Question 1

The nurse is collecting data on a child who may have diabetes. Which laboratory value would help
confirm a diagnosis of type 1 diabetes?

a. A random plasma glucose level of 180mg/dl

b. A fasting plasma glucose level 126mg/dl

c. A fasting plasma glucose level of 110mg/dl

d. A 2 hour oral glucose tolerance test result of 140 mg/dl

Question 2

One of the complications of malaria is

a. Fever

b. Bronchopneumonia

c. Conjunctivitis

d. Splenomegaly

Question 3

In acute urethritis, the commonest symptom is....................................

a. increased temperature

b. urethral discharge

c. pelvic pain

d. dysuria

Question 4

The nurse is teaching a client with newly diagnosed diabetes mellitus about rotation of insulin injection
site. Which of the following is the correct information to give the clients?

a. Rotation of site does not affect speed of absorption

b. Rotation within one anatomic site is preferred

c. Rotation of site does not prevent lipohypertrophy

d. Rotation from one anatomic site to another is best

Question 5

A client presents with diaphoresis, palpitation, jitters, and tachycardia approximately 1.5 hours after
taking his regular morning insulin. What is the most appropriate intervention by the nurse?

a. Check blood glucose level and administer carbohydrates

b. Give nitroglycerin and perform an electrocardiogram

c. Call the physician for additional insulin order

d. Restrict salt administer diuretics, and perform a paracentesis

Question 6

A client is experiencing status asthmaticus. What is the nurse’s priority intervention for

this client?

a. I.V. beta-adrenergic agents

b. Oral corticostersroids

c. Inhaled corticosteroids

d. Inhaled beta-adrenergic agents

Question 7

Which of the following vitamins cannot be found from a plant source?

Select one:

a. vitamin A

b. vitamin B12

c. vitamin E

d. vitamin B1

Question 8

Diabetic coma results from an excess accumulation in the blood of

a. Sodium bicarbonate causing alkalosis

b. Nitrogen from protein catabolism causing ammonia intoxication

c. Glucose from rapid CHO metabolism causing drowsiness

d. Ketones from rapid fat breakdown, causing acidosis

Question 9

What is the normal pH range for arterial blood?

a. 7.35 to 7.45

b. 7.55 to 7.65

c. 7 to 7.49

d. 7.50 to 7.60

Question 10

In haemophilia type B, there is deficiency of:

a. Factor VIII

b. Factor IX

c. Factor VII

d. Factor IV

Question 11

A female client with interstitial lung disease is prescribed prednisone (Deltasone) to control
inflammation. During client teaching, the nurse stresses the importance of taking prednisone exactly as
prescribed and cautions against discontinuing the drug abruptly. A client who discontinues prednisone
abruptly may experience:

a. GI bleeding.

b. acute adrenocortical insufficiency.

c. hyperglycemia and glycosuria.

d. restlessness and seizures.

Question 12

Which of the following does not exacerbate the condition of a patient suffering from heart failure?

a. recent upper respiratory infection

b. peptic ulcer disease

c. nutritional anaemia

d. atrial fibrillation

Question 13

The nurse is conducting a class for family members of clients diagnosed with

Tuberculosis (TB). The nurse determines that the teaching is effective when the family Members’ state
the disease is transmitted____________
a. by contaminated needles

b. by sexual contact

c. by droplets exhaled from an infected person”

d. through contaminated eating utensils

Question 14

The nurse is teaching a health promotion class in the community. Which of the following would the
nurse encourage in order to prevent type 2 diabetes mellitus?

a. A fat-free diet and nonimpact exercise three times weekly

b. A very low-carbohydrate diet with a moderate amounts of fat

c. Smoking cessation and a diet high in protein and fat

d. Maintenance of ideal weight and participation in regular exercise

Question 15

A client diagnosed of Manieres disease should avoid -------------------

a. salty foods

b. green vegetables

c. citrus foods

d. cereal products

Question 16

A client is diagnosed with active tuberculosis and started on triple antibiotic therapy. The nurse would
be concerned if the client demonstrates which of the following

a. Decrease shortness of breath?

b. Improve chest X-ray

c. Nonproductive cough

d. Positive acid bacilli in a sputum sample after 2 months

Question 17

Hydrocortisone is injected into the knee joint of a patient with rheumatoid arthritis in order to

Select one:

a. Provide physiotherapy

b. Prevent ankylosis of the joint

c. Relieve pain

d. Reduce inflammation

Question 18

A black male client with asthma seeks emergency care for acute respiratory distress. Because of this
client’s dark skin, the nurse should assess for cyanosis by inspecting the:

a. mucous membranes.

b. lips.

c. nail beds.

d. earlobes.

Question 19

When managing a patient with tetanus, nursing activities should be carried out

a. After the doctor has finished his rounds

b. Soon after sedation has been administered

c. During the period when sedation has its maximum effect

d. When patient has regained consciousness

Question 20

A client with a productive cough, chills, and night sweats is suspected of having active Tuberculosis (TB),
The most important intervention by the nurse would be?

a. Administer the isoniazid ordered by the physician immediately before discharge

b. the client to be discharged on bed rest

c. Administer the tuberculin test ordered by the physician

d. Maintain the client on respiratory isolation

Question 21

A client diagnosed of thrombophlebitis 24 hours ago suddenly complains of chest pain, shortness of
breath and visible anxiousness. The nurse must check the client for other signs and symptoms of
……………

a. pulmonary oedema

b. pulmonary embolism

c. pneumonia

d. myocardial infarction
Question 22

When nursing a patient with acute pancreatitis, the nurse should be aware that one of these states may
occur

a. Hypothermia

b. Hyperglycaemia

c. Bradycardia

d. Insulin coma

Question 23

For a male client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, which nursing intervention would help
maintain a patent airway?

a. Teaching the client how to perform controlled coughing

b. Enforcing absolute bed rest

c. Administering prescribed sedatives regularly and in large amounts

d. Restricting fluid intake to 1,000 ml/day

Question 24

Vitamins are needed ………………. to sustain growth and health

a. daily in smaller quantities

b. periodically in smaller quantities

c. annually in greater quantities

d. periodically in greater quantities

Question 25

A client is experiencing an anaphylactic reaction to a drug. What is the most important intervention for
the nurse to perform?

a. Administering oxygen

b. Inserting an I.V. catheter

c. Obtaining a complete blood count (CBC)

d. Taking vital signs

Question 26

Which of the following common signs or symptoms indicate that the patient is suffering from myocardial
infarction?
a. client’s pain is described as sub-sternal and radiates to the left arm

b. client’s pain is not relieved by rest and nitroglycerin

c. the client experiencing nausea and vomiting

d. the client complains of pain while walking

Question 27

A 20-year-old client is being treated for pneumonia. He has a persistent cough and complains of severe
pain when coughing. The most appropriate instruction the nurse would give the client to reduce
discomfort is:

a. “hold in your cough as much as possible”

b. “splint your chest wall with a pillow for comfort”

c. “place the head of your bed flat to help with coughing”

d. “restrict fluids to help decrease the amount of sputum”

Question 28

A client diagnosed with a disorder involving the inner ear usually complains of -----------

a. burning in the ear

b. hearing loss

c. tinnitus

d. pruritus

Question 29

Before seeing a newly assigned female client with respiratory alkalosis, the nurse quickly reviews the
client’s medical history. Which condition is a predisposing factor for respiratory alkalosis?

a. Extreme anxiety

b. Narcotic overdose

c. Type 1 diabetes mellitus

d. Myasthenia gravis

Question 30

A client with acute is experiencing inspiratory and expiratory asthma wheezes and a decreased force
expiratory volume. What is the priority intervention by the nurse?

a. Bronchodilators

b. Oral steroids
c. Inhaled steroids

d. Beta-adrenergic blockers

Question 31

A nurse working in a rural county’s Public Health Department has been alerted that there is an outbreak
of tuberculosis (TB) in the area. The client most at risk for developing TB would be?

a. A 43-year-old homeless man with a history of alcoholism

b. A 16-year-old female high school student

c. A 54-year-old businessman

d. A 33-year-old day-care worker

Question 32

The nurse is teaching the mother of a diabetic child how to recognize the signs and symptoms of
hypoglycemia. Which signs and symptoms should the nurse discuss?

a. Polydipsia, polyuria, polyphagia, and weight loss

b. Nausea, fruity breath odor, headache, and fatigue

c. Behavioral changes, increased heart rate, sweating, and tremors

d. Enlarge tongue, hypotonia, easy weight gain, and cool skin temperature

Question 33

An antidiurectic substance important for maintaining fluid balance is released by

a. Adrenal cortex

b. Anterior pituitary gland

c. Adrenal medulla

d. Posterior pituitary gland

Question 34

The priority nursing diagnosis of the acute phase of myocardial infarction is:

a. ineffective coping

b. anxiety

c. impaired tissue integrity

d. alteration in comfort (pain)

Question 35
A patient with rabies will characteristically exhibit

a. Urinary stasis

b. Pharyngeal spasm

c. Memory loss

d. Diarrhea

Question 36

The most important electrolyte in the extracellular fluid is

a. Potassium

b. Sodium

c. Calcium

d. Chloride

Question 37

The nurse is caring for a client the immediate postoperative period. The priority of care

would include interventions to prevent:

Select one:

a. Atelectasis

b. Bronchitis

c. Pneumothorax

d. Pneumonia

Question 38

When assessing an individual with suspected atelectasis,the nurse would expect

a. Slow deep respirations

b. A dry unproductive cough

c. Normal body temperature

d. Diminished breath sounds

Question 39

Oedema in a patient can most accurately be assessed by

a. The presence of dry skin

b. A decrease in blood pressure

c. A change in body weight

d. An altered general appearance

Question 40

A patient is to receive 3000mls of IV fluid in 12 hours.The drop factor is 10 gtt/ml.The nurse should
regulate the flow to approximately how many drops per minute?

a. 48 to 50

b. 27 to 29

c. 30 to 32

d. 40 to 42

Question 41

A nurse should advise a client with Maniere’s disease and experiencing severe vertigo to:

a. increase fluid intake to 3L a day

b. avoid sudden head movements

c. decrease sodium intake

d. lie still in bed and watch television

Question 42

In nursing, which of the following treatments will be of priority in the treatment of otitis media?

a. diphenhydramine

b. bed rest

c. myringotomy

d. mastoidectomy

Question 43

Antiretroviral therapy is recommended for HIV positive patients

a. Whose helper T-cells lymphocytes counts are below 800

b. Whose CD4 counts are below 500

c. Who are manifesting signs and symptoms of AIDS

d. Who have development of opportunistic infections

Question 44
In pericarditis, which of the following clinical features differentiates it from other cardiopulmonary
disease?

a. weakness and irritability

b. pericardial friction rub

c. chest pain that worsens on inspiration

d. anterior chest pain

Question 45

If symptoms of warfarin overdose are observed in a patient with thrombophlebitis the nurse would
expect the doctor to order

a. Imferon

b. Heparin

c. Vitamin k

d. Protamine sulphate

Question 46

A nurse reviews the physician’s prescription for a client with heart failure. The nurse expects to note
which of the following?

a. Metronidazole

b. Propranolol

c. Cardizem

d. Digoxin

Question 47

For a male client who has a chest tube connected to a closed water-seal drainage system, the nurse
should include which action in the plan of care?

a. Stripping the chest tube every hour

b. Maintaining continuous bubbling in the water-seal chamber

c. Measuring and documenting the drainage in the collection chamber

d. Keeping the collection chamber at chest level

Question 48

Potassium excess can result in:

a. tongue fissure
b. muscle cramps

c. sunken eyes

d. increased sweating

Question 49

A client was brought to an emergency department with angina pectoris, the priority of the nursing care
is to:

a. makes ECG machine ready

b. put in place a bed table

c. put the client on a low bed

d. assembles oxygen apparatus at the bedside

Question 50

There are two types of particles involved in airborne transmission of diseases. They are dust and --.

a. Saliva

b. Air

c. droplet nuclei

d. Water

Question 51

When teaching a patient with a cardiac problem on reduction of saturated fats in the diet, she should be
instructed to avoid

a. Fish

b. Whole milk

c. Corn oil

d. Soft margarine

Question 52

A client with angina pectoris complains of chest pain while getting out of bed. The nurse must first:

a. stops the client and encourage him to lie down in bed

b. advises the client to continue to get out of bed

c. get an order for pain medication

d. reports the complaint to the physician

Question 53

Which of the following electrolytes would be depleted in a patient on frusemide (Lasix)?

a. Sodium

b. Potassium

c. Calcium

d. Phosphate

Question 54

The nurse is caring for a male client with a chest tube. If the chest drainage system is accidentally
disconnected, what should the nurse plan to do?

a. Clamp the chest tube immediately.

b. Place the end of the chest tube in a container of sterile saline.

c. Secure the chest tube with tape.

d. Apply an occlusive dressing and notify the physician.

Question 55

A client complaining of claudication in the arch of the left foot is likely to suffer from

a. Buerger’s disease

b. Raynaud’s disease

c. Parkinson’s disease

d. Paget’s disease

Question 56

A patient with otoslerosis will show which of the following as an early symptom?

a. vertigo

b. blurred vision

c. ringing in the ears

d. headache

Question 57

Physiological mechanisms of adaptation work together through complex relationships in the.............

a. digestive and nervous systems

b. digestive and endocrine systems

c. respiratory and nervous systems

d. nervous and endocrine systems

Question 58

A client complains of intermittent episodes in which the fingers of both hands become pale, cold and
numb. They become reddened and swollen with throbbing pain. The client is suffering from:

a. Hodgkin’s disease

b. Steven-Johnson’s syndrome

c. Parkinson’s disease

d. Raynauld’s disease

Question 59

A 58 years old client with a 40 year history of smoking one to two packs of cigarette per day has a
chronic cough producing thick sputum, peripheral edema, and cyanotic nail

beds, based on this assessment, the nurse suspects the client may be experiencing:

a. Acute respiratory distress syndrome(ARDS)

b. Chronic obstructive bronchitis

c. Asthma

d. Emphysema

Question 60

A client is admitted with a diagnosis of retinal detachment. Which of the following will the nurse include
in the plan of care?

a. restrict visitors

b. maintain high-Fowler’s position

c. place an eye patch over the affected eye

d. out of bed to ambulate with assistance

Question 61

The best drug to prescribe for a client with Maniere’s disease is ------------------

a. Low cholesterol diet

b. Low carbohydrate diet

c. Low fat diet

d. Low sodium diet

Question 62

The normal intake of Vit. B12 is about:

a. 10 – 14ug

b. over 20 ug

c. 50 – 70ug

d. 3 – 4 ug

Question 63

A nurse who is caring for a client that has a hearing impaired will adopt which of the following
approaches? Speak:

a. in a normal tone

b. Loudly

c. directly into the unaffected ear

d. Frequently

Question 64

The client is exhibiting symptoms indicative of pneumonia. The nurse anticipates that which diagnostic
test will be ordered to confirm the diagnosis?

a. Blood cultures

b. Arterial blood gas(ABG) analysis

c. Sputum culture and sensitivity test

d. Chest X-ray

Question 65

An agent of a disease is referred to:

a. the causative organism

b. the method of spread of the disease

c. the affected person

d. the environmental condition

Question 66
A patient who has CVA with a right hemiplegia should not have his B/P checked using the right arm
because circulatory impairment may

a. Precipitate the formation of thrombus

b. Hinder restoration function

c. Cause excessive pressure on the brachial artery

d. Produce inaccurate readings

Question 67

A nurse understands that presbycusis is accurately described as ------------------

a. a conductive hearing loss that occurs with aging

b. Tinnitus that occurs with aging

c. sensori-neural loss that occurs with aging

d. Nystagmus that occurs with aging

Question 68

Which of the following findings does the nurse expect to note if a client is suffering from mastoiditis?

a. a transparent tympanic membrane

b. a mobile tympanic membrane

c. swelling behind the ear

d. a clear tympanic membrane

Question 69

A negative HIV test means that one

I. Does not have the antibodies in his blood

II. Has not been infected with the virus

III. Has been infected with the virus but has not yet produced antibodies

IV. Is immune to the virus

a. I, II, III and IV

b. II, III and IV

c. I, III and IV

d. I, II and III

Question 70
At 11 p.m., a male client is admitted to the emergency department. He has a respiratory rate of 44
breaths/minute. He’s anxious, and wheezes are audible. The client is immediately given oxygen by face
mask and methylprednisolone (Depo-medrol) I.V. At 11:30 p.m., the client’s arterial blood oxygen
saturation is 86% and he’s still wheezing. The nurse should plan to administer:

a. albuterol (Proventil).

b. morphine.

c. alprazolam (Xanax).

d. propranolol (Inderal)

Question 71

Pulmonary disease (COPD), which nursing action best promotes adequate gas exchange?

a. Encouraging the client to drink three glasses of fluid daily

b. Keeping the client in semi-Fowler’s position

c. Administering a sedative as prescribed

d. Using a high-flow Venturi mask to deliver oxygen as prescribed

Question 72

Which treatment goal is the nurse’s highest priority for the client with status asthmaticus?

a. Avoiding intubation

b. Improving exercise tolerance

c. Determining the cause of the attack

d. Reducing secretions

Question 73

A male adult client with cystic fibrosis is admitted to an acute care facility with an acute respiratory
infection. Prescribed respiratory treatment includes chest physiotherapy. When should the nurse
perform this procedure?

a. Immediately before a meal

b. When bronchospasms occur

c. When secretions have mobilized

d. At least 2 hours after a meal

Question 74

The nurse is reviewing the chart of a 58-year-old male client with community-acquired pneumonia and
determines that which of the following is the most likely causative organism?
a. Klebsiella pneumonia

b. Streptococcus pneumonia

c. Staphylococcus aureus

d. Haemophilus influenza

Question 75

A male elderly client is admitted to an acute care facility with influenza. The nurse monitors the client
closely for complications. What is the most common complication of influenza?

a. Septicemia

b. Pneumonia

c. Meningitis

d. Pulmonary edema

Question 76

A client has recently been diagnosed with tuberculosis (TB).The nurse caring for the client anticipates
that the client will develop:

a. A positive skin test

b. A fever that requires hospitalization.

c. Active TB within 1 month

d. Active TB within 2 weeks

Question 77

A client has a positive Mantoux test, and a chest X-ray is ordered. The client asks the nurse the reason
for the X-ray. What is the best response by the nurse?

a. To determine if this is a primary or secondary infection

b. To confirm the diagnosis

c. To determine the extent of lesions

d. To determine if a repeat skin test is needed

Question 78

A female client has a tracheostomy but doesn’t require continuous mechanical ventilation. When
weaning the client from the tracheostomy tube, the nurse initially should plug the opening in the tube
for:
a. 45 to 60 minutes.

b. 5 to 20 minutes.

c. 15 to 60 seconds.

d. 30 to 40 minutes.

Question text

In nursing process, nursing diagnosis represents

a. Patient health problems

b. Actual nursing intervention

c. Analysis of patient’s data

d. Proposed plan of care

Question 80

The nurse is admitting a client who is diagnosed with a new onset of type 1 diabetes mellitus. While
performing the initial physical assessment and nursing history, the nurse expects to find which of the
following signs/symptoms?

a. Weight gains, tiredness, and bradycardia

b. Polydipsia

c. Diarrhea, abdominal pain, and weight loss

d. Irritability diaphoresis and tachycardia

Question 81

A client has been diagnosed with active tuberculosis (TB) and asked the nurse if he will be admitted to
the hospital. The nurse responds that hospitalization would most likely to occur:

a. To prevent spread of the disease

b. To evaluate his condition

c. To determine his compliance

d. To determine the need for antibiotic therapy

Question 82

Anaemia in sickle cell disease becomes evident and severe when:

a. More cells are produced

b. Hyperplasia persists

c. Less cells are produced.

d. Erythropoiesis is suppressed

Question 83

When a patient is unconscious the nurse should expect him to be unable to

a. Hear voices

b. React to painful stimuli

c. Control elimination

d. Move spontaneously

Question 84

A boy, 14 is admitted to the hospital with acute myelogenous leukemia and presented bruises and
petechial over his legs. Which of the following nursing measure would best prevent additional bruises?

a. gripping him in an arm chair

b. trimming his nails short

c. handling him well with the palms of the hand

d. brushing the teeth only once per day

Question 85

The nurse will advise a patient with a diagnosis of nephrotic syndrome to take food high in

a. Fats

b. Sodium

c. Protein

d. Carbohydrates

Question 86

An unconscious patient is receiving intermittent feeding through an NG tube.To evaluate if the previous
feeding has been absorbed,the nurse should

a. Aspirate for residual volume and reinstill it

b. Instill air into the stomach while auscultating

c. Evaluate the intake in relation to the output

d. Compare the patient’s body weight to the baseline data

Question 87
A doctor orders 50 mgs stat of tab valium to reduce anxiety in a patient with myocardial infarction.

Before giving the drug the nurse should

a. Encourage patient to verbalize feelings

b. Assess the apical pulse

c. Assess the blood pressure

d. Clarify the order with the doctor

Question 88

A client with s positive skin test for tuberculosis (TB) is not showing signs of active disease and treated
with isoniazid,300 mg daily. The nurse explains to the client that the medication should be taken for
how long?

Select one:

a. 10 to 14days

b. 9 to 12 months

c. 2to 4 weeks

d. 3 to 6months

Question 89

The amount of air inspired and expired with each breath is called:

Select one:

a. dead-space volume.

b. vital capacity.

c. residual volume.

d. tidal volume.

Question 90

Before weaning a male client from a ventilator, which assessment parameter is most important for the
nurse to review?

a. Prior outcomes of weaning

b. Fluid intake for the last 24 hours

c. Baseline arterial blood gas (ABG) levels

d. Electrocardiogram (ECG) results

Question 91
Nurse Eve formulates a nursing diagnosis of Activity intolerance related to inadequate oxygenation and
dyspnea for a client with chronic bronchitis. To minimize this problem, the nurse instructs the client to
avoid conditions that increase oxygen demands. Such conditions include:

a. eating a high-protein snack at bedtime.

b. being overweight.

c. drinking more than 1,500 ml of fluid daily.

d. eating more than three large meals a day.

Question 92

A 58 years old client with a 40 year history of smoking one to two packs of cigarette per day has a
chronic cough producing thick sputum, peripheral edema, and cyanotic nail

beds, based on this assessment, the nurse suspects the client may be experiencing:

a. Chronic obstructive bronchitis

b. Asthma

c. Acute respiratory distress syndrome(ARDS)

d. Emphysema

Question 93

A patient with gastric ulcer is put on antibacterial agents. The nurse should explain to the patient that
these are ordered to

a. Potentiate the effect of antacids

b. Reduce hydrochloric acid secretion

c. Treat Helicobacter pylori infection

d. Augment the immune response

Question 94

A male client with pneumonia develops respiratory failure and has a partial pressure of arterial oxygen
of 55 mm Hg. He’s placed on mechanical ventilation with a fraction of inspired oxygen (FIO2) of 0.9. The
nursing goal should be to reduce the FIO2 to no greater than:

a. 0.21

b. 0.5

c. 0.7

d. 0.35

Question 95
The byproducts of all foods oxidized in the body are;

a. glucose, amino acids and water

b. fatty acids, glycerol and carbon dioxide

c. carbon dioxide, energy and water

d. amino acids, oxygen and glycerol

Question 96

The nurse caring for a child with type 1 diabetes. The nurse enters the child’s room, finds him
diaphoretics, and can’t waken him. The nurse should anticipate which emergency intervention?

a. Administering I.V. dextrose

b. Administering honey followed by a protein source

c. Administering orange juice followed by a protein source

d. Administering insulin

Question 97

Which of the following foods can worsen the pain of a client suffering from Raynaud’s disease?

a. ingestion of coffee or chocolate

b. ingestion of cereals and pulses

c. ingestion of an offal

d. ingestion of fruits and vegetables

Question 98

In the nursing care of a client with Meniere’s disease the nurse must teach the client –

a. about current drugs

b. about safety measures

c. to avoid tobacco

d. about self-care measures

Question 99

The risk of osteoporosis is increased when an individual

a. Takes excessive amounts of oestrogen

b. Has a history of hypoparathyroidism

c. Receives long-term steroids therapy

d. Engages in strenuous physical activity

Question 100

When assessing a patient with hyperthyroidism the nurse should expect the patient to exhibit

a. Loss of weight, constipation, restlessness

b. Increase appetite, slow pulse, and dry skin

c. Protruding eyeballs, slow pulse, and sluggishness

d. Nervousness, weight loss, increase appetite

Question 101

Cranial nerve I is also called -----------------------------------------

a. Facial nerve

b. Trochlear nerve

c. Oculomotor nerve

d. Olfactory nerve

Question 102

A client has received a preliminary diagnosis of tuberculosis. In order to obtain a definitive diagnosis, the
nurse anticipates that the physician will order which test?

a. Mantoux test

b. Chest X-ray

c. Tuberculin test

d. Sputum culture

Question 103

A 78-year-old patient has a history of osteoarthritis. Which signs and symptoms would the nurse expect
to find on physical assessment?

a. Tophi, enlarged joints, Bouchard’s nodes

b. Hot, inflamed joints; crepitus; joint pain

c. Joint pain, crepitus, Heberden’s nodes

d. Swelling, joint pain, tenderness on palpation

Question 104
Nurse Joana is teaching a client with emphysema how to perform pursed-lip breathing. The client asks
the nurse to explain the purpose of this breathing technique. Which explanation should the nurse
provide?

a. It decreases use of accessory breathing muscles.

b. It helps prevent early airway collapse.

c. It prolongs the inspiratory phase of respiration.

d. It increases inspiratory muscle strength

Question 105

The type of hepatitis most frequently transmitted by blood transfusion is

a. Hepatitis C

b. Hepatitis B

c. Hepatitis A

d. Hepatitis D

Question 106

Nurse Murphy administers albuterol (Proventil), as prescribed, to a client with emphysema. Which
finding indicates that the drug is producing a therapeutic effect?

a. Urine output of 40 ml/hour

b. Respiratory rate of 22 breaths/minute

c. Heart rate of 100 beats/minute

d. Dilated and reactive pupils

Question 107

To reduce the symptoms of sprue, the patient should be advised to avoid foods made from

a. Broad beans

b. Maize

c. Soya beans

d. Wheat

Question 108

A client with refractive error in both eyes should be advised to ----------------------

a. use eye drops

b. use rigid contact lenses

c. use corrective lenses

d. undergo keratoplasty

Question 109

When auscultating the chest of a client with pneumonia, the nurse should expect to hear which sounds
over areas of consolidation?

a. Tubular

b. Bronchial

c. Vesicular

d. Bronchovesicular

Question 110

In mumps, there is self-limited swelling of the --------------------------

a. Adrenalins

b. parotid gland

c. pyloric sphincter

d. thymus gland

Question 111

A client was given morphine for pains at 9:00am. At 9:45 am, the nurse assesses the client and notes a
respiratory rate of 4 breaths/ minute. The nurse recognizes that the client is at highest risk for which of
the following?

a. Respiratory arrest

b. Asthma attack

c. Arousal

d. Seizure

Question 112

Which of the following is a clinical feature of marasmus?

a. Moon-shaped face due to oedema

b. Flaky point dermatosis

c. Reddish brown hair

d. Constantly crying for food

Question 113

The nurse is teaching the parents of a child with diabetes. Which agents should the nurse teach the
parents to administer if their child suffers a severe hypoglycemic reaction?

a. Subcutaneous glucagon

b. Oral fast-acting carbohydrate

c. Subcutaneous insulin

d. I.V. dextrose

Question 114

The nurse is caring for a male client who recently underwent a tracheostomy. The first priority when
caring for a client with a tracheostomy is:

a. keeping his airway patent.

b. helping him communicate.

c. preventing him from developing an infection.

d. encouraging him to perform activities of daily living.

Question 115

To facilitate communication with an 80-year-old client diagnosed of presbycusis, the nurse should

a. use sign language

b. speak loudly

c. put the mouth closely to one ear when speaking

d. lower the voice pitch and face the client when speaking

Question 116

In haemorrhagic anaemia, injection…………is given to client to allay anxiety.

a. morphine

b. pethidine

c. Coumadin

d. heparin

Question 117

The body fluids that make up 40% or more of the total body weight are
a. Intracellular

b. Intestinal

c. Intravascular

d. Extracellular

Question 118

Oedema occurring in nephrotic syndrome is due to

a. Decrease plasma osmotic pressure

b. Decrease venous hydrostatic pressure

c. Increase plasma osmotic pressure

d. Increased venous hydrostatic pressure

Question 119

One of the main functions of bile is to

a. Help synthesize vitamins

b. Spilt protein

c. Produce an acid condition

d. Emulsify fats

Question 120

Nurse Julia is caring for a client who has a tracheostomy and temperature of 103° F (39.4° C). Which of
the following interventions will most likely lower the client’s arterial blood oxygen saturation?

a. Encouragement of coughing

b. Incentive spirometry

c. Use of cooling blanket

d. Endotracheal suctioning

Question 121

An open-angle glaucoma occurs when -------------------

a. pressure increases within the eye from excess fluid or blocking the drainage

b. the blood vessels in the back of the eye ruptures

c. the lens of the eye becomes opaque

d. there is a reduction in the amount of aqueous humour produced

Question 122

The nurse should expect a patient with bradycardia to have a

a. Grossly irregular heart beat

b. Heart beat that has regular skipped beats

c. Heart rate of over 90 per minute

d. Heart rate of under 60 per minute

Question 123

When creating a therapeutic environment for a patient recovering from myocardial infarction the nurse
should provide for

a. Daily news papers in the morning

b. Television for short periods

c. Short family visits

d. Telephone communication

Question 124

To prevent orthostatic hypotension in a patient on methyldopa (Aldomet) the patient should be taught
to

a. Wear support hose continuously

b. Lie down for 30 minutes after taking the medication

c. Sit on the edge of the bed a short time before getting up

d. Avoid tasks that require high,energy expenditure

Question 125

One mechanism of action of antiretroviral drugs is

a. Neutralizing the toxins produced by the HIV

b. Increasing the lifespan of the red blood cells

c. Preventing the production of HIV

d. Killing HIV

Question 126

Nurse Mickey is administering a purified protein derivative (PPD) test to a homeless client. Which of the
following statements concerning PPD testing is true?
a. The PPD can be read within 12 hours after the injection.

b. A negative reaction always excludes the diagnosis of TB.

c. A positive reaction indicates that the client has been exposed to the disease.

d. A positive reaction indicates that the client has active tuberculosis (TB).

Question 127

Oculomotor nerve is also called ---------------------------

a. cranial nerve VII

b. cranial nerve III

c. cranial nerve I

d. cranial nerve IV

The correct answer is: cranial nerve III

Question 128

A patient with ascites is to have paracentesis abdominis.Before the procedure the nurse should instruct
the patient to

a. Empty the bladder

b. Assume the supine position

c. Take nothing by mouth

d. Eats foods low in fats

Question 129

In preparing a client for accommodation test, initially the nurse asks the client to ------------

a. focus on a close object

b. raise one finger when the sound is heard

c. close one eye and read letters on a chart

d. focus on a distant object

Question 130

Organism responsible for dysentery include

i. E. coli

ii. E. histolytica

iii. Haemophilus streptococci

iv. Shigella

a. I and II

b. II and IV

c. II and III

d. II, III and IV

Question 131

Which of the following would be most appropriate for a male client with an arterial blood gas (ABG) of
pH 7.5, PaCO2 26 mm Hg, O2 saturation 96%, HCO3 24 mEq/L, and PaO2 94 mm Hg?

a. Instruct the client to breathe into a paper bag.

b. Administer a prescribed decongestant.

c. Administer prescribed supplemental oxygen.

d. Offer the client fluids frequently.

Question 132

A patient in your ward is having continuous hiccup. You would suggest to her to

a. Continuously breathe in and out of paper or rubber bag

b. Chew gum until attack stops

c. Eat dry biscuit in between attacks

d. Drink plenty of water

Question 133

The failure to inherit factor VIII leads to a deficient formation of:

a. Rennin

b. Embolus

c. Recticulocytes

d. Thromboplastin

Question 134

An example of tertiary prevention activities by the nurse would be

a. Establishing goals for rehabilitation

b. Correction of dietary deficiencies

c. Assisting in immunization program

d. Helping to send a sick person to hospital

Question 135

It is not important for the nurse to observe a patient with tetanus for

a. Spasm voluntary muscle contractions

b. Muscular rigidity

c. restlessness and irritability

d. Respiratory tract spasm

Question 136

A patient has left hemiplegia. The nurse contributes to the patient’s rehabilitation by

a. Positioning the patient to prevent deformity

b. Beginning active exercises

c. Making a referral to the physiotherapist

d. Not moving the affected arm unnecessarily

Question 137

A client is seeking treatment for varicosity, and sclerotherapy is recommended. What is sclerotherapy?

a. oral intake of anticoagulant

b. tying off veins

c. injecting an agent into a vein to damage the vein wall and close the vein off

d. surgical removal of the varicosity

Question 138

Guinea worm disease is described as.............................................

a. air and vector borne

b. vector borne

c. air borne only

d. food borne

Question 139

A 19 years old client comes to the emergency department with acute asthma. His respiratory rate is
44breaths/minutes, and he appears in acute respiratory distress. What is the most important action for
the nurse to take?
a. Take a full medical history

b. Give a bronchodilator by nebulizer

c. Provide emotional support to the client

d. Apply a cardiac monitor to the client

Question 140

To assess the effectiveness of vasodilators administered for the management of hypertension the nurse
should take the patient’s pulse and blood pressure.

a. After a resting position is maintained for 5 minutes

b. Immediately after the patient gets out of bed

c. Prior to administering the drug

d. 30 minutes after giving the drugs

Question 141

A client suffering from coronary artery disease should be encouraged to take:

a. grilled pork, fatty mutton with buttered rice

b. fruits, vegetables and baked fish

c. rice and grilled chicken

d. eggs, buttered rice with fried chicken

Question 142

The nurse hears a physician refers to a client as a “blue bloater.” The nurse is aware that

this term refers to;

a. Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)

b. Chronic obstructive bronchitis

c. Emphysema

d. Asthma

Question 143

An elderly client developed pneumonia. The nurse is aware that the initial symptom the client may
manifest is:

a. Altered mental status and dehydration.

b. Pleuritic chest pain and cough

c. Fever and chills

d. Haemoptysis and dyspnoea

Question 144

During sickle cell crisis, there is a severe pain in the:

a. Abdomen, breath and kidneys

b. Ear, throat and legs

c. Fingers, tongue and abdomen

d. Chest, abdomen and joints.

Question 145

A client with pneumonia develops dyspnoea,a respiratory rate of 32 breaths/minute, and difficulty
expelling secretions. The nurse auscultates the lung fields and hears bronchial sounds in the left lower
lobe. Which action should the nurse take first?

a. Apply oxygen

b. Administer antibiotics

c. Encourage bed rest

d. Assess individual intake

Question 146

The nurse is performing an assessment on a client with a suspected diagnosis of asthma. Which
assessment finding supports the diagnosis?

a. Circumoral cyanosis

b. Inspiratory and expiratory wheezing

c. Normal breath sounds

d. Increase forced expiratory volume

Question 147

A patient is admitted with pulmonary oedema.The nurse would expect the physician to order a rapidly
acting diuretic such as

a. Chlorothiazide

b. Polythiazid

c. Aldactone

d. Lasix
Question 148

A female client is receiving supplemental oxygen. When determining the effectiveness of oxygen
therapy, which arterial blood gas value is most important?

a. Partial pressure of arterial oxygen (PaO2)

b. Bicarbonate (HCO3–)

c. pH

d. Partial pressure of arterial carbon dioxide (PaCO2)

Question 149

Pernicious anaemia is also called:

a. Koilonychias

b. Hanson’s disease

c. Addison’s anaemia

d. Avitaminosis

Question 150

A male client is to receive I.V. vancomycin (Vancocin). When preparing to administer this drug, the nurse
should keep in mind that:

a. vancomycin should be infused over 60 to 90 minutes in a large volume of fluid.

b. vancomycin may cause irreversible neutropenia.

c. vancomycin should be administered rapidly in a large volume of fluid.

d. vancomycin should be administered over 1 to 2 minutes as an I.V. bolus.

Question 151

A client recently experienced a common cold and a subsequent asthma attack. Based on the assessment
findings, the nurse determines that the client is experiencing which type of asthma?

a. Non allergic

b. Mediated

c. Emotional

d. Allergic

Question 152

The major function of sodium in the body is to:

a. process extracellular fluid

b. promotes wound healing

c. to form ATP

d. balance body fluid

Question 153

A male client is admitted to the health care facility for treatment of chronic obstructive pulmonary
disease. Which nursing diagnosis is most important for this client?

a. Anxiety related to actual threat to health status

b. Impaired gas exchange related to airflow obstruction

c. Risk for infection related to retained secretions

d. Activity intolerance related to fatigue

Question 154

Manieres disease is a disorder of the ---------------------

a. inner ear

b. external ear

c. middle ear

d. tympanic membrane

Question 155

Leukemia cells have been identified in patient suffering from..

a. Hypertension

b. Nephritic syndrome

c. Down’s syndrome

d. Paterson Brown’s Kelly syndrome

Question 156

The nurse is preparing to instill an otic solution in an adult client’s ear. The nurse should avoid which of
the following in the procedure?

a. pulling the auricle backward and upward

b. placing the client in the sitting-up position

c. warming the solution to room temperature

d. touching the tip of the dropper to the edge of the canal

Question 157

A female client with asthma is receiving a theophylline preparation to promote bronchodilation.

Because of the risk of drug toxicity, the nurse must monitor the client’s serum theophylline level closely.
The nurse knows that the therapeutic theophylline concentration falls within which range?

a. 2 to 5 mcg/ml

b. 10 to 20 mcg/ml

c. 1 to 2 mcg/ml

d. 5 to 10 mcg/ml

Question 158

When teaching a newly diagnosed diabetic client about diet and exercise, what is the most important
information for the nurse to provide?

a. Exercise will increase blood glucose

b. Reduction of calorie intake before exercising

c. Management of fluid, protein and electrolytes

d. Dietary goals, food consistency, and physical activity

Question 159

A patient with gastric ulcer would probably describe the pain as

a. A generalized abdominal pain intensified by moving

b. An intermittent colicky flank pain

c. A burning epigastric pain after eating

d. A gnawing sensation relieved by food

Question 160

Which of the following will indicate that a patient on blood transfusion is reacting to the blood. He / she

a. Urine will become dark yellow

b. Skin will be pale and cold

c. Will become dyspnoeic suddenly

d. May complain of extreme thirst

Question 161
A client was infected with tuberculosis (TB) bacillus 10 years ago but never developed the disease. He’s
now being treated for cancer. The client begins to develop signs of tuberculosis. The nurse suspects the
client is exhibiting:

a. Superinfection

b. Tertiary infection

c. Latent infection

d. Active infection

Question 162

Which of the following often causes haemorrhagic anaemia?

a. decreased absorption of nutrients in the gastro-interstinal tract

b. lack of micro-nutrients in the diet

c. physical injury to either external or internal structures with severe blood loss

d. endocrine changes in the body

Question 163

A home health nurse is visiting a home care client with advanced lung cancer. Upon assessing the client,
the nurse discovers wheezing, bradycardia, and a respiratory rate of 10 breaths/minute. These signs are
associated with which condition?

a. Delirium

b. Semi consciousness

c. Hypoxia

d. Hyperventilation

Question 164

Laboratory criteria for diagnosis of rabies is.........................................

a. immunofluorescent assay

b. immunofluorescence skin test

c. leukocyte antigen

d. direct fluorescent antibody test

Question 165

A male client with Guillain-Barré syndrome develops respiratory acidosis as a result of reduced alveolar
ventilation. Which combination of arterial blood gas (ABG) values confirms respiratory acidosis?
a. pH, 7.40; PaCO2 35 mm Hg

b. pH, 7.35; PaCO2 40 mm Hg

c. pH, 7.25; PaCO2 50 mm Hg

d. pH, 5.0; PaCO2 30 mm Hg

Question 166

A male client abruptly sits up in bed, reports having difficulty breathing and has an arterial oxygen
saturation of 88%. Which mode of oxygen delivery would most likely reverse the manifestations?

a. Venturi face mask

b. Nasal cannula

c. Face tent

d. Simple mask

Question 167

Which of the following otoscopic findings indicates perforated eardrum?

a. a red, bulging eardrum

b. around darkened area on the eardrum

c. dense white patches on the ear drum

d. a colony of black dots in the ear drum

Question 168

The predominant cation in the intracellular compartment is:

a. Potassium

b. Calcium

c. Magnesium

d. Chloride

Question 169

The nurse is teaching the mother of a child diagnosed with type 1 diabetes. The mother asks why her
child must injects insulin and cannot take pills as her uncle does. Which reply is most appropriate?

a. Because a child’s pancreas is less developed than an adults

b. Your child may be able to take pills when he’s older

c. Pills only affects fat and protein metabolism, not sugar

d. The only way to replace insulin is by injection

Question 170

A client arrives at the emergency unit with as foreign body in the left ear that has been found to be an
insect?

a. instills corticosteroid ointment

b. instills diluted alcohol

c. instills antibiotic ear drop

d. irrigates the ear

Question 171

A client has been diagnosed with active tuberculosis (TB).The nurse should assess the client for:

a. Chills, fever, night sweats and haemoptysis

b. Headache and photophobia

c. Fever of more than 1040F(40.70C) and nausea

d. Chest and lower back pain

Question 172

In leukemia, there is:

a. Less excessive and controllable production of leucocytes

b. Excessive and controllable production of recticulocytes

c. Excessive and ineffective production of enzymes

d. Excessive and uncontrollable production of leucocytes

Question 173

The nurse is caring for a client with type 2 diabetes. One hour after taking an oral diabetic drug, the
client becomes nauseated and vomits. Which nursing intervention should be taken?

a. Monitor blood glucose closely and look for signs of hypoglycemia

b. Give subcutaneous insulin and monitor blood glucose

c. Give the oral diabetic drug again

d. Monitor blood glucose and assesses for symptoms of hyperglycemia

Question 174

The most indicative symptoms of increased intracranial pressure includes

a. Weak, rapid pulse, normal B/P, intermitted fever

b. Slow bounding pulse, rising B/P, elevated temperature

c. Slow bounding pulse, fall in B/P, elevated temperature

d. Rapid weak pulse, fall B/P, low temperature

Question 175

Oedema in congestive cardiac failure is caused by

a. Decreased plasma protein

b. Increased venous pressure

c. Decreased venous pressure

d. Increased plasma protein

Question 176

A patient with diabetic mellitus says “I cannot eat big meal. I prefer eating snacks throughout the day”.
The nurse should explain that

a. Regulated food intake is basic to diabetic control

b. Small, frequent meals area better for easy digestion

c. Salt and sugar restriction is the main concern

d. Large meals can bring about weight problems

Question 177

Dermatitis, diarrhea, and dementia are characteristic of......................................

a. Osteomyelitis

b. Rickets

c. Pellagra

d. Mumps

Question 178

The main difference in manifestations of malaria and yellow fever is that in yellow fever the patient has

a. Albuminuria

b. Pain in the limbs

c. Vomiting

d. Rigor

Question 179

In preparation of home-made oral rehydration salt, the following are needed except:

a. 1000mls of wholesome water

b. a clean container and its cover

c. 8 heaped teaspoonful of sugar

d. 1 level teaspoonful of salt

Question 180

On arrival at the intensive care unit, a critically ill female client suffers respiratory arrest and is placed on
mechanical ventilation. The physician orders pulse oximetry to monitor the client’s arterial oxygen
saturation (SaO2) noninvasively. Which vital sign abnormality may alter pulse oximetry values?

a. Tachycardia

b. Tachypnea

c. Hypotension

d. Fever