LAW ENFORCEMENT ADMINISTRATION 3

1. What is a primary goal in VIP security operations?

A. To create a public spectacle.
B. To ensure that all communications are recorded.
C. To anticipate and prevent situations that might endanger the VIP.
D. To train the VIP in self-defense.

2. What is the primary responsibility of the PSPG within the Philippine National Police?
A. To investigate criminal activities within the government.
B. To provide protective security to government officials and other authorized
individuals.
C. To enforce traffic regulations in major cities.
D. To oversee international relations with foreign dignitaries.

3. What is the main characteristic of the Multiple Pass System?

A. A pass is exchanged at the entrance for another color-coded pass
B. Multiple copies of passes are issued to an individual who changes badges to
enter different restricted areas
C. An employee keeps a single pass until their authorization changes or is terminated
D. No passes are used in this system

4. What defines a Restricted Area?

A. An area where no passes are required
B. An area with no security measures
C. An area where personnel or vehicles are controlled for security reasons
D. An area open to the public

5. What is a Limited Area within the context of restricted areas?

A. An area with no restrictions
B. An area with the highest degree of control
C. A restricted area where the security interest would be compromised by
uncontrolled movement but requires lesser control than an exclusion area
D. An area open to anyone with a pass

6. What is an Exclusion Area?

A. A restricted area with lesser control than a Limited Area
B. An area requiring the highest degree of protection with Top Secret
importance
C. An area where no passes are required
D. An area open to the public

7. What does Security Clearance certify?

A. That an area is safe to enter
B. That a person is cleared to access classified matters at appropriate levels
C. That a document is authentic
D. That a facility is under surveillance
Answer: B.

8. What is an Access List?

A. A list of unauthorized personnel
B. A list of items prohibited in a facility
C. An authenticated list of personnel allowed entry to a compound or
installation
D. A list of security clearance levels

9. What is the purpose of a Duress Code?

A. To authorize access to classified documents
B. To signal an emergency evacuation
C. To give an alarm in case an employee is forced to enter an installation under
duress
D. To check the functionality of security systems

10. Which of the following is a specification for a safe used as a protective cabinet?
A. It must be at least 500 lbs
B. It should have a 1% thick steel door
C. It must be at least 750 lbs or anchored to the building if below 750 lbs
D. It should be made of wood

11. What are the specifications for a Vault’s door?

A. 1 inch thick steel and fire resistance up to 1 hour
B. 6 inches thick steel and fire resistance up to 4 to 6 hours
C. 2 inches thick steel and fire resistance up to 2 hours
D. 4 inches thick steel and fire resistance up to 8 hours

12. What is the maximum size for a Vault?

A. 10,000 cubic meters
B. 5,000 cubic meters
C. 2,000 cubic meters
D. 4,000 cubic meters

13. Which test determines if a safe can withstand a sudden rise in temperature without
rupturing?
A. Fire Endurance Test
B. Explain Hazard Test
C. Fire and Impact Test
D. Heat Resistance Test

14. What is the primary use of an animal barrier in security operations?

A. To control unauthorized access by animals
B. To assist in search and rescue operations, and detection of explosives and
drugs
C. To guard the perimeter against small rodents
D. To deter birds from nesting in the area

15. What are the specifications for a File Room’s height and interior cubage?
A. 10 feet high and 4,000 cubic meters
B. 14 feet high and 8,000 cubic meters
C. 12 feet high and 10,000 cubic meters
D. 16 feet high and 6,000 cubic meters
16. What is the primary role of a security guard?
A. To provide administrative support
B. To guard residential or business premises for hire and compensation
C. To conduct personnel security investigations
D. To manage financial transactions

17. What is the purpose of Personnel Security?

A. To manage organizational finances
B. To ensure that members are capable, reliable, trustworthy, and loyal
C. To conduct training sessions
D. To maintain physical security of the premises

18. What does Personnel Security Investigation (PSI) involve?

A. Inquiry into an individual’s financial status
B. Inquiry into an individual’s character, reputation, discretion, integrity,
morals, and loyalty
C. Physical surveillance of an individual
D. Verification of employment history only

19. Which of the following is a component of a National Agency Check (NAC)?

A. Only local agency checks
B. Physical fitness test
C. Investigation of records from agencies such as PNP, ISAFP, NBI, CSC, Bureau
of Immigration
D. Medical examination

20. What aspect of security does Personnel Security focus on?

A. Physical security of the premises
B. Cybersecurity
C. Ensuring the reliability and loyalty of organizational members
D. Fire safety protocols

21. What is the purpose of a Local Agency Check (LAC)?

A. To investigate an individual’s financial status
B. To conduct a physical fitness test
C. To verify records and files from local agencies such as barangay, mayor,
police, prosecutor, and courts
D. To conduct medical examinations

22. What does a Background Investigation (BI) aim to verify?

A. The applicant’s financial background
B. The applicant’s information on the application form and past employment
C. The applicant’s physical fitness
D. The applicant’s medical history

23. What is a Complete Background Investigation (CBI)?

A. A background check focused only on financial status
B. A comprehensive investigation including all circumstances of an individual’s
personal life
C. A background check limited to employment history
D. A superficial check limited to current residence
24. Which factor considered in a Background Investigation refers to faithful allegiance to
the Philippine government?
A. Integrity
B. Loyalty
C. Discretion
D. Reputation

25. Which factor in a Background Investigation assesses a person’s uprightness in

character and soundness of moral principle?
A. Morals
B. Character
C. Reputation
D. Integrity

26. Which of the following is a sign to look for during screening?

A. High job satisfaction
B. Clear communication skills
C. Signs of instability in personal relations
D. Consistent employment history

27. What is the purpose of a Security Education Program?

A. To train employees on physical fitness
B. To develop security awareness among employees regardless of rank and
position
C. To manage the company’s finances
D. To recruit new employees

28. What happens during the Initial Interview phase of the Security Education Program?
A. Employees are given a detailed orientation on security policies
B. Prospective employees are given an idea of the security policies and
penalties for violations
C. Employees are reminded about their role and duties
D. Security posters are distributed to employees

29. Which phase of the Security Education Program involves reminding employees of the
company’s security measures through posters and leaflets?
A. Initial Interview
B. Orientation and Training
C. Refresher Conference
D. Security Reminders

30. What is the purpose of Security Promotion in the Security Education Program?
A. To distribute security manuals and handouts
B. To train new employees on job-specific skills
C. To inculcate the importance and role of security in the success of the
organization
D. To review existing security guidelines

31. What is the primary focus of Document and Information Security?

A. Ensuring documents are easily accessible to everyone
B. Protecting documents and information from loss or unauthorized access
C. Organizing documents for efficient retrieval
D. Archiving documents for historical reference

32. What stage is NOT part of the Information Cycle?

A. Creation
B. Use
C. Classification
D. Storage and Retrieval

33. What classification level is given to information that would cause exceptionally grave
damage to the nation if disclosed?
A. Confidential
B. Secret
C. Restricted
D. Top Secret

34. What type of records are considered irreplaceable and retain a higher value in their
original form?
A. Class II-Important Records
B. Class III-Non-essential Records
C. Class I-Vital Records/Documents
D. Class IV-Temporary Records

35. Which classification level is assigned to information that would be prejudicial to the
interest or prestige of the nation if disclosed?
A. Restricted
B. Confidential
C. Secret
D. Top Secret

36. What is the primary characteristic of Class II Important Records/Documents?

A. Their loss would not affect the company’s operations.
B. Reproduction is costly and time-consuming.
C. They can easily be replaced without any difficulty.
D. They are routine documents used daily.

37. Which class of documents, if lost, would only cause inconvenience but not
insurmountable difficulty in restoring company operations?
A. Class I-Vital Records/Documents
B. Class II-Important Records/Documents
C. Class III-Useful Records/Documents
D. Class IV-Non-Essential Records/Documents

38. What describes Non-Essential Records/Documents?

A. Irreplaceable and of high original value.
B. Significant cost, labor, and delay if reproduced.
C. Routine in nature and loss does not affect operations.
D. Cause inconvenience but can be easily replaced.
39. What qualifies information as a trade secret?
A. It is widely known to the public but not competitors.
B. It provides no economic benefit.
C. It is not generally known and confers economic benefits.
D. It is publicly shared to enhance corporate image.

40. Proprietary Information is defined as:

A. Publicly available data that can be used by anyone.
B. Information sensitive to the company, giving it a competitive edge.
C. General industry knowledge shared across companies.
D. Data without any restrictions or confidentiality.

41. What is a patent?

A. A recommendation from a government body.
B. An exclusive right granted for an invention.
C. A permanent public record of an invention.
D. A recognition of an inventor by a professional society.

42. Under the Intellectual Property Code of the Philippines, what makes an invention
patentable?
A. It provides a technical solution that is outdated.
B. It must be a simple alteration of an existing product.
C. It is industrially applicable, novel, and involves an inventive step.
D. The invention must be economically feasible.

43. What is a key component of conducting risk analysis?

A. Ignoring the potential for human-caused adverse events.
B. Establishing a risk picture and comparing various solutions.
C. Only focusing on natural disasters.
D. Avoiding analysis of systems and components related to risk.

44. What is the primary goal of risk avoidance?

A. To eliminate the existence of criminal opportunity.
B. To spread the risk across various assets.
C. To transfer the risk to another party.
D. To accept the risk as part of doing business.

45. Which risk management strategy involves reducing potential loss to the lowest level
consistent with business operations?
A. Risk Acceptance
B. Risk Reduction
C. Risk Transfer
D. Risk Spreading

46. Risk spreading aims to:

A. Ensure assets against potential losses.
B. Accept all residual risks.
C. Expose perpetrators to the probability of detection.
D. Avoid creating criminal opportunities.
47. What differentiates a potential mode hazard from an active mode hazard?
A. A potential mode hazard can be prevented.
B. An active mode hazard cannot be mitigated or controlled.
C. A potential mode hazard has already caused damage.
D. An active mode hazard is less severe than a potential mode.

48. Which of the following best describes a natural hazard?

A. A security threat from unauthorized access.
B. Acts of nature that disrupt normal business processes.
C. An internal error in company software.
D. Deliberate acts of sabotage by employees.

49. What distinguishes a casual pilferer from a systematic pilferer?

A. A casual pilferer plans their actions in advance.
B. A casual pilferer steals opportunistically with little fear of detection.
C. A systematic pilferer never steals for economic gain.
D. A systematic pilferer acts on unexpected opportunities.

50. What does “relative vulnerability” refer to in risk analysis?

A. The economic importance of a firm.
B. The likelihood of a firm benefiting from risks.
C. The susceptibility of an establishment to hazards.
D. The operational efficiency of a company.