INTRODUCTION

The subject matter that is required to be learned and understood for the award of a Private
Pilot Licence, although wide ranging, is far from difficult and falls within the ability of most
people who have completed a comprehensive or secondary education. This publication is
offered as an aid to examination preparation, to understand what the question is asking and to
consolidate that which has been learned in class.
It is recommended that the candidate treats the Revision Questions as an aid to examination
preparation, as learning questions with definitive answers is a very sound method of
consolidating knowledge after studying the necessary training literature.
The questions and answers represent those appearing in all current examination papers, but
questions in each section are loosely grouped in respect of topic and no attempt is made
through language syntax, question order or grouping to replicate any of the actual examination
papers.

Under no circumstances should any graphic, illustration or textual material contained in

this publication be used for operational purposes or copied for use in other
publications.

3rd Edition – 2020 © European Pilot Academy

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 AIR LAW

The actual examination paper consists of 16 questions, each with a multiple

choice of four answers A, B, C or D. The candidate should indicate the chosen
answer by placing a cross in the appropriate box on the answer paper provided.
Time allowed 45 minutes.
The pass mark is 75%, so the minimum number of questions that must be
answered correctly to obtain a pass is 12. Marks are not deducted for incorrect
answers.

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1) What must an Air/Ground radio operator be in possession of?
(a) Air Traffic Controllers License
(b) Radio Operators Competence Certificate
(c) Private Pilots License
(d) Driving License

2) Flashing red to an aircraft in the air means

(a) Do not land, give way to other aircraft and continue circling.
(b) Stop
(c) Do not land, aerodrome closed.
(d) Move clear of landing area.

3) Steady Green to an aircraft in the air means:

(a) Return to this aerodrome and wait for permission to land.
(b) Cleared to taxi
(c) Cleared to takeoff
(d) Cleared to land

4) Flashing white to an aircraft in the air means:

(a) Return to starting point on aerodrome.
(b) I am compelled to land.
(c) Land at this aerodrome after receiving a steady green.
(d) Immediate assistance required.

5) Steady red to an aircraft in the air means:

(a) Return to this aerodrome and wait for permission to land.
(b) Give way to other aircraft and continue circling.
(c) Cleared to takeoff
(d) Cleared to land

6) Flashing Green to an aircraft in the air means:

(a) Return to this aerodrome and wait for permission to land.
(b) Cleared to taxi
(c) Cleared to takeoff
(d) Cleared to land

7) The phases related to an aircraft in emergency or believed in emergency are:

(a) Uncertainty phase, alert phase, distress phase.
(b) Uncertainty phase, distress phase, urgency phase.
(c) Uncertainty phase, urgency phase, distress phase.
(d) Uncertainty phase, alert phase, distress phase and urgency phase.

8) The Alerting Service is provided by:

(a) The Area Control Centres.
(b) The ATS unit responsible for the aircraft at that moment.
(c) The ATC unit responsible for the aircraft at that moment, when it is provided with 121.5
MHz.
(d) Only by ATC units.

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9) When an aircraft is subjected to unlawful interference, the pilot-in-command shall
indicate the situation by setting the transponder to Mode A, Code:
(a) 7500
(b) 7700
(c) 7600
(d) 7000

10) A VFR flight when flying inside an ATS airspace classified as C has to maintain the
following minima of flight visibility and distance from clouds:
(a) 5km at or above 10.000 ft AMSL 1500 m horizontal and 1000ft vertical from clouds
(b) 8 km at or above 10.000 ft AMSL 1500 m horizontal and 1000ft vertical from clouds
(c) 5 NM at or above 10.000 ft AMSL, 1500 m horizontal and 1000ft vertical from clouds
(d) 8 km at or above 10.000 ft AMSL, and clear of clouds

11) A defined rectangular area on the ground at the end of the take-off run available,
prepared as a suitable area in which an aircraft can be stopped in the case of an
abandoned take-off, is called:
(a) Runway end safety area.
(b) Obstacle free zone (OFZ).
(c) Clearway.
(d) Stopway.

12) Flashing red to an aircraft on the ground means :

(a) Do not land, give way to other aircraft and continue circling.
(b) Stop
(c) Do not land, aerodrome closed.
(d) Move clear of landing area.

13) Steady Green to an aircraft on the ground means :

(a) Return to this aerodrome and wait for permission to land.
(b) Cleared to taxi
(c) Cleared to takeoff
(d) Cleared to land

14) Flashing white to an aircraft on the ground means :

(a) Return to starting point on aerodrome.
(b) I am compelled to land.
(c) Land at this aerodrome after receiving a steady green.
(d) Immediate assistance required.

15) Steady red to an aircraft on the ground means :

(a) Do not land, give way to other aircraft and continue circling.
(b) Stop
(c) Do not land, aerodrome closed.
(d) Move clear of landing area.

16) Flashing Green to an aircraft on the ground means :

(a) Return to this aerodrome and wait for permission to land.
(b) Cleared to taxi
(c) Cleared to takeoff
(d) Cleared to land

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17) A right-hand arrow of conspicuous colour in the signal area indicates:
(a) The position of the aerodrome reference point / arp.
(b) That 180 degree turns on the runway for backtrack have to be made to the right.
(c) That turns are to be made to the right before landing and after take off.
(d) That turns in the aerodrome circuit have to be made to the left, but gliders have to make the
turns to the right.

18) A double white cross displayed horizontally in the signal area indicates that:
(a) Special precautions must be observed due to the state of the taxiways.
(b) The aerodrome is being used by gliders and that glider flights are being performed.
(c) This area is unfit for the movement of aircraft.
(d) Special precautions is needed while approaching for landing on the runway in use.

19) If an ATC clearance is not suitable to the pilot-in-command of an aircraft:

(a) The PIC has to accept the ATC clearance. The clearance is based on the flight plan filed
with ATC.
(b) The PIC may propose another clearance. ATC has to amend the clearance in accordance
with the pilots request.
(c) The PIC may request and, if practicable, obtain an amended clearance.
(d) The PIC may request an amended clearance from the ATC. Amended clearances will only
be given when VMC prevails.

20) The holder of a pilot's licence shall inform the Authority of any illness, which
involves the incapacity to undertake licence related functions for a certain number of
days. The number of days is:
(a) 60
(b) 21
(c) 90
(d) 30

21) The International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO) establishes:

(a) Standards and recommended international practices for contracting member states.
(b) Aeronautical standards adopted by all states.
(c) Standards and recommended practices applied without exception by all states, signatory to
the Chicago convention.
(d) Proposals for aeronautical regulations in the form of 18 annexes.

22) When an aircraft has sustained damage, the aircraft shall be allowed to resume its
flight, if:
(a) The state of design and the state of manufacture inform the state of registry that the aircraft
is still airworthy
(b) The state of registry, the state of design and the state of manufacture consider that the
aircraft is still airworthy
(c) The state of registry considers that the damage sustained is of a nature such that the
aircraft is still airworthy
(d) The state of manufacture informs the state of registry that the damage sustained is of a
nature such that the aircraft is still airworthy

23) Who is in general responsible for an ATC clearance to be safe in respect to terrain
clearance?
(a) The pilot-in-command
(b) The ATC
(c) The aircraft operator
(d) The ATS reporting office accepting the flight plan

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24) A signalman requests the pilot to engage brakes with the following signal:
(a) Raise arm and hand, with fingers extended, horizontally in front of body, then clench fist.
(b) Horizontally moving his hands, fingers extended, palms towards ground.
(c) Arms down, palms facing inwards, moving arms from extended position inwards.
(d) Crossing arms extended above his head.

25) In the event of a delay of a controlled flight, the submitted flight plan should be
amended or cancelled and a new flight plan submitted when the delay is in excess of:
(a) 60 minutes of the estimated time off blocks.
(b) 30 minutes of the estimated time off blocks.
(c) 30 minutes of the estimated time of departure.
(d) 60 minutes of the estimated time of departure.

26) The ground - air visual signal code for use by survivors on groung to indicate
"AFFIRMATIVE" is:
(a) N
(b) Y
(c) V
(d) X
27) The ground - air visual signal code for use by survivors on ground in order to
indicate "REQUIREMEDICAL ASSISTANCE" is:
(a) V
(b) X
(c) N
(d) Y

28) Aerodromes signs should be in the following configuration:

(a) Information signs; yellow or black background with black or yellow inscriptions.
(b) Mandatory instruction signs ; red background with black inscriptions.
(c) Information signs; orange background with black inscriptions.
(d) Mandatory instruction signs; black background with red inscriptions.

29) The light shown by an Aerodrome Identification Beacon of a land aerodrome shall
be flashing, giving the aerodrome identification by Morse Code. The colour of this light
is:
(a) Green.
(b) Blue.
(c) Yellow.
(d) White.

30) The light shown by an "Aerodrome Identification Beacon" at a land aerodrome shall
be:
(a) White and green colour identification given by Morse Code.
(b) Green colour identification given by Morse Code.
(c)White colour identification given by Morse Code.
(d) Blue colour identification given by Morse Code.

31) Pilots shall not operate the SSR special position indicator (IDENT) feature unless:
(a) Requested by ATC
(b) They operate within non controlled airspace
(c) They operate within controlled airspace
(d) They operate a transponder with Mode C

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32) Alert phase is defined as follows:
(a) An emergency event in which an aircraft and its occupants are considered to be threatened
by a danger.
(b) A situation related to an aircraft which reports that the fuel on board is exhausted.
(c) A situation where an apprehension exists as to the safety of an aircraft and its occupants.
(d) A situation related to an aircraft and its occupants are considered to be in a state of
emergency.

33) In order to meet wake turbulence criteria, for arriving aircraft and using timed
approaches, what minima shall be applied to aircraft landing behind a heavy or a
medium aircraft?
(a) Medium aircraft behind heavy aircraft - 4 minutes
(b) Light aircraft behind heavy aircraft - 3 minutes
(c) Medium aircraft other medium aircraft - 5 minutes
(d) Light aircraft behind medium aircraft -4 minutes

34) What is the minimum wake turbulence separation criteria when a light aircraft is
taking off behind a medium aircraft and both are using the same runway?
(a) 2 minutes
(b) 3 minutes
(c) 5 minutes
(d) 1 minute

35) A controlled airspace extending upwards from a specified limit above the earth is:
(a) Advisory airspace.
(b) Flight Information Region.
(c) Control zone.
(d) Control area.

36) Flight Information Region (FIR) is an airspace within which the following services
are provided:
(a) Flight Information Service only.
(b) Flight Information Service, Alerting Service and Advisory Service.
(c) Flight Information Service and Advisory Service.
(d) Flight Information Service and Alerting Service

37) A horizontal white dumb-bell with a black bar placed perpendicular to the shaft
across each circular portion placed in the signal area indicates that:
(a) Aircraft are required to land and take off on runways and all other manoeuvres need to be
confined to runways or taxiways.
(b) Aircraft are required to land and take off on runways only, but other manoeuvres need not
be confined to runways or taxiways.
(c) A parallel runway system is used at this aerodrome.
(d) The aerodrome is being used by gliders and that glider flights are being performed on a
parallel runway.

38) A defined rectangular area, selected or prepared as a suitable area over which an
aeroplane may make a portion of its initial climb to a specified height is called:
(a) Clearway.
(b) Take-off run available (TORA).
(c) Stopway.
(d) Runway end safety area (RESA).

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39) According to ICAO Annex 8, a certificate of airworthiness shall be renewed or shall
remain valid subject to the:
(a) Requirements laid down by ICAO
(b) Laws of the State of registry
(c) Laws of the State of registry and operation
(d) Laws of the State in which is operated

40) The following signal means that an aircraft wishes to give notice of difficulties which
compel it to land without requiring immediate assistance:
(a) Switching on and off three times the navigation lights.
(b) Switching on and off three times the landing lights.
(c) The repeated switching on and off of the landing lights.
(d) Switching on and off of the landing lights in a sequence consisting of the letter group SOS.

41) The appropriate ATS unit has to be informed:

(a) About any track deviation.
(b) If the time estimate for the next reporting point is found to be in error in excess of more than
ten minutes from that notified to ATS.
(c) About any deviation in TAS.
(d) If the average TAS at cruising level varies or is expected to vary by +/- 5% from that given
in the flight plan.

42) The unit responsible for promoting efficient organisation of search and rescue
service in each SAR region is the:
(a) Rescue Co-ordination Centre
(b) Alerting Centre
(c) Area Control Centre
(d) Flight Information Centre

43) A pilot has passed his skill test but still is not in possession of his license. He:
(a) May not fly
(b) May fly without passengers
(c) May fly with permission
(d) May fly unrestricted

44) Runway markings shall be (i) and taxiway markings shall be (ii)
(a) (i) White (ii) Red
(b) (i) Yellow (ii) White
(c) (i) White (ii) Yellow
(d) (i) Red (ii) White

45) Mandatory signs shall be (i) and information signs shall be (ii).
(a) (i) White on yellow (ii) Red on white
(b) (i) Red on white (ii) Black on yellow
(c) (i) White on red (ii) Yellow on black
(d) (i) Red on black (ii) White on red

46) Three crosses on a taxiway indicate:

(a) Taxiway open
(b) Taxi with caution
(c) Taxiway unserviceable
(d) Taxiway under construction

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47) You see a double cross in the signals area. This means:
(a) Airfield Closed
(b) Gliding in progress
(c) Banner towing in progress
(d) Land only on runways

48) The manoeuvring area is defined as:

(a) An area for loading, unloading and refuelling of an aircraft
(b) An area for customs procedures
(c) An area for the takeoff, landing and taxiing of aircraft
(d) An area where aircraft can park.

49) The apron is defined as :

(a) An area for loading, unloading and refuelling of an aircraft
(b) An area for customs procedures
(c) An area for the takeoff, landing and taxiing of aircraft
(d) An area where aircraft can park.

50) VMC minima at 5000 feet are :

(a) 8km Visibility 1000 feet horizontally and 1500m vertically from cloud
(b) 5km visibility 1000feet vertically and 1500m horizontally from cloud
(c) 5km visibility and in sight of the surface and clear of cloud.
(d) 5km visibility 1000m horizontally and 1500feet vertically from cloud

51) Which of the following can be omitted from the journey log book?
(a) Destination
(b) Flight times
(c) Touch and goes
(d) PIC

52) A control zone (CTR) is defined as an airspace:

(a) From the surface to a specified altitude
(b) From a specified altitude to a specified flight level
(c) From a specified altitude to a specified altitude
(d) From the surface to sea level

53) A control area (CTA) is defined as an airspace:

(a) From the surface to a specified altitude
(b) From a specified altitude to a specified flight level
(c) From a specified altitude to a specified altitude
(d) From the surface to sea level

54) How long is the EASA PPL valid for?

(a) 5 years
(b) 2 years
(c) For Life
(d) 10 years

55) What does the abbreviation ANO stand for?

(a) Aeronautical Navigation Obedience
(b) Air Navigation Order
(c) Atmospheric Night Observation
(d) All Natural Ocean

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56) How long is the SEP class rating valid for?
(a) 1 year
(b) 2 years
(c) 5 years
(d) 10 years

57) How long is the MEP class rating valid for?

(a) 1 year
(b) 2 years
(c) 5 years
(d) 10 years

58) How long is the IR (Instrument Rating) valid for?

(a) 1 year
(b) 2 years
(c) 5 years
(d) 10 years

59) A 35 year old hold a class 2 medical. It is valid for :

(a) 1 year
(b) 2 years
(c) 5 years
(d) 10 years

60) How long is a level 4 English proficiency valid for?

(a) 1 year
(b) 6 years
(c) For life
(d) 4 years

61) How long is level 5 English proficiency valid for?

(a) 1 year
(b) 6 years
(c) For life
(d) 3 years

62) How long is level 6 English proficiency valid for?

(a) 1 year
(b) 6 years
(c) For life
(d) 3 years

63) ATC asks you to climb to altitude 4000 feet when there is a cloud base of 2500 feet.
You should:
(a) Follow the instruction
(b) Keep flying as you are
(c) Request an amended clearance
(d) Land as soon as possible

64) ICAO stands for:

(a) Internal Civil Aeronautical Organs
(b) International Civil Aviation Organisation
(c) International Civilian Airline Organisers
(d) Inside Civilian Airport Organisation
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65) A student pilot is flying with his instructors. Who is responsible for check the
documents are on board the aircraft?
(a) The student
(b) The instructor
(c) Both
(d) The owner

66) A runway is considered “wet” when:

(a) The surface of the runway is soaked but there are no significant patches of standing water.
(b) Change of colour on the surface due to moisture.
(c) Patches of standing water are visible.
(d) There is extensive standing water.

67) A runway is considered “damp” when:

(a) The surface of the runway is soaked but there are no significant patches of standing water.
(b) Change of colour on the surface due to moisture.
(c) Patches of standing water are visible.
(d) There is extensive standing water.

68) A runway is considered “flooded” when:

(a) The surface of the runway is soaked but there are no significant patches of standing water.
(b) Change of colour on the surface due to moisture.
(c) Patches of standing water are visible.
(d) There is extensive standing water.

69) A runway is considered to have “water-patches” when:

(a) The surface of the runway is soaked but there are no significant patches of standing water.
(b) Change of colour on the surface due to moisture.
(c) Patches of standing water are visible.
(d) There is extensive standing water.

70) What is the FIS?

(a) Flight Into space
(b) Flight information service
(c) Flight information sequence
(d) Fight In Sea

71) What does a FIS give?

(a) Information pertinent to the safe and efficient conduct of flight,
(b) Alerts the RCC In the case of an emergency
(c) Controls the air traffic flow in an FIR.
(d) Give instructions and clearances to aircraft

72) What is the minimum age you can be in command of an aircraft and what is the
minimum age to apply for a JAR PPL?
(a) 16 to be in command and 17 to apply for the licence
(b) 16 to be in command and 18 to apply for the licence
(c) 14 to be in command and 17 to apply for the licence
(d) 14 to be in command and 18 to apply for the licence

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73) A green flashing two letter morse code group at an aerodrome, repeated every 12
seconds...
(a) indicates the location of the government aerodrome.
(b) indicates the location and identifies the civilian aerodrome.
(c) indicates the location of the civilian aerodrome.
(d) indicates the location and identifies the government aerodrome.

74) What is an altimeter setting based on QNH reported as?

(a) Height
(b) Flight Level
(c) Altitude
(d) Elevation

75) What transponder code would you set to indicate radio failure?
(a) 7500
(b) 7600
(c) 7700
(d) 7000

76) According to ICAO, Visual Meteorological Conditions are meteorological conditions

expressed in terms of the following being equal to or better than specified minima...
(a) visibility, distance from cloud and ceiling.
(b) visibility, distance from cloud runway, visual range and ceiling.
(c) visibility only.
(d) visibility and ceiling only.

77) What is the meaning of large white diagonal crosses at the end of a runway or
taxiway?
(a) The airfield is closed.
(b) Helicopters only.
(c) The section between the crosses is unfit for aircraft movement.
(d) Aircraft movement between the crosses is to be done with caution.

78) An aircraft taxying shall give way to...

(a) None of these
(b) All motor vehicles
(c) A marshaller walking along the taxiway
(d) A Motor vehicle towing another aircraft

79) You are flying VFR in Class D airspace. Which of the following statements is NOT
true?
(a) You will receive traffic information about VFR flights.
(b) You will receive an ATC service.
(c) You will be separated from VFR flights.
(d) You will be separated from IFR flights.

80) The definition of Air Traffic is...

(a) all aircraft in flight or operating in the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome.
(b) all aircraft in flight or operating near the aerodrome.
(c) all aircraft in flight within the FIR.
(d) all aircraft currently on frequency.
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81) You have aerodrome QFE set in the altimeter subscale. On the ground the altimeter
should read?
(a) The airfield elevation above sea level.
(b) 0 ft.
(c) 100 ft.
(d) no more than 50 ft.

82) ICAO specifies that the fixed unidirectional runway threshold lights should be
coloured...
(a) green.
(b) white.
(c) red.
(d) blue.

83) An aircraft C of A becomes invalid...

(a) during any scheduled maintenance checks.
(b) if any of the aircraft external lights stop working.
(c) if the fuel drains are not checked after the aircraft has been refuelled.
(d) if the aircraft is repaired, modified and/or any of its equipment is overhauled.

84) Under the rules of collision avoidance in respect of converging aircraft...

(a) aeroplanes give way to helicopters and airships.
(b) aeroplanes and helicopters give way to aircraft towing gliders.
(c) helicopters give way to aeroplanes
(d) all other aircraft give way to aeroplanes

85) Two aircraft are both on a final approach. Under normal circumstances, which has
priority?
(a) The aircraft that is lower.
(b) The aircraft that is on 'long final'.
(c) The aircraft that is larger.
(d) The aircraft that has a higher approach speed.

86) A runway condition where the surface is soaked and there are extensive amounts of
standing water may be described as...
(a) Flooded
(b) Wet
(c) Damp
(d) Water Patches

87) You are on the base leg of an approach to an aerodrome at night. You see a steady
red light beamed at you from the control tower. What should you do?
(a) Give way to other aircraft and keep circling.
(b) Leave the circuit pattern immediately, radio required at this aerodrome.
(c) Return to aerodrome and wait for permission to land.
(d) Land at your discretion.

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88) You see another aircraft approaching on a converging course on your starboard
side. Who has priority?
(a) The other aircraft.
(b) You do, maintain your course and altitude.
(c) Neither have priority, both should turn to avoid each other.
(d) You do, but you should turn to starboard to lessen the risk of collision.

89) According to EASA PART-FCL, an initial issue of a single-pilot, single-engine class

rating is valid from the date of issue for...
(a) 10 years
(b) 1 year
(c) 2 years
(d) 5 years

90) A continuous green light from ATC to an aircraft in the air means:
(a) Return to the aerodrome, wait for permission to land
(b) You may land
(c) After landing vacate runway
(d) You may not land yet

91) The length of the take off run available plus the length of the stopway (if provided) is
the definition of...
(a) the full length of the runway.
(b) accelerate/stop distance available (ASDA).
(c) the take off run available (TORA).
(d) the take off distance available (TODA).

92) Aeronautical night is defined as being from...

(a) 60 minutes after sunset to 60 minutes before sunrise.
(b) 30 minutes before sunset to 30 minutes after sunrise.
(c) sunset to sunrise.
(d) 30 minutes after sunset to 30 minutes before sunrise.

93) A flying machine is classified as...

(a) a power driven aircraft.
(b) an aeroplane.
(c) a power driven, heavier than air aircraft.
(d) a fixed wing aircraft.

94) Prior to a flight into the sovereign airspace of a foreign State with the purpose of
landing in that State, the pilot in command must...
(a) confirm that the C of A is on board along with the interception documents.
(b) ensure that the aircraft is airworthy, correctly registered and all of the correct
documentation including the C of A are on board.
(c) confirm that only the C of A is on board.
(d) confirm that the C of A is on board and relevant insurance documents.

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95) A EASA PPL holder, who does not hold an IR or IMC, is receiving a Traffic Service.
The air traffic controller instructs the pilot to climb to an altitude that would not enable
the aircraft to remain VMC. The pilot should...
(a) obey the instruction and rely on the instrument training they received during their PPL
course.
(b) acknowledge air traffic, but stay on the current heading and height.
(c) continue on their present heading and height, requesting air traffic to revise their clearance
in order to maintain VMC.
(d) return to the departure airfield.

96) Circuit patterns, unless otherwise indicated, are flown in what direction?
(a) Left hand pattern
(b) Right hand pattern
(c) Either left or right at the pilots discretion
(d) Straight in

97) Which of the following would be defined as an accident that must be reported?
(a) Somebody falls out of the aircraft and breaks a leg whilst on the ground
(b) Somebody dies of natural causes whilst on board
(c) An engine fire on start up
(d) The wing strikes a refuelling station, rendering the aircraft unflyable

98) If a marshaller is making a circular motion of the right hand, at shoulder level and
pointing at your engine. What is he indicating?
(a) Shut down this engine
(b) Start this engine
(c) Turn right
(d) Turn left

99) Under normal circumstances, the first reaction to be taken when a pilot observes
that another aircraft or a surface craft is in distress is to...
(a) make a mayday call for the craft in distress.
(b) note the position and time then report it when you land back at base.
(c) keep the craft in distress in sight until such time as their presence is no longer required.
(d) put a mayday call out and continue circling overhead the craft in distress.

100) Inside Class D airspace, to remain within VMC minimum at between 3000ft and
FL100, the minimum flight visibility required is?
(a) 10km or more.
(b) 5km
(c) 3km
(d) 1.5km

101) A light shown by an aerodrome Ident Beacon at a Civil land airfield is...
(a) white in colour with ident given in morse code.
(b) alternating white and green in colour with ident given in morse code.
(c) green in colour with ident given in morse code.
(d) green in colour with no ident given.

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102) On a land aerodrome, a specified area intended to accommodate aircraft for the
purpose of loading or unloading passengers, mail, cargo and fueling is known as the...
(a) stand.
(b) bay.
(c) apron.
(d) hold point.

103) Any flying machine with a C of A must be weighed and a weight schedule prepared
by the operator. The weight schedule must be preserved...
(a) for at least one year.
(b) until the next weighing.
(c) until six months after the next weighing.
(d) until nine months after the next weighing.

104) What frequency is the aeronautical VHF radio distress frequency?

(a) 120.00 MHz
(b) 121.25 MHz
(c) 121.50 MHz
(d) 122.50 MHz

105) You are flying in a control zone under Special VFR (SVFR). Who has the
responsibility for maintaining terrain clearance?
(a) The Pilot in command and the air traffic controller
(b) The air traffic controller if receiving a deconfliction service
(c) The air traffic controller
(d) The pilot in command

106) The privileges of the holder of a PPL are to act as pilot in command or co-pilot of
any aeroplane...
(a) engaged in revenue flights for which they are appropriately certified for.
(b) engaged in none revenue flights for which they are appropriately certified for.
(c) for business or pleasure.
(d) for pleasure and aerial photography.

107) Whilst on the ground, you see a steady red light signal beamed at you from the
control tower at night. What does this mean?
(a) Move clear of the landing area
(b) Cleared to taxi across the runway
(c) Stop
(d) You are conditionally cleared to taxi at your discretion

108) Two flying machines of the same class are converging at the same altitude. What
initial action should be taken by the commander of the aircraft which has the other on
its right?
(a) Maintain heading and speed
(b) Climb or descend to pass over or under the other aircraft
(c) Give way to the other aircraft, to avoid passing over, under or ahead of it
(d) Carry out a 180 degree turn

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109) Under the Chicago Convention, when an aircraft registered in a contracting state
lands in another state, the authorities...
(a) have the absolute right to search the aircraft without unreasonably delaying it
(b) have the absolute right to search the aircraft even if it means reasonably delaying it.
(c) have the right to search the aircraft for contraband control purpose only.
(d) may only search the aircraft if the operator has been notified in advance.

110) When taking off or landing at a government or licensed aerodrome, any aircraft
shall be exempt from...
(a) any low flying prohibition
(b) the 1000ft rule only.
(c) the 1000ft rule only.
(d) the land clear rule only.

111) You see a single fixed red light ahead of you during a night flight. What is this
likely to be?
(a) It could be the port navigation light of another aircraft.
(b) It could be a hot air balloon.
(c) It could be the landing light of a helicopter.
(d) It could be the landing light of a glider.

112) You are at an aerodrome and notice a single yellow diagonal on a red square
displayed in the signals square. What does this mean?
(a) Left hand circuits are in use
(b) The aerodrome is unfit for the movement of fixed wing aircraft
(c) Pilots must exercise special care when landing
(d) The aerodrome is closed

113) When a light aircraft departs after a heavy aircraft from the same point on the same
runway, what is the recommended spacing?
(a) 3 minutes
(b) 2 minutes
(c) 2 nm
(d) 6 minutes

114) An area of controlled airspace that extends from the surface to a specified upper
limit and normally extends outwards at least 5 nm is called a -
(a) A Control Zone (CTR)
(b) A Control Area (CTA)
(c) A Terminal Control Area (TMA)
(d) A Terminal Control Zone (TMC)

115) ICAO specifies in respect of navigation equipment, for flights under VFR, the
maximum distance between points of visual reference for the purpose of navigation is...
(a) 30nm
(b) 60nm
(c) 85nm
(d) 100nm

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116) Under ICAO, a mandatory instruction sign at an aerodrome should be colour coded
with...
(a) white lettering on a red background.
(b) black lettering on a red background
(c) white lettering on a black background
(d) yellow lettering on a red background

117) Regarding customs duty, the Chicago Convention provides that when an aircraft
lands in the territory of another contracting state...
(a) all spare parts and lubricating oils remaining on board shall be subject to customs duty.
(b) spare parts and lubricating oils remaining on board shall be temporarily exempt from
customs duty.
(c) all spare parts and lubricating oils remaining on board over the value of $50 000 shall be
subject to customs duty.
(d) spare parts and lubricating oils remaining on board shall be exempt from customs duty only
if the next flight is out of the contracting states territory.

118) What is the standard ground to air search and rescue visual signal used to indicate
the meaning 'affirmative' or yes?
(a) N
(b) Y
(c) X
(d) V

119) You are setting your altimeter at an aerodrome, where the elevation is 90 ft. The
QNH you have been given is 1013 millibars. What would you expect the aerodrome QFE
to be?
(a) 1040 millibars
(b) 998 millibars
(c) 1010 millibars
(d) 996 millibars

120) For flights in the vicinity of an aerodrome the vertical position of the aircraft at or
below the transition altitude shall be expressed in the terms of...
(a) transistion altitude.
(b) flight level.
(c) altitude.
(d) height.

121) A taxiway marking comprised of a pair of parallel yellow lines together with a pair
of parallel broken yellow lines painted 90 degrees across a taxiway delineate...
(a) the exit point of an apron or taxiway.
(b) the entry point of a pre designated run up area.
(c) a holding position at the end of a taxiway and runway entry point, beyond which no part of
an aircraft may project without prior permission from ATC.
(d) the intersection between two taxiways.

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122) Which one of the following is classified as an aircraft accident that MUST be
reported to the Chief Inspector of Air Accidents and the local police?
(a) The engine fails on an aircraft whilst downwind, the aircraft manages to make a successful
glide approach back onto the runway.
(b) A person is seriously injured on the apron by the wing of a taxying aircraft although no
damage is sustained to the aircraft.
(c) An aircraft tyre bursts whilst landing.
(d) An aircraft that is being towed hits and damages another aircraft that is parked on the
apron.

123) If an aircraft is repaired or modified other than in an approved manor:

(a) The Certificate of Airworthiness ceases to be valid
(b) The Certificate of Registration ceases to be valid
(c) The Flight Manual ceases to be valid
(d) The ARC ceases to be valid

124) In a converging situation, an aircraft that has right of way shall maintain its...
(a) Height only.
(b) Speed and heading.
(c) Heading and height.
(d) Heading, height and speed.

125) Responsibility for ensuring that all relevant certificates are on board an aircraft
rests with:
(a) The flight school
(b) The aircraft owner
(c) The aircraft operator
(d) The pilot in command

126) You are planning a flight, with passengers. How many take-offs and landings must
you have completed in the last 90 days?
(a) 1
(b) 3
(c) 6
(d) 2

127) ICAO Annex 12 defines the phase where there is apprehension as to the safety of
an aircraft as...
(a) the evaluation phase.
(b) the alert phase.
(c) the information phase.
(d) the distress phase.

128) When a search and rescue operation is commenced, reponsibility for alerting
individual appropriate search and rescue units rests with...
(a) air traffic control.
(b) the club/school the aircraft belongs to.
(c) the pilot.
(d) the rescue co-ordination centre.

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129) A runway condition where the surface shows a change of colour due to moisture
can be described as being...
(a) flooded.
(b) damp.
(c) contaminated.
(d) Wet

130) What is the magnetic heading of Runway 23?

(a) 230
(b) 023
(c) 032
(d) 320

131) Which of the following define runway stop markings?

(a) two red solid and two broken lines laid across the entire width of the taxiway and normally
at right angles to the taxiway centreline, the broken lines being closer to the runway
(b) a red ladder mark laid across the entire width of the taxiway and normally at right angles to
the taxiway centerline
(c) two yellow solid and two broken lines laid across the entire width of the taxiway and
normally at right angles to the taxiway centreline, the broken lines being closer to the runway
(d) a yellow ladder mark laid across the entire width of the taxiway and normally at right angles
to the taxiway centerline

132) What is the recommended wake turbulence separation for a light aircraft behind a
heavy aircraft?
(a) 3nm
(b) 4nm
(c) 5nm
(d) 6nm

133) What is the recommended wake turbulence separation for a light aircraft behind a
medium aircraft?
(a) 3nm
(b) 4nm
(c) 5nm
(d) 6nm

134) What is the recommended wake turbulence separation for a medium aircraft behind
a heavy aircraft?
(a) 3nm
(b) 4nm
(c) 5nm
(d) 6nm

135) What is the recommended wake turbulence separation for a heavy aircraft behind a
heavy aircraft?
(a) 3nm
(b) 4nm
(c) 5nm
(d) 6nm

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136) Clearances will be issued by an ATC unit for the purpose of:
(a) Providing flight Information Service
(b) Providing advisory services
(c) Achieving separation between controlled flights
(d) Providing alerting services

137) At the commencement of final approach, if the controller possesses wind

information in the form of components, significant changes in the mean surface wind
direction and speed shall be transmitted to aircraft. The mean head-wind component
significant change is:
(a) 10 KT
(b) 4 KT
(c) 8 KT
(d) 5 KT

138) The transfer of an aircraft from one ATC unit to another is done:
(a) With the pilot's consent.
(b) Through a central control unit.
(c) By agreement with the receiving unit.
(d) Automatically at the control zone boundary.

139) According to ICAO Annex 8, a certificate of airworthiness shall be renewed or shall

remain valid subject to the:
(a) Requirements laid down by ICAO
(b) Laws of the State of registry
(c) Laws of the State in which is operated
(d) Laws of the State of registry and operation

140) Each contracting state shall provide an Aeronautical Information Service (AIS) in
its territory and for areas in which the state is responsible for the Air Traffic Services
outside its territory, and this shall include the preparation and origination of:
(a) AIP, NOTAMs, Circular and AIRAC.
(b) Only NOTAMs and Circulars.
(c) Only AIP and NOTAMs.
(d) Integrated Aeronautical Information Package.

141) In the vicinity of an aerodrome that is going to be used by the aircraft, the vertical
position of the aircraft shall be expressed in:
(a) Altitude above sea level on or below the transition altitude
(b) Altitude above sea level on or above the transition altitude
(c) Flight level on or below the transition altitude
(d) Flight level on or below the transition level

142) The planned cruising speed for the first leg or all of the cruising portion of the
flight must be entered in the speed box of a flight plan form. This speed is the:
(a) Indicated air speed (IAS).
(b) True air speed at 65% power.
(c) True air speed (TAS).
(d) Estimated ground speed (G/S).

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143) A signalman will ask the pilot to apply parking brakes by the following signals:
(a) Raise arm and hand, with fingers extended, horizontally in front of body, then clench fist
(b) Horizontally moving his hands, fingers extended, palms towards ground
(c) Crossing arms extended above his head
(d) Arms down, palms facing inwards, moving arms from extended position inwards

144) Who sets the SARP’s? (Standards and Recommended Practices)

(a) Local Authority
(b) ICAO
(c) AOPA
(d) IATA

145) _________ is a controlled airspace extending upwards from the surface of the earth
to a specified upper limit and the ___________ is a controlled airspace extending
upwards from the surface of the earth to a specified upper limit
(a) Control Area (CTA); Control Space (CTR)
(b) Control Area (CTA); Control Zone (CTR)
(c) Control Area (CAR); Control Zone (CTZ)
(d) Control Zone (CTR); Control Area (CTA)

146) Which of the following documents have to be on board for an international flight?
a) Certificate of aircraft registration
b) Certificate of airworthiness
c) Airworthiness review certificate
d) EASA Form-1
e) Airplane logbook
f) Appropriate papers for every crew member
g) Technical logbook

(a) a, b, e, g
(b) b, c, d, e, f, g
(c) d, f, g
(d) a, b, c, e, f

147) Which area could be crossed with certain restrictions?

a) No-fly zone
b) Dangerous area
c) Restricted area
d) Prohibited area

148) Where can the type of restriction for a restricted airspace be found
a) AIP
b) ICAO chart 1:500000
c) NOTAM
d) AIC

149) What is the subject of ICAO Annex 1?

a) Flight crew licensing
b) Air traffic services
c) Rules of the air
d) Operation of aircraft

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150) What is the meaning of the abbreviation "ARC
a) Airspace Restriction Criteria
b) Airworthiness Recurring Control
c) Airspace Rulemaking Committee
d) Airworthiness Review Certificate

151) A pilot license issued in accordance with ICAO Annex 1 is valid in...
a) those countries that have accepted this license on application.
b) the country where the license was issued.
c) all ICAO countries.
d) the country where the license was acquired.

152) What are the minimum requirements among others to acquire a rating for VFR night
flights?
a) At least 5 additional flight hours at night, three of them with a flight instructor with at least 1
hour cross-country flight plus 5 solo take-offs and full-stop landings
b) At least 10 additional flight hours at night, three of them with a flight instructor with at least 1
hour cross-country flight plus 5 solo take-offs and full-stop landings
c) At least 5 additional flight hours at night, four of them with a flight instructor with at least 1
hour cross-country flight plus 5 solo take-offs and full-stop landings
d) At least 5 additional flight hours at night, three of them with a flight instructor

153) The validity of a medical examination certificate class 2 for a 62 years old pilot is...
a) 12 Months.
b) 48 Months.
c) 60 Months.
d) 24 Months.

154) What is the minimum age to start a private pilot training at a flight school?
a) 17 years
b) 21 years
c) 16 years
d) 18 years

155) The possession of a european PPL(A) entitles the holder to... (1,00 P.)
a) act as PIC on non-commercial flights without compensation as well as to receive
compensation as a flight instrucor.
b) act as pilot on a commercial flight when there are at most 4 people on board.
c) act as PIC, and only for flights in aircraft with a MTOW of maximum 2000 kg a
compensation may be obtained.
d) act as pilot in commercial and non-commercial flights with single engine aircraft.

156) In which way is a SEP (land) rating renewed if you do not meet the required flight time?
a) The required flight experience has to be accumulated under supervision of a flight instructor
b) The ATO can renew the rating after a training flight with a flight instructor
c) A proficiency check with an examiner
d) According to the flight experience there have to be several training flights under supervision
of an ATO

157) What is the meaning of the abbreviation "SERA"?

a) Selective Radar Altimeter
b) Standard European Routes of the Air
c) Specialized Radar Approach
d) Standardized European Rules of the Air

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158) What is the meaning of the abbreviation "TRA”?
a) Temporary Radar Routing Area
b) Temporary Reserved Airspace
c) Terminal Area
d) Transponder Area

159) What has to be done before entering a TMZ?

a) Switch on the transponder and activate mode A and C or mode S
b) Request a clearance before entering
c) File a flight plan before the flight
d) Switch on the transponder, activate mode A, and squawk "IDENT"

160) What is the meaning of an area marked as "TMZ"?

a) Transportation Management Zone
b) Touring Motorglider Zone
c) Transponder Mandatory Zone
d) Traffic Management Zone

161) Two engine-driven aircraft are flying on crossing courses at the same altitude. Which one
has to divert?
a) The lighter one has to climb
b) The heavier one has to climb
c) Both have to divert to the left
d) Both have to divert to the right

162) Two aeroplanes are flying on crossing tracks. Which one has to divert?
a) Both have to divert to the left
b) The aircraft which flies from right to left has the right of priority
c) Both have to divert to the right
d) The aircraft which flies from left to right has the right of priority

163) In airspace "D" a Boeing 737 and a Cessna 152 are flying on crossing courses. Which
aeroplane has to divert?
a) The Cessna 152, because IFR and commercial flights have priority
b) The air traffic control (ATC) has to decide which one has to divert
c) The aeroplane flying from right to left has priority, the other one has to divert
d) The Boeing 737, because an airliner has greater power reserves

164) Which of the following options is NOT a sufficient reason to fly below the required
minimum height?
a) An approach without landing at an aerodrome
b) Take-off or landing at an aerodrome
c) The drop of towed objects at an aerodrome
d) Bad weather conditions in the vicinity of an aerodrome

165) A single-engine piston and a turboprop aeroplane are approaching each other opposite at
the same altitude. Which aeroplane has to change its track to avoid a collision?
a) The single-engine piston aircraft has to give way to the turboprop aircraft
b) Both aircraft have to alter their tracks to the right
c) The turboprop aircraft has to give way to the single-engine piston aircraft
d) Both aircraft have to alter their tracks to the left

166) What condition has to be met during a Special VFR flight?

a) At least 500 m ground visibilty
b) A minimum distance to clouds of 2000 m
c) Visual reference to the terrain
d) Speed not above 115 kt IAS

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167) Which distances to clouds have to be maintained during a VFR flight in airpaces C, D and
E?
a) 1500 m horizontally, 1000 ft vertically
b) 1500 m horizontally, 1000 m vertically
c) 1000 m horizontally, 300 m vertically
d) 1000 m horizontally, 1500 ft vertically

168) The minimum flight visibility at 5000 ft MSL in airspace B for VFR flights is...
a) 1500 m.
b) 8000 m.
c) 5000 m.
d) 3000 m.

169) What is the minimum flight visibility in airspace "C" for an aircraft operating under VFR at
5000 ft MSL?
a) 8000 m
b) 5000 m
c) 3000 m
d) 1500 m

170) What is the minimum flight visibility in airspace "E" for an aircraft operating under VFR at
FL75?
a) 8000 m
b) 5000 m
c) 1500 m
d) 3000 m

171) What is the minimum flight visibility in airspace "C" for an aircraft operating under VFR at
FL110?
a) 3000 m
b) 5000 m
c) 8000 m
d) 1500 m

172) What is the minimum flight visibility in airspace "C" for an aircraft operating under VFR at
FL125?
a) 5000 m
b) 8000 m
c) 1500 m
d) 3000 m

173) The term "ceiling" is defined as the...

a) height of the base of the lowest layer of clouds covering more than half of the sky below
10000 ft.
b) height of the base of the highest layer of clouds covering more than half of the sky below
20000 ft.
c) altitude of the base of the lowest layer of clouds covering more than half of the sky below
20000 ft.
d) height of the base of the lowest layer of clouds covering more than half of the sky below
20000 ft.

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174) State the minimum weather conditions to enter a control zone (airspace "D") under special
VFR conditions for a fixed-wing aircraft?
a) Ground visibility at least 1,5 km Flight visibility at least 1,5 km Ceiling not below 1000 ft
Visual contact to the ground must be maintained The aircraft must remain always clear of
clouds.
b) Ground visibility at least 5 km Flight visibility at least 5 km Ceiling not below 1500 ft Visual
contact to the ground must be maintained The aircraft must remain always clear of clouds.
c) Ground visibility at least 800 m Flight visibility at least 800 m Ceiling not below 600 ft Visual
contact to the ground must be maintained The aircraft must remain always clear of clouds.
d) Ground visibility at least 1,5 km Flight visibility at least 1,5 km Ceiling not below 600 ft
Visual contact to the ground must be maintained The aircraft must remain always clear of
clouds.

175) Being intercepted by a military aircraft at daytime, what is the meaning of the following
signal: Alternating movement of the ailerons, normally left of the intercepted aircraft, followed
by a smooth turn to the left?
a) You are clear of any restricted or reserved airspaces, you can continue on your heading
b) Prepare for a safety landing, you have entered a prohibited area
c) Follow me
d) You are entering a restricted area, leave the airspace immediately

176) Being intercepted by a military aircraft at daytime, what is the meaning of the following
signal: A sudden heading change of 90 degrees or more and a pull-up of the aircraft without
crossing the track of the intercepted aircraft?
a) Prepare for a safety landing, you have entered a prohibited area
b) You may continue your flight
c) You are entering a restricted area, leave the airspace immediately
d) Follow me, I will bring you to the next suitable airfield

177) The altimeter is switched from local QNH to 1013.25 hPa...

a) at 4000 ft.
b) when climbing above the transition altitude.
c) when descending below FL 100.
d) at the decision height.

178) During a flight at FL 80, the altimeter setting has to be...

a) local QNH.
b) 1013.25 hPa.
c) 1030.25 hPa.
d) local QFE.

179) What is the purpose of the semi-circular rule?

a) To avoid collisions by suspending turning manoeuvres
b) To fly without a filed flight plan in prescribed zones published in the AIP
c) To avoid collisions by reducing the probability of opposing traffic at the same altitude
d) To allow safe climbing or descending in a holding pattern

180) Which of the following options are possible SSR-Transponder modes?

a) B, R, S
b) A, C, R
c) A, C, S
d) B, C, V

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181) A transponder with the ability to send the current pressure level is a...
a) transponder approved for airspace "B".
b) mode A transponder.
c) pressure-decoder.
d) mode C or S transponder.

182) Which air traffic service is responsible for the safe conduct of flights?
a) AIS (aeronautical information service)
b) FIS (flight information service)
c) ATC (air traffic control)
d) ALR (alerting service)

183) Air traffic control service is conducted by which services?

a) APP (approach control service) ACC (area control service) FIS (flight information service)
b) TWR (aerodrome control service) APP (approach control service) ACC (area control
service)
c) ALR (alerting service) SAR (search and rescue service) TWR (aerodrome control service)
d) FIS (flight information service) AIS (aeronautical information service) AFS (aeronautical
fixed telecommunication service)

184) Which air traffic services can be expected within an FIR (flight information region)?
a) FIS (flight information service); ALR (alerting service)
b) AIS (aeronautical information service); SAR (search and rescue)
c) ATC (air traffic control); FIS (flight information service)
d) ATC (air traffic control); AIS (aeronautical information service)

185) A pilot can contact FIS (flight information service)...

a) via radio communication.
b) by a personal visit.
c) via internet.
d) via telephone.

186) What is the correct phrase with respect to wake turbulence to indicate that a light aircraft is
following an aircraft of a higher wake turbulence category?
a) Attention propwash
b) Be careful wake winds
c) Caution wake turbulence
d) Danger jet blast

187) Which of the following options states a correct position report?

a) DEABC reaching "N"
b) DEABC over "N" at 35
c) DEABC over "N" in FL 2500 ft
d) DEABC, "N", 2500 ft

188) What is the meaning of the abbreviation "AIREP"?

a) Automatic identification report
b) Aeronautical instrument requirement report
c) Aeronautical information report
d) Aircraft report

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189) What information is provided in the general part (GEN) of the AIP?
a) Map icons, list of radio nav aids, time for sunrise and sunset, airport fees, air traffic control
fees
b) Access restrictions for airfields, passenger controls, requirements for pilots, license
samples and validity periods
c) Warnings for aviation, ATS airspaces and routes, restricted and dangerous airspaces
d) Table of content, classification of airfields with corresponding maps, approach charts, taxi
charts, restricted and dangerous airspaces

190) Which are the different parts of the Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP)?
a) GEN AGA COM
b) GEN ENR AD
c) GEN MET RAC
d) GEN COM MET

191) What information is provided in the part "AD" of the AIP?

a) Warnings for aviation, ATS airspaces and routes, restricted and dangerous airspaces.
b) Map icons, list of radio nav aids, time for sunrise and sunset, airport fees, air traffic control
fees
c) Table of content, classification of airfields with corresponding maps, approach charts, taxi
charts
d) Access restrictions for airfields, passenger controls, requirements for pilots, license
samples and validity periods

192) The shown NOTAM is valid until... A1024/13 A) LOWW B) 1305211200 C) 1305211400 E)
STOCKERAU VOR STO 113.00 UNSERVICEABLE.
a) 21/05/2014 13:00 UTC.
b) 13/05/2013 12:00 UTC.
c) 21/05/2013 14:00 UTC.
d) 13/10/2013 00:00 UTC.

193) A Pre-Flight Information Bulletin (PIB) is a presentation of current...

a) ICAO information of operational significance prepared after the flight.
b) NOTAM information of operational significance prepared prior to flight.
c) AIC information of operational significance prepared after the flight.
d) AIP information of operational significance prepared prior to flight.

194) The term "aerodrome elevation" is defined as...

a) the highest point of the landing area.
b) the lowest point of the landing area.
c) the average value of the height of the manoeuvring area.
d) the highest point of the apron.

195) The term "runway" is defined as a...

a) rectangular area on a land aerodrome prepared for the landing and take-off of helicopters.
b) rectangular area on a land aerodrome prepared for the landing and take-off of aircraft.
c) round area on an aerodrome prepared for the landing and take-off of aircraft.
d) rectangular area on a land or water aerodrome prepared for the landing and take-off of
aircraft.

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196) Which statement is correct with regard to the term "taxi holding point"?
a) A taxi holding point is designed to indicate the beginning of the safety area and may be
crossed when a taxi clearance is given
b) A taxi holding point is an area where the aircraft must stop unless further permission to
proceed is given
c) A taxi holding point is only to be observed for IFR traffic if instrument weather conditions
are prevailing
d) A taxi holding point is the point at which the aircraft must stop unless further permission to
proceed is given

197) How can a wind direction indicator be marked for better visibility?
a) The wind direction indicator could be made from green materials.
b) The wind direction indicator could be surrounded by a white circle.
c) The wind direction indicator could be located on a big black surface.
d) The wind direction indicator may be mounted on top of the control tower.

198) Of what shape is a landing direction indicator?

a) A straight arrow
b) T
c) L
d) An angled arrow

199) What is the purpose of the signal square at an aerodrome?

a) Aircraft taxi to this square to get light signals for taxi and take-off clearance
b) It is a specially marked area to pick up or drop towing objects
c) It is an illuminated area on which search and rescue and fire fighting vehicles are placed
d) It contains special symbols to indicate the conditions at the aerodrome visually to over-
flying aircraft

200) In which way should a pilot confirm received light signals in flight?
a) Apply some fast pitch changes
b) Rock the wings (in the daytime)
c) Apply some changes of RPM
d) Apply some changes of the rudder

201) How are two parallel runways designated? (1,00 P.)

a) The left runway gets the suffix "L", the right runway remains unchanged
b) The left runway remains unchanged, the right runway designator is increased by 1
c) The left runway gets the suffix "L", the right runway "R"
d) The left runway gets the suffix "-1", the right runway "-2"

202) According to ICAO Anex 14, which is the colour marking of a runway?
a) White
b) Blue
c) Yellow
d) Green

203) What is indicated by a pattern of longitudinal stripes of uniform dimensions disposed

symmetrically about the centerline of a runway?
a) Do not touch down behind them
b) At this point the glide path of an ILS hits the runway
c) A ground roll could be started from this position
d) Do not touch down before them

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204) Which runway designators are correct for 2 parallel runways?
a) "26" and "26R"
b) "18" and "18-2"
c) "06L" and "06R"
d) "24" and "25"

205) What is a "PAPI" (Precision Approach Path Indicator)?

a) A visual aid that provides guidance information to help a pilot acquire and maintain the
correct glidepath to an aerodrome or an airport
b) An instrumental aid that provides guidance information to help a pilot acquire and maintain
the correct approach to an aerodrome or an airport
c) A visual aid that provides guidance information to help a pilot acquire and maintain the
correct departure track when departing from an aerodrome or an airport
d) A visual aid that provides guidance information to help a tower controller acquire and
maintain the correct approach to an aerodrome or an airport

206) An aerodrome beacon (ABN) is a...

a) rotating beacon installed at an airport or aerodrome to indicate its location to aircraft pilots
from the air.
b) rotating beacon installed at the beginning of the final approach to indicate its location to
aircraft pilots from the air.
c) fixed beacon installed at an airport or aerodrome to indicate its location to aircraft pilots
from the air.
d) rotating beacon installed at an airport or aerodrome to indicate its location to aircraft pilots
from the ground.

207) Which is the colour of runway edge lights?

a) Blue
b) Green
c) Red
d) White

208) Which is the colour of runway end lights?

a) Blue
b) White
c) Red
d) Green

209) What is shown on the printed sign? See figure

a) Taxiway A
b) Parking position A
c) Part A of the runway
d) Point A on a taxiway

30 EPA MT
210) What is shown on the printed sign?
a) The complete length of the runway in the stated direction is 2500 m
b) 2500 m in the stated direction till reaching the departure point of the runway
c) 2500 m in the stated direction till reaching the parking area
d) From this intersection the available runway length is 2500 m in the stated direction

211) Which meaning has a yellow cross on red ground signal as shown in the signal area of an
aerodrome?
a) Caution, manoeuvring area is poor.
b) Ground movement restricted to hard surfaces.
c) After take-off and before landing all turns have to be made to the right.
d) Prohibition on landing for a longer period.

212) What is the meaning of this sign at an aerodrome?

a) Caution, manoeuvring area is poor
b) Glider flying is in progress
c) After take-off and before landing all turns
d) Landing prohibited for a longer period

213) What is the meaning of "DETRESFA"?

a) Uncertainty phase
b) Alerting phase
c) Distress phase
d) Rescue phase

214) Who provides search and rescue service?

a) Only military organisations
b) International approved organisations
c) Both military and civil organisations
d) Only civil organisations

215) With respect to aircraft accident and incident investigation, what are the three categories
regarding aircraft occurrences?
a) Incident, Serious incident, Accident
b) Happening, Event, Serious event
c) Event, Crash, Disaster
d) Event, Serious event, Accident

31 EPA MT
216) What is the primary purpose of an aircraft accident investigation?
a) To clarify questions of liability within the meaning of compensation for passengers
b) To work for the public prosecutor and help to follow-up flight accidents
c) To Determine the guilty party and draw legal consequences
d) To identify the reasons and work out safety recommendations

217) What is the SSR code 2000 used for?

a) When entering a region from an adjacent region where the operation of transponders has
been required
b) When entering an aerodrome from an adjacent region where the operation of transponders
has been required
c) When entering a region from adjacent region where the operation of transponders has not
been required
d) When entering a country from another where transponders were not being used or required

218) Which aircraft is normally considered ‘Super’ in the Wake Turbulence categories?
a) A320
b) Hercules
c) Piper PA20
d) A380

219) What does Annex 15 deal with?

a) Operational Procedures
b) AIS
c) AIP
d) Facilitation

220) What is an Ashtam?

a) It is issued when ashes are found on the ground
b) It is used when there is a considerable change in volcanic activity
c) It is issed when there is volcanic activity and snow
d) It is issued when there is not any considerable change in the volcanic activity

221) What does Annex 14 deal with?

a) It deals with AIS
b) It deals with aerodromes
c) It deals with aviation personnel
d) It deals with the aerodrome control tower procedures

222) Where can one find the Noise Abatement Procedures in the AIP?
a) AD section
b) ENR 1 General Routes and Procedures
c) GEN 3 Services
d) GEN 1 National Regulation

1 A B C D 2 A B C D 3 A B C D
4 A B C D 5 A B C D 6 A B C D
7 A B C D 8 A B C D 9 A B C D
10 A B C D 11 A B C D 12 A B C D
13 A B C D 14 A B C D 15 A B C D
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16 A B C D 17 A B C D 18 A B C D
19 A B C D 20 A B C D 21 A B C D
22 A B C D 23 A B C D 24 A B C D
25 A B C D 26 A B C D 27 A B C D
28 A B C D 29 A B C D 30 A B C D
31 A B C D 32 A B C D 33 A B C D
34 A B C D 35 A B C D 36 A B C D
37 A B C D 38 A B C D 39 A B C D
40 A B C D 41 A B C D 42 A B C D
43 A B C D 44 A B C D 45 A B C D
46 A B C D 47 A B C D 48 A B C D
49 A B C D 50 A B C D 51 A B C D
52 A B C D 53 A B C D 54 A B C D
55 A B C D 56 A B C D 57 A B C D
58 A B C D 59 A B C D 60 A B C D
61 A B C D 62 A B C D 63 A B C D
64 A B C D 65 A B C D 66 A B C D
67 A B C D 68 A B C D 69 A B C D
70 A B C D 71 A B C D 72 A B C D
73 A B C D 74 A B C D 75 A B C D
76 A B C D 77 A B C D 78 A B C D
79 A B C D 80 A B C D 81 A B C D
82 A B C D 83 A B C D 84 A B C D
85 A B C D 86 A B C D 87 A B C D
88 A B C D 89 A B C D 90 A B C D
91 A B C D 92 A B C D 93 A B C D
94 A B C D 95 A B C D 96 A B C D
97 A B C D 98 A B C D 99 A B C D
100 A B C D 101 A B C D 102 A B C D
103 A B C D 104 A B C D 105 A B C D
106 A B C D 107 A B C D 108 A B C D
109 A B C D 110 A B C D 111 A B C D
112 A B C D 113 A B C D 114 A B C D
115 A B C D 116 A B C D 117 A B C D
118 A B C D 119 A B C D 120 A B C D
121 A B C D 122 A B C D 123 A B C D
124 A B C D 125 A B C D 126 A B C D
127 A B C D 128 A B C D 129 A B C D
130 A B C D 131 A B C D 132 A B C D
133 A B C D 134 A B C D 135 A B C D
136 A B C D 137 A B C D 138 A B C D
139 A B C D 140 A B C D 141 A B C D
142 A B C D 143 A B C D 144 A B C D

33 EPA MT
145 A B C D 146 A B C D 147 A B C D
148 A B C D 149 A B C D 150 A B C D
151 A B C D 152 A B C D 153 A B C D
154 A B C D 155 A B C D 156 A B C D
157 A B C D 158 A B C D 159 A B C D
160 A B C D 161 A B C D 162 A B C D
163 A B C D 164 A B C D 165 A B C D
166 A B C D 167 A B C D 168 A B C D
169 A B C D 170 A B C D 171 A B C D
172 A B C D 173 A B C D 174 A B C D
175 A B C D 176 A B C D 177 A B C D
178 A B C D 179 A B C D 180 A B C D
181 A B C D 182 A B C D 183 A B C D
184 A B C D 185 A B C D 186 A B C D
187 A B C D 188 A B C D 189 A B C D
190 A B C D 191 A B C D 192 A B C D
193 A B C D 194 A B C D 195 A B C D
196 A B C D 197 A B C D 198 A B C D
199 A B C D 200 A B C D 201 A B C D
202 A B C D 203 A B C D 204 A B C D
205 A B C D 206 A B C D 207 A B C D
208 A B C D 209 A B C D 210 A B C D
211 A B C D 212 A B C D 213 A B C D
214 A B C D 215 A B C D 216 A B C D
217 A B C D 218 A B C D 219 A B C D
220 A B C D 221 A B C D 222 A B C D

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 1 A B C D 2 A B C D 3 A B C D
4 A B C D 5 A B C D 6 A B C D
7 A B C D 8 A B C D 9 A B C D
10 A B C D 11 A B C D 12 A B C D
13 A B C D 14 A B C D 15 A B C D
16 A B C D 17 A B C D 18 A B C D
19 A B C D 20 A B C D 21 A B C D
22 A B C D 23 A B C D 24 A B C D
25 A B C D 26 A B C D 27 A B C D
28 A B C D 29 A B C D 30 A B C D
31 A B C D 32 A B C D 33 A B C D
34 A B C D 35 A B C D 36 A B C D
37 A B C D 38 A B C D 39 A B C D
40 A B C D 41 A B C D 42 A B C D
43 A B C D 44 A B C D 45 A B C D
46 A B C D 47 A B C D 48 A B C D
49 A B C D 50 A B C D 51 A B C D
52 A B C D 53 A B C D 54 A B C D
55 A B C D 56 A B C D 57 A B C D
58 A B C D 59 A B C D 60 A B C D
61 A B C D 62 A B C D 63 A B C D
64 A B C D 65 A B C D 66 A B C D
67 A B C D 68 A B C D 69 A B C D
70 A B C D 71 A B C D 72 A B C D
73 A B C D 74 A B C D 75 A B C D
76 A B C D 77 A B C D 78 A B C D
79 A B C D 80 A B C D 81 A B C D
82 A B C D 83 A B C D 84 A B C D
85 A B C D 86 A B C D 87 A B C D
88 A B C D 89 A B C D 90 A B C D
91 A B C D 92 A B C D 93 A B C D
94 A B C D 95 A B C D 96 A B C D
97 A B C D 98 A B C D 99 A B C D
100 A B C D 101 A B C D 102 A B C D
103 A B C D 104 A B C D 105 A B C D
106 A B C D 107 A B C D 108 A B C D
109 A B C D 110 A B C D 111 A B C D
112 A B C D 113 A B C D 114 A B C D
115 A B C D 116 A B C D 117 A B C D
118 A B C D 119 A B C D 120 A B C D
121 A B C D 122 A B C D 123 A B C D
124 A B C D 125 A B C D 126 A B C D
127 A B C D 128 A B C D 129 A B C D
130 A B C D 131 A B C D 132 A B C D
133 A B C D 134 A B C D 135 A B C D
136 A B C D 137 A B C D 138 A B C D
139 A B C D 140 A B C D 141 A B C D
142 A B C D 143 A B C D 144 A B C D

35 EPA MT
145 A B C D 146 A B C D 147 A B C D
148 A B C D 149 A B C D 150 A B C D
151 A B C D 152 A B C D 153 A B C D
154 A B C D 155 A B C D 156 A B C D
157 A B C D 158 A B C D 159 A B C D
160 A B C D 161 A B C D 162 A B C D
163 A B C D 164 A B C D 165 A B C D
166 A B C D 167 A B C D 168 A B C D
169 A B C D 170 A B C D 171 A B C D
172 A B C D 173 A B C D 174 A B C D
175 A B C D 176 A B C D 177 A B C D
178 A B C D 179 A B C D 180 A B C D
181 A B C D 182 A B C D 183 A B C D
184 A B C D 185 A B C D 186 A B C D
187 A B C D 188 A B C D 189 A B C D
190 A B C D 191 A B C D 192 A B C D
193 A B C D 194 A B C D 195 A B C D
196 A B C D 197 A B C D 198 A B C D
199 A B C D 200 A B C D 201 A B C D
202 A B C D 203 A B C D 204 A B C D
205 A B C D 206 A B C D 207 A B C D
208 A B C D 209 A B C D 210 A B C D
211 A B C D 212 A B C D 213 A B C D
214 A B C D 215 A B C D 216 A B C D
217 A B C D 218 A B C D 219 A B C D
220 A B C D 221 A B C D 222 A B C D

36 EPA MT
 AIRCRAFT GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

The actual examination paper consists of 16 questions, each with a multiple

choice of four answers A, B, C or D. The candidate should indicate the chosen
answer by placing a cross in the appropriate box on the answer paper provided.
Time allowed 45 minutes.
The pass mark is 75%, so the minimum number of questions that must be
answered correctly to obtain a pass is 12. Marks are not deducted for incorrect
answers.

37 EPA MT
1) A flying control Lock:
(a) Will constrain the control column to its design Limits so as not to overstress the airframe
during normal operations.
(b) Must always be used when flying in gusty conditions.
(c) Is used to lock the controls on the ground to prevent damage in high wind conditions.
(d) is only necessary on the elevators.

2) The type of gas which is stored in the activating cylinder of a Life jacket:
(a) is extremely toxic and great care should be taken, when topping up the lifejacket, not to
breathe any of it in.
(b) Is Carbon dioxide.
(c) Its highly flammable.
(d) Is Carbon Monoxide.

3) A BCF fire extinguisher:

(a) Gives off highly toxic fumes and should never be used in an enclosed cockpit.
(b) Its quite safe when use in an enclosed cockpit.
(c) is only Suitable for Wood or fabric fires and therefore, of no Use in a cockpit.
(d) Is quite safe to use in an enclosed cockpit it the cockpit is subsequently ventilated.

4) Semi-monocoque can be defined as:

(a) A stressed skin with all the loads on the skin
(b) A framework of tight-gauge steel tubes welded together to form a space frame of triangular
shape.
(c) A structure with no apertures at all.
(d) An apetureless structure supported by stringers and Iongerons over a stressed skin.

5) It is good practice, when flying over large areas of water, that Life jackets:
(a) Should be carried under the pilots’ seats.
(b) Are worn, uninflated.
(c) Should be inspected periodically for Leaks.
(d) Are worn inflated.

6) Water-based fire extinguishers are most suitable for use on:

(a) Combustible metals and fuel.
(b) Electrical equipment and paper.
(c) Paper and furnishing fabrics.
(d) Wheel and brake fires.

7) The principal reason why Light training aircraft have fixed undercarriages is that:
(a) Training aircraft need to maneuver on the ground.
(b) Training aircraft need to ensure that kinetic energy on Landing is absorbed.
(c) Training aircraft need to be supported at a convenient height.
(d) The reduced performance caused by the additional drag of a fixed undercarriage is o ffset
by its simplicity, low cost and easy maintenance.

38 EPA MT
8) On a Light aircraft fitted with a mechanically steered nose wheel, steering on the
ground is normally effected by:
(a) Cables operated from the aileron control wheel.
(b) Use of the deferential braking technique, only.
(c) Hydraulic jacks which al low seIf-centring.
(d) Control rods, cables operated by the rudder pedals.

9) If a fire occurs in a wheel and brake assembly and immediate action is required to
extinguish it, the safest extinguishant to use is:
(a) Dry powder
(b) Carbon dioxide
(c) BromotrifIuoromethane (BFM)
(d) Water acid.

10) The power output of a four-stroke piston engine at sea Level:

(a) Is proportional to the volume of air induced into the cylinder.
(b) Its constant as rpm increases.
(c) Increases initially, and then remains constant as rpm increases.
(d) Increases as rpm increases.

11) The number of revolutions of the crankshaft required to complete a full cycle In a
four stroke engine is:
(a) 6.
(b) 4.
(c) 2.
(d) 8.

12) The crankshaft in a piston engine:

(a) Conveys reciprocating movement into rotary motion.
(b) Controls the clearance of the valves.
(c) Conveys rotary motion into reciprocating movement.
(d) Rotates at half the camshaft speed.

13) Carbon monoxide gas, which is highly toxic, may enter the airplane cabin in flight
because of an exhaust system defect. Carbon Monoxide:
(a) May be identified by its strong smell.
(b) May be identified by its grey color.
(c) is odorless and colorless.
(d) Has a very distinctive taste.

14) To achieve the correct valve timing in a piston engine, the valves are opened by a
camshaft running at:
(a) Twice crankshaft speed.
(b) Engine speed.
(c) Twice engine speed.
(d) Half crankshaft speed.

15) To work at its highest efficiency, the engine:

(a) Needs to be at the highest temperature consistent with safe operation.
(b) Oil system must constantly be supplied with hot air.
(c) Must be used at high altitude to take advantage of the cooling effect of the atmosphere.
(d) Needs to be at the Lowest temperature consistent with safe operation.

39 EPA MT
16) To assist in reducing the temperature of the engine:
(a) The airspeed can be reduced.
(b) The air/fuel mixture can be richened.
(c) The cowl flaps can be closed.
(d) The air/fuel mixture can be weakened.

17) If the engine gets too hot, the mixture may ignite before the spark plug fires.
(a) This is called detonation.
(b) The mixture should be weakened to assist in cooling the engine.
(c) The throttle should be opened to assist in cooling the engine.
(d) This is called pre-ignition

18) The prevention of excessive oil pressure in an aircraft engine is assured by:
(a) Ensuring that the engine does not exceed the redline rpm value.
(b) The engine's high capacity pressure pump.
(c) The engine's oil pressure relief valve.
(d) (d) The engine's fitter by-pass valve. '

19) During a prolonged climb, you notice that the engine oil pressure is reducing and
the oil temperature rising. You discount any failure of the Lubrication system. What,
then, is the most probable cause and remedy?
(a) You are climbing at too high an airspeed causing overcooling of the Lubrication system,
thus increasing oil viscosity. You reduce power and reduce airspeed.
(b) The Low airspeed and high engine speed associated with the climb are reducing cooing of
the Lubrication system, thus Lowering oil viscosity. You reduce power and increase airspeed.
(c) You are climbing at too high an airspeed causing overcooling of the Lubrication system,
thus Lowering oil viscosity. You increase power but reduce airspeed.
(d) The Low airspeed and high engine speed associated with the climb are reducing cooing of
the lubrication system, thus increasing oil viscosity. You increase power and reduce airspeed.

20) If a blockage occurs in the oil cooler of an aircraft engine while the aircraft is in
flight, a by-pass valve allows the oil to by-pass the cooler.
The bypass functions on the principle of:
(a) Pressure dependence.
(b) Temperature dependence.
(c) Mechanical selection.
(d) Hydraulic selection.

21) Where in the engine is the oil temperature read by the temperature probe in a dry
sump oil system?
(a) inside the hot sections of the engine.
(b) As the oil leaves the oil tank.
(c) Before the oil has passed through the oil cooler.
(d) After the oil has passed through the oil cooler but before it reaches the hot sections of the
engine.

40 EPA MT
22) Which of the following are functions of the capacitor in the primary circuit of a
magneto?
I. Assists in collapsing the magnetic field.
lI. Smoothes the output of the magnetic field.
lII. Helps prevent erosion of the contact breaker points.
IV. Prevents sparking at the contact breaker points.
(a) I and II only.
(b) III and V only.
(c) l and IV only.
(d) I and IIl and IV.

23) Magnetos are:

(a) Generators, driven by the camshaft, used to supply electrical equipment.
(b) Used to generate Low voltage sparks for the spark plugs.
(c) Found within the distributor and fire in the same sequence as the spark plugs.
(d) Self contained, engine driven, electrical generators, which produce high voltage sparks.

24) Detonation is:

(a) Unstable combustion.
(b) An explosion that occurs before the normal ignition point.
(c) Usually associated with a rich mixture and high cylinder head temperature.
(d) Usually associated with a weak mixture and a low cylinder head temperature.

25) An accelerator pump is used to prevent a ''flat spot''. A ''flat spot'' is:
(a) When the throttle is opened quickly and the demand for fuel cannot be met immediately.
(b) When the throttle is closed quickly and the engine is starved of fuel.
(c) When the throttle is opened quickly and the mixture becomes temporarily too rich.
(d) When the throttle is closed and the mixture becomes temporarily too rich.

26) It is best to run the engine with the mixture:

(a) Chemically correct, as this is most efficient.
(b) Slightly rich, as the remaining fuel helps cool the engine.
(c) Slightly rich, as the remaining air helps cool the engine.
(d) Slightly weak, as the remaining air helps cool the engine.

27) On a fixed pitch propeller aircraft whose engine is fitted with a carburetor, the
indications of induction system icing are:
(a) A gradual drop in rpm and possible rough running and vibration.
(b) A sudden drop in rpm and engine temperature.
(c) A rise in manifold pressure and a reduction in air speed, in Level flight.
(d) A rise in engine oil temperature and a fall in oil pressure.

28) On a constant speed propeller aircraft whose engine is fitted with a carburetor, the
indications of induction system icing are:
(a) A rise in manifold pressure and a reduction in air speed, in Level flight.
(b) That opening the throttle lever will not increase engine RPM.
(c) A gradual drop in engine rpm and possible rough running and vibration.
(d) A drop-in manifold pressure or a reduction in air speed, in level flight.

41 EPA MT
29) Having reached the top of a climb, when flying an aircraft fitted with a fixed pitch
propeller, the mixture should be adjusted for the cruise. One way of doing this is to:
(a) Lean the mixture until the rpm rises then fails slightly, then make the mixture richer until the
rpm rises and falls slightly once more.
(b) lean the mixture until the rpm rises then fails slightly.
(c) Make the mixture richer until the rpm rises then fails slightly, then make the mixture Leaner
until the rpm rises and fails slightly once more.
(d) Adjust the mixture until the rpm rises to its maximum available value.

30) Detonation could result from using:

(a) Too weak a mixture.
(b) Too Low a manifold pressure.
(c) A higher-grade fuel than recommended.
(d) Too high a RPM.

31) It is possible to get carburetor icing when the relative humidity is greater than 50%
within a temperature range of:
(a) 0 degrees Celsius and below.
(b) -5 to + 15 degrees Celsius.
(c) -20 to +10 degrees Celsius.
(d) At any temperature.

32) If the CofA of an aircraft expires by one day, the aircraft:

(a) Cannot Fly
(b) Can fly to be taken for maintenance
(c) Can fly.
(d) Should be scrapped.

33) in the aircraft tanks, fuel is most Likely to be contaminated by water from:
(a) Poorly fitting fuel caps.
(b) Contamination during re-fueling.
(c) Leaks in the tanks that have let in rain.
(d) Atmospheric air remaining in the tanks.

34) As an aircraft with a variable-pitch, constant-speed propeller accelerates along the

runway:
(a) The angle of attack will decrease and the engine RPM. remain constant.
(b) The blade pitch angle increases, maintaining a constant angle of attack and RPM.
(c) The angle of attack will remain constant and the engine RPM Will increase.
(d) The Linear velocity of the propeller tip will gradually decrease.

35) Which of the following will increase the angle of attack of a fixed pitch? propeller
blade?
(a) increased TAS and increased Rpm
(b) Increased TAS and decreased RPM.
(c) Decreased TAS and increased RPM.
(d) Decreased TAS and decreased RPM.

42 EPA MT
36) Blade angle ________ from the hub to the tip of a propeller blade in order to
maintain in an optimal _________ from hub to tip.
(a) increases Angle of Attack
(b) Decreases Geometric Pitch
(c) (c) Increases Effective Pitch
(d) (d) Decreases Angle of Attack

37) How soon after starting a cold aircraft engine should the oil pressure gauge give an
indication?
(a) Immediately; otherwise shut down the engine.
(b) Within 30 seconds; otherwise shut down the engine.
(c) By the time pre-flight checks are complete; otherwise shut down the engine.
(d) As Long as the oil levels were at an adequate level before start-up

38) Immediately after starting an aircraft engine, you must check the starter warning
light. lf it is still illuminated you should:
(a) Monitor it for 30 seconds. If it remains illuminated shut down the engine.
(b) Shut down the engine immediately.
(c) Do nothing. The starter warning Light should stay on while the engine is running.
(d) Shut down the engine, count to 30, and then attempt a re-start.

39) In a flight if the load meter reading drops to zero, the most probable cause is that
the:
(a) Battery has been fully charged.
(b) Alternator has failed.
(c) Battery is flat.
(d) Bus-bar is overloaded.

40) If a fuse blows during flight it:

(a) Should not be replaced until after Landing.
(b) May be replaced in the air once only, by one of the same value.
(c) May be replaced by a fuse of a higher rating to ensure that it will not blow again.
(d) May be replaced as one as required.

41) Theoretically, a 100 amp hr battery will supply 25 amps for;

(a) 4 hours.
(b) 25 minutes.
(c) 100 minutes.
(d) 25 hours.

42) A light aircraft electrical power system, which employs a centre-zero reading
ammeter. in flight with the battery fully charged and the battery switch ON. you would
expect the ammeter to be.
(a) In the centre-zero position.
(b) To the right showing a large positively reading.
(c) To the Left showing a negative reading.
(d) fluctuating, but mainly showing a negative reading.

43 EPA MT
43) On your instrument panel, the suction gauge is showing system failure. However,
the gyro-driven instruments appear to be functioning normality, and the Low Vacuum
Warning Light is on. Where do you think the problem Lies?
(a) In the suction system.
(b) In the suction gauge. '
(c) With the Low Vacuum Warning Light.
(d) In the gyro driven instruments.

44) Ignoring any Instrument or Position Errors, in what conditions will the Air Speed
Indicator indicate the True Airspeed of an aircraft?
(a) in ISA, sea-level conditions only.
(b) At any altitude or temperature.
(c) At any attitude, provided that the temperature Lapse rate is in accordance with ISA.
(d) Of any altitude, but only when lSA conditions prevail.

45) If, while an aircraft is descending, the static vent leading to the Vertical Speed
Indicator becomes blocked, the indicator will:
(a) continue to show the same reading.
(b) Indicate a climb.
(c) indicate a descent.
(d) Show a zero reading, after a short delay.

46) When an aircraft is in flight, the pressure sensed by the forward facing hole in the
pitot tube is:
(a) Static pressure only. .
(b) Total pressure plus dynamic pressure.
(c) Dynamic pressure plus static pressure.
(d) Dynamic pressure only.

47) The principle of operation of the Vertical Speed indicator (VSI) is that it:
(a) Compares static pressure in a capsule sensed through a direct static vent with that in the
instrument's case, sensed though a metered vent. TheVSI is, thus, able to detect the rate of
change of static pressure with height.
(b) Compares total pressure from the pitot tube with static pressure from the static vents. The
VSI is calibrated to show the difference between the to as a vertical speed in feet per minute.
(c) Compares dynamic pressure from the pilot tube with static pressure from the static vents.
The VSI is calibrated to show the difference between the tow as a vertical speed in feet per
minute or meters per second.
(d) Senses total pressure only, form the pilot tube, and conveys the change in total pressure
with height into a rate of climb or descent, measured either in feet per minute or meters per
second.

48) lf the variation is West of True North:

(a) Add it to your aircraft's True Heading to get the correct Magnetic Heading.
(b) Add it to your aircraft's Magnetic Heading to get the correct True Heading.
(c) Subtract it from your aircraft's True Heading to get the correct Magnetic Heading.
(d) Then the angle of dip will be greatest.

49) When turning through North in the Northern Hemisphere:

(a) Turning errors are greatest closer to the magnetic equator.
(b) Liquid swirl will increase the magnitude of any turning error.
(c) Acceleration errors are always more significant than turning errors.
(d) The compass will be lively.
44 EPA MT
50) When referring to the magnetic compass, pilots must bear in mind that:
(a) Turning errors are maximum when turning through North and South, and Minimum when
turning through East and West.
(b) Turning errors are maximum when turning through East and West, and Minimum when
turning through North and South.
(c) Turning errors increase. The nearer the aircraft is to the Magnetic Equator. And diminish as
the aircraft approaches the Magnetic Poles.
(d) Acceleration errors decrease the nearer the aircraft is to the Magnetic Poles. And increase
as the aircraft approaches the Magnetic Equator.

51) If the gyro of a turn indicator runs at a Lower rpm than its design specification. How
will the actual rate of turn of the aircraft compare to the rate of turn shown on the turn
indicator.
(a) The actual rate of turn of the aircraft will be same as the rate indicated.
(b) Reads Zero. .
(c) the turn indicator will not indicate a rate of turn.
(d) the actual rate of turn of the aircraft will be greater than the rate indicated.

52) A Direction Indicator:

(a) Is badly affected by acceleration in a turn? '
(b) Suffers from apparent drift of the gyro from the fixed position in space to Which it was
aligned, produced by Earth rotation?
(c) is not affected by drift produced from mechanical friction in the gyro Gimbal bearings.
(d) Provides a stable reference in azimuth and elevation for maintaining Accurate headings
and pitch attitudes.

53) Tyre Creep may be described as :

(a) Gradual circumferential increase of tyre wear.
(b) Circumferential movement of the tyre in relation to the wheel.
(c) The increase of inflation pressure due to decrease in ambient temperature.
(d) The decrease of inflation pressure due to increase in ambient temperature.

54) A structure in which the skin takes all the load is :

(a) A box structure
(b) A semi-monocoque structure
(c) A semi-braced structure
(d) A monocoque structure

55) One design method to avoid control surface flutter is :

(a) Providing the wing structure with sufficient flexibility
(b) Through the correct use of trim tabs
(c) Ensuring correct mass distribution within the control surface
(d) Through the correct use of balance tabs

56) An excessively rich mixture can be detected by :

(a) White smoke from the exhaust
(b) Black smoke from the exhaust
(c) A long purple flame from the intake
(d) A high cylinder head temperature

45 EPA MT
57) The ignition system of a running piston engine receives electricity from :
(a) Capacitors
(b) Generators
(c) Rotating permanent magnets
(d) Batteries

58) If the battery fails during flight, what happens to the engine?
(a) Stops running
(b) Power reduces
(c) Keeps running normally
(d) Power increases

59) Fixed-pitch propellers are designed for best efficiency:

(a) Idling
(b) Full throttle
(c) Take-off
(d) Cruising

60) The main advantage of a constant speed propeller compared to a fixed pitch
propeller is that it:
(a) Has a higher maximum propeller efficiency of a wider range of airspeeds
(b) Has lower propeller blade stress
(c) Does not require blade twist
(d) Maintains its propeller efficiency of a wider range of airspeeds

61) The connection in parallel of two 12V/40amp hour batteries, will create a unit with
the following characteristics:
(a) 24 Volt/40amp hours
(b) 12 Volt/40amp hours
(c) 24 Volt/80amp hours
(d) 12 Volt/80amp hours

62) Assuming the initiating cause is removed, which of these statements about
resetting are correct or incorrect
I. A Fuse is resettable
II. A circuit breaker is not resettable
(a) I is incorrect, II is correct
(b) I is correct, II is correct
(c) I is incorrect, II is incorrect
(d) I is correct, II is incorrect

63) The purpose of the barometric correction in the carburetor is to :

(a) Maintain the correct fuel to air mass ratio when altitude increases
(b) Reduce the fuel to air mass ratio when altitude decreases
(c) Maintain a constant fuel flow irrespective of altitude
(d) Increase the fuel to air mass ratio when altitude increases

46 EPA MT
64) For a given type of oil, oil viscosity depends on :
(a) Outside pressure
(b) Oil pressure
(c) Quantity of oil
(d) Oil temperature

65) In a reciprocating four stroke engine, the only driving stroke is the :
(a) Compression
(b) Induction
(c) Power
(d) Exhaust

66) Insufficient fuel tank venting will cause:

(a) Rich mixture
(b) Fuel starvation
(c) Increased power
(d) Fuel contamination

67) To prevent spark plugs fouling (carbon deposits) :

(a) Dont idle
(b) Use the recommended idle power setting
(c) Rich mixture
(d) Weaken Mixture

68) When running in idle, with the butterfly valve close, what prevents the engine from
stopping?
(a) Idling Jet
(b) Spark Plugs
(c) Magnetos
(d) Carburetor

69) What are the properties which give a gyroscope rigidity?

(a) RPM, Centre of gravity
(b) Gyroscopic Precession
(c) RPM, Rotor Mass and Centre of gravity
(d) Apparent Drift

70) When do you check the operational reliability of the brake system?
(a) You Dont. An engineer does
(b) Just after you begin taxiing
(c) In the pre flight check
(d) After landing
71) Why do you carry out an inspection from a distance?
(a) To check for debris
(b) To check for birds
(c) To check the structure of the plane
(d) You dont

47 EPA MT
72) The yellow arc on the ASI represents:
(a) Va
(b) Vno
(c) Vfe
(d) Vso

73) The white arc on the ASI represents:

(a) Va
(b) Vno
(c) Vfe
(d) (d)Vso

74) Precession in straight and level flight is indicated by:

(a) Compass
(b) Attitude Indicator
(c) Direction Indicator
(d) ASI

75) Broken cylinder fins cause :

(a) Increased cooling
(b) Reduced cooling
(c) Engine failure
(d) Fuel starvation
76) Which instrument do you first check after start up?
(a) Oil Temperature Gauge
(b) Tachometer
(c) Fuel Quantity Gauge
(d) Oil Pressure Gauge

77) What is the purpose of dorsal fins?

(a) Streamlining
(b) Design feature
(c) Improve stalling of fin
(d) Improve lateral stability

78) The starter switch has a ________ than the starter motor.
(a) Higher Resistance
(b) Higher Current
(c) Higher Voltage
(d) Lower Current

79) Why is the blade angle of the propeller decreasing from root to tip?
(a) To increase the angle of attack at the tips
(b) To make the propeller spin faster
(c) To decrease the angle of attack at the tips
(d) To make the propeller spin slower

80) After a major overhaul on the engine, what type of oil should you use?
(a) Mineral Oil
(b) Straight Oil
(c) Oil with additives
(d) Same oil as before
48 EPA MT
81) When do you carry out a fuel inspection?
(a) After landing
(b) Before covering the aircraft
(c) Before every flight
(d) Before the first flight of the day

82) You arrive at 3000 feet AMSL and adjust to the correct mixture setting. You
subsequently climb to 6000 feet AMSL. What happens to the mixture?
(a) Gets weaker
(b) Gets richer
(c) Water is added
(d) Completely cuts off

83) The attitude indicator has a gyro axis in the _________ plane and rotates in a
___________ axis plane.
(a) Vertical Horizontal
(b) Vertical Vertical
(c) Horizontal Horizontal
(d) Horizontal Vertical

84) The direction indicator and rate of turn indicator have a gyro axis in the _________
plane and rotate in a ___________ axis plane.
(a) Vertical Horizontal
(b) Vertical Vertical
(c) Horizontal Horizontal
(d) Horizontal Vertical

85) The compression ratio of a piston engine is the ratio of the:

(a) Area of the piston to the cylinder volume.
(b) Weight of the air induced to its weight after compression.
(c) Diameter of the bore to the piston stroke.
(d) Volume of the cylinder with the piston at bottom dead centre to that with the piston at top
dead centre

86) The main purpose of the mixture control is to:

(a) Adjust the fuel flow to obtain the correct fuel/air ratio.
(b) Increase the oxygen supplied to the engine.
(c) Decrease the air supplied to the engine.
(d) Decrease the oxygen supplied to the engine

87) The rating of electrical fuses is expressed in:

(a) Amperes.
(b) Watts.
(c) Ohms.
(d) Volts

88) When applying carburetor heating:

(a) The mixture becomes leaner.
(b) No change occurs in the mixture.
(c) The mixture becomes richer.
(d) Rpm increases immediately

49 EPA MT
89) Can a fixed trim tab be adjusted and when?
(a) Yes. At anytime during flight
(b) No.
(c) Yes. By anyone at any time
(d) Yes. But only after a test flight.

90) The altimeter and airspeed indicator on an electronic display are shown as:
(a) Circular dial
(b) Color coded
(c) Vertical tape
(d) Arrows
91) A wing with decreasing angle of incidence from root to tip is said to have:
(a) Dihedral
(b) Washout
(c) Anhedral
(d) Angle of attack

92) The idling jet is:

(a) Part of the carburetor
(b) An independent system
(c) Part of the magneto
(d) Part of the oil system

93) IAS is corrected for ____________ to CAS.

(a) Instrument Error
(b) Density Error
(c) Position Error
(d) Instrument and Position Error

94) The Artificial Horizon has an axis aligned with the :

(a) Lateral Axis
(b) Normal Axis
(c) Longitudinal Axis
(d) Straight Axis

95) The Direction Indicator has an axis aligned with the :

(a) Lateral Axis
(b) Normal Axis
(c) Longitudinal Axis
(d) Straight Axis

96) With the alternator switch off, the electrical system takes power from the:
(a) Battery
(b) Alternator
(c) Engine
(d) Wind

97) The manifold pressure gauge with the engine off will read:
(a) Engine Temperature
(b) Oil Pressure
(c) Atmospheric Pressure
(d) Water Pressure

50 EPA MT
98) If a magneto becomes disconnected from its ignition switch with the engine
running...
(a) selection of the other magneto's switch to off will stop the engine.
(b) selection of the other magneto's switch to off will fail to stop the engine.
(c) one plug in each cylinder will fail to spark.
(d) a dead cut will result when both magneto’s are switched off.

99) If an aircraft is not maintained as required by the approved maintenance schedule

as quoted on the C of A, the...
(a) C of A is still valid as long as the required maintenance is carried out as soon as
practicable.
(b) C of A is not affected but the aircraft insurance may be void.
(c) C of A becomes invalid until the required maintenance is carried out.
(d) aircraft will automatically stop working when the maintenance schedule is due.

100) If you connect two batteries, each of 12 volts, when connected in series they would
produce an output of...
(a) 2.4 Volts
(b) 24 Volts
(c) 12 Volts
(d) 1.2 Volts

101) A BCF fire extinguisher...

(a) gives off highly toxic fumes and should never be used in an enclosed cockpit.
(b) is only suitable for wood and paper fires, they should not be used in an enclosed cockpit.
(c) is quite safe to be used in an enclosed cockpit if the cockpit is subsequently ventilated.
(d) is only suitable for electrical fires, they may be used in an enclosed cockpit.

102) The loads carried by the spars are ...... bending where the lift is generated and ......
bending where they support the fuselage and wing fuel tanks.
Please select the correct missing words.
(a) downward - upward
(b) upward - downward
(c) downward - downward
(d) upward - upward

103) You select carburettor heat to check for icing, if there is no icing present. What will
happen to the engine rpm and why?
(a) The engine rpm will decrease because the heated air is more dense
(b) There will be no RPM change
(c) The engine rpm will decrease because the heated air is less dense
(d) The engine rpm will increase because the heated air is more dense

104) A semi-monocoque structure consists of...

(a) light framework covered by a doped fabric.
(b) heavy duty framework cover by aluminium skin.
(c) light framework covered by an aluminium skin.
(d) heavy duty framework covered by a doped fabric.

51 EPA MT
105) On take-off, in an aeroplane fitted with a propeller turning in a clockwise direction
when viewed from the rear, torque reaction tends to cause...
(a) roll with right wing down.
(b) the tail to raise.
(c) roll with left wing down.
(d) the nose to raise.

106) If the starter warning light remains on after the starter button has been released
the...
(a) the engine should be stopped immediately to avoid further damage to the engine/starter
motor.
(b) the engine should be stopped immediately to avoid further damage to the engine/altenator.
(c) the engine should be stopped immediately to avoid further damage to the engine/battery.
(d) the engine RPM should be increased to rectify this problem.

107) During straight and level flight, you notice that the suction has failed. What is the
most likely effect on the instrumentation used in a typical light aircraft?
(a) The turn co-ordinator will cease to operate
(b) The AI (Attitude Indicator) and the DI (Direction Indicator) will cease to operate
(c) The VSI (Vertical Speed Indicator) and the DI (Direction Indicator) will cease to operate
(d) The AI (Attitude Indicator) and the VSI (Vertical Speed Indicator) will cease to operate

108) The tendency of a control to 'flutter' can be reduced by the use of...
(a) a mass balance.
(b) a horn balance.
(c) a servo tab.
(d) a control stop.

109) A long and thin wing will have.

(a) a high aspect ratio.
(b) a low aspect ratio.
(c) a medium aspect ratio.
(d) a high lift coefficient.

110) When two 12 volt 40 amp-hour batteries are connected in parallel this is equivalent
to a...
(a) 24 volt battery supplying 40 amp-hours.
(b) 12 volt battery supplying 40 amp-hours.
(c) 24 volt battery supplying 80 amp-hours.
(d) 12 volt battery supplying 80 amp-hours.

111) Carbon Monoxide, which is highly toxic, may enter the aeroplane cabin in flight
because of an exhaust system defect and it...
(a) will have a light smell to it and be grey in colour.
(b) is colourless but has a strong smell.
(c) is odourless and colourless.
(d) will smell toxic but be colourless.

112) If during a descent, the static source to the airspeed indicator and altimeter
become blocked by ice...
(a) both instruments will under-read.
(b) both instruments will over-read.
(c) the airspeed indicator will under-read and the altimeter will over-read.
(d) the airspeed indicator will over-read and the altimeter will under-read.

52 EPA MT
113) Then turning to port, the port aileron will...
(a) move down
(b) move up
(c) move right
(d) move left

114) A piston engine aircraft lubricating system of the "dry sump" type is one which...
(a) all oil is retained in the engine and there is no external oil tank.
(b) there is no need for any lubricating oil, hence the name “dry”.
(c) a portion of the oil provided is stored in a sump which is topped up as required.
(d) scavenge oil is collected in a sump and returned to an oil tank.

115) If a fire occurs on an aircraft wheel and immediate action is required to extinguish
it, the safest extinguisher to use is...
(a) carbon monoxide.
(b) co2.
(c) water.
(d) dry powder.

116) If a fuse blows during a flight it...

(a) may be replaced in the air once only, by one of the same value or higher.
(b) may be replaced in the air twice only, by one of the same value.
(c) may be replaced in the air once only, by one of the same value.
(d) may not be replaced in the air, only when back on the ground.

117) On descent, your static port becomes blocked. How will this affect your altimeter
accuracy?
(a) It will over read the actual altitude.
(b) It will under read the actual altitude.
(c) It will have no effect.
(d) It will over read initially then under read.

118) What part of an aircraft piston engine converts the up and down motion of the
pistons into rotary motion?
(a) The camrod
(b) The magneto
(c) The driveshaft
(d) The crankshaft

119) The operating principle of float-type carburettors is based on the:

(a) Increase in air velocity in the throat of a venturi causing an increase in air pressure
(b) Automatic metering of air at the venturi as the aircraft gains altitude
(c) Measurement of the fuel flow into the induction system
(d) Difference in air pressure at the venturi throat and the air inlet

120) An impulse magneto coupling:

(a) Reduces magneto speed during engine warm-up
(b) Advances ignition timing and gives a hotter spark at starting
(c) Gives a retarded spark at starting
(d) Gives an automatic spark increase during high speed operation.

53 EPA MT
121) The purpose of an accumulator in a hydraulic system is:
(a) To eliminate the fluid flow variations.
(b) To bypass the pumps in the hydraulic system.
(c) To damp the fluid pressure variations.
(d) To enable the starting of hydraulic devices.

122) The function of the primer pump in a reciprocating engine is to:

(a) Inject additional fuel during engine acceleration.
(b) Serve as an alternate pump in case of engine driven pump failure.
(c) Serve as main supply pump in a fuel injection system.
(d) Provide additional fuel for engine start.

123) The type of brake unit found on most light aircraft is a:

(a) Belt brake.
(b) Multiple disk brake.
(c) Drum type brake.
(d) Single disk brake.

124) If, when the magneto selector switch is set to the OFF position, a piston engine
continues to run normally, the most probable cause is that:
(a) A wire from the magneto is in contact with a metallic part of the engine
(b) There is a carbon deposit on the spark plugs electrodes
(c) On a magneto, the grounding wire is broken
(d) There are local hot points in the engine (probably due to overheating of the cylinder heads)

125) The power of a normally aspirated piston engine decreases during a climb with a
constant power lever setting because of the decreasing:
(a) Humidity.
(b) Air density.
(c) Temperature.
(d) Engine temperature.

126) When the wing skin is not able to carry loads, the structural elements of the wing,
which carry the bending moment, are:
(a) The spars.
(b) The rivets.
(c) The webs.
(d) The ribs.

127) An EGT (Exhaust Gas Temperature) indicator for a piston engine is used to:
(a) Control the cylinder head temperature.
(b) Control the fuel temperature.
(c) Control the carburettor inlet air flow.
(d) Assist the pilot to set the correct mixture.

128) Pre-ignition refers to the condition that may arise when:

(a) The sparking plug ignites the mixture too early.
(b) A rich mixture is ignited by the sparking plugs.
(c) The mixture is ignited before the piston has reached top dead centre.
(d) The mixture is ignited by abnormal conditions within the cylinder before the spark occurs at
the plug

54 EPA MT
129) With respect to a piston engine aircraft, ice in the carburettor:
(a) Will only form at OAT's below +10°C.
(b) May form at OAT's higher than +10°C.
(c) Will only form at OAT's below the freezing point of fuel.
(d) Will only form at outside air temperatures (OAT's) below the freezing point of water.

130) Prolonged running at low rpm can have an adverse effect on the functioning of the:
(a) Oil pump.
(b) Carburettor.
(c) Spark plugs.
(d) Fuel filter.
131) The purpose of a chip detector in the oil system of an engine/gearbox is to indicate
that:
(a) The oil temperature is too high.
(b) The seals are worn.
(c) The piston rings are worn.
(d) There are metal particles in the oil.

132) Fuel tank air pressure is maintained at ambient by:

(a) The fuel top off unit.
(b) The fuel vent system.
(c) The fuel dump system.
(d) The fuel tank drains.

133) When starting the engine, or when the engine is running at idle rpm on the ground,
the mixture is:
(a) Weak, to prevent the engine consuming too much fuel.
(b) Rich, because carburettor heat is switched on.
(c) Rich, because the choke valve is closed.
(d) Rich, to make starting possible and to cool the engine sufficiently when idling.

134) Spark plug fouling is more likely to happen if:

(a) Power is increased too abruptly.
(b) The aircraft cruises at low speed with the correct mixture.
(c) The aircraft descends for a prolonged time at idle power.
(d) The engine runs at maximum continuous power for too long.

135) A torsion link assembly is installed on the landing gear to:

(a) Provide damping of the vertical motion during touch-down.
(b) Lock the landing gear.
(c) Avoid rotation of the piston rod relative to the fixed part of the oleo strut.
(d) Absorb the spring energy.

136) The main advantage of a constant speed propeller as compared to a fixed pitch
propeller is that it:
(a) Does not require propeller blade twist.
(b) Has a higher maximum propeller efficiency over a wider range of airspeeds.
(c) Maintains its maximum propeller efficiency over a wider range of airspeeds.
(d) Has a lower propeller blade stress.

55 EPA MT
137) In a reciprocating four-stroke engine, the only "driving" stroke is the:
(a) Exhaust stroke.
(b) Induction stroke.
(c) Power stroke.
(d) Compression stroke.

138) In a piston engine if the ratio of air to fuel is approximately 9:1 the mixture is:
(a) Chemically correct.
(b) Weak.
(c) Rich.
(d) Too weak to support combustion.

139) In a piston engine, the purpose of an altitude mixture control is to:

(a) Prevent a weak cut when the throttle is opened rapidly at altitude.
(b) Weaken the mixture because of reduced exhaust back pressure at altitude.
(c) Correct for variations in the fuel/air ratio due to decreased air density at altitude.
(d) Enrich the mixture due to decreased air density at altitude.

140) Associate the correct legend to each of the numbered diagrams:

(a) 1- half fork 2- fork 3- cantilever 4- tandem
(b) 1- cantilever 2- dual wheels 3- half fork 4- fork
(c) 1- half-fork 2- single trace 3- cantilever 4- dual wheels
(d) 1- cantilever 2- fork 3- half fork 4- dual wheels

141) The use of too low an octane fuel may cause:

(a) Higher manifold pressure.
(b) Detonation.
(c) Vapour locking.
(d) A cooling effect on cylinders.

142) When applying carburettor heating:

(a) The mixture becomes leaner.
(b) The mixture becomes richer.
(c) No change occurs in the mixture.
(d) Rpm increases immediately.

143) A bus bar is:

(a) The stator of a moving coil instrument.
(b) A device which may only be used in dc circuits.
(c) A device permitting operation of two or more switches together.
(d) A distribution means for electrical power.

56 EPA MT
144) A manifold pressure gauge reads 30 inHG at sea level. What will it read at
5000feet?
(a) 20 inHG
(b) 25 inHG
(c) 30 inHG
(d) 35 inHG

145) The thickness of the wing is defined as the distance between the lower and the
upper side of the wing at the...
a) most inner part of the wing.
b) thickest part of the wing.
c) most outer part of the wing.
d) thinnest part of the wing.

146) How is referred to a tubular steel construction with a non self-supporting skin?
a) Grid construction
b) Monocoque construction
c) Honeycomb structure
d) Semi-monocoque construction.

147) A construction made of frames and stringer with a supporting skin is called...
a) Honeycomb structure.
b) Wood- or mixed construction.
c) Semi-monocoque construction.
d) Grid construction.

148) Which wing configuration is shown in the attachment?

a) Strut-braced high wing

b) Mid wing
c) High wing
d) Low wing

149) Which tail assembly is shown in the attachment? See figure

a) V-tail
b) Fuselage-mounted tail
c) Cruciform tail
d) T-tail

57 EPA MT
 150) What are the major components of an aircraft's tail?
a) Horizontal tail and vertical tail
b) Steering wheel and pedals
c) Ailerons and elevator
d) Rudder and ailerons

151) Primary fuselage structures of wood or metal planes are usually made up
by what components?
a) Rips, frames and covers
b) Covers, stringers and forming parts
c) Frames and stringer
d) Girders, rips and stringers

152) The sandwich structure consists of two...

a) thin layers and a heavy core material.
b) thick layers and a light core material.
c) thin layers and a light core material.
d) thick layers and a heavy core material.

153) Which constructional elements give the wing its profile shape?
a) Rips
b) Planking
c) Spar
d) Tip

154) The load factor "n" describes the relationship between...

a) drag and lift.
b) lift and weight.
c) thrust and drag.
d) weight and thrust.

155) Which are the advantages of sandwich structures?

a) High strength and good formability
b) Good formability and high temperature durability
c) High temperature durability and low weight
d) Low weight, high stiffness, high stability, and high strength

156) Which of the stated materials shows the highest strength?

a) Wood
b) Aluminium
c) Carbon fiber re-inforced plastic
d) Magnesium

157) What needs to be considered if permissible limitations were exceeded?

a) The helicopter must be inspected by a qualified engineer before the next flight
b) The helicopter must be inspected by at least two pilots licensed on the type, one of whom
must be the pilot in command
c) The helicopter must be inspected by the pilot in command and if no defect is found, no
appropriate entry in the aircraft technical log is necessary
d) The helicopter must be subjected to a duplicate inspected by two engineers

58 EPA MT
158) Reasons for dents in the helicopter structure are...
a) excessive engine rpm and cylinder defects.
b) intense erosion or high wear.
c) material defects or old colour.
d) hard landing or excessive stress.

159) What kind of hydraulic oil is used in aeroplane systems today?

a) Vegetable oil
b) Bio-oil
c) Mineral oil
d) Synthetic oil

160) Number 1 on the gear designates the...

a) fork.
b) torque link.
c) strut.
d) inner shock absorber.
161) Number 2 on the gear designates the...
a) fork.
b) fixed outer cylinder.
c) movable inner cylinder.
d) torque link.

162) How is the nose or tail wheel usually controlled on

small aircraft and motor glides?
a) By the steering wheel
b) By the control column
c) By the pedals
d) By weight movement
163) Where is the brake system installed to slow the aircraft on ground?
a) On the nose and main gear
b) On the tail wheel
c) Only on the nose gear
d) Only on the main gear

164) What kind of control surface is connected with the nose wheel?
a) Trim rudder
b) Elevator
c) Rudder
d) Aileron

165) What is checked by the marking in the attachment)?

a) The correct position of the tire relative to the rim

b) The correct position of the outer isolation layers
c) The tread wear of the tire
d) The operating pressure of the carcass

59 EPA MT
166) About how many axes does an aircraft move and how are these axes called?
a) 3; vertical axis, lateral axis, longitudinal axis
b) 4; optical axis, imaginary axis, sagged axis, axis of evil
c) 4; vertical axis, lateral axis, longitudinal axis, axis of speed
d) 3; x-axis, y-axis, z-axis

167) A movement around the longitudinal axis is primarily initiated by the...

a) elevator.
b) trim tab.
c) ailerons.
d) rudder.
168) How are the flight controls on a small single-engine piston aircraft normally
controlled and actuated?
a) Hydraulically through hydraulic pumps and actuators
b) Electrically through fly-by-wire
c) Manually through rods and control cables
d) Power-assisted through hydraulic pumps or electric motors

169) What are the primary and the secondary effects of a rudder input to the left?
a) Primary: yaw to the right. Secondary: roll to the right
b) Primary: yaw to the left. Secondary: roll to the right
c) Primary: yaw to the right. Secondary: roll to the left
d) Primary: yaw to the left. Secondary: roll to the left

170) What is the effect of pulling the control yoke or stick backwards?
a) The aircraft's tail will produce an increased downward force, causing the aircraft's nose to
rise
b) The aircraft's tail will produce an increased downward force, causing the aircraft's nose to
drop
c) The aircraft's tail will produce an increased upward force, causing the aircraft's nose to rise
d) The aircraft's tail will produce an decreased upward force, causing the aircraft's nose to
drop
171) What happens to a helicopter during cruise when the stick is moved forward without
other corrections?
a) The speed decreases and the sink rate increases
b) The speed decreases and the sink rate decreases
c) The speed increases and the sink rate increases
d) The speed increases and the sink rate decreases

60 EPA MT
172) Which of the following options states all primary flight controls of an aircraft?
a) All movable parts on the aircraft which aid in controlling the aircraft
b) Flaps, slats, speed brakes
c) Elevator, rudder, aileron
d) Elevator, rudder, aileron, trim tabs, high-lift wing devices, power controls

173) What is the purpose of the secondary flight controls?

a) To improve the performance characteristics of an aircraft and relieve the pilot of excessive
control forces
b) To constitute a backup system for the primary flight controls
c) To improve the turn characteristics of an aircraft in the low speed regime during approach
and landing
d) To enable the pilot to control the aircraft's movements about its three a

174) What is the purpose of a ground adjustable trim tab?

a) It is set on the ground to correct an out-of-trim condition arising from the mass and balance
situation of an aircraft
b) It is a non-movable metal tab on a flight control which is adjusted on the ground to optimize
the inflight characteristics of an aircraft
c) It is used to optimize the handling characteristics of an aircraft during ground operations
d) It is preset on the ground and further adjusted in flight to reduce the need to constantly re-
trim the aircraft

175) The trim wheel or lever in the cockpit is moved aft by the pilot.
What effect does this action have on the trim tab and on the elevator?
a) The trim tab moves up, the elevator moves up
b) The trim tab moves up, the elevator moves down
c) The trim tab moves down, the elevator moves up
d) The trim tab moves down, the elevator moves down
176) When trimming an aircraft nose up, in which direction does the trim tab move?
a) It moves up
b) Depends on CG position
c) It moves down
d) In direction of rudder deflection

177) How does a balance tab move in relation to the flight control surface that it is
coupled with?
a) At an angle of 90°
b) In the same direction
c) At an angle of 45°
d) In the opposite direction

178) The trim is used to...

a) lock control elements.
b) adapt the control force.
c) move the centre of gravity.
d) increase adverse yaw.

179) Which of the following are an aircraft's secondary flight controls?

a) Elevator, rudder, aileron, trim tabs, high-lift wing devices, power controls
b) Elevator, rudder, aileron
c) All movable parts on the aircraft which aid in controlling the aircraft
d) Wing flaps, leading edge devices, spoilers or speedbrakes, trim systems

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180) What has to be considered during refueling?
a) Check the fuel content of the tank with a torch and remove fire protection
b) Refuel through a soaked rag and keep a fire extinguisher available
c) No open fires, obey smoking ban and apply ground cables
d) Apply ground wires, turn on the main switch and magneto ignition

181) The primer is...

a) an auxiliary pump in the fuel system to facilitate engine starting.
b) a valve in the fuel control system for automatic mixture regulation.
c) a nozzle in the Venturi tube of a carburettor for atomising the fuel.
d) a mechanical switch in the cockpit to engage the turbocharger.

182) What is the purpose of the tank ventilation?

a) To prevent underpressure caused by fuel consumption
b) To prevent water disposal during parking
c) To distribute the fuel from one tank segment to the other during flight
d) To prevent fuel spillage during refueling on the filler plug

183) An aeroplane's current supply is carried out by the:

1. Battery
2. Generator
3. Relay
4. Circuit breaker

a) 3 and 4
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 2
d) 1 and 4

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184) What is the unit for voltage?
a) Volt
b) Watt
c) Ampere
d) Ohm
185) What is the unit for electrical power?
a) Ampere
b) Ohm
c) Watt
d) Volt

186) The voltmeter provides an indication of...

a) the electric potential difference (voltage) in Volt [V].
b) the electric current in a system in Ampére [A].
c) the elctrical power output in Watt [W].
d) the elctrical charge in Coulomb [C].

187) What is the reason for static dischargers on aircraft?

a) To eliminate electrical interferences during intensive radio traffic
b) To improve the quality of radio transmission in high altitudes
c) To ensure grounding during refueling
d) To discharge static charging during flight
188) What must be considered if the alternator fails in a helicopter?
a) Only high power consumers will failing
b) No change as long as the battery provides enough power
c) All instruments and warning systems will fail
d) The engine runs roughly and is prone to knocking

189) When using direct current, electrically driven flight instruments are marked with...
a) "EL".
b) "CO".
c) "AL".
d) "DC".

190) What devices can be affected by a failure of the electrical system in a helicopter?
a) Radio equipment, navigation equipment and gyros
b) Airspeed indicator, altimeter and artificial horizon
c) Radio equipment, navigation equipment and magnetic compass
d) Fuel quantity indication, radio equipment and altimeter

191) Which cylinder arrangement is commonly used on small aircrafts and motor gliders?
a) V-type engine
b) Radial engine
c) In-line engine
d) Horizontally opposed engine
192) Which part of the cycle of a four-stroke Otto engine can be seen in the
attachment?
a) Third stroke - power
b) Second stroke - compression
c) First stroke - induction
d) Fourth stroke - exhaust

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193) Which part of the cycle of a four-stroke Otto engine can be seen in the attachment?
a) Second stroke - compression
b) First stroke - induction
c) Fourth stroke - exhaust
d) Third stroke - power

194) What is likely to be the cause if the engine runs unusually rough while
checking the magnetos?
a) Short circuit on the ground cable
b) Starter is faulty
c) Sparking plug is defective
d) Ignition switch is faulty
195) The highest absorbtion of humidity in fuel can be observed in which situation?
a) Almost empty tanks
b) During parking on wet gras areas
c) During parking on cold aprons
d) Almost full tanks

196) Where does the condensation water converge in the tank?

a) It is mixed with the fuel
b) At the lowest position
c) Near the cap of the tank
d) It floats on the fuel

197) What does the octane rating or fuel grade describe?

a) Ignition timing
b) Flame front speed
c) Combustion temperature
d) Anti-knock rating

198) Which colours do Avgas 100 LL, 100 and 80 have?

a) Yellow, Red, Green
b) Green, Yellow and Blue
c) Red, Green and Blue
d) Blue, Green and Red

199) What is the direct influence by switching on the carburettor heating on fixed propeller
engines during engine run-up?
a) Angle of attack decreases
b) RPM decreases
c) RPM increaes
d) Angle of attack increases

200) What is the major task of a carburettor?

a) To produce an ignitable air/fuel mixture
b) To control the aircraft's speed through the throttle valve
c) To provide additional fuel to cool the engine
d) To pump fuel from the tanks into the cylinder
201) In which phase of flight must the carburettor heating be switched off although carburettor
icing might be expected?
a) During take-off
b) During taxi
c) During climb
d) During cruise
64 EPA MT
202) In which outside air temperature is icing most likely?
a) Between -5° C and +20° C
b) Between -10° C and +10° C
c) Between -20° C and +5° C
d) Between -15° C and 0° C

203) What is the task of cooling fins on air-cooled engine cylinders?

a) Cooling of the cylinder surrounding airflow and forwarding to hotter engine parts
b) Increasing the airflow thus improving cooling of cylinder parts
c) Leading the airflow to parts designated to be cooled
d) Quick heat transfer to the surrounding air flow by expanding the surface
204) Cylinder head temperature indication relates to...
a) all Cylinders.
b) the average of all cylinders.
c) a random cylinder.
d) the critical cylinder.
205) What can we use the CHT for?
a) To ensure that the aeroplane is looking slick
b) To ensure that the aeroplane flies highest
c) To ensure the correct mixture is being used for the appropriate flight stage
d) To ensure that the aeroplane cylinders are clean

206) How should an Otto engine be shut down?

a) By shutting down the generator
b) By completely leaning the mixture
c) By moving the propeller to the feathered position
d) By closing the throttle lever completely

207) Piston engines of helicopters have...

a) two coupled ignition systems.
b) one electrical ignition system.
c) two independent ignition systems.
d) one magneto ignition system.
208) How do you call fuel mixtures with a high amount of fuel?
a) Rich
b) Lean
c) Empty
d) Full

65 EPA MT
209) The angle indicated by arrow number 1 shows the
propeller's...
D- Direction of air flow
C- Chord line
R - Direction of rotation
a) aerodynamic wing twist.
b) angle of incidence.
c) angle of attack.
d) geometric wing twist.

210) How should a power increase be executed on a

constant-speed propeller, provided that no other procedure
is described in the flight manual? At the same time, we are
avoiding power overload.
a) 1) Increase RPM 2) Increase manifold pressure
b) 1) Increase manifold pressure 2) Increase RPM
c) 1) Decrease manifold pressure 2) Increase RPM
d) 1) Decrease RPM 2) Increase manifold pressure

211) How should a power decrease be executed on a constant-speed propeller, provided that
no other procedure is described in the flight manual?

a) 1) Decrease RPM 2) Increase manifold pressure

b) 1) Decrease manifold pressure 2) Decrease RPM
c) 1) Decrease manifold pressure 2) Increase RPM
d) 1) Decrease RPM 2) Decrease manifold pressure
212) With increasing altitude and unchanged mixture setting, the air/fuel mixture...
a) becomes liquid.
b) becomes more lean.
c) stays constant.
d) becomes richer.

213) With increasing altitude, the power of a carburettor engine...

a) decreases.
b) remains constant.
c) first decreases, from 5000 ft on increases.
d) increases.

214) During ignition check the ignition is switched to OFF for a short moment and
subsequently back to BOTH. What happens to the RPM if the ignition system is properly
grounded?
a) The RPM increases once switched to OFF and resumes a value below the previous one
when switched back to BOTH
b) The RPM decreases once switched to OFF and resumes a value below the previous one
when switched back to BOTH
c) The RPM decreases once switched to OFF and resumes the previous value when
switched back to BOTH
d) The RPM increases once switched to OFF and resumes the previous value when
switched back to BOTH
66 EPA MT
215) The fuselage structure may be damaged by...
a) neutralizing stick forces according to actual flight state.
b) exceeding the manoeuvering speed in heavy gusts.
c) stall after exceeding the maximum angle of attack.
d) airspeed decreasing below a certain value.

216) What values are usually marked with a red line on instrument displays?
a) Operational areas
b) Caution areas
c) Operational limits
d) Recommended areas
217) Which gauges involve a measurement of temperature?
a) Engine lubricant, exhaust gas, outside air, cabin air, directional gyro
b) Engine oil, cylinder head, exhaust gas, altimeter, airspeed indicator, vertical speed
indicator
c) Engine lubricant, cylinder head, exhaust gas, suction, outside air, cabin air
d) Engine lubricant, engine cooling fluid, cylinder head, exhaust gas, outside air, cabin air

218) Fuel quantity in small aircraft is most commonly measured through a level sensor. The
European Certification Specifications CS 23 require that...
a) at least one fuel quantity indicator must be available to indicate the total amount of fuel
abord an aircraft. This Indicator must be calibrated adequately to indicate the correct
amount of fuel during all phases of flight.
b) if no fuel quantity indicator is available to the pilot in flight, the pilot must check the fuel
quantity before commencing the flight and recalculate the remaining fuel on board in
regular intervals during the flight.
c) a fuel quantity indicator must be available for each tank and the indicator must be
calibrated to read "zero" during level flight when the quantity of fuel remaining in the tank
is equal to the unusable fuel supply.
d) if the fuel indicator fails, the pilot must land at the next available airport.

219) Which of the mentioned cockpit instruments is connected to the pitot tube?
a) Vertical speed indicator
b) Direct-reading compass
c) Airspeed indicator
d) Altimeter

220) Which cockpit instruments are connected to the static port?

a) Altimeter, vertical speed indicator, airspeed indicator
b) Airspeed indicator, altimeter, direct-reading compass
c) Altimeter, slip indicator, navigational computer
d) Airspeed indicator, direct-reading compass, slip indicator

221) The term "static pressure" is defined as pressure...

a) inside the airplane cabin.
b) of undisturbed airflow.
c) resulting from orderly flow of air particles.
d) sensed by the pitot tube.

222) What does the dynamic pressure depend directly on?

a) Lift- and drag coefficient
b) Air density and airflow speed squared
c) Air pressure and air temperature
d) Air density and lift coefficient
67 EPA MT
68 EPA MT
223) Which of the instruments listed below obtain their readings through pressure
measurement?
a) Oil pressure gauge, fuel pressure gauge, manifold pressure gauge, altimeter, vertical
speed indicator, airspeed indicator, suction gauge
b) Airspeed indicator, vertical speed indicator, altimeter, directional gyro, turn and bank
coordinator, oil pressure gauge, fuel pressure gauge
c) Airspeed indicator, vertical speed indicator, altimeter, magnetic compass, oil pressure
gauge, fuel pressure gauge
d) Oil pressure gauge, fuel pressure gauge, fuel quantity gauge, manifold pressure gauge,
differential pressure gauge, altimeter
224) The Pitot / static system is required to...
a) prevent icing of the Pitot tube.
b) measure total and static air pressure.
c) prevent potential static buildup on the aircraft.
d) correct the reading of the airspeed indicator to zero when the aircraft is static on the
ground.

225) Which pressure is sensed by the Pitot tube?

a) Dynamic air pressure
b) Cabin air pressure
c) Total air pressure
d) Static air pressure

226) QFE is the...

a) altitude above the reference pressure level 1013.25 hPa.
b) magnetic bearing to a station.
c) barometric pressure adjusted to sea level, using the international standard atmosphere
(ISA).
d) barometric pressure at a reference datum, typically the runway threshold of an airfield.

227) QNE is the...

a) altitude above the reference pressure level 1013.25 hPa.
b) barometric pressure adjusted to sea level, using the international standard atmosphere
(ISA).
c) magnetic bearing to a station.
d) barometric pressure at a reference datum, typically the runway threshold of an airfield.

228) Which is the purpose of the altimeter subscale?

a) To adjust the altimeter reading for non-standard temperature
b) To correct the altimeter reading for system errors
c) To reference the altimeter reading to a predetermined level such as mean sea level,
aerodrome level or pressure level 1013.25 hPa
d) To set the reference level for the altitude decoder of the transponder

229) In which way may an altimeter subscale which is set to an incorrect QNH lead to an
incorrect altimeter reading?
a) If the subscale is set to a higher than actual pressure, the indication is too low. This may
lead to much greater heights above the ground than intended
b) If the subscale is set to a lower than actual pressure, the indication is too high. This may
lead to much closer proximity to the ground than intended
c) If the subscale is set to a higher than actual pressure, the indication is too high. This may
lead to much closer proximity to the ground than intended
d) If the subscale is set to a lower than actual pressure, the indication is too low. This may
lead to much closer proximity to the ground than intended

69 EPA MT
230) What difference in altitude is shown by an altimeter, if the reference pressure scale
setting is changed from 1000 hPa to 1010 hPa?
a) Values depending on QNH
b) Zero
c) 80 m less than before
d) 80 m more than before

231) The altimeter's reference scale is set to airfield pressure (QFE). What indication is shown
during the flight?
a) Height above airfield
b) Pressure altitude
c) Altitude above MSL
d) Airfield elevation

232) Lower-than-standard temperature may lead to...

a) a correct altitude indication as long as the altimeter subscale is set to correct for non-
standard temperature.
b) a blockage of the Pitot tube by ice, freezing the altimeter indication to its present value.
c) an altitude indication which is too low.
d) an altitude indication which is too high.

233) A flight level is a...

a) true altitude.
b) pressure altitude.
c) density altitude.
d) altitude above ground.
234) A true altitude is…
a) a pressure altitude corrected for non-standard temperature.
b) a height above ground level corrected for non-standard pressure.
c) a height above ground level corrected for non-standard temperature.
d) an altitude above mean sea level corrected for non-standard temperature.
235) During a flight in colder-than-ISA air the indicated altitude is...
a) lower than the true altitude.
b) eqal to the true altitude.
c) higher than the true altitude.
d) equal to the standard altitude.
236) During a flight in an air mass with a temperature equal to ISA and the QNH set correctly,
the indicated altitude is...
a) equal to the true altitude.
b) higher than the true altitude.
c) lower than the true altitude.
d) equal to the standard atmosphere.

237) Which instrument can be affected by the hysteresis error?

a) Tachometer
b) Altimeter
c) Vertical speed indicator
d) Direct reading compass

238) The measurement of altitude is based on the change of the...

a) differential pressure.
b) total pressure.
c) dynamic pressure.
d) static pressure.
70 EPA MT
239) When is it necessary to adjust the pressure in the reference scale of an alitimeter?
a) After maintance has been finished
b) Before every flight and during cross country flights
c) Once a month before flight operation
d) Every day before the first flight

240) Which of the following options states the working principle of a vertical speed indicator?
a) Measuring the present static air pressure and comparing it to the static air pressure
inside a reservoir
b) Total air pressure is measured and compared to static pressure
c) Static air pressure is measured and compared against a vacuum
d) Measuring the vertical acceleration through the displacement of a gimbal-mounted mass
241) The vertical speed indicator measures the difference of pressure between...
a) the present dynamic pressure and the static pressure of a previous moment.
b) the present static pressure and the static pressure of a previous moment.
c) the present total pressure and the total pressure of a previous moment.
d) the present dynamic pressure and the dynamic pressure of a previous moment.

242) A vertical speed indicator connected to a too big equalizing tank results in...
a) indication too low
b) no indication
c) indication too high
d) mechanical overload

243) A vertical speed indicator measures the difference between...

a) instantaneous static pressure and previous static pressure.
b) total pressure and static pressure.
c) instantaneous total pressure and previous total pressure.
d) dynamic pressure and total pressure.

244) Calibrated airspeed (CAS) equals...

a) true airspeed (TAS) corrected for wind.
b) ground speed (GS) corrected for instrument and position error.
c) indicated airspeed (IAS) corrected for instrument and position error.
d) equivalent airspeed (EAS) corrected for altitude.

245) At higher altitudes, true airspeed (TAS) tends to be higher than calibrated airspeed
(CAS).
A rough estimate of the TAS can be obtained by...

a) subtracting 10 % of the CAS for every 1000 m altitude.

b) subtracting 2 % of the CAS for every 1000 ft altitude.
c) adding 2 % of the CAS for every 1000 ft altitude.
d) adding 10 % of the CAS for every 1000 ft altitude.

246) An aircraft cruises on a heading of 180° with a true airspeed of 100 kt. The wind comes
from 180° with 30 kt. Neglecting instrument and position errors, which will be the approximate
reading of the airspeed indicator?
a) 130 kt
b) 30 kt
c) 70 kt
d) 100 kt

71 EPA MT
247) Which of the following states the working principle of an airspeed indicator?
a) Dynamic air pressure is measured by the Pitot tube and converted into a speed
indication by the airspeed indicator
b) Static air pressure is measured and compared against a vacuum.
c) Total air pressure is measured and compared against static air pressure.
d) Total air pressure is measured by the static ports and converted into a speed indication
by the airspeed indicator

248) What is necessary for the determination of speed (IAS) by the airspeed indicator?
a) The difference between the total pressure and the dynamic pressure
b) The difference betweeen the total pressure and the static presssure
c) The difference between the dynamic pressure and the static pressure
d) The difference between the standard pressure and the total pressure
249) The airspeed indicator is unservicable. The airplane may only be operated...
a) when a GPS with speed indication is used during flight.
b) when the airspeed indicator is fully functional again.
c) if only airfield patterns are flown.
d) if no maintenance organisation is around.

250) What is the meaning of the white arc on the airspeed indicator?
a) Speed range in bumpy air
b) Speed range in smooth air
c) Speed range for extended flaps
d) Speed range not to exceed

251) What is the meaning of the red range on the airspeed indicator?
a) Speed which must not be exceeded regardless of circumstances
b) Speed which must not be exceeded with flaps extended
c) Speed which must not be exceeded in turns with more than 45° bank
d) Speed which must not be exceeded within bumpy air

252) The Caution Area is marked on an airspeed indicator by what color?

a) Green
b) Red
c) White
d) Yellow

253) The term "inclination" is defined as...

a) angle between earth's magnetic field lines and horizontal plane.
b) deviation induced by electrical fields.
c) angle between airplane's longitudinal axis and true north.
d) angle between magnetic and true north.

254) The compass error caused by the aircraft's magnetic field is called...
a) deviation.
b) declination.
c) variation.
d) inclination.

72 EPA MT
255) The indication of a magnetic compass deviates from magnetic north direction due to
what errors?
a) Inclination and declination of the earth's magnetic field
b) Variation, turning and acceleration errors
c) Gravity and magnetism
d) Deviation, turning and acceleration errors

256) An aircraft in the northern hemisphere intends to turn on the shortest way from a
heading of 360° to a heading of 270°. At approximately which indication of the magnetic
compass should the turn be terminated? Hint: Try to remember UNOS, and also try to remember
that in the NH, what lags and what leads. You always want to follow the compass, don’t let the
compass lead or lag, follow suit!
a) 240°
b) 300°
c) 360°
d) 270°
257) An aircraft in the northern hemisphere intends to turn on the shortest way from a
heading of 030° to a heading of 180°. At approximately which indicated magnetic heading
should the turn be terminated? Hint: Try to remember UNOS, and also try to remember that in the
NH, what lags and what leads. You always want to follow the compass, don’t let the compass lead or
lag, follow suit!
a) 180°.
b) 210°.
c) 360°.
d) 150°.

258) What is a cause for the dip error on the direct-reading compass?
a) Deviation in the cockpit
b) Acceleration of the airplane
c) Inclination of earth's magnetic field lines
d) Temperature variations

259) What behaviour is shown by a rotating gyro in space?

a) It swings from east to west like a pendulum
b) It moves in circles with a stadily decreasing radius
c) It tends to maintain its position in space
d) It moves in accordance with the body surrounding it
260) A gyro which is rotating in space responds to forces being applied to it by an evasive
movement...
a) at an angle of 180° to the force being applied.
b) at an angle of 90° to the force being applied.
c) at an angle of 45° to the force being applied.
d) in a northern direction.

261) The bank angle of a 2-minutes circle depends on the...

a) TAS.
b) IAS.
c) Ground speed.
d) CAS.

262) A turn and bank (or turn and slip) coordinator provides information regarding...
a) the rate of turn and bank angle of the aircraft.
b) the pitch and bank angle of the aircraft.
c) the rate of turn and coordination, i.e. slip or skid, of the turn.
d) the coordination of the turn and slip angle.
73 EPA MT
263) What does the slip indicator show?
a) Vertical to horizon
b) Rate of turn
c) Apparent vertical
d) Airplane's bank
264) The slip indicator's ball (apparent vertical) has moved to the right during a right turn. By
what actions may the ball led back to middle position?
a) Reduce bank, increase rate of turn
b) Increase bank, increase rate of turn
c) Reduce speed, increase bank
d) Reduce rate of turn, reduce bank

265) Which light colour advises the pilot to the condition "corrective action may be required
in the future"?
a) Green
b) Amber (orange)
c) Blue
d) Red

266) An attitude director indicator (ADI) combines the information provided by...
a) the attitude indicator and the flight director.
b) the attitude indicator and the radio magnetic indicator.
c) the directional gyro and the rate gyro.
d) the attitude indicator and the relative bearing indicator.

267) What does the abbreviation HSI stand for?

a) Horizontal Situation Indicator
b) Horizontal Slip Indicator
c) Horrifying Steep Inclination
d) Hybernating System Indication

268) A horizontal situation indicator (HSI) combines the information provided by...
a) the attitude indicator and the flight director.
b) the directional gyro and the flight director.
c) the rate gyro and the slip indicator.
d) the directional gyro and the VHF navigation receiver.

74 EPA MT
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130 A B C D 131 A B C D 132 A B C D
133 A B C D 134 A B C D 135 A B C D
136 A B C D 137 A B C D 138 A B C D
139 A B C D 140 A B C D 141 A B C D
142 A B C D 143 A B C D 144 A B C D

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145 A B C D 146 A B C D 147 A B C D
148 A B C D 149 A B C D 150 A B C D
151 A B C D 152 A B C D 153 A B C D
154 A B C D 155 A B C D 156 A B C D
157 A B C D 158 A B C D 159 A B C D
160 A B C D 161 A B C D 162 A B C D
163 A B C D 164 A B C D 165 A B C D
166 A B C D 167 A B C D 168 A B C D
169 A B C D 170 A B C D 171 A B C D
172 A B C D 173 A B C D 174 A B C D
175 A B C D 176 A B C D 177 A B C D
178 A B C D 179 A B C D 180 A B C D
181 A B C D 182 A B C D 183 A B C D
184 A B C D 185 A B C D 186 A B C D
187 A B C D 188 A B C D 189 A B C D
190 A B C D 191 A B C D 192 A B C D
193 A B C D 194 A B C D 195 A B C D
196 A B C D 197 A B C D 198 A B C D
199 A B C D 200 A B C D 201 A B C D
202 A B C D 203 A B C D 204 A B C D
205 A B C D 206 A B C D 207 A B C D
208 A B C D 209 A B C D 210 A B C D
211 A B C D 212 A B C D 213 A B C D
214 A B C D 215 A B C D 216 A B C D
217 A B C D 218 A B C D 219 A B C D
220 A B C D 221 A B C D 222 A B C D
223 A B C D 224 A B C D 225 A B C D
226 A B C D 227 A B C D 228 A B C D
229 A B C D 230 A B C D 231 A B C D
232 A B C D 233 A B C D 234 A B C D
235 A B C D 236 A B C D 237 A B C D
238 A B C D 239 A B C D 240 A B C D
241 A B C D 242 A B C D 243 A B C D
244 A B C D 245 A B C D 246 A B C D
247 A B C D 248 A B C D 249 A B C D
250 A B C D 251 A B C D 252 A B C D
253 A B C D 254 A B C D 255 A B C D
256 A B C D 257 A B C D 258 A B C D
259 A B C D 260 A B C D 261 A B C D
262 A B C D 263 A B C D 264 A B C D
265 A B C D 266 A B C D 267 A B C D
268 A B C D 269 A B C D

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 1 A B C D 2 A B C D 3 A B C D
4 A B C D 5 A B C D 6 A B C D
7 A B C D 8 A B C D 9 A B C D
10 A B C D 11 A B C D 12 A B C D
13 A B C D 14 A B C D 15 A B C D
16 A B C D 17 A B C D 18 A B C D
19 A B C D 20 A B C D 21 A B C D
22 A B C D 23 A B C D 24 A B C D
25 A B C D 26 A B C D 27 A B C D
28 A B C D 29 A B C D 30 A B C D
31 A B C D 32 A B C D 33 A B C D
34 A B C D 35 A B C D 36 A B C D
37 A B C D 38 A B C D 39 A B C D
40 A B C D 41 A B C D 42 A B C D
43 A B C D 44 A B C D 45 A B C D
46 A B C D 47 A B C D 48 A B C D
49 A B C D 50 A B C D 51 A B C D
52 A B C D 53 A B C D 54 A B C D
55 A B C D 56 A B C D 57 A B C D
58 A B C D 59 A B C D 60 A B C D
61 A B C D 62 A B C D 63 A B C D
64 A B C D 65 A B C D 66 A B C D
67 A B C D 68 A B C D 69 A B C D
70 A B C D 71 A B C D 72 A B C D
73 A B C D 74 A B C D 75 A B C D
76 A B C D 77 A B C D 78 A B C D
79 A B C D 80 A B C D 81 A B C D
82 A B C D 83 A B C D 84 A B C D
85 A B C D 86 A B C D 87 A B C D
88 A B C D 89 A B C D 90 A B C D
91 A B C D 92 A B C D 93 A B C D
94 A B C D 95 A B C D 96 A B C D
97 A B C D 98 A B C D 99 A B C D
100 A B C D 101 A B C D 102 A B C D
103 A B C D 104 A B C D 105 A B C D
106 A B C D 107 A B C D 108 A B C D
109 A B C D 110 A B C D 111 A B C D
112 A B C D 113 A B C D 114 A B C D
115 A B C D 116 A B C D 117 A B C D
118 A B C D 119 A B C D 120 A B C D
121 A B C D 122 A B C D 123 A B C D
124 A B C D 125 A B C D 126 A B C D
127 A B C D 128 A B C D 129 A B C D
130 A B C D 131 A B C D 132 A B C D
133 A B C D 134 A B C D 135 A B C D
136 A B C D 137 A B C D 138 A B C D
139 A B C D 140 A B C D 141 A B C D
142 A B C D 143 A B C D 144 A B C D

77 EPA MT
145 A B C D 146 A B C D 147 A B C D
148 A B C D 149 A B C D 150 A B C D
151 A B C D 152 A B C D 153 A B C D
154 A B C D 155 A B C D 156 A B C D
157 A B C D 158 A B C D 159 A B C D
160 A B C D 161 A B C D 162 A B C D
163 A B C D 164 A B C D 165 A B C D
166 A B C D 167 A B C D 168 A B C D
169 A B C D 170 A B C D 171 A B C D
172 A B C D 173 A B C D 174 A B C D
175 A B C D 176 A B C D 177 A B C D
178 A B C D 179 A B C D 180 A B C D
181 A B C D 182 A B C D 183 A B C D
184 A B C D 185 A B C D 186 A B C D
187 A B C D 188 A B C D 189 A B C D
190 A B C D 191 A B C D 192 A B C D
193 A B C D 194 A B C D 195 A B C D
196 A B C D 197 A B C D 198 A B C D
199 A B C D 200 A B C D 201 A B C D
202 A B C D 203 A B C D 204 A B C D
205 A B C D 206 A B C D 207 A B C D
208 A B C D 209 A B C D 210 A B C D
211 A B C D 212 A B C D 213 A B C D
214 A B C D 215 A B C D 216 A B C D
217 A B C D 218 A B C D 219 A B C D
220 A B C D 221 A B C D 222 A B C D
223 A B C D 224 A B C D 225 A B C D
226 A B C D 227 A B C D 228 A B C D
229 A B C D 230 A B C D 231 A B C D
232 A B C D 233 A B C D 234 A B C D
235 A B C D 236 A B C D 237 A B C D
238 A B C D 239 A B C D 240 A B C D
241 A B C D 242 A B C D 243 A B C D
244 A B C D 245 A B C D 246 A B C D
247 A B C D 248 A B C D 249 A B C D
250 A B C D 251 A B C D 252 A B C D
253 A B C D 254 A B C D 255 A B C D
256 A B C D 257 A B C D 258 A B C D
259 A B C D 260 A B C D 261 A B C D
262 A B C D 263 A B C D 264 A B C D
265 A B C D 266 A B C D 267 A B C D
268 A B C D 269 A B C D

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 FLIGHT PERFORMANCE AND PLANNING

The actual examination paper consists of 12 questions, each with a multiple

choice of four answers A, B, C or D. The candidate should indicate the chosen
answer by placing a cross in the appropriate box on the answer paper provided.
Time allowed 30 minutes.
The pass mark is 75%, so the minimum number of questions that must be
answered correctly to obtain a pass is 9. Marks are not deducted for incorrect
answers.

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1) If the thrust available exceeds the thrust required for level flight:
(a) The aeroplane descends if the airspeed is maintained
(b) The aeroplane accelerates if the altitude is maintained
(c) The aeroplane decelerates if it is in the region of reversed command
(d) The aeroplane decelerates if the altitude is maintained

2) The stopway is included in:

(a) The take-off distance required.
(b) the accelerate/stop distance available.
(c) The take-off run required.
(d) The take-off run available.

3) The speed V2 is:

(a) The lowest airspeed required to retract flaps without stall problems
(b) The take-off safety speed
(c) That speed at which the PIC should decide to continue or not the take-off in the case of an engine
failure
(d) The lowest safety airspeed at which the aeroplane is under control with aerodynamic surfaces in the
case of an engine failure

4) If the aerodrome pressure altitude increases it will:

(a) Increase the take-off distance.
(b) Decrease the take-off distance.
(c) Increase the take-off distance available.
(d) Decrease the take-off run.

5) The angle of climb is defined as the ratio of:

(a) The increase of altitude to horizontal air distance expressed as a percentage
(b) The increase of altitude to distance travelled over ground.
(c) True airspeed to rate of climb
(d) Rate of climb to true airspeed

6) On a reciprocating engine aeroplane, to maintain a given angle of attack, configuration and

altitude at higher gross mass:
(a) Requires an increase in power and decrease in the airspeed.
(b) An increase in airspeed is required but power setting does not change.
(c) A higher coefficient of drag is required.
(d) An increase in airspeed and power is required.

7) The following parameters affect the take off ground run:

1. Decreasing take off mass
2. Increasing take off mass
3. Increasing density
4. Decreasing density
5. Increasing flap setting
6. Decreasing flap setting
7. Increasing pressure altitude
8. Decreasing pressure altitude
Which parameters will decrease the take off ground run?
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(a) 1, 3, 5 and 8
(b) 2, 4, 5 and 7
(c) 1, 4, 6 and 8
(d) 2, 3, 6 and 7

8) For a piston engine aeroplane, the speed for maximum range is:
(a) that which gives the minimum value of induced drag.
(b) 1.4 times the stall speed in clean configuration.
(c) that which gives the maximum value of lift
(d) That which gives the maximum lift to drag ratio.

9) The induced drag of an aeroplane:

(a) Is independent of the airspeed.
(b) Decreases with increasing airspeed.
(c) Decreases with increasing gross weight.
(d) Increases with increasing airspeed

10) The tangent from the origin to the power required against true airspeed curve, for a piston
engine aeroplane, determines the speed for:
(a) Maximum range.
(b) Critical angle of attack.
(c) Minimum power.
(d) Maximum endurance.

11) A headwind component increasing with altitude, as compared to zero wind condition,
(assuming IAS is constant):
(a) Decreases angle and rate of climb.
(b) Improves angle and rate of climb.
(c) Has no effect on rate of climb.
(d) Does not have any effect on the angle of flight path during climb.

12) The speed for best rate of climb is called:

(a) V2.
(b) VY.
(c) VX.
(d) VO.

13) In accordance with JAR-25, the reference landing speed (VREF) has the following minimum
margin above the reference stalling speed in the landing configuration (VS0):
(a) 15%
(b) 30%
(c) 20%
(d) 10%

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14) On the Power versus TAS graph for level flight, the point at which a tangent from the origin
touches the power required curve:
(a) Is the point where the Lift to Drag ratio is a maximum.
(b) Is the point where the Lift to Drag ratio is a minimum.
(c) Is the maximum drag speed.
(d) Is the point where Drag coefficient is a minimum.

15) The effect that an increased outside air temperature has on the climb performance of an
aeroplane is that it:
(a) Does not affect the climb performance.
(b) Reduces both the climb gradient and the rate of climb.
(c) Reduces the climb gradient and increases the rate of climb.
(d) Increases the climb gradient and decreases the rate of climb.

16) If the aircraft mass, in a horizontal unaccelerated flight, decreases:

(a) The minimum drag decreases and the IAS for minimum drag increases.
(b) The minimum drag decreases and the IAS for minimum drag decreases.
(c) The minimum drag increases and the IAS for minimum drag decreases.
(d) The minimum drag increases and the IAS for minimum drag increases.

17) Which of the following factors will lead to an increase of ground distance during a glide, while
maintaining the appropriate minimum glide angle speed?
(a) Headwind.
(b) Tailwind.
(c) Decrease of aircraft mass.
(d) Increase of aircraft mass.

18) Which force compensates the weight in unaccelerated straight and level flight?
(a) The thrust
(b) The resultant from lift and drag
(c) The drag
(d) The lift

19) During climb to the cruising level, a headwind component:

(a) Increases the climb time.
(b) Increases the amount of fuel for the climb.
(c) Decreases the ground distance flown during that climb.
(d) Decreases the climb time.

20) The load factor in a turn in level flight with constant TAS depends on:
(a) The radius of the turn and the weight of the aeroplane.
(b) The true airspeed and the bank angle.
(c) The bank angle only.
(d) The radius of the turn and the bank angle.

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21) The speed for maximum endurance:
(a) Is the speed at which the aeroplane achieves 99% of maximum specific range.
(b) Can be either higher or lower than the speed for maximum specific range.
(c) Is always lower than the speed for maximum specific range.
(d) Is always higher than the speed for maximum specific range.

22) Compared to a more forward position, a Centre of Gravity close to, but not beyond, the aft limit:
(a) Increases the stalling speed.
(b) Improves the longitudinal stability.
(c) Improves the maximum range.
(d) Decreases the maximum range.

23) In a steady climb, lift is _______ weight.

(a) Less than
(b) Equal to
(c) More than
(d) Twice

24) Runway 23/05 is 3600 feet long. Threshold 23 is at an elevation of 235 feet and threshold 05 is at
an elevation of 350 feet.
What is the gradient of runway 23?
(a) 5% upslope
(b) 1% down slope
(c) 3% upslope
(d) 3% down slope

25) Maximum excess thrust gives you __________ while maximum excess power gives you
___________.
(a) Best rate of climb Best angle of climb
(b) Minimum Drag Best endurance
(c) Best angle of climb Best rate of climb
(d) Maximum Drag Best range

26) V2 is ____ times the stalling speed.

(a) 1.33
(b) 1.43
(c) 1.3
(d) 1.2

27) An aircraft weighs 2200 lbs fully loaded for take off. With a CofG position 90 inches aft of the
datum. During flight it is going to burn 250lbs of fuel which has an arm of 86 inches aft of the
datum. What is the CofG on landing?
(a) 112.44 inches
(b) 90.65 inches
(c) 85. 56 inches
(d) 65.90 inches

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28) In a glide, a heavier aircraft will have ________ gliding distance than a light aircraft.
(a) A greater
(b) A less
(c) The same
(d) Twice

29) A plane is taking off from an aerodrome at 1500 foot elevation. After take off it climbs at 600
feet/min to FL 75. It has a ground speed of 72 knots, how much distance does it cover from take to
when it reaches FL75?
(a) 20nm
(b) 8nm
(c) 16nm
(d) 12nm

30) OAT - 35 Degrees Celsius

Weight 2300 lbs
Pressure altitude 3500 feet.
27 knots headwind.

Find the take off distance.

(a) 2147 feet
(b) 2998 feet
(c) 1614 feet
(d) 2387 feet

31) What is the range you would get at 5000 feet with 65% power?
(a) 610nm
(b) 680nm
(c) 730nm
(d) 780nm

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32) Maximum ramp mass :
a) Must be equal to maximum take off mass
b) Must be lower than maximum take off mass
c) (c) May be higher that maximum take off mass to allow for fuel burnt in start and taxi.
d) Must be higher than maximum take off mass.

33) Ground effect:

Decreases close to the ground
Increases closer to the ground
(c) Only occurs at high altitude.
(d) Will not occur on a grass runway.

34) When is it necessary to calculate the centre of gravity?

For takeoff and landing.
For takeoff only
(c) For landing only
(d) For start up

35) When would you expect the shortest take off distance?
Tailwind and upslope
Headwind and downslope
(c) Wet grass
(d) Headwind and upslope

36) Given that you have an angle of bank of 15 degrees with flaps fully down. What would the
stalling speed be?
a) 42 KIAS
b) 37 KCAS
(c) 37 KIAS
(d) 44 KIAS

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37) You take off from an airfield at an elevation of 3000 feet amsl.
How much time, fuel and distance would you require to climb to 7500 feet.

(a) 6 Mins, 1.0 Gallons, 7 NM

(b) 9.5 Mins, 2.7 Gallons, 12 NM
(c) 12 Mins, 2.3 Gallons, 10 NM
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(d) 3 Mins, 0.6 Gallons, 4 NM

38) The maximum weight of the aircraft with payload (passengers and cargo) allowable with zero
fuel in the tanks is referred to as the...
(a) Zero Fuel Weight.
(b) Maximum All Up Weight.
(c) Zero Payload Weight.
(d) Maximum Ramp Weight.

39) An aircraft take-off weight = 2300lb

Calculated C of G for departure = 90.75 inches aft of the datum
Planned fuel burn during the flight = 170lb with C of G 87 inches aft of the datum
What is the position of the landing C of G aft of the datum?
(a) 89.75 inches
(b) 91.05 inches
(c) 93 inches
(d) 96.08 inches
40) In conditions of strong tailwinds at a cruising level, the best range speed compared with still air
is ...
(a) higher.
(b) lower.
(c) the same.
(d) just below the minimum drag speed.

41) When gliding with a tailwind, compared to gliding in still air the distance covered over the
ground will be ........ and the rate of descent will be ........
What are the missing words?
(a) increased - increased
(b) reduced - reduced
(c) increased - reduced
(d) increased - unchanged

42) In order to obtain a maximum glide range, a heavy aircraft when compared to a light aircraft of
the same type, glide at...
(a) a lower speed.
(b) a higher speed.
(c) the same speed.
(d) a steeper angle.

43) Which one of the following describes the length of runway available for the ground roll of an
aircraft during take-off?
(a) TODA
(b) TORA
(c) ASDA
(d) EDA

44) An aircraft has a total moment of 122122 lb.inch, and weighs 1590 lb. What is the distance of the
centre of gravity relative to the datum?
(a) 78.60 inches
(b) 76.80 inches
(c) 96.46 inches

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(d) 11.29 inches

45) You are flying along straight and level at 90 kts, with a weight of 1820 lbs. If your weight is
decreased to 1700 lbs, what change in angle of attack would be needed to maintain level flight?
(a) More angle of attack is required
(b) Less angle of attack is required
(c) No change needed in the angle of attack
(d) No change needed in the angle of attack just a decreased cruising speed

46) From the table below, calculate the rate of climb for an aircraft operating at 3000ft OAT 0C.
Conditions-
Flap Up
Landing Gear Retracted
Full Throttle
(a) 590 fpm
(b) 645 fpm
(c) 600 fpm
(d) 620 fpm

47) An aircraft that is excessively heavy (50 lbs over its Maximum Take-Off Weight MTOW) will
require....
(a) a shorter take-off distance
(b) a longer take-off distance
(c) a greater headwind
(d) at least a 2% downhill gradient runway

48) Consider either a take off or landing using a level runway. The same aircraft operating from a
downward sloping runway would require ...... take off distance and ...... landing distance.
Please select the correct combination.
(a) less - a greater
(b) a greater - less
(c) a greater - a greater
(d) less - less

49) In respect of all runway surfaces...

(a) an up-sloping runway will increase the take-off run required but decrease the landing distance required.
(b) an up-sloping runway will decrease the take-off run required and decrease the landing distance
required.

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(c) a down-sloping runway will increase the take-off run required but decrease the landing distance
required.
(d) a down-sloping runway will decrease the take-off run required and decrease the landing distance
required.
50) If your centre of gravity is slightly too far forward, what will be the effect on the aircraft?
(a) The aircraft will be impossible to trim correctly and will fly nose high.
(b) The aircraft will be slow to respond to the rudder control.
(c) The elevator may be ineffective, especially on take-off and landing.
(d) The elevator may be too effective, causing instability in pitch.

51) You plan the following data-

Fuel for start up, taxy, run up and T/O = 2 Imp gals
Planned flight time = 1hr 30 min
Planned diversion time = 20 min
Fuel consumption rate = 10 Imp gals/hr
Reserve required at alternate aerodrome = 7 Imp gals
What is the minimum fuel required before start up?
(a) 28 Imp gals
(b) 30 Imp gals
(c) 25 Imp gals
(d) 20 Imp gals

52) An item has a total moment of 88 kg.m, and a lever arm of 4.3 metres. What is the items weight?
(a) 23.67 kg
(b) 20.46 kg
(c) 378.69 kg
(d) 0.04 kg

53) Compared to a take-off without flap, the use of a flap setting of 10 degrees for a short field take-
off will...
(a) decrease both lift and drag.
(b) increase both lift and drag.
(c) increase lift without any increase in drag.
(d) increase lift, drag will be unaffected.

54) What would the effect be on your aircraft if the centre of gravity is too far aft?
(a) It will be more stable
(b) It will be less stable
(c) It would not make a difference to the stability
(d) It would be more stable and much more fuel efficient

55) If air density is increased above the ISA conditions, the take-off distance required at full throttle
compared with that for standard conditions will be...
(a) the same.
(b) less.
(c) more.
(d) the same but TORR will be increased due to the surface wind backing.

56) An aircraft has a total moment of 135146 lb.inch, and weighs 1798 lb. What is the distance of the
centre of gravity relative to the datum?
(a) 78.60 inches

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(b) 76.80 inches
(c) 75.16 inches
(d) 11.29 inches

57) What is the primary reason for taking off into the wind?
1) Reduce the take-off run available (TORA).
2) Reduce the take-off distance required.
3) Reduce the ground speed at which the aeroplane will take off.
(a) 2 and 3 are correct.
(b) Only 1 is correct.
(c) 1, 2 and 3 are all correct.
(d) Only 2 is correct.

58) The Landing Distance Available includes...

(a) the runway length plus the length of any stopway.
(b) the descent from 50 ft to the far end of the runway.
(c) the descent from 150 ft to the far end of the runway.
(d) the runway length plus the length of any clearway.

59) An aeroplane using a runway sloping downhill will require a longer landing distance and a...
(a) normal take off distance.
(b) longer take off distance.
(c) shorter take off distance.
(d) higher rotation speed.

60) Carburettor icing is most likely to occur...

(a) at higher power settings when the throttle butterfly is partially closed.
(b) at lower power settings when the throttle butterfly is partially closed.
(c) in the winter.
(d) in the summer at night.

61) Exceeding the maximum allowed aircraft mass is...

(a) only relevant if the excess is more than 10 %.
(b) compensated by the pilot's control inputs.
(c) exceptionally permissible to avoid delays.
(d) not permissible and essentially dangerous.

62) The center of gravity has to be located...

(a) behind the rear C.G. limit.
(b) in front of the front C.G. limit.
(c) right of the lateral C. G. limit.
(d) between the front and the rear C.G. limit.

63) The result of a rear C.G. position is...

(a) an increased stall speed.
(b) a decrease of range.
(c) a decrease of stability.
(d) an increased fuel consumption.

64) An aircraft must be loaded and operated in such a way that the center of gravity (CG)
90 EPA MT
 stays within the approved limits during all phases of flight. This is done to ensure...
(a) that the aircraft does not stall.
(b) that the aircraft does not tip over on its tail while it is being loaded.
(c) that the aircraft does not exceed the maximum permissible airspeed during a descent.
(d) both stability and controllability of the aircraft.

91 EPA MT
65) The result of a front C.G. position is:
1. Increase in stability.
2. Increase in fuel consumption.
3. Increase in stall speed.
4. Increase in range.
(a) 2, 3, 4
(b) 2, 4
(c) 1, 2, 3
(d) 1, 2

66) The basic empty mass of an aircraft includes...

(a) the total mass of the aeroplane ready for a specific type of operation excluding unusable fuel and traffic
load. The mass includes items such as crew and crew baggage.
(b) the total mass of an aeroplane ready for a specific type of operation including the required fuel and
crew, but excluding traffic load.
(c) the total mass of the aeroplane ready for a specific type of operation including crew, navigation
instruments and engine cowling.
(d) the mass of the aeroplane plus standard items such as unusable fuel and other unusable liquids,
lubricating oil in engine and auxiliary units, fire extinguishers, pyrotechnics, emergency oxygen equipment,
supplementary electronic equipment.

67) The empty weight and the corresponding center of gravity (CG) of an aircraft are
initially determined...
(a) by calculation.
(b) through data provided by the aircraft manufacturer.
(c) for one aircraft of a type only, since all aircraft of the same type have the same mass and CG position.
(d) by weighing.

68) By research, find out the density of AVGAS 100LL at 15° C.

(a) 0.72 kg/l.
(b) 0.82 kg/l.
(c) 0.68 kg/l.
(d) 1.0 kg/l.

69) The conversion factor from kilogram [kg] into pounds [lb] is...
(a) kg x 2 = lb.
(b) kg x 2.205 = lb.
(c) kg x 0.454 = lb.
(d) kg / 2.205 = lb.

70) Baggage and cargo must be properly stowed and fastened, otherwise a shift of the
cargo may cause...
(a) uncontrollable attitudes, structural damage, risk of injuries.
(b) calculable instability if the C.G. is shifting by less than 10 %.
(c) structural damage, angle of attack stability, velocity stability.
(d) continuous attitudes which can be corrected by the pilot using the flight controls.

71) Loads must be adequately secured in order to...

(a) carry extra fuel.
(b) allow steep turns.
(c) prevent excessive 'g'-loading during the landing flare.
(d) avoid any centre of gravity (C.G.) movements.

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72) The total weight of an aeroplane is acting vertically through the...
(a) stagnation point.
(b) neutral point.
(c) center of pressure.
(d) center of gravity.

73) The term "center of gravity" is defined as...

(a) half the distance between the neutral point and the datum line.
(b) another designation for the neutral point.
(c) the point at which the total mass of the aeroplane is considered to act.
(d) the heaviest point on an aeroplane.

74) The center of gravity (CG) defines...

(a) the point through which the force of gravity is said to act on a mass.
(b) the point on the longitudinal axis or its extension from which the centers of gravity of all masses are
referenced.
(c) the distance from the datum to the position of a mass.
(d) the product of mass and balance arm.

75) During an unaccelerated flight...

(a) thrust equals the sum of drag and gravity.
(b) thrust equals drag and lift equals gravity.
(c) thrust equals lift and drag equals gravity.
(d) drag equals lift and thrust equals gravity.

76) The term "datum" with regard to a mass and balance calculation defines...
(a) the distance from the reference plane to the center of gravity of an aircraft.
(b) the point on the vertical axis of an aeroplane or its extension from which the centers of gravity of all
masses are referenced.
(c) the point on the lateral axis of an aeroplane or its extension from which the centers of gravity of all
masses are referenced.
(d) the point on the longitudinal axis of an aeroplane or its extension from which the centers of gravity of all
masses are referenced.

77) The term "moment" with regard to a mass and balance calculation is referred to as...
(a) difference of a mass and a balance arm.
(b) quotient of a mass and a balance arm.
(c) sum of a mass and a balance arm.
(d) product of a mass and a balance arm.

78) The term "balance arm" in the context of a mass and balance calculation defines the...
(a) point through which the force of gravity is said to act on a mass.
(b) point on the longitudinal axis of an aeroplane or its extension from which the centers of gravity of all
masses are referenced.
(c) distance of a mass from the center of gravity.
(d) distance from the datum to the center of gravity of a mass.

79) The distance between the center of gravity and the datum is called...
(a) torque.
(b) balance arm.
(c) lever.
(d) span width.
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80) The balance arm is the horizontal distance between...
(a) the front C.G. limit and the datum line.
(b) the C.G. of a mass and the rear C.G. limit.
(c) the C.G. of a mass and the datum line.
(d) the front C.G. limit and the rear C.G. limit.

81) The required data for a mass and balance calculation including masses and balance
arms can be found in the...
(a) mass and balance section of the pilot's operating handbook of this particular aircraft.
(b) performance section of the pilot's operating handbook of this particular aircraft.
(c) documentation of the annual inspection.
(d) certificate of airworthiness.

82) When preparing to carry out the weighing procedure on an aircraft, which of the
following is required?
(a) Drain all useable fuel
(b) Remove service equipment
(c) Remove the batteries
(d) Drain all engine tank oil

83) Which section of the flight manual describes the basic empty mass of an aircraft?
(a) Normal procedures
(b) Performance
(c) Limitations
(d) Weight and balance

84) The position of the center of gravity equals...

(a) 145.7 in.
(b) 142 in.
(c) 137.5 in.
(d) 147.5 in.
ITEM MASSS ARM
3156lbs 135.33 inches
Front Seats 320lbs 135.50 inches
Rear Seats 340 lbs 177 inches
Baggage 80lbs 248.23 inches
Fuel 321.5lbs 150.31 inches

85) What mass equals 102 litres of Avgas 100LL, assuming the specific gravity 0.72?
(a) 142 lbs
(b) 142 kg
(c) 74 lbs
(d) 74 kg

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 86) How does rain affect aircraft performance?
(a) Rain does not affect aircraft performance
(b) Water can enter the engine cowl, thus decreasing the engine performance
(c) Water on the wing may disturb the airflow, thus decreasing aircraft performance
(d) Heavy rain can increase the mass of the aircraft, thus decreasing aircraft performance

87) What is the lowest possible VFR flight level if a true course of 181 is selected and a variation of 3E
exists? Hint: Variation East, Magnetic Least, Variation West – Magnetic Best. Hint: The semicircular rule
follows magnetic course.
(a) FL050
(b) FL065
(c) FL060
(d) FL55

88) Calculated take-off mass = 1082 kg, calculated CG = 0.254 m, fuel burn = 55 l on
station 0.40 m.
Where is the CG situated after the landing?
(a) 25.2 cm
(b) 25.4 cm
(c) 24.8 cm
(d) 24.6 cm

89) The position of the center of gravity (including fuel) equals (See below)...
(a) 37.1 cm.
(b) 0.401 m.
(c) 37.3 cm.
(d) 0.403 m

ITEM MASS ARM

Basic Empty Mass 560kg 0.35m
Pilot and Passenger 150kg 0.4m
Baggage 15kg 0.65m
Fuel 60 l 0.72SG 0.45m

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 90) For the purpose of a flight preparation, the pilot calculates a total take-off mass of 750 kg
and a total moment of 625 mmkg. Which cross marks the center of gravity (CG) in the
diagram below?

(a) 4
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 3

91) For the purpose of a flight preparation the pilot calculates a total take-off mass of 725 kg
and a total moment of 650 mmkg. Which cross marks the center of gravity (CG) in the
diagram below?

(a) 4
(b) 2
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(c) 3
(d) 1

92) For the purpose of a flight preparation the pilot calculates a total take-off mass of 775 kg
and a total moment of 700 mmkg.
Which cross marks the center of gravity (CG)?
(a) 4
(b) 1
(c) 3
(d) 2

93) Which is the most recently determined empty mass and the associated center of
gravity (CG) arm from the aircraft documentation in the diagram below?

(a) 5 kg; 1.3 m

(b) 498 kg; 280.59 m
(c) 4 kg; 1.1 m
(d) 512 kg; 285.39 m

94) How does the aircraft configuration influence take-off performance while all other
parameters remaining constant (diagram below)?

(e) Aircraft A has a higher flap setting than aircraft B

(f) Aircraft B has a higher tyre pressure than aircraft A
(g) Aircraft B has a higher flap setting than aircraft A

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(h) Aircraft A has a higher tyre pressure than aircraft B

95) What happens to the true airspeed at a constant indicated airspeed during a climb?
Make use of the following diagram. (NB: This question is not examinable, but is included
to aid your understanding that climbing/descending at one speed (constant) will lead to
differences in others).
(a) It remains constant below 5000 ft
(b) It decreases
(c) It increases
(d) It remains constant above 5000 ft

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 96) How does aircraft flap configuration influence the take-off performance?
(a) A higher flap setting increases ground roll, lift-off speed, and climb performance
(b) A higher flap setting decreases ground roll and lift-off speed and increases climb performance
(c) A higher flap setting decreases ground roll and lift-off speed, but also climb performance
(d) A higher flap setting decreases ground roll and increases lift-off speed and climb performance

97) How does wind affect the take-off performance?

(a) Headwind causes an increased airflow around the wing. The take-off distance will increase
(b) Headwind imposes an increased drag on the aircraft. The take-off distance will increase
(c) Tailwind reduces the relative wind on the airfoil. The take-off distance will increase
(d) Tailwind aids the aircraft in overcoming the initial drag at the commencement of the take-off roll. The
take-off distance will decrease

98) It is possible that the surface wind speed at an airport is reduced due to friction.
When a surface area with a minor tailwind condition is left during the initial climb, the pilot might
expect...
(a) a deacrease in airspeed and climb performance due to decreasing tailwind.
(b) an increase in airspeed and rate of climb due to decreasing tailwind.
(c) a decrease in airspeed and rate of climb due to increasing tailwind.
(d) an increase in airspeed and rate of climb due to increasing tailwind.

99) Which factor shortens landing distance?

(a) High pressure altitude
(b) High density altitude
(c) Heavy rain
(d) Strong head wind

100) Which factor increases landing distance, given all other factors are constant?
(a) Very powerful engines
(b) Large wings
(c) Headwind
(d) Grass airstrip

101) In comparison to the true airspeed in still air conditions, the TAS in a strong tailwind
will be...
(a) slightly lower for maximum range.
(b) slightly higher for maximum endurance.
(c) significantly lower for maximum endurance.
(d) the same for maximum range.

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102) What is the effect of tailwind on the time to climb to a given altitude?
(a) It decreases
(b) It increases
(c) Depends on the helicopter type
(d) No change

103) The speed Vx means...

(a) that a given altitude is reached with minimum fuel consumption.
(b) maximum altitude gain per 10 % power.
(c) that a given altitude is reached within minimum flight time.
(d) that a given altitude is reached within minimum distance.

104) The angle of descent is defined as...

(a) the ratio between the change in height and the horizontal distance travelled within the same time,
expressed in percent [%].
(b) the angle between a horizontal plane and the actual flight path, expressed in degrees [°].
(c) the ratio between the change in height and the horizontal distance distance travelled within the same
time, expressed in degrees [°].
(d) the angle between a horizontal plane and the actual flight path, expressed in percent [%].

105) The term "steady flight" is defined as...

(a) climb or descent with a constant climb or descent rate in calm weather conditions.
(b) flight in smooth air without turbulence and a perfectly trimmed aircraft.
(c) unaccelerated flight. The four forces thrust, drag, lift, and weight are in equilibrium.
(d) flight with a steady power setting without changing course.

106) The speed Vy is defined as...

(a) best rate of climb.
(b) best angle of climb.
(c) best speed of climb.
(d) best distance of climb.

107) The speed VFE is defined as...

(a) maximum flap extended speed.
(b) maximum landing gear extended speed.
(c) stalling or minimum steady flight speed with the flaps retracted.
(d) stalling or minimum steady flight speed with the flaps extended.

108) The speed VS0 is defined as...

(a) stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed in landing configuration.
(b) stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed obtained in a specific configuration.
(c) never-exceed speed.
(d) maximum landing gear extended speed.

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109) The beginning of the white arc (1) indicates which airspeed in the following diagram?
(a) VS1: Stall speed with retracted flaps.
(b) VFE: Maximum flap extended speed.
(c) VS0: Stall speed in landing configuration.
(d) VNO: Maximum speed for normal operations.

110) The beginning of the green arc (2) indicates which airspeed from the above diagram?
(a) VS0: Stall speed in landing configuration
(b) VS1: Stall speed with flaps up
(c) VFE: Maximum flap extended speed
(d) VNO: Maximum speed for normal operations

111) The end of the green arc (4) indicates which airspeed in the above diagram?
(a) VNE: Never-exceed speed
(b) VFE: Maximum flap extended speed
(c) VNO: Maximum speed for normal operations
(d) VS1: Stall speed with flaps up

112) The red marking at the end of the yellow arc (5) indicates which airspeed in the above diagram?
(a) VS1: Stall speed with flaps up
(b) VNO: Maximum speed for normal operations
(c) VNE: Never-exceed speed
(d) VFE: Maximum flap extended speed

113) Which climb speed may be used to optimize the rate of climb (e.g. to reach a desired
altitude within minimum time)?
(a) Vx, the best rate of climb speed
(b) Vy, the best rate of climb speed
(c) Vy, the best angle of climb speed
(d) Vx, the best angle of climb speed

114) For a take-off from runway 22 and a reported wind of 250°/10 kt, the longitudinal wind
component equals...
(a) 5 kt headwind.
(b) 5 kt tailwind.
(c) 9 kt tailwind.
(d) 9 kt headwind.

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115) Given the following conditions, the take-off distance equals...
Outside air temperature: -20° C
Pressure Altitude: 5000 ft Aeroplane
mass: 750 kg Headwind: 10 kt

(a) 310 m.
(b) 410 m.
(c) 450 m.
(d) 380 m.

116) A pilot wants to take off on runway 36, the reported wind is 240 degrees, 12 knots.
What is the value of the wind components acting on the aircraft on take-off and
landing?
(a) Crosswind from the left 6 kt. Tailwind 10.4 kt.
(b) Crosswind from the left 10.4 kt. Tailwind 6 kt.
(c) Crosswind from the right 10.4 kt. Tailwind 6 kt.
(d) Crosswind from the right 6 kt. Headwind 10.4 kt.

117) What is the take-off distance at 750 kg take-off mass, standard (ISA) conditions at an
elevation of 4000 ft with 5 kt tailwind in the above diagram?
(a) 900 m
(b) 630 m
(c) 320 m
(d) 480 m

118) A pilot wants to take off on runway 36, the reported wind is 240 degrees 12 knots.
What are the wind components acting on the aircraft on take-off and landing?
(a) Crosswind from the right 10.4 kt. Tailwind 6 kt.
(b) Crosswind from the left 6 kt. Tailwind 10.4 kt.
(c) Crosswind from the right 6 kt. Headwind 10.4 kt.
(d) Crosswind from the left 10.4 kt. Tailwind 6 kt.

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119) Given the following conditions, the climb speed equals...
Outside air temperature: -20° C
Pressure altitude: 10,000 ft
(a) 450 ft/min.
(b) 200 ft/min.
(c) 390 ft/min.
(d) 350 ft/min.

120) What climb speed can be achieved at the following conditions?

Outside air temperature: 6° C
Pressure Altitude: 6000 ft Power: 65
%

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(a) 240ft/minute
(b) 440ft/minute
(c) 340ft/minute
(d) 600ft/minute

121) Given the following information, what range can be achieved?

Outside air temperature: 22° C
Pressure altitude: 2000 ft Power: 55
%

(a) 780ft/minute
(b) 240ft/minute
(c) 450ft/minute
(d) 550ft/minute
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105 EPA MT
122) At which airspeed do you climb to flight level (FL) 75 after a departure from an airfield which
is located at a pressure altitude of 3000 ft with an initial mass of 3000 lbs?
OAT at airfield: 25° C OAT
in
FL75: 0° C

(a) 120 kt
(b) 100 kt
(c) 110 kt
(d) 90 kt

123) The VFR semicircular rules are based on the...

(a) magnetic course (MC).
(b) magnetic heading (MH).
(c) true course (TC).
(d) true heading (TH).

124) Up to which altitude is an over-flight prohibited according to the NOTAM?

(a) Height 9500ft
(b) Flight Level 95
(c) Altitude 9500m MSL
(d) Altitude 9500ft MSL

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 125) On a VFR-flight, before reaching a compulsatory reporting point,
the received ATIS states 4000m visibility. What is nessessary to enter
the CTR?
(a) A Controlled VFR clearance.
(b) A visual IFR clearance.
(c) A Special VFR clearance.
(d) A Minimum VFR clearance.

126) A flight plan has been filed for a flight departing at an uncontrolled aerodrome.
When has the actual take-off time been transmitted to ATC?
(a) Immediately after take-off.
(b) At deviation from expected off-block time by more than 15 min.
(c) Upon request from ATC.
(d) When landing is assured.

127) During a flight with a flight plan submitted, landing is conducted at an airfield other
than the destination stated in the filed flight plan.
Who has to be contacted by the pilot immediately?
(a) The police department.
(b) The flight manager on duty.
(c) Local office for aereal supervision.
(d) Aeronatical Information Service (AIS).

128) The EOBT (estimated off-block time) is specified in the ATS flight plan as...
(a) Local Mean Time (LMT).
(b) Coordinated Universal Time (UTC).
(c) Standard Time (ST).
(d) Central European Time (CET).

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129) What is the nature of the flight shown in the given ATC flight plan?

(a) Night flight under visual flight rules.

(b) Flight under instrument flight rules.
(c) Traffic pattern under visual flight rules.
(d) Border crossing flight.

130) Referring to the flight plan above, the specified speed in the ATS flight plan equals:
(a) 1000 kt.
(b) 100 m/h.
(c) 100 kt.
(d) 100 km/h.

131) What must be considered for cross-border flights?

(a) Transmission of hazard reports
(b) Requires flight plans
(c) Regular location messages
(d) Approved exceptions

132) During a flight, a flight plan can be filed at the...

(a) next airport operator en-route.
(b) Flight Information Service (FIS).
(c) Search and Rescue Service (SAR).
(d) Aeronautical Information Service (AIS).

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133) According ICAO, what symbol indicates a general spot elevation?

(a) C
(b) A
(c) B
(d) D

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 1 A B C D 2 A B C D 3 A B C D
4 A B C D 5 A B C D 6 A B C D
7 A B C D 8 A B C D 9 A B C D
10 A B C D 11 A B C D 12 A B C D
13 A B C D 14 A B C D 15 A B C D
16 A B C D 17 A B C D 18 A B C D
19 A B C D 20 A B C D 21 A B C D
22 A B C D 23 A B C D 24 A B C D
25 A B C D 26 A B C D 27 A B C D
28 A B C D 29 A B C D 30 A B C D
31 A B C D 32 A B C D 33 A B C D
34 A B C D 35 A B C D 36 A B C D
37 A B C D 38 A B C D 39 A B C D
40 A B C D 41 A B C D 42 A B C D
43 A B C D 44 A B C D 45 A B C D
46 A B C D 47 A B C D 48 A B C D
49 A B C D 50 A B C D 51 A B C D
52 A B C D 53 A B C D 54 A B C D
55 A B C D 56 A B C D 57 A B C D
58 A B C D 59 A B C D 60 A B C D
61 A B C D 62 A B C D 63 A B C D
64 A B C D 65 A B C D 66 A B C D
67 A B C D 68 A B C D 69 A B C D
70 A B C D 71 A B C D 72 A B C D
73 A B C D 74 A B C D 75 A B C D
76 A B C D 77 A B C D 78 A B C D
79 A B C D 80 A B C D 81 A B C D
82 A B C D 83 A B C D 84 A B C D
85 A B C D 86 A B C D 87 A B C D
88 A B C D 89 A B C D 90 A B C D
91 A B C D 92 A B C D 93 A B C D
94 A B C D 95 A B C D 96 A B C D
97 A B C D 98 A B C D 99 A B C D
100 A B C D 101 A B C D 102 A B C D
103 A B C D 104 A B C D 105 A B C D
106 A B C D 107 A B C D 108 A B C D
109 A B C D 110 A B C D 111 A B C D
112 A B C D 113 A B C D 114 A B C D
115 A B C D 116 A B C D 117 A B C D
118 A B C D 119 A B C D 120 A B C D
121 A B C D 122 A B C D 123 A B C D
124 A B C D 125 A B C D 126 A B C D
127 A B C D 128 A B C D 129 A B C D
130 A B C D 131 A B C D 132 A B C D
133 A B C D

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 1 A B C D 2 A B C D 3 A B C D
4 A B C D 5 A B C D 6 A B C D
7 A B C D 8 A B C D 9 A B C D
10 A B C D 11 A B C D 12 A B C D
13 A B C D 14 A B C D 15 A B C D
16 A B C D 17 A B C D 18 A B C D
19 A B C D 20 A B C D 21 A B C D
22 A B C D 23 A B C D 24 A B C D
25 A B C D 26 A B C D 27 A B C D
28 A B C D 29 A B C D 30 A B C D
31 A B C D 32 A B C D 33 A B C D
34 A B C D 35 A B C D 36 A B C D
37 A B C D 38 A B C D 39 A B C D
40 A B C D 41 A B C D 42 A B C D
43 A B C D 44 A B C D 45 A B C D
46 A B C D 47 A B C D 48 A B C D
49 A B C D 50 A B C D 51 A B C D
52 A B C D 53 A B C D 54 A B C D
55 A B C D 56 A B C D 57 A B C D
58 A B C D 59 A B C D 60 A B C D
61 A B C D 62 A B C D 63 A B C D
64 A B C D 65 A B C D 66 A B C D
67 A B C D 68 A B C D 69 A B C D
70 A B C D 71 A B C D 72 A B C D
73 A B C D 74 A B C D 75 A B C D
76 A B C D 77 A B C D 78 A B C D
79 A B C D 80 A B C D 81 A B C D
82 A B C D 83 A B C D 84 A B C D
85 A B C D 86 A B C D 87 A B C D
88 A B C D 89 A B C D 90 A B C D
91 A B C D 92 A B C D 93 A B C D
94 A B C D 95 A B C D 96 A B C D
97 A B C D 98 A B C D 99 A B C D
100 A B C D 101 A B C D 102 A B C D
103 A B C D 104 A B C D 105 A B C D
106 A B C D 107 A B C D 108 A B C D
109 A B C D 110 A B C D 111 A B C D
112 A B C D 113 A B C D 114 A B C D
115 A B C D 116 A B C D 117 A B C D
118 A B C D 119 A B C D 120 A B C D
121 A B C D 122 A B C D 123 A B C D
124 A B C D 125 A B C D 126 A B C D
127 A B C D 128 A B C D 129 A B C D
130 A B C D 131 A B C D 132 A B C D
133 A B C D

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 OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES

The actual examination paper consists of 12 questions, each with a multiple

choice of four answers A, B, C or D. The candidate should indicate the chosen
answer by placing a cross in the appropriate box on the answer paper provided.
Time allowed 30 minutes.
The pass mark is 75%, so the minimum number of questions that must be
answered correctly to obtain a pass is 9. Marks are not deducted for incorrect
answers.

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1) Regarding wake turbulence, what is the ICAO minimum separation time for a LIGHT aircraft
taking off behind a MEDIUM or HEAVY aeroplane from an intermediate part of the same runway?
(a) 5 minutes
(b) 3 minutes
(c) 4 minutes
(d) 2 minutes

2) The regulatory green navigation light is located on the starboard side with a coverage angle
of:
(a) 140°.
(b) 220°.
(c) 70°.
(d) 110°.

3) According to JAR-OPS, an operator shall not operate an aircraft in expected or actual icing
conditions unless:
(a) The aircraft is sprayed with de-icing fluid before flight.
(b) The flight is planned so that a change of cruising level can be initiated rapidly.
(c) The aircraft is sprayed with anti-icing fluid before flight.
(d) The aircraft is certificated and equipped to operate in icing conditions.

4) Assuming 60 passengers on board a land aeroplane. The intended track will overfly water for
a distance of 80 NM from the shore. According to JAR-OPS 1, the minimum number of
passenger life jackets to be on board is:
(a) 60
(b) 66
(c) 0
(d) None if equipped with life rafts

5) In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, an operator shall ensure that a pilot does not operate an
aeroplane as commander unless:
(a) He has carried out at least 3 take-offs and 3 landings as pilot flying in an aeroplane of the same
type/class or in a flight simulator of the aeroplane type to be used, in the preceding 90 days
(b) He has carried out at least 3 flights as commander in an aeroplane or an approved flight simulator
of the type to be used, in the preceding 90 days
(c) He has carried out at least 3 take-offs and 3 landings as pilot flying in any type of aeroplane or an
approved simulator, under the supervision of an examiner, in the preceding 60 days
(d) He has carried out at least 3 take-offs and 3 landings as pilot flying in an aeroplane

6) The ground - air visual signal code for use by survivors on ground in order to indicate
"REQUIRE MEDICAL ASSISTANCE" is:
(a) V
(b) X
(c) N
(d) Y

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7) The ground - air visual signal code for use by survivors on groung to indicate "AFFIRMATIVE"
is:
(a) N
(b) Y
(c) V
(d) X

8) What is the definition of the Pilot in Command?

(a) The pilot designated as being in command and charged with the safe conduct of flight.
(b) The pilot responsible for flying during taxi takeoff and the rest of the flight.
(c) The pilot in charge of the controls
(d) The senior pilot

9) Who would you report to in the case of a severe incident in malta?

(a) ICAO
(b) EASA
(c) The Maltese civil aviation department
(d) The owner

10) Where would noise abatement procedures be listed?

(a) NOTAM
(b) AIP
(c) ANO
(d) DOC4444

11) What is the minimum equipment required on a VFR flight?

(a) Direction indicator, Compass, Timepiece and ASI
(b) ASI, Compass, Timepiece, Altimeter
(c) Compass, Timepiece, Altimeter
(d) Attitude indicator, ASI and clock.

12) During flight you see a steady green light on your left hand side, does it represent a danger
and do you have right of way?
(a) yes but he has right of way
(b) No but he has right of way
(c) No but he does not have right of way
(d) yes and you have right of way

13) A man gets seriously injured because of a flying part from an aircraft, however the flight was
not interrupted, what does this represent?
(a) Illegal Act
(b) Incident
(c) Accident
(d) Nothing important and does not need reporting.

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14) When is it mandatory to keep a life jacket on board, single engine aircraft?
(a) When you are not at gliding distance from shore
(b) When you are more than 50nm from shore
(c) When you are over land
(d) Never
15) When is it mandatory to keep a life jacket on board? ( All Aircraft )
(a) When you are not at gliding distance from shore
(b) When you are more than 50nm from shore
(c) When you are over land
(d) Never

16) When 80nm from shore on a single engine aeroplane what is required on board?
(a) Life jacket
(b) Life raft
(c) Both of the above
(d) Life jack, life raft and flares

17) When 120nm from shore on a single engine aeroplane what is required on board?
(a) Life jacket
(b) Life raft
(c) Both of the above
(d) None

18) Why do you carry out an inspection from a distance?

(a) To check for debris
(b) To check the structure of the aircraft
(c) To check the brakes
(d) To check the fuel

19) Alert phase is defined as follows:

(a) An emergency event in which an aircraft and its occupants are considered to be threatened by a
danger.
(b) A situation related to an aircraft which reports that the fuel on board is exhausted.
(c) A situation where an apprehension exists as to the safety of an aircraft and its occupants.
(d) A situation related to an aircraft and its occupants are considered to be in a state of emergency

20) Distress phase is defined as:

(a) A situation related to an aircraft which reports that the fuel on board is exhausted.
(b) A situation where an apprehension exists as to the safety of an aircraft and its occupants.
(c) A situation wherein there is reasonable certainty that an aircraft and its occupants are threatened by
grave and imminent danger or require immediate assistance
(d) A situation where reports of accident have been received.

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21) When flying you intercept a distress transmission. You:
(a) Ignore it
(b) Relay all the information you can to the ATS unit you are in contact with and proceed to the position
if able.
(c) Tell him to contact 121.5 MHz
(d) Land as soon as possible

22) What is the definition of commercial air transport?

(a) An aircraft operation involving surveying, mail, crop dusting/
(b) An aircraft operation involving the transport of mail, passengers and cargo for remuneration
(c) An aircraft operation where no money is to be made
(d) An aircraft operation involving the transport of passengers, dropping of parachutists and carriage of
cargo.

23) What emergency phase is it when an aircraft is missing or overdue?

(a) Alert
(b) Distress
(c) Uncertainty
(d) Confusion

24) An aircraft recognizes a ground to air signal? It should :

(a) Banking left
(b) Banking right
(c) Rocking the wings
(d) Nose Diving

25) What is the definition of a flight crew member?

(a) An unlicensed person charged with duties essential to the operation of an aircraft.
(b) Any person on the plane who can assist in the case of emergencies
(c) A licensed crew member person charged with duties essential to the operation of an aircraft.
(d) Any person in the cockpit.

26) Flight time is defined as the total time from :

(a) Entering the aircraft till leaving it.
(b) Take off till landing
(c) Engine start till shutdown
(d) First moving under its own power until the brakes are set before shutdown.

27) Where can you find International Recommendations for Operations?

(a) The AIP
(b) ICAO Annex 6 Part 2
(c) ANO
(d) National Regulations

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28) What does RCC stand for?
(a) Roller-compacted concrete
(b) Rescue Coordination Centre
(c) Radio Common Carrier
(d) Regional Co-operation Council

29) During pre-flight preparation, one of the specified duties of the aircraft commander is to:
(a) Sign the Certificate of Maintenance Review
(b) Cross-check the aircraft serial number against the Certificate of Airworthiness
(c) Ensure that the aircraft carries sufficient fuel and oil for the flight
(d) None of the above

30) During a night flight, an observer located in the cockpit, seeing an aircraft coming from front
left on approximate opposite parallel track, will first see the:
(a) Red steady light
(b) Green and white flashing light
(c) White steady light
(d) Green steady light

31) In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, in an aeroplane in which fuses are used, the number of spare
fuses available for use in flight must be at least:
(a) 20% of the number of fuses of each rating or 2 of each rating, whichever is the greater
(b) 10% of the number of fuses of each rating or 3 of each rating, whichever is the greater
(c) 5% of the number fuses of each rating or 1 of each rating, whichever is the greater
(d) 10% of the number of fuses of each rating or 1 of each rating, whichever is the greater

32) According to JAR-OPS, the commander shall not commence take-off:

(a) Unless the external surfaces are free from any ice contamination greater than 5 mm.
(b) Even if the ice contamination does not exceed the mass and balance limits.
(c) Unless the external surfaces are clear of any deposit, except as permitted by Aircraft Flight Manual.
(d) Unless the external surfaces are still covered with anti-icing fluid and the aircraft is not to be
operated in forecasted icing conditions greater than moderate icing.

33) The EU-OPS is based on:

(a) The Federal Aviation Requirements (FAR)
(b) ICAO Appendix 6
(c) A JAA guideline
(d) The air transport rules

34) Due to a risk of tyre explosions when the brakes are very hot, the landing gear should be
approached:
(a) From the outboard side.
(b) Either from the front or the rear.
(c) From the inboard side.
(d) From any direction.

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35) Articles and substances are considered to be dangerous goods if defined as such by:
(a) The ICAO document entitled "Technical Instructions for the safe transport of dangerous goods by
air".
(b) JAA.
(c) The IATA document entitled "Regulations governing the transportation of dangerous goods by air".
(d) The UNO document entitled "Dangerous Goods Regulations".

36) The regulatory green navigation light is located on the starboard side with a coverage angle
of:
(a) 220°.
(b) 140°.
(c) 110°.
(d) 70°.

37) Regarding wake turbulence, what are the ICAO minimum radar separation distance and the
minimum non-radar separation time for a MEDIUM aircraft behind a HEAVY aeroplane on
approach to the same runway?
(a) 11.1 km (6 NM) and 3 minutes
(b) 9.3 km (5 NM) and 2 minutes
(c) 9.3 km (5 NM) and 3 minutes
(d) 7.4 km (4 NM) and 2 minutes

38) The highest risk of bird strikes occurs:

(a) Between 2500 and 3500 ft.
(b) Above 5000 ft.
(c) Under 2500 ft.
(d) Between 3500 and 5000 ft.

39) In case of a hi-jack, the squawk code is:

(a) A 2000
(b) A 7600
(c) A 7700
(d) A 7500

40) An aircraft airworthiness certificate states a maximum of eight occupants (including pilot).
The pilot has a passenger load of six adults and two children (5 and 6 years old). The boarding
of all passengers is:
(a) Authorized, providing both children are sitting on the same seat, using the same seat belt with an
adult sitting on the seat next to them, in order to release their seat belt if necessary.
(b) Forbidden.
(c) Authorized, providing both children are of a similar stature, sitting on the same seat and using the
same seat belt with an adult sitting on the seat next to them in order to release their seat belt
(d) Authorized, providing both children are sitting on the same seat and using the same seat belt. No
other particular precautions are necessary.

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41) The term "flight time" is defined as...
a) the total time from the first aircraft movement until the moment it finally comes to rest at the end of
the flight.
b) the period from the start of the take-off run to the final touchdown when landing.
c) the period from engine start for the purpose of taking off to leaving the aircraft after engine
shutdown.
d) the total time from the first take-off until the last landing in conjunction with one or more
consecutive flights.

42) What should be considered regarding a scheduled flight over water, when land cannot be
reached in case of an emergency landing?
a) Transponder code 7600 has to be set during the whole flight
b) Contact to the nearest ATC shall consist during the whole flight
c) For all passengers there must be life jackets or lifeboats present
d) The flight plan has to contain the exact waypoints

43) Which of the items below may have an influence on the noise perceived by a person on
the ground?

1) Engine power setting

2) Propeller revolutions per minute
3) Position of the landing gear
4) Flap position
5) Flight track
6) Height above ground
7) Flight rules

a) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
b) 1, 5, 6
c) 1, 5, 6, 7
d) 3, 4, 5, 6, 7

44) How can the pilot of an an engine-driven aircraft minimise the noise emission during
descent and approach?
a) High approach with minimum power setting, late descent, late configuration, adherence to
established arrival routes
b) Descent and approach in landing configuration while maintaining a descent angle of 3°, direct
approach whenever possible
c) Low approach with minimum power setting, late configuration and steep approach, adherence
to established arrival routes
d) Normal approach with normal power setting, configuration prior to initiating descent, shortest
possible arrival route

45) When should turns at low altitudes above villages be avoided with regard to noise
abatement procedures?
a) In horizontal flight
b) In climb
c) During the approach
d) In descent

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 46) How should departures near villages be carried out?
a) Slow with a low propeller rotation speed
b) Villages should be circumnavigated and crossed in a sufficient altitude
c) Low and fast between the villages
d) Climb and changes in direction should be done as slow as possible

47) Which kind of engine is susceptible to carburettor fire?

a) Turbine engines
b) Piston engines
c) Electric motors
d) Turboprop engines

48) Why is it dangerous to pump the throttle for engine start in cold weather?
a) The engine might start with not enough power
b) The oil will become diluted
c) Carburettor icing can occur
d) It may cause a carburettor fire

49) Which danger exists during engine start?

a) Smoke emission
b) Carburettor fire
c) Sparking
d) Cable fire

50) May an engine, which previously was on fire, be restarted?

a) Yes, if the aircraft is flying at a safe altitude
b) Yes, but only on the ground for the purpose of taxiing
c) Yes, but only if the cause of the fire was a carburettor fire during engine start
d) No, the risk of a reignition of the fire would be too high

51) Which gas is most dangerous during an engine fire?

a) Oxygen
b) Carbon monoxide
c) Nitrogen
d) Carbon dioxide

52) Smoke enters the cockpit during an engine fire.

Which actions have to be taken immediately?

a) Switching off the heating and the ventilating system

b) Switching off the pitot and front window heating
c) Switching off the avionics and the cabin lighting
d) Switching off the master switch and the ignition

53) What should be the first action in case of a cable fire during a flight? (
a) Open the windows
b) Open cabin ventialtion
c) Close the fuel valve
d) Turn off the master switch

120 EPA MT
54) What extinguishing agent is the least suitable for an aircraft fire?
a) Water
b) Foam
c) Halon
d) Powder

55) In flight, a little smoke emerges from behind the instrument panel. An electrical fire is suspected.
Which action, with respect to the pilot’s operating manual should be taken?
a) Turn off the heat
b) Use the fire extinguisher
c) Shut down the engine
d) Turn off the master switch

56) In flight, a little smoke emerges from behind the instrument panel. An engine fire is suspected.
Which action, with respect to the pilot's operating manual, should be taken?
a) Turn off the heat
b) Shut down the engine
c) Turn off the master switch
d) Use the fire extinguisher

57) A wind shear is...

a) a vertical or horizontal change of wind speed and wind direction.
b) a wind speed change of more than 15 kt.
c) a slow increase of the wind speed in altitudes above 13000 ft.
d) a meteorological downslope wind phenomenon in the alps.

58) During an approach the aeroplane experiences a windshear with a decreasing

headwind. If the pilot does not make any corrections, how do the approach path
and the indicated airspeed (IAS) change?
a) Path is higher, IAS increases
b) Path is higher, IAS decreases
c) Path is lower, IAS decreases
d) Path is lower, IAS increases

59) During an approach the aeroplane experiences a windshear with an increasing

headwind. If the pilot does not make any corrections, how do the approach path
and the indicated airspeed (IAS) change?
a) Path is higher, IAS increases
b) Path is lower, IAS increases
c) Path is higher, IAS decreases
d) Path is lower, IAS decreases

60) During an approach the aeroplane experiences a windshear with a decreasing

tailwind.
If the pilot does not make any corrections, how do the approach path and the indicated
airspeed (IAS) change?

a) Path is higher, IAS decreases

b) Path is higher, IAS increases
c) Path is lower, IAS increases
d) Path is lower, IAS decreases

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61) After take-off an aeroplane gets into a wind shear with decreasing headwind.
As a result...

a) the true airspeed (TAS) will increase.

b) the ground speed (GS) will decrease.
c) the aeroplane flies below the estimated climb path.
d) the aeroplane flies above the estimated climb path.

62) Which phenomenon may be expected at point 2 of the microburst?

a) Decrease of descent rate

b) Increase of airspeed
c) Decrease of climb rate
d) Constant rate of descent

63) Which phenomenon may be expected at point 3 of the microburst?

a) Decrease in airspeed
b) Constant rate of descent
c) Increase in airspeed
d) Decrease in climb rate

64) Which of the following weather phenomena is most hazardous during approach and landing close to
frontal thunderstorms?
a) Precipitation
b) Decrease in temperature
c) Falling pressure
d) Gusts

65) How can a wind shear encounter in flight be avoided?

a) Avoid thermally active areas, particularly during summer, or stay below these areas
b) Avoid areas of precipitation, particularly during winter, and choose low flight altitudes
c) Avoid take-off and landing during the passage of heavy showers or thunderstorms
d) Avoid take-offs and landings in mountainous terrain and stay in flat country whenever possible
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66) What action should be taken when entering a windshear?
1. Reduce speed
2. Retract gear and flaps
3. Maintain current configuration
4. Adjust thrust

a) 3 and 4
b) 1 and 3
c) 1 and 2
d) 2 and 4

67) After lift-off, a much stronger than expected airspeed rise is experienced during the
initial climb phase. What may be expected if the aeroplane entered a microburst?
a) An increased climb rate and airspeed
b) A decreased climb rate and airspeed
c) An increased climb rate and decreased airspeed
d) A decreased climb rate and increased airspeed

68) Immediately after lift-off, a microburst is entered inadvertently. Which action might avoid an
unintentional descent?
a) Set maximum power, retract landing gear and flaps, increase pitch until attaining optimum
climb speed
b) Set maximum power, maintain present aircraft configuration, climb at the best rate of climb
speed
c) Set maximum power, retract landing gear and flaps, pick up speed and perform a left or a right
turn in an attempt to leave the area of the microburst on the shortest way
d) Set maximum power, maintain present aircraft configuration, pick up speed in an attempt to
leave the area of the microburst as fast as possible

69) Wake turbulences develop during take-off just as the aeroplane...

a) lifts off with the front gear.
b) lifts off with the main gear.
c) accelerates.
d) reaches an altitude of 15 ft.

70) Wake turbulence is caused by...

a) pressure compensation at the wingtip of an aerofoil.
b) turbulence at the downwind side of a mountain range.
c) jet blast behind a turbine engine.
d) wind shear at the wingtip of an aerofoil.

71) Wake turbulence is particularly strong...

a) when flying at high speeds.
b) when flying at high altitudes.
c) when flying at low speeds.
d) when flying at low altitudes.

72) Wake turbulence is particularly strong...

a) at a low aeroplane weight.
b) when flying with high thrust.
c) when flying with low thrust.
d) at a high aeroplane weight.
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73) The intensity of wake turbulence depends on...
a) the propeller pitch.
b) the altitude of the aeroplane.
c) the temperature.
d) the weight of the aeroplane.

74) Two aircraft of the same type, same gross weight and same flap configuration fly with
different speeds and altitude. Which aircraft will cause more wake turbulence?
a) The aircraft flying at lower speed.
b) The aircraft flying at a higher altitude
c) The aircraft flying at a lower altitude
d) The aircraft flying at higher speed.

75) A light aircraft intends to land behind a commercial airliner belonging to wake
turbulence category "medium" or "heavy" on a long runway.
How can the wake turbulence of the commercial aircraft be avoided?

a) By making a shallow approach and a very short landing. The light aircraft should be able to
stop before reaching the airliner's touchdown point
b) By making a shallow approach and a long landing, touching down behind the touchdown point
of the airliner's nose gear
c) By making a steep approach and a long landing, touching down behind the touchdown point of
the airliner's nose gear
d) By making a steep approach and a very short landing. The light aircraft should be able to stop
before reaching the airliner's touchdown point

76) What should be observed when taxiing behind a commercial airliner?

a) To avoid the jet blast, a minimum distance of 600 m should be maintained
b) To avoid wake turbulence, a minimum distance of 300 m should be maintained
c) To avoid wake turbulence, a minimum distance of 700 m should be maintained
d) To avoid the jet blast, a minimum distance of 200 m should be maintained

77) Which method is appropriate to approach an unprepared landing field?

a) Flat direct approach to ensure visual ground contact
b) Steep approach to keep the noise level low
c) Terrain investigation to determine approach points and landing
d) Fast approach, performance check, and landing within a quick stop

78) Which area is suitable for an off-field landing?

a) Glade with long dry grass
b) Sports area in a village
c) Plowed field
d) Harvested cornfield

79) An emergency landing is a landing...

a) conducted without power from the engine.
b) conducted in an attempt to keep up safety regarding an aircraft and its occupants.
c) conducted with the flaps retracted.
d) conducted in response to circumstances forcing the aircraft to land.

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 80) A landing conducted in response to circumstances forcing the aircraft to land is a / an...
a) emergency landing.
b) precautionary landing.
c) urgent landing.
d) field or out landing.

81) A precautionary landing is a landing...

a) conducted in response to circumstances forcing the aircraft to land.
b) conducted without power from the engine.
c) conducted with the flaps retracted.
d) conducted in an attempt to sustain flight safety.

82) Which of the following landing areas is most suitable for an off-field landing?
a) A meadow without livestock
b) A field with ripe waving crops
c) A light brown field with short crops
d) A lake with an undisturbed surface

83) After a precautionary landing the brakes and wheels are very hot.
In which way should the pilot approach them?

a) From the front or back side

b) At an angle of 45°
c) From the right or left side
d) From the front, right or left side

84) What needs to be observed in conjunction with overheated brakes?

a) The affected tyres may burst in axial direction
b) The affected brakes need to be cooled down with halon
c) The wheel fairing shall be taken off to increase the cooldown
d) The affected tyres may burst in radial direction or direction of rotation

85) In case of an emergency ditching, the life vests have to be inflated...

a) before disembarking the aircraft.
b) after disembarking the aircraft at a safe distance of about 10 m.
c) after disembarking the aircraft.
d) during disembarking the aircraft.

86) Under which circumstances may a runway be considered to be contaminated?

a) When more than 50 % of the runway surface area within the required length and width being
used is covered by water, slush, snow or ice more than 3 mm deep
b) When 75 % of the required runway length and width are covered by contaminants such as
snow, frost, ice or sand
c) When more than 50 % of the required runway length and width are covered by contaminants
such as snow, frost, ice or sand
d) When more than 25 % of the runway surface area within the required length and width being
used is covered by water, slush, snow or ice more than 3 mm deep

87) What minimum coverage with ice or snow must be given to call a runway
"contaminated"?
a) 10 %
b) 50 %
c) 75 %
d) 25 %
125 EPA MT
88) Wet snow on a runway can lead to...
a) increased rolling resistance during take-off.
b) an increase in lift.
c) a decrease in lift.
d) reduced rolling resistance during take-off.

89) What danger does standing water on the runway pose to aircraft?
a) Decreased rolling resistance during take-off
b) A decrease in lift
c) Increased rolling resistance during take-off
d) An increase in lift

90) Which danger exists after a heavy rain shower for a landing aircraft?
a) Decreased braking distance due to aquaplaning
b) Difficult flare due to glare
c) Longer braking distance due to aquaplaning
d) Displacement of the tire slip marking

91) Which would be the correct reaction when hydroplaning is suspected upon landing?
a) Cross rudder and aileron controls in order to use the aircraft fuselage to brake
aerodynamically
b) Apply maximum braking to reduce aircraft speed to less than hydroplaning speed, then
continue normal ground roll
c) If all wheels are in motion, brake moderately. Maintain directional control by aerodynamic
means
d) Add power and use flaps and spoilers to brake aerodynamically

92) What does the brake coefficient specify?

a) The proportion between brake force applied and landing distance
b) The proportion between friction force and contact pressing force between two objects
c) The proportion between Coriolis force and contact pressing force between two objects
d) The proportion between brake force applied and landing ground roll

93) How should a landing on a contaminated runway be conducted if it proves to be

inevitable?
a) Approach with the minimum crosswind component possible, use minimum flaps, touch down
softly with positive pitch and minimum speed, do not apply brakes
b) Approach with the minimum crosswind component possible, use maximum flaps, touch down
with negative pitch and minimum speed, brake carefully
c) Approach with the minimum crosswind component possible, use maximum flaps, touch down
firmly with minimum speed, brake carefully
d) Approach with the minimum crosswind component possible, use minimum flaps, touch down
softly with minimum speed, do not apply brakes

94) During final approach, the glider pilot realizes a very bumpy surface on a selected off- field
landing site. What technique may be recommended for landing?
a) Approach with increased speed, push elevetor upon first ground contact
b) Touch down with minimum speed, keep elevator pulled until full stop
c) Approach with increased speed, avoid using wheel brakes
d) Touch down with minimum speed, compensate different ground levels with power lever

126 EPA MT
 95) A technical fault requires an emergency off-field landing. Which steps, with respect to the
pilot's operating handbook, are necessary?
a) Inform air traffic control and request technical support, check the pilot's operating handbook for
a reference on the matter and execute an emergency landing.
b) Reduce speed and configure the aircraft for landing in an attempt to gain time, declare an
emergency, complete the applicable emergency procedure and execute an emergency
landing.
c) Locate a suitable landing area, plan the approach, complete the applicable emergency
procedure, declare an emergency, start and concentrate on the approach in due time.
d) Declare an emergency, complete the applicable emergency procedure, cover as much
distance towards the airport as possible to be closer to the rescue forces.

96) Which items should a passenger briefing in case of an imminent emergency landing
include?
a) How to work the aircraft radio, emergency transponder squawk, telephone number of the
competent search and rescue (SAR) center
b) Blood type of the other aircraft occupants, location of the first-aid kit
c) Nature of the emergency, intentions, safety position, evacuation routes, actions after landing
d) How to read an emergency checklist, how to cut the engine, telephone number of the home
airport

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 1 A B C D 2 A B C D 3 A B C D
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7 A B C D 8 A B C D 9 A B C D
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25 A B C D 26 A B C D 27 A B C D
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34 A B C D 35 A B C D 36 A B C D
37 A B C D 38 A B C D 39 A B C D
40 A B C D 41 A B C D 42 A B C D
43 A B C D 44 A B C D 45 A B C D
46 A B C D 47 A B C D 48 A B C D
49 A B C D 50 A B C D 51 A B C D
52 A B C D 53 A B C D 54 A B C D
55 A B C D 56 A B C D 57 A B C D
58 A B C D 59 A B C D 60 A B C D
61 A B C D 62 A B C D 63 A B C D
64 A B C D 65 A B C D 66 A B C D
67 A B C D 68 A B C D 69 A B C D
70 A B C D 71 A B C D 72 A B C D
73 A B C D 74 A B C D 75 A B C D
76 A B C D 77 A B C D 78 A B C D
79 A B C D 80 A B C D 81 A B C D
82 A B C D 83 A B C D 84 A B C D
1 A B C D 2 A B C D 3 A B C D
85 A B C D 86 A B C D 87 A B C D
4 A B C D 5 A B C D 6 A B C D
88 A B C D 89 A B C D 90 A B C D
91 7A BA CB DC D 92 8
A BA CB DC D 93 A9 BA CB DC D
94 10A BA CB DC D 95 11
A BA CB DC D 96 A 12 BA CB DC D
13 A B C D 14 A B C D 15 A B C D
16 A B C D 17 A B C D 18 A B C D
19 A B C D 20 A B C D 21 A B C D
22 A B C D 23 A B C D 24 A B C D
25 A B C D 26 A B C D 27 A B C D
28 A B C D 29 A B C D 30 A B C D
31 A B C D 32 A B C D 33 A B C D
34 A B C D 35 A B C D 36 A B C D
37 A B C D 38 A B C D 39 A B C D
40 A B C D 41 A B C D 42 A B C D
43 A B C D 44 A B C D 45 A B C D
46 A B C D 47 A B C D 48 A B C D
49 A B C D 50 A B C D 51 A B C D
52 A B C D 53 A B C D 54 A B C D
55 A B C D 56 A B C D 57 A B C D
58 A B C D 59 A B C D 60 A B C D
61 A B C D 62 A B C D 63 A B C D
64 A B C D 65 A B C D 66 A B C D
67 A B C D 68 A B C D 69 A B C D
70 A B C D 71 A B C D 72 A B C D
73 A B C D 74 A B C D 75 A B C D
76 A B C D 77 A B C D 78 A B C D
79 A B C D 80 A B C D 81 A B C D
82 A B C D 83 A B C D 84 A B C D
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85 A B C D 86 A B C D 87 A B C D
88 A B C D 89 A B C D 90 A B C D
91 A B C D 92 A B C D 93 A B C D
94 A B C D 95 A B C D 96 A B C D
 VFR COMMUNICATIONS

The actual examination paper consists of 12 questions, each with a multiple

choice of four answers A, B, C or D. The candidate should indicate the chosen
answer by placing a cross in the appropriate box on the answer paper provided.
Time allowed 45 minutes.
The pass mark is 75%, so the minimum number of questions that must be
answered correctly to obtain a pass is 9. Marks are not deducted for incorrect
answers.

129 EPA MT
1) A signal sent by radiotelephony consisting of the spoken words PAN PAN, PAN PAN, PAN
PAN means:
(a) The aircraft is diverting from the route cleared because of a thunderstorm and asks for immediate
reclearance
(b) Imminent danger threatens the aircraft and immediate assistance is required
(c) An aircraft on final approach is starting the missed approach procedure
(d) The aircraft has a very urgent message to transmit concerning the safety of a ship, aircraft or other
vehicle, but immediate assistance is not required

2) Which of the following messages sent by ATC to an aircraft in flight must be read back?
1. "Descend to (altitude) 3.000 feet"
2. "Wind 240°, 15 knots, gusts 30 knots"
3. "Turn right heading 210"
4. "Reduce speed to 160 knots"
5. "Squawk 1723
(a) All
(b) 1, 2, 3, 5
(c) 1, 3, 4, 5, 6
(d) 1, 3, 4, 5

3) What does the abbreviation "SAR" mean?

(a) Search And Rescue.
(b) Standard Arrival Route.
(c) Surveillance Airport Radar.
(d) Secondary Altimeter Responder.

4) What phrase shall be used when asking for the readability of a transmission?
(a) Read you loud and clear.
(b) Report readability.
(c) Read back.
(d) How do you read?

5) Which elements of instructions or information shall always be read back?

(a) ATC clearance, speed instructions, runway state information
(b) QNH, weather information, runway-in-use
(c) QNH, SSR code, approach aid serviceability
(d) SSR code, QNH, take-off clearance, speed instructions

6) What is meant by the phrase "readability 2"?

(a) Unreadable.
(b) Readable now and then.
(c) Readable but with difficulty.
(d) Readable.

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7) The time is now 1123. Radar Control requests your estimate for next reporting point, which is
AAL VOR/DME. You look at your operational flight plan and estimate 12 minutes (36 NM) to go to
the reporting point. Your transmission is:
(a) Estimate AAL at Eleven-Thirty-Five.
(b) Estimate AAL VOR/DME in one-two minutes.
(c) Have one-two minutes to go to AAL.
(d) Estimate AAL at Three-Five.

8) What is the correct way of transmitting the number 118.1 to indicate a frequency?
(a) One One Eight Decimal One
(b) One One Eight Point One
(c) One One Eight One
(d) One Eighteen One

9) An "Automatic Terminal Information Service" provides:

(a) Weather reports relating a specific number of aerodromes located within a flight information region
(FIR).
(b) Information concerning en-route weather phenomena which may effect the safety of aircraft
operation.
(c) Current meteorological and operational information essential for the safety of the air navigation
within a FIR.
(d) Routine information to arriving and departing aircraft by means of continuous and repetitive
broadcast.

10) What does the word "acknowledge" mean?

(a) Repeat all of this message back to me exactly as received.
(b) Let me know that you have received and understood this message.
(c) Repeat all of your last transmission.
(d) Pass me the following information.

11) Fastair 345 has been instructed to contact Stephenville ARRIVAL on frequency 118.0. What
is the correct way to indicate it will follow this instruction:
(a) Stephenville ARRIVAL Fastair 345
(b) Changing to ARRIVAL Fastair 345
(c) 118.0 Fastair 345
(d) Changing over Fastair 345

12) The distress signal and the distress message to be sent by an aircraft in distress should be
on:
(a) The FIS frequency designated for the airspace concerned
(b) The air-ground frequency in use at the time
(c) The regional guard frequency
(d) The emergency frequency in any case

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13) A signal sent by radiotelephony consisting of the spoken word MAYDAY MAYDAY MAYDAY
means:
(a) The aircraft has a message to transmit concerning adverse weather conditions along its route of
flight
(b) Imminent danger threatens the aircraft and immediate assistance is required
(c) The aircraft is forced to perform a fuel dumping procedure
(d) The aircraft has a very urgent message to transmit concerning the safety of a ship, aircraft or vehicle

14) What is the correct way of transmitting the number 13,500 to indicate an altitude or cloud
height?
(a) One Three Thousand Five Hundred
(b) One Three Five Zero Zero
(c) Thirteen Thousand Five Hundred
(d) One Three Five Hundred

15) The aircraft has started a descent. Select the correct radiotelephony transmission.
(a) LEAVING LEVEL 200 FOR LEVEL 120.
(b) LEAVING FL 200, DESCENDING TO FL 120.
(c) STARTING DESCENT.
(d) LEAVING FL 200.

16) What shall the pilot's read back be for "Climb to FL 280":
(a) Climbing to Two Eight
(b) Climbing to Flight Level Two Eight Zero
(c) Climbing Two Eight Zero
(d) Climbing to Flight Level Two Eighty

17) What does the abbreviation "ATIS" mean?

(a) Air traffic information service.
(b) Airport terminal information service.
(c) Automatic terminal information system.
(d) Automatic terminal information service.

18) What is meant by the phrase readability 4"?

(a) Readable but with difficulty.
(b) Readable.
(c) Perfectly readable.
(d) Readable now and then.

19) QNH is the Q-code to indicate:

(a) The atmospheric pressure measured at the aerodrome reference point (ARP).
(b) The atmospheric pressure referred to the highest obstacle located on the surface of an aerodrome.
(c) The atmospheric pressure at aerodrome elevation (or at runway threshold).
(d) The altimeter sub-scale setting to obtain elevation when on the ground.

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20) An aircraft in state of emergency shall squawk:
(a) 7700
(b) 7500
(c) 6700
(d) 7600

21) Under which of the following circumstances shall an aircraft station squawk 7600?
(a) When flying over desert areas
(b) When approaching a prohibited area
(c) In case of radio communication failure
(d) When entering bad weather areas

22) Under which of the following circumstances may you expect a solid reception of the TOWER
frequency 118.2 MHz?
(a) Aircraft at low level but far away from the ground station
(b) Aircraft at low level, far away from the ground station, in the radio shadow zone of a hill
(c) Aircraft at high level in the vicinity of the ground station
(d) Aircraft at low level, in the vicinity of the ground station, in the radio shadow zone of a hill

23) What are the propagation characteristics of VHF?

(a) The waves travel along the surface of the earth and penetrate into valleys in a way that
topographical obstacles have no influence
(b) Practically straight-line similar to light waves
(c) Similar to short waves with practically no atmospheric disturbance
(d) The waves are reflected at the ionosphere at the height of about 100 km and reach the earth surface
in the form of sky-waves

24) When is an aircraft station allowed to use its abbreviated call sign?
(a) In dense traffic
(b) Only after satisfactory communication has been established
(c) After it has been addressed in this manner by the aeronautical ground station
(d) Provided no confusion is likely to result

25) Aircraft-BC has been instructed to listen on ATIS frequency 123.25, on which information are
being broadcast. What is the correct response to indicate that it will follow this instruction?
(a) Will contact 123.25-BC
(b) Monitoring 123.25-BC
(c) Checking 123.25-BC
(d) Changing to 123.25-BC

26) On the readability scale what does "Readability 5" mean:

(a) Perfectly readable
(b) Unreadable
(c) Problem to understand
(d) Readable but with difficulty

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27) What does the phrase "Squawk 1234" mean:
(a) Select code 1234 on the SSR transponder
(b) Make a test transmission on 123.4 mhz
(c) Standby on frequency 123.4 mhz
(d) Give a short count for DF (direction finder)

28) Which of the messages listed below shall not be handled by the aeronautical mobile service?
(a) Meteorological messages.
(b) Flight safety messages.
(c) Urgency messages.
(d) Radio teletype messages.

29) What is the correct way of spelling out HB-JYC in a radio message?
(a) Hotel Bravo India Yankee Charlie
(b) Hotel Bravo India Victor Charlie
(c) Hotel Bravo Juliett India Kilo
(d) Hotel Bravo Juliett Yankee Charlie

30) The order of priority of the following messages in the aeronautical mobile service is:
(a) Flight safety message, direction finding message, urgency message.
(b) Flight regularity message, distress message, meteorological message.
(c) Meteorological message, direction finding message, flight safety message.
(d) Flight safety message, meteorological message, flight regularity message.

31) What does the instruction "Orbit right" mean?

(a) Right-hand circuits are in use
(b) Leave the runway to the right
(c) Make 360° turns to the right
(d) Turn right to avoid other traffic

32) Which abbreviation is used for "Co-ordinated universal time"?

(a) COUT
(b) GMT
(c) CUT
(d) UTC

33) What does the term "blind transmission" mean?

(a) A transmission where no reply is required from the receiving station.
(b) A transmission from one station to another station in circumstances where two-way communication
cannot be established but it is believed that the called station is able to receive the transmission.
(c) A transmission of information relating to air navigation that is not addressed to a specific station or
stations.
(d) A transmission of messages relating to en-route weather information which may affect the safety of
aircraft operations that is not addressed to a specific station or stations.

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34) Which is the frequency separation between consecutive frequencies in the VHF band?
(a) 75 KHz
(b) 25 KHz
(c) 250 KHz
(d) 50 KHz

35) Which phrase shall be used if you want to say: "Yes":

(a) Yes
(b) Roger
(c) Affirmative
(d) Affirm

36) To which frequency bands do the frequencies 118.000 - 136.975 MHz of the Aeronautical
Mobile Service belong?
(a) Very high frequency
(b) Medium frequency
(c) Low frequency
(d) Very low frequency

37) What is the correct way to transmit and read back frequency 120.375 MHz (VHF channel
separated by 25KHz):
(a) One two zero three seven
(b) One two zero decimal three seven five
(c) One twenty decimal three seven
(d) One two zero decimal three seven

38) RADAR instructs aircraft-BC: "X-BC squawk ident". What does this mean:
(a) X-BC shall operate the IDENT button
(b) X-BC shall reselect his assigned mode and code
(c) Radar identification has been achieved by correlating an observed radar blip with aircraft XY-ABC
(d) X-BC should perform an identification turn of at least 020 degrees

39) How should a pilot terminate the read-back of an ATC clearance?

(a) With the ATC ground station call sign
(b) With the word "wilco"
(c) With his own aircraft call sign
(d) With the word "roger"

40) What is the correct way of transmitting 1001 as a QNH ?

(a) QNH one thousand and one
(a) QNH one zero zero one
(c) QNH one double zero one
(d) QNH one double "O" one

41) What does the instruction "Go around" mean?

(a) Proceed with your message
(b) Carry out a missed approach
(c) Make a 360° turn
(d) Overtake the aircraft ahead
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42) What is the Q-code for "Magnetic Heading to the station (no wind)?
(a) QDR
(b) QTE
(c) QNE
(d) QDM

43) What does QTE mean?

(a) Magnetic bearing from the station
(b) True bearing from the station.
(c) Magnetic Heading to the station.
(d) True heading to the station (no wind).

44) Which phenomena will normally influence the reception of VHF transmission?
(a) Level of aircraft and terrain elevations
(b) Day- and night effect
(c) The ionosphere
(d) Electrical discharges as they happen frequently in thunderstorms

45) The distress message shall contain as many as possible of the following elements/details:
(a) Aircraft call sign, present position, assistance required
(b) Aircraft call sign, aerodrome of departure, position and level
(c) Aircraft call sign, route of flight, destination airport
(d) Aircraft call sign, nature of distress, pilot's intention, present position, level and heading

46) When the aircraft registration marking is used as a call-sign, your first contact with a station
shall be in the following form:
(a) All characters of the aircraft registration marking.
(b) The first letter and the last two characters of the aircraft registration marking.
(c) The last three characters of the aircraft registration marking.
(d) The first three characters of the aircraft registration marking.

47) RADAR instructs aircraft-BC:

"X-BC squawk standby ". What does this mean?
(a) X-BC is requested to standby for radar vectors
(b) X-BC is requested to standby as the radar controller is busy
(c) X-BC is requested to standby on the frequency
(d) X-BC is requested to switch to standby position

48) When transmitting time, which time system shall be used?

(a) Local time (LT), 24-hour clock
(b) No specific system, as only the minutes are normally required
(c) Co-ordinated universal time (UTC)
(d) Local time (LT) A.M. and P.M.

49) Regardless of your position, time figures are transmitted with reference to:
(a) Local time
(b) UTC
(c) Greenwich time
(d) Winter time
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50) How is QFE defined?
(a) Atmospheric pressure at field elevation
(b) Atmospheric pressure at the highest obstacle on the field
(c) Subscale setting at which altimeter would read zero at the highest point on the aerodrome.
(d) Subscale setting which would read elevation on the altimeter.

51) When ATC requests flight conditions, what is it expecting?

(a) IFR or VFR
(b) IMC or VMC
(c) Visibility
(d) Weather conditions

52) How will ATC report RVR?

(a) At the threshold and runway end only.
(b) At threshold, mid-point and end.
(c) From threshold.
(d) In flight visibility

53) You are on the holding point before the runway and ATC asks you to get into position for
take-off. How ill ATC request this.
(a) Position and hold
(b) Position for departure
(c) Line-up
(d) Take-off

54) What variation in TAS should be reported to ATC?

(a) 5%
(b) 10%
(c) 15%
(d) 20%
55) In a compulsory reporting point, in which conditions is it required to give a position report?
(a) When requested
(b) IFR
(c) VFR
(d) In any case

56) What does QDR mean?

(a) Magnetic bearing from the station
(b) True bearing from the station.
(c) Magnetic heading to the station.
(d) True heading to the station (no wind).

57) How should 5000feet be transmitted?

(a) Five thousand feet
(b) Fife tousand feet
(c) Fife zero zero zero feet
(d) Fifty hundred feet

137 EPA MT
58) What is the correct way of transmitting 118.015, 8.33kHz Seperation?
(a) One one eight decimal zero one
(b) One one eight decimal zero one five
(c) One one eight point zero one five
(d) one eighteen decimal zero one five

59) What is the correct way of transmitting 118.015, 25kHz Seperation?

(a) One one eight decimal zero one
(b) One one eight decimal zero one five
(c) One one eight point zero one five
(d) one eighteen decimal zero one five

60) A departure clearance would be :

(a) A route clearance
(b) A clearance to holding point
(c) A take off clearance
(d) A landing clearance

61) What will be the effect of radio transmission as the aircraft climbs?
(a) Improves
(b) Gets worse
(c) Remains the same
(d) Halves

62) How would the time 4.15PM be transmitted?

(a) four fifteen PM
(b) sixteen fifteen
(c) one six one five
(d) sixteen fifteen PM

63) When the PTT button is pressed who will hear your transmission?
(a) Just the ATSU
(b) Just the person you are addressing
(c) All stations on the frequency
(d) Nobody

64) How many times do you repeat a blind transmission?

(a) Once
(b) Twice
(c) Three times
(d) Four Times

65) Where can you find an ATIS?

(a) On a dedicated frequency
(b) On the audio channel of a VOR
(c) Both
(d) Neither

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66) Immediately following a MAYDAY call, an aircraft in distress should, when circumstances
permit, transmit...
(a) the call sign of the station addressed if known.
(b) the nature of the emergency.
(c) the aircraft call sign.
(d) the aircraft type.

67) All messages relating to an aircraft's climb or descent to a height or altitude should...
(a) employ the word “to” followed immediately by the word “height” or “altitude”.
(b) avoid using the word “to” altogether.
(c) employ the word “to” followed immediately by the QFE or QNH.
(d) employ the word “level” and avoiding the word “to”.

68) How should you read back the Chatham Regional Pressure Setting of 1015 mbs?
(a) 'Chatham wun tousand wun fife millibars'
(b) 'Chatham wun zero wun fife'
(c) 'Regional Pressure wun zero wun fife'
(d) 'Regional Pressure Setting wun zero wun fife'

69) How would you read back an altimeter setting of 996 mbs QFE?
(a) 'niner niner six millibars'
(b) 'nine nine six millibars'
(c) 'niner niner fife millibars QFE'
(d) 'QFE niner niner six millibars'

70) When may a pilot abbreviate his or her aircraft call sign?
(a) Only after it is abbreviated by the ATSU (Air Traffic Service Unit).
(b) When establishing communications with an onward station that has the aircraft details.
(c) At any time, providing that it is not confusing to do so.
(d) After completing their full call sign at least once.

71) A pilot transmits his ETA as 'zero seven'. At what time is he estimating his arrival?
(a) At seven o'clock am.
(b) At seven minutes past the hour.
(c) In seven minutes.
(d) In seventy minutes.

72) What is a 'blind transmission'?

(a) The mic on your headset fails
(b) When air traffic is not able to receive the transmissions of the station called
(c) When the pilot is not able to receive the transmissions of the station called
(d) You need to transmit because you have lost visual reference with the ground

73) At what range would you make the call "G-BOHT Long Final"?
(a) 2 NM.
(b) Between 15 and 8 NM.
(c) Between 8 and 4 NM.
(d) 1 NM.

139 EPA MT
74) Which of the following items is required to be read back:
(a) An instruction to maintain altitude
(b) An instruction to back-track a none active runway
(c) Surface wind prior to take off
(d) The current cloud base

75) What state of emergency is characterised by a condition concerning the safety of an aircraft
or other vehicle, or of some person on board or within sight, not requiring immediate
assistance?
(a) Urgency
(b) Distress
(c) Flight Safety
(d) Safety

76) The correct pronunciation for 2500 when used to pass altitude, height, cloud height or
visibility by RT is...
(a) TOO TOUSAND FIFE HUNDRED
(b) TWO FIFE ZERO ZERO
(c) TWO FIFE ZERO
(d) TOO FIFE ZERO ZERO

77) What is an ATIS?

(a) An automatic terminal information service.
(b) An aeronautical terminal information service.
(c) An aeronautical terminal information system.
(d) An automatic terminal information system.

78) In a radio message, how would FL110 be reported?

(a) 'Flight level wun wun zero'
(b) 'Wun wun zero'
(c) 'Wun wun zero flight level '
(d) 'Flight level wun zero'

79) The following message is a...

"G-BCTF after departure you are cleared to the zone boundary via route Alpha. Climb to altitude
2200ft, QNH1011, squawk 7031"
(a) route clearance.
(b) take-off and route clearance.
(c) clearance for take-off.
(d) conditional clearance.

80) What is an 'Aeronautical Mobile Service'?

(a) A service between ground stations and aeronautical stations, or between aircraft stations
(b) A service between aircraft stations and aeronautical stations, or between aircraft stations
(c) An aerodrome mobile service, solely for that aerodrome
(d) A service designed for aircraft to aircraft

81) When is the word "Take-Off" used by the pilot?

(a) Once lined up on the runway.
(b) Only when requesting permission to take-off.
(c) Only when acknowledging the clearance to take-off.
(d) Never, it should only be used by ATC.
140 EPA MT
82) The pilot of an aeroplane may abbreviate the call sign...
(a) when there is no likelihood of any confusion with other aircraft.
(b) only after it has first been abbreviated by the aeronautical station and it is safe to do so.
(c) only once two way communications have been established with ATC.
(d) if nobody else is flying.

83) You are passed the aerodrome information. Which of the following parts of this message
must be read back?
(a) Temperature and dew point
(b) Altimeter settings and surface winds
(c) Surface winds and cloud base
(d) Runway(s) in use

84) The phrase that means "confirm that you have received and understood this message" is:
(a) Acknowledge
(b) Affirm
(c) Confirm
(d) WILCO

85) An altimeter setting of 1030 mb/hpa would normally be transmitted as:

(a) One Zero Three Zero Millibars
(b) Wun Zero Tree Zero
(c) Zero Tree Zero Hectopascals
(d) Wun Zero Tree Zero Millibars

86) An emergency call is preceded by the pre-fix MAYDAY, which is transmitted...

(a) once.
(b) twice.
(c) three times.
(d) four times.

87) Aeronautical messages are given in order of priority. Which of the following statements
reflects the correct order of priority?
(a) flight safety messages will be handled before urgency messages.
(b) messages relating to direction finding take precedence over meteorological messages.
(c) flight regularity messages take precedence over direction finding.
(d) flight regularity messages take precedence over urgency messages.

88) Which of the following types of radio transmission are correctly placed in order of
descending priority?
(a) Distress, Flight Safety, Meteorological, Urgency
(b) Distress, Urgency, Flight Safety, Meteorological
(c) Distress, Flight Safety, Urgency, Meteorological
(d) Distress, Urgency, Meteorological, Flight Safety

89) ATC messages that must be read back in full are...

(a) clearance to enter, land on, take off, backtrack, cross or hold short of an active runway, frequency
changes and current wind.
(b) clearance to enter, land on, take off, backtrack, cross or hold short of an active runway, frequency
changes and SSR instructions.
(c) all messages MUST be read back.
(d) level instructions, altimeter settings, surface wind and runway information.
141 EPA MT
90) What are the two classified states of emergency message?
(a) Mayday and Pan Pan.
(b) Danger and Urgent.
(c) Distress and Urgency.
(d) Critical and Severe.

91) A position report shall contain the following information-

(a) Aircraft Identification, position, level, time, next position and ETA, POB.
(b) Position, level, time, next position and ETA.
(c) Aircraft Identification, position, level, time, next position and ETA.
(d) Aircraft Identification, position, level, time, next position and ETA, IFR or VFR.

92) The word 'climb' means:

(a) Begin a climb and await further instructions
(b) Climb, and level-out at any level below that specified
(c) Climb to and maintain the specified level
(d) When you like, enter a climb to that specified level

93) When asked by ATC "are you able to maintain FL65" the correct reply would include the
phrase...
(a) Wilco
(b) Affirm or Negative
(c) Yes or No
(d) Roger

94) You are at flight level 80, and receive a request to report your level to ATC. In what format
would you pass this information?
(a) 'eight zero'
(b) 'flight level eight zero'
(c) 'flight level ait zero'
(d) 'ait zero'
95) You receive clearance to climb to HEIGHT 2000ft, in the UK the clearance should also include
the following pressure setting...
(a) QFE
(b) QNH
(c) 1013.5
(d) QDM

96) After an RT call has been made to air traffic, a period of at least............. should elapse before
making a repeat call. What are the missing words?
(a) ten seconds
(b) five seconds
(c) one minute
(d) thirty seconds

97) Using VHF RT, how would you transmit your heading of due north?
(a) 'Heading Tree Six Degrees'
(b) 'Heading Tree Six Zero Degrees'
(c) 'Heading North'
(d) 'Heading Due North'

142 EPA MT
98) To indicate the meaning 'yes' which standard term should be used?
(a) 'Affirm'
(b) 'Acknowledged'
(c) 'Affirmative'
(d) 'Roger'

99) You receive the clearance 'Golf Hotel Tango, after departure cleared to FL50, squawk 7132'.
Which of the following is true?
(a) You have received your departure clearance and are cleared to line up
(b) You have been cleared for takeoff and departure to climb to FL50
(c) You have received your departure clearance - this is not a take-off clearance
(d) You have received your departure clearance - this is a take-off clearance

100) The phrase "squawk charlie" means...

(a) confirm transponder is on.
(b) select the ALT button on the transponder.
(c) select the ident button on the transponder.
(d) select the stand-by button on the transponder.

101) When the SSR is selected ON, and ALT (Mode C) selected, and ATSU requests "G-BOHT
confirm your level," this is to...
(a) Check you have set the correct pressure in the altimeter sub-scale.
(b) Check the accuracy of the SSR Mode C, derived information displayed to the controller.
(c) Check that Mode C is selected.
(d) Identify the aircraft position.

102) In a reply to a message from Air Traffic Control, what does the standard word 'Roger'
mean?
(a) I have received all your last transmission.
(b) I have understood your last transmission.
(c) I understand the message and will comply with it.
(d) Affirmative.

103) In order to indicate that you have received an ATC message and will comply with it, you
should use the phrase...
(a) ROGER
(b) AFIRM
(c) COPIED
(d) WILCO

104) In which situations should a pilot use blind transmissions?

(a) When no radio communication can be established with the appropriate aeronautical station, but
when evidence exists that transmissions are received at that ground unit
(b) When the traffic situation at an airport allows the transmission of information which does not need to
be acknowledged by the ground station
(c) When a pilot has flown into cloud or fog unintentionally and therefore would like to request
navigational assistance from a ground unit
(d) When a transmission containing important navigational or technical information is to be sent to
several stations at the same time

143 EPA MT
 105) Leaving a control frequency (except when reaching the final parking position)...
(a) must be reported.
(b) must be approved.
(c) is not mandatory to be reported.
(d) must be approved twice.

106) Which abbreviation is used for the term "visual flight rules"?
(a) VRU
(b) VFS
(c) VFR
(d) VMC

107) Which abbreviation is used for the term "obstacle"?

(a) OST
(b) OBTC
(c) OBST
(d) OBS

108) What does the abbreviation "FIS" stand for?

(a) Flashing information system
(b) Flight information system
(c) Flight information service
(d) Flashing information service

109) What does the abbreviaton "FIR" stand for?

(a) Flight integrity receiver
(b) Flow information radar
(c) Flow integrity required
(d) Flight information region

110) What does the abbreviation "H24" stand for?

(a) Sunset to sunrise
(b) No specific opening times
(c) Sunrise to sunset
(d) 24 h service

111) What does the abbreviation "HX" stand for?

(a) Sunset to sunrise
(b) Sunrise to sunset
(c) 24 h service
(d) No specific opening hours

112) The altimeter has to be set to what value in order to show zero on ground?
(a) QNH
(b) QNE
(c) QTE
(d) QFE

113) Which altitude is displayed on the altimeter when set to a specific QNH?
(a) Altitude in relation to the air pressure at the reference airfield
(b) Altitude in relation to the 1013.25 hPa datum
(c) Altitude in relation to the highest elevation within 10 km
(d) Altitude in relation to mean sea level

144 EPA MT
 114) Which altitude is displayed on the altimeter when set to a specific QFE?
(a) Altitude in relation to the 1013.25 hPa datum
(b) Altitude in relation to the highest elevation within 10 km
(c) Altitude in relation to mean sea level
(d) Altitude in relation to the air pressure at the reference airfield

115) What does the abbreviation "QDR" stand for?

(a) Magnetic bearing to the station
(b) True bearing from the station
(c) True bearing to the station
(d) Magnetic bearing from the station

116) What does the abbreviation "QUJ" stand for?

(a) True bearing to the station
(b) Magnetic bearing to the station
(c) True bearing from the station
(d) Magnetic bearing from the station

117) What does the abbreviation "QTE" stand for?

(a) Magnetic bearing to the station
(b) True bearing from the station
(c) Magnetic bearing from the station
(d) True bearing to the station

118) Which Q-code is used for the magnetic bearing from the station?
(a) QUJ
(b) QDR
(c) QTE
(d) QDM

119) Which Q-code is used for the true bearing from the station?
(a) QDR
(b) QTE
(c) QDM
(d) QUJ

120) Which Q-code is used for the true bearing to the station?
(a) QDM
(b) QTE
(c) QDR
(d) QUJ

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 121) Which of the listed radiotelephony messages has a higher priority than a flight safety
message?
(a) Communication related to direction finding
(b) Flight regularity message
(c) Aircraft position report message
(d) Meteorological message

122) What is the correct term for a message used for air traffic control?
(a) Flight regularity message
(b) Flight safety message
(c) Message related to direction finding
(d) Meteorological message

123) Distress messages are messages...

(a) concerning aircraft and their passengers which face a grave and imminent threat and require
immediate assistance.
(b) concerning the safety of an aircraft, a watercraft or some other vehicle or person in sight.
(c) concerning the operation or maintenance of facilities which are important for the safety and regularity
of flight operations.
(d) sent by a pilot or an aircraft operating agency which have an imminent meaning for aircraft in flight.

124) Urgency messages are messages...

(a) concerning the operation or maintenance of facilities essential for the safety or regularity of aircraft
operation.
(b) sent by a pilot or an aircraft operating agency which have an imminent meaning for aircraft in flight.
(c) concerning the safety of an aircraft, a watercraft or some other vehicle or person in sight.
(d) concerning aircraft and their passengers which face a grave and imminent threat and require
immediate assistance.

125) Regularity messages are messages...

(a) concerning aircraft and their passengers which face a grave and imminent threat and require
immediate assistance.
(b) sent by an aircraft operating agency or an aircraft of immediate concern to an aircraft in flight.
(c) concerning the operation or maintenance of facilities essential for the safety or regularity of aircraft
operation.
(d) concerning the safety of an aircraft, a watercraft or some other vehicle or person in sight.

126) Which of the following messages has the highest priority?

(a) Wind 300 degrees, 5 knots
(b) QNH 1013
(c) Request QDM
(d) Turn left

127) What is the correct way to transmit the call sign HB-YKM?
(a) Home Bravo Yankee Kilo Mikro
(b) Hotel Bravo Yuliett Kilo Mikro
(c) Home Bravo Yuliett Kilo Mike
(d) Hotel Bravo Yankee Kilo Mike

146 EPA MT
128) What is the correct way to transmit the call sign OE-JVK?
(a) Oscar Echo Jankee Victor Kilogramm
(b) Omega Echo Juliett Victor Kilogramm
(c) Omega Echo Jankee Victor Kilo
(d) Oscar Echo Juliett Victor Kilo

129) An altitude of 4500 ft is transmitted as...

(a) four tousand five hundred.
(b) four tousand five zero zero.
(c) four five zero zero.
(d) four five tousand.

130) A heading of 285 degrees is correctly transmitted as...

(a) two hundred eight five.
(b) two eight five hundred.
(c) two hundred eighty-five.
(d) two eight five.

131) A frequency of 119.500 MHz is correctly transmitted as...

(a) one one niner tousand decimal five zero.
(b) one one niner decimal five zero zero.
(c) one one niner decimal five.
(d) one one niner decimal five zero.

132) The directional information "12 o'clock" is correctly transmitted as...

(a) One two.
(b) One two o'clock.
(c) Twelve o'clock.
(d) One two hundred.

133) Times are transmitted as...

(a) time zone time.
(b) UTC.
(c) standard time.
(d) local time.

134) If there is any doubt about ambiguity, a time of 1620 is to be transmitted as...
(a) one six two zero.
(b) one tousand six hundred two zero.
(c) two zero.
(d) sixteen twenty.

135) What is the meaning of the phrase "Roger"?

(a) I have received all of your last transmission
(b) An error has been made in this transmission. The correct version is...
(c) Permission for proposed action is granted
(d) I understand your message and will comply with it

147 EPA MT
136) What is the meaning of the phrase "Correction"?
(a) I have received all of your last transmission
(b) An error has been made in this transmission. The correct version is...
(c) I understand your message and will comply with it
(d) Permission for proposed action is granted

137) What is the meaning of the phrase "Approved"?

(a) Permission for proposed action is granted
(b) I have received all of your last transmission
(c) An error has been made in this transmission. The correct version is...
(d) I understand your message and will comply with it

138) Which phrase does a pilot use when he / she wants to check the readability of his / her
transmission?
(a) How do you read?
(b) You read me five
(c) Request readability
(d) What is the communication like?

139) Which phrase is used by a pilot when he wants to fly through controlled airspace?
(a) Want
(b) Apply
(c) Request
(d) Would like

140) What phrase is used by a pilot if a transmission is to be answered with "yes"?

(a) Yes
(b) Affirm
(c) Roger
(d) Affirmative

141) What phrase is used by a pilot if a transmission is to be answered with "no"?

(a) No
(b) Not
(c) Finish
(d) Negative

142) Which phrase is to be used when a pilot wants the tower to know that he is
ready for take-off?
(a) Request take-off
(b) Ready for start-up
(c) Ready for departure
(d) Ready

143) What phrase is used by a pilot to inform the tower about a go-around?
(a) Approach canceled
(b) Going around
(c) Pulling up
(d) No landing

148 EPA MT
144) What is the call sign of the aerodrome control?
(a) Airfield
(b) Tower
(c) Ground
(d) Control

145) What is the call sign of the surface movement control?

(a) Tower
(b) Control
(c) Earth
(d) Ground

146) What is the call sign of the flight information service?

(a) Information
(b) Advice
(c) Info
(d) Flight information

147) What is the correct abbreviation of the call sign D-EAZF?

(a) DZF
(b) AZF
(c) DEF
(d) DEA

148) In what case is the pilot allowed to abbreviate the call sign of his aircraft?
(a) After passing the first reporting point
(b) If there is little traffic in the traffic circuit
(c) Within controlled airspace
(d) After the ground station has used the abbreviation

149) What is the correct way of using the aircraft call sign at first contact?
(a) Using the last two characters only
(b) Using all characters
(c) Using the first three characters only
(d) Using the first two characters only

150) What is the correct way of establishing radio communication between D-EAZF and
Dusseldorf Tower?
(a) Dusseldorf Tower over
(b) Tower from D-EAZF
(c) DEAZF is calling Dusseldorf Tower
(d) Dusseldorf Tower D-EAZF
151) What is the correct way of acknowledging the instruction "Call Hamburg Tower on
121.275"?
(a) Call tower on 121.275
(b) Call 121.275
(c) 121.275
(d) Call tower

152) What does a readability of 1 indicate?

(a) The transmission is readable now and then
(b) The transmission is unreadable
(c) The transmission is perfectly readable
149 EPA MT
(d) The transmission is readable but with difficulty
153) What does a readability of 2 indicate?
(a) The transmission is readable now and then
(b) The transmission is unreadable
(c) The transmission is perfectly readable
(d) The transmission is readable but with difficulty
154) What does a readability of 3 indicate?
(a) The transmission is readable now and then
(b) The transmission is perfectly readable
(c) The transmission is unreadable
(d) The transmission is readable but with difficulty

155) What does a readability of 5 indicate?

(a) The transmission is unreadable
(b) The transmission is readable but with difficulty
(c) The transmission is perfectly readable
(d) The transmission is readable now and then

156) How long should a test transmission to check the equipment take as a maximum?
(a) 10 seconds
(b) 5 seconds
(c) 20 seconds
(d) 15 seconds

157) Which information from a ground station does not require readback?
(a) Wind
(b) Altitude
(c) Runway in use
(d) SSR-Code

158) Which information from a ground station does not require readback?
(a) Heading
(b) Taxi instructions
(c) Traffic information
(d) Altimeter setting

159) What is the correct way of acknowledging the instruction "DZF after lift-off climb
straight ahead until 2500 feet before turning right heading 220 degrees, wind 090
degrees, 5 knots, runway 12, cleared for take-off"?
(a) DZF after lift-off climb straight ahead 2500 feet, then turn right heading 220, 090 degrees, 5 knots
(b) DZF after lift-off climb straight ahead 2500 feet, wilco, heading 220 degrees, 090 degrees, 5 knots,
cleared for take-off
(c) DZF after lift-off climb straight ahead 2500 feet, then turn right heading 220, 090 degrees, 5 knots,
cleared for take-off
(d) DZF after lift-off climb straight ahead 2500 feet, then turn right heading 220, runway 12, cleared for
take-off

160) What is the correct way of acknowledging the instruction "Next report PAH"?
(a) Wilco
(b) Report PAH
(c) Roger
(d) Positive

150 EPA MT
 161) What is the correct way of acknowledging the instruction "Squawk 4321, Call Bremen
Radar on 131.325"?
(a) Squawk 4321, 131.325
(b) Roger
(c) Wilco
(d) Squawk 4321, wilco
162) What is the correct way of acknowledging "You are now entering airspace Delta"?
(a) Wilco
(b) Roger
(c) Airspace Delta
(d) Entering

163) What does a cloud coverage of "FEW" mean in a METAR weather report?
(a) 3 to 4 eighths
(b) 8 eighths
(c) 5 to 7 eighths
(d) 1 to 2 eighths

164) What does a cloud coverage of "SCT" mean in a METAR weather report?
(a) 8 eighths
(b) 3 to 4 eighths
(c) 1 to 2 eighths
(d) 5 to 7 eighths

165) What does a cloud coverage of "BKN" mean in a METAR weather report?
(a) 3 to 4 eighths
(b) 8 eighths
(c) 1 to 2 eighths
(d) 5 to 7 eighths

166) Given a visibility of 12 km, what is the correct way to transmit this visibility?
(a) Twelve kilometers.
(b) One-zero kilometers.
(c) One-zero kilometers or more.
(d) One-two kilometers.

167) In what case is visibility transmitted in meters?

(a) Up to 5 km
(b) Greater than 10 km
(c) Up to 10 km
(d) Greater than 5 km

168) In what cases is visibility transmitted in kilometers?

(a) Greater than 10 km
(b) Greater than 5 km
(c) Up to 5 km
(d) Up to 10 km

169) What information is broadcasted on a VOLMET frequency?

(a) Meteorological information
(b) Navigational information
(c) NOTAMS

151 EPA MT
(d) Current information

170) Which navigation facility may be used for broadcasting the ATIS?
(a) GPS
(b) DME
(c) VOR
(d) NDB

171) How can you obtain meteorological information concerning airports during a cross-
country flight?
(a) GAMET
(b) AIRMET
(c) VOLMET
(d) METAR

172) Which transponder code indicates a radio failure?

(a) 7600
(b) 7000
(c) 7700
(d) 7500

173) What is the correct phrase to begin a blind transmission?

(a) Blind
(b) Transmitting blind
(c) Listen
(d) No reception

174) On what frequency shall a blind transmission be made?

(a) On the appropriate FIS frequency
(b) On a tower frequency
(c) On a radar frequency of the lower airspace
(d) On the current frequency

175) How often shall a blind transmission be made?

(a) One time
(b) Two times
(c) Three times
(d) Four times

176) In what situation is it appropriate to set the transponder code 7600?

(a) Loss of radio
(b) Flight into clouds
(c) Hijacking
(d) Emergency

177) What is the correct course of action when experiencing a radio failure in
class D airspace?
(a) The flight has to be continued above 5000 feet complying with VFR flight rules or the airspace has to
be left by the shortest route
(b) The flight has to be continued according to the last clearance complying with VFR rules or the
airspace has to be left by the shortest route
(c) The flight has to be continued according to the last clearance complying with VFR flight rules or the
airspace has to be left using a standard routing

152 EPA MT
(d) The flight has to be continued above 5000 feet complying with VFR flight rules or the airspace has to
be left using a standard routing

178) Under what conditions may class D airspace be entered with a radio failure?
(a) Approval has been granted before
(b) It is the destination aerodrome
(c) It ist the aerodrome of departure
(d) There are other aircraft in the aerodrome circuit

179) Which phrase is to be repeated three times before transmitting an urgency message?
(a) Pan Pan
(b) Mayday
(c) Help
(d) Urgent

180) Urgency messages are defined as...

(a) information concerning the apron personell and which imply an imminent danger to landing aircraft.
(b) messages concerning aircraft and their passengers which face a grave and imminent threat and
require immediate assistance.
(c) messages concerning urgent spare parts which are needed for a continuation of flight and which
need to be ordered in advance.
(d) messages concerning the safety of an aircraft, a watercraft or some other vehicle or person in sight.

181) What is the correct frequency for an initial distress message?

(a) Emergency frequency
(b) FIS frequency
(c) Current frequency
(d) Radar frequency

182) What kind of information should be included in an urgency message?

(a) Nature of problem or observation, important information for support, intentions of the pilot,
information about position, heading and altitude
(b) Intended routing, important information for support, intentions of the pilot, departure aerodrome,
destination aerodrome, heading and altitude
(c) Intended routing, important information for support, intentions of the pilot, information about position,
departure aerodrome, heading and altitude
(d) Nature of problem or observation, important information for support, departure aerodrome,
information about position, heading and altitude

183) The correct transponder code for emergencies is...

(a) 7600.
(b) 7000.
(c) 7500.
(d) 7700.

184) Which of the following frequencies is designated for VHF voice communication?
(a) 118.75 MHz
(a) 327.25 kHz
(b) 118.75 kHz
(c) 327.25 MHz

153 EPA MT
 185) Which of the following frequencies is designated for VHF voice communication?
(a) 115.15 MHz
(b) 108.80 MHz
(c) 120.50 MHz
(d) 117.30 kHz

186) What is the correct designation of the frequency band from 118.000 to 136.975 MHz
used for voice communication?
(a) MF
(b) VHF
(c) HF
(d) LF

187) Which of the following factors affects the reception of VHF transmissions?
(a) Height of ionosphere
(b) Altitude
(c) Shoreline effect
(d) Twilight error

188) What is the approximate speed of electromagnetic wave propagation?

(a) 123000 m/s
(b) 300000 km/s
(c) 123000 km/s
(d) 300000 m/s

189) An ATIS is valid for...

(a) 60 minutes.
(b) 45 minutes.
(c) 30 minutes.
(d) 10 minutes.

154 EPA MT
 1 A B C D 2 A B C D 3 A B C D
4 A B C D 5 A B C D 6 A B C D
7 A B C D 8 A B C D 9 A B C D
10 A B C D 11 A B C D 12 A B C D
13 A B C D 14 A B C D 15 A B C D
16 A B C D 17 A B C D 18 A B C D
19 A B C D 20 A B C D 21 A B C D
22 A B C D 23 A B C D 24 A B C D
25 A B C D 26 A B C D 27 A B C D
28 A B C D 29 A B C D 30 A B C D
31 A B C D 32 A B C D 33 A B C D
34 A B C D 35 A B C D 36 A B C D
37 A B C D 38 A B C D 39 A B C D
40 A B C D 41 A B C D 42 A B C D
43 A B C D 44 A B C D 45 A B C D
46 A B C D 47 A B C D 48 A B C D
49 A B C D 50 A B C D 51 A B C D
52 A B C D 53 A B C D 54 A B C D
55 A B C D 56 A B C D 57 A B C D
58 A B C D 59 A B C D 60 A B C D
61 A B C D 62 A B C D 63 A B C D
64 A B C D 65 A B C D 66 A B C D
67 A B C D 68 A B C D 69 A B C D
70 A B C D 71 A B C D 72 A B C D
73 A B C D 74 A B C D 75 A B C D
76 A B C D 77 A B C D 78 A B C D
79 A B C D 80 A B C D 81 A B C D
82 A B C D 83 A B C D 84 A B C D
85 A B C D 86 A B C D 87 A B C D
88 A B C D 89 A B C D 90 A B C D
91 A B C D 92 A B C D 93 A B C D
94 A B C D 95 A B C D 96 A B C D
97 A B C D 98 A B C D 99 A B C D
100 A B C D 101 A B C D 102 A B C D
103 A B C D 104 A B C D 105 A B C D
106 A B C D 107 A B C D 108 A B C D
109 A B C D 110 A B C D 111 A B C D
112 A B C D 113 A B C D 114 A B C D
115 A B C D 116 A B C D 117 A B C D
118 A B C D 119 A B C D 120 A B C D
121 A B C D 122 A B C D 123 A B C D
124 A B C D 125 A B C D 126 A B C D
127 A B C D 128 A B C D 129 A B C D
130 A B C D 131 A B C D 132 A B C D
133 A B C D 134 A B C D 135 A B C D
136 A B C D 137 A B C D 138 A B C D
139 A B C D 140 A B C D 141 A B C D
142 A B C D 143 A B C D 144 A B C D

155 EPA MT
 1 A B C D 2 A B C D 3 A B C D
145 A4 BA CB D
C D 146 5A BA CB CD D 147 6 A A B B C C D D
148 A7 BA CB D
C D 149 8A BA CB CD D 150 9 A A B B C C D D
151 A
10 BA CB D
C D 152 11A BA CB CD D 153 12A A B B C C D D
154 A
13 BA CB D
C D 155 14A BA CB CD D 156 15A A B B C C D D
157 A B C D 158 A B C D 159 A B C D
16 A B C D 17 A B C D 18 A B C D
160 A B C D 161 A B C D 162 A B C D
19 A B C D 20 A B C D 21 A B C D
163 A B C D 164 A B C D 165 A B C D
22 A B C D 23 A B C D 24 A B C D
166 A B C D 167 A B C D 168 A B C D
169 25
A BA CB C
D D 170 26A BA CB CD D 171 27A A B B C C D D
145
28 AA BB CC DD 146
29A AA BB CC DD 147 AA B CC D
172 A B C D 173 B C D 174 30A B B C D D
175 148
31
A ABA BCB CD
C DD 176 149
32A ABA B CB C CD DD 177 150
33A AA B B
B C CC D D
D
178 151
34
A ABA BCB CD
C DD 179 152
35A ABA B CB C CD DD 153
180 36A AA B B
B C CC D D
D
181 154
37
A ABA BCB CD
C DD 182 155
38A ABA B CB C CD DD 183 156
39A AA B B
B C CC D D
D
184 157
A
40 ABA BCB CD
C DD 185 158
41A ABA B CB C CD DD 159
186 42A AA B B
B C CC D D
D
187 160
A
43 ABA BCB CD
C DD 188 161
44A ABA B CB C CD DD 189 162
45A AA B B
B C CC D D
D
163
46 AA BB CC DD 164
47 AA BB CC DD 165
48 AA B
B CC D
D
166
49 AA BB CC DD 167
50 AA BB CC DD 168
51 AA B
B CC D
D
169
52 AA BB CC DD 170
53 AA BB CC DD 171
54 AA B
B CC D
D
172
55 AA BB CC DD 173
56 AA BB CC DD 174
57 AA B
B CC D
D
175
58 AA BB CC DD 176
59 AA BB CC DD 177
60 AA B
B CC D
D
178
61 AA BB CC DD 179
62 AA BB CC DD 180
63 AA B
B CC D
D
181
64 AA BB CC DD 182
65 AA BB CC DD 183
66 AA B
B CC D
D
184
67 AA BB CC DD 185
68 AA BB CC DD 186
69 AA B
B CC D
D
187
70 AA BB CC DD 188
71 AA BB CC DD 189
72 AA B
B CC D
D
73 A B C D 74 A B C D 75 A B C D
76 A B C D 77 A B C D 78 A B C D
79 A B C D 80 A B C D 81 A B C D
82 A B C D 83 A B C D 84 A B C D
85 A B C D 86 A B C D 87 A B C D
88 A B C D 89 A B C D 90 A B C D
91 A B C D 92 A B C D 93 A B C D
94 A B C D 95 A B C D 96 A B C D
97 A B C D 98 A B C D 99 A B C D
100 A B C D 101 A B C D 102 A B C D
103 A B C D 104 A B C D 105 A B C D
106 A B C D 107 A B C D 108 A B C D
109 A B C D 110 A B C D 111 A B C D
112 A B C D 113 A B C D 114 A B C D
115 A B C D 116 A B C D 117 A B C D
118 A B C D 119 A B C D 120 A B C D
121 A B C D 122 A B C D 123 A B C D
124 A B C D 125 A B C D 126 A B C D
127 A B C D 128 A B C D 129 A B C D
130 A B C D 131 A B C D 132 A B C D
133 A B C D 134 A B C D 135 A B C D
136 A B C D 137 A B C D 138 A B C D
139 A B C D 140 A B C D 141 A B C D
142 A B C D 143 A B C D 144 A B C D

156 EPA MT
 HUMAN PERFORMANCE

The actual examination paper consists of 12 questions, each with a multiple

choice of four answers A, B, C or D. The candidate should indicate the chosen
answer by placing a cross in the appropriate box on the answer paper provided.
Time allowed 30 minutes.
The pass mark is 75%, so the minimum number of questions that must be
answered correctly to obtain a pass is 9. Marks are not deducted for incorrect
answers.

157 EPA MT
1) Symptoms of decompression sickness:
(a) Can only develop at altitudes of more than 40000 ft
(b) Are flatulence and pain in the middle ear
(c) Are only relevant when diving
(d) Are bends, chokes, creeps and neurological symptoms

2) With hyperventilation, caused by high levels of arousal or overstress:

(a) An increased amount of carbon dioxide is exhaled causing muscular spasms and even
unconsciousness
(b) Finger nails and lips will turn blue ("cyanosis")
(c) Peripheral and scotopic vision will be improved
(d) More oxygen will reach the brain

3) What is hypoxia?
(a) Any condition where the oxygen concentration of the body is below the limits to meet the needs of
the body tissues
(b) The total absence of oxygen in the blood of the body
(c) A state characterised by an excessive supply of oxygen which may be due to maladjustment of the
mask
(d) The respiratory symptom associated with altitude decompression sickness

4) Carbon Monoxide is particularly dangerous because:

1. Its initial symptoms are not alarming
2. It is colourless
3. Its is odourless
4. It is highly toxic
5. Its effects are cumulative
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
(b) All of the above
(c) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
(d) 2, 3, and 4 only

5) Which statement is correct?

(a) The gradient of diffusion is higher at altitude than it is at sea-level.
(b) Oxygen diffusion from the lungs into the blood does not depend on partial oxygen pressure.
(c) Oxygen diffusion from the blood into the cells depends on the partial oxygen pressure gradient.
(d) Oxygen is mainly transported in plasma.

6) The semicircular canals of the inner ear monitor:

(a) Movements with constant speeds
(b) Gravity
(c) Angular accelerations
(d) Speed

7) Which part of the ear could be affected by air pressure changes during climb and/or descent?
(a) The semicircular canals
(b) The Eustachian tube and the tympanic membrane (ear drum)
(c) The saccules and utricles
(d) The cochlea

158 EPA MT
8) A pilot can overcome hyperventilation by:
(a) Depending on instruments
(b) Controlling the rate and depth of breathing and/or breathing into a bag
(c) The use of drugs stabilizing blood pressure
(d) Increasing the rate and depth of breathing to eliminate harmful carbon dioxide

9) The partial pressure of oxygen in inspired air:

(a) Is a highly significant factor in ensuring that oxygen diffuses from the lungs to the blood.
(b) Remains constant at all altitudes.
(c) Is independent of the proportion of oxygen in the ambient air.
(d) Can not be varied when using an oxygen mask.

10) The atmosphere contains the following gases:

(a) 78% helium, 21% oxygen, 0,03% carbon dioxide, rest: rare gases
(b) 78% oxygen, 21% nitrogen, 1% carbon monoxide, rest: rare gases
(c) 78% helium, 21% oxygen, 1% carbon monoxide, rest: rare gases
(d) 78% nitrogen, 21% oxygen, 0,03% carbon dioxide, rest: rare gases

11) The most dangerous type of incapacitation in flight is one that:

(a) Is not severe in its effect.
(b) Occurs very quickly.
(c) Develops slowly and gradually (insidious).
(d) Is temporary

12) If you are subjected to an illusion during night flying you should:
(a) Dim the cockpit lighting
(b) Use your oxygen mask
(c) Continue on instruments
(d) Scan the surroundings

13) A pilot accustomed to landing on a wide runway may find, when approaching to a narrow
runway, that he/she is at a:
(a) Lower height and the impression of landing slow
(b) Lower than actual height with the tendency to overshoot
(c) Greater height and the impression of landing short
(d) Greater height than he actually is with the tendency to land short

14) The impression of an apparent movement of light when stared at for a relatively long period
of time in the dark is called:
(a) "White out"
(b) "Oculografic illusion"
(c) "Oculogyral illusion"
(d) "Autokinesis"

15) How may haze affect perception?

(a) There will be better contrast between objects
(b) Haze makes the eyes to focus at infinity
(c) Objects seem to be closer than in reality.
(d) Objects seem to be further away than in reality.

159 EPA MT
16) When a pilot is starring at an isolated stationary light for several seconds in the dark he
might get the illusion that:
(a) The light is moving
(b) The intensity of the light is varying
(c) The size of the light is varying
(d) The colour of the light is varying

17) Physiological stressors include:

(a) Noise, hunger, conflicts, a death
(b) Noise, temperature (low or high), humidity, sleep deprivation
(c) Temperature, hunger, thirst, divorce
(d) Heat, humidity, fatigue, administrative problems

18) Decompression sickness symptoms may develop due to:

(a) Emergency descents without cabin pressure loss
(b) Cabin pressure loss when flying at higher altitudes (above 18000 FT)
(c) Sudden pressure surges in the cabin at altitudes below 18000 FT
(d) Fast flights from a high-pressure zone into a low pressure area when flying an unpressurised
aeroplane

19) Altitude-hypoxia, when breathing ambient air, should not usually occur (indifferent phase):
(a) Up to 5 000 m
(b) Below 3 000 m
(c) Between 3 000 m and 5 000 m
(d) Between 5 000 m and 7 000 m

20) What could be symptoms of hypoxia (when flying without oxygen) above 12,000 ft?
(a) Euphoria, headache, improvement in judgement, loss of consciousness
(b) Headache, thirst, somnolence, collapse
(c) Trembling, increase in body temperature, convulsions, slowing of the rate of breathing
(d) Headache, fatigue, dizziness, lack of coordination

21) The rate and depth of breathing is primarily controlled by:

(a) The amount of nitrogen in the blood
(b) The total atmospheric pressure
(c) The amount of carbon monoxide in the blood
(d) The amount of carbon dioxide in the blood

22) The amount of light which strikes the retina is controlled by:
(a) The cornea
(b) The lens
(c) The ciliary body
(d) The pupil

23) Through which part of the ear does the equalization of pressure take place, when altitude is
changed?
(a) Eustachian tube
(b) Tympanic membrane
(c) External auditory canal
(d) Cochlea

160 EPA MT
24) The Eustachian tube is the passage way between the:
(a) Sinuses and the throat
(b) Nose, throat and the external auditory canal
(c) Throat and the middle ear
(d) Nose, throat and inner ear

25) The circulatory system:

1. Transports oxygen to the body cells
2. Withdraws waste products from the cells
3. Conveys nutrients to the cells
Which of the following lists all the correct answers?
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 2 and 3

26) Internal respiration:

(a) Is the exchange of carbon dioxide and oxygen in the lung.
(b) Is the term for respiration inside the pressure cabin.
(c) Is a metabolic process that takes place inside the cells during which oxygen is used and carbon
dioxide produced.
(d) Is the process of inflating the lungs during mouth-to-mouth resuscitation.

27) "Pilot's vertigo":

(a) Announces the beginning of airsickness
(b) Is the sensation to keep a rotation after completing a turn
(c) Is the sensation of climbing caused by a strong linear acceleration
(d) Is the condition of dizziness and/or tumbling sensation caused by contradictory impulses to the
central nervous system (CNS)

28) When accelerating forward the otoliths in the utriculus/sacculus will:

(a) Give the illusion of descending (body tilting downwards, or forwards, nose of the aircraft going
down)
(b) Give the illusion of climbing (body tilting backwards, nose of the a/c going up)
(c) Give the illusion of straight and level flight
(d) Give the illusion of banking

29) The time required for complete adaptation is:

(a) For night 10 sec and for day 30 min
(b) For high levels of illumination 10 minutes and for low levels of illumination 30 minutes
(c) For high levels of illumination 10 sec and for full dark adaptation 30 min
(d) For day and night: 30 min

30) Which of the following are symptoms of hypoxia?

1.Euphoria
2. Fatigue
3.Sensory Loss
4.Feeling unwell
5.Increased pilot ability
6. Impairment of consciousness

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(a) 1,3,6
(b) 2,3,4,5,6
(c) 1,2,3,6
(d) 4,5,6

31)At what temperature would a pilot expect to wear short sleeves?

(a) 15 Degrees Celcius
(b) 20 Degrees Celcius
(c) 25 Degrees Celcius
(d) 30 Degrees Celcius

32) How many unrelated items can the memory hold?

(a) 3
(b) 9
(c) 1
(d) 7

33) The outer part of the eye ball covering is the :

(a) Lens
(b) Pupil
(c) Cornea
(d) Iris

34) An aircraft on a reciprocating path would be seen as :

(a) In the beginning will be seen as the same size then get bigger fast
(b) Will appear to be moving from one side to another
(c) Opposite
(d) Will not be in the pilots view.

35) When in flight the pilot is feeling the effect of hypoxia due to air contamination from the
engine exhaust. What is the best thing to do?
(a) Continue flying
(b) Open full cabin heat
(c) Close all heat vents, ventilate the cockpit as much as possible and try to land at the nearest airport
and seek medical advice
(d) Close all heat vents and continue the flight as normal, seek medical advice on landing

36) The partial pressure of oxygen in inspired air:

(a) Decreases with altitude.
(b) Remains constant at all altitudes.
(c) Is independent of the proportion of oxygen in the ambient air.
(d) Increases with altitude.

37) The effect of alcohol:

(a) Is independent of height
(b) Gets worse with height
(c) Is less with height
(d) Is irrelevant to the pilot

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38) How do you prevent motion sickness?
(a) Focus on something outside the aircraft such as the wing or horizon
(b) Jump around
(c) Spin your head around
(d) Close your eyes and sleep

39) When taking over the counter drugs :

(a) You can fly without restriction or advice
(b) You should always seek advice from an aero medical examiner
(c) You should not take these drugs
(d) You should never fly

40) A first officer with a captain should :

(a) Obey every command
(b) Express his/her opinions
(c) Not say a word
(d) Not listen to his captain and do as he wishes.

41) What are the risks you might encounter when flying with an upper respiratory tract infection
(such as a common cold/flu)?
(a) If your eustachian tube is blocked, the relative pressure in your middle ear will decrease as you
climb causing pain.
(b) If you take medication, it may interfere with your ability to safely fly the aircraft.
(c) You may not be able to equalise the pressure in your inner ear.
(d) You may become blind due to the extra pressure.

42) Where in the lungs does gas exchange occur?

(a) Alveoli.
(b) Trachioles.
(c) Bronchioles.
(d) Bronchi.
43) The best way of maintaining situational awareness is to...
(a) gathering and considering all possible data whilst updating your situation and planning ahead.
(b) interpret any data to reinforce where you want to be.
(c) flying on instruments only.
(d) flying by “seat of pants” only.

44) A pilot suffering from gastro-enteritis is...

(a) probably ok to fly.
(b) not fit to fly.
(c) fit to fly as long as the pilot feels fit enough.
(d) fit to fly unless he is taking medication.

45) The semi-circular canals (organs of balance) can respond to...

(a) climbing.
(b) acceleration.
(c) both acceleration and deceleration.
(d) deceleration.

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46) Having allowed enough time for your night vision to develop, when looking at an object
beyond the aircraft, the maximum visual acuity is achieved by looking...
(a) at a 90 degree angle to the object.
(b) slightly beyond the object.
(c) slightly above the object.
(d) slightly to the side of the object.

47) You are on approach to a runway much smaller than the one you are used to. Due to the
visual effects of this phenomenon, how may the runway appear?
(a) Further away than it really is
(b) Closer than it really is
(c) Wider than it really is
(d) Longer than it really is

48) A pilot in straight and level flight but accelerating may experience the perception of...
(a) turning.
(b) descending.
(c) pitching nose down.
(d) pitching nose up.

49) The first effects of a lack of oxygen in the blood are most likely to be...
(a) a light headed sensation, possibly dizziness and nausea.
(b) loss of inhibitions together with difficulty in completing mental tasks.
(c) loss of memory, and impaired muscular control.
(d) a feeling of intense anxiety and perspiration.

50) A solo pilot experiencing spatial disorientation during flight should...

(a) close his/her eyes and put head down for 30 seconds to get composed.
(b) rely on “seat of pants” information.
(c) pay most attention to and trust the aircraft instruments.
(d) rely completely on the external visual references.

51) Which of the following conditions is the most common form of sudden pilot incapacitation?
(a) Heart attack.
(b) Gastroenteritis.
(c) Stroke.
(d) Collapsed lung.

52) A student pilot experiencing spatial disorientation during flight should...

(a) rely on somatosensory (seat of pants) information.
(b) pay most attention to and trust the aircrafts instruments.
(c) place head between legs for at least two minutes.
(d) take deep breaths.

53) Some factors can affect your 'time of useful consciousness' after a failure of the oxygen
supply at altitude. Which of the following statements is most accurate?
(a) Physical activity will reduce the severity of the situation
(b) Physical activity will worsen the severity of the situation
(c) Physical activity has no affect on the severity of the situation
(d) Physical activity will stop the severity of the situation

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54) Respiration is a spontaneous act regulated primarily by the brains sensitivity to...
(a) the amount of haemoglobin in the blood.
(b) atmospheric pressure.
(c) the oxygen level in the blood.
(d) the carbon dioxide level in the blood.

55) Why is it important that a pilot should not fly when he/she has a cold?
(a) The pressure between the inner ear and the atmospheric air may not be equalised.
(b) The pressure between the inner ear and the middle ear may not be equalised.
(c) The pressure between the middle ear and the atmospheric air may not be equalised.
(d) The pressure between the lungs and the atmospheric air may not be equalised.

56) What might suggest to you that carbon monoxide could be entering the cabin of your light
aircraft in flight?
(a) All of the bellow are correct.
(b) Dark smoke.
(c) Engine smells and fumes.
(d) A greenish coloured gas from the cabin air vent.
57) What is the average time required to eliminate one unit of alcohol from the blood?
(a) one hour.
(b) two hours.
(c) 24 hours.
(d) 12 hours.

58) Approximately how long does a visual image remain in its sensory memory?
(a) Ten minutes
(b) One minute
(c) Ten seconds
(d) One second

59) Why is carbon monoxide so dangerous?

(a) It interferes with the body's ability to transport carbon dioxide.
(b) It interferes with the body's ability to transport carbon monoxide.
(c) It affects the bodys ability to remove carbon dioxide.
(d) It is colourless, odourless and tasteless.

60) Dizziness, tingling in the fingers and lips, anxiety and visual disturbance whilst flying below
FL100 indicates the likelihood of...
(a) heart attack.
(b) hyperthermia.
(c) hypoxia.
(d) hyperventilation.

61) Hyperventilation may be remedied by...

(a) giving the person 100% oxygen.
(b) making the person increase his/her breathing rate.
(c) calming the person down to restore a normal breathing rate.
(d) rubbing the persons back in a circular motion.

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62) An aircraft appears dead ahead, heading towards you at a range of 2 nm. Both aircraft are
traveling at a speed of 120 kts. How long do you have in order to avert a collision?
(a) 5 seconds
(b) 30 seconds
(c) 45 seconds
(d) 1 minute

63) When a pilots perception of where he/she thinks the aircraft is, matches where it actually is,
the pilot is said to be...
(a) lucky.
(b) having a good day.
(c) situationally aware.
(d) using a GPS.

64) What is your 'time of useful consciousness' at 24,000 feet, approximately?

(a) 30-45 minutes
(b) 5-10 minutes
(c) 60 minutes
(d) 90 minutes

65) What is hypoxia?

(a) A lack of oxygen in the body tissues.
(b) Too much oxygen in the body tissues.
(c) An absence of oxygen in the brain tissues.
(d) An absence of oxygen in your legs.

66) After becoming adapted to low light conditions, your night vision can be impaired by bright
lights. How long does your exposure to bright light have to be, in order to cause a loss of your
night vision?
(a) 3-5 seconds
(b) 1-2 seconds
(c) 10-15 seconds
(d) 30-60 seconds

67) A pilot in straight and level flight but decelerating may experience the illusion of...
(a) climbing.
(b) turning.
(c) pitching nose down.
(d) pitching nose up.

68) When on the approach to a runway with an upward slope, the visual illusion created by this
might cause you to....
(a) make a quicker and steeper approach than normal
(b) make a lower and shallower approach than normal
(c) make a higher and shallower approach than normal
(d) overshoot the runway

69) A sensation where you feel that you are spinning round, when in reality you are not is known
as...
(a) vortices.
(b) ventricular dysfunction.
(c) vertigo.
(d) impetigo.
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70) Failure to follow the rules on flying after Scuba diving has been known to result in
decompression sickness during flight at altitudes as low as 6000ft. After Scuba diving at depths
of 30ft or more, the guidelines advise an allowance of...
(a) 24 hours before flying.
(b) 6 hours before flying.
(c) 3 hours before flying.
(d) 48 hours before flying.

71) Approximately what is the normal percentage of nitrogen in the atmosphere?

(a) 50%
(b) 10%
(c) 78%
(d) 16%

72) In a cockpit a set of controls designed to operate a different system should, ideally be
designed to...
(a) both look and feel different.
(b) both look and feel identical.
(c) be similar to each other.
(d) look the same but feel different.

73) What is the part of the structure of the eye that is sensitive to light?
(a) The Iris.
(b) The Retina.
(c) The Lens.
(d) The Pupil.

74) At what distance will your eyes tend to focus at night, if you are not looking at any particular
object?
(a) At 6-8 metres in front of you.
(b) At 1-2 metres in front of you.
(c) At the distance they focused on last.
(d) At approximately 20 metres.

75) Hyperventilation can be brought on by over breathing. This can be caused by a lack of
oxygen, some of the other possible causes are...
(a) anxiety, motion sickness, heat and vibration.
(b) being involved in a complex operation.
(c) fatigue.
(d) hunger.

76) Within the atmosphere, an increase in altitude leads to a reduction in oxygen available to the
body, this is due to the...
(a) increase in pressure.
(b) decrease in temperature.
(c) decrease in pressure.
(d) decrease in air mass.

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77) What is the problem for a pilot of encountering a sloping cloud layer?
(a) If the sloping cloud layer is more prominent than the horizon, it can cause a strong visual illusion of a
false horizon causing the pilot to bank the aircraft.
(b) If the sloping cloud layer is more prominent than the horizon, it can cause a strong visual illusion of a
false horizon causing the pilot to climb the aircraft.
(c) If the sloping cloud layer is more prominent than the horizon, it can cause a strong visual illusion of a
false horizon causing the pilot to descend the aircraft.
(d) If the sloping cloud layer is less prominent than the horizon, it can cause a strong visual illusion of a
false horizon causing the pilot to bank the aircraft.

78) If you are flying with a more experienced pilot whom you consider has chosen an incorrect
course of action that may endanger the aircraft, you should...
(a) question his judgement if you believe he will accept it.
(b) always express any doubts you may have.
(c) accept his course of action as he has much more experience than you.
(d) accept his decision but be prepared to take control of the aircraft.

79) Decompression sickness is caused by ........ coming out of solution to form bubbles in the
body tissues.
What is the missing word?
(a) oxygen.
(b) nitrogen.
(c) hydrogen.
(d) carbon dioxide.

80) If a runway is wider than expected, then a pilot will tend to...
(a) fly a higher approach than normal, with the possibility of under shooting the runway.
(b) fly a higher approach than normal, with the possibility of landing short of the runway.
(c) fly a lower approach than normal, with the possibility of over shooting the runway.
(d) fly a higher approach than normal, with the possibility of over shooting the runway.

81) Smoking cigarettes reduces the capability of the blood to carry oxygen because:
(a) Carbon monoxide increases the partial pressure of oxygen in the alveoli
(b) Haemoglobin has a greater affinity for carbon monoxide than it has for oxygen
(c) The smoke of one cigarette can cause an obstruction in the respiratory tract
(d) Carbon monoxide in the smoke of cigarettes assists diffusion of oxygen in the alveoli

82) The proprioceptive senses ("Seat of-the-Pants-Sense"):

(a) Can neither be used for motor coordination in IMC and VMC
(b) Can be used, if trained, to avoid spatial disorientation in IMC
(c) May give incorrect information, when outside visual reference is lost
(d) Is a natural human instinct, always indicating the correct attitude

83) A pilot who is hyperventilating for a prolonged period of time may even become
unconscious. Hyperventilation is likely to occur, when:
(a) There is a low co-pressure in the blood
(b) He/she is flying a tight turn
(c) There is an increased blood flow to the brain
(d) The pilot is emotionally aroused

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84) A pilot who has Balanced concern for the efficient operation of the flight and the well-being
of the crew is said to be:
(a) P+ G-
(b) P- G-
(c) P- G+
(d) P+ G+

85) A pilot who is Overly concerned with the efficient conduct of the flight. He will ignore the
feelings of the crew, is said to be:
(a) P+ G-
(b) P- G-
(c) P- G+
(d) P+ G+

86) A pilot who Cares little for the flight or the crew is said to be:
(a) P+ G-
(b) P- G-
(c) P- G+
(d) P+ G+

87) A pilot who will establish good relations but has too little concern for task. is said to be:
(a) P+ G-
(b) P- G-
(c) P- G+
(d) P+ G+

88) The majority of aviation accidents are caused by...

(a) human failure.
(b) meteorological influences.
(c) technical failure.
(d) geographical influences.

89) The "E" in the SHELL model means...

(a) enroute.
(b) equipment.
(c) environment.
(d) effective.

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90) The "L" in the SHELL model means...
(a) line check.
(b) lift.
(c) liveware.
(d) loss of control.

91) The "swiss cheese model" can be used to explain the...

(a) error chain.
(b) optimal problem solution.
(c) procedure for an emergency landing.
(d) state of readiness of a pilot.

92) Which two parameters have to be considered in a risk assessment?

(a) Level of familiarity and regulations
(b) Probability of occurrence and severity of outcome
(c) Severity of outcome and amount insured
(d) Probability of occurrence and own experience

93) What is the percentage of oxygen in the atmosphere at 6000 ft?

(a) 18.9 %
(b) 12 %
(c) 21 %
(d) 78 %

94) What is the percentage of nitrogen in the atmosphere?

(a) 0.1 %
(b) 78 %
(c) 21 %
(d) 1 %
95) At which altitude is the atmospheric pressure approximately half the MSL value (1013 hPa)?
(a) 10000 ft
(b) 22000 ft
(c) 18000 ft
(d) 5000 ft

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96) Air consists of oxygen, nitrogen and other gases. What is the approximate percentage of
other gases?
(a) 21 %
(b) 1 %
(c) 78 %
(d) 0.1 %

97) Carbon monoxide poisoning can be caused by...

(a) little sleep.
(b) smoking.
(c) unhealthy food.
(d) alcohol.

98) What does the term "Red-out" mean?

(a) Falsified colour perception during sunrise and sunset
(b) Anaemia caused by an injury
(c) "Red vision" during negative g-loads
(d) Rash during decompression sickness

99) Which kind of risks are associated with the use of handheld pulse oximeters?
(a) Hyperventilation is not detected by a pulse oximeter
(b) Pulse oximeters can interfere with the avionics
(c) A pulse oximeter can be only used twice
(d) Pulse oximeters do not work below 10000 ft

100) Carbon monoxide poisoning can be caused by...

(a) cracks in the heat exchanger.
(b) Pitot icing.
(c) generator failure.
(d) fuel or hydraulic fluids.
101) Which of the following is NOT a symptom of hyperventilaton?
(a) Cyanose
(b) Spasm
(c) Disturbance of consciousness
(d) Tingling

102) Which of the following symptoms may indicate hypoxia?

(a) Blue marks all over the body
(b) Muscle cramps in the upper body area
(c) Joint pain in knees and feet
(d) Blue discolouration of lips and fingernails

103) Which of the human senses is most influenced by hypoxia?

(a) The oltfactory perception (smell)
(b) The visual perception (vision)
(c) The auditory perception (hearing)
(d) The tactile perception (sense of touch)

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104) From which altitude on does the body usually react to the decreasing atmospheric
pressure?
(a) 10000 feet
(b) 12000 feet
(c) 7000 feet
(d) 2000 feet

105) Which altitude marks the lower limit where the the body is unable to completely
compensate the effects of the low atmospheric pressure?
(a) 7000 feet
(b) 22000 feet
(c) 5000 feet
(d) 12000 feet

106) What is the function of the red blood cells?

(a) Blood coagulation
(b) Blood sugar regulation
(c) Oxygen transport
(d) Immune defense
107) Which of the following is responsible for the blood coagulation?
(a) Capillaries of the arteries
(b) Red blood cells (erythrocytes)
(c) White blood cells (leucocytes)
(d) Blood plates (thrombocytes)

108) What is the function of the white blood cells?

(a) Blood coagulation
(b) Oxygen transport
(c) Blood sugar regulation
(d) Immune defense

109) What is the function of the blood platelets?

(a) Immune defense
(b) Blood sugar regulation
(c) Blood coagulation
(d) Oxygen transport

110) Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for hypoxia?

(a) Diving
(b) Blood donation
(c) Menstruation
(d) Smoking

111) Anemic hypoxia can be caused by...

(a) high altitudes.
(b) low pressure.
(c) carbon monoxide poisoning.
(d) alcohol.

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112) Which type of hypoxia can be caused by high altitude?
(a) Anaemic hypoxia
(b) Histotoxic hypoxia
(c) Stagnating hypoxia
(d) Hypoxic hypoxia
113) What is an appropriate reaction when a passenger during cruise flight suddenly feels
uncomfortable?
(a) Avoid conversation and choose a higher airspeed
(b) Switch on the heater blower and provide thermal blankets
(c) Adjust cabin temperature and prevent excessive bank
(d) Give additional oxygen and avoid low load factors

114) What is the correct term for an involuntary and stereotypical reaction of an organism to the
stimulation of a receptor?
(a) Reduction
(b) Reflex
(c) Coherence
(d) Virulence

115) What is the correct term for the system which, among others, controls breathing, digestion,
and heart frequency?
(a) Critical nervous system
(b) Compliant nervous system
(c) Automatical nervous system
(d) Autonomic nervous system

116) From about which altitude on does the night vision capability start to reduce?
(a) 10000 ft
(b) 3000 ft
(c) 5000 ft
(d) 7000 ft

117) What is the parallax error?

(a) Misperception of speed during taxiing
(b) Long-sightedness due to aging especially during night
(c) Wrong interpretation of instruments caused by the angle of vision
(d) A decoding error in communication between pilots

118) Which characteristic is important when choosing sunglasses used by pilots?

(a) No UV filter
(b) Non-polarised
(c) Unbreakable
(d) Curved sidepiece
119) What time is required approximately for the eyes to adapt to brightness?
(a) 1 minute
(b) 10 minutes
(c) 10 seconds
(d) 1 second

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120) Which part of the visual system is responsible for colour vision?
(a) Blind spot
(b) Macula
(c) Cones
(d) Rods

121) The connection between middle ear and nose and throat region is called...
(a) eardrum.
(b) cochlea.
(c) eustachian tube.
(d) inner ear.

122) In which situation is it NOT possible to achieve a pressure compensation between the
middle ear and the environment?
(a) The eustachien tube is blocked
(b) Breathing takes place using the mouth only
(c) All windows are completely closed
(d) During a light and slow climb

123) Wings level after a longer period of turning can lead to the impression of...
(a) starting a climb.
(b) turning into the opposite direction.
(c) starting a descent.
(d) steady turning in the same direction as before.

124) Which of the following options does NOT stimulate motion sickness (disorientation)?
(a) Head movements during turns
(b) Non-accelerated straight and level flight
(c) Turbulence in level flight
(d) Flying under the influence of alcohol
125) An acceleration during a straight horizontal flight can lead to the illusion of...
(a) an inverted flight.
(b) a climb.
(c) a bank.
(d) a descent.

126) A deceleration during a straight horizontal flight can lead to the illusion of...
(a) a climb.
(b) a descent.
(c) an inverted flight.
(d) a bank.

127) What is a Coriolis illusion?

(a) Apparent movement of static objects at night
(b) False perception of colour due to strong accelerations
(c) Wrong interpretation of altitude during approach
(d) Heavy vertigo due to head movements during turns

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128) Which optical illusion might be caused by a runway with an upslope during the approach?
(a) The pilot has the feeling that the approach is too high and therefore descents below the regular glide
slope
(b) The pilot has the feeling that the approach is too slow and speeds up above the normal approach
speed
(c) The pilot has the feeling that the approach is too fast and reduces the speed below the normal
approach speed
(d) The pilot has the feeling that the approach is too low and therefore approaches the runway above the
regular glide slope

129) What impression may be caused when approaching a runway with an upslope?
(a) A hard landing
(b) A landing beside the centerline
(c) An overshoot
(d) An undershoot

130) The occurence of a vertigo is most likely when moving the head...
(a) during a turn.
(b) during a climb.
(c) during a straight horizontal flight.
(d) during a descent.
131) A Grey-out is the result of...
(a) hyperventilation.
(b) tiredness.
(c) positive g-forces.
(d) hypoxia.

132) Visual illusions are mostly caused by...

(a) rapid eye movements.
(b) binocular vision.
(c) colour blindness.
(d) misinterpretation of the brain.

133) The human circadian cycle is based on a cycle of approximately...

(a) 25 hours.
(b) 13 hours.
(c) 22 hours.
(d) 10 hours.

134) The average decrease of blood alcohol level for an adult in one hour is approximately...
(a) 0.3 percent.
(b) 0.03 percent.
(c) 0.1 percent.
(d) 0.01 percent.

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135) What has to be taken into consideration when comparing medication which is only
available on prescription with medication that is available over the counter?
(a) There is a notification requirement for medication which is sold over the counter if it is taken for a
period exceeding 10 days
(b) Generally both types of medication have to be handled in the same way
(c) Medication which is available over the counter is safe as long as a doctor has not expressed an
opinion to the contrary
(d) Medication which is only available on prescription is considered to have an impact on flight
performance only if explicitly noted on the package insert

136) Which answer states a risk factor for diabetes?

(a) Smoking
(b) Sleep deficiency
(c) Alcohol consumption
(d) Overweight
137) A risk factor for decompression sickness is...
(a) scuba diving prior to flight.
(b) sports.
(c) 100 % oxygen after decompression.
(d) smoking.

138) Which of the following options does NOT require an immendiate consultation of an
aeromedical examiner?
(a) Regular intake of medication
(b) Preventive dental screening
(c) First prescription of glasses
(d) Pregnancy

139) Smoking causes...

(a) histotoxic hypoxia.
(b) hyperventilation.
(c) anaemic hypoxia.
(d) decompression sickness.

140) Which statement is correct with regard to the interaction between perception and
experience?
(a) Experience and perception are totally different parts of the perception process
(b) The interaction between perception and experience is limited to optical illusions
(c) Experience has a significant influence to our perception
(d) The interaction has no relevance for flight safety

141) Which statement is correct with regard to the short-term memory?

(a) It can store 10 (±5) items for 30 to 60 seconds
(b) It can store 5 (±2) items for 1 to 2 minutes
(c) It can store 7 (±2) items for 10 to 20 seconds
(d) It can store 3 (±1) items for 5 to 10 seconds

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142) For what approximate time period can the short-time memory store information?
(a) 3 to 7 seconds
(b) 10 to 20 seconds
(c) 30 to 40 seconds
(d) 35 to 50 seconds
143) What is a latent error?
(a) An error which is made by the pilot actively and consciously
(b) An error which only has consequences after landing
(c) An error which has an immediate effect on the controls
(d) An error which remains undetected in the system for a long time

144) What does the term "confirmation bias" mean?

(a) The bias to confirm each radio call
(b) The feedback loop in a closed communication
(c) The critical check of ambiguous situations in flight
(d) The preference to find arguments to proof the own mental model

145) What does the abbreviation "CFIT" mean?

(a) Central Flight Instructor Training
(b) Company Fuel Index Tool
(c) Cargo Fire in Tail Compartment
(d) Controlled Flight Into Terrain

146) The ongoing process to monitor the current flight situation is called...
(a) constant flight check.
(b) situational thinking.
(c) anticipatory check procedure.
(d) situational awareness.

147) Regarding the communication model, how can the use of the same code during radio
communication be ensured?
(a) By using radios certified for aviation use only
(b) By the use of radio phraseology
(c) By a particular frequency allocation
(d) By the use of proper headsets

148) Which of the following attitudes are not hazardous when piloting an aircraft?
(a) Macho
(b) Impulsivity
(c) Synergetic
(d) Infallibility

149) In what different ways can a risk be handled appropriately?

(a) Avoid, ignore, palliate, reduce
(b) Avoid, reduce, transfer, accept
(c) Extrude, avoid, palliate, transfer
(d) Ignore, accept, transfer, extrude

150) Under which circumstances is it more likely to accept higher risks?

(a) Due to group-dynamic effects
(b) If there is not enough information available
(c) During check flights due to a high level of nervousness
(d) During flight planning when excellent weather is forecast
177 EPA MT
151) What is the meaning of "risky shift"?
(a) Crossing of rudder and ailerons on short final
(b) Spontaneous change of landing direction when the runway has an upslope
(c) Seat adjustment in flight
(d) The tendency to accept higher risks in groups

152) Which dangerous attitudes are often combined?

(a) Self-abandonment and macho
(b) Macho and invulnerability
(c) Invulnerability and self-abandonment
(d) Impulsivity and carefulness

153) What is an indication for a macho attitude?

(a) Careful walkaround procedure
(b) Comprehensive risk assessment when faced with unfamiliar situations
(c) Risky flight maneuvers to impress spectators on ground
(d) Quick resignation in complex and critical situations

154) Which factor can lead to human error?

(a) The bias to see what we expect to see
(b) Proper use of checklists
(c) Double check of relevant actions
(d) To be doubtful if something looks unclear or ambiguous
155) What is the best combination of traits with respect to the individual attitude and behaviour
for a pilot?
(a) Introverted - stable
(b) Extroverted - unstable
(c) Introverted - unstable
(d) Extroverted - stable

156) Complacency is a risk due to...

(a) increased cockpit automation.
(b) the high number of mistakes normally made by humans.
(c) better training options for young pilots.
(d) the high error rate of technical systems.

157) The ideal level of arousal is at which point in the diagram?

P = Performance,
A = Arousal / Stress
(a) Point C
(b) Point A
(c) Point B
(d) Point D

178 EPA MT
158) At which point in the diagram will a pilot find himself to be overstrained?
P = Perfromance
A = Arousal / Stress
See above diagram
(a) Point A
(b) Point C
(c) Point B
(d) Point D

159) Which of the following qualities are influenced by stress?

1. Attention
2. Concentration
3. Responsiveness
4. Memory
(a) 1
(b) 1, 2, 3
(c) 1, 2, 3, 4
(d) 2, 4

160) Which answer is correct concerning stress?

(a) Everybody reacts to stress in the same manner
(b) Training and experience have no influence on the occurence of stress
(c) Stress can occur if there seems to be no solution for a given problem
(d) Stress and its different symptoms are irrelevant for flight safety

161) What can cause an increased number of errors, tunnel vision and reduced attention?
(a) Sports
(b) Unhealthy food
(c) Fatigue
(d) Relaxation training

162) What is meant by ‘Complacency’?

a) To question possible solutions
b) Unjustified self-confidence
c) Psychological effects on pilots because of fear of flying
d) An agreement between the Captain and First Officer due to CRM

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METEOROLOGY

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 The actual examination paper consists of 12 questions, each with a multiple
choice of four answers A, B, C or D. The candidate should indicate the chosen
answer by placing a cross in the appropriate box on the answer paper provided.
Time allowed 30 minutes.
The pass mark is 75%, so the minimum number of questions that must be
answered correctly to obtain a pass is 9. Marks are not deducted for incorrect
answers.

183 EPA MT
1) An air mass is unstable when:
(a) An ascending parcel of air continues to rise to a considerable height
(b) Temperature increases with height
(c) Pressure shows a marked variation over a given horizontal area
(d) Temperature and humidity are not constant

2) A layer is conditionally unstable if the air

(a) Is unstable for saturated air and stable for dry air.
(b) Is unstable for saturated air as well as for dry air.
(c) Is stable for saturated air and unstable for dry air.
(d) Becomes stable by lifting it.

3) Rising air cools because:

(a) It becomes more moist
(b) Surrounding air is cooler at higher levels
(c) It contracts
(d) It expands

4) A supercooled droplet is
(a) A droplet still in liquid state at a temperature below 0°C
(b) A water droplet that has been frozen during its descent
(c) A water droplet that is mainly frozen
(d) A small particle of water at a temperature below -50°C

5) During the late afternoon an air temperature of +12°C and a dew point of +5°C were measured.
What temperature change must at least occur during the night in order to induce saturation?
(a) It must decrease to +7°C.
(b) It must decrease to +6°C.
(c) It must decrease by 5°C.
(d) It must decrease to +5°C

6) In which of the following changes of state is latent heat released?

(a) Liquid to gas
(b) Solid to liquid
(c) Solid to gas
(d) Gas to solid

7) Which of the following changes of state is known as sublimation (in meteorology)?

(a) Liquid direct to solid
(b) Liquid direct to vapour
(c) Solid direct to vapour
(d) Solid direct to liquid

8) In an unstable layer there are cumuliform clouds. The vertical extent of these clouds depends
on the:
(a) Wind direction
(b) Air pressure at the surface
(c) Pressure at different levels
(d) Thickness of the unstable layer

184 EPA MT
9) Geostrophic wind is the wind when isobars are:
(a) Straight lines and no surface friction is involved.
(b) Curved lines and surface friction is involved.
(c) Straight lines and surface friction is involved.
(d) Curved lines and no surface friction is involved

10) An aircraft is flying in the Northern Hemisphere at low altitude (less than 2000 feet) and
going directly away from a centre of low pressure. What direction, relative to the aircraft, does
the wind come from?
(a) From the left and slightly on the tail
(b) From the right and slightly on the tail
(c) From the right and slightly on the nose
(d) From the left and slightly on the nose

11) Which of the following conditions are most favourable to the formation of mountain waves?
(a) Unstable air at mountain top altitude and a wind at least 20 knots blowing across the mountain ridge.
(b) Moist unstable air at mountain top and wind of less than 5 knots blowing across the mountain ridge.
(c) Either stable or unstable air at mountain top and a wind of at least 30 knots blowing parallel to the
mountain ridge.
(d) Stable air at mountain top altitude and a wind at least 20 knots blowing across the mountain ridge.

12) Mountain waves should be expected:

(a) When instability is high
(b) On the downwind side of the mountain chain
(c) On the upwind side of the mountain chain
(d) Directly over the mountain chain

13) In relation to the wind speed and direction at the top of the friction layer, which change in
wind will a pilot normally experience during descent to the surface over land in the Northern
Hemisphere?
(a) Veering ca. 30 degrees, speed is reduced by ca. 50%.
(b) Veering ca. 10 degrees, speed is reduced by ca. 30%.
(c) Backing ca. 30 degrees, speed is reduced by ca. 50%.
(d) Backing ca. 10 degrees, speed is reduced by ca. 30%.

14) In a land- and sea breeze circulation the land breeze blows:
(a) During the day and is weaker than the sea breeze.
(b) During the night and is weaker than the sea breeze.
(c) During the day and is stronger than the sea breeze.
(d) During the night and is stronger than the sea breeze.

15) Which of the following statements is correct regarding the variation of wind with height?
(a) The wind strength normally increases by a factor of 2 per 1000 feet up to the 850 hpa level.
(b) The wind strength normally increases by a factor of 2 per 500 feet up to the 700 hpa level.
(c) The wind normally veers during climb out through the first 2000-3000 feet in the Northern
Hemisphere.
(d) The wind normally backs during climb out through the first 2000-3000 feet in the Northern
Hemisphere.

185 EPA MT
16) Sea breezes are most likely to occur when:
(a) A strong pressure gradient, relatively high sea temperatures and clear skies at night exist
(b) A slack pressure gradient, relatively high sea temperatures and overcast conditions persist
(c) Slack pressure gradient and clear skies result in relatively high land temperatures
(d) A strong pressure gradient, relatively high sea temperatures and overcast conditions persist

17) Examining the pictures, on which one of the tracks (dashed lines) is this cross-section to be
expected?
(a) Track A-D
(b) Track A-E
(c) Track B-D
(d) Track B-C

18) What will be the effect on the reading of an altimeter of an aircraft parked on the ground
during the period following the passage of an active cold front?
(a) It will have increased.
(b) It will remain unchanged.
(c) It will have decreased.
(d) It will show a small increase or decrease.

19) What wind direction will occur at point B?

(a) Northwest
(b) East
(c) Southeast
(d) Southwest

186 EPA MT
20)The diagram of the system shown represents a:
(a) Warm occlusion.
(b) Cold occlusion.
(c) Cold front.
(d) Warm front.

21) Which of the following weather conditions favour the formation of radiation fog?
(a) Strong wind, little or no cloud, moist air.
(b) Light wind, extensive cloud, dry air.
(c) Light wind, little or no cloud, moist air.
(d) Light wind, extensive cloud, moist air.

22) Which of the following sets of conditions are most likely to lead to the formation of advection
fog?
(a) Clear skies at night over an inland marshy area
(b) A mild moist airstream flowing over colder surfaces with a wind in excess of 30 kt
(c) Cold maritime air flowing over a warmer land surface at a speed greater than 15 kt
(d) A mild moist airstream flowing over colder surfaces with the wind speed less than 15 kt

23) The following statements deal with precipitation, turbulence and icing. Select the list
containing the most likely alternatives for NS cloud:
(a) Precipitation may be snow, ice pellets or rain. Icing is probable and may range between light and
severe. Turbulence is rarely more than moderate.
(b) Precipitation may be snow, ice pellets or rain. Icing and turbulence are frequently severe.
(c) Precipitation is frequently in the form of hail. Icing and turbulence are frequently severe.
(d) Precipitation and icing are usually nil. Turbulence is rarely more than moderate.

24) Which of the following is a common cause of ground or surface temperature inversion?
(a) Warm air being lifted rapidly aloft, in the vicinity of mountainous terrain.
(b) Heating of the air by subsidence
(c) The movement of warm air under cold air.
(d) Terrestrial radiation on a clear night with no or very light winds.

25) What is the lowest forecast visibility that may be expected during an approach into Dhahran
at ETA 0600 UTC? TAF OEDR 280000Z 280110 VRB08KT CAVOK BECMG 0103 7000 TEMPO 0410
28014G24KT 4000 SA=
(a) 4 km
(b) 10 km or more
(c) 7 km
(d) 4000 yards

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26) What is the height of the lowest cloud forecast for Bangkok at ETA 1400 UTC? TAF VTBD
271800Z 280024 VRB05KT 1200 BR TEMPO 0002 4000 BECMG 0205 9999 NSW SCT015 BKN100
TEMPO 1118 04010G20KT 5000 TSRA SCT009 BKN014 BKN018CB BECMG 2024 6000=
(a) 1400 feet
(b) 900 feet
(c) 1200 feet
(d) 1800 feet

27) In which of the following weather reports could, in accordance with the regulations, the
abbreviation "CAVOK" be used?
(a) 27019G37KT 9999 BKN050 18/14 Q1016 NOSIG=
(b) 34004KT 7000 MIFG SCT260 09/08 Q1029 BECMG 1600=
(c) 26012KT 8000 SHRA BKN025 16/12 Q1018 NOSIG=
(d) 00000KT 0100 FG VV001 11/11 Q1025 BECMG 0500=

28) Refer to the following TAF extract:BECMG 1821 2000 BR BKN004 BECMG 2124 0500 FG
VV001 What does the abbreviation "BKN004" mean?
(a) 1 - 4 oktas, ceiling 400 ft
(b) 5 - 7 oktas, ceiling 400 ft
(c) 4 - 8 oktas, ceiling 400 m
(d) 1 - 4 oktas, ceiling 400 m

29) Clear ice is formed when Supercooled drops are:

(a) Small and at a temperature just below freezing
(b) Small and freeze rapidly
(c) Of any size at temperatures below -35°c.
(d) Large and at a temperature just below freezing

30) Which of the following statements is correct?

(a) At warm fronts thunderstorms are often observed.
(b) Cumulus clouds and a good visibility are normally observed in a warm sector in autumn.
(c) Normally atmospheric pressure stops falling rapidly behind a warm front, the air temperature rises.
(d) Cumulus clouds and a good visibility are normally observed in a warm sector in winter.

31) The type of icing that occurs in dense clouds with large Supercooled drops that have a
temperature of -5°C is most likely to be
(a) Clear ice
(b) Cloudy ice
(c) Rime ice
(d) Hoar frost

32) Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause airframe icing?
(a) GR
(b) +FZRA
(c) PE
(d) SHSN

188 EPA MT
33) From which of the following pieces of information can the stability of the atmosphere be
derived?
(a) Pressure at the surface
(b) Dry adiabatic lapse rate
(c) Environmental lapse rate
(d) Surface temperature

34) You are flying in the Northern Hemisphere at 2000 ft over a flat country area. An anticyclone
is ahead of you and a depression is behind you. The wind affecting you will be:
(a) From behind
(b) From your left
(c) From ahead
(d) From your right

35) When isobars, for an area in the mid-latitudes on a weather map, are close together, the wind
is most likely to be
(a) Light
(b) Strong
(c) Changing direction rapidly
(d) Blowing perpendicular to the isobars

36) During periods of cloudless weather over land in the Northern Hemisphere the
(a) Wind tends to back from early morning until early afternoon
(b) Angle between isobars and surface wind direction tends to be greatest in the mid afternoon
(c) Surface wind speed tends to be highest at night
(d) Surface wind speed tends to be highest during the mid afternoon

37) Which of the following is most likely to lead to the dissipation of radiation fog?
(a) Ground cooling caused by radiation during the night
(b) A build up of a high pressure area resulting in adiabatic warming associated with a sinking air mass
(c) A marked decrease in wind velocity close to the ground
(d) A marked increase in wind velocity near the ground

38) How do air masses move at a warm front?

(a) Warm air undercuts a cold air mass
(b) Cold air undercuts a warm air mass
(c) Warm air overrides a cold air mass
(d) Cold air overrides a warm air mass

39) The tropopause is a level at which:

(a) Temperature ceases to fall with increasing height
(b) Pressure remains constant
(c) Vertical currents are strongest
(d) Water vapour content is greatest

40) How does temperature vary with increasing altitude in the ICAO standard atmosphere below
the tropopause?
(a) Decreases
(b) At first it increases and higher up it decreases
(c) Remains constant
(d) Increases

189 EPA MT
41) What characteristic is associated with a temperature inversion?
(a) Clear ice
(b) Stability
(c) Area of active storms
(d) Instability

42) Which of the four answers is a correct interpretation of data from the following METAR?
LSZH 050820Z
16003KT 0400 R14/P1500 R16/1000 FZFG VV003 M02/M02 Q1026 BECMG 2000 BR=
(a) RVR for runway 14 1500 m, visibility 400 m, QNH 1026 hpa, wind 160° at 3 kt.
(b) Visibility 1000 m, RVR 400 m, freezing level at 300 m, variable winds, temperature 2°C.
(c) Visibility 400 m, RVR for runway 16 1000 m with no distinct tendency, dew point -2°C, freezing fog.
(d) RVR for runway 16 1000 m with no distinct tendency, visibility increasing in the next 2 hours to 2000
m, vertical visibility 300 m, temperature -2°C

43) What visibility is most likely to be experienced during an approach into Madrid at 2300 UTC?
TAF LEMD 281200Z 281812 13005KT CAVOK TEMPO 1821 8000 SCT020 SCT030 BECMG 2123
21005KT 9999 SCT015 BKN080 PROB40 TEMPO 2306 6000 SCT008=
(a) 10 kilometres or more
(b) 6000 metres
(c) Greater than 10 kilometres
(d) 8000 metres

44) What intensity and type of aircraft icing is likely to occur at FL 100 in a thunderstorm, with
the freezing level at 7000 ft?
(a) Moderate to severe icing due to rime ice.
(b) Light icing due to rime ice.
(c) Moderate to severe icing due to clear ice.
(d) Light icing due to clear ice.

45) Rime ice forms through the freezing onto aircraft surfaces of
(a) Snow.
(b) Small supercooled water drops.
(c) Large supercooled water drops.
(d) Water vapour.

46) How strong would you expect the downdraft in a CB to be?

(a) 400ft/min
(b) 100ft/min
(c) 4000ft/min
(d) 10000ft/min

47) What temperature range would you expect the worst Carb Icing?
(a) -20 to +30 degrees Celsius
(b) -5 to +15 degrees Celsius
(c) +10 to +40 degrees Celsius
(d) -30 to +60 degrees Celsius

190 EPA MT
48) What would you expect during the dissipating stage of a CB?
(a) Updrafts only
(b) Downdrafts and updrafts
(c) Downdrafts and precipitation
(d) Nothing

49) If you are flying at 2500ft with a QNH of 1013, and an temperature that is ISA +15. Compared
to in ISA, your true altitude is:
(a) Higher
(b) Lower
(c) The same
(d) Twice

50) In which stage of a CB do you expect the worst weather?

(a) Initial
(b) Mature
(c) Dissipating
(d) All of the above

51) Which of the following conditions are suitable for the formation of radiation fog?
(a) Cloudy night, very moist air, moderate winds.
(b) Clear night, moist air, strong winds.
(c) Cloudy night, moist air, light winds.
(d) Clear night, moist air, light winds.

52) Please study the TAFF below, how many hours does this cover? EGNT 121102Z 1212/1312
31012KT 9999 FEW030 BECMG 1304/1307 VRB03KT
(a) 12 Hours
(b) 6 Hours
(c) 24 Hours
(d) 3 Hours

53) What is convergence at ground level caused by?

(a) Rising pressure
(b) Falling air flowing into a low pressure system
(c) Rising air flowing into a low pressure system
(d) A cold front

54) When is rime and/or clear icing most likely to occur?

(a) Aircraft surfaces are above freezing and rain or drizzle is encountered.
(b) Aircraft surfaces are below freezing and rain or drizzle is encountered.
(c) When an aircraft descends through heavy cloud.
(d) When an aircraft climbs through heavy cloud.

55) If you experience turbulence at lower level, the cause for this is most likely to be?
(a) An anticyclone over the ocean
(b) Steady drizzle
(c) A temp inversion
(d) A Northern wind

191 EPA MT
56) If there is no cloud cover and no change of air mass, the surface temperature of the Earth is
likely to be coldest at what time?
(a) Just after sunrise.
(b) Just before sunrise.
(c) Midnight.
(d) 3am.

57) You are flying in the cruise, in moist conditions where the ambient temperature is 5 degrees
Celsius.
Which of the following statements is correct?
(a) You should not use carburettor heat unless the ambient temperature drops below zero.
(b) You should use carburettor heat periodically to check for icing.
(c) You should use partial carburettor heat to prevent icing.
(d) You should leave full carburettor heat on to prevent icing.

58) Hail is most likely to be produced by...

(a) AC
(b) NS
(c) SC
(d) CB

59) Your arrive at a south coast airfield three hours after sunrise during a summer morning and
the weather report indicates CAVOK. As the coast is predominantly east/west and sea a breeze
is beginning to establish, which of the following would you expect to be an into the wind
runway?
(a) 36
(b) 27
(c) 14
(d) 18

60) Please study the following TAF-

EGNV 171103Z 1712/1721 20018KT 9999 SCT022 BECMG 1712/1715 20022G32KT TEMPO
1712/1720 7000 RA PROB40 TEMPO 1715/1718 20025G44KT 3000 +RA BKN014 BECMG
1717/1720 27014KT
What is the strongest wind you may encounter on landing at this airfield?
(a) Gusts of 44KT
(b) A steady 24KT
(c) A steady 22KT
(d) Gusts of 32KT

61) What METAR abbreviation is given for hail?

(a) RG
(b) GR
(c) HL
(d) +HL

62) What is a TAF?

(a) A Typical Airport Forecast.
(b) A Total Aerodrome Forecast.
(c) A Terminal Aerodrome Forecast.
(d) A Terminal Aerodrome Flight conditions report.

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63) What is the abbreviation given in a TAF for mist?
(a) HZ
(b) MI
(c) BR
(d) GR

64) In a TAF or METAR, a wind blowing from the west, at a strength of 26 knots would normally
be written as:
(a) 26270
(b) 27026
(c) West/26
(d) W26

65) In which of the following situations is carburettor icing most likely to be serious over North
West Europe?
(a) Winter, warm air mass, climb power
(b) Winter, cold, descent power
(c) Summer, warm, cruise power
(d) Summer, warm air mass, descent power

66) The passage of a cold front at the surface is characterised by...

(a) a dewpoint fall, a temperature increase and the wind veering.
(b) a dewpoint increase, a temperature increase and the wind veering.
(c) a dewpoint fall, a temperature drop and the wind veering.
(d) a dewpoint fall, a temperature increase, the wind veering and the visibility increasing.

67) In the mainland, away from exposed coasts, when are convection thunder storms most
likely?
(a) Warm spells during winter
(b) Below sub zero temperatures
(c) Mid-afternoon in summer
(d) Late summer evening with westerly winds

68) There is an anticyclone that has been established for nearly a week, with the centre of high
pressure established over your aerodrome. What would you expect the flying conditions to be
like?
(a) Light winds and a risk of haze
(b) Light winds and no risk of haze
(c) Strong winds and a risk of haze
(d) Rain and showery conditions, excellent visibility

69) What is the name given to a situation where temperature rises as altitude is gained?
(a) A temp reversal
(b) An inversion
(c) A conversion
(d) A temp lock

70) What type of icing is most likely to be a problem during flight in rain, above the freezing
level, within the cold sector underlying the warmer air of a warm front?
(a) Mixed Ice
(b) Rime Ice
(c) Clear or Rain Ice
(d) Hoar Frost
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71) The layer closest to the Earth’s surface in which the majority of weather occurs is known as
the...
(a) tropopause.
(b) troposphere.
(c) stratosphere.
(d) atmosphere.

72) When air in the northern hemisphere under the influence of a pressure gradient is forced to
move towards an area of lower pressure, the Coriolis effect will cause the moving air at
approximately 2000ft to be deflected to...
(a) the right and flow approximately parallel to the surface isobars.
(b) the left and flow across the surface isobars.
(c) the right and flow across the surface isobars.
(d) the left and flow approximately parallel to the surface isobars.

73) What is the name given to the temperature at which an air mass will no longer be able to hold
water in a vapour state?
(a) Dew point
(b) Dew temp
(c) Condensation point
(d) Vapour point

74) How would a forecast easterly wind of 24 knots, gusting to 42 knots be represented in a
TAF?
(a) easterlyG42KT steady 24KT
(b) 09024G42KT
(c) easterly 24G42KT
(d) 24G42KT090

75) The wind at a 1000ft during the day at an aerodrome inland in the UK was at 33015kt. Using
the rule of thumb, what would you expect the surface wind to have been?
(a) 29009kt
(b) 31012kt
(c) 33015kt
(d) 35020kt

76) Please study the following TAF-

EGNV 171103Z 1712/1721 20018KT 9999 SCT022 BECMG 1712/1715 20022G32KT TEMPO
1712/1720 7000 RA PROB40 TEMPO 1715/1718 20025G44KT 3000 +RA BKN014 BECMG
1717/1720 27014KT
What does the word TEMPO 1712/1720 mean?
(a) Temporary for all of the time period indicated.
(b) Tropical thunderstorms are most probable.
(c) Temporary for more than half the time period indicated.
(d) Temporary for less than half the time period indicated.

77) Heavy rain and lightning signify which stage of the thunderstorm life cycle?
(a) Mature Stage.
(b) Updraft Stage.
(c) Dissipating Stage.
(d) Cumulus Stage.

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78) What type of ice usually forms when small supercooled water droplets freeze on a cold
surface, producing a rough opaque deposit?
(a) Clear ice
(b) Rime ice
(c) Mixed ice
(d) Wet ice

79) Which air mass arriving over the UK would be characterised by cold, moist and unstable air?
(a) Returning Arctic Maritime.
(b) Arctic Maritime.
(c) Tropical Maritime.
(d) Polar Maritime.

80) In the northern hemisphere and over the ocean, the surface wind may be expected
to ........................the gradient wind strength. What are the missing words?
(a) veer approximately 50 degrees and slow to half of
(b) back approximately 50 degrees and slow to half of
(c) back approximately 10 degrees and slow to two thirds of
(d) veer approximately 10 degrees and slow to two thirds of

81) Where is frontal fog most likely to be encountered?

(a) Behind a warm or occluded front.
(b) In advance of a warm or occluded front.
(c) Behind a warm front.
(d) Behind a cold front.

82) A pressure gradient stimulates the motion of air from...

(a) a region of low pressure to a region of low pressure.
(b) a region of low pressure to a region of high pressure.
(c) a region of high pressure to a region of high pressure.
(d) a region of high pressure to a region of low pressure.

83) If a liquid (water) turns into vapour, it is said to have ...

(a) steamed.
(b) sublimed.
(c) evaporated.
(d) condensed.

84) Please refer to the TAF below -

302004Z 3021/3106 19006KT 9999 SCT025 PROB40 3021/3106 4000 BR
What does the abbreviation BR mean?
(a) Snow
(b) Fog
(c) Haze
(d) Mist

85) How would a visibility of 10km be expressed in a TAF?

(a) zzzz
(b) 9999
(c) 10 000
(d) 10km
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86) Which of the following is normally associated with drizzle?
(a) Stratus.
(b) Cumulonimbus and nimbostratus.
(c) Nimbostratus.
(d) Cirrostratus.

87) You experience a constant drift to the right when flying over the UK at a constant indicated
altitude. If the altimeter sub scale is not updated this will result in...
(a) flying at a progressively higher altitude than that indicated.
(b) flying at a progressively lower altitude than that indicated.
(c) flying at the actual altitude indicated.
(d) flying either higher or lower than the actual altitude depending on your accuracy.

88) When a parcel of air cools, its ability to hold water:

(a) Decreases
(b) Increases
(c) Remains constant
(d) Is removed

89) On a METAR you see the word CAVOK, what does this mean?
(a) The weather is no longer VFR.
(b) Ceiling and visibility are ok.
(c) Zero volcanic ash in the vicinity.
(d) Cloud ceiling in the is ok.

90) If the temp at 1000ft is +18 and the temp at 2000ft is +20, what would you expect the air
between those altitudes to be?
(a) Conditionally unstable.
(b) Unstable.
(c) Stable.
(d) Conditionally stable.

91) Please study the four METAR’s below, which airfield has the highest wind strength?
EGNV 121120Z 30011KT 9999 FEW020 08/03 Q1022
EGNT 121120Z 30009KT 9999 FEW020 08/03 Q1022
EGNC 121120Z 28011KT 9999 FEW030 07/03 Q1023
EGNM 121120Z 30021KT 9999 FEW030 08/04 Q1022
(a) EGNT
(b) EGNV
(c) EGNC
(d) EGNM

92) In the Northern Hemisphere, if the wind at altitude is 240/40, the most likely wind on the
surface at an inland airfield is:
(a) 300/55
(b) 240/15
(c) 220/20
(d) 190/10

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93) When water changes from a higher energy state (vapour) to a lower energy state (liquid) it
will....
(a) absorb heat energy.
(b) neither give off heat or absorb it.
(c) give off heat energy.
(d) give off heat energy at 4 degrees per minute

94) When a strong wind is blowing across a mountain ridge, where is the strongest turbulence in
rotor conditions most likely to be found?
(a) Upwind of the ridge.
(b) Approximately 10'00ft above the ridge.
(c) Downwind of the ridge. ( Leeward Side )
(d) On the valley floor.

95) What is an elongated area of high pressure commonly known as?

(a) Front
(b) Ridge
(c) Trough
(d) Occlusion

96) The formation of advection fog is often caused by...

(a) a cool moist air mass under the influence of light to moderate winds being warmed to above its
dewpoint by flowing across a much warmer surface.
(b) a moist air mass under the influence of light to moderate winds becoming saturated by flowing
across a water or wet surface.
(c) water vapour becoming mixed with dust particles that have become trapped below a low level
inversion in light wind conditions.
(d) a warm moist air mass under the influence of light to moderate winds being cooled to below its
dewpoint by flowing across a much cooler surface.

97) What do cloud bases given in TAFs and METARs relate to?
(a) Heights above mean sea level
(b) Heights above the highest obstacle in the vicinity of the airfield
(c) Heights above the 1013mb pressure level
(d) Heights above airfield elevation

98) Please study the follow METAR-

EGPD 171420Z 21008KT 8000 RA SCT021 BKN029 06/05 Q0997 NOSIG
What does NOSIG stand for?
(a) No sign.
(b) No significant change.
(c) North showers and hail.
(d) No snow or gales.

99) Please study the following TAF-

EGNV 171103Z 1712/1721 20018KT 9999 SCT022 BECMG 1712/1715 20022G32KT TEMPO
1712/1720 7000 RA PROB40 TEMPO 1715/1718 20025G44KT 3000 +RA BKN014 BECMG
1717/1720 27014KT
What time was this TAF issued?

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(a) 17:11
(b) 11:03
(c) 17:12
(d) 20:01

100) When to air masses converge together within a low pressure area and warmer air replaces
the colder air at the surface, the front formed is known as a...
(a) cold front with a typical slope of approximately 1:50
(b) warm front with a typical slope of approximately 1:150
(c) warm front with a typical slope of approximately 1:50
(d) cold front with a typical slope of approximately 1:150

101) A TAF time group 0220 means the the TAF...

(a) is a long range TAF valid from 0200 to 2000 local time.
(b) was observed at 0220 UTC
(c) was issued at 0220 UTC
(d) is a long range forecast for the 18 hour period 0200 - 2000 UTC

102) What is "Lumpy" or "Heaped" cloud classified as?

(a) Stratus
(b) Cumulus
(c) Cirrus
(d) Alto Stratus

103) If the environmental lapse rate is 4.5 degrees Celsius per 1000 ft, the air mass is said to
be.....
(a) stable.
(b) unstable.
(c) neither.
(d) temporarily stable.

104) A parcel of air has a relative humidity of 85%. If this parcel of air is cooled, the relative
humidity can be expected to...
(a) increase.
(b) not change.
(c) decrease.
(d) increase then decrease.

105) Amongst other things, which of the following conditions are most likely to produce
thunderstorm activity?
(a) A front formed by an advancing tropical continental air mass.
(b) A shallow environmental lapse rate together with a low relative humidity.
(c) A high moisture content together with a high environmental lapse rate.
(d) A high moisture content together with a low environmental lapse rate.

106) Please study the following TAF-

EGNV 171103Z 1712/1721 20018KT 9999 SCT022 BECMG 1712/1715 20022G32KT TEMPO
1712/1720 7000 RA PROB40 TEMPO 1715/1718 20025G44KT 3000 +RA BKN014 BECMG
1717/1720 27014KT
What is the lowest visibility forecast at this airfield?

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(a) Greater than 10KM
(b) 7 KM
(c) 3 KM
(d) 3 Miles

107) An unstable air mass when forced to rise due to orographic lifting will produce...
(a) lenticular clouds.
(b) none as the air will subside and warm adiabatically.
(c) cloud of extensive vertical development.
(d) thick stratiform, probably nimbostratus.

108) If a METAR includes the text NSC at the end of the report. What does this mean?
(a) No significant change is expected in the weather for the next 24 hours
(b) No significant cloud
(c) No significant cumulus
(d) No significant change is expected in the weather for the next 12 hours

109) A sea breeze moves air...

(a) either way depending on the land/sea temp on that particular day.
(b) either way depending on the wind direction on that particular day.
(c) towards the sea by day, creating an offshore wind.
(d) towards the land by day, creating an onshore wind.

110) How would a heavy shower be reported in a METAR?

(a) HVY SHWR
(b) +SH
(c) +RA
(d) +SHWR

111) Water can exist in liquid form in the atmosphere at temperatures well below freezing. These
droplets are said to be...
(a) verycooled.
(b) supercooled.
(c) superchilled.
(d) hypercooled.

112) Which stage of the life cycle of a thunderstorm would you expect to find strong warm
updrafts, with no significant downdrafts?
(a) The Final Stage
(b) The Cumulus Stage
(c) The Dissipating Stage
(d) The Mature Stage

113) What is the gas composition of "air"?

(a) Nitrogen 21 % Oxygen 78 % Noble gases / carbon dioxide 1 %
(b) Oxygen 21 % Nitrogen 78 % Noble gases / carbon dioxide 1 %
(c) Oxygen 21 % Water vapour 78 % Noble gases / carbon dioxide 1 %
(d) Oxygen 78 % Water vapour 21 % Nitrogen 1 %

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 114) Weather phenomena are most common to be found in which atmospheric layer?
(a) Stratosphere
(b) Thermosphere
(c) Tropopause
(d) Troposphere

115) What is the mass of a "cube of air" with the edges 1 m long, at MSL according ISA?
(a) 0,1225 kg
(b) 12,25 kg
(c) 1,225 kg
(d) 0,01225 kg

116) At what rate does the temperature change with increasing height according to ISA
(ICAO Standard Atmosphere) within the troposphere?
(a) Increases by 2° C / 100 m
(b) Decreases by 2° C / 1000 ft
(c) Decreases by 2° C / 100 m
(d) Increases by 2° C / 1000 ft

117) What is the mean height of the tropopause according to ISA

(ICAO Standard Atmosphere)?
(a) 11000 m
(b) 11000 ft
(c) 18000 ft
(d) 36000 m

118) The term "tropopause" is defined as...

(a) the boundary area between the troposphere and the stratosphere.
(b) the boundary area between the mesosphere and the stratosphere.
(c) the height above which the temperature starts to decrease.
(d) the layer above the troposphere showing an increasing temperature.

119) Temperatures will be given by meteorological aviation services in Europe in which unit?
(a) Gpdam
(b) Degrees Fahrenheit
(c) Degrees Centigrade (° C)
(d) Kelvin

120) What is meant by "inversion layer"?

(a) An atmospheric layer where temperature decreases with increasing height
(b) A boundary area between two other layers within the atmosphere
(c) An atmospheric layer with constant temperature with increasing height
(d) An atmospheric layer where temperature increases with increasing height

121) What is meant by "isothermal layer"?

(a) An atmospheric layer with constant temperature with increasing height
(b) An atmospheric layer where temperature decreases with increasing height
(c) An atmospheric layer where temperature increases with increasing height
(d) A boundary area between two other layers within the atmosphere

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 122) The temperature lapse rate with increasing height within the troposphere according ISA
is...
(a) 0,65° C / 100 m.
(b) 3° C / 100 m.
(c) 1° C / 100 m.
(d) 0,6° C / 100 m.

123) Which process may result in an inversion layer at about 5000 ft (1500 m) height?
(a) Widespread descending air within a high pressure area
(b) Advection of cool air in the upper troposphere
(c) Intensive sunlight insolation during a warm summer day
(d) Ground cooling by radiation during the night

124) An inversion layer close to the ground can be caused by...

(a) thickening of clouds in medium layers.
(b) intensifying and gusting winds.
(c) large-scale lifting of air.
(d) ground cooling during the night.

125) What is the ISA standard pressure at FL 180 (5500 m)? (This is something you need to know as a
fact)
(a) 250 hPa
(b) 300 hPa
(c) 1013.25 hPa
(d) 500 hPa

126) The pressure which is measured at a ground station and reduced to mean sea level (MSL)
by means of the actual atmospheric conditions is called...
(a) QFE.
(b) QNH.
(c) QNE.
(d) QFF.

127) How do air density and flight performance change with decreasing temperature (at
constant pressure)?
(a) Air density increases, flight performance decreases
(b) Air density increases, flight performance increases
(c) Air density decreases, flight performance decreases
(d) Air density decreases, flight performance increases

128) Which processes result in decreasing air density?

(a) Decreasing temperature, increasing pressure
(b) Increasing temperature, increasing pressure
(c) Decreasing temperature, decreasing pressure
(d) Increasing temperature, decreasing pressure

129) The pressure at MSL in ISA conditions is...

(a) 113.25 hPa.
(b) 1123 hPa.
(c) 1013.25 hPa.
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(d) 15 hPa.

130) The height of the tropopause of the International Standard Atmosphere (ISA) is at...
(a) 36000 ft.
(b) 5500 ft.
(c) 11000 ft.
(d) 48000 ft.

131) The barometric altimeter indicates height above...

(a) mean sea level.
(b) ground.
(c) a selected reference pressure level.
(d) standard pressure 1013.25 hPa.

132) The altimeter can be checked on the ground by setting...

(a) QFE and comparing the indication with the airfield elevation.
(b) QFF and comparing the indication with the airfield elevation.
(c) QNE and checking that the indication shows zero on the ground.
(d) QNH and comparing the indication with the airfield elevation.

133) The barometric altimeter with QFE setting indicates...

(a) height above MSL.
(b) true altitude above MSL.
(c) height above standard pressure 1013.25 hPa.
(d) height above the pressure level at airfield elevation.

134) The barometric altimeter with QNH setting indicates...

(a) height above the pressure level at airfield elevation.
(b) height above MSL.
(c) true altitude above MSL.
(d) height above standard pressure 1013.25 hPa.

135) What would decrease the stability of an airmass?

(a) Cooling from below
(b) Decrease in water vapour
(c) Warming from below
(d) No effect

136) How can wind speed and wind direction be derived from surface weather charts?
(a) By alignment and distance of hypsometric lines
(b) By annotations from the text part of the chart
(c) By alignment of lines of warm- and cold fronts.
(d) By alignment and distance of isobaric lines

137) Which force causes "wind"?

(a) Centrifugal force
(b) Pressure gradient force
(c) Thermal force
(d) Coriolis force

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 138) Above the friction layer, with a prevailing pressure gradient, the wind direction is...
(a) parallel to the isobars.
(b) at an angle of 30° to the isobars towards low pressure.
(c) perpendicular to the isobars.
(d) perpendicular to the isohypses.

139) Which of the stated surfaces will reduce the wind speed most due to ground friction?
(a) Flat land, lots of vegetation cover
(b) Oceanic areas
(c) Mountainous areas, vegetation cover
(d) Flat land, deserted land, no vegetation

140) The movement of air flowing together is called...

(a) soncordence.
(b) divergence.
(c) subsidence.
(d) convergence.

141) The movement of air flowing apart is called...

(a) subsidence.
(b) divergence.
(c) convergence.
(d) concordence.

142) What weather development will result from convergence at ground level?
(a) Ascending air and cloud formation
(b) Ascending air and cloud dissipation
(c) Descending air and cloud dissipation
(d) Descending air and cloud formation

143) When air masses meet each other head on, how is this referred to and what air
movements will follow?
(a) Divergence resulting in air being lifted
(b) Convergence resulting in sinking air
(c) Convergence resulting in air being lifted
(d) Divergence resulting in sinking air

144) What are the air masses that Central Europe is mainly influenced by?
(a) Arctic and polar cold air
(b) Equatorial and tropical warm air
(c) Tropical and arctic cold air
(d) Polar cold air and tropical warm air

145) With regard to global circulation within the atmosphere, where does polar cold air
meets subtropical warm air?
(a) At the subtropical high pressure belt
(b) At the equator
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(c) At the polar front
(d) At the geographic poles

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146) Winds blowing uphill are defined as...
(a) subsident winds.
(b) anabatic winds.
(c) convergent winds.
(d) katabatic winds.

147) Winds blowing downhill are defined as…

(a) convergent winds.
(b) anabatic winds.
(c) katabatic winds.
(d) subsident winds.

148) Air descending behind a mountain range is defined as...

(a) convergent wind.
(b) divergent wind.
(c) anabatic wind.
(d) katabatic wind.

149) "Foehn" conditions usually develop with…

(a) instability, widespread air blown against a mountain ridge.
(b) stability, widespread air blown against a mountain ridge.
(c) stability, high pressure area with calm wind.
(d) instability, high pressure area with calm wind.

150) What type of turbulence is typically found close to the ground on the lee side during
Foehn conditions?
(a) Inversion turbulence
(b) Turbulence in rotors
(c) Thermal turbulence
(d) Clear-air turbulence (CAT)

151) Light turbulence always has to be expected...

(a) below cumulus clouds due to thermal convection.
(b) above cumulus clouds due to thermal convection.
(c) when entering inversions.
(d) below stratiform clouds in medium layers.

152) Moderate to severe turbulence has to be expected...

(a) below thick cloud layers on the windward side of a mountain range.
(b) on the lee side of a mountain range when rotor clouds are present.
(c) overhead unbroken cloud layers.
(d) with the appearance of extended low stratus clouds (high fog).

153) Which answer contains every state of water found in the atmosphere?
(a) Liquid and solid
(b) Liquid, solid, and gaseous
(c) Liquid
(d) Gaseous and liquid

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 154) How do dew point and relative humidity change with decreasing temperature?
(a) Dew point decreases, relative humidity increases
(b) Dew point remains constant, relative humidity decreases
(c) Dew point increases, relative humidity decreases
(d) Dew point remains constant, relative humidity increases

155) How do spread and relative humidity change with increasing temperature?
(a) Spread remains constant, relative humidity increases
(b) Spread remains constant, relative humidity decreases
(c) Spread increases, relative humidity increases
(d) Spread increases, relative humidity decreases

156) The "spread" is defined as...

(a) difference between dew point and condensation point.
(b) relation of actual to maximum possible humidity of air.
(c) maximum amount of water vapour that can be contained in air.
(d) difference between actual temperature and dew point.

157) With other factors remaining constant, decreasing temperature results in…
(a) decreasing spread and increasing relative humidity.
(b) increasing spread and decreasing relative humidity.
(c) decreasing spread and decreasing relative humidity.
(d) increasing spread and increasing relative humidity.

158) What process causes latent heat being released into the upper troposphere?
(a) Evaporation over widespread water areas
(b) Descending air across widespread areas
(c) Stabilisation of inflowing air masses
(d) Cloud forming due to condensation

159) The saturated adiabatic lapse rate is…

(a) equal to the dry adiabatic lapse rate.
(b) higher than the dry adiabatic lapse rate.
(c) proportional to the dry adiabatic lapse rate.
(d) lower than the dry adiabatic lapse rate.

160) The dry adiabatic lapse rate has a value of…

(a) 0,65° C / 100 m.
(b) 0,6° C / 100 m.
(c) 1,0° C / 100 m.
(d) 2° / 1000 ft.

161) The saturated adiabatic lapse rate should be assumed with a mean value of:
(a) 0° C / 100 m.
(b) 2° C / 1000 ft.
(c) 0,6° C / 100 m.
(d) 1,0° C / 100 m.

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 162) What weather conditions may be expected during conditionally unstable conditions?
(a) Towering cumulus, isolated showers of rain or thunderstorms
(b) Sky clear of clouds, sunshine, low winds
(c) Layered clouds up to high levels, prolonged rain or snow
(d) Shallow cumulus clouds with base at medium levels

163) Which conditions are likely for the formation of advection fog?
(a) Warm, humid air cools during a cloudy night
(b) Cold, humid air moves over a warm ocean
(c) Warm, humid air moves over a cold surface
(d) Humidity evaporates from warm, humid ground into cold air

164) Clouds are basically distinguished by what types?

(a) Cumulus and stratiform clouds
(b) Stratiform and ice clouds
(c) Thunderstorm and shower clouds
(d) Layered and lifted clouds

165) Clouds in high layers are referred to as...

(a) Strato-.
(b) Nimbo-.
(c) Cirro-.
(d) Alto-.

166) What weather phenomenon designated by "2" has to be expected on the lee side
during "Foehn" conditions?
(a) Altocumulus lenticularis
(b) Nimbostratus
(c) Altocumulus Castellanus
(d) Cumulonimbus

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167) What cloud type does the picture show?
(a) Stratus
(b) Cumulus
(c) Altus
(d) Cirrus

168) What cloud type does the picture show?

(a) Cumulus
(b) Altocumulus
(c) Cirrus
(d) Stratus

169) What factor may affect the top of cumulus clouds?

(a) The presence of an inversion layer
(b) The spread
(c) The absolute humidity
(d) Relative humidity

170) What factors may indicate a tendency to fog formation?

(a) Strong winds, decreasing temperature
(b) Low spread, decreasing temperature
(c) Low pressure, increasing temperature
(d) Low spread, increasing temperature

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171) What condition may prevent the formation of "radiation fog"?
(a) Clear night, no clouds
(b) Overcast cloud cover
(c) Low spread
(d) Calm wind

172) What process results in the formation of "advection fog"?

(a) Prolonged radiation during nights clear of clouds
(b) Cold, moist air mixes with warm, moist air
(c) Cold, moist air is being moved across warm ground areas
(d) Warm, moist air is moved across cold ground areas

173) What type of fog emerges if humid and almost saturated air, is forced to rise upslope of
hills or shallow mountains by the prevailing wind?
(a) Steaming fog
(b) Orographic fog
(c) Advection fog
(d) Radiation fog

174) What process results in the formation of "orographic fog" ("hill fog")?
(a) Evaporation from warm, moist ground area into very cold air
(b) Prolonged radiation during nights clear of clouds
(c) Warm, moist air is moved across a hill or a mountain range
(d) Cold, moist air mixes with warm, moist air

175) What situation is called "over-development" in a weather report?

(a) Development of a thermal low to a storm depression
(b) Widespreading of Cumulus clouds below an inversion layer
(c) Vertical development of Cumulus clouds to rain showers
(d) Change from blue thermals to cloudy thermals during the afternoon

176) What factors are required for the formation of precipitation in clouds?
(a) High humidity and high temperatures
(b) Moderate to strong updrafts
(c) The presence of an inversion layer
(d) Calm winds and intensive sunlight insolation

177) The formation of medium to large precipitation particles requires...

(a) strong updrafts.
(b) an inversion layer.
(c) strong wind.
(d) a high cloud base.

178) Which type of cloud is associated with prolonged rain?

(a) Altocumulus
(b) Cumulonimbus
(c) Cirrostratus
(d) Nimbostratus

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179) Regarding the type of cloud, precipitation is classified as...
(a) rain and showers of rain.
(b) light and heavy precipitation.
(c) showers of snow and rain.
(d) prolonged rain and continuous rain.

180) How is an air mass described when moving to Central Europe via the Russian
continent during winter?
(a) Maritime tropical air
(b) Continental tropical air
(c) Maritime polar air
(d) Continental polar air

181) The character of an air mass is given by what properties?

(a) Temperatures at origin and present region
(b) Wind speed and tropopause height
(c) Region of origin and track during movement
(d) Environmental lapse rate at origin

182) The front shown in the picture is a/an...

(a) cold front.
(b) front aloft.
(c) occlusion.
(d) warm front.

183) The front shown in the picture is a/an...

(a) front aloft.
(b) warm front.
(c) cold front.
(d) occlusion.

184) The front shown in the picture is a/an...

(a) occlusion.
(b) cold front.
(c) front aloft.
(d) warm front.

185) What cloud sequence can typically be observed during the passage of a warm front?
(a) Wind becoming calm, dissipation of clouds and warming during summer; formation of extended high
fog layers during winter
(b) Cirrus, thickening altostratus and altocumulus clouds, lowering cloud base with rain, nimbostratus
(c) In coastal areas during daytime wind from the coast and forming of cumulus clouds, dissipation of
clouds during evening and night
(d) Squall line with showers of rain and thunderstorms (Cb), gusting wind followed by cumulus clouds
with isolated showers of rain

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 186) What clouds and weather can typically be observed during the passage of a cold front?
(a) In coastal areas during daytime wind from the coast and forming of cumulus clouds, dissipation of
clouds during evening and night
(b) Cirrus, thickening altostratus and altocumulus clouds, lowering cloud base with rain, nimbostratus
(c) Wind becoming calm, dissipation of clouds and warming during summer; formation of extended high
fog layers during winter
(d) Strongly developed cumulus clouds (Cb) with showers of rain and thunderstorms, gusting wind
followed by cumulus clouds with isolated showers of rain

187) What visual flight conditions can be expected within the warm sector of a polar front low
during summer time?
(a) Visibilty less than 1000 m, cloud-covered ground
(b) Moderate to good visibility, scattered clouds
(c) Good visibility, some isolated high clouds
(d) Moderate visibility, heavy showers and thunderstorms

188) What visual flight conditions can be expected after the passage of a cold front?
(a) Poor visibility, formation of overcast or ground-covering stratus clouds, snow
(b) Good visiblity, formation of cumulus clouds with showers of rain or snow
(c) Scattered cloud layers, visbility more than 5 km, formation of shallow cumulus clouds
(d) Medium visibility with lowering cloud bases, onset of prolonged precipitation

189) An occlusion line is formed by succeeding...

(a) cold air and preceeding cold air.
(b) warm air and preceeding cold air.
(c) warm air and preceeding warm air.
(d) cold air and preceeding warm air.

190) A boundary between a cold polar air mass and a warm subtropical air mass showing no
horizontal displacement is called...
(a) warm front.
(b) stationary front.
(c) occluded front.
(d) cold front.

191) What is the usual direction of movement of a polar front low?

(a) To the northeast during winter, to the southeast during summer
(b) Parallel to the warm front line to the south
(c) Parallel to the the warm-sector isobars
(d) To the northwest during winter, to the southwest during summer

192) What pressure pattern can be observed during the passage of a polar front low?
(a) Falling pressure in front of the warm front, constant pressure within the warm sector, rising pressure
behind the cold front
(b) Rising pressure in front of the warm front, rising pressure within the warm sector, falling pressure
behind the cold front
(c) Falling pressure in front of the warm front, constant pressure within the warm sector, falling pressure
behind the cold front
(d) Rising pressure in front of the warm front, constant pressure within the warm sector, rising pressure
behind the cold front
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193) What pressure pattern can be observed when a cold front is passing?
(a) Continually decreasing pressure
(b) Shortly decreasing, thereafter increasing pressure
(c) Constant pressure pattern
(d) Continually increasing pressure

194) What change of wind direction can be expected during the passage of a polar front low
in Central Europe?
(a) Backing wind during passage of the warm front, backing wind during passage of the cold front
(b) Veering wind during passage of the warm front, backing wind during passage of the cold front
(c) Veering wind during passage of the warm front, veering wind during passage of the cold front
(d) Backing wind during passage of the warm front, veering wind during passage of the cold front

195) Extensive high pressure areas can be found throughout the year …
(a) over oceanic areas at latitudes around 30°N/S.
(b) in mid latitudes along the polar front
(c) in tropical areas, close to the equator.
(d) in areas showing extensive lifting processes.

196) What cloud type can typically be observed across widespread high pressure areas
during summer?
(a) Squall lines and thunderstorms
(b) Scattered Cu clouds
(c) Overcast Ns clouds
(d) Overcast low stratus

197) What pressure pattern may result from cold-air inflow in high tropospheric layers?
(a) Formation of a large ground low
(b) Formation of a high in the upper troposphere
(c) Formation of a low in the upper troposphere
(d) Alternating pressure

198) Cold air inflow in high tropospheric layers may result in...
(a) showers and thunderstorms.
(b) stabilisation and calm weather.
(c) frontal weather.
(d) calm weather and cloud dissipation.

199) How does inflowing cold air affect the shape and vertical distance between pressure
layers?
(a) Decrease in vertical distance, lowering in height (low pressure)
(b) Increase in vertical distance, lowering in height (low pressure)
(c) Decreasing vertical distance, raise in height (high pressure)
(d) Increasing vertical distance, raise in height (high pressure)

200) What weather phenomena have to be expected around an upper-level trough?

(a) Calm weather, formation of lifted fog layers
(b) Development of showers and thunderstorms (Cb)
(c) Formation of high stratus clouds, ground-covering cloud bases
(d) Calm wind, forming of shallow cumulus clouds
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 201) What frontal line divides subtropical air from polar cold air, in particular across
Central Europe?
(a) Occlusion
(b) Warm front
(c) Cold front
(d) Polar front

202) What weather conditions can be expected in high pressure areas during summer?
(a) Changing weather with passing of frontal lines
(b) Calm weather and cloud dissipation, few high Cu
(c) Squall lines and thunderstorms
(d) Calm winds and widespread areas with high fog

203) What weather conditions in Central Europe are typically found in high pressure areas
during summer?
(a) Small isobar spacing with strong prevailing northerly winds
(b) Large isobar spacing with strong prevailing westerly winds
(c) Large isobar spacing with calm winds, formation of local wind systems
(d) Small isobar spacing with calm winds, formation of local wind systems

204) What weather conditions can be expected in high pressure areas during winter?
(a) Squall lines and thunderstorms
(b) Changing weather with passing of frontal lines
(c) Calm weather and cloud dissipation, few high Cu
(d) Calm winds and widespread areas with high fog

205) What wind conditions can be expected in areas showing large distances between
isobars?
(a) Variable winds, formation of local wind systems
(b) Strong prevailing easterly winds with rapid backing
(c) Formation of local wind systems with strong prevailing westerly winds
(d) Strong prevailing westerly winds with rapid veering

206) What weather conditions can be expected during "Foehn" on the windward side of a
mountain range?
(a) Dissipating clouds with unusual warming, accompanied by strong, gusty winds
(b) Scattered cumulus clouds with showers and thunderstorms
(c) Layered clouds, mountains obscured, poor visibility, moderate or heavy rain
(d) Calm wind and forming of high stratus clouds (high fog)

207) Which of the stated wind phenomena will increase in speed since its path is narrowed by
mountains?
(a) Bora
(b) Mistral
(c) Passat
(d) Scirocco

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 208) What is the name of the the cold, katabatic wind phenomena blowing from northeast into
the Adriatic Sea?
(a) Passat
(b) Mistral
(c) Bora
(d) Scirocco

209) Which of the following conditions are most favourable for ice accretion?
(a) Temperaturs below 0° C, strong wind, sky clear of clouds
(b) Temperatures between +10° C and -30° C, presence of hail (clouds)
(c) Temperatures between 0° C and -12° C, presence of supercooled water droplets (clouds)
(d) Temperatures between -20° C and -40° C, presence of ice crystals (Ci clouds)

210) What temperatures are most dangerous with respect to airframe icing?
(a) +5° to -10° C
(b) +20° to -5° C
(c) 0° to -12° C
(d) -20° to -40° C

211) Which type of ice forms by very small water droplets and ice crystals hitting the front
surfaces of an aircraft?
(a) Rime ice
(b) Hoar frost
(c) Mixed ice
(d) Clear ice

212) Which type of ice forms by large, supercooled droplets hitting the front surfaces of an
aircraft?
(a) Mixed ice
(b) Rime ice
(c) Hoar frost
(d) Clear ice

213) What situation may result in the occurrence of severe wind shear?
(a) Cross-country flying below Cu clouds with about 4 octas coverage
(b) During final approach, 30 min after a heavy shower has passed the airfield
(c) When a shower is visible close to the airfield
(d) Flying ahead of a warm front with visible Ci clouds

214) What conditions are favourable for the formation of thunderstorms?

(a) Clear night over land, cold air and patches of fog
(b) Warm humid air, conditionally unstable environmental lapse rate
(c) Calm winds and cold air, overcast cloud cover with St or As.
(d) Warm and dry air, strong inversion layer

215) What conditions are mandatory for the formation of thermal thunderstorms?
(a) Absolutely stable atmosphere, high temperature and high humidity
(b) Conditionally unstable atmosphere, high temperature and high humidity
(c) Absolutely stable atmosphere, high temperature and low humidity
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(d) Conditionally unstable atmosphere, low temperature and low humidity
216) With regard to thunderstorms, strong up- and downdrafts appear during the...
(a) dissipating stage.
(b) mature stage.
(c) thunderstorm stage.
(d) initial stage.

217) Which stage of a thunderstorm is dominated by updrafts?

(a) Dissipating stage
(b) Upwind stage
(c) Cumulus stage
(d) Mature stage

218) What danger is most immenent when an aircraft is hit by lightning?

(a) Disturbed radio communication, static noise signals
(b) Explosion of electrical equipment in the cockpit
(c) Surface overheat and damage to exposed aircraft parts
(d) Rapid cabin depressurization and smoke in the cabin

219) Heavy downdrafts and strong wind shear close to the ground can be expected...
(a) during approach to an airfield at the coast with a strong sea breeze.
(b) during cold, clear nights with the formation of radiation fog.
(c) during warm summer days with high, flatted Cu clouds.
(d) near the rainfall areas of heavy showers or thunderstorms.

220) What phenomenon is caused by cold air downdrafts with precipitation from a fully
developed thunderstorm cloud?
(a) Electrical discharge
(b) Gust front
(c) Anvil-head top of Cb cloud
(d) Freezing Rain

221) What has to be considered when taking off in a ground inversion?

(a) During the climb, a sudden increase in speed and climb performance has to be expected
(b) During climb, a sudden decrease in speed and climb performance has to be expected
(c) Due to low temperatures close to the ground, icing has to be expected
(d) Climb should be performed with the lowest possible speed and maximum power

222) What clouds and weather may result from an humid and instable air mass, that is
pushed against a chain of mountains by the predominant wind and forced to rise?
(a) Overcast low stratus (high fog) with no precipitation.
(b) Smooth, unstructured NS cloud with light drizzle or snow (during winter).
(c) Embedded CB with thunderstorms and showers of hail and/or rain.
(d) Thin Altostratus and Cirrostratus clouds with light and steady precipitation.

223) What danger is most imminent during an approach to an airfield situated in a valley, with
strong wind aloft blowing perpendicular to the mountain ridge?
(a) Wind shear during descent, wind direction may change by 180°
(b) Heavy downdrafts within rainfall areas below thunderstorm clouds
(c) Reduced visibilty, maybe loss of sight to the airfield during final approach
215 EPA MT
(d) Formation of medium to heavy clear ice on all aircraft surfaces

224) What kind of reduction in visibility is not very sensitive to changes in temperature?
(a) Mist (BR)
(b) Patches of fog (BCFG)
(c) Haze (HZ)
(d) Radiation fog (FG)

225) Information about pressure patterns and frontal situation can be found in which chart?
(a) hypsometric chart.
(b) Significant Weather Chart (SWC).
(c) surface weather chart.
(d) wind chart.

226) Which weather chart shows the actual air pressure as in MSL along with pressure
centers and fronts?
(a) Hypsometric chart
(b) Surface weather chart
(c) Prognostic chart
(d) Wind chart

227) What observational technique allows the collection of temperature and dewpoint data
throughout the troposphere?
(a) Pressure soundings
(b) Satellite images
(c) Release of weather balloons
(d) Weather radar images

228) What information can be obtained from satallite images?

(a) Turbulence and icing
(b) Overview of cloud covers and front lines
(c) Flight visibility, ground visibility, and ground contact
(d) Temperature and dew point of environmental air

229) What chart shows areas of precipitation?

(a) Satellite picture
(b) GAFOR
(c) Wind chart
(d) Radar picture

230) What information is NOT found on Low-Level Significant Weather Charts (LLSWC)?
(a) Front lines and frontal displacements
(b) Radar echos of precipitation
(c) Information about icing conditions
(d) Information about turbulence areas

216 EPA MT
 231) Measured pressure distribution in MSL and corresponding frontal systems are
displayed by the...
(a) prognostic chart.
(b) hypsometric chart.
(c) Significant Weather Chart (SWC).
(d) surface weather chart.

232) In a METAR, "heavy rain" is designated by the identifier...

(a) +RA.
(b) +SHRA.
(c) SHRA.
(d) RA.

233) In a METAR, "(moderate) showers of rain" are designated by the identifier...

(a) TS.
(b) +TSRA.
(c) +RA.
(d) SHRA.

234) What information can be found in the ATIS, but not in a METAR?
(a) Information about current weather, for example types of precipitation
(b) Operational information such as runway in use and transition level
(c) Approach information, such as ground visibility and cloud base
(d) Information about mean wind speeds, maximum speeds in gusts if applicable

235) Weather and operational information about the destination aerodrome can be obtained during
the flight by...
(a) SIGMET.
(b) PIREP.
(c) VOLMET.
(d) ATIS.

236) SIGMET warnings are issued for...

(a) countries.
(b) airports.
(c) FIRs / UIRs.
(d) specific routings.

237) The ITCZ is affected by:

(a) the surface temperature over large landmasses
(b) the surface temperature and the altitude
(c) the altitude
(d) the lowest temperature at the surface

238) In July, the ITCZ moves to the __________ and in December, the ITCZ moves to the ______.
(a) west, south
(b) south; north
(c) north; south
(d) nowhere, as it does not move; nowhere, as it does not move.

217 EPA MT
239) Land ______ significantly more than the sea which ________ temperature.
(a) heats up/cools down; remains at the same
(b) does not cool down; remains at the same
(c) does not heat up; has higher
(d) cools down; has lower

240) Do ocean currents affect the surface temperature?

a) Yes
b) No
c) This depends on the altitude of the surface
d) Depending on the Hemisphere we are talking about

241) When the cold ocean currents are converging, what happens?
a) The ITCZ is not stabilized
b) The ITCZ is stabilized
c) The ITCZ is not affected
d) The ITCZ is going to lead to a tropical revolving storm (TRS)

242) What are the three cells in each Hemisphere?

a) Hadley, Ferrel, High
b) Hadley and Ferrel
c) Hadley, Ferrel and Polar
d) Hadley

243) Trade winds near the Equatorial belt blow from

a) NE from the NH and SE from the SH
b) NW from NH and SW from SH
c) SE from NH and NE from SH
d) SE from SH and SE from NH

244) For an aircraft, what are the meteorological dangers associated with a Harmattan wind?
a) Sand up to FL150
b) Thunderstorms
c) Dust and poor visibility
d) Hail

245) The Doldrums:

a) is another name for the sub-tropical anticylones
b) are cols between weak fronts encountered in low altitudes
c) are weak inter-tropical convergence zones
d) are associated with light and variable monsoon winds

246) State the location of the roaring forties

a) 40N
b) 40 – 50S
c) 30 – 40N
d) 0N/S

247) The Arctic front is the boundary between:

a) arctic air and tropical air
b) polar air and tropical air
c) cold polar air and less cold polar air
d) polar air and arctic air
218 EPA MT
248) The position of the polar front jet stream in July is:
a) approx. 60N
b) approx. 30N
c) approx. 80N
d) over the North polar area

249) Cloud Clusters are

a) areas of high pressure
b) deep convection and associated cirrus outflow
c) stationary fronts
d) cumulus clouds without vertical extent

250) Cold air outbreaks happens when

a) there is a shallow temperature gradient in the lower troposphere
b) there is a steep pressure gradient in the lower troposphere
c) there is a cold airmass
d) the relief is high and the pressure is low

251) Two examples of the cold air outbreaks are

a) Harmattan winds, and pamperos
b) Pamperos and blizzards
c) harmattan winds and monsoon
d) pamperos and frost

252) What is ‘Mixing Ratio’?

a) The number of grams of water vapour per kilogram of dry air
b) The ratio between actual water vapour content and saturated water vapour content
c) The percentage of water drops per volume unit of dry air
d) The volume of water vapour which is mixed with each volume unit of dry air

253) The saturation mixing ratio…

a) increases exponentially with temperature
b) increases linearly between 10 degrees and 25 degrees
c) increases up to 30 degrees Celsius
d) decreases with temperature

254) Relative humidity depends on:

a) temperature of the air only
b) pressure of the air only
c) moisture content of the air only
d) moisture content and temperature of the air

255) Relative Humidity:

a) is higher in cool air than in warm air
b) is higher in warm air than in cool air
c) increases if the air is cooled whilst maintaining the vapour pressure constant
d) decreases if the air is cooled whilst maintaining the vapour pressure constant

256) Warmer air:

a) does not rise/sink
b) rises
c) sinks
d) changes according to altitude
219 EPA MT
257) Cloud inversion mostly:
a) happens in summer in a low pressure area
b) happens in winter, in a high pressure (slack pressure gradient)
c) when there are huge vertical developments in the clouds nearby
d) when there is stationary fronts and low pressure areas

258) For steam fog to form, the following conditions are favourable:
a) cold airmass and strong wind
b) warm airmass and strong wind
c) cold airmass and no wind
d) warm airmass and no wind

259) State the vertical extent of steam fog:

a) 200ft to 500ft
b) 0ft to 200ft
c) 0ft to 2,500ft
d) 0f to 500ft

260) Steam fog occurs when:

a) warm air moving over cold water
b) cold air moving over warm water
c) the sea is warmed by strong radiation from the Sun
d) the coastal region of the sea cools at night

261) Air temperature is normally below freezing, and so this can lead to ______
a) Heating effect
b) Supersaturation
c) No icing effects
d) Melting

262) The Bergeron-Findeisen theory:

a) explains the formation and growth of snowflakes
b) explains the formation of hailstones in Cumulus clouds
c) explains the formation of raindrops in cloud where the temperature is above freezing
d) presumes that at high levels in a cloud, some water droplets turn to ice and grow by sublimation

263) Which of the following statements are correct or incorrect?

1) The collision and coalescence of droplets is important in mixed phase clouds
2) The coalescence process in the mid-latitudes produces thunderstorms and heavy rain
a) correct; incorrect
b) incorrect; correct
c) correct; correct
d) incorrect; incorrect

264) Hail is most commonly associated with ______ clouds. The hail stones grow by collision
with _________ and _____.
a) CB; raindrops; snow
b) NB; raindrops; soft hail
c) CB; supercooled water droplets; soft hail
d) CB: supercooled water droplets; sublimation

220 EPA MT
265) Stationary fronts forms when:
a) either the cold/warm front stops moving
b) neither front stops moving
c) the warm front overtakes the cold front
d) the cold front undertakes the warm front

266) A frontal wave:

a) runs along the warm front and slows its progress
b) runs along a cold front and slows its clearance
c) does not exist under the tropopause
d) runs along a stratiform cloud and it helps diminish its vertical extent

267) The air close to the equator ______ and travels ______ and then _____ close to the Tropics
of Cancer/Capricorn to form the ___________.
a) rises; equatorward; sinks; Ferrel Cell
b) rises; poleward; sinks; Hadley Cell
c) sinks; poleward; rises; Polar Cell
d) sinks; equatorward; rises; Hadley Cell

268) Close to the boundary of the ________ and the _________, there should be ______ air and a
_____ pressure area.
a) Hadley cell; Polar cell; diverging air; low pressure
b) Hadley cell; Ferrel cell; converging air; high pressure
c) Hadley cell; Ferrel cell; diverging air; high pressure
d) Ferrel cell; Polar cell; diverging air; low pressure

269) The Ferrel cell is called the _________ and presents a _______ link between the ______ and
the ________.
a) zone of mixing; strong; Hadley; Ferrel
b) zone of mixing; strong; Hadley; Polar
c) zone of ambiguity; weak; Hadley; Polar
d) zone of mixing; weak; Hadley; Polar

270) The Polar Cell is a ______ convection driver and observes rising air _______.
a) strong; poleward
b) weak; equatorward
c) strong; equatorward
d) weak; poleward

271) Why is it warmer at the tropics and equatorial regions than at the poles?
a) The inclination angle of the Earth causes a very small angle of incidence of the solar radiation in
polar regions
b) The rotation of Earth causes a slower speed closer to the poles
c) Due to the cold sea in polar regions
d) Due to the characteristics of the surface of the Earth

272) Tropics can include _______, ______ and ______.

a) arctic; savannas; rain forests
b) monsoon; rain forests; savannas
c) monsoon; rain forests; deserts
d) desert; rain forests; savanna

221 EPA MT
273) The subtropical zone (Zone B) will include areas which have ______, and _____ and there
are two sections, being ______ and ______ where we can find the subtropicals.
a) desert; steppe; sub-tropical; mid-latitude
b) tropical; desert; sub-tropical; mid-latitude
c) monsoon; desert; sub-tropical; mid-latitude
d) desert; steppe; land; sea

274) How is the Mediterranean climate best described?

a) Depressions due to the polar front affecting the weather throughout the whole year
b) Anticyclonic and warm the whole year
c) Cyclonic and chilly in summers, frontal depressions in winter
d) Anticyclonic and hot in summers, frontal depressions in winter

275) With regard to temperature, which of the following is correct for the polar climates?
a) The mean temperature of all months is below 10 degrees Celsius
b) The mean temperature of all months is below minus 10 degrees Celsius
c) The mean temperature of all months is above 0 degrees, but temperatures as high as plus 10
degrees Celsius will never be reached
d) The mean temperature of the warmest month is 10 degrees Celsius, or above, and of the coldest
month below minus 3 degrees Celsius.

276) What are the typical weather conditions in a westerly situation?

a) Frequent thunderstorms during winter
b) Very changeable
c) Fine weather with strong westerly winds
d) Steady rainfall

277) In a westerly situation, the mean time interval between polar frontal waves in Western
Europe is:
a) three to four days
b) one to two days
c) six to twelve hours
d) twelve to eighteen hours

278) With a flat pressure pattern and no thunderstorms around, what will be the indication of the
aneroid altimeter of an aircraft parked on the ground do over a period of about ten minutes?
a) Apparently nothing, because any changes would be small
b) Increase rapidly
c) Show strong fluctuations
d) Decrease rapidly

279) What are the typical weather conditions in an area with a flat pressure pattern in Summer?
a) Steady rainfall
b) Fine weather with strong easterly winds
c) Only short term weather improvements
d) Generally fine weather, possibly thunderstorms in the afternoon or evening

222 EPA MT
280) Before a planned take off, wind shear is forecast. What is the most advisable course of
action?
a) Select a lower climb speed
b) Reduce take off thrust
c) Delay the take off
d) Initially climb at a shallow angle

281) The most dangerous low level wind shear can be typically encountered:
a) when strong ground inversions are present or near thunderstorms
b) in areas of layered clouds and wind speeds higher than 35kts
c) during any period when wind speeds are greater than 35kts and near valleys
d) near valleys and the windward side of mountains

282) How often is a wind shear report updated? Every…

a) 1 minute
b) 15 minutes
c) 1 second
d) 1 hour

283) During a landing approach, the aircraft is subjected to windshear, with a decreasing
tailwind. In the absence of pilot action, the aircraft will:
1) fly above the glide path
2) fly below the glide path
3) observe an increase in TAS
4) observe a decrease in TAS

a) 2, 4
b) 1, 4
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 3

284) Where does wind shear occur?

a) At any level in the atmosphere if associated with either a change of wind direction and/or wind
speeds
b) Wind shear of any significance occurs only in connections with jet streams
c) Wind shear occurs primarily at lower altitude in the vicinity of mountain waves
d) Wind shear occurs only when there is a strong temperature inversion, or when the jet stream is
associated with a strong depression

285) One of the main characteristics of wind shear is that it:

a) occurs only at a low altitude (2,000ft) and never in the vertical plane
b) occurs only at a low altitude (2000ft) and never in the horizontal plane
c) can occur at any altitude both in the vertical and horizontal planes
d) can occur at any altitude and only in the horizontal plane

286) During a landing approach, the aircraft is subjected to windshear, with a decreasing
headwind. In the absence of pilot action, the aircraft will:
1) fly above the glide path
2) fly below the glide path
3) observe an increase in TAS
4) observe a decrease in TAS

223 EPA MT
a) 2, 4
b) 1, 4
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 3

287) In which of the following areas is the highest frequency of thunderstorms encountered?
a) subtropical
b) temperate
c) tropical
d) polar

288) Which one of the following can provide the initial lifting leading to air mass thunderstorms?
a) Advection of cold air over a warm sea
b) Mountain waves
c) Advection of warm air over a cold sea
d) Low level wind shear

289) In which stage of the life cycle of a single thunderstorm cell occur both up and down
draughts simultaneously?
a) Disspiating stage
b) Initial stage
c) Mature stage
d) In all stages

290) A pilot observes thunderstorm activity and severe icing along his/her flight path. Therefore,
he flies a pilot report. What does it lead to?
a) It lends to an issuance of a SIGMET
b) It leads to an issuance of a METAR
c) An amended General Aviation Forecast will be issued
d) No action will be taken

291) What are squall lines?

a) Unusual intensive cold fronts
b) Bands of intensive thunderstorms
c) The surface weather associated with upper air troughs
d) The paths of tropical revolving storms

292) A squall line usually is most likely to be encountered:

a) in an airmass with cold mass properties
b) behind a stationary front
c) ahead a cold front
d) at an occluded front

224 EPA MT
293) Which of the following ICAO chart symbols represents a severe squall line?

a) 2
b) 4
c) 1
d) 3

294) A dry, sand- and dust-laden northeasterly wind that blows in winter over large parts of
northwest Africa is known as a:
a) Scirocco
b) Harmattan
c) Pampero
d) Khamsin

295) When flying visually, avoid thunderstorms by:

a) 10NM
b) 20NM
c) 3NM
d) 5NM

296) With weather radar and flying at 28,000ft, avoid the echoes by
a) 20NM
b) 15NM
c) 5NM
d) 10NM

297) What are the images of satellites provided daily by the Weather Service used for?
a) To locate fronts in areas with few observation stations
b) To measure wind currents on the ground
c) To help provide 14-day forecasts
d) To locate precipitation zones

298) Which meteorological satellites are closer to Earth, polar orbiting or geostationary
satellites?
a) Polar orbiting satellites are closer to Earth than geostationary satellites
b) Geostationary satellites are closer to the Earth than polar orbiting satellites
c) Geostationary and polar orbiting satellites are approximately at the same distance above the Earth
d) Depending on the season, the distance of both systems varies. Sometimes, geostationary satellites
are closer to the Earth, sometimes polar orbiting satellites are closer to Earth.

225 EPA MT
299) ___________ is a good indicator and the ____ will help provide accurate indications on the
airborne radar.
a) Cloud size; phases
b) Droplet size; Doppler shift
c) Droplet size; Amplitude
d) Cloud size; Amplitude

300) What is the best way in dealing with thunderstorms associated with a cold front?
a) Avoidance of embedded CBs by using airborne weather radar (AWR)
b) Flying through the front with maximum speed and perpendicular to the front line in order to minimize
the time of hazardous exposure
c) Flying through the upper third of clouds to prevent the aircraft from being stuck by lightning
d) Flying underneath the cloud base in all clouds.

301) Which of the following statements concerning the use of the AWR in the vinicity of
thunderstorms is true?
a) The antenna tilt shall be adjusted in order to receive the most significant echoes (generally received
from an altitude of approximately 30,000ft)
b) Accurate assessment of the weather ahead of the aircraft might be hampered due to the attenuation
of the radar echoes by heavy rain
c) The radar reflectivity echoes are much more determined by the number of reflecting particles than by
the particle size
d) The most significant echoes will be received due to lightning discharges near the freezing levels

302) The image on a modern airborne weather radar (AWR) shows a hook shape. What can be
concluded?
a) The image indicates the presence of a jet stream
b) The cloud is approaching with a light wind
c) This is the anvil of a CB without an indication of turbulence
d) The image is a hint to the presence of a severe storm

303) Which of the following signals on the AWR should a pilot be worried about?
a) Hook, Finger, U-Shape, Scalloped Edges
b) Oval, Finger, Scalloped Edges
c) Thunder, Finger, Scalloped Edges, U-Shape
d) Hook, Finger, Dot

304) What is true about a routine air report and special air report?
a) Information for routine air reports is gathered from radiosondes and information for special air reports
is gathered from pilots (observation from pilots)
b) An AIREP reports significant weather phenomenon and a PIREP reports less significant weather
phenomenon
c) PIREPs and AIREPs are routine air reports and both can be special air reports if certain
circumstances are met
d) An AIREP is a routine air report and a PIREP is a special air report

305) What are the normal and official sources of meteorological information for an aircraft in
flight?
a) VOLMET broadcast; ATIS; and from the ATS-units the TWR only
b) VOLMET broadcast; ATIS; and from the ATS-units the FIC only
c) VOLMET broadcast; ATIS; all ATS-units
d) VOLMET broadcast; ATIS; and from the ATS-units the TWR, APP and FIC only
226 EPA MT
306) Which statement about VHF-VOLMET messages and HF-VOLMET messages is correct?
a) VHF-VOLMET is used for regional coverage wheras HF-VOLMET is used for international coverage
b) VHF-VOLMET is used for long distances, HF-VOLMET is used for short distances
c) VHF-VOLMET and HF-VOLMET share the same contents, only range is difference
d) VHF-VOLMET is used by general aviation and HF-VOLMET is used by international airlines

227 EPA MT
 1 A B C D 2 A B C D 3 A B C D
4 A B C D 5 A B C D 6 A B C D
7 A B C D 8 A B C D 9 A B C D
10 A B C D 11 A B C D 12 A B C D
13 A B C D 14 A B C D 15 A B C D
16 A B C D 17 A B C D 18 A B C D
19 A B C D 20 A B C D 21 A B C D
22 A B C D 23 A B C D 24 A B C D
25 A B C D 26 A B C D 27 A B C D
28 A B C D 29 A B C D 30 A B C D
31 A B C D 32 A B C D 33 A B C D
34 A B C D 35 A B C D 36 A B C D
37 A B C D 38 A B C D 39 A B C D
40 A B C D 41 A B C D 42 A B C D
43 A B C D 44 A B C D 45 A B C D
46 A B C D 47 A B C D 48 A B C D
49 A B C D 50 A B C D 51 A B C D
52 A B C D 53 A B C D 54 A B C D
55 A B C D 56 A B C D 57 A B C D
58 A B C D 59 A B C D 60 A B C D
61 A B C D 62 A B C D 63 A B C D
64 A B C D 65 A B C D 66 A B C D
67 A B C D 68 A B C D 69 A B C D
70 A B C D 71 A B C D 72 A B C D
73 A B C D 74 A B C D 75 A B C D
76 A B C D 77 A B C D 78 A B C D
79 A B C D 80 A B C D 81 A B C D
82 A B C D 83 A B C D 84 A B C D
85 A B C D 86 A B C D 87 A B C D
88 A B C D 89 A B C D 90 A B C D
91 A B C D 92 A B C D 93 A B C D
94 A B C D 95 A B C D 96 A B C D
97 A B C D 98 A B C D 99 A B C D
100 A B C D 101 A B C D 102 A B C D
103 A B C D 104 A B C D 105 A B C D
106 A B C D 107 A B C D 108 A B C D
109 A B C D 110 A B C D 111 A B C D
112 A B C D 113 A B C D 114 A B C D
115 A B C D 116 A B C D 117 A B C D
118 A B C D 119 A B C D 120 A B C D
121 A B C D 122 A B C D 123 A B C D
124 A B C D 125 A B C D 126 A B C D
127 A B C D 128 A B C D 129 A B C D
130 A B C D 131 A B C D 132 A B C D
133 A B C D 134 A B C D 135 A B C D
136 A B C D 137 A B C D 138 A B C D
139 A B C D 140 A B C D 141 A B C D
142 A B C D 143 A B C D 144 A B C D

228 EPA MT
145 A B C D 146 A B C D 147 A B C D
148 A B C D 149 A B C D 150 A B C D
151 A B C D 152 A B C D 153 A B C D
154 A B C D 155 A B C D 156 A B C D
157 A B C D 158 A B C D 159 A B C D
160 A B C D 161 A B C D 162 A B C D
163 A B C D 164 A B C D 165 A B C D
166 A B C D 167 A B C D 168 A B C D
169 A B C D 170 A B C D 171 A B C D
172 A B C D 173 A B C D 174 A B C D
175 A B C D 176 A B C D 177 A B C D
178 A B C D 179 A B C D 180 A B C D
181 A B C D 182 A B C D 183 A B C D
184 A B C D 185 A B C D 186 A B C D
187 A B C D 188 A B C D 189 A B C D
190 A B C D 191 A B C D 192 A B C D
193 A B C D 194 A B C D 195 A B C D
196 A B C D 197 A B C D 198 A B C D
199 A B C D 200 A B C D 201 A B C D
202 A B C D 203 A B C D 204 A B C D
205 A B C D 206 A B C D 207 A B C D
208 A B C D 209 A B C D 210 A B C D
211 A B C D 212 A B C D 213 A B C D
214 A B C D 215 A B C D 216 A B C D
217 A B C D 218 A B C D 219 A B C D
220 A B C D 221 A B C D 222 A B C D
223 A B C D 224 A B C D 225 A B C D
226 A B C D 227 A B C D 228 A B C D
229 A B C D 230 A B C D 231 A B C D
232 A B C D 233 A B C D 234 A B C D
235 A B C D 236 A B C D 237 A B C D
238 A B C D 239 A B C D 240 A B C D
241 A B C D 242 A B C D 243 A B C D
244 A B C D 245 A B C D 246 A B C D
247 A B C D 248 A B C D 249 A B C D
250 A B C D 251 A B C D 252 A B C D
253 A B C D 254 A B C D 255 A B C D
256 A B C D 257 A B C D 258 A B C D
259 A B C D 260 A B C D 261 A B C D
262 A B C D 263 A B C D 264 A B C D
265 A B C D 266 A B C D 267 A B C D
268 A B C D 269 A B C D 270 A B C D
271 A B C D 272 A B C D 273 A B C D
274 A B C D 275 A B C D 276 A B C D
277 A B C D 278 A B C D 279 A B C D
280 A B C D 281 A B C D 282 A B C D
283 A B C D 284 A B C D 285 A B C D
286 A B C D 287 A B C D 288 A B C D
289 A B C D 290 A B C D 291 A B C D
292 A B C D 293 A B C D 294 A B C D
295 A B C D 296 A B C D 297 A B C D
298 A B C D 299 A B C D 300 A B C D
301 A B C D 302 A B C D 303 A B C D
304 A B C D 305 A B C D 306 A B C D

229 EPA MT
 1 A B C D 2 A B C D 3 A B C D
4 A B C D 5 A B C D 6 A B C D
7 A B C D 8 A B C D 9 A B C D
10 A B C D 11 A B C D 12 A B C D
13 A B C D 14 A B C D 15 A B C D
16 A B C D 17 A B C D 18 A B C D
19 A B C D 20 A B C D 21 A B C D
22 A B C D 23 A B C D 24 A B C D
25 A B C D 26 A B C D 27 A B C D
28 A B C D 29 A B C D 30 A B C D
31 A B C D 32 A B C D 33 A B C D
34 A B C D 35 A B C D 36 A B C D
37 A B C D 38 A B C D 39 A B C D
40 A B C D 41 A B C D 42 A B C D
43 A B C D 44 A B C D 45 A B C D
46 A B C D 47 A B C D 48 A B C D
49 A B C D 50 A B C D 51 A B C D
52 A B C D 53 A B C D 54 A B C D
55 A B C D 56 A B C D 57 A B C D
58 A B C D 59 A B C D 60 A B C D
61 A B C D 62 A B C D 63 A B C D
64 A B C D 65 A B C D 66 A B C D
67 A B C D 68 A B C D 69 A B C D
70 A B C D 71 A B C D 72 A B C D
73 A B C D 74 A B C D 75 A B C D
76 A B C D 77 A B C D 78 A B C D
79 A B C D 80 A B C D 81 A B C D
82 A B C D 83 A B C D 84 A B C D
85 A B C D 86 A B C D 87 A B C D
88 A B C D 89 A B C D 90 A B C D
91 A B C D 92 A B C D 93 A B C D
94 A B C D 95 A B C D 96 A B C D
97 A B C D 98 A B C D 99 A B C D
100 A B C D 101 A B C D 102 A B C D
103 A B C D 104 A B C D 105 A B C D
106 A B C D 107 A B C D 108 A B C D
109 A B C D 110 A B C D 111 A B C D
112 A B C D 113 A B C D 114 A B C D
115 A B C D 116 A B C D 117 A B C D
118 A B C D 119 A B C D 120 A B C D
121 A B C D 122 A B C D 123 A B C D
124 A B C D 125 A B C D 126 A B C D
127 A B C D 128 A B C D 129 A B C D
130 A B C D 131 A B C D 132 A B C D
133 A B C D 134 A B C D 135 A B C D
136 A B C D 137 A B C D 138 A B C D
139 A B C D 140 A B C D 141 A B C D
142 A B C D 143 A B C D 144 A B C D

230 EPA MT
145 A B C D 146 A B C D 147 A B C D
148 A B C D 149 A B C D 150 A B C D
151 A B C D 152 A B C D 153 A B C D
154 A B C D 155 A B C D 156 A B C D
157 A B C D 158 A B C D 159 A B C D
160 A B C D 161 A B C D 162 A B C D
163 A B C D 164 A B C D 165 A B C D
166 A B C D 167 A B C D 168 A B C D
169 A B C D 170 A B C D 171 A B C D
172 A B C D 173 A B C D 174 A B C D
175 A B C D 176 A B C D 177 A B C D
178 A B C D 179 A B C D 180 A B C D
181 A B C D 182 A B C D 183 A B C D
184 A B C D 185 A B C D 186 A B C D
187 A B C D 188 A B C D 189 A B C D
190 A B C D 191 A B C D 192 A B C D
193 A B C D 194 A B C D 195 A B C D
196 A B C D 197 A B C D 198 A B C D
199 A B C D 200 A B C D 201 A B C D
202 A B C D 203 A B C D 204 A B C D
205 A B C D 206 A B C D 207 A B C D
208 A B C D 209 A B C D 210 A B C D
211 A B C D 212 A B C D 213 A B C D
214 A B C D 215 A B C D 216 A B C D
217 A B C D 218 A B C D 219 A B C D
220 A B C D 221 A B C D 222 A B C D
223 A B C D 224 A B C D 225 A B C D
226 A B C D 227 A B C D 228 A B C D
229 A B C D 230 A B C D 231 A B C D
232 A B C D 233 A B C D 234 A B C D
235 A B C D 236 A B C D 237 A B C D
238 A B C D 239 A B C D 240 A B C D
241 A B C D 242 A B C D 243 A B C D
244 A B C D 245 A B C D 246 A B C D
247 A B C D 248 A B C D 249 A B C D
250 A B C D 251 A B C D 252 A B C D
253 A B C D 254 A B C D 255 A B C D
256 A B C D 257 A B C D 258 A B C D
259 A B C D 260 A B C D 261 A B C D
262 A B C D 263 A B C D 264 A B C D
265 A B C D 266 A B C D 267 A B C D
268 A B C D 269 A B C D 270 A B C D
271 A B C D 272 A B C D 273 A B C D
274 A B C D 275 A B C D 276 A B C D
277 A B C D 278 A B C D 279 A B C D
280 A B C D 281 A B C D 282 A B C D
283 A B C D 284 A B C D 285 A B C D
286 A B C D 287 A B C D 288 A B C D
289 A B C D 290 A B C D 291 A B C D
292 A B C D 293 A B C D 294 A B C D
295 A B C D 296 A B C D 297 A B C D
298 A B C D 299 A B C D 300 A B C D
301 A B C D 302 A B C D 303 A B C D
304 A B C D 305 A B C D 306 A B C D

231 EPA MT
 PRINACIPLES OF FLIGHT
The actual examination paper consists of 12 questions, each with a multiple
choice of four answers A, B, C or D. The candidate should indicate the chosen
answer by placing a cross in the appropriate box on the answer paper provided.
Time allowed 30 minutes.
The pass mark is 75%, so the minimum number of questions that must be
answered correctly to obtain a pass is 9. Marks are not deducted for incorrect
answers.

232 EPA MT
1) The presence of water vapour
(a) In air will Increase its density
(b) In the atmosphere will increase the power output of a piston engine
(c) in the atmosphere will increase the amount of Lift generated by an aircraft.
(d) In air will reduce its density

2) On a given day the actual outside air temperature at 4000ft is 23 degrees Celsius what is the
approximate difference between the actual and ISA :
(a) 15 degrees Celsius
(b) 18 degrees Celsius
(c) 16 degrees Celsius
(d) -8 degrees Celsius

3) The air over the wings upper surface in straight and Level flight when Compared with the
airflow that is unaffected by the wing will have :
(a) Higher velocity
(b) Higher density
(c) A reduced velocity
(d) The same velocity

4) What must be the relationship between the forces acting on an aircraft in flight for that aircraft
to be in a state of equilibrium :
(a) Lift must equal drag and thrust must equal weight
(b) Lift equal weight and thrust must equal drag
(c) Lift must equal thrust plus drag
(d) Lift must equal thrust and weight must equal drag

5) A moving mass of air possesses kinetic energy An object placed in the path of such a
moving mass of air will be subject to :
(a) Static pressure and dynamic pressure
(b) Static pressure
(c) Dynamic pressure
(d) Dynamic pressure minus static pressure

6) The smooth flow of air where each molecule follows the path of the preceding molecule is a
definition of :
(a) Laminar flow
(b) Turbulent flow
(c) Free stream flow
(d) Wind

7) Relative airflow is _________ and___________ the movement of the aircraft.

(a) Perpendicular opposite to
(b) Parallel to opposite to
(c) Perpendicular in the same direction as
(d) Parallel to in the same direction as

8) Boundary Layer consists of

(a) Laminar flow
(b) Turbulent flow
(c) Laminar and turbulent flow
(d) Turbulent flow at low speeds only

233 EPA MT
9) An aircraft has a nose down pitching moment due to the Lift/Weight couple and a nose up
pitching moment due to the thrust/drag couple When power is increased
(a) It will pitch nose up
(b) It will pitch nose down
(c) The couples both increase in magnitude but remain balanced
(d) The couples both decrease in magnitude but remain balanced

10) If the velocity of an air mass is increased:

(a) The dynamic pressure will decrease and the static pressure will increase
(b) The static pressure will remain constant and the kinetic energy will increase
(c) The kinetic energy will increase the dynamic pressure will increase and the static pressure will
decrease.
(d) The mass flow wll stay constant the dynamic pressure will decrease and the static pressure will
increase

11) An aircraft rotates about

(a) Its wings
(b) Its centre of gravity
(c) Its main undercarriage
(d) Its rudder

12) As airspeed increases induced drag ______ parasite drag ________ and total drag
___________.
(a) Increases Increases Increases
(b) Increases Decreases increases then decreases
(c) Decreases Increases Decreases then increases
(d) Decreases increases remains the same

13) The maximum value of the Coefficient of Lift is found

(a) At negative angles of attack
(b) At the stalling angle of attack
(c) When Thrust equals drag
(d) During steep turns

14) At a given Indicated Air Speed what effect will an increase in air density have on Lift and
drag
(a) Lift will increase but drag will decrease
(b) Lift and drag will increase
(c) Lift and drag will decrease
(d) Lift and drag will remain the same

15) At a constant angle of attack, a decrease in the airspeed of an aircraft will result in
(a) A decrease in lift and drag
(b) An increase in Lift and a decrease in drag
(c) An increase n drag and a decrease in lift.
(d) Possible increases or decreases in Lift or drag depending on the actual speed

16) If in level flight the airspeed decreases below that for maximum Lift/Drag the effect will be
that
(a) Drag increases because of increased induced drag
(b) Drag decreases because of Lower induced drag
(c) Drag increases because of increased parasite drag
(d) Drag decreases because of Lower parasite drag
234 EPA MT
17) As indicated Air Speed (IAS) is reduced in order to maintain altitude the pilot must :
(a) Increase the angle of attack to maintain the correct lift force
(b) Decrease the angle of attack to reduce the drag
(c) Deploy the speed brakes to increase drag
(d) Reduce the thrust

18) The maximum value of the coefficient of lift is found at an angle of attack of approximately
(a) Minus 4 degrees
(b) 0 degrees
(c) 4 to 6 degrees
(d) 16 degrees

19) The definition of lift is

(a) The aerodynamic force which acts perpendicular to the chord line of the aerofoil
(b) The aerodynamic force that results from the pressure differentials about an aerofoil
(c) The aerodynamic force which acts perpendicular to the upper surface of the aerofoil
(d) The aerodynamic force which acts parallel to the chord line.

20) A wing which is inclined downwards from root to tip is said to have
(a) Washout
(b) Taper
(c) Sweep
(d) Anhedral

21) Lowering the flaps during a landing approach

(a) Permits approaches at a higher indicated airspeed
(b) Decreases the angle of descent without increasing power
(c) Eliminates floating
(d) Increases the angle of descent without increasing the airspeed

22) A pilot lowers the flaps while keeping the airspeed constant. in order to maintain level flight
the angle of attack
(a) Must be reduced
(b) Must be increased
(c) Must be kept constant but power must be increased
(d) Must be kept constant and power required will be constant

23) An aft Centre of gravity will give

(a) Increased longitudinal stability
(b) Heavy forces for control movements
(c) Increased elevator effectiveness when flaring
(d) Longer take off distances

24) The maximum gliding distance from 6000 feet, for an aircraft in clean configuration with a
Lift/ drag ratio of 8:1 is approximately 8 nautical miles. If landing flaps are deployed
(a) The maximum gliding distance will increase
(b) The maximum gliding distance will be Less
(c) Lift/Drag ratio will be unaffected but will be achieved at a Lower airspeed
(d) The maximum gilding distance will be unaffected

235 EPA MT
25) With a forward Centre of Gravity an aircraft will have
(a) Reduced longitudinal stability
(b) Lighter forces for control movements
(c) Decreased forces for control movements
(d) Decreased elevator effectiveness when fairing

26) With the flaps lowered the stalling speed will

(a) Increase
(b) Decrease
(c) Increase but occur at a higher angle of aack
(d) Remain the same

27) Fixed trim tabs on ailerons

(a) Can be adjusted during flight
(b) Should never be adjusted
(c) Can be adjusted an the ground after a test flight to make level flight easier
(d) Can be adjusted on the ground after a test flight to make turning easier

28) The purpose of aerodynamic balance on a flying control surface is

(a) To bring the aircraft into balance
(b) To prevent flutter of the flying control suace
(c) To reduce the control Load to zero
(d) To make it easier for the pilot to move the control suace in flight

29) If the Control Column is moved to the right a balance tab On the left aileron Should :
(a) Move up relative to the aileron
(b) Move down relative to the aileron
(c) Not move unless the aileron trim wheel is turned
(d) Move to the neutral position

30) The purpose of a trim tab is

(a) To assist the pilot in initiating movement of the controls
(b) To zero the load on the pilots controls in the flight attitude required
(c) To provide feel to the controls at high speed
(d) To increase the effectiveness of the controls

31) The purpose of an antibalance tab is to

(a) Trim the aircraft
(b) Reduce the load required to move the controls at all speeds
(c) Reduce the load required to move the controls at high speeds only
(d) Ensure that the pilots physical control load increases with increase of control surface deflection

32) Washout is incorporated into wing design so that the

(a) Wing tip has a greater angle of attack than the wing root
(b) Wing tip has a greater angle of incidence than the wing root
(c) Wing tip will stall before the wing root
(d) Wing root will stall before the wing tip

33) An aeroplane will stall at the same

(a) Angle of attack and attitude with relation to the horizon
236 EPA MT
(b) Airspeed regardless of the attitude with relation to the horizon
(c) Angle of attack regardless of the attitude with relation to the horizon
(d) Indicated airspeed regardless of attitude, bank angle and Load factor
34) If an aircraft is flown at its design manoeuvring speed VA
(a) It is possible to subject the aircraft to a load greater than its limit Load during high g manoeuvres.
(b) It is not possible to exceed the Limit Load
(c) It is only possible to subject the aircraft to a load greater than its limit Load during violent increases
in incidence. i.e. when using excessive stick force to pullout of a dive.
(d) It must be immediately slowed down if turbulence is encountered

35) In a climb at a steady speed thrust is

(a) Equal to the aerodynamic drag
(b) Less than the aerodynamic drag
(c) Greater than the aerodynamic d rag
(d) Equal to the weight component along the flight path

36) When is an aircraft most likely to enter a spin?

(a) Forward Centre of Gravity
(b) Aft Centre of Gravity
(c) Low Airspeed
(d) High Airspeed

Use the following diagram for questions 37 to 39

37) Which point is the best Lift/Drag ratio?

(a) B
(b) D
(c) E
(d) A

38) Which point is the positive critical angle of attack?

(a) D
(b) C
(c) B
(d) E
237 EPA MT
39) Refer to the same diagram again - Which point is the zero lift point?

(a) B
(b) D
(c) E
(d) A

40) If an aircrafts 1g stalling speed is 40 knots. What is the 2g stall speed?

(a) 40kts
(b) 80kts
(c) 56kts
(d) 65kts

41) In a high wing aircraft, what happens to the aircraft when you reduce power?
(a) Pitch Up
(b) Pitch Down
(c) Roll Left
(d) Yaw Left

42) What surface will give you longitudinal stability?

(a) The Fin
(b) The Rudder
(c) The Horizontal Stabilator
(d) The elevator

43) What is the chord line?

(a) The angle between the angle of incidence and the relative airflow
(b) The line equidistant between the upper and lower surface of the wing
(c) The line from leading edge to trailing edge
(d) The top surface of the wing

44) What happens to lift with a decrease of air density?

(a) Increases
(b) Remains the same
(c) Decreases
(d) Doubles

45) What effect does weight have on stall speed?

(a) Decreases due to reduced density.
(b) Increases due to increased lift required to balance weight.
(c) Increases due to decreased lift requited to balance weight
(d) Stays the same

46) In a steady climb :

(a) Lift is more than weight
(b) Lift equals drag
(c) Lift is less than weight
(d) Lift equals thrust

238 EPA MT
47) Who determines the amount of lateral stability an aircraft will have?
(a) The pilot
(b) The maintenance crew
(c) The manufacturer when designing the aircraft
(d) The owner

48) What is the lift formula?

(a) CL x 1/2 x rho x v^2 x s
(b) CL x rho x v^2 x s
(c) CD x 1/2 x rho x 2v x s
(d) CL x 1/2 x rho x v x s

49) What is the speed at which maximum deflection of controls can be used without over
stressing the aircraft?
(a) Vs
(b) Va
(c) Vno
(d) Vne

50) An aft CG shift:

Decreases longitudinal manoeuvrability.
Increases longitudinal manoeuvrability.
(c) Increases static longitudinal stability.
(d) Has no influence on static longitudinal stability.

51) The primary purpose of dihedral is to:

Decrease sensitivity to Dutch roll.
Increase static lateral stability.
(c) Increase static directional stability.
(d) Increase dynamic stability.

52) An aeroplane performs a right turn, the slip indicator is left of neutral. One way to co-
ordinate the turn is to apply:
More left rudder.
More right rudder.
(c) A higher turn-rate.
(d) Less right bank.

53) Which statement is correct when comparing a fixed pitch propeller with a constant speed
propeller?
I. A fixed pitch propeller improves propeller efficiency over a range of cruise speeds.
II. A constant speed propeller improves take-off performance as compared with a coarse fixed
pitch propeller.
I is incorrect, II is incorrect.
I is correct, II is incorrect.
(c) I is correct, II is correct.
(d) I is incorrect, II is correct.

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54) Compared with level flight prior to the stall, the lift (1) and drag (2) in the stall change as
follows:
(1) decreases (2) increases.
(1) decreases (2) decreases.
(c) (1) increases (2) decreases.
(d) (1) increases (2) increases.

55) Which of these statements about boundary layers is correct?

Compared with a turbulent boundary layer, a laminar boundary layer is better able to resist a positive
pressure gradient before it separates.
A turbulent boundary layer produces more friction drag than a laminar one.
(c) A turbulent boundary layer turns into a laminar one at the transition point.
(d) A laminar boundary layer is thicker than a turbulent one.

56) In order to maintain straight and level flight at a constant airspeed, whilst the flaps are being
retracted ,the angle of attack must be:
Increased or decreased depending upon the type of flap.
Held constant.
(c) Decreased.
(d) Increased.

57) Which statement, about an aeroplane leaving ground effect at constant angle of attack, is
correct?
I. The lift coefficient CL decreases.
II. The induced drag coefficient Cdi increases.
I is incorrect, II is incorrect.
I is incorrect, II is correct.
(c) I is correct, II is incorrect.
(d) I is correct, II is correct.

58) A flat plate, when positioned in the airflow at a small angle of attack, will produce:
Drag but no lift.
Neither lift nor drag.
(c) Lift but no drag.
(d) Both lift and drag.

59) The point, where the aerodynamic lift acts on a wing is:
The CG location.
The point of maximum thickness of the wing.
(c) The centre of pressure.
(d) The suction point of the wing.

60) In a convergent tube with an incompressible sub-sonic airflow, the following pressure
changes will occur:
(Pstat is static pressure; Pdyn is dynamic pressure; Ptot is total pressure)
Ps increases, Pdyn decreases, Ptot remains constant.
Ps decreases, Pdyn increases, static temperature increases.
(c) Ps decreases, Pdyn increases, Ptot remains constant.
(d) Ps decreases, Ptot increases, static temperature decreases.

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61) Assuming constant IAS, when an aeroplane leaves ground effect:
The effective angle of attack increases.
Downwash increases.
(c) Induced drag decreases.
(d) Downwash does not change.

62) When wing lift is zero, its induced drag is:

a) Zero
b) Maximum
c) Low
d) High

63) Which of these statements about the strength of wing tip vortices are correct or incorrect?
I. Assuming no flow separation, the strength of wing tip vortices increases as the angle of attack
increases.
II. The strength of wing tip vortices increases as the aspect ratio decreases.
a) I is correct, II is correct.
b) I is correct, II is incorrect.
c) I is incorrect, II is incorrect.
d) I is incorrect, II is correct.

64) When the control column is moved forward and to the right:
a) The elevator goes up, the starboard aileron moves down and the port aileron moves up.
b) The elevator goes up, the starboard aileron moves up and the port aileron moves down.
c) The elevator goes down, the starboard aileron moves down and the port aileron moves up.
d) The elevator goes down, the starboard aileron moves up and the port aileron moves down

65) Stalling speed at 60degrees bank angle increases by :

(a) 60%
(b) 41%
(c) 20%
(d) 48%

66) The wing root is :

(a) The end of the wing
(b) The lower surface of the wing
(c) Where the wing meets the fuselage
(d) Where the wing is cracked.

67) Trim tabs move :

(a) As required by the pilot
(b) Automatically with control surface
(c) When there is a gust of wind
(d) In case of an emergency.

68) Anti-balance or balance tabs move:

(a) As required by the pilot
(b) Automatically with control surface
(c) When there is a gust of wind
(d) In case of an emergency.

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69) Horizontal stabiliser used to stabiliser around the:
(a) Normal axis
(b) Longitudinal axis
(c) Lateral axis
(d) Straight axis

70) If airspeed is double, parasite drag will increase/decrease by a factor of:

1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4

71) The point in the diagram showing zero lift is:

(a) Point b.
(b) Point a.
(c) Point d.
(d) Point c.

72) An aeroplane has a stall speed of 78 KCAS at its gross weight of 6850 Ibs. What is the stall
speed when the weight is 5000 Ibs?
(a) 78 KCAS.
(b) 57 KCAS.
(c) 67 KCAS.
(d) 91 KCAS.

73) The static pressure of gases work…

a) only in flow direction.
b) only vertical to the flow direction.
c) only in the direction of the total pressure.
d) in all directions.

74) Bernoulli's equation for frictionless, incompressible gases states that...

a) static pressure = total pressure + dynamic pressure.
b) total pressure = dynamic pressure - static pressure.
c) dynamic pressure = total pressure + static pressure.
d) total pressure = dynamic pressure + static pressure.

75) If surrounded by airflow (v>0), any arbitrarily shaped body produces...

a) constant drag at any speed.
b) drag and lift.
c) drag.
d) lift without drag.

76) All aerodynamic forces can be considered to act on a single point.

This point is called…

a) center of gravity.
b) center of pressure.
c) transition point.
d) lift point.

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77) The center of pressure is the theoretical point of origin of...
a) only the resulting total drag.
b) gravity forces of the profile.
c) gravity and aerodynamic forces.
d) all aerodynamic forces of the profile.

78) Number 2 in the drawing corresponds to the...

a) chord line.
b) profile thickness.
c) chord.
d) angle of attack.

79) Number 3 in the drawing corresponds to the...

a) camber line.
b) thickness.
c) chord line.
d) chord.

80) The angle of attack is the angle between...

a) the undisturbed airflow and the longitudinal axis of an aeroplane.
b) the chord line and the longitudinal axis of an aeroplane.
c) the chord line and the oncoming airflow.
d) the wing and the fuselage of an aeroplane.

81) The ratio of span and mean chord length is referred to as...
a) aspect ratio.
b) tapering.
c) wing sweep.
d) trapezium shape.

82) Which point on the aerofoil is represented by number 3?

a) Stagnation point
b) Transition point
c) Center of pressure
d) Separation point

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83) Which point on the aerofoil is represented by number 4?
a) Separation point
b) Center of pressure
c) Stagnation point
d) Transition point

84) Wing tip vortex development begins during which phase of flight?
a) When lift is being generated during rotation
b) As soon as the aircraft starts moving
c) While setting flaps to lower position
d) While setting take-off power during take-off run

85) Which point on the aerofoil is represented by number 1 in the diagram above?
a) Stagnation point
b) Separation point
c) Center of pressure
d) Transition point

86) What pattern can be found at the stagnation point?

a) The laminar boundary layer changes into a turbulent boundary layer
b) The boundary layer starts separating on the upper surface of the profile
c) Streamlines are divided into airflow above and below the profile
d) All aerodynamic forces can be considered as attacking at this single point

87) What pressure pattern can be observed at a lift-generating wing profile at positive
angle of attack?
a) Pressure above remains unchanged, higher pressure is created below the profile
b) Pressure below remains unchanged, lower pressure is created above the profile
c) High pressure is created above, lower pressure below the profile
d) Low pressure is created above, higher pressure below the profile

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88) The position of the the center of pressure at a positively shaped profile...
a) moves to the leading edge while the angle of attack becomes smaller.
b) moves to the trailing edge while the angle of attack becomes smaller.
c) is located at approximately 25% of the chord, measured from the leading edge.
d) does not move since it is independent of the angle of attack.

89) In which way does the position of the center of pressure move at a positively shaped
profile with increasing angle of attack?
a) It moves backward until reaching the critical angle of attack
b) It moves forward until reaching the critical angle of attack
c) It moves forward first, then backward
d) It moves to the wing tips

90) Which statement about lift and angle of attack is correct?

a) Increasing the angle of attack too far may result in a loss of lift and an airflow separation
b) Decreasing the angle of attack results in more drag being generated by the aerofoil
c) Increasing the angle of attack results in less lift being generated by the aerofoil
d) Too large angles of attack can lead to an exponential increase in lift

91) Which statement about the airflow around an aerofoil is correct if the angle of attack
increases?
a) The center of pressure moves up
b) The center of pressure moves down
c) The stagnation point moves down
d) The stagnation point moves up

92) Which statement about the airflow around an aerofoil is correct if the angle of attack
decreases?
a) The stagnation point remains constant
b) The center of pressure moves aft
c) The center of pressure moves forward
d) The stagnation point moves down

93) The angle (alpha) shown in the figure is referred to as...

DoF: direction of airflow
a) lift angle.
b) angle of inclination.
c) angle of attack.
d) angle of incidence.

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94) In order to improve the stall characteristics of an aircraft, the wing is twisted outwards (the
angle of incidence varies spanwise). This is known as...
a) V-form.
b) arrow shape.
c) aerodynamic washout.
d) geometric washout.

95) Which option states a benefit of wing washout?

a) Structurally the wing is made more rigid against rotation
b) At high angles of attack the effectiveness of the aileron is retained as long as possible
c) With the washout the form drag reduces at high speeds
d) Greater hardness because the wing can withstand more torsion forces

96) Refer to the diagram below, Point d in the figure indicates which flight state?
a) Inverted flight
b) Stall
c) Slow flight
d) Best gliding angle

97) Refer to the above diagram, what is it called?

a) Alpha against weight
b) CL against alpha
c) Polar diagram of CD against CL
d) Polar diagram of CL against CD

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98) Which statement concerning the angle of attack is correct?
a) Increasing the angle of attack results in decreasing lift
b) A too large angle of attack may result in a loss of lift
c) The angle of attack cannot be negative
d) The angle of attack is constant throughout the flight

99) When increasing the airflow speed by a factor of 2 while keeping all other
parameters constant, how does the parasite drag change approximately?
a) It increases by a factor of 4
b) It decreases by a factor of 2
c) It increases by a factor of 2
d) It decreases by a factor of 4

100) The drag coefficient...

a) may range from zero to an infinite positive value.
b) is proportional to the lift coefficient.
c) cannot be lower than a non-negative, minimal value.
d) increases with increasing airspeed.

101) Pressure compensation on an wing occurs at the...

a) trailing edge.
b) wing tips.
c) wing roots.
d) leading edge.

102) Which of the following options is likely to produce large induced drag?
a) Small aspect ratio
b) Low lift coefficients
c) Large aspect ratio
d) Tapered wings

103) Which parts of an aircraft mainly affect the generation of induced drag? (1,00 P.)
a) the wing tips.
b) the outer part of the ailerons.
c) the lower part of the gear.
d) the front part of the fuselage.

104) Where is interference drag generated?

a) Near the wing tips
b) At the the gear
c) At the wing root
d) At the ailerons

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105) Which curve represents the induced drag?
a) 3
b) 4
c) 1
d) 2

106) Pressure drag, interference drag and friction drag belong to the group of the...
a) total drag.
b) parasite drag.
c) main resistance.
d) induced drag.

107) What kind of drag is NOT part of the parasite drag?

a) Form drag
b) Skin-friction drag
c) Induced drag
d) Interference drag

108) How do induced drag and parasite drag change with increasing airspeed
during a horizontal and stable cruise flight?
a) Induced drag increases and parasite drag increases
b) Parasite drag decreases and induced drag decreases
c) Parasite drag decreases and induced drag increases
d) Induced drag decreases and parasite drag increases

109) Which of the listed wing shapes has the lowest induced drag?
a) Double trapezoidal shape
b) Trapezoidal shape
c) Elliptical shape
d) Rectangular shape

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110) Which effect does a decreasing airspeed have on the induced drag during a horizontal
and stable cruise flight?
a) The induced drag will collapse
b) The induced drag will remain constant
c) The induced drag will increase
d) The induced drag will slightly decrease

111) Which statement about induced drag during the horizontal cruise flight is
correct?
a) Induced drag increases with increasing airspeed
b) Induced drag has a minimum at a certain speed and increases at higher as well as
lower speeds
c) Induced drag decreases with increasing airspeed
d) Induced drag has a maximum at a certain speed and decreases at higher as well as
lower speeds

112) In which mentioned situation is the total drag at its minimum?

a) Parasite drag is twice as much as induced drag
b) Parasite drag is equal to induced drag
c) Induced drag is twice as much as parasite drag
d) Induced drag is smaller than parasite drag

113) Which kinds of drag contribute to total drag?

a) Induced drag, form drag, skin-friction drag
b) Interference drag and parasite drag
c) Form drag, skin-friction drag, interference drag
d) Induced drag and parasite drag

114) How do lift and drag change when approaching a stall condition?
a) Lift and drag increase
b) Lift increases and drag decreases
c) Lift and drag decrease
d) Lift decreases and drag increases

115) In case of a stall it is important to...

a) decrease the angle of attack and increase the speed.
b) increase the angle of attack and reduce the speed.
c) increase the bank angle and reduce the speed.
d) increase the angle of attack and increase the speed.

116) During a stall, the lift...

a) increases and drag decreases.
b) decreases and drag increases.
c) increases and drag increases.
d) decreases and drag decreases.

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117) The critical angle of attack...
a) is independent of the weight.
b) changes with increasing weight.
c) decreases with forward center of gravity position.
d) increases with backward center of gravity position.

118) What leads to a decreased stall speed Vs (IAS)?

a) Higher load factor
b) Lower altitude
c) Decreasing weight
d) Lower density

119) The stall warning will be activated just before reaching which speed?
a) VX
b) VR
c) VNE
d) VS

120) In motorplanes the stall warning is usually activated by a change of...

a) the center of gravity.
b) the stagnation point.
c) the transition point.
d) the center of pressure.

121) How should the pilot react to an engaged stall warning?

a) Pull the elevator, decrease power
b) Pull the elevator, increase power
c) Raise the nose to decrease airspeed
d) Push the elevator, increase power
122) Which statement regarding a spin is correct?
a) During recovery the ailerons should be kept neutral
b) During the spin the speed constantly increases
c) During recovery the ailerons should be crossed
d) Only very old aeroplanes have a risk of spinning

123) When extending the flaps for landing at constant angle of attack, in which way
does the lift coefficient change far before reaching the maximum lift coefficient?
a) It increases
b) It decreases
c) It is not possible to define
d) It remains constant

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124) With regard to flaps, which of the following options provides a lift-increasing
effect?
a) Decreasing the form drag
b) Lowering the induced drag
c) Increasing the aerofoil camber
d) Decreasing the angle of attack

125) Which factor can be changed by deploying flaps for landing?

a) The effectiveness of the ailerons
b) The twist effect of the engine
c) The position of the center of gravity
d) The trim condition

126) What is the principle of a Fowler flap?

a) At high angles of attack a part of the leading edge lifts
b) A flap from the rear bottom side of the wing is folded down
c) The rear part of the wing is folded down
d) A profile-like flap is extended from the trailing edge of the wing

127) What kind of landing aids may not be retracted suddenly near the ground?
a) Spoilers
b) Schempp-Hirth flaps
c) Airbrakes
d) Flaps

128) A take-off with flaps in take-off position causes...

a) a shortening of the take-off run.
b) an increased acceleration.
c) an increased rate of climb.
d) a decrease in drag.

129) Provided that no other procedure is described in the Aircraft Operating

Handbook, after increasing the engine power in a go-around, the flaps may...
a) not be operated up to the minimum safe altitude.
b) be retracted to a middle position.
c) remain fully extended until reaching the traffic pattern.
d) be fully retracted without any delay.

130) How do lift and drag change when setting flaps to a lower position?
a) Lift increases, drag increases
b) Lift decreases, drag increases
c) Lift increases, drag decreases
d) Lift decreases, drag decreases

131) Compared to trailing edge flaps, leading edge devices like Slots...
a) increase the camber and allow a lower angle of attack.
b) reduce the critical angle of attack at a given speed.
c) allow higher speeds at take-off and landing.
d) produce less drag while allowing a higher angle of attack.

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132) The laminar boundary layer on the aerofoil is located between...
a) the stagnation point and the transition point.
b) the transition point and the separation point.
c) the stagnation point and the center of pressure.
d) the transition point and the center of pressure.

133) What types of boundary layers can be found on an aerofoil?

a) Turbulent layer at the leading wing areas, laminar boundary layer at the trailing areas
b) Laminar layer at the leading wing areas, turbulent boundary layer at the trailing areas
c) Turbulent boundary layer along the complete upper surface with separated airflow
d) Laminar boundary layer along the complete upper surface with non-separated airflow

134) How does a laminar boundary layer differ from a turbulent boundary layer?
a) The turbulent boundary layer is thicker and provides less skin-friction drag
b) The laminar boundary layer produces lift, the turbulent boundary layer produces drag
c) The laminar boundary layer is thinner and provides more skin-friction drag
d) The turbulent boundary layer can follow the airfoil camber at higher angles of attack

135) In icing conditions, at which point will the most ice arise on an aeroplane?
a) On the pitot tube and the static pressure ports
b) On the upper and lower side of the control surfaces
c) On all frontal areas of the airframe, the wings, and the tail
d) On the upper und lower side of the wing's trailing edge

136) What structural item provides lateral stability to an airplane?

a) Differential aileron deflection
b) Elevator
c) Vertical tail
d) Wing dihedral

137) Which statement describes a situation of static stability?

a) An aircraft distorted by external impact can return to its original position by rudder input
b) An aircraft distorted by external impact will return to the original position
c) An aircraft distorted by external impact will tend to an even more deflected position
d) An aircraft distorted by external impact will maintain the deflected position

138) Which force does NOT act during straight and level flight?
a) Centrifugal force
b) Lift force
c) Gravitational force
d) Drag force

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139) Which constructive feature is shown in the figure?
a) Differential aileron deflection
b) Lateral stability by wing dihedral
c) Longitudinal stability by wing dihedral
d) Directional stability by lift generation

140) Stabilization around the lateral axis during cruise is achieved by the...
a) airlerons.
b) wing flaps.
c) horizontal stabilizer.
d) vertical rudder.

141) "Longitudinal stability" is referred to as stability around

which axis?
a) Propeller axis
b) Lateral axis
c) Vertical axis
d) Longitudinal axis

142) Stability around which axis is mainly influenced by the center of gravity's
longitudinal position?
a) Lateral axis
b) Gravity axis
c) Longitudinal axis
d) Vertical axis

143) What structural item provides directional stability to an airplane?

a) Wing dihedral
b) Differential aileron deflection
c) Large vertical tail
d) Large elevator

144) Rotation around the vertical axis is called...

a) yawing.
b) slipping.
c) pitching.
d) rolling.

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145) Rotation around the lateral axis is called...
a) stalling.
b) pitching.
c) yawing.
d) rolling.

146) The critical angle of attack...

a) is not changed by different aircraft weights.
b) decreases with a rear centre of gravity.
c) increases with a front centre of gravity.
d) is changed by different aircraft weights.

147) In straight and level flight with constant performance of the engine, the angle of
attack at the wing is...
a) greater than at take-off.
b) greater than in a climb.
c) smaller than in a descent.
d) smaller than in a climb.

148) What is the function of the horizontal tail (among other things)?
a) To stabilise the aeroplane around the vertical axis
b) To stabilise the aeroplane around the longitudinal axis
c) To initiate a curve around the vertical axis
d) To stabilise the aeroplane around the lateral axis

149) The elevator deflection for a specific maneuver...

a) is increased with a front centre of gravity.
b) is increased with a rear centre of gravity.
c) is increased at high speeds.
d) is independent of the speed.

150) The elevator deflection during take-off rotation...

a) is increased at high speeds.
b) is independent of the speed.
c) is increased for a front centre of gravity.
d) is increased for a rear centre of gravity.

151) The elevator moves an aeroplane around the...

a) longitudinal axis.
b) vertical axis.
c) lateral axis.
d) elevator axis.

152) What has to be considered with regard to the center of gravity position?
a) By moving the aileron trim tab, the center of gravity can be shifted into a correct
position.
b) Only correct loading can assure a correct and safe center of gravity position.
c) The center of gravity's position can only be determined during flight.
d) By moving the elevator trim tab, the center of gravity can be shifted into a correct
position.

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153) Rudder deflections result in a turn of the aeroplane around the...
a) lateral axis.
b) rudder axis.
c) vertical axis.
d) longitudinal axis.

154) Deflecting the rudder to the left causes...

a) pitching of the aircraft to the left.
b) yawing of the aircraft to the left.
c) pitching of the aircraft to the right.
d) yawing of the aircraft to the right.

155) What is the advantage of differential aileron movement?

a) The total lift remains constant during aileron deflection
b) The drag of the downwards deflected aileron is lowered and the adverse yaw is smaller
c) The adverse yaw is higher
d) The ratio of the drag coefficient to lift coefficient is increased

156) Which design feature can compensate for adverse yaw?

a) Wing dihedral
b) Differential aileron defletion
c) Full deflection of the aileron
d) Aileron trim

157) Differential aileron deflection is used to...

a) reduce wake turbulence.
b) keep the adverse yaw low.
c) increase the rate of descent.
d) avoid a stall at low angles of attack.

158) The right aileron deflects upwards, the left downwards.

How does the aircraft react?
a) Rolling to the left, yawing to the right
b) Rolling to the left, no yawing
c) Rolling to the right, yawing to the right
d) Rolling to the right, yawing to the left

159) The aerodynamic rudder balance...

a) improves the rudder effectiveness.
b) reduces the control surfaces.
c) reduces the control stick forces.
d) delays the stall.

160) Which constructive feature has the purpose to reduce steering

forces?
a) Differential aileron deflection
b) Aerodynamic rudder balance
c) Vortex generators
d) T-tail

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161) What is the function of the static rudder
balance?
a) To prevent control surface flutter
b) To limit the control stick forces
c) To increase the control stick forces
d) To trim the controls almost without any force

162) During cruise flight with constant power

setting, an aircraft shows a permanent tendency
to raise the nose.
How can this tendency be eliminated?
a) By deflecting the elevator trim tab upwards
b) By deflecting the elevator trim tab downwards
c) By elevator deflection upwards
d) By shifting the center of gravity backwards

163) What is a bendable trim tab?

a) A trim device adjustable in flight
b) A balance mass at a control surface
c) A fixed tab attached to the rudder or the aileron
d) A term for a rudder balance

164) The trim tab at the elevator is defelected

upwards.
In which position is the corresponding
indicator?
a) Nose-up position
b) Neutral position
c) Laterally trimmed
d) Nose-down position

165) What describes "wing loading"?

a) Drag per weight
b) Drag per wing area
c) Wing area per weight
d) Weight per wing area

166) Flying with speeds higher than the never-

exceed-speed (vNE) may result in...
a) reduced drag with increased control forces.
b) an increased lift-to-drag ratio and a better glide angle.
c) too high total pressure resulting in an unusable airspeed indicator.
d) flutter and mechanically damaging the wings.

167) Through which factor listed below does the load factor increase during
cruise flight?
a) A forward centre of gravity
b) Higher aeroplane weight
c) An upward gust
d) Lower air density
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168) Which statement regarding the "constant-speed propeller" is correct?
a) The propeller keeps the airspeed constant
b) The pitch of the propeller rises with higher speeds
c) The RPM decreases with lower speeds
d) The set RPM is kept constant by the motor power (MAP)

169) The change in pitch at a propeller blade from the root to the tip ensures...
a) the largest possible angle of attack at the blade tip.
b) a nearly constant load by a constant effective angle of attack over the entire length of
the blade.
c) that the most thrust is produced at the blade root.
d) that the most thrust is produced at the blade tip.

170) What effects typically result from propeller icing?

a) Increased power output, increasing RPM.
b) Increased power output, decreasing RPM.
c) Reduced power output, increasing RPM.
d) Reduced power output, decreasing RPM.

171) After an engine failure, the wind milling propeller...

a) improves the properties of the glide.
b) has a greater pitch in feathered position.
c) generates drag rather than thrust.
d) generates neither thrust nor drag.

172) During a descent at idle power with constant speed, the propeller lever is
moved backwards.
How do the propeller pitch and sink rate change?
a) Propeller pitch is increased, sink rate is decreased
b) Propeller pitch is increased, sink rate is increased
c) Propeller pitch is decreased, sink rate is increased
d) Propeller pitch is decreased, sink rate is decreased

173) During a straight and steady climb, which force acts additionally, and in
the same direction as the drag force, resulting in more power required for
climb than for horizontal flight?
a) A component of the weight force along the rearward flight path.
b) A component of the lift force along the forward flightpath.
c) A component of the thrust along the rearward flightpath.
d) The vertical component of the weight force.

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174) The bank in a two-minute turn (rate one turn) depends on the...
a) wind.
b) TAS.
c) weight.
d) load factor.

175) In a co-ordinated turn, how is the relation between the load

factor (n) and the stall speed (Vs)?
a) n is smaller than 1, Vs is greater than in straight and level flight.
b) n is smaller than 1, Vs is smaller than in straight and level flight.
c) n is greater than 1, Vs is greater than in straight and level flight.
d) n is greater than 1, Vs is smaller than in straight and level flight.

176) How is the balance of forces affected during a turn?

a) A lower lift force compensates for a lower net force as compared to level flight
b) Lift force must be increased to compensate for the sum of centrifugal and gravitational
force
c) The net force results from superposition of gravity and centripetal forces
d) The horizontal component of the lift force during a turn is the centrifugal force

177) What is the difference between aerodynamic washout and geometric washout?
a) While Geometric washout refers to the geometrical formation of the fuselage,
Aerodynamic washout refers to the modified aerofoil sections such as vortex
generators, leading edge wing fences, notches, stall strips to distribute spanwise lift and
reduce root stall
b) While Geometric washout refers to the reduction in the angle of incidence from root to
tip to reduce tip stall, Aerodynamic washout refers to the modified aerofoil sections
such as vortex generators, leading edge wing fences, notches, stall strips to distribute
spanwise lift and reduce tip stall
c) While Aerodynamic washout refers to the reduction in the angle of incidence from root
to tip to reduce tip stall, Aerodynamic washout refers to the modified aerofoil sections
such as vortex generators, leading edge wing fences, notches, stall strips to distribute
spanwise lift and reduce tip stall
d) While Aerodynamic washout refers to the reduction in the angle of incidence from root
to tip to reduce tip stall, Aerodynamic washout refers to the wing length and its
aerodynamic friction generating components such as ailerons, flaps and spoilers.

178) If an aeroplane exhibits poor longitudinal stability in flight, what can be done to
increase the stability?
a) Install a yaw damper
b) Increase the horizontal stabilizer surface area
c) Increase the range of movement of the elevator
d) Reduce in keel surface area

258 EPA MT
 1 A B C D 2 A B C D 3 A B C D
4 A B C D 5 A B C D 6 A B C D
7 A B C D 8 A B C D 9 A B C D
10 A B C D 11 A B C D 12 A B C D
13 A B C D 14 A B C D 15 A B C D
16 A B C D 17 A B C D 18 A B C D
19 A B C D 20 A B C D 21 A B C D
22 A B C D 23 A B C D 24 A B C D
25 A B C D 26 A B C D 27 A B C D
28 A B C D 29 A B C D 30 A B C D
31 A B C D 32 A B C D 33 A B C D
34 A B C D 35 A B C D 36 A B C D
37 A B C D 38 A B C D 39 A B C D
40 A B C D 41 A B C D 42 A B C D
43 A B C D 44 A B C D 45 A B C D
46 A B C D 47 A B C D 48 A B C D
49 A B C D 50 A B C D 51 A B C D
52 A B C D 53 A B C D 54 A B C D
55 A B C D 56 A B C D 57 A B C D
58 A B C D 59 A B C D 60 A B C D
61 A B C D 62 A B C D 63 A B C D
64 A B C D 65 A B C D 66 A B C D
67 A B C D 68 A B C D 69 A B C D
70 A B C D 71 A B C D 72 A B C D
73 A B C D 74 A B C D 75 A B C D
76 A B C D 77 A B C D 78 A B C D
79 A B C D 80 A B C D 81 A B C D
82 A B C D 83 A B C D 84 A B C D
85 A B C D 86 A B C D 87 A B C D
88 A B C D 89 A B C D 90 A B C D
91 A B C D 92 A B C D 93 A B C D
94 A B C D 95 A B C D 96 A B C D
97 A B C D 98 A B C D 99 A B C D
100 A B C D 101 A B C D 102 A B C D
103 A B C D 104 A B C D 105 A B C D
106 A B C D 107 A B C D 108 A B C D
109 A B C D 110 A B C D 111 A B C D
112 A B C D 113 A B C D 114 A B C D
115 A B C D 116 A B C D 117 A B C D
118 A B C D 119 A B C D 120 A B C D
121 A B C D 122 A B C D 123 A B C D
124 A B C D 125 A B C D 126 A B C D
127 A B C D 128 A B C D 129 A B C D
130 A B C D 131 A B C D 132 A B C D
133 A B C D 134 A B C D 135 A B C D
136 A B C D 137 A B C D 138 A B C D
139 A B C D 140 A B C D 141 A B C D
142 A B C D 143 A B C D 144 A B C D

259 EPA MT
145 A B C D 146 A B C D 147 A B C D
148 A B C D 149 A B C D 150 A B C D
151 A B C D 152 A B C D 153 A B C D
154 A B C D 155 A B C D 156 A B C D
157 A B C D 158 A B C D 159 A B C D
160 A B C D 161 A B C D 162 A B C D
163 A B C D 164 A B C D 165 A B C D
166 A B C D 167 A B C D 168 A B C D
169 A B C D 170 A B C D 171 A B C D
172 A B C D 173 A B C D 174 A B C D
175 A B C D 176 A B C D 177 A B C D
178 A B C D

260 EPA MT
 1 A B C D 2 A B C D 3 A B C D
4 A B C D 5 A B C D 6 A B C D
7 A B C D 8 A B C D 9 A B C D
10 A B C D 11 A B C D 12 A B C D
13 A B C D 14 A B C D 15 A B C D
16 A B C D 17 A B C D 18 A B C D
19 A B C D 20 A B C D 21 A B C D
22 A B C D 23 A B C D 24 A B C D
25 A B C D 26 A B C D 27 A B C D
28 A B C D 29 A B C D 30 A B C D
31 A B C D 32 A B C D 33 A B C D
34 A B C D 35 A B C D 36 A B C D
37 A B C D 38 A B C D 39 A B C D
40 A B C D 41 A B C D 42 A B C D
43 A B C D 44 A B C D 45 A B C D
46 A B C D 47 A B C D 48 A B C D
49 A B C D 50 A B C D 51 A B C D
52 A B C D 53 A B C D 54 A B C D
55 A B C D 56 A B C D 57 A B C D
58 A B C D 59 A B C D 60 A B C D
61 A B C D 62 A B C D 63 A B C D
64 A B C D 65 A B C D 66 A B C D
67 A B C D 68 A B C D 69 A B C D
70 A B C D 71 A B C D 72 A B C D
73 A B C D 74 A B C D 75 A B C D
76 A B C D 77 A B C D 78 A B C D
79 A B C D 80 A B C D 81 A B C D
82 A B C D 83 A B C D 84 A B C D
85 A B C D 86 A B C D 87 A B C D
88 A B C D 89 A B C D 90 A B C D
91 A B C D 92 A B C D 93 A B C D
94 A B C D 95 A B C D 96 A B C D
97 A B C D 98 A B C D 99 A B C D
100 A B C D 101 A B C D 102 A B C D
103 A B C D 104 A B C D 105 A B C D
106 A B C D 107 A B C D 108 A B C D
109 A B C D 110 A B C D 111 A B C D
112 A B C D 113 A B C D 114 A B C D
115 A B C D 116 A B C D 117 A B C D
118 A B C D 119 A B C D 120 A B C D
121 A B C D 122 A B C D 123 A B C D
124 A B C D 125 A B C D 126 A B C D
127 A B C D 128 A B C D 129 A B C D
130 A B C D 131 A B C D 132 A B C D
133 A B C D 134 A B C D 135 A B C D
136 A B C D 137 A B C D 138 A B C D
139 A B C D 140 A B C D 141 A B C D
142 A B C D 143 A B C D 144 A B C D

261 EPA MT
145 A B C D 146 A B C D 147 A B C D
148 A B C D 149 A B C D 150 A B C D
151 A B C D 152 A B C D 153 A B C D
154 A B C D 155 A B C D 156 A B C D
157 A B C D 158 A B C D 159 A B C D
160 A B C D 161 A B C D 162 A B C D
163 A B C D 164 A B C D 165 A B C D
166 A B C D 167 A B C D 168 A B C D
169 A B C D 170 A B C D 171 A B C D
172 A B C D 173 A B C D 174 A B C D
175 A B C D 176 A B C D 177 A B C D
178 A B C D

262 EPA MT
 NAVIGATION

The actual examination paper consists of 16 questions, each with a multiple

choice of four answers A, B, C or D. The candidate should indicate the chosen
answer by placing a cross in the appropriate box on the answer paper provided.
Time allowed 60 minutes.
The pass mark is 75%, so the minimum number of questions that must be
answered correctly to obtain a pass is 12. Marks are not deducted for incorrect
answers.

263 EPA MT
1)The rotational axis of the Earth runs through the...
a) geographic North Pole and on the magnetic south pole.
b) magnetic north pole and on the magnetic south pole.
c) geographic North Pole and on the geographic South Pole.
d) magnetic north pole and on the geographic South Pole.

2)Which statement is correct with regard to the polar axis of the Earth?
a) The polar axis of the Earth crosses the geographic South Pole and the geographic
North Pole and is perpendicular to the plane of the equator
b) The polar axis of the Earth crosses the magnetic south pole and the magnetic north
pole and is perpendicular to the plane of the equator
c) The polar axis of the Earth crosses the magnetic south pole and the magnetic north
pole and is at an angle of 66.5° to the plane of the equator
d) The polar axis of the Earth crosses the geographic South Pole and the geographic
North Pole and is at an angle of 23.5° to the plane of the equator

3)Which approximate, geometrical form describes the shape of the Earth best for navigation
systems?
a) Perfect sphere
b) Ellipsoid
c) Sphere of ecliptical shape
d) Flat plate

4)Which statement about a rhumb line is correct?

a) A rhumb line is a great circle intersecting the the equator with 45° angle.
b) The center of a complete cycle of a rhumb line is always the Earth's center.
c) The shortest track between two points along the Earth's surface follows a rhumb line.
d) A rhumb line cuts each meridian at the same angle.

5)The shortest distance between two points on Earth is represented by a part of...
a) small circle.
b) a great circle.
c) a rhumb line.
d) a parallel of latitude.

6)The circumference of the Earth at the equator is approximately...

a) 21600 NM.
b) 10800 km.
c) 12800 km.
d) 40000 NM.

264 EPA MT
7)When trying to give out a coordinate, what comes first?
a) Latitude and Longitude
b) Latitude only
c) Longitude and Latitude
d) Latitude only

8)Where are the two polar circles?

a) At a latitude of 20.5°S and 20.5°N
b) 23.5° north and south of the poles
c) 20.5° south of the poles
d) 23.5° north and south of the equator

9)What is the distance between the parallels of latitude 48°N and 49°N along a meridian line?
a) 111 NM
b) 60 NM
c) 60 km
d) 110 NM

10)What distance corresponds to one-degree difference in latitude along any degree of

longitude?
a) 60 NM
b) 30 NM
c) 60 km
d) 1 NM

11)If you are measuring the course from Vizzini (CZS1) to Capo Scaramia (CBS1) by using
the VFR chart, what course/track would you have?
a) Grid compass/track
b) Compass course/track
c) Magnetic course/track
d) True course/track

12)What is the distance between the two parallels of longitude 150°E and 151°E along the
equator?
a) 60 km
b) 111 NM
c) 1 NM
d) 60 NM

13)What is the great circle distance between two points A and B on the equator when the
difference between the two associated meridians is exactly one degree of longitude?
a) 216 NM
b) 120 NM
c) 60 NM
d) 400 NM

14)On the VFR chart, near Trapani W.Gate, there is a magenta circle. What does it
represent?
a) Danger Area
b) Free Area
c) Prohibited Area
d) Restricted Area

265 EPA MT
15)What approximate Rate of Descent is required in order to descend 1,824ft in 6NM at a
Groundspeed of 90kt?
a) 400ft/minute
b) 700ft/minute
c) 450ft/minute
d) 600ft/minute

16)With Central European Summer Time (CEST) given as UTC+2, what UTC time
corresponds to 1600 CEST?
a) 1500 UTC.
b) 1600 UTC.
c) 1400 UTC.
d) 1700 UTC.

17)UTC is...
a) a zonal time.
b) local mean time at a specific point on Earth.
c) a local time in Central Europe.
d) an obligatory time used in aviation.

18)If you are flying 7NM east of Nord Est Acireale in Catania at Altitude 3000ft, with whom
would you be in contact with?
a) Reggio Approach 119.250
b) Reggio Tower 118.250
c) Catania Approach 119.250
d) Catania Tower 118.7

19)The term 'civil twilight' is defined as...

a) the period of time before sunrise or after sunset where the midpoint of the sun disk is
12 degrees or less below the apparent horizon.
b) the period of time before sunrise or after sunset where the midpoint of the sun disk is 6
degrees or less below the true horizon.
c) the period of time before sunrise or after sunset where the midpoint of the sun disk is 6
degrees or less below the apparent horizon.
a) the period of time before sunrise or after sunset where the midpoint of the sun disk is
12 degrees or less below the true horizon.

20)On the VFR chart, what is the distance from Castellammare to LICT?
a) 15NM
b) 23NM
c) 20NM
d) 17NM

21)On the VFR chart, what is the frequency of the VOR at LICR?
a) 111Mhz
b) 325Mhz
c) 118.25Mhz
d) 120.27Mhz

266 EPA MT
22)The angle between the true course and the true heading is called...
a) inclination.
b) WCA.
c) variation.
d) deviation.

23)The angle between the magnetic course and the true course is called...
a) inclination.
b) deviation.
c) WCA.
d) variation.

24)The term ‘magnetic course' (MC) is defined as...

a) the direction from an arbitrary point on Earth to the geographic North Pole.
b) the direction from an arbitrary point on Earth to the magnetic north pole.
c) the angle between true north and the course line.
d) the angle between magnetic north and the course line.

25)If you set your OBS to 080, and you are flying on the 100 Radial, what indications do you
get on your CDI?
a) TO, LEFT
b) TO, RIGHT
c) FROM, LEFT
d) FROM, RIGHT

26)During the leg from Nord Est Acireale to Taormina, what should you see if you look on
your left?
a) Lakes
b) High land/big mountain
c) Windfarm
d) High buildings

27)Where does the inclination reach its lowest value?

a) At the geographic equator
b) At the magnetic poles
c) At the magnetic equator
d) At the geographic poles

28)Which direction corresponds to 'compass north' (CN)?

a) The direction from an arbitrary point on Earth to the geographical North Pole
b) The most northerly part of the magnetic compass in the aircraft, where the reading
takes place
c) The direction to which the direct reading compass aligns due to earth's and aircraft's
magnetic fields
d) The angle between the aircraft heading and magnetic north

29)The term 'isogonal' or 'isogonic line' is defined as a line on an aeronautical chart,

connecting all points with the same value of...
a) deviation.
b) inclination.
c) heading.
d) variation.

267 EPA MT
30)Which are the official basic units for horizontal distances used in aeronautical navigation
and their abbreviations?
a) Yards (yd), meters (m)
b) Nautical miles (NM), kilometers (km)
c) Land miles (SM), sea miles (NM)
d) feet (ft), inches (in)

31)1000 ft equal...
a) 30 m.
b) 300 m.
c) 3000 m.
d) 30 km.

32)5500 m equal
a) 18000 ft.
b) 10000 ft.
c) 30000 ft.
d) 7500 ft.

33)Electronic devices on board of an aeroplane have influence on the...

a) direct reading compass.
b) turn coordinator.
c) airspeed indicator.
d) artificial horizon.

34)The approximate propagation speed of electromagnetic waves is...

a) 300000 ft/s.
b) 300000 km/s.
c) 300000 m/s.
d) 300000 NM/s.

35)Radio waves within the LF and MF range (e.g. NDB) travel as...
a) sky wave.
b) ground / surface wave.
c) sky wave and as ground / surface wave.
d) space wave (quasi-optical).

36)Radio waves within the VHF range (e.g. VOR) travel as...
a) space wave (quasi-optical).
b) ground / surface wave.
c) sky wave and ground / surface wave.
d) sky wave.

37)Quasi-optical waves travel...

a) through the air directly from the transmitter to the receiver.
b) through the air and are influenced (e.g. reflected) by the ionosphere.
c) along the surface of the earth, but are absorbed by the sea.
d) along the surface of the earth.

268 EPA MT
38)A VHF direction finder (VDF) can determine...
a) slant ranges.
b) true courses.
c) magnetic bearings.
d) approach speeds.

39)Which equipment is needed on board of an aircraft to use a VHF direction finder (VDF)?
a) A VDF receiver
b) A relative bearing indicator (RBI)
c) At least two VHF aerials
d) A VHF radio

40)Given: QDM: 138° VAR: 10° E.

The QUJ equals...
a) 318°.
b) 328°.
c) 148°.
d) 168°.

41)Given: QTE: 229° VAR: 10° W

The QDM equals...
a) 059°.
b) 039°.
c) 049°.
d) 239°.

42)The pilot receives a QDR of 225° from the VDF ground station.
Where is the aircraft located in relation to the ground station?
a) Southeast
b) Northwest
c) Northeast
d) Southwest

43)The term QDR means...

a) true bearing from the station to the aircraft.
b) true bearing from the aircraft to the station.
c) magnetic bearing from the station to the aircraft.
d) magnetic bearing from the aircraft to the station.

44)The VDF range depends on...

a) the condition of the ionosphere.
b) the range of the ground / surface wave.
c) the aircraft's speed.
d) the aircraft's altitude.

45)Non-directional beacons (NDBs) transmit within which frequency band?

a) Very low frequency (VLF) and low frequency (LF)
b) Low frequency (LF) and medium frequency (MF)
c) High frequency (HF)
d) Very high frequency (VHF)

269 EPA MT
46)By referring to the following diagram, we know that a pilot wants to proceed directly to
the beacon. The wind is calm. Tip: The head is towards and the tail is the reciprocal.
The pilot should follow a QDM of...
a) 230°.
b) 080°.
c) 260°.
d) 200°.

47)The range of NDBs transmitting in the medium frequency range is greatest...

a) on midday.
b) in the daytime.
c) at night.
d) before midday.

48)The shoreline effect is greatest with radio wave propagation...

a) at a right angle to the coast; aircraft above 6000 ft.
b) at an acute angle to the coast; aircraft above 6000 ft.
c) at an acute angle to the coast; aircraft below 6000 ft.
d) at a right angle to the coast; aircraft below 6000 ft.

49)Fading in LF/MF frequency range occurs mainly...

a) during the night.
b) at midday.
c) in the daytime.
d) in the late afternoon.

50)VOR radials are defined based on the principle of...

a) pulse comparison of two signals.
b) frequency comparison of two signals.
c) amplitude comparison of two signals.
d) phase comparison of two signals.

51)A VOR radial corresponds to the...

a) QTE.
b) QDR.
c) QUJ.
d) QDM.

270 EPA MT
52)Full deflection of the course deviation indicator (CDI) means that the aircraft is located at
least...
a) 10 NM beside the selected course.
b) 2 NM beside the selected course.
c) 10° beside the selected course.
d) 2° beside the selected course.

53)Where is the aircraft located in relation to the VOR?

a) Southeast
b) Northeast
c) Northwest
d) Southwest

54)The aircraft is on radial...

a) 060°.
b) 234°.
c) 246°.
d) 066°.

55)The range of a VOR is highly affected by...

a) multipath propagation of the ground wave.
b) reflected sky waves.
c) transmitter and receiver altitude.
d) daylight interference.

56)The distance measuring equipment (DME) determines the distance based on the
principle of...
a) Doppler.
b) laser measurement.
c) phase comparison.
d) time measurement.
271 EPA MT
57)The DME reading is a...
a) air range.
b) ground distance.
c) radial distance.
d) slant range.

58)The difference between indicated DME slant range and horizontal distance from the DME
station increases...
a) when circling around the DME station.
b) when approaching the DME station.
c) when departing the DME station.
d) when descending.

59)The on-board equipment of the secondary surveillance radar (SSR) is called...

a) decoder.
b) transponder.
c) interrogator.
d) course indicator.

60)What is the difference between primary and secondary radar?

a) The pulses of a primary radar are variably pulse-modulated, the pulses of a secondary
radar are statically amplitude-modulated
b) The pulses of a primary radar are variably amplitude-modulated, the pulses of a
secondary radar are statically pulse-modulated
c) The primary radar is displayed on a computer screen, the secondary radar on a radar
strip
d) The pulses of a primary radar are reflected by the aircraft's surface, the pulses of a
secondary radar system are answered by a transponder

61)The transponder code in case of hi-jacking is...

a) 7500.
b) 7700.
c) 7000.
d) 7600.

62)The transponder code in case of a radio communication failure is...

a) 7600.
b) 7000.
c) 7500.
d) 7700.

63)Which altitude is transmitted by the transponder in mode C?

a) Pressure altitude
b) QFE altitude
c) Radio altitude
d) QNH altitude

64)How many satellites are necessary for a precise and verified three-dimensional
determination of the position?
a) Three
b) Five
c) Four
d) Two

272 EPA MT
65)What is the maximum length that a leg could be planned for, for a VFR Navigation flight?
a) 50NM
b) 40NM
c) 80NM
d) 60NM

66)If the magnetic heading is 206⁰, and the variation is 3E, what is the true heading and the
QUJ given that the relative heading/bearing is 100⁰.
a) 192
b) 129
c) 309
d) 306

67)Using the VFR map, find the distance from Vizzini to Lentini.
a) 9NM
b) 19NM
c) 23NM
d) 14NM

68)What is the true track from Enna to Paterno?

a) 270
b) 090
c) 085
d) 095

69)Which aerodrome does LICC represent and in what direction is it to LICB?

a) Reggio Calabria, NE
b) Comiso, SW
c) Catania, SW
d) Comiso, SW

273 EPA MT
70)Complete the following nav log considering the shown factors and estimate the
time taken for the leg to be completed.
From/To TAS TR(T) W/V HDG(T) VAR HDG(M) GS DIST TIME
CEFALU/
CAPO 100 150/10 3E
GALLO

a) 15mins
b) 19.5mins
c) 22mins
d) 25mins

71)Complete the following nav log considering the shown factors and estimate the
ground speed during the leg.
From/To TAS TR(T) W/V HDG(T) VAR HDG(M) GS DIST TIME
S.Gate/
M.D. 120 020/20 3E
VALLO

a) 122kts
b) 112kts
c) 130kts
d) 105kts

72)An aircraft is going to climb from 2,000ft to 20,000ft. The distance that shall take
such a climb is 55NM, what shall the rate of climb be, given that the GS is
250kts?
a) 1530ft/minute
b) 1360ft/minute
c) 1020ft/minute
d) 2135ft/minute

73)Over Pembroke, what area/s would the pilot have to look out for?
a) LMD1
b) LMD6/LMD1
c) LMD1/LMP2
d) LMR2

74)What radio navigation do we have to refer to when approaching the island of

Gozo and what is the frequency?
a) GOZO/115.7
b) GZO/117.5
c) GZO/115.7
d) GOZ/115.7

274 EPA MT
75)With a 3D fix and RAIM with one redundant satellite, how many satellites are
needed?
a) 4
b) 5
c) 6
d) 7

76)How many satellites are used in Galileo system?

a) 24 satellites
b) 30 satellites
c) 27 satellites
d) 21 satellites

77)Having two DMEs, what kind of fix do we acquire?

a) Rho/rho
b) Theta/theta
c) Rho/theta
d) Theta/rho

78)If a DME loses connection, what does it do?

a) It retains its memory and keeps turning for about 8 to 10 seconds
b) It stops working until it regains signal
c) It tries to acquire its signal from other interrogators
d) It tries to switch on and switch off every 8 seconds

79)What is the Tower frequency at Luqa?

a) 121.6
b) 128.150
c) 135.1
d) 125.1

80)What kind of radio is the transponder using?

a) DME
b) SSR
c) PAR
d) TRA

81)What frequency band is VHF communication found within?

a) 118Mhz to 136.95Mhz
b) 118Mhz to 117.95Mhz
c) 118Mhz to 136.95Khz
d) 118Khz to 136.05Mhz

82)On what side do you try to keep the features during a navigation?
a) In front
b) On your right
c) On your left
d) Behind

275 EPA MT
83)What are the co-ordinates for the Maltese islands approximately?
a) 35N, 14W
b) 53S, 14E
c) 35N, 14E
d) 35S, 14W

84)You planned a leg using GS 200kts. The leg is 150NM. Upon arrival, you are 10
minutes late. What is the actual GS?
a) 173kts
b) 163kts
c) 158kts
d) 143kts

85)What ground feature is very near Vizzini?

a) A football ground
b) A lake
c) A mountain
d) An airport

86)In what airspace are you flying when flying below 2,000ft near Comiso?
a) Class D
b) Class C
c) Class A
d) Class B

87)If you are flying near Catania Fontanarossa at 2,000ft and you fail to establish
communications with Rome Information, what is the first thing you can do after
having checked your radio (which seems to work perfectly well)?
a) Try to establish communications with Catania Approach on 119.250
b) Make a blind call on the current frequency
c) Squawk 7600 and what for a call
d) Establish communications with Maltese authorities

88)What is the MSA near Reggio Calabria?

a) 98
b) 89
c) 90
d) 50

89)When would you be most probably expecting that you would be transferred to the
Italians when crossing from Malta to Sicily?
a) Approaching CBS1
b) Crossing the FIR boundary from the Maltese airspace to the Italian airspace
c) Approaching Catania Airspace
d) When told to contact Luqa Radar on 128.150 and then all you have to do is expect a
call back.

276 EPA MT
90)Why is West Gate near Trapani coloured red?
a) Visual Holding Gate
b) Non-compulsory reporting point
c) Advisory area
d) Point at which one would expect heavy traffic near the aerodrome

91)From Capo Scaramia to Vizzini, what is the highest MSA?

a) 22
b) 50
c) 42
d) 24

92)Very near Gela is an area of interest

a) Prohibited area
b) Landmark for aerial photography
c) Restricted area
d) Danger area due to the factories in the vicinity

93)Is it advisable to make a direct tracking from Lamezia aerodrome to Reggio?

a) Yes, because you have no obsatcles especially if you fly Tecnam at 15,000ft
b) No, it is not due to terrain
c) No, it is not due to pilot tiredness
d) Yes, because it is a very spectacular journey given that there are many aerodrome on
the way

94)Why do we add the sense aerial when using loop aerials?

a) For redundancy
b) To reduce ambiguity from which direction the signal is emerging from
c) To recognize whether the signal is healthy or not
d) To recognize whether the signal is within the VHF or UHF

95)What is a disadvantage of the multiplex receiver?

a) It is susceptible to being locked on one signal
b) It is susceptible to jamming, whether it is real or accidental
c) It is not high tech
d) Since the data is not simultaneous, it can end with a degraded accuracy of the signal

96)What is the orbital time and height of each satellite when referring to GLONASS?
a) 23,222km and 14 hrs
b) 19,100km and 11 hrs 15 minutes
c) 19,100km and 11 hrs 58 minutes
d) 20,100km and 11 hrs 58 minutes

277 EPA MT
97) If you set your OBS to 270, and you are flying on the 040R, what indications do
you get on your CDI?
a) TO, LEFT
b) TO, RIGHT
c) FROM, LEFT
d) FROM, RIGHT

98) An aircraft is on radial 120 with a Magnetic Heading of 300 degrees; the track
selector (OBS) reads: 330. The indications on the Course Deviation Indicator
(CDI) are 'fly':
a) TO, LEFT
b) TO, RIGHT
c) FROM, LEFT
d) FROM, RIGHT
99) You are on the 180 Radial flying outbound from a VOR, and you are asked to
intercept the 120 Radial from the VOR. What would be a suitable track to intercept?
a) 120
b) 090
c) 150
d) 060
100) As you approach Lentini, what frequency would you be expected to change to,
and what is the name of the airspace you are flying into?
a) 119.250 Catania CTR 1
b) 134.125 Roma Information
c) 119.250 Catania CTR 2
d) 119.250 Catania CTR 5
101) The COM VOR (COMISO VOR) uses a frequency of _________ and falls within
the ______ range.
a) 113.45Mhz, VHF
b) 125.275Mhz, UHF
c) 113.45Khz, LF
d) 113.45Mhz, HF

102) You are flying OUTBOUND from a VOR which you have dialled into. Your OBS
is set to 050º. Your aircraft is currently on radial 070º. What do you expect to see on
your CDI?

a) TO, LEFT
b) TO, RIGHT
c) FROM, LEFT
d) FROM, RIGHT

103) As you are tracking outbound from GZO VOR/DME to CBS1, you are tracking
015 radial. What would be the OBS setting on the VOR?

a) 015 FROM
b) 015 TO
278 EPA MT
c) 195 FROM
d) 195 TO

104) What are the coordinates of the Malta International Airport?

a) 35.85°N, 14.5° E
b) 35.85°S, 14.5°E
c) 36°S, 14.5°W
d) 35.5°S, 14.5°W

Have a look at the nav log coming up !

FROM/TO MSA TAS TR(T) W/V HDT(T) VAR HDG(M) GS DIST TIME PL HOURLY FUEL
EST RATE REM.
LICC 90 135/05 3E 18LPH
MISTERBIANCO

MISTERBIANCO 90 135/05 3E 18LPH

PATERNO

PATERNO 90 135/05 3E 18LPH

AGIRA

AGIRA 90 135/05 3E 18LPH

ENNA

ENNA 90 135/05 3E 18LPH

CEFALU

CEFALU 90 135/05 3E 18LPH

LICP

DIVERSION
LICP 90 300/10 3E 18LPH
CARINI

CARINI 90 300/10 3E 18LPH

CASTELLAMARE

CASTELLAMARE 90 300/10 3E 18LPH

EAST GATE

EAST GATE 90 300/10 3E 18LPH

LICT

FROM/TO MSA TAS TR(T) W/V HDT(T) VAR HDG(M) GS DIST TIME PL EST HOURLY FUEL
RATE REM.
LICC 135 90 317 135/05 317 3E 314 95 4.1 3 T/O: 18LPH 90L
MISTERBIANCO 0900Z
ETO: 89.1L
1303
MISTERBIANCO 135 90 298 135/05 297 3E 294 95 5.5 3 1306 18LPH 88.2L
279 EPA MT
PATERNO

PATERNO 135 90 287 135/05 286 3E 283 94 19 12 1318 18LPH 84.6L

AGIRA

AGIRA 135 90 245 135/05 242 3E 239 91 13 9 1329 18LPH 81.9L

ENNA

ENNA 90 90 336 135/05 335 3E 332 94 30.5 19 1349 18LPH 75.9L

CEFALU

CEFALU 54 90 278 135/05 280 3E 277 94 34 22 1411 18LPH 69.3L

LICP

DIVERSION
LICP 54 90 280 300/10 283 3E 280 81 6.4 5 1416 18LPH 67.8L
CARINI

CARINI 54 90 245 300/10 250 3E 247 84 15 11 1427 18LPH 64.5L

CASTELLAMARE

CASTELLAMARE 51 90 224 300/10 230 3E 227 87 11 8 1435 18LPH 62.1L

EAST GATE

EAST GATE 49 90 276 300/10 279 3E 276 81 11 8 1443 18LPH 59.7L

LICT

Catania Tower 118.7 CTF VOR/DME 116.250

Catania Approach 119.250

Catania Ground 129.725
Catania ATIS 127.675

Roma Information 129.575

Roma Information 134.125

Palermo Punta Raisi Ground 121.625 PAL VOR/DME 112.300

Palermo Punta Raisi Tower 119.050 (D)

Palermo Boccadifalco AFIS 122.600 (G)

Trapani Tower 119.700 TRA DME 110.950

Trapani Approach 119.950
Trapani Radar 119.950

280 EPA MT
 1 A B C D 2 A B C D 3 A B C D
4 A B C D 5 A B C D 6 A B C D
7 A B C D 8 A B C D 9 A B C D
10 A B C D 11 A B C D 12 A B C D
13 A B C D 14 A B C D 15 A B C D
16 A B C D 17 A B C D 18 A B C D
19 A B C D 20 A B C D 21 A B C D
22 A B C D 23 A B C D 24 A B C D
25 A B C D 26 A B C D 27 A B C D
28 A B C D 29 A B C D 30 A B C D
31 A B C D 32 A B C D 33 A B C D
34 A B C D 35 A B C D 36 A B C D
37 A B C D 38 A B C D 39 A B C D
40 A B C D 41 A B C D 42 A B C D
43 A B C D 44 A B C D 45 A B C D
46 A B C D 47 A B C D 48 A B C D
49 A B C D 50 A B C D 51 A B C D
52 A B C D 53 A B C D 54 A B C D
55 A B C D 56 A B C D 57 A B C D
58 A B C D 59 A B C D 60 A B C D
61 A B C D 62 A B C D 63 A B C D
64 A B C D 65 A B C D 66 A B C D
67 A B C D 68 A B C D 69 A B C D
70 A B C D 71 A B C D 72 A B C D
73 A B C D 74 A B C D 75 A B C D
76 A B C D 77 A B C D 78 A B C D
79 A B C D 80 A B C D 81 A B C D
82 A B C D 83 A B C D 84 A B C D
85 A B C D 86 A B C D 87 A B C D
88 A B C D 89 A B C D 90 A B C D
91 A B C D 92 A B C D 93 A B C D
94 A B C D 95 A B C D 96 A B C D
97 A B C D 98 A B C D 99 A B C D
100 A B C D 101 A B C D 102 A B C D
103 A B C D

281 EPA MT
 1 A B C D 2 A B C D 3 A B C D
4 A B C D 5 A B C D 6 A B C D
7 A B C D 8 A B C D 9 A B C D
10 A B C D 11 A B C D 12 A B C D
13 A B C D 14 A B C D 15 A B C D
16 A B C D 17 A B C D 18 A B C D
19 A B C D 20 A B C D 21 A B C D
22 A B C D 23 A B C D 24 A B C D
25 A B C D 26 A B C D 27 A B C D
28 A B C D 29 A B C D 30 A B C D
31 A B C D 32 A B C D 33 A B C D
34 A B C D 35 A B C D 36 A B C D
37 A B C D 38 A B C D 39 A B C D
40 A B C D 41 A B C D 42 A B C D
43 A B C D 44 A B C D 45 A B C D
46 A B C D 47 A B C D 48 A B C D
49 A B C D 50 A B C D 51 A B C D
52 A B C D 53 A B C D 54 A B C D
55 A B C D 56 A B C D 57 A B C D
58 A B C D 59 A B C D 60 A B C D
61 A B C D 62 A B C D 63 A B C D
64 A B C D 65 A B C D 66 A B C D
67 A B C D 68 A B C D 69 A B C D
70 A B C D 71 A B C D 72 A B C D
73 A B C D 74 A B C D 75 A B C D
76 A B C D 77 A B C D 78 A B C D
79 A B C D 80 A B C D 81 A B C D
82 A B C D 83 A B C D 84 A B C D
85 A B C D 86 A B C D 87 A B C D
88 A B C D 89 A B C D 90 A B C D
91 A B C D 92 A B C D 93 A B C D
94 A B C D 95 A B C D 96 A B C D
97 A B C D 98 A B C D 99 A B C D
100 A B C D 101 A B C D 102 A B C D
103 A B C D 104 A B C D

282 EPA MT
283 EPA MT