1) TRUE about metaplasia is (Either a or c)
A) Involves only epithelial cells
B) It is irreversible
C) Occurs at stem cells level
D) Columnar is the most common type
2) Heart failure cells are
A) Foam cells
B) Lipid-laden macrophages
C) Hemosiderin-laden macrophages
D) Type 1 Pneumocytes
3) Hyper acute rejection occurs within
A) 12 Hours
B) 2 Weeks
C) 1 Month
D) 2 Months
4) Lardaceous spleen seen in
A) CML
B) Hodgkin's lymphoma
C) Amyloidosis
D) Malaria
5) Direct Coombs test is positive in all EXCEPT?
A) ABO incompatibility
B) Hemolytic disease of the newborn
C) Aplastic anemia
D) Autoimmune hemolysis
6) The following form of ionizing radiation exposure is associated with the highest risk of cancer
A) Alpha rays
B) Beta rays
C) Gamma rays
D) X rays
7) All of the following are X-linked recessive disorders EXCEPT
A) Hemophilia A & B
B) Chronic granulomatous disease
C) G6PD Deficiency
D) Sickle cell anemia
8) Weight of haemoglobin in RBC is
A) 50%
B) 70%
C) 90%
D) 99%
9) In hereditary spherocytosis, the following membrane structure is deficient
A) Band 3 protein
B) Spectrin
C) Glycophorin
D) Glycolipid
10) Basophils are increased in
A) Bronchial asthma
B) CML
C) Angioneurotic oedema
D) Corticosteroid therapy
11) Durck granuloma is seen in
A) TB
B) Malaria
C) Typhoid
D) Madhura mycosis
12) Fungi in general can be identified by the following stains EXCEPT:
A) Silver stain
B) Periodic acid Schiff
C) Giemsa
D) Mucicarmine
13) Bernard Soulier syndrome is a defect in
A) Platelet aggregation
B) Platelet adhesion
C) Platelet release reaction
D) Platelet morphology
14) Molecular pathogenesis of α thalassemia involves
A) Mutation in transcription promoter sequence
B) Gene deletion
C) Codon termination mutation
D) mRNA splicing defect
15) The cytogenetic abnormality of t (8:14) is mostly seen with
A) Diffuse large cell lymphoma
B) Plasmacytoma
C) Burkitt's Lymphoma
D) Follicular lymphoma
16) Mutation characteristic of polycythaemia vera is
A) JAK2 mutation
B) Bcr-abl mutation
C) p53 mutation
D) RAS mutation
17) Leukoplakia is an example for _____________ lesion
A) Pre-cancerous
B) Pre-inflammatory
C) Pre-suppurative
D) Pre-ulcerative
18) Negri bodies are seen in the following infections
A) Herpes
B) Rabies
C) Tuberculosis
D) Measles
19) All are matrix metalloproteinase EXCEPT
A) Collagenase
B) Gelatinase
C) Stromelysin
D) Elastase
20) If the patient is on parenteral heparin therapy, the following test is used to monitor the
administration
A) Whole blood coagulation time
B) Prothrombin time
C) Thrombin time
D) Activated partial thromboplastin time
21) Reversible change in which one differentiated cell type is replaced by another cell type is
called
A) Hyperplasia
B) Metaplasia
C) Dysplasia
D) Anaplasia
22) The wear and tear pigment is
A) Lipofusion
B) Melanin
C) Bilirubin
D) Hemosiderin
23) The following is an eicosanoid
A) Histamine
B) Serotonin
C) Prostacyclin
D) Interleukin-1
24) Fibrionoid necrosis is a type of necrosis seen in
A) Acute Pancreatitis
B) Chronic Pancreatitis
C) Vasculitis
D) Granuloma
25) Activation of caspases is the mechanism of
A) Necrosis
B) Apoptosis
C) Necroptosis
D) All of these
26) The Governor of the genome
A) TP 53 gene
B) RB gene
C) APC gene
D) WT1 gene
27) The following is an RNA oncogenic virus
A) HTLV-1
B) HPV
C) HBV
D) EBV
28) Disorganized or jumbled up masses of tissue composed of cells usually found at the site of
origin is called (Either a or c)
A) Choristoma
B) Hamartoma
C) Teratoma
D) Sarcoma
29) BCR-ABL gene is seen in ___________ leukemia
A) Chronic myeloid
B) Chronic lymphoid
C) Acute myeloid
D) Acute lymphoid
30) Microscopic examination of a gastric ulcer shows angiogenesis, fibrosis, and mononuclear
cell infiltrate with lymphocytes, macrophages, and plasma cells. Which of the following terms
describes the pathologic process?
A) Acute inflammation
B) Chronic inflammation
C) Serous inflammation
D) Fibrinous inflammation
31) A 45-year-old computer programmer notices bilateral pedal edema at the end of the day.
Her laboratory tests reveal normal liver and renal function. Which of the following mechanism
best describes this phenomenon?
A) Excessive water intake
B) Increased hydrostatic pressure
C) Lymphatic obstruction
D) Secondary aldosteronism
32) Lines of Zahn are seen in
A) Post-mortem clots
B) Thrombus
C) Fat necrosis
D) Infarction
33) A 12-year-old child presented with fever, warm flushed skin, hypotension and a weak rapid
pulse. What is the probable diagnosis?
A) Hypovolemic shock
B) Cardiogenic shock
C) Septic shock
D) Neurogenic shock
34) Autosplenectomy is seen
A) Thalassemia
B) Sickle cell anemia
C) Myelofibrosis
D) Megaloblastic anemia
35) 'M' protein elevation in serum is seen in
A) Hodgkin lymphoma
B) Non Hodgkin lymphoma
C) Multiple myeloma
D) Acute myeloid leukemia
36) Anaphylaxis is an example of _____________ hypersensitivity
A) Type I
B) Type II
C) Type III
D) Type IV
37) Amyloidosis associated with clonal plasma cell proliferation is called as _________
amyloidosis
A) Localised
B) Primary
C) Secondary
D) Familial
38) A serum marker that is elevated in hepatocellular carcinoma and non-seminomatous germ
cell tumors of testis
A) Carcinoembryonic antigen
B) Alfa-fetoprotein
C) CA-125
D) CA-19.9
39) The lacunar variant of Reed Sternberg cell is seen in
A) Lymphocytic predominant
B) Lymphocyte rich
C) Lymphocyte depletion
D) Nodular sclerosis
40) Auer rods are seen in
A) Lymphoblast
B) Plasmablast
C) Myeloblast
D) Erythroblast
41) Mickulicz cells and Russel bodies are characteristic findings seen in
A) Actinomycosis
B) Rhinosporidiosis
C) Rhinoscleroma
D) Kala-azar
42) All are examples of exfoliative cytology EXCEPT (Either b or c or d)
A) Sputum cytology
B) Cervical smear
C) Ascetic fluid cytology
D) Fine needle aspiration cytology
43) The skin wound healing by the primary intention of one week old will show the following
histological change (Either c or d)
A) Extensive granulation tissue
B) Scar tissue
C) Hyperemia and Neutrophilic infiltration at margins
D) Wound contraction
44) Autoimmune, hemolytic anemia is an example of the following type of hypersensitivity
reaction (Either b or c)
A) I
B) II
C) III
D) IV
45) Thalassemia and sickle cell anaemia are inherited as
A) Autosomal recessive
B) Autosomal dominant
C) X-linked recessive
D) X-linked dominant
46) 1cm to 2cm subcutaneous hematomas are termed as
A) Petechiae
B) Purpura
C) Ecchymosis
D) None of these
47) All are true about Dystrophic calcification EXCEPT
A) Hyperparathyroidism is one of the cause
B) Calcium levels are normal
C) Deposition of calcium in dead tissues
D) Von kossa stain will be useful to confirm calcium
48) All are species of plasmodium EXCEPT
A) Malariae
B) Ovale
C) Knowlesi
D Kansai
49) Pleural fluid analysis showing increased protein, decreased sugar, increased cell count with
predominant cells being lymphocytes (90%). Possible etiology is
A) Pyogenic
B) Viral
C) Tubercular
D) Parasitic
50) All of the following are endogenous chemo-attractants EXCEPT
A) Leukotriene B4
B) Interleukin 8
C) Complement 5a
D) Complement 3a
51) Non-irritational cause of metaplasia is
A) Hypervitaminosis A
B) Hypovitaminosis A
C) Hypervitaminosis D
D) Hypovitaminosis D
52) CA-19-9 is used as a tumor marker in following carcinoma
A) Breast
B) Colon
C) Ovary
D) Pancreas
53) True about the Bombay blood group is
A) Has A, B, and H antibody
B) Has A and B antibody and H antigen
C) Has A, B and H antigen
D) Has A and B antigen and H antibody
54) Normal sequence in the cell cycle is
A) G0-G1-S-G2-M
B) G0-S-G1-G2-M
C) G0-M-G1-G2-S
D) G0-GI-G2-S-M
55) All of the following are causes of increased ESR, EXCEPT
A) Rheumatoid arthritis
B) Tuberculosis
C) Sickle cell anemia
D) Bones
56) All are causes for microcytic hypochromic anaemia EXCEPT
A) Hookworm infestation
B) Fish tapeworm infestation
C) Iron deficiency anaemia
D) β Thalassemia major
57) Smear cells or smudge cells are characteristic findings of
A) ALL
B) AML
C) CML
D) CLL
58) A 73-year-old female presented with low back, has increased ESR and skull X-ray shows
multiple punched out lytic lesions. The diagnosis is
A) Tuberculosis
B) Myeloma
C) AML
D) Osteosarcoma
59) Urine analysis showing red cell cast. Likely source of RBC in this condition is
A) Urethra
B) Bladder
C) Ureter
D) Glomerulus
60) Semen analysis showing sperm count of 92 million with more than 50% sperms are
sluggishly motile/non-motile. Ideal reporting terminology is
A) Aesthenozoospermia
B) Oligozoospermia
C) Teratozoospermia
D) Aspermia
61) Brown atrophy is due to accumulation of
A) Melanin
B) Hemosiderin
C) Hematin
D) Lipofuscin
62) Major fibril protein in primary amyloidosis is
A) AL
B) AA
C) Transthyretin
D) Procalcitonin
63) Epithelioid granuloma may be commonly seen in all of the following conditions EXCEPT
A) Tuberculosis
B) Sarcoidosis
C) Cat scratch disease
D) Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia
64) All are true regarding granulation tissue EXCEPT
A) Hallmark of wound healing
B) Contains fibroblasts
C) Contains thin walled capillaries
D) Often contains granuloma
65) The initiating mechanism in endotoxic shock is
A) Peripheral vasodilatation
B) Endothelial injury
C) Increased vascular permeability
D ) Reduced cardiac output
66) All the following conditions cause thrombocytopenia EXCEPT
A) Giant Hemangioma
B) Infectious Mononucleosis
C) HIV Infection
D) Iron deficiency anemia
67) Anticoagulant used for storage of blood in a blood bank is
A) CPD-A
B) EDTA
C) Heparin
D) Tri-sodium citrate
68) A nineteen-year-old female with short stature, wide-spread nipples and primary amenorrhea
most likely has a karyotype of:
A) 47, XX +18
B) 46, XXY
C) 47, XXY
D) 45 X
69) All of the following can cause reticulocytosis EXCEPT
A) Aplastic anemia
B) Thalassemia
C) Sickle cell anemia
D) Chronic blood loss
70) Most common CNS neoplasm in HIV patient is:
A) Medulloblastoma
B) Astrocytoma
C) Primary CNS Lymphoma
D) Ependymoma
71) The following statement about Plasmodium falciparum infection is TRUE
A) Infects only young or old red blood cells
B) Only trophozoites are seen in the peripheral blood smear
C) Durck granulomas are seen in the brain parenchyma
D) Individuals living where Plasmodium is endemic often have severe illness.
72) Hemolytic disease of newborn is an example of
A) Type III hypersensitivity reaction
B) Type II hypersensitivity reaction
C) Arthus reaction
D) Type IV hypersensitivity reaction
73) The following statement is TRUE about vitamin D deficiency with the resultant
hypocalcemia,
A) Increased PTH production
B) Decreased resorption of calcium from bone
C) Increased renal excretion of calcium
D) Decreased renal excretion of phosphate
74) The following statement is NOT a feature of major immune abnormality in AIDS:
A) Preferential loss of activated and memory T cells
B) Increased delayed-type hypersensitivity
C) Susceptibility to opportunistic infections
D) Susceptibility to neoplasms
75) Principal systemic manifestation of chronic kidney disease is:
A) Hypercalcemia
B) Hypophosphatemia
C) Hypocalcemia
D) Hypokalemia
76) The subclinical hyperthyroidism is characterized by
A) Increased TSH, normal free T3 and free T4 levels in the blood
B) Increased TSH, decreased free T3 and free T4 levels in the blood
C) Decreased TSH, normal free T3 and free T4 levels in the blood
D) Decreased TSH, increased free T3 and free T4 levels in the blood
77) Increased incidence of cancer in old age is due to
A) Telomerase reactivation
B) Telomerase deactivation
C) Inactivation of protooncogene
D) Increase in apoptosis
78) The following statement is true about Tumor Suppressor Gene p53, EXCEPT:
A) It regulates certain genes involved in cell cycle regulation
B) Its increased levels can induce apoptosis
C) Its activity in the cells decreases following UV irradiation and stimulates cell cycle
D) Mutations of the p53 gene are the most common genetic alteration seen in human cancer
79) Indications for FNAC of thyroid gland include all EXCEPT
A) Papillary carcinoma
B) Hashimoto's Thyroiditis
C) Colloid goiter
D) Follicular carcinoma
80) Elevated ESR is seen in following conditions EXCEPT:
A) Polymyositis rheumatica
B) Multiple myeloma
C) Temporal arteritis
D) Polycythemia vera
81) Amyloid protein involved in systemic senile amyloidosis
A) Transthyretin
B) AA
C) AL
D) ATTR
82) All of the following are malignant tumours EXCEPT
A) Hepatoma
B) Pleomorphic adenoma
C) Lymphoma
D) Chloroma
83) Endogenous pigment which is termed as wear and tear pigment is
A) Haemosiderin
B) Melanin
C) Lipofuscin
D) Bilirubin
84) Caisson's disease is an example for the following type of embolism
A) Fat
B) Fluid
C) Thromboembolism
D) Gas
85) The test which detects the mutagenic potential of chemical carcinogen is
A) Mistuda
B) Ames
C) Kveims sarcoidosis
D) Casoni
86) Storage time of blood using Citrate Phosphate Dextrose - Adenine as anticoagulant is
A) 5 weeks
B) 4 weeks
C) 3 weeks
D) 3 months
87) The stain used for the demonstration of reticulocyte is
A) Leishman
B) Wright
C) Brilliant cresyl blue
D) Haematoxylin
88) Acute Myeloid Leukemia with myelofibrosis as manifestation is seen with (Either b or d)
A) M5
B) M6
C) M4
D) M7
89) Preferable anticoagulant for Prothrombin time and Activated partial thromboplastin time is
A) Sodium citrate
B) Sodium fluoride
C) EDTA
D) Double oxalate
90) The giant cell which always indicates pathological process
A) Osteoclast
B) Megakaryocyte
C) Syncytiotrophoblast
D) Touton
91) Red infarcts are seen in all of the following organs EXCEPT
A) Lung
B) Liver
C) Spleen
D) Intestine
92) Polycythemia as a paraneoplastic syndrome is commonly seen with following type of
Carcinoma
A) Renal cell carcinoma
B) Gastric carcinoma
C) Small cell carcinoma
D) Breast carcinoma
93) Colour of antisera B is
A) Blue
B) Colourless
C) Yellow
D) Pink
94) The preferred blood component that should be transfused in burns is
A) Packed cell
B) Whole blood
C) Platelet concentrate
D) Plasma
95) Prehepatic jaundice is characterised by all EXCEPT
A) Unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia
B) Urobilinogen in urine
C) Increased direct bilirubin
D) Kernicterus
96) Pleural Fluid analysis showing exudate and plenty of neutrophils. Probable etiology is
A) Viral
B) Tubercular
C) Bacterial
D) Parasitic
97) All are antiapoptotic genes EXCEPT
A) BCL 2
B) BAX
C) MCL-1
D) BCL- XL
98) Leucotriene which mediates chemotaxis is
A) B4
B) C4
C) D4
D) E4
99) Type of hypersensitivity reaction which is mediated by immune complex is
A) I
B) II
C) III
D) IV
100) All of the following are manifestations of intravascular haemolysis EXCEPT
A) Anaemia
B) Splenomegaly
C) Jaundice
D) Haemoglobinemia
101) All of the following are features of Necrosis EXCEPT
A) Karyolysis
B) Karyomegaly
C) Pyknosis
D) Karyorrhexis
102) The type of Syphilis, which manifests with distinctive triad of interstitial keratitis, Hutchinson
tooth and eighth nerve involvement with deafness, is
A) Primary
B) Secondary
C) Tertiary
D) Congenital
103) Usual sequence of fracture healing process is
A) Granulation tissue - Haematoma - Callus - Procallus - Remodelling
B) Haematoma - Granulation tissue - Procallus - Callus - Remodelling
C) Haematoma - Procallus - Granulation tissue - Callus - Remodelling
D) Granulation tissue - Haematoma - Procallus - Callus - Remodelling
104) The endometrium tissue is thickened to 2 cm following prolonged stimulation by Estrogen.
The adaptive response best suited for this thickened endometrium is
A) Atrophy
B) Hypertrophy
C) Hyperplasia
D) Metaplasia
105) __________ pigment is termed as wear and tear pigment.
A) Melanin
B) Lipofuscin
C) Bilirubin
D) Arsenic
106) Most reliable method of haemoglobin estimation is
A) Sahli's
B) Specific gravity
C) Cyanmeth haemoglobin
D) Gasometric
107) Coronary artery occlusion leads to the following type of necrosis
A) Caseous
B) Fibrinoid
C) Coagulative
D) Liquefactive
108) Exudate is characterized by all EXCEPT
A) High protein content
B) High specific gravity
C) Plenty of neutrophils
D) Scant inflammatory cells
109) The stain used for the demonstration of reticulocyte is
A) Leishman
B) Wright
C) Brilliant cresyl blue
D) Haematoxylin
110) Preferable anticoagulant for Prothrombin time and activated partial Thromboplastin time is
A) Double oxalate
B) Sodium fluoride
C) EDTA
D) Sodium citrate
111) A 45-year-old male needs bone marrow aspiration and marrow biopsy for evaluation of
leukaemia. The preferred site for the procedure is
A) Posterior superior iliac spine
B) Transverse process of the vertebra
C) Tibial tuberosity
D) Sternum
112) The ideal blood component that should be transfused in a 50-year-old female who
sustained accidental burns is
A) Packed cell
B) Whole blood
C) Platelet concentrate
D) Plasma
113) CA 19-9 is the tumour used in carcinoma of following organ
A) Ovary
B) Colon
C) Liver
D) Pancreas
114) One of the following gene is termed as guardian of genome
A) Rb
B) p53
C) PTEN
D) p16
115) Thyroid carcinoma with amyloid stroma is seen with (Either a or c)
A) Papillary
B) Follicular
C) Medullary
D) Anaplastic
116) Good pasture syndrome is an example for following the type of hypersensitivity reaction
A) I
B) II
C) III
D) IV
117) All are TRUE about sickle cell anaemia EXCEPT (Either b or c)
A) It is due to point mutation
B) Usually presents with massive splenomegaly
C) Predisposes for Salmonella osteomyelitis
D) Hemoglobin electrophoresis is needed to confirm sickle cell trait and sickle cell anemia
118) Leukotriene, which induces Chemotaxis, is
A) B4
B) C4
C) D4
D) E4
119) A 69-year-old female, presented with low backache has increased ESR and skull X-ray
shows multiple punched out lytic lesion. The diagnosis is
A) Tuberculosis
B) Multiple Myeloma
C) Acute myeloid leukemia
D) Osteosarcoma
120) A 36-year-old female has respiratory difficulties. Her pleural fluid evaluation showed high
protein, low sugar, increased cell count with predominant cells being lymphocyte (90%).
Possible etiology is
A) Pyogenic
B) Viral
C) Tubercular
D) Parasitic
121) One of the following is an example of a neoplastic giant cell (Either a or c)
A) Touton
B) Anitschkow
C) Reed sternberg
D) Langhans
122) The following syndrome is affecting Sex chromosome
A) Down's
B) Klinefelter's
C) Edward's
D) Patau
123) Normal sequence of cellular events in acute inflammation is
A) Margination - Chemotaxis - Pavementing - Phagocytosis - Rolling
B) Margination - Rolling - Pavementing - Chemotaxis - Phagocytosis
C) Rolling - Margination - Chemotaxis - Pavementing - Phagocytosis
D) Margination - Pavementing - Rolling - Phagocytosis - Chemotaxis
124) A small part of the right lobe of the liver was removed following blunt abdominal trauma.
Several weeks later the liver regains it's normal size. Which of the following process best
explains this finding?
A) Apoptosis
B) Atrophy
C) Metaplasia
D) Hyperplasia
125) All of the following statements are TRUE about dystrophic calcification EXCEPT
A) Occurs in dead and degenerative tissue
B) Calcium level is normal
C) Associated with hyperparathyroidism
D) Von kossa stain will confirm the calcium
126) A 40-year-old male has pleural effusion, on pleural fluid analysis, showed exudate nature
and plenty of neutrophils. Probable etiology is
A) Pyogenic
B) Tubercular
C) Viral
D) Parasitic
127) All are examples for Exfoliative cytology EXCEPT (Either b or c or d)
A) Sputum cytology
B) Pap smear
C) Pleural fluid effusion cytology
D) Fine needle aspiration cytology
128) Gamma Gandy body is seen in following pathological condition (Either c or d)
A) Chronic Venous congestion (CVC) Liver
B) CVC Kidney
C) CVC Spleen
D) CVC Lung
129) A 32-year-old female sustained 70% accidental burns and develops shock in 6 hours
following the incident. The most likely cause of shock is
A) Cardiogenic
B) Hypovolaemic
C) Anaphylactic
D) Septic
130) Grenz zone is a typical histopathological finding seen in
A) Tuberculoid leprosy
B) Lepromatous leprosy
C) Tuberculosis
D) Actinomycosis
131) The ideal blood component that should be transfused in patients with thalassemia who
needs repeated transfusion is
A) Packed cell
B) Whole blood
C) Platelet concentrate
D) Plasma
132) The type of lung carcinoma with predominant paraneoplastic syndrome manifestation is
A) Squamous cell
B) Adenocarcinoma
C) Small cell
D) Large cell type
133) Li-fraumeni syndrome is due to mutation of following gene
A) Rb
B) p53
C) PTEN
D) p16
134) Thyroid carcinoma with amyloid stroma is seen with (Either a or c)
A) Papillary
B) Follicular
C) Medullary
D) Anaplastic
135) The type of hypersensitivity reaction, which is delayed and mediated by T cell is
A) I
B) II
C) III
D) IV
136) Mode of inheritance in haemophilia and Duchene's muscular dystrophy is
A) Autosomal recessive
B) Autosomal dominant
C) X linked recessive
D) X linked dominant
137) Leucotriene, which induces chemotaxis, is
A) B4
B) C4
C) D4
D) E4
138) All are examples for myeloproliferative disorders EXCEPT
A) Polycythmia vera
B) Chronic myeloid leukemia
C) Essential thrombocytosis
D) Acute myeloid leukemia
139) Causes of Microcytic hypochromic anemia are all EXCEPT
A) β-thalassaemia
B) Iron deficiency anemia
C) Lead poisoning
D) Vitamin B12 and folate deficiency
140) Type of necrosis seen in acute pancreatitis is
A) Caseous
B) Fat
C) Fibrinoid
D) Coagulative
141) The giant cell which always indicates the pathological process is
A) Osteoclasts
B) Megakaryocytes
C) Syncytiotrophoblasts
D) Touton giant cell
142) Mucicarmine stain is useful in identification of following fungal lesion
A) Aspergillosis
B) Cryptococcosis
C) Candidiasis
D) Mucormycosis
143) Active hyperaemia is seen in which of the following condition? (Either b or c)
A) A 64-year-old male dies due to congestive heart failure and liver shows nutmeg cut surface
B) A 19-year-old medical student who develops a red face after being asked a question in the
pathology viva
C) A 16-year-old boy with swollen testis following testicular torsion
D) 50-year-old male with enlarged liver following Budd-chiari syndrome
144) A small part of the left lobe of the liver was removed following blunt abdominal trauma.
Several weeks later the liver regains its normal size. Which of the following process best
explains this finding?
A) Apoptosis
B) Atrophy
C) Metaplasia
D) Hyperplasia
145) Mikulicz cells and Russel bodies are characteristic findings seen in
A) Actinomycosis
B) Rhinosporidiosis
C) Rhinoscleroma
D) Kalaazar
146) The wound of one day old shows one of the following histological finding
A) Extensive granulation tissue
B) Scar tissue
C) Neutrophil infiltration at the margins
D) Extensive hemorrhage with dense lymphocytes
147) Cerebral artery occlusion leads to the following type of necrosis
A) Caseous
B) Fibrinoid
C) Coagulative
D) Liquefactive
148) All are examples for exfoliative cytology EXCEPT (Either b or c or d)
A) Sputum cytology
B) Cervical smear pap smear
C) Ascitic fluid cytology
D) Fine needle aspiration cytology
149) Hemorrhagic disease of newborn is seen in deficiency of which of the following vitamin
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) K
150) Prehepatic jaundice is characterized by all EXCEPT
A) Unconjugated hyperbilirubinaemia
B) Urobilinogen in urine
C) Increased direct bilirubin
D) Kernicterus
151) A 45-year-old male needs bone marrow aspiration and marrow biopsy for evaluation of
anaemia. The preferred site for the procedure is
A) Posterior superior iliac spine
B) Transverse process of the vertebra
C) Tibial tuberosity
D) Sternum
152) The ideal blood component that should be transfused in a 50-year-old female who
sustained accidental burns is
A) Packed cell
B) Whole blood
C) Platelet concentrate
D) Plasma
153) Hypercalcaemia as the paraneoplastic syndrome commonly seen with the following type of
lung carcinoma
A) Squamous cell
B) Adenocarcinoma
C) Small cell
D) Large cell type
154) Li-fraumeni syndrome is due to mutation of following gene
A) Rb
B) Tp53
C) PTEN
D) p16
155) Thyroid carcinoma with amyloid stroma is seen with (Either a or c)
A) Papillary
B) Follicular
C) Medullary
D) Anaplastic
156) Good pasture syndrome is an example for following the type of hypersensitivity reaction
A) I
B) II
C) III
D) IV
157) Mode of inheritance in Sickle cell anemia is
A) Autosomal recessive
B) Autosomal dominant
C) X linked recessive
D) X linked dominant
158) Leucgtfiene which induces chemotaxis is
A) B4
B) C4
C) D4
D) E4
159) All are true about Dystrophic calcification EXCEPT
A) Associated with Hyperparathyroidism
B) Serum calcium level is normal
C) Deposition of calcium in dead and degenerative tissue
D) Von kossa stain is used to confirm the deposition
160) A 36-year-old female has respiratory difficulties. Her pleural fluid evaluation showed high
protein, low sugar, increased cell count with predominant cells being lymphocyte 90%. Possible
etiology is
A) Pyogenic
B) Viral
C) Tubercular
D) Parasitic
