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CFU T1 HES 007 Microbiology and Parasitology Lab

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
1K views8 pages

CFU T1 HES 007 Microbiology and Parasitology Lab

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chechecastulo
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
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HES 007 Microbiology and Parasitology Lab 4.

There's a spike of dengue cases during


Session 1 – Overview of Communicable rainy season. This is an example of?
Diseases a. endemic diseases
b. sporadic diseases
1. An illness caused by an infectious agent or c. epidemic diseases
its toxic products that are transmitted d. pandemic diseases
directly or indirectly to a well person Sporadic diseases occur occasionally and
through an agency, and a vector or an irregularly, like in the case of dengue.
inanimate object.
a. communicable disease 5. A method of disinfection done
b. contagious disease immediately after the infected individual
c. infections disease discharges infectious material/secretions.
d. all of the above This is a method of disinfection when the
A communicable disease is any infectious patient is still the source of infection.
disease transmitted to a healthy person, a. concurrent
whether directly or indirectly, from an b. terminal
inanimate object, a person, or a vector. c. intermediate
d. disinfection
2. This is transmitted not only by ordinary Concurrent is a method of disinfection done
contact but requires inoculation of the when the patient is still the source of
organism through a break on the skin or infection.
mucous membrane.
a. communicable disease
b. contagious disease
c. infections disease
d. both a and c
An infectious disease is caused by the
introduction of microorganisms into the
body via a break on the mucous membrane
or the skin, causing problems.

3. All communicable diseases are infectious.


This statement is:
a. true
b. false
c. neither a or b
d. either a or b
An infectious agent causing a disease in a
person can be transmitted to a healthy
person, but it does not mean that the
microbial load transferred is enough to cause
a disease or problems.
HES 007 Microbiology and Parasitology Lab d. rickettsia
Session 2 – Chain of Infection Bacteria are simple, one-celled microbes
with double cell membranes that protect
1. Is the transmission of infectious disease them from harm. They reproduce rapidly and
through articles or substances that they are considered as the most common
harbor the organism until it is ingested or cause of fatal infectious diseases
inoculated into the host?
a. Contact transmission 5. Are small, gram negative (-) bacteria-like
b. Vehicle transmission microbes that can induce life threatening
c. Airborne transmission infections.
d. Vector-borne transmission a. bacteria
Vehicle transmission is the transfer of b. virus
infectious disease from a contaminated c. fungi
source like inanimate objects, food, and d. rickettsia
water. Rickettsia are small, gram negative (-)
bacteria that can induce life threatening
2. Occurs when intermediate carriers such infections, such as spotted fever and murine
as fleas, flies, and mosquitoes transfer typhus.
microbes to another living organism.
a. Contact transmission
b. Vehicle transmission
c. Airborne transmission
d. Vector-borne transmission
Vector-borne transmission occurs when
disease-causing pathogens are transmitted
from one host to another

3. Transmission through contact with


respiratory secretions when the infected
person coughs, sneezes, or talks.
a. direct contact
b. indirect contact
c. droplet spread
d. hematogenous spread
Droplet spread is a transmission through
contact with respiratory secretions when the
infected person coughs, sneezes, or talks.

4. They reproduce rapidly and they are


considered as the most common cause of
fatal infectious diseases.
a. bacteria
b. virus
c. fungi
HES 007 Microbiology and Parasitology Lab One of the sanitary conditions to be
Session 3 – Infection Control Measures and evaluated for food establishments is their
Isolation compliance with sanitary permit
requirements.
1. Activities helps the clients maintain or
enhance their present levels of health. 4. To prevent infections that are
Activities include routine exercise and transmitted by direct or indirect contact
good nutrition. with purulent materials or drainage from
a. Health Promotion an infected body site.
b. Illness prevention a. Contact isolation
c. Wellness b. Enteric isolation
d. Health restoration c. Respiratory isolation
Health promotion activities are those that d. Drainage isolation
help clients maintain or enhance their Drainage isolation specifically prevents
current levels of health. infections spread through purulent
materials.
2. Point of Source a protected well or a
developed spring with an outlet but 5. To prevent transmission of infectious
without a distribution system generally diseases over short distances through
adoptable to rural areas. the air.
a. Level 1 a. Contact isolation
b. Level 2 b. Enteric isolation
c. Level 3 c. Respiratory isolation
d. Level 4 d. Drainage isolation
According to NEDA (1998), service level 1 or Respiratory isolation is used to prevent the
point of source provides a protected well or spread of infectious diseases through
a developed spring with an outlet but airborne particles over short distances.
without a distribution system.

3. Food establishments shall be appraised


as to the following sanitary conditions,
except?
a. Inspection/approval of all food
sources
b. Noncompliance to sanitary permit
requirements for all food
establishment
c. Provision of updated health
certificates for food handlers, cook,
and cook helpers.
d. Destruction/banning of food unfit for
human consumption
e. Training food handlers and operators
on foods sanitation
HES 007 Microbiology and Parasitology Lab (AIDS). To adhere to standard
Session 4 – AIDS precautions, the nurse should:
a. Maintain strict isolation
1. Sir Marco is lecturing about HIV and AIDS b. Keep client in private room, as
and asks Stemar of what's the difference possible
between HIV and AIDS. Stemar is correct c. Wear gloves when providing mouth
if he states that AIDS is? care
a. AIDS is a virus that causes HIV. d. Wear gown when delivering the
b. It is a lentivirus belonging to the client's food tray
retrovirus family. Wearing gloves when providing mouth care
c. AIDS is neither hereditary nor inborn is a standard precaution to prevent contact
and it involves an immune with potentially infectious bodily fluids.
deficiency.
d. AIDS is reversible so taking 5. Which of the following statements is
medications can bring up a cure to FALSE?
the disease. a. Infection with HIV results in a chronic
AIDS is a condition characterized by immune disease with acute exacerbation.
deficiency resulting from HIV infection, b. Late-stage infection is called acquired
which can be acquired from the mother by immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS).
the child during breastfeeding. c. Untreated HIV infection can remain
in the early chronic stage for decade
2. A person can transmit HIV through the or more.
following EXCEPT. d. Opportunistic diseases occur more
a. Sexual intercourse often when CD4+ T cells count is
b. Injection of infected blood or blood high, and the viral load is low.
products Opportunistic diseases occur more often
c. Perinatal or vertical transmission when CD4+ T cell count is low, and the viral
d. French kissing load is high.
A person with HIV cannot spread the HIV
infection to a well person through kissing.

3. When HIV antibodies are present in the


blood, in the positive antibody test, the
person is considered
a. Negative antibody test
b. Positive antibody test
c. HIV positive
d. HIV negative
When HIV antibodies are detected in the
blood, i.e. antibody test is positive, the
person is HIV-positive.

4. The nurse is caring for a client with


acquired immunodeficiency syndrome
HES 007 Microbiology and Parasitology Lab Cutaneous anthrax is characterized by
Session 5 – Amoebiasis and Anthrax edema, lymphadenitis in the inguinal area,
and lesions that are not painful.
1. The source of infection of amoebic
dysentery is? 5. A type of anthrax that symptoms include
a. Feces fever, nausea and vomiting, abdominal
b. Urine pain, bloody diarrhea, and sometimes
c. Saliva rapidly developing ascites.
d. Blood and blood products a. Inhalation Anthrax
Entamoeba histolytica, the causative agent b. Cutaneous Anthrax
of amoebic dysentery, is typically spread c. Gastrointestinal Anthrax
through contaminated food or water d. Wool sorter's disease
containing fecal matter. Gastrointestinal anthrax is characterized by
gastrointestinal symptoms such as vomiting,
2. Amoeba infection can be spread through abdominal pain, and bloody diarrhea.
direct contact EXCEPT for one.
a. Orogenital
b. Oroanal
c. Proctogenital
d. Otoanal
Otoanal contact, which involves the ear and
anus, is not a route of transmission for
amoeba infection.

3. All but one is the mode of transmission


of amoebic dysentery EXCEPT for?
a. Fecal - oral
b. Direct or indirect contact
c. Blood and blood products
d. Ingestion of contaminated food or
water
Amoebic dysentery is not spread through
contact with blood and blood products.

4. A type of anthrax that with marked


edema and lymphadenitis may develop
in the inguinal area but lesions are not
painful.
a. Inhalation Anthrax
b. Cutaneous Anthrax
c. Gastrointestinal Anthrax
d. Wool sorter's disease
HES 007 Microbiology and Parasitology Lab d. Generalized paralysis
Session 6 – Ascariasis and Bacillary Dysentery Botulism typically causes descending
paralysis, starting with the muscles of the
1. A client with ascariasis is given face, progressing downward to affect the
albendazole or mebendazole as single extremities.
dose, orally of how many CC?
a. 10cc 5. Treatment of botulism includes the
b. 20cc following except?
c. 15cc a. Supportive care is needed.
d. 25cc b. Emetics and gastric lavage
15 cc albendazole or mebendazole is given as c. Wound debridement
a treatment to a client with ascariasis. d. Isolation
Isolation is not a treatment of botulism
2. A complication of ascariasis infection in because it is not contagious.
which there is a yellowing of the skin
caused by thickening of bile, obstruction
of hepatic ducts, or changes in liver cell
function.
a. Cholangitis
b. Cholelithiasis
c. Cholestatic jaundice
d. Cholera
Cholestatic jaundice is a complication of
ascariasis infection characterized by the
yellowing of the skin, resulting from the
obstruction of the biliary system by the
parasite.

3. This is considered as the most infectious


and their habitat is exclusively the GIT of
man.
a. Shigella flesneri
b. Shigella boydii
c. Shigella connei
d. Shigella dysenteriae
Shigella dysenteriae is considered as the
most infectious causative agent of bacillary
dysentery.

4. Botulism paralysis usually follow a


certain pattern it is by?
a. Ascending paralysis
b. Descending paralysis
c. Transverse paralysis
HES 007 Microbiology and Parasitology Lab Treatment for chlamydial infections include
Session 7 – Candidiasis, Chancroid, and doxycycline for 7 days and azithromycin in
Chlamydial Infections single dose.

1. A client is diagnosed with oral 5. A client comes to the clinic for treatment
candidiasis. Nurse Tina knows that this of recurrent pelvic inflammatory disease.
condition in AIDS is treated with: The nurse recognizes that this condition
a. Trimethoprim + sulfamethoxazole most frequently follows which type of
b. Fluconazole infection?
c. Acyclovir a. Trichomoniasis
d. Zidovudine b. Chlamydia
Fluconazole is used as treatment for c. Staphylococcus
localized and systemic Candida infections, d. Streptococcus
which are common in immunocompromised Chlamydial infection can ascend from lower
individuals. genital tract to the upper reproductive
organs, leading to pelvic inflammatory
2. Candida infection in the vagina is known disease if untreated.
as:
a. Onychomycosis
b. Oral thrush
c. Moniliasis
d. Candidiasis
Moniliasis is a candida infection in the
vagina.

3. Chancroid has three layers of lesions.


Which layer is edematous and shows
endothelial proliferation of blood vessels
but lacks fibroblastic repair?
a. The shallow surface
b. The wide middle zone
c. In deep zone
d. Semi deep zone
The wide middle zone is edematous and
shows endothelial proliferation of blood
vessels.

4. Treatment for chlamydial infections


include:
a. Azithromycin, Doxycycline
b. Clotrimazole, fluconazole,
ketoconazole
c. Fluconazole and amphotericin
d. Amikacin
HES 007 Microbiology and Parasitology Lab The pathognomonic sign of cholera is rice-
Session 8 – Chickenpox and Cholera watery stool, wherein the stool is profuse,
watery and contains white flecks.
1. In varicella when the rash starts from the
trunk and then spread to other parts of 5. When is cholera communicable?
the body, this is known as? a. when stools are positive of
a. Celestial map endotoxins with carrier states.
b. Centrifugal appearance b. when stools are bloody
c. Crust c. when stools are positive of
d. Eschar enterotoxins with carrier states.
Centrifugal appearance describes the d. when Grayish pseudo membrane are
pattern of the rash in varicella, starting from found over the tonsils, pharynx or
the trunk, then spreads outward to other larynx.
parts of the body. Cholera is communicable when infected
individuals shed the bacteria and its toxins in
2. This is a secondary lesion caused by the their stools, which can contaminate water
secretion of vesicle drying on the skin. sources or food.
a. Celestial map
b. Centrifugal appearance
c. Crust
d. Eschar
Crust is a secondary lesion caused by the
secretion of vesicle drying on the skin.

3. In the eruptive stage of varicella, all


stages are present simultaneously before
all are covered with scabs, this is known
as:
a. Celestial map
b. Centrifugal appearance
c. Crust
d. Eschar
Celestial map refers to the appearance of the
varicella rash during the eruptive stage,
where lesions in various stages are present
simultaneously.

4. The pathognomonic sign of cholera is:


a. Black tarry stool
b. Yellowish stool
c. Rice-watery stool
d. Melena

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