MS-3 NIPER-JEE-2010 Time: 2 hours

Number of questions: 200 Max. Marks: 100

1. All questions are compulsory.

1. There will be 25% negative marking for each wrong answers.
1. Each question contains ½ mark only.

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Q.1 Borntrager test is used for identification of
a) Anthraquinones b) Alkaloids
c) Steroids d) Terpenoids

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Ja
Q.4 Clove oil is obtained from biological source
a) Eugenia Caryophyllus b) Eleterra cadmumum c) Cassia angustifolia d) Cassia cinnamomum
Q.5 What is botanical name of Clove
a) Cassia Cinnamomum b) Coriandrum sativum c) Syzygium aromaticum d) Allium sativum
Q.6 Which type of Stomata are present in Senna leaves

y
a) Paracytic b) Anomocytic c) Anisiocytic d) Dicytic
Q.7 Which fatty is biosynthesized by human body
a) Stearic acid b) Oleic acid
Q.8 In Reverse phase chromatography, mobile phase should be with
ac
c) Linoleic acid d) Linolenic acid

a) low polarity b) High polarity c) Medium Polarity d) Non Polarity

rm
Q.9 What is wavelength region for Xenon arc lamp
a) 100-200 nm b) 200-500 nm c) 400-800 nm d) 200-900 nm
Q.10 Cadaverine is obtained from which of the following amino acid
a) Glycine b) Lysine c) Valine d) Leucine
a

Q.11 The compounds that are not mirror images to each other known as
a) Enantiomers b) Homomers c) Diastereomeres d) none of these
Ph

Q.12 How many protons produce doublet (δ) in NMR spectrum of paracetamol.
a) 3 b) 2 c) 4 d) 5
Q.13 Which of the following structure is optically active
a) 1,3-dichloroallene b) biphenyl c) meso Tartaric acid d) 1,3-chloro-2methyl propane
Q.14 In NMR spectrum, 2.35 Tesla will produce MHz frequency equivalent to
a) 100 b) 200 c) 300 d) 400
e

Q.15 The carbonyl group in methyl acetate give wave number in IR spectra
a) 1200 b) 900 c) 1400 d) 1600-1750
os

Q.16 The cyanide anion (CN -1) is inhibitor of following

a) Glycolysis b) Kreb cycle c) Oxidative phosphorylation d) Fatty acid synthesis
Q.17 Cyanide poisoning is treated with
R

a) Activate charcoal b) Sodium nitrite c) Sodium nitrate d) Kaolin

Q.18 Which of the following reaction does not occur in nucleous
a) Glycolysis b) Kreb cycle c) Oxidative phosphorylation d) Citric acid cycle
Q.19 How many times 6 will come in the given figures if 6 is followed by three numbers & preceded by 8
3,5,7,6,2,5,7,5,8,6,3,4,7,9,5,6,8,4,3,8,6,5,9,7,6,4,7,…..
a) 3 b) 4 c) 5 d) 2
 Q.20 Which is the missing number in the given sequence? 2, _, 18, 54, 162
a) 3 b) 6 c) -2 d) -7

Q.23 In which State AYUSH (AYURVEDIC, YOGA, UNANI, HOMOPATHY,) is established?

a) Himachal Pradesh b) Utterakhand c) Kerla d) M.P.

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Q.26 When HBr is added to styrene according to antimarkonikove rule, what product will result?
a) C

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6H5CHBrCH3 b) C6H5CH2CH2Br c) C6H5CH2CH3 d) None of these
Q.27 Which anti-T.B. drug crosses the Blood Brain Barrier?
a) Isoniazid b) Streptomycin c) Ethambutol d) Rifampicin

Ja
Q.28 Aflatoxin is produced by
a) Algae b) Fungi c) Bacteria d) Virus
Q.29 Acid fast bacteria is not stained by crystal violet and washed with acid due to presence of …in cell wall
a) peptidoglane b) mycolic acid c) Techoic acid d) Lipopolysachharide
Q.30 LAL is known as

y
a) Limulus amibeocide lysate b) Litmus Amebiocyte lysate c) Both d) none of these
Q.31 Motile bacteria is
a) Shigilla b) E.choli
ac
c) Lactobacillus d) Klebsella pneumonia
Q.32 Non stained living cells are seen under which microscope
a) Compound b) Phase contrast c) Electron d) none of these
rm
Q.33 HEPA filters H stands for
a) Heavy b) Hire c) High d) Height
Q.34 Methtraxate has its anticancer action by
a) Nucleotide antagonism b) Pyrimidine antagonist c) Folic acid antagonist d) All of these
a

Q.35 Salfasalazaline is prodrug this releases active moieties

a) 5-amino salicylic acid and sulfapyridine b) 4-amino salicylic acid sulfapyridine
Ph

c) 5-amino salicylic acid and sulfapyrimidine d) 4-amino salicylic acid and sulfapyrimidine
Q.36 Sulphonamide acts by the mechanism
a) Compitative antagonism b) non compitative antagonism c) Irreversible antagonism d) none of these
Q.37 Class III antiarrhythmic drugs act by
a) Slow depolarization b) Produce anesthesia c) Inhibit calcium entry d) Adrenergic agonist
e

Q.38 Which of the following drug does not produce emesis by Chemoreceptor trigor Zone
a) Copper sulphate b) Morphine c) Aphomorphine d) Ergot
os

Q.39 Paracetamol in high doses cause

a) Nephrotoxicity b) Hepatotoxicity c) ototoxicity d) Renal failure
Q.40 In renal failure, which antibiotics produces lowest renal toxicity?
a) Gentamycin b) Streptomycin c) Cephaloridine d) Cloxacillin
R

Q.41 Chloramphenicol is used as

a) Antimalarial b) Antifungal c) Antibiotics d) antiviral
Q.42 Transient deafness is major side effect of
a) Furosemide b) Chlorthiazide c) Chlorthalidone d) Acetazolamide
Q.43 Which of the following drug is teratogrenic
a) Thalidomide b) Streptomycin c) Chloramphenicol d) Tetracycline
 Q.44 Handerson Hassalbalch equation is also known as
a) Stability study b) Reaction kinetics c) Solubility parameter d) pH equation
Q.45 In Influenza virus we classify (H1,N1) Virus N stands for
a) Nector b) Neuropeptidase c) Neuroamidase d) none of these
Q.46 In Hepatic enzyme P-450, 450 stands for
a) absorption wavelength for chromophoric group b) Classification of enzymes

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c) Enzyme activity d) None of these
0C
Q.47 What is the viscosity of water at 20
a) 1 poise b) 0.001 poise c) 1 centi poise d) none of these
Q.48 In Wittig reaction ylide is formed by which of the following metal

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a) Aliminium b) Nitrogen c) Phosphorus d) palladium
Q.49 For Soft gelatin capsule upto 300mg capsule for weight uniformity limit
a) 5% b) 7.5% c) 10% d) 20%

Ja
Q.50 When cholesterol is dehydrogenated, what product results in
a) Anthracene b) Diel’s product c) retene d) none of these
Q.51 Kjhaldal method is used for determination of
a) Sulphate b) Nitrates c) Phosphates d) Organic Nitrogen

y
Q.52 CoMFA and CoMfSia are the software that are used for study
a) 2D structure of molecule b) 3D structure of molecule c) Molecular docking d) Molecular weight
Q.53 Denosulab is approved by US FDA in 2010 for the treatment of
a) Cancer b) Osteoporosis c) hypertension d) Schizophrenia
ac
Q.54 Bacteria that require trace amount of growth but can not alive in the presence of Oxygen
a) Microaerophilic b) Obligatory aerobe c) Mesophile d) Obligatory anaerobe
rm
Q.55 Which software is used for molecular docking?
a) Flex-i b) lunix c) Gold d) All of these
Q.56 Ethyl acetoacetate shows which type of tautomerism
a) imine-amine b) Keto-enol c) cis-trans d) syn-anti
a

Q.57 Ethyl acetoacetate is prepared by which reaction

a) Claisen condensation b) Dickman condensation c) Perkin condensation d) none of these
Ph

Q.58 Which of the following group is electron donar?

a) –NH
2 b) –COOH c) –CN d) –CHO
Q.59 Complete structure of protein is seen in 3 D which explains structure of
a) Primary protein b) Secondary protein c) Tertiary protein d) Quarternary protein
e

Q.60 Dill contains which of the following constituents

a) Carvone b) Citral c) Anthole d) Camphor
os

Q.61 Which of the following drug prolong coagulation

a) Heparin b) Quinine c) Propranolol d) Ergot
Q.62 Parkinson’s disease is characterised by the deficiency of which type of neurotransmitter ?
a) Acetyl Choline b) Dopamine c) Noradrenaline d) Adrenaline
R

Q.63 Which isotope of carbon is used in C-NMR

a) C12 b) C14 c) C15 d) C13
Q.64 Samples are prepared as mulls in which type of techniques
a) NMR b) UV-Visible c) FT-IR d) Mass
Q.65 Which function is not performed by TXA2
a) Platelete aggregation b) Bronchoconstriction c) Vasoconstriction d)Hypotension
 Q.66 Which of the following is function of reserpine?
a) Platelete aggregation b) Bronchoconstriction c) Vasoconstriction d)Hypotension
Q.67 Parietal cells are found in GIT and secretes
a) Gastric juice b) Gastric acid c) Amylase d) Trypsin
Q.68 Site of ribosome synthesis is located at
a) Nucleus b) Cell wall c) Endoplasmic reticulum d) Cell membrane

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Q.69 Bragg’s law is applicable for
a) X-ray diffraction b) UV-Visible c) FT-IR d) NMR
Q.70 Which of following is unmatched in the given combination

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a) Mankind : Unwanted-72 b) Morphen lab. : option-72
c) Pyramal Healthcare: i-pill d) German Remidies: g-pill
Q.71 Some days before Cipla healthcare limit has sold its i-pill product to which company?

Ja
a) Pfizer b) Pyramal Healthcare c) Morphen d) Cadila pharma
Q.72 Who were the Noble prize winner of 2009 in field of physiology and medicine?
a) Elizabeth H. Blackburn, Carol W. Greider, Jack W. Szostak
b) Harald zur Hausen, Françoise Barré-Sinoussi, Luc Montagni
c) Mario R. Capecchi, Sir Martin J. Evans, Oliver Smithies

y
d) Andrew Z. Fire, Craig C. Mello
Q.73 N-acetyl peptidoglycan and N-acetyl muramic acid is component of
a) Cell membrane b) Cell wall c) nucleus
ac
Q.74 Common Intermediate between aerobic and anaerobic oxidative phosphorylation
d) lysosome

a) Glycolysis b) Citric acid pathway b) Kreb cycle d) none of these

rm
Q.75 What is hydrogen absorbency index for C7H7NO2 formula
a) 3 b) 4 c) 5 d) 6
Q.76 What is m/e ration for butyrophenone according to Mac Lafferty arrangement
a) 132 b) 157 c) 242 d) 42
a

Q.78 β and α of D-glucose are known as

Ph

a) Epimer b) Conformer c) Rotamer d) Anomer

Q.79 Sennosides mainly contains
a) Terpenoids b) Steroids c) Anthraquinone d) tritepenoid
Q.80 Leaves of Atropa belladonna contains mainly constituents of
a) Quinoline alkaloid b) Indole alkaloids c) Isoquinoline alkaloids d) Tropane alkaloids
e

Q.81 G-protein coupled receptors are mainly made of

a) seven membranes with α-helix b) Five membranes with ionophore
os

c) seven membranes with β-helix d) none of these

Q.82 Which one of the following is nonsense codon
a) GTP b) AUG c) GUA d) UAG
Q.83 Which one of the following Carbocation is most stable?
R

+ b) Ph +H c) PhC+H +
a) Ph3C 2C 2 d) CH3
Q.84 Clavenger apparatus is used for the estimation of
a) Glycoside b) Alkaloids c) Terpenoids d) Steroids
Q.85 Reaction of RO18H +RCOOH Ester will produce the final product
a) R-CO18OR b) R-COO18R c) R-COOR d) None of these
 Q.86 What is the Full form of IND
a) Investment New Fund b) Inogaral new Drug c) Investigational New Drug d) None of these
Q.87 Satayam was taked over by Mahindera now is Satayam Mahindra. The audit of this company was given
to which group?
a) KPMG and Deloitte Touche Tohmatsu b) KPMG and Mahindra c) KPMG and wipro
d) none of these
Q.88 Erythropoietin are synthesized in

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a) Spleen b) Liver c) Bone marrow d) Kidney
Q.89 asenapine is used in
a) Anxiety b) Hypertension c) Schizophrenia d) Seizures

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Q.90 The drug that is useful in decreasing sugar when given with food in diabetes mellitus II
a) saxagliptin b) Simvastatin c) Finofibrate d) Pioglitazone
Q.91 The drug febuxostat is approved by US FDA in 2009 is mainly used for

Ja
a) Anxiety b) Cancer c) Gout d) Insomania
Q.92 What is the function of hemoglobin?
a) Carry O
2 only b) Carry O2 and CO2 c) Carry CO2 only d) none of these
Q.93 The enzyme trypsin is prepared by

y
a) Ox’s Pancreas b) Pig’s stomach c) Cat’s liver d) Dog’s lungs
Q.94 In Aerosol 152 a is used for the name of which propellant?
a) Mono fluoro dichloro methane
c) Tri Fluoro mono chloro methane
b) Difluoro ethane
ac
d) Tetra fluoro dichloro ethane
Q.95 Tween 40 is
rm
a) polyoxyethylene pamitate sorbitan ester b) polyoxyethylene oleate sorbitan ester
c) polyoxyethylene stearate sorbitan ester d) polyoxyethylene myristate sorbitan ester
Q.96 Which type of dose response curve by Digitoxin?
a) U-curve b) V-curve c) Zig Zag curve d) none of these
a

Q.97 Which of the following is anti-allergic drug?

a) reserpine b) Chlorthiazide c) Zolpidem d) Thenaldine
Ph

Q.98 Which of the following reaction yields different product?

a) Rimer Tieman reaction b) Gatterman Kosh reaction c) Perkin reaction d) Vilsemere reaction
Q.99 What is rate of SN2 reaction in organic solvent?
- b) PhS-> PhSH>PhNH
a) PhSH>PhNH2>PhOH>CH3S 2>PhOH
- d) PhS-< PhSH>PhNH
c) PhSH>PhNH2>PhOH< PhS 2>PhOH
e

Q.100 Which detector is universal detector?

a) UV/Visible detector b) Refractive Index detector c) Fluorescence detector d) Flame ionization detector
os

Q.101 Formative TLC plates are prepared by washing silica gel

a) Chromic acid b) Ferric chloride c) Phenol d) carbon tetra chloride
Q.102 Ziesel method is used for determination of
a) Ester group b) Methoxy group c) Carboxy group d) hydroxyl group
R

Q.103 Which of the following is most reactive with water?

a) Acid chloride b) Acetic anhydride c) Acid amide d) Acetic acid
-1)
Q.104 What is νc=o wave number for acid chloride (cm
a) 1200 b) 900 c) 1400 d) 1800
Q.105 What is active constituent in castor oil?
a) Lauric acid b) ricinolic acid c) Myristic acid d) Stearic acid
 Q.106 Antihypertensive drug acts within minutes
a) Hydralazine b) Propranolol c) Diazoxide d) Sodium Nitropruisside
Q.107 Orthostatic hypotension is adverse effect of
a) Reserpine b) α-methyldopa c) Guanthidine d) All of these
Q.108 Adrenal hyperplasia is adverse effect of
a) Labetalol b) Carvedilol c) Terazosin d) none of these
Q.109 What is adverse effect of Neomycin?

ur
a) Ototoxicity b) Nepherotoxicity c) Paralysis d) All of these
Q.110 P-glycoprotein causes the drug from cell barier
a) Efflux of drug b) Lipophilic drug c) Hydrophilic drug d) None of these

ip
Q.111 The enzyme P-450 performs the following functions
a) Oxidation of substrate b) hydrolysis of substrate c) Hydroxylation of substrate d) a & c both

Ja
Q.112 Diazepam is used as
a) Major tranquilizer b) Minor tranquilizer c) Medium tranquilizer d) none of these
Q.113 Which of the following drug is used in Hepatitis B
a) Zidovudine b) Amantadine c) Vidarbine d) Acyclovir
Q.114 Salk is used in

y
a) Small pox b) Poliomyletis b) Hydrophobia d) Plague
Q.115 Some Parasites are the intermediate that transmit the causative organisms are known as
a) Vector b) Transporter
Q.116 Which one of the following is antidepressant
a) Epitryptan b) Griasetron
c) Vehicle ac
c)Trazadone
d) none of these

d) none of these
rm
Q.117 What is bond between antigen and antibody?
a) 30 b) 45 c) 60 d) 90
Q.118 Group A blood agglutinate with
a) Type A b) Type B c) Type AB d) Type O
a

Q.119 Paratope is
a)
Ph

Q.120 Plasmid is
a) Self replicating chromosomes b) Histone c) Nucleus DNA d) Circular DNA
Q.121 The receptors that are involved in the pathogenesis of myasthenia grevis are
a) Cholinergic receptor b) Nicotinic receptor c) Adrenergic receptor d) Tyrosine receptor
Q.122 Antihypertensive drug that is contraindicated in diabetes on insulin therapy
a) Propranolol b) Amlodipin c) Reserpine d) Methyldopa
e

Q.123 Which one of the following is antihalminthic drug

a) Quinine b) Acylcovir c) Mebendazole d) Dapsone
os

Q.124 Anti-Adrenergic drugs are also known as

a) Sympathomimetic b) Parasympathomimetic c) Sympatholytic d) Parasympatholytic
Q.125 Helobactor pylori is causative organism for
R

a) Food poisoning b) Peptic ulcer c) Botulism d) Arthritis

Q.126 Sibutramine used in
a) Epilepsy b) Anxiety c) Obesity d) Ulcer
Q.127 Azothioprine is used in
a) Malaria b) Tuberculosis c) Leukemia d) hypertension
 Q.128 Phase I clinical trial is done with
a) In vitro studies b) In vivo studies c) Healthy volunteer d) animals
Q.129 Anaethetic drug acts by potentiating GABA-A receptor
a) Diethyl ether b) Chloroform c) Thiopentone sodium d) Ketamine
Q.130 Kupper cells are produced in
a) lungs b) Liver c) Kidney d) Spleen
Q.131 Cidal antibiotics acts on DNA gyrase are

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a) Penicillin b) Fluoroquilones c) Aminoglycosides d) Macrolides
Q.132 Erythromycin acts by
a) Inhibiting cell wall synthesis b) Inhibiting Nucleic acid synthesis c) Inhibiting protein synthesis d) none

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Q.133 Which of the Drug potentiate the action of nitroglycerin is
a) Propranolol b) Nifedipine c) Captopril d) Sildenafil

Ja
Q.134 Signaling molecule is
a) NO b) CO c) CH
3 d) N2O
Q.135 In Mass spectra, What is base peak?
a) Abundance with low intensity b) Abundance with medium intensity
c) Abundance with highest intensity d) none of these

y
Q.136 p-Phellandrine shows λmax at 234nm, it means
a) It shows unsaturation
c) It shows unsaturation and two methyl group
Q.137 Circular dichroism is used to study
ac
b) It shows two double bond and one methyl group
d) Conjugated double bond and one alkyl group

a) Tertiary structure of protein b) 2 D structure c) 3 D structure d) None of these

rm
Q.138 :CCl2 made anhydrous with
a) CaCl2 b) H2SO4 c) P2O5 d) Charcoal
Q.139 In reverse phase TLC the drug with low polarity will be eluated by
a) Increasing polarity of mobile phase b) Decreasing polarity of mobile phase
a

c) Increasing Hydrophobicity of mobile phase d) None of these

Q.140 Hygroscopy is determined by
Ph

a) DSC b) XRPD c) HPLC d) TG

Q.141 Which of the following group is called Amphiphatic
a) Carbohydrate b) Amino acid c) Fats d) Lipids
Q.142 Hyocyamine is present in
a) Senna b) Erythroxylon coca c) Atropa belladonna d) Rauwolfia serpentina
e

Q.143 Soft gelatin capsules are washed with

a) Acetone b) Hexane c) Ether d) Alcohol
os

Q.144 Ampoules and vials are sterilized by

a) Dry heat b) Autoclave c) Radiation d) Filtration
Q.145 Cardiolipin is phospholipids and found in
a) Cell wall b) Cell membrane c) Cell wall and cell membrabe d) none of these
R

Q.146 Clavicep purpurea contains

a) Anthraquinones b) Digoxin c) Ergot d) Reserpine
Q.147 If water is removed from the preparation then it is known as
a) Hydrogel b) Xerogel c) Sol d) Ointment
Q.148 Antioxidant act as reducing agent
a) Thiourea b) Sodium sulphate c) Calcium phosphate d) None of these
 Q.149 which one of the following is not autoclaved?
a) Nylon b) Polystyrene c) Teflon d) Rubber
Q.150 In post prandial hyperglycemia, the level of glucose is
a) 90-120 mg/dL b) 160-200 mg/dL c) 60-90mg/dL d) 100-130mg/dL
Q.151 Non aqueous solvent that is immiscible with water
a) Poly ethylene glycol b) polypropylene glycol c) Dioxolan d) Acetyl Myrisirate

ur
Q.152 Butterscotch is used to mask the following test of formulation
a) Bitter b) citrus c) Salty d) Sweet
Q.153 The tetrahedral structure of carbon is given by

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a) Kekule b) Debar c) Vont Hoff and Lebel d) Fleming
Q.154 Which of the following is not true for tablet
a) Dissolution test b) Disintegration Test c) Weight uniformity Test d) Friability test

Ja
Q.155 Richilder is baby powder according to Drugs and Cosmetic Act it is manufactured by
a) Colgate and Palmolive b) Glaxo smith Kline c) Johnson and Johnson d) Proctor and Gamble
Q.156 Drug and Price control Order comes under
a) Essenional Commodity act b) Narcotic Act c) Tiolet and Excise Duty act d) Cosmetic Act
Q.157 B-lymphocytes are produced in

y
a) Spleen b) Bone Marrow c) Lungs d) Liver
Q.158 2-Hg benzthiazole is mixed in the preparation for
a) Accelerator b) Rubber
Q.159 Order of energy in following bonds
c) plastic
ac
d) none of these

a) π > π* > σ* b) π < π* < σ* c) π > π* < σ* d) π < π* > σ*

rm
Q.160 Order of energy in following bonds
a) H-H > C-H >C-C > C-Cl b) H-H > C-H <C-C > C-Cl
c) H-H < C-H <C-C < C-Cl d) H-H < C-H >C-C < C-Cl
Q.161 What is the value ppm of Chemical shift (δ) of hydrogen in Anisole?
a

a) 1.8 b) 1.5 c) 1.3 d) 0.9

Ph

Q.163 What is order of carbonyl groups wave number νc=o in the given structure
a) Ibuprofen > Salicylic acid > Paracetamol >Procaine b) Ibuprofen >Procaine > Paracetamol> Salicylic acid
c) Ibuprofen < Salicylic acid < Paracetamol <Procaine d) Ibuprofen <Procaine > Paracetamol<Salicylic acid
Q.164 Which of the following structure will produce doublet in the given structure?
a) Isobutene b) 2-Bromo-2-methyl-propane c) 2-Bromo propene d) 1,2- dichloro ethane
e

Q.165 Which company has filed case in court against Indian Patent Act?
a) b) c) d)
os

Q.166 What is the order of energy in the given radiations?

a) UV < NMR < IR b) UV > IR > NMR c) UV < IR < NMR d) UV > IR < NMR
Q.167 Chromosomes are aligned to parallel to each others by separating in lines to centromere are known as
a) anaphase b) Telephase c) Metaphase d) Interphase
R

Q.168 Which one of the following is used as enteric coating material?

a) HPMC b) Ethyl cellulose c) CMC d) Cellulose acetate phthalate
Q.169 Compressible Lactose is different from Lactose by lacks of
a) Disintegration b) Compressibility c) Porosity d) Viscosity
Q.170 Repose angle is used to study
a) Friction of powder b) Compressibility c) Flowability d) Viscosity
 Q.171 The compound reacts with epoxide to form
Q.172 What is wet point?
Q.173 Bentonite and carbomers are mixed for
Q.174 Exchange comes in
a) Essen ional Commodity act b) Narcotic Act c) Tiolet and Excise Duty act d) Cosmetic Act
Q.175 Diphtheria toxin is released from bacteria Which causes?

ur
a) Botulism b) Food poisoning c) Diphthria d) Tetanus
Q.176 To avoid crystallization in syrups we add
a) Polyhydric alcohol b) Monohydric alcohol c) Ethers d) esters

ip
Q.177 Histones and none histones
Q.178 Disintegration test is not applicable on
a) Tablets b) Capsules c) Solutions d) Pills

Ja
Q.179 Range of wave number in acid derivatives
a) Acid halide > ester > acid anhydride > acid amide b) Acid halide < ester < acid anhydride > acid amide
c) Acid halide < ester < acid anhydride < acid amide d) Acid halide > ester > acid anhydride > acid amide
Q.180 Benzene when reacts with methyl chloride forms ……in presence of Anhydrous aluminum chloride
a) Nitrobenzene b) Aniline c) Toluene d) Anisole

y
Q.181 Which one of the following is not true

1.a
a) Dissolution

2.a
b) Disintegration

3.d
c)

4.a
ac
Answer Key(NIPER JEE-2010)
5.c
6.a 7.a 8.b 9.b 10.b
rm
11.c 12.b 13.d 14.a 15.d
16.c 17.b 18.a 19.b 20.b
21.a 22.d 23.b 24.c 25.d
26.a 27.a 28.a 29.b 30.a
a

31.b 32.c 33.c 34.c 35.b

36.a 37.a 38.a 39.b 40.d
Ph

41.c 42.a 43.a 44.d 45.c

46.a 47.c 48.c 49.c 50.b
51.d 52.b 53.b 54.a 55.a
56.b 57.a 58.a 59.d 60.a
61.a 62.b 63.d 64.c 65.d
e

66.d 67.b 68.c 69.a 70.d

71.b 72.a 73.b 74.a 75.c
os

76.d 77.b 78.d 79.c 80.d

81.a 82.d 83.a 84.b 85.a
86.c 87.a 88.d 89.c 90.a
R

91.c 92.b 93.a 94.b 95.a

96.b 97.d 98.d 99.- 100.b
101.b 102.b 103.b 104.d 105.b
106.d 107.d 108.c 109.d 110.a
111.d 112.b 113.a 114.b 115.a
116.c 117.-- 118.b 119.- 120.a
 121.b 122.a 123.c 124.c 125.b
126.c 127.c 128.c 129.c 130.b
131.b 132.c 133.d 134.a 135.c
136.d 137.b 138.- 139.b 140.-
141.b 142.c 143.a 144.b 145.b
146.c 147.b 148.a 149.d 150.b

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151.d 152.a 153.c 154.d 155.c
156.a 157.b 158.a 159.b 160.a
161.c 162.b 163.b 164.c 165.-

ip
166.b 167.b 168.d 169.b 170.a
171.- 172.-- 173.- 174.- 175.c
176.a 177.- 178.c 179.d 180.c

Ja
MS-1 NIPER-JEE-2009 Time: 2 hours Number of questions: 200
Max. Marks: 100

1. All questions are compulsory.

1.

y
There will be 25% negative marking for each wrong answers.
1. Each question contains ½ mark only.

Q.1 Henson peddle used in to determine

ac
a) Dissolution rate b) Disintegration rate c) Consistency of semisolid d) Viscosity
Q.2 Which tablet does not require disintegrant?
rm
a) sublingual b) effervescent c)Buccal d) dissolution tab
Q.3 What is mechanism of action for cholchicine?
a) Inhibits cell wall synthesis b) Inhibits protein biosynthesis
c) Interruption in spindle activity d) leakage of cell wall
a

Q.4 Transient deafness is a side effect of

a) Chlorthiazide b) Acetazolamide c) Indapamide d) Furosimide
Ph

Q.5 What is Vmax in enzyme kinetics?

a) Highest velocity at saturation b) Lowest velocity at saturation
c) Medium velocity at saturation d) Initial velocity at saturation
Q.6 Preparation for oral use dose not contain
a) Sorbitol b) Glucose c) Phenol d) Glycerol
e

Q.7 Which one is not a irritant purgative?

a) Phenolphthalein b) Cascara c) Sod. CMC d) Castor oil
os

Q.8 In soft gelatin capsule plasticizer is

a) Mannitol b) Sorbitol c) Glucose d) Sucrose
Q.9 Substance not used in intravenous preparation is
a) Methyl alcohol b) Ethanol c) Propylene glycol d) Glycerol
R

Q.10 What is the comparative polarity in between acetone and methanol?

a) Half b) Equal c) Double d) Triple
Q.11 Electrophoretic mobility is called as ---
a) Movement of electric field b) Movement of magnetic field c) Both d) none of these
 Q.12 In secondary protein the a structure is stabilized by ----
a) H bond b) Vander walls bond c) Sigma bond d) Pi bond
Q.13 Vander wall bonds are type of
a) Antibonding b) Non bonding c) Bonding d) Hydrogen bonding
Q.14 Vander wall bond length of Hydrogen is
a) 1.2 b) 1.4 c) 1.6 d) 1.8

ur
Q.15 Nitro group in electrophillic aromatic substitution reaction is
a) Ortho directing b) Meta directing c) Para directing d) Ortho & Para directing
Q.16 Maximum particle size in suspension

ip
a) 0.2 b) 0.3 c) 0.4 d) 0.5
-1)
Q.17 Range of infrared spectra for acetyl chloride is (CM
a) 900 b) 1200 c) 1800 d) 2200

Ja
Q.18 Value of curie is
a) 3.7 × 1010 DPS b) 3.7 × 10100 DPS c) 3.7 × 10-10 DPS s 3.7 × 10-100 DPS
Q.19 The DRUG containing t
1/2 =12 hr for 90% steady state concentration….required
a) Two half life b) Three half life c) Four Half life d) Five half lifes
Q.20 Acylase is similar to

y
a) β-lactamase b) Penicillinase c) Amidase d) Zymase

b) Double doublet
Q.22 New drug approved by US FDA in 2009
c) Triplet
ac
Q.21 coupling constant for methyl group in isopropyl moiety in NMR spectra of …..
a) Doublet d) Quardet

a) Olanzapine b) iildes c) Rivastigmine d) none these

rm
Q.23 What is endotheline?
a) A vasoconstrictor b) acts on endothelin receptor c) Release nitric oxide d) all of these
Q.24 More potent calcium channel blocker in cardiac conduction is
a) nifedipine b) diltiazem c) verapamil d) none of these
a

Q.25 Why auditing is done?

a) To find out the financial position of firm b) To Check loss and profit of firm
Ph

c) To detect fraud and error of the firm d) None of these

Q.26 AVICEL is the brand name for
a) Sod. Carboxy methyl cellulose b) Microcrystalline cellulose c) Hydrolisable starch d) Lactose
Q.27 Which method used to detect purity in sample?
a) GC-MS b) NMR c) FT-IR d) LC-MS
e

Q.28 Which is not used in controlled release preparation?

a) HPMC b) Xanthan gum c) PVC d) Dicalcium phosphate
os

Q.29 What is preparative HPLC analysis?

a) purification b) scale up technique c) Quantification d) Separation
Q.30 Signal of acetylene is appeared in which position to ethylene
a) Higher b) Lower c) Equal d) None of these
R

Q.31 What is mutagenesis?

a) Formation of new cells due to mutation b) Formation of new cells due to hybydation
c) d)
Q.32 How many members are required to produce a co-operative society?

a) 6 b) 8 c) 10 d) 15
 Q.33 What is statutory meeting?
Q.34 Biologically derived developed drug in 2009 US FDA approval
Q.35 which of the following is weakest electrolyte

a) Glucose b) Urea c) Ephedrine d) Sodium chloride

Q.36 What is mechanism of chloroquine?
a) Haemozoin stabilization b) alteration in pH c) Tissue schizonticide d) none of these

ur
Q.37 Which is not of pKa determination?
a) pH meter b) Handerson Hassalbalch equation c) UV d) none of these
Q.38 RBI nationalized in

ip
a)1951 b)1950 c) 1949 d) 1935
Q.39 UTI work for
a) Mobilization of saving people b) Provide homes for public c) both d) none of these

Ja
Q.40 Who issue one rupee NOTE in India?
a) Govt of India b) Iissue department of RBI c) SBI d) PNB
Q.41 Conversion of methane from acetone is done with
a) HCl/Zn-Hg b) NaOH / Hydrazide c) LiAlH4 d) none of these

y
Q.42 When planning commission came in effect?
a) 1950 b) 1951 c) 1952 d) 1956
Q.43 Disguishing unemployment is
a)
Q.44 Dihydro abietic acid contains no. of stereoisomer
ac
a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5
rm
Q.45 Which is DNA gyrase inhibitor?
a) Fluoroquinolones b) Cephalosporins c) Macrolide s Lincomycin
Q.46 Folic acid deficieny is side effect of
a) Leucoverin b) Methotraxate c) Streptpmycin d) Simvastatin
a

Q.47 What is the mechanism of aminoguanidine

+ cchannel b) Release nitric oxide c) Both d) None of these
a) Open K
Ph

Q.48 CH
3-CH=CH2 + HBr à anti Markovni kov addition product is
a) CH3-CH2-CH2Br b) CH3-CHBr-CH3 c) CH2Br-CH2Br-CH3 d) BrCH2-CH2-CH2Br
Q.49 COmFUsia is software that is to study
a) 2 D QSAR b) 3 D QSAR c) Molecular docking d) All of these
Q.50 actin and myosin are
e

a) Motor protein b) Cardiac muscle protein c) Smooth muscle protein d) none of these
os

Q.51 Stereo structure of pseudo ephedrine

a) 1R, 2S b) 1S, 2R c) 1R, 2R d) 1S, 2S
Q.52 A person walk 10 km north then 5km left & 10km right what is the final direction of person
from origin?
R

a) North b) South c) East d) West

Q.53 Dissolution of oxygen in water is represented by
a) higher vapour pressure b) low vapour pressure c) low temperature d) High temperature
Q.54 What is planner chromatography
a) TLC b) Paper Chromatography c) Both a & b d) none of these
 Q.55 Dissolution of partnership on
a) partner’s died b) partner`s mind disturb c) partner’s misbehave d) loss in business
Q.56 The reactive species in friedel craft reaction is
a) Carbocation b) Carbanion c) Free radical d) None of these
Q.57 Non aromatic compound is
a) cyclopentadienyl cation b) cyclopentadienyl anion c) Phenyl d) Nahthyl

ur
Q.58 What is the mechanism of trimetazidine
a) inhibition of carnitine in myocyte b) Inhibition of cell wall synthesis c) both d) none
Q.59 Structure of betaine in wittig reaction

ip
a) CH2=CHPhCH3 b) Ph3PO c) CH3CHO d) CH2=CHPh3PO
Q.60 A drug having pKa <3 where it get ionized
a) stomach b) large intestine c) small intestine d) Mouth

Ja
Q.61 What is ionization?
a) Get charge b) Neutral c) Mobile d) Non polar
Q.62 what is reverse transcription?
a) DNA to RNA b) RNA to DNA c) DNA to DNA d) RNA to RNA
Q.63 Which one of the following causes multiple sclerosis?

y
a)demylenation b) sphingoscien c) Sphingomylin degeneration d) none of these
Q.64 family of haemophilus
a) Pasteurellaceae
ac
b) Mycobacteraceae c) Streptococci d) none of these
Q.65 Alzheimer disease is treated by the drug
a) Rivastigmine b) Donepezil c) Physiostigmine d) all of these
rm
Q.66 Ropinirole is used in
a) Seizures b) Anxiety c) Parkinsonism d) Osteoporosis
Q.67 anti epileptic drug carbamazipine acts as
2+ channel blocker b) Na+ channel blocker c) Glutamate antagonist d) none of these
a) Ca
a

Q.68 BZD agonist at

a) GABA
A b) GABAB c) Dopamineric d) Adrenergic
Ph

Q.69 hallucinogen act on

a) GABA receptor b) Dopamineric receptor c) Opioid receptors d) Nicotinergic receptor
Q.70 Aspirin acts as
a) Irreversible COX-1 inhibition b) COX-2 inhibition c) reversible COX-1 inhibition d) none
Q.71 The agent has no efficiency with affinity to receptor known as
e

a) Agonist b) Partial agonist c) Inverse agonist d) Antagonist

Q.72 Aliskrein is
os

a) renin antagonist b) prostaglandin agonist c) angiotensin antagonist d) none of these

caused by
Q.73 Mechanism of SN2
a) Formation of racemic mixture b) Inversion of configuration c) both d) None of these
Q.74 equilibrium attain quickly at
R

a) adipose tissue b) blood brain barrier c) muscle d) Nerve

Q.75 structure of nifedipine

Q.76 degradation by light

a) Metronidazole b) Nifedipine c) Paracetamol d) Diclofenac
 Q.77 Nutrient in parentral emulsion
a) Dextrose b) lecithin c) NaCl d) Urea
Q.78 Use of KBr in IR
a) Preparation of mull b) preparation of disc c) preparation of film d) b and c both
Q.79 WEIGHT of suppositories
a) 1 gm b) 2 gm c) 3 gm d) 4 gm
Q.80 Molarity of water is

ur
a) 40 b) 34 c) 55.5 d) 65.5
Q.81 Aprotic solvent is
a) Acetic anhydride b) Chloroform c) Water d) DCM

ip
Q.82 Hydrogen bonding effect on frequency of IR
a) Increase wave number b) Decrease wave number c) No change d) None of these

Ja
Q.83 range of far IR
a) 12500 cm-1 b) 4000 cm-1 c) 3000 cm-1 d) 650 cm-1
Q.84 Which of the following is higher acidic?
a) Nitrobenzoic acid b) toluene c) benzoic acid d) Amino benzoic acid
Q.85 Interaction of Gentamicin and Carbenicillin

y
a) precipitation of gentamicin b) precipitation of carbenicillin c) Neutral d) none of these
Q.86 Isomerism in cinnamic acid
a) atropiisomer b) conformomers
Q.87 protein binding of a drug causes
a) longer acting
c) Geometric isomer

b) increased efficacy c) shorter acting

ac d) Optical isomer

d) decreased efficacy
rm
Q.88 ion channel receptor are organized as
a) prepared of integral protein and allow transition of ion b) prepared of integral protein and
allow transition of voltage c) Both d) none of these
Q.89 cimetidine is
a) inducer of p450 b) inhibitor of p450 c) No effect d) all of these
a

Q.90 what is the reason for optical inactivation of tropinine

Ph

a)
Q.91 Side effect of phenothiazine
a) nephrotoxic b) neurotoxic c) Ototoxic d) Hepatotoxic
Q.92 testing of functionality of liver
a) alanine transferase b) aspartate transferase c) Pyruvate transferase d) glutamate transferase
Q.93 Ipratropium used in asthma because of its effect
e

a) adrenergic b) anticholinergic c) Cholinergic d) Serotonergic

Q.94 glutathione is
os

a) anti oxidant polysaccharide b) radical scavenger c) pentapeptide d) Protein

Q.95 heparin is
a) lipoprotein b) polysaccharide c)glycoprotein d) Phospholipids
R

Q.96 Which drug can not be given with insulin

a) acetazolamide b) propranolol c) Methyl dopa d) Thlorthiazide
Q.97 binding of two chain of insulin
a)metallic bond b)disulfide bond c) Covalent bond d) ionic bond
Q.98 Bredt rule
a)
 Q.99 Bayer williger reaction uses ……for epoxidation
a) KMnO
4 b) H2O2 c) CrO3 d) Peroxybenzoic acid
Q.100 Synonym of frequent
a) rare b) some times c) usually d) always
Q.101 ANTONYM of Onerous
a) Heavy b) Easy c) Difficult d) Uneasy

ur
Q.102 Side chain with configuration and position for Paclitaxel
a) 2R,3S b) 2S, 3R c) 2R, 3R d) 2S, 3S

Q.103 Nobel prize winner of medicine 2008 with their subordinates

ip
a) Elizabeth H. Blackburn, Carol W. Greider, Jack W. Szostak
b) Harald zur Hausen, Françoise Barré-Sinoussi, Luc Montagni
c) Mario R. Capecchi, Sir Martin J. Evans, Oliver Smithies

Ja
d) Andrew Z. Fire, Craig C. Mello

Q.104 Morphine + KOH + CH3I -à Product

a) Codeine b) Codienone c) Thebaine d) Oxymorphone
Q.105 polyetster prepared from reactant and reaction of
a) hexamethyl formilin b) adipic acid ammonia c) both d) None of these

y
Q.106 How many H bonds present in water?
a) 1 b) 2
Q.107 In general structure of sugar molecule show
a) epimer b)anomer
c) 3

c) isomer
ac d) 4

d) conformer
Q.108 IR range 2100-2300 shows which group
rm
a) >CH – CH< b) >C = C< c) –C ≡ C- d) –CHO
Q.109 Precursor used in fermentation for
a) for determination of structure b) for nutrition of microbe c) formation of product d) none
Q.110 partial pressure of oxygen in water –
a

a) high to atmosphere to show solubility b) lower to atmosphere to show solubility

c) variable to atmosphere to show solubility d) nonsoluble
Ph

Q.111 cause for administration of sterile air in fermentors—

a) filteration b) sterilization c) both d) none of these
Q.112 highest size of droplet in I.V. emulsion
a) 1μl b) 2μl c) 3 μl d) 5μl
Q.113 Smallest capsule size
e

a) 000 b) 1 c) 5 d) 4
Q.114 what type of polymorph used in preparation of suspension?
os

a) metastable b) intermediate stable c) stable d) none of these

Q.115 what is allostrerism?
a)
Q.116 in drug receptor
R

a) drug is larger than receptor b) receptor is larger molecule than drug c) Equal d) none of these
Q.117 what is the significance of flexibility of drug…?
a)
Q.118 Anadamide is chemically related to
a) Archidonic acid b) Polysaccharides c) Protein d) Lipid
 Q.119 > what is `P` in QSAR equation ?
a) partition coefficient b) polarity c) prodrug d) pH
Q.120 In parenteral preparation absence of microbes detected by
a) Pyrogen testing b) Sterility testing c) Clarity testing d) none of these
Q.121 why dose uniformity of dosage form are tested on USP?
a) to check bioequivellence b) to check efficacy c) both d) none of these

ur
Q.122 which test is not official in USP?
a)dissolution b)disintegration c) friability d) Drug content
Q.123 by the use of furfuryl synthesis carried out for

ip
a) Furosimide b) Furazolidone c) Acetazolamide d) Chlorthiazide
Q.124 increase in pH in penicillin production cause
a) increase solubility b) precipitate penicillin c) Decrease solubility d) None ofthese

Ja
Q.125 what is lead molecule ?
a)
Q.126 Small innoculum used in culture to
a) to increase lag time b) to decrease lag time c) to increase log time d) none of these

y
Q.127 what is effect and significance of cell immobilization ?
a)
ac
rm

Q.132 what do you mean by cash flow ?

Q.133 Gyanecomastia is side effect of
a

a) acetazolamide b) Cimetidine c) Omeprazole d) None of thes

Ph
e
os

Answer Key(NIPER JEE-2009)

R

1.c 2.a 3.c 4.d 5.a

6.c 7.c 8.b 9.a 10.c
11.a 12.a 13.b 14.a 15.b
16.d 17.c 18.a 19.c 20.c
21.b 22.a 23.d 24.b 25.c
26.b 27.c 28.d 29.a 30.b
 31.a 32.c 33.-- 34.- 35.a
36.b 37.c 38.c 39.b 40.a
41.b 42.b 43.- 44.c 45.a
46.b 47.c 48.c 49.b 50.b
51.c 52.a 53.a 54.c 55.c
56.b 57.a 58.a 59.b 60.a

ur
61.a 62.b 63.c 64.a 65.d
66.c 67.b 68.a 69.b 70.a
71.d 72.a 73.b 74.a 75.a

ip
76.b 77.a 78.d 79.a 80.c
81.a 82.b 83.d 84.a 85.b
86.c 87.a 88.a 89.b 90.-

Ja
91.a 92.c 93.b 94.b 95.b
96.b 97.b 98.- 99.d 100.c
101.b 102.a 103.b 104.b 105.a
106.d 107.b 108.c 109.b 110.a

y
111.a 112.- 113.c 114.a 115.-
116.b 117.- 118.a 119.a 120.a
121.a
126.a
131.-
122.c
127.-
132.c-
123.a
128.c
133.-
124.a
129.a
134.
ac125.-
130.-
135.
a rm
Ph
e
os
R