Test Pattern

NEET(UG)
bl iqfLrdk esa 36 i`"B gAS This Booklet contains 36 pages. MAJOR
bl ijh{kk iq f Lrdk dks tc rd uk [kks y s a tc rd dgk u tk,A
Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.
bl ijh{kk iq f Lrdk ds fiNys vkoj.k ij fn, funs Z ' kks a dks /;ku ls i<+s a A
Read carefully the Instructions on the Back Cover of this Test Booklet.
egRoiw. kZ funs Z 'k : Important Instructions :
1. mÙkj i= ds i` " B-1 ,oa i` " B-2 ij /;kuiwoZd dsoy uhys @ dkys ckWy 1. On the Answer Sheet, fill in the particulars on Side-1
ikWbaV isu ls fooj.k HkjsaA and Side-2 carefully with blue/black ball point pen only.
2. ijh{kk dh vof/k 3 ?ka Vs gS ,oa ijh{kk iqfLrdk esa 180 iz'u gAS izR;sd 2. The test is of 3 hours duration and this Test Booklet
iz'u 4 vad dk gAS izR;sd lgh mÙkj ds fy, ijh{kkFkhZ dks 4 vad contains 180 questions. Each question carries 4 marks.
For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks.
fn, tk,axasA izR;sd xyr mÙkj ds fy, dqy ;ksx esa ls ,d vad For each incorrect response, one mark will be deducted
?kVk;k tk,xkA vf/kdre vad 720 gSA from the total scores. The maximum marks are 720.
3. bl i`"B ij fooj.k vafdr djus ,oa mÙkj i= ij fu'kku yxkus ds 3. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing
fy, ds o y uhys @ dkys ckWy ikW ba V is u dk iz;ksx djsaA particulars on this page/marking responses.
4. jQ dk;Z bl ijh{kk iqfLrdk esa fu/kkZfjr LFkku ij gh djsaA 4. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this
purpose in the Test Booklet only.
5. ijh{kk lEiék gks u s ij] ijh{kkFkhZ d{k@gkW y Nks M +u s ls iw o Z 5. On completion of the test, the candidate must
hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator
mÙkj i= fujh{kd dks vo'; lkSai nsaA ijh{kkFkhZ vius lkFk before leaving the Room/Hall. The candidates
ds o y ijh{kk iq f Lrdk dks ys tk ldrs g S a A are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with
them.
6. ijh{kkFkhZ lqfuf'pr djsa fd bl mÙkj i= dks eksM+k u tk, ,oa ml 6. The candidates should ensure that the Answer Sheet
ij dksbZ vU; fu'kku u yxk,aA ijh{kkFkhZ viuk QkWeZ uEcj iz'u is not folded. Do not make any stray marks on the
Answer Sheet. Do not write your Form No. anywhere
iq f Lrdk@mÙkj i= es a fu/kkZ f jr LFkku ds vfrfjDr vU;= u else except in the specified space in the Test Booklet/
fy[ksaA Answer Sheet.
7. mÙkj i= ij fdlh izdkj ds la'kks/ku gsrq OgkbV ¶+yqbM ds iz;ksx dh 7. Use of white fluid for correction is not permissible on
vuqefr ugha gAS the Answer Sheet.

iz'uksa ds vuqokn esa fdlh vLi"Vrk dh fLFkfr es a] vaxzs th laLdj.k dks gh vafre ekuk tk,s xkA
In case of any ambiguity in translation of any question, English version shall be treated as final.

ijh{kkFkhZ dk uke (cM+s v{kjksa esa) :

Name of the Candidate (in Capitals)
QkWeZ uEcj : vadksa esa
Form Number : in figures
: 'kCnksa esa
: in words
ijh{kk dsUæ (cM+s v{kjksa esa) :
Centre of Examination (in Capitals) :
ijh{kkFkhZ ds gLrk{kj : fujh{kd ds gLrk{kj :
Candidate’s Signature : Invigilator’s Signature :
Facsimile signature stamp of
Centre Superintendent :

31032020/Hindi Major/Page 1/36

 ENTHUSIAST, LEADER & ACHIEVER COURSE
(ALL PHASE)

ALLEN MAJOR TEST DATE : 31 - 03 - 2020

SYLLABUS – 04, 05 & 06
PHYSICS : Electrostatics, Capacitor, Current electricity and Heating Effects
of Current, Magnetic effect of current and Magnetism,
Electromagnetic Induction, Alternating current, EM Waves,
Ray optics and optical Instruments, Wave optics,
Modern Physics, Semiconductor and Digital Electronics.
CHEMISTRY : Solid State, Chemical kinetics, Solutions, Electrochemistry,
Surface chemistry, p-block elements (group 13 to 18),
d & f-block elements, Coordination Compounds, Metallurgy,
Halogen derivatives, Oxygen containing organic compounds,
Nitrogen containing organic compounds, Biomolecules,
polymers and chemistry in everyday life
BIOLOGY : Reproduction :
(i) Reproduction in Organisms
(ii) Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants
(iii) Human Reproduction
(iv) Reproductive Health
(v) Evolution
Genetics and Evolution : (i) Principles of inheritance
and Variation (ii) Molecular basis of inheritance
Biology in Human Welfare : (i) Microbes in Human Welfare
Biotechnology : (i) Biotechnology : Principles and Processes
(ii) Biotechnology and its Applications (iii) DOP
Biology in Human Welfare : (i) Human Health and Disease
(ii) DOA
Ecology : (i) Organisms and Populations (ii) Ecosystem
(iii) Biodiversity and Conservation (iv) Environmental Issues

Major/Page 2/36 31032020/Hindi

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1. Which of the following disease spread by mosquitoes? 1. fuEu esa ls dkuS lh chekjh ePNj }kjk QSyrh g\ S
(1) Plague (2) Typhoid (1) Iysx (2) VkbQkW bM
(3) Tetanus (4) Filariasis (3) fVVsul (4) Qkbysfj,fll
2. Which of the following cell plays an important role 2. fuEu esa ls dkSulh dksf'kdk ,ythZ esa egRoiw.kZ ;ksxnku nsrh
in allergy gS \
(1) Tk cell (2) Nk cell (1) Tk dksf'kdk (2) Nk dksf'kdk
(3) Mast cell (4) Plasma cell (3) ekLV dksf'kdk (4) IykTek dksf'kdk
3. Test tube baby means a baby born when :- 3. ij[kuyh f'k'kq dk eryc ml f'k'kq ls g]S ftldk :-
(1) It is developed in a test tube (1) ifjo/kZu ij[kuyh esa gks
(2) It is developed through tissue culture method (2) ifjo/kZu Ård lao/kZu fof/k ls gks
(3) The ovum is fertilised externally and there after (3) v.Ms dk fu"kspu ckgj gqvk gks vkSj mlds ckn vkjksi.k
implanted in the uterus xHkkZ'k; esa gks
(4) It develops from a non-fertilized egg (4) ifjo/kZu vfu"ksfpr v.Ms ls gks
4. In a population of 100 individuals (which follows Hardy 4. 100 O;fDr;ks a dh vkcknh esa (tks dh gkMhZ foucxZ fu;e
Weinberg Principle). If the frequency of dominant allel dk ikyu djrh g SA )] vxj iz H kkoh vyhy (A) dh
(A) = 0.6, then calculate the number of individual vko` f Ùk = 0.6 gS] rks Aa thuks V kbZ i okys thoksa dh la [ ;k
belong to genotype Aa (Heterozygous individuals) :- D;k gks x h :-
(1) 36 (2) 48 (3) 16 (4) 96 (1) 36 (2) 48 (3) 16 (4) 96
5. K-selected species are :- 5. K-p;fur iztkfr gksrh gS :-
(1) Larger in size more in biotic potential (1) vkdkj esa cM+h] tfS od foHko esa vf/kd
(2) Smaller in size, smaller in biotic potential (2) vkdkj esa NksVh] tSfod foHko esa de
(3) More stable and more biotic potential (3) vf/kd LFkk;hRo] vf/kd tSfod foHko
(4) More stable and less biotic potential (4) vf/kd LFkk;hRo rFkk de tfS od foHko
6. Tropical regions have greater biodiversity as 6. 'khrks".k {ks=ksa dh rqyuk esa m".kdfVcU/kh; {ks=ksa esa T;knk
compared to temperate regions due to :- toS fofoèkrk ikbZ tkrh gS D;ksaf d :-
(1) Suitable climate (1) mi;qDr tyok;q
(2) Long evolutionary periods for species diversification (2) tkfr fofo/khdj.k ds fy, yEcs mn~fodklh; dky
(3) Higher productivity (3) mPprj mRikndrk
(4) All of the above (4) mijksDr lHkh
7. Which of the following forest is known as the lungs 7. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSulk ou i`Foh dk QsQM+k dgk tkrk gS
of the planet (earth) and their total contribution of rFkk i`Foh dh dqy vkWDlhtu esa mldk fdruk ;ksxnku g\ S
oxygen to earth?
(1) VSxk ou– 10%
(1) Taiga forest – 10%
(2) Amazon rain forest – 45% (2) vestu o"kkZ ou – 45%
(3) Rain forest of kerela – 14% (3) dsjyk ds o"kkZ ou – 14%
(4) Amazon rain forest – 20% (4) vestu o"kkZ ou – 20%
8. Which cell is triploid in a typical angiospermic 8. ,d izk:fid vko`rchth; ikni esa dkSulh dksf'kdk f=xqf.kr
plant ? gksrh gS\
(1) Zygote (1) ;q Xeut
(2) Primary endosperm cell (2) izkFkfed Hkzw.kiks"k dksf'kdk
(3) Microspore mother cell (3) y?kqchtk.kq ekr`dksf'kdk
(4) Pollen grain (4) ijkxd.k

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9. Which peptide of pro-insulin is removed during 9. balqfyu ds ifjiDou ds nkjS ku izk&s balqfyu dk dkuS lk isIVkbM
processing of insulin ? fudky fn;k tkrk gS\
(1) A-peptide (1) A-isIVkbM
(2) B-peptide (2) B-isIVkbM
(3) D-peptide (3) D-isIVkbM
(4) C-peptide (4) C-isIVkbM
10. Which of the following is correct for haemophilia? 10. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkuS lk gheksfQfy;k ds fy, ls lgh g\ S
(1) X-linked recessive gene disorder (1) X-lgyXu vizHkkoh thu fodkl
(2) lethal in females (2) efgykvksa esa ?kkrd
(3) Mendelian disorder (3) es.Myh; fodkj
(4) All correct (4) mijksDr lHkh
11. Which of the following diseases are bacterial diseases 11. fuEu esa ls dkuS ls jksx thok.kq tfur g\ S
(1) Emphysema, pneumoconiosis, pneumonia (1) ,EQkblsek] U;weksdksfuvksfll] U;weksfuvk
(2) T.B., plague, pneumonia (2) T.B., Iysx] U;weksfu;k
(3) AIDS, Cancer, Common cold (3) AIDS, dSUlj] lkekU; tqdke
(4) Herpes, Chlamydiasis, influenza (4) gfiZl] DysekbfM;sfll] bu¶yq,Utk
12. Which is correct about Fab fragment 12. ,d Fab [k.M ds fy;s D;k lgh gS \
(1) produced by T-lymphocyte (1) T-fyEQkslkbV }kjk mRikfnr gksrh gSA
(2) produced by separation of heavy chain and light
(2) Hkkjh ,oa gYdh psu ds vyx gksus ls curh gAS
chain
(3) lacks light chain (3) blesa gYdh psu ugha gksrhA
(4) contains paratope (4) blesa isjkVkWi gksrs gAS
13. Family planning programmes were initiated in :- 13. ifjokj fu;kstu dk;ZØe vkjaHk fd;s x;s Fks :-
(1) 1951 (2) 1953 (3) 1947 (4) 1971 (1) 1951 (2) 1953 (3) 1947 (4) 1971
14. How many fishes in the list given below are marine 14. uhps nh xbZ eNfy;ksa dh lwph esa fdruh leqnzh eNfy;ka
fishes :- gS :-
(i) Hilsa (ii) Catla (iii) Rohu (iv) Sardine (i) fgYlk (ii) dryk (iii) jks gw (iv) lkMhZu
(v) Mrigal (vi) Mackeral (vii) Pomfret (v) fezxky (vi) ed S jsy (vii) ikeÝsV
(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 5 (4) 6 (1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 5 (4) 6
15. If 10 individuals in a garden population of 50 rose 15. ;fn m|ku esa 50 xqykc esa ls 10 xqykc dh lef"V;k¡ ,d ekg
died in a month. Find out death rate ? esa ej tkrh gAS rks mudh e`R;qnj Kkr djks ?
(1) 0.1 per rose per month (1) 0.1 izfr xqykc izfr ekg
(2) 0.2 per rose per month (2) 0.2 izfr xqykc izfr ekg
(3) 0.3 per rose per month (3) 0.3 izfr xqykc izfr ekg
(4) 0.4 per rose per month (4) 0.4 izfr xqykc izfr ekg
16. In 'Rivet popper hypothesis', wing rivets of an 16. ^fjosV iksij ifjdYiuk* esa] ok;q;ku ds ia[k dhydksa dh rqyuk
aeroplane are compared with :- dh xbZ gS :-
(1) Dominant species (1) izHkkoh tkfr;ksa ls
(2) Critical link species (2) Øka frd ;kstd tkfr;ksa ls
(3) Rare species (3) nqyZHk tkfr;ksa ls
(4) Keysotne species (4) daqtf'kyk tkfr;ksa ls

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17. The species area relationship studied by Alexander 17. ,sysDt.S Mj oksu gEcksYV }kjk v/;;u fd;k x;k iztkfr&{k=S
Von Humboldt is a straight line on a logarithmic scale laca/k y?kqx.kdh; ekiØe ij ,d ljy js[kk ds :i esa izkIr
and is represented by equation : gqvk Fkk rFkk bl lehdj.k }kjk n'kkZ;k x;k Fkk&
Log S = Log C + Z log A Log S = Log C + Z log A
In this equation 'Z' stands for : bl lehdj.k esa 'Z' dgykrk gAS
(1) Species richness (1) iztkfr dh izpqjrk dks
(2) Area (2) {k=
S dks
(3) Regression coefficient (3) lekJ;.k xq.kkad dks
(4) Y-intercept (4) Y-var% [k.M
18. 18.
A A

B B

C C

D D

In above diagram 'A' represents : mijksDr fp= esa 'A' iznf'kZr djrk g\S
(1) Coleoptile (2) Shoot apex (1) izkadqj pksy (2) izjksg 'kh"kZ
(3) Scutellum (4) Coleorhiza (3) LdwVsye (o:fFkdk) (4) ewykadqj pksy
19. Root knot disease of tobacco can be managed by:- 19. rackdw dk ewyxazfFk jksx dk izca/ku fd;k tk ldrk gS :-
(1) Bt technology (2) RNAi technique (1) Bt izkS|ksfxdh }kjk (2) RNAi rduhd }kjk
(3) Chemical herbicide (4) Organic farming (3) jklk;fud 'kkduk'kh }kjk (4) tSfod [ksrh }kjk
20. Following pedigree represents the inheritance of a 20. uhps nh xbZ oa'kkoyh ,d foLr`r ifjokj esa ,d nqyZHk jksx dh
rare disorder in an extended family . What is the most gAS bl jksx dk lokZf/kd laHkkfor oa'kkxfr dk izdkj D;k gksxk\
likely mode of inheritance ?
I
1 2
I
1 2
II
II 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
1 2 3 4 5 6 7
III
III 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
IV
IV 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 (1) dkf;d vizHkkoh
(1) Autosomal recessive (2) X-lgyXu vizHkkoh
(2) X-linked recessive (3) X-lgyXu izHkkoh
(3) X-linked dominant (4) Y-lgyXu
(4) Y-linked

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21. AIDS is not spreaded by :- 21. AIDS fdlls ugha QSyrk gZS
(1) Sexual route (2) Breast feeding (1) lsDlqvy ek/;e (2) Lruiku
(3) Placental route (4) Sweat (3) vijk ds ek/;e ls (4) ilhus ls
22. Neutrophills are considered as 22. U;wVªksfQy fdlesa lfEefyr gksrh gS \
(1) physical barrier (2) physiological barrier (1) 'kkfjjhd@lajpukRed vojks/k (2) dkf;Zdh vojks/k
(3) cellular barrier (4) cytokine barrier (3) dksf'kdh; vojks/k (4) lkbVksdkbu vojks/k
23. According to Oparin and Haldane theory that Ist form 23. vksifs ju&gsYMsu ds fl¼kar ds vuqlkj thou dk izFke Lo:i
of life originated in :- mRiUu gqvk Fkk &
(1) In air (2) In water (1) gok esa (2) ty esa
(3) In soil (4) In universe (3) e`nk esa (4) varfj{k esa
24. For multiple ovulation embryo transfer technology 24. eYVhiy vkO;wys'ku ,fEcz;ks VªkalQj rduhd [MOET] ds
[MOET], which statement is correct :- fy, fuEu esa ls dkuS lk ,d dFku lR; gS :-
(1) Fertilized egg is collected at 8-32 cell stage and (1) fu"ksfpr v.Mksa dks 8-32 dksf'kdk voLFkk esa ,d= djrs
surgery is done for it gS vkSj blesa 'kY; fpfdRlk dh vko';drk gksrh gS
(2) fu"ksfpr v.Ms dks 8-32 dksf'kdk voLFkk esa ,d= djrs
(2) Fertilized egg is collected at 8-32 cell stage and
gS vkSj bles 'kY; fpfdRlk dh vko';drk ugha gksrh gS
no need of surgery (3) fu"ksfpr v.Ms dks 64 dksf'kdk voLFkk rd ,d= djrs
(3) Fertilized egg is collected at 64 cell stage and gS vkSj blds fy, 'kY; fpfdRlk dh vko';drk gksrh
surgery is done for it gS
(4) Fertilized egg is collected at only 4 cell stage and (4) fu"ksfpr v.Ms dks 4 dksf'kdk voLFkk esa ,d= djrs gS
it done by surgery vkjS blds fy, 'kY; fpfdRlk dh vko';drk gksrh gS
25. In a decline population of a country :- 25. fdlh ns'k ½.kkRed lef"V xzkQ esa :-
(1) Number of pre reproductive is more than (1) iw o Z t uu'khy dh la [ ;k tuu'khy ls vf/kd gks r h
reproductive gS A
(2) Number of pre reproductive is less than reproductive (2) iwoZtuu'khy dh la[;k tuu'khy ls de gksrh gS
(3) Number of pre reproductive is equal to reproductive (3) iwoZtuu'khy o tuu'khy dh la[;k leku gksrh gS
(4) Reproductive are less than post reproductive (4) tuu'khy] i'ptuu'khy ls de gksrs gS
26. Which of the following gas is normally not an air 26. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkuS lh xl
S lkekU; rkjS ij ,d ok;q iznq"kd
pollutant ? ugha gksrh gS ?
(1) CO (2) CO2 (3) NO (4) SO2 (1) CO (2) CO2 (3) NO (4) SO2
27. Match the column I and II and choose the correct 27. LrEHk I vkSj LrEHk II dk feyku dhft;s vkjS fn;s x;s fodYiksa
combination from the option given ls lgh feyku pqus%
Column I Column II LrEHk I LrEHk II
(a) B + I > D + E (I) 'N' increase (a) B + I > D + E (I) 'N' esa o`f¼
(b) B + I < D + E (II) 'N' decrease (b) B + I < D + E (II) 'N' esa deh
(c) B + I = D + E (III) 'N' stable (c) B + I = D + E (III) 'N' esa fLFkjrk
(1) a – I, b-II, c-III (2) a – II, b-I, c-III (1) a – I, b-II, c-III (2) a – II, b-I, c-III
(3) a – III, b-II, c-I (4) a – III, b-I, c-II (3) a – III, b-II, c-I (4) a – III, b-I, c-II
28. MS Swaminathan who was the pioneer mutation 28. E;wV's ku iztuu ds {ks= esa vxzx.; ,e-,l- LokehukFku us vius
breeder, he had used in his breeding experiments:- ikni iztuu iz;ksxksa esa iz;qDr fd;k Fkk %&
(1) X-rays and wheat (2) g-rays and rice (1) X-fdj.ksa vkSj xsgw¡ (2) g-fdj.ksa vkSj pkoy
(3) b-rays and wheat (4) g-rays and wheat (3) b-fdj.ksa vkSj pkoy (4) g-fdj.ksa vkSj xsgw¡

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29. Find out the correct match :- 29. lgh ;qXe pqfu, :-
(1) Cry II Ac - corn stem borer (1) Cry II Ac eDdk ruk Nsnd
-
(2) Cry II Ab - corn borer (2) Cry II Ab eDdk Nsnd
-
(3) Cry I Ab - bollworms (3) Cry I Ab eqdqy d`fe
-
(4) Cry I Ac - cotton bollworms (4) Cry I Ac dikl eqdqy d`fe
-
30. A population has two times heterozygotes as 30. ,d lef"V us fo"ke;qXeft;ksa dh la[;k le;qXeth izHkkfo;ksa
homozygous dominant. What is the frequency of the
ls nksxquh gaS izHkkoh ,yhy dh vko`fÙk D;k gksxh\
dominant allele ?
(1) 0.2 (2) 0.5 (3) 0.1 (4) 0.8 (1) 0.2 (2) 0.5 (3) 0.1 (4) 0.8
31. Which of the following cancer is not the type of 31. fuEu esa ls dkSulk dSUlj] dkflZuksek ugha g\
S
carcinoma ? (1) Lru daSlj (2) Qq¶Qql daSlj
(1) Breast cancer (2) Lung cancer
(3) Cervical cancer (4) Bone cancer (3) xzhok dSalj (4) vfLFk dSalj
32. 'X' is a middle, thick layer of uterus and it exhibits 32. 'X' xHkkZ'k; dh e/;] eksVh Lrj gS tks fd izlo ds nkjS ku dkQh
strong contraction during parturition. This 'X' is rst ladqpu iznf'kZr djrh gSA ;g 'X' gS
(1) Cervical canal (1) xzhok uky
(2) Perimetrium (2) isjhesVªh;e
(3) Myometrium (3) ek;ksesVªh;e
(4) Endometrium (4) ,.MksesfVª ;e
33. Flippers of penguins and dolphins are example of:- 33. isfXoau o MkWfYQu eNfy;ksa ds i{k mnkgj.k gS :-
(1) Homologous organ (1) letkr vax
(2) Divergent evolution (2) vilkjh fodkl
(3) Vestigeal organ (3) vo'ks"kh vax
(4) Analogous organ (4) leo`fÙk vax
34. Worker bee are :- 34. Jfed e/kqeD[kh gksrh gS :-
(1) Fertile male (2) Sterile female (1) tuu {ke uj (2) cU/; eknk
(3) Fertile female (4) Sterile male (3) tuu {ke eknk (4) cU/; uj
35. Most developed stratification is observed in a :- 35. lokZf/kd fodflr Lrjhdj.k fdlesa ns[kus dks feyrk gS :-
(1) Tropical rain forest (1) m".kdfVcU/kh; o"kkZ ou
(2) Tropical deciduous forest (2) m".kdfVcU/kh; i.kZikrh ou
(3) Temperate coniferous forest (3) 'khrks".k 'kadq/kkjh ou
(4) Temperate deciduous forest (4) 'khrks".k i.kZ ikrh ou
36. According to Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB), 36. dsUnzh; iznw"k.k fu;a=.k cksMZ (lhihlhch) ds vuqlkj] ih ,e
PM 2.5 refers to particulate matter having an average 2.5 ls rkRi;Z ml df.kdh; inkFkZ ls gS ftldk vkSlr O;kl
diameter of :- gS :-
(1) £ 2.5 nm (2) £ 2.5 Å (1) £ 2.5 nm (2) £ 2.5 Å
(3) £ 2.5 mm (4) £ 2.5 mm (3) £ 2.5 mm (4) £ 2.5 mm
37. How many microspore mother cells are required for 37. iq"ih; ikniksa esa 100 y?kqchtk.kqvksa ds fuekZ.k ds fy, fdruh
the formation of 100 microspores in flowering y?kqc htk.kq ekr` dksf'kdkvksa dh vko';drk gksrh g\ S
plants. (1) 25 (2) 50
(1) 25 (2) 50 (3) 75 (4) 80 (3) 75 (4) 80

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38. Match the columns and choose the correct option:- 38. dkWyeksa dk feyku dhft, rFkk lgh fodYi pqfu, %&

(A) Pollen culture (i) Haploid plants

(A) ijkx lao)Zu (i) vxqf.kr ikS/ks
(B) Himgiri (ii) Disease resistant wheat (B) fgefxfj (ii) jksx izfrjks/kh xsgw¡ dh fdLe
variety (C) izksVksIykLV (iii) dkf;d ladj.k
(C) Protoplast (iii) Somatic hybridization
fussion
la;Xq eu
(D) Biofortification (iv) Breeding for higher (D) tSoiqf"Vdj.k (iv) mPp iks"kd {kerk gsrq ikni
nutritional value iztuu

(1) A-i, B-iii, C-ii, D-iv (1) A-i, B-iii, C-ii, D-iv
(2) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv (2) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
(3) A-i, B-iv, C-iii, D-ii (3) A-i, B-iv, C-iii, D-ii
(4) A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv (4) A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv
39. Which organization of government of India monitor 39. Hkkjr ljdkj dh dkSulh laLFkk tks tu&lsok ds fy, th-,e-
GM research safety for public service ? 'kks/k dh lqj{kk dks fu;af=r djrh g\
S
(1) GEAC (2) IARI (1) GEAC (2) IARI
(3) CDFD (4) ICAR (3) CDFD (4) ICAR
40. Any two genes are said to be linked, only when:- 40. fdUgh nks thal dks lgyXu dsoy rHkh dgk tkrk gS tc :-
(1) They show only new combination (1) os dsoy u;s la;kstu iznf'kZr djsaA
(2) They show only parental combination and no new (2) os dsoy tudh; la;kstu iznf'kZr djsa rFkk dksbZ Hkh u;k
combinations la;kstu iznf'kZu u djsaA
(3) They show more parental and less new (3) os vf/kd tudh; o de u;s la; kstu iznf'kZ r djsa A
combinations (less than 50% recombination) (50% ls de iqu%;ksZtu)
(4) They show 50% new combination (4) os 50% u;s la;kstu iznf'kZ r djsaA
41. Which of the following disease is not a sexual 41. fuEu esa ls dkuS lh chekjh ;kuS laØfer ugha g\
S
transmitted disease ? (1) fgisVkbfVl-B (2) DysekbfM,fll
(1) Hepatitis-B (2) Chlamydiasis
(3) Trichomoniasis (4) Tetanus (3) Vª kbdkseksfu,fll (4) VsVul
42. Structure, which lies at the upper of the two labia 42. og lajpuk] tks fd nks y?kq Hkxks"B ds Åijh feyku fcUnq ij
minora ? fLFkr gksrh g]S gS
(1) Mons pubis (2) Labia majora (1) ekaSl I;wfcl (2) ysfc;k et S ksjk
(3) Clitoris (4) Hymen (3) DykbVksfjl (4) gk;eu
43. Galapagos finches are associated with :- 43. xyS is xs ksl fQaps fdlls lEcfU/kr gS :-
(1) Muller (2) De vries (1) eqyj (2) Mh osjht
(3) Lamarck (4) Darwin (3) ysekdZ (4) MkfoZu
44. Choose the correct match :- 44. lgh feyku dk p;u dhft, :-
Name of parasite Type of parasitism ijthoh dk uke ijthohrk dk iz dkj
(1) Rafflesia Hemi parasite (1) jsQys'kh;k vkaf'kd ijthoh
(2) Viscum Holo parasite (2) foLde iw.kZ ijthoh
(3) Plasmodium in human Brood parasitism (3) euq"; esa IykTeksMh;e v.M ijthohrk
(4) Leech on cattle Ectozoo parasite (4) pkSik;ksa ij tkaSd cká tarq ijthoh

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45. The conversion of sand to a climax forest community 45. ckyw dk ,d pje ou leqnk; esa ifjorZu mnkgj.k gS :-
is an example of :- (1) 'kq"drkjEHkh vuqØe.k dk
(1) Xerarch succession
(2) lerkjEHkh vuqØe.k dk
(2) Mesarch succession
(3) Hydrarch succession (3) tykjEHkh vuqØe.k dk
(4) All of these (4) mijksDr lHkh dk
46. According to Bharat Stage-VI norms level of 'S' in 46. Hkkjr pj.k-VI ekudksa ds vuqlkj Mhty o isVªksy esa lYQj
diesel and petrol should be maximum up to :- 'S' dh vf/kdre ek=k gksuh pkfg, :-
(1) 10 ppm (1) 10 ihih,e
(2) 50 ppm (2) 50 ihih,e
(3) 150 ppm (3) 150 ihih,e
(4) 50 ppm and 10 ppm respectively (4) Øe'k% 50 ihih,e o 10 ihih,e
47. How many plants given below have syncarpous 47. uhps fn, x, ikniksa esa ls fdruksa esa ;qDrk.Mih tk;kax gksrk g\
S
gynoecium? xqy kc, dey, ekbpsfy;k, iiS soj, fgfcLdl
Rose, Lotus, Michelia, Papaver, Hibiscus (1) ,d (2) nks
(1) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) Four (3) rhu (4) pkj
48. Which of the following is not a source of single cell 48. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSulk ,dy dksf'kdk izksVhu dk òksr ugh
protein? gS \
(1) Agrobacterium (1) ,xzkscSDVhfj;e
(2) Chlorella (2) Dyksjy S k
(3) Saccharomyces cerevisiae (3) ld S js ksekblht lsjhfolh
(4) Methylophilus methylotrophus (4) feFkkbyksfQyl feFkkbyksVªksil
49. Match the column-I and II and select correctly 49. dkWye-I rFkk II dk feyku dhft, rFkk lqesfyr fodYi pqfu,:-
matched option :-
dkW ye-I dkW ye-II
Column-I Column-II
(A) ECoRI (i) Øksekstsfud lcLVªsV
(A) ECoRI (i) Chromogenic substrate
(B) X-Gal (ii) izf rca/ku ,atkbe
(B) X-Gal (ii) Restriction enzyme
(C) PEG
.
(iii) izf rd`fr;u izkjEHku LFky
(C) PEG
.
(iii) Replication start point
(D) Ori (iv) la;Xq ed inkFkZ
(D) Ori (iv) Fusogen
(1) A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i
(1) A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i
(2) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
(2) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
(3) A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii (3) A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii
(4) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i (4) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i
50. In a family husband and wife both have an 50. ,d ifjokj esa ifr o iRuh nksuksa gh ,d X-lgyXu izHkkoh jksx
X-linked dominant disorder then what will be ls ihfM+r gS rks muds cPpksa esa lkekU; csVh gksus dh lEHkkouk
probability of a normal daughter in children ? D;k gksxh\
(1) 0% (2) 50% (3) 100% (4) 75% (1) 0% (2) 50% (3) 100% (4) 75%

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51. Which of the following disease is not related with 51. fuEu esa ls dkuS lk jksx yEcs le; rd /kweziku ls lEcfU/kr ugha
smoking for long time? gS \
(1) Bronchitis (2) Heart attack (1) czksadkfbfVl (2) ân;?kkr
(3) Lung Cancer (4) Gout (3) Qq¶Qql daSlj (4) xkmV

52. Primary oocyte 52. izkFkfed vaMd

A B A B
C C
Second D f}rh;d D
polar body
/kzqoh; fi.M
In the given flow chart of gametogenesis, choose the ;qXedtuu ds fn;s x;s vkjs[k esa A, B, C, D ds fy, lgh
correct for A, B, C, D pquksa
(1) A ® Secondary oocyte, B ® polar body (1) A ® f}rh; vaMd, B ® /kzqoh; fi.M
(2) B ® Secondary oocyte, D ® ovum (2) B ® f}rh; vaMd, D ® vaMk.kq
(3) C ® 1st meiotic division completed, D ® ovum (3) C ® izFke v/kZlw=h foHkktu lekIr, D ® vaMk.kq
(4) B ® Secondary oocyte, C ® Mitosis differentiation (4) B ® f}rh;d vaMd, C ® lelw=h foHksnu
53. According to Hugo de Vries mutations are :- 53. á;wxks Mh osjht ds vuqlkj mRifjorZu gS :-
(1) Random and directionless (1) ;kn`fPNd o vfn'kkRed
(2) Small and directionless (2) NksVs o vfn'kkRed
(3) Large and directional (3) cM+s o fn'kkRed
(4) Random and directional (4) ;kn`fPNd o fn'kkRed
54. A 54. A
B B

C C

On the basis of thermal stratification of lake A, B >hy esa rki Lrjhdj.k ds vk/kkj ij A, B rFkk C fdls n'kkZ
and C are representing :- jgs gS :-
(1) A-Metalimnion, B-Hypolimnion, C-Epilimnion (1) A-esVkfyfEuvkWu, B-gkbiksfyfEuvkWu, C-,fifyfEuvWku
(2) A-Epilimnion, B-Metalimnion, C-Hypolimnion (2) A-,fifyfEuvkWu, B-esVkfyfEuvkWu, C-gkbiksfyfEuvkWu
(3) A-Hypolimnion, B-Metalimnion, C-Epilmnion (3) A-gkbiksfyfEuvkWu, B-esVkfyfEuvkWu, C-,fifyfEuvkWu
(4) A-Epilimnion, B-Hypolimnion, C-Metalimnion (4) A-,fifyfEuvkWu, B-gkbiksfyfEuvkWu, C-esVkfyfEuvkWu
55. Which of the following is not a feature of typical 55. fuEu esa ls dkSulk izk:ih r-p;fur iztkfr;ksa dk ,d vfHky{k.k
r-selected species ? ugha gaS ?
(1) High rate of reproduction (1) tuu dh vf/kd nj
(2) Large number of offsprings in a single mating (2) ,dy laxe ls cM+h la[;k esa larfr;ka
(3) Small sized offsprings (3) NksVs vkdkj dh larfr;ka
(4) Long life span (4) nh?kZ thou dky
56. Which of the following methods is crucial for disposal 56. fuEu esa ls dkSulk mik; vLirkyksa ls fudyus okys vif'k"V
of hospital waste ? ds fuLrkj.k gsrq vR;Ur vko';d gS\
(1) Use of incinerators (2) Recycling (1) HkLedksa dk mi;ksx (2) iqu'pØ.k
(3) Sanitary landfills (4) Composting (3) vif'k"V Hkjko{k= S (4) dEiksfLVax
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57. Occasionally, in some seeds such as black pepper, 57. ;nk dnk dqN chtksa tl S s dh dkyh fepZ] pqdUnj rFkk vj.M
beet and castor, remnants of nucellus are also esa chtk.Mdk; Hkh 'ks"k jgrk gAS og vof'k"V fpjLFkk;h
persistent. This residual, persistent nucellus is called: chtk.Mdk; dgykrk gS &
(1) Endosperm (2) Integument (1) Hkzq.kiks"k (2) v/;koj.k
(3) Perisperm (4) Aril (3) ifjHkzq.kiks"k (4) ,fjy
58. Statin is obtained from :- 58. LVfS Vu izkIr gksrk gS %&
(1) Trichoderma (2) Monascus perpureus (1) VªkbdksMekZ ls (2) eksusldl ijI;wfj;l ls
(3) Bacillus subtilis (4) Actinomycetes (3) cfS lyl lcfVfyl ls (4) ,fDVuksekbflthl ls
59. Which is not a vectorless gene transfer method ? 59. dkSulk laokgd jfgr LFkkukUrj.k fof/k ugha gS\
(1) Gene gun (1) thu xu
(2) Liposome mediated (2) fyikslkse e/;LFk
(3) Agrobacterium mediated gene transfer (3) ,xzkscSDVhfj;e thu LFkkukUrj.k
(4) PEG (4) PEG
60. Find out incorrect match :- 60. xyr ;qXe pqfu, :-
(1) UAG - start codon (1) UAG - izkjEHku dksMksu
(2) UAC - initiator tRNA (2) UAC - izkjEHkd tRNA
(3) AUG - Start codon (3) AUG - izkjaHku dksMksu
(4) Ori - DNA replication (4) vksjh - DNA izf rd`rh;u
61. Withdrawl syndrome of drug and alcohol 61. vpkud Mªx ,oa ,Ydksgy ds vfujUrjrk ds dkj.k D;k ugha
discontinuation is not characterized by gksxk\
(1) anxiety (2) shakiness (1) O;xz rk (2) vfLFkjrk
(3) sweating (4) euphoria (3) ilhuk vkuk (4) mYyklksUekn
62. During which phase of menstrual cycle, the primary 62. vkrZo pØ dh fdl izkoLFkk ds nkSjku vaMk'k; ds Hkhrj izkFkfed
follicles in the ovary grow to become a fully mature iqVd esa o`f¼ gksrh gS vkSj ;g iw.kZ fodflr xzkQh iqVd esa
Graafian follicle ? ifjofrZr gks tkrk gS ?
(1) Menstrual phase (2) Follicular phase (1) ½rqL=ko izkoLFkk (2) iqVdh; izkoLFkk
(3) Luteal phase (4) Secretory phase (3) Y;wVh;y izkoLFkk (4) L=koh izkoLFkk
63. Identify the correct sequence of human evolution ? 63. ekuo fodkl dk lgh Øe Kkr dhft, ?
(a) Australopithecus (b) Ramapithecus (a) vkWLVªsyksfifFkdl (b) jkekfifFkdl
(c) Homo erectus (d) Homo habilis (c) gkseks bjDVl (d) gkseks gscfs yl
(e) Homo sapiens (e) gkseks lsih;Ul
(1) a, b, d, c, e (2) b, a, d, c, e (1) a, b, d, c, e (2) b, a, d, c, e
(3) a, b, c, e, d (4) b, a, c, e, d (3) a, b, c, e, d (4) b, a, c, e, d
64. What is the characterstic of alpine tundra biome? 64. vYikbu Vq.Mªk ck;kse dk y{k.k D;k gS ?
(1) Permafrost (1) ijekÝksLV
(2) Maximum species diversity (2) lokZf/kd tkfr; fofo/krk
(3) Needle shaped leaves (3) uqfdys vkdkj dh ifÙk;ka
(4) High temperature (4) mPp rkieku
65. In deep sea hydrothermal ecosystems, producers are:- 65. xgjs leqnz ds tyrkih; ikfjra=ks esa mRiknd gksrs gS :-
(1) Chemoautotrophs (2) Chemoheterotrophs (1) jlk;uLoiks"kh (2) jlk;ufo"keiks"kh
(3) Photoautotrophs (4) Photoheterotrophs (3) izdk'kLoiks"kh (4) izdk'kfo"keiks"kh

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66. Which of the following is the most effective solution 66. bZ&vif'k"V ds mipkj dk lokZf/kd izHkkoh lek/kku fuEu esa
for the treatment of e-waste ? ls dkuS lk g\S
(1) Use of incinerators (1) HkLedksa dk mi;ksx
(2) Sanitary landfills (2) vif'k"V Hkjko{ks=
(3) Open dumping sites (3) [kqys dwMk LFky
(4) Recycling (4) iqu'pØ.k
67. In a typical angiospermic plant, mature female 67. ,d izk:fid vko`rchft; ikni esa ifjiDo eknk ;qXedksn~fHkn
gametophyte is : gksrk gS\
(1) 7-celled and 8-nucleated (1) 7-dksf'kdh; 8-dsUnzdh;
(2) 8-celled and 7-nucleated (2) 8-dksf'kdh; 7-dsUnzdh;
(3) 3-celled and 3-nucleated (3) 3-dksf'kdh; 3-dsUnzdh;
(4) 8-celled and 8-nucleated (4) 8-dksf'kdh; 8-dsUnzdh;
68. Which one is not a biofertilizer ? 68. dkSulk ,d tSo ÅoZjd ugha gS\
(1) Nostoc (2) Rhizobium (1) ukWLVkWd (2) jkbtksfc;e
(3) Anabaena (4) Agaricus (3) ,ukchuk (4) ,xfS jdl
69. How many of the following vectors are used for gene 69. fuEufyf[kr esa fdrus laokgd ikniksa esa thu LFkkukUrj.k gsrq
transfer in plants ? iz;ksx fd;s tkrs gS
Ri plasmid, Ti plasmid, PEG, CMV, Gene gun Ri IykfLeM, Ti IykfLeM, PEG, CMV, thu xu
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 5 (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 5
70. Choose the wrong statement regarding the observation 70. ekuo thukse ifj;kstuk ls izkIr isz{k.kksa ds vk/kkj ij xyr dFku
drawn from Human genome project:- dks pqfu, :-
(1) Repetitive sequences are streches of RNA (1) iqujko` Ùk Øe RNA ds [k.M gS
(2) Less than 2% of the genome codes for protein (2) 2% ls de thukse izksVhu dks dksM djrk gS
(3) Chromosome Y has the fewest number of genes (3) xq.klw= Y ij lcls de thu gS
(4) SNPs help in tracing human history (4) SNP ekuo bfrgkl dks Kkr djus esa lgk;d gSA
71. Which of the following virus is sexually transmitted 71. fuEu esa ls ;kSu laØfer gksus okyk dkSulk fo"kk.kq dSalj djrk
which cause cancer ? gS \
(1) HPV (2) HSV (3) HAV (4) EBV (1) HPV (2) HSV (3) HAV (4) EBV
72. Choose the incorrect for luteal phase :- 72. Y;wVh;y izkoLFkk ds fy, vlR; pquksa :-
(1) Transformation of graafian follicle in corpus luteum (1) xzkfQ;u iqVd dk dkWiZl Y;wVh;e esa ifjorZu
(2) Large amount of progesterone (2) izkstsLVsjkWu dk Hkkjh Lrj@cM+k Lrj
(3) Maintenance of the endometrium by progesterone (3) izkstsLVsjkWu }kjk ,.MkseSfVª;e dk j[k j[kko
(4) Heavy menstruation (4) Hkkjh ½rqL=ko
73. Among the following, which is not an example of 73. buesa ls dkSulk mnkgj.k leo`fÙk vaxksa dk ugha gS :-
analogous organ :- (1) v"VHkqt rFkk Lru/kkfj;ksa dh vk¡[ks
(1) Eye of octopus and eye of mammals
(2) 'kdjdan rFkk vkyw
(2) Sweet potato and potato
(3) Thorn of bogainvillea and tendrils of cucurbita (3) cksxufofy;k dk dkaVk rFkk dqdqjfcVk dk izrku
(4) Wings of butterfly and wings of birds (4) frryh ds ia[k rFkk fpfM+;k ds ia[k
74. Which species was extincted due to over exploitation 74. dkSu lh iztkfr euq"; ds vfrnksgu ds dkj.k foyqIr gks xbZ
by human ? Fkh ?
(1) Cichlid fish (2) Passenger pigeon (1) flpfyM eNyh (2) il
S astj dcqrj
(3) Nile perch (4) Parthenium (3) ukby ipZ (4) ikFksZfu;e
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75. 75.

X X

In the climo graph given above 'X' represents :- Åij fn;s x, DykbeksxzkQ esa 'X' n'kkZrk gS :-
(1) Grassland (1) ?kkl dk eSnku
(2) Tropical forest (2) m".kdfVcU/kh; ou
(3) Coniferous forest (3) 'kadq/kkjh ou
(4) Temperate forest (4) 'krks".k ou
76. Which statement is incorrect? 76. dkSulk dFku xyr gS\
(1) Primary succession occurs on bare rocks (1) izkFkfed vuqØe.k uXu pV~Vuksa ij izkjEHk gksrk gS
(2) Community composition and structure constantly (2) i;kZoj.k ds cnyrs Lo:i ds lkFk leqnk; ds laxBu ,oa
change in response to the changing environmental
lajpuk esa fuja rj ifjorZu gksrs jgrs gS
change
(3) Succession usually focuses on change in vegetation (3) vuqØe.k eq[;r% okuLifrd i;kZoj.k ij dsfUnzr gksrk gS
(4) As succession proceeds only number of plants (4) tlS s&tlS s vuqØe.k c<+rk gS dsoy ikniksa dh la[;k c<+rh
change gS
77. Which one is not an adaptation for self pollination? 77. dkSulk Loijkx.k dk vuqdwyu ugha g\ S
(1) Cleistogamy (1) vuq UehY;rk
(2) Homogamy (2) ledkyiDork
(3) Heterostyly (3) fo"keofrZdkRo
(4) Monocliny (4) f}fyaxrk
78. Which of the following can't be used for integrated 78. lekdfyr ihM+d izca/ku dk;ZØe esa fuEu esa ls D;k iz;qDr ugha
pest management (IPM) program ? fd;k tk ldrk g\ S
(1) Herbicides and insecticides (1) 'kkduk'kh vkSj dhVuk'kh
(2) Trichoderma (2) VªkbdksMekZ
(3) Bacillus thuringiensis (3) Bacillus thuringiensis
(4) Baculovirus (4) Baculovirus
79. Which is not a basic step of rDNA technology ? 79. dkSulk in iqu;ksZxt Mh,u, rduhd dk ,d vk/kkjHkwr in
(1) formation of recombinant DNA ugha gS\
(1) iqu;ksZxt Mh,u, dk fuekZ .k
(2) PCR
(2) ih-lh-vkj-
(3) Transfer of desired gene into host cell (3) ok¡fNr thu dks ijiks"kh dksf'kdk esa LFkkukUrfjr djuk
(4) Selection of transformed and recombinant host (4) :ikUrj.k o iqu;ksZxt ijiks"kh dksf'kdk dk p;u
cells.

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80. Study the given figure :- 80. fn, x, fp= dk v/;;u dhft, :-

Select correct option on the basis of representation fp= ds izn'kZu ds vk/kkj ij lgh fodYi dks pqfu, :
in figure : (1) O;fDr B dk DNA vijk/k LFky ls izkIr Mh,u, ls esy
(1) DNA of individual B matches with DNA from
[kkrk gSA
crime scene
(2) O;fDr A dk DNA vijk/k LFky ls izkIr Mh,u, ls esy
(2) DNA of individual A don't match with DNA from
crime scene ugha [kkrk gSA
(3) 1 and 2 (3) 1 rFkk 2
(4) DNA of individuals A maches with DNA from (4) O;fDr A dk DNA vijk/k LFky ls izkIr Mh,u, ls esy
crime scene [kkrk gSA
81. Sabin Vaccine is 81. lsfcu Vhdk gS
(1) IPV (2) MMR (3) BCG (4) OPV (1) IPV (2) MMR (3) BCG (4) OPV
82. In the givens, which one is happened during the fifth 82. fn;s x;s esa ls dkSulk Hkzw.kh; fodkl ds nkjS ku ik¡posa ekg ds
month of embryonic development ? nkjS ku ?kfVr gksrk gS ?
(1) Development of limbs and digits (1) ikn vkjS vaxqfy;ksa dk fodkl
(2) Heart formed (2) ân; curk gAS
(3) First movements of the foetus (3) xHkZ dh igyh xfr'khyrk
(4) Lungs are fully matured (4) Qq¶Qq l iw.kZ :i ls ifjof/kZr gks tkrs gAS
83. According to Darwin, which is responsible for the 83. MkfoZu ds vuqlkj] iztkfr dh mRifÙk ds fy, D;k mÙkjnk;h
origin of species :- gS :-
(1) Mutation (2) Tropical isolation (1) mÙkifjorZu (2) HkkSxksfyd i`FkDdj.k
(3) Natural selection (4) Use and disuse of organs (3) izkÏfrd p;u (4) vaxks dk mi;ksx o vuqi;ksx

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84. B 84. B

A C A C

D D
E E

In this pie chart of vertebrates which column is d'ks:dh;ks ds bl ikbZ pkVZ ds vuqlkj dkSulk Hkkx if{k;ksa
representing species diversity of birds ? dh tho fofo/krk dks n'kkZrk gS ?
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
85. India has more than 50000 genetically different 85. Hkkjr esa 50000 ls vf/kd vkuqokaf'kd :i ls fHkUu /kku@pkoy
strains of rice. This statement is about which aspect ds izHksn gAS ;g dFku tSofofo/krk ds fdl igyw ds lanHkZ
of biodiversity :- esa gS :-
(1) Genetic diversity (2) Species diversity (1) vkuqokaf'kd fofo/krk (2) tkfr; fofo/krk
(3) Ecological diversity (4) All of the above (3) ikfjfLFkfrdh; fofo/krk (4) mijksDr lHkh
86. Find correct match w.r.t. A, B and C in diagrammatic 86. tfS od vuqfØ;kvksa ds fp=h; fu:i.k esa A, B o C ds lanHkZ
representation of organismic responses esa lgh feyku dk p;u dhft,A
A A
B B
Internal vkarfjd Lrj
level
C C

External level cká Lrj

(1) B-Conformers, all plant (1) B-la:id] lHkh ikni
(2) B-Regulators, nearly all plants (2) B-fu;ked] yxHkx lHkh ikni
(3) A-Conformers, 99% Animals (3) A-la:id, 99% tUrq
(4) C-Partial regulators, all birds (4) C-vkaf'kd fu;ked] lHkh i{kh
87. Which elements are essential for the growth of pollen 87. dkSuls rRo ijkxufydk dh o`f¼ ds fy, vko';d gSa\
tube ?
(1) P & Ca (2) Ca & B (1) P & Ca (2) Ca & B
(3) Mn & Ca (4) Mg & Ca (3) Mn & Ca (4) Mg & Ca
88. Suspected cancer patient's gene mutation can be 88. lafnX/k dSalj jksfx;ksa ds thu dk mRifjorZu igpkus tk ldrs
dected by :- gS:-
(1) Widal (1) foMky
(2) Probe hybridization and auto radiography (2) izksc ladj.k ls Lofofdj.k fp=.k ls
(3) ELISA (3) ELISA ls
(4) Western blotting (4) osLVuZ CykfVax ls
89. Select the mismatch :- 89. xyr ;qXe pqfu, :-
(1) Selectable marker - Screening and selection (1) oj.kkRed fpâd - p;u o oj.k
(2) Primer - Short single stranded oligonucleotides (2) iz k bej - js f M;ks l fØ;rk ;q D r Nks V k ,d&jTtq d h;
(3) Probe - Radiolabelled short double stranded vksyhxksU;wfDy;ksVkbM
DNA (3) izksc - jsfM;ks lfØ; NksVk f}jTtqdh; Mh,u,
(4) Ori - Replication of DNA (4) Ori - Mh,u, DNA dk izfrd`f rdj.k
90. Lac operon will not remain active if culture medium 90. yd S vksijs kWu lfØ; ugha jgsxk ;fn lao¼Z u ek/;e esa gks :-
containes :-
(1) Xywdkst (2) ySDVkst
(1) Glucose (2) Lactose
(3) Allolactose (4) both 2 and 3 (3) ,yksysDVkst (4) 2 o 3 nksuksa

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91. An electric dipole is placed along x–axis at the 91. ,d fo|qr f}/kqo fp=kuqlkj x-v{k ds vuqfn'k ewy fcUnq ij
origin as shown in the figure. Electric field at the fLFkr gAS fcUnq P ij fo|qr {ks=] y-v{k ds lekUrj gSA ;fn
point P is parallel to the y–axis. If x–coordinate of P P dk x-funsZ'kka d 2 m gks rks y-funsZ'kkad dk eku Kkr
is 2 m, what is its y–coordinate? dhft,A
y y
P(x,y) P(x,y)

x x

(1) 1 m (2) 2 m (3) 3 m (4) 4 m (1) 1 m (2) 2 m (3) 3 m (4) 4 m

92. The magnetic field B at the centre of a circular coil 92. leku /kkjk ds fy;s] f=T;k r dh o`Ùkkdkj dq.Myh ds dsUnz ij
of radius r is p times that due to a long straight pqEcdh; {ks= B] ,d yEcs lh/ks rkj ls r nwjh ij pqEcdh; {ks=
wire at a distance r from it, for equal currents. The dk p xquk gAS layXu fp= rhu fLFkfr;ksa dks çnf'kZr djrk g]S lHkh
diagram shows three cases : in all cases the fLFkfr;ksa esa o`Ùkkdkj Hkkx dh f=T;k r rFkk lh/ks Hkkxksa dh yEckbZ
circular part has radius r and straight ones are vuUr gAS leku /kkjk ds fy;s fLFkfr;ksa 1, 2, 3 esa dsUnz P ij {ks=
infinitely long. For the same current, the field B B dk vuqikr %
at centre P in cases 1, 2, 3 has the ratio :

P
P
P
P P
P 1 2 3
1 2 3
æ p ö æ p ö æ 3p 1 ö
æ p ö æ p ö æ 3p 1 ö (1) ç - ÷ : ç ÷ : ç - ÷
(1) ç - ÷ : ç ÷ : ç - ÷ è 2ø è2ø è 4 2ø
è 2ø è2ø è 4 2ø
æ p ö æ p ö æ 3p 1 ö
æ p ö æ p ö æ 3p 1 ö (2) ç - + 1 ÷ : ç + 1 ÷ : ç + ÷
(2) ç - + 1 ÷ : ç + 1 ÷ : ç + ÷ è 2 ø è2 ø è 4 2ø
è 2 ø è2 ø è 4 2ø
æ p ö æ p ö æ 3p ö æ p ö æ p ö æ 3p ö
(3) ç - ÷ : ç ÷ : ç ÷ (3) ç - ÷ : ç ÷ : ç ÷
è 2ø è2ø è 4 ø è 2ø è2ø è 4 ø

æ p ö æ p 1 ö æ 3p 1 ö æ p ö æ p 1 ö æ 3p 1 ö
(4) ç - - 1 ÷ : ç - ÷ : ç + ÷ (4) ç - - 1 ÷ : ç - ÷ : ç + ÷
è 2 ø è 2 4ø è 4 2ø è 2 ø è 2 4ø è 4 2ø
93. Radiations of intensity 0.5 W/m2 are striking a metal 93. 0.5 W/m2 rhozrk dh fo|qr pqEcdh; rjax /kkfRod lrg ls
plate. The pressure on the plate is :- Vdjkrh gAS rks lrg ij nkc dh x.kuk djs :-
(Plate is absorbing) (/kkfRod lrg vo'kks"kd g)S
(1) 0.166 × 10–8 N/m2 (1) 0.166 × 10–8 N/m2

(2) 0.332 × 10–8 N/m2 (2) 0.332 × 10–8 N/m2

(3) 0.111 × 10–8 N/m2 (3) 0.111 × 10–8 N/m2

(4) 0.083 × 10–8 N/m2 (4) 0.083 × 10–8 N/m2

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d d
94. In Young's double slit experiment = 10 -4 94. ;ax f}fLyV ç;ksx esa = 10 -4 (d = fLyVksa ds chp nw jh,
D D
(d = distance between slits, D = distance of screen D = fLyV vkjS LØhu ds chp nwjh)A ijns ij fLFkr fcUnq P ij
from the slits). At a point P on the screen the ifj.kkeh rhozrk fLyVksa dh vyx&vyx rhozrk I0 ds cjkcj gAS
resulting intensity is equal to the intensity due to rc dsUæh; mfPp"B ls fcUnq P dh nwjh gS (l = 6000 Å) :-
individual slit I0. Then the minimum distance of (1) 2 mm (2) 1 mm
point P from the central maximum is (l = 6000 Å):-
(1) 2 mm (2) 1 mm (3) 0.5 mm (4) 4 mm (3) 0.5 mm (4) 4 mm
95. A neutron break into proton and electron. Calculate 95. ,d U;wVªkWu izksVksu o bysDVªksu es foHkDr gksrk gAS rks bl izfØ;k
the energy produced in this reactions in MeV. es mRiUu ÅtkZ Kkr djs .
(m e = 9.1 × 10 –31 kg, m p = 1.6725 × 10 –27 kg (m e = 9.1 × 10 –31 kg, m p = 1.6725 × 10 –27 kg
mn=1.6747 × 10–27 kg) :- mn=1.6747 × 10–27 kg) :-
(1) 0.73 MeV (1) 0.73 MeV
(2) 1.76 MeV
(2) 1.76 MeV
(3) 0.12 MeV
(3) 0.12 MeV
(4) 931 MeV
(4) 931 MeV
100N – m2/C
96. Electric field at a distance x from the origin is given 96 - ewy fcUnq ls x nwjh ij fo|qr {ks= E = }kjk
x2
2
100N – m /C O;Dr fd;k tkrk gAS x = 10 ehVj o x = 20 ehVj ij fLFkr
as E = . Then potential difference
x2 fcUnqvksa ds e/; foHkokUrj gS %&
between the points situated at x = 10 m and x = 20m
(1) 5 V (2) 10 V
is :-
(1) 5 V (2) 10 V (3) 15 V (4) 4V (3) 15 V (4) 4 V
97. A long solenoid is formed by winding 97. 20 Qsjs izfr lseh dh yEch ifjukfydk cukbZ tkrh gAS ifjukfydk
20 turns/cm. The current necessary to produce a ds Hkhrj 20 feyh Vslyk dk pqEcdh; {ks= mRiUu djus ds fy,
magnetic field of 20 millitesla inside the solenoid will vko';d /kkjk gksxh yxHkx
be approximately m0
( = 10 -7 Vslyk&ehVj@,sfEi;j)
æ m0 ö 4p
ç = 10 -7 tesla - metre / ampere ÷
è 4p ø (1) 8.0 A (2) 4.0 A
(1) 8.0 A (2) 4.0 A (3) 2.0 A (4) 1.0 A (3) 2.0 A (4) 1.0 A
98. An inductance of 0.1 henry is connected with 98. 0.1 guS jh çsjdRo dh ,d dq.Myh 120 oksYV ds fn"V /kkjk L=ksr
D.C. source of 120 volt. If the current flowing ls tqM+h gAS dq.Myh esa 0.5 ,Eih;j dh /kkjk çokfgr gksrh gS rks
in the inductive coil is 0.5 amp, then resistance dq.Myh dk çfrjks/k gksxk&
of the coil is: (1) 120 W
(1) 120 W
(2) 240 W
(2) 240 W
(3) 24 W (3) 24 W

(4) 12 W (4) 12 W

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99. Unpolarized light of intensity I0 is incident on a set 99. I0 rhozrk dk v/kzqfor izdk'k n'kkZ;s vuqlkj 3 iksyjs kWbM ds lsV
of 3 polaroids as shown. The pass axis of each ij vkifrr gksrk gAS izR;sd iksysjkWbM dk xqtjus okyk v{k xfr
polaroid is perpendicular to direction of dh fn'kk ds yEcor~ gksrk gAS fdlh ,d iksysjkWbM dks izdk'k
propagation. One of the polaroid is rotated about dh xfr dh mHk;fu"B fn'kk ds lkis{k ?kqek;k tkrk g]S rks
the common direction of propagation of light.

A
A

B
B

C
C
(1) ;fn A dks ?kqek;k tk;s] rks vfUre rhozrk ifjofrZr gksxhA
(1) If A is rotated, the final intensity will change (2) ;fn B dks ?kqe k;k tk;s ] rks vfUre rhoz rk ifjofrZ r
(2) If B is rotated, the final intensity will change. gks x hA
(3) If B is rotated, the final intensity remains (3) ;fn B dks ?kqek;k tk;s] rks vfUre rhozrk vifjofrZr jgrh
unchanged. gSA
(4) If C is rotated, the final intensity remains (4) ;fn C dks ?kqek;k tk;s rks vfUre rhozrk vifjofrZr jgrh
unchanged. gSA
100. Let T be the mean life of a radioactive sample. 75% 100. ekuk fdlh jsfM;ks lfØ; inkFkZ dh ek/; vk;q T gAS fdl le;
of the active nuclei present in the sample initially will ij vkjEHk ds 75% ukfHkd fo?kfVr gks tk,sax:s
decay in time: (1) 2T
(1) 2T
(2) 1/2(ln 2)T
(2) 1/2(ln 2)T
(3) 4T (3) 4T

(4) 2(ln 2)T (4) 2(ln 2)T

101. Dimensions of a block are 1 cm × 1 cm × 100 cm. 101. ,d CykWd 1 cm × 1 cm × 100 cm dk gS vxj fof'k"V
If specific resistance of its material is 3 × 10–7 ohm-m, then izfrjks/k 3 × 10–7 W-m, rks foifjr vk;rkdkj lrgksa ds chp
the resistance between the opposite rectangular faces izfrjks/k gksxk :-
is :- (1) 3 × 10–9 ohm
(1) 3 × 10–9 ohm
(2) 3 × 10–7 ohm
(2) 3 × 10–7 ohm
(3) 3 × 10–5 ohm
(3) 3 × 10–5 ohm
(4) 3 × 10–3 ohm
(4) 3 × 10–3 ohm

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102. A circular loop of radius r, carrying a current i, is 102. ,d r f=T;k ds o` Ù kkdkj yw i es i /kkjk iz okghr gks jgh
placed in a radial magnetic field. The centre of loop gS bls ,d f=T; pqEcdh; {ks= esa j[kk tkrk gSA ywi dk
coincides with the centre of the field. The magnitude ds Unz rFkk pq E cdh; {ks = dk ds Unz lEikrh g S yw i fd
of magnetic field at the periphery of loop is B. Then ifj/kh ij pqEcdh; {ks= dk ifjek.k B gS rks yw i ij yxus
magnetic force on wire will be:- okyk cy gksxk :-

i i

B B
r r

priB priB
(1) 4priB (2) (3) zero (4) 2priB (1) 4priB (2) (3) 'kwU; (4) 2priB
2 2
103. If a direct current of value a ampere is 103. 'a' ampere dh fn"V /kkjk dks I = b sin wt dh izR;korhZ /kkjk
superimposed on an alternative current I = b sin wt
ij vkjksfir (Super imposed) fd;k x;k gAS ifj.kkeh /kkjk
flowing through a wire, what is the effective value
of the resulting current in the circuit? dk r.m.s. eku Kkr dhft;s\\

dc dc
I a + b ac I a + b ac
I =? I =?
t t

1/2 1/2
é 2 1 2ù é 2 1 2ù
(1) êa - b ú (2) [a + b ]
2 2 1/2
(1) êa - b ú (2) [a2 + b2]1/2
ë 2 û ë 2 û
1/2 1/2 1/2 1/2
é a2 ù é 2 1 2ù é a2 ù é 2 1 2ù
(3) ê + b2 ú (4) êa + b ú (3) ê + b2 ú (4) êa + b ú
ë2 û ë 2 û ë2 û ë 2 û
104. Two identical metal plates show photoelectric effect 104. nks ,dleku /kkfRod IysV sa A vkSj B dks ;fn Øe'k% l A
by a light of wavelength lA falling on plate A and lB vkSj l B rjax nS/;Z (l A = 2l B) ds iz d k'k ls iznhIr fd;k
on plate B (lA = 2lB). The maximum kinetic energy tk;s rks mRlftZr bysDVªk Wuksa dh vf/kdre xfrt ÅtkZ vksa esa
of electrons is :- lEcU/k gS :-
(1) 2KA = KB (2) KA < KB/2 (1) 2KA = KB (2) KA < KB/2
(3) KA = 2KB (4) KA > KB/2 (3) KA = 2KB (4) KA > KB/2
105. A parent nucleus n P decays into a daughter
m
105. ,d tud ukfHkd mn P a d.k ds fudyus ds dkj.k nwljs larfr
nucleus D through a emission in the following ukHkd D esa fuEu izdkj ls {k; gksrk gS mn P ® D + a larfr
way mn P ® D + a . The subscript and superscript dsUæd D ij iknk{kj rFkk ew/kkZ{kj fuEufyf[kr izdkj ls fy[ks
on the daughter nucleus D will be written as : tk;sxsa :
(1) n D m (2) nDm + 4 (1) n D m (2) nDm + 4
(3) nDm – 4 (4) n – 2Dm – 4 (3) nDm – 4 (4) n – 2Dm – 4

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106. A cell of emf e and internal resistance (r) is connected 106. emf e rFkk vkUrfjd iz f rjks / k (r) dk ,d lsy ckg~ ;
in series with an external resistance (nr) then the izfrjks/k (nr) ls Js.khØe esa tqM+k gS rks blds VfeZuy oksYVrk
ratio of the terminal potential difference to emf is: rFkk emf dk vuqikr gksxk:
1 1 n n +1 1 1 n n +1
(1) (2) (3) (4) (1) (2) (3) (4)
n n +1 n +1 n n n +1 n +1 n
107. Two concentric coplanner coils of turns n1 and n2 107. n1 ,oa n2 Qsjksa okyh nks lery ladUs æh; dq.Mfy;ksa dh f=T;kvksa
have radii ratio 2 : 1 respectively. Equal current dk vuqikr Øe'k% 2 : 1 gAS nksuksa dq.Mfy;ksa esa leku ifjek.k dh
in both the coils flows in opposite direction. If net èkkjk foifjr fn'kk esa çokfgr gksrh gAS ;fn muds mHk;fu"B dsUæ ij
magnetic field is zero at their common centre then ifj.kkeh pqEcdh; {ks= 'kwU; gks rks n1 : n2 gksxk %&
n1 : n 2 is :-
(1) 2 : 1 (2) 1 : 2 (3) 1 : 1 (4) 4 : 1 (1) 2 : 1 (2) 1 : 2 (3) 1 : 1 (4) 4 : 1
108. The resonant frequency of the L-C circuit is f0 before 108. iznf'kZr L-C ifjiFk esa er = 16 ijko| S qrkad okys ijko| S rq dks
insertion of the dielectric of er = 16. After inserting the izfo"V djkus ls iwoZ vuquknh vko`fÙk dk eku f0 gAS ijko|
S rq izfo"V
dielectric, the resonant frequency will be :- djkus ds ckn vuquknh vko`fÙk gksxh %&
~ ~

L L

f0 f0 f0 f0
(1) (2) 2f0 (3) (4) 4f (1) (2) 2f0 (3) (4) 4f
2 4 2 4
109. For intensity I of a light of wavelength 5000Å the 109. 5000Å rjaxn/S ;Z vkjS I rhozrk okys çdk'k dh mifLFkfr esa
photoelectron saturation current is 0.40 µA and stopping çdk'k fo|qr lar`Ir /kkjk 0.40 µA ,oa fujks/kh foHko 1.36 V
potential is 1.36 V, the work function of metal is :- gAS /kkrq dk dk;Z Qyu gksxk :-
(1) 2.47 eV (2) 1.36 eV (3) 1.10 eV (4) 0.43 eV (1) 2.47 eV (2) 1.36 eV (3) 1.10 eV (4) 0.43 eV
110. In a common-emitter amplifier, output resistance 110. lkekU; mRltZd izo/kZd esa] cká izf rjks/k 5000 W vkjS vkUrfjd
is 5000 W and input resistance is 2000 W. If peak izfrjks/k 2000 W gSA ;fn lad sr oksYVst dk f'k[kj eku
value of signal voltage is 10 mV and b = 50, then 10 feyh oksYV vkSj b = 50 gS] rc cká oksYVst dk f'k[kj
the peak value of output voltage is :- eku gS %
(1) 5 × 10–6 volt (2) 2.5 × 10–4 volt (1) 5 × 10–6 oksYV (2) 2.5 × 10–4 oksYV
(3) 1.25 volt (4) 125 volt (3) 1.25 oksYV (4) 125 oksYV
111. AB is a potentiometer wire of length 100 cm and 111. AB ,d foHkoekih rkj gS ftldh yEckbZ 100 cm rFkk
its resistance is 10 W. It is connected in series with izfrjks/k 10 W gS ;g Js.khØe esa 2V cSVjh rFkk 40 W ds lkFk
a battery of emf 2V and resistance 40 W. If a source tqM+k gqvk gAS ,d vKkr emf E dk lsy 40 cm yEckbZ ij
of unknown emf E is balanced by 40 cm length of
lUrqfyr gksrks E dk eku gksxk :-
the potentiometer wire, the value of E is :-
R=40W 2V
R=40W 2V

40 cm C B
40 cm C B

E E

(1) 0.8 V (2) 1.6 V (3) 0.08 V (4) 0.16 V (1) 0.8 V (2) 1.6 V (3) 0.08 V (4) 0.16 V
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112. Our earth behaves as it has a powerful magnet within 112. gekjh i`Foh bl rjg ls O;ogkj djrh gS fd blds vUnj ,d
it. The value of magnetic field on the surface of earth 'kfDr'kkyh pqEcd j[kk gksA i`Foh dh lrg ij pqEcdh; {ks=
is a few tenth of gauss (1G = 10 –4 T) dk eku xkml ds nlosa Hkkx ds dqN xq.kd ds cjkcj gksrk gSA
There are three elements of Earth’s magnetism (1G=10–4 T)

Geographical Geographical
North North
Magnetic q Magnetic q
BH BH
North N S North N S
BV BV

Magnetic Magnetic
meredian meredian

(i) Angle of declination i`Foh ds pqEcdRo ds rhu vo;o gksrs gaS%&

(ii) Angle of dip (i) fnd~ikr dks.k
(iii) Horizontal component of Earth’s magnetic field. (ii) ufr dks.k
In the magnetic meridian of a certain place, the horizontal (iii) i`Foh ds pqEcdh; {ks= dk {kSfrt ?kVd
component of Earth’s magnetic field is 0.6 G and the fdlh LFkku ij pqEcdh; ;kE;ksÙkj esa i`Foh ds pqEcdh; {ks= dk
dip angle is 53°. The value of vertical component of {kfS rt ?kVd 0.6 G rFkk ufr dks.k 53° gAS bl LFkku ij pqEcdh;
earth's magnetic field at this place is {ks= dk m/okZ/kj ?kVd eku gksxk%&
(1) 0.8 G (2) 0.6 G (1) 0.8 G (2) 0.6 G
(3) 1.0 G (4) 2.0 G (3) 1.0 G (4) 2.0 G
113. A coil has a resistance 10 W and an inductance 113. ,d dq.Myh dk izfrjks/k 10 W o izsjdRo 0.4 gsujh gAS bls
of 0.4 Henry. It is connected to an AC source of
30
6.5V, Hz. ds ,d izR;korhZ oksYVrk lzksr ls tksM+k tkrk gAS
30 p
6.5V, Hz. The average power consumed in
p ifjiFk esa O;f;r vkSlr 'kfDr gS %&
the circuit, is :-
5 4 3 6
5 4 3 6 (1) W (2) W (3) W (4) W
(1) W (2) W (3) W (4) W 8 3 8 7
8 3 8 7
114. An electron of mass m when accelerated through a 114. æO;eku m ds ,d bysDVªkWu dks tc foHkokUrj V ij Rofjr djrs
potential difference V, has de Broglie wavelength l. ga]S rc mlds lkFk nh&czkxs yh rjaxn/S ;Z l gksrk gAS æO;eku M
The de Broglie wavelength associated with a proton dks izksVkWu] ftls mlh foHkokUrj ij Rofjr fd;k tkrk gS ds lkFk
of mass M accelerated through the same potential lEc¼ rjaxnS/;Z gksxh :-
difference, will be :-
lm m
lm m (1) (2) l
(1) (2) l M M
M M

lM M lM M
(3) (4) l (3) (4) l
m m m m

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115. In the following circuit the equivalent resistance 115. fp=kuqlkj fn;s x;s ifjiFk esa A rFkk B fljs ds e/; rqY;kad
between A and B is :- izfrjks/k gksxk :-
4W 6W 4W 6W

A B A B
2W 2W

10V 8W 12W –2V 10V 8W 12W –2V

20 20
(1) W (2) 10 W (3) 16W (4) 20W (1) W (2) 10 W (3) 16W (4) 20W
3 3
116. If a cell is flowing current through external 116. ;fn ,d lsy ckg~ ; izf rjks/k ls /kkjk iz okfgr djs rks VfeZ uy
resistance then curve between terminal potential oksYVrk ,oa ckg~; izfrjks/k ds e/; xzkQ gksxk :
(V) and external resistance R is: V V
V V

(1) (2)
(1) (2)
R R
R R
V V V V

(3) (4) (3) (4)

R R R R

117. Two particles X and Y having equal charges, after 117. nks d.kksa X ,oa Y ij leku vkos'k gAS bUgsa leku foHkokUrj ls
being accelerated through the same potential Rofjr djus ds i'pkr~ ,dlkj pqEcdh; {ks= esa Hkstk tkrk gS rc
difference, enter a region of uniform magnetic field ;s R1 ,oa R2 f=T;k ds o`Ùkkdkj iFk ij xfr djrs gaAS X ,oa Y
and describe circular path of radius R1 and R 2 d.kksa ds nzO;ekuksa dk vuqikr gS :
respectively. The ratio of mass of X to that of Y is : 1/2 2
1/2 2 æ R1 ö R2 æ R1 ö R1
æ R1 ö R2 æ R1 ö R1 (1) ç ÷ (2) R (3) ç ÷ (4) R
(1) ç ÷ (2) R (3) ç ÷ (4) R è R2 ø 1 è R2 ø 2
è R2 ø 1 è R2 ø 2

118. Figure shows a cross section of a ‘light pipe’ made 118. fp= esa ,d vkWfIVdy Qkbcj dks iznf'kZr fd;k x;k gSA ftlds
of a glass fibre of refractive index 2 . The outer ØksM dk viorZuka d 2 gAS Qkbcj dh ckgjh lrg dks
covering of the pipe is made of a material of refractive 3
3 viorZukad okys ek/;e ls cuk;k x;k gAS vkifrr fdj.k
2
index . What is maximum angle of the incident
2 dh v{k ds lkFk cuk;s x;k vf/kdre vkiru dks.k D;k gksxk
ray with the axis of the pipe for which total internal rkfd Qkbcj esa izdk'k dk iw.kZ vkarfjd ijkorZu gks:-
reflections inside the pipe take place:-

(1) 45° (2) 66° (3) 80° (4) 90° (1) 45° (2) 66° (3) 80° (4) 90°
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119. The energy that would be changed of an electron 119. ,d bysDVªkWu dh Mh czksXyh rjaxn/S ;Z dk eku 10–10 ehVj ls
to reduce its De broglie wavelength from 10 –10 m ?kVdj 0.5 × 10–10 ehVj djus ds fy, mldh ÅtkZ es ifjorZu
to 0.5 × 10–10 m will be : gksxk %
(1) 150 eV (1) 150 eV
(2) 300 eV (2) 300 eV
(3) 450 eV (3) 450 eV
(4) 6000 eV (4) 6000 eV
120. The currents I, IZ and IL are respectively :- 120. /kkjk I, IZ o IL Øe'k% gS

4kW IL 4kW IL
I I
IZ IZ
60V RL = 2k W 60V RL = 2k W
V Z = 10V V Z = 10V

(1) 15 mA, 5 mA, 10 mA (1) 15 mA, 5 mA, 10 mA

(2) 15 mA, 7.5 mA, 7.5 mA (2) 15 mA, 7.5 mA, 7.5 mA
(3) 12.5 mA, 5 mA, 7.5 mA (3) 12.5 mA, 5 mA, 7.5 mA
(4) 12.5 mA, 7.5 mA, 5 mA (4) 12.5 mA, 7.5 mA, 5 mA
121. The potential difference between the plates of a 121. lekarj ifêdk la/kkfj= esa IysVksa ds chp dk foHkkaoj 10V rFkk
parallel plate capacitor is 10V and separation is
nwjh 5 cm gaAS IysVksa ds chp ÅtkZ ?kuRo Kkr dhft,A
5 cm. Find the energy density between plates.
(e0 = 10–11 F/m) (e0 = 10–11 F/m)

(1) 4 × 10–7 J/m3 (2) 5 × 10–7 J/m3 (1) 4 × 10–7 J/m3 (2) 5 × 10–7 J/m3

(3) 2 × 10–7 J/m3 (4) 3 × 10–7 J/m3 (3) 2 × 10–7 J/m3 (4) 3 × 10–7 J/m3
122. Figure shows an irregular shapped wire AB 122. nh xbZ vkd`fÙk dks v osx ls fp=kuqlkj ys tkrs gS rc rkj dk fo|qr
moving with velocity v. Find the emf induced in okgd cy gksxk :-
the wire :- v
A
v
A
q
l
q B
l
B
B
B
(1) VB l sin q
(1) VB l sin q
(2) V2B l sin q
(2) V B l sin q
2

(3) VB l cos q (3) VB l cos q

(4) VB l (4) VB l

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123. An extended object of size 2 cm is placed at a distance 123. ,d xksyh; dkap dh oØ lrg ls 10 lseh dh nwjh ij ok;q
of 10 cm in air (n = 1) from pole, on the principal axis esa (n = 1) ,d cM+h oLrq ftldk vkdkj 2 lseh gS dks oØ
of a spherical curved surface. The medium on the lrg ds eq[; v{k ij j[kk x;k gAS oØ lrg ds nwljh rjQ
other side of refracting surface has refractive index ds ek/;e dk viorZukad n = 2 gS rks izfrfcEc dh fLFkfr]
n = 2. Find the position, of image formed after single oØ lrg ds ,d viorZu ds i'pkr~ gksxhA
refraction through the curved surface. n=2
n=1
n=1 n=2 2cm
2cm
10cm
10cm
ROC = 20 cm
ROC = 20 cm (1) 40 cm (2) 80 cm
(1) 40 cm (2) 80 cm (3) 60 cm (4) 10 cm (3) 60 cm (4) 10 cm
124. If the Ka radiation of Mo (Z = 42) has a wavelength 124. ;fn Mo (Z = 42) ds fy, Ka fofdj.k dh rjax nS/;Z
of 0.71 Å, calculate wavelength of the 0.71 Å gS rks Cu (Z = 29) ds fy, Ka dh rjaxn/S ;Z gksxh
corresponding radiation of Cu, i.e., Ka for Cu fn;k gS (b = 1) :-
(Z = 29) assuming b = 1 :- (1) 2.52 Å (2) 1.52 Å
(1) 2.52 Å (2) 1.52 Å (3) 1.98 Å (4) 3.22 Å (3) 1.98 Å (4) 3.22 Å
125. A load resistance of 3 kW is connected in the collector 125. mHk;fu"V mRltZd vfHkfoU;kl izo/kZd ds laxzkgd ifjiFk es
circuit of an amplifier using common emitter configuration 3 kW dk yksM izfrjks/k tqM+k gqvk gS rFkk b = 50 ,oa fuos'kh
with b = 50 and input resistance 500W. If the input current izfrjks/k 500W gAS ;fn fuos'kh /kkjk es 40 µA dk ifjorZu gksrk
is changed by 40 µA then by what amount does the gS rks fuxZr oksYVrk es fdrus ls ifjorZu gksxk :-
output voltage change :- (1) 3 V (2) 4.5 V
(1) 3 V (2) 4.5 V (3) 6 V (4) 9 V (3) 6 V (4) 9 V
126. A parallel plate air capacitor has capacitance 18µF. If 126. lekUrj IysV ok;q la/kkfj= dh /kkfjrk 18µF gAS ;fn IysVksa ds
the distance between the plates is tripled and dielectric e/; nwjh rhu xquh dj nh tk, rFkk IysVksa ds e/; ijko|S qr ekè;e
medium is introduced the capacitance becomes 72µF. yxk fn;k tk, rks /kkfjrk 72µF gks tkrh g]S rks ek/;e dk ijko|S rq
The dielectric constant of the medium is :- fu;rakd dk eku gS :-
(1) 4 (2) 9 (3) 2 (4) 12 (1) 4 (2) 9 (3) 2 (4) 12
127. A small circular loop is suspended from an 127. ,d NksVh o`Ùkh; oy; dqpkyd Mksjh ls fuyfEcr gAS nwljh
insulating thread. Another coaxial circular loop vf/kd f=T;k dh lek{kh; cM+h oy; ftlesa /kkjk I izokfgr gks
carrying a current I and having radius much larger jgh gAS NksVh oy; dh vksj xfr vkjEHk djrh gAS NksVh
than the first loop starts moving towards the smaller
oy; :-
loop. The smaller loop will :

I
I

(1) Be attracted towards the bigger loop (1) cM+h oy; dh vksj vkdf"kZr gksxhA
(2) Be repelled by the bigger loop (2) cM+h oy; ls izfrdf"kZr gksxhA
(3) Experience no force (3) dksbZ cy vuqHko ugha gksxkA
(4) All of the above (4) mijksDr lHkh
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128. For a long sighted person, least distant of distinct 128. nwj n`f "V okys O;fDr ds fy,] Li"V nwf"V dh U;wure nwjh
vision is x meter. He wants to read news paper x
x ehVj gAS og ehVj dh nwjh ij j[ks ,d v[kckj dks i<+uk
x 2
placed at meter from him. He uses spectacle pkgrk gAS og xD 'kfDr ds ysal okys p'eksa dk iz;ksx djrk gAS
2
having lenses of power xD. What is x :- x dk eku Kkr dhft, :-
(1) 0.5 (2) 1.5 (1) 0.5 (2) 1.5
(3) 1 (4) 2 (3) 1 (4) 2
129. A b – particle is emitted by a radioactive nucleus 129. fdl ifjorZu ds dkj.k fdlh jsfM;ks lfØ; ukfHkd es ls
at the time of conversion of a :- b– d.k dk mRltZu gksrk g:S -
(1) Neutron into a proton (1) U;qVªkWu dk izksVksu esa
(2) Proton into a neutron (2) izksVksu dk U;qVªkWu esa
(3) Nucleon into energy (3) U;wfDyvkWu dk ÅtkZ esa
(4) Positron into energy (4) iksftVªksu dk ÅtkZ esa
130. The circuit given below is equivalent to :- 130. fuEu ifjiFk lerqY; g%S &

NOR NAND NOT NOR NAND NOT

(1) NOR gate (1) NOR xsV ds

(2) OR gate (2) OR xsV ds
(3) AND gate (3) AND xsV ds
(4) NAND gate (4) NAND xsV ds
131. Four capacitors are connected in a circuit as 131. pkj la/kkfj=ksa dks fp=kuqlkj ifjiFk esa tksM+k x;k gAS A vkjS B
shown in figure. The effective capacitance ds chp izHkkoh /kkfjrk gksxh :-
between pionts A and B will be :- 2mF 12mF
2mF 12mF

2mF
A B
2mF
A B

2mF
2mF

28
28 (1) mF
(1) mF 9
9
(2) 5mF
(2) 5mF

(3) 4mF (3) 4mF

(4) 18mF (4) 18mF

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132. A uniform but time varying magnetic field 132. 2.5 cm f=T;k ds ,d csyukdkj {ks= eas pqEcdh; {ks= le;
B = 2t3 + 24t is represent in a cylindrical region of ds lkFk ifjorZu'khy g]S B = 2t3 + 24t
radius R = 2.5 cm as shown in fig.
×
×
× ×
× × × × R/2
× ×
× × × R/2 ×
× × ×P
× ×
× × ×P × R ×
×
× R ×
×
fcUnq P ij fLFkr bysDVªkWu ij t = 2 sec. ij cy Kkr djksA
The force on an electron at P at t = 2 sec. is
(1) 96 × 10–21 N (2) 48 × 10–21 N
(1) 96 × 10–21 N (2) 48 × 10–21 N
(3) 24 × 10–21N (4) Zero (3) 24 × 10–21N (4) 'kwU;
133. The focal length of the objective lens of a telescope 133. ,d nwjn'khZ ds vfHkn`';d ysUl dh Qksdl nwjh 30 cm vkjS
is 30 cm and that of its eye lens is 3 cm. It is focussed blds us= ysUl 3 cm gAS bls blls 2 ehVj dh nwjh ij fLFkr
on a scale 2 metres distant from it. The distance of Ldsy ij Qksdl fd;k x;k gAS foJkUr us=ksa ls ns[kus ds fy;s
the objective lens from the eye lens to see with vfHkn`';d ysUl ls us= ysUl dh nwjh gS :-
relaxed eye is :-
(1) 33 cm (2) 65.3 cm
(1) 33 cm (2) 65.3 cm
(3) 38.3 cm (4) 40.3 cm (3) 38.3 cm (4) 40.3 cm
134. An atomic power nuclear reactor can deliver 134. ,d ijek.kq Hkêh 300 MW 'kfä iznku djrh gAS izR;sd ;wjfs u;e
300 MW. The energy released due to fission of each U238 ukfHkd ds fo[k.Mu ls eqDr ÅtkZ 170 MeV gAS izfr
nucleus of uranium atom U238 is 170 MeV. The number ?k.Vs fo[kf.Mr ;wjsfu;e ijek.kqvksa dh la[;k gS :-
of uranium atoms fissioned per hour will be:- (1) 30 × 1025 (2) 4 × 1022
(1) 30 × 1025 (2) 4 × 1022
(3) 10 × 1020 (4) 5 × 1015 (3) 10 × 1020 (4) 5 × 1015
135. During regulation action of a Zener diode correct 135. thuj Mk;ksM ds fu;ked çfØ;k ds nkjS ku :-
statement is :- (a) thuj Mk;ksM ls /kkjk rFkk mlds fljksa ij oksYVrk leku cuh
(a) the current and voltage across the Zener jgrh gAS
remains fixed. (b) Js.khØe esa yxs çfrjks/k ls /kkjk cnyrh gAS
(b) the current through the series resistance (RS) changes. (c) thuj çfrjks/k fu;r gksrk gSA
(c) the Zener resistance is constant. (d) thuj Mk;ksM }kjk fn;k çfrjks/k cnyrk gAS
(d) the resistance offered by the Zener diode changes.
(1) a vkjS c
(1) a and c
(2) a vkjS d
(2) a and d
(3) b and c (3) b vkjS c

(4) b and d (4) b vkjS d

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136. When initial concentration of reactant is doubled in 136. ;fn fdlh vfHkfØ;k esa fØ;kdkjd dh izkjfEHkd lkUnzrk
a reaction its half-life period is not affected. The order dks nqxuk djus ij mlds v¼Z vk;q dky es a ifjorZu u
of the reaction is :- gks rc vfHkfØ;k dh dksfV gS :-
(1) Second (1) f}rh; dksfV
(2) Zero (2) 'kwU; dksfV
(3) More than zero but less than first (3) 'kwU; ls vf/kd ij izFke ls de
(4) First (4) izFke dksfV
137. Passage of electricity through dil H2SO4 for 1 hour 137. ruq H2SO4 ds foy;u esa 1 ?k.Vs rd fo|qr/kkjk izokfgr djus
liberates a total of 224 ml of H2 at S.T.P. The ij] S.T.P. ij dqy 224 ml H2 xl S izkIr gksrh gS rks izokfgr
magnitude of current would be :- fo|qr/kkjk dk eku gksxk :-
(1) 0.27 amperes (2) 0.54 amperes (1) 0.27 amperes (2) 0.54 amperes
(3) 0.042 amperes (4) 0.73 amperes (3) 0.042 amperes (4) 0.73 amperes
138. Which of the following statement is incorrect :- 138. fuEu esa dkuS lk dFku vlR; gS :-
(1) 1°, 2° & 3° amines can be distinguished by (1) fgalcxZ vfHkdeZd }kjk 1°, 2° rFkk 3° ,ehu dks foHksfnr
Hinsberg reagent fd;k tk ldrk gSA
(2) Phenol does not give lucas test (2) fQukWy Y;wdkl ijh{k.k ugha nsrk gS
(3) Phenol and alcohols can be distinguished by (3) fQukWy rFkk ,YdksgkWy dks mnklhu FeCl3 }kjk foHksfnr
neutral FeCl3 fd;k tk ldrk gSA
(4) 2° & 3° amines give carbylamine reaction (4) 2° rFkk 3° ,ehu dkfcZy ,ehu vfHkfØ;k nsrh gS
139. Denaturation of protein leads to loss of its biological 139. izksVhu dk fod`rhdj.k ls bldh tfS od lfØ;rk [kRe gks
activity by :- tkrh gS :-
(1) Formation of amino acids (1) ,ehuks vEyks ds fuekZ.k }kjk
(2) Loss of primary structure (2) izkFkfed lajpuk u"V gksus ds dkj.k
(3) Loss of both primary and secondary structures (3) izkFkfed rFkk f}rh;d lajpukvksa nksuksa ds u"V gksus ds dkj.k
(4) Loss of both secondary and tertiary structures (4) f}rh;d rFkk r`rh;d lajpukvksa nksuks ds u"V gksus ds dkj.k
140. Thermite is a mixture of :- 140. FkekZbV feJ.k fuEu esa ls gS :-
(1) Zn + Mg (2) Cu + Al (1) Zn + Mg (2) Cu + Al
(3) Fe + Al (4) None (3) Fe + Al (4) dksbZ ugha
141. The rate constant of a reaction is 0.69 × 10–1 min–1 and 141. ;fn vfHkfØ;k dk osx fu;rkad 0.69 × 10–1 min–1 rFkk
the initial concentration is 0.2 mol L–1. The half life fØ;kdkjd dh izkjafHkd lkUnzrk 0.2 M gks rc vfHkfØ;k
period is :- dk v¼Z vk;q dky gksxk :-
(1) 400 sec (2) 600 sec (1) 400 sec (2) 600 sec
(3) 800 sec (4) 1200 sec (3) 800 sec (4) 1200 sec
142. At 25ºC, the potential (e.m.f) for the cell, 142. 25ºC ij] lsy,
+3 +2
+3
Al(s) | Al(aq) +2
(0.1 M) || Cd (aq) (0.01M) | Cd(s) is :- Al(s) | Al(aq) (0.1 M) || Cd (aq) (0.01M) | Cd(s)
dk lsy foHko D;k gksxk :-
Given : E oAl+3 / Al = -1.66 volt; E Cd
o
+2
/Cd
= -0.40 volt fn;k gS : E oAl /Al = -1.66 okYsV ; E oCd = -0.40 okYsV ,
+3 +2
/Cd
2.303RT 2.303RT
= 0.06 = 0.06
F F
(1) 1.36 volt (2) 1.22 volt (1) 1.36 oksYV (2) 1.22 oksYV
(3) –1.26 volt (4) –1.22 volt (3) –1.26 oksYV (4) –1.22 oksYV

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CH3 CH3

Anhydrous futZyh;
143. + (CH3CO)2O (X) 143. + (CH3CO)2O (X)
AlCl3 AlCl3

Major product (x) is :- eq[; mRikn (x) gS :-

O-COCH3 CH3 O-COCH3 CH3

(1) (2) (1) (2)

COCH3 COCH3
CH3 CH3 CH3 CH3

COCH3 COCH3
(3) (4) (3) (4)

COCH3 COCH3
144. The beta(b) and alpha (a) glucose have different 144. chVk (b) rFkk vYQk (a) Xywdksl ds vyx&vyx fof'k"V
specific rotation. When either is dissolved in water, ?kw.kZu gksrs gAS tc bues ls dksbZ ty esa feyk;k tkrk g]S rks
their specific rotation changed to reach a certain fixed budk fof'k"V ?kw.kZu ,d fuf'pr eku izkIr djrk g]S bldks dgrs
value. This is called :- ga S :-
(1) Epimerisation (2) Racemisation (1) ,ihejhdj.k (2) jslehdj.k
(3) Anomerisation (4) Mutarotation (3) ,uksejhdj.k (4) E;wVk?kw.kZu@ifjorhZ /kzo
q .k ?kw.kZu
145. DGº 145. DGº

-200 2C+O2®2CO -200 2C+O2®2CO

-600 2Zn+O ®ZnO -600 2Zn+O ®ZnO

2 2

1100 K 1100 K
T® T®
To make ZnO + C ® Zn + CO ZnO + C ® Zn + CO izØe dks Lor% cukus gsrq rki gksuk
reduction process spontaneous temp. should be pkfg, -
(1) 1100 K (2) >1100 K (3) <500 K (4) <1100 K (1) 1100 K (2) >1100 K (3) <500 K (4) <1100 K
146. Which is not correct matching of emulsion :- 146. ik;l ds fy, D;k lgh ugha gS :-
(1) Milk : o/w (1) nw/k : o/w
(2) Cold cream : w/o (2) dksYM fØe : w/o
(3) Butter : o/w (3) eD[ku : o/w
(4) Vanishing cream : o/w (4) osfuf'kax fØe : o/w
147. The vapour pressure of a solvent decreases by 147. ,d foyk;d dk ok"i nkc 10 mm Hg ls ?kV tkrk gS tc
10 mm of Hg when a non-volatile solute was added blesa ,d vok"i'khy foys; dks Mkyk tkrk gAS foys; dk
to the solvent. The mole fraction of the solute in foy;u esa eksy izHkkt 0.2 gAS ok"i nkc esa fxjkoV ;fn
the solution is 0.2. What should be the mole fraction
of the solvent if the decrease in vapour pressure is 20 mm Hg gks tk;s rks foyk;d dk eksy izHkkt D;k gksxk?
found to be 20 mm of Hg ? (1) 0.8 (2) 0.6
(1) 0.8 (2) 0.6 (3) 0.4 (4) 0.2 (3) 0.4 (4) 0.2

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148. In free radical bromination reaction, 3º alkyl bromide 148. eqDr ewyd izfrLFkkiu vfHkfØ;k esa 3º ,fYdy czksekbM eq[;
form as major product in :- mRikn cusxk ?
CH3 CH3 CH3 CH3

(1) (2) (1) (2)

CH3 CH3
(3) CH3–CH–CH2–CH3 (4) All of these (3) CH3–CH–CH2–CH3 (4) mijksDr lHkh
149. Which of the following statements is not true about 149. mPp ?kuRo ikWfyFkhu ds lanHkZ esa fuEu esa ls dkSu lk dFku
high density polyethene ? lgh ugha gS ?
(1) Has high density due to close packing (1) bldk ?kuRo fufcM+ladqyu ds dkj.k mPp gksrk gS
(2) Linear (2) js[kh;
(3) Highly branched (3) vR;f/kd 'kkf[kr
(4) Chemically inert (4) jklk;fud :i ls vfØ;
150. Select the correct order of Acidic strength :- 150. vEyh; lkeF;Z dk lgh Øe gS &
(1) HF > HCl > HBr > HI (1) HF > HCl > HBr > HI
(2) BF3 < BCl3 < BBr3 < BI3 (2) BF3 < BCl3 < BBr3 < BI3
(3) P4O10 > N2O5 (3) P4O10 > N2O5
(4) ZnO > B2O3 (4) ZnO > B2O3
151. The gold number of colloids A, B, C and D are 151. dks y kW b M A, B, C o D dh Lo.kZ la [ ;k Øe'k%
0.50, 0.01, 0.1 and 0.005 respectively. The increasing 0.50, 0.01, 0.1 rFkk 0.005 g S rks mudh j{k.k {kerk
order of protective action is :- dk lgh Øe gks x k :-
(1) A < C < B < D (1) A < C < B < D
(2) D < A < C < B (2) D < A < C < B
(3) C < B < D < A (3) C < B < D < A
(4) B < D < A < C (4) B < D < A < C
152. At 300 K, the vapour pressure of an ideal solution 152. 300 K rki ij 1 eksy nz o A o 2 eksy nz o B ls cus ,d
containing 1 mole of liquid A and 2 moles of liquid vkn'kZ foy;u dk ok"inkc 500 mm Hg gSA 300 K ij
B is 500 mm of Hg. The vapour pressure of the B dk vkjS ,d eksy ;fn Åij fn;s x;s vkn'kZ foy;u esa
solution increases by 25 mm of Hg if one more mole ;ks f tr dj fn;k tkrk g S rks foy;u dk ok"i nkc
of B is added to the above ideal solution at 300 K. 25 mm Hg ls c<+ tkrk gAS 'kq¼ voLFkk esa A dk ok"i
The vapour pressure of A in pure state is nkc gksxk (mm Hg ds inksa esa) :-
(in mm of Hg) :- (1) 300 (2) 400
(1) 300 (2) 400 (3) 500 (4) 600 (3) 500 (4) 600
153. Which of the following is not an antiseptic drug:- 153. fuEu esa ls dkuS iw frjks/kh vk"S kf/k ugha gS :-
(1) Iodoform (1) vk;MksQkseZ
(2) Dettol (2) fMVkWy
(3) Gammexane (3) xSesDlhu
(4) Genation violet (4) tsuls u okbysV
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 ALLEN
154. Excess of KI react with CuSO4 solution and then 154. tc CuSO4 foy;u ds lkFk KI (vkf/kD;) esa fØ;k djrk
Na 2S 2O 3 solution is added to it. Which of the gS vkjS fQj mlesa Na2S2O3 feyk;k tkrk gSA bl vfHkfØ;k
following statement is incorrect for this reaction:- ds fy, xyr dFku gS :-
(1) Evolved I2 is reduced (1) mRlftZr vk;ksMhu dk vip;u gksrk gAS
(2) CuI2 is formed (2) CuI2 dk fuekZ.k gksrk gAS
(3) Na2S2O3 is oxidised (3) Na2S2O3 dk vkWDlhdj.k gksrk gAS
(4) Cu2I2 is formed (4) Cu2I2 dk fuekZ.k gksrk gAS
155. Complex which has maximum stereo isomers : 155. fuEu esa ls dkuS lk lady
q vf/kdre f=foe leko;oh j[krk g%S
(1) [M(AA)abcd] (2) [M(AB)abcd] (1) [M(AA)abcd] (2) [M(AB)abcd]
(3) [M abcdef] (4) [M(AB)a2b2 ] (3) [M abcdef] (4) [M(AB)a2b2 ]
where ® AA ® Symmetrical bidented ligand tgk¡ ® AA ® lefer f}narqd fyxs.M
AB® unsymmetrical bidented ligand AB® vlefer f}narqd fyxs.M
a, b, c, d, e, f - Monodented ligand a, b, c, d, e, f - ,d narqd fyxs.M
156. Graphite is an example of :- 156. xzsQkbV fdldk mnkgj.k gS :-
(1) Ionic solid (1) vk;fud Bksl
(2) Covalent solid (2) lgla;kstd Bksl
(3) Vander Waal's crystal (3) okUMj okWy fØLVy
(4) Metallic crystal (4) /kkfRod fØLVy
157. Which of the following is less than zero for ideal 157. vkn'kZ foy;u ds fy, fuEu es a ls dk Su 'kw U ; ls de
solutions ? gks x k ?
(1) DHmix (2) DVmix (1) DHmix (2) DVmix
(3) DGmix (4) DSmix (3) DGmix (4) DSmix
CH2 –OH CH2 –OH

+ +
158. ¾¾¾¾
H2 SO4 /H
D
® A The product A :- 158. ¾¾¾¾
H2 SO4 /H
D
® A, mRikn A g:S -

CH 2 –HSO4 CH2 CH 2 –HSO4 CH2

(1) (2) (1) (2)

CH3 CH3
CH3 CH3

(3) (4) (3) (4)

OH OH
° °
159. E maximum for :-
M +3 / M +2 159. E M +3 / M +2 vf/kdre gksxk :-
(1) Fe (2) Cr (3) Co (4) Mn (1) Fe (2) Cr (3) Co (4) Mn
160. Which is not used for permanent bleaching ? 160. fuEu esa ls dkuS LFkk;h fojatd dh rjg mi;ksx esa ugha vkrk\
(1) H2O2 (2) SO2 (1) H2O2 (2) SO2
(3) O3 (4) Cl2 + H2O (3) O3 (4) Cl2 + H2O

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 ALLEN
161. A crystal formula AB3 has A ions at the cube corners 161. AB3 fØLVy esa A vk;u ?ku ds izR;sd dksus ij rFkk B vk;u
and B ions at the edge centres. The Hkqtk ds dsUnzks ij mifLFkr gks rks A rFkk B ds Øe'k% leUo;
co-ordination no. of A and B respectively are :- la[;k gksxh :-
(1) 6 and 6 (2) 2 and 6 (1) 6 rFkk 6 (2) 2 rFkk 6
(3) 6 and 2 (4) 8 and 8 (3) 6 rFkk 2 (4) 8 rFkk 8
162. The reaction A(g) + 2B(g) ® C(g) is an elementary 162. vfHkfØ;k A(g) + 2B(g) ® C(g) ,d izkFkfed vfHkfØ;k
reaction. In an experiment involving this reaction, the gSA ,d iz;ksx ftlesa ;g vfHkfØ;k gks jgh gS] A o B ds
initial pressures of A and B are PA = 0.40 atm and izkjfEHkd nkc PA = 0.40 ok;qe.My rFkk PB = 1.0 ok;qe.My
PB = 1.0 atm respectively. When Pc = 0.3 atm, the gSA tc Pc = 0.3 ok;qe.My gS rks vkjfEHkd nj ds lkis{k
rate of the reaction relative to the initial rate is:- vfHkfØ;k dh nj gS :-
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
(1) (2) (3) (4) (1) (2) (3) (4)
12 50 25 100 12 50 25 100
163. Which of the following reaction do not give alkyne :- 163. fuEu esa ls fdl vfHkfØ;k eas mRikn ,Ydkbu ugha gksxk :-
NaNH2 NaNH2
(1) CH3–CH2–CH–CH 2 (1) CH3–CH2–CH–CH 2
D D
Cl Cl Cl Cl
alc. KOH NaNH2 alc. KOH NaNH2
(2) CH3–CH2–CHBr2 (2) CH3–CH2–CHBr2 D D
D D
Zn/alcohol Zn/alcohol
(3) CH3–CH–CH–CH3 (3) CH3–CH–CH–CH3
D D
Br Br Br Br
(4) Potassium maleate Electrolysis (4) iksVsf'k;e ey S s,V oS|rq vi?kVu
164. For correct statement use 'T', for false use 'F' ? 164. lgh dFku ds fy;s 'T' ,oa xyr gsrq 'F' dk mi;ksx dhft;s:-
(a) In [Cu(NH3)4] SO4 (Switzer's salt) one unpaired (a) [Cu(NH3)4] SO4 (fLoV~tj yo.k) esa ,d v;qfXer
e– present in 4p. e– 4p esa mifLFkr gAS
(b) Ferrocene is sandwich as well as organometallic (b) Qsjkslhu lasMfop ,oa dkcZ/kkfRod ;kSfxd nksuksa gSA
compound
(c) Vit B12 = Zn dk ladqy gAS
(c) Vit B12 = Complex of Zn.
(1) T T F (2) T F F (1) T T F (2) T F F
(3) F F T (4) F T F (3) F F T (4) F T F
165. Available Cl2 is liberated from bleaching powder 165. fojatd pw.kZ ls miyC/k Cl2 mRlftZr gksrh gS tc bldks@bldh:-
when it :- (1) xeZ fd;k tkrk gS
(1) Is heated (2) vEy ds vkf/kD; ls fØ;k djokbZ tkrh gS
(2) React with excess amount of acid
(3) React with CO2 (3) CO2 ds lkFk fØ;k djokbZ tkrh gS
(4) Both (2) & (3) (4) nksuks (2) ,oa (3)
166. Salt bridge contains :- 166. yo.k lsrq esa gksrk gS :-
(1) Calomel (2) HgCl2 (1) dSyksey (2) HgCl2
(3) H2O (4) Agar-Agar paste (3) ikuh (4) vxj&vxj isLV
167. Which of the following give effervesence with 167. fuEu eas ls dkSu lk ;kSfxd NaHCO3 ds lkFk cqncqnkgV nsrk
NaHCO3 :- gS :-
(1) p-cresol (2) phenol (1) p-ØhlkWy (2) fQukWy
(3) 2,4-Dinitrophenol (4) Toluene (3) 2,4-MkbZukbVªksfQukWy (4) VkWywbZu

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 ALLEN
168. Acetophenone and Benzophenone can be 168. fuEu esa ls fdlds }kjk ,lhVksfQukWu ,oa castskfQukWu dks
distinguished by :- foHksfnr fd;k tk ldrk gS ?
(1) Fehling solution (2) Tollen's reagent (1) Qsgs fyx fofy;u (2) VkWysu vfHkdeZd
(3) Iodoform test (4) Lucas test (3) vk;MksQkseZ ijh{k.k (4) Y;wdkl ijh{k.k
169. When hydrogen peroxide is added to acidified 169. vEyh; iksVfs 'k;e MkbZØkseVs ds foy;u esa gkbMªkt
s u ijkWDlkbM
potassium dichromate, blue colour is produced due feykus ij uhyk jax fdlds fuekZ.k ds dkj.k vkrk gS
to formation of (1) CrO3 (2) Cr2O3
(1) CrO3 (2) Cr2O3 (3) CrO5 (4) CrO24- (3) CrO5 (4) CrO24-
170. Laughing gas is prepared by heating :- 170. fuEu esa ls fdls xje djds gkL; xl
S çkIr dh tk ldrh gS :-
(1) NH4Cl + NaNO3 (2) NH4Cl (1) NH4Cl + NaNO3 (2) NH4Cl
(3) NH4NO2 (4) Pb(NO3)2 (3) NH4NO2 (4) Pb(NO3)2
171. Debye Huckel Onsager theory predicts ? 171. fMckbZ gdy vksulsxj fl¼kUr crkrh gS ?
(1) Variation of velocity constant with T. (1) osx fu;rkad dk rki ds lkFk ifjorZu
(2) Variation of equivalent conductance with
(2) rqY;kadh pkydrk dk lkanzrk ds lkFk ifjorZu
concentration
(3) Variation of equivalent constant with P (3) lerqY; fLFkjkad dk nkc ds lkFk ifjorZu
(4) Variation of equivalent conductance with T (4) rqY;kadh pkydrk dk rki ds lkFk ifjorZu
172. The compound which does not give foul smell when 172. fuEu esa dkSu lk ;kSfxd CHCl3 o KOH ds lkFk xeZ djus
heated with CHCl3 and KOH is :- ij cncqnkj xa/k ugha nsrk gS :-
(1) m-Toluidine (2) CH3–NH2 (1) m-VkWywMhu (2) CH3–NH2
(3) Aniline (4) N-methylaniline (3) ,fuyhu (4) N-esfFky ,fuyhu
173. Benzoic acid may be converted to ethyl benzoate 173. csatksbd vEy fuEu esa ls fdlls vfHkfØ;k }kjk ,fFky castks,V
by reaction with :- cukrk gS :-
(1) Sodium methoxide (1) lksfM;e ehFkksDlkWbM
(2) Ethyl chloride (2) ,fFky DyksjkbM
(3) Dry HCl - C2H5OH (3) Dry HCl - C2H5OH
(4) C3H7OH (4) C3H7OH
174. Match Column-I with Column-II and select the 174. dkWye-I dks dkWye-II ds lkFk lqefs yr dhft,] rFkk ladj.k
correct answer with respect to hybridisation using the ds izdkj ds lanHkZ esa uhps fn;s x;s dksM dk mi;ksx djrs gq;s
codes given below : lgh mÙkj dk p;u dhft,A
Column-I Column-II dkWy e-I dkWye -II
(Complex) (Hybridisation) (ladqy) (ladj.k)
–2
(I) [PtCl4] (p) dsp2 hybridisation (I) [PtCl4] –2
(p) dsp2 ladj.k
(II) [Cu(CN)4]3– (q) sp3 hybridisation (II) [Cu(CN)4]3– (q) sp3 ladj.k
(III) [Co(C2O4)3]3– (r) sp3d2 hybridisation (III) [Co(C2O4)3]3– (r) sp3d2 ladj.k
(IV) [Fe(H2O)5NO]2+ (s) d2sp3 hybridisation (IV) [Fe(H2O)5NO]2+ (s) d2sp3 ladj.k
Codes : (I) (II) (III) (IV) Codes : (I) (II) (III) (IV)
(1) q p r s (1) q p r s
(2) p q s r (2) p q s r
(3) p q r s (3) p q r s
(4) q p s r (4) q p s r

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 ALLEN
175. Consider following oxy acids 175. fuEu vkWDlh vEy dks ns[ksa
HNO4, H3PO 4, H3PO 3, H2SO 5, H 2S 2O7, H 4P 2O 8 HNO4, H3PO 4, H3PO 3, H2SO 5, H 2S 2O7, H 4P 2O 8
H3PO5 H3PO5
The total no. of oxy acids which contain peroxy dqy vkWDlh vEyksa dh la[;k ftuesa ijkWDlh ca/ku gksxk%&
linkage :- (1) 2 (2) 3
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 5 (3) 4 (4) 5

176. Metal can be prevented from rusting by :- 176. /kkrq dks tax yxus ls cpk;k tk ldrk gS :-
(1) Connecting Fe to more electropositive metal ® (1) Fe dks vf/kd fo|qr/kuh /kkrq ds lEidZ esa j[kus ls
Cathodic protection ® dSFkksfM+d izf rj{k.k
(2) Connecting Fe to more electropositive metal ® (2) Fe dks vf/kd fo|qr/kuh /kkrq ds lEidZ esa j[kus ls
Anodic protection ® ,suksfMd izfrj{k.k
(3) Connecting Fe to less electropositive metal (3) Fe dks de fo|q r/kuh /kkrq ds lEidZ ea s j[kus ls
® Anodic protection ® ,suksfMd izfrj{k.k
(4) Connecting Fe to less electropositive metal (4) Fe dks de fo|q r/kuh /kkrq ds lEidZ esa j[kus ls
® Cathodic protection ® dSFkksfMd izfrj{k.k

177. Which of the following reagent is used to convert 177. fuEu esa dkSu lk vfHkdeZd C;wVsukekbM dks izksfiy ,ehu esa
butanamide into propyl amine :- ifjofrZr djrk gS :-
(1) (i) LiAlH4 (ii) H2 O (1) (i) LiAlH4 (ii) H2 O

(2) Br2/KOH (2) Br2/KOH

(3) Zn-Hg/HCl (3) Zn-Hg/HCl

(4) (i) DIBAL-H (ii) H2 O (4) (i) DIBAL-H (ii) H2 O

178. Acetic anhydride is obtained by the reaction of :- 178. fuEu vfHkfØ;k esa ,flfVd ,ugkbMªkbM mRikn izkIr gksrk g:S -

(1) Sodium and acetic acid (1) lksfM;e rFkk ,lhfVd vEy

(2) Ammonia and acetic acid (2) veksfu;k rFkk ,lhfVd vEy

(3) P2O5 and acetic acid (3) P2O5 rFkk ,lhfVd vEy

(4) Ethanol and acetic acid (4) ,FksukWy rFkk ,lhfVd vEy

179. Cl2 + NaOH ¾¾

® A + B + H 2 O . The anions of 179. Cl2 + NaOH ¾¾
® A + B + H 2 O . A o B ds ½.kk;u
( dil. &cold ) ( dil. &cold )

A & B respectively are ______ Øe'k% gksaxs &

(1) Chlorite & hypochlorite (1) DyksjkbV o gkbiksDyksjkbV
(2) Chloride & hypochlorite (2) DyksjkbM o gkbiksDyksjkbV

(3) Chlorite & Chlorate (3) DyksjkbV o DyksjsV

(4) Chloride & Chlorate (4) DyksjkbM o DyksjsV

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180. Complexes formed in the following methods are : 180. fuEu izfØ;k esa dkSuls ladqyks dk fuekZ.k gksrk gS :
(I) Mond's process for purification of nickel (I) Ni ds ifj'kks/ku ds fy, Mond's Process
(II) Removal of unreacted AgBr from (II) vfo?kfVr AgBr dks QksVksxzkQh IysV ls gVkus dk izØe
photographic plate (III) ekuo 'kjhj ls ysM fo"k dks fudkyus dk izØe
(III) Removal of lead poisoning from the body I II III
I II III (1) Ni(CO)4 [Ag(CN)2] –
[Pb(EDTA)]2–
(1) Ni(CO)4 [Ag(CN)2]– [Pb(EDTA)]2– (2) Ni(CO)4 [Ag(S2 O3)2]3– [Pb(EDTA)]2–
(2) Ni(CO)4 [Ag(S2 O3)2]3– [Pb(EDTA)]2– (3) Ni(CO)6 [Ag(S2 O3)2]3– [Pb(EDTA)]4–
(3) Ni(CO)6 [Ag(S2 O3)2]3– [Pb(EDTA)]4–
(4) Ni(CO)6 [Ag(S 2O3)]– [Pb(EDTA)]2–
(4) Ni(CO)6 [Ag(S 2O3)]– [Pb(EDTA)]2–

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 dPps dk;Z ds fy, txg

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Read carefully the following instructions : fuEufyf[kr funsZ'k /;ku ls i<+ sa :
1. Each candidate must show on demand his/her 1. iwNs tkus ij izR;sd ijh{kkFkhZ] fujh{kd dks viuk ,yu igpku
Allen ID Card to the Invigilator. i= fn[kk,A
2. No candidate, without special permission of the 2. fujh{kd dh fo'ks"k vuqefr ds fcuk dksbZ ijh{kkFkhZ viuk LFkku
Invigilator, would leave his/her seat. u NksM+sA
3. The candidates should not leave the Examination 3. dk;Zjr fujh{kd dks viuk mÙkj&i= fn, fcuk dksbZ ijh{kkFkhZ
Hall without handing over their Answer Sheet to ijh{kk gkWy ugha NksM+sA
the Invigilator on duty.
4. Use of Electronic/Manual Ca lculator is 4. bys D Vª k W f ud@gLrpfyr ifjdyd dk mi;ks x oftZ r
prohibited. gAS
5. The candidates are governed by all Rules and 5. ijh{kk gkWy esa vkpj.k ds fy, ijh{kkFkhZ ijh{kk ds lHkh
Regulations of the examination with regard to fu;eksa ,oa fofu;eksa }kjk fu;fer gAS vuqfpr lk/ku ds lHkh
their conduct in the Examination Hall. All cases
of unfair means will be dealt with as per Rules
ekeyksa dk Ql S yk ijh{kk ds fu;eksa ,oa fofu;eksa ds vuqlkj
and Regulations of this examination. gksxkA
6. No part of the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet 6. fdlh gkyr esa ijh{kk iqfLrdk vkjS mÙkj&i= dk dksbZ Hkkx
shall be detached under any circumstances. vyx u djsaA
7. The candidates will write the Correct Name and 7. ijh{kk iqfLrdk@mÙkj&i= esa ijh{kkFkhZ viuk lgh uke o QkWeZ
Form No. in the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet. uEcj fy[ksaA

Note : In case of any Correction in the test paper, please mail to [email protected] within 2
days along with Paper code and Your Form No.

uks V % ;fn bl iz ' u i= es a dks b Z Correction gks rks Ïi;k Paper code ,oa vkids Form No. ds lkFk 2 fnu ds vUnj
[email protected] ij mail djs a A
Corporate Office : ALLEN CAREER INSTITUTE, “SANKALP”, CP-6, Indra Vihar, Kota (Rajasthan)-324005
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 CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME
(Academic Session : 2019 - 2020)

ENTHUSIAST, LEADER & ACHIEVER COURSE

ALL PHASE
TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL 2020

Test Type : MAJOR Test Pattern : NEET(UG)

TEST DATE : 31 - 03 - 2020
TEST SYLLABUS : 04, 05 & 06
Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
A. 4 3 3 2 4 4 4 2 4 4 2 4 1 2 2 4 3 3 2 1 4 3 2 2 2 2 1 4 4 2
Q. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
A. 4 3 4 2 1 3 1 2 1 3 4 3 4 4 1 1 2 1 3 1 4 2 1 2 4 1 3 2 3 1
Q. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
A. 4 2 1 1 1 4 1 4 2 1 1 4 3 2 3 4 3 1 2 3 4 3 3 3 1 3 2 2 3 1
Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A. 2 1 1 1 1 1 1 2 2 4 2 4 4 2 4 3 1 3 3 3 4 1 1 2 3 3 3 1 3 4
Q. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 3 1 1 2 3 4 2 3 1 1 2 2 3 2 4 4 2 4 4 4 2 2 4 4 2 3 2 4 3 2
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 1 1 3 2 3 2 3 3 3 2 3 3 3 1 4 4 3 3 3 1 2 4 3 2 3 1 2 3 2 2

HINT – SHEET
1. NCERT XII Pg # 149 24. NCERT XII Pg # 168
2. NCERT XII Pg # 153 25. NCERT XII Pg # 227, para 13.2.1
3. Module 1 Pg # 90 26. Module 3 Pg # 36
4. NCERT XII Pg # 136 27. NCERT-XII, Pg#229, para-13.2.2
P = 0.6, q = 1–P = 0.4 32. NCERT XII Pg # 46 (E), para 3, Pg#49(H)
Aa Þ 2pq Þ 2 × 0.6 × 0.4 = 0.48 33. NCERT XII Pg # 131
so, no. of individuals = 48 × 100 = 48 34. NCERT XII Pg # 169
5. NCERT XII Pg # 231, para 13.2.2 35. Module 3 Pg # 3
6. NCERT XII Pg # 261, 262 (E), 286 (H) 36. NCERT XII Pg # 271 (E), 295 (H)
7. NCERT-XII, Pg#221, para-13.1
37. Cyprus ® 1 MMC ¾¾¾ ¾
1meiosis
® 1 microspore (M)
8. NCERT XII, Page # 35, Para-2.4.1
41. NCERT XII Pg # 63
13. NCERT XII Pg # 64, para 1, Pg#57(E), Para-1
42. NCERT XII Pg # 49, para 4, Pg#46(E), Para-3
14. NCERT XII Pg # 169
43. NCERT XII Pg # 132
15. NCERT XII Pg # 229, para 13.2.2
44. NCERT XII Pg # 235-236, para 13.2.4
16. NCERT XII Pg # 263 (E), 287 (H)
45. Module 3 Pg # 3
17. NCERT-XII, Pg#262
46. NCERT XII Pg # 273 (E), 297 (H)
18. NCERT XII, Page # 35, Para-2.4.2, Fig. 2.14
Emission standards are being updated from time
21. NCERT XII Pg # 155
to time
22. NCERT XII Pg # 150
23. NCERT XII Pg # 127
le;&le; ij mRltZu ekudksa dk uohuhdj.k fd;k tkrk
gS A
1001CMD303119065 HS-1/7
 Target : Pre-Medical 2020/Major/31-03-2020
47. NCERT-XII, Pg#24, para-2.2.2
2
51. NCERT XII Pg # 160
52. NCERT XII Pg # 49, fig. 3.8, Pg#53(H) (2) 1 3
53. NCERT XII Pg # 135 O
55. NCERT XII Pg # 232 (E), 252 (H) r r r r
56. NCERT-XII, Pg#279 (E), Pg#306 (H) B1 = B3 = 0 Bnet = B1 + B2 + B3
57. NCERT-XII, Pg#36, para-2.4.3
m0 I m0 I
61. NCERT XII Pg # 161 ÄB2 = = Ä ……(ii)
4R 4r
62. NCERT XII Pg # 55, para 1, Pg#50(E)
64. NCERT XII Pg # 220, para 13.1 (3) B1 = 0
65. NCERT XII Pg # 222 (E), 242 (H) m0 I æ 3p ö æ 3m0 I ö
ÄB2 = =
66. NCERT-XII, Pg#279 (E), Pg#304 (H) 4 pr èç 2 ø÷ çè 8r ÷ø
67. NCERT-XII, Pg#27, para-2.2.2
2
72. NCERT XII Pg # 55, para 1, Pg#51(E) mI
eB3 = 0 1
73. NCERT XII Pg # 131 4 pr O
74. NCERT XII Pg # 264, para 15.1.4
75. NCERT XII Pg # 220 (E), 239 (H), fig 13.1
76. NCERT-XII, Pg#250, 251 r m Iæ3 1ö 3
Bnet = 0 ç - ÷ Ä ……(iii)
77. NCERT XII, Page # 28, para-2.2.3 4r è 2 p ø
82. NCERT XII Pg # 59, para 1, Pg#54(E) B(1) : B(2) : B(3)
83. NCERT XII Pg # 129
84. NCERT XII Pg # 260, fig. 15.1 æ3 1ö
–1 : 1 : ç - ÷
85. NCERT XII Pg # 259 (E), 283 (H) è2 pø
86. NCERT, Pg#223 , para-13.1.2
87. NCERT XII, Page # 34, Para-2.3 -p p æ 3p 1 ö
Þ : : ç - ÷
91. Enet along y-axis 2 2 è 4 2ø
KPsin 2 a 2KPcos 2 a
Þ = æ fö
r2 r2 94. I = 4I 0 cos 2 ç ÷
è2ø
Enet
Kpsina 2KPcosa
r2 r2 æfö
I0 = 4I0 cos 2 ç ÷
a è2ø

æfö 1
a or cos ç ÷ =
è 2ø 2

f p
Þ tan a = 2 Þ y / x = 2 Þ y = 2m or =
2 3
m0 I 1
92.(1) B1 = 4pr = B3 f p
Ä e or =
2 3
r
m0 I O 2p 2p
eB2 = 2 or f = = .D x
4r 3 l
r r r r
Bnet = B1 + B2 + B3 3
1 1 æ yd ö
or = .ç ÷
m0 I 3 l èDø
Bnet = e ……(i)
4r
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102. Force on small element dF = I dl B sinq
l 6 ´ 10-7 So, force on complete loop
\ y= = = 2 ´10-3 m = 2 mm
æ d ö 3 ´ 10-4
3ç ÷ F = ò idl Bsin q
è Dø

95. E = Dm×C2
i
= [mn – (mp + me)] ×C 2 i dl
= [1.6747 × 10–27–(1.6725 × 10–27 + 0.00091×10–27]×C2
= 0.73 MeV r
B
r
V10 – V20 = - E.dxr
10
96.
ò 20

F = iBò l
10 Here q = 90 = constant Þ
10 æ 100 ö é1 ù
V10 – V20 = - ò20 ç 2 ÷
dx = 100 ê ú F = iB 2 pr
è x ø ë x û 20 103. i = a + b sinwt
i2 = a2 + b2 sin2wt + 2ab sin wt
é1 1 ù
= 100 ê - ú = 5 volt (i2) = (a2) + (b2 sin2 wt) + (2ab sinwt)
ë10 20 û
97. B = m0ni b2
(i2) = a2 +
2
B 20 ´ 10-3 ´10 –2
i= m = ; 8A
0n 4p ´ 10-7 ´ 20 b2
(i2 ) = a 2 + = Irms
2
v 120
98. R= = = 240 W
i 0.5 hc hc
104. = W0 + K max Þ = W0 + K A ...(i)
100. Ta = T l lA
2
æ1ö 25 t
hc
ç ÷ = N 0 = N 0 ( 1 2 ) Tn and = W0 + K B ...(ii)
è 2 ø 100 lB
Subtracting (i) from (ii),
2=
t ì 1 ln2 ü
Tn íTa = & Tn = ý
î l l þ é1 1 ù
hc ê - ú = K B K A -
ë lB l A û
2ln2
t = 2Tn = = 2Tln2
l é1 1 ù hc
101. Length l = 1 cm = 10–2 m Þ hc ê - ú = KB - KA Þ = KB - KA
ë l B 2l B û 2l B

...(iii)
From (ii) and (iii), 2K B - 2K A = W0 + K B

Þ K B - 2K A = W0
1cm

m
1 00 c
K B W0 K
1cm Þ KA = - which gives K A < B .
2 2 2
Area of cross-section A = 1 cm × 100 cm
er e
= 100 cm2 = 10–2 m2 106. V = e – ir = e – =e–
r + nr n +1
10 -2
Resistance R = 3 × 10–7 × = 3 ´10 -7 W ne V n
10 -2 V= Þ =
n +1 e n +1
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107. Magnetic field at centre is zero
æ V öæ R ö
B1 = B 2 Pavg = Vrms I rm cos f = Vrms ç rms ÷ ç ÷
(2) (1) è Z øè Z ø
m 0 N1I1 m N I R1 O
= 0 22 R2 2
2R1 2R 2 RVrms 5
= 2
= W
Z 8
Given that
(I1 = I2, N1 : N2 = n1 : n2, R1 : R2 = 2 : 1) 114. Momentum of electron p e = 2meV

N1 I R1 R
= 2 × I Þ
n1
= 1 (Q I1 = I2) Momentum of proton p p = 2MeV
N2 R2 1 n2 R2
lp h / pp pe 2meV m
\ = = = =
n1 2 le h / pe pp 2MeV M
=
n2 1
m m
\ lp = le =l .
M M
1
108. f0 = 115. According to the given figure A is at lower potential
2p LC
w.r.t. B. Hence both diodes are in reverse biasing,
Q Î r = 16 so equivalent, circuit can be redrawn as follows.
1 f0 Þ Equivalent resistance between A and B
\ C' = 16C Þ f ' = = R = 8 + 2 + 6 = 16 W
2 p L16C 4

109. By using E = W0 + K max 4W 6W

12375 2W
E= = 2.475 eV and K max = eV0 = 1.36 eV A B
5000 8W 12W

So 2.475 = W0 + 1.36 Þ W0 = 1.1 eV .

e V
æR ö æ 5000 ö
110. A V = b ç L ÷ = 50 ´ ç ÷ = 125 r e
è RI ø è 2000 ø
116.
\ DVe = AV × DVb = 125 × 10 mV = 1.25 volt.
R
e R R
111. E= · ´l
(R + R h + r) L V = e – ir
eR
2 10 V=
= ´ × 0.4 = 0.16 V R+r
(10 + 40 + 0) 1
e
V=
BV r
112. Q tan q = B 1+
H R
Þ BV = Bn tanq 2mk 1 2mV m æR ö
2

117. r= = Þ r µ m Þ 1 =ç 1 ÷
4 qB B q m 2 è R2 ø
= 0.6 = = 0.8 G
3
118.
30
113. XL = wL = 0.4 × 2p × = 24W
p

Z= 10 2 + 24 2 = 26W

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Ist method 122. The same emf will be induced in the straight
imaginary wire joining A and B, which is Bvl sin q.
3
m 3
sin qc = R = 2 sin qc = v
md 2 2 A A
V
qc = 60° q
r = 90° – qc = 90° – 60° l l
B
r = 30° B
Now, 1 × sini = 2 × sin(30°) B
B
i = 45°
IInd method 123. 40 cm from pole in the medium of refractive index
2 124. According to Moseley's Law :
æ 3ö
( 2) 1
2
sin i = n12 - n 22 = - çç ÷÷ = v = a(Z – 1)
è 2 ø 2
Þ (Z – 1)2 µ v
Þ i = 45 ° or (Z – 1)2 µ 1/l
Þ
150
119. l1 = 1Å Þ v1 = 1 2 =150v (Z Mo – 1)2 l Cu (Z Mo – 1)2
() = or lCu = lMo
(Z Cu – 1)2 l Mo (Z Cu – 1)2
kE1 = 150eV
2
æ 41 ö
1 150 = 0.71 × ç ÷ = 1.52 Å
l2 = Å Þ v2 = = 600V è 28 ø
2
2 æ1ö
ç2÷ 125. DI C = b ´ DI B = 50 ´ 40 ´10 -6 = 2mA
è ø

kE2 = 600eV ( )
DV0 = DI C R C = 2 ´ 10 -3 ´ 3 ´ 10 3
DK = KE2 – KE1
= 6V
= 600 – 150 = 450 eV
120. Current I in 4kW resistance e0 A
126. C0 = =18 ...(1)
d
60 - 10
I= = 12.5 mA
4000 Ke0 A
C= = 72 ...(2)
Current in 2kW resistance is 3d
10 From (1) & (2)
IL = = 5mA
2000
and K 72
=
IZ = I – IL 3 18
= (12.5 – 5) mA K = 12
= 7.5 mA 127. By Lenz's law, induced effects always oppose the
cause of induction. So when the first loop is moves
1
121. Energy density = e0 E2 towards the smaller loop it will be repelled by the
2
induced current in the loop.
2
1 æ 10 ö 1 1 1
= ´10 -11 ´ ç -2 ÷ 128. = -
2 è 5 ´ 10 ø f v u
= 2 × 10–7 J/m3

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x 1.6 ´ 10 –19 ´ 2.5 ´ 10 –2 ´ 48

u =- ,v=- x F=
2 4
1 1 2 = 48 × 10 N
–21

=- + 133. Here, u0 = –200 cm, f = 30 cm

f x x
1 1 1
1 1 + =
= v 0 200 30
f x
f = 1m 1 1 1
129. b-is emitted by conversion of neutron into proton. or = -
v 0 30 200
NOR NAND NOT
130. A Y1 Y2 600
B Y \ ve = = 35.3cm
17
Now, L = v0 + fe = 35.3 + 3 = 38.3 cm.
NOR NAND NOT
NE N ´ 170 ´ 106 ´ 1.6 ´ 10-19
A B Y1 Y1 Y1 Y2 Y 134. P= Þ 300 ´ 106 =
t t
A B N
\ Number of atoms per sec = 1.102 ´ 1019
0 0 1 1 1 0 1 t
Number of atoms per hour = 1.02 × 1019 × 3600
0 1 0 0 0 1 0 = 3.97 × 1022.

1 0 0 0 0 1 0 136. t 1 µ [A]1-n \n = 1
2

1 1 0 0 0 1 0
224
137. moles of hydrogen gas = = 10–2
2mF
x volt
12mF 22400
geq to H2(g) = mole × n factor
131. A 2mF B = 2 × 10–2
i´t
geq =
2mF 96500

2m F
i ´ 3600
2 ´ 10 -2 =
x volt 12m F 96500
i = 0.536 ; 0.54 A
A B
138. Fact
2m F 139. Fact
140. Thermite mixture
2m F Þ metal oxide + Al
4m F 12m F (3 : 1)

A B 0.693
Þ CAB = 5m F
141. t1 =
2
K
2m F
0.693
R / 2 dB t1 =
132. E= 2
0.69 ´ 10 -1 = 10 min
2 dt
t 1 = 10 ´ 60 sec Þ 600 sec
2.5 ´ 10 –2
= .(6 ´ 4 + 24) 2
4

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0.06 Þ 2100 = PAo +3PBo

142. E cell = E o
cell - log Q
n Þ PBo = 600 & PAo = 300
0.06 [Al +3 ]2 153. Fact
\ E cell = (1.66 - 0.40) - log
6 [Cd +2 ]3 157. Property of a binary ideal solution
DHmix = 0
(0.1) 2
E cell = 1.26 - 0.01 log DVmix = 0
(0.01)3
DGmix < 0
Ecell = 1.22 volt
DSmix > 0
144. a-D-glucose ƒ Acyclic glucose ƒ b-D-glucose
Å
¯ ¯ CH2–OH CH2
specific rotation 112.2º ® 52.5o ¬ specific rotation
158. H2SO4/H Å 1, 2–H!
18.7º D Shiffting
equilibrium value
(Mutarotation) CH3 CH3 CH3
145. at higher temp. reaction would be feasible Å
147. Case-1
Å –HÅ
Pº–Ps = 10 Þ XB = 0.2
RWP = XB H

10 162. A + 2B ¾® C [t = 0, t = t ]
Þ = 0.2 Þ 50
Pº 0.4 1 0
Case-2 0.1 0.4 0.3
Pº–P's = 20 Þ XA = ? r = kp1A pB2
20 r0 = k(0.4)1(1)2 ....(i)
Now, = XB rt = k(0.1)1 (0.4)2 ....(ii)
Pº
20 rt 0.4 ´ 0.4 ´ 0.1 4 1
Þ = XB = = 0.04 = =
50 ro 0.4 100 25
Þ 0.4 = XB 163.
Þ XA = 0.6 Zn / Alcohol
CH3–CH–CH–CH3 CH3–CH=CH–CH3
148. Reactivity of C–H bond = 3º > 2º > 1º D
Br Br
149. Fact
167. Fact
1 168. Fact
151. Gold no. µ
Protective power 172. 1º-amine give foul smell when heated with CHCl3
152. PT = PAo X A + PBo X B and KOH.
Dry-HCl
173. Ph–COOH + HOC2H5 ¾¾¾¾
1 2 ¾ ® Ph–COOC2H5
500 = P ´ + PBo ´
o
A + H2 O
3 3
O
Þ 1500 = PAo +2PBo .....(i) Br2 + KOH
177. CH3–CH2–CH2–C–NH2 CH3CH2CH2–NH2
1 3 PO
525 = PAo ´ + PBo ´ 178. 2CH3COOH ¾¾¾
– H 2O ® (CH3CO)2O
2 5
4 4

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