CARRIAGE & WAGON

1. Certain inputs are required from mechanical side for running trains at a maximum
speed of 120 KMPH. Which of the following statement is not true?
(a) The coaches should be ICF all coil type.
(b) The coaches should be fitted with 13.25t bogie.
(c) The coaches should be air-conditioned.
(d) The coaches should be maintained to technical pamphletC-7807
2. Which of the following conditions required for operation of 24 coach trains is not
true?
(a) It should be Air brake with twin pipe graduated release system
(b) In case of double headed diesel locos maximum traction motor current will be
restricted it 650amperes
(c) Primary maintenance of the rake should be done in one hook
without splitting
(d) Minimum maintenance time of 4 hours on the pit during
primary maintenance
3. Which is not the advantage of Axle driven/self- generation system?
(a) Each unit being independent can work as slip coach
(b) In case of failure of generating equipment in 2 or 3 coaches, power
can be drawn from adjacent coach by means of cable connection.
(c) Safe low work voltage.
(d) Less initial cost.
4. Which is not advantage of End-On Generation system?
(a) Low initial cost.
(b) Low maintenance cost.
(c) No power is required to drive the axle generators.
(d) No restriction on interchangeability of coaches.
5. What do Yellow strips on end wall panels of coaches represent?
(a) Coaches fitted with enhanced capacity screw coupling.
(b) Anti telescopic coach body
(c) Coach fitted with bogie mounted air-brake cylinders.
(d) Vacuum brake train.
6. What does White dumbly mark on end wall panels of coaches represent?
 (a) Coach fitted with enhanced capacity screw coupling.
(b) Anti telescopic coach body.
(c) Coach fitted with bogie mounted air-brake cylinders.
(d) Vacuum brake train.
7. What does the vertical yellow color line at end body corner of coach indicate?
(a) Coach fitted with enhanced capacity screw coupling.
(b) Anti telescopic coach body.
(c) Coach fitted with CBC
(d) Vacuum brake train.
8. Yellow strips on exterior panel above the Lavatory window on coaches
represent?
a) Coach fitted with enhance capacity screw coupling.
b) Second class general coach.
c) Coach fitted with bogie mounted air-brake cylinders.
d) Vacuum brake train.
9. What is WSP?
a) Wheel slide protection
b) Wheel slip provision
c) Wheel skid provision
d) Wheel shoe protection.
10. What is LSD?
a) Low Sensor Divider
b) Load Sensing device
c) Load sensing divider
d) light sensing device
11. What is Auxiliary relief medical equipment coded as?
a) ART
(b) ARB
(c) ARME
(d) ARMY
12. What is MEMU?
a) Mainline electric multiple unit.
b) Model electric multiple unit.
c) Modern electric multiple unit.
 d) mixed electric multiple unit.
13. Full name of PEASD?
a) Passenger emergency alarm sensing device.
b) Passenger emergency alarm signal device
c) Permanent emergency alarm signal device.
d) None of the above.
14. Yellow zebra strips on wagons-what does it signify?
a) Departmental wagon
b) b) Sponsored wagon
c) Wagon for liquid stock
d) Wagon for animals.
15. Which of the following are the consequences of brake binding on the Railway
system?
a) Damage to the wheels & sometimes coaches detachments resulting revenue
loss.
b) Poor riding quality.
c) Damage to rolling stock components such as roller bearings ,springs etc.
d) All the above.
16. The standard wheel gauge of passenger BG coaching stock is ?
(a)1602m
(b)1601mm
(c)1603mm
(d)1600mm
17. The length over buffer of ICF/RCF coach is- ?
(a)22297mm
(b) 22299mm
(c)21996mm
(d)21030mm
18. What is the length of coach over buffer of IRS coach?
(a)22297mm
(b)22296mm
(c) 21336mm
(d)21996mm.
19. Over all width of ICF/RCF coach is ?
 (a)3251mm
(b) 3250mm
(c)3245mm
(d)3991mm
20. The maximum wheel gauge of passenger BG coaching stock is ?
(a)1602mm
(b)1601mm
(c)1603mm
(d)1600mm
21. The height from rail level of ICF/RCF coach is- ?
(a)3886mm
(b) 4025mm
(c)3991mm
(d)3251mm
22. The minimum wheel gauge of passenger BG coaching stock is ?
(a)1602mm
(b)1601mm
(c)1603mm
(d)1599mm
23. How many emergency windows are provided in AC ICF/RCF coaches?
a) Two
(b)three
(c)four
(d)five
24. What do you mean by FRP?
(a)Fiber reconstruction panel
(b) Fiber reinforced plastic
(c) First reduction plastic
(d) fine reinforced panel
25. From where is the weight of the body transferred on trolley in an ICF coach?
a) Journal
(b)Wheel
(c)Side bearer
(d)Dashpot
26. The full form of AR
a) Axle on road
(b)Axle reservoir
(c)Auxiliary reservoir
(d) None of the above
27. The full form of BP
a) By pass
(b)Brake pipe
(c)Bent pipe
(d) None of the above
28. Full form of BC-
a) Brake control
(b)Beside coach
(c)Brake cylinder
(d) Branch cylinder
29. Transportation code of the ladies compartment is ?
a) X
(b)Z
(c)Y
(d)L
30. What is the Transportation code of second class fitted with self generating
electrical equipment?
a) SG
(b)GS
(c)GY
(d)GSD
31. The expanded name of PEAV is
a) Power energy alarm valve
(b) Passenger emergency alarm valve
(c) Passenger entrance alarm valve
d)Passenger emergency Application valve
32. The full name of ACP is-
a) Air condition pipe
b) (B) Air cooler pipe
 c) Alarm chain-pulling
d) Air cylinder piston
33. The full name of PEASD is-
(a)Passenger emergency alarm shutdown
(b) Passenger emergency alarm signal device
(c) Passenger entrance admission signal device
(d) Passenger emergency admission signal device
34. Of which brake van is the quick coupling an important part?
a) BVZT
(b)BVZX
(C)BVZC
(d)BVZM
35. What is the Transportation code of inspection carriage (Administrative)?
a) AR
(b)CR
(c)IC
(d)RA
36. What is the length over Headstock of the BOXN wagon?
(a)9774mm
(b)9784mm
(c)9777mm
(d)9848mm
37. Tare weight of the BOXN wagon is
(a)22.37 tons
(b)22.47 tons
(c) 23.80 tons
(d)24.80 tons
38. Tare weight of the BRN wagon is-
(a)25.2 tons
(b)24.4 tons
(c)23.80 tons
(d)24.80 tons
39. What is the length over couplers of the BOXN wagon?
(a)10713mm
 (b)10813mm
(c)11002mm
(d)10100mm
40. What is the length over couplers of the BCN wagon?
a) 15400mm
b)15443mm
c)15429mm
d)15563mm
41. What is the length over couplers of the BRN wagon?
(a)14645mm
(b)14564mm
(c)14332mm
(d)14463mm
42. Gross load of the BOXN wagon is-
(a)78.92t
(b)81.28t
(c)86.78t
(d)88.81t
43. Gross load of the BRN wagon is-
(a)78.92t
(b)81.28t
(c)81.3t
(d)82.4t
44. Overall height of BOBR wagon from rail level is-
(a)3735 mm
(b)3998mm
(c)4324mm
(d)4532mm
45. Tare weight of the BCN wagon is ?
(a)22.47tons
(b)25.37tons
(c)27.20 tons
(d)27.80tons
46. Transportation codes of the pantry car is ?
 a) BC
(b)PC
(c)WCB
(d)CD
47. C-Class ODC shall be moved during ?
a) Daylight
(b)Day-nighttime
(c) Only nighttime
(d) None of the above
48. The full form of CR is-
a) Central Reservoir
(b) Cylindrical reservoir
(c) Control reservoir
(d) None of the above
49. What is the frequency of schedule-A for coaching stock?
a) One month+1day
b) one month+3days
c) one month+5days
d) one month+7days
50. Which of the following stock does not have the ROH
frequency of 24 months?
a) BCCNR
(b)BOXN
(C)BOXNLW
(d)BOBRN
51. Coaching stock accident involving human life enquiry by?
a) PCME
(b)CRS
(c)DRM
(d) Sr.DME
52. What defect is detecting UST test?
a) Internal Cracks
(b)External cracks
(c)Air Blow cracks
 (d) None of the above
53. What is Codal life of steel bodied coaches (Including dining / pantry cars)
a)35years
(b)18years
(c)15years
(d) 25years
54. What are the essential requirements for running trains at 120kmph/130kmph?
i. All coaches should be ICF all coil type
i. All coaches should be fitted with 16 T bogie
ii. All coaches should be maintained as per technical pamphletC-7807
a) I&2
(b)2&3
(c)1&3
d) all the above
55. As per board’s guidelines, how much maintenance time should be given to a 24 coach
length trains during primary maintenance?
a) 4hrs
(b)6hrs
(c) between 4-6hrs
(d) 8hrs
56. What is the periodicity of ROH for BOXN wagons?
(a)24months
(b)12months
(c)36months
(d) 18months
57. What is the periodicity of POH for newly built BOXN wagons?
a) 42months
(b)48months
(c)36months
(d) 72 months
58. Codal life of light utilization categories of coaches is ?
a) 35years
(b)40years
(c)45years
 (d) 30years
59. The intensive cleaning of any coach is carried out after an interval of ?
a) 3months
(b)1 month
(c)6months
(d) 8months
60. What is the interval for cleaning coach water tank?
a) 15days
(b)25days
(c)1 month
(d) 2months
61. What is the periodicity for the POH of any OCV attached to a passenger train?
(a)9months
(b)12months
(c)18months
(d) 24 months
62. What shall be the periodicity for POH for a coach attached to mail/express train?
a) 9months
(b)12months
(c)18months
(d) 24months
63. What shall be the periodicity of POH of PCV attached with any train other than mail /
express train?
(a)9months
(b)12months
(c)18months
(d) 24months
64. What is the periodicity of POH of departmental coaches except ART/ARME?
(a)24months
(b)36months
(c)42months
(d) 60months
65. What is the periodicity for cleaning of carpet of AC compartments?
a) 2months
 (b)1month
(c)15days
(d) 3months
66. Rehabilitation of coaching stock (MLR) is carried out between-
(a)10-12years
(b)12-15 years
(c)15-18 years
(d) 18-20years
67. Cost of Mid Life Rehabilitation of coaching stock is-
a) 15% of the total cost
(b) 20% of the total cost
c) 25% of the total cost
(d) 35% of the total cost
68. AT what interval, the IOH of a BG coach is carried out?
a) 1month±3days
(d)3months±3days
(c) 6months±7days
(d) 9 months+30days
69. What is the interval of schedule ‘A’ examination of acoach?
a) 1 month±3days
(d)2months±3 days
(c) 3 months±6days
(d) none of the above
70. What is the interval of schedule ‘B’ examination of a coach?
a) 1 month±3 days
(b) 2 months±3 days
(c) 3 months±7days
(d) none of the above
71. What is the interval of cleaning/flushing of overhead water tank?
a) every trip
(b)every month
(c) every3months
(d) every 6months
72. The revised maximum payloads of NMG coaches are ?
 (a)7.39t
(b)8.23t
(c)9.2t
(d) 10.3t
73. At what interval the IOH of Shatabdi coaches is carried out?
(a)12 months at Depot
(b) 9 months at Workshop
(c) 9 months at Depot
(d) none of the above
74. A toilet in which biological degradation of human waste by inoculums takes place ,is
called a
a) Vacuum Toilet
(b) Control Discharge Toilet
(c)Bio-Toilet
(d) None of the above
75. Under which schedule testing& calibration of the pressure gauge is carried out?
a) Every6months
(b)IOH
(c)A-Schedule
(d) B-Schedule
76. Under which schedule is single car test is carried out?
a) IOH
(b)A-schedule
(c)B-schedule
(d)none
77. POH periodicity of DV of ?
a) 3 years or 8 lakh kms whichever is earlier
b) 5 years or 6 lakh kms whichever is earlier
c) 4 years or 6 lakh kms whichever is earlier
d) 4 years or 4 lakh kms whichever is earlier
78. After which interval the roof leakage in all ICF coach checked?
(a)1month
(b)2months
(c)3 months
 (d) 6months
79. What is the interval of inspecting the side bearer oil level?
a) 1month
(b)25days
(c)20days
(d) 10days
80. What is the interval of checking the dash pot oil in mail /express train?
a) 15days
(b)25days
(c)1month
(d) 2months
81. Under which schedule, the over hauling and testing of alarm chain apparatus is
carried out ?
a) A schedule
(b)B schedule
(c)C schedule
(d) special schedule
82. In Bio-Toilet human waste is converted
(a)Fumes and gas
(b) Water and Gas
(c) Water and fumes
(d)Sublimation
83. What is the periodicity of the schedule D2 for all types of LHB coaches?
a) 1 month± 3 days
(b) 3 monthly ±15 days
(c) 6 monthly±15days
(d) yearly± 30days
84. What is the periodicity of the SS-I schedule of all type of LHB coaches?
a) yearly±15days/ 6 lakhs Kms earned whichever is earlier
b) Threemonths±15days/ 4 lakhs Kms earned whichever is earlier
c) six months±15days/ 6 lakhs Kms earned whichever is earlier
d) 18 months ± 30 days/ 6 lakhs kms earned whichever is earlier
85. What is the periodicity of the SS-2 schedule for all type of LBH coaches?
a) 36 months /12lakhs km earned whichever is earlier
 b) (b) 24 months / 12lakhs km earned whichever is earlier
c) Six months±30days / 12lakhs km earned whichever is earlier
d) yearly±60days / 12lakhs km earned whichever is earlier
86. First POH periodicity for the newly built BLC containers wagon is ?
a) 4.5years
(b) 5.5 years
(c) 6.0years
(d)6.5years
87. The BOXN bogie is designed for an axle load of–
(a)20.50t
(b)20.80t
(c)20.30t
(d)20.10t
88. POH periodicity of BG brake van is-
a) 3.5years
(b) 2.0years
(c)6.0years
(d) 3.5years
89. What time relaxation period has been given to a loaded BOXN wagon for sending for
POH?
a) After15days
(b) After30days
(c) Before30 days
(d) Before 15days
90. What time relaxation of period has been given it an empty BOX wagon for sending
for POH?
a) Before 15 days
(b) After 30 days
(c) Before 30 days
(d) Before 15 days
91. What do you mean by PME in connection with goods stock?
a) Premedical examination
b) Pre maintenance examination
c) Periodical maintenance examinations
 d) Power mechanical equipment
92. What do you mean by CC rakes?
(a) Constant contact pad
(b) close circuit rake
(c) complete coal rake
(d) both B and C
93. Dirt collector should be cleaned in case of Wagons.
a) at the time of ROH
(b)2months
(c)6months
(d) 3months
94. ROH interval in BTPN tank wagon is…….
(a)16months
(b) 20 months
(c)18months
(d) 24months
95. What is the thickness of roof sheet in ICF coach?
(a)2.1mm
(b)1.9mm
(c)1.8mm
(d)1.6mm
96. Thickness of coach flooring Ply is….
(a)12mm
(b)16mm
(c)19mm
(d)22mm
97. Thickness of compare Ply provided in floor sheet is…….
(a)9.0mm
(b)11.0mm
(c)13.0mm
(d)16.0mm
98. What is the diameter of compression tube under lavatory portion?
(a)85.0mm
(b)80.0mm
 (c)65.0mm
(d)70.0mm
99. Thickness of side wall sheet of ICF/RCF coach is……….
a) 1mm
(b)3mm
(c)2mm
(d) 4mm
100. Thickness of trough floor of ICF/RCF coaches is….
a) 1mm
(b)3mm
(c)5mm
(d) 7mm
101. Sole bar of ICF coaches consists of…….
a) Z section
(b)I section
(c)Y section
(d) U section
102. Which type of brake blocks are used in bogie mounted brake system?
a) L-type
(b)K-type
(c)Cast iron
(d) Sand Casting
103. Which of the following statement is not true?
a) Sand casting brake blocks can be provided with bogie mounted air brake
coach under certain conditions
b) Fitment of K-type high friction composite brake block should only be ensured
in modified brake should heads, meant for the fitment of said brake block.
c) Composite brake blocks having lug at their top and bottom (L-type) should
not be fitted in modified brake shoe heads, this will cause uneven wear of
brake block and will not fulfill the requirements of bogie mounted airbrake.
d) Mixing of levers and curved profile pull rods for non AC coaches (13 T
bogies) and AC coaches (16T bogies) should be restricted as the separate
design components have been introduced in BMBC stock for 13T and
16Tcoaches.
104. Name of the bacteria used in Bio-Toilet
a) Anaerobic Bacteria
b) Aerobic bacteria
c) Bio bacteria
d) None of the above
105. Which of the following can be degraded by anaerobic bacteria
(a) Acids
(b)Anti Acids
(c) Detergents
(d)Bases
106. Which of the following statements is true in case of anaerobic bacteria?
(a) It can survive without oxygen
(b) It can survive without feed
(c) It can double its population in 30 min to16hrs.
(d) All the above
107. How many liters of Inoculums to be filled initially in Bio-Toilet
(a)100lit
(b)120lit
(c)150 lit
(d) 200lit
108. What level of dash pot oil is being maintained on the coaches at washing line?
(a)50mm
(b)60mm
(c)40mm
(d)20mm
109. What is the radius at the root of flange of a new wheel?
(a)22mm
(b)16mm
(c)18mm
(d)20mm
110. At what thickness of flange on a high speed coach, the wheel set will be
condemned?
(a)21mm
(b)24mm
 (c)22mm
(d)29mm
111. Thickness of flange is measured at what distance below the top of the flange?
(a)14mm
(b)16mm
(c)18mm
(d)13mm
112. At what radius at the root of flange the wheel set will be declared as having less
root radius?
(a)13mm
(b)15mm
(c)14.5mm
(d)16mm
113. Sharp flange will occur when the top radius at the corner towards the tread reduces
to?
a) 6mm
(b)5mm
(c)4mm
(d)4.5mm
114. oil is used in dash pot guide?
a) Servo RR-3
(b) servo line 68 (shell cornia oil)
c) Lithium base grease
(d) none of the above
115. What is the maximum limit of flat place in an ICF coach?
(a)60mm
(b)30mm
(c)50mm
(d)40mm
116. What is the colour of group B springs?
(a)Red
(b)Yellow
(c)Green
(d)Blue
117. While the coach is negotiating curve, the bogie can move around having the pivot
point at
a) Side Bearer centre
b) Centre –pivot
c) Centre of the axle
d) Dash pot springs
118. Why is two stage suspension preferred over single stage suspension?
(a) to keep un-sprung masses low
(b) to provide greater isolation of vibrations
(c) both A and B
(d) none of the above
119. Which of the following part is not provided in an ICF trolley?
a) Dashpot
(b) side bearer
(c)shock absorber
(d) drag link
120. Maximum permissible clearance between brake gear pin and bushes is –
(a)0.5mm
(b)1.0mm
(c)1.5mm
(d)2.0mm
121. In ICF coach the load transmission takes place through–
a) Center pivot
(b)bogie
(c) Side bearer
(d)wheel
122. The ‘L’ type composite brake block should be changed, if worn out beyond-
(a)10mm
(b)15mm
(c)20mm
(d)22mm
123. The ‘K’ type composite brake block should be changed, if worn out beyond-
(a)10mm
(b)12mm
 (c)20mm
(d)22mm
124. Standard Packing pieces of ICF coach are–
(a)13,14,26mm
(b)13,22,28mm
(c)13,26,48 mm
(d)22,26,32mm
125. The standard thickness of compensating rings is-
a) 2mm
(b)4mm
(c) 6 mm
(d) 8mm
126. What is the purpose of manipulator?
(a)For testing roller bearing
(b) For down hand welding
(c)For ROH
(d) For brake ringing adjustment
127. What is the distance between axle box top and axle box crown bolt called?
a) Clearance A
(b)Clearance B
(c)clearance C
(d) None of the above
128. The top and bottom flange thickness of 16.25 tons axle load bogie is-
(a)14mm
(b)16mm
(c)15mm
(d) 20mm
129. Initially the 16.25 tons axle load bogie is used in coaches only?
a) WGS
(b)AC
(c)WGSCN
(d) Non AC
130. Axle load capacity generator (WLLRM) coach is ?
a) 16tons
 (b)16.25tons
(c)15tons
(d) 20.30tons
131. The top and bottom flange thickness of 13 tons load bogie is ?
(a)14mm
(b)12mm
(c)15mm
(d) 20mm
132. 13 tons axle load bogies are used in coaches?
a)PVH
(b)AC
(c)Power car
(d) Non AC
133. What is the size of direct mounted roller bearing journal of ICF bogie?
(a) 125X111mm
(b) 120X113.5mm
(c) 125X130mm
(d) 130X100mm
134. Condemning flange thickness in a high speed ICF coach is-
a) 14mm
b)13mm
(c)22mm
(d) 10mm
135. Lateral movements of wheels controlled by
a) axle guide
b) journal center
c) roller bearing
d) dashpot
136. Bogie wheel base of ICF/RCF all coil bogies are–
a) 2896 mm
b) 2986mm
c) 2886 mm
d) 2997mm
137. What is the new wheel diameter of ICF/RCF coach is–
 a) 910mm
b) 915 mm
c) 930 mm
d) 925mm
138. Min shop issue size of ICF solid wheel is a-
a) 837 mm
b) 870mm
c) 854 mm
d) 846mm
139. Flange thickness of new BG wheel coach is–
a) 28mm
b) 28.5mm
c) 29.5mm
d) 27.5mm
140. Condemning flange thickness of other than super fast BG wheel is–
a) 28mm
b) 20mm
c) 16mm
d) 14mm
141. What is the frequency for doing sample testing of effluent of Bio-Toilet?
a) 100 days
b) 90 days
c) 180 days
d) 120days
142. Condemning height of flange on thread on BG wheel is–
(a)30mm
(b)32mm
(c)34mm
(d) 35mm
143. To disinfect the discharged water which of the following is provided in Bio-Toilet.
a) Chlorine tablet
b) KMn4 Tablet
c) Any of the above
d) None of the above
144. Total length of axle is–
(a)2310+0.5/-0.0mm
(b) 2316+0.5/-0.0mm
(c)2318+0.5/-0.0mm
(d) 2320+0.5/-0.0mm
145. On ICF journal, a taper should not exceed–
(a) 0.010/0.015mm
(b) 0.015/0.010mm
(c) 0.010/0.025mm
(d) none
146. On ICF journal, out of roundness (ovality) must not exceed-
(a) 0.010/0.015mm
(b) 0.015/0.010mm
(c) 0.015/0.020mm
(d) none
147. What is the capacity of equalizing stays used in shatabdi express?
a) 22tons
b) 20tons
c) 16tons
d) 14tons
148. The clearness between pin and bushes should not exceed
a) 1mm
b) 0.5mm
c) 1.5mm
d) none
149. What is amount of the oil per side bearer in ICF coaches?
(a) 1.2lts
(b) 1.6lts
(c) 2.5lts
d) 2.2lts
150. With which component of the trolley, the lateral longitudinal guides of ICF bogie
are mounted?
(a) dashpot
(b) side bearer
 (c) CBC
(d) spring
151. What is the distance between side bearer of ICF coach?
(a)1560mm
(b)1590mm
(c)1600 mm
d) 1610mm
152. What types of brake blocks are used in coaching stock?
a) L type
b) K type
c) CI type
d) All types
153. In released position, the gap between brake block and wheel is
a) 3mm
b) 4mm
c) 5 mm
d) 7mm
154. What is the oil level in dashpot?
(a)50mm
(b)40 mm
(c)75mm
(d) 90mm
155. What is the amount of oil per dash pot in 40- mm depth in modified guide
arrangement?
(a) 1.6 lts
(b) 2.5lts
(c) 2.2lts
(d) 1.9lts
156. In ICF & RCF bogies, the total height of primary spring and compensating spring
should not exceed-----
(a)285mm
(b)290mm
(c)295mm
(d) 300mm
157. The minimum clearance between the axle box lugs and their safety straps is-
(a)36mm
(b)40 mm
(c)44mm
(d) 43mm
158. The crown clearance “A” between the axle box crown and their bogie frame of
GS,SLR, SCN, VPH, coaches is-
(a)40±2mm
(b)43+0/-3 mm
(c)42±0/4mm
(d) 45±2mm
159. In WGACCW and WGACCN coaches, the crown clearance between the axle box
crown and the bogie frame is-
(a)30±2mm
(b)30±5mm
(c) 27+0/-3 mm
(d) 25±0/3mm
160. What is the bolster weight of ICF bogie?
(a)0.234t
(b)0.400t
(c)0.486 t
(d) 0.513t
161. How many holes are provided in the guide cap in ICF/RCF bogie?
(a)5
(b)7
(c)9
(d)11
162. What is the diameter of guide cap hole in ICF/RCF bogie?
a) 4mm
b) 3mm
c) 5 mm
d) 7mm
163. Center pivot pin does not transit–
(a) Horizontal load
 (b) attractive force
(c) Braking force
d) vertical force
164. New dimension of side bearers wearing plate is–
(a)10 mm
(b)12mm
(c)14mm
(d) 16mm
165. Condemning size of side bearer wearing plate is–
(a)10mm
(b)9mm
(c)8.50 mm
(d) 7.50mm
166. Dimension of a new side bearer wearing piece is–
(a)45 mm
(b)44mm
(c)43mm
(d) 42mm
167. What is the condemning size of side bearer wearing piece?
(a)45mm
(b)44mm
(c)43mm
(d) 42mm
168. Length of the anchor link is
(a)445±1mm
(b)450±1mm
(c)451±1mm
(d) 455±1mm
169. Which mechanism is provided to control the speed of the coach by transferring the
braking force from brake cylinder to the wheel thread?
a) brake rigging
b) pushrod
c) anchor link
d) brake cylinder
170. New size of hanger block of BSS hanger is–
(a) 9.5 mm
(b) 10.5mm
(c) 8.5mm
(d) 9mm
171. What is the wear limit of hanger block of BSS hanger?
(a)1.0mm
(b)2.0mm
(c)1.5mm
d) 3.0mm
172. Wear limit of BSS brackets is–
(a)0.5mm
(b)1mm
(c)1.5mm
d) 2mm
173. Longitudinal gauge for BSS bracket of 13 –t bogie is–
a) 1400±1 mm
(b)1300±1mm
c) 1500±1mm
d) 1450±01mm
174. Longitudinal gauge for BSS bracket of 16.25-t bogie is–
(a)1400±1mm
(b)1500±01mm
(c)14500±01mm
(d) 13000±01mm
175. Diagonal gauge for bracket of 13 t bogie is–
(a)2687±1mm
(b)2573±1mm
(c)2159±1mm
(d) 2159±1mm
176. Diagonal gauge for BSS bracket of 16.25 t bogie is–
(a)2573±1mm
(b)2687±1mm
(c)2629±1 mm
 (d) 3612±1mm
177. Longitudinal gauge for axle guide of 13 t bogie–
(a)570±1 mm
(b)580±1mm
(c)590±1 mm
(d) 595±1mm
178. Longitudinal gauge for axle guide of 16.25 t bogie–
(a)580±1mm
(b)570±1mm
(c)590±1 mm
(d) 575±1mm
179. Diagonal gauge for axle guide of 13 t and 16.25 t bogie is–
(a)3912±1mm
(b)3812±1mm
(c)3712±1 mm
(d) 3612±1mm
180. Distance between BSS bracket and adjacent axle guide of 13 t bogie is–
(a)463±1 mm
(b)453±1mm
(c)455±1 mm
(d) 413±1mm
181. Distance between BSS bracket and adjacent axle guide of 16.25 t bogie is–
(a)463±1mm
(b)453±1mm
(c)455±1 mm
(d) 413±1mm
182. Inside diameter of anchor link silent block in is–
(a)25 mm
(b)30mm
(c)32mm
(d) 35mm
183. Outer diameter of anchor link silent block is–
(a)85.5mm
(b)87.5mm
 (c)90.5mm
(d) 91.5mm
184. Diameter for new pins for 16.25 t load bearing capacity equalizing stay is
(a)31(+05/-0.2mm)
(b)33(+0.5/-0.3mm)
(c) 35±1.0 mm
(d) 30±1.0mm
185. Diameter for new pins for 13 t axle load bearing capacity equalizing stay is–
(a)31±1.0mm
(b)25±1.0mm
(c)24+0.2/-0.1mm
(d) 20±0.51mm
186. All the hangers should be tested to the tensile load of-
(a)10t
(b)8t
(c)7t
(d) 6.5t
187. Inside distance between horizontal bearing arms of BSS hanger is–
(a)374mm
(b)378mm
(c)381 mm
(d) 384mm
188. Thickness of vertical arm of BSS hanger is–
(a)20.05mm
(b)25.5 mm
(c)30.5mm
(d) 23.5mm
189. Horizontal bearing surface of BSS hanger is–
(a)42 mm
(b)44mm
(c)45mm
(d) 48mm
190. The maximum diametrical clearance between the pins and bushes is–
(a)1.0mm
 (b)1.5 mm
(c)1.2mm
(d) 1.4mm
191. The maximum diametrical clearance between the lower spring seat and guide bush
should not exceed-
(a)1.4mm
(b)1.5mm
(c)1.6mm
d) 2.0mm
192. Minimum clearance between the lugs and bottom safety straps is–
(a)40 mm
(b)42mm
(c)45mm
d) 48mm
193. Weight of the AC ICF bogie is–
(a)12.80t
(b)480 t
(c)6.2t
(d) 7.22t
194. Length of the brake block hanger from center to center is–
(a)235±0.5mm
(b)238±1mm
(c)236±1 mm
(d) 224±1mm
195. In which type of brake system external slake adjuster has been eliminated?
a) BMBC
b) UMBS
c) BMBS&UMBS
d) none
196. How many brake cylinders are fitted in an ICF under slug brake system?
(a)4
(b)2
(c)1
(d)none
197. What is the bogie leverage ratio of WGACCW coach?
(a)1.14:2
(b)1.5:5
(c)1.7:5
(d)1.10:1
198. Wear limit of equalizing stay pins is–
a) upto1.0mm
b) upto1.5mm
c) upto2.0mm
d) none
199. Between which of the components the equalizing stay rod is fitted?
(a)SAB head to control rod
(b) Bolster and lower spring plank
(c) bolster and bogie transoms
(d) none
200. Where is anchor link fitted in bogie?
a) bolster and bogie transom
b) bolster stay rod and plank
c) equalizing stay rod and plank
d) none
201. The color code of helical spring of ICF bogie is–
a) yellow, blue, green
b) Yellow, red, green
c) White, blue, green
d) White ,red, green
202. What type of axle guidance arrangement is used in ICF/RCF bogie?
(a) oil clamping
(b) telescopic axle guide with oil damping
(c) vertical oil damping
(d) Pneumatic axle guide
203. Between which components is crown clearance “A” measured?
a) Between bolster and side frame
b) Between anchor ling and primary suspension
c) Between axle box crown and the crown bolt
 d) none
204. One of the functions of anchor links is–
a) to join bolster and side frame
b) to prevent rational movement of bolster
c) to connect with upper plank and lower plank
d) none
205. With which load is primary spring checked?
(a)3tons
(b)4tons
(c)3.5tons
(d) 3.8tons
206. What is the free height of 13 tons bolster spring?
(a)385 mm
(b)415mm
(c)405 mm
(d) 420mm
207. Free height of 16.25 tons AC coach bolster spring is–
(a)385mm
(b)390mm
(c)400mm
(d) 410mm
208. What is the free height of 16.25 tons or AC coach axle box spring-
(a)360mm
(b)365mm
(c)375mm
(d) 380mm
209. What the free height non AC coach or 13 t axle boxes Spring?
(a)355mm
(b)360 mm
(c)367 mm
(d) 370mm
210. What is the inside length of a new bolster spring suspension hanger?
(a)380mm
(b)384 mm
 (c)386 mm
(d) 388mm
211. What is the new diameter of B.S.S hanger pin?
(a)35mm
(b)36mm
(c)37mm
(d) 39mm
212. What is the condemning diameter of B.S.S hanger pin?
(a)35mm
(b)35.5mm
(c)36mm
(d) 36.5mm
213. At what load is 16.25 tons AC coach bolster spring checked?
a) 4.8tonnes
b) 6.6tonnes
c) 8.6tons
d) 10.0tons
214. Free height of high capacity parcel van axle box spring is–
(a)375mm
(b)360mm
(c)337 mm
(d) 315mm
215. Free height of high capacity parcel van bolster coil spring is–
(a)375mm
(b)386mm
(c)393mm
(d) 286mm
216. What is the colour code of ‘A’ group coil springs?
a) Yellow
b) red
c) oxford blue
d) White
217. What is the colour code of ‘B’ group coils springs?
a) Oxford blue
 b) white
c) green
d) yellow
218. What is the colour code of ‘C’ group coils springs?
(a)oxford blue
(b)white
(c)green
(d)yellow
219. The capacity of hydraulic shock absorbers other than those power car is–
a) ± 600 kg at a speed of10cm/sec
(b) ± 500 kg at a speed of 10 cm/sec
(c) ± 45 kg at a speed of15 cm/sec
(d) None of the above
220. Double acting telescopic type shock absorbers are used in?
(a)Primary suspension
(b) secondary suspension
(c) primary & secondary suspension
(d)none
221. Which of the following is not the feature of a CASNUB bogie?
a) cast steel H frame bogie
b) floating bolster
c) primary suspension with long links and laminated springs
d) Wedge type load proportional friction snubbing
222. Which of the following is not the feature of a diamond frame bogie?
(a) only secondary suspension consisting of coil nest of four outer and four
innersprings
(b) floating bolster carrying center pivot and side bearer
(c) un damped suspension
(d) cylindrical roller bearing
223. Why are elastomeric pads provided?
a) to reduce wheel flange wear
b) to improve ride index
c) to increase buffer height
d) all the above
224. The composite brake block for air brake trains should be changed in the yard, when
its thickness reaches–
(a) 10 mm
(b) 15mm
(c) 20mm
d) 25mm
225. The Std. gap between wheel and brake block in BOX wagon is-
(a)8mm
(b)8.5mm
(c)6.25 mm
d) 6.8mm
226. Minimum pressure required for door operation on BOBR wagon is-
(a)5.0kg/cm²
(b)4.92kg/cm²
(c)3.9kg/cm²
(d)6.3kg/cm²
227. Which type of composite brake block is used in freight stock of under frame
mounted brake system?
(a)‘K’ type
(b)‘L’ type
(c)’KL’ type
(d) ‘modified K’ type
228. On RDSO recommendations, which material is now used in BVG brake vans in
place of wood dust bag?
a) Glass wool
b) Cotton wood
c) steel wood
d) none
229. Which RDSO’s technical pamphlet is referred to find instructions for maintenance
of BOX wagon?
(a) G-71
(b) G-73
(c) G-18
(d) G-16
230. Which RDSO’s technical pamphlet is referred to find instructions of BOXN wagon
fitted with CASNUB bogies and twin pipe air brake system?
(a)G-90
(b)G-70
(c)G-97
(d)WT-77
231. Which RDSO’s technical pamphlet is referred to find instructions for inspection and
maintenance of BOBR wagons?
(a)G-73
(b)G-78
(c)G-97
(d)G-16
232. 231 Which RDSO’s technical pamphlet is referred to find instructions for inspection
and maintenance of CASNUB bogies?
(a)G-97
b)G-86
(c)G-90
(d)G-95
233. Maximum diameter of wheel on tread on BOXN wagon is-
(a)1010mm
(b)1000mm
(c)950mm
(d)906mm
234. Minimum diameters of wheel on tread on BOXN wagon during service is
(a)1000mm
(b)960mm
(c)906mm
(d)915mm
235. The axle load of BOXN, BCN, BDN BOBR, BTPN wagon is-
(a)22.9t
(b)20.32t
(c)16.3t
(d)12.2t
236. The wheel gauge should be measured on-
 a) Off load condition
b) Loaded wagon
c) Either (a) or (b)
d) Empty wagon
237. The condemning diameter of wheel of BOY wagon is-
(a)990mm
(b)906mm
(c)813mm
(d) 860mm
238. The new diameter of wheel for BOY wagon is-
(a)990mm
(b)1090mm
(c)1000mm
(d)915mm
239. The condemning diameter of BOBR wheel is-
(a)815mm
(b)906mm
(c)990mm
(d)860mm
240. The condemning diameter of BTPN wheel is–
(a)813mm
(b)990mm
(c)906mm
(d)860mm
241. The radius at the root of the flange of new worn wheel profile is-
(a)14mm
(b)16mm
(c)18mm
(d)120mm
242. Permissible maximum flat surface on tread on other BG wagon are
(a)75mm
(b)60mm
(c)75mm
(d)70mm
243. The wheel gauge measures–
(a)the distance between the flanges of two wheels on same axle.
(b)the distance between dia and axle
(c)the distance between journal and bearings
(d)the distance between two wheels
244. Which of the following is an integrated portion of an axle?
(a)Cap
(b)roller bearing
(c) journal
d) none of these
245. Permissible thickness of CASNUB bogies composite brake block while leaving
yard is–
(a) 20 mm
(b) 10mm
(c) 9mm
(d) 8mm
246. What is the permissible variations in a group for load bearing & snubber spring?
(a) 2mm
(b) 3mm
(c) 94mm
(d) 5mm
247. What is the Std. thickness of brake block of BOXN wagon is–
(a)52mm
(b)54mm
(c)56mm
(d) 58mm
248. How many side frames are fitted in a CASNUB trolley/bogie?
(a)2
(b)1
(c)3
(d)nil
249. What is the new wheel diameter of CASNUB 22W retrofitted ?
(a) 1000mm
(b) 960mm
 (c) 956mm
(d) 946mm
250. What type of side bearers are fitted in a CASNUB 22W(M) bogie?
(a) CC type
(b) spring type
(c) roller type
(d) none of these
251. What type of side bearers are fitted in CASNUB 22W bogie?
a) CC type
(b)roller type
(c)EM type
(d) none of these
252. What type of pivot is used in a CASNUB 22W trolley?
a) IRS type
(b)spherical type
(c)other type
(d)none
253. What type of pivot is used in a CASNUB 22W(M), 22NL and other type of
CASNUB trolley?
(a)IRS type
(b) UIC spherical type
(c)outer type
(d)none
254. What is the nominal lateral clearance between side frame& bolster in
CASNUB22HS?
(a)18mm
(b)10mm
(c)25mm
(d) 22mm
255. What is the nominal lateral clearance between side frame & bolster in CASNUB
22W, 22WM, 22NL, 22NLB?
(a)16mm
(b)11mm
(c)18mm
 (d) 20mm
256. What is the nominal longitudinal clearance between side frame & adopter of
CANUB22W (M) bogie?
a) 5mm
(b)8mm
(c)10mm
(d) 12mm
257. What is the nominal longitudinal clearance between side frame & adopter of
CASNUB 22w (Retro) trolley
a) 2mm
(b) 4mm
(c) 6mm
(d) nil
258. What is the nominal lateral clearance between side frame & adopter of CASNUB
22NLB, 22HSbogie?
(a)18mm
(b)16mm
(c)22mm
(d)25mm
259. What is the standard inclination on wheel tread used in CASNUB bogie?
(a) 1in20
(b) 1in22
(c) 1in18
(d) 1 in25
260. What is the condemning wheel diameter in all CASNUB versions?
(a)916mm
(b)906mm
(c)936mm
(d)963mm
261. What the condemning dimensions of narrow jaw/wide Adopter thrust shoulder?
(a)0.4mm
(b)0.6mm
(c)0.7mm
(d)0.9mm
262. What is the lateral clearance between side frame & Axle box/adopter CASNUB
22w,22w(m)
(a)18mm
(b)16mm
(c)22mm
(d)25mm
263. What is the condemning/wear limit of narrow/wide jaw adopter crown lugs ?
(a) 2mm
(b)4mm
(c)6mm
(d)8mm
264. What is the dimensions of new wide jaw adopter crown lug?
(a)155m
(b)156mm
(c)154mm
(d)152mm
265. What is the dimension of new narrow jaw adopter crown lugs?
(a) 154.5mm
(b) 155.5mm
(c) 156.5mm
(d) 157.5mm
266. What is the wear limit of wide /narrow jaw adopter crown seat?
(a)2.5mm
(b)3.5mm
(c)4.5mm
(d)5.5mm
267. What is the dimension of new wide jaw adepter bore seat to crown seat?
(a)46.5mm
(b)47.5mm
(c)48.5mm
(d)49.5mm
268. What is the dimension of new narrow jaw adepter bore seat to crown seat?
(a)25.2mm
(b)26.2mm
 (c)28.5mm
(d)27.5mm
269. What is the dimension of new modified wide jaw adepter bore seat to crown seat?
(a)20.5mm
(b)25.5mm
(c)30.5mm
(d)35.5mm
270. Worm limit of wide jaw adepter bore seat to crown seat is–
a) 45mm
(b)247mm
(c)48mm
(d)49mm
271. Condemning limit of modified wide jaw adapter bore seat to crown seat is–
(a)25mm
(b)22mm
(c)27mm
(d)29mm
272. Condemning limit of narrow jaw adapter bore seat to crown seat is–
(a)20mm
(b)22.5mm
(c)22.7mm
(d)24.5mm
273. The condemning size of brake block of goods stock is–
(a)30mm
(b)10mm
(c)20mm
(d)15mm
274. Free camber of 10 plated laminated spring of BOX type wagon is–
(a) 47+6/-0mm
(b) 49mm
(c) 52mm
(d) 58mm
275. Nominal free height of inner spring of CASNUB bogie except to HS is –
(a)260mm
 (b)262mm
(c)264mm
(d)266mm
276. What is the nominal thickness of elastomeric pad of CASNUB bogie?
(a)49mm
(b)46mm
(c)48mm
(d)52mm
277. Condemning size of elastomeric pad for CASNUB bogie is–
(a)44mm
(b)43mm
(c)42mm
(d)40mm
278. Nominal dimension of side bearer rubber pad for CASNUB bogie is –
(a)114mm
(b)116mm
(c)118mm
(d)120mm
279. Condemning size of side bearer rubber pad for CASNUB bogie is –
a)11mm
b)110mm
(c)109mm
(d)108mm
280. IS ---spec of lubricant used to lubricant center pivot of the CASNUB trolley?
(a) IS:495
(b) Is;449
(c) IS:455
(d) None of above
281. New dimension of side frame anti – rotation lug for all CASNUB bogie is–
(a)520mm
(b)522mm
(c)524mm
(d)528mm
282. Which of the following is the maintenance manual of CASNUB bogie ?
 (a)G97
(b)G80
(c)G95
(d)G72
283. New pedestal crown for 22NL/NLB/HS CASNUB bogie is
(a)300mm
(b)320mm
(c)323mm
(d)330mm
284. Condemning dimension of side frame anti rotation lug for all CASNUB bogies is
(a)530mm
(b)522mm
(c)528mm
(d)524mm
285. Wear limit of pedestal side for CASNUB bogie is–
(a)1mm
(b)2mm
(c)4mm
(d) None of above
286. New dimension of all CASNUB bogie crown side is–
(a)151mm
(b)152mm
(c)154mm
(d)155mm
287. New dimension of 22W, 22W(M) CASNUB bogie pedestal side is –
(a)100mm
(b)105mm
(c)110mm
(d) None of above
288. New dimension of 22NL/NLB/HS CASNUB bogie pedestal side is-
(a)80mm
(b)85mm
(c)81mm
(d)82mm
289. Wear limit of pedestal crown roof for CASNUB bogie is–
(a)4mm
(b)5mm
(c)6mm
(d)3mm
290. New pedestal crown roof for 22W(M) CASNUB bogie is–
(a)310mm
(b)318mm
(c) 320mm
(d)322mm
291. Distance between new pedestal jaw (long) of CASNUB bogie is–
(a)230mm
(b)232mm
(c)234m
(d)236mm
292. Wear limit of pedestal jaw (long) of 22NL/NLB/HS CASNUB bogie is–
(a)2mm
(b)3mm
(c)4mm
(d)5mm
293. Distance between new pedestal jaw (short) of 22NL/NLB/HS CASNUB bogie is –
(a)182mm
(b)186mm
(c)188mm
(d)190mm
294. New dimension of pedestal jaw CASNUB 22W, 22W(Retro) bogie is–
(a)270mm
(b)272mm
(c)268mm
(d)190mm
295. New dimension of pedestal jaw for CASNUB 22W(M) bogie is –
(a)270mm
(b)274mm
(c) 278mm
 (d)290mm
296. Wear limit of crown sides for CASNUB bogie is-
(a)4.0mm
(b)3.0mm
(c)2.0mm
(d)5.0mm
297. New dimensions of bolster column inner gibs of all CASNUB bogies is –
(a)144mm
(b)136mm
(c)138mm
(d)132mm
298. Wear limit of bolster column inner gibs of all CASNUB bogie is –
(a)2.0mm
(b)5.0mm
(c)6.0mm
(d)8.0mm
299. New dimensions of over bolster land surface of all CASNUB bogie is–
(a)444mm
(b)446mm
(c)448mm
(d)450mm
300. New dimension of over rotation stop lugs of all CASNUB bogie is-
(a)516mm
(b)518mm
(c)520mm
(d)522mm
301. Wear limit of bolster land surface of all CASNUB bogie is–
(a)2.0mm
(b)3.0mm
(c)5.0mm
(d)7.0mm
302. Wear limit of bolster rotation stop lug of all CASNUB bogie is–
(a)1.0mm
(b)2.0mm
 (c)3.0mm
(d)5.0mm
303. Nominal free height of Snubber spring of CASNUB bogie except 22 HS is –
(a)260mm
(b) 270mm
(c)282mm
(d)294mm
304. Nominal free height of inner spring of CASNUB 22 HS bogie is–
(a)261mm
(b)252mm
(c)243mm
(d)246mm
305. Nominal free height of Snubber spring of CASNUB 22 HS bogie is –
(a)291mm
(b)294mm
(c)296mm
(d)293mm
306. New dimension of bolster column outer gibs of CASNUB bogie is –
(a)224mm
(b)234mm
(c)244mm
(d)246mm
307. New dimension of bolster column outer gibs of CASNUB 22Hs bogie is
(a)232mm
(b)236mm
(c)241mm
(d)251mm
308. Wear limit of bolster column outer gids of CASNUB bogie is –
(a)2.0mm
(b)3.0m
(c)5.0mm
(d)6.0mm
309. New dimension of friction shoes wedge block of CASNUB bogie is–
(a)60mm
 (b)62mm
(c)63mm
(d)61mm
310. Condemning limit of friction shoes wedge block of CASNUB bogie is–
(a)54mm
(b)56mm
(c)58mm
(d)8.0mm
311. Wear limit of vertical surface in friction shoes wedge block of CASNUB bogie is –
(a)5.0mm
(b)6.0mm
(c)7.0mm
(d)8.0mm
312. Wear limit of slope surface in friction shoes wedge block of CASNUB bogie is –
(a)1.0mm
(b)2.0mm
(c)3.0mm
(d)4.0mm
313. Normal free height of outer spring of CASNUB bogie is except HS
(a)260mm
(b)262mm
(c) 264mm
(d)266mm
314. What type of side bearer is fitted in CASNUB 22HS trolley?
(a) Metal CC type
(b) Spring loaded CC type side bearer & PU type
(c) Roller type
(d) None of the above
315. What shall be tolerance permitted between door centerline to door hinge in a new
wagon?
(a)+2/-1mm
(b)+2.5/-1.5mm
(c)±1.5mm
(d)±2.5mm
316. The BOXN bogie is designed for an axle load of ?
(a)22.1t
(b)20.3t
(c)21.9t
(d)16.8t
317. The primary lock clearance of BOBR door is–?
(a)3mm
(b) 5mm
(c)7mm
(d)4mm
318. Which of the following design improvements have been made in ICF coaches to
avoid corrosion?
(a)Provision of elongated holes between pillars in side wall.
(b)Tubular structure below the lavatories.
(c)Provision of teakwood floor boards below the lavatories floor.
(d)All of the above
319. Which of the following step have helped in controlling corrosion in ICF coaches?
i. Skirting of decolite in the compartment and lavatory.
ii. sole bar in doorways strengthened by box section.
iii. Larger opening at the bottom of body doors with removable inside
panel for inspection.
iv. All of the above.
320. Which of the following are helpful in preventing the corrosion in an ICF coach?
(a)Increased size of drain hole on trough floors (13mm to 29mm)
(b)End lavatories in all layouts.
(c)Stainless steel trough floors.
(d)All of the above
321. Based on Indian Railways Experience with operation of double headed trains, an
updated Design of enhanced screw coupling was evolved. The ultimate strength of
enhanced Coupling is
(a)60t
(b)112t
(c)71.12t
(d)36
322. What is the working capacity of enhanced capacity screw coupling?
(a)36.0t
(b)32t
(c) 28t
(d)38.3t
323. When is transition coupling / baby coupling used?
(a) For connecting a loco with a wagon
(b) To connect diesel loco with an electric loco
(c) To detach container wagons
(d) For connecting CBC and screw coupling
324. What is the purpose of draft gear?
(a)To provide telescopic features in the coach.
(b)Offers considerable resistance to longitudinal crushing loads.
(c)To work as a cushion to smoothen the shocks during impact between
vehicles.
(d)To transmit attractive force without shock.
325. What is the purpose of buffing gear?
(a)To provide telescopic features in the coach.
(b)Offers considerable resistance to longitudinal crushing loads.
(c)to work as a cushion to smoothen the shocks during impact between
vehicles
(d)To transmit attractive force without shock
326. Through which arrangement the attractive / braking force from the coach are
transferred to bogie?
(a)Anchor link arrangement
(b) Draw gear arrangement
(c)Buffing arrangement
(d)Pivot pin arrangement
327. In ICF coach, replace Headstock if the thickness is reduce more than ?
(a)2mm
(b)8mm
(c)4mm
(d)6mm
328. Where has been distraction tube provided in ICF/RCF coaches?
 (a)Between main head stock and auxiliary head stock
(b)Outer main headstock
(c) with auxiliary headstock
(d)None of the above
329. The maximum standard buffer height above rail level to buffer is
(a)1085mm
(b)1100mm
(c)1105mm
(d)1030mm
330. The minimum standard buffer height above rail level to center of buffer is –
(a)1105mm
(b)1145mm
(c)1115mm
(d)1030mm
331. The diameter of buffer plunger face of ICF coaches is–
(a)552mm
(b)457mm
(c)493mm
(d)510mm
332. What is the distance between two buffers at one end?
(a)1952mm
(b)1976mm
(c)1956mm
(d)1992mm
333. What is the maximum buffer plunger stroke in mm?
(a)127.0mm
(b)129.0mm
(c)131.0mm
(d)133.0mm
334. The ICF buffer plunger is made of–
a) Mild steel
(b)Cost iron
(c) Cast steel
(d)Aluminum Alloy
335. What is the slot of draft key in drawbar hook in ICF coach?
(a)36.0mm
(b)37.0mm
(c)38.0mm
(d)39.0mm
336. The draw &buffing force transmission in coach is–
a) Center pivot
(b)Bogie
(c) side bearer
(d)wheel
337. What is Arc radius of buffer face ?
(a)1505mm
(b) 1905mm
(c)1305mm
(d)1205mm
338. Nominal diameter of draw gear pin is ?
(a)25.0mm
(b)30.0mm
(c)31.0mm
(d)36.0mm
339. The projection of the shoulder on the draw hook from the Headstock is with in–?
(a)80to100mm
(b)92to110mm
(c)92to120mm
(d)100to120mm
340. Enhance capacity of buffer specification No: IRS-M 10 are fitted in all BG
maintenance coach is-
(a)910kg.m
(b)1030kg.m
(c)1210kg.m
(d)1290kg.m
341. Nominal thickness of buffer casing body wall is-
(a)9.50mm
(b)10.50mm
 (c)11.50mm
(d)13.50mm
342. What is wear limit of buffer casing body wall?
(a)2.50mm
(b)3.50mm
(c)4.50mm
(d)5.50mm
343. Maximum nominal thickness of buffer plunger tube wall is?
(a)4.0mm
(b)9.0mm
(c)13.0mm
(d)16.0mm
344. Maximum nominal thickness of plunger faceplate in ICF type buffer is–
(a)19.0mm
(b)22.0mm
(c)24.0mm
(d)26.0mm
345. Wear limit of plunger face plate in ICF type buffer is- ?
(a)9.0mm
(b)11.0mm
(c)12.0mm
(d)13.0mm
346. Wear limit of buffer plunger table wall in ICF type buffer is-
(a)2.0mm
(b)4.0mm
(c)6.0mm
(d)8.0mm
347. In buffer casing, the vertical distance of holes from centre of buffer is–
(a)60.3±0.2mm
(b)62.3±0.5mm
(c)59.3±0.2mm
(d)61±0.4mm
348. In buffer casing, the horizontal distance of holes from centre of buffer is-?
(a)163.5±0.2mm
 (b)169.3±0.4mm
(c)174.5±0.2mm
(d)176.3±0.2mm
349. What is the weakest link of the H type tight lock center buffer coupler?
a) draft gear
(b) knuckle
(c) lock
(d) yoke pin
350. How many auxiliary Headstocks are provided in an ICF shell?
(a)02
(b)03
(c)04
(d)08
351. Thickness of the auxiliary Headstock is-
(a)8/10mm
(b)12/15mm
(c)15/18mm
(d)none
352. Destruction tube is provided inside the-
(a)Buffer
(b)Headstock
(c) under sole bar
(d)None
353. The maximum difference in buffer height on same head stock is-
(a)59.0mm
(b)64.0mm
(c)69.0mm
(d)74.0mm
354. What type of draw gear is used in brake van goods(BVG)?
(a)Screw coupling
(b) CBC
(c)HT coupling
(d)NT coupling
355. Buffer center stiffener is provided between-
 (a) Main Headstock & auxiliary headstock
(b) Over main headstock
(c) End panel & sole bar
(d) none of the above
356. At present all new coaches are being manufactured with bogie mounted air brake
system and-?
(a) Enhance capacity drew gear
(b) Load sensing device
(c) Dual brake system
(d) None of the above
357. The maximum permissible buffer height above rail line to center of H/Stock under
loaded condition is- ?
(a)1105mm
(b)1145mm
(c)1115mm
(d)1030mm
358. Standard buffer projection from Headstock is-?
(a)650mm
(b)635mm
(c) 620mm
(d)660mm
359. Min permissible buffer projection from Headstock is- ?
(a)635mm
(b)600mm
(c)590mm
(d)584mm
360. Standard diameter of knuckle pivot pin is- ?
(a)50mm
(b)43mm
(c)41.28mm
(d)34mm
361. Permissible diameter of knuckle pivot pin is-?
(a)41mm
(b) 38mm
 (c)39.5mm
(d)40.5mm
362. Standard diameter of Clevis pin is-?
(a)35mm
(b)38mm
(c)39mm
(d)37mm
363. Permissible diameter of clevis pin is-?
(a)35.8mm
(b)38.5mm
(c)36.5mm
(d)37mm
364. Standard dimension of shank wear plate for AAR coupler is-?
a) 12mm
(b) 8mm
(c)6mm
(d)14mm
365. Standard dimension of distance between the nose of Knuckle and guard arm is–?
(a)140m
(b)150mm
(c)127 mm
(d)12mm
366. Wear limit of distance between the nose of knuckle and guard arm is–
(a)140mm
(b)155mm
(c)125mm
(d)130mm
367. For goods train, max. Buffer height from rail level is–
a) 1105mm
(b)1115mm
(c) 1015mm
(d)1100mm
368. The maximum permissible free slack in the draft gear in service is–
(a)35mm
 (b)30mm
(c) 25mm
(d)20mm
369. What is the weakest link of the center buffer coupler?
a) Knuckle
(b)Draft gear
(c) Lock
(d) yoke pin
370. The high capacity draft gears is–
a) MK- 20
(b)MK50
(c)CF21
(d)DF39
371. The high capacity of draft gears is–
a) RF 361
(b)RF-401
(c)RF-600
(d)RF-21
372. To Adjust buffer height for 930mm wheel diameter on BCN wagon except
CASNUB 22 w, packing piece used is–
(a)38mm
(b)37mm
(c)33mm
(d)32mm
373. What type of center buffer coupler used in Indian railway?
a) ARPT type
(b)AARP type
(c)AAR type
(d) ARPA type
374. What type of head and shank are used in AAR type center buffer coupler?
a) E & G type
(b)E & F type
(c)F&E type
(d) H&F type
375. The yield strength of knuckle of material AAR-M-201 Grade ‘C’ (STD) is-
(a)180t
(b)171t
(c) 142 t
(d) 132t
376. The yield strength of knuckle of material AAR-M-201 Grade ‘E’ (HT) is–
(a)180t
(b)171 t
(c)142t
(d) 132t
377. The yield strength of coupler body of AAR Grade ‘C’ (STD) is –
(a)180 t
(b) 169t
(c)179t (
d) 159t
378. The yield strength of coupler body of material AAR-M-211 Grade ‘E’ (HT) is-
(a)180t
(b)200 t
(c)205t
(d) 211t
379. The yield strength of the knuckle is 180 t compared to 132 t in standard coupler; the
draft capacity of HT coupler is –
a) 45% higher
(b) 36% higher
(c)22% higher
(d) 18% higher
380. The working strength of center buffer coupler is–
(a)100t
(b)120t
(c)140t
(d) 180t
381. The ultimate tensile strength of coupler body of AAR-M- 201&211 Grade ‘C’
(STD) is-
(a)300t
 (b)320t
(c)290t
(d) 270t
382. The ultimate tensile strength of coupler body of AAR-M-201&211Grade ‘E’(HT)is-
a) 408 t
(b)480t
(c)330 t
(d) 370t
383. The ultimate tensile strength of knuckle of AAR-M-201&211 Grade ‘C’ (STD) is –
(a)240 t
(b)250 t
(c)241t
(d) 251t
384. The ultimate tensile strength of knuckle of AAR-M-201&211 Grade ‘E’(HT) is-
(a)250t
(b)280t
(c)295t
(d) 305t
385. The conventional screw coupling has a proof load of–
(a)50.9t
(b)60.0t
(c)74.3t
(d) 40.3t
386. The working strength of center buffer coupler is–
(a)180t
(b)160t
(c)120t
(d) 80t
387. Which among the following buffer gear assemblies absorbs the buffer impact?
a) Buffer Spring
(b) Plunger
(c)Buffer Casting
(d)Spindle
388. 416. Material AAR-m-201&211 Grade ‘E’ coupler is called as- ?
 a) High Tensile
(b)Non-Tensile
(c)Standard
(d) None of the above
389. Clevis and Clevis pin are the part of ?
(a) Alliance-II coupler
(b) Non –transition coupler
(c) Transition coupler
(d) Draw bar
390. As per watering committee recommendations, what should be the ideal distance
between two consecutive watering stations on BG system?
(a)80-120Kms
(b)120-160kms
(c)200-240kms
(d) 160-200kms
391. As per watering committee recommendations, the rate of flow at the delivery end of
a hydrant should be more than?
a) 60Lts/min
(b)100 Lts/min
(c) 40Lts/min
(d) 20Lts/min
392. Which RDSO pamphlet is referred to find the description of water raising system to
SK - 86209 and instructions for filling water for air brake coaches?
(a)C-9009
(b)C-9011
(c) C-9103
(d)C-9105
393. Water tank capacity of ICF coach is-
a) 1600liters
(b)1800liters
(c)1500liters
(d) 2000liters
394. Under slung tank capacity of roof mounted AC coaches fitted with WRA system is-?
a) 1600 liters
 (b)1700liters
(c)1800liters
(d) 2000liters
395. Minimum air pressure required for WRA is-?
(a)0.35kg/cm²
(b)0.45 kg/cm²
(c)0.55kg/cm²
(d)0.65kg/cm²
396. How many non return valves are provided in ICF coach fitted with WRA system?
(a)03
(b)05
(c) 07
(d)08
397. Maximum air pressure required for WRA is-?
a) 0.35 kg/cm²
(b)0.55kg/cm²
(c)0.65kg/cm²
(d)0.75kg/cm²
398. Which of the following are the factors responsible for slow charging of B.P
.pressure?
(a) Leakage in B.P line for complete train more than 0.2kg/cm²/min
(b) Dirt/moisture in air supply resulting in the blockage of various
coaches/passage of DV
(c) Insufficient supply of air through compressor/loco
(d) All of the above
399. e-dimension in freight stock is between ?
(a)615-655mm
(b)350-400mm
(c)410-465mm
(d)555-575mm
400. During the process of charging , time required to raise CR pressure from 0 to
4.8kg/cm² is seconds.
a) 100-160sec
(b)60-100sec
 (c)280-340sec
(d)160-280sec
401. During testing, brake release time is found out by recharging BP pressure to
5kg/cm² and time taken to release BC pressure from 3.8 to 0.4 kg/cm². This should
be with in Seconds in freight stock?
a) 15-20sec;45-60sec
(b)5-10sec;20-30sec
(c)10-15sec;35-45sec
(d)20-25sec;60-75sec
402. While conducting Leakage Test, what is the prescribed leakage rate?
(a) It should not be more than0.14kg/cm²/Min
(b) It should not be more than0.7kg/cm²/Min
(c) It should not be more than0.4kg/cm²/Min
(d) it should not be more than0.2kg/cm²/Min
403. The test to know the reaction of DV to a very less reduction of BP pressure i.e.,
when BP pressure is reduced at the rate of 0.6kg/cm²in 6seconds is known as
(a) Sensitivity test
(b) Insensitivity test
(c) Brake release test
(d) Emergency braking test
404. The test to check that the brakes do not apply by reducing the pressure at The rate
of 0.3kg/cm² in 60 seconds is know as
(a)sensitivity test
(b) insensitivity test
(c) Brake release test
(d) Emergency braking test
405. Which item in C3W restricts the max. brake cylinder pressure to 3.8+01kgm/cm²?
a) A-controller
(b) u-controller
(c)limiting device
(d) Quick service valve
406. During testing what is the permissible leakage in FP &BP?
(a) 0.14 kg/cm²per minutes
(b) 03.kg/cm² per minute
 (c) 0.4 kg/ cm²per minutes
(d) 0.2kg/cm² per minute
407. Intermediate piece is used at which at which location in air brake system?
(a) Between DV &common pipe bracket
(b) between dirt collector & AR
(c) Between brake cylinder and trolley
(d) not used in an location
408. What is the reason for FP pressure rushing to BP pipe line?
a) Leakage in AR
b) DV defective
c)FP pipe leakage
d)NRV defective
409. what is the condition of the DV when its handle is in vertical position?
(a) Open condition
(b) Close condition
(c) Neutral condition
(d) Working condition
410. When is empty load box device put in loaded condition?
(a) When the load exceeds 42.5t
(b) When the gross weight exceeds 42.5t
(c) When the wagon is filled between 25-50% of its capacity
(d) When the wagon is filled more than half
411. What is the size of PEV choke?
(a) 4mm
(b) (b) 8mm
(c) (c)6mm
(d) (d)2mm
412. What is the train pipe dia /size of air brake goods stock?
(a)25mm
(b)32mm
(c)19mm
(d)35mm
413. What does the red needle of air flow indicator point out?
(a) Maximum leakage allowed in the system
 (b) Reference mark which shows initial trains leakage
(c) Current leakage in the system during run
(d) There is no such needle on the air flow indicator
414. How much leakage is allowed in a goods load as per AFI?
(a) Equal to number of wagon
(b) (b) Equal to half the number of wagon
(c)100 psi
(d) 25% more than the number of wagon
415. How will you identify brake blocks of K-type & L-type?
(a) K-type brake block having projected lug 15mm below the both end but the L-
type brake block Having projected portion at the both extreme ends
(b) L-type brake block having projected lug 21mm below the both ends but the k-
type brake block Having projected portion at the both extreme ends
(c) k-type brake block having projected lug 21mm below the both ends but
the L-type brake block Having projected portion at the both extreme
ends
(d) None of these
416. At which rate the reduction in BP pressure take place during sensitivity test of a
coach?
(a) 0.2 kg/cm² in 6second
(b) 0.1kg/cm² in 6 second
(c) 0.3kg/cm² in 6second
(d) 0.6kg/cm² in 6 second
417. What should be the maximum pressure drop in BP when the alarm chain is pulled
from a coach?
(a)0.1kg/cm²
(b)0.4kg/cm²
(c)0.2kg/cm²
(d)0.8kg/cm²
418. During insensitivity test what condition should be fulfilled to declare a DV is O.K.?
(a) At the reduction on BP pressure @ 0.6 kg/cm² in 60 seconds, brake should not
apply
(b) At the reduction on BP pressure @0.6 kg/cm² in 60 seconds, brake should
apply
 (c) At the reduction on BP pressure @0.3 kg/cm² in 60 seconds, brake should
apply
(d) At the reduction on BP pressure @0.3kg/cm² in 60 seconds, brake should
not apply
419. Which of the following are the advantages of Bogie Mounted Brake System over
conventional air brake system?
(a) The weight of the Bogie Mounted brake system is reduced by 492kg.
(b) Breaking distance for 18 coach rake at 110kmph for bogie mounted air
brake rake is less as compared to conventional air brake rake of the
same coach length.
(c) Number of pins and bushes have been reduced to 84 from 102.
(d) all of the above
420. Which of the following statement is not correct regarding the advantages of bogie
mounted brake system over conventional air brake system?
(a) Wear and tear of wheel set is increased as friction co-efficient of composite
brake block is 0.25 as compared to 0.9 for cast iron brake block
(b) In bogie mounted coaches, brake rigging force does not transmit to under
frames such shell body does not rattle
(c) Bogie mounted coaches require more maintenance as compared to
conventional air brake coaches.
(d) None of the above
421. Clearance measured between control rod head & barrel head face when the brake is
fully released, is known as
a) E-dimension
(b) C-dimension
(c) A-dimension
(d)H-clearance
422. It is the distance between projection tube end and mark on adjuster spindle. This
value denotes the total shortening capacity of adjuster i.e. capacity available for
adjustment by brake regulator, when all the brake blacks, pins & bushes are
new& manual adjustment of the brake gear corresponds to wheel diameter. What is
it known as?
a) E-dimension
(b) C-dimension
 (c) A-dimension
(d) Leverage ratio
423. Value of the a-dimension depends on………
i. Bogie leverage ratio ii. Number of bogies iii. No’s of SAB brake regulator iv.
Brake block clearances
(a) i,ii,iii
(b)i,ii,iv
(c)ii,iii,iv
(d) i,ii,iii,iv
424. Which of the following are the advantages of composite brake blocks over
conventional cast iron brake blocks?
(a) Reduced braking distance due to uniform co-efficient of friction
(b) Longer life due to reduced wear of composition brake blocks
(c) Reduced noise during braking
(d) All of the above
425. The other name of pilot valve is-?
(a) PESAD
(b) (b) PEASD
(c) (c)PDEAS
(d) (d)EPASD
426. Which RDSO pamphlet is used for finding instructions or inspection / maintenance
of air brake equipment on passenger coaches?
(a)C-7512
(b)C-7907
(c)C-8805
(d)C-8703
427. Which RDSO pamphlet is used as a Maintenance manual for IRSA-600 slack
adjuster?
(a)G-92
(b)G-97
(c)G-67
(d)G-94
428. For testing loco vacuum, Dimension of hole of the test plate is–
(a)6.0mm
 (b)8.0mm
(c)7.5mm
(d)8.5mm
429. Capacity of air reservoir (AR) of the coach is–
(a)150Lit
(b)200 Lit
(c)250Lit
(d) 300Lit
430. In twin pipe system, the time taken for releasing of the brake in goods stock is–
(a)45 to 60 sec
(b) 27 to30sec
(c)75 to80 sec
(d)120 to 140sec
431. In an air Brake Ac coach , ‘A’ dimension should be–
(a) 18±2mm
(b) (b) 20±2mm
(c) (c) 22±2mm
(d) (d) 22±2/-0mm
432. In the passenger train, the diameter of brake pipe & feed pipe is–
(a)20.0mm
(b)25.0mm
(c)28.0mm
(d)30.0mm
433. How many angle cocks are provided in a vehicle in twin pipe system?
(a) two
(b) Three
(c) Four
(d) Six
434. What is the diameter of branch pipe attached to PEAV?
(a)15.0mm
(b)25.0mm
(c) 10.0mm
(d)20.0mm
435. What is the diameter of branch pipe in between PEAV to PEASD?
 (a)15.0mm
(b)25.0mm
(c)30.0mm
(d)20.0mm
436. BP pressure in working train is–
(a) 6.0± 0.1 kg/cm²
(b) (b)5.5±0.1kg/cm²
(c) (c)5.0±0.1km/cm²
(d) (d) 5.2±0.1kg/cm²
437. During charge position, Air pressure in Auxiliary reservoir is-
(a) 6.5kg/cm²
(b) (b)6.1kg/cm²
(c) (c) 6.0kg/cm²
(d) (d) None of above
438. During full service application, brake pipe pressure is dropped to–
(a)2.0kg/cm²
(b)1.0 kg/cm²
(c)3.0kg/cm²
(d)1.5kg/cm²
439. The En route brake power percentage of mail trains should be–
(a)80%
(b)75%
(c) 95%
(d)90%
440. In twin pipe system, the AR pressure should be–
(a)5.0kg/cm²
(b)6.0kg/cm²
(c)7.0 kg/cm²
(d) 8.0kg/cm²
441. At originating station the brake power percentage for mail/express train should be –
(a)85%
(b)90%
(c)100%
(d)75%
442. Cut off angle cock can be fitted to –
(a) FP
(b) (b)BP
(c) (c)BP & FP both
(d) (d) None of above
443. What is the diameter of bogie mounted brake cylinder ?
(a)220mm
(b)210mm
(c)203mm
(d) 200mm
444. In a conventional air brake system, the No of brake cylinder in a coach are…?
(a)3
(b)2
(c)1
(d)4
445. The brake cylinder diameter of conventional air brake system is –
(a)205mm
(b)1305mm
(c) 325mm
(d)305mm
446. The rate of air leakage in single car testing should not be more then–
(a) 0.02kg/cm²/min
(b) o.1kg/cm²/min
(c) 0.2kg/cm²/min
(d) 0.1kg/cm²/min
447. In emergency application the brake cylinder pressure rises from 0-3.6kg/cm² in–
(a)15-29sec
(b) 5-10sec
(c)3-5sec
(d)8-10sec
448. Brake should not apply during insensitivity test with in–
(a) 50sec
(b) (b)60sec
(c) (c)40sec
 (d) (d)30 sec
449. During release after full service application, release time of Mail/ Express coach is -
(a) 5to10sec
(b) 10to15sec
(c) 15to 20sec
(d) 20 to30sec
450. check valve with choke allows air from–
(a)BP to FP
(b) FP to CR
(c) FP to AR
(d) AR to BC
451. Feed pipe diameter of Rajdhani coach is
(a)20.0mm
(b)25.0mm
(c) 30.0mm
(d) 35.0mm
452. Which pressure is vented out, if the brake is manually released by QRV?
(a)BC pressure
(b)AR pressure
(c)BP pressure
(d) CR pressure
453. What is the pressure of control reservoir in coaching trains?
(a)6.0kg/cm²
(b)5.0kg/cm²
(c)6.2kg/cm²
(d)4.8kg/cm²
454. In coaching trains, auxiliary reservoir is charged to –
(a)5.0kg/cm²
(b)6.0kg/cm²
(c)4.8kg/cm²
(d)5.5kg/cm²
455. Brake pipe throughout the length of train is charged with compressed air at –
(a)6.0kg/cm²
(b)5.8kg/cm²
 (c)5.0kg/cm²
(d)4.8kg/cm²
456. Feed pipe throughout the length of train is charged with compressed air at –
(a)6.0kg/cm²
(b)5.5kg/cm²
(c)5.0kg/cm²
(d)4.8kg/cm²
457. After brake application, the control reservoir is disconnected from the–
(a)Brake pipe
(b)Auxiliary reservoir
(c)Brake Cylinder
(d) Feed pipe
458. Reduction in BP pressure for minimum application is–
(a) 1.0 to1.5kg/cm²
(b) (b) 0.8 to1.0kg/cm²
(c) 0.5 to 0.8kg/cm²
(d) 0.1 to 05kg/cm²
459. Reduction in BP pressure for service application is –
(a) 1.0 to05kg/cm²
(b) 1.0 to 1.5kg/cm²
(c) 0.5 to 0.8 kg/cm²
(d) 0.8 to 0.1 kg/cm²
460. Reduction in BP pressure for full service application is–
(a) 1.0 to1.5kg/cm²
(b) 0.8 to 1.0kg/cm²
(c) 0.5 to 0.8 kg/cm²
(d) 0.1 to 05 kg/cm²
461. Reduction in BP pressure for emergency application is–
(a) 1.0 to1.5kg/cm²
(b) 1.5 kg/cm² &above
(c) 0.5 to 0.8 kg/cm²
(d) 3.8 to 5.0 kg/cm²
462. After releasing of brakes, brake cylinder is isolated from the auxiliary reservoir by.
(a) Distributor valve
 (b) control reservoir
(c) Brake pipe
(d) Feed pipe
463. The colour of brake pipe in coaching trains is–
(a) Black
(b) (b)Yellow
(c) (c)Green
(d) (d)white
464. The colour of feed pipe in coaching trains is–
a)Black
b)Yellow
(c)Green
(d)white
465. Cut off angle cock fitted on the brake pipe is painted–
a) Black
(b)Yellow
(c)Green
(d) white
466. Cut off angle cock fitted on the feed pipe is painted–
(a)Black
(b)Yellow
(c)Green
(d)white
467. How many dirt collectors are fitted with under frame mounted air brake system on
every coach?
(a)Two
(b) One
(c)Three
(d) None of above
468. What is choke diameter of guard’s emergency brake valve?
(a)4.0mm
(b)5.0mm
(c)6.0mm
(d)8.0mm
469. A device provided in the brake rigging for automatic adjustment of clearance /slack
Between brake block and wheel is called-
(a) Brake cylinder
(b) (b) Brake Regulator
(c) (c)Distributor valve
(d) (d) control Reservoir
470. What type of slack adjuster is used in passenger coaches?
(a) DRV-600
(b) (b)None
(c) (c)IRSA-450
(d) (d)IRSA-600
471. In goods stock the AR charging time from 0to 4.8 kg/cm2, for testing C3W DV,
is…?
(a)170±10sec
(b) 175±30sec
(c)280±30sec
(d) 180±20sec
472. In goods stock for testing KE type DV, the AR charging time from 0to 4.8 kg/cm2
is–
(a) 160 to 210sec
(b) (b) 210 to260sec
(c) (c) 260 to280sec
(d) (d)180 to 200sec
473. In goods stock for testing C3W DV, the CR charging time from 0 to 4.8 kg/2 is
(a)170±10sec
(b)165±20sec
(c) 160±10sec
(d) 210±20sec
474. In goods stock for testing KE type DV, the CR charging time from 0 to4.8 kg/cm2
is–
(a) 170 to200sec
(b) (b) 160 to 210 sec
(c) (c) 160 to 180 sec
(d) (d)180 to 210 sec
475. During brake release, air from BC goes to ?
(a)AR
(b)CR
(c)DV
(d)Atmosphere
476. The three- branch pipe is attached to the common pipe bracket, where the middle
pipe leads to
(a)CR
(b)DV
(c)BC
(d)AR
477. During testing of C3W /KE type DV, after full service application the brake
cylinder filling time from 0 to 3.6 kg/cm ² is – (coaching stock)
a) 3 to 5sec
(b) 5 to10sec
(c) 10 to15sec
(d) 12 to 8sec
478. During testing of C3W /KE type DV, after releasing the brake cylinder release time
from max BC pressure from 3.8 ± 0.1 kg/ cm² To 0.4 kg/cm² is – (coaching stock)
(a)3to5 sec
(b) 5 to 10sec
(c) 10 to15sec
(d) 15 to 20sec
479. During testing of C3W / KE type DV, after emergency application the brake
cylinder filling time from 0 to 3.6 kg/cm² is- (coaching stock)
(a)3to5 sec
(b) 5to8
(c) 8 to10sec
(d) 10 to 15 sec
480. Which of the following types of isolating cocks are provided in the passenger
coaches?
a) Ball type
(b)Wall type
(c)Dome type
 (d) C3W type
481. The type of dirt collector used in bogie mounted passenger coaches is–
a) 2-way
(b)4-way
(c)3-way
(d) 1-way
482. Total no. of MU washer used in a twin pipe passenger coach is ?
(a)3
(b)4
(c)2
(d)6
483. In single car leakage test, the air pressure drop should not exceed–
a) 0.35kg/cm²/min
(b) 0.2kg/cm²/min
(c)0.28kg/cm²/min
(d) 0.3kg/cm²/min
484. When DV is in Isolation condition, the position of DV handle is
a) Horizontal
b) (b)Inclined
c) (c)Vertical
d) (d)Parallel
485. How many DVs as a percentage of the total population should be kept as spares
(a)10%
(b) 5%
(c)2%
(d)10%
486. What is the capacity of control reservoir of passenger coach?
(a) 6.0 liter
(b) (b) 7.0 liter
(c) (c) 9.0 liter
(d) (d) 10.0 liter
487. Length of air brake Hose is_
(a)790mm
(b)660mm
 (c) 839mm
(d)844mm
488. What should be the effective maximum pressure in brake cylinder during full
service application is
(a)3.6±0.1kg/cm²
(b) 3.7±0.1kg/cm²
(c)3.8±0.1kg/cm²
(d) 4.1±0.1kg/cm²
489. DV is directly mounted on–
(a)AR
(b)Brake pipe
(c)Brake cylinder
(d)common pipe bracket
490. From which component is compressed air supplied to C3W DV?
(a)FP
(b) Cut off valve
c)BP
(d) Main valve
491. Which of the following valves in C3W DV controls charging of CR?
(a) Main valve
(b) Cut off valve
(c) Quick service valve
(d) Limiting device
492. The angle cock of wagon can be fitted on the coach provide d it is having
(a) Nut
(b) Nut & Bolt
(c) Reducer
(d) Reducer with inner & outer threads
493. Cut off angle cock in open position of the handle is……
(a) Parallel to pipe
(b) Parallel to pipe or perpendicular to pipe
(c) Perpendicular to pipe
(d) (d) None of the above
494. Cut off angle cock in close position of the handle is……
 a) Parallel to pipe
b) Parallel to pipe or perpendicular to pipe
c) Perpendicular to pipe
d) (d) None of the above
495. The full from if CR is–
(a) Central reservoir
(b) cylindrical reservoir
(c) control reservoir
(d) None of the above
496. In air brake system of coach, the following is fitted?
(a) 1BP 1FP 1DC
(b) 1BP 2FP 1DC
(c) 1BP 1FP 2DC
(d) 2BP 2BP 2DC
497. Control reservoir in an air brake system is–
(a) To control FP pressure
(b) To control DV valve
(c) To control Brake system
(d) None of the above
498. Auxiliary reservoir is assisting in ?
(a) Charging of DV
(b) Charging of BP
(c) Sending air to BC
(d) Charging of CR
499. Air hose can be connected to–?
(a) FP cut off angle cock
(b) BP cut off angle cock
(c) BP & FP cut off angle cock
(d) none of the above
500. The Driver reduced the BP pressure by 1.2 kg/ cm2. What is it called?
(a) Full service application
(b) Service application
(c) Emergency application
(d) None of the above
501. Dirt collector should be cleaned within-
(a) At the time of IOH
(b) At the time of ‘A’ schedule
(c) At the time of POH
(d) At the time of ‘B’ schedule
502. In air brake system, brake should apply when the rate of drop of air pressure in BP
is–
(a) 0.6 kg/cm²/min in six sec
(b) 0.3 kg/cm²/min in six sec
(c) 0.4 kg/cm²/min in six sec
(d) 0.1 kg/cm²/min in six sec
503. In the brake system, brake should not apply when the rate of drop of air pressure in
BP is–
(a) 0.3 kg/cm²in60sec
(b) 0.4 kg/cm²in 4sec
(c) 0.5kg/cm²in30sec
(d) 0.8 kg/cm²in 8sec
504. The function of main valve of C3W type DV is to supply requisite amount of
pressure Into the brake cylinder when–
(a) BP pressure in reduced
(b) FP pressure in reduced
(c) CR pressure in reduced
(d) BP&FP are also reduced
505. The main valve in DV exhausts pressure from brake cylinder to atmosphere , is the
(a) BP pressure is raised
(b) BP pressure is reduced
(c) FP pressure is reduced
(d) FP pressure is raised
506. The function of none-return valve used in air brake system is–
(a) To reduce BP
(b) To prevent flow of air from AR to FP
(c) To prevent CR to be charged
(d) To prevent flow of air from CR to BP
507. What is the expanded from of SCTR?
 (a) Single car test rubber
(b) Sliding car test rig
(c) Single car test rig
(d) None of the above
508. For releasing brakes, SAB is rotated
(a) Clockwise
(b) Towards trolley in anti clock wise
(c) Towards trolley in clock wise
(d) anti clock wise
509. To uncouple BP or FP air hose it is essential to– ?
(a) Close adjacent angle cocks
(b) Open adjacent angle cocks
(c) Close supply of air from loco
(d) None of the above
510. BC vent plug is used for– ?
(a) Brake application
(b) Air leakage to stop
(c) (c)Brake release
(d) Air pressure maintenance
511. For by pass the special device required is.?
(a) For FP & BP connector
(b) FP & BP exhauster
(c) FP & BP reducer
(d) BP & FP jointer
512. What shall be the function of check valve of C3W distributor valve ?
(a) Charging the CR
(b) To prevent back flow of AR
(c) Charging the BC
(d) none of the above
513. Cut off angle cock can be fitted with ?
(a) Brake pipe
(b) Feed pipe & brake pipe both
(c) Feed pipe
(d) None of the above
514. The control reservoir is mounted on the face of___?
(a) Distribution valve
(b) common pipe bracket
(c) Brake pipe
(d) Auxiliary reservoir
515. The function of dirt collector is to segregate dirt particle from the air– ?
(a) After coming out of DV
(b) Before going to DV
(c) Both (a)& (d)
(d) none of the above
516. In air brake system, branch pipe of DV to BC via common pipe bracket is–
(a) At the pipe
(b) At the bottom
(c) In middle
(d) None of the above
517. In air brake system branch pipe of DV to AR via common pipe bracket is–
(a) At the bottom
(b) In middle
(c) At the top
(d) None of the above
518. Position of handle to open angle cock is– ?
(a) Parallel to pipe line
(b) perpendicular to pipe line
(c) Center to pipe line
(d) None of the above
519. In air brake system ,sensitivity test is performed to know ?
(a) working sensation of DV
(b) The release time to break.
(c) leakage in BC pressure
(d) Release time of BC piston stroke.
520. If there is a leakage from the drain plug of dirt collector then reason can be– ?
(a) Filter choked
(b) Gasket damaged
(c) Hexagonal nut not fully tight ended
 (d) Sealing washer damaged
521. Slow charging from outlet of dirt collector can be due to–
(a) Filter choked
(b) Gasket damaged
(c) Hexagonal nut not fully tightened
(d) Sealing washer damaged
522. In SAB, double acting means–
(a) Provision of braking action on both the brake shoes
(b) Correcting the clearance on both the brake shoes
(c) Spindle inside the barrel moves in both direction
(d) Brake shoes clearance is adjusted to its correct value both ways
523. What is the function of SAB?
(a) To developed automatic adjustment
(b) Regulate working of BC.
(c) To provided extra support to brake block
(d) To transfer the push of piston rod.
524. If the piston movement is sticky in the brake cylinder during both application and
release then it can be due to– ?
(a) Piston return compression spring week
(b) Hexagonal nuts not equally tighten
(c) Piston rubber packing running dry
(d) Piston rubber packing cut or worn out.
525. there is a leakage in the brake cylinder from the front cover joint during brake
Application then it can be due to-
(a) Piston return compression spring week.
(b) Piston cover not sealed properly.
(c) Piston rubber packing running dry.
(d) Piston rubber packing cut of worn out.
526. If the handle of the cut off angle cock rotates all around and does not stop at a
specific position then the reason can be –
(a) Leaf spring has lost its compression effect
(b) Rubber seats are not properly placed
(c) “O” ring defective
(d) Stopper lug of cap broken or stopper plate defective
527. What is the function of the leaf spring provided in the handle of cut off angle cock?
(a) To avoid leakage from pipe.
(b) To keep operating handle in off- on position firmly.
(c) To maintain properly and easily working of cut off angles cock.
(d) None of the above
528. If the DV is having leakage
(a) Close the isolating cock of the AR
(b) Close the isolating handle of DV
(c) Close the isolating cock of the BP branch pipe
(d) None of the above
529. Air hose pipe are connected to ?
a) Feed pipe cut off angle cock
b) Brake pipe cut off angle cock
c) Brake pipe and feed pipe cut off angle cocks
d) None of the above
530. The function of return spring provided in a brake cylinder is– ?
(a) To push the spring out side the piston
(b) To push the piston inside the cylinder
(c) To push the dead lever
(d) To push the control rod
531. ‘E’ dimension is measured from ?
(a) From protection tube to ‘V’ groove made on the spindle rod.
(b) From control rod to anchor pin.
(c) From SAB barrel tube ‘V’ groove to control rod.
(d) None of the above
532. What is the function of SAB?
(a) To maintain the slack between pull rod and wheel
(b) To maintain the slack between piston and BC
(c) To maintain the slack between brake block and wheel tread
(d) None of the above
533. ‘A’ dimension is measured from–?
(a) Control head to anchor pin
(b) Pull rod to anchor pin
(c) Pull rod to control rod head
 (d) Control rod head to barrel face
534. If the ‘A’ dimension of the SAB is reduced, then the ?
(a) Piston stock is increased
(b) Piston stock is reduced
(c) Piston stock remain same
(d) None of the above
535. Warranty period of distributor valve is–
(a) 24 months from the date of delivery or 34 months from date of fitment
whichever is earlier
(b) 36 months from the date of delivery or 24 months from date of fitment
whichever is earlier
(c) 48 months from the date of delivery or 24 months from date of fitment
whichever is earlier
(d) 36 months from the date of delivery or 12 months from date of fitment
whichever is earlier.
536. Number of brake cylinder in bogie mounted air brake system are…..
(a)8
(b)6
(c)2
(d)4
537. The pulling force required for alarm chain testing should not be more than
(a) 12kg
(b) 10kg
(c) 20kg
(d) 30kg
538. On application of pulling force of 6.4 kg the alarm chain should
(a) Work
(b) Not work
(c) Not definite
(d) None of above
539. Manually operated pilot vent valve is–
(a)PEASD
(b)PEAV
(c)ACP
 (d)PEAMTD
540. What is the diameter of control pipe attached from PESAD to PEAV?
(a) 15.0mm
(b) 10.0mm
(c) 20.0mm
(d) 25.0mm
541. Passenger emergency alarm signal device are mounted on the
(a) Under frame
(b) Side panel
(c) End wall
(d) Roof panel
542. After ACP, it is reset, then brakes are released-
(a) DV quick release valve
(b) Isolating handle
(c) PEAV
(d) PEASD
543. PEAV& PEASD can be isolated by isolating
(a) Isolating cock between branch pipe of BP&DV
(b) Isolating cock between branch pipe of FP&BP
(c) Isolating cock fitted in branch pipe before PEASD
(d) Isolating cock of BC
544. What is the diameter of brake cylinder of bogie mounted brake system– ?
(a)12 Inches
(b)10 Inches
(c)9 Inches
(d) 8 Inches
545. External slack adjuster has been eliminated in bogie mounted air brake system?
(a) True
(b) False
(c) Notional
(d) None of the above
546. Piston stroke of BMBC coach is–
(a) 28mm
(b) 32mm
 (c) 36mm
(d) 38mm
547. The average coefficient of friction of K-type composite brake block is–
(a)0.20
(b)0.25
(c)0.30
(d)0.35
548. In BMBC coach, hole adjustment of curved pull rod to be done when wheel
diameter Reaches to– ?
(a) 839mm
(b) 842mm
(c) 846mm
(d) None of the above
549. What is the diameter of side operated hand brake wheel for BOXN wagon?
(a)630mm
(b)610mm
(c)620mm
(d)600mm
550. Maximum pressure for door operation on BOBR wagon should not exceed–?
(a) 8.56kg/cm2
(b) 8.90kg/cm2
(c) 9.14kg/cm2
(d) 9.90kg/cm2
551. In an air brake system, the thread joints are tightened with…………….?
(a) Cello tape
(b) Teflon tape
(c) paper tape
(d) None of the above
552. Minimum permissible dimension ‘e’ in SAB on goods stock, while leaving the yard
is–?
(a)555mm
(b)575mm
(c)565mm
(d)580mm
553. What is the colour code of the distributor valve of air brake goods stock?
(a) Yellow
(b) Black
(c) Green
(d) White
554. Control rod diameter of an air brake wagon is–
(a)30mm
(b)32mm
(c)38mm
(d)40mm
555. Piston stroke of BOXN wagon in empty condition is–
(a)85±10mm
(b)70±15mm
(c)75±5mm
(d)80±10mm
556. Piston stroke of BOXN wagon in loaded condition is–
(a)140±15mm
(b)130±10mm
(c)120±15mm
(d)125±15mm
557. Piston stroke in empty condition of BOBYN wagon is–
(a) 90±10mm
(b) 100±5mm
(c) 100±10mm
(d) 90±10/5mm
558. Piston stroke in loaded condition of BOBYN wagon is–
(a)135±5m
(b)135±10mm
(c)135±20mm
(d)110±10mm
559. What is the capacity of control reservoir in goods train?
(a) 4Lit
(b) 6 Lit
(c) (c)8Lit
 (d) (d)10Lit
560. The colour of brake pipe in twin pipe brake system is–
(a) Black
(b) Yellow
(c) Green
(d) White
561. What should be the brake pipe pressure in engine?
(a) 4.8kg /cm2
(b) 4.7kg/cm2
(c) 5.0kg/cm2
(d) 6.0kg/cm2
562. The BP pressure in brake Van of 58- BOXN load should not be less than–
(a) 4.8kg /cm2
(b) 3.7kg/cm2
(c) 4.7kg/cm2
(d) 5.8kg/cm2
563. When we release KE type DV manually, the air pressure is released from–
(a) CR&AR
(b) BC&AR
(c) BC&CR
(d) AR&DV
564. If Empty Loaded Device handle is kept on loaded position of empty wagon, the
Result will be –
(a) Poor Brake Power
(b) Brake binding
(c) Both of the above
(d) None of the above
565. Number of brake blocks in one BOXN wagon is……
(a)4
(b)8
(c)12
(d)16
566. ’A’ dimension in BOXN wagon is –
(a)70±2/0mm
 (b)172±3mm
(c)175±4mm
(d)175±1mm
567. D.V is directly attached with–
(a)Brake cylinder
(b)Brake pipe
(c)AR
(d)CPB ( common pipe bracket)
568. The diameter of air brake cylinder BOXN wagon is –
(a) 300mm
(b) 355mm
(c) 360mm
(d) 315mm
569. The diameter of air brake cylinder in BVZC (wagon) is–
(a)300mm
(b)295mm
(c)305mm
(d)315mm
570. The capacity of Auxiliary Reservoir in an air brake wagon except Brake Van is–
(a) 200Litre
(b) 100Litre
(c) 300Litre
(d) 150Litre
571. In single pipe system the time taken in releasing of the wagon brake is
(a)60sec
(b)120sec
(c)210sec
(d)90sec
572. Distance between the control rod head and the barrel of SAB is named as-
(a)‘E’ dimensions
(b)‘C’ dimensions
(c)‘A’ dimensions
(d)’D’ dimensions
573. In twin pipe system the Auxiliary Reservoir pressure should be–
 (a) 6.0kg/cm²
(b) 4.8kg/cm²
(c) 5.0kg/cm²
(d) 6.5kg/cm²
574. The brake power of CC rake from nodal point is–
(a)90%
(b)100%
(c)85%
(d)75%
575. Brake power certificate issued for premium end –to-end rake will be valid for –
(a) 7±4days
(b) 10±2days
(c) 12±3days
(d) one month
576. The of air pressure in control reservoir of twin pipe system is–
(a)3.8kg/cm²
(b)6.0kg/cm²
(c)5.0kg/cm²
(d)4.8kg/cm²
577. 613. What is the function of DC (Dirt collector)?
(a) Collect dirt
(b) collect air
(c) Clean air
(d) Clean CR
578. How much pressure should drop in a minute after putting a test plate in a
locomotive?
(a)0.8kg/cm²
(b)1.0kg/cm²
(c)1.2kg/cm²
(d)1.5kg/cm²
579. Diameter of brake pipe and feed pipe in a goods train is ……..
(a)28mm
(b)34mm
(c)32mm
 (d)36mm
580. How many cut of angle cock are provided in a vehicle in twin pipe system–
(a) Two
(b) Four
(c) Six
(d) None
581. While isolating DV, the position of the handle in relation to rail line shall be ?
(a) Horizontal
(b) vertical
(c) Any position
(d) None of the above
582. If brake block is not releasing, …….is removed to release the brake- ?
(a) Anchor link pin
(b) center pivot pin
(c) pull rod pin
(d) equalizing pin
583. During Brake application, air flows from- ?
(a) AR to BC
(b) BP to AR
(c) BP to BC
(d) CR to BC
584. The en-route brake power percentage of CC goods train should be ?
(a)85%
(b)75%
(c)95%
(d)90%
585. The en-route brake power percentage of End to End goods train should be ?
(a)85%
(b)75%
(c)95%
(d)90%
586. The en-route brake power percentage of PR goods train should be ?
(a) 85%
(b) 75%
 (c) 95%
(d) Not specified
587. what is the piston stroke of BVZC wagon?
(a)50mm±10mm
(b)70mm±10mm
(c)32mm±10mm
(d)90mm±10mm
588. what is the piston stroke of BVZI wagon?
(a)50mm±10mm
(b)70mm±10mm
(c)32mm±10mm
(d)90mm±10mm
589. What is the piston stroke of BOBR/BOBRN wagon in empty?
(a)70±10mm
(b)75±10mm
(c)80±10mm
(d)100±10mm
590. ’A’ dimension of the BOBRN wagon is ?
(a)29+2/-0mm
(b)27+2/-0mm
(c)33±2mm
(d)25+-⁵₂mm
591. What is colour of BPC of air brake CC ?
(a)Red
(b)pink
(c)green
(d)yellow
592. What should be the pressure in feed pipe ?
(a) 3.8kg/cm²
(b) 5.0kg/cm²
(c) 6.0kg/cm²
(d) None of the above
593. Control rod of SAB when rotated for one round, control rod head moves by a
distance of– ?
 (a)6.0mm
(b)4.0mm
(c)2.0mm
(d)1.0mm
594. The type of joint for FP&BP pipe in goods stock is– ?
(a) Grip seal
(b) Flange
(c) Thread coupling
(d) knuckle
595. The allowed leakage rate in BP or FP in air brake system for goods stock is–
(a) 04kg/cm²/min
(b) 0.25kg/cm²/min
(c) 0.3kg/cm²/min
d) 0.1 kg/cm²/min
596. With what pressure of AR twin pipe system works?
(a) BP pressure only
(b) FP pressure only
(c) BP & FP pressure
(d) BC pressure
597. Single pipe system works on……
a) BP pressure
b) FP pressure
c) BP&FP pressure
d) None of the above
598. In wagon, hand brake is used when
a) Standing in yard
b) Running in down gradient
c) Running in up gradient
d) None of the above
599. What do you mean by SWTR?
a) Single wagon test rubber
b) single wagon test rig
c) Sliding wagon testing
d) None of the above
600. SAB is fitted on……….
a) End pull rod
b) Main pull rod
c) Control rod
d) Dead equalizing lever
601. Auxiliary reservoir assists in–
a) DV charging
b) Charging of BP
c) sending air to BC
d) charging of CR
602. When a defect is noticed in brake pipe in twin pipe system, the train can be worked
as single pipe system ?
a) By bypassing BP of particular vehicle
b) Cannot be worked
c) Can be worked without change
d) None of the above
603. Full from of AR is–?
a) Accident of reservoir
b) Axle ring
c) Auxiliary reservoir
d) None of the above
604. Full from of BC is–?
(a)Brake control
(b)Beside coach
(c)Brake cylinder
(d)None of the above
605. What shall be the function of check valve of C3W type distributor valve?
a) Charging the AR
b) Charging the CR
c) Charging the BC
d) None of the above
606. BC vent plug is used for -
a) Brake application
b) Brake release
 c) Air leakage to stop
d) Air pressure maintenance
607. The ELB device indicator plate shows–
a) Yellow empty, black loaded
b) Blue empty, black loaded
c) Whit empty, black loaded
d) black empty, blue loaded
608. The first step in releasing brake binding in conventional Air brake system is to- ?
a) Open vent plug of BC
b) Rotate SAB
c) Take out pin of SAB
d) Isolate DV& release manually
609. The type of dirt collector, used in wagon is– ?
a) 2–way
b) 3-way
c) Branch pipe of BP to FP
d) None of the above
610. The trouble shooting form twin pipe system in case of broken AR is– ?
a) Isolate DV and release brake
b) Isolate DV, AR & release brake
c) Release BC& open vent plug BC
d) By- pass AR
611. After isolating DV, handle should be ?
a) Tightened with thread
b) Kept horizontal and tightened with wire
c) Tightened with wire
d) Opened
612. The function of double release valve of the DV is – ?
a) To release the brake automatically
b) To release the BC pressure
c) To release the brake manually
d) To release brake pipe pressure on AR chamber
613. If DV is having leakage– ?
a) Isolate DV
 b) Close the isolating cock of the AR
c) Close the isolating cock of the BP/FP branch pipe
d) none of the above
614. What is the minimum distance being maintained between adjacent two tracks for
intensive examination?
a) At least3meters
b) At least 3.5 meters
c) At least 4.0 meters
d) At least 2.0 m
615. As per RPC -4, whenever the lie-over is more than hours at the platform or the rake
is stabled in yard, the rake should be locked and positive security should be
provided ?
a) 2hours
b) 4 hours
c) 6hours
d) 8 hours
616. For rakes maintained by ‘A’ category CC bases, BPC is valid for ?
a) 4500 kmsor15days
b) 6000 Kms or 20days
c) 7500 Kms or 35days
d) 6000 Kms or 15 days
617. Match colour of BPC issued with the stock ?
Colour Stock
A. Pink 1. Air brake stock
B. Light Green 2.VacuumBrake
C. Yellow 3.Closed circuit Rake
a) A-1,B-2, C-3
b) A-3,B-1,C-2
c) A-3,B-2,C-1
d) A-2,B-1,C-3
618. For closed circuit air brake rake, Rake integrity, as listed in the BPC be are allowed
to be replaced by good examined wagon in the entire run between two PMEs?
a) 4 wagons
b) 6 wagons
 c) 3 wagons
d) 2 wagons
619. What are the colors recommended for intensive brake power certificate for end to
end Running air brake (Goods stock)?
(a)Green
(b)Pink
(c)Red
(d)Blue
620. What are the colors recommended for brake power certificate for close circuit
airbrake rake (Goods stock)?
(a)Yellow
(b)Pink
(c)Green
(d)white
621. Witch of the following are the advantaged associated with revised maintenance
pattern for coaching trains as per Railway Board Policy circular no.4?
a) Attention as per the requirement of train service and passenger
requirements.
b) A step towards standardization of rake to reduce the requirement of
Rakes and coaches
c) More utilization of existing coaches
d) All of the above
622. Which of the following is not the advantage of revised maintenance pattern for
coaching trains as per Railway Board policy no.4?
(a) Increase in productivity after avoiding frequent attention of trains covering
less km
(b) Emphasis shifted from staff inputs to infrastructural inputs
(c) Customer based rakes formation
(d) A step towards standardization of rake to reduce the requirement of
Rakes and coaches
623. Which of the following is not the part of the minimum infrastructure to be provided
at the platform from where trains returned without secondary maintenance?
i. One storage room for essential safety and passenger amenity item
ii. Road transportation facility for ferrying material from the depot.
 iii. Mobile high pressure cleaning machines in adequate numbers
iv. Mobile phones for easy communication
(a) (İ)&(İV) (b)Only(İİİ) (c)Only(İV) (d) Only(İİ)
624. Which of the following are the minimum in restructure facilities to be provided at
the platforms from where trains are returned without secondary maintenance?
a) Water connection at both the ends of the platform for quick watering and
cleaning with high pressure Jet cleaning machine.
b) Washable apron on the platform lines with covered drains to facilitate
movement of maintenance staff
c) Flood light at the platform ends for rolling examination at night and 110V
inspection lights along the side of the track for night examination of under
gear.
d) All of the above.
625. As per policy No-4 (revised)secondary examination of mail/express has been
skipped on round trip Up to – (ICF coaches)
(a)2000km
(b)1500km
(c)2500km
(d)3500km
626. As per policy No-4 secondary examination of mail/express has been skipped on
round trip Up to – (LHB coaches) ?
a) 4000km
b) 1500km
c) 2500km
d) 3500km
627. ‘A’ category depot will issue BPC of CC Rake valid up to km– ?
a) 7500km
b) 7000km
c) 6000km
d) 6500km
628. In air brake empty stock end-to-end goods rakes, the empty rake after unloading
should be offered for intensive examination before- ?
a) Next station
b) Next loading
 c) Next unloading
d) Next TXR point
629. In air brakes end-to-end rakes, after intensive examination validity of BPC remain
up to the-?
a) Next station
b) Loading point
c) destination point
d) 72 hours
630. In air brake stock, BPC become invalid, if the rake is stabled in any examination
yard For more than- ?
a) 24hours
b) 36 hours
c) 48hours
d) 12 hours
631. At the originating point, minimum brake power of premium end-to-end rake is- ?
(a)85%
(b)95%
(c)90%
(d)98%
632. The colour of brake power certificate for premium end-to-end rake is –?
a) Green
b) White
c) Pink
d) Yellow
633. The BPC of ballast train is valid for ?
a) 3days
b) 7days
c) 15days
d) 30days
634. The ride index for LHB coach is ?
(a) 2.50-2.75.
(b)2.75-3.00.
(c)3.00-3.25.
(d)3.25-3.5
635. Witch bogies are provided for higher passenger ride index comfort ?
a) ICF(all coil)
(b)IRS type
(c) BEML type
(d) FIAT – SIG type
636. Maximum ride index of LHB coach is–
(a)2.75
(b)3.25
(c)3.65
(d)3.45
637. What is the purpose of corrugated trough floor?
a) To provide telescopic features in the coach
b) Offers considerable resistance to longitudinal crushing loads
c) To work as cushion to smoothen the shocks during impact between the
vehicles
d) All of above
638. When a locomotive or a coach collides with another coach and enters forcible,
piercing the end wall. What type of accident is it?
a) Collapsible
b) Telescopic
c) Normal
d) Typical
639. After Indo-German modification in coaching stock, what type of bushes are used
For brake gear components?
a) Nylon-55
b) Steel–46
c) Nylon–66
d) Copper coated – 55
640. 676. After Indo- German modification, the crown clearance bolt is fitted with–
a) Steel bush
b) Rubber washer
c) Nylon bush
d) Rubber packing
641. Truss bar hanger length is increased from–
 a) 205to235mm
b) 205to240mm
c) 205to255mm
d) None of the above
642. What is the modification of equalizing stay rod?
a) fitted 16 tons in all coaches
b) fitted 18 tons in all coaches
c) Fitted 14 tons in all coaches
d) none of the above
643. Which is not true about Fait bogie design?
a) It has Y-shaped bogie
b) It has rigid axel guidance system
c) Bogie weight is6.5tons
d) It is provided with anti-skid features
644. While lowering the container, lock automatically operates the moment a force of kg
is exerted by the container. ?
a) 700kg
b) 600kg
c) 800 kg
d) 1000kg
645. While lifting the container, lock automatically operates the moment a force of kg is
exerted by the container.
a) 700 kg
b) 600kg
c) 800kg
d) 1000kg
646. Which brake system is used in LHB coaches?
a) Disc-brake
b) Bogie mounted
c) Conventional
d) Vacuum brake
647. Which devise have been fitted on BLC wagons to function in lieu of ELB?
a) Automatic load sensing Devise
b) Automatic load box Devise
 c) Automatic load sensor
d) None of these
648. What is the operational speed of BLC wagon rake?
(a)100 Kmph
(b)110kmph
(c)75kmph
(d) 120 Kmph
649. One modular unit of BLC rake comprises how many CAR ‘B’ wagons?
(a)Five
(b)Two
(c)Three
(d)One
650. As and when required to detach one wagon from the BLC rake, how many wagons
to be detached in total?
(a)2
(b)3
(c)5
(d)1
651. What is the advantages of fait bogie over ICF bogie?
a) Lower wheel-base, which improve its ability to negotiate curves
b) Axel mounted disc brake system reduces to wheel thread were, require
lesser maintenance And is suitable for higher breaking force
c) Cartridge Tapered Roller bearing require lesser maintenance attention
d) All of the above
652. What are the advantages of fait bogie over ICF bogie?
a) Primary suspension of nested coil spring with hydraulic damper and control
rod is more reliable and maintenance free as compared to dashpot
arrangements.
b) Better noise control due to use application of a new materials such as a
wooden Board Sandwiched with cork layer, use rubber pad below
floorboard, rubber paint spray inside The shall etc.
c) Lower corrosion due to extensive use of stain less steel
d) All of the above
653. Witch of the following is not the advantages fait bogie over ICF bogie?
 a) Poor riding index
b) Provision of anti-roll bar to restrict rolling of coach body on curves.
c) Y- damper to control yaw-motion(body motion in vertical axis)
d) None of the above
654. Witch of the following are the advantages of disc brake system?
a) Higher speed potential of the bogie
b) Almost constant co-efficient of friction over the whole speed range
c) Reduced frequency of the wheel turning
d) All of the above
655. What are the measures taken in LHB coaches for safety of travelling public?
a) Use of fire-retardant material for coach furnishings
b) Provision of emergency windows
c) The coach is provided with vertically interlocked central buffer couplers
that would not open even if there were a derailment
d) All of the above
656. CBC Coupler are used in .
a) All conventional ICF design coaches
b) IRS coaches
c) LHB design coaches
d) BEML coaches
657. Witch of profile is used in IR coaches?
(a) WWP
(b) WWM
(C) WWT
(d) WWN
658. Why is inbuilt slack adjuster of BMBC called single acting?
a) Because it takes up the slack in return stroke only
b) Because it takes up the slack in forward stroke only
c) Both a & b
d) None of the above
659. Condemning limit of BLC wheel set is–
(a) 900mm
(b) 800mm
(c) 670mm
 (d) 780mm
660. MaximumheightofsideframefromRaillevelofcontainerbogietypeLCCF20(c)trolley is
(a)851mm
(b)715mm
(c)932mm
(d)786mm
661. In BLC wagon, width over sole bar at center line wagon is-
a) 200mm
b) 2100mm
c) 2150mm
d) 2180mm
662. In place of empty load box what devise is used in BLC wagon?
a) BSD
b) LSD
c) SDF
d) SAB
663. As per RDSO standard what shall be the Max. Allowed speed of BFKI?
a) 75km/h
b) 80km/h
c) 100km/h
d) 110km/h
664. What is the material specification of BLC wagon trolley?
a) Cast steel
b) Low cast steel
c) steel
d) Micro steel
665. At the time of load distribution what percentage of load is coming on the center
pivot?
(a)10%
(b)15%
(c)20%
(d)25%
666. What shall be maximum length of container platform in BLC wagon?
(a) 30feet
 (b)28feet
(c)29feet
(d) 32 feet
667. The standard height of platform for BLC wagon from Rail level is–
(a)1010mm
(b)1015mm
(c)1009mm
(d)1100mm
668. The axle load capacity of BLC wagon is–
(a)20.10ton.
(b)20.32ton.
(c)21.10ton.
d) 23.10ton.
669. Tare weight of A-car of BLC wagon is-
(a)21.20ton.
(b)19.10ton
(c)19.80ton.
(d) 20.22ton.
670. Tare weight of B-car of BLC wagon is-
(a)18.10ton.
(b)19.10ton.
(c) 19.80ton.
(d) 20.20ton.
671. In BLC wagon, height of slackness drawbar system from Rail level is – ?
(a)890mm
(b)848mm
(c)845mm
(d)910mm
672. .How many automatic twist locks used in BLC wagons?
(a)6
(b)8
(c)10
(d)12
673. . Distance between bogie centers of BLC wagon is–
 (a)9678mm
(b)9687mm
(c)9765mm
(d)9675mm
674. Rake carrying capacity of the BLC is–
(a) 40 wagons
(b) 45 wagons
(c) 40 wagons
(d) 48 wagons
675. Witch type of side bearer arrangements is used in BLC trolley?
(a)Elastomeric
(b) constant contact type
c) Spring loaded side bearer
(d) None of the above
676. Witch type trolley of is used in BLC wagon?
(a)UIC trolley
(b) Cast steel type of bogie LCCF20
(c)IRS trolley
(d) Diamond frame trolley
677. For auto metric locking &for lifting of auto metric twist lock how much force is Kg
required, respectively?
(a)600&1000kg
(b)800&1200kg
(c)1000&500kg
(d) 500 &1350kg
678. What type of roller bearing is used in BLC wagon?
(a)Cartridge type
(b) tapered two-row cartridge roller bearing
(c)Spherical type
(d) plain bearing
679. What is the loading capacity of containers in BLC wagon?
(a) Two 20’ or one 40’
(b) Two 22’ or one 45’
(c) Two 15’ or two 20’
 (d) Two 20’ or one 45’
680. Name the type of coupling used in BLC wagon?
(a) CBC&SLD
(b) HTCBC
(c) Screw coupling
(d) Slackness drew bars (SLD)
681. Pay load of BTPN tank wagon is–
(a)58.88tons
(b)54.28tons
(c)55.80tons
(d) 52.3 tons
682. Axle load of BTPN tank wagon is–
(a)20.32tons
(b)22.35tons
(c)21.35 tons
(d) 25.22tons
BCNHL & MBS
683. Type of steel used for construction of BCNHL wagon
a) Stainless Steel
b) Mild Steel
c) Carton Steel
d) Carbon Steel
684. Tare weight of BCNHL wagon
a) 25.0 t
b) 20.8 t
c) 22.8 t
d) 24.8 t
685. Carrying capacity of BCNHL wagon
a) 78.8t
b) 66.2t
c) 70.8t
d) 56.7t
686. Axle load of BCNHL wagon
a) 22.9t
 b) 20.3t
c) 24 t
d) 20t
687. Width of BCNHL wagon
a) 3200mm
b) 3450 mm
c) 3250mm
d) 3500t
688. Overall height of BCNHL wagon
a) 4305mm
b) 4017 mm
c) 4205mm
d) 4027mm
689. No. of BCNHL wagons that can be accommodated in one rake
a) 42
b) 44
c) 58
d) 61
690. Minimum length of loop line in stations as per G & SR
a) 536M
b) 650M
c) 586 M
d) 686M
691. Side body thickness of BCNHL wagon
a) 3.15mm
b) 2.5mm
c) 3.5mm
d) 1.15mm
692. Floor plate thickness of BCNHL wagon
a) 5mm
b) 3.5mm
c) 4mm
d) 2mm
693. In place of riveting is used in BCNHL wagon
 a) Welding
b) Huck bolting
c) Bolting
d) None of the above
694. Size of Brake cylinder used in BCNHL wagon
a) 355mm
b) 208mm
c) 300 mm
d) 286mm
695. Type of SAB used in BCNHL wagon
a) IRSA-750
b) IRSA-600
c) IRSA-400
d) IRSA-500
696. SAB-e dimension of IRSA-750
a) 555 to575mm
b) 560±10mm
c) 560±25mm
d) 560±5 mm
697. Type of Brake blocks used in BCNHL wagon
a) L-type
b) K-type
c) Both L& K
d) Cast Iron
698. Type of center pivot provided in BCNHL wagon
a) Flat pivot
b) Spherical pivot
c) Diamond pivot
d) None of the above
699. Which of the following model of CBC is used in BCNHL wagon
a) E-type
b) F-type
c) E/F-type
d) H- type
700. Alphabetical code available beside CBC of BCNHL wagon indicates
a) Make of CBC & Draft gear
b) Make of CBC only
c) Make of Draft gear only
d) None of the above
701. Warranty period for imported CBC/Draft gear used in BCNHL wagon
a) 60 months from date of delivery and fitment
b) 72 months from date of delivery
c) 60 months from date of fitment
d) both B &C
702. Type of electrode used for welding repairs on BCNHL wagon (SS to SS)
a)Class-A1
b)Class-B2
c)Class-M1
d)Class-M2
703. Type of electrode used for welding repairs on BCNHL wagon (SS to MS)
a)Class-A1
b)Class-B1
c)Class-M1
d)Class-D
704. Type of electrode used for welding of MS to MS ?
a)Class-A1
b)Class-B2
c)Class-C
d) Class-D1 1306.
705. What is MBS in connection with wagon ?
a) Model Brake system
b) Modified Brake system
c) Mechanical Brake system
d) Modern Brake system
706. In MBS brake cylinders used are called ?
a) Bogie Mounted brake cylinder
b) Under frame mounted brake cylinder
c) Both of the above
 d) None of the above
707. Size of BMBC in wagon ?
a) 10”
b) 12”
c) 14”
d) 8”
708. Manual load empty change over lever not available in MBS ?
a) False
b) True
c) Not specified
d) None of the above
709. In place of load empty box is provided in MBS?
a) LSD
b) LSV
c) APM
d) APV
710. APM stands for ?
a) Automatic Pipe Measure
b) Automatic Pressure Measure
c) Auto Pressure Mechanism
d) Automatic Pressure Maintainer
711. Pressure allowed in to BC in empty condition of MBS?
a)
1.1±0.1Kg/Cm2
b) 2.2±0.25Kg/Cm2
c)
3.8±0.1Kg/Cm2
d) 3.8± 0.25Kg/Cm2
712. Pressure allowed in to BC in loaded condition of MBS ?
a)
1.1±0.1Kg/Cm2
b)
2.2±0.25Kg/Cm2
c) 3.8±0.1 Kg/Cm2
d) 3.8± 0.25Kg/Cm2
713. Type of brake blocks used in MBS ?
a) L-type
b) K-type
 c) Both L& K
d) Cast Iron
714. Brake application and release times of wagon fitted with MBS are different form
conventional air brake system ?
a) True
b) False
c) Can’t say
d) Not specified
715. Piston stroke of BMBS ?
a) 44±10mm approx.
b) 54±10 mm approx.
c) 64±10mm approx.
d) 74±10 mm approx.
716. APM is fitted on ?
a) CASNUB trolley
b) Under frame of body
c) End Body
d) Near the wheels
717. Type of slack adjusting available in MBS ?
a) Single acting
b) Double acting
c) Both the above
d) None of the above
LHB COACHES
GENERAL QUESTIONS
718. What is the full form of LHB?
(a) Lower heavy Bogie
(b) Link Hofmann Busch
(c) Low height Bogie
(d) None of these
719. What is the length over body of LHB coaches?
a) 23570 mm
b) 23545 mm
c) 23540mm
 d) 23565 mm
720. what is the maximum width over body of LHB coaches. ?
(a) 3260mm
(b) 3240mm
(c) 3456mm
(d) 2356mm
721. Height of compartment floor from rail level under tare condition of LHB coaches?
(a) 1320 mm
(b) b)1389mm
(c) c) 1305 mm
(d) d) 1345mm
722. What is Maximum height of centre line of side CBC above rail for empty vehicle?
a)1108mm
b) 1107 mm
c)1105mm
d) 1103mm
723. What is minimum height of centre line of CBC above rail level for loaded vehicle?
a) 1030 mm
b) 1039 mm
c) 1025 mm
d) 1015 mm
724. What is the higher speed potential of LHB coaches?
a) 160 Kmph upgradeable to 180Kmph
b) 180 Kmph upgradeable to 200Kmph
c) 160 Kmph upgradeable to 200Kmph
d) 200 Kmph upgradeable to 220 Kmph
725. What is the wheel gauge of LHB wheel?
(a) 1676 mm
(b) b) 1600±1 mm
(c) c)1610mm
(d) d) 1676 ±1mm
726. What is the new wheel diameter of LHB wheel?
a)910mm
b) 915 mm
 c)912mm
d)725mm
727. What is the condemning limit of LHB wheel diameter?
a)813 mm
b) 839 mm
c) 845 mm
d) 854 mm
728. How many brake disc on one wheel?
a) One
b)Two
c)Three
d)Four
729. Which type of Roller bearing is used in LHB coaches?
a)Spherical Roller bearing.
b) Plain Roller bearing.
c) Cartridge Tapered Roller bearing.
d) None of these
730. What is the thickness of brake disc.?
a)100 mm
b)110mm
c) 105 mm
d) 108 mm
731. What is the diameter of brake disc?
a) 650 mm
b) 630 mm
c) 640 mm
d) 645 mm
732. What is diameter of wheel axle of LHB Coach?
a) 172 mm
b) 170 mm
c) 153 mm
d) 165 mm
733. What is the maximum temperature limit for TIMKEMCTBU?
a)90 o C
 b)80oC
c) 85oC
d) 87oC
734. How many types of shock absorbers are used in LHB Coaches?
a)6
b)5
c) 4
d)3
735. How many shock absorbers/dampers are used in LHB Coaches?
a)10 nos.
b) 8nos.
c) 18nos
d) 12nos
736. What is the name of shock absorbers/dampers connected between bogie and car
body?
a)Primary
b)Secondary
c)Yaw.
d) None of these.
737. Most important condition for coupling of two coaches is
(a) Both couplers should be in alignment.
(b) Both couplers should be within gathering range.
(c) Both a & b
(d) None of above
738. What is the length over CBC of LHB Coaches?
a)23590 mm
b)24000mm
c) 24095 mm
d) 24225 mm
739. What is the height over roof of LHB Coaches?
a) 4200mm
b)4390mm
c) 4039mm
d) 4190 mm
740. Approx. “Riding Index” of LHB Coach–
(a) 3.5
(b) 3.8
(c) c)2.5
(d) d)3.0
741. Distance between inner wheels of LHB -
(a) 12340mm
(b) 10390 mm
(c) 11545mm
(d) 12010mm
742. Distance between centre pivots -
(a) 13780mm
(b) b) 14030 mm
(c) c)14900mm
(d) d) 14350 mm
743. Maximum permissible buffer drop under gross load and worn condition is
a)65mm
b) 70mm
c) 75 mm
d) 80mm
744. Trip Maintenance Schedule i.e. D1 of LHB Coach is done –
a)7±1 days
b) 15 days
c) Every Trip
d) 30days
745. D2 Maintenance Schedule of LHB Coach is done -
(a) 30 days ± 1days
(b) 30 days±3 days
(c) 30 days ± 5days
(d) 30 days ± 7days
746. D3 Maintenance Schedule i.e. of LHB Coach is done
(a) 150 days ± 1days
(b) 120 days ± 3days
(c) 180 days ±15days
 (d) 90 days ±7days
747. ‘SS-I’ (Shop Schedule-1) of LHB coach is done
(a) 1 year
(b) 2years
(c) 1.5 year/ 6 lakes Kms earned whichever is earlier
(d) 3 years/ 6 lakes Kms earned whichever is earlier
748. ‘SS-II’ of LHB coach is done
a)1 year
b) 2years
c)1.5 year/ 6 lakes Kms earned whichever is earlier
d)3 years/ 12 lakes Kms earned whichever is earlier
749. On KM basis ‘SS- I’ of LHB coach is done
a)5 lakh
b)6 lakh
c) 9 lakh
d) 12 lakh
750. On KM basis ‘SS -II’ of LHB coach is done- ?
a) 5 lakh
b) 6 lakh
c) 12 lakh
d) 24 lakh
751. ‘SS -III’ of LHB coaches is done- ?
a)5 years
b) 4 years
c)3 years
d)6 years
752. On KM basis ‘SS - III’ of LHB coach is done- ?
a) 5 lakh
b) 6 lakh
c) 24 lakh
d) 12 lakh
753. ‘IOH’ of LHB coaches is done -
a)18 months
b) 12 months
 c) 9months
d) 14 months
754. Codal life of LHB coaches is- ?
a)30 years
b) 25 years
c) 15 years
d) 35 years
755. Brake power of air brake for Rajdhani coaches from out station is
a) 90%
b) 100%
c) 85%
d) 95%
756. Length of car body of LHB coach is- ?
a) 24000 mm
b) 23540 mm
c) 2400 mm
d) 24430 mm
757. To protect vertical sliding between engine and power car, the device is known as –
a)Vertical slide protector
b)Restrictor
c)Protecting device.
d) None of these
758. What is the wheel base of LHB bogie?
a) 2440 mm
b) 2696 mm
c) 2560 mm
d) 2570 mm
LHB
Coach/Shell
759. Side wall of LHB Coaches are manufactured from -
a)Austenitic steel(SS304M)
b)IRSM-41
c) Ferritic steel (SS-409M)
d)IRSM-44
760. Roof sheet of LHB Coaches are manufactured from
a)Austenitic steel (SS304)
b)IRSM-41
c) Ferritic steel(SS-409)
d)IRSM-44
761. End wall of LHB Coaches are manufactured from –
(a) Austenitic steel (SS304M)
(b) IRSM-41
(c) Ferritic steel (SS-409M)
(d) IRSM-44
762. Trough floor of LHB Coaches are manufactured from
(a) Austenitic steel (SS304)
(b) IRSM-41
(c) Ferritic steel (SS-409)
(d) IRSM-44
763. Cross member so funder frame of LHB Coaches are manufactured from
(a) Austenitic steel (SS 304)
(b) IRSM-41
(c) Ferritic steel(SS-409)
(d) IRSM-44
764. Thickness of Roof sheets of LHB coaches are
(a) 2mm&2.75
(b) 1.25 mm & 1.7 mm
(c) 3mm &3.25mm
(d) 2.75 mm & 2.5mm
765. Thickness of Corrugated sheets of LHB coaches are
a)2mm
b) 3mm
c) 1.25mm
d) 2.5mm
766. Thickness of side wall sheets of LHB coaches are
a)2 mm
b) 3mm
c) 1.25mm
 d) 2.5mm
767. Sole bar of LHB Coaches are manufactured from
(a) Austenitic steel (SS 304)
(b) IRSM-41
(c) Ferritic steel (SS-409)
(d) IRSM-44
768. Thickness of sole bar of LHB coaches is
a)2mm
b) 5mm
c) 4mm
d) 6mm
769. Thickness of Roof flange of LHB coaches is -
a)2mm
b) 5mm
c) 4mm
d) 6mm
770. Material of yaw damper bracket of LHB Coaches is
(a) Cast steel
(b) b)IRSM-41
(c) c) Ferritic steel (SS-409)
(d) d)IRSM-44
771. Yaw damper is fitted on
(a) Sole bar
(b) Bogie
(c) Under frame
(d) Between under frame and bogie frame
772. The Fire Extinguisher used in AC LHB coaches is –
a) Foam type
b) DCP Type
c) CO2 type
d) None of these
773. Fire Extinguisher should be refilled
a) Every month
b) Every 3months
 c) After 1year
d) One very trip
BRAKE SYSTEM
774. Torque value of brake caliper mounting bolt is
a)200NM
b) 170NM
c)150NM
d) 190NM
775. What is the principle of brake system used on LHB coaches?
a)Single pipe air brake system
b)Twin pipe air brake system
c)Twin pipe with disc brake air brake system.
d)None of these
776. What is the capacity of AR tank?
a) 200 ltrs
b) 75 ltrs
c)125 ltrs
d) 300 ltrs
777. 125 ltrs AR tank used for -
a)Toilet purpose
b) Braking purpose
c)Standby
d) None of these.
778. 75 Ltr AR tank used for
a)Toilet purpose
b) Braking purpose
c) Standby
d) None of these.
779. What is the capacity of CRTANK?
a)5.0 Liters
b) 6.0 Liters
c)9.0 Liters
d) 8.0 Liters
780. Bore size of main BP and FP pipe is
 a)45mm
b) 25 mm
c) 20mm
d) 18 mm
781. Diameter of BC line branch pipe is- ?
a) 25 mm
b) 20 mm
c) 18 mm
d) 16 mm
782. Diameter of brake indicator pipe is- ?
a)18 mm
b) 10 mm
c) 15 mm
d) 20 mm
783. When brake indicator shows ‘Red’, the brake will be- ?
a)Released
b)Applied
c)Indicator defective
d)none
784. . When brake indicator shows ‘Green’ the brake will be- ?
a)Released
b)Applied
c)Indicator defective
d)none
785. Brake accelerator is a- ?
a)Brake actuating device
b)Emergency brake application device.
c)Both a &b
d)None of these
786. Principle application of brake accelerator is- ?
a)Emergency braking in each coach of rake
b)Partial braking in each coach of rake
c)Similar braking in each coach of rake
d)None of these
787. Brake accelerator actuates during
(a) Every service application
(b) Emergency brake application
(c) Both a &b
(d) None of these.
788. Minimum rate of pressure required to actuate the brake accelerator
a)1.2 kg/cm2 per minute
b)1.6 kg/cm2 per minute
c)5 to 3.2 kg/ cm2in 3Sec
d) More than 1.6 kg/cm2 per minute
789. Brake accelerator stops venting when BP pressure reached between
a)1.0 kg/cm2
b) 3.5 - 3.0 kg/cm2
c) 2.5 -1.8 kg/cm2
d) 1.5 - 1.0 kg/cm2
790. Brake accelerator is connected to
a)FP pipe
b) BP pipe
c)BC pipe
d) both a &b
791. How many pressure tanks provided on generator/ power car.
a)3 nos
b)2 nos
c)4 nos
d)5 nos
792. What is the capacity of pressure tank provided for parking brake?
a)9 Ltr
b) 5 Ltr.
c) 6 Ltr.
d) 8 Ltr.
793. What is the name of cable provided for hand brake?
a)Hand brake able
b) Flex ball cable
c) Both a & b
 d) None of these
794. How many flex ball cables provided on generator car.
a)One
b)Two
c)Four
d)Three
795. Flex ball cable directly connected to
a) Brake caliper
b) Brake cylinder
c) Both
d) None of these
796. ‘ASD’ stands for
a) Anti Sleep device
b) Anti slip device
c) Both a & b
d) None of these
797. What is the purpose of Anti Skid system?
a)To protect wheels against skidding
b)To maintain same speed of all axle
c)Both a & b
d)None of these
798. What is the purpose of Dump Valve?
a) To maintain approximate same speed of all axles
b) To protect wheels against skidding
c) a & b both
d) None of these
799. The applications of Dump valve is
a) Only braking
b) Only De-braking
c) Both braking and de-braking.
d) None of these
800. Electricity required for Dump valve operative
a)110volt AC
b) 110 volt DC
 c) 24Volt DC
d) 230 Volt AC
801. Anti skid system is a
a) Electronic system
b) Pneumatic system
c) Electro Pneumatic system
d) None of the above
802. What is the purpose of speed sensor?
a)To compute the revolutions of each axle
b)To maintain same speed of each axle
c)Either a or b
d)None of these
803. What is the limit of air gap between sensor and phonic wheel ?
a)1.0 -5.0 mm
b) 1.0 - 10.0mm
c) 0.9 –1.4mm
d) 1.0 – 2.5mm
804. What is the purpose of pressure switch?
a) To actuate anti skid system
b) To provide electric supply to brake accelerator
c) To provide electric supply to dump valve
d) None of these
805. Pressure switch actuate at the train pressure reaches
a) 0 - 0.5 bars
b) 0.5 - 1 bars
c) 1.3-1.8 bars
d) 1.5 – 3.0 bars
806. In KNORR BREMSE system pressure switch connected to
a)FP line
b) BP line
c)BC line
d) both a &b
807. In SAB WABCO system pressure switch connected to
a)BP line
 b) FP line
c) BC line
d) none of these
808. How many brake cylinders are used in LHB coache?
a) 6 nos
b) 4 nos
c) 8 nos
d) 16 nos
809. If anti skid system not actuate, the reason may be
a) Fuse no. 63, 65 may blown
b) Setting of pressure switch may disturb.
c) Both a & b
d) None of these
810. The ‘99’ code shown on micro processor means
a) Whole system working perfectly.
b) Some defect in speed sensor
c) Either a or b
d) None of these.
811. If micro processor shows ‘72’ code means
(a) Temporary fault at one axle
(b) Permanent fault at several axles.
(c) Volatile fault
(d) Permanent fault at one axle
812. If micro processor shows ‘73’ code means
(a) Temporary fault at one axle
(b) Permanent fault at several axles
(c) Permanent fault at one axle
(d) Both a & b
813. How much pressure dropped when emergency brake pull box pulled?
(a) 0.4kg/cm2
(b) 1.0kg/cm2
(c) Almost 3kg/cm2
(d) none of these
814. Size of choke provided in emergency brake valve is
 a)0.4mm
b) 2.0mm
c) 3.0mm
d) No choke
815. “PEASD’ provided in LHB can be reset ?
a) From under gear of coach only
b) From any whereof inside coach
c) From the point where chain pulled
d) Both a & b
816. How can identified the actual position of chain pulled. ?
a) Pull box will in up position & hissing sound heard.
b) Pull box will in down position & hissing sound not heard.
c) Pull box will in down position and hissing sound can hear.
d) None of these
817. Location of isolating cock provided in ‘PEASD’ in LHB coaches. ?
a) On under gear
b) Near emergency brake valve
c) Under frame
d) None of these
818. When emergency pull box pulled from inside the coach. ?
(a) The air pressure slightly dropped
(b) The air pressure dropped.
(c) No pressure dropped
(d) None of these.
819. When emergency chain pulled, brake accelerator will
(a) Not respond
(b) Respond
(c) May be respond
(d) None of these.
820. Thickness of new brake pad is- ?
a)35 mm
b)30 mm
c)45 mm
d)30 mm
821. .Condemning limit of brake pad is- ?
a)10 mm
b) 7 mm
c)8 mm
d) 9 mm
822. Maximum brake cylinder pressure in kg/cm2 is– ?
(a) 3.0 ±0.1 kg/cm2
(b) 3.8 ± 0.1kg/cm2
(c) 2.8 ± 0.1 kg/cm2
(d) 4.0 ± 0.1kg/cm2
823. Maximum gap between brake disc and brake pad is- ?
(a) 3 mm
(b) 1 mm
(c) 2 mm
(d) 1.5 mm
824. In built slack adjuster in brake cylinder is- ?
a) Single acting mechanism
b) Double acting mechanism
c) No slack adjuster
d) None of these
825. The brake cylinder is comprises
a) Power portion
b) Slack adjuster mechanism
c) Spindle reset mechanism
d) All above
826. . How can brake be replaced?
(a) By opening slack adjuster nut of cylinder
(b) By opening brake caliper
(c) Both a & b
(d) None of these
827. Actual size of tool required to open slack adjuster nut of KB brake cylinder is– ?
a) 42 mm
b) 27 mm
c) 36 mm
 d) 40 mm
828. Correct direction to open slack adjuster nut of ‘KB ’make brake cylinder is- ?
(a) Anti clock wise
(b) Clock wise
(c) Any direction
(d) None of the above
829. Actual size of tool required to open slack adjuster nut of ‘SAB’ brake cylinder is
a)46mm
b) 42mm
c)47mm
d) 45mm
830. Dia of ‘SAB’ make brake cylinder is
a)250mm
b) 256mm
c)245mm
d) 255mm
831. Max. length of brake pad is –
a) 330 mm
b) 400 mm
c) 350 mm
d) 375 mm
832. Friction area of brake pad is -
(a) 400 cm2
(b) 300 cm2
(c) 350 cm2
(d) 375 cm2
833. If brake cylinder pipe pressure is below 0.6 bars, the brake indicator shows -
a)Red
b)Green
c) Half R, Half Green
d)Yellow
834. If brake cylinder pipe pressure is equal or more than 0.6 bar, the brake indicator
shows
a) Green
 b) Red
c) Half Red, Half Green
d) Yellow
835. What is the diameter meter of brake disc?
a)110mm
b) 640 mm
c)70mm
d)125mm
836. Brake disc made up of
a) Gray Cast iron
b) Cast steel
c) Special cast steel
d) Non of above
837. Fins provided between the brake discs
a) For strengthening to the disc
b) For cooling of disc
c) None of these
d) Both a &b
838. The brake disc fitted on a same axle at the distance is–?
a) 1030 mm
b) 1070 mm
c) 1100 mm
d) 1125 mm
839. .Distance of brake disc from inner face of wheel is
a) 195 mm
b) 175 mm
c) 250 mm
d) 210 mm
840. How many types of brake system being used on IR
a)One
b)two
c)Three
d)four
841. Which type of air brake system being used on LHB coaching stock?
 a)Single pipe air brake system
b)Twin pipe disc brake system
c)Twin pipe air brakes system
d)Vacuum brake system
842. How many type brakes system provided on LHB power car.
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
843. Handbrake are provided on LHB power cars know as
a)Parking brakes
b)Emergency brakes
c) Flex ball remote control brakes
d)Any of above
844. Hand brakes provided on no. of wheels is –
(a) Only one
(b) two wheels of diagonally opposite
(c) Any three of all
(d) Any of above
845. What are main advantages to adopt disc brake system on LHB coaches?
a)Wear and tear on wheels in minimized
b)Over all life of wheels is increased
c)Effective braking than old system
d)All above
846. How many brake discs are provided on one axle?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
847. How many brake discs are provided on one power car?
a) One
b) Eight
c) Three
d) Four
848. How many brake discs provided on LHB coaches are
a)Four
b)Eight
c)Twelve
d)Sixteen
849. How many brake cylinders are provided in an “A” /under frame mounted coach?
a) 2 nos
b) 1 nos
c) 4 nos
d) 8 nos
850. How many brake cylinders are provided on an “AB” / bogie mounted brake system
coach?
a) 1 nos
b) 2 nos
c) 4 nos
d) 8 nos
851. How many brake cylinders are provided on air brake freight stock?
a)3 nos
b)2 nos
c)1 no
d)4 nos
852. How many brake cylinders are uses in a LHB type coaches.
a) 1 nos
b) 6 nos
c) 12 nos
d) 8 nos
853. Outer diameter of main BP pipe line is –
(a) 20mm
(b) 32mm
(c) 28mm
(d) 40mm
854. Outer diameter of main FP pipe line is
a) 20mm
b) 40mm
 c) 32mm
d) 28mm
855. Outer diameter of main BC pipe line is
a) 20mm
b) 18mm
c) 22mm
d) 10mm
856. Brake caliper unit mounted on -
a) Bogie cross beam
b) Bogie side frame
c) Wheel axles
d) Any of above
857. By pass system is used in brake system when
(a) F.P pipe broken
(b) B.P Pipe broken
(c) Hose pipe broken
(d) Any of these
858. Single pipe system is used in brake system when
a)F.P pipe broken
b)B.P Pipe broken
c)Hose pipe broken
d)Any of these
859. What will you do when one end BP angle cock leakage enroute
(a) By pass the coach
(b) Single pipe the train
(c) Isolate the line from T-joint
(d)Any of above
860. Brake caliper unit should be checked for
(a) Corroded part
(b) Worn out pins
(c) Free leverage
(d) All of above
861. Brake caliper unit mounted with the help of
(a) M16x60bolt
 (b) M 12x 60 mm bolt
(c) M 24X60mm bolt
(d) M 20 x60 mm bolt
862. Torque required for brake caliper mounting bolt is
(a) 170nm
(b) 60nm
(c) 200nm
(d) 190nm
863. Brake caliper jammed when
(a) Middle pin corroded
(b) Brake pad pin worn out
(c) Brake cylinder lose
(d) Any of above
864. What can do to prevent brake caliper unit jamming
(a) Regular clean & lubricate middle pin
(b) Regular clean & lubricate mounting bolt
(c) Clean & lubricate brake pad pin
(d) Any of above
865. Brake cylinder bellow of brake caliper unit should not be allowed it
(a) Torn bellow
(b) Cracked bellow
(c) Bent bellow
(d) All of above
866. Brake indicator shows `Green’ when brakes are applied, what reason Should be
a)CR of the coach not charged
b)Hand release valve stuck up in release position
c)Heavy leaking in BC line
d)Any of above
867. One brake indicator shows `Green’ even brakes are in applied condition is
a)CR of the coach not charged
b)Hand release valve stuck up in release position
c)Brake indicator stuck up in release position
d)Any of above
868. During drop test of the rake the maximum drop permitted in BP is
 (a) 0.2 kg/cm2
(b) 0.3 kg/cm2
(c) 2.0 kg/cm2
(d) 0.6 kg/cm2
869. During drop test of the rake the maximum drop permitted in FP is- ?
(a) 0.2 kg/cm2
(b) 0.6 kg/cm2
(c) 2.0 kg/cm2
(d) 1.0 kg/cm2
870. During the Air brake test of the rake which hose pipe should be connect first ?
(a) FP hose pipe
(b) BP hose pipe
(c) Any hose pipe
(d) Both hosepipe
871. During the EOT (Engine on train) of the coaching rake which hose pipe should be
connect first ?
a) FP hose pipe
b) BP hose pipe
c) Any hose pipe
d) Both hosepipe
872. During Air brake testing after connecting BP hose pipe what should be checked.?
a)Only BP gauge shows pressure
b)Only FP gauge shows pressure
c)Both BP & FP gauge shows pressure
d)Any of above
873. The parking brake pressure tank is charge through-?
(a) FP line
(b) Directly from BP line
(c) Through DV
(d) Any of above
874. During service application the brakes should apply in-?
(a) 20Sec
(b) 30Sec
(c) 3-5Sec.
 (d) 15-20Sec
875. During service application the brake accelerator will be-?
(a) Definitely respond
(b) Does not respond
(c) May be respond
(d) any of above
876. During full brake application the max. Pressure in brake cylinder is
a)1.6 Kg/Cm2
b) 3.0 Kg/Cm2
c) 3.8 Kg/Cm2
d ) 4.8 Kg/Cm2
877. Charging time of CR is-?
a)150 Sec.
b) 160 Sec.
c) 140 Sec.
d) 120 Sec.
878. After full brake application the brake should release with in.
a)10-20 Sec.
b) 20-25 Sec.
c) 15-20 Sec
d) 25- 30 Sec.
879. In case of brake binding what should be checked first
a)Brake binding on one trolley
b)Brake binding on both trolley
c)Brake binding on one wheel set
d)All the above
880. In case of brake binding on both trolley what you do first
(a) Isolate both trolley
(b) Isolate the DV
(c) Pull the quick release valve wire
(d) Any of above
881. In case of brake binding on one trolley what you do first
a) Isolate both trolley
b) Isolate the DV
 c) Pull the quick release valve wire
d) Isolate the affected trolley
882. In case of brake binding on one wheel set what you do first
(a) Check both brake calipers are jammed
(b) Check dump valve of affected wheel
(c) Check both brake cylinder in operative condition
(d) Any of the above
883. In case of brake binding on one brake disc of one wheel set it means- ?
a)The brake cylinder may defective
b)The brake caliper may jam
c)The dump valve may defective
d)Any of the above
884. In case of brake caliper jammed, what action should be taken to Release the brakes
is ?
a)Isolate the trolley
b)Remove brake caliper pivot pin
c)Remove brake cylinder hose pipe
d)Any of above
885. To protect the brake cylinder piston assembly the cover is known as - ?
(a) Piston covers
(b) Brake cylinder cover
(c) Bellow
(d) All of above
886. In case of brake binding on both brake disc of one wheel set what you do first
a)Isolate affected trolley
b)Remove flexible pipe of BC line of affected wheel set.
c)Loosen slack adjuster nut of both brake cylinder
d) Any of above
887. What will happen when brake cylinder bellow got cracked or torn?
a) Nothing will happen
b) Dust can enter into brake cylinder
c) Pressure may leak through bellow
d) None of these
888. What is the reason of twisting of bellows?
 a) Dust accumulation between bellow and piston
b) Hilting of unknown objects during run
c) Excess application of brake cylinder piston
d) Any of above
889. How can save the bellows from twisting
a) Regular cleaning of bellows
b) Regular cleaning and lubricating of bellows
c) Regular Over handing of bellows
d) All of above
890. If the handbrake indicators shows green even the handbrake is applied the reason
will be
a) Both indicators are defective
b) Parking brake continues having leakage
c) Roller valve of hand brake inoperative
d) Above b & c both
891. The roller valve will not operate, if –
a) Parking brake container is leaky
b) Parking brake container is not charged
c) Setting of flex ball cable is not proper
d) Any of above
892. What will you do if hand brakes are applied but brake indicators shows green?
a) Check the pressure in pressure tank
b) Check the leakage of parking brake line
c) Check the setting of cables
d) All of above
893. What twill you do if hand brake indicators shows ‘red’ but the handbrakes are in
release condition?
(a) Check the setting of flex ball cables
(b) Brakeage of flex ball cables
(c) Check the brake cylinder levers are bent or jammed
(d) All of above
894. How can you know if the NRV is defective?
a) By check FP pressure shown in gauge even only BP hose is connected
b) By check no pressure in reservoir after cut the FP pressure
 c) Both a & b
d) Can not be checked
895. What will happened if no secondary suspension provided
a)Riding quality will affect
b)Vertical socks will increase
c)Wear and tear of parts increased
d)All of above

COUPLER/CBC
896. Which type of CBC is fitted in LHB Coaches?
a) E
b) H
c) EH
d) None of these
897. The CBC fitted on LHB coaches’ has _feature.
(a) Anti slipping
(b) Anti rotation
(c) Anti climbing
(d) Anti Creeping
898. The tensile stroke of CBC is
(a) 53-58mm
(b) 45-50mm
(c) 60-65 mm
(d) 35-40mm
899. The maximum buffing stroke of CBC is
(a) 58mm
(b) 75mm
(c) 80mm
(d) 85mm
900. Horizontal gathering range of CBC is
(a) 100mm
(b) 110mm
(c) 95mm
(d) 119mm
901. What is the means of Anti climbing?
a)Protection against climbing of one coach to another in case of accident.
b)Protection against telescopic of one coach to another in case of accident.
c)Both a &b
d)None of these.
902. Oil is strictly prohibited on
a)Uncoupling device of CBC
b)Supporting device of CBC
c)Coupler head knuckle and locks of CBC
d)None of these.
903. Vertical gathering range of CBC is
(a) 90 mm
(b) 95 mm
(c) 85 mm
(d) 100 mm
904. What is the purpose of supporting device?
a)To support CBC weight
b)To equalize vertical forces of CBC
c)Both a &b
d)None of these
905. During coupling operation the speed of vehicle should be
(a) 3-5 Kmph
(b) 2-3kmph
(c) 5kmph
(d) 6-7kmph
906. During coupling operation the coaches should be
a) On a curved track
b) On a straight track
c) Either a or b.
d) None of these
907. Two coaches will definitely coupled if –
a) The rotary lock completely down
b) Inverted ‘U’ should be clear
c) Both a & b
 d) Uncoupling handle in down position.
908. Jaw gap gauge test’ is performed when knuckle in
(a) Closed position
(b) Open position
(c) a & b
(d) None of above
909. During check of Jaw gap the gauge should be
a) Pass through the gap
b) Must not pass through the gap
c) None of above
d) Can not say
910. If the Jaw gap gauge passes through the gap
(a) Knuckle is needs to replace
(b) Lock assembly is need to replace
(c) Either a or b
(d) None of above
911. Gauging of CBC is done when
a)Knuckle in closed position
b)Knuckle in open position
c)Either a or b
d)None of above
912. During check of contour of knuckle the contour gauge must –
(a) Not pass through knuckle
(b) Pass through knuckle
(c) Either a or b
(d) None of above
913. The max height of supporting device should be
(a) 190 mm
(b) 187 mm
(c) 187.5 mm
(d) 189.5 mm
914. To keep the coupler in level, the maximum distance between centre of coupler and
lower edge of socket should be ?
(a) 250 mm
 (b) 260 mm
(c) 240 mm
(d) 255 mm
915. Maximum torque is required for supporting device bolts.?
(a) 400 NM
(b) 200 NM
(c) 500 NM
(d) 550 NM
916. Maximum torque is required for base plate bolts. ?
(a) 45 NM
(b) 180-200 NM
(c) 500±25 NM
(d) 55±50 NM
917. 923. Max. thickness of shim required for increase of buffer height-?
a) 3 mm
b) 5 mm
c) 10 mm
d) 15 mm

WRA ,CDTS & Bio- Toilets

918. What is the full form of CDTS?
a)Compact disk toilet system
b)Compress Disc tuning system
c)Control discharge toilet system
d)None of these
919. What is the full form of WRA?
a)wire relay appliances
b)water raising apparatus
c)Worker relief arrangement
d)None of these.
920. What is the function of Solenoid valve / Magnetic Valve?
a)To create air pressure
b) This is part of PLC
c)To control the entry of Air pressure
 d)None of these.
921. How many openings ‘Retention Tank’ have
a)One
b)two
c)Three
d)four
922. Full form of P.L.C. in CDTS ?
a)Programmable Logic Controller
b)Private Limited Company
c)Perforated Loco Component
d)None of these.
923. CDTS works on
(a) Automatically
(b) Electrically & pneumatic pressure arrangement
(c) Manually
(d) None of these.
924. Opening of Retention tank activate by
a)Double acting pneumatic cylinder
b)Automatically
c)Manually
d)None of these
925. Lower opening of retention tank opens- ?
a)When retention tank full of waste
b)Predetermined speed and predetermine no. of cycle of flush.
c) It used to be always open
d)None of these
926. Function of pressurize in CDTS
a)Delivers pressurized water to flush the waste
b)To deliver the waste
c)To create maximum pressure for system
d)None of these
927. Function of P.L.C in CDTS
a)To control the CDTS system
b)To record nos. of flush cycle as well as speed of vehicle
 c)To record speed of vehicle
d)None of these.
928. CDTS system is based on RDSO specification –
a)MDTS:090
b) MDTS : 089
c) NO.C 9906
d)None
929. Full form of W.S.P -
a)Whole System Process
b) Whole system procedure
c)Wheel sliding protection
d)None of these.
930. Toilet bowl made up of
a) Cast Iron steel
b) IRSM41
c) Stainless steel AISI304
d) None
931. PLC works on
a) 240 VAC
b) 120 VAC
c) 24 VDC
d) 24 VAC
932. CDTS P.L.C. having
(a) 8 input & 4output
(b) 4 input & 4output
(c) 4 input & 8output
(d) None of these
933. Solenoid valve works
a)In running condition of train
b)In stationary condition of train
c)Based on signal from P.L.C.
d)None of these
934. Upper Flapper valve usually open when
a)Train is in stationary condition
 b)Train is in running condition
c) Operation of flush button
d) None of these.
935. The slides of upper flapper valve & lower slide valve connected with
a)By means of link to two pneumatic cylinder
b)By means of wire
c)By some mechanical arrangement
d)None of these.
936. “Fail Safe Mode” of CDTS works
a)In case of failure of Braking system
b)In case of failure of slide valve
c)In case of failure of loss of air &/or electricity
d)None of these
937. In case of retention tank discharge cycle –
a)Train speed should be less than 10Kmph
b)Train speed should be above 20Kmph
c)Train speed should be above 30Kmph
d)Train speed should be above 40Kmph.
938. What is the thickness of the body sheet for Bio-digester tank?
a) 5 mm SS sheet
b) 5 mm MS sheet
c) 3mm SS sheet
d) 3 mm MS sheet
939. Thickness of sheet in inside partition of Bio digester is
a) 3 mm SS sheet
b) 3 mm MS sheet
c) 2mm SS sheet
d) 2 mm MS sheet
940. What is the weight of empty Bio-Toilet Tank?
a) 115Kg
b) 125Kg
c) 100 Kg
d) 150Kg
941. What is the size of ICF coach Bio-digester (H x W x L)?
 a) 450mm x 550mm x 700mm
b) 540 mm x 1150 mm x720 mm
c) 540mm x 1000mm x720mm
d) 450mm x 1150mm x720mm
942. What is the size of LHB coach Bio-digester (H X W X L)?
a) 547mm X 580 mm X1680mm
b) 547 mm x 550mm x1600mm
c) 540mm x 580mm x 1600mm
d) 547mm x 580mm x1650mm
943. What is the effective volume of Bio-Toilet tank?
(a)150 lit
(b)200 lit
(c)300 lit
(d) 350 lit
944. What is the height of Bio-Toilet tank from Rail level?
(a)250mm
(b)225 mm
(c)275 mm
d) 290mm
945. Flow of human waste from Ist and last chamber is passed through?
a) Gravity method
b) Siphon method
c) Pipe arrangement
d) Lifting arrangement
946. What is full name of TPE connector?
a) Thermo plastic electron
b) Thermoplastic Polyurethane Material
c) Thermoplastic Polyurethane Membrane
d) None of the above
947. Green band on exterior below toilet glass indicates, that the coach is provided with ?
a) CDTS
b) Bio-Toilet
c) Vacuum Toilet
d) Vacuum cleaner
948. How many compartments are provided inside the Bio-Digester ?
(a)6
(b)8
(c)4
(d)10
949. Why 6 compartments are provided inside the Bio-Digester ?
a) To increase surface area of Bio-Digester
b) To increase the volume of Bio-Digester
c) To give sufficient time for growth of bacteria
d) None of the above
950. Growth of bacteria occurs in which area of Bio-Toilet ?
a) Compartment walls
b) Poly Grass Mat
c) Bottom of chambers
d) Top of chambers

SUSPENSION & MISCELLANEOUS QUESTIONS

951. Length of FIAT Bogie is
(a) 3535 mm
(b) 3534 mm
(c) 3600 mm
(d) 3530 mm
952. Weight of FIAT Bogie is
(a) 6 t
(b) 6.92 t
(c) 7.0 t
(d) 8.0 t
953. Width of FIAT Bogie is
a)3030 mm
b) 3240 mm
c)3040 mm
d) 3010 mm
954. Distance between centre of two bogies is–
a)15000 mm
 b) 14900 mm
c)19500 mm
d) 15090 mm
955. Capacity of luggage room of WLRRM is–
(a) 3.9 t
(b) 5.0 t
(c) 4.5 t
(d) 6.0 t
956. Cooling capacity of LHB coach is
(a) 3.9 t
(b) 22.5 KW
(c) 22 KW
(d) 25.0 KW
957. ‘T’ type schedule indicates
(a) Weekly schedule
(b) Trip schedule
(c) Monthly schedule
(d) six monthly
958. Max. limit of cracks permissible for roll link silent block in depth is
(a) 36.7mm
(b) 35 mm
(c) 39mm
(d) 40mm
959. New thickness of primary rubber pad is–
(a) 36.7mm
(b) 30.7mm
(c) 35.7mm
(d) 38.2mm
960. Max. Permissible limit of crack in depth for primary rubber pad is
(a) Depth=10mm
(b) Depth = 15mm
(c) Depth=18mm
(d) Depth = 25mm
961. If both side lateral dampers removed from bogies –
 (a) The coach may derail
(b) The centre pivots may displace
(c) Bolster top plank may twist
(d) Lateral socks may increase
962. In case of grease oozing, can be seen from
(a) At front sealing ring of bearing
(b) At bottom plug of bearing housing
(c) At backing ring of bearing
(d) All of above.
963. How much grease is required for Timken make bearing?
(a) 300gm
(b) 350gm
(c) 500 gm
(d) 400gm
964. What is the advantage of dampers?
a) Suspension may be increased
b) Ridding index may be improved
c) Comfort may be increased
d) All of above
965. Compressed length of Yaw damper is
(a) 800 ±3 mm
(b) 703 ± 3mm
(c) 700± 3mm
(d) 800mm ± 3mm
966. Extended length of yaw damper is
a) 703±3 mm
b) 1083±3 mm
c) 700±3 mm
d) 800±3 mm
967. Compressed length of primary vertical damper is–
a) 294±3 mm
b) 434±3 mm
c) 298±3 mm
d) 325±3 mm
968. Extended length of primary vertical damper is–
a) 294±3 mm
b) 434±3 mm
c) 298±3 mm
d) 325±3 mm
969. Stroke of primary vertical damper is
a) 160 mm
b) 140 mm
c) 60 mm
d) 150 mm
970. Overall stroke of yaw damper is
a) 260 mm
b) 380 mm
c) 300 mm
d) 280 mm
971. Compressed length of secondary vertical damper is–
a) 240 ±3mm
b) 395± 3 mm
c) 690 ±3 mm
d) 325±3 mm
972. Extended length of secondary vertical damper is –
a) 240 ±3mm
b) 635 ± 3 mm
c) 260 ±3mm
d) 325±3 mm
973. Compressed length of secondary lateral damper is
a) 400 mm
b) 360 ± 3 mm
c) 240 ± 3mm
d) 325±3 mm
974. Extended length of secondary lateral damper is –
a) 395±3mm
b) 545 ±3mm
c) 600 mm
 d) 325±3mm
975. Overall stroke of secondary lateral damper is–
a) 240 ±3 mm
b) 185 ± 3 mm
c) 690 ±3 mm
d) 325±3 mm
976. Capacity of under frame water tank fitted in AC/3tier.
a) 650 Ltr
b) 685 Ltr
c) 400 Ltr
d) 500 Ltrs
977. Capacity of water tank provided in toilet for emergency–
a) 30 Ltr
b) 50 Ltr
c) 40 Ltr
d) 35 Ltr
978. The CBC fitted on LHB coaches has
a) Only pulling action
b) Only buffing action
C) Both pull & Buffing action
d) Non of the above
979. What kind of maintenance is used for rolling stock is-?
a) Break down maintenance
b) Preventive maintenance
c) Both a & b
d) Non of the above
980. Primary maintenance is a type of ?
a) Break down maintenance
b) Preventive maintenance
c) Safe to run examination
d) None of these
981. POH and IOH schedule of Rajdhani coaches is a type of
a) Break down maintenance
b) Preventive maintenance
 c) Both a &b
d) Either a orb
982. The maintenance done on pit line is
a) Secondary maintenance only
b) Primary maintenance only
c) Safe to run only
d) a & b of above only
983. The capacity of axle of LHB coach is
a) 13 t
b) 16 t
c) 16.25 t
d) 22 t
984. “Yellow point” is provided on axel boxes indicated for ?
a) The location where Roller bearing may crack
b) The location where actual temperature of bearing can be measure
c) The No of axel boxes
d) None of these.
985. The main function of anti roll bar is
a)To allow rolling action of the coach
b)To prevent Rolling action of the coach
c)To provided strength for bogie
d)To negotiate the track curve
986. Free movement of Anti Roll bar is depends upon
a) Condition of Grease in bracket
b) Condition of bearing at both ends
c) Condition of can of bearing
d) All of above
987. The anti roll bar must be checked for
a) Any weariness
b) Any cracks
c) Free movement
d) All the above
988. Condition of grease of anti roll bar should be checked during every -
a) D1schedule
 b) D2schedule
c) D3schedule
d) All the Above
989. Grease of anti roll bar should be replace during every
a)Trips schedule
b) D1 schedule
c) D2 schedule
d) D3 schedule
990. The torque required for axle end safety disc.
a) 170 Nm
b) 180 Nm
c) 200 Nm
d) 590 Nm
991. Wheel tapping is done to detect
a) Any hair crack
b) Any material flow
c) Any wheel shelling
d) All the above
992. Shelling on a wheel set the reason may be
a) WSP system hot function properly
b) Brake caliper may jammed
c) One or both brake cylinder may defective
d) All of above
993. How much shelling on a wheel can be allowed
a)50mm
b) 30mm
c) 20mm multiple
d) No shelling allowed
994. Control arm fitted with help of
(a) 2 bracket safety plated & 6bolt
(b) 6 bracket, 6- safety plated & 6 bolt
(c) c2 bracket, 2 safety plate & 2bolt
(d) None of above
995. Torque required for centre pivot screw is
 (a) 170Nm
(b) 200Nm
(c) 120Nm
(d) 70Nm
996. Torque required for control arm bracket bolt is
(a) 200Nm
(b) 170Nm
(c) 250Nm
(d) 100Nm
997. During Airbrake testing if pressure rise in BP&FP gauge it means
a)BP and FP gauge are defective
b)Non return value defective
c)D.V defective
d)None of these
998. What size spanner is used to looses lack adjuster nut in case of KB make- ?
(a) AF 43
(b) AF 24/27
(c) AF 36
(d) Any of above
999. The NRV is provided in
(a) BC Line
(b) BP line
(c) FP line
(d) All above
1000.if the silent block of roll link is shifted one side the roll link -
(a) Not required to replace
(b) Can be allowed for one trip
(c) Must be replaced
(d) None of these
1001.If the silent block of traction link shifted to one side the traction link
a)Must be replaced
b)Not required replacing
c)Can be allowed for one trip
d)None of these
1002.What is the purpose to provide primary dampers
a)To minimize primary damping
b)To support primary springs
c)To improve primary suspension
d)All of above
1003.What is the purpose to provided yaw dampers?
a)To minimize rolling motion
b)To minimize scattering action of coach
c)To improve riding index
d)All the above
1004.The gangway bridge mounting provided for
a)To provide a bridge between two coaches
b)To protect vestibule doors
c)Both a &b
d)None of the these
1005.The spring leaf is provided for -
a)To keep the fall plate incorrect position
b)To hold the fall plate
c)To support the fall plate
d)Any of above
1006.The supporting bracket of gangway bridge mounting should be checked for ?
(a) Corroded
(b) Broken or loose
(c) Intact of all bolts
(d) All of above
1007.The items of gangway bridge mounting should be checked during
(a) Trip schedule
(b) D1 schedule
(c) D2 schedule
(d) D3 schedule
1008.Why only one lateral damper is provided on each bogie-?
a)To reduce the total cost of coach
b)To reduce total weight of coach
c)To improve lateral damping of one side
 d)It can control both side lateral movements
1009.The movement of sliding doors can be adjusted by -
a) Adjusting of cylinder
b) Adjusting of belt
c)Adjusting of cylinder screw
d)All of above
1010.The toothed belt is provided on
a)Only on sliding doors
b)Only on flap doors
c)Only on vestibule doors
d)On both vestibule and sliding doors
1011.For free movement of sliding and vestibule doors
(a)Oil should be provided on shaft
(b)Grease should be provided on shaft
(c)Vaseline should be provided on shaft
(d)Any of above
1012.How many emergency windows are provided on a coach -
(a) Two
(b) Three
(c) Four
(d) Six
1013.can you identified the emergency windows
a)Provided with Red colors handles
b)Provided with stickers on each emergency window
c)Above a & b
d) None of these
1014.The FR panels are -
(a) Fire retardant
(b) Fire proof
(c) Fire friendly
(d) All of above
1015.Curtains and Rexene seats provided on LHB coaches are
(a) Fiber made
(b) Fire retardant
 (c) Fire proof
(d) All of above
1016.How many under slung water tanks are provided on ACCN coaches
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
1017.How many under slung water tanks are provided on WLRRM coaches
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 1
1018.What is the capacity of under slung water tank provided on WLRRM
(a) 630ltr
(b) 640ltr
(c) 400ltr
(d) 450ltr
1019.What is the purpose to provide water level indicator on water tanks ?
(a) Availability of water
(b) Capacity of water tank
(c) Location of water tank
(d) None of these
1020.What is the purpose to provide sensor on water tank?
(a) Availability of water
(b) Capacity of water tank
(c) Location of water tank
(d) To provide signal to pump control
1021.The sensor is provided on
(a) All water tanks
(b) Two water tanks
(c) One water tank
(d) None of these
1022.The pump control shows “EMPTY’’ even the water tank is full of water it means. ?
(a) Sensor may defective
 (b) No water in the tank
(c) Both A&B
(d) None of these
1023.If the primary spring of an axle box is weak it can be identified by -?
(a) Measuring the distance between control arm top and bogie frame
(b) Measuring the distance between control arm bottom and bogie frame
(c) Measuring the deflection of primary damper
(d) Measuring the distance between control arm lug and safety pin
1024.If the luggage door top stopper is missing
a)The luggage door will not close
b)The luggage door will not open
c)The luggage door lock will not operate
d)Either A or B
1025.If the dump valve continuous venting the reason may be –?
a) Dump valve is defective
b) Dum valve electrical supply disturbed
c) Dump valve stuck up in actuating position
d) WSP is defective
1026.What is the corrective action if dump valve is venting continuously-?
a)Reset the WSP system
b)Rearrange the WSP System
c)Pull out dump valve connector and reconnect
d)Replace the dump valve
1027.The dump valve works only during -
a)Emergency braking
b)Service application
c) Deference in speed of wheel
d)Deference in diameter of wheel
1028.If the speed of all axles is same and emergency braking is applied the dump valve
will-?
a)Does not respond
b)Definitely respond
c)Only one will respond
d)May be respond
1029.If the speed of all axles is Different in a coach during the emergency braking the
dump valve will respond ?
a) Whole the rake
b) All dump valve of the coach
c) Particular dump valve of the coach
d) None of these
1030.The correct action of axle box feeling by manually is
(a) Hold the bare hand on the axle box for 5minutes
(b) Hold the bare hand on the axle box for sometimes
(c) Instant touching of axle box by bare hand
(d) All of above
1031.If only one wheel set is required to change the correct action will be
a)Roll out the both trolley
b)Roll out the affected trolley
c) Lift the coach with trolley
d)Dismantle the wheel connections and Lift the coach with trolley
1032.What can you do to avoid jamming of brake caliper?
(a) Clean and lubricate the middle pin
(b) Clean and lubricate the brake shoe
(c) Periodic checks by rotate slack adjuster nut
(d) All of above
1033.The brake pads should be of same thickness on ?
a) Both caliper of one wheel set
b) All caliper of a trolley
c) Each caliper
d) All caliper of both trolley
1034.If difference in thickness of brake pads is appear , the reason could be - ?
(a) The brake pads fitted with different thickness purposely
(b) The caliper is running in jam condition
(c) The slack adjustment of brake cylinder is not proper
(d) Any of the above
1035.If the brake pads are wearing out in taper condition, the reason could be ?
(a) The brake pads fitted with taper thickness purposely
(b) The caliper is running in jam condition
 (c) The mounting bush of caliper unit is perished or cracked
(d) Any of the above
1036.If heavy scratch marks are appears on brake disc, the reason could be
(a) The brake pads are worn out beyond condemning limit
(b) The brake pads are missing
(c) The foreign particle present between brake pads
(d) All of above
1037.If the brake pads are wearing out in taper condition, the correct action will be ?
(a) Allow the brake pads in same condition
(b) Replace the brake pads immediately
(c) Replace the brake caliper unit immediately
(d) None of these
1038.If the drain cock of 125 ltr. Reservoir gets open or broken
(a) The brakes of whole rake will fail
(b) The 75 ltr reservoir will also drain
(c) The 75 ltr reservoir will not affect
(d) All of above
1039.If NRV of FP line is defective
a) Both BP & FP will drain
b) Only 125 ltr reservoir will drain
c) Only 75 ltr reservoir will drain
d) Any of above
1040.The NRV provided for
a) To protect 125 ltr reservoir to drain
b) To protect 75 ltr reservoir to drain
c) To protect CR reservoir to drain
d) To protect 125,75ltr reservoir & CR to drain
1041.The yaw damper will be defective if
(a) Eyehole bush cracked badly
(b) Any bolt is missing or broken
(c) Damper badly leaky or physically damaged
(d) All above
1042.If one side yaw damper is Leakey
(a) It will affect the riding quality of coach
 (b) Coach may be tilted
(c) Secondary spring may broken
(d) All above
1043.If Secondary vertical damper defective it will affect- ?
a)The quality of sec. suspension
b)The quality of riding index
c)The spring may breakage
d)Any of above
MAINTENANCE SCHEDULE
1044.How many Maintenance Schedule are generally done in primary Maintenance
Depot of LHB Coaches?
a) One
b)Two
c) Three
d)None
1045.Frequency of D1 Schedule is
(a) On Every Trip
(b) 7days
(c) 15days
(d) 30days
1046.Frequency of D2 Schedule is
(a) 7 days±1day
(b) 10 days± 1day
(c) 15 days±1day
(d) 30 days± 3day
1047.Frequency of D3 Schedule is
(a) 1 month±1day
(b) 3 month ± 3day
(c) 6 month ± 15day
(d) 9 month ± 3day
1048.Intensive cleaning of coaches should be done in
(a) D1Schedule
(b) D2Schedule
(c) D3Schedule
 (d) D1, D2 &D3
1049.Inspection of vestibule and its rubber fitting for damage is done in
(a) D1 Schedule
(b) D2 Schedule
(c) D1, D2 &D3 Schedule
(d) D3 Schedule
1050.Thoroughly cleaning and removing dust, rust accumulated at pillars is done in
a)D1 Schedule
b) D2 Schedule
c) D1, D2 &D3 Schedule
d) D3 Schedule
1051.Examination of sole bar for corrosion is done in
a)D1 Schedule
b) D2Schedule
c) D1, D2 &D3Schedule
d) D3Schedule
1052.Touching up damaged paint inside and outside in
a)D1 Schedule
b) D2 Schedule
c) D2 &D3 Schedule
d) D3 Schedule
1053.Checking of bogie bolster assembly and bracketed in
a)D1 Schedule
b) D2 Schedule
c) D1, D2 &D3Schedule
d) D3Schedule
1054.Washing of bogie frame thoroughly with water jet in
(a) D1 Schedule
(b) D2 Schedule
(c) D2 &D3 Schedule
(d) D3 Schedule
1055.Checking of functionality of brake equipment and hand brake equipment in ?
(a) D1 Schedule
(b) D2 Schedule
 (c) D1, D2 &D3 Schedule
(d) D3 schedule
1056.Carrying out of functional test on pneumatic brake system in –?
(a) D1 Schedule
(b) D2 Schedule
(c) D1, D2 &D3 Schedule
(d) D3 Schedule
1057.Checking of air hoses is done in-?
(a) D1 Schedule
(b) D2 Schedule
(c) D1, D2 &D3 Schedule
(d) D3 Schedule
1058.Verifying the clearance between each pad and disc surface in- ?
(a) D1 Schedule
(b) D2 Schedule
(c) D3 Schedule
(d) D2 &D3
1059.Inspection of ear thing equipment for wear of carbon bars-?
(a) D1 Schedule
(b) D2 Schedule
(c) D3 Schedule
(d) D2 &D3
1060.Checking of crack, damage of spring is done in- ?
(a) D1 Schedule
(b) D2 Schedule
(c) D1, D2 &D3 Schedule
(d) D3 Schedule
1061.Checking of dampers its rubber elements is done in
(a) D1 Schedule
(b) D2 Schedule
(c) D1, D2 &D3 Schedule
(d) D3Schedule
1062.Checking of bearing for hot and grease leakage is done in
a) D1 Schedule
 b) D2 Schedule
c) D1, D2 &D3 Schedule
d) D3 Schedule
1063.Checking of wheel profile gauge is done in
(a) D1 Schedule
(b) D2Schedule
(c) D1, D2 &D3Schedule
(d) D3Schedule
1064.Inspection of Rotation Limiter is done in
(a) D1 Schedule
(b) D2 Schedule
(c) D1, D2 &D3 Schedule
(d) D3 Schedule
1065.Checking of tread diameter and wear of wheel profile is done in
(a) D1 Schedule
(b) D2 Schedule
(c) D1, D2 &D3 Schedule
(d) D2 & D3 Schedule
1066.Inspection of grease oozing out of anti roll bar bearing is done in –
(a) D1 Schedule
(b) D2 Schedule
(c) D1, D2 &D3 Schedule
(d) D3Schedule
1067.Lubrication fall pin sand bushes is done in
(a) D1Schedule
(b) D2 & D3 Schedule
(c) D1, D2 &D3Schedule
(d) D3Schedule
1068.Inspection of coupler head, knuckle for damage is checked in-?
a)D1 Schedule
b) D2 Schedule
c) D1, D2 &D3 Schedule
d) D3 Schedule
1069.checking of tell tale recess for ensuring proper coupling is done in- ?
 a)D1Schedule
b) D2Schedule
c) D1, D2 &D3Schedule
d) D3Schedule
1070.Checking of corridor connection for external damage and entry of foreign bodies is
done in-?
(a) D1 Schedule
(b) D2 Schedule
(c) D1, D2 & D3 Schedule
(d) D3 Schedule
1071.Cleaning of Air Filter is done in -
a) D1 Schedule
b) D2 Schedule
c) D1, D2 & D3 Schedule
d) D2 & D3 Schedule
1072.Draining of Air tank is done in
a)D1 Schedule
b) D2 Schedule
c) D1, D2 & D3 Schedule
d) D3 Schedule
1073.Inspection of seats, Luggage rack etc. is done in – ?
a)D1 Schedule
b) D2 & D3 Schedule
c) D1, D2 &D3 Schedule
d) D3 Schedule
1074.Inspection of Leaf of sliding door is done in
(a) D1Schedule
(b) D2Schedule
(c) D1, D2 &D3Schedule
(d) D3Schedule
1075.Lubrication of door seals with silicon paste is done in
a)D1 Schedule
b) D2 Schedule
c) D1, D2 & D3 Schedule
 d) D3 Schedule
1076.What is SS-I?
a)Shop Superintendent-I
b) Shop Schedule-I
c) None of these
d)All
1077.Where shop schedule is carried out
(a) In primary depot
(b) In sick line
(c) In workshops
(d) none
1078.Frequency of SS-I is -
(a) 18 month ± 30 days
(b) 20 months± 7day
(c) 24 months± 15 day
(d) D3 Schedule
1079.With respect to Kms, Frequency of SS-I is
(a) 5 Lakh Kms
(b) 6 Lakh Kms
(c) 10 Lakh Kms
(d) 12 Lakh Kms
1080.Frequency of SS-II is -
(a) 1 year
(b) 2 years
(c) 3 years
(d) 5 years
1081.With respect to Kms, Frequency of SS-II is
(a) 5Lakh Kms
(b) 6 Lakh Kms
(c) 10Lakh Kms
(d) 12 Lakh Kms
1082.Frequency of SS-III is -
(a) 2 years
(b) 3years
 (c) 6 years
(d) 5years
1083.With respect to Kms, Frequency of SS-III is
(a) 10 Lakh Kms
(b) 15 Lakh Kms
(c) 24 Lakh Kms
(d) 20 Lakh Kms

UNDER GEAR /BOGIE

1084.What capacity of the equalizing stays of the shatabdi Exp.?
(a) 22 tons
(b) 20 tons
(c) 16 tons
(d) 14 tons
1085.The condemning size of sand casting brake block is –
(a) 30.0 mm
(b) 10.0 mm
(c) 20.0 mm
(d) 15.0 mm
1086.The clearance between pin and bushes should not exceed –
(a) 1.0 mm
(b) 0.5 mm
(c) 1.5 mm
(d) None of the above
1087.After indo-German modification in coaching stock, What type of bushes to be used
for brake gear components?
(a) Nylon -55
(b) Steel –46
(c) Nylon –66
(d) Copper coated –55
1088.What is amount of the oil per side bearer in ICF coaches?
(a) 1.2 letter
(b) 1.6 letter
(c) 2.5 letter
 (d) 2.2 letter
1089.With what the lateral and longitudinal guides of ICF bogie is mounted?
(a) Dash pot
(b) side bearer
(c) CBC
(d) Spring
1090.What should be the maximum distance between safety loop and axle in ICF bogie?
(a) 32.0 mm
(b) 35.0 mm
(c) 40.0 mm
(d) 44.0 mm
1091.What is the distance between side bearers of ICF coach?
(a) 1560 mm
(b) 1590 mm
(c) 1600 mm
(d) 1610 mm
1092.After indo- German modification, the crown clearance bolt to be fitted with-
(a) Steel bush
(b) Rubber washer
(c) Nylon bush
(d) Rubber packing
1093.What types of brake block are used in coaching stock?
(a) ‘L’ type
(b) ‘K’ type
(c) ‘CI’ type
(d) All type
1094.In released position, the gap between brake block and wheel is –
(a) 3 mm
(b) 4 mm
(c) 5 mm
(d) 7 mm
1095.What is the oil level in dashpot?
(a) 50.0 mm
(b) 40.0 mm
 (c) 75.0 mm
(d) 90.0 mm
1096.What should be the interval of check the dashpot oil in mail/Express train?
(a) 15 days
(b) 25 days
(c) one month
(d) two month
1097.What is the amount of oil per dashpot in 40-mm depth in modified guide
arrangement?
(a) 1.6 litter
(b) 2.5 litter
(c) 2.2 litter
(d) 1.9 litter
1098.What is the interval of check the side bearer oil?
(a) One month
(b) 25 days
(c) 15 days
(d) 10 days
1099.In bogie mounted air brake systems, the No of brake cylinder are –
(a) 8
(b) 6
(c) 2
(d) 4
1100.In ICF & RCF bogie, the total height of primary spring and compensating ring
should not exceed –
(a) 285 mm
(b) 290 mm
(c) 295 mm
(d) 300 mm
1101.The minimum clearance between the axle box using lugs and their safety straps is –
(a) 36.0 mm
(b) 40.0 mm
(c) 44.0 mm
(d) 43.0 mm
1102.The crown clearance “A” between the axle box crown and the bogie frame of GS,
SPC, SLR, SCN, VPH coaches is -
(a) 40±2 mm
(b) 43±0/3 mm
(c) 42±0/4 mm
(d) 45±2 mm
1103.In WGACCW, WGACCN coaches, the crown clearance between the axle box
crown and the bogie frame is -
(a) 30±2 mm
(b) 30± 5 mm
(c) 27± 0/3 mm
(d) 25± 0/3 mm
1104.What is the bolster weight of ICF bogie?
(a) 0.234 t
(b) 0.400 t
(c) 0.486 t
(d) 0.513 t
1105.The variation in all four-corner height of the bogie must be less then or equal to –
(a) 5.0. mm
(b) 10.0 mm
(c) 15.0 mm
(d) 18.0 mm
1106.Weight of each non AC RCF bogie is -
(a) 4.90 t
(b) 5.9 t
(c) 6.20 t
(d) 6.898 t
1107.The weight of the coach is transferred through -
(a) Side bearer
(b) Equalizing stay
(c) Helical spring
(d) Bolster
1108.How many numbers of holes in guide cap hole in ICF/RCF bogie –
(a) 5
 (b) 7
(c) 9
(d) 11
1109.What is the diameter of guide cap hole in ICF/RCF bogie?
(a) 4.0 mm
(b) 3.0 mm
(c) 5.0 mm
(d) 7.0 mm
1110.Center pivot pin does not transmit any -
(a) Horizontal load
(b) Tractive
(c) Breaking force
(d) Vertical force
1111.New dimension of side bearers wearing plate is -
(a) 10.0 mm
(b) 12.0 mm
(c) 14.0 mm
(d) 16.0 mm
1112.What is shop renewal dimension of side bearer wearing plate?
(a) 10.0 mm
(b) 9.0 mm
(c) 8.0 mm
(d) 7.5 mm
1113.Condemning size of side bearer wearing plate is -
(a) 10.0 mm
(b) 9.0 mm
(c) 8.50 mm
(d) 7.50 mm
1114.Newly dimension of side bearer wearing pieces is -
(a) 45.0 mm
(b) 44.0 mm
(c) 43.0 mm
(d) 42.0 mm
1115. Shop renewal size of side bearer wearing piece is -
 (a) 45.0 mm
(b) 44.50 mm
(c) 43.50 mm
(d) 42.50 mm
1116.What is the condemning size of side bearer wearing piece?
(a) 45.0 mm
(b) 44.0 mm
(c) 43.0 mm
(d) 42.0 mm
1117.Length of the anchor link is -
(a) 445± 1mm
(b) 450± 1mm
(c) 451± 1mm
(d) 455± 1mm
1118.What mechanism is provided to control the speed of the coach by transferring the
breaking Force from break cylinder to he wheel tread?
(a) Brake rigging
(b) Push rod
(c) Anchor link
(d) Brake cylinder
1119.How many brake head & block complete in coach under frame mounted brake
rigging –
(a) 8
(b) 12
(c) 16
(d) 18
1120.How many adjusting links in coach under frame mounted brake rigging?
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 3
(d) 6
1121. New size of hanger block (top & bottom) is -
(a) 9.5 mm
(b) 10.5 mm
 (c) 8.5 mm
(d) 9.0 mm
1122.What is shop issue size of hanger block (top & bottom)?
(a) 9.5 mm
(b) 9.0 mm
(c) 8.5 mm
(d) 8.0 mm
1123.What is the wear limit of hanger block (top & bottom)?
(a) 1.0 mm
(b) 2.0 mm
(c) 1.5 mm
(d) 3.0 mm
1124.Wear limit of BSS brackets is -
(a) 0.5 mm
(b) 1.0 mm
(c) 1.5 mm
(d) 2.0 mm
1125.Longitudinal gauge for BSS bracket of 13-t bogie is -
(a) 1400± 1.0 mm
(b) 1300± 1.0 mm
(c) 1500± 1.0 mm
(d) 14500± 1.0 mm
1126.Longitudinal gauge for BSS bracket of 16.25-t bogie is -
(a) 1400± 1.0 mm
(b) 1500± 1.0 mm
(c) 14500± 1.0 mm
(d) 13000± 1.0 mm
1127.Diagonal gauge for BSS bracket of 13 t bogie is -
(a) 2687± 1.0 mm
(b) 2573± 1.0 mm
(c) 2159± 1.0 mm
(d) 2159± 1.0 mm
1128.Diagonal gauge for BSS bracket of 16.25 t bogie is -
(a) 2573± 1.0 mm
 (b) 2687± 1.0 mm
(c) 2629± 1.0 mm
(d) 3612± 1.0 mm
1129.Longitudinal gauge for axle guide of 13 t bogie is -
(a) 570± 1.0 mm
(b) 580± 1.0 mm
(c) 590± 1.0 mm
(d) 595± 1.0 mm
1130.Longitudinal gauge for axle guide of 16.25 t bogie is -
(a) 580± 1.0 mm
(b) 570± 1.0 mm
(c) 590± 1.0 mm
(d) 575± 1.0 mm
1131.Longitudinal gauge for axle guide of 13 t & 16.25 t bogie is -
(a) 3912± 1.0 mm
(b) 3812± 1.0 mm
(c) 3712± 1.0 mm
(d) 3612± 1.0 mm
1132.Distance between BSS bracket and adjust axle gauge of 13 t bogie is –
(a) 463± 1.0 mm
(b) 453± 1.0 mm
(c) 455± 1.0 mm
(d) 413± 1.0 mm
1133.Distance between BSS bracket and adjust axle gauge of 16.25 t bogie is –
(a) 463± 1.0 mm
(b) 451± 1.0 mm
(c) 423± 1.0 mm
(d) 413± 1.0 mm
1134.New diameter of pin for BSS hanger is -
(a) 35 mm
(b) 37 mm
(c) 38 mm
(d) 40 mm
1135.What is the hole diameter of level hanger bracket?
 (a) 30 mm
(b) 31 mm
(c) 32 mm
(d) 35 mm
1136.Inside diameter of anchor link silent block in is -
(a) 25.0 mm
(b) 30.0 mm
(c) 32.0 mm
(d) 35.0 mm
1137.Outer diameter of anchor link silent block is -
(a) 85.5 mm
(b) 87.5 mm
(c) 90.5 mm
(d) 91.5 mm
1138.New diameter for pins for 16.25 t load bearing capacity equalizing stay is
(a) 31± 05/0.2 mm
(b) 33± 0.5/0.3 mm
(c) 35± 1.0 mm
(d) 30± 1.0 mm
1139.New diameter for pins for 13-t axle load bearing capacity equalizing stay is –
(a) 31± 1.0 mm
(b) 25± 1.0 mm
(c) 24± 0.2/0.1 mm
(d) 20± 0.51 mm
1140.All the hangers should be tested to tensile load of -
(a) 10 t
(b) 8.0 t
(c) 7.0 t
(d) 6.5 t
1141.Inside distance between horizontal bearing arms of BSS hanger is –
(a) 374 mm
(b) 378 mm
(c) 381 mm
(d) 384 mm
1142.Thickness of vertical arm of BSS hanger is -
(a) 20.5 mm
(b) 25.5 mm
(c) 30.5 mm
(d) 23.5 mm
1143. Horizontal bearing surface of BSS hanger is -
(a) 42.0 mm
(b) 44.0 mm
(c) 45.0 mm
(d) 48.0 mm
1144.The maximum diametrical clearance between the pins and bushes is –
(a) 1.0 mm
(b) 1.5 mm
(c) 1.2 mm
(d) 1.4 mm
1145.The maximum diametrical clearance between the lower spring seat and guide bush
should not exceed -
(a) 1.4 mm
(b) 1.5 mm
(c) 1.6 mm
(d) 2.0 mm
1146.Minimum clearance between the lugs and bottom of safety straps is –
(a) 40.0 mm
(b) 42.0 mm
(c) 45.0 mm
(d) 48.0 mm
1147. Weight of the AC ICF bogie is –
(a) 5.80 t
(b) 480 t
(c) 6.200 t
(d) 7.22 t
1148.Oil level in hydraulic Dashpot of rajadhani and shatabiti coaches should be cheeked
once in –
(a) 10 days
 (b) 15 days
(c) 20 days
(d) one month
1149.Length of brake block hanger from center to center of brake block hanger is
(a) 235±0.5 mm
(b) 238±1.0 mm
(c) 236±1.0 mm
(d) 224±1.0 mm
1150.In case of high-speed train, Brake rigging with long Arm of the brake shaft is 686
mm it should by replaced by an Arm of length is –
(a) 786 mm
(b) 830 mm
(c) 827 mm
(d) 840 mm
1151. Coach nominated to run at a sanctioned speed of 110 Km/h. The leteral play of
plain bearing in IRS coaches should not exceed –
(a) 3.0 mm
(b) 5.0 mm
(c) 7.0 mm
(d) 10.0 mm
1152.Coach nominated to run at a sanctioned speed of 110 Km/h, the longitudinal
clearance between horn-cheeks and axle box liner across horn gaps in IRS coach
should be –
(a) 1.0 mm
(b) 2.0 mm
(c) 3.0 mm
(d) 5.0 mm
1153.Which type brake system, external slack adjuster have been eliminated?
(a) BMBC
(b) UMBS
(c) BMBS & UMBS
(d) None of the above
1154.How many brake cylinders fitted in an ICF under slug brake system?
(a) 4
 (b) 2
(c) 1
(d) None
1155.What is the modified brake-rigging ratio of self-generating air brake coaches with
under frame mounted brake system?
(a) 1.14:2
(b) 1.13:2
(c) 1.3:1
(d) 1.17:1
1156.What is the piston stroke with modified brake rigging ratio of self-generating air
brake coaches with under frame mounted brake system?
(a) 80±10 mm
(b) 70±10 mm
(c) 75±10 mm
(d) 60±10 mm
1157.What is the bogie leverage ratio of WGACCW coach?
(a) 1.14:2
(b) 1.5:5
(c) 1.7:5
(d) 1.10:1
1158.How many Non return valves are provided in ICF coach fitted with WRA system?
(a) 03
(b) 05
(c) 07
(d) 08
1159.If wheel diameter of an ICF coach is 887mm (889 –863), How much thickness of
wooden packing is required for buffer height adjustment?
(a) 13 mm
(b) 38 mm
(c) 48 mm
(d) 26 mm
1160.If wheel diameter of an ICF coach is 860 mm (863 –839), How much thickness of
wooden packing is required for buffer height adjustment?
(a) 13 mm
 (b) 38 mm
(c) 48 mm
(d) 26 mm
1161.If wheel diameter of an ICF coach is 820mm (839 –819), How much thickness of
wooden packing is required for buffer height adjustment?
(a) 13 mm
(b) 38 mm
(c) 48 mm
(d) 26 mm
1162.If wheel diameter of an ICF coach is less than 819 mm, How much thickness of
wooden packing is required for buffer height adjustment?
(a) 13 mm
(b) 38 mm
(c) 48 mm
(d) 26 mm
1163.Truce bar hanger length is increased from –
(a) 205 to 235 mm
(b) 205 to 240 mm
(c) 205 to 255 mm
(d) None of the above
1164.Wear limit of equalizing stay pins is -
(a) Up to 1.0 mm
(b) Up to 1.5 mm
(c) Up to 2.0 mm
(d) none of the above
1165.What is the position of equalizing stay rod, between what parts it is fitted?
(a) SAB head to control rod
(b) bolster and lower spring plank
(c) Bolster and bogie transoms
(d) None of the above
1166.Where anchor link is fitted in a bogie?
(a) Bolster and bogie transom
(b) Bolster stay rod and plank.
(c) Equalizing stay rod and plank.
 (d) None of the above
1167.What is the modification of equalizing stay rod?
(a) Fitted 16 tons in all coaches
(b) fitted 18 t o tons in all coaches
(c) Fitted 14 tons in all coaches
(d) none of the above
1168.The color code of helical spring of ICF bogie is –
(a) Yellow, blue, green
(b) Yellow, red, green
(c) White, blue, green
(d) White, red, green
1169.What type of axle guidance arrangement used in ICF/RCF bogie?
(a) Oil clamping
(b) Telescopic axle guide with oil damping
(c) Vertical oil damping
(d) pneumatic axle guide
1170.Between what, crown clearance “A” is measured -
(a) Between bolster & side frame
(b) Between anchor ling and primary suspension
(c) Between axle box crown and the crown bolt
(d) None of the above
1171.One of the function of Anchor links?
(a) To joint bolster and side frame
(b) To prevent rational movement of bolster
(c) To connect with upper plank and lower plank
(d) None of the above

WHEEL & AXLE

1172.Permissible variations in wheel tread diameter for four-wheeled trolley (IRS-Non
IRS) on the same axle on BG is –(while turning the wheel)
a) 0.5 mm
b) 0.49 mm
c) 0.30 mm
d) 0.45 mm
1173.Permissible variations in wheel tread diameter for four-wheeled trolley
(Sehileren, ICF , BEML) in the same axle on BG is -(while turning the wheel)
a) 0.45 mm
b) 0.50 mm
c) 0.60 mm
d) 0.48 mm

1174.Permissible variations in wheel tread diameter for six-wheeled trolley in the same
axle on BG is –(while turning the wheel)
a) 0.30 mm
b) 0.60 mm
c) 0.50 mm
d) 0.45 mm
1175.Permissible variations in wheel tread diameter for six-wheeled trolley unit in the
same axle on BG is -(while turning the wheel)
a) 0.60 mm
b) 0.30 mm
c) 0.50 mm
d) 0.48 mm
1176.Permissible variations in wheel tread diameter for four-wheeled unit in the same
axle on BG is -(while turning the wheel)
a) 0.35 mm
b) 0.49 mm
c) 0.48 mm
d) 0.50 mm
1177.Permissible variations in wheel tread diameter for power coach in the same axle on
BG is –
a) 0.48 mm
b) 0.40 mm
c) 0.50 mm
d) 0.35 mm
1178.Permissible variations in wheel tread diameter for four-wheeled trolley on the
same coach on BG is –(while turning the wheel)
a) 12.0 mm
 b) 10.0 mm
c) 11.0 mm
d) 13.0 mm
1179.Permissible variations in wheel tread diameter for four-wheeled trolley
(Sehileren, ICF, and BEML) in the same trolley on BG is -(while turning the
wheel)
a) 10.0 mm
b) 7.0 mm
c) 5.0 mm
d) 8.0 mm
1180.Permissible variations in wheel tread diameter for six-wheeled trolley in the same
trolley on BG is -(while turning the wheel)
a) 10.0 mm
b) 8.0 mm
c) 6.0 mm
d) 5.0 mm
1181.Permissible variations in wheel tread diameter for six-wheeled trolley unit in the
same trolley on BG is -(while turning the wheel)
a) 5.0 mm
b) None
c) 4.0 mm
d) 6.0 mm
1182. Permissible variations in wheel tread diameter for power coach in the same trolley
on BG is
a) 5.0 mm
b) 3.0 mm
c) 4.0 mm
d) 6.0 mm
1183.Permissible variations in wheel tread diameter for four-wheeled trolley (IRS-
Non IRS) in the same coach or same unit on BG is –(while turning the
wheel)
a) 10.0 mm
b) 13.0 mm
c) 12.0 mm
 d) 15.6 mm
1184.Permissible variation in wheel treads diameter for four-wheeled trolley
(Sehileren, ICF, and BEML) in the same coach or same unit on BG is -(while
turning the wheel)
a) 11.0 mm
b) 12.0 mm
c) 13.0 mm
d) 15.0 mm
1185. Permissible variations in wheel tread diameter for six-wheeled trolley in the
coach or same unit on BG is -(while turning the wheel)
a) 10.0 mm
b) 8.0 mm
c) 4.0 mm
d) 6.0 mm
1186.Permissible variations in wheel tread diameter for four-wheeled unit on the coach
or same unit on BG is –(while turning the wheel)
a) 20.0 mm
b) 15.0 mm
c) 25.0 mm
d) 18.0 mm
1187.Permissible variation in wheel tread diameter for power coaches on the coach or
same unit on BG is – (while turning the wheel)
a) 10.0 mm
b) 13.0 mm
c) 12.0 mm
d) 11.0 mm
1188.The axle load of AC coaches is –
a) 22.0 tons
b) 16.25 tons
c) 15.0 tons
d) 14.50 tons
1189.The top & bottom flange thickness of 16.25 tons axle load bogie is –
a) 14.0 mm
b) 16.0 mm
 c) 15.0 mm
d) 20.0 mm
1190.The use of 16.25 tons axle load bogie is in –
a) WGS
b) AC
c) WGSCN
d) Non AC
1191.Axle load capacity of generator (WLLRM) coach is –
a) 16.0 tons
b) 16.25 tons
c) 15.0 tons
d) 20.30 tons
1192.The top and bottom flange thickness of 13 tons load bogie is –
a) 14.0 mm
b) 12.0 mm
c) 15.0 mm
d) 20.0 mm
1193.The use of 13 tons axle load bogie is –
a) PVH
b) AC
c) Power Car
d) Non AC
1194.What is the size of direct mounted roller bearing journal of ICF bogie?
a) 125*111 mm
b) 120*113.5 mm
c) 125*130 mm
d) 130*100 mm
1195.Flat faces on BG coach is –
a) 60.0 mm
b) 50.0 mm
c) 75.0 mm
d) 90.0 mm
1196.High speed ICF coach condemning flange thickness is –
a) 14.0 mm
 b) 13.0 mm
c) 22.0 mm
d) 10.0 mm
1197.Lateral movements of wheels are controlled by –
a) Axle Guide
b) Journal center
c) roller bearing
d) Desh pot
1198.Maximum axle load bearing capacity of non-AC ICF/RCF coach is
a) 18.2 t
b) 17.32 t
c) 16.25 t
d) 13 t
1199.Maximum axle load bearing capacity of AC ICF/RCF coach is –
a) 16.25 t
b) 13 t
c) 15 t
d) 14.28 t
1200.Bogie wheelbase of ICF/ RCF all coil bogies are -
a) 2896 mm
b) 2986 mm
c) 2886 mm
d) 2997 mm
1201.What is the new wheel diameter of ICF/ RCF coach is –
a) 910 mm
b) 915 mm
c) 930 mm
d) 925 mm
1202.Min shop issue size of ICF solid wheel is –
a) 837 mm
b) 870 mm
c) 854 mm
d) 8746 mm
1203.Flange thickness of new BG wheel coach is –
 a) 28.0 mm
b) 28.50 mm
c) 29.50 mm
d) 27.50 mm
1204.Condemning flange thickness of other then superfast new BG wheel is –
a) 28.0 mm
b) 20.0 mm
c) 16.0 mm
d) 14.0 mm
1205.Height at tread in center of BG wheel is –
a) 28.5 mm
b) 29.5 mm
c) 30.5 mm
d) 32.5 mm
1206.Top radius of the new BG wheel is –
a) 14.0 mm
b) 13.5 mm
c) 11.5 mm
d) 10.5 mm
1207.The radius of the root of flange of new BG wheel is –
a) 14.0 mm
b) 16.0 mm
c) 18.0 mm
d) 19.0 mm
1208.The thickness of tyre at tread in the center of wheel on BG coach is –
a) 63.50 mm
b) 65.50 mm
c) 57.50 mm
d) 58.50 mm
1209.The thickness of BG wheel flange of high-speed train coach is –
a) 28.50 mm
b) 27.50 mm
c) 29.4 mm
d) 29.50 mm
1210.Condemning height of flange on tread on BG wheel is –
a) 30.0 mm
b) 32.0 mm
c) 34.0 mm
d) 35.0 mm
1211.Condemning size of radius at the top of flange (Sharp flange) of BG main line coach
wheel is –
a) 8.0 mm
b) 5.0 mm
c) 10.0 mm
d) 12.0 mm
1212.Clearance between brake block and wheel tread of ICF coach is –
a) 5.0 mm
b) 6.25 mm
c) 6.75 mm
d) 5.75 mm
1213.On same axle hardness of both wheel should not be very more than –
a) 70 BHN
b) 65 BHN
c) 45 BHN
d) 35 BHN
1214.Total length of axle is
a) 2310 + 0.5/-0.0mm
b) 2316 + 0.5/-0.0mm
c) 2318 + 0.5/-0.0mm
d) 2320 + 0.5/-0.0mm
1215.On ICF journal, a taper should not exceed –
a) 0.010/ o.o15 mm
b) 0.015/ o.o10mm
c) 0.010/ o.o25mm
d) None of the above
1216.On ICF journal, out of roundness (ovality) must not exceed –
a) 0.010/ o.o15mm
b) 0.015/ o.o10mm
 c) 0.015/ o.o20mm
d) None of the above
1217.After POH, the lowest permissible wheel diameter for a coach is –
a) Not less then 900 mm
b) Not less then 860 mm
c) Not less then 837 mm
d) Not less then 826 mm

BEARING

1218.Which type of grease used in roller bearing in ICF coach?

a) Servo –20
b) Lithium base
c) Servo –40
d) Graphite –20
1219.What quantity of grease filled per axle box of SKF make bearing?
a) 1.75 kg
b) 2.00 kg
c) 2.25 kg
d) 2.5 kg
1220.What quantity of grease filled per axle box of other than SKF make bearing?
a) 1.75 kg
b) 2.00 kg
c) 2.25 kg
d) 2.5 kg
1221.Maximum permissible radial clearance for SKF make bearing in service is –
a) 0.33 mm
b) 0.56 mm
c) 0.270 mm
d) 0.295 mm
1222.Maximum permissible radial clearances for NBC make bearing in service is –
a) 0.33 mm
b) 0.56 mm
c) 0.270 mm
 d) 0.295 mm
1223.LHB coaches are provided with what type of bearing?
a) Spherical type
b) Plain bearing
c) CTRB
d) None of the above
1224.Radial clearance of SKF roller bearing is –
a) 0.105 to 0.296 mm
b) 0.080 to 0.185 mm
c) 0.080 to 0.190 mm
d) 0.120 to 0.200 mm
1225.Radial clearance of NBC roller bearing is –
a) 0.105 to 0.296 mm
b) 0.080 to 0.185 mm
c) 0.080 to 0.190 mm
d) 0.120 to 0.200 mm
1226.What type of roller bearing is fitted in ICF bogie wheel?
a) Single row self align spherical roller bearing.
b) Double row self align cylindrical roller bearing.
c) Double row self align spherical roller bearing.
d) Single row self align cylindrical roller bearing.

ALARM CHAIN APPARATUS

1227.In air brake coach, PEAV & PEASD is connected to branch pipe is –
(a) FP
(b) BP
(c) BC
(d) DV
1228.The pulling force required for alarm chain testing should not be more then –
a) 12 kg
b) 10 kg
c) 20 kg
d) 30 kg
1229.On application of pulling force of 6.4 kg, the alarm chain should be –
 a) Work
b) Not work
c) None of the above
1230.The drop in vacuum for a vacuum brake rake on pulling of alarm chain is –
a) 12 –15 cm
b) 13 –18 cm
c) 10 –12 cm
d) 9 –18 cm
1231.Manually operated pilot vent valve is –
a) PEASD
b) PEAV
c) ACP
d) PEAMTD
1232.What is the diameter of control pipe attached from PEASD to PEAV?
a) 15.0 mm
b) 10.0 mm
c) 20.0 mm
d) 25.0 mm
1233.What is the choke size of PEAV is -
a) 4.0 mm
b) 5.0 mm
c) 6.0 mm
d) 8.0 mm
1234.What is the chock size of Guard emergency brake valve?
a) 8.0 mm
b) 6.0 mm
c) 5.0 mm
d) 4.0 mm
1235.Passenger emergency alarm signal device are mounted on the –
a) Under frame
b) side panel
c) end wall
d) Roof panel
1236.At what schedule, the over hauling and testing of alarm chain apparatus is –
 a) ‘A’ schedule
b) ‘B’ schedules
c) ‘C’ schedule
d) Special schedule
1237.The full name of PEAV is –
a) Power energy valve
b) Passenger entrance valve
c) Passenger emergency alarm valve
d) Pipe emergency valve
1238.The full name of ACP is –
a) Air condition pipe
b) Air cooler pipe
c) Alarm chain-pulling
d) Air cylinder piston
1239.After ACP, it is reset and brakes are released by-
a) DV quick released valve
b) ISO lasting handle
c) PEAV
d) PEASD
1240.The pulling force required for alarm chain application should be more then –
a) 7 –15 kg
b) 7 –10 kg
c) 7 –12 kg
d) 7 –18 kg
1241.In alarm chain, the pull applied vertically downward a drop of vacuum to the extent
of –
a) 110 mm to 130 mm
b) 130 mm to 180 mm
c) 140 mm to 170 mm
d) 150 mm to 200 mm
1242.What shell be the periodical overhauling of the alarm signal apparatus for each
coach?
a) Every one month
b) Every three month.
 c) Every six month
d) Every one year
1243.In vacuum brake, what shall be period of testing alarm chain signal apparatus?
a) Every trip primary/ secondary maintenance.
b) Every ‘A’ schedule.
c) After 15 days±3 days
d) None of the above
1244.The full name of PEASD is –
a) Passenger emergency alarm shut down
b) Passenger emergency alarm signal device
c) Passenger entrance admission signal device
d) Passenger emergency admission signal device
1245.PEAV & PEASD can be isolated by-
a) Isolate isolating cock between branch pipe of BP & DV
b) Isolate isolating cock between branch pipe of FP& BP
c) Isolate isolating cock fitted in branch pipe
d) Isolate isolating cock of BC
VANDE BHARAT EXPRESS
1246. Who designed the VB exp...
a) ICF
b) RDSO.
c) IR
d) Indian govt
1247. In which production Unit the VB exp mfg
a) RCF
b) MCF
c) ICF.
d) Germany
1248. What is axle Capacity / Load of train set v:2.0?
a) 17T
b) 21T
c) 16.25T
d) 13T
1249. Tran set Coaches are equipped with
a) Bolster Bogie
 b) Bolster. - Less design Bogies
c) Bolster with Side beer.
d) None of the above
1250. Length of Car body (over. Coupler).
a) 23345 mm
b) 24.000 mm
c) 22337mm.
d) 21337mm
1251. Length of coach over End Wall of VB.
a) 24100 mm.
b) 23100 mm
c) 22310 mm.
d) 24000 mm.
1252. What’s new wheel. Dia of VB.
a) 915 mm
b) 825mm
c) 952 mm
d) 896mm
1253. Condemned wheel dia of VB Express
a) 896 mm
b) 825 mm.
c) 855mm
d) 877mm
1254. Least Wheel profile in VB Express
a) 896 mm
b) 877mm.
c) 857mm
d) 837mm
1255. Bogie wheel base of VB. Exp.
a) 2400 mm
b) 2700 mm.
c) 2896mm.
d) 2560mm
1256. Riding index of VB Express at 180 Kmph.
a) 2.5
b) 3.26
c) 3.33
 d) 3.5
1257. Maximum Service Speed of VB.
a) 200 Kmph
b) 180 Kmph
c) 160 Kmph
d) 130 Kmph
1258. Axle diameter of MC (Motor Coach ) & TC (Travel Car)
a) 179 &160 mm
b) 53 & 163mm
c) 170 & 160mm.
d) 169&165mm
1259. Each motor Coach (MC) of VB is equipped with 04 No of ________ Motors..
a) 3 phase AC Synchronous motor
b) 3 phase A.C asynchronous motor (Induction motor)
c) 3 phase Dc service motor.
d) 1 Phase Ac motor.
1260. Battery type used in VB Exp.
a) Lithium & ion phosphate
b) Nickel metal Hybrid Bolly
c) Lead Acid
d) Any of the above
1261. Battery capacity Used in VB Exp.
a) 666.Ah (4X210)
b) 684 Ah (3x288)
c) 840Ah (4X210)
d) 800Ah (4x200)
1262. which type of pantograph mounted on the roof of trailer Coach of VB Exp.
a) single arm pantograph model WBL 22.03.
b) Double Arm pantograph model WBL 22.03
c) Single Arm pantograph model KTM-5
d) Double Arm pantograph model LVS-86
1263. Every Coach has been equipped with
a) Parking broke ( one per wheel set)
b) Hydraulic broke.
c) parking broke (two per Wheel Set)
d) None of the above
1264. Seating capacity of passenger to TC (Trailer coach)
 a) 65 passenger
b) 78 passenger
c) 44 passenger
d) 52 passenger
1265. Seating Capacity for passenger in NDTC (Non Driving trailer Car) (EC).
a) 65
b) 52
c) 44
d) 78
1266. Tight lock Centre buffer Couples (CBC) type... AAR-H is provided on the.
a) Passenger Compartment side of the Coach.
b) Non Driver Cabin side of the Coach.
c) Both sides of the Coach.
d) Driver Cabin side of the Coach.
1267. Height of semi-permanent Coupler is
a) 945 ±0.5 mm.
b) 940 ±0.5 mm.
c) 945 ±5.0 mm
d) 845 ± 5 mm.
1268. Abbreviation of ETBU in VB exp..
a) Emergency traction backup unit.
b) Emergency train backing unit.
c) Emergency talk back unit
d) Electronic train Buffering unit.
1269. Capacity of under shung water tank in train set
a) 1000 Its
b) 1100 lts
c) 1200. Its.
d) 1300. Its
1270. Each motor coach. (MC.) has.
a) 1 No of IGBT based line & traction converter (LTC)
b) 2 No of IGBT based line & traction converter (LTC)
c) 3 No of IGBT based line & traction converter (LTC)
d) 4 No of IGBT based line & traction converter (LTC)
1271. Motoring percentage of VB is
a) 33%
 b) 50%
c) 66%
d) 100%
1272. Abbreviation of IGBT in VB Exp.
a) Integrated ground system transistor
b) Insulated gate bipolar transistor
c) Intelligent generator buffer technology
d) Integrated gas binary transformer

1273. Abbreviation of TCMS in VB Exp.

a) Train Crew Management monitoring system
b) Terminal Communication Management System.
c) Train Control Management system.
d) Transmission Control Module system.
1274. A Converter is required to generate two Different types of voltage to serve loads
those are 1.415 VAC 3 phase, 50 HZ, 2.110 VDC, in VB Exp.
a) true
b) falls
c) None of these
1275. In the formation of a 16 coach VB Exp train there are
a) 32 Bogies (20 in for bogie + 12 Trailer bogie)
b) 32 Bogies C16 motor bogies + 16 Trailer bogie).
c) 3.2 Bogies (12 motor bogies + 20 Trailer bogie)
d) 16 Bogies (O8 motor bogies + 08 Trailer bogie).
1276. In the formation of a 16 coach VB train, there are
a) 2DTC + 2NDTC + 4TC +8MC
b) 2 DTC + 2N9TC + STC + 4 MC.
c) 4 DTC + 4NDTC + 4TC + 4 MC...
d) 1 DTC + 3 NDTC + 6TC + 6MC...
1277. Provision on DTC bogie for TCAS (Train Collision Avoidance System) / TPWS
(Train Protection Warning System) is known as
a) KAVACH
b) SAFE GUARD
c) GUARDIAN.
d) PROTECTOR
1278. The weight of the Centre pivot pin in VB bogie
a) 100 kg
b) 113 kg.
 c) 125 kg.
d) 150 kg
1279. Which brake system used in Vande Bharath Express for all Coaches.
a) Axle mounted Disc brake system.
b) Bogie mounted brake system
c) wheel mounted disc brake system.
d) Any of the above.
1280. Bearing provision in all VB Coaches.
a) Spherical Roller Bearing
b) plain Roller Bearing
c) Cartridge Taper Roller Bearing (CTRB).
d) Cylindrical Bearing
1281. Air Spring Height (with air) in VB exp
a) 305 ±5 mm
b) 294±0 MM
c) 305±0 mm
d) 300 ±5 mm
1282. VB Couches are equipped.... with
a) Green Toilet.
b) BIO-Toilets.
c) Vacuum BIO-Toilets
d) E-Toilets
1283. The Cooling System for line Converters and Traction Converters to VB train
a) Liquid Cooling.
b) Air Cooling
c) Water Cooling.
d) Any of the above.
1284. The Abbreviation of ‘BECU’ is in VB exp..
a) Brake electrical Control Unit.
b) Brake electronic Control unit
c) Basic Engine Control unit
d) Battery energy Control unit
1285. The abbreviation of VVVF is VB exp.
a) ventilated voltage Variable Frequency
b) voltage ventilation Variable Frequency
c) variable variable voltage Frequency.
d) Variable voltage Variable frequency.
1286. What is VB exp.
a) A High speed Electric train.
b) A Semi high speed train operated by Indian Railways
c) A Bullet train operated by Indian Railways.
d) A Luxury Cruise liner
1287. When was train 18 renamed as VB exp (Piyush Goel).
a) 27 JAN-2019.
b) 15 FEB 2019.
c) 1 MAR - 2019.
d) 1 APRIL 2019.
1288. What is the appx Cost of a 16 - coach VB exp.
a) Rs 150 crs.
b) Rs 125 crs..
c) Rs 115 Crs.
d) Rs 100 Crs
1289. The First VB exp Run between...
a) Mumbai and pune..
b) Kolkata and Chennai.
c) New Delhi and Varanasi
d) New Delhi and Bhopal.
1290. When did the First VB exp Run...
a) 15 JAN 2019
b) 15 FEB. 2019.
c) 15 MACH 2019.
d) 15 APRL 2019..
1291. What was the VB exp train formerly known as
a) Tejas exp
b) Gathiman exp
c) Train 18
d) Shatabdi exp.
1292. What was the goal behind the design of VB exp....
a) To create Luxurious train for tourist
b) To Standardize train design and specification.
c) To Create the Faster train in India
d) To Reduce the cost of maintenance and operation
1293. Height of CBC AAR-H type on Drives end from rail level
a) 1100 +0/-5 m
 b) 1105 +10 mm.
c) 1105 +5mm
d) 1100 +5 mm.
1294. What is the switch activation time for opening of the automatic plug door on VB
train
a) 1-2 See
b) 3-5sec
c) 6-8 sec
d) 9-10 sec.
1295. What is the raising and lowering time of a pantograph of a VB train.
a) 1-2see
b) 3-5sec..
c) 6-10 sec
d) 12-15 sec
1296. which type of draft gear is used in VB exp.
a) Buffer draft gear.
b) Centre pivot draft gear.
c) Balanced draft gear.
d) Hydraulic draft gear
1297. What is the length of a 16-car VB train. (16x24).
a) 256 Mtrs.
b) 312 Mtrs
c) 384 Mtrs
d) 420 Mtrs
1298. In VB train System_______ used to measurement of air spring pressure to meet
requirement of Acceleration, braking and deflection of Air spring
a) Load Weighing system (LDV).
b) Load sensing device system (LSD)
c) Empty load box system (ELB)
d) Automatic pressure monitoring system (APM)
1299. which type of air Compressor has been fitted in VB coach
a) A piston type oil free, two stage, 3 cylinder air. compressor
b) A piston type oil free, Single stage, 2 cylinder air. compressor
c) A piston type oil free, single stage, 3 cylinder air. compressor
d) A piston type oil free, two stage, 2 cylinder air. compressor
1300. What is the pressure setting for the air brake system of VB Coach Comprising MR
(Main reservoir) and Bp
 a) MR Pressure is 8.5±0.1 kg/cm2 to 10:0± 0.1 kg/cm2- & BP Pressure
5.0.± 0.1 Kg/cm2
b) MR Pressure is 8.5±0.1 kg/cm2 to 10:0± 0.1 kg/cm2- & BP Pressure 6.0.±
0.1 Kg/cm2
c) MR Pressure is 8.5±0.1 kg/cm2 to 10:0± 0.1 kg/cm2- & BP Pressure 4.0.±
0.1 Kg/cm2
d) MR Pressure is 8.5±0.1 kg/cm2 to 10:0± 0.1 kg/cm2- & BP Pressure 8.0.±
0.1 Kg/cm2

1301. Brake System of VB exp Comprise in the following type brake

a) EP microprocessor - Controlled friction Service. brake
b) Electric regenerative Service brake..
c) Fail safe, EP friction Emergency brake.
d) Spring applied air-release parking brake.
e) All the above.
1302. What is the Nominal Supply Voltage of OHE in VB exp
a) 15KV (RMS), 60 Hz, single phase, AC.
b) 25 KV (RMS), 50 HZ, three phase, AC.
c) 25 KV RMS), 6.0 HZ, single phase, AC
d) 25 KV (RMS), 50 HZ single phase, AC.
1303. parking brake release Switch enable When MR pressure reached to
a) 3.5 kg/cm2
b) 4.5 kg/cm2
c) 5.0 kg/cm2
d) 6.0 kg/cm2
1304. Emergency braking distance of VB exp when train at 160 KMPH.
a) 850 M.
b) 900 M.
c) 1250 m.
d) 1800 m
1305. The maximum time for a Service break application is
a) 2.0 see.
b) 3 to 5 sec
c) 10 sec
d) 8 to 10 sec
1306. Maximum time for a emergency brake application is
a) 2.0 see
b) 3 to 5 sec
 c) 1.5sec
d) 8 to 10 sec
1307. The release time of service & emergency brake application is
a) 2.5 sec
b) 3 to 5 sec
c) 1.5 sec
d) 8 to 10 sec
1308. What type of wheels are used in the bogie of VB train
a) Cast wheel
b) forged wheel
c) spooked wheel
d) high speed wheel
1309. Seating capacity of DTC
a) 44
b) 78
c) 52
d) 65
1310. Seating capacity of NDTC
(a) 44
(b) 78
(c) 52
(d) 65
1311. Seating capacity of MC
(a) 44
(b) 78
(c) 52
(d) 65
1312. Seating capacity of TC
a) 78
b) 44
c) 52
d) 65
1313. Coach length over body. Of VB Exp
a) 23100 mm
b) 24000 mm
c) 23540 mm
d) None of the above
1314. Coach width over body of VB Exp
a) 3240 mm
b) 3245 mm
c) 3250 mm
d) 3255 mm
1315. Bogie wheel base of VB Exp
a) 2700 mm
b) 2560 mm
c) 2896 mm
d) 2000 mm
1316. Axle load of VB Exp
a) 17.0 T
b) 16.25 T
c) 20.3 T
d) 22.9 T
1317. New Wheel diameter of VB Exp
a) 952+0.5 mm
b) 1000+0.5 mm
c) 915+0.5 mm
d) 840+0.5 mm
1318. Last shop dia of VB Express wheel
a) 896 mm
b) 877 mm
c) 956 mm
d) 952 mm
1319. Condemned size of VB Exp
a) 877mm
b) 896 mm
c) 952 mm
d) 956 mm
1320. Bogie length of VB Exp
a) 4308mm
b) 2896 mm
c) 2560 mm
d) 3300 mm
1321. Bogie width of VB Exp
a) 2907mm
 b) 3000 mm
c) 2896 mm
d) 3300 mm
1322. Depot examination
a) A. 6 hrs
b) 8 hrs
c) 5 hrs
d) 4 hrs
1323. Monthly schedule for VB Exp
a) 30 days +2 days – 6 hrs
b) 15 days + 2 days
c) 60 days + 2 days
d) 45 days + 2 days
1324. Quarterly schedule for VB Express
a) 90 days +3 days – 8 hrs
b) 15 days + 2 days
c) 60 days + 2 days
d) 45 days + 2 days
1325. 9 monthly schedule for VB Express
a) 270 days +5 days – 1 day
b) 15 days + 2 days
c) 60 days + 2 days
d) 45 days + 2 days
1326. SS1 schedule for VB Express
a) 18 months +2 days – 15 to 20 days
b) 09 months +2 days – 15 to 20 days
c) 36 months +2 days – 15 to 20 days
d) 72 months +2 days – 15 to 20 days
1327. SS2 schedule for VB Express
a) 36 months + 5 days
b) 18 months + 5 days
c) 09 months + 5 days
d) 72 months + 5 days
1328. SS3 schedule for VB Express is
a) 72 months + 5 days
b) 36 months + 5 days
c) 18 months + 5 days
 d) 09 months + 5 days

STORES
1329.The items which are required frequently to maintain a stock For ready use, this type
of stores are termed as
(a) Special stores
(b) Miscellaneous stores
(c) Ordinary stores
(d) Emergency stores
1330.The items which are not required frequently but are still necessary to maintain a
stock For ready use, this type of stores are termed as
(a) Special stores
(b) Miscellaneous stores
(c) Ordinary stores
(d) Emergency stores
1331. Money allotted for purchase of stock item is called
a) purchase money
b) purchase balance money
c) purchase suspense
d) purchase grant
1332. which form, materials not required are returned to the nominated stores depot as
per the stores code ?
a) S - 1539
b) S - 1739
c) S - 1549
d) SS – 11
1333. Form S-1539 / Advice note for return stores is called as…?
a) DS-8
b) Issue note
c) Receipt note
d) None of the above
1334. which form, is used for combined requisition-cum-issue note?
a) S - 1539
 b) S - 1739
c) S - 1313
d) SS – 11
1335. Recoupment schedule for Imprest stores is prepared in from no____?
a) S - 1830
b) S - 1739
c) S - 1313
d) SS – 11
1336. Separate requisition form for non stock indents ?
a) S - 1539
b) S - 1302
c) S - 1313
d) SS – 11
1337. The store items are codified in -------- digit number
a) 10
b) 08
c) 05
d) 12
1338. Under which of following group, C&W parts are listed
a) 00-08
b) 10-19
c) 21-28
d) 30-39
1339.In PL no 21074119, what does 9 indicates?
(a)Major headings
(b)Subgroups
(c)Minor groups
(d) Check digit
1340.In PL no 21074119, what does 21 indicates?
(a) Major group
(b) Subgroups
(c) Minor groups
(d) Check digit
1341.In PL no 21074119, what does 07 indicates?
 (a) Major headings
(b) Subgroups
(c) Minor groups
(d) Check digit
1342.In PL no 21074119, what does 411 indicates?
(a) Major headings
(b) Subgroups
(c) Serial number
(d) Check digit
1343. First two digits in any price list No represent
a) Part number
b) Specification number
c) Drawing number
d) Group number
1344. Unified PLs reduce the possibility of
a) Duplicate PL No’s
b) Non-Uniformity over Indian railways
c) Non-Standardization of items
d) All the above
1345.The check digit in items code is meant for
(a) To check the correctness of a group
(b) To check the correctness of sub group
(c) To check the correctness of PL no
(d) None of these
1346.Which of the following is the source of material in Railways?
(a) Indigenous purchase
(b) Imports
(c) Loan of stores for mother Railways
(d) All of these
1347.Which of following is called inventory?
(a) Finished Goods
(b) Raw Materials
(c) Scrap
d) All of these
1348.What is certified in propriety article certificate?
(a) No other brand is suitable
(b) The is only firm that is manufacturing /stocking the item
(c) A similar articles is not manufactured/sold by any other firm which could be
used in lieu
(d) All of these
1349.Which of the following methods is used for scrap disposal ?
(a) By auction
(b) Through tender
(c) Through direct sale
(d) All of these
1350.Dead stocks should be verified after?
(a) Five years
(b) Three years
(c) One year
(d) Six months
1351.Who verifies the stock?
(a) ACOS
(b) inspector of store department
(c) Account clerk
(d) stock verifier
1352. Stock verification sheet in form ____
a) S - 1539
b) S - 1260
c) S - 1313
d) SS – 11
1353.The stock of Imprest stores are verified after every………
(a) Six months
(b) Two years
(c) One year
(d) None of these
1354. What is the frequency of verification of Tools and Plant items by accounts.?
a) once in a year
b) once in two years
 c) once in three years
d) once in six months
1355. ‘A’ Category items are verified in
a) once in a year
b) once in two years
c) once in three years
d) once in six months
1356. M&P Items are verified in
a) once in a year
b) once in two years
c) once in three years
d) once in six months
1357. Which of the following items need not to be Stock verified …?
a) Dunnage
b) Petty consumable stores
c) Dead stock , tools & plants of low value
d) All of the above
1358. Surplus items are ….?
a) Items not moved for 12 months
b) Items not moved for 24 months
c) Items having more than 12 months
d) None of these
1359.Which of the following is the objective of stock verification?
(a) The materials in stock are of description and as shown in numerical ledgers
(b) Excess in stock
(c) Deficiency in stock
(d) All of these
1360.Earnest money is the payment made by contractor to
(a) See the seriousness of the contractor
(b) Use as safeguard in the event of failing to undertake the work.
(c) Both a & b
(d) None of these
1361. Full form of ‘IMMS’
a) Integrated material management system
 b) Integrated man management system
c) Integrated material and manning system
d) None of these
1362. Full form of ‘IREPS’
a) Indian railways E-Procurement system
b) Indian railways E-Pay system
c) Indian railways E-Pass system
d) Indian railways E- Pay roll system
1363. Full form of ‘UDM’
a) User depot module
b) User division module
c) Under depot module
d) Under division module
1364. Full form of ‘GeM’
a) Government e-market
b) Government electrical market
c) Government engineering market
d) none of the above
1365. Full form of ‘PAC’
a) proprietary article certificate
b) possible article certificate
c) proprietary art certificate
d) preferable article certificate
1366.Which of following points is considered while putting a firm in the list of approved
vendor?
(a) Past experience of firm for handling the same job
(b) Annual turn over & financial solvency
(c) Technical ability of firm
(d) All of these
1367.Witch of following is not the type of tender
(a) Open Tender
(b) Limited tender
(c) Single Tender
(d) None of these
1368.Single tender invited when
(a) There is only one known manufacturer
(b) The work is of highly technical /specialized in nature
(c) There is accident
(d) All of these
1369.The items which have not been issued for past two years and are not likely to be
Used with in next two years, are known as ?
(a) Surplus store
(b) Movable surplus store
(c) Dead surplus store
(d) None of these
1370.The items which have not been issued for past 2 years and may be used in coming
future, are known as ?
(a) Surplus store
(b) Movable surplus store
(c) Dead surplus store
(d) None of these
1371.Cash Imprest is a standing advance of a fixed sum of money to meet
(a) Petty office expenses
(b) Cost of raw material for the list of indoor patients of hospital
(c) Emergent charges witch cannot before seen
(d) All of these
1372.Why is inventory needed?
(a) Improve and/or Maintain The desired customer service level
(b) Meet demand fluctuations
(c) Quantity purchases at low prices
(d) All of these
1373.Passenger amenities in coaches can be classified as …… item
(a) Vital
(b) Essential
(c) Desirable
(d) Non moving
1374.The Imprest cash can be sanctioned by DRM in a division and CWM in a
workshop, up to ?
 (a) Rs.50,000
(b) Rs.1,00,000
(c) Rs.1,50,000
(d) Full power
1375.For buying small items through cash Imprest, a single quotation is sufficient for
Purchase up to
(a) Rs100
(b) Rs.2000
(c) Rs.500
(d) Rs.1000

ESTABLISHMENT
1376.Which of the following statement do bear the title of Discipline and Appeals Rule
in Railways?
a) The Discipline and Appeal Rules,1968
b) The Discipline and Appeal Rules,1966
c) The Railway Servants (Discipline and Appeal) Rules,1968
d) None of these
1377.What is the current date from which the Railway Servants (D&A) Rules, 1968 came
into force ?
(a) On the first day of January,1968
(b) On the 22nd day of August,1968
(c) On the first day of October,1968
(d) None of these
1378.Which No. of standard form is used for issuance of Major penalty charge sheet on
disciplinary proceedings?
(a) SF-11
(b) SF-5
(c) SF-5
(d) None of these
1379.Where appointing authority are not available who should be treated as appointing
authority?
(a)Controlling Officer
 (b)DRM
c) GM
(d)CPO
1380.Disciplinary Authority while passing orders for imposing a penalty should
invariably pass?
(a) Orders for penalty
(b) Speaking order
(c) Oral orders
(d) None
1381.Who is the competent authority to make rule on RS (D&A)Rules?
(a) President of India
(b) Ministry of Railways
(c) Member(Staff)
(d) Secretary Rly. Bd.
1382.When casual labors can be governed under the Railway disciplinary rules?
(a) After 4 months from engagement date
(b) After 6 months from engagement date
(c) After attaining temporary status
(d) After regular absorption
1383.Recognized Trade Union official can be allowed to act as defense counsel in DAR
cases in ?
a) 2 Nos. of cases
b) 3 Nos. of cases
c) 5 Nos. of cases
d) Any number of cases
1384.Whether the disciplinary cases initiated against a Rly. Servant and RS(D&A) Rules,
subsequently he is expired his case should be
a) Continue and finalized
b) Sent to Rly. Board
c) Sent to GM
d) Closed
1385.What would be correct procedure when a faulty charge-sheet requires
modification/addition ?
a) Canceling the earlier C/sheet with reasons
 b) Without canceling a fresh C/sheet may be issued
c) Continue the proceedings
d) None of these
1386.Which of the standard form is required to be used for issuing the order of deemed
suspension?
(a)SF-1
(b)SF-3
(c)SF-2
(d)SF-4
1387.How many Annexure are attached with major penalty charge memorandum?
(a)2
(b)3
(c)5
(d)4
1388.A Rly. Servant punished with stoppage of increment simultaneously is going
promotion to the next grade. The penalty will give effect to the
(a) Promotion of the grade for same period
(b) But not result in greater monetary loss
(c) Retrospective effect
(d) No effect
1389.A person appointed directly to a post grade or time scale of pay can be reduced by
way of punishment to a post in lower scale/grade service or to a post which he
never held before
(a) Yes
(b) No
(c) Can be reduced but his pay to be protected
(d) None
1390.An acting Rly. Servant can be allowed to act as Defense counsel at time?
a) 2 No. of cases
b) 3 No. of cases
c) 4 No. of cases
d) 5 No. of cases
1391.For how many cases can a retired Railway employee act as a defense assistant at
time?
 (a)5
(b)7
(c)3
(d)4
1392.Which deduction from subsistence allowance cannot be made?
(a) House Rent
(b) P.F. subscription
(c) Income Tax
(d) None
1393.Which of the following deduction is prohibited from subsistence allowance?
(a) House Rent
(b) Income Tax
(c) Court attachment
(d) Station debits
1394.Suspension is not a punishment. However suspension visits employee with various
disadvantages. Which one of the following is not a disadvantage as a consequence
of suspension?
(a) During the period he cannot leave Hq. Without permission
(b) He need not to sign attendance register
(c) Privilege passes cannot be availed
(d) No increment is drawn during suspension
1395.When a Rly. Employee placed under suspension but only a minor penalty is
imposed, the treatment of the suspension period is as
(a) Dies on
(b) Non duty
(c) Duty
(d) None
1396.If an employee is placed under suspension on the date of retirement, under who is
competent to sign the charge sheet?
(a) Charge sheet shall be signed by the Rly. Bd.
(b) Charge sheet shall be signed by the GM
(c) Charge sheet shall be signed by the Disciplinary authority as on the date of
retirement
(d) President of India
1397.A Railway servant under suspension is entitled to
(a) Leave his head qrs
(b) Have passes for attending PNM/JCM
(c) Act as defense counsel
(d) None
1398.An employee under suspension can be called to appear at a written examination
required for selection to the promotion?
(a) May be called to appear during suspension
(b) May be called after suspension is over
(c) To be decided by the Disciplinary Authority.
(d) None of these
1399.Compassionate allowance in case of removed employee may be granted under
(a) Rule 20 ofpensionrules,1993
(b) Rule 64 of pension rules,1993
(c) Rule 65 of pension rules, 1993
(d) None
1400.An employee under suspension, when he reports sick, is he eligible for grant of sick
leave?
(a) Grant of sick leave
(b) Grant of extraordinary leave
(c) Grant of Half pay leave
(d) Not grant of sick leave
1401.How many types of standard forms that are used while initiating action against any
Railway employee under D&A Rules, 1968.
(a) One
(b) Five
(c) Eleven
(d) Seven
1402.A Rly. Servant punishment with stoppage of increment for a specified period and
becomes due for promotion he should be promoted
(a) Immediate effect
(b) After expiry of the penalty
(c) With the approval of GM
(d) Cannot be promoted
1403.A Railway servant shall be deemed to have been placed under suspension if he has
been put in police custody for a period?
(a) exceeding24 hours
(b) exceeding 48hours
(c) immediate effect
(d) none
1404.Review of suspension cases is done
(a) After4months
(b) After3months
(c) After2months
(d) None
1405.When an employee under suspension is acquitted by a court of law?
(a) Full pay and allowance are granted
(b) Half pay and allowance for granted
(c) 75% pay and allowance are granted
(d) No payment
1406.Compulsory deduction from subsistence allowance?
(a) PF subscription
(b) LIC premium
(c) House rent
(d) Court attachment
1407. ‘Gr C’ and ‘Gr. D’ employees under suspension may be given
(a) 3 sets of pass per calendar year
(b) 2 sets of pass
(c) one set of pass
(d) None of these
1408.Can a railway servant placed under suspension act as a defense helper?
(a) A Railway servant act as a defense helper
(b) Decided by Disciplinary Authority
(c) Decided by GM
(d) Decided by DRM
1409. Inquiry is not mandatory under Rule
(a) Rule5
(b) Rule1
 (c) Rule(13)
(d) None
1410.D&A Rules 1968 will not apply to
(a) Permanent employee
(b) Apprentice
(c) Casual lab our with temporary status
(d) None
1411.Inquiry officer’s report is to be supplied to
(a) Presenting officer
(b) Controlling officer
(c) Charged officer
(d) None
1412.On transfer from one division to another division, a staff does not report for duty at
the new place of posting who will be the competent authority for taking disciplinary
action?
(a) GM
(b) D & A Authority at new place
(c) D&A authority at old place
(d) None
1413.The notice of final penalty should be signed by
(a) Enquiry officer
(b) Controlling officer
(c) Disciplinary authority
(d) None
1414.What would be appropriate disciplinary authority when staff working under the
administrative control of DME and misconduct pertains to violations of
Commercial rule or safety rules?
(a) DCM/Sr.DCM
(b) DSO/Sr.DSO
(c) DME/Sr.DME
(d) DPO/Sr.DPO
1415.All DAR cases are to be completed within the model time scheduled fixed by the
Rly. Board.
(a)202 days
 (b)300days
(c)150days
(d) not specified
1416.Under which Rule of the R.S.(D&A) Rules, 1968 the appellate authority can act as
revising authority?
(a) Rule-25
(b) Rule -25A
(c) Rule-22
(d) Rule-21
1417.A charged employee has a choice for choosing an Assistant Railway employee as
defense counselor. However certain classes of employees are barred as DC’s which
one of the following classes are barred?
(a) Vigilance inspector
(b) Law Assistant
(c) Railway servants under suspension
(d) None of the above
1418.Reappointment of Railway employee in cases of removal from service may be
considered by the
(a) Revising authority
(b) Disciplinary authority
(c) Higher than the Revising authority
(d) None of the these
1419.Reduction to a lower stage in a time scale of pay for a period not exceeding 3 years
without cumulative effect and not adversely affecting his pension is
(a) Major penalty
(b) Minor penalty
(c) None
(d) Both of these
1420.Penalty of compulsory retirement, removal or dismissed from service should be
imposed only by ?
(a) controlling officer
(b) disciplinary authority
(c) appointing authority
(d) none
1421.The following are not in penalty under D&A Rules?
(a) Censure
(b) Warning
(c) Stoppage of pass
(d) The recovery from pay of any pecuniary loss
1422.Whether officers on ad-hoc promotion are competent to initiate disciplinary
proceedings?
a) YES
b) NO
c) Depends on case intensity
d) None of the above .
1423. Which penalty is not recorded in the service sheet?
a) Stoppage of increment
b) Stoppage of passes
c) Warning
d) Censure
1424. Whether issuance of inquiry or counseling or Govt. Displeasure can constitute a
penalty under D&A Rule?
a) Is a penalty under D&A Rules
b) Is not a penalty under D&A Rules
c) All are penalty under D&A Rule
d) None of these
1425. Can a disciplinary authority order for stoppage of increment under Rule 6 of the
R.S.(D&A) Rules, 1968 effecting from the date of issuance of order or from date
of next increment due.
(a) Yes
(b) No
(c) Not specified
d) None of these
1426. What is the permissible time limit for preferring a revision petition to the revising
Authority?
a) 60days
b) 45days
c) 90days
 d) none
1427. Under which circumstances ‘ex-parte’ inquiry can be held?
a) Charged official does not appear before I.O. for more than two
occasions
b) Presenting Officer not appear before IO
c) Disciplinary Authority not appear before IO
d) None of these.
1428. During the pendency of a penalty of stoppage of pass/PTO whether promotion of a
Railway staff will be affected.
a) promotion will be affected
b) promotion will not be affected
c) promotion will effect after expiry of punishment
d) none of these
1429. When it is not practical to hold any inquiry under Rule 9 of the Railway servants
(D&A) Rules, whether removal/dismissal can be directly ordered?
a) Rule6
b) Rule14(ii)
c) Rule13
d) None
1430. Is it necessary the Inquiry Officer should be sufficiently senior in rank to the
charged official?
a) Always IO should be senior
b) IO may be junior
c) IO may be equal in rank with CE
d) None of these
1431. Who can exercise reversionary power when no appeal has been preferred in terms
of Rule 25 (i) (iv)?
a) The officer not below the rank of DRM
b) The officer not below the rank of JA officer
c) The officer not below the rank of PHOD
d) None of the above
1432. 1160. Whether it is obligatory of the inquiry officer to inform defense counsel
engaged by the charged official in each hearing?
a) IO should inform DC
 b) IO should not inform DC
c) DA should inform DC
d) None of these
1433. How many Rules, the Railway Servants (D&A) Rules, do contain and how many
parts are they divided.
a) 31 Rule in IV parts
b) 25 Rule in VI parts
c) 31 Rule in VII parts
d) Not at all divided
1434. Which of the following is not termed as penalty under DAR 1968?
a) Censure
b) Withdrawing of promotion
c) Suspension
d) None
1435. Who is the competent authority to consider the appeal without restriction of time
limit?
(a) PHOD
(b) GM
(c) DRM
d) HOD
1436. Which authority can imposed cut in pensioner benefit ?
(a)GM
(b)Rly. Board
c) President of India
(d)None
1437. Whether Revision/Review of cases already finalized before retirement of the
Railway employees can be initiated after his retirement with a view to impose a
cut in his pensioner benefits?
a) Can be initiated.
b) Cannot be initiated.
c) Can be initiated with the approval of GM
d) None of these.
1438. Whether The Railway servants (D&A) Rules, 1968 are applicable to constable of
the Railway protection force?
 a) Applicable .
b) Not applicable
c) Applicable in certain cases
d) None of these
1439. What is Rule 14(II) of the RS(D&A) Rules, 1968.
a) Removal / Dismissal after an SF 5 is issued.
b) Removal / Dismissal without any inquiry when it is not practicable
to hold inquiry in a normal manner.
c) Compulsory retirement without any inquiry.
d) Removal / Dismissal in case of conviction.
1440. After retirement a charge sheet can be issued only by the
a) GM
b) Controlling officer
c) President of India
d) Chief Personnel Officer Justice of Supreme Court
1441. When inquiry is not necessary?
a) Charges admitted by CE
b) Charges not admitted by CO
c) Charges prepared by DA
d) None of these
PASS RULES
1442. What is Pass?
a) Pass is a Privilege.
b) To travel in Railway
c) An authority given by Railway to a Railway employee or to a Person
authorizing him to travel in a train gratuitously.
d) None of these.
1443. In connection with Privilege pass Family means.
a)Wife, Husband, Son/Step sons under the age of 21 years and wholly
Dependent. Bonfire student of any recognized University. Unmarred daughter
of any age whether earning or not, dependent widow daughter. Railway
Doctor’s certified invalid son daughter of any age.
b)Wife, Husband, son/Step son/Son-in-law/mother-in-law/daughter of any age.
(c)Husband, Wife/Widow mother/son/Step son of any age/Daughter of any age.
 (d)Husband/Wife/Sons/Daughters of any age/Mother-in-law, if father is not alive.
1444. How many sets of P.T.O. issued to the Railway employees?
a)6 sets both for Gazetted and Non-Gazetted every year from the date of
appointment.
b)4 sets both for Gazetted and Non-Gazetted every year from the date of
appointment.
c)3 sets both for Gazetted and Non-Gazetted every year from the date of
appointment.
d)6 sets for Gazetted and 4 sets for Non-Gazetted.
1445. How many sets of School Pass issued to Railway employee?
( a)6 sets per year.
(b)4 sets per year
(c)3 sets per year
(d)5 sets per year.
1446. Maximum validity for a Privilege Pass?
a) 3months(Half-set)
b) 4 months(Full-set)
c) 2months(Half-set)
d) 5 months (Full-set)
1447. Attendants of Pass Holder is:-
(a)Part time servant.
(b)Servant
(c)Full time paid servant
(d)Any person.
1448. Maximum berths given for Reservation to Railway Officer on duty?
a) 6 berths
b) 4 berths
c) 3 berths
d) 2 berths
1449. When Higher Class Pass issued
(a)On medical ground.
(b)On Scouts & Guide
(c)None of these
(d)Cultural functions
1450. Penalties for loss of 2nd Class Duty pass
a) Rs.35/-
b) Rs.10/-
c) Rs.12.50/-
d) Rs.20/-
1451. Penalties for loss of 1st Class Duty pass
a) Rs. 35/-
b) Rs.10/-
c) Rs.12.50/-
d) Rs.20/-
1452. Penalties for loss of trolley pass
a) Rs.35/-
b) Rs.10/-
c) Rs.12.50/-
d) Rs.50/-
1453. Penalties for loss of 2nd Class privilege pass
a) Rs.15/-
b) Rs.10/-
c) Rs.12.50/-
d) Rs.5/-
1454. Penalties for loss of 1st Class privilege pass
a) Rs.35/-
b) Rs.10/-
c) Rs.12.50/-
d) Rs.50/-
1455. Penalties for loss of a School Card Pass/Residential Card Pass. 2nd Class Pass
holder
a) Rs.10.50/-
b) Rs.12.50/
c) Rs.13.50/-
d) Rs.14.50/-
1456. Penalties for loss of a School Card Pass/Residential Card Pass. 1st & 1st ‘A’ Pass
holder
a) Rs. 35/-
 b) Rs.40/-
c) Rs.45/-
d) Rs.50/-
1457. Issue of Privilege Pass/P.T.Os. are admissible when a staff is on?
(a)Any kind of leave.
(b)Only extra ordinary leave.
(c)Only study leave.
(d)Only special disability leave.
1458. Passes are not admissible over Nilagiri Railway during the month (except Gazetted
staff)
(a)January, February, March
(b)April, May, June
(c)July, August, September
(d)October, November, December.
1459. Full form of P.T.O.
(a)Personnel Ticket Order
(b)Permanent Ticket Order
(c)Privilege Ticket Order
(d)Pass & Ticket Order.
1460. Pass/P.T.O. Set means
a) Set means 3 sets of pass per year.
b) Set means 6 sets of pass per year.
c) Set means 3 sets of pass & 6 sets of P.T.O. per year.
d) Set means One set of pass or P.T.O. for Outward and Return journey.
1461. Break journey is not permissible in case of
a) Transfer Pass
b) School Pass
c) Settlement Pass.
d) Post Retd. Complimentary Pass.
1462. 1190. How much Service (minimum) is required for Post Retired Complimentary
Pass
a) 20 years
b) 25years
c) 15years
 d) 33years
1463. How many break journeys are admissible in Privilege Pass?
a) 6 nos.
b) 7nos.
c) Any number(En-route)
d) 5nos.
1464. On what routes Pass can be issued?
a) Any route.
b) Shortest route & longest route but quicker.
c) Longest route
d) Shortest route with 30% of the longest route.
1465. Irregularity in usage of Passes may be condoned by
a) CPO
b) GM
c) CME
d) COM
1466. How many School Certificates are required for School Card Pass in a year.
a) One in a year
b) Four in a year
c) Two in a year
d) One in whole service life
1467. Split Passes are issued to which Railway Servant?
a) Only Group ‘A’ service
b) All Officers
c) (c)All Railway Servants (A, B, C& D)
d) (d)Only GM/AGM
LEAVE RULES
1468. How many days of LAP in a calendar year, a permanent/ Temporary Railway
servant shall be entitled to get?
a) 20days
b) 15days
c) 30days
d) 45 days
1469. How many days of LHAP in a year, can be credited to an employee?.
 a) 30days
b) 10days
c) 20days
d) 12days
1470. A female Railway employee shall be entitled to maternity leave for
a) 135days
b) 120days
c) 90 days
d) 180days
1471. For miscarriage, including abortion, what period of Maternity leave may be
granted?.
a) 6weeks
b) 45days
c) 7weeks
d) 43days.
1472. Paternity leave is admissible with less than two surviving children for a period of

a) 10days
b) 20days
c) 15days
d) 25 days
1473. Maximum days of leave on average pay that can be accumulated is
a) 120
b) 180
c) 190
d) 300days
1474. LAP shall be credited to a Railway servant at the rate of
a) 2 ½ days per month
b) 3 days per month
c) 2 days per month
d) 1 ½ days per month
1475. How many days of LHAP can be accumulated to an employee in his service lif
a) 300days
b) 450days
 c) 600 days
d) Unlimited
1476. A male railway servant may be granted Paternity leave having surviving children
a) Less than two
b) One
c) Four
d) Three
1477. Up to what limit, maternity leave may be combined with any kind of leave?
a) One year
b) b)Two years
c) c)Unlimited
d) Six months
1478. Which of the following category is entitled for hospital leave?
a) Group ‘A’&‘B’
b) Group ‘C’
c) Group ‘C’&‘D’
d) Group ‘D’
1479. When no leave is admissible under any other rule, the leave granted is known as
a) LAP
b) LHAP
c) SPL Leave
d) Extra ordinary leave.
1480. Maximum encashment of leave on average pay is…….
a) 200days
b) b)180days
c) c)360 days
d) 300days
1481. Who is the authority to sanction Special Disability Leave?
a) Senior Scale Officer
b) J A Grade Officer
c) c)DRM
d) d)ADRM
1482. What is the maximum period of leave on Average pay at time that a Railway
servant may be granted?
 a) 120days
b) 160days
c) 180days
d) 300days
1483. What is the maximum limit of Leave not due that may be granted to a permanent
Rly. Servant during his entire service period?
a) 360days
b) 380days
c) Unlimited
d) 300 days
1484. Within which period, Paternity Leave can be granted?
a) Six months
b) Three months
c) Four months
d) 15days
1485. Special Disability Leave on average pay granted for accident on duty shall not
exceed………
a) 12 months
b) 24months
c) 36months
d) 28 months
1486. Paternity leave is also admissible to
a) Casual Labor
b) Apprentice
c) After completion of 180 days of service
d) After regular absorption
1487. Staff of which Railway are entitled to avail extra Casual leave?
a) SER
b) ECOR
c) NFR
d) ECR
1488. Commuted leave is admissible on
a) Medical Certificate
b) Request of an employee
 c) Discretion of competent authority
d) None
1489. If a Railway employee applies for a kind of leave say LAP, in advance, the
competent authority may……..
a) Sanction as CL
b) Sanction as LWP
c) Refuse to sanction it
d) Convert it as commuted leave
1490. A Railway servant shall be granted leave of any kind for a continuous period of not
exceeding……
a) 3Years
b) 4years
c) 5years
d) 6 years
1491. How many occasions does a workshop staff be granted half a day’s LAP?
a) 6 occasions
b) 10 occasions
c) 6occasions
d) 12occasions
1492. Hospital leave granted to a non-Gazetted Rly. Servant should not exceed a total of
.......... when combined with other leave
a) 24 months
b) 26months
c) 28months
d) 18months
1493. What is the maximum limitation of Leave Not Due granted on medical certificate
during the entire period of service?
a) 360days
b) 365days
c) 370 days
d) 390days
1494. Maximum of study leave that can be granted to an employee during his entire
service period is
a)36months
 b)28months
c)24months
d) 30months
1495. Which of the following leave may be granted to a Rly. Servant, Volunteered to
donate blood in Govt./Rly. Hospitals for railway employees.
a) Special Casual leave
b) casual leave
c) LAP
d) LHAP
1496. If a railway servant resigns from service during study leave, and it is converted
into regular leave as LAP/LHAP leaving balance, such a balance shall be treated
as….
a) unauthorized absence
b) Extra ordinary leave
c) Study leave
d) Leave not due
1497. Who is the Authority to grant study leave abroad?
a) Rly. Board
b) GM
c) DRM
d) CPO
1498. Who is the Competent Authority to grant study leave within India?
a) Rly. Board
b) GM
c) DRM/CWM
d) CPO
1499. Who is the Competent Authority to grant study leave for Group ‘C’ & ‘D’
categories within India?
a) Rly. Board
b) GM
c) DRM/CWM
1500. What is the Maximum joining time admissible to a Railway Servant?
a) 10 days
b) 12days
 c) 15days
d) 16days
1501. Which of the following employee does Special Casual leave is admissible under
family welfare scheme?
a) Male employee
b) Female employee
c) Both male & female employee
d) None
1502. Under small family norms a railway employee is entitled to get Special Casual
leave up to
a)14days
b)16days
c)20 days
d) 25days
1503. Special Casual Leave is admissible for employees who reside at a place where the
date of polling is different from that of place
a) 1 day
b) 2days
c) 3days
d) 4days
1504. Who is the authority to grant Special Casual Leave for Bundh, Curfew or other
disturbances?
a)PHOD
b)HOD
c)DRM
d)ADRM
1505. What is the maximum Casual leave admissible in a calendar year for
scouting/Sports activities?
a)30days
b)45days
c)15days
d) 25days
1506. If the transfer involves change of station, and the distance between the old and new
station is less than 1000 k.ms, how many days of joining time is admissible?
 a) Not more than 5 days
b) 10days
c) 12days
d) 15days
ARITHMETIC
1507. 3456÷12÷8=?
a) 25
b) 36
c) 56
d) 48
1508. 13X252÷42+170=?+47
a) 201
b) 345
c) 562
d) 458
1509. Find the average of the following set of numbers:354,281,623,518,447,702,876.
a) 543
b) 542
c) 351
d) 345
1510. The body weight of six boys is recorded as 54kg,64kg, 74kg,67kg, 45kg and
91kg.What is the average body weight of all six boys?
a) 67kg
b) 39kg
c) 66kg
d) 75kg
1511. Find the average of all prime numbers between 30 and50.
a) 38.6
b) 36
c) 39.8
d) 48
1512. Find the average of first 40 natural numbers.
a) 20.5
b) 32.9
 c) 39.8
d) 10.9
1513. A man bought 5 shirts at Rs.450each, 4 trousers at Rs. 750 each and 12 pairs of
shoe sat Rs.750 each. What is the average expenditure per article?
a) Rs.543.45
b) Rs.678.57
c) Rs.453.51
d) Rs.134.55
1514. 13 chairs and 5 tables were bought for rs.8280. if the average cost of table be
rs.1227,what is the average cost of a chair?
a) Rs.434
b) Rs.325
c) Rs.165
d) Rs.135
1515. The average age of a man and his son is 40 years. The ratio of their ages is 11:5
respectively. What is the son’s age?
a) 25years.
b) 34years.
c) 56years
d) 48years
1516. The average monthly expenditure of a family was Rs.2200 during the first 3
months; Rs.2250 during the next 4 months and Rs. 3120 during the last 5 months
of a year. If the total savings during the years were Rs.1260, find the average
monthly income of a family.
a) Rs.2705
b) Rs.5300
c) Rs.2124
d) Rs.2708
1517. The average of a class of 39 students is 15 years. If the age of the teacher be
included then the average increases by 3 months. Find the age of the teacher.
a) 28years.
b) 34years.
c) 23years
d) 25years
1518. Minis purchased a car for Rs. 2,50,000 and sold it for Rs. 3,48,000. What is the
present profit she made on the car?
a) 31.1%
b) 36
c) 39.2%
d) 48%
1519. If C.P.is Rs.2516 and S.P is Rs.2272, find the percentage loss.
9.69%
10%
20.2%
48%
1520. Find S.P, when. C.P=Rs.56.25, Gain =20%.
a) Rs.27
b) 67.50
c) Rs.21
d) Rs.87.09
1521. A gold bracelet is sold for Rs.14500 at a loss of 20%. Whatis the cost price of the
gold bracelet?
a) Rs.27055
b) Rs.23008
c) Rs.12124
d) Rs.18125
1522. The owner of a cell phone charger his customer 23% more than the cost price.If a
customer paid Rs. 7011 for a cell phone, then what was the cost price of the
phone?
a)Rs.2705
b)Rs.5700
c)Rs.2124
d)Rs.8125
1523. Byselling33metresofcloth,onegainsthesellingpriceof11metres.Findthegainpercent.
a) 50%
b) 10%
c) 20%
d) 72%
1524. If the manufacturer gains 10%, the wholesale dealer 15% and the retailer 25%,
then find the cost of production of a table, the retail price of which is Rs. 1265?
a)Rs.800
b)Rs.230
c)Rs.124
d) Rs.8056
1525. A Tradesman sold an article at a loss of 20%. If the selling price had been
increased by Rs.100, there would have been a gain of 5%. What was the cost price
of the article?
a)Rs.300
b)Rs.500
c)Rs.600
d) Rs.400
1526. A man sold two flats for Rs.6,75,958 each. On one he gains 16% while on the
other he losses 16%. How much does he gain or lose in the Whole transaction?
a)2.56%
b)10.5%
c)1%
d) 17%
1527. A alone can complete a piece of workRs.300in6days, but by engaging an assistant,
the work is completed in 4days. Find the share to be received by the assistant.
a)100
b)200
c)300
d)400
1528. A and B under take to do a piece of work for Rs.600. A alone can do it in 6 days
while B alone can do it in 8 days. with the help of C, they finish it in 3 days. Find
the share of each.
a)Rs.75
b)Rs.50
c)Rs.95
d) Rs.40
1529. A can do a piece of work in 80 days. He work at it for 10 days and then B alone
finishes the remaining work in 42 days. In how much time will A and B working
together, finish the work?
a)30 days
b) 40 days
c)50 days
d)20 days
1530. A and B can do a piece of work in 45 and 40 days respectively. They began the
work together but a leaves after someday and B finished the remaining work in
23days. After how many days did alive?
a)12days
b)9days
c)5days
d)6days
1531. A100-m long train is running at the speed of 30km/hr. Find the time taken by it top
as a man standing near the railway line.?
a) 8sec.
b) 10sec.
c) 12sec.
d) 6sec.
1532. A 160-m long train crosses a 160-m long platform in 16 sec. find the speed of the
train.
a) 80km/hr
b) 72km/hr
c) 52.3km/hr
d) 50.08km/hr
1533. A person standing on a railway platform noticed that a train took 21 seconds to
completely pass through the platform which was 84m long and it took 9 seconds in
passing him. Find the speed of the train in km/hr.
a)25.2km/hr
b)50.08km/hr
c)10.9km/hr
d)30km/hr
1534. A train travelling with content speed crosses a 90m long platform in 12 second a
120m long platform in 15 sec. find the length of the train and its speed.
a)20m,40km/hr
b)20m,10km/hr
c)50m,30km/hr
d) 30m,36km/hr
1535. A 150-m long train is running with a speed of 68kmph.In what time will it pass a
man who is running at 8 Kmph in the same direction in which the train is going?
a)9sec.
b)10sec.
c)5sec.
d) 6sec.
1536. A 220-m long train is running with a speed of 59kmph.In what time will it pass a
man who is running at 7kmph in the direction opposite to that in which the train is
going?
a)8sec.
b)10sec.
c)12sec.
d) 6sec.
1537. Two trains 240 meters and 270 meters in length are running towards each other on
parallel lines, one at the rate of 60kmph and another at 48kmph. How much time
will they take to Cross each other?
a)17sec.
b)80sec.
c)12sec.
d) 12sec.
1538. A train 100m long travelling at 60 km/hr passes another train , twice as fast as this
train and travelling in opposite direction ,in 10 sec. find the length of the second
train.
a)400m
b)300m
c)500m
d) 460m
1539. A man sitting in a train which is travelling at 50kmph observes that a goods train
travelling in opposite direction, takes 9 sec to pass him if the goods train is 280m
long ,find its speed.
a)62kmph
b)78kmph
c)42kmph
d)25kmph
1540. Find the simple interest on Rs.68000 at 16 2 /3% per annum for 9 months.
a)6807
b)2458
c)8500
d)9600
1541. Find the simple interest on Rs.3000 at 6 1/4% per annum for the period from 4th feb
2009 to 18th April 2009. ?
(a)78.25 Rs
(b)37.50Rs
(c)90.48Rs
(d)50.03Rs
1542. The simple interest accrued on an amount of Rs 2500 atthe end of six years is Rs
1875. What would be the simple interest accrued on an amount of Rs 6875 at the
same rate and for the same period?
a)5156.25
b)2583.78
c)7894.54
d)3456.25
1543. A sum of Rs 800 amounts to Rs 920 in 3 years at simple interest. If the interest rate
is increase by 3% it would amount to how much?
a)829
b)628
c)956
d)992
1544. In a km race, A beats B by 28 meters or 7 sec. then find A’s time over the course.
a)5sec b)9sec c)3sec d)6sec 1277) A man can row 18 Kmph in still water. it takes
him thrice as long to row up as to row down the river. find the rate of stream.
 a)9 km/hr
b)2.5km/hr
c)7.6km/hr
d)5km/hr
1545. Acanrun1kmin3min10secandBcancoverthesamedistancein3min20sec.Bywhat
distance can A beat B?
a)70m
b)80m
c)40m
d)50m
1546. Ina100mrace,AbeatsBby25mandBbeatsCby4m.Inthesamerace,findthedistance by
which A beats C.
a)40m
b)28m
c)18m
d)40m
1547. Find the H.C.F. of 23 × 32×5 × 74, 22 × 35 × 52 × 73, 23 × 53 ×72.
a)980
b)480
c)810
d)740
1548. Find the H.C.F. of:- 42,63,and 140?
a)5
b)4
c)4
d) 7
1549. 1283) Find the L.C.M of 16,24,36 and54.
a) 432
b)470
c)440
d)520
Official language Hindi
1550. When was Official language Act 1963 passed ?
a) 10.06.1963
 b) 12.06.1963
c) 10.05.1963
d) 12.05.1963
1551. Who the first chairman of the Official language commission?
a) M Mehta
b) B N Mishra
c) M G Shah
d) B G Kher
1552. What is the expansion for OLIC used by Dept. of Official Language ?
a) Official Language of Implementation Center
b) Official Language Implementation Committee
c) Official Language Information center
d) Official language information Committee
1553. . From which course a category ‘D’ employee required to be trained ?
a) From Prabodh
b) From Praveen
c) From Pragya
d) From Parangat
1554. Who is the chairman of Parliamentary Official Language Committee ?
a) Minister of Railways
b) Minister of Home Affairs
c) Chairman of Official language department
d) Prime Minister
1555. Mention the name of the award to be given for writing original Hindi Books on
Technical subject by railway Board ?
a) Lal Bahudur shastri Award
b) Maithili Sharan Gupt Award
c) Premchand Award
d) KamalapatiswarnaPadak Award
1556. Mention the name of the Award to be given for writing story/novel writing in
Hindi by Railway Board ?
a) LalBahudurshastri Award
b) Maithili SharanGupt Award
c) Premchand Award
 d) KamalapatiswarnaPadak Award
1557. Mention the name of the Award to be given for writing the book of Hindi poems,
by the Railway Board ?
a) LalBahudurshastri Award
b) Maithili SharanGupt Award
c) Premchand Award
d) KamalapatiswarnaPadak Award
1558. Who is the Chairman of Rail Hindi Salahkar Committee ?
a) Minister of Railways
b) Minister of Home Home Affairs
c) Chaiman of Official language department
d) Prime Minister
1559. What is the Official Language of Union of India?
a) Hindi in Rajnagari Script
b) Hindi in Devnagari Script
c) Hindi in Divenagari Script
d) Hindi in Devinagaree Script
1560. When is "Hindi Day" celebrated every year?
a)
November 13th
b)
February 14th
c) September14th
d) October 13th
1561. What is the Official Language of Arunachal Pradesh?
a) Hindi
b) Santali
c) Dogri
d) English
1562. Name the article in which the provision of the Eighth schedule of the constitution
is available ?
a) Article -120
b) Article-344(1) & 351
c) Article -210
d) Article-343(1) & 350
1563. When was Official Language Act 1963 amended?
 a) 1967
b) 1955
c) 1976
d) 1965
1564. When was the Official Language Rules passed ?
a) 1967
b) 1955
c) 1976
d) 1965
1565. In compliance of article 344 when was the Official Language Commission formed
a) 1967
b) 1955
c) 1976
d) 1965
1566. From when did the Sec 3(3) of Official Languages Act take effect ?
a) 1967
b) 1955
c) 1976
d) 1965
1567. Which Article comes under Part VI ?
a) Article -120
b) Article-344(1) & 351
c) Article -210
d) Article-343(1) & 350
1568. In which article is the provision regarding OL policy available in Part V of the
constitution?
a) Article -120
b) Article-344(1) & 351
c) Article -210
d) Article-343(1) & 350
1569. Who is the Chairman of Central Hindi Committee ?
a) Minister of Railways
b) Minister of Home Affairs
c) Chairman of Official language department
 d) Prime Minister
1570. What is the periodicity of the meetings of Town Official Language Implementation
committee ?
a) Once in 6 Months
b) Once in 3 Months
c) Once in 8 Months
d) Once in 5 Months
1571. What is the periodicity of the meeting of Town Official Language Implementation
Committee ?
a) Once in 6 Months
b) Once in 3 Months
c) Once in 8 Months
d) Once in 5 Months
1572. From which course a category 'C' employee required to be trained ?
a) From Prabodh
b) From Praveen
c) From Pragya
d) From Parangat
1573.What is the official language of the India?
a) Telugu
b) Hindi
c) Marathi
d) Hindi in Devnagari Script
1574.In which article of the constitution of India Hindi has been declared as Official
Language?
a) Article 120
b) Article 210
c) Article 343
d) Article 351
1575.As per the provisions of the Constitution of India Official Language Hindi shall be
written in which script?
a) Brahmi Script
b) Sanskrit Script
c) Roman Script
 d) Devnagari Script
1576.Which forms of the numerals should be used in official purposes of the Union of
India?
a) International form of Indian Numerals
b) Devnagari numerals
c) Roman numerals
d) None of the above
1577.Hindi Day is celebrated in India on ....... every year.
a) 10th January
b) 26th January
c) 15th August
d) 14th September
1578.Why Hindi Day is celebrated in India on 14th September?
a) Constituent Assembly of India had adopted Hindi as Official Language of
India on that day.
b) Ministry of Home Affairs, Department of Official Language had ordered to
do so.
c) Railway Board had ordered to do so
d) None of the above
1579.In which article of the Constitution of India envisages setting up of Official
Language Commissions?
a) Article 343
b) Article 344
c) Article 345
d) Article 346
1580.Which article of the Constitution of India empowers the Indian states to choose their
own Official Language?
a) Article 343
b) Article 351
c) Article 210
d) Article 345
1581.If a state does not choose Official Language for itself from the languages spoken in
the state what language will be its Official Language?
a) All the languages spoken in the state
 b) Hindi Language
c) English Language
d) None of the above
1582.The authoritative texts of all Bills to be introduced or amendments thereto to be
moved in either House of Parliament or in the House or either House of the
Legislature of a State shall be in which language?
a) In Hindi
b) In English
c) In any of the Languages mentioned in 8th Schedule of the Constitution of
India
d) None of the above
1583.As per the prevailing provisions of the Constitution of India all proceedings in the
Supreme Court and in every High Court shall be in........... language.
a) In Hindi
b) In English
c) In any of the Languages mentioned in 8th Schedule of the Constitution of
India
d) None of the above
1584.In which article of the constitution of India the duty to promote the spread of the
Hindi language assigned to the Union of India?
a) Article 120
b) Article 210
c) Article 343
d) Article 351
1585.Which of the following languages not included in the VIII Schedule of the
Constitution of India?
a) Chhattisgarhi
b) Maithili
c) Dogri
d) Bodo
1586.As per the provisions of the Constitution of India vocabulary should be drawn
primarily from which language wherever necessary or desirable for enrichment of
Hindi Language to serve as medium of expression for all the elements of the
composite culture of India?
 a) English Language
b) Hindustani Language
c) Lingua Franca
d) Sanskrit Language
1587.In which article of the Constitution of India the provision contains that if a Member
of Parliament does not adequately express himself in Hindi or in English he/she
would be permitted by the Chairman of the Council of the States or speaker of the
House of the People or person acting as such as the case may be, to address the
house in his mother tongue?
a) Article 120
b) Article 210
c) Article 343
d) Article 351
1588. In which article of the Constitution of India the provision regarding the language to
be used in parliament has been contained.
a) Article 120
b) Article 210
c) Article 343
d) Article 351
1589. In which article of the Constitution of India the provision regarding the language to
be used in state legislatures has been contained.
a) Article 120
b) Article 210
c) Article 343
d) Article 351
1590. In which article of the Constitution of India a provision contains that if a Member
does not adequately express himself in Hindi or in English he/she would be
permitted by the Chairman of the Council of the States or speaker of the House of
the People or person acting as such as the case may be, to address the house in his
mother tongue?
a) Article 120
b) Article 210
c) Article 343
d) Article 351
1591. In clause-3 of which article of the Constitution of India empowers the parliament to
make rule regarding continuation of the use of English language even after the
expire of 15 years of the commencement of the constitution.
a) Article 343
b) Article 344
c) Article 348
d) Article 351
1592. In which article of the Constitution of India a provision to constitute Official
Language Commission at the expiration of five years from the commencement of
the Constitution and thereafter at the expiration of ten years from such
commencement has been envisaged.
a) Article 120
b) Article 210
c) Article 344
d) Article 348
1593.The 1st Official Language Commission has been constituted on 7 th June 1955 as per
the provisions of the Constitution of India. Who was the Chairman of this
commission?
a) K. M. Munshi
b) Gopal Swami Ayengar
c) B. G. Kher
d) Govind Vallabh Pant
1594. Who was the Chairman of the 2nd Official Language Commission?
a) Lal Bahadur Shastry
b) Guljarilal Nanda
c) Smt. Indira Gandhi
d) None of the above
1595. What is the Official Language of Union of India
a) Hindi in Devnagari Script
b) Hindi
c) Sanskrit
d) None of these
1596. On which date part XVII of the Constitution was passed in Parliament
a) 12.09.1949
 b) 14.09.1949
c) 15.09.1949
d) 21.09.1949
1597.When was official language act 1963 passed
a)10.05.1963
b)10.05.1964
c)10.05.1965
d)10.05.1966
1598. When was official language Act 1963 amended
a)1963
b)1965
c)1967
d)1969
1599.Union of India is classified into ----------- Regions under Official Language Rules
a) A & B Regions
b) C & D Regions
c) A,B & C Regions
d) None of these
1600.When is “Hindi Day” celebrated every year
a) November 14
b) September 14
c) November 21
d) September 21
1601.According to official language rules, under which region Andaman and Nicobar
islands come?
a) Region ‘A’
b) Region ‘B’
c) Region ‘C’
d) None of these
1602.According to official language rules, which is the only Union territory classified
under region ‘B’
a) Union territory of Chandigarh
b) Union territory of Daman & Dieu
c) Pondicherry
 d) None of these
1603.What is the official language of Arunachal Pradesh
a) Mizo
b) English
c) Hindi
d) None of these
1604.What is the act passed to give legal form to the assurances given to Non-Hindi
speaking people?
a) Official Language Act (amended)-1967
b) Official Language Act (amended)-1969
c) Official Language Act (amended)-1965
d) None of these
1605.From when did the section3(3) of official languages act take effect?
a)26.01.1961
b)26.01.1963
c)26.01.1965
d)26.01.1967
1606.In which part of the constitution are the articles 343-351 that give information about
Official Language available?
a)Part XV
b)Part XVI
c)Part XVII
d)Part XVIII
1607.Maximum how many Artists can participate in Hindi drama competitions?
a) Maximum 10 artists
b) Maximum 15 artists
c) Maximum 18 artists
d) Maximum 21 artists
1608.How many inspections in a month are mandatory for Rajbhasha Adhikari of
railways
a) One inspection per month
b) Two inspections per month
c) Three inspections per month
d) Four inspection per month
1609. At present how many languages are enlisted in the Eighth schedule of the
constitution
a)20
b)21
c)22
d)23
1610.In which article is the provision regarding OL policy available in part V of the
constitution
a) Article 120
b) Article 343
c) Article 344
d) None of these
1611. Name the article in which the provision of the Eighth schedule of the Constitution
is available
a) Article 120
b) Article 343
c) Article 344
d) Article 344 (1) & 351
1612. When was the Official Language Rules passed?
a) 1974
b) 1975
c) 1976
d) None of these
1613.How many articles are there in part XVII of the Constitution?
a) 7
b) 8
c) 9
d) 10
1614. In compliance of article 344 when was the official language commission formed in
the year?
a) 1955
b) 1956
c) 1957
d) 1958
1615. Who was the first chairman of the Official Language Commission?
a) B.G.Kher
b) G.B.Pant
c) Lal Bahadur Shastri
d) None of these
1616. Who was the first chairman of the committee which was formed on the
recommendation of the official language commission
a) B.G.Kher
b) G.B.Pant
c) Lal Bahadur Shastri
d) None of these
1617. As per the constitution, who is translating the statutory Rules, Regulations and
Orders?
a) Law ministry
b) Home ministry
c) HRD ministry
d) None of these
1618. Which Official Language Rule of 1976, mentions about the working knowledge of
the Officer/ Employee?
a) Rule-8
b) Rule-9
c) Rule-10
d) None of these
1619. Which article comes under part VI?
a) Article 120
b) Article 343
c) Article 344
d) Article 210
1620. Who chaired the first railway Hindi Salahkar Samiti constituted in 1973?
a) Sri Lalit Narayan Mishra
b) Sri B.G.Kher
c) Sri G.B.Pant
d) Sri Lal Bahadur Shastri
1621.Who was the chairman of the parliamentary committee on official language
constituted in the year 1976?
a) OM Mehta
b) Sri B.G.Kher
c) Sri G.B.Pant
d) Sri Lal Bahadur Shastri
1622.In which year the post of Hindi Asst. was created in General Branch of Railway
Board in compliance of president’s order 1952?
a) 1952
b) 1953
c) 1954
d) 1955
1623. In which year the Hindi translation of Railway Budget was prepared and who was
the Railway Minister
a) 1956- Lal Bahadur Shastri
b) 1956- G.B.Pant
c) 1957- B.G.Kher
d) 1957- L.M.Gupta
1624.In which year Hindi (Parliament) section was established in Railway Board
a) 1956
b) 1958
c) 1960
d) None of these
1625. The state of Jharkhand comes under which Region?
a) Region’A’
b) Region’B’
c) Region’C’
d) None of these
1626. The state of Jarkhand comes under which Region?
a) Region’A’
b) Region’B’
c) Region’C’
d) None of these
1627.Which sub-committee of the parliamentary committee on official language inspects
Railway Ministry
a) First sub-committee
b) Second sub-committee
c) Third sub-committee
d) Fourth sub-committee
1628. What is the scheme implemented by Railway Board for doing work in Hindi
a) Rajbhasha individual cash award scheme
b) Rajbhasha group cash award scheme
c) Rajbhasha Samman award scheme
d) None of these
1629. What is the expansion for OLIC used by department of official language?
a) Official Language Implementation committee
b) Oriental Language Implementation committee
c) Other Languages Improvement committee
d) None of these
1630. How many Hindi courses are prescribed for central government employees?
a)One
b)Two
c)Three
d)Four
1631. Which is the elementary Hindi course prescribed for central government
employees?
a) Praveen
b) Pragya
c) Parangat
d) Prabodh
1632. Who is the chairman of central Hindi Committee
a) Prime Minister
b) Home Minister
c) President of India
d) Vice President
1633. Which committee reviews the progress made in the propagation of Hindi in
particular ministry/ department?
 a) Hindi Salahkar Samiti
b) Parliamentary Committee
c) Official Language Committee
d) None of these
1634. When was the present parliamentary committee on official language constituted?
a) September 1975
b) January 1975
c) September 1976
d) January 1976
1635. How many members are there in the committee of parliamentary on official
Language?
a)21
b)25
c)27
d)30
1636. How many Lok Sabha members will be there in the committee of parliamentary on
official language?
a)21
b)25
c)27
d) 20
1637. At present, how many sub-committees are there in the parliamentary committee on
official language
a) 2 sub-committees
b) 3 sub-committees
c) 4 sub-committees
d) 5 sub-committees
1638. What is the main duty of the committee of parliament on official language?
a) To review the progressive use of Hindi
b) To review the expenditure incurred for implementation of Hindi
c) To review the regions based on use of Hindi
d) None of these
1639. Who is the Chairman of the Town Official Language Implementation Committee
constituted in major cities
 a) Senior most central government officer of the city
b) Senior most state government officer of the city
c) Senior most railway officer of the city
d) None of these
1640. What is the periodicity of the meetings of Official Language Implementation
Committee?
a) once in 3 months
b) once in 6 months
c) once in 9 months
d) once in 12 months
1641. What is the periodicity meeting of Town Officials Language Implementation
Committee?
a) once in 3 months
b) once in 6 months
c) once in 9 months
d) once in 12 months
1642. Who prepares the annual programme on Official Language?
a) Ministry of Home Affairs
b) Ministry of LAW
c) Ministry of HRD
d) None of these
1643. What are the Hindi courses prescribed for central government employees
a) Prabodh & Praveen
b) Praveen & Pragya
c) Praveen, Pragya & Parangat
d) Prabodh, Praveen, Pragya and Parangat
1644. Which is the final Hindi course prescribed for Clerical Cadre Employees Of Central
Government
a) Praveen
b) Pragya
c) Parangat
d) Prabodh
1645.What are the training facilities available to a central government employee to get
trained in the Hindi courses
 a) Regular
b) Intensive
c) Correspondence and Private
d) All of these
1646. How many times the regular Hindi exams are conducted in a year?
a) One Time
b) Two Times
c) Three Times
d) Four Times
1647. In which months regular Hindi examinations are conducted
a) April and October
b) May and November
c) June and December
d) None of these
1648. Who are eligible to be trained in the Hindi courses
a) all the central government employees
b) all the central government employees in class III
c) all the central government employees in class III and above officials
d) None of these
1649. Name the newly introduced course in Hindi by Hindi teaching scheme?
a) Praveen
b) Pragya
c) Parangat
d) Prabodh
1650. Which course a category ‘C’ employee required to be trained
a) Praveen
b) Pragya
c) Parangat
d) Prabodh
1651. From which course a category ‘D’ employee required to be trained
a) Praveen
b) Pragya
c) Parangat
d) Prabodh
1652. What is the Lump sum award for passing Pragya?
a) Rs.1200
b) Rs.1600
c) Rs.2000
d) Rs.2400
1653. How many officers/ employees are warded every year from southern railway under
Railway Board’s Rajbhasha individual cash award scheme
a) Five
b) Six
c) Seven
d) Eight
1654. How many first prizes are given in a year for writing more than 10,000 words in
one unit under home ministries award scheme?
a) Five members (Rs.2000/-) each employee
b) Three members (Rs.3000/-) each employee
c) Two members (Rs.5000/-) each employee
d) None of these
1655. How many second prizes are given in a year for writing more than 10,000 words in
one unit under home ministries award scheme?
a) Five members (Rs.2000/-) each employee
b) Three members (Rs.3000/-) each employee
c) Two members (Rs.5000/-) each employee
d) None of these
a) How many third prizes are given in a year for writing more than 10,000 words in one
unit under home ministries award scheme?
a. Five members (Rs.2000/-) each employee
b. Three members (Rs.3000/-) each employee
c. Two members (Rs.5000/-) each employee
d. None of these
1656. In which order name, designation and sign boards are to be exhibited?
a) 1. Regional Language 2. Hindi and 3. English
b) 1. Hindi 2. English and 3. Regional Language
c) 1. English 2. Hindi and 3. Regional Language
d) None of these
1657. In which order the forms used by public are to be prepared
a) 1. Regional Language 2. Hindi and 3. English
b) 1. Hindi 2. English and 3. Regional Language
c) 1. English 2. Hindi and 3. Regional Language
d) None of these
1658. In which order rubber stamps are to be prepared
a) Hindi- English bi-lingual form-one line Hindi and one line English
b) English - Hindi bi-lingual form-one line English and one line Hindi
c) both a and b
d) None of these
1659.What is the Lump sum award for passing Hindi type writing examination by private
study?
a) Rs.1200
b) Rs.1600
c) Rs.2000
d) Rs.2400
1660. What is the foreign language included in the Eighth schedule
a) English
b) Bhutanese
c) Nepali
d) Russian
1661. Who is the chairman of the Divisional Official Language Implementation
Committee?
a) Sr.DPO
b) ADRM
c) DRM
d) Senior Rajbhasha Adhikari
1662. ------- ministry/ office is conducting the exams under Hindi Teaching Scheme for
the central government employees
a) Law ministry
b) Home ministry
c) HRD ministry
d) None of these
1663.Who is eligible for Lump sum award?
 a) Those employees who pass the Hindi exams by more than 95%
b) Those employees who pass the Hindi exams by more than 85%
c) Those employees who pass the Hindi exams by private efforts
d) None of these
1664. In which order are the station announcements made?
a) Tri lingual (Hindi, Regional and English)
b) Tri lingual (English , Regional and Hindi)
c) Tri lingual (Regional, Hindi and English)
d) None of these
1665. In which proportion the roof board has to be displayed
a) In equal proportion- Tri lingual
b) In equal proportion- bi lingual
c) 1:2:3 proportion- Tri lingual
d) None of these
1666. How the panel board of a train has to be displayed
a) Tri lingual (Hindi, Regional and English)
b) Tri lingual (English , Regional and Hindi)
c) Tri lingual (Regional, Hindi and English)
d) None of these
1667. What is the amount of honorarium given to the OLIC clerks?
a) Rs.600/-
b) Rs.800/-
c) Rs.1000/-
d) Rs.1200/-
1668. What is the duration for Hindi conversation course?
a) 15 hours
b) 20 hours
c) 25 hours
d) 30 hours
1669. What is the amount of cash award for passing Hindi typing with 88% or more but
less than 92% Of marks
a) Rs.600/-
b) Rs.800/-
c) Rs.1000/-
 d) Rs.1200/-
1670. What is the amount for passing Hindi stenography with 95% or more marks
a) Rs.2400
b) Rs.2600
c) c)Rs.2800
d) d)Rs.3000
1671.What is the honorarium amount given to part-time Hindi Librarian per month?
a) Rs.600/-
b) Rs.800/-
c) Rs.1000/-
d) Rs.1200/-
1672. What is the Lump sum award given for passing Hindi Stenography examination?
a) Rs.2400
b) Rs.2600
c) Rs.2800
d) Rs.3000
1673. Mention the name of Rajbhasha Padak awarded to Senior Administrative Grade or
higher official
a) Railmantri Rajbhasha Swarna Padak
b) Railmantri Rajbhasha Rajat Padak
c) Lal Bahadur Shastri Award
d) Adarsh Rail Award
1674. Name the Railway Mantri Rajbhasha shield/ trophy awarded to Head of Office of
Zonal Railways
a) Railmantri Rajbhasha Swarna Padak
b) Railmantri Rajbhasha Rajat Padak
c) Lal Bahadur Shastri Award
d) Adarsh Rail Award
1675. Mention the name of the award to be given for writing original Hindi books on
technical subjects by Railway Board
a) Maithili Sharan Gupta Award
b) Prem chand Award
c) Lal Bahadur Shastri Award
d) Adarsh Rail Award
1676. Mention the name of the award to be given for writing story/ novel in Hindi by
Railway Board
a) Maithili Sharan Gupta Award
b) Prem chand Award
c) Lal Bahadur Shastri Award
d) Adarsh Rail Award
1677. Mention the name of the award to be given for writing the book of Hindi poems, by
Railway Board
a) Maithili Sharan Gupta Award
b) Prem chand Award
c) Lal Bahadur Shastri Award
d) Adarsh Rail Award
1678. What is the cash award given under, Kamalapati Tripati Rajbhasha Swarna Padak
a) Swarna Padak + 5,000 cash and certificate
b) Swarna Padak + 10,000 cash and certificate
c) Swarna Padak + 15,000 cash and certificate
d) None of these
1679. Kamalapathi Tripathi Rajbhasha swarna padak is awarded to how many members
every year
a) Awarded to 01 officer
b) Awarded to 02 officer
c) Awarded to 03 officer
d) None of these
1680. What is the cash award given under, Railmantri Rajbhasha Rajat Padak
a) Rajat Padak + 6,000 cash and certificate
b) Rajat Padak + 8,000 cash and certificate
c) Rajat Padak + 10,000 cash and certificate
d) None of these
1681.Rail Mantri Rajbhasha Rajat Padak is given to how many members every year
a) Awarded to 30 officers
b) Awarded to 30 officers
c) Awarded to 30 officers
d) Awarded to 30 officers
1682. What is the amount given under Rajbhasha individual cash award scheme?
a) Rs.2000/- + Certificate
b) Rs.3000/- + Certificate
c) Rs.5000/- + Certificate
d) Rs.10,000/- + Certificate