SAMPLE OF QUESTIONS PAPER

The set of questions given below will familiarize the candidates with the type of Questions in the
FRI Deemed to be University Admission Test. These questions are only indicative of the nature of the
test and it is possible that types of questions not illustrated here may appear in the test.

1. Which of the following is not the force at a distance :

a. Electrostatic force
b. Gravitational force
c. Frictional force
d. Magnetic force.

2. The moment of a force about a given axis depends:

a. Only on the magnitude of force
b. Only on the perpendicular distance of force from the axis.
c. Neither on the force nor on the perpendicular distance of force from the axis
d. Both on the force and its perpendicular distance from the axis.

3. One horse power is equal to:

a. 1000 W
b. 500 W
c. 764 W
d. 746 W

4. A body at a height possesses:

a. Kinetic energy
b. Potential energy
c. Solar energy
d. Heat energy

5. The correct relationship between the mechanical advantage (M.A), the velocity ratio
(V.R) and the efficiency (n) for a machine is:
a. M.A. = η × V.R
b. V.R. = η × M.A.
c. η = M.A. × V.R.
d. None of these

6. Which of the following statement is not true for a machine:

a. It always has efficiency less than 100%
b. Its mechanical advantage can be less than 1.
c. It can also be used as a speed multiplier
d. It can have a mechanical advantage greater than the velocity ratio.

7. When a ray of light from air enters a denser medium, it:

a. Bends away from the normal
b. Bends towards the normal
c. Goes undeviated
d. Is reflected back

8. The highest refractive index is of:

a. Glass
b. Water
c. Diamond
d Ruby
9. A ray of light suffers refraction through an equilateral prism. The deviation produced by
the prism does not depend on the:
a. Angle of incidence
b. Colour of light
c. Material of prism
d. Size of prism

10. In the spectrum of white light by a prism, the colour at the extreme end opposite to the
base of prism is:
a. Violet
b. Yellow
c. Red
d. Blue
11. The most energetic electromagnetic radiations are:
a. Microwaves
b. Ultraviolet waves
c. X-rays
d. Gamma rays

12. By reducing the amplitude of a sound wave, its:

a. Pitch increases
b. Loudness decreases
c. Loudness increases
d. Pitch decreases

13. In parallel combination of resistances:

a. Potential difference same across each resistance
b. Total resistance is increased
c. Current is same in each resistance
d. All above are true

14. An electrical appliance has a rating 100 W, 120 V. The resistance of element of appliance
when in use is:
a. 1.2Ω
b. 144 Ω
c. 120 Ω
d. 100 Ω

15. Epsom salt is

a. MgSO4. 7H2O
b. ZnSO4
c. CaSO4
d. Mixture of a, b and c

16. 0.450 moles of NaCl are dissolved in 95.0 mL of water. What is the molarity of NaCl
solution?
a. 4.73 M
b. 0.473 M
c. 47.3M
d. 0.0473M

17. If the valence shell electronic structure for an element is ns2np6, this element will belong to
a. Alkali metal
b. Inert metal
c. Noble gas
d. Halogen
18. Buffers are mixtures of
a. Strong acid and strong base
b. Weak acid and its conjugate base
c. Strong acid and weak base
d. Strong acid and its conjugate base

19. Brownian movement is a property of the

a. Colloidal solution
b. True solutions
c. Suspensions
d. All of the above

20. For a spontaneous reaction ΔG must be -----------------than zero.

a. Lesser
b. Greater
c. Equal to zero
d. Can not be predicted

21. Nitration of benzene is an example of ?

a. Electrophilic aromatic substitution
b. Nucleophilic aromatic substitution
c. Nucleophilic addition reaction
d. None of the above

22. Number of dative bonds to central metal ion is its

a. Co-ordination number
b. Oxidation number
c. Compound number
d. Dative number

23. In α- decay
a. Z and A are unchanged
b. Z decreases by 2 and A increases by 4
c. Z increases by 2 and A decreases by 4
d. Z decreases by 2 and A decreases by 4

24. Ortho- formulation of phenols is carried out by which of the reaction?

a. Perkin Elmer reaction
b. Reimer Thiemann reaction
c. Frieda Craft reaction
d. Cannizzaro reaction

25. The amine formed from an amide by means of bromine and alkali has?
a. Same number of carbon atoms as that of amide
b. One carbon atom less than that of amide
c. One carbon atom more than that of amide
d. Two carbon atoms more than that of amide

26. The glycosidic linkage between two anhydroglucoseunits in cellulose is ?

a. β-1,4 b. β-1,6 c. α-1,4 d. α-1,6
27. Bronze is an alloy of
a. Ni and Cu
b. Cu and Fe
c. Cu and Sn
d. Ni, Fe and Cu

28. Which of the following is the life saving mixture for an asthma patient?
a. Mixture of He and O2
b. Mixture of Ne and O2
c. Mixture of Ar and O2
d. None of the above

29. A Shield area composed of geologically ancient rocks of diverse origin

a. Peninsula b. Extra-Peninsula
c. Indo-gangetic Plain d. All the three

30. Which is a metamorphic rock

a. Slate b. Shale c. Dyke d. Conglomerate

31. Continental drift theory is given by

a. Alfered Wegner b. Tuzo Wilson c. Newton d. Henry Hess

32. A plane which divides the crystal into two halves in such a way that one half
may be the mirror image of the other
a. An axis of symmetry b. A plane of symmetry
c. A center of symmetry d. All the three

33. The value of hardness for Quartz on Moh’s Scale of Hardness is

a. 2 b. 5 c. 7 d. 10

34. Schistose structure is found in

a. Igneous rocks b. Sedimentary rocks
c. Metamorphic rocks d. All the three

35. The first amphibians appears at the time of

a. Devonian period b. Silurian period
c. Ordovician period d. Cambrian period

36. Asaphus is found in

a. Brachiopods b. Trilobites c. Crinoids d. Bryozoa

37. Exfoliation is removal of outer skin of a rock mass. It is observed in arid region and the process
involved in this feature is referred as
a. Mechanical weathering b. Chemical weathering
c. Biological weathering d. Hydrolysis

38. L Waves are known as

a. Longitudinal waves b. Transverse waves
c. Surface waves d. Subsurface waves

39. Rate of weathering depends upon

a. Nature of rocks b. Climate c. Topography d. All the three

40. When hematite undergoes hydration, it forms

a. Magnetite b. Ilmenite c. Limonite d. Siderite
41. The following sequence best arranges tRNA, rRNA and DNA in order of increasing
molecular weights
a. tRNA, DNA, rRNA
b. tRNA, rRNA, DNA
c. rRNA, tRNA, DNA
d. rRNA, DNA, tRNA

42. Lyases, a class of enzyme catalyses

a. Hydrolysis reaction
b. Group transfer reaction
c. Oxidation and reduction reaction
d. Addition of groups to double bond and vice versa

43. Most CO2 from catabolism of glucose is released during

a. glycolysis
b. the krebs cycle
c. lactate fermentation
d. oxidative phosphorylation

44. In CAM plants, CO2 acceptor in the night is

a. RUBP
b. PEP
c. OAA
d. PGA

45. Any DNA molecule that has the ability to replicate autonomously is called
a. plasmid
b. chromisome
c. genome
d. replicon

46. Satellite DNA consists of

a. extra chromosomal DNA
b. short repetitive nucleotide sequence
c. ribosomal RNA genes
d. single gene regions

47. Essential elements are

a. not required for normal reproduction
b. not replaceable by other elements
c. not directly involved with metabolism
d. required only in those with metabolism

48. Which of the following hormone , in combination with auxin, stimulates call division in plants and
determines the course of differentiation
a. ethylene
b. indoleacetic acid
c. gibberellins
d. cytokinin

49. Unlike tropisms, nastic movements are in response to

a. paratonic stimuli
b. gravity
c. non-directional stimuli
d. directional stimuli
50. A Grafian follicle is
a. An immature developing follicle
b. A mature follicle ready to ovulate
c. A follicle undergoing apoptosis
d. Ovulated follicle

51. The protozoans that cause malaria in humans are

a. radiolarians
b. trichosomes
c. dinoflagellates
d. sporozoans

52. According to histogen theory, the meristematic zone responsible for the
development of pericycle is
a. Periblem
b. Plerome
c. Dermatogens
d. Calyptrogens

53. Which one of the following chemical ions plays an important role in the growth of pollen tube
a. calcium
b. chlorine
c . magnesium
d. sulphate

54.Which of the following is not reason why population growth declines as population size
approaches the carrying capacity
a. climate becomes unfavorable
b. competition for resources increases
c. predation rates increase
d. disease rates increase

55. Soil with pH more than 8.5, ESP more than 15 and EC less than 4 ds/m:
a. Alkaline soil
b. Saline soil
c. Saline alkaline soil
d. None of above

56. International Institute of Tropical Agriculture is situated at:

a. Japan
b. Nigeria
c. Syria
d. India

57. Which among the following is a C4 plant:

a. Rice
b. Wheat
c. Sorghum
d. Barley

58. Tetrazolium test is used to determine

a. Seed purity
b. Seed viability
c. Seed germination
d. Seed quality
59. A production function with unitary elasticity indicates:
a. Increasing returns
b. Decreasing returns
c. Constant returns
d. All of above

60. Red rot in sugarcane is caused by

a. Bacteria
b. Virus
c. Fungi
d. Physiological disorder

61. Protein content in soybean is about

a. 22%
b. 42%
c. 10%
d. >50%

62. Gossypium hirsutum is a group of cotton commonly known as

a. Desi cotton
b. American cotton
c. Sea island cotton
d. None of these

63. When water for only one irrigation is available to wheat crop it should be applied at
a. Boot stage
b. Tailoring stage
c. Flowering stage
d. CRI stage

64. Cross between an inbred and variety is known as:

a. Pure cross
b. Back cross
c. Poly cross
d. Top cross

65. Regular bearing variety of mango is:

a. Amrapali
b. Alphanso
c. Langra
d. Honey dew
66. Chromosomal condition 2n – 1 – 1 is called:
a. Monosomy
b. Double monosomy
c. Double Nullisomy
d. Trisomy

67. Paddy has:

a. 3 stamens
b. 4 stamens
c. 5 stamens
d. 6 stamens
68. Which design is used in laboratory experiments?
a. LSD
b. RBD
c. Factorial
d. CRD

69. Green House Gases are:

a. CO2, CFCs, O3, NOx and Water vapour
b. CFCs, CO, CH4, NOx and Water vapour
c. CO2, CFCs, CH4, NOx and Water vapour
d. CO2, CFCs, CH4, SOx and Water vapour

70. Under normal conditions, which of the following would be influenced least by thinning?
a. Diameter growth
b. Height growth
c. Crown growth (expansion)
d. Natural pruning

71. The quality of a forest site is best indicated by the relationship between?
a. Age and diameter of the trees
b. Age and height of the trees
c. Diameter and height of the trees
d. Diameter and number of trees per acre

72. In which article of the Indian Constitution, Environment protection has been declared as
a fundamental duty of citizens?
a. 38
b. 51-A (g)
c. 42
d. 21

73. The species suitable for planting in water logged areas is?
a. Terminalia arjuna
b. Populus deltoids
c. Acacia nilotica
d. Azadirachta indica

74. Commercial natural rubber latex is tapped from which tree:

a. Butea spp
b. Hevea spp.
c. Ficus spp.
d. Acacia spp.

75. World Forestry Day is celebrated on:

a. 25 February
b. 21 March
c. 1 December
d. 11 July

76. In planting seedlings, which of the following is true?

a. Taproots should be straight.
b. U-rooting does not affect mortality and growth at normal planting depth.
c. U-rooting will not affect mortality if planted 2 inches deeper than they grew in the nursery.
d. None of the above.
77. Which nutrient is needed in the greatest amount by most plants?
a. Potassium
b. Magnesium
c. Phosphorus
d. Nitrogen

78. Bidi is prepared from the leaf of :

a. Dhak
b. Sagaon
c. Tendu
d. None of these

79. A type of propagation in which a plant stem is rooted while it is still attached to the
parent plant is called :
a. Division
b. Layering
c. Grafting
d. All of the above

80. Mangrove forests are located in:

a. Himalaya
b Silent valley
c. Sunder bans
d. Madhya Pradesh

81. The science of constructing map is called

a. Topography
b. Demography
c. Cartography
d. Geography
82. Who appoints Supreme Court judges officially in India?
a. President
b. Prime Minister
c. Vice president
d. By the permission of both president and Prime Minister

83. Which of the following cities is known as electronic city of India?

a. Mumbai
b. Hyderabad
c. Bangalore
d. New Delhi

84. The world famous Ajanta caves are situated in which state of India?
a. Maharashtra
b. Madhya Pradesh
c. Odisha
d. Karnataka

85. Which state became the first state in India to achieve 100 % success in
Implementing the Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana?
a. Assam
b. Kerala
c. Punjab
d. Meghalaya
86. Which government agency has developed a handbook of state statistics?
a. DEA (Drug Enforcement Administrations)
b. NITI Aayog
c. Planning commission
d. Both a and b

87. is the position of India in terms of highest number of impacted species in hotspots?
a. 8th
b. 16th
c. 21st
d. 25th

88. The first Indian to receive Noble Prize in Literature was

a. Mother Teresa
b. C. V. Raman
c. Rabindranath Tagore
d. Sarojini Naidu
89. Which country announced a complete ban on import of solid plastic waste/scrap recently?
a. India
b. Russia
c. Japan
d. China

90. Which of the following folk dance forms is associated with Gujarat?
a. Garba
b. Kathakali
c. Bhangra
d. Nautanki

91. “India of my dreams” book was written by

a. Jawaharlal Nehru
b. Mahatma Gandhi
c. Subhas Chandra Bose
d. Sarojini Naidu

92. LPG is a mixture of

a. Methane, ethane and hexane
b. Ethane, nonane and hexane
c. Methane butane and propane
d. Methane and ethane only

93. The members of the Rajya Sabha are elected for a period of
a. Four years
b. Five years
c. Six years
d. Seven years

94. The name of the union given in the Constitution is

a. Hindustan or Bharatavarsha
b. India or Hindustan
c. India or Bharat
d. Bharatdesh or India
95. A Voice for Freedom' is a book written by
a. Nayantara Sahgal
b. Aung San Suu Kyi
c. Benazir Bhutto
d. Corazon Aquino

96. The Shimla convention is an agreement that sets

a. Shimla as a tourist spot
b. Shimla as the capital of Himachal Pradesh
c. Boundary between India and Tibet
d. Boundary between Shimla and Nepal

97. Which state bags “Water Digest Award” for best water conservation-diversion and
increasing the irrigation capacity for 2018?
a. Haryana
b. Uttar Pradesh
c. Chhattisgarh
d. Jharkhand

98. Hundred year war was fought between

a. France and England
b. Greek and Persian forces
c. Civil war in England
d. None of the above

99. What is the theme of 2018 world tourism day?

a. One billion tourist's one billion opportunities
b. Tourism and the Digital Transformation
c. Sustainable tourism
d. Sustainable tourism for future

100. In which of the following pairs, the two substances forming the pair are chemically most
dissimilar
a. Sugar and paper
b. Butter and paraffin wax
c. Chalk and marble
d. Charcoal and diamond

101. For some integer m, every even integer is of the form

a. m c. m+1
b. 2m d. 2m+1

102. The largest number which divides 70 and 125, leaving remainders 5 and 8, respectively, is
a. 13 c. 65
b. 875 d. 1750

103. The product of a non-zero rational and an irrational number is

a. always irrational c. always rational
b. rational or irrational d. one

104. A quadratic polynomial, whose zeroes are -3 and 4, is

a. x2-x+12 c. x2+x+12
b. x2/2-x/2-6 d. 2x2+2x-24
105. In an AP, if a =3.5, d=0, n=101, then an will be
a. 0 c. 3.5
b. 103.5 d. 104.5

106. The sum of first 16 terms of the AP: 10, 6, 2,…. is

a. -320 c. 320
b. -352 d. -400

107. In an AP if a= -7.2, d= 3.6, an= 7.2, then n is

a. 1 c. 4
b. 3 d. 5

108. The distance of the point P (2,3) from the x-axis is

a. 2 c. 1
b. 3 d. 5

109. The area of a triangle with vertices A (3,0), B (7,0) and C (8,4) is
a. 14 c. 8
b. 28 d. 6

110. If Cos A =4/5, then the value of tan A is

a. 3/5 c. 4/3
b. 3/4 d. 5/3

111. The value of tan 300 / cot 600 is

a. 1/√2 c. 1/√3
b. √3 d. 1

112. An even is very unlikely to happen. Its probability is closest to

a. 0.0001 c. 0.01
b. 0.001 d. 0.1

113. If the probability of an event is p, the probability of its complementary event will be
a. p-1 c. 1-p
b. p d. 1-1/p

114. The card is selected from a deck of 52 cards. The probability of its being a red face card is
a. 3/26 c. 2/13
b. 3/13 d. 1/2

115. A surahi is the combination of

a. a sphere and a cylinder c. a hemisphere and a cylinder
b. two hemisphere d. a cylinder and a cone.

116. If the perimeter of a circle is equal to that of a square, then the ratio of their areas is
a. 22:7 c. 7:22
b. 14:11 d. 11:14

117. If θ is the angle (in degrees) of a sector of a circle of radius r, then area of the sector is
a. πr2θ/360 c. πr2θ/180
b. 2πrθ/360 d. 2πrθ/180

118. The least 4 digit number which is a perfect square is

a. 1024 c. 1016
b. 1036 d. 1044
119. If a/b - a = 7/8, find the value of a/b
a. 7 c. 15/7
b. 7/15 d. -15/7

120. Which of the following will result in 10, 20, 19, and 40 being in proportion?
a. Add one to 10 c. Add one to 20
b. Add one to 19 d. Add one to 40

121. A man sells 200 mangoes at the cost price of 250 mangoes. His profit percentage is
a. 12.5% c. 25%
b. 20% d. None of these.

122. A mechanic sold a scooter for Rs. 9000 at a loss of 10%. In order to gain 5% at what price should
he sell it?
a. 9500 c. 10000
b. 10500 d. 11000

123. A certain sum becomes 3 times itself in 6 years at simple interest. In how many years will it
become 9 times itself?
a. 18 c. 20
b. 24 d. 22

124. A sum of Rs. 2500 is invested for 2 years at 20% per annum, interest compounded half-yearly.
Find the compound interest.
a. Rs. 3660.25 c. Rs. 1660.25
b. Rs.1160.25 d. Rs.1330

125. A works 3 times as fast as B. if B can complete a work in 60 days, then in how many days can A
and B together complete the same work?
a. 20 c. 12
b. 15 d. 30

126. Rakesh and Siva can do a piece of work in 15 days and 18 days respectively. They work together
for 5 days and then Rakesh leaves. In how many days will Siva alone finish the remaining work?
a. 5 c. 7
b. 6 d. 8

127. Twelve men can do a piece of work in 15 days. How many men are required to complete a work
which is three and a half times the original work in 10 days?
a. 18 c. 63
b. 54 d. 70

128. A is twice as fast as B and B is thrice as fast as C. In how many minutes will B cover the distance,
which was covered by C in 57 minutes?
a. 18 c. 27
b. 38 d. 19

129. The time taken by a 240 m long train, travelling at a speed of 72 km/h, to cross a pole is
a. 15 sec. c. 12 sec.
b. 25 sec. d. 27 sec.

130. The speed of a boat upstream is 12 km/h. if it can travel a distance of 42 km downstream in 3
hours, then the speed of the current is
a. 2 km/h c. 0.5 km/h
b. 1.5 km/h d. 1 km/h
131. A car covers 300 km at a constant speed. If its speed was 10 kmph more, it would have taken one
hour less to travel the same distance. Find the speed of the car.
a. 60 kmph c. 50 kmph
b. 40 kmph d. 75 kmph

132. The value of x which satisfies the equation 5 / (x+6) = 2 / (3-2x) is

a. ½ c. 1/4
b. 1/6 d. 1/8

133. The range of x, 14, 17, 23, 26 and 46 is 33. Which of the following can be the value of x?
a. 32 c. 47
b. 48 d. 26

134. A bar graph is drawn to the scale of 1 cm =k units. The length of the bar representing a quantity
405 units is 5.4 cm. find k.
a. 100 c. 70
b. 80 d. 75

135. If the ratio of mode and median is 9:7, then find the ratio of mean and mode.
a. 2:3 c. 4:5
b. 5:9 d. 8:9

136. The mean of 17 observations is 30, three observations 20, 30 and 40 are deleted and one
observation 90 is included. Then, find the means of the final observations.
a. 33 c. 34
b. 35 d. Cannot say

137. If the mean of first y natural numbers is 28, then find y.

a. 25 c. 27
b. 56 d. 55

138. If a matrix contain 5 rows and 3 columns, then the number of elements of the matrix is _______ .
a. 6 c. 8
b. 10 d. 15

139. If a matrix contains 6 elements then the order of the matrix can be _______.
a. 3 X 2 c. 2X3
b. 1 X 6 d. All the above

140. If a matrix contain 5 elements, then how many different orders of matrices are possible.
a. 1 c. 2
b. 3 d. 4

141. Who appoints the Chief Election Commissioner?

a. Parliament
b. President of India
c. Prime Minister
d. Law Minister

142. Sultan Azlan Shah Cup is related to which among the following Sports?
a. Hockey
b. Badminton
c. Table Tennis
d. Golf
143. Gross Domestic Product is the monetary value of:
a. Goods produced for the market only
b. Goods produced for the market and self consumption
c. Stock of goods and services
d. All final goods and services produced in a year

144. Barometer is used for:

a. Measures atmospheric pressure and conditions
b. Determines heights and levels
c. Determines longitude of a vessel at sea
d. Measures the relative density of liquids

145. Which of the following is not a synthetic fibre?

a. Nylon
b. Polyester
c. Silk
d. Acrylic

146. It is not The Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) set by the United Nations:
a. Zero Hunger
b. Gender Equality
c. Life on Land
d. No war, Peaceful life

147. Sports that is played in Asian Games and Commonwealth Games, but not in the
Olympics:
a. Golf
b. Squash
c. Skating
d. Cricket

148. In which city India’s first park for differently able inaugurated?
a. Mumbai
b. Hyderabad
c. Banglore
d. New Delhi

149. What is the objective of recently launched GARBH-ini Mission:

a. Improvement of child sex ratio
b. Care of pregnant women in government hospital
c. To promote maternal and child health
d. Promote health education in tribal women

150. Constitution (One Hundred and Third Amendment) Act 2019, provides______reservation to
the economically weaker sections in jobs as well as educational institutions:
a. 5%
b. 10%
c. 15%
d. 20%

151. Kalamsat-V2 is a_____:

a. Missile
b. Satellite Launch Vehicle
c. Space craft
d. Satellite
152. Headquarter of international Monetary Fund is in:
a. Washington
b. Madrid
c. Tokyo
d. London

153. Insulin controls the metabolism of :

a. Hormones
b. FATS
c. Carbohydrate
d. Proteins

154. Who among the following is NOT associated with medicine in ancient India?
a. Bhaskaracharya
b. Dhanvantri
c. Charaka
d. Susruta
155. The imaginary line on the earth's surface, which closely follows the 180 º meridian, is called
the_______:
a. Tropic of Cancer
b. International Date Line
c. Equator
d. Prime Meridian

156. Which of the following is not a folk dance of Uttar Pradesh?

a. Quawwalis
b. Birhas
c . Charkulas
d. Chhau

157. What was the reason for opposing Simon Commission in India?
a. Due to absence of any Indian Member in the Commission.
b. It had an Anti Indian sentiment.
c. Both (A) & (B)
d. None of the above

158. Pongal is famous festival of :

a. Karnataka
b. Andhra Pradesh
c. Kerala
d. Tamil Nadu

159. World Water Day is observed on:

a. 15 January
b. 22 March
c. 10 September
d. 5 June

160. TRAI stands for:

a. Telecom Regulatory Authority of India
b. Telephone Regulatory Authority of India
c. Telecom Regulations Act of India
d. Telecom Regulating Act of India
161. Which of the following river does not originate in Indian Territory:
a. Mahanadi
b. Beas
c. Satluj
d. Bramaputra

162. Oscar Awards are given for the excellence in the field of :
a. Social Service
b. Film
c. Sports
d. Journalism
163.Which of the following awards is given for excellence in the field of Literature?
a. Tansen Sanman
b. Kalidas Sanman
c. Saraswati Sanman
d. Arjun Award

164. Name the Best Mobile App, that won the Gold in the Digital India Awards 2019:
a. ePathshala
b. Pay TM
c. eCourts Services
d. Meeseva App

165. Who has written the novel Anand Math?

a. Sharat Chandra
b. Bankim Chandra
c. Guru Dutt
d. RN Tagore

166.The most important function of lok sabha is:

a. Judiciary
b. Executive
c. Legislature
d. None of these

167.The one rupee note bears the signature of:

a. President
b. Finance Minister
c. Finance Secretary
d. RBI Governor

168.Which of the following countries is not a member of a SAARC

a. Sri Lanka
b. Maldives
c. Bhutan
d. Myanmar

169.Who was appointed the (ICC) International Cricket Council Board’s 1st Independent female
director?
a. Indra Nooyi
b. Kiran Majumdar Shaw
c. Vanitha Narayanan
d. Vinita Bali

170.Green Economy is led by:

a. International Hydrological Organization
 b. United Nations Environment Programme
c. Intergovernmental Panel for Climate change
d. European Union

171-175 Choose the correct meaning of the idioms given in bold in the sentences

171. A movement for the world unity is in the offing.

a. at the end
b. about to start
c. on decline
d. in the air

172. He was a king who ruled his subjects with a high hand
a. Oppressively
b. Kindly
c. Conveniently
d. Sympathetically

173. He is not worth his salt if he fails at this juncture

a. Quite worthless
b. Very proud of himself
c. Quite depressed
d. Very strange

174. He does not like to be friendly with Sarla. He always give her a cold shoulder.
a. Pushes her with his shoulder wherever they meet
b. Insult her in the presence of others
c. Tries to be unfriendly by taking no notice of her
d. Argues with her on any issue

175. His promotion is on the cards.

a. Due
b. Evident
c. Certain
d. Probable

176-185 Choose the expression which is an improvement upon the bold part.

176. He insisted on he was innocent.

a. Insisted on that
b. Insisted that
c. Insists that
d. No improvement

177. He is having three cars.

a. Has
b. Was
c. To the cinema
d. No improvement

178. All his answers were correct.

a. His all answers
b. His every answers
c. All of his answers
d. No improvement
179. They are waiting for her since morning.
a. Have been waiting
b. Were waiting
c. Wait
d. No improvement

180. It is no good to cry over split milk.

a. It is no good crying
b. It is of no good to cry
c. It is of no good crying
d. No improvement

181. He gave witness at the sensational trial.

a. Evidence
b. Proof
c. Advice
d. No improvement

182. He could not cope up with the heavy rush.

a. Cope upto
b. Cope by
c. Cope with
d. No improvement

183. Marconi assembled the radio.

a. Discovered
b. Made
c. Invented
d. No improvement

184. Prefer tea rather than coffee.

a. And
b. Over
c. To
d. No improvement

185. She is loving chocolate ice cream.

a. Has loving
b. Has been loved
c. Loves
d. No improvement

186- 188 Choose the word nearest in meaning to bold part.

186.The flat has been refurbished recently.

a. White-washed
b. Painted
c. Renovated
d. Repaired

187.The navy gave tactical support to the marines.

a. Sensitive
b. Strategic
c. Expedient
d. Expert
188. He tried to alleviate the sufferings of his neighbours.
a. Abate
b. Dissipate
c. Remove
d. Relieve

189-190 Select the word or the phrase which is closest to the opposite in meaning of the bold word
or phrase.

189. There is not a trace of vanity in her behavior.

a. Humility
b. Selflessness
c. Modesty
d. Dignity

190. Some of the needs of a modern man are surely dispensable.

a. Desirable
b. Acceptable
c. Relevant
d. Essential

191-192 Select the word that is furthest (opposite) in meaning to the main word.

191. Arid
a. Cloudy
b. Juicy
c. Marshy
d. Wet

192. Choleric
a. Affluent
b. Brave
c. Pleasant
d. Tired

193-195 Select the most suitable alternative to fill in the blank in the sentence to make it
meaningful.

193. He is very……………….on meeting foreigners and befriending them.

a. Anxious
b. Find
c. Insistent
d. Keen

194. Oh! such a pretty girl. Whom has she……….?

a. Taken after
b. Took after
c. Taken by
d. Took by

195. To ………………yourself from………..wear warm clothes.

a. Prohibit; heat
b. Protect; cold
c. Save; heat
d. Suffer; cold
196-200 Read the passage carefully and answers the question that follow:-

John had never thought much about the origin of wealth or inequalities in life. It was his firm
belief that if this world was not good, the next would be good and this faith sustained him. He
was not like some others whom he knew, who would sell their souls to the devil.
He always thought of God before doing anything. He lived the life of an honest man. He
had not married, but did not desire another man’s wife. He believed that women
weakened men as was described in the story of Samson and Delilah.

196.“ To Sell one’s soul to the devil” means

a. Suppressing one’s conscience
b. Giving up goodness in exchange for evil
c. Giving up one’s honesty for the sake of monetary benefits
d. To sell oneself to earn livelihood

197. John thoughtful that women weakened men because

a. He thought that women were evil
b. He believed that a woman was a fancy devil
c. He thought that a woman would spoil his life
d. He was convinced that what the story of Samson and Delilah illustrates is correct

198. It was John’s belief that

a. One can be happy only by remaining a bachelor
b. The world is a happy place
c. There is no other world
d. One must lead an honest life

199. By not desiring another man’s wife John showed that

a. He wanted to get married
b. He was a man of principles
c. He felt sorry for other men
d. He had no desire for another’s wealth

200. From the above passage we understand that John was

a. Not highly educated
b. A man of simple faith
c. A deeply pessimistic man
d. A scholar of scriptures