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Variation A 2019

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
62 views5 pages

Variation A 2019

Uploaded by

misheel777b
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as DOCX, PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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Элсэлтийн ерөнхий шалгалт-2019 он Хувилбар А-Англи хэл

Variation A
Part I

SECTION 1. GRAMMAR (10 minutes)


Read the following sentences. Choose the best answer for each gap. /12x1=12 points/

1. They arrived _________ three o’clock __________ the afternoon.


A. in / for B. at / in C. for / in D. at / as E. on / since
2. Sue and Bill _________ a business in the suburbs at the weekends, but they work in the city on weekdays.
A. runs B. is running C. running D. run E. ran
3. I _________ on a farm during my last summer holiday.
A. am working B. working C. worked D. was work E. work
4. Anna ___________ a good job at the city center recently.
A. have found B. has been finding C. are finding D. has been found E. has found
5. We’re ____________ a party next Saturday. Would you like ____________?
A. having / to come C. having / have had come E. having to / came
B. have / to come D. having / coming
6. Actually, I don’t like food __________ is very spicy.
A. when B. where C. whose D. which E. who
7. ___________ you speak Spanish when you were a child?
A. Can B. Could C. Might D. Should E. Must
8. Mother wants him ______________ to the countryside during the summer.
A. go B. goes C. to go D. going E. went
9. May Day _______________ in Great Britain with singing and dancing around a Maypole every year.
A. was celebrated C. has celebrated E. is celebrating
B. is celebrated D. celebrated
10. He’s ______________ at sport than I am.
A. badly B. worst C. the worse D. the worst E. much worse
11. Give me Peter’s letter. If I ________________ him, I _______________ it to him.
A. see / would give C. see / will give E. see / would give
B. saw / would given D. had seen / would give
12. The teacher asked the boy why _________________ late for the lesson.
A. he had arrived C. did he arrive E. he arrives
B. had he arrived D. he will arrive

SECTION 2. VOCABULARY (15 minutes)


Task 1. Read the sentences and choose the best one for each blank. /6x2=12 points/

13. Her _________________ as a dancer came to an end when she broke her leg.
A. occupation B. profession C. job D. career E. work
14. Ann is a very ________________ worker, I can always depend on her if I want something on time.
A. optimistic B. persistent C. reliable D. impatient E. selfish
15. The tourists bought tickets for a(n) _________________ around the town.
A. excursion B. expedition C. observation D. exploration E. decoration
16. She was _________________ of which way to go, so she asked a policeman.
A. believable B. secure C. hopeful D. confident E. unsure
17. There must be something we can do to cope with the _________________ in Ethiopia since people are starving.
A. storm B. flood C. famine D. earthquake E. blizzard
18. You shouldn’t _______________ her for not speaking to you. After all, it was your fault.
A. exclaim B. accuse C. chat D. apologize E. blame
Элсэлтийн ерөнхий шалгалт-2019 он Хувилбар А-Англи хэл
Task 2. Choose the one that has the similar meaning to the underlined word. /3x2=6 points/
19. Coffee, tea, wine, beer and milk are beverages.
A. meals B. snacks C. cuisines D. drinks E. foods
20. A chemist can separate a medicine into its components.
A. mixtures B. admixtures C. elements D. complexities E. items
21. Blizzards are expected this winter in some regions of Texas, USA.
A. Snowstorms B. Tornados C. Frost D. Hail E. Sleet

Task 3. Phrasal verbs. Choose the correct particles.


22. The washing machine has broken _____________. I’ll call a repairman.
A. up B. in C. into D. out E. down
23. The firemen put the fire _____________ very quickly, so it didn’t spread.
A. off B. out C. up D. down E. away
24. They turned him _______________ for the job because he didn’t have the right qualifications.
A. on B. into C. down D. up E. off
25. Rachel takes ______________ her grandmother, they look very much alike.
A. off B. after C. over D. up E. away

Task 4. Choose the best answer.


26. _______________ is someone who uses scientific knowledge to develop machines.
A. An engineer C. An astronomer E. A meteorologist
B. An astrologer D. A carpenter
27. _______________ is someone who is responsible for the preparation and publication of a newspaper.
A. A journalist C. An editor E. A bookseller
B. A publisher D. A newsreader

SECTION 3. COMMUNICATION (5 minutes)

Choose the correct question that goes with the answers.

28. He’s a bit like his father – sociable and friendly.


A. What does Nick’s father like doing? D. What is Nick doing?
B. What does Nick look like? E. Who does Nick take after?
C. What does Nick like doing?
29. It’s about 82 square metres.
A. Which floor is your flat on? D. How big is your flat?
B. What’s your flat like? E. How do you get to your flat?
C. How far is the centre from your flat?
30. Quite casual – she’s not keen on formal clothes.
A. Why did she wear formal clothes? D. What does she wear formal clothes?
B. What does Ann look like? E. What kind of clothes does Ann wear?
C. Where does she wear expensive clothes?
31. We’re fine, thanks.
A. What do you like doing? D. How do you do that?
B. How are you? E. What do you do?
C. Where are you?
32. Plastic and steel, I think.
A. What is it made of? D. What do you use it for?
B. Where is it from? E. Where is it made?
C. Where were they found?
Элсэлтийн ерөнхий шалгалт-2019 он Хувилбар А-Англи хэл

SECTION 4. READING (20 minutes)

Read the article and choose the best answer for the questions. (8x2=16 points)
Gentle Gorillas, Violent Times
Conservationists have put in years of hard work in central Africa in order to prevent gorillas from becoming completely extinct,
but now only 600 mountain gorillas remain on just 285 square miles of land. Three hundred of them inhabit a small forested area on
the slopes of the Virunga volcanoes, surrounded by villages. The other 300 live twenty miles north in Uganda’s forest, which is now a
protected area known as Bwindi impenetrable National Park. This is the total world population of mountain gorillas living in the wild.
People tend to view gorillas as fierce, savage animals, so I approached them cautiously. The gorillas soon accepted my
presence. If you look into a gorilla’s eyes, you see gentleness and intelligence. Unlike the clownish chimpanzee, gorillas are calm and
shy. They do play, but sometimes they seem almost embarrassed by their own high spirits. They spend their thirty to forty-year lives
mostly in mountain forests, eating thistles and bamboo shoots and sitting thoughtfully. Their patience and gentleness is very attractive
to human observers.
Yet the mountain gorillas have suffered greatly. Throughout the first quarter of the 20 th century, more than fifty gorillas were
killed or captured in Virunga: then, in 1925, Carl Akeley of the American Natural History Museum encouraged Belgium to establish
Africa’s first national park. However, when civil war broke out in 1960, forcing the Belgian park staff to leave, hunters were free to hunt
gorillas. Many were captured so that their heads and hands could be sold to tourists as souvenirs.
By 1981 there were only 250 mountain gorillas left. A wildlife conservation society in New York began ‘gorilla tourism’ and an
educational programme for the Rwandans. This created greater awareness of gorillas and their endangered habitat. The conservation
group trained gorillas so that they were comfortable being observed at close quarters. Tourists paid large amounts to see them, and
Rwanda made a profit; it became a model nation of conservation.
Recently, civil war has again threatened the existence of gorillas, and organizations are reinvesting in land protection and
tourist schemes. For the first time ever, people and gorillas are dependent on each other for survival. The Rwandans need the money
the gorillas attract and gorillas desperately need protection. Farmland has been taken by the state and the farmers removed from their
land: despite this, there is a real love for the gorillas. I remember what Nshogoza, my guide, said: “When I was a boy, I heard the
gorillas were men who were very bad and who went to live in the forest: but gorillas are better than us. They are peaceful. They have
no tribes. When they fight they have a good reason. We fight for nothing.” In a sense, Nshogoza is right.

33. According to the text, mountain gorillas ….


A. now number between 285 and 600. D. live in Australia.
B. have completely died out. E. now only number 300.
C. live in only two areas in the wild.
34. The author was under the impression that gorillas ….
A. could show no emotions. D. should show their feelings.
B. were fiercer than chimpanzees. E. were aggressive.
C. were afraid of chimpanzees.
35. Carl Akeley ….
A. captured gorillas in a national park. D. built a zoo in Belgium.
B. made Africa establish a zoo. E. built a zoo in Australia.
C. helped to protect the gorillas.
36. Between 1960 and 1981, …
A. many gorillas were killed. D. 250 gorillas disappeared.
B. there was a war between the hunters and the Belgians. E. all gorillas were extinct.
C. there was a war between Belgium and Uganda.
37. The wildlife conservation society in New York …
A. trained gorillas to observe people.
B. sent gorillas to the south to survive.
C. arranged cheap holidays in Rwanda.
D. encouraged people to go and see the mountain gorillas.
E. sold gorillas as souvenirs to tourists.
38. What does ‘it’ in paragraph 4 refer to?
A. money B. the gorillas’ habitat C. Rwanda D. the war E. tourist attraction
39. Why do the Rwandans depend on the gorillas?
A. Because people need to be safe. D. Because gorillas are threatened with extinction.
B. Because of economic reasons. E. Because they need farmland to run businesses.
C. Because gorillas are peaceful.
40. Gorillas fight …
A. when they are angry. D. when they have a tough reason.
B. when they are very aggressive. E. when the battle is necessary.
C. when they have a bad reason.
Элсэлтийн ерөнхий шалгалт-2019 он Хувилбар А-Англи хэл

PART II. (20 minutes)


2.1 Match the beginnings of the sentences (a-e) with the appropriate endings (1-6)
There is one extra ending in column 2. /5x1= 5 points/

a. If I win the competition … 1. … how many sweets were in the jar.


b. What happens to the engine … 2. … I would stay at home.
c. I explained carefully so that the students 3. … I will take you somewhere nice to celebrate.
understood … 4. … if you put diesel fuel into a petrol-driven car?
d. To win a prize you had to guess … 5. … if my boss allows me to work from home
sometimes.
e. I might buy a new laptop … 6. … what they had to do on the test.

2.2 Choose an appropriate answer for each question. There is one extra answer in column 2. /5x1 = 5 points/

a. ‘What do you like about your new job?’ 1. ‘I’d love one.’
b. ‘What if Tom calls while you’re out?’ 2. ‘It’s never boring.’
c. ‘How about coffee?’ 3. ‘Tell him I’ll call back.’
d. ‘What’s your boss like?’ 4. ‘No, my parents aren’t here.’
e. ‘How are your parents these days?’ 5. ‘She makes us work really hard.’
6. ‘Quite well, thanks.’

2.3 Read the text and fill in the gaps (a-f) with the appropriate adjectives (1-6).
There is one extra adjective. /5x1 = 5 points/
1. energetic 3. decisive 5. self-centered
2. responsible 4. bossy 6. ambitious

People with full lips are usually a)____________. You can always trust them to do what you ask them to do. They
are also b) _______________; they make decisions quickly. On the other hand, they tend to be rather c)
__________________. They like telling other people what to do!
People who have a thin upper lip and full lower lip are d)________________. They work very hard and like
participating in a lot of activities. They are e)____________________ as well; they want to be successful in life.

2.4 Read the following projections about the future population of Australia. The choose the correct ending for each
sentence. There is one extra ending in column 2. /5x1 = 5 points/
Population Projections
According to the latest available projections (which are based on several combinations of assumptions reflecting
past trends in births, deaths and migration), the total population of Australia is likely to have increased to between 22.3
and 23.3 million by 2021.
The projected population will increase at a declining rate. The average annual growth rate is predicted to be
between 0.5 and 0.8 during 2011-2021. Without overseas migration, the projected total population should peak at about
23.3 million in 2041, and then start to decline marginally.
Age distribution
The projected population will age progressively due to the increasing proportion of the elderly (aged 65 years or
more) and the decreasing population of children (aged under 15 years). In brief, the number of persons aged under 15 is
projected to be between 3.7 and 4.1 million in 2031; the population of working age (15-64 years) is projected to increase to
between 14.4 and 15.0 million in 2031; and the number of persons aged 65 years or more is projected to increase to
between 2.94 and 2.98 million in 2031. The projections also show significant increases in the number of persons aged 80
years or more.

a. By the year 2021 the population of Australia 1. … will increase considerably.


will have reached … 2. … a maximum of 23.3 million.
b. The population of Australia will have peaked … 3. … to between 3.7 and 4.1 million.
c. The number of persons aged over 80 … 4. … will be less than it was.
d. By the year 2031 the number of children aged 5. … and then start to decrease slightly.
under 15 will have risen … 6. … by the early 2040s.
e. The projected total population should peak at
about 23.3 million in 2041 …
Элсэлтийн ерөнхий шалгалт-2019 он Хувилбар А-Англи хэл

PART III
(LISTENING) (10 minutes)
You are going to listen to a dialogue between a radio presenter and a women who are talking about airplanes
and pilots. For questions 41-46 decide which of the choices A, B, C, D or E is the correct answer. You have 45 seconds to
look through the questions before you listen. You will listen twice only, so listen carefully.
/6x2 = 12 points/
41. In the United Airlines crash …
A. more than 100 people died. D. about 90 people were injured
B. over 90 people were saved. E. exactly 100 people died.
C. less than 100 people died.
42. Nicole trains pilots to …
A. go flying in other countries. D. stay calm in an emergency.
B. think clearly in everyday situations. E. stay in their places.
C. fly airplanes.
43. The black box …
A. is not always useful. D. plays music for the crew.
B. plays taped instructions to the crew. E. can’t give information about the cause of a crash.
C. can give information about the cause of a crash.
44. Where did the number two engine fail?
A. over the mountains of the eastern United States. D. over the eastern United States.
B. over the western United States. E. over the northern United States.
C. over the southern United States.
45. The plane’s captain …
A. did nothing during the crash. D. panicked when the plane’s engine wouldn’t work.
B. was sleepy. E. tried to land the plane safely.
C. decided to go on a CMR course after the crash.
46. Many people on the flight survived because …
A. the pilot stayed calm and did nothing. D. the plane landed on the top of the rocky mountain.
B. the pilot behaved correctly. E. a trainee pilot landed the plane.
C. the plane landed in the sea.

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