DMBA102 - Combined Question Answers
DMBA102 - Combined Question Answers
(Combined – Self Assessment Questions, Terminal Questions, Model Question Paper & Internal Assessment)
1. Which of the following is not true for communication? [a) It is a static process, b) It varies from culture to
culture, c) It could be verbal or non-verbal, d) It enables understanding]
2. Kinesics is the most often studied and important area of non-verbal communication and refers to body
movements of any kind.
3. The biggest potential benefit of horizontal communication is the sense of teamwork that is created.
4. Which of the following is not a type of listening? [a) Empathetic listening, b) Evaluative listening, c)
Appreciative listening, d) Constructive listening]
5. Which among the following indicates what an article is about? [a) Subject line, b) Main idea, c)
Components, d) Theme]
6. The most common type of persuasive letter is sales letter.
7. Corporate advertising is more a public relations activity than a form of advertising. (True/False)
8. Reports must also be written in a convincing manner, so that the reader accepts them as valid and reliable.
9. Which of the following is not true for resume planning? [a) Resume should be printed on a quality paper.,
b) Resume should have proper spacing and headings, c) References must be mentioned in good resume.,
d) Limit your resume to a maximum of two pages]
10. The annual appraisal interview is the best strategy for judging employees’ attitudes.
11. Communication is sharing of information between two or more persons, with continuous feedback.
12. The receiver may not always attach the same meaning to a message as the sender.
13. Communication can occur in isolation. (True/False)
14. Encoder is the person who transmits a message. (True/False)
15. A channel is any signal that triggers the response of a receiver. (True/False)
16. You feel that your professor does not have anything new to say and you do not listen to him. This is an
example of physiological noise leading to communication failure. (True/False)
17. Your boss gives you a good performance review at a time when the company is making profits. This is an
example of chronological context influencing the communication. (True/False)
18. Which of the following is a psychological noise? [a) Lack of interest, b) Poor acoustics, c) Information
overload, d) Fatigue]
19. Match the following: [Set A - A. Overcrowded room, B. Words with different meanings in different
cultures, C. Tone of voice, D. Wrong medium of advertising] [Set B - 1) Non-verbal barrier, 2) Channel
barrier, 3) Environmental barrier, 4) Semantic barrier] – A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
20. The barrier that may also occur in cross-cultural advertising and distort the communication is linguistic
barrier.
21. The active listening means listening to the meaning of the speaker’s words, rather than listening without
hearing.
22. Feedback is an important concept of interpersonal communication.
23. Group communication usually takes place between twenty to thirty individuals. (True/False)
24. As the message flow is usually one-way in mass communication, the feedback is minimal and delayed.
(True/False)
25. Communication has assumed even greater importance today, since the new model of business is based on
teamwork, rather than on individual action.
26. The face-to-face communication is especially suitable for resolving conflicts between co-workers, work
related and performance related problems.
27. Effective communication by managers during employee appraisal period can point out areas for
improvement. (True/False)
28. Two broad areas of communication are verbal and non-verbal communication.
29. When communicating in a cross-cultural context, it is particularly important to avoid literal translation of
words.
30. Verbal communication is more likely to go wrong in a cross-cultural context. (True/False)
31. Non-verbal communication can be avoided by refusing to speak or write. (True/False)
32. Match the following sets: [Set A - A. Nodding the head, B. Time language, C. A boss visiting an
employee’s office for discussion, D. An executive chair and a carpeted room, E. Speaking loudly] [Set B -
1) Paralanguage, 2) Kinesics, 3) Arriving late for a meeting, 4) Personal space and distance, 5) Physical
context] – A-2, B-3, C-4, D-5, E-1
33. Use of space at the workplace can determine leadership positions.
34. Colours are known for their symbolic meaning and have associations with different feelings.
35. Yellow and green are associated with negative feelings. (True/False)
36. Identify the communication channel where the communication is oral and non-verbal. Two-way, face-to-
face channels
37. Teleconferencing enables two parties in different locations to see and speak to each other.
38. When the tone of the communication is to be formal, written communication is more appropriate than oral
communication.
39. Communication between peers is essential for functional coordination.
40. Shareholders are very important internal stakeholders, since they are the owners of the company.
41. In Employee/Unions communication, written contracts are the most appropriate channels.
42. The appropriate channels of communication with shareholders include oral and written channels.
43. Match the following: [Set A - A. Mass communication, B. Corporate Social Responsibility, C. Crisis PR,
D. Distributors, E. Internet, F. Statutory compliance, G. Transparency, H. Credit rating, I. Publicity, J.
Persuasion] [Set B - 1) Government, 2) Advertising, 3) Suppliers, 4) Social development, 5) Bankers, 6)
Borrowing ability, 7) Media, 8) Consumers, 9) Motivation, 10) Restoring company image] – A-2, B-4, C-
10, D-9, E-3, F-1, G-5, H-6, I-7, J-8
44. Transparency is needed in dealings with the bank and failure to keep them informed could lead to the
company’s collapse. (True/False)
45. To give technical specifications and to ensure quality and timely delivery, communication with society is
essential. (True/False)
46. Upward communication may be defined as information that flows from subordinates to superiors.
47. An organisational chart specifies the hierarchy and the reporting system in the organisation.
48. The biggest problem associated with upward communication is that it may lead to ‘handing down’ of
decisions by superiors.
49. An advantage of regular downward communication is transparency/openness.
50. Formal communication networks are based more on friendship, shared personal or career interests.
(True/False)
51. Regular downward communication in the form of feedback given to employees is the most important
factor affecting job satisfaction. (True/False)
52. Which of the following types of listening could be in the form of paying selective attention to certain
kinds of information which might be relevant to us, or which helps to meet our needs and goals? [a)
Evaluative listening, b) Appreciative listening, c) Empathetic listening, d) Therapeutic listening]
53. The meaning conveyed by a speaker’s non-verbal behaviour can be analysed by closely observing
different aspects of the speaker’s body language and tone of voice.
54. The type of listening that is used when listening to good music, poetry or a powerful speech is
appreciative listening.
55. Match the following: [Set A - A) Bad listening habit, B) Listening for emotion, C) Physical barrier, D)
Attitudinal barrier] [Set B - 1) Egocentrism, 2) Information overload, 3) Tune off deliberately, 4) Listener
speaker gap, 5) Physiological barrier] – A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
56. Speakers talk at around 500 words per minute. (True/False)
57. Egocentrism is an attitudinal barrier. (True/False)
58. The silence is often interpreted as lack of understanding or attention.
59. Listening is not only hearing and understanding the meaning of the words, but also being alert to the non-
verbal behaviour of the speaker.
60. A good listener always occupies the centre stage. (True/False)
61. In the insurance industry, it has been found that good listening has led to career advancement.
62. A satisfied customer is the best advertisement for any company's product.
63. Customer orientation means identifying customer feedbacks on different products and then satisfying their
needs. (Tue/False)
64. Performance appraisal is one the situations where listening to employees is of prime importance.
(True/False)
65. Match the following: [Set A - A) Did you sign this agreement? B) Describe a situation in which you think
you did not follow the company’s standard procedure. C) Is that all? Have you omitted any other detail?
D) Assume that the sales of XYZ soap is falling. What would you do to revive sales?] [Set B - 1) Open
question, 2) Closed question, 3) Hypothetical question, 4) Probing question] – A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
66. Leading questions describe a fictitious situation and seek your response to it. (True/False)
67. Prewriting is a structured thinking process that helps you to explore and understand what you have to
write.
68. You check for wordiness, long sentences, complex and incomplete sentences when you review for macro
issues. (True/False)
69. The expression “Her voice was silky smooth” is an example of a metaphor. (True/False)
70. It is better to use the word 'interrogate' rather than 'ask'. (True/False)
71. A message will be understood more clearly if concrete nouns are used as subjects in a sentence.
72. Match the following sets: [Set A - A) Semicolon, B) Colon, C) Quotation marks, D) Apostrophe] [Set B -
1) Suggest that a list will follow a statement in sentence form., 2) Used to separate clauses of a compound
sentence, 3) Used to form the possessive plural of words, 4) Used to enclose title of an article] – A-2, B-1,
C-4, D-3
73. A redundancy does not serve any purpose and is a mistake since it wastes words. (True/False)
74. The phrase 'Thanking you in advance’ is an example for redundancy. (True/False)
75. Using the passive voice is a technique of subordination/de-emphasis.
76. Readability is determined by sentence length/word length.
77. According to 'Fog Index' formula, the appropriate reading level in a business writing should be between
eight and eleven. (True/False)
78. Conflicts between co-workers can be resolved through tele conferencing. (True/False)
79. Teleconferencing will not replace face-to-face meetings completely.
80. Telephone communication has the advantage of providing immediate feedback. (True/False)
81. Match the following: [Set A - A) General purpose statement, B) Quantified goal, C) Audience size, age
and gender, D) Use of humour, E) Trigger for speaking] [Set B - 1) Demographics, 2) To persuade, 3)
Specific purpose statement, 4) Speaking from notes, 5) Opening and closing statements] – A-2, B-3, C-1,
D-5, E-4
82. Where will you elaborate the main points in a presentation? [a) Introduction, b) Body, c) Conclusion, d)
Outline]
83. Speaking a few words without any warning or advance notice is called speaking extemporaneously.
(True/False)
84. Visuals make the information in presentations more memorable. (True/False)
85. Transparencies are clear sheets used with an overhead projector to project an image on the screen.
86. Name the audio-visual aids that exploit the attention getting properties of television for maximum impact.
Videotapes
87. It is a good practice to blank out, erase, or turn off visuals soon after you have explained them, so that the
audience can focus attention on what you are saying next. (True/False)
88. Meaningful reading or reading with understanding is considered as an active process.
89. Reading for interest or pleasure is usually fulfilled through reading fiction, while reading to learn is
associated with informative articles.
90. Reading for information about what is going on in your field, but outside your own company, is called
reading for internal information. (True/False)
91. Reading is a skill, which has to be acquired through constant experimentation.
92. What is defined as “looking over a text/book quickly, in order to get a general or superficial idea of the
content"? Skimming
93. Scanning is a kind of reading where the reading is done for very specific purpose. (True/False)
94. In which type of reading do we practise rapid reading to get a global/overall understanding of the matter?
Extensive Reading
95. Natural way of reading is silent reading, which is ideal and helps comprehension.
96. A survey of the index or bibliography tells you immediately whether the book contains what you need.
97. While reading for the first time, you must just focus on the main points or ideas and supporting details.
(True/False)
98. What will sharpen your critical ability, enable you to form your own opinions on the topic and express
them to others? Review
99. A special meeting that is called to discuss and make arrangements fora specific event is known as task-
oriented meetings.
100. Information sharing meetings may take place among co-workers or may also involve top management.
(True/False)
101. A basic question to be asked before planning any meeting is where to hold the meeting. (True/False)
102. Once the need for a meeting has been determined, the next step is to start planning for the meeting.
103. The items to be discussed are listed in the descending order of priority in the agenda.
104. While opening the meeting it is a good idea to provide an outline of how the meeting must proceed, as
well as the timeline. (True/False)
105. If the chairperson refers the question to the entire group, to encourage participation then the question is
known as? Relay question
106. Members who have made significant contributions during the meeting must be acknowledged
individually.
107. It is always a good practice to address the chairperson and avoid bi-lateral talks and mini meetings.
108. It is important for the chairperson to monitor the progress of the meeting participants before the next
meeting to ensure that the deadlines are met. (True/False)
109. Written communication is preferred over other forms of communication as it provides a tangible and
verifiable record of the information that was exchanged.
110. Condensation means that the précis must be a brief, shortened version of the original article.
111. Which among the following indicates what an article is about? Main theme
112. The “To” heading of a memo mentions the name of the receiver.
113. If the purpose of the memo is not just to inform there must be a clear call for action. (True/False)
114. Which among the following is a type of memo format? Deductive organisation
115. The use of personal pronouns and active voice is permitted in a memo.
116. Circular is an announcement that is distributed to small or selective groups of people within the
organisation.
117. Show cause notice mentions the allegations against the employee and asks for a written explanation
within a specified time.
118. Depending on the type of notice, the duration of display of a notice is specified under various legal
provisions. (True/False)
119. An intranet is similar to a website, except that it operates on an internal network that is exclusive to a
particular organisation.
120. The intranet can be used to discuss and debate ideas prior to a meeting. (True/False)
121. Identify the advantage of the intranet. Superior to e-mail
122. In large organisations, it may be sufficient to appoint one person to maintain the intranet. (True/False)
123. E-mail is more informal and spontaneous.
124. The very nature of e-mail communication can make the message sound negative, abrupt and rude.
(True/False)
125. Attachments take time to download and must be sent along with an explanation in the body of the e-
mail.
126. All caps make it difficult to read a message and is therefore considered to be rude.
127. Instant Messaging is a technology initially designed for having one-to-one personal chat at workplaces.
128. Appropriate writing style for business IM is being more formal.
129. A good shareholder relation can help to raise the required capital and minimise borrowing from banks
and financial institutions.
130. Periodic mailers must be sent to all shareholders, giving a fair and truthful representation of the
company’s results and progress on various fronts. (True/False)
131. Business letters are used primarily to communicate with external stakeholders.
132. Every business letter should have a salutation, a body and a close. (True/False)
133. Sometimes, an ‘Attention Line’ may be included below the salutation in a business letter.
134. Which of the following letters inform the buyer or customer about the action that has been taken? [a)
Claim letters, b) Adjustment letters, c) Goodwill letters, d) Persuasive letters]
135. Letters giving news about sudden price increases are examples of bad newsletters. (True/False)
136. The most common type of persuasive letter is a sales letter.
137. A letter expressing a goodwill message should follow the direct organisational plan.
138. Letters following a direct organisation plan end with a friendly closing. (True/False)
139. A buffer is an opening statement in a bad newsletter.
140. In a persuasive letter, the indirect plan is called the AIDA format.
141. The direct organisational plan is used when writing persuasive letters such as sales letters. (True/False)
142. A press release comprises brief, printed statements that outline the major facts of a news story in
journalistic style.
143. The purpose of a news or press release is to announce new developments in your company to the media.
144. The press release must also explain whether the new development will have a positive or an adverse
impact on certain sections of the community. (True/False)
145. The body of the press release must elaborate on the information contained in the introductory paragraph.
146. Product advertising is more a public relations activity than a form of advertising. (True/False)
147. Corporate identity advertising is done purely to communicate the organisation’s name and logo to public
or consumers.
148. Corporate umbrella advertising tries to link a new or weak product with the company’s well-established
range of products.
149. Corporate advertising is expensive, as it has to be done in a sustained manner.
150. In product advertising, the message must be persuasive enough to convince people to buy the product.
151. What aspect of AIDA format focuses on making an advertisement stand out above the others’
advertisements? [a) Capture attention, b) Motivate action, c) Create interest, d) Induce desire]
152. The AIDA format is also known as the hierarchy of effects model.
153. A business report may also have the purpose of persuading or recommending a course of action.
(True/False)
154. A report may be perfectly written, but may still be of poor quality, if the data collected is not accurate.
155. Identify the type of a report that was submitted to government stating that the company is following the
environment regulations. [a) Compliance reports, b) Routine management reports, c) Situational reports,
d) Policies and procedures]
156. The purpose of policies and procedures reports is solely to inform.
157. As the size of the report increases, a number of extra parts can be removed, in order to assist the reader
in understanding the report. (True/False)
158. Which of the following sub-item belongs to the body of the report? [a) Executive summary, b)
Recommendations, c) Glossary, d) Content page]
159. Introduction includes the background and purpose of the study.
160. Index is a list of terms or keywords mentioned in the report, used especially as an aid in searching for
information. (True/False)
161. Glossary section is needed only when the report is of a highly technical nature and the reader is a
layperson.
162. Reports are written after a problem is analysed and a solution to the problem is found. (True/False)
163. Correct interpretation of the data is needed for the success of the report.
164. Business reports must use concrete nouns.
165. A transition sentence summarises one section of the report and leads the reader smoothly into the next
section.
166. A resume is a document that summarises your background, educational qualifications, experience and
interests.
167. Functional resume is appropriate when you are changing your career completely.
168. If your experience is limited, you may also list part-time jobs, internships and voluntary work, under the
title work experience. (True/False)
169. The general appearance of a resume is extremely important.
170. Cover letters can also be used to personalise your qualifications for a specific job. (True/False)
171. The opening statement must be straightforward and brief, mentioning the purpose of the letter.
172. A solicited application letter is easier to write and is more direct and straightforward than an unsolicited
application letter.
173. Unsolicited job application letter increases the likelihood of getting candidates with initiative and
foresight.
174. The initial paragraph of unsolicited job application letter must ask for action on the part of the
prospective employer. (True/False)
175. Recommendation letters are written to prospective employers about an applicant’s suitability for a
particular job.
176. Prospective employers like to know as soon as possible, whether a job offer has been accepted or not.
(True/False)
177. Thank you letters are appropriate after the applicant has attended a job interview.
178. In a traditional job search approach, you seek employment in a particular company. (True/False)
179. The resume that you submit in company websites or job portals is called an electronic resume.
180. A group discussion is coordinated by a person known as the moderator.
181. Participants with leadership skills will be easily noticed. (True/False)
182. Topics which require common sense, more than content knowledge are known as abstract topics.
183. Identify the GD in which the direction of the discussion is almost pre-determined by the identified
problem. [a) Knowledge-based GD, b) Topic-based GD, c) Case-based GD, d) Abstract type GD]
184. You must keep interactions short and simple in a GD. (True/False)
185. Identify the stage that arises at the end of the interview. [a) Evolution, b) Action, c) Preparation, d)
Meeting face to face]
186. Part of pre-interview preparation is to anticipate the kinds of questions that might be asked by the
interviewer.
187. Any discussion on salary should be initiated by the interviewee and not by the interviewer. (True/False)
188. A group interview is one where a panel of interviewers interview a single applicant.
189. In conclusion stage, the interviewer suggests and determines when the interviewee can expect the
forthcoming response.
190. An appraisal interview is one of the strategies of periodical assessment of employees.
191. An interview conducted by manager of a departing employee is termed as an exit interview.
(True/False).
192. Performance appraisal feedback sessions must be conducted in a neutral setting, like a conference room.
LONG & SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS