2016 - PAPER-I: 02-05-21 - SR - IIT-CO-SC - GTA-7 - Syllabus
2016 - PAPER-I: 02-05-21 - SR - IIT-CO-SC - GTA-7 - Syllabus
2016_PAPER-I
02-05-21_Sr.IIT-CO-SC_GTA-7_ Syllabus
MATHS:
TOTAL SYLLABUS
PHYSICS:
TOTAL SYLLABUS
CHEMISTRY:
TOTAL SYLLABUS
Narayana IIT Academy 02-05-21_Sr.IIT-CO-SC_JEE-ADV_(2016_P1)_GTA-7_Q.P
JEE-ADVANCE-2016-P1-Model
Time: 3HRS IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS Max Marks: 186
PHYSICS:
+Ve - Ve No.of Total
Section Question Type
Marks Marks Qs marks
Sec – I(Q.N : 1 – 5) Questions with Single Correct Choice 3 -1 5 15
Questions with Multiple Correct Choice
Sec – II(Q.N : 6 – 13) 4 -2 8 32
(Partial Marking +1)
Sec – III(Q.N : 14 – 18) Questions with Integer Answer Type 3 0 5 15
Total 18 62
CHEMISTRY:
+Ve - Ve No.of Total
Section Question Type
Marks Marks Qs marks
Sec – I(Q.N : 19 – 23) Questions with Single Correct Choice 3 -1 5 15
Questions with Multiple Correct Choice
Sec – II(Q.N : 24 – 31) 4 -2 8 32
(Partial Marking +1)
Sec – III(Q.N : 32 – 36) Questions with Integer Answer Type 3 0 5 15
Total 18 62
MATHEMATICS:
+Ve - Ve No.of Total
Section Question Type
Marks Marks Qs marks
Sec – I(Q.N : 37 – 41) Questions with Single Correct Choice 3 -1 5 15
Questions with Multiple Correct Choice
Sec – II(Q.N : 42 – 49) 4 -2 8 32
(Partial Marking +1)
Sec – III(Q.N : 50 – 54) Questions with Integer Answer Type 3 0 5 15
Total 18 62
Sec: Sr. IIT_CO-SC Space for rough work Page 2
Narayana IIT Academy 02-05-21_Sr.IIT-CO-SC_JEE-ADV_(2016_P1)_GTA-7_Q.P
PHYSICS Max Marks: 62
SECTION – I
(SINGLE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE)
This section contains 5 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 options (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its
answer, out of which ONLY ONE option can be correct.
Marking scheme: +3 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and –1 in all other cases.
1. An air chamber of volume ‘v’ and pressure ‘p’ has a neck area of cross- section ‘A’ into which a ball of
mass ‘m’ just fits and can move up and down without friction. When the ball is pressed down a little
and released it executes S.H.M. The time period of oscillations of the ball is (assuming pressure –
volume variations to be isothermal). ( p0 = atm pressure).
mv 2 mv p0 mv 2 mv
(A) 2 (B) (C) 2 (D)
pA A p pA A p p0
3. A metal block of heat capacity 80 J / 0 C is placed in a room at 200 C is heated electrically. The heater
is switched off when the temperature reaches 300 C . The temperature of the block rises at a rate of
20 c / s just after the heater is switched on and falls at the rate of 0.20 C / s just after the heater is
switched off. Assume Newton’s law of cooling to hold. Find the power radiated by the block when the
temperature of the block is 250 C .
(A) 2 W (B) 4 W (C) 8 W (D) 32 W
4. In the arrangement as shown, mB 3m, density of liquid is and density of block B is 2 . The
system is released from rest so that block B moves up when in liquid and moves down when
completely out of liquid with the same acceleration. Find the mass of block A.
7 9 9
(A) m (B) 2m (C) m (D) m
4 2 4
5. Two parallel resistance less rails are connected by an inductor of inductance L at one end as shown in
the figure. A magnetic field B exists in the space which is perpendicular to the plane of the rails. Now a
conductor of length and mass m is placed transverse on the rails and given an impulse J towards the
rightward direction. Then choose the correct option.
(A) Velocity of the conductor is half of the initial velocity after a displacement of the conductor
3J2L
d
4B2 2m
(B) Current flowing through the inductor at the instant when velocity of the conductor is half of the
3J2
initial velocity is i
2Lm
(C) Velocity of the conductor is half of the initial velocity after a displacement of the conductor
3J2L
d
B2 2m
(D) Current flowing through the inductor at the instant when velocity of the conductor is half of the
3J2
initial velocity is i
mL
7. In the circuit shown, switch S1 is initially open and switch S 2 is initially closed. At time t 0, S1
closed and at time t 0.25Sec, S2 is opened. The voltage across the inductor, VL
1H
S1
S2
20
10V
5
8. A hollow, conducting spherical shell of inner radius R1 and outer radius R 2 encloses a charge q
inside, which is located at a distance d (d R1 ) from the centre of the spheres. (assume potential to
be zero at infinity)
kq kq
(A) The potential at the centre of the shell is
d R1
kq
(B) The potential of the shell is
R2
kq kq kq
(C) The potential outside the shell at a distance R from the center is
R d R1
kq kq kq
(D) The potential at the centre of the shell is
d R1 R2
10. In a one-dimensional collision between two identical particles A and B, B is stationary and A has
momentum p before impact. During impact, B gives impulse J to A.
(A) The total momentum of the ‘A plus B’ system is p before and after the impact and p J during
the impact.
(B) During the impact, A gives impulse J to B.
2J
(C) The coefficient of restitution is – 1.
p
J
(D) The coefficient of restitution is 1 .
p
11. A gas undergoes a process in which its pressure ‘P’ and volume ‘V’ are related as VP n constant. The
bulk modulus of the gas in this process cannot be equal to
P
(A) nP (B) P1/n (C) (D) P n
n
13. A particle is projected from ground from point A near the bottom of a wedge. At the same time
wedge(sufficiently long) is also moved with same speed towards right as shown, then
g 10m / s 2
10 3m / s
10 3m / s 60º
30º
A
(A) Particle can never collide the wedge.
(B) Particle will collide the wedge after 2 sec.
(C) Maximum height attained by the particle is 11.25 m from the ground.
(D) Height of point on the wedge where particle strikes is 10m.
Sec: Sr. IIT_CO-SC Space for rough work Page 9
Narayana IIT Academy 02-05-21_Sr.IIT-CO-SC_JEE-ADV_(2016_P1)_GTA-7_Q.P
SECTION – III
(INTEGER ANSWER TYPE)
This section contains 5 questions. The answer is a single digit integer ranging from 0 to 9 (both inclusive).
Marking scheme +3 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and 0 in all other cases.
14. A cylindrical vessel is divided in two parts by a fixed partition which is perfectly heat conducting. The
wall and piston are thermally insulated from surroundings. The left side contains 0.5 moles of gas with
Cv 2 R at temperature of 300 K. The right side contains 4 moles of mixture of gas with
Cv 1.75R at same temperature of 300 K. The piston compresses slowly the right side from volume
V
of V0 to 0 . Find the total change in internal energy of gases. If U n 10 J , fill n in OMR Sheet
4
4
25
(Take: R S .I .unit )
3
15. A parallel paraxial beam of light is incident on the arrangement as shown. A 3 / 2, B 4 / 3 , the two
spherical surfaces are very close and each has a radius of curvature 10 cm. If the distance between the
point of entry and the point where the rays are focused is n cm, find the value of 5n / 2
17. One end of a long iron chain of linear mass density is fixed to a sphere of mass m and specific
density 1/3 while the other end is free. The sphere along with the chain is immersed in a deep lake. If
specific density of iron is 7, the height h above the bed of the lake at which the sphere will float in
equilibrium is (Assume that the part of the chain lying on the bottom of the lake exerts negligible
xm
forces on the upper part of the chain) . Find x=?
3
18. A glass plate of area A and mass m is hinged along one of its sides. At what speed the air should be
blown on its upper surface and parallel to it to hold the plate horizontal? Assume that the air below the
mg
lower surface is at rest. The density of air is . Give the answer in multiples of
18. A
19. The energy levels of a hypothetical one electron atom are given below.
No.of orbit Energy of the orbit
n 0ev
n 5 0.80ev
n4 1.45ev
n 3 3.08ev
n2 5.30ev
n 1 15.6ev
Pick the incorrect statement from the following.
(A) ionization potential of the atom is 15.6ev
(B) wave length corresponding to the electronic transition n 3 to n 2 is the longest wave length of
the series terminating at n 2
(C) wave length corresponding to the electronic transition n to n 2 is the shortest wave length of
the series terminating at n 2
(D) wave length corresponding to the electronic transition n to n 1 is the longest wave length
among all the possible transitions
22. The following are some statements related to VA group hydrides. Incorrect statement is:
(A) Reducing property increases from NH 3 to BiH 3 .
(B) Tendency to donate lone pair increases from NH 3 to BiH 3 .
(C) Thermal stability of hydrides decreases from NH 3 to BiH 3 .
(D) Bond angle of hydrides decreases from NH 3 to BiH 3 .
SECTION – II
(MULTIPLE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE)
This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 options (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer,
out of which ONE OR MORE than ONE option can be correct.
Marking scheme: +4 for all correct options & +1 partial marks, 0 if not attempted and -2 in all wrong cases
O O
K2Cr2O7 / H
24. Consider the following reaction: A
The starting substance ‘A’ can be
NH2 OH NH2 OH
2 H C H
OH
H C O CH 3 OH
(A)
O O
()
O H /
2CH 3 C H CH 3 CH CH C H
(B)
Sec: Sr. IIT_CO-SC Space for rough work Page 14
Narayana IIT Academy 02-05-21_Sr.IIT-CO-SC_JEE-ADV_(2016_P1)_GTA-7_Q.P
o o
Al oEt
2CH 3 C H
3
CH 3 C O CH 2CH 3
(C)
OH O
Al OCMe
O
3 3
CH3-C-CH3
(D)
26. The mean lives of a radioactive substance are 1620 years and 405 years of emission and -
3
emission respectively. Find out the time during which th of a sample will decay if it is decaying both
4
by emission and emission simultaneously.
2.303 N
(A) 1620 log o (B) 449.24 years.
5 N
2.303 N
(C) 44.924 years (D) log o
2025 N
27. Which of the following reagents cannot be used for differentiation between glucose and fructose?
(A) Lucas reagent (B) Br2 / H 2O
(C) Tollen’s reagent (D) NaHCO3 aq
lnk 2
1
1/T
Select the correct statements among following
(A) activation energy of reaction (1) is greater than that of (2)
(B) Activation energy of reaction (2) is greater than that of (1)
(C) B and C are kinetically favorable products
(D) D and E are kinetically favorable products
OH
H
Step I
CH3CHO
Step II
H2O
Step III
H3C O H3C O H3C O
O O CH3
HO
CH
CH3 H
Step IV
H3C O H3C O
Which of following statement(s) is/are correct for above reaction sequence?
(A) Step I is acid-base reaction
(B) Step II is nucleophilic addition reaction
(C) Step III is acid base reaction
(D) Step IV is elimination reaction
Na 2SO3 AgNO3
(I) (II)
The correct statement(s) about set up (I) and (II) is/are:
(A) In set up (I) initially no precipitate is formed but on addition of excess of reagent and followed by
boiling gives greyish black ppt.
(B) In set up (II) initially a white precipitate is formed as well as on boiling gives grayish black ppt
(C) In set up (I) the precipitate formed with excess AgNO3 which is soluble ammonia solution.
(D) In set up (II) the precipitate is soluble is dilute nitric acid and gives gas with suffocating smell of
burning sulphur.
SECTION – III
(INTEGER ANSWER TYPE)
This section contains 5 questions. The answer is a single digit integer ranging from 0 to 9 (both inclusive).
Marking scheme +3 for correct answer , 0 if not attempted and 0 in all other cases
32. Total no. of stereo isomers possible for the compound CH3 CH CH CH CH CH CH ph
33. 0.5 molal NaCl and 0.8 molal urea solutions are found to be isotonic at 270 c , then Degree of
dissociation of NaCl under these conditions is reported as z 10% .What is the value of z?
34. In IL saturated solution of AgCl Ksp AgCl 1.6 1010 ,0.1 mol of CuCl Ksp CuCl 1106 is
added. The resultant concentration of Ag in the solution is 1.6 10 x The value of ‘x’ is______
Step IV
Step V
99.98% Pure metal (M ) 99.5% Pure metal (M ) purer metal(M )
2 2 2 2
3 2 1 4 16m
39. If the sum of the first ten terms of the series 1 2 3 42 4 ..... is then m
5 5 5 5 5
is equal to
(A) 102 (B) 101 (C) 100 (D) 99
SECTION – II
(MULTIPLE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE)
This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 options (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer,
out of which ONE OR MORE than ONE option can be correct.
Marking scheme: +4 for all correct options & +1 partial marks, 0 if not attempted and -2 in all wrong cases
43. If f and g are two strictly monotonic functions such that 2f 1 g 2 4 and 2f 9 g 10 20 and
x 2g f x 3 1 f ' x 3 1 3x 2 dx 0
2
0
Which of the following is /are true
g x dx 12 g x dx 24 g 1 x dx 356 g 1 x dx 168
10 10 20 20
(A)
2
(B)
2
(C)
4
(D)
4
e2tx 2tx 1 g2 x x 4
45. If g x Lim tan and L Lim ; which of the following is/are true
t 0
2t 2 x 0 x8
g Lx 4 g Lx 25
(B) L 1
2
(A) L (C) Lim 2
(D) Lim
3 x 0 x 9 x 0 x2 9
(where { } and [ ] are fractional part function and Greatest Integral Function respectively )
46. A certain coin is tossed with probability of showing head being p. let q denotes the probability that
when the coin is tossed four times the number of heads obtained is even then which of the following
is/are true ?
(A) there is no value of p, if q 1/ 4
(B) there is exactly one value of p, if q 3 / 4
(C) there are exactly two values of p, if q 3 / 5
(D) there are exactly four values of p if q 4 / 5
47. Consider f x x 2 sin 2 2x cos 1, n, n I
Then which of the following is/are true ?
/2 /2 /2
I1 I 2 I 3
51. The angle bisector of angle C of ABC , meets the side AB and its circumcircle at the points D & E
respectively. If AB 6 , then the maximum value of (CD) (DE) is……
52. Let A and B are two square idempotent matrices such that AB + BA, AB – BA are null matrices, then
the sum of squares of the possible values det (A – B) is
2i j 2i j
53. A unit vector r has equal length of projections along the vectors , and k . If r.
5 5
4 f 2 x dx
BRANCH: SURAT