field of agriculture
and food production. Amidst these developments, which of the following does NOT
demonstrate its adverse consequence on the environment?
A. depletion of natural resources
B. increased use of fossil fuels
C. growing demand for agricultural products.
D. reductions in biodiversity

56. Which of the following samples of matter inside the container is the least dense?

”http://jingoddard.weebly.com/mrs-goddards-homeroom-class-blog/float-or-
sink-its-density
A. Plastic block B. Water C. Syrup D. Cork

57. If element Selenium has 34 protons and 45 neutrons, what is its mass number?
A. 11 B. 34 C. 45 D. 79
58. For instance, your house is near a fault, which of the following are you
going to consider doing?
A. inform your parents about it and evacuate immediately
B. inform the PHIVOLCS to monitor your house daily
C. tell your parents to construct a big house
D. take a selfie of the fault
.

59. What public storm signal is in effect if the maximum wind speed is 171-220
kph?
A. PSWS #1 C. PSWS #2
B. PSWS #3 D. PSWS #4

60. Which of the following refers to space fragments of relatively tiny rocks?
A. Comets C. Asteroids
B. Planets D. Meteoroids