300+ TOP Engineering Materials MCQs and Answers Quiz

Posted on April 16, 2024 by engineer13 Comments

Engineering Materials Multiple choice Questions
1. The composition of silver solder is
A. Silver, copper, zinc
B. Silver, tin, nickel
C. Silver, lead, zinc
D. Silver, copper, aluminium
Answer: A
2. When a steel containing __________ 0.8% carbon is cooled slowly below the lower critical point,
it consists of ferrite and pearlite.
A. Equal to
B. Less than
C. More than
D. None of these
Answer: B
3. Pipes for bicycle frames are made of
A. Cold rolled steel
B. Hot rolled steel
C. Forged steel
D. Cast steel
Answer: A
4. Which one of the following metals would work-harden more quickly than the others?
A. Copper
B. Brass
C. Lead
D. Silver
Answer: B
5. Iron-carbon alloys containing carbon ________ 4.3% are known as hyper-eutectic cast irons.
A. Equal to
B. Less than
C. More than
D. None of these
Answer: C
6. Bell metal contains
A. 70% copper and 30% zinc
B. 90% copper and 10% tin
C. 85 – 92% copper and rest tin with little lead and nickel
D. 70 – 75% copper and rest tin
Answer: D
7. The temperature required for full annealing in hypereutectoid steel is
A. 30° C to 50° C above upper critical temperature
B. 30° C to 50° C below upper critical temperature
C. 30° C to 50° C above lower critical temperature
D. 30° C to 50° C below lower critical temperature
Answer: C
8. The charge of the blast furnace consists of
A. Calcined ore (8 parts), coke (4 parts) and limestone (1 part)
B. Calcined ore (4 parts), coke (1 part) and limestone (8 parts)
C. Calcined ore (1 part), coke (8 parts) and limestone (4 parts)
D. Calcined ore, coke and limestone all in equal parts
Answer: A
9. The following element can’t impart high strength at elevated temperature
A. Manganese
B. Magnesium
C. Nickel
D. Silicon
Answer: B
10. The percentage carbon content in wrought iron is about
A. 0.02
B. 0.1
C. 02
D. 0.4
Answer: A
11. Heavy duty leaf and coil springs contain carbon of the following order
A. 0.2%
B. 0.5%
C. 0.8%
D. 1.0%
Answer: D
12. The silicon steel is widely used for
A. Connecting rods
B. Cutting tools
C. Generators and transformers in the form of laminated cores
D. Motor car crankshafts
Answer: C
13. Blast furnace produces following by reduction of iron ore
A. Cast iron
B. Pig iron
C. Wrought iron
D. Malleable iron
Answer: B
14. For a steel containing 0.8% carbon
A. There is no critical point
B. There is only one critical point
C. There are two critical points
D. There can be any number of critical points
Answer: B
15. Nickel in steel
A. Improves wear resistance, cutting ability and toughness
B. Refines grain size and produces less tendency to carburisation, improves corrosion and heat resistant
properties
C. Improves cutting ability and reduces hardenability
D. Gives ductility, toughness, tensile strength and anti-corrosion properties
Answer: D

16. Which of the following impurity in cast iron makes it hard and brittle?
A. Silicon
B. Sulphur
C. Manganese
D. Phosphorus
(1) Answer: B
17. Tensile strength of steel can be safely increased by
A. Adding carbon up to 2.8%
B. Adding carbon up to 6.3%
C. Adding carbon up to 0.83%
D. Adding small quantities of copper
Answer: C
18. Which of the following metal is used for nuclear energy?
A. Uranium
B. Thorium
C. Niobium
D. All of these
Answer: D
19. Cemented carbide tools are not found to be suitable for cutting
A. Brass
B. Cast iron
C. Aluminium
D. Steel
Answer: D
20. Y-alloy contains
A. 3.5 to 4.5% copper, 0.4 to 0.7% magnesium, 0.4 to 0.7% manganese and rest aluminium
B. 3.5 to 4.5% copper, 1.2 to 1.7% manganese, 1.8 to 2.3% nickel, 0.6% each of silicon, magnesium and
iron, and rest aluminium
C. 4 to 4.5% magnesium, 3 to 4% copper and rest aluminium
D. 5 to 6% tin, 2 to 3% copper and rest aluminium
Answer: B
21. Amorphous material is one
A. In which atoms align themselves in a geometric pattern upon solidification
B. In which there is no definite atomic structure and atoms exist in a random pattern just as in a liquid
C. Which is not attacked by phosphorous
D. Which emits fumes on melting
Answer: B
22. According to Indian standard specifications, SG 400/15 means
A. Spheroidal graphite cast iron with B.H.N. 400 and minimum tensile strength 15 MPa
B. Spheroidal graphite cast iron with minimum tensile strength 400 MPa and 15 percent elongation
C. Spheroidal graphite cast iron with minimum compressive strength 400 MPa and 15 percent reduction
in area
D. None of the above
Answer: B
23. Brass (alloy of copper and zinc) is an example of
A. Substitutional solid solution
B. Interstitial solid solution
C. Intermetallic compounds
D. All of the above
Answer: A
24. In process annealing, the hypo eutectoid steel is
A. Heated from 30°C to 50°C above the upper critical temperature and then cooled in still air
B. Heated from 30°C to 50°C above the upper critical temperature and then cooled suddenly in a suitable
cooling medium
C. Heated from 30°C to 50°C above the upper critical temperature and then cooled slowly in the furnace
D. Heated below or closes to the lower critical temperature and then cooled slowly
Answer: D
25. Pick up the wrong statement
A. Aluminium in steel results in excessive grain growth
B. Manganese in steel induces hardness
C. Nickel and chromium in steel helps in raising the elastic limit and improve the resilience and ductility
D. Tungsten in steels improves magnetic properties and hardenability
Answer: A
26. A coarse grained steel
A. Is less tough and has a greater tendency to distort during heat treatment
B. Is more ductile and has a less tendency to distort during heat treatment
C. Is less tough and has a less tendency to distort during heat treatment
D. Is more ductile and has a greater tendency to distort during heat treatment
Answer: A
27. Pick up the wrong statement Nickel and chromium in steel help in
A. Providing corrosion resistance
B. Improving machining properties
C. Providing high strength at elevated temperatures
D. Raising the elastic limit
Answer: B
28. Normalising of steel is done to
A. Refine the grain structure
B. Remove strains caused by cold working
C. Remove dislocations caused in the internal structure due to hot working
D. All of the above
Answer: D
29. Steel contains
A. 80% or more iron
B. 50% or more iron
C. Alloying elements like chromium, tungsten nickel and copper
D. Elements like phosphorus, sulphur and silicon in varying quantities
Answer: B
30. Which of the following has a fine gold colour and is used for imitation jewellery?
A. Silicon bronze
B. Aluminium bronze
C. Gun metal
D. Babbitt metal
Answer: B
31. Elinvar, an alloy used in precision instruments, hair springs for watches, etc. contains the
following element as principal alloying element
A. Iron
B. Copper
C. Aluminium
D. Nickel
Answer: D
32. Which of the following statement is wrong?
A. Steel with 0.8% carbon is wholly pearlite
B. The amount of cementite increases with the increase in percentage of carbon in iron
C. A mechanical mixture of 87% cementite and 13% ferrite is called pearlite
D. The cementite is identified as round particles in the structure
Answer: C
33. Which of the following has highest specific strength of all structural materials?
A. Magnesium alloys
B. Titanium alloys
C. Chromium alloys
D. Magnetic steel alloys
Answer: B
34. In a hardening process, the hypo-eutectoid steel is
A. Heated from 30°C to 50°C above the upper critical temperature and then cooled in still air
B. Heated from 30°C to 50°C above the upper critical temperature and then cooled suddenly in a suitable
cooling medium
C. Heated from 30°C to 50°C above the upper critical temperature and then cooled slowly in the furnace
D. Heated below or closes to the lower critical temperature and then cooled slowly
Answer: B
35. The correct composition of Babbitt metal is
A. 87.75% Sn, 4% Cu, 8% Sb, 0.25% Bi
B. 90% Sn, 2% Cu, 4% Sb, 2% Bi, 2% Mg
C. 87% Sn, 4% Cu, 8% Sb, 1% Al
D. 82% Sn, 4% Cu, 8% Sb, 3% Al, 3% Mg
Answer: A
36. When steel containing less than 0.8% carbon is cooled slowly from temperatures above or
within the critical range, it consists of
A. Mainly ferrite
B. Mainly pearlite
C. Ferrite and pearlite
D. Pearlite and cementite
Answer: C
37. Dow metal contains
A. 94% aluminium, 4% copper and 0.5% Mn, Mg, Si and Fe
B. 92.5% aluminium and, 4% copper, 2% nickel and 1.5% Mg
C. 90% aluminium and 90% copper
D. 90% magnesium and 9% aluminium with some copper
Answer: D
38. Body centered cubic space lattice is found in
A. Zinc, magnesium, cobalt, cadmium, antimony and bismuth
B. Gamma iron, aluminium, copper, lead, silver and nickel
C. Alpha iron, tungsten, chromium and molybdenum
D. None of the above
Answer: C
39. Which of the following alloys does not have copper as one of the constituents?
A. Delta metal
B. Monel metal
C. Constantan
D. Nichrome
Answer: D
40. In spheroidising process, the steel is
A. Heated below the lower critical temperature and then cooled slowly
B. Heated up to the lower critical temperature and then cooled in still air
C. Heated slightly above the lower critical temperature and then cooled slowly to a temperature of 600°C
D. None of the above
Answer: C
41. Which of the following alloys does not contain tin?
A. White metal
B. Solder admiralty
C. Fusible metal
D. Phosphor bronze
Answer: A
42. The bond formed by transferring electrons from one atom to another is called
A. Ionic bond
B. Covalent bond
C. Metallic bond
D. None of these
Answer: A
43. Addition of manganese to aluminium results in
A. Improvement of casting characteristics
B. Improvement of corrosion resistance
C. One of the best known age and precipitation hardening systems
D. Improving machinability
Answer: B
44. When medium carbon steel is heated to coarsening temperature
A. There is no change in grain size
B. The average grain size is a minimum
C. The grain size increases very rapidly
D. The grain size first increases and then decreases very rapidly
Answer: C
45. Admiralty gun metal contains
A. 63 to 67% nickel and 30% copper
B. 88% copper, 10% tin and rest zinc
C. Alloy of tin, lead and cadmium
D. Iron scrap and zinc
Answer: B

46. The alloy, mainly used for corrosion resistance in stainless steels is
A. Silicon
B. Manganese
C. Carbon
D. Chromium
Answer: D
47. The correct sequence for descending order of machinability is
A. Grey cast iron, low carbon steel, wrought iron
B. Low carbon steel, grey cast iron, wrought iron
C. Wrought iron, low carbon steel, grey cast iron
D. Wrought iron, grey cast iron, low carbon steel
Answer: A
48. Duralumin contains
A. 3.5 to 4.5% copper, 0.4 to 0.7% magnesium, 0.4 to 0.7% manganese and rest aluminium
B. 3.5 to 4.5% copper, 1.2 to 1.7% manganese, 1.8 to 2.3% nickel, 0.6% each of silicon, magnesium and
iron, and rest aluminium
C. 4 to 4.5% magnesium, 3 to 4% copper and rest aluminium
D. 5 to 6% tin, 2 to 3% copper and rest aluminium
Answer: A
49. Admiralty brass used for steam condenser tubes contains copper and zinc in the following ratio
A. 50 : 50
B. 30 : 70
C. 70 : 30
D. 40 : 60
Answer: B
50. A steel containing 16 to 18% chromium and about 0.12% carbon is called
A. Ferritic stainless steel
B. Austenitic stainless steel
C. Martenistic stainless steel
D. Nickel steel
Answer: A
51. Ductile cast iron
A. Contains 1.7 to 3.5% carbon in Free State and is obtained by the slow cooling of molten cast iron
B. Is also known as chilled cast iron and is obtained by cooling rapidly. It is almost unmachinable
C. Is produced by annealing process. It is soft, tough and easily machined metal
D. Is produced by small additions of magnesium (or creium) in the ladle. Graphite is in nodular or
spheroidal form and is well dispersed throughout the material
Answer: D
52. Which of the following iron exist between 910°C and 1403°C?
A. α-iron
B. β-iron
C. γ-iron
D. δ-iron
Answer: C
53. Malleable cast iron
A. Contains 1.7 to 3.5% carbon in Free State and is obtained by the slow cooling of molten cast iron
B. Is also known as chilled cast iron and is obtained by cooling rapidly. It is almost unmachinable
C. Is produced by annealing process. It is soft, tough, and easily machined metal
D. Is produced by small additions of magnesium (or cerium) in the ladle. Graphite is in the nodular or
spheroidal form and is well dispersed throughout the material
Answer: C
54. The presence of hydrogen in steel causes
A. Reduced neutron absorption cross-section
B. Improved Weldability
C. Embrittlement
D. Corrosion resistance
Answer: C
55. Which is the false statement about wrought iron? It has
A. High resistance to rusting and corrosion
B. High ductility
C. Ability of hold protective coating
D. Uniform strength in all directions
Answer: D
56. Which of the following is added in low carbon steels to prevent them from becoming porous?
A. Sulphur
B. Phosphorus
C. Manganese
D. Silicon
Answer: D
57. Which of the following element results in presence of free graphite in C.I.?
A. Carbon
B. Sulphur
C. Silicon
D. Manganese
Answer: C
58. Free cutting steels
A. Contain carbon in free from
B. Require minimum cutting force
C. Is used where rapid machining is the prime requirement
D. Can be cut freely
Answer: C
59. Grey cast iron
A. Contains 1.7 to 3.5% carbon in Free State and is obtained by the slow cooling of molten cast iron
B. Is also known as chilled cast iron is obtained by cooling rapidly. It is almost unmachinable
C. Is produced by annealing process. I is soft, tough and easily machined metal
D. Is produced by small additions o magnesium (or cerium) in the ladle Graphite is in nodular or
spheroidal form and is well dispersed throughout the material
Answer: A
60. The aluminium alloy, mainly used, for anodized utensil manufacture, is
A. Duralumin
B. Y-alloy
C. Magnalium
D. Hindalium
Answer: D

61. White cast iron

A. Contains 1.7 to 3.5% carbon in Free State and is obtained by the slow cooling of molten cast iron
B. Is also known as chilled cast iron and is obtained by cooling rapidly. It is almost unmachinable
C. Is produced by annealing process. It is soft, tough and easily machined metal
D. Is produced by small additions of magnesium (or creium) in the ladle. Graphite is in nodular or
spheroidal form and is well dispersed throughout the material
Answer: B
62. The compressive strength of cast iron is __________that of its tensile strength.
A. Equal to
B. Less than
C. More than
D. None of these
Answer: C
63. Monel metal contains
A. 63 to 67% nickel and 30% copper
B. 88% copper and 10% tin and rest zinc
C. Alloy of tin, lead and cadmium
D. Malleable iron and zinc
Answer: A
64. In the lower part of the blast furnace (zone of fusion), the temperature is
A. 400° to 700°C
B. 800°C to 1000°C
C. 1200°C to 1300°C
D. 1500°C to 1700°C
Answer: C
65. The temperature at which ferromagnetic alpha iron transforms to paramagnetic alpha iron is
A. 770°C
B. 910°C
C. 1050°C
D. Below recrystallization temperature
Answer: A
66. The ratio of the volume occupied by the atoms to the total volume of the unit cell is called
A. Coordination number
B. Atomic packing factor
C. Space lattice
D. None of these
Answer: B
67. Which is false statement about annealing? Annealing is done to
A. Relieve stresses
B. Harden steel slightly
C. Improve machining characteristic
D. Soften material
Answer: B
68. When low carbon steel is heated up to upper critical temperature
A. There is no change in grain size
B. The average grain size is a minimum
C. The grain size increases very rapidly
D. The grain size first increases and then decreases very rapidly
Answer: B
69. Dislocations in materials refer to the following type of defect
A. Point defect
B. Line defect
C. Plane defect
D. Volumetric defect
Answer: B
70. Pearlite consists of
A. 13% carbon and 87% ferrite
B. 13% cementite and 87% ferrite
C. 13% ferrite and 87% cementite
D. 6.67% carbon and 93.33% iron
Answer: B
71. Sulphur in steel
A. Acts as deoxidiser
B. Reduces the grain size
C. Decreases tensile strength and hardness
D. Lowers the toughness and transverse ductility
Answer: D
72. The toughness of a material __________ when it is heated.
A. Remain same
B. Decreases
C. Increases
D. None of these
Answer: B
73. Structural steel contains following principal alloying elements
A. Nickel, chromium and manganese
B. Tungsten, molybdenum and phosphorous
C. Lead, tin, aluminium
D. Zinc, sulphur, and chromium
Answer: A
74. In basic Bessemer process, the furnace is lined with
A. Silica bricks
B. A mixture of tar and burnt dolomite bricks
C. BothA. andB.
D. None of these
Answer: B
75. Aluminium bronze contains
A. 94% aluminium, 4% copper and 0.5% Mn, Mg, Si and Fe
B. 92.5% aluminium, 4% copper, 2% nickel, and 1.5% Mg
C. 10% aluminium and 90% copper
D. 90% magnesium and 9% aluminium with some copper
Answer: C

76. The material in which the atoms are arranged chaotically, is called
A. Amorphous material
B. Mesomorphous material
C. Crystalline material
D. None of these
Answer: A
77. The percentage of carbon in pig iron varies from
A. 0.1 to 1.2%
B. 1.5 to 2.5%
C. 2.5 to 4%
D. 4 to 4.5%
Answer: D
78. Crystal structure of a material is, generally, examined by
A. Naked eye
B. Optical microscope
C. Metallurgical microscope
D. X-ray techniques
Answer: D
79. A reversible change in the atomic structure of steel with corresponding change in the properties
is known as
A. Molecular change
B. Physical change
C. Allotropic change
D. Solidus change
Answer: C
80. An eutectoid steel consists of
A. Wholly pearlite
B. Wholly austenite
C. Pearlite and ferrite
D. Pearlite and cementite
Answer: A
81. Ductility of a material can be defined as
A. Ability to undergo large permanent deformations in compression
B. Ability to recover its original form
C. Ability to undergo large permanent deformations in tension
D. All of the above
Answer: C
82. Which of the following property is desirable in parts subjected to shock and impact loads?
A. Strength
B. Stiffness
C. Brittleness
D. Toughness
Answer: D
83. In compression, a prism of brittle material will break
A. By forming a bulge
B. By shearing along oblique plane
C. In direction perpendicular to application of load
D. By crushing into thousands of pieces
Answer: B
84. The main alloying elements high speed steel in order of increasing proportion are
A. Vanadium, chromium, tungsten
B. Tungsten, titanium, vanadium
C. Chromium, titanium, vanadium
D. Tungsten, chromium, titanium
Answer: A
85. Corundum contains more than 95%
A. Steel
B. Al2O3
C. SiO2
D. MgO
Answer: B
86. The aluminium alloy made by melting aluminium with 2 to 10% magnesium and 1.75% copper
is called
A. Duralumin
B. Y-alloy
C. Magnalium
D. Hindalium
Answer: C
87. Brass contains
A. 70% copper and 30% zinc
B. 90% copper and 10% tin
C. 85 – 92% copper and rest tin with little lead and nickel
D. 70 – 75% copper and rest tin
Answer: A
88. There are fourteen atoms in a unit cell of
A. Body centered cubic space lattice
B. Face centered cubic space lattice
C. Close packed hexagonal space lattice
D. None of these
Answer: B
89. A specimen of aluminium metal when observed under microscope shows
A. B.C.C. crystalline structure
B. F.C.C. crystal structure
C. H.C.P. structure
D. A complex cubic structure
Answer: B
90. The defect which takes place due to imperfect packing of atoms during crystallization is known
as
A. Line defect
B. Surface defect
C. Point defect
D. None of these
Answer: C
91. Large forgings, crank shafts, axles normally contain carbon up to
A. 0.05 to 0.20%
B. 0.20 to 0.45%
C. 0.45 to 0.55%
D. 0.55 to 1.0%
Answer: C
92. Which of the following statement is incorrect about duralumin?
A. It is prone to age hardening
B. It can be forged
C. It has good machining properties
D. It is lighter than pure aluminium
Answer: D
93. The hardness of steel primarily depends on
A. Percentage of carbon
B. Percentage of alloying elements
C. Heat treatment employed
D. Shape of carbides and their distribution in iron
Answer: D
94. Gamma-iron occurs between the temperature ranges of
A. 400°C to 600°C
B. 600°C to 900°C
C. 900°C to 1400°C
D. 1400°C to 1530°C
Answer: C
95. Alnico, an alloy used extensively for permanent magnets contains iron, nickel, aluminium and
cobalt in the following ratio
A. 50 : 20 : 20 : 10
B. 40 : 30 : 20 : 10
C. 50 : 20 : 10 : 20
D. 30 : 20 : 30 : 20
Answer: A
96. According to Indian standard specifications, plain carbon steel designated by 40 C8 means that
the carbon content is
A. 0.04%
B. 0.35 to 0.45%
C. 0.4 to 0.6%
D. 0.6 to 0.8%
Answer: B
97. If a refractory contains high content of silicon, it means refractory is
A. Acidic
B. Basic
C. Neutral
D. Brittle
Answer: C
98. Cementite consist of
A. 13% carbon and 87% ferrite
B. 13% cementite and 87% ferrite
C. 13% ferrite and 87% cementite
D. 6.67% carbon and 93.33% iron
Answer: D
99. The usual composition of a soldering alloy is
A. Tin, lead and small percentage of antimony
B. Tin and lead
C. Tin, lead and silver
D. Tin and copper
Answer: A
100. The property of a material which enables it to retain the deformation permanently, is called
A. Brittleness
B. Ductility
C. Malleability
D. Plasticity
Answer: D
101. The tensile strength of wrought iron is maximum
A. Along the lines of slag distribution
B. Perpendicular to lines of slag distribution
C. Uniform in all directions
D. None of the above
Answer: A
102. The metal suitable for bearings subjected to heavy loads, is
A. Silicon bronze
B. White metal
C. Monel metal
D. Phosphor bronze
Answer: B
103. Which of the following elements does not impart hardness to steel?
A. Copper
B. Chromium
C. Nickel
D. Silicon
Answer: A
104. In low carbon steels, presence of small quantities of sulphur improves
A. Weldability
B. Formability
C. Machinability
D. Hardenability
Answer: C
105. Cobalt in steel
A. Improves wear resistance, cutting ability and toughness
B. Refines grain size and produces less tendency to carburisation, improve corrosion and heat resistant
proper ties
C. Improves cutting ability and reduce hardenability
D. Gives ductility, toughness, tensile strength and anti corrosion property
Answer: C

106. Which of the following metal shrinks most from molten state to solid state?
A. Cast iron
B. Cast steel
C. Brass
D. Admiralty metal
Answer: D
107. Tungsten in steel
A. Improves wear resistance, cutting ability and toughness
B. Refines grain size and produces less tendency to carburisation, improves corrosion and heat resistant
properties
C. Improves cutting ability and reduces hardenability
D. Gives ductility, toughness, tensile strength and anti-corrosion properties
Answer: B
108. The ability of a material to resist fracture due to high impact loads, is called
A. Strength
B. Stiffness
C. Toughness
D. Brittleness
Answer: C
109. Which is false statement about normalizing? Normalizing is done to
A. Refine grain structure
B. Reduce segregation in casting
C. Improve mechanical properties
D. Induce stresses
Answer: D
110. Hematite iron ore contains iron about
A. 30%
B. 45%
C. 55%
D. 70%
Answer: D
111. The surface hardness of the following order is achieved by nitriding operation
A. 600 VPN
B. 1500 VPN
C. 1000 to 1100 VPN
D. 250 VPN
Answer: C
112. The unit cells
A. Contain the smallest number of atoms which when taken together have all the properties of the crystals
of the particular metal
B. Have the same orientation and their similar faces are parallel
C. May be defined as the smallest parallelepiped which could be transposed in three coordinate directions
to build up the space lattice
D. All of the above
Answer: D
113. Which of the following represents the allotropic forms of iron?
A. Alpha iron, beta iron and gamma iron
B. Alpha iron and beta iron
C. Body centered cubic iron and face centered cubic iron
D. Alpha iron, gamma from and delta iron
Answer: D
114. Which of the following property is desirable for materials used in tools and machines?
A. Elasticity
B. Plasticity
C. Ductility
D. Malleability
Answer: A
115. Points of arrest for iron correspond to
A. Stages at which allotropic forms change
B. Stages at which further heating does not increase temperature for some time
C. Stages at which properties do not change with increase in temperature
D. There is nothing like points of arrest
Answer: A
116. The portion of the blast furnace below its widest cross-section is called
A. Hearth
B. Stack
C. Bosh
D. Throat
Answer: C
117. Taps dies and drills contain carbon
A. Below 0.5%
B. Below 1%
C. Above 1%
D. Above 2.2%
Answer: C
118. The coke in the charge of blast furnace
A. Controls the grade of pig iron
B. Acts as an iron bearing mineral
C. Supplies heat to reduce ore and melt the iron
D. Forms a slag by combining with impurities
Answer: C
119. The percentage of carbon in grey iron castings usually varies between
A. 0.5 to 1%
B. 1.2%
C. 2.5 to 4.5%
D. 5 to 7%
Answer: C
120. The machinability of steel is improved by adding
A. Nickel
B. Chromium
C. Nickel and chromium
D. Sulphur, lead and phosphorus
Answer: D

121. The ultimate tensile strength and yield strength of most of the metals, when temperature falls
from 0 to 100°C will
A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. Remain same
D. First increase and then decrease
Answer: A
122. Macrostructure of a material is, generally, examined by
A. Naked eye
B. Optical microscope
C. Metallurgical microscope
D. X-ray techniques
Answer: A
123. Which of the following pipes is least corrosion resistant?
A. Brass
B. Mild steel
C. Cast iron
D. Wrought iron
Answer: D
124. Wrought iron
A. Is a ductile material
B. Can be easily forged or welded
C. Cannot stand sudden and excessive shocks
D. All of these
Answer: D
125. The metallic structure of mild steel is
A. Body centered cubic
B. Face centered cubic
C. Hexagonal close packed
D. Cubic structure
Answer: A
126. The material in which the atoms are arranged regularly in some directions but not in others, is
called
A. Amorphous material
B. Mesomorphous material
C. Crystalline material
D. None of these
Answer: B
127. Vanadium in high speed steels
A. Promotes decarburisation
B. Provides high hot hardness
C. Forms very hard carbides and thus increases wear resistance
D. Promotes retention of austenite
Answer: C
128. Which of the following material has nearly zero coefficient of expansion?
A. Stainless steel
B. High speed steel
C. Invar
D. Heat resisting steel
Answer: C
129. Nodular iron has
A. High machinability
B. Low melting point
C. High tensile strength
D. All of the above
Answer: D
130. The addition of which of the following improves machining of copper?
A. Sulphur
B. Vanadium
C. Tin
D. Zinc
Answer: A
131. Pig iron is the name given to
A. Raw material for blast furnace
B. Product of blast furnace made by reduction of iron ore
C. Iron containing huge quantities of carbon
D. Iron in molten form in the ladles
Answer: B
132. Which of the following when used in ordinary low carbon steels, makes the metal ductile and
of good bending qualities?
A. Sulphur
B. Phosphorus
C. Manganese
D. Silicon
Answer: C
133. In which of the following cases, consideration of creep is important
A. Flywheel of steam engine
B. Cast iron pipes
C. Cycle chains
D. Gas turbine blades
Answer: D
134. Which of the following statement is correct?
A. The product produced by blast-furnace is called cast iron
B. The pig iron is the name given to the product produced by cupola
C. The cast iron has high tensile strength
D. The chilled cast iron has no graphite
Answer: D
135. Muntz metal contains copper and zinc in the ratio of
A. 50 : 50
B. 40 : 60
C. 60 : 40
D. 20 : 80
Answer: C

136. 1841 high speed steel contains

A. Vanadium 4%, chromium 18% and tungsten 1%
B. Vanadium 1%, chromium 4% and tungsten 18%
C. Vanadium 18%, chromium 1% and tungsten 4%
D. None of the above
Answer: B
137. Age-hardening is related with
A. Stainless steel
B. Gun metal
C. German silver
D. Duralumin
Answer: D
138. Which of the following statement is true about brittle fracture?
A. High temperature and low strain rates favour brittle fracture
B. Many metals with hexagonal close packed (H.C.P) crystal structure commonly show brittle fracture
C. Brittle fracture is always preceded by noise
D. Cup and cone formation is characteristic for brittle materials
Answer: B
139. Recrystallization temperature can be lowered by
A. Purification of metal
B. Grain refinement
C. Working at lower temperature
D. All of the above
Answer: D
140. The ability of a material to absorb energy in the plastic range is called
A. Resilience
B. Creep
C. Fatigue strength
D. Toughness
Answer: A
141. Maximum percentage of carbon in austenite is
A. 0.025%
B. 0.26%
C. 0.8%
D. 1.7%
Answer: D
142. In low carbon steels, ________ raises the yield point and improves the resistance to
atmospheric corrosion.
A. Sulphur
B. Phosphorus
C. Manganese
D. Silicon
Answer: B
143. Super conduction by metals is observed in the temperature range of
A. Below 10°K
B. Above 100°K
C. Around 0°C
D. Around 100°C
Answer: A
144. Connecting rod is, usually, made from
A. Low carbon steel
B. High carbon steel
C. Medium carbon steel
D. High speed steel
Answer: C
145. Ferromagnetic alpha iron exists in temperature range of
A. Below 723°C
B. 770 to 910°C
C. 910 to 1440°C
D. 1400 to 1539°C
Answer: A
146. Which of the following impurity in cast iron promotes graphite nodule formation and increases
the fluidity of the molten metal?
A. Silicon
B. Sulphur
C. Manganese
D. Phosphorus
Answer: A
147. For the allotropic forms of iron, the points of arrest are
A. The points where no further change occurs
B. Constant for all metals
C. The points where there is no further flow of metal
D. The points of discontinuity
Answer: D
148. Inconel contains
A. 65% nickel, 15% chromium and 20% iron
B. 68% nickel, 29% copper and 3% other constituents
C. 80% nickel and 20% chromium
D. 80% nickel, 14% chromium and 6% iron
Answer: D
149. A reversible change in the atomic structure of the steel with a corresponding change in the
properties is known as
A. Allotropic change
B. Recrystallization
C. Heat treatment
D. Precipitation
Answer: A
150. A material is said to be allotropic, if it has
A. Fixed structure at all temperatures
B. Atoms distributed in random pattern
C. Different crystal structures at different temperatures
D. Any one of the above
Answer: C
Engineering Materials objective questions with answers pdf download online exam test
151. An important property of high silicon (12-18%) cast iron is the high
A. Hardness
B. Brittleness
C. Plasticity
D. Ductility
Answer: A
152. Dye penetrant method is generally used to locate
A. Core defects
B. Surface defects
C. Superficial defects
D. Temporary defects
Answer: B
153. Constantan an alloy used in thermocouples is an alloy of
A. Copper and tin
B. Copper and zinc
C. Copper and iron
D. Copper and nickel
Answer: D
154. Delta-iron occurs between the temperature ranges of
A. 400°C to 600°C
B. 600°C to 900°C
C. 900°C to 1400°C
D. 1400°C to 1530°C
Answer: D
155. White cast iron contains carbon in the form of
A. Free carbon
B. Graphite
C. Cementite
D. White carbon
Answer: C
156. The heat treatment process used for softening hardened steel is
A. Carburising
B. Normalizing
C. Annealing
D. Tempering
Answer: D
157. Stress relaxation is the phenomenon
A. In which parts are not loaded
B. In which stress remains constant on increasing load
C. In which deformation tends to loosen the joint and produces a stress reduced
D. Stress reduces on increasing load
Answer: C
158. Babbitt metal is a
A. Lead base alloy
B. Copper base alloy
C. Tin base alloy
D. Cadmium base alloy
Answer: C
159. Hardness of lower bainite (tempered martensite) is about
A. RC 65
B. RC 48
C. RC 57
D. RC 80
Answer: C
160. Silicon when added to copper improves
A. Machinability
B. Hardness
C. Hardness and strength
D. Strength and ductility
Answer: C
161. A material is known as allotropic or polymorphic if it
A. Has a fixed structure under all conditions
B. Exists in several crystal forms at different temperatures
C. Responds to heat treatment
D. Has its atoms distributed in a random pattern
Answer: B
162. The brown smoke during the operation of a Bessemer converter indicates that the
A. Air is burning out silicon and manganese
B. Silicon and manganese has burnt and carbon has started oxidizing
C. The converter must be titled to remove the contents of the converter
D. The brown smoke does not occur during the operation of a Bessemer converter
Answer: A
163. The percentage of carbon in low carbon steel is
A. 0.05%
B. 0.15%
C. 0.3%
D. 0.5%
Answer: B
164. A small percentage of boron is added to steel in order to
A. Increase hardenability
B. Reduce machinability
C. Increase wear resistance
D. Increase endurance strength
Answer: A
165. Neutral solution is one which has pH value
A. Greater than 7
B. Less than 7
C. Equal to 7
D. pH value has nothing to do with neutral solution
Answer: C
166. The coordination number of a face centered cubic space lattice is
A. Six
B. Twelve
C. Eighteen
D. Twenty
Answer: B
167. Lead is poured into the joint between two pipes. These pipes may be made of
A. Cast iron
B. Vitrified clay
C. Asbestos cement
D. Concrete
Answer: A
168. Brass is an alloy of
A. Copper and zinc
B. Copper and tin
C. Copper, tin and zinc
D. None of these
Answer: A
169. Malleability of a material can be defined as
A. Ability to undergo large permanent deformations in compression
B. Ability to recover its original form
C. Ability to undergo large permanent deformations in tension
D. All of the above
Answer: A
170. Tin base white metals are used where the bearings are subjected to
A. Large surface wear
B. Elevated temperatures
C. Light load and pressure
D. High pressure and load
Answer: A
171. Which of the following is not the correct method of increasing fatigue limit?
A. Shot peening
B. Nitriding of surface
C. Cold working
D. Surface decarburisation
Answer: D
172. In full annealing, the hypo eutectoid steel is heated from 30°C to 50°C above the upper critical
temperature and then cooled
A. In still air
B. Slowly in the furnace
C. Suddenly in a suitable cooling medium
D. Any one of these
Answer: B
173. Materials after cold working are subjected to following process to relieve stresses
A. Hot working
B. Tempering
C. Normalizing
D. Annealing
Answer: D
174. Iron-carbon alloys containing 1.7 to 4.3% carbon are known as
A. Eutectic cast irons
B. Hypoeutectic cast irons
C. Hypereutectic cast irons
D. None of these
Answer: B
175. Which is false statement about case hardening? Case hardening is done by
A. Electroplating
B. Cyaniding
C. Induction hardening
D. Nitriding
Answer: A
176. White cast iron has
A. Carbon in the form of carbide
B. Low tensile strength
C. High compressive strength
D. All of these
Answer: D
177. Following elements have face-centered cubic structure
A. Gamma iron (910° to 1400°C), Cu, Ag, Au, Al, Ni, Pb, Pt
B. Mg, Zn, Ti, Zr, Br, Cd
C. A iron (below 910°C and between 1400 to 1539°C), W
D. All of the above
Answer: A
178. When low carbon steel is heated up to lower critical temperature
A. There is no change in grain size
B. The average grain size is a minimum
C. The grain size increases very rapidly
D. The grain size first increases and then decreases very rapidly
Answer: A
179. The molecules in a solid move
A. In a random manner
B. In a haphazard way
C. In circular motion
D. Back and forth like tiny pendulums
Answer: D
180. Balls for ball bearings are made of
A. Cast iron
B. Mild steel
C. Stainless steel
D. Carbon-chrome steel
Answer: D

181. Which of the following display properties similar to that of steel?

A. Blackheart cast iron
B. Whiteheart cast iron
C. BothA. andB.
D. None of these
Answer: C
182. Which is false statement about properties of aluminium?
A. Modulus of elasticity is fairly low
B. Wear resistance is very good
C. Fatigue strength is not high
D. Creep strength limits its use to fairly low temperatures
Answer: B
183. The steel widely used for motor car crankshafts is
A. Nickel steel
B. Chrome steel
C. Nickel-chrome steel
D. Silicon steel
Answer: B
184. Foundry crucible is made of
A. Mild steel
B. German silver
C. Lead
D. Graphite
Answer: D
185. The stiffness is the ability of a material to resist
A. Deformation under stress
B. Fracture due to high impact loads
C. Externally applied forces with breakdown or yielding
D. None of the above
Answer: A
186. The ability of a material to resist softening at high temperature is known as
A. Creep
B. Hot tempering
C. Hot hardness
D. Fatigue
Answer: C
187. The type of space lattice found in alpha-iron is
A. Face centered cubic space lattice
B. Body centered cubic space lattice
C. Close packed hexagonal space lattice
D. None of these
Answer: B
188. Mild steel belongs to the following category
A. Low carbon steel
B. Medium carbon steel
C. High carbon steel
D. Alloy steel
Answer: A
189. Closed packed hexagonal space lattice is found in
A. Zinc, magnesium, cobalt, cadmium, antimony and bismuth
B. Gamma-iron, aluminium, copper, lead, silver and nickel
C. Alpha-iron, tungsten, chromium and molybdenum
D. None of the above
Answer: A
190. The ultimate tensile strength of low carbon steel by working at a high strain rate will
A. Decrease
B. Increase
C. Remain constant
D. First increase and then decrease
Answer: B
191. When elements like nickel, chromium, copper and molybdenum are added to the molten cast
iron, it produces
A. White cast iron
B. Nodular cast iron
C. Malleable cast iron
D. Alloy cast iron
Answer: D
192. Slow plastic deformation of metals under a constant stress is known as
A. Creep
B. Fatigue
C. Endurance
D. Plastic deformation
Answer: A
193. The elastic stress strain behavior of rubber is
A. Linear
B. Nonlinear
C. Plastic
D. No fixed relationship
Answer: B
194. Isotropic materials are those which have the same
A. Elastic properties in all directions
B. Stresses induced in all directions
C. Thermal properties in all directions
D. Electric and magnetic properties in all directions
Answer: A
195. Which of the following metal is used in making electrical resistance wire for electric furnaces
and heating elements?
A. Babbitt metal
B. Monel metal
C. Nichrome
D. Phosphor bronze
Answer: C

196. Recrystallization temperature is one

A. At which crystals first start forming from molten metal when it is cooled
B. At which new spherical crystals first begin to form from the old deformed one when a strained metal is
heated
C. At which change of allotropic form takes place
D. At which crystals grow bigger in size
Answer: B
197. The charge is fed into the blast furnace through the
A. Stack
B. Throat
C. Bosh
D. Tyres
Answer: B
198. Delta iron occurs at temperature of
A. Room temperature
B. Above melting point
C. Between 1400°C and 1539°C
D. Between 910°C and 1400°C
Answer: C
199. The property of a material essential for spring materials is
A. Stiffness
B. Ductility
C. Resilience
D. Plasticity
Answer: C
200. Which of the following constituents of steels is softest and least strong?
A. Austenite
B. Pearlite
C. Ferrite
D. Cementite
Answer: C
201. Which of the following is an amorphous material?
A. Mica
B. Silver
C. Lead
D. Glass
Answer: D
202. The following types of materials are usually the most ductile
A. Face centered cubic lattice
B. Body centered cubic lattice
C. Hexagonal close packed lattice
D. All of the above
Answer: A
203. Chromium when added to steel _________ the tensile strength.
A. Does not effect
B. Decreases
C. Increases
D. None of these
Answer: C
204. Pure iron is the structure of
A. Ferrite
B. Pearlite
C. Austenite
D. Ferrite and cementite
Answer: A
205. The lower critical temperature
A. Decreases as the carbon content in steel increases
B. Increases as the carbon content in steel increases
C. Is same for all steels
D. Depends upon the rate of heating
Answer: C
206. Gamma iron exits at following temperature
A. Room temperature
B. Near melting point
C. Between 1400°C and 1539°C
D. Between 910°C and 1400°C
Answer: D
207. In induction hardening ________ is high.
A. Current
B. Voltage
C. Frequency
D. Temperature
Answer: C
208. Paramagnetic alpha iron changes to gamma iron at
A. 770°C
B. 910°C
C. 1440°C
D. 1539°C
Answer: B
209. Which of the following statements are true for annealing of steels?
A. Steels are heated to 500 to 700°C
B. Cooling is done slowly and steadily
C. Internal stresses are relieved
D. All of these
Answer: D
210. The crystal structure of gamma iron is
A. Body centered cubic
B. Face centered cubic
C. Hexagonal close packed
D. Cubic structure
Answer: B

211. Induction hardening is basically a

A. Carburising process
B. Surface hardening process
C. Core hardening process
D. None of these
Answer: B
212. The crystal of alpha iron is
A. Body centered cubic
B. Face centered cubic
C. Hexagonal close packed
D. Cubic structure
Answer: A
213. Malleable cast iron is produced
A. By adding magnesium to molten cast iron
B. By quick cooling of molten cast iron
C. From white cast iron by annealing process
D. None of these
Answer: C
214. The unique property of cast iron is its high
A. Malleability
B. Ductility
C. Surface finish
D. Damping characteristics
Answer: D
215. Steel containing ferrite and pearlite is
A. Hard
B. Soft
C. Tough
D. Hard and tough
Answer: B
216. Cast iron is characterized by minimum of following percentage of carbon
A. 0.2%
B. 0.8%
C. 1.3%
D. 2%
Answer: D
217. Grey cast iron has
A. Carbon in the form of free graphite
B. High tensile strength
C. Low compressive strength
D. All of these
Answer: A
218. In grey cast iron, carbon is present in the form of
A. Cementite
B. Free carbon
C. Flakes
D. Spheroids
Answer: C
219. In nodular iron, graphite is in the form of
A. Cementite
B. Free carbon
C. Flakes
D. Spheroids
Answer: D
220. In high speed steels, manganese is used to tougher the metal and to increase its
A. Yield point
B. Critical temperature
C. Melting point
D. Hardness
Answer: B
221. In malleable iron, carbon is present in the form of
A. Cementite
B. Free carbon
C. Flakes
D. Nodular aggregates of graphite
Answer: D
222. The purpose of heat treatment is to
A. Relieve the stresses set up in the material after hot or cold working
B. Modify the structure of the material
C. Change grain size
D. Any one of these
Answer: D
223. Wrought iron is
A. Hard
B. High in strength
C. Highly resistant to corrosion
D. Heat treated to change its properties
Answer: C
224. When the steel is normalized, its
A. Yield point increases
B. Ductility decreases
C. Ultimate tensile strength increases
D. All of these
Answer: D
225. Sulphur in pig iron tends to make it
A. Hard
B. Soft
C. Ductile
D. Tough
Answer: A

226. Pick up wrong statement about wrought iron

A. It contains carbon of the order of 0 to 0.25%
B. It melts at 1535°C
C. It is very soft and ductile
D. It is made by adding suitable percentage of carbon to molten iron and subjecting the product to
repeated hammering and rolling
Answer: D
227. Combined carbon in iron makes the metal
A. Soft and gives coarse grained crystalline structure
B. Soft and gives a fine grained crystalline structure
C. Hard and gives a coarse grained crystalline structure
D. Hard and gives a fine grained crystalline structure
Answer: D
228. Iron is
A. Paramagnetic
B. Ferromagnetic
C. Ferroelectric
D. Dielectric
Answer: B
229. Manganese is added in low carbon steel to
A. Make the steel tougher and harder
B. Raise the yield point
C. Make the steel ductile and of good bending qualities
D. All of the above
Answer: C
230. Chilled cast iron has
A. No graphite
B. A very high percentage of graphite
C. A low percentage of graphite
D. Graphite as its basic constituent of composition
Answer: A
231. The metal suitable for bearings subjected to light loads, is
A. Silicon bronze
B. White metal
C. Monel metal
D. Phosphor bronze
Answer: D
232. Cast iron has
A. High tensile strength
B. Its elastic limit close to the ultimate breaking strength
C. High ductility
D. All of the above
Answer: B
233. Nodular cast iron is produced by adding ________ to the molten cast iron.
A. Nickel
B. Chromium
C. Copper
D. Magnesium
Answer: D
234. In mottled cast iron, carbon is available in
A. Free form
B. Combined form
C. Nodular form
D. Partly in free and partly in combined state
235. An important property of malleable cast iron in comparison to grey cast iron is the high
A. Compressive strength
B. Ductility
C. Carbon content
D. Hardness
Answer: B
236. Monel metal is an alloy of
A. Nickel and copper
B. Nickel and chromium
C. Nickel, Chromium and iron
D. Copper and chromium
Answer: A
238. Carbon steel is
A. Made by adding carbon in steel
B. Refined from cast iron
C. An alloy of iron and carbon with varying quantities of phosphorus and sulphur
D. Extensively used for making cutting tools
Answer: C
239. Annealing of white cast iron results in production of
A. Malleable iron
B. Nodular iron
C. Spheroidal iron
D. Grey iron
Answer: A
240. The alloying element which can replace tungsten in high speed steels is
A. Nickel
B. Vanadium
C. Cobalt
D. Molybdenum
Answer: D
241. ‘Killed steels’ are those steels
A. Which are destroyed by burning
B. Which after their destruction are recycled to produce fresh steel
C. Which are deoxidized in the ladle with silicon and aluminium
D. In which carbon is completely burnt
Answer: C

242. Hardness of steel depends on

A. Amount of carbon it contains
B. The shape and distribution of the carbides in iron
C. Method of fabrication
D. Contents of alloying elements
Answer: B
243. Free carbon in iron makes the metal
A. Soft and gives a coarse grained crystalline structure
B. Soft and gives a fine grained crystalline structure
C. Hard and gives a coarse grained crystalline structure
D. Hard and gives a fine grained crystalline structure
Answer: A
244. Maximum percentage of carbon in ferrite is
A. 0.025%
B. 0.06%
C. 0.1%
D. 0.25%
Answer: A
245. Tungsten when added to steel __________ the critical temperature.
A. Does not effect
B. Lowers
C. Raises
D. None of these
Answer: C
246. Corrosion resistance of steel is increased by addition of
A. Chromium and nickel
B. Sulphur, phosphorus, lead
C. Vanadium, aluminium
D. Tungsten, molybdenum, vanadium, chromium
Answer: A
247. The material widely used for making pendulums of clocks is
A. Stainless steel
B. High speed steel
C. Heat resisting steel
D. Nickel steel
Answer: D
248. The most effective inhibitor of grain growth, when added in small quantities is
A. Carbon
B. Vanadium
C. Manganese
D. Cobalt
Answer: B
249. The property of a material due to which it breaks with little permanent distortion, is called
A. Brittleness
B. Ductility
C. Malleability
D. Plasticity
Answer: A
250. Depth of hardness of steel is increased by addition of
A. Nickel
B. Chromium
C. Tungsten
D. Vanadium
Answer: B
251. When filing or machining cast iron makes our hands black, then it shows that ________ is
present in cast iron.
A. Cementite
B. Free graphite
C. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’
D. None of these
Answer: B
252. Railway rails are normally made of
A. Mild steel
B. Alloy steel
C. High carbon
D. Tungsten steel
Answer: C
253. The carbon in the pig iron varies from
A. 0.1 to 0.5%
B. 0.5 to 1%
C. 1 to 5%
D. 5 to 10%
Answer: C
254. Machining properties of steel are improved by adding
A. Sulphur, lead, phosphorous
B. Silicon, aluminium, titanium
C. Vanadium, aluminium
D. Chromium, nickel
Answer: A
255. The hardness of steel depends upon the
A. Amount of cementite it contains
B. Amount of carbon it contains
C. Contents of alloying elements
D. Method of manufacture of steel
Answer: A
256. Eutectoid steel contains following percentage of carbon
A. 0.02%
B. 0.3%
C. 0.63%
D. 0.8%
Answer: D

257. The electric process of steel making is especially adapted to

A. Alloy and carbon tool steel
B. Magnet steel
C. High speed tool steel
D. All of these
Answer: D
258. The basic constituents of Hastelloy are
A. Aluminium, copper etc.
B. Nickel, molybdenum etc.
C. Nickel, Copper, etc.
D. All of the above
Answer: B
259. German silver contains
A. 1% silver
B. 2% silver
C. 5% silver
D. No silver
Answer: D
260. Basic constituents of Monel metal are
A. Nickel, copper
B. Nickel, molybdenum
C. Zinc, tin, lead
D. Nickel, lead and tin
Answer: A
261. An alloy of copper, tin and zinc is known as
A. Brass
B. Bronze
C. Gun metal
D. Muntz metal
Answer: C
262. German silver is an alloy of
A. Silver and some impurities
B. Refined silver
C. Nickel, Copper and zinc
D. Nickel and copper
Answer: C
263. Quenching is not necessary when hardening is done by
A. Case hardening
B. Flame hardening
C. Nitriding
D. Any one of these
264. Surveying tapes are made of a material having low coefficient of expansion and enough
strength. The alloy used is
A. Silver metal
B. Duralumin
C. Hastelloy
D. Invar
Answer: D
265. The alloying element which increases residual magnetism and coercive magnetic force in steel
for magnets is
A. Chromium
B. Nickel
C. Vanadium
D. Cobalt
Answer: D
266. A cold chisel is made of
A. Mild steel
B. Cast iron
C. H.S.S.
D. High carbon
Answer: D
267. Blast furnace is used to produce
A. Pig iron
B. Cast iron
C. Wrought iron
D. Steel
Answer: A
268. An engineer’s hammer is made of
A. Cast iron
B. Forged steel
C. Mild steel
D. High carbon steel
Answer: D
269. The blade of a power saw is made of
A. Boron steel
B. High speed steel
C. Stainless steel
D. Malleable cast iron
Answer: B
14. Inconel is an alloy of
A. Nickel, chromium and iron
B. Nickel, copper
C. Nickel, Chromium
D. Nickel, zinc
270. The strength is the ability of a material to resist
A. Deformation under stress
B. Externally applied forces with breakdown or yielding
C. Fracture due to high impact loads
D. None of these
Answer: B

271. By severely deforming a metal in a particular direction it becomes

A. Ductile
B. Malleable
C. Homogeneous
D. Anisotropic
Answer: D
272. Solder is an alloy consisting of
A. Tin, antimony, copper
B. Tin and copper
C. Tin and lead
D. Lead and zinc
Answer: B
273. Iron ore is usually found in the form of
A. Oxides
B. Carbonates
C. Sulphides
D. All of these
Answer: D
274. Cyaniding is the process of
A. Dipping steel in cyanide bath
B. Reacting steel surface with cyanide salts
C. Adding carbon and nitrogen by heat treatment of steel to increase its surface hardness
D. Obtaining cyanide salts
Answer: C
275. Shock resistance of steel is increased by adding
A. Nickel
B. Chromium
C. Nickel and chromium
D. Sulphur, lead and phosphorus
Answer: C
276. Induction hardening is the process of
A. Hardening surface of work-piece to obtain hard and wear resistant surface
B. Heating and cooling rapidly
C. Increasing hardness throughout
D. Inducing hardness by continuous process
Answer: A
277. The loss of strength in compression with simultaneous gain in strength in tension due to
overloading is known as
A. Hysteresis
B. Creep
C. Visco elasticity
D. Boeschinger effect
Answer: D
278. Process of Austempering results in
A. Formation of bainite structure
B. Carburised structure
C. Martenistic structure
D. Lamellar layers of carbide distributed throughout the structure
Answer: A
279. Hardness of martensite is about
A. RC 65
B. RC 48
C. RC 57
D. RC 80
Answer: A
280. Ball bearings are, usually, made from
A. Low carbon steel
B. High carbon steel
C. Medium carbon steel
D. Chrome steel
Answer: D
281. Weld decay is the phenomenon found with
A. Cast iron
B. Mild steel
C. Nonferrous materials
D. Stainless steel
Answer: D
282. Hardness of upper bainite (acicular structure) is about
A. RC 65
B. RC 48
C. RC 57
D. RC 80
Answer: B
283. Carbon in iron is an example of
A. Substitutional solution
B. Interstitial solid solution
C. Intermetallic compounds
D. All of the above
Answer: B
284. Argentite is the principal ore or raw material for
A. Aluminium
B. Tin
C. Zinc
D. Silver
Answer: D
285. Nimonic contains __________ percentage of nickel as that of Inconel.
A. Same
B. Less
C. More
D. None of these
Answer: A

286. An example of amorphous material is

A. Zinc
B. Lead
C. Silver
D. Glass
Answer: D
287. Which is false statement about tempering? Tempering is done to
A. Improve machinability
B. Improve ductility
C. Improve toughness
D. Release stresses
Answer: A
288. Which of the following is the binding material in cemented carbides?
A. Cobalt
B. Nickel
C. Vanadium
D. Iron
Answer: A
289. Shock resisting steels should have
A. Low wear resistance
B. Low hardness
C. Low tensile strength
D. Toughness
Answer: D
290. Chromium in steel
A. Improves wear resistance, cutting ability and toughness
B. Refines grain size and produces less tendency to carburisation, improves corrosion and heat resistant
properties
C. Improves cutting ability and reduces hardenability
D. Gives ductility, toughness, tensile strength and anti-corrosion properties
Answer: A
291. Manganese in steel increases its
A. Tensile strength
B. Hardness
C. Ductility
D. Fluidity
Answer: A
292. Tungsten in high speed steel provides
A. Hot hardness
B. Toughness
C. Wear resistance
D. Sharp cutting edge
Answer: A
293. Sulphur in cast iron
A. Makes the iron soft and easily machinable
B. Increases hardness and brittleness
C. Make the iron white and hard
D. Aids fusibility and fluidity
Answer: B
294. Connecting rod is usually made of
A. Aluminium
B. Low carbon steel
C. Medium carbon steel
D. High carbon steel
Answer: C
295. The hardness is the property of a material due to which it
A. Can be drawn into wires
B. Breaks with little permanent distortion
C. Can cut another metal
D. Can be rolled or hammered into thin sheets
Answer: C
296. High carbon steel carries carbon percentage
A. 0.1 to 0.3%
B. 0.3 to 0.6%
C. 0.6 to 0.8%
D. 0.8 to 1.5%
Answer: D
297. The hardness of steel increases if it contains
A. Austenite
B. Martensite
C. Pearlite
D. Cementite
Answer: B
298. The presence of sulphur in pig iron makes
A. It easily machinable
B. It brittle
C. It hard
D. The casting unsound
Answer: D
299. Melting point of iron is
A. 1539°C
B. 1601°C
C. 1489°C
D. 1712°C
Answer: A
300. Compressive strength of grey cast iron in tonnes/cm is of the order of
A. 35
B. 57
C. 710
D. 1015
Answer: B
301. Cupola produces following material
A. Cast iron
B. Pig iron
C. Wrought iron
D. Malleable iron
Answer: A
302. Beryllium bronze has
A. High yield point
B. High fatigue limit
C. BothA. andB.
D. None of these
Answer: C
303. The machinability of steel is increased by
A. Silicon and sulphur
B. Phosphorous, lead and sulphur
C. Sulphur, graphite and aluminium
D. Phosphorous and aluminium
Answer: B
304. Drop forging dies contain carbon of the order of
A. 0.1 to 0.2%
B. 0.25 to 0.5%
C. 0.6 to 0.7%
D. 0.7 to 0.9%
Answer: C
305. The alloying element which reduces the formation of iron sulphide in steel is
A. Chromium
B. Nickel
C. Vanadium
D. Manganese
Answer: D
306. Preheating is essential in welding
A. Cast iron
B. High speed steel
C. All nonferrous materials
D. All of the above
Answer: A
307. Steel made from phosphate iron is
A. Brittle
B. Hard
C. Ductile
D. Tough
Answer: A
308. The crystal structure of brass is
A. F.C.C.
B. B.C.C.
C. H.C.P.
D. Orthorhombic crystalline structure
Answer: A
309. Corrosion resistance of steel is increased by adding
A. Chromium and nickel
B. Nickel and molybdenum
C. Aluminium and zinc
D. Tungsten and sulphur
Answer: A
310. Which of the following is used for bearing liner?
A. Gun metal
B. Bronze
C. Bell metal
D. Babbitt metal
Answer: D
311. Aluminium bronze contains aluminium and copper in the ratio of
A. 50 : 50
B. 40 : 60
C. 60 : 40
D. 10 : 90
Answer: D
312. Bronze contains
A. 70% copper and 30% zinc
B. 90% copper and 10% tin
C. 85 – 92% copper and rest tin with little lead and nickel
D. 70 – 75% copper and rest tin
Answer: B
313. Gun metal contains
A. 70% copper and 30% zinc
B. 90% copper and 10% tin
C. 85 – 92% copper and rest tin with little lead and nickel
D. 70 – 78% copper and rest tin
Answer: C
314. Perminvar alloy having constant permeability is an alloy of
A. Nickel, copper and iron
B. Nickel, copper and zinc
C. Copper, nickel and antimony
D. Iron, zinc and bismuth
Answer: A
315. The alloy used for making electrical resistances and heating elements is
A. Nichrome
B. Invar
C. Magnin
D. Elinvar
Answer: A
316. Permalloy is a
A. Kind of stainless steel
B. None ferrous alloy
C. Polymer
D. Nickel and iron alloy having high permeability
Answer: D
317. Phosphor bronze contains
A. 0.5% of phosphorous
B. 1% phosphorous
C. 2.5% phosphorous
D. None of the above
Answer: D
318. Free cutting steels
A. Are used where ease in machining is the criterion
B. Contain carbon in free form
C. Require least cutting force
D. Do not exist
Answer: Option
319. Delta metal is an alloy of
A. Copper, zinc and iron
B. Iron, nickel and copper
C. Iron, lead and tin
D. Iron, aluminium and magnesium
Answer: A
320. Addition of copper to aluminium results in
A. Improvement of casting characteristics
B. Improvement of corrosion resistance
C. One of the best known age and precipitation hardening systems
D. Improving machinability
Answer: C
322. Addition of lead and bismuth to aluminium results in
A. Improvement of casting characteristics
B. Improvement of corrosion resistance
C. One of the best known age and precipitation hardening systems
D. Improving machinability
Answer: D
323. Cast iron is a
A. Ductile material
B. Malleable material
C. Brittle material
D. Tough material
Answer: C
324. Addition of silicon to aluminium results in
A. Improvement of casting characteristics
B. Improvement of corrosion resistance
C. One of the best known age and precipitation hardening systems
D. Improving machinability
Answer: A
325. White metal contains
A. 63 to 67% nickel and 30% copper
B. 88% copper and 10% tin and rest zinc
C. Alloy of tin, lead and cadmium
D. Silver and chromium
Answer: C
326. German silver contains
A. 1% silver
B. 2.5% silver
C. 5% silver
D. 10% silver
Answer: C
327. Smelting is the process of
A. Removing the impurities like clay, sand etc. from the iron ore by washing with water
B. Expelling moisture, carbon dioxide, sulphur and arsenic from the iron ore by heating in shallow kilns
C. Reducing the ore with carbon in the presence of a flux
D. All of the above
Answer: C
328. Babbitt metal is a
A. Lead base alloy
B. Tin base alloy
C. Copper base alloy
D. BothA. andC. above
Answer: D
329. Duralumin contains
A. 94% aluminium, 4% copper and 0.5% Mn, Mg, Si and Fe
B. 92.5% aluminium, 40% copper, 2% nickel, and 1.5% Mg
C. 10% aluminium and 90% copper
D. 90% magnesium and 9% aluminium with some copper
Answer: A
330. Which of the following material has maximum ductility?
A. Mild steel
B. Copper
C. Nickel
D. Aluminium
Answer: A
331. Acidic solution is one which has pH value
A. Greater than 7
B. Less than 7
C. Equal to 7
D. pH value has nothing to do with neutral solution
Answer: B
332. Basic solution is one which has pH value
A. Greater than 7
B. Equal to 7
C. Less than 7
D. pH value has nothing to do with basic solution
Answer: A
333. Pearlite is a combination of
A. Ferrite and cementite
B. Cementite and gamma iron
C. Ferrite and austenite
D. Ferrite and iron graphite
Answer: A
334. Austenite is a combination of
A. Ferrite and cementite
B. Cementite and gamma iron
C. Ferrite and austenite
D. Ferrite and iron graphite
Answer: B
335. Specify the sequence correctly
A. Grain growth, recrystallization, stress relief
B. Stress relief, grain growth, recrystallization
C. Stress relief, recrystallization, grain growth
D. Grain growth, stress relief, recrystallization
Answer: C
336. The transistor is made of
A. Silver
B. Gold
C. Copper
D. Germanium
Answer: D
337. Thermoplastic materials are those materials which
A. Are formed into shape under heat and pressure and results in a permanently hard product
B. Do not become hard with the application of heat and pressure and no chemical change occurs
C. Are flexible and can withstand considerable wear under suitable conditions
D. Are used as a friction lining for clutches and brakes
Answer: B
338. The percentage of carbon in cast iron varies from
A. 0.1 to 0.5
B. 0.5 to 1
C. 1 to 1.7
D. 1.7 to 4.5
Answer: D
339. The hardness and tensile strength in austenitic stainless steel can be increased by
A. Hardening and cold working
B. Normalizing
C. Martempering
D. Full annealing
Answer: A
340. An alloy steel which is work hardenable and which is used to make the blades of bulldozers,
bucket wheel excavators and other earth moving equipment contain iron, carbon and
A. Chromium
B. Silicon
C. Manganese
D. Magnesium
Answer: C
341. Beryllium bronze contains
A. 60% copper and 40% beryllium
B. 80% copper and 20% beryllium
C. 97.75% copper and 2.25% beryllium
D. 99% copper and 1% beryllium
Answer: C
342. Cast iron is manufactured in
A. Blast furnace
B. Cupola
C. Open hearth furnace
D. Bessemer converter
Answer: B
343. The lower critical point for all steels is
A. 600°C
B. 700°C
C. 723°C
D. 913°C
Answer: C
344. The hardness of steel increases if it contains
A. Pearlite
B. Ferrite
C. Cementite
D. Martensite
Answer: C
345. The cupola is used to manufacture
A. Pig iron
B. Cast iron
C. Wrought iron
D. Steel
Answer: B

346. The type of space lattice found in gamma-iron is

A. Face centered cubic space lattice
B. Body centered cubic space lattice
C. Close packed hexagonal space lattice
D. None of these
Answer: A
347. Cartridge brass can be
A. Cold rolled into sheets
B. Drawn into wires
C. Formed into tube
D. Any one of these
Answer: D
348. Which of the following steel making process is being adopted at Rourkela (in India) Steel
Plant?
A. Bessemer process
B. Open hearth process
C. Electric process
D. LD process
Answer: D
349. Bronze is an alloy of
A. Copper and zinc
B. Copper and tin
C. Copper, tin and zinc
D. None of these
Answer: B
350. Steel with __________ carbon is known as hypo-eutectoid steel.
A. 0.8%
B. Below 0.8%
C. Above 0.8%
D. None of these
Answer: B
351. Age hardening is related to
A. Duralumin
B. Brass
C. Copper
D. Silver
Answer: A
352. The maximum internal diameter of a blast furnace is about
A. 3 m
B. 6 m
C. 9 m
D. 12 m
Answer: C
353. The machinability of aluminium increases when _________ is added to aluminium.
A. Copper
B. Magnesium
C. Silicon
D. Lead and bismuth
Answer: D
354. Eutectoid reaction occurs at
A. 600°C
B. 723°C
C. 1147°C
D. 1493°C
Answer: B
355. Nickel when added to copper improves
A. Machinability
B. Hardness
C. Hardness and strength
D. Strength and ductility
Answer: B
600+ TOP Fluid Mechanics MCQs and Answers Quiz Pdf
Posted on April 16, 2024 by engineer13 Comments
Fluid Mechanics Multiple Choice Questions
1. Euler’s dimensionless number relates the following
A. Inertial force and gravity
B. Viscous force and inertial force
C. Viscous force and buoyancy force
D. Pressure force and inertial force
Answer: D
2. When a body floating in a liquid, is displaced slightly, it oscillates about
A. C.G. of body
B. Center of pressure
C. Center of buoyancy
D. Metacentre
Answer: D
3. The pressure of the liquid flowing through the divergent portion of a Venturimeter
A. Remains constant
B. Increases
C. Decreases
D. Depends upon mass of liquid
Answer: C
4. When the Mach number is between __________ the flow is called super-sonic flow.
A. 1 and 2.5
B. 2.5 and 4
C. 4 and 6
D. 1 and 6
Answer: D
5. When a body is placed over a liquid, it will sink down if
A. Gravitational force is equal to the up-thrust of the liquid
B. Gravitational force is less than the up-thrust of the liquid
C. Gravitational force is more than the up-thrust of the liquid
D. None of the above
Answer: C
6. The property by virtue of which a liquid opposes relative motion between its different layers is
called
A. Surface tension
B. Coefficient of viscosity
C. Viscosity
D. Osmosis
Answer: C
7. A weir is said to be narrow-crested weir, if the width of the crest of the weir is __________ half
the height of water above the weir crest.
A. Equal to
B. Less than
C. More than
D. None of these
Answer: B
8. In an immersed body, centre of pressure is
A. At the centre of gravity
B. Above the centre of gravity
C. Below be centre of gravity
D. Could be above or below e.g. depending on density of body and liquid
Answer: C
9. A vertically immersed surface is shown in the below figure. The distance of its centre of pressure
from the water surface is
A. d
B. d
C.
D. d
Answer: B
10. The torque required to overcome viscous resistance of a collar bearing is (where R1 and R2 =
External and internal radius of collar)
A. μπ N 60t × R₁ – R₂
B. μπ N 60t × R₁ – R₂
C. μπ N 60t × R₁³ – R₂³
D. μπ N 60t × R₁⁴ – R₂⁴
Answer: D

11. Steady flow occurs when

A. The direction and magnitude of the velocity at all points are identical
B. The velocity of successive fluid particles, at any point, is the same at successive periods of time
C. The magnitude and direction of the velocity do not change from point to point in the fluid
D. The fluid particles move in plane or parallel planes and the streamline patterns are identical in each
plane
Answer: B
12. A flow is called super-sonic if the
A. Velocity of flow is very high
B. Discharge is difficult to measure
C. Mach number is between 1 and 6
D. None of these
Answer: C
13. In a forced vortex, the velocity of flow everywhere within the fluid is
A. Maximum
B. Minimum
C. Zero
D. Nonzero finite
Answer: D
14. The depth of centre of pressure (h) for a vertically immersed surface from the liquid surface is
given by (where IG = Moment of inertia of the immersed surface about horizontal axis through its
centre of gravity, A = Area of immersed surface, and x = Depth of centre of gravity of the immersed
surface from the liquid surface)
A. A –
B. –A
C. A
D. A
Answer: D
15. Mach number is significant in
A. Supersonics, as with projectiles and jet propulsion
B. Full immersion or completely enclosed flow, as with pipes, aircraft wings, nozzles etc.
C. Simultaneous motion through two fluids where there is a surface of discontinuity, gravity force, and
wave making effects, as with ship’s hulls
D. All of the above
Answer: A
16. A fluid which obeys the Newton’s law of viscosity is termed as
A. Real fluid
B. Ideal fluid
C. Newtonian fluid
D. Non-Newtonian fluid
Answer: C
17. In order that flow takes place between two points in a pipeline, the differential pressure between
these points must be more than
A. Frictional force
B. Viscosity
C. Surface friction
D. All of the above
Answer: D
18. The error in discharge (dQ/Q) to the error in measurement of head (dH/H) over a triangular
notch is given by
A. dQ/Q = 3/2 × (dH/H)
B. dQ/Q = 2 × (dH/H)
C. dQ/Q = 5/2 × (dH/H)
D. dQ/Q = 3 × (dH/H)
19. For similarity, in addition to models being geometrically similar to prototype, the following in
both cases should also be equal
Answer: C
A. Ratio of inertial force to force due to viscosity
B. Ratio of inertial force to force due to gravitation
C. Ratio of inertial force to force due to surface tension
D. All the four ratios of inertial force to force due to viscosity, gravitation, surface tension, and elasticity
Answer: D
20. The value of coefficient of velocity for a sharp edged orifice __________ with the head of water.
A. Decreases
B. Increases
C. Remain same
D. None of these
Answer: B
21. If cohesion between molecules of a fluid is greater than adhesion between fluid and glass, then
the free level of fluid in a dipped glass tube will be
A. Higher than the surface of liquid
B. The same as the surface of liquid
C. Lower than the surface of liquid
D. Unpredictable
Answer: C
22. The ratio of the inertia force to the __________ is called Euler’s number.
A. Pressure force
B. Elastic force
C. Surface tension force
D. Viscous force
Answer: A
23. A one dimensional flow is one which
A. Is uniform flow
B. Is steady uniform flow
C. Takes place in straight lines
D. Involves zero transverse component of flow
Answer: D
24. According to Manning’s formula, the discharge through an open channel is (where M =
Manning’s constant)
A. A × M × m1/2 × i2/3
B. A × M × m2/3 × i1/2
C. A1/2 × M2/3 × m × i
D. A2/3 × M1/3 × m × i
Answer: B
25. Dimensions of surface tension are
A. ML°T⁻
B. ML°T
C. ML r²
D. ML²T²
Answer: A
26. An opening in the side of a tank or vessel such that the liquid surface with the tank is below the
top edge of the opening, is called
A. Weir
B. Notch
C. Orifice
D. None of these
Answer: B
27. The property of fluid by virtue of which it offers resistance to shear is called
A. Surface tension
B. Adhesion
C. Adhesion
D. Viscosity
Answer: D
28. Coefficient of velocity is defined as the ratio of
A. Actual velocity of jet at vena contracta to the theoretical velocity
B. Area of jet at vena contracta to the area of orifice
C. Actual discharge through an orifice to the theoretical discharge
D. None of the above
Answer: A
29. A liquid compressed in cylinder has a volume of 0.04 m3 at 50 kg/cm² and a volume of 0.039 m3
at 150 kg/cm². The bulk modulus of elasticity of liquid is
A. 400 kg/cm²
B. 4000 kg/cm²
C. 40 × 0⁵ kg cm
D. 40 × 0⁶ kg cm
Answer: B
30. The mass of 2.5 m3 of a certain liquid is 2 tonnes. Its mass density is
A. 200 kg/m3
B. 400 kg/m3
C. 600 kg/m3
D. 800 kg/m3
Answer: D
31. A fluid in equilibrium can’t sustain
A. Tensile stress
B. Compressive stress
C. Shear stress
D. Bending stress
Answer: C
32. When a plate is immersed in a liquid parallel to the flow, it will be subjected to a pressure
__________ that if the same plate is immersed perpendicular to the flow.
A. Less than
B. More than
C. Equal to
D. None of these
Answer: A
33. An object having 10 kg mass weighs 9.81 kg on a spring balance. The value of ‘g’ at this place is
A. 10 m/sec²
B. 9.81 m/sec²
C. 9.75 m/sec²
D. 9 m/sec
Answer: A
34. A flow is called hyper-sonic, if the Mach number is
A. Less than unity
B. Unity
C. Between 1 and 6
D. None of these
Answer: D
35. Liquids
A. Cannot be compressed
B. Occupy definite volume
C. Are not affected by change in pressure and temperature
D. None of the above
Answer: D
36. When a cylindrical vessel containing liquid is resolved, the surface of the liquid takes the shape
of
A. A triangle
B. A paraboloid
C. An ellipse
D. None of these
Answer: B
37. Fluid is a substance that
A. Cannot be subjected to shear forces
B. Always expands until it fills any container
C. Has the same shear stress at a point regardless of its motion
D. Cannot remain at rest under action of any shear force
Answer: D
38. The force exerted by a moving fluid on an immersed body is directly proportional to the rate of
change of momentum due to the presence of the body. This statement is called
A. Newton’s law of motion
B. Newton’s law of cooling
C. Newton’s law of viscosity
D. Newton’s law of resistance
Answer: D
39. The property of a fluid which enables it to resist tensile stress is known as
A. Compressibility
B. Surface tension
C. Cohesion
D. Adhesion
Answer: C
40. The loss of pressure head in case of laminar flow is proportional to
A. Velocity
B. (Velocity)2
C. (Velocity)3
D. (Velocity)4
Answer: A
41. The surface tension of mercury at normal temperature compared to that of water is
A. More
B. Less
C. Same
D. More or less depending on size of glass tube
Answer: A
42. An air vessel is provided at the summit in a siphon to
A. Avoid interruption in the flow
B. Increase discharge
C. Increase velocity
D. Maintain pressure difference
Answer: A
43. The unit of viscosity is
A. Meters² per sec
B. kg-sec/meter
C. Newton-sec per meter²
D. Newton-sec per meter
Answer: B
44. Select the correct statement
A. We er’s number is the ratio of inertia force to elastic force
B. We er’s num er is the ratio of gravity force to surface tension force
C. We er’s num er is the ratio of viscous force to pressure force
D. We er’s num er is the ratio of inertia force to surface tension force
Answer: D
45. Choose the wrong statement. Alcohol is used in manometer, because
A. Its vapour pressure is low
B. It provides suitable meniscus for the inclined tube
C. Its density is less
D. It provides longer length for a given pressure difference
Answer: A
46. When a tank containing liquid moves with an acceleration in the horizontal direction, then the
free surface of the liquid
A. Remains horizontal
B. Becomes curved
C. Falls on the front end
D. Falls on the back end
Answer: C
47. A pressure of 25 m of head of water is equal to
A. 25 kN/ m²
B. 245 kN/ m²
C. 2500 kN/m²
D. 2.5 kN/ m²
Answer: B
48. The hammer blow in pipes occurs when
A. There is excessive leakage in the pipe
B. The pipe bursts under high pressure of fluid
C. The flow of fluid through the pipe is suddenly brought to rest by closing of the valve
D. The flow of fluid through the pipe is gradually brought to rest by closing of the valve
Answer: C
49. The resultant upward pressure of the fluid on an immersed body is called
A. Up-thrust
B. Buoyancy
C. Center of pressure
D. All the above are correct
Answer: B
50. When the water level on the downstream side of a weir is above the top surface of a weir, the
weir is known as
A. Narrow-crested weir
B. Broad-crested weir
C. Ogee weir
D. Submerged weir
Answer: D
51. If the surface of liquid is convex, men
A. Cohesion pressure is negligible
B. Cohesion pressure is decreased
C. Cohesion pressure is increased
D. There is no cohesion pressure
Answer: C
52. The increase in pressure at the outer edge of a drum of radius (r) completely filled up with
liquid of density (ρ) and rotating at (ω) rad/s is
A. ρ ω r
B. ρ ω r
C. ρ ω r
D. ρ ω r 4
Answer: C
53. The atmospheric pressure with rise in altitude decreases
A. Linearly
B. First slowly and then steeply
C. First steeply and then gradually
D. Unpredictable
Answer: B
54. The torque required to overcome viscous resistance of a footstep bearing is (where μ = Viscosity
of the oil, N = Speed of the shaft, R = Radius of the shaft, and t = Thickness of the oil film)
A. μπ NR 60t
B. μπ NR 60t
C. μπ NR³ 60t
D. μπ NR⁴ 60t
Answer: D
55. Dynamic viscosity of most of the gases with rise in temperature
A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Remain unaffected
D. Unpredictable
Answer: A
56. According to Bernoulli’s equation
A. Z + p/w + v²/2g = constant
B. Z + p/w – v²/2g = constant
C. Z – p/w + v²/2g = constant
D. Z – p/w – v²/2g = constant
Answer: A
57. Center of buoyancy is the
A. Centroid of the displaced volume of fluid
B. Center of pressure of displaced volume
C. Does not exist
D. None of the above
Answer: A
58. The loss of head due to viscosity for laminar flow in pipes is (where d = Diameter of pipe, l =
Length of pipe, v = Velocity of the liquid in the pipe, μ = Viscosity of the liquid, and w = Specific
weight of the flowing liquid)
A. 4μvl wd
B. 8μvl wd
C. 6μvl wd
D. 3 μvl wd
Answer: D
59. For a body floating in a liquid the normal pressure exerted by the liquid acts at
A. Bottom surface of the body
B. C.G. of the body
C. Metacenter
D. All points on the surface of the body
Answer: D
60. Newton’s law of viscosity is a relationship between
A. Pressure, velocity and temperature
B. Shear stress and rate of shear strain
C. Shear stress and velocity
D. Rate of shear strain and temperature
Answer: B
61. Differential manometer is used to measure
A. Pressure in pipes, channels etc.
B. Atmospheric pressure
C. Very low pressure
D. Difference of pressure between two points
Answer: D
62. When a body is immersed wholly or partially in a liquid, it is lifted up by a force equal to the
weight of liquid displaced by the body. This statement is called
A. Pascal’s law
B. Archimedes’s principle
C. Principle of flotation
D. Bernoulli’s theorem
Answer: B
63. Non uniform flow occurs when
A. The direction and magnitude of the velocity at all points are identical
B. The velocity of successive fluid particles, at any point, is the same at successive periods of time
C. Velocity, depth, pressure, etc. change from point to point in the fluid flow
D. The fluid particles move in plane or parallel planes and the streamline patterns are identical in each
plane
Answer: C
64. When a tube of smaller diameter is dipped in water, the water rises in the tube with an upward
__________ surface.
A. Concave
B. Convex
C. Plane
D. None of these
Answer: A
65. A piece of metal of specific gravity 7 floats in mercury of specific gravity 13.6. What fraction of
its volume is under mercury?
A. 0.5
B. 0.4
C. 0.515
D. 0.5
Answer: C
66. A flow through an expanding tube at constant rate is called
A. Steady uniform flow
B. Steady non-uniform flow
C. Unsteady uniform flow
D. Unsteady non-uniform flow
Answer: B
67. Reynolds number is significant in
A. Supersonics, as with projectile and jet propulsion
B. Full immersion or completely enclosed flow, as with pipes, aircraft wings, nozzles etc.
C. Simultaneous motion through two fluids where there is a surface of discontinuity, gravity forces, and
wave making effect, as with ship’s hulls
D. All of the above
Answer: B
68. The loss of head due to friction in a pipe of uniform diameter in which a viscous flow is taking
place, is (where RN = Reynold number)
A. 1/RN
B. 4/RN
C. 16/RN
D. 64/RN
Answer: C
69. Practical fluids
A. Are viscous
B. Possess surface tension
C. Are compressible
D. Possess all the above properties
Answer: D
70. A compound pipe of diameter d1, d2 and d3 having lengths l1, l2 and l3 is to be replaced by an
equivalent pipe of uniform diameter d and of the same length (l) as that of the compound pipe. The
size of the equivalent pipe is given by
A. l d = l₁ d₁ l₂ d₂ l₃ d₃
B. l d³ = l₁ d₁³ l₂ d₂³ l₃ d₃³
C. l d⁴ = l₁ d₁⁴ l₂ d₂⁴ l₃ d₃⁴
D. l d⁵ = l₁ d₁⁵ l₂ d₂⁵ l₃ d₃⁵
Answer: D
71. The tendency of a liquid surface to contract is due to the following property
A. Cohesion
B. Adhesion
C. Viscosity
D. Surface tension
Answer: D
72. The Newton’s law of resistance is based on the assumption that the
A. Planes of the body are completely smooth
B. Space around the body is completely filled with the fluid
C. Fluid particles do not exert any influence on one another
D. All of the above
Answer: D
73. For manometer, a better liquid combination is one having
A. Higher surface tension
B. Lower surface tension
C. Surface tension is no criterion
D. High density and viscosity
Answer: A
74. The flow in a pipe is neither laminar nor turbulent when Reynold number is
A. Less than 2000
B. Between 2000 and 2800
C. More than 2800
D. None of these
Answer: B
75. The point in the immersed body through which the resultant pressure of the liquid may be
taken to act is known as
A. Meta center
B. Center of pressure
C. Center of buoyancy
D. Center of gravity
Answer: B
76. Stoke is the unit of
A. Kinematic viscosity in C. G. S. units
B. Kinematic viscosity in M. K. S. units
C. Dynamic viscosity in M. K. S. units
D. Dynamic viscosity in S. I. units
Answer: A
77. The vapour pressure over the concave surface is
A. Less man the vapour pressure over the plane surface
B. Equal to the vapour pressure over the plane surface
C. Greater than the vapour pressure over the plane surface
D. Zero
Answer: A
78. The velocity at which the flow changes from laminar flow to turbulent flow is called
A. Critical velocity
B. Velocity of approach
C. Sub-sonic velocity
D. Super-sonic velocity
Answer: A
79. Mercury is often used in barometer because
A. It is the best liquid
B. The height of barometer will be less
C. Its vapour pressure is so low that it may be neglected
D. BothB. andC.
Answer: D
80. A vertical wall is subjected to a pressure due to one kind of liquid, on one of its sides. Which of
the following statement is correct?
A. The pressure on the wall at the liquid level is minimum
B. The pressure on the bottom of the wall is maximum
C. The pressure on the wall at the liquid level is zero, and on the bottom of the wall is maximum
D. The pressure on the bottom of the wall is zero
Answer: C
81. Center of pressure compared to e.g. is
A. Above it
B. Below it
C. At same point
D. Above or below depending on area of body
Answer: B
82. The center of gravity of the volume of the liquid displaced by an immersed body is called
A. Center of gravity
B. Center of pressure
C. Metacenter
D. Center of buoyancy
Answer: D
83. A tank of uniform cross-sectional areaA. containing liquid upto height (H1) has an orifice of
cross-sectional areaA. at its bottom. The time required to bring the liquid level from H1 to H2 will
be
A. A × √H₁ Cd × a × √ g
B. A × √H₂ Cd × a × √ g
C. A × √H₁ – √H₂ Cd × a × √ g
D. A × √H3 – √H3 Cd × a × √ g
Answer: C
84. Gradually varied flow is
A. Steady uniform
B. Non-steady non-uniform
C. Non-steady uniform
D. Steady non-uniform
Answer: D
85. The viscosity of water at 20°C is
A. One stoke
B. One centistoke
C. One poise
D. One centipoise
Answer: D
86. The velocity of jet of water traveling out of opening in a tank filled with water is proportional to
A. Head of water (h)
B. h²
C. V/T
D. h/2
Answer: C
87. According to Darcy’s formula, the loss of head due to friction in the pipe is (where f = Darcy’s
coefficient, l = Length of pipe, v = Velocity of liquid in pipe, and d = Diameter of pipe)
A. flv²/2gd
B. flv²/gd
C. 3flv²/2gd
D. 4flv²/2gd
Answer: D
88. According to Bernoulli’s equation for steady ideal fluid flow
A. Principle of conservation of mass holds
B. Velocity and pressure are inversely proportional
C. Total energy is constant throughout
D. The energy is constant along a streamline but may vary across streamlines
Answer: D
89. The discharge through a convergent mouthpiece is __________ the discharge through an
internal mouthpiece of the same diameter and head of water.
A. Equal to
B. One-half
C. Three fourth
D. Double
Answer: D
90. Bernoulli equation deals with the law of conservation of
A. Mass
B. Momentum
C. Energy
D. Work
Answer: C
.
91. The depth of center of pressure of an immersed surface, inclined at an angle ‘θ’ with the liquid
surface lies at a distance equal to __________ the center of gravity.
A. sin A ellow
B. sin A a ove
C. sin A ellow
D. sin A a ove
Answer: A
92. Principle of similitude forms the basis of
A. Comparing two identical equipments
B. Designing models so that the result can be converted to prototypes
C. Comparing similarity between design and actual equipment
D. Hydraulic designs
Answer: B
93. The rise of liquid along the walls of a revolving cylinder about the initial level is _________ the
depression of the liquid at the axis of rotation.
A. Same as
B. Less than
C. More than
D. None of these
Answer: A
94. Hot wire anemometer is used to measure
A. Pressure in gases
B. Liquid discharge
C. Pressure in liquids
D. Gas velocities
Answer: D
95. Venturimeter is used to
A. Measure the velocity of a flowing liquid
B. Measure the pressure of a flowing liquid
C. Measure the discharge of liquid flowing in a pipe
D. Measure the pressure difference of liquid flowing between two points in a pipe line
Answer: C
96. The two important forces for a floating body are
A. Buoyancy, gravity
B. Buoyancy, pressure
C. Buoyancy, inertial
D. Inertial, gravity
Answer: A
97. The kinematic viscosity of an oil (in stokes) whose specific gravity is 0.95 and viscosity 0.011
poise, is
A. 0.0116 stoke
B. 0.116 stoke
C. 0.0611 stoke
D. 0.611 stoke
Answer: A
98. According to the principle of buoyancy a body totally or partially immersed in a fluid will be
lifted up by a force equal to
A. The weight of the body
B. More than the weight of the body
C. Less than the weight of the body
D. Weight of the fluid displaced by the body
Answer: D
99. The pressure measured with the help of a pressure gauge is called
A. Atmospheric pressure
B. Gauge pressure
C. Absolute pressure
D. Mean pressure
Answer: B
100. The total pressure force on a plane area is equal to the area multiplied by the intensity of
pressure at the Centroid, if
A. The area is horizontal
B. The area is vertical
C. The area is inclined
D. All of the above
Answer: D
101. The power absorbed (in watts) in overcoming the viscous resistance of a footstep bearing is
A. μ π³ N R 800 t
B. μ π³ N R⁴ 800 t
C. μ π³ N R 3600 t
D. μ π³ N R⁴ 3600 t
Answer: B
102. In order to increase sensitivity of U-tube manometer, one leg is usually inclined by angle ‘θ’.
Sensitivity of inclined tube to sensitivity of U-tube is equal to
A. Sin
B. 1/Sin
C. Cos
D. Cos
Answer: B
103. The most economical section of a rectangular channel is one which has hydraulic mean depth
or hydraulic radius equal to
A. Half the depth
B. Half the breadth
C. Twice the depth
D. Twice the breadth
Answer: A
104. Capillary action is due to the
A. Surface tension
B. Cohesion of the liquid
C. Adhesion of the liquid molecules and the molecules on the surface of a solid
D. All of the above
Answer: D
105. The intensity of pressure on an immersed surface __________ with the increase in depth.
A. Does not change
B. Increases
C. Decreases
D. None of these
Answer: B
106. Free surface of a liquid behaves like a sheet and tends to contract to smallest possible area due
to the
A. Force of adhesion
B. Force of cohesion
C. Force of friction
D. Force of diffusion
Answer: B
107. Which of the following statement is correct?
A. In a compressible flow, the volume of the flowing liquid changes during the flow
B. A flow, in which the volume of the flowing liquid does not change, is called incompressible flow
C. When the particles rotate about their own axes while flowing, the flow is said to be rotational flow
D. All of the above
Answer: D
108. A bucket of water is hanging from a spring balance. An iron piece is suspended into water
without touching sides of bucket from another support. The spring balance reading will
A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. Remain same
D. Increase/decrease depending on depth of immersion
Answer: C
109. A flow through a long pipe at constant rate is called
A. Steady uniform flow
B. Steady non-uniform flow
C. Unsteady uniform flow
D. Unsteady non-uniform flow
Answer: A
110. Choose the wrong statement
A. Viscosity of a fluid is that property which determines the amount of its resistance to a shearing force
B. Viscosity is due primarily to interaction between fluid molecules
C. Viscosity of liquids decreases with increase in temperature
D. Viscosity of liquids is appreciably affected by change in pressure
Answer: D
111. The unit of dynamic viscosity in S.I. units is
A. N-m/s2
B. N-s/m2
C. Poise
D. Stoke
Answer: B
112. A perfect gas
A. Has constant viscosity
B. Has zero viscosity
C. Is in compressible
D. None of the above
Answer: D
113. In a free nappe,
A. The pressure below the nappe is atmospheric
B. The pressure below the nappe is negative
C. The pressure above the nappe is atmospheric
D. The pressure above the nappe is negative
Answer: A
114. In a static fluid
A. Resistance to shear stress is small
B. Fluid pressure is zero
C. Linear deformation is small
D. Only normal stresses can exist
Answer: D
115. One liter of water occupies a volume of
A. 100 cm3
B. 250 cm3
C. 500 cm3
D. 1000 cm3
Answer: A
116. A balloon lifting in air follows the following principle
A. Law of gravitation
B. Archimedes principle
C. Principle of buoyancy
D. All of the above
Answer: D
117. The maximum discharge over a broad crested weir is
A. 0.384 Cd × L × H1/2
B. 0.384 Cd × L × H3/2
C. 1.71 Cd × L × H1/2
D. 1.71 Cd × L × H3/2
Answer: D
118. The ratio of absolute viscosity to mass density is known as
A. Specific viscosity
B. Viscosity index
C. Kinematic viscosity
D. Coefficient of viscosity
Answer: C
119. Reynold’s number is the ratio of inertia force to
A. Pressure force
B. Elastic force
C. Gravity force
D. Viscous force
Answer: D
120. Meta-centric height is given as the distance between
A. The center of gravity of the body and the metacenter
B. The center of gravity of the body and the center of buoyancy
C. The center of gravity of the body and the center of pressure
D. Center of buoyancy and metacenter
Answer: A
121. In a footstep bearing, if the speed of the shaft is doubled, then the torque required to overcome
the viscous resistance will be
A. Double
B. Four times
C. Eight times
D. Sixteen times
Answer: A
122. The continuity equation is connected with
A. Open channel/pipe flow
B. Compressibility of fluids
C. Conservation of mass
D. Steady/unsteady flow
Answer: C
123. The most economical section of a trapezoidal channel is one which has hydraulic mean depth
equal to
A. 1/2 × depth
B. 1/2 × breadth
C. 1/2 × sloping side
D. 1/4 × (depth + breadth)
Answer: A
124. The speed of sound in a ideal gas varies directly as it’s
A. Absolute temperature
B. Temperature
C. Density
D. Modulus of elasticity
Answer: A
125. The absolute pressure is equal to
A. Gauge pressure + atmospheric pressure
B. Gauge pressure – atmospheric pressure
C. Atmospheric pressure – gauge pressure
D. Gauge pressure – vacuum pressure
Answer: A
126. Unit of surface tension is
A. Energy/unit area
B. Velocity/unit area
C. Both of the above
D. It has no units
Answer: A
127. A Piezometer tube is used only for measuring
A. Low pressure
B. High pressure
C. Moderate pressure
D. Vacuum pressure
Answer: C
128. The capillary rise at 20°C in a clean glass tube of 1 mm bore containing water is approximately
A. 5 mm
B. 10 mm
C. 20 mm
D. 30 mm
Answer: D
129. The Cipoletti weir is a __________ weir.
A. Rectangular
B. Triangular
C. Trapezoidal
D. Circular
Answer: C
130. Pressure of the order of 10″ torr can be measured by
A. Bourdon tube
B. Pirani Gauge
C. Micro-manometer
D. Lonisation gauge
Answer: D
131. The volume of a fluid __________ as the pressure increases.
A. Remains same
B. Decreases
C. Increases
D. None of these
Answer: B
132. Buoyant force is
A. The resultant force acting on a floating body
B. The resultant force on a body due to the fluid surrounding it
C. Equal to the volume of liquid displaced
D. The force necessary to maintain equilibrium of a submerged body
Answer: B
133. A flow through a long pipe at decreasing rate is called __________ uniform flow.
A. Steady
B. Unsteady
C. Both A and B
D. None of these
Answer: D
134. Choose the wrong statement
A. The center of buoyancy is located at the center of gravity of the displaced liquid
B. For stability of a submerged body, the center of gravity of body must lie directly below the center of
buoyancy
C. If C.G. and center of buoyancy coincide, the submerged body must lie at neutral equilibrium for all
positions
D. All floating bodies are stable
Answer: D
135. The intensity of pressure at any point, in a liquid, is __________ to the depth of liquid from the
surface.
A. Equal
B. Directly proportional
C. Inversely proportional
D. None of these
Answer: B
136. True one-dimensional flow occurs when
A. The direction and magnitude of the velocity at all points are identical
B. The velocity of successive fluid particles, at any point, is the same at successive periods of time
C. The magnitude and direction of the velocity do not change from point to point in the fluid
D. The fluid particles move in plane or parallel planes and the streamline patterns are identical in each
plane
Answer: A
137. The discharge in an open channel corresponding to critical depth is
A. Zero
B. Minimum
C. Maximum
D. None of these
Answer: C
138. A piece of wood having weight 5 kg floats in water with 60% of its volume under the liquid.
The specific gravity of wood is
A. 0.83
B. 0.6
C. 0.4
D. 0.3
Answer: B
139. A pitot tube is used to measure the
A. Velocity of flow at the required point in a pipe
B. Pressure difference between two points in a pipe
C. Total pressure of liquid flowing in a pipe
D. Discharge through a pipe
Answer: A
140. The total energy of each particle at various places in the case of perfect incompressible fluid
flowing in continuous stream
A. Keeps on increasing
B. Keeps on decreasing
C. Remain constant
D. May increase/decrease
Answer: C
141. The critical depth meter is used to measure
A. Velocity of flow in an open channel
B. Depth of flow in an open channel
C. Hydraulic jump
D. Depth of channel
Answer: C
142. Two pipe systems can be said to be equivalent, when the following quantities are same
A. Friction loss and flow
B. Length and diameter
C. Flow and length
D. Friction factor and diameter
Answer: A
143. In a footstep bearing, if the radius of the shaft is doubled, then the torque required to
overcome the viscous resistance will be
A. Double
B. Four times
C. Eight times
D. Sixteen times
Answer: D
144. Surface tension has the units of
A. Newton-sec/m
B. Newton-m/sec
C. Newton/m
D. Newton
Answer: C
145. The value of bulk modulus of a fluid is required to determine
A. Reynold’s num er
B. Froude’s num er
C. Mach number
D. Euler’s num er
Answer: C
146. Fluid is a substance which offers no resistance to change of
A. Pressure
B. Flow
C. Shape
D. Volume
Answer: C
147. The pressure less than atmospheric pressure is known as
A. Suction pressure
B. Vacuum pressure
C. Negative gauge pressure
D. All of these
Answer: D
148. The normal stress in a fluid will be constant in all directions at a point only if
A. It is incompressible
B. It has uniform viscosity
C. It has zero viscosity
D. It is at rest
Answer: D
149. The power transmitted through a pipe is (where w = Specific weight in N/m3, and Q =
Discharge in m3/s)
A. w × Q × H
B. w × Q × hf
C. w × Q (H – hf)
D. w × Q (H + hf)
Answer: C
150. If ‘w’ is the specific weight of liquid and ‘k’ the depth of any point from the surface, then
pressure intensity at that point will be
A. h
B. wh
C. w/h
D. h/w
Answer: B
151. A compound pipe is required to be replaced by a new pipe. The two pipes are said to be
equivalent, if
A. Length of both the pipes is same
B. Diameter of both the pipes is same
C. Loss of head and discharge of both the pipes is same
D. Loss of head and velocity of flow in both the pipes is same
Answer: C
152. The center of gravity of the volume of the liquid displaced by an immersed body is called
A. Metacentre
B. Center of pressure
C. Center of buoyancy
D. Center of gravity
Answer: C
153. A flow is called sub-sonic, if the Mach number is
A. Less than unity
B. Unity
C. Between 1 and 6
D. More than 6
Answer: A
154. Barometer is used to measure
A. Pressure in pipes, channels etc.
B. Atmospheric pressure
C. Very low pressure
D. Difference of pressure between two points
Answer: B
155. The hydraulic gradient line lies over the centre line of the pipe by an amount equal to the
A. Pressure head
B. Velocity head
C. Pressure head + velocity head
D. Pressure head – velocity head
Answer: A
156. The center of pressure of a surface subjected to fluid pressure is the point
A. On the surface at which resultant pressure acts
B. On the surface at which gravitational force acts
C. At which all hydraulic forces meet
D. Similar to metacentre
Answer: A
157. The variation in the volume of a liquid with the variation of pressure is called its
A. Surface tension
B. Compressibility
C. Capillarity
D. Viscosity
Answer: B
158. A model of torpedo is tested in a towing tank at a velocity of 25 m/sec. The prototype is
expected to attain a velocity of 5 m/sec. What model scale has been used?
A. 1 : 5
B. 1 : 2.5
C. 1 : 25
D. : √5
Answer: A
159. The surface tension of mercury at normal temperature is __________ that of water.
A. Same as
B. Lower than
C. Higher than
D. None of these
Answer: C
160. Flow of water in a pipe about 3 meters in diameter can be measured by
A. Orifice plate
B. Venturimeter
C. Rotameter
D. Pitot tube
Answer: D
161. According to Francis formula, the discharge over a rectangular weir is (where n = Number of
end contractions)
A. (2/3) × Cd (L – nH × √ gh
B. (2/3) × Cd (L – 0.1nH) × √ g × H3
C. (2/3) × Cd (L – nH × √ g × H
D. (2/3) × Cd (L – nH × √ g × H5
Answer: B
162. The equation of continuity holds good when the flow
A. Is steady
B. Is one dimensional
C. Velocity is uniform at all the cross sections
D. All of the above
Answer: D
163. A thick liquid like syrup has a __________ viscosity than a light liquid like water.
A. Lesser
B. Greater
C. Same
D. None of these
Answer: B
164. Cavitation will begin when
A. The pressure at any location reaches an absolute pressure equal to the saturated vapour pressure of the
liquid
B. Pressure becomes more than critical pressure
C. Flow is increased
D. Pressure is increased
Answer: A
165. When a liquid is flowing through a pipe, the velocity of the liquid is
A. Maximum at the centre and minimum near the walls
B. Minimum at the centre and maximum near the walls
C. Zero at the centre and maximum near the walls
D. Maximum at the centre and zero near the walls
Answer: A
166. Metacentric height is the distance between the metacentre and
A. Water surface
B. Center of pressure
C. Center of gravity
D. Center of buoyancy
Answer: C
167. The velocity through a channel of circular section will be maximum when the depth of water is
__________ the diameter of the circular channel.
A. 0.34 times
B. 0.67 times
C. 0.81 times
D. 0.95 times
Answer: C
168. Resultant pressure of the liquid in the case of an immersed body acts through
A. Centre of gravity
B. Centre of pressure
C. Metacentre
D. Centre of buoyancy
Answer: B
169. A fluid is said to be ideal, if it is
A. Incompressible
B. Viscous and incompressible
C. Inviscous and compressible
D. Inviscous and incompressible
Answer: D
170. In a depressed nappe
A. The pressure below the nappe is atmospheric
B. The pressure below the nappe is negative
C. The pressure above the nappe is atmospheric
D. The pressure above the nappe is negative
Answer: B
171. The value of the coefficient of compressibility for water at ordinary pressure and temperature
in kg/cm is equal to
A. 2,100
B. 2,700
C. 10,000
D. 21,000
Answer: D
172. In one dimensional flow, the flow
A. Is steady and uniform
B. Takes place in straight line
C. Takes place in curve
D. Takes place in one direction
Answer: B
173. To avoid vaporisation in the pipe line, the pipe line over the ridge is laid such that it is not
more than
A. 2.4 m above the hydraulic gradient
B. 6.4 m above the hydraulic gradient
C. 10.0 m above the hydraulic gradient
D. 5.0 above the hydraulic gradient
Answer: B
174. The loss of head at exit of a pipe is (where v = Velocity of liquid in the pipe)
A. v²/2g
B. 0.5v²/2g
C. 0.375v²/2g
D. 0.75v²/2g
Answer: A
175. Metacentre is the point of intersection of
A. Vertical upward force through e.g. of body and center line of body
B. Buoyant force and the center line of body
C. Midpoint between e.g. and center of buoyancy
D. All of the above
Answer: B
176. The imaginary line drawn in the fluid in such a way that the tangent to any point gives the
direction of motion at that point, is known as
A. Path line
B. Stream line
C. Steak line
D. Potential line
Answer: B
177. An open vessel of water is accelerated up an inclined plane. The free water surface will
A. Be horizontal
B. Make an angle in direction of inclination of inclined plane
C. Make an angle in opposite direction to inclination of inclined plane
D. Any one of above is possible
Answer: C
178. The discharge over a rectangular notch is
A. Inversely proportional to H3/2
B. Directly proportional to H3/2
C. Inversely proportional to H5/2
D. Directly proportional to H5/2
Answer: B
179. The flow in which each liquid particle has a definite path and their paths do not cross each
other is called
A. One dimensional flow
B. Streamline flow
C. Steady flow
D. Turbulent flow
Answer: B
180. The magnitude of water hammer depends upon the
A. Elastic properties of the pipe material
B. Elastic properties of the liquid flowing through the pipe
C. Speed at which the valve is closed
D. All of the above
Answer: D
181. The fluid forces considered in the Navier Stokes equation are
A. Gravity, pressure and viscous
B. Gravity, pressure and turbulent
C. Pressure, viscous and turbulent
D. Gravity, viscous and turbulent
Answer: A
182. When the Venturimeter is inclined, then for a given flow it will show __________ reading.
A. Same
B. More
C. Less
D. None of these
Answer: A
183. Cavitation is caused by
A. High velocity
B. High pressure
C. Weak material
D. Low pressure
Answer: D
184. A vertical wall is subjected to a pressure due to one kind of liquid, on one of its sides. The total
pressure on the wall acts at a distance __________ from the liquid surface.
A. H/3
B. H/2
C. 2H/3
D. 3H/4
Answer: C
185. An ideal flow of any fluid must fulfill the following
A. Newton’s law of motion
B. Newton’s law of viscosity
C. Pascal’ law
D. Continuity equation
Answer: D
186. The flow in a pipe or channel is said to be uniform when
A. The liquid particles at all sections have the same velocities
B. The liquid particles at different sections have different velocities
C. The quantity of liquid flowing per second is constant
D. Each liquid particle has a definite path
Answer: A
187. Surface tension
A. Acts in the plane of the interface normal to any line in the surface
B. Is also known as capillarity
C. Is a function of the curvature of the interface
D. Decreases with fall in temperature
Answer: A
188. Select the wrong statement
A. An equivalent pipe is treated as an ordinary pipe for all calculations
B. The length of an equivalent pipe is equal to that of a compound pipe
C. The discharge through an equivalent pipe is equal to that of a compound pipe
D. The diameter of an equivalent pipe is equal to that of a compound pipe
Answer: D
189. Alcohol is used in manometers because
A. It has low vapour pressure
B. It is clearly visible
C. It has low surface tension
D. It can provide longer column due to low density
Answer: D
190. The discharge through a wholly drowned orifice is given by (where H1 = Height of water (on
the upstream side) above the top of the orifice, H2 = Height of water (on the downstream side)
above the bottom of the orifice, and H = Difference between two water levels on either side of the
orifice)
A. Q = Cd × H₁ × √ gh
B. Q = Cd × H × √ gh
C. Q = Cd × b (H2 – H × √ gh
D. Q = Cd × H × √ gh
Answer: C
191. If no resistance is encountered by displacement, such a substance is known as
A. Fluid
B. Water
C. Gas
D. Ideal fluid
Answer: D
192. The kinematic viscosity is the
A. Ratio of absolute viscosity to the density of the liquid
B. Ratio of density of the liquid to the absolute viscosity
C. Product of absolute viscosity and density of the liquid
D. Product of absolute viscosity and mass of the liquid
Answer: A
193. Choose the correct relationship
A. Specific gravity = gravity × density
B. Dynamic viscosity = kinematic viscosity × density
C. Gravity = specific gravity × density
D. Kinematic viscosity = dynamic viscosity × density
Answer: B
194. The viscosity of water is __________ than that of mercury.
A. Higher
B. Lower
C. Same as
D. None of these
Answer: A
195. Surface energy per unit area of a surface is numerically equal to
A. Atmospheric pressure
B. Surface tension
C. Force of adhesion
D. Force of cohesion
Answer: B
196. The specific weight of sea water is __________ that of pure water.
A. Same as
B. Less than
C. More than
D. None of these
Answer: C
197. Which of the following instruments is used to measure flow on the application of Bernoulli’s
theorem?
A. Venturimeter
B. Orifice plate
C. Nozzle
D. All of the above
Answer: D
198. When a cylindrical vessel of radius (r) containing liquid is revolved about its vertical axis ω
rad/s, then depth of parabola which the liquid assumes is
A. ω.r g
B. ω .r g
C. ω.r 4g
D. ω .r 4g
Answer: B
199. The depth of the centre of pressure on a vertical rectangular gate 8 m wide and 6 m high, when
the water surface coincides with the top of the gate, is
A. 2.4 m
B. 3.0 m
C. 4.0 m
D. 5.0 m
Answer: B
200. An internal mouthpiece is said to be running free if the length of the mouthpiece is __________
the diameter of the orifice.
A. Less than twice
B. More than twice
C. Less than three times
D. More than three times
Answer: C
201. An ideal flow of any fluid must satisfy
A. Pascal law
B. Newton’s law of viscosity
C. Boundary layer theory
D. Continuity equation
Answer: D
202. The height of a water column equivalent to a pressure of 0.15 MPa is
A. 15.3 m
B. 25.3 m
C. 35.3 m
D. 45.3 m
Answer: A
203. The region between the separation streamline and the boundary surface of the solid body is
known as
A. Wake
B. Drag
C. Lift
D. Boundary layer
Answer: A
204. The total pressure on the top of a closed cylindrical vessel of radius (r) completely filled up
with liquid of specific weight (w) and rotating at (ω) rad/s about its vertical axis, is
A. π w ω r 4g
B. π w ω r³ 4g
C. π w ω r⁴ 4g
D. π w ω r g
Answer: C
205. Froude number is significant in
A. Supersonics, as with projectile and jet propulsion
B. Full immersion or completely enclosed flow, as with pipes, aircraft wings, nozzles etc.
C. Simultaneous motion through two fluids where there is a surface of discontinuity, gravity forces, and
wave making effect, as with ship’s hulls
D. All of the above
Answer: C
206. The ratio of specific weight of a liquid to the specific weight of pure water at a standard
temperature is called
A. Density of liquid
B. Specific gravity of liquid
C. Compressibility of liquid
D. Surface tension of liquid
Answer: B
207. A hydraulic press has a ram of 15 cm diameter and plunger of 1.5 cm. It is required to lift a
weight of 1 tonne. The force required on plunger is equal to
A. 10 kg
B. 100 kg
C. 1000 kg
D. 1 kg
Answer: A
208. The total head of a liquid particle in motion is equal to
A. Pressure head + kinetic head + potential head
B. Pressure head – (kinetic head + potential head)
C. Potential head – (pressure head + kinetic head)
D. Kinetic head – (pressure head + potential head)
Answer: A
209. The bulk modulus of elasticity with increase in pressure
A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Remain constant
D. Increases first up to certain limit and then decreases
Answer: A
210. The diameter of the nozzleD. for maximum transmission of power is given by (where D =
Diameter of pipe, f = Darcy’s coefficient of friction for pipe, and l = Length of pipe)
A. d = D⁵ 8fl
B. d = D⁵ 8fl 3
C. d = D⁵ 8fl 4
D. d = D⁵ 8fl 5
Answer: C
211. Free surface of a liquid tends to contract to the smallest possible area due to force of
A. Surface tension
B. Viscosity
C. Friction
D. Cohesion
Answer: A
212. The Metacentric heights of two floating bodies A and B are 1 m and 1.5 m respectively. Select
the correct statement.
A. The bodies A and B have equal stability
B. The body A is more stable than body B
C. The body B is more stable than body A
D. The bodies A and B are unstable
Answer: C
213. The rise or depression of liquid in a tube due to surface tension will increase in size of tube will
A. Increase
B. Remain unaffected
C. May increase or decrease depending on the characteristics of liquid
D. Decrease
Answer: D
214. A body floats in stable equilibrium
A. When its meatcentric height is zero
B. When the metacentre is above e.g.
C. When its e.g. is below its center of buoyancy
D. Metacentre has nothing to do with position of e.g. for determining stability
Answer: B
215. The total pressure on a horizontally immersed surface is (where w = Specific weight of the
liquid, A = Area of the immersed surface, and x = Depth of the centre of gravity of the immersed
surface from the liquid surface)
A. wA
B. wx
C. wAx
D. wA/x
Answer: C
216. The discharge of a depressed nappe is 6 to 7 percent __________ that of a free nappe.
A. Less than
B. More than
C. Equal to
D. None of these
Answer: B
217. The line of action of the buoyant force acts through the Centroid of the
A. Submerged body
B. Volume of the floating body
C. Volume of the fluid vertically above the body
D. Displaced volume of the fluid
Answer: D
218. The intensity of pressure at any point, in a liquid, is
A. Directly proportional to the area of the vessel containing liquid
B. Directly proportional to the depth of liquid from the surface
C. Directly proportional to the length of the vessel containing liquid
D. Inversely proportional to the depth of liquid from the surface
Answer: B
219. During the opening of a valve in a pipe line, the flow is
A. Steady
B. Unsteady
C. Uniform
D. Laminar
Answer: B
220. A manometer is used to measure
A. Atmospheric pressure
B. Pressure in pipes and channels
C. Pressure in Venturimeter
D. Difference of pressures between two points in a pipe
Answer: B
221. For hypersonic flow, the Mach number is
A. Unity
B. Greater than unity
C. Greater than 2
D. Greater than 4
Answer: D
222. The theoretical velocity of jet at vena contracta is (where H = Head of water at vena contracta)
A. 2gH
B. H × √ g
C. g × √H
D. √ gh
Answer: D
223. For pipes, laminar flow occurs when Reynolds number is
A. Less than 2000
B. Between 2000 and 4000
C. More than 4000
D. Less than 4000
Answer: A
224. When the flow in an open channel is gradually varied, the flow is said to be
A. Steady uniform flow
B. Steady non-uniform flow
C. Unsteady uniform flow
D. Unsteady non-uniform flow
Answer: B
225. Property of a fluid by which molecules of different kinds of fluids are attracted to each other is
called
A. Adhesion
B. Cohesion
C. Viscosity
D. Compressibility
Answer: A
226. In an internal mouthpiece, if the jet after contraction does not touch the sides of the
mouthpiece, then the mouthpiece is said to be
A. Running full
B. Running free
C. Partially running full
D. Partially running free
Answer: B
227. The units of kinematic viscosity are
A. Metres² per sec
B. kg sec/metre
C. Newton-sec per metre
D. Newton-sec per metre
Answer: A
228. The length of a liquid stream while flowing over a weir __________ at the ends of the sill.
A. Expands
B. Does not change
C. Contracts
D. None of these
Answer: C
229. Newton’s law of viscosity is a relationship between
A. Shear stress and the rate of angular distortion
B. Shear stress and viscosity
C. Shear stress, velocity and viscosity
D. Pressure, velocity and viscosity
Answer: A
230. The total energy line lies over the hydraulic gradient line by an amount equal to the
A. Pressure head
B. Velocity head
C. Pressure head + velocity head
D. Pressure head – velocity head
Answer: B
231. Choose the wrong statement
A. The horizontal component of the hydrostatic force on any surface is equal to the normal force on the
vertical projection of the surface
B. The horizontal component acts through the center of pressure for the vertical projection
C. The vertical component of the hydrostatic force on any surface is equal to the weight of the volume of
the liquid above the area
D. The vertical component passes through the center of pressure of the volume
Answer: D
232. In open channels, the specific energy is the
A. Total energy per unit discharge
B. Total energy measured with respect to the datum passing through the bottom of the channel
C. Total energy measured above the horizontal datum
D. Kinetic energy plotted above the free surface of water
Answer: B
233. For a floating body to be in stable equilibrium, its metacentre should be
A. Below the center of gravity
B. Below the center of buoyancy
C. Above the center of buoyancy
D. Above the center of gravity
Answer: D
234. A water tank contains 1.3 m deep water. The pressure exerted by the water per metre length of
the tank is
A. 2.89 kN
B. 8.29 kN
C. 9.28 kN
D. 28.9 kN
Answer: B
235. Total pressure on a lmxlm gate immersed vertically at a depth of 2 m below the free water
surface will be
A. 1000 kg
B. 4000 kg
C. 2000 kg
D. 8000 kg
Answer: A
236. If a body floating in a liquid occupies a new position and remains at rest in this new position,
when given a small angular displacement, the body is said to be in __________ equilibrium.
A. Neutral
B. Stable
C. Unstable
D. None of these
Answer: A
237. A streamline is defined as the line
A. Parallel to central axis flow
B. Parallel to outer surface of pipe
C. Of equal velocity in a flow
D. Along which the pressure drop is uniform
Answer: C
238. The flow in a pipe or channel is said to be non-uniform when
A. The liquid particles at all sections have the same velocities
B. The liquid particles at different sections have different velocities
C. The quantity of liquid flowing per second is constant
D. Each liquid particle has a definite path
Answer: B
239. Hydrometer is used to determine
A. Specific gravity of liquids
B. Specific gravity of solids
C. Specific gravity of gases
D. Relative humidity
Answer: A
240. The dynamic viscosity of the liquid __________ with rise in temperature.
A. Remain unaffected
B. Increases
C. Decreases
D. None of these
Answer: C
241. For pipes, turbulent flow occurs when Reynolds number is
A. Less than 2000
B. Between 2000 and 4000
C. More than 4000
D. Less than 4000
Answer: C
242. The velocity of the liquid flowing through the divergent portion of a Venturimeter
A. Remains constant
B. Increases
C. Decreases
D. Depends upon mass of liquid
Answer: C
243. The volumetric change of the fluid caused by a resistance is known as
A. Volumetric strain
B. Volumetric index
C. Compressibility
D. Adhesion
Answer: C
244. If the depth of water in an open channel is less than the critical depth, the flow is called
A. Critical flow
B. Turbulent flow
C. Tranquil flow
D. Torrential flow
Answer: D
245. Choose the wrong statement
A. Fluids are capable of flowing
B. Fluids conform to the shape of the containing vessels
C. When in equilibrium, fluids cannot sustain tangential forces
D. When in equilibrium, fluids can sustain shear forces
Answer: D
246. An orifice is said to be large, if
A. The size of orifice is large
B. The velocity of flow is large
C. The available head of liquid is more than 5 times the height of orifice
D. The available head of liquid is less than 5 times the height of orifice
Answer: D
247. A piece of metal of specific gravity 13.6 is placed in mercury of specific gravity 13.6, what
fraction of it volume is under mercury?
A. The metal piece will simply float over the mercury
B. The metal piece will be immersed in mercury by half
C. Whole of the metal piece will be immersed with its top surface just at mercury level
D. Metal piece will sink to the bottom
Answer: C
248. The centre of pressure acts __________ the centre of gravity of immersed surface.
A. At
B. Above
C. Below
D. None of these
Answer: C
249. Dynamic viscosity of most of the liquids with rise in temperature
A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Remain unaffected
D. Unpredictable
Answer: B
250. The discharge over a right angled notch is (where H = Height of liquid above the apex of
notch)
A. (8/15) Cd. 2g. H
B. (8/15) Cd. 2g. H3/2
C. (8/15) Cd. 2g. H²
D. (8/15) Cd. 2g. H5/2
Answer: D
Fluid Mechanics objective questions with answers pdf download online exam test
251. A square surface 3 m × 3 m lies in a vertical line in water pipe its upper edge at water surface.
The hydrostatic force on square surface is
A. 9,000 kg
B. 13,500 kg
C. 18,000 kg
D. 27,000 kg
Answer: B
252. The discharge through a siphon spillway is
A. Cd × a × √ gH
B. Cd × a × √ g × H3
C. Cd × a × √ g × H
D. Cd × a × √ g × H5
Answer: A
253. Select the correct statement
A. Local atmospheric pressure depends upon elevation of locality only
B. Standard atmospheric pressure is the mean local atmospheric pressure a* sea level
C. Local atmospheric pressure is always below standard atmospheric pressure
D. A barometer reads the difference between local and standard atmospheric pressure
Answer: B
254. The shear stress-strain graph for a Newtonian fluid is a
A. Straight line
B. Parabolic curve
C. Hyperbolic curve
D. Elliptical
Answer: A
255. The flow in which the particles of a fluid attain such velocities that varies from point to point
in magnitude and direction as well as from instant to instant, is known as
A. One dimensional flow
B. Uniform flow
C. Steady flow
D. Turbulent flow
Answer: D
256. For a perfect incompressible liquid, flowing in a continuous stream, the total energy of a
particle remains the same, while the particle moves from one point to another. This statement is
called
A. Continuity equation
B. Bernoulli’s equation
C. Pascal’s law
D. Archimedes’s principle
Answer: B
257. Uniform flow occurs when
A. The direction and magnitude of the velocity at all points are identical
B. The velocity of successive fluid particles, at any point, is the same at successive periods of time
C. The magnitude and direction of the velocity do not change from point to point in the fluid
D. The fluid particles move in plane or parallel planes and the streamline patterns are identical in each
pleasure
Answer: C
258. The critical depth for a channel is given by (where q = Unit discharge (discharge per unit
width) through the channel)
A. (q/g)1/2
B. (q²/g)1/3
C. (q³/g)1/4
D. q⁴ g 5
Answer: B
259. At the center line of a pipe flowing under pressure where the velocity gradient is zero, the
shear stress will be
A. Minimum
B. Maximum
C. Zero
D. Could be any value
Answer: D
260. The discharge through a channel of trapezoidal section is maximum when
A. Width of channel at the top is equal to twice the width at the bottom
B. Depth of channel is equal to the width at the bottom
C. The sloping side is equal to half the width at the top
D. The sloping side is equal to the width at the bottom
Answer: C
261. Piezometer is used to measure
A. Pressure in pipe, channels etc.
B. Atmospheric pressure
C. Very low pressures
D. Difference of pressure between two points
Answer: C
262. The point at which the resultant pressure on an immersed surface acts, is known as
A. Centre of gravity
B. Centre of depth
C. Centre of pressure
D. Centre of immersed surface
Answer: C
263. Choose the wrong statement
A. Any weight, floating or immersed in a liquid, is acted upon by a buoyant force
B. Buoyant force is equal to the weight of the liquid displaced
C. The point through which buoyant force acts, is called the center of buoyancy
D. Center of buoyancy is located above the center of gravity of the displaced liquid
Answer: D
264. The centre of pressure for a vertically immersed surface lies at a distance equal to __________
the centre of gravity.
A. IG A ellow
B. A a ove
C. A ellow
D. A a ove
Answer: A
265. The pressure in the air space above an oil (sp. gr. 0.8) surface in a tank is 0.1 kg/cm”. The
pressure at 2.5 m below the oil surface will be
A. 2 metres of water column
B. 3 metres of water column
C. 3.5 metres of water column
D. 4 m of water column
Answer: B
266. The total pressure on the top of a closed cylindrical vessel completely filled up with a liquid is
A. Directly proportional to (radius)2
B. Inversely proportional to (radius)2
C. Directly proportional to (radius)4
D. Inversely proportional to (radius)4
Answer: C
267. The flow which neglects changes in a transverse direction is known as
A. One dimensional flow
B. Uniform flow
C. Steady flow
D. Turbulent flow
Answer: A
268. A moving fluid mass may be brought to a static equilibrium position, by applying an
imaginary inertia force of the same magnitude as that of the accelerating force but in the opposite
direction. This statement is called
A. Pascal’s law
B. Archimedes’s principle
C. D-Alem ert’s principle
D. None of these
Answer: C
269. Normal depth in open channel flow is the depth of flow corresponding to
A. Steady flow
B. Unsteady flow
C. Laminar flow
D. Uniform flow
Answer: D
270. The mass per unit volume of a liquid at a standard temperature and pressure is called
A. Specific weight
B. Mass density
C. Specific gravity
D. None of these
Answer: B
271. A large Reynold number is indication of
A. Smooth and streamline flow
B. Laminar flow
C. Steady flow
D. Highly turbulent flow
Answer: D
272. Which of the following statement is wrong?
A. A flow whose streamline is represented by a curve is called two dimensional flow.
B. The total energy of a liquid particle is the sum of potential energy, kinetic energy and pressure energy.
C. The length of divergent portion in a Venturimeter is equal to the convergent portion.
D. A pitot tube is used to measure the velocity of flow at the required point in a pipe.
Answer: C
273. Density of water is maximum at
A. 0° C
B. 0° K
C. 4° C
D. 100° C
Answer: C
274. A weir is said to be broad crested weir, if the width of the crest of the weir is ________ half the
height of water above the weir crest.
A. Equal to
B. Less than
C. More than
D. None of these
Answer: C
275. The bulk modulus of elasticity
A. Has the dimensions of 1/pressure
B. Increases with pressure
C. Is large when fluid is more compressible
D. Is independent of pressure and viscosity
Answer: B
276. A tank of uniform cross-sectional areaA. containing liquid upto height (H1) has an orifice of
cross-sectional areaA. at its bottom. The time required to empty the tank completely will be
A. A√H₁ Cd × a√ g
B. AH₁ Cd × a√ g
C. AH₁3 Cd × a√ g
D. AH₁ Cd × a√ g
Answer: A

278. The atmospheric pressure at sea level is

A. 103 kN/m2
B. 10.3 m of water
C. 760 mm of mercury
D. All of these
Answer: D
279. The conditions for the stable equilibrium of a floating body are
A. The metacentre should lie above the center of gravity
B. The center of buoyancy and the center of gravity must lie on the same vertical line
C. A righting couple should be formed
D. All the above are correct
Answer: D
280. A glass tube of smaller diameter is used while performing an experiment for the capillary rise
of water because
A. It is easier to see through the glass tube
B. Glass tube is cheaper than a metallic tube
C. It is not possible to conduct this experiment with any other tube
D. All of the above
Answer: A
281. To avoid an interruption in the flow of a siphon, an air vessel is provided
A. At the inlet
B. At the outlet
C. At the summit
D. At any point between inlet and outlet
Answer: C
282. When the coefficient of discharge (Cd) is 0.623, then the general equation for discharge over a
rectangular weir is
A. 1.84(L – 0.1nH)H3/2
B. 1.84(L – nH)H2
C. 1.84(L – 0.1nH)H5/2
D. 1.84(L – nH)H3
Answer: A
283. In an isothermal atmosphere, the pressure
A. Decreases linearly with elevation
B. Remain constant
C. Varies in the same way as the density
D. Increases exponentially with elevation
Answer: C
284. The pressure of a liquid measured with the help of a Piezometer tube is
A. Vacuum pressure
B. Gauge pressure
C. Absolute pressure
D. Atmospheric pressure
Answer: B
285. If the atmospheric pressure on the surface of an oil tank (sp. gr. 0.8) is 0.2 kg/cm”, the pressure
at a depth of 50 m below the oil surface will be
A. 2 meters of water column
B. 3 meters of water column
C. 5 meters of water column
D. 6 meters of water Column
Answer: D
286. The pressure intensity in kN/m2 (or kPa) at any point in a liquid is (where w = Specific weight
of liquid, and h = Depth of liquid from the surface)
A. w
B. wh
C. w/h
D. h/w
Answer: B
287. The resultant upward pressure of a fluid on a floating body is equal to the weight of the fluid
displaced by the body. This definition is according to
A. Buoyancy
B. Equilibrium of a floating body
C. Archimedes’ principle
D. Bernoulli’s theorem
Answer: C
288. The liquid used in manometers should have
A. Low density
B. High density
C. Low surface tension
D. High surface tension
Answer: D
289. Which of the following instrument can be used for measuring speed of an aeroplane?
A. Venturimeter
B. Orifice plate
C. Pitot tube
D. Rotameter
Answer: C
290. A jet of water discharging from a 40 mm diameter orifice has a diameter of 32 mm at its vena
contracta. The coefficient of contraction is
A. 0.46
B. 0.64
C. 0.78
D. 0.87
Answer: B
291. Buoyant force is
A. Resultant force acting on a floating body
B. Equal to the volume of liquid displaced
C. Force necessary to keep a body in equilibrium
D. The resultant force on a body due to the fluid surrounding it
Answer: D
292. In case of flow through parallel pipes,
A. The head loss for all the pipes is same
B. The total discharge is equal to the sum of discharges in the various pipes
C. The total head loss is the sum of head losses in the various pipes
D. BothA. andB.
Answer: D
293. Rotameter is a device used to measure
A. Absolute pressure
B. Velocity of fluid
C. Flow
D. Rotation
Answer: C
294. In a broad-crested weir, the discharge is maximum if the head of water on the downstream
side of weir is __________ the head of water on the upstream side of weir.
A. Equal to
B. One-third
C. Two-third
D. Three-fourth
Answer: C
295. When a body, floating in a liquid, is given a small angular displacement, it starts oscillating
about a point known as
A. Centre of pressure
B. Centre of gravity
C. Centre of buoyancy
D. Metacentre
Answer: D
296. A nozzle is generally made of
A. Cylindrical shape
B. Convergent shape
C. Divergent shape
D. Convergent-divergent shape
Answer: B
297. Pitot tube is used for measurement of
A. Pressure
B. Flow
C. Velocity
D. Discharge
Answer: C
298. Coefficient of discharge Cd is equal to (where Cc = Coefficient of contraction, Cv = Coefficient
of velocity, and Cr = Coefficient of resistance)
A. Cc × Cv
B. Cc × Cr
C. Cv × Cr
D. Cc/Cr
Answer: A
299. The value of mass density in kg-sec-V-m⁴ for water at 0°C is
A. 1
B. 1000
C. 100.9
D. 101.9
Answer: D
300. The shear stress between the two liquid layers is __________ proportional to the distance
between two layers.
A. Directly
B. Inversely
C. Both A and B
D. None of these
Answer: B
301. Viscosity of water in comparison to mercury is
A. Higher
B. Lower
C. Same
D. Higher/lower depending on temperature
Answer: A
302. The power transmitted through the pipe is maximum when the head lost due to friction is
equal to
A. One-fourth of the total supply head
B. One-third of the total supply head
C. One-half of the total supply head
D. Two-third of the total supply head
Answer: B
303. Falling drops of water become spheres due to the property of
A. Adhesion
B. Cohesion
C. Surface tension
D. Viscosity
Answer: C
304. A hemispherical tank of radius (R) has an orifice of cross-sectional areaA. at its bottom and is
full of liquid. The time required to empty the tank completely is
A. 4π R 5Cd × a √ g
B. 4π R3 5Cd × a √ g
C. 4π R5 5Cd × a √ g
D. 4π R7 5Cd × a √ g
Answer: C
305. The difference of pressure between the inside and outside of a liquid drop is
A. p = T × r
B. p = T/r
C. p = T/2r
D. p = 2T/r
Answer: D
306. A venturi-flume is used to measure
A. Pressure of liquid
B. Discharge of liquid
C. Pressure difference between two points in a channel
D. Pressure difference between two points in a pipe
Answer: B
307. Working principle of dead weight pressure gauge tester is based on
A. Pascal’s law
B. Dalton’s law of partial pressure
C. Newton’s law of viscosity
D. Avogadro’s hypothesis
Answer: A
308. The meatcentric height of a ship is 0.6 m and the radius of gyration is 4 m. The time of rolling
of a ship is
A. 4.1 sec
B. 5.2 sec
C. 10.4 sec
D. 14.1 sec
Answer: C
309. The discharge through a channel of rectangular section will be maximum, if
A. Its depth is twice the breadth
B. Its breadth is twice the depth
C. Its depth is thrice the breadth
D. Its breadth is thrice the depth
Answer: B
310. The discharge through a channel of circular section will be maximum when the depth of water
is __________ the diameter of the circular channel.
A. 0.34 times
B. 0.67 times
C. 0.81 times
D. 0.95 times
Answer: D
311. Uniform flow occurs when
A. The flow is steady
B. The flow is streamline
C. Size and shape of the cross section in a particular length remain constant
D. Size and cross section change uniformly along length
Answer: C
312. Bulk modulus of a fluid is the ratio of
A. Shear stress to shear strain
B. Increase in volume to the viscosity of fluid
C. Increase in pressure to the volumetric strain
D. Critical velocity to the viscosity of fluid
Answer: D
313. The pressure in Pascal’s at a depth of 1 m below the free surface of a body of water will be
equal to
A. 1 Pa
B. 91 Pa
C. 981 Pa
D. 9810 Pa
Answer: D
314. An average value of coefficient of velocity is
A. 0.62
B. 0.76
C. 0.84
D. 0.97
Answer: D
315. A liquid would wet the solid, if adhesion forces as compared to cohesion forces are
A. Less
B. More
C. Equal
D. Less at low temperature and more at high temperature
Answer: B
316. When a cylindrical vessel containing liquid is revolved about its vertical axis at a constant
angular velocity, the pressure
A. Varies as the square of the radial distance
B. Increases linearly as its radial distance
C. Increases as the square of the radial distance
D. Decreases as the square of the radial distance
Answer: A
317. Property of a fluid by which its own molecules are attracted is called
A. Adhesion
B. Cohesion
C. Viscosity
D. Compressibility
Answer: B
318. According to Bazin’s formula, the discharge over a rectangular weir is mL2g x H3/2where m is
equal to
A. 0.405 + (0.003/H)
B. 0.003 + (0.405/H)
C. 0.405 + (H/0.003)
D. 0.003 + (H/0.405)
Answer: A
319. Which of the following is the unit of kinematic viscosity?
A. Pascal
B. Poise
C. Stoke
D. Faraday
Answer: C
320. The length AB of a pipe ABC in which the liquid is flowing has diameter (d1) and is suddenly
contracted to diameter (d2) at B which is constant for the length BC. The loss of head due to sudden
contraction, assuming coefficient of contraction as 0.62, is
A. v₁ g
B. v₂ g
C. 0.5 v₁ g
D. 0.375 v₂ g
Answer: D
321. Operation of McLeod gauge used for low pressure measurement is based on the principle of
A. Gas law
B. Boyle’s law
C. Charles law
D. Pascal’s law
Answer: B
322. Reynold’s number is the ratio of the inertia force to the
A. Surface tension force
B. Viscous force
C. Gravity force
D. Elastic force
Answer: B
323. A piece weighing 3 kg in air was found to weigh 2.5 kg when submerged in water. Its specific
gravity is
A. 1
B. 5
C. 7
D. 6
Answer: D
324. A differential manometer is used to measure
A. Atmospheric pressure
B. Pressure in pipes and channels
C. Pressure in Venturimeter
D. Difference of pressures between two points in a pipe
Answer: D
325. In a lock-gate, the reaction between two gates is (where P = Resultant pressure on the lock
gate, and α = Inclination of the gate with the normal to the side of the lock)
A. p sinα
B. p sinα
C. p sinα
D. p sin α
Answer: A
326. In a venturi-flume, the flow takes place at
A. Atmospheric pressure
B. Gauge pressure
C. Absolute pressure
D. None of these
Answer: A
327. The normal stress is same in all directions at a point in a fluid
A. Only when the fluid is frictionless
B. Only when the fluid is incompressible and has zero viscosity
C. When there is no motion of one fluid layer relative to an adjacent layer
D. Irrespective of the motion of one fluid layer relative to an adjacent layer
Answer: C
328. The highest efficiency is obtained with a channel of __________ section.
A. Circular
B. Square
C. Rectangular
D. Trapezoidal
Answer: D
329. A vertical wall is subjected to a pressure due to one kind of liquid, on one of its sides. The total
pressure on the wall per unit length is (where w = Specific weight of liquid, and H = Height of
liquid)
A. wH
B. wH/2
C. wH2/2
D. wH2/3
Answer: C
330. Which of the following manometer has highest sensitivity?
A. U-tube with water
B. Inclined U-tube
C. U-tube with mercury
D. Micro-manometer with water
Answer: D
331. The velocity corresponding to Reynold number of 2800, is called
A. Sub-sonic velocity
B. Super-sonic velocity
C. Lower critical velocity
D. Higher critical velocity
Answer: D
332. For a floating body to be in equilibrium
A. Meta centre should be above e.g.
B. Centre of buoyancy and e.g. must lie on same vertical plane
C. A righting couple should be formed
D. All of the above
Answer: D
333. When an internal mouthpiece is running free, the discharge through the mouthpiece is (where
a = Area of mouthpiece, and H = Height of liquid above the mouthpiece)
A. 0.5 a. √ gH
B. 0.707 a. √ gH
C. 0.855 a. √ gH
D. a. √ gH
Answer: A
334. A uniform body 3 m long, 2 m wide and 1 m deep floats in water. If the depth of immersion is
0.6 m, then the weight of the body is
A. 3.53 kN
B. 33.3 kN
C. 35.3 kN
D. None of these
Answer: C
335. The force per unit length is the unit of
A. Surface tension
B. Compressibility
C. Capillarity
D. Viscosity
Answer: A
336. When the Mach number is more than 6, the flow is called
A. Sub-sonic flow
B. Sonic flow
C. Super-sonic flow
D. Hyper-sonic flow
Answer: D
337. The upper surface of a weir over which water flows is known is
A. Crest
B. Nappy
C. Sill
D. Weir top
Answer: C
338. One cubic metre of water weighs
A. 100 liters
B. 250 liters
C. 500 liters
D. 1000 liters
Answer: D
339. Kinematic viscosity is dependent upon
A. Pressure
B. Distance
C. Density
D. Flow
Answer: C
340. The discharge through a large rectangular orifice is given by (where H1 = Height of the liquid
above the top of the orifice, H2 = Height of the liquid above the bottom of the orifice, b = Breadth of
the orifice, and Cd = Coefficient of discharge)
A. Q = 3 Cd × × √ g × H – H1)
B. Q = 3 Cd × ×√ g × H – H11/2)
C. Q = 3 Cd × ×√ g × H 3 – H13/2)
D. Q = 3 Cd × × √ g × H – H12)
Answer: C
341. An error of 1% in measuring head over the apex of the notch (H) will produce an error of
_________ in discharge over a triangular notch.
A. 1 %
B. 1.5 %
C. 2 %
D. 2.5 %
Answer: D
342. The Euler’s equation for the motion of liquids is based upon the assumption that
A. The fluid is non – viscous, homogeneous and incompressible
B. The velocity of flow is uniform over the section
C. The flow is continuous, steady and along the stream line
D. All of the above
Answer: D
343. The ratio of the inertia force to the viscous force is called
A. Reynold’s num er
B. Froude’s num er
C. We er’s num er
D. Euler’s num er
Answer: A
344. The total energy of a liquid particle in motion is equal to
A. Pressure energy + kinetic energy + potential energy
B. Pressure energy – (kinetic energy + potential energy)
C. Potential energy – (pressure energy + kinetic energy
D. Kinetic energy – (pressure energy + potential energy)
Answer: A
345. Which of the following instrument can be used for measuring speed of a submarine moving in
deep sea?
A. Venturimeter
B. Orifice plate
C. Hot wire anemometer
D. Pitot tube
Answer: D
346. The force present in a moving liquid is
A. Inertia force
B. Viscous force
C. Gravity force
D. All of these
Answer: D
347. A ship whose hull length is 100 m is to travel at 10 m/sec. For dynamic similarity, at what
velocity should a 1:25 model be towed through water?
A. 10 m/sec
B. 25 m/sec
C. 2 m/sec
D. 50 m/sec
Answer: C
348. The pressure of liquid at throat in a Venturimeter is __________ than that at inlet.
A. Higher
B. Lower
C. Same
D. None of these
Answer: B
349. The flow in which the velocity vector is identical in magnitude and direction at every point, for
any given instant, is known as
A. One dimensional flow
B. Uniform flow
C. Steady flow
D. Turbulent flow
Answer: B
350. The coefficient of discharge for an external mouthpiece depends upon
A. Velocity of liquid
B. Pressure of liquid
C. Area of mouthpiece
D. Length of mouthpiece
Answer: D
351. The specific weight of water is 1000 kg/m3
A. At normal pressure of 760 mm
B. At 4°C temperature
C. At mean sea level
D. All the above
Answer: D
352. If the depth of water in an open channel is greater than the critical depth, the flow is called
A. Critical flow
B. Turbulent flow
C. Tranquil flow
D. Torrential flow
Answer: C
353. When a cylindrical vessel, containing some liquid, is rotated about its vertical axis, the liquid
surface is depressed down at the axis of its rotation and rises up near the walls of the vessel on all
sides. This type of flow is known as
A. Steady flow
B. Turbulent flow
C. Vortex flow
D. Uniform flow
Answer: C
354. The body will sink down if the force of buoyancy is __________ the weight of the liquid
displaced.
A. Equal to
B. Less than
C. More than
D. None of these
Answer: B
355. The total pressure on the surface of a vertical sluice gate 2 m x 1 m with its top 2 m surface
being 0.5 m below the water level will be
A. 500 kg
B. 1000 kg
C. 1500 kg
D. 2000 kg
Answer: B
356. The velocity at which the laminar flow stops, is known as
A. Velocity of approach
B. Lower critical velocity
C. Higher critical velocity
D. None of these
Answer: B
357. The line of action of the buoyant force acts through the
A. Centroid of the volume of fluid vertically above the body
B. Centre of the volume of floating body
C. Center of gravity of any submerged body
D. Centroid of the displaced volume of fluid
Answer: D
358. The buoyancy depends upon the
A. Weight of the liquid displaced
B. Pressure with which the liquid is displaced
C. Viscosity of the liquid
D. Compressibility of the liquid
Answer: A
359. A glass tube of small diameterD. is dipped in fluid. The height of rise or fall in the tube given
by (where w = Specific weight of liquid, α = Angle of contact of the liquid surface, and σ = Surface
tension)
A. 4wd σ cosα
B. σ cosα 4wd
C. 4σ cosα wd
D. wd 4σ cosα
Answer: C
360. Two dimensional flows occurs when
A. The direction and magnitude of the velocity at all points are identical
B. The velocity of successive fluid particles, at any point, is the same at successive periods of time
C. The magnitude and direction of the velocity do not change from point to point in the fluid
D. The fluid particles move in plane or parallel planes and the streamline patterns are identical in each
plane
Answer: D
361. Whenever a plate is held immersed at some angle with the direction of flow of the liquid, it is
subjected to some pressure. The component of this pressure, in the direction of flow of the liquid, is
known as
A. Lift
B. Drag
C. Stagnation pressure
D. Bulk modulus
Answer: B
362. Which of the following is dimensionless?
A. Specific weight
B. Specific volume
C. Specific speed
D. Specific gravity
Answer: D
363. Coefficient of resistance is the ratio of
A. Actual velocity of jet at vena-contracta to the theoretical velocity
B. Area of jet at vena-contracta to the area of orifice
C. Loss of head in the orifice to the head of water available at the exit of the orifice
D. Actual discharge through an orifice to the theoretical discharge
Answer: C
364. Mercury does not wet glass. This is due to property of liquid known as
A. Adhesion
B. Cohesion
C. Surface tension
D. Viscosity
Answer: C
365. A flow in which __________ force is dominating over the viscosity is called turbulent flow.
A. Elastic
B. Surface tension
C. Viscous
D. Inertia
Answer: D
366. Specific weight of sea water is more that of pure water because it contains
A. Dissolved air
B. Dissolved salt
C. Suspended matter
D. All of the above
Answer: D
367. In an internal mouthpiece, the absolute pressure head at vena contracta is __________ the
atmospheric pressure head by an amount equal to height of the liquid above the vena contracta.
A. Less than
B. More than
C. Equal to
D. None of these
Answer: A
368. An odd shaped body weighing 7.5 kg and occupying 0.01 m3 volume will be completely
submerged in a fluid having specific gravity of
A. 1
B. 1.2
C. 0.8
D. 0.75
Answer: D
369. The factional resistance of a pipe varies approximately with __________ of the liquid.
A. Pressure
B. Velocity
C. Square of velocity
D. Cube of velocity
Answer: C
370. For measuring flow by a Venturimeter, if should be installed in
A. Vertical line
B. Horizontal line
C. Inclined line with flow downward
D. In any direction and in any location
Answer: D
371. The ratio of the inertia force to the elastic force is called
A. Reynold’s num er
B. Froude’s num er
C. We er’s num er
D. Mach number
Answer: D
372. All the terms of energy in Bernoulli’s equation have dimension of
A. Energy
B. Work
C. Mass
D. Length
Answer: D
373. The pressure at a point 4 m below the free surface of water is
A. 19.24 kPa
B. 29.24 kPa
C. 39.24 kPa
D. 49.24 kPa
Answer: C
374. Specific weight of water in S.I. units is equal to
A. 1000 N/m3
B. 10000 N/m3
C. 9.81 × 103 N/m3
D. 9.8 × 0⁶ N m3
Answer: C
375. The length AB of a pipe ABC in which the liquid is flowing has diameter (d1) and is suddenly
enlarged to diameter (d2) at B which is constant for the length BC. The loss of head due to sudden
enlargement is
A. v₁ – v₂ g
B. v₁ – v₂ g
C. v₁ – v₂ g
D. v₁ – v₂ g
Answer: C
376. In an external mouthpiece, the absolute pressure head at vena contracta is __________ the
atmospheric pressure head by an amount equal to 0.89 times the height of the liquid, above the
vena contracta.
A. Less than
B. More than
C. Equal to
D. None of these
Answer: A
377. Poise is the unit of
A. Surface tension
B. Capillarity
C. Viscosity
D. Shear stress in fluids
Answer: C
378. Viscous force is the __________ of shear stress due to viscosity and cross-section area of flow.
A. Sum
B. Different
C. Product
D. Ratio
Answer: C
379. The siphon will work satisfactorily, if the minimum pressure in the pipe is __________ vapour
pressure of liquid.
A. Equal to
B. Less than
C. More than
D. None of these
Answer: C
380. The tangential velocity of the water element having a free vortex is
A. Directly proportional to its distance from the centre
B. Inversely proportional to its distance from the centre
C. Directly proportional to its (distance)2 from the centre
D. Inversely proportional to its (distance)2 from the centre
Answer: B
381. The horizontal component of buoyant force is
A. Negligible
B. Same as buoyant force
C. Zero
D. None of the above
Answer: C
382. A flow in which the quantity of liquid flowing per second is constant, is called __________ flow.
A. Steady
B. Streamline
C. Turbulent
D. Unsteady
Answer: A
383. The divergent portion of a Venturimeter is made longer than convergent portion in order to
A. Avoid the tendency of breaking away the stream of liquid
B. To minimize frictional losses
C. BothA. andB.
D. None of these
Answer: C
384. According to Chezy’s formula, the discharge through an open channel is (where A = Area of
flow, C = Chezy’s constant, m = Hydraulic mean depth, and i = Uniform slope in bed)
A. A × √ m × i
B. C × √ m × i
C. AC × √ m × i
D. mi × √ A × C
Answer: C
385. In a free vortex motion, the radial component of velocity everywhere is
A. Maximum
B. Minimum
C. Zero
D. Nonzero and finite
Answer: C
386. Coefficient of contraction is the ratio of
A. Actual velocity of jet at vena contracta to the theoretical velocity
B. Loss of head in the orifice to the head of water available at the exit of the orifice
C. Loss of head in the orifice to the head of water available at the exit of the orifice
D. Area of jet at vena-contracta to the area of orifice
Answer: D
387. The Bernoulli’s equation is based on the assumption that
A. There is no loss of energy of the liquid flowing
B. The velocity of flow is uniform across any cross-section of the pipe
C. No force except gravity acts on the fluid
D. All of the above
Answer: D
388. The flow in a pipe is turbulent when Reynold number is
A. Less than 2000
B. Between 2000 and 2800
C. More than 2800
D. None of these
Answer: C
389. When the flow parameters at any given instant remain same at every point, then flow is said to
be
A. Quasi-static
B. Steady state
C. Laminar
D. Uniform
Answer: D
390. The total pressure on an immersed surface inclined at an angle θ with the liquid surface is
A. wA
B. wx
C. wAx
D. wA sin
Answer: C
391. Rain drops are spherical because of
A. Viscosity
B. Air resistance
C. Surface tension forces
D. Atmospheric pressure
Answer: C
392. The discharge over the trapezoidal notch is equal to the discharge over the rectangular notch
__________ the discharge over the triangular notch.
A. Plus
B. Minus
C. Divide
D. None of these
Answer: A
393. Ratio of inertia force to surface Jension is known as
A. Mach number
B. Froude number
C. Reynolds’s num er
D. We er’s num er
Answer: D
394. The sheet of water flowing over a notch or a weir is known as
A. Sill or crest
B. Nappe or vein
C. Orifice
D. None of these
Answer: B
395. A structure used to dam up a stream or river over which the water flows is called
A. Orifice
B. Notch
C. Weir
D. Dam
Answer: C
396. A body floating in a liquid is said to be in neutral equilibrium, if its metacentre
A. Coincides with its centre of gravity
B. Lies above its centre of gravity
C. Lies below its centre of gravity
D. Lies between the centre of buoyancy and centre of gravity
Answer: A
397. General energy equation holds for
A. Steady flow
B. Turbulent flow
C. Laminar flow
D. Non-uniform flow
Answer: D
398. The buoyancy depends on
A. Mass of liquid displaced
B. Viscosity of the liquid
C. Pressure of the liquid displaced
D. Depth of immersion
Answer: A
399. The centre of gravity of the volume of the liquid displaced is called
A. Centre of pressure
B. Centre of buoyancy
C. Metacentre
D. None of these
Answer: B
400. The Reynold’s number of a ship is __________ to its velocity and length.
A. Directly proportional
B. Inversely proportional
C. Square root of velocity
D. None of these
Answer: A
401. With an increase in size of tube, the rise or depression of liquid in the tube due to surface
tension will
A. Decrease
B. Increase
C. Remain unchanged
D. Depend upon the characteristics of liquid
Answer: A
402. Gauge pressure at a point is equal to the absolute pressure __________ the atmospheric
pressure.
A. Plus
B. Minus
C. Divide
D. Multiply
Answer: B
403. The dynamic viscosity of gases __________ with rise in temperature.
A. Remain unaffected
B. Increases
C. Decreases
D. None of these
Answer: B
404. The resultant upward pressure of the fluid on an immersed body due to its tendency to uplift
the submerged body is called
A. Up-thrust
B. Reaction
C. Buoyancy
D. Metacentre
Answer: C
405. The purpose of a surge tank is
A. To control the pressure variations due to rapid changes in the pipe line flow
B. To eliminate water hammer possibilities
C. To regulate flow of water to turbines by providing necessary retarding head of water
D. All of the above
Answer: D
406. Flow occurring in a pipeline when a valve is being opened is
A. Steady
B. Unsteady
C. Laminar
D. Vortex
Answer: B
407. The water pressure per metre length on a vertical masonry wall of dam is (where w = Specific
weight of the liquid, and H = Height of the liquid)
A. wH/2
B. wH
C. wH2/2
D. wH2/4
Answer: C
408. Euler’s equation in the differential form for the motion of liquids is given by
A. dp ρ g.dz v.dv = 0
B. dp ρ – g.dz + v.dv = 0
C. ρ.dp g.dz v.dv = 0
D. ρ.dp – g.dz + v.dv = 0
Answer: A
409. An open tank containing liquid is made to move from rest with a uniform acceleration. The
angle 0 which the free surface of liquid makes with the horizontal is such that (where a =
Horizontal acceleration of the tank, and g = Acceleration due to gravity)
A. tan = a g
B. tan = a g
C. tan = a g
D. tan = a g
Answer: A
410. The discharge through a small rectangular orifice is given by (where Cd = Coefficient of
discharge for the orifice, a = Cross-sectional area of the orifice, h = Height of the liquid above the
centre of the orifice)
A. Q = Cd × a × 2gh
B. Q = (2/3). Cd × a × h
C. Q = Cd × a √ gh
D. Q = 3Cd × a √ h
Answer: A
411. When a body is placed over a liquid, it will float if
A. Gravitational force is equal to the up-thrust of the liquid
B. Gravitational force is less than the up-thrust of the liquid
C. Gravitational force is more than the up-thrust of the liquid
D. None of the above
Answer: B
412. A point, in a compressible flow where the velocity of fluid is zero, is called
A. Critical point
B. Vena contracta
C. Stagnation point
D. None of these
Answer: C
413. For very great pressures, viscosity of moss gases and liquids
A. Remain same
B. Increases
C. Decreases
D. Shows erratic behavior
Answer: D
414. A weir, generally, used as a spillway of a dam is
A. Narrow crested weir
B. Broad crested weir
C. Ogee weir
D. Submerged weir
Answer: C
415. The angle of contact in case of a liquid depends upon
A. The nature of the liquid and the solid
B. The material which exists above the free surface of the liquid
C. Both of die above
D. Any one of the above
Answer: C
416. A flow in which each liquid particle has a definite path, and the paths of individual particles do
not cross each other, is called
A. Steady flow
B. Uniform flow
C. Streamline flow
D. Turbulent flow
Answer: C
417. The stability of a dam is checked for
A. Tension at the base
B. Overturning of the wall or dam
C. Sliding of the wall or dam
D. All of these
Answer: D
418. Water is _________ liquid.
A. A compressible
B. An incompressible
C. Both A and B
D. None of these
Answer: B
419. The unit of kinematic viscosity in S. I. units is
A. N-m/s
B. N-s/m2
C. m2/s
D. N-m
Answer: C
420. Bernoulli’s equation is applied to
A. Venturimeter
B. Orifice meter
C. Pitot tube
D. All of these
Answer: D
421. Manometer is used to measure
A. Pressure in pipes, channels etc.
B. Atmospheric pressure
C. Very low pressure
D. Difference of pressure between two points
Answer: A
422. The flow in which conditions do not change with time at any point, is known as
A. One dimensional flow
B. Uniform flow
C. Steady flow
D. Turbulent flow
Answer: C
423. A nozzle placed at the end of a water pipe line discharges water at a
A. Low pressure
B. High pressure
C. Low velocity
D. High velocity
Answer: D
424. The pressure of fluid due to hammer blow is
A. Directly proportional to density of fluid
B. Inversely proportional to density of fluid
C. Directly proportional to (density)1/2 of fluid
D. Inversely proportional to (density)1/2 of fluid
Answer: C
425. In order to measure the flow with a Venturimeter, it is installed in
A. Horizontal line
B. Inclined line with flow upwards
C. Inclined line with flow downwards
D. Any direction and in any location
Answer: D
426. If mercury in a barometer is replaced by water, the height of 3.75 cm of mercury will be
following cm of water
A. 51 cm
B. 50 cm
C. 52 cm
D. 52.2 cm
Answer: A
427. According to equation of continuity,
A. w1a1 = w2a2
B. w1v1 = w2v2
C. a1v1 = a2v2
D. a1/v1 = a2/v2
Answer: C
428. The discharge over a rectangular weir, considering the velocity of approach, is (whereH1 = H
+ Ha = Total height of water above the weir, H = Height of water over the crest of the weir, and Ha
= Height of water due to velocity of approach)
A. 3 Cd × L.√ g [H – Ha]
B. 3 Cd × L. √ g [H 3 – Ha3/2]
C. 3 Cd × L.√ g [H – Ha2]
D. 3 Cd × L. √ g [H 5 – Ha5/2]
Answer: B
429. The Francis formula for the discharge over Cipoletti weir is
A. 1.84 LH1/2
B. 1.84 LH
C. 1.84 LH3/2
D. 1.84 LH5/2
Answer: C
430. One poise is equal to
A. 0.1 N-s/m2
B. 1 N-s/m2
C. 10 N-s/m2
D. 100 N-s/m2
Answer: A
431. When a vertical wall is subjected to pressures due to liquid on both sides, the resultant
pressure is the __________ of the two pressures.
A. Sum
B. Difference
C. Arithmetic mean
D. Geometric mean
Answer: B
432. The mercury does not wet the glass. This is due to the property of the liquid known as
A. Cohesion
B. Adhesion
C. Viscosity
D. Surface tension
Answer: D
433. A channel is said to be of most economical cross-section, if
A. It gives maximum discharge for a given cross-sectional area and bed slope
B. It has minimum wetted perimeter
C. It involves lesser excavation for the designed amount of discharge
D. All of the above
Answer: D
434. The maximum efficiency of transmission through a pipe is
A. 50 %
B. 56.7 %
C. 66.67 %
D. 76.66 %
Answer: C
435. Ratio of inertia force to elastic force is known as
A. Mach number
B. Froude number
C. Reynolds number
D. We er’s num er
Answer: A
436. The discharge through an external mouthpiece is given by (where a = Cross-sectional area of
the mouthpiece, and H = Height of liquid above the mouthpiece)
A. 0.855 a.√ gH
B. .855 aH.√ g
C. .585 a.√ gH
D. 5.85 aH.√ g
Answer: A
437. If 850 kg liquid occupies volume of one cubic meter, men 0.85 represents its
A. Specific weight
B. Specific mass
C. Specific gravity
D. Specific density
Answer: C
438. The discharge over a rectangular notch is (where b = Width of notch, and H = Height of liquid,
above the sill of the notch)
A. 3 Cd × × √ gH
B. 3 Cd × × √ g × H
C. 3 Cd × × √ g × H3
D. 3 Cd × × √ g × H
Answer: C
439. A metal with specific gravity of ‘a’ floating in a fluid of same specific gravity ‘a’ will
A. Sink to bottom
B. Float over fluid
C. Partly immersed
D. Be fully immersed with top surface at fluid surface
Answer: D
440. In a short cylindrical external mouthpiece, the vena contracta occurs at a distance __________
the diameter of the orifice from the outlet of orifice.
A. Equal to
B. One-fourth
C. One-third
D. One-half
Answer: B
441. A submerged body is said to be in a stable equilibrium, if its centre of gravity __________ the
centre of buoyancy.
A. Coincides with
B. Lies below
C. Lies above
D. None of these
Answer: B
442. The power transmitted through the nozzle is maximum when the head lost due to friction in
the pipe is __________ of the total supply head.
A. One-half
B. One-third
C. Two-third
D. None of these
Answer: B
443. In the case of steady flow of a fluid, the acceleration of any fluid particle is
A. Constant
B. Variable
C. Zero
D. Zero under limiting conditions
Answer: C
444. The pressure at a point in a fluid will not be same in all the directions when the fluid is
A. Moving
B. Viscous
C. Viscous and static
D. Viscous and moving
Answer: D
445. The pressure of air __________ with the increase of height from the surface of the earth.
A. Does not change
B. Decreases
C. Increases
D. None of these
Answer: B
446. Froude’s number is the ratio of inertia force to
A. Pressure force
B. Elastic force
C. Gravity force
D. Surface tension force
Answer: C
447. The pressure measured with the help of a Piezometer tube is in
A. N/mm2
B. N/m2
C. Head of liquid
D. All of these
Answer: C
448. The total energy line lies over the centre line of the pipe by an amount equal to
A. Pressure head
B. Velocity head
C. Pressure head + velocity head
D. Pressure head – velocity head
Answer: C
449. Water is a __________ fluid.
A. Real
B. Ideal
C. Newtonian
D. Non-Newtonian
Answer: C
450. The resultant of all normal pressures acts
A. At C.G. of body
B. At center of pressure
C. Vertically upwards
D. At metacentre
Answer: C
451. According to Newton’s law of viscosity, the shear stress on a layer of a fluid is __________ to
the rate of shear strain.
A. Equal to
B. Directly proportional
C. Inversely proportional
D. None of these
Answer: B
452. A vessel of 4 m3 contains oil which weighs 30 kN. The specific weight of the oil is
A. 4.5 kN/m3
B. 6 kN/m3
C. 7.5 kN/m3
D. 10 kN/m3
Answer: C
453. The loss of head at entrance in a pipe is (where v = Velocity of liquid in the pipe)
A. v²/2g
B. 0.5v²/2g
C. 0.375v²/2g
D. 0.75v²/2g
Answer: B
454. The increase of temperature results in
A. Increase in viscosity of gas
B. Increase in viscosity of liquid
C. Decrease in viscosity of gas
D. Decrease in viscosity of liquid
Answer: D
455. Which of the following is an example of laminar flow?
A. Underground flow
B. Flow past tiny bodies
C. Flow of oil in measuring instruments
D. All of these
Answer: D
456. Re-entrant or Borda’s mouthpiece is an __________ mouthpiece.
A. Internal
B. External
C. Both A and B
D. None of these
Answer: A
457. The product of mass and acceleration of flowing liquid is called
A. Inertia force
B. Viscous force
C. Gravity force
D. Pressure force
Answer: A
458. The top of the weir over which the water flows is known as
A. Sill or crest
B. Nappe or vein
C. Orifice
D. None of these
Answer: A
459. The meatcentric height is the distance between the
A. Centre of gravity of the floating body and the centre of buoyancy
B. Centre of gravity of the floating body and the metacentre
C. Metacentre and centre of buoyancy
D. Original centre of buoyancy and new centre of buoyancy
Answer: B
460. The time oscillation of a floating body with increase in meatcentric height will be
A. Same
B. Higher
C. Lower
D. Lower/higher depending on weight of body
Answer: C
461. The property of a liquid which offers resistance to the movement of one layer of liquid over
another adjacent layer of liquid, is called
A. Surface tension
B. Compressibility
C. Capillarity
D. Viscosity
Answer: D
462. An internal mouthpiece is said to be running __________ if the length of the mouthpiece is
more than three times the diameter of the orifice.
A. Free
B. Partially
C. Full
D. None of these
Answer: C
463. A manometer is used to measure
A. Low pressure
B. Moderate pressure
C. High pressure
D. Atmospheric pressure
Answer: C
464. Which of the following meters is not associated with viscosity?
A. Red wood
B. Say bolt
C. Engler
D. Orsat
Answer: D
465. The specific weight of water in S.I. units is taken as
A. 9.81 kN/m3
B. 9.81 × 103 N/m3
C. 9.81 × 10-6 N/mm3
D. Any one of these
Answer: D
466. The celerity (velocity) of a pressure wave in a fluid is given by (where K = Bulk modulus, and ρ
= Density of the fluid)
A. K.ρ
B. K ρ
C. ρ K
D. None of these
Answer: B
467. A fluid having no viscosity is known as
A. Real fluid
B. Ideal fluid
C. Newtonian fluid
D. Non-Newtonian fluid
Answer: B
468. In order to avoid tendency of separation at throat in a Venturimeter, the ratio of the diameter
at throat to the diameter of pipe should be
A. 1/16 to 1/8
B. 1/8 to 1/4
C. 1/4 to 1/3
D. 1/3 to 1/2
Answer: D
469. Liquids transmit pressure equally in all the directions. This is according to
A. Boyle’s law
B. Archimedes principle
C. Pascal’s law
D. Newton’s formula
Answer: C
470. The discharge over a triangular notch is
A. Inversely proportional to H3/2
B. Directly proportional to H3/2
C. Inversely proportional to H5/2
D. Directly proportional to H5/2
Answer: D
471. A flow whose streamline is represented by a straight line, is called __________ dimensional
flow.
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
Answer: A
472. The body will float if the force of buoyancy is __________ the weight of the liquid displaced.
A. Equal to
B. Less than
C. More than
D. None of these
Answer: C
473. The velocity corresponding to Reynold number of 2000 is called
A. Sub-sonic velocity
B. Super-sonic velocity
C. Lower critical velocity
D. Higher critical velocity
Answer: C
474. A structure, whose width is __________ the width of the channel, is called a flumed structure.
A. Less than
B. More than
C. Equal
D. None of these
Answer: A
475. The force of buoyancy is always __________ the weight of the liquid displaced by the body.
A. Equal to
B. Less than
C. More than
D. None of these
Answer: A
476. The density of water is 1000 kg/m3 at
A. 0° C
B. 0° K
C. 4° C
D. 20° C
Answer: C
477. Bulk modulus of a fluid __________ as the pressure increases.
A. Remain same
B. Decreases
C. Increases
D. None of these
Answer: C
478. The coefficient of viscosity may be determined by
A. Capillary tube method
B. Orifice type viscometer
C. Rotating cylinder method
D. All of these
Answer: D
479. Center of pressure on an inclined plane is
A. At the Centroid
B. Above the Centroid
C. Below the Centroid
D. At metacentre
Answer: C
480. When the Mach number is less than unity, the flow is called
A. Sub-sonic flow
B. Sonic flow
C. Super-sonic flow
D. Hyper-sonic flow
Answer: A
481. When the pressure intensity at a point is more than the local atmospheric pressure, then the
difference of these two pressures is called
A. Gauge pressure
B. Absolute pressure
C. Positive gauge pressure
D. Vacuum pressure
Answer: C
482. If the coefficient of discharge is 0.6, then the discharge over a right angled notch is
A. 0.417 H5/2
B. 1.417 H5/2
C. 4.171 H5/2
D. 7.141 H5/2
Answer: B
483. The most efficient section of a channel is
A. Triangular
B. Rectangular
C. Square
D. Trapezoidal
Answer: D
484. A pipe of length more than double the diameter of orifice fitted externally or internally to the
orifice is called a
A. Notch
B. Weir
C. Mouthpiece
D. Nozzle
Answer: C
485. An open tank containing liquid is moving with an acceleration on an inclined plane. The
inclination of the free surface of the liquid will be __________ to the acceleration of the tank.
A. Equal to
B. Directly proportional
C. Inversely proportional
D. None of these
Answer: B
486. The coefficient of discharge for an external mouthpiece is
A. 0.375
B. 0.5
C. 0.707
D. 0.855
Answer: D
487. The process of diffusion of one liquid into the other through a semi permeable membrane is
called
A. Viscosity
B. Osmosis
C. Surface tension
D. Cohesion
Answer: B
488. One stoke is equal to
A. 10-2 m2/s
B. 10-3 m2/s
C. 10-4 m2/s
D. 10-6 m2/s
Answer: C
489. Falling drops of water become spheres due to the property of
A. Surface tension of water
B. Compressibility of water
C. Capillarity of water
D. Viscosity of water
Answer: A
490. The specific gravity of an oil whose specific weight is 7.85 kN/m3, is
A. 0.8
B. 1
C. 1.2
D. 1.6
Answer: A
491. The length of the divergent cone in a Venturimeter is __________ that of the convergent cone.
A. Equal to
B. Double
C. Three to four times
D. Five to six times
Answer: C
492. If a body floating in a liquid returns back to its original position, when given a small angular
displacement, the body is said to be in
A. Neutral equilibrium
B. Stable equilibrium
C. Unstable equilibrium
D. None of these
Answer: B
493. The stress-strain relation of the Newtonian fluid is
A. Linear
B. Parabolic
C. Hyperbolic
D. Inverse type
Answer: A
494. The viscosity of a liquid __________ its rate of flow through a hole in a vessel.
A. Effects
B. Does not effect
C. Both A and B
D. None of these
Answer: A
495. The coefficient of discharge in case of internal mouthpiece is __________ that of external
mouthpiece.
A. Less than
B. More than
C. Equal to
D. None of these
Answer: A
496. The unit of surface tension is
A. N/m
B. N/m2
C. N/m3
D. N-m
Answer: A
497. The units of dynamic or absolute viscosity are
A. Metres² per sec
B. kg sec/meter
C. Newton-sec per meter
D. Newton-sec² per meter
Answer: C
498. A notch is used to measure __________ of liquids.
A. Pressure
B. Discharge
C. Velocity
D. Volume
Answer: B
499. Euler’s number is the ratio of __________ force to pressure force.
A. Inertia
B. Gravity
C. Viscous
D. None of these
Answer: A
500. A flow in which the volume of a fluid and its density does not change during the flow is called
_________ flow.
A. Incompressible
B. Compressible
C. Viscous
D. None of these
Answer: A
501. The weight per unit volume of a liquid at a standard temperature and pressure is called
A. Specific weight
B. Mass density
C. Specific gravity
D. None of these
Answer: A
502. The efficiency of power transmission through pipe is (where H = Total supply head, and hf =
Head lost due to friction in the pipe)
A. (H – hf )/H
B. H/(H – hf )
C. (H + hf )/H
D. H/(H + hf )
Answer: A
503. The error in discharge (dQ/Q) to the error in measurement of head (dH/H) over a rectangular
notch is given by
A. dQ/Q = (1/2) × (dH/H)
B. dQ/Q = (3/4) × (dH/H)
C. dQ/Q = (dH/H)
D. dQ/Q = (3/2) × (dH/H)
Answer: D
504. The flow of water through the hole in the bottom of a wash basin is an example of
A. Steady flow
B. Uniform flow
C. Free vortex
D. Forced vortex
Answer: C
505. A flow in which the viscosity of fluid is dominating over the inertia force is called
A. Steady flow
B. Unsteady flow
C. Laminar flow
D. Turbulent flow
Answer: C
506. The hydraulic mean depth or the hydraulic radius is the ratio of
A. Area of flow and wetted perimeter
B. Wetted perimeter and diameter of pipe
C. Velocity of flow and area of flow
D. None of these
Answer: A
507. A flow whose streamline is represented by a curve, is called
A. One-dimensional flow
B. Two-dimensional flow
C. Three-dimensional flow
D. Four-dimensional flow
Answer: B
508. The value of coefficient of discharge is __________ the value of coefficient of velocity.
A. Less than
B. Same as
C. More than
D. None of these
Answer: A
509. The hydraulic mean depth for a circular pipe of diameterD. is
A. d/6
B. d/4
C. d/2
D. d
Answer: B
510. A fluid whose viscosity does not change with the rate of deformation or shear strain is known
as
A. Real fluid
B. Ideal fluid
C. Newtonian fluid
D. Non-Newtonian fluid
300+ TOP Heat Transfer MCQ Questions and Answers
Posted on April 16, 2024 by engineer6 Comments
Heat Transfer Multiple Choice Questions
1. Unit of thermal conductivity in M.K.S. units is
A. kcal/kg m2 °C
B. kcal-m/hr m2 °C
C. kcal/hr m2 °C
D. kcal-m/hr °C
E. kcal-m/m2 °C.
Answer: B
2. Unit of thermal conductivity in S.I. units is
A. J/m2 sec
B. J/m °K sec
C. W/m °K
D. A. and C. above
E. B. and C. above.
Answer: E
3. Thermal conductivity of solid metals with rise in temperature normally
A. increases
B. decreases
C. remains constant
D. may increase or decrease depending on temperature
E. unpredictable.
Answer: B
4. Thermal conductivity of non-metallic amorphous solids with decrease in temperature
A. increases
B. decreases
C. remains constant
D. may increase or decrease depending on temperature
E. unpredictable.
Answer: B
5. Heat transfer takes place as per –
A. zeroth law of thermodynamics
B. first law of thermodynamic
C. second law of the thermodynamics
D. Kirchoff’s law E. Stefan’s law.
Answer: C
6. When heat is transferred from one particle of hot body to another by actual motion of the heated
particles, it is referred to as heat transfer by
A. conduction
B. convection
C. radiation
D. conduction and convection
E. convection and radiation.
Answer: A
7. When heat is transferred form hot body to cold body, in a straight line, without affecting the
intervening medium, it is referred as heat transfer by
A. conduction
B. convection
C. radiation
D. conduction and convection
E. convection and radiation.
Answer: C
8. Sensible heat is the heat required to
A. change vapour into liquid
B. change liquid into vapour
C. increase the temperature of a liquid of vapour
D. convert water into steam and superheat it
E. convert saturated steam into dry steam.
Answer: C
9. The insulation ability of an insulator with the presence of moisture would
A. increase
B. decrease
C. remain unaffected
D. may increase/decrease depending on temperature and thickness of insulation
E. none of the above.
Answer: B
10. When heat is Transferred by molecular collision, it is referred to as heat transfer by
A. conduction
B. convection
C. radiation
D. scattering
E. convection and radiation.
Answer: B
11. Heat transfer in liquid and gases takes place by
A. conduction
B. convection
C. radiation
D. conduction and convection
E. convection and radiation.
Answer: B
12. Which of the following is the case of heat transfer by radiation
A. blast furnace
B. heating of building
C. cooling of parts in furnace
D. heat received by a person from fireplace
E. all of the above.
Answer: D
13. Heat is closely related with
A. liquids
B. energy
C. temperature
D. entropy
E. enthalpy.
Answer: C
14. Pick up the wrong case. Heat flowing from one side to other depends directly on
A. face area
B. time
C. thickness
D. temperature difference
E. thermal conductivity.
Answer: C
15. Metals are good conductors of heat because
A. their atoms collide frequently
B. their atoms-are relatively far apart
C. they contain free electrons
D. they have high density
E. all of the above.
Answer: A
16. Which of the following is a case of steady state heat transfer
A. I.C. engine
B. air preheaters
C. heating of building in winter
D. all of the above
E. none of the above.
Answer: E
17. Total heat is the heat required to
A. change vapour into liquid
B. change liquid into vapour
C. increase the temperature of a liquid or vapour
D. convert water into steam and superheat it
E. convert saturated steam into dry steam.
Answer: D
18. Cork is a good insulator because it has
A. free electrons
B. atoms colliding frequency
C. low density
D. porous body
E. all of the above.
Answer: D
19. Thermal conductivity of water in general with rise in temperature
A. increases
B. decreases
C. remains constant
D. may increase or decrease depending on temperature
E. none of the above.
Answer: D
20. Thermal conductivity of water at 20°C is of the order of
A. 0.1
B. 0.23
C. 0.42
D. 0.51
E. 0.64.
Answer: D
21. Temperature of steam at around 540°C can be measured by
A. thermometer
B. radiatiouv pyrometer
C. thermistor
D. thermocouple
E. thermopile.
Answer: D
22. Thermal conductivity of air at room temperature in kcal/m hr °C is of the order of
A. 0.002
B. 0.02
C. 0.01
D. 0.1
E. 0.5.
Answer: B
23. The time constant of a thermocouple is
A. the time taken to attain the final temperature to be measured
B. the time taken to attain 50% of the value of initial temperature difference
C. the time taken to attain 63.2% of the value of initial temperature difference
D. determined by the time taken to reach 100°C from 0°C
E. none of the above.
Answer: C
24. Thermal conductivity of air with rise in temperature
A. increases
B. decreases
C. remains constant
D. may increase or decrease depending on temperature
E. none of the above.
Answer: A
25. Heat flows from one body to other when they have
A. different heat contents
B. different specific heat
C. different atomic structure
D. different temperatures
E. none of the above.
Answer: D
26. The concept of overall coefficient of heat transfer is used in heat transfer problems of
A. conduction
B. convection
C. radiation
D. all the three combined
E. conduction and comte_ction.
Answer: E
27. In heat transfer, conductance equals conductivity (kcal/hr/sqm/°C/cm) divided by
A. hr (time)
B. sqm (area)
C. °C (temperature)
D. cm (thickness)
E. kcal (heat).
Answer: D
28. The amount of heat flow through a body by conduction is
A. directly proportional to the surface area of the body
B. directly proportional to the temperature difference on the two faces of the body
C. dependent upon the material of the body
D. inversely proportional to the thickness of the body
E. all of the above.
Answer: E
29. Which of the following has least value of conductivity
A. glass
B. water
C. plastic
D. rubber
E. air.
Answer: E
30. Which of the following is expected to have highest thermal conductivity
A. steam
B. solid ice
C. melting ice
D. water
E. boiling water.
Answer: B
31. Thermal conductivity of glass-wool varies from sample to sample because of variation in
A. composition
B. density
C. porosity
D. structure
E. all of the above.
Answer: E
32. Thermal conductivity of a material may be defined as the
A. quantity of heat flowing in one second through one cm cube of material when opposite faces ^re
maintained at a temperature difference of 1°C
B. quantity of heat flowing in one second through a slab of the material of area one cm square, thickness 1
cm when its faces differ in temperature by 1°C
C. heat conducted in unit time across unit area through unit thickness when a temperature difference of
unity is maintained between opposite faces
D. all of the above
E. none of the above.
Answer: D
33. Which of the following has maximum value of thermal conductivity
A. aluminium
B. steel
C. brass
D. copper
E. lead.
Answer: A
34. Moisture would find its way into insulation by vapour pressure unless it is prevented by
A. high thickness of insulation
B. high vapour pressure
C. less thermal conductivity insulator
D. a vapour seal
E. all of the above.
Answer: D
35. Heat is transferred by all three modes of transfer, viz, conduction, convection and radiation in
A. electric heater
B. steam condenser
C. melting of ice
D. refrigerator condenser coils
E. boiler.
Answer: E
36. According to Prevost theory of heat exchange
A. it is impossible to transfer heat from low temperature source to t high temperature source
B. heat transfer by radiation requires no medium
C. all bodies above absolute zero emit radiation
D. heat transfer in most of the cases takes place by combination of conduction, convection and radiation
E. rate of heat transfer depends on thermal conductivity and temperature difference.
Answer: C
37. The ratio of heat flow Q1/Q2 from two walls of same thickness having their thermal
conductivities as ATj – 2K2 will be
A. I
B. 0.5
C. 2
D. 0.25
E. 4.0
Answer: C
38. Heat transfer by radiation mainly depends upon
A. its temperature
B. nature of the body
C. kind and extent of its surface
D. all of the above
E. none of the above.
Answer: D
39. Thermal diffusivity is
A. a dimensionless parameter
B. function of temperature
C. used as mathematical model
D. a physical property of the material
E. useful in case of heat transfer by radiation.
Answer: D
40. Thermal diffusivity of a substance is .
A. proportional of thermal conductivity
B. inversely proportional to k
C. proportional to (k)
D. inversely proportional to k2
E. none of the above.
Answer: A
41. Unit of thermal diffusivity is
A. m2/hr
B. m2/hr°C
C. kcal/m2 hr
D. kcal/m.hr°C
E. kcal/m2 hr°C.
Answer: A
43. Thermal conductivity of wood depends on
A. moisture
B. density
C. temperature
D. all of the above
E. none of the above.
Answer: D
44. In convection heat transfer from hot flue gases to water tube, even though flow may be
turbulent, a laminar flow region (boundary layer of film) exists close to the tube. The heat transfer
through this film takes place by
A. convection
B. radiation
C. conduction
D. both convection and conduction
E. none of the above.
Answer: C
45. Film coefficient is defined as Inside diameter of tube
A. Equivalent thickness of film
B. Thermal conductivity Equivalent thickness of film Specific heat x Viscocity
C. Thermal conductivity Molecular diffusivity of momentum Thermal diffusivity
D. Film coefficient x Inside diameter Thermalconductivity
E. none of the above.
Answer: B
46. Heat conducted througfi unit area and unit thick face per unit time when temperature
difference between opposite faces is unity,is called
A. thermal resistance
B. thermal coefficient
C. temperature gradient
D. thermal conductivity
E. heat-transfer.
Answer: D
49. The rate of energy emission from unit surface area through unit solid angle, along a normal to
the surface, is known as
A. emissivity
B. transmissivity
C. reflectivity
D. intensity of radiation
E. absorptivity.
Answer: D
50. Emissivity of a white polished body in comparison to a black body is
A. higher
B. lower
C. same
D. depends upon the shape of body
E. none of the above.
Answer: B
Heat Transfer Mcqs Quiz:-
51. A grey body is one whose absorptivity
A. varies with temperature
B. varies with wavelength of the incident ray
C. is equal to its emissivity
D. does not vary with temperature and. wavelength of the incident ray
E. none of the above.
Answer: C
53. Two balls of same material and finish have their diameters in the ratio of 2 : 1 and both are
heated to same temperature and allowed to cool by radiation. Rate of cooling by big ball as
compared to smaller one will be in the ratio of
A. 1 :1
B. 2: 1
C. 1 : 2
D. 4 : 1
E. 1 : 4.
Answer: C
55. A non-dimensional number generally associated with natural convection heat transfer is
A. Grashoff number
B. Nusselt number
C. Weber number
D. Prandtl number
E. Reynold number.
Answer: A
56. LMTD in case of counter flow heat exchanger as compared-to parallel flow heat exchanger is
A. higher
B. lower
C. same
D. depends on the area of heat exchanger
E. depends on temperature conditions.
Answer: A
57. In heat exchangers, degree of approach is defined as the difference between temperatures of
A. cold water inlet and outlet
B. hot medium inlet and outlet
C. hot medium outlet and cold water inlet
D. hot medium outlet and cold water outlet
E. none of the above.
Answer: D
58. In counter flow heat exchangers
A. both the fluids at inlet (of heat ex¬changer where hot fluid enters) are in their coldest state
B. both the fluids at inlet are in their hot¬test state
C. both the fluids .at exit are in their hottest state
D. one fluid is in hottest state and other in coldest state at inlet
E. any combination is possible depending on design of heat exchanger.
Answer: B
59. A steam pipe is to be insulated by two insulating materials put over each other. For best results
A. better insulation should be put over pipe and better one over it
B. inferior insulation should be put over pipe and better one over it
C. both may be put in any order
D. whether to put inferior OIL over pipe or the better one would depend on steam temperature
E. unpredictable.
Answer: A
61. Fourier’s law of heat conduction is valid for
A. one dimensional cases only
B. two dimensional cases only
C. three dimensional cases only
D. regular surfaces having non-uniform temperature gradients
E. irregular surfaces.
Answer: A
62. According of Kirchhoff’s law,
A. radiant heat is proportional to fourth power of absolute temperature
B. emissive power depends on temperature
C. emissive power and absorptivity are constant for all bodies
D. ratio of emissive power to absorptive power is maximum for perfectly black body
E. ratio of emissive power to absorptive power for all bodies is same and is equal to the emissive power
of a perfectly black body.
Answer: E
63. All radiations in a black body are
A. reflected
B. refracted
C. transmitted
D. absorbed
E. partly reflected and partly absorbed.
Answer: D
64. According to Kirchoff’s law, the ratio of emissive power to absorptivity for all bodies is equal to
the emissive power of a
A. grey body
B. brilliant white polished body
C. red hot body
D. black body
E. none of the above.
Answer: D
65. The concept of overall coefficient of heat transfer is used in case of heat transfer by
A. conduction
B. convection
C. radiation
D. conduction and convection
E. convection and radiation.
Answer: D
66. The unit of overall coefficient of heat transfer is
A. kcal/m2
B. kcal/hr °C
C. kcal/m2 hr °C
(4) kacl/m hr °C
E. kcal/m3 hr °C.
Answer: C
68. Joule sec is the unit of
A. universal gas constant
B. kinematic viscosity
C. thermal conductivity
D. Planck’s constant
E. none of the above.
Answer: D
69. The value of Prandtl number for air is about
A. 0.1
B. 0.3
C. 0.7
D. 1.7
E. 10.5.
Answer: C
70. The value of the wavelength for maximum emissive power is given by —
A. Wien’s law
B. Planck’s law
C. Stefan’s law
D. Fourier’s law
E. Kirchhoff’s law.
Answer: A
72. Log mean temperature difference in case of counter flow compared to parallel flow will be
A. same
B. more
C. less
D. depends on other factors
E. none of the above.
Answer: B
73. The energy distribution of an ideal reflector at higher temperatures is largely in the range of
A. shorter wavelength
B. longer wavelength
C. remains same at all wavelengths
D. wavelength has nothing to do with it
E. none of the above.
Answer: A
74. Total emissivity of polished silver compared to black body is
A. same
B. higher
C. more or less same
D. very much lower
E. very much higher.
Answer: D
75. According to Stefan-Boltzmann law, ideal radiators emit radiant energy at a rate proportional
to
A. absolute temperature
B. square of temperature
C. fourth power of absolute temperature
D. fourth power of temperature
E. cube of absolute temperature.
Answer: C
76. Which of the following property of air does not increase with rise in temperature
A. thermal conductivity
B. thermal diffusivity
C. density
D. dynamic viscosity
E. kuiematic viscosity.
Answer: C
77. The unit of Stefan Boltzmann constant is
A. watt/cm2 °K
B. watt/cm4 °K
C. watt2/cm °K4
D. watt/cm2 °K4
E. watt/cm2 °K2.
Answer: D
78. In free con-vection heat transfer, Nusselt number is function of
A. Grashoff no. and Reynold no.
B. Grashoff no. and Prandtl no.
C. Prandtl no. and Reynold no.
D. Grashoff no., Prandtl no. and Reynold no.
E. none of the above.
Answer: B
79. Stefan Boltzmann law is applicable for heat transfer by
A. conduction
B. convection
C. radiation
D. conduction and radiation combined
E. convection and radiation combined.
Answer: C
80. The thermal diffusivities for gases are generally
A. more than those for liquids
B. less than those for liquids
C. more than those for solids
D. dependent on the viscosity
E. same as for the liquids.
Answer: A
81. The thermal diffusivities for solids are generally
A. less than those for gases
B. jess than those for liquids
C. more than those for liquids and gases
D. more or less same as for liquids and gases
E. zerci.
Answer: C
83. Thermal diffusivity of a substance is
A. directly proportional to thermal con¬ductivity
B. inversely proportional to density of substance
C. inversely proportional to specific heat
D. all of the above
E. none of the above.
Answer: D
85. The ratio of the emissive power and absorptive power of all bodies is the same and is equal to
the emissive power of a perfectly black body. This statement is known as
A. Krichoff’s law
B. Stefan’s law
C. Wien’ law
D. Planck’s law
E. Black body law.
Answer: A
86. According to Stefan’s law, the total radiation from a black body per second per unit area is
proportional to
A. absolute temperature
B. T2
C. T5
D. t
E. l/T.
Answer: D
87. According to Wien’s law, the wavelength corresponding to maximum energy is proportion to
A. absolute temperature (T)
B. I2
C. f
D. t
E. 1/r.
Answer: A
88. Depending on the radiating properties, a body will be white when
A. p = 0, x = 0 and a = 1
B. p=l,T = 0anda = 0
C. p = 0, x = 1 and a = 0
D. x = 0, a + p = 1
E. a = 0, x + p = 1.
where a = absorptivity, p = reflectivity, x = transmissivity
Answer: B
89. Depending on the radiating properties, a body will be black when
A. p = 0, x = 0 and a = 1
B. p= l,T = 0anda = 0
C. p = 0, x = 1 and a = 0
D. x = 0, a + p = 0
E. a = 0,x + p= 1.
where a = absorptivity, p == reflectivity, X = transmissivity.
Answer: A
90. Depending on the radiating properties, a body will be opaque when
A. p = 0, x = 0 and a = 1
B. p=l,x = 0anda = 0
C. p = 0, x = 1 and a = 0
D. x – 0, a + p = 1
E. a=0,x + p= 1.
where a = absorptivity, p = reflectivity, X = transmissivity.
Answer: D
91. The total emissivity power is .defined as the total amount of radiation emitted by a black body
per unit
A. temperature
B. thickness
C. area
D. time
E. area and time.
Answer: D
92. The ratio of the energy absorbed by the body to total energy falling on it is called
A. absorptive power
B. emissive power
C. absorptivity
D. emissivity
E. none of the above.
Answer: A
93. 40% of incident radiant energy on the surface of a thermally transparent body is reflected back.
If the transmissivity of the body be 0.15, then the emissivity of surface is
A. 0.45
B. 0.55
C. 0.40
D. 0.75
E. 0.60.
Answer: A
94. The amount of radiation mainly depends on
A. nature of body
B. temperature of body
C. type of surface of body
D. all of the above
E. none of the above.
Answer: D
95. The emissive power of a body depends upon its
A. temperature
B. wave length
C. physical nature
D. all of the above
E. none of the above.
Answer: D
96. Two plates spaced 150 mm apart are maintained at 1000°C and 70°C. The heat transfer will
take place mainly by
A. convection
B. free convection
C. forced convection
D. radiation
E. radiation and convection.
Answer: D
97. Absorptivity of a body will be equal to its emissivity
A. at all temperatures
B. at one particular temperature
C. when system is under thermal equi-librium
D. at critical temperature
E. for a polished body.
Answer: C
98. In regenerator type heat exchanger, heat transfer takes place by
A. direct mixing of hot and cold fluids
B. a complete separation between hot and cold fluids
C. flow of hot and cold fluids alternately over a surface
D. generation of heat again and again
E. indirect transfer.
Answer: C
99. A perfect black body is one which
A. is black in colour
B. reflects all heat
C. transmits all heat radiations
D. abslprbs heat radiations of all wave lengths falling on it
E. fully opaque.
Answer: D
100. Planck’s law holds good for
A. black bodies
B. polished bodies
C. all coloured bodies
D. all of the above
E. none of the above.
Answer: A
101. If the temperature of a solid surface changes form 27°C to 627°C, then its emissive power
changes in the ratio of
A. 3
B. 6
C. 9
D. 27
E. 81.
Answer: E
102. Depending on the radiating properties, body will be transparent when
A. p = 0, x = 0 and a = 1
B. p=l,x = 0,anda = 0
C. p = 0, T= l,anda = 0
D. X = 0, a + p = 1
E. a = 0,x + p= 1.
Answer: C
103. A grey body is one whose absorptivity
A. varies with temperature
B. varies with the wave length of incident ray
C. varies with both
D. does not vary with temperature and wave length of the incident ray
E. there is no such criterion.
Answer: D
300+ TOP Compressors, Gas Turbines & Jet Engines MCQs
Posted on April 16, 2024 by engineer30 Comments
Compressors, Gas Turbines and Jet Engines Multiple Choice Questions :-
1. Free air is the air at
A. atmospheric conditions at any specific location
B. 20°C and 1 kg/cm2 and relative humidity of 36%
C. 0°C and standard atmospheric conditions
D. 15°C and 1 kg/cm2
E. 25°C, 1 kg/cm2 and relative humidity of 50%.
Answer: A
2. Standard air is the air at
A. atmospheric conditions at any specific location
B. 20°C and 1 kg/cm2 and relative humidity 36%
C. 0°C and standard atmospheric conditions
D. 15°C and 1 kg/cm2
E. 25°C, 1 kg/cm2 and RH of 60%.
Answer: B
3. 1 m of air at atmospheric condition weighs approximately
A. 0.5 kg
B. 1.0 kg
C. 1.3 kg
D. 2.2 kg
E. 3.2 kg.
Answer: C
4. Adiabatic compression is one in which
A. temperature during compression remains constant
B. no heat leaves or enters the compressor cylinder during cornpression
C. temperature rise follows a linear relationship
D. work done is maximum
E. entropy decreases.
Answer: B
5. The capacity of a compressor is 5 m /mih. 5 m /min refers to
A. standard air
B. free air
C. compressed air
D. compressed air at delivery pressure
E. air sucked.
Answer: B
6. The overall isothermal eiffciency of compressor is defined as the ratio of
A. isothermal h.p. to the BHP of motor
B. isothermal h.p. to adiabatic h.p.
C. power to drive compressor to isothermal h.p.
D. work to compress air isothermally to work for actual compression
E. isothermal work to ideal work.
Answer: A
7. The- most efficient method of compressing air is to compress it
A. isothermally
B. adiabatically
C. isentropically
D. isochronically
E. as per law pV
Answer: A
8. Maximum work is done in compressing air when the compression is
A. isothermal
B. adiabatic
C. polytropic
D. any one of the above
E. none of the above.
Answer: B
9. The pressure and temperature conditions of air at the suction of compressor are
A. atmospheric
B. slightly more than atmospheric
C. slightly less than atmospheric
D. pressure slightly more than atmospheric and temperature slightly less than atmospheric
E. pressure sightly less than atmospheric and temperature slightly more than atmospheric.
Answer: e
10. Isothermal compression effeicency can be attained by running the compressor
A. at very high speed
B. at very slow speed
C. at average speed
D. at zero speed
E. isothermally.
Answer: B
11. The compressor capacity with decrease in suction temperature
A. increases
B. decreases
C. remains unaffected
D. may increase or decrease depending on compressor capacity
E. increases upto certain limit and then decreases.
Answer: A
12. Isothermal compression efficiency, even when running at high speed, can be approached by
using
A. multi-stage compression
B. cold water spray
C. both A. and B. above
D. fully insulating the cylinder
E. high stroke.
Answer: C
13. Compression efficiency is compared against
A. ideal compression
B. adiabatic compression
C. botii isothermal and adiabatic compression
D. isentropic compression
E. isothermal compression.
Answer: e
14. Aeroplanes employ following type of compressor
A. radial flow
B. axial flow
C. centrifugal
D. combination of above
E. none of the above.
Answer: B
15. Inter cooling in compressors
A. cools the delivered air
B. results in saving of power in compressing a given volume to given pressure
C. is the standard practice for big compressors
D. enables compression in two stages
E. prevents compressor jacket running very hot.
Answer: B
16. An ideal air compressor cycle without clearance on p-v diagram can be represented by
following processes
A. one adiabatic, two isobaric, and one constant volume
B. two adiabatic and two isobaric
C. two adiabatic, one isobaric and one constant volume
D. one adiabatic, one isobaric and two constant volume
E. two isobaric, two adiabatic and one constant volume.
Answer: A
17. An ideal air compressor cycle with clearance on p-v diagram can be represented by following
processes
A. one adiabatic, two isobaric, and one constant volume
B. two adiabatic and two isobaric
C. two adiabatic, one isobaric and one constant volume,
D. one adiabatic, one isobaric and two constant volume
E. two isobaric, two adiabatic and one constant volume.
Answer: B
18. What will be the volume of air at 327°C if its volume at 27°C is 1.5 m3/mt
A. 3 m3/mt .
B. 1.5 m3/mt
C. 8 m3 mt’
D. 6 m3/mt
E. 0.75 m3/mt.
Answer: A
19. The work done per unit mass of air in compression will’be least when n is equal to
A. 1
B. 1.2 ,
C. 1.3
D. 1.4
E. 1.5
Answer: A
20. Isothermal compression though most efficient, but is not -practicable because
A. ityrequires very big cylinder
B. it does not increase pressure much
C. it is impossible in practice
D. compressor has to run at very slow speed to achieve it
E. it requires cylinder to be placed in water.
Answer: D
21. Ratio of indicated H.P. and brake H.P. is known as
A. mechanical efficiency
B. volumetric efficiency
C. isothermal efficiency
D. adiabatic efficiency
E. relative efficiency.
Answer: A
22. The ratio of work doen per cycle to the swept volume in case of compressor is called
A. compression index
B. compression ratio
C. compressor efficiency
D. mean effective pressure
E. compressor effectiveness.
Answer: D
23. Cylinder clearance in a compressor should be
A. as large as possible
B. as small as possible
C. about 50% of swept volume
D. about 100% of swept volume
E. none of the above.
Answer: B
24. Ratio of compression is the ratio of
A. gauge discharge pressure to the gauge intake pressure
B. absolute discharge pressure to the ab-solute intake pressure
C. pressures at discharge and suction cor-responding to same temperature
D. stroke volume and clearance volume
E. none of the above.
Answer: B
25. Clearance volume in actual reciprocating compressors is essential
A. to accommedate Valves in the cylinder head
B. to provide cushioning effect
C. to attain high volumetric efficiency
D. to avoid mechanical bang of piston with cylinder head
E. to provide cushioning effect and also to avoid mechanical bang of piston with cylinder head.
Answer: e
26. The net work input required for compressor with increase in clearance volume
A. increases
B. decreases
C. remains same
D. increases/decreases depending on com-pressor capacity
E. unpredictable.
Answer: C
27. Ratio of indicated h.p. to shaft h.p. in known as
A. compressor efficiency
B. isothermal efficiency
C. volumetric efficiency
D. mechanical efficiency
E. adiabatic efficiency.
Answer: D
28. Volumetric efficiency is
A. the ratio of stroke volume to clearance volume
B. the ratio of the air actually delivered to the amount of piston displacement
C. reciprocal of compression ratio
D. index of compressor performance
E. proportional to compression ratio.
Answer: B
29. Volumetric efficiency of air compressors is of the order of
A. 20-30%
B. 40-50%
C. 60-70%
D. 70-90%
E. 90-100%.
Answer: D
30. Volumetric efficiency of a compressor with clearance volume
A. increases with increase in compression ratio
B. decreases with increase in compression ratio
C. in not dependent upon compression ratio
D. may increase/decrease depending on compressor capacity
E. unpredictable.
Answer: B
31. Volumetric efficiency of a compressor without clearance volume
A. increases with increase in compression ratio
B. decreases with increase in compression ratio
C. is not dependent upon compressin ratio
D. may increase/decrease depending on compressor capacity
E. unpredictable.
Answer: C
32. The clearance volume of the air compressor is kept minimum because
A. it allows maximum compression to be achieved
B. it greatly affects volumetric efficiency
C. it results in minimum work
D. it permits isothermal compression
E. none of the above.
Answer: B
33. Euler’s equation is applicable for
A. centrifugal compressor
B. axial compressor
C. pumps
D. all of the above
E. none of the above.
Answer: D
40. Out of the following, from where you will prefer to take intake for air compressor
A. from an air conditioned room maintained at 20°C
B. from outside atmosphere at 1°C
C. from coal yard side
D. from a side where cooling tower is located nearby
E. from any one of the above locations.
Answer: D
41. Mining industry usually employs following motive power
A. A.C. electric motor
B. compressed air
C. petrol engine
D. diesel engine
E. D.C. electric motor.
Answer: B
42. Which is false statement about air receivers
A. These are used to dampen pulsations ,
B. These act as reservoir to- take care of sudden demands
C. These increase compressor efficiency
D. These knock out some oil and moisture
E. These reduce frequent on/off operation of compressors.
Answer: C
44. An air receiver is to be placed outside. Should it be placed in
A. sun
B. shade
C. rain
D. enclosed room
E. anywhere.
Answer:
45. Which is false statement about multistage compression .
A. Power consumption per unit of air delivered is low
B. Volumetric efficiency is high
C. It is best suited for compression ratios around 7:1
D. The moisture in air is condensed in the intercooler
E. Outlet temperature is reduced.
Answer: B
46. In multistage compressor, the isothermal compression is achieved by
A. employing intercooler
B. by constantly cooling the cylinder
C. by running compressor at very slow speed
D. by insulating the cylinder
E. none of the above.
Answer: C
47. Reciprocating air compressor is best suited for
A. large quantity of air at high pressure
B. small quantity of air at high pressure
C. small quantity of air at low pressure
D. large quantity of air at low pressure
E. any one of the above.
Answer: A
48. Rotary compressor is best suited for
A. large quantity of air at high pressure
B. small quantity of air at high pressure
C. small quantity of air at low pressure
D. large quantity of air at low pressure
E. any one of the above.
Answer: B
49. The capacity of compressor will be highest when its intake temperature is
A. lowest
B. highest
C. anything.
D. atmospheric
E. none of the above.
Answer: D
50. After-cooler is used to
A. cool the air
B. decrease the delivery temperature for ease in handling
C. cause moisture and oil vapour to drop out
D. reduce volume
E. increase pressure.
Answer: C
51. To aviod moisture troubles, the compressed air main line should
A. rise gradually towards the point of use
B. drop gradually towards the point of use
C. be laid vertically
D. be laid exactly horizontally
E. none of the above
Answer: B
52. Separators in compressor installations are located
A. before intercooler
B. after intercooler
C. after receiver
D. between after-cooler and air receiver
E. before suction.
Answer: D
53. The area of actual indicator diagram on an air compressor as compared to area of ideal
indicator diagram is
A. less
B. more
C. same
D. more/less depending on compressor capacity
E. unpredictable.
Answer: B
54. An air compressor may be controlled by
A. throttle control B. clearance control
C. blow-off control
D. any one of the above
E. none of the above.
Answer: D
55. The compressor efficiecny is the
A. isothermal H.P/indicated H.R
B. isothermal H.P./shaft H.R
C. total output/air input
D. compression work/motor input
E. none Of the above.
Answer: A
56. To avoid moisture troubles, the branch connections from compressed air lines should be taken
from
A. top side of main
B. bottom side of main
C. left side of main
D. right side of main
E. any location.
Answer: A
57. The thrust on the rotor in a centrifugal compressor is produced by
A. radial component
B. axial component
C. tangential component
D. resultant component
Answer: B
58. The compressor performance at higher altitude compared to sea level will be
A. same
B. higher
C. lower
D. dependent on other factors
E. none of the above.
Answer: C
59. A compressor at high altitude will draw
A. more power
B. less power
C. same power
D. more/less power depending on other factors
E. none of the above.
Answer: B
60. During peak load periods, the best method of controlling compressors is
A. start-stop motor
B. constant speed unloader
C. relief valve
D. variable speed
E. none of the above.
Answer: B
61. A centrifugal compressor works on the principle of
A. conversion of pressure energy into kinetic energy
B. conversion of kinetic energy into pres¬sure energy
C. centripetal action
D. generating pressure directly
E. combination of A. and D..
Answer: B
62. For a compressor, least work will be done if the compression is
A. isentropic
B. isothermal
C. polytropic
D. somewhere in between isentropic and isothermal
E. none of the above.
Answer: B
67. In a compressor, free air delivered is the actual volume delivered at the stated pressure reduced to
D. N.T.P. conditions
B. intake temperature and pressure conditions
C. 0°C and 1 kg/cm2
D. 20°C and 1 kg/cm2
E. none of the above.
Answer: B
68. The volumetirc efficiency of a compressor is calculated on the basis of
A. volume of air inhaled at working conditions
B. volume of air inhaled at N.T.P. conditions
C. volume at 0°C and 1 kg/cm2
D. volume at 20°C and 1 kg/cm2
E. none of the above.
Answer: B
69. The volumetric efficiency of a compressor falls roughly as follows for every 100 m increase in
elevation
A. 0.1%
B. 0.5%
C. 1.0%
D. 5%
E. 10%.
Answer: C
70. For slow-speed large capacity compressor, following type of valve will be best suited
A. poppet valve
B. mechanical valve of the corliss, sleeve, rotary or semirotary type
C. disc or feather type
D. any of the above
E. none of the above.
Answer: C
71. During base load operation, the best method of controlling compressor is
A. start-stop motor
B. constant speed unloader
C. relief valve
D. variable speed
E. none of the above.
Answer: A
72. More than one stage will be preferred for reciprocating compressor if the delivery pressure is more
than
A. 2 kg/cm2
B. 6 kg/cm2
C. 10 kg/cm2
D. 14.7 kg/cm2
E. none of the above.
Answer: A
73. The advantage of multistage compression over single stage compression is
A. lower power consumption per unit of air delivered
B. higher volumetric efficiency
C. decreased discharge temperature
D. moisture free air
E. all of the above.
Answer: e
74. Pick up the wrong statement about advantages of multistage compression
A. better lubrication is possible advantages of multistage
B. more loss of air due to leakage past the cylinder
C. mechanical balance is better
D. air can be cooled perfectly in between
E. more uniform torque, light cylinder and saving in work.
Answer: B
75. As the value of inde ‘«’ is decreased, the volumetric efficiency will
A. increase
B. decrease
C. remain unaffected
D. may increase/decrease depending on compressor clearance
E. none of the above.
Answer: B
76. The ratio of outlet whirl velocity to blade velocity in case of centrifugal compressor is called
A. slip factor
B. velocity factor
C. velocity coefficient
D. blade effectiveness
Answer: A
79. Losses in a centrifugal compressor are due to
A. inlet losses
B. impeller channel losses
C. diffuser losses
D. all of the above
E. none of the above
Answer: D
80. The volumetric efficiency of a compressor falls roughly as follows for every 5°C increase in
atmospheric temperature
A. 0.1%
B. 0.5%
C. 1%
D. 5%
(e ) 10%.
Answer: C
81. The indicated work per unit mass of air delivered is
A. directly proportional to clearance volume
B. greatly affected by clearance volume
C. not affected by clearance volume
D. inversely proportional to clearance volume
Answer: C
89. For actual single stage centrifugal compressor, the maximum pressure ratio is of the order of
A. 1 : 1.2
B. 1 : 2
C. 1 : 4
D. 1 : 10
E. 1 : 1
Answer:
90. Which is false statement about advantages of multistage compressor in comparison to single stage
compressor
A. less power requirement
B. better mechanical balance
C. less loss of air due to leakage past the cylinder
D. more effective lubrication
E. lower volumetric efficiency.
Answer: e
91. The ratio of isentropic work to Euler work is known as
A. pressure coefficient
B. work coefficient
C. polytropic reaction
D. slip factor
E. compressor efficiency.
Answer: A
92. The criterion of the thermodynamic efficiency for rotary compressor is
A. isentropic compression
B. isothermal compression
C. polytropic compression
D. any one of the above
E. none of the above.
Answer: A
93. For supplying intermittent small quantity of air at high pressure, following compressor is best suited
A. centrifugal
B. reciprocating
C. axial
D. screw
E. turbo jet.
Answer: B
94. For minimum work in multistage compression, assuming same index of compression in all stages
A. work done in first stage should be more
B. work done in subsequent stages should increase
C. work done in subsequent stages should decrease
D. work done in all stages should be equal
E. work done in any stage is no criterion for minimum work but depends on other factors.
Answer: D
95. For a two stage compressor* if index of compression for higher stage is greater than index of
compression for lower stage, then the optimum pressure as compared to ideal case will
A. increase
B. decrease
C. remain unaffected
D. other factors control it
E. unpredictable.
Answer: A
96. Diffuser in a compressor is used to
A. increase velocity
B. make the flow stream-line
C. convert pressure energy into kinetic energy
D. convert kinetic energy into pressure energy
E. increase degree of reaction.
Answer: D
98. The ratio of isentropic work to euler’s work is known as
A. compressor efficiency
B. isentropic efficiency
C. Euler’s efficiency
D. pressure coefficient
E. pressure ratio.
Answer: D
99. The thermodynamic efficiency of rotary compressor is based on
A. isothermal compression
B. adiabatic compression
C. isentropic compression
D. polytropic compression
E. none of the above.
Answer: B
100. Phenomenon of choking in compressor means
A. no flow of air
B. fixed mass flow rate regardless of pressure ratio
C. reducing mass flow rate with increase in pressure ratio
D. increased inclination of chord with air steam
E. does not occur.
Answer: B
Compressors, Gas Turbines and Jet Engines Interview Questions and Answers :-
101. The maximum compression ratio in an actual single stage axial flow comperssor is of the order of
A. 1 : 1.2
B. 1 : 2
C. 1 : 5
D. 1 : 10
E. 1 : 1
Answer: A
102. Maximum delivery pressure is a rotary air compressor is of the order of
A. 6 kg/cm2
B. 10 kg/cm2
C. 16 kg/cm2
D. 25 kg/cm2
E. 40 kg/cm2.
Answer: B
103. Surging is the phenomenon of
A. air stream blocking the passage
B. motion of air at sonic velocity
C. unsteady, periodic and reversed flow
D. air stream not able to follow the blade contour
E. production of no air pressure.
Answer: C
104. Pick up wrong statement.
Surging phenomenon in centrifugal com-pressor depends on
A. mass flow rate
B. pressure ratio
C. change in load
D. stagnation pressure at the outlet
E. all of the above.
Answer: D
105. The ratio of the increase in pressure in rotor blades to total increase in pressure in the stage is called
A. pressure ratio
B. pressure coefficient
C. degree of reaction
D. slip factor
E. stage factor.
Answer: C
106. Axial flow compressor resembles
A. centrifugal pump
B. reciprocating pump
C. turbine
D. sliding vane compressor
E. none of the above.
Answer: C
107. Axial flow compressor has the following advantage over centrifugal compressor
A. larger air handling ability per unit frontal area
B. higher pressure ratio per stage
C. aerofoil blades are used
D. higher average velocities
E. none of the above.
Answer: A
108. Actual compression curve is
A. same as isothermal
B. same as adiabatic
C. better than isothermal and adiabatic
D. in between isothermal and adiabatic
E. none of the above.
Answer: D
109. Atmospheric pressure is 1.03 kg/cm and vapour pressure is 0.03 kg/cm . The air pressure will be
A. 1.03 kg/cm2
B. 1.06 kg/cm2
C. 1.00 kg/cm2
D. 0.53 kg/cm2
E. 0.5 kg/cm2.
Answer: C
110. The pressure ratio of an ideal vaned compressor with increase in mass flow rate
A. increases
B. decreases
C. remains constant
D. first decreases and then increases
E. unpredictable.
Answer: C
111. Rotary compressors are suitable for
A. large discharge at high pressure
B. low discharge at high pressure
C. large discharge at low pressure
D. low discharge at low pressure
E. there is no such limitation.
Answer: C
112. The vloumetric efficiency of compressor with increase in compression ratio will
A. increase
B. decrease
C. remain same
D. may increase/decrease depending on clearance volume
E. none of the above.
Answer: B
113. Stalling of blades in axial flow compressor is the phenomenon of
A. air stream blocking the passage
B. motion of air at sonic velocity
C. unsteady periodic and reversed flow
D. air stream not able to follow the blade contour
E. production of no air pressure.
Answer: D
114. Pick up the wrong statement
A. centrifugal compressors deliver prac-tically constant pressure over a considerable range of capacities
B. Axial flow compressors have a sub-stantially constant delivery at variable pressures
C. centrifugal compressors have a wider stable operating range than axial flow compressors
D. axial flow compressors are bigger in diameter compared to centrifugal type
E. axial flow compressors apt to be longer as compared to centrifugal type.
Answer: D
115. The work ratio of a gas turbine plant is defined as the ratio of
A. net work output and heat supplied (6) net work output and work done by tur¬bine
C. actual heat drop and isentropic heat drop
D. net work output and isentropic heat drop
E. isentropic increase/drop in tempera¬ture and actual increase/ drop in temperature.
Answer: B
116. Gas turbine works on
A. Brayton or Atkinson cycle
B. Carnot cycle
C. Rankine cycle
D. Erricsson cycle
E. Joule cycle.
Answer: A
117. The work ratio of simple gas turbine cycle depends on
A. pressure ratio
B. maximum cycle temperature
C. minimum cycle temperature
D. all of the above
E. none of die above.
Answer: D
118. The pressure ratio for an open cycle gas turbine compared to closed cycle gas turbine of same h.p. is
A. low
B. high
C. same
D. low/high depending on make and type
E. unpredictable.
Answer: A
119. Open cycle gas turbine works on
A. Brayton or Atkinson cycle
(6) Rankine cycle
C. Carnot cycle
D. Erricsson cycle
E. Joule cycle.
Answer: A
120. The fuel consumption in gas turbines is accounted for by
A. low.er heating value
B. higher heating value
C. heating value
D. higher calorific value
E. highest calorific value.
Answer: A
121. Gas turbines for power generaion are normally used
A. to supply base load requirements
B. to supply peak load requirements
C. to enable start thermal power plant
D. in emergency
E. when other sources of power fail.
Answer: B
122. Mechanical efficiency of gas turbines as compared to I.C engines is
A. higher
B. lower
C. same
D. depends on on odier considerations
E. unpredictable.
Answer: A
123. The ratio of specific weighf/h.p. of gas turbin and I.C engines may be typically of the order of
A. 1 : 1
B. 2 : 1
C. 4 : 1
D. 1:2
E. 1 : 6.
Answer: e
124. The thermal efficiency of a gas turbine as compared to a diesel plant is
A. same
B. more
C. less
D. depends on other factors
E. unpredictably.
Answer: C
125. The air-fuel ratio in gas turbines is of the order of
A. 7 : 1
B. 15 : 1
C. 30 : 1
D. 40 : 1
E. 50: 1.
Answer: e
126. The pressure ratio in gas turbines is of the order of
A.,2:l
B.4:1
C. 61: 1
D. 9 : 1
E. 12:1.
Answer: C
128. The hottest point in a gas turbine is
A. at the base
B. at the tip
C. in the center
D. between ~ to i of the blade height
E. uniformly heated.
Answer: D
129. The following is true for an open cycle gas turbine having exhaust heat exchanger. Atmospheric air
before entering the compressor is
A. heated
B. compressed air before entering the combustion chamber is heated
C. bled gas from turbine is heated and readmitted for complete expansion
D. exhaust gases drive the compressor
E. part of exhaust gases are heated and mixed up with atmospheric air to utilise exhaust heat.
Answer: B
130. Gas turbine blades are given a rake
A. equal to zero
B. in the direction of motion of blades
C. opposite to the direction of motion of blades
D. depending on the velocity
E. none of the above.
Answer: B
131. Efficiency of gas turbine is increased by
A. reheating
B. inter cooling
C. adding a regenerator
D. all of the above
E. none of the above.
Answer: C
132. Temperature of gases at end of compression as compared to exhaust gases in a gas turbine is
A. higher
B. lower
C. equal
D. can’t e compared
E. unpredictable.
Answer: B
133. The ideal efficiency of simple gas turbine cycle depends on
A. pressure ratio
B. maximum cycle temperature
C. minimum cycle temperature
D. all of the above
E. none of the above.
Answer: A
134. The thermal efficiency of a simple gas turbine for a given turbine inlet temperature with increase in
pressure ratio
A. increases
B. decreases
C. first increases and then decreases
D. first decreases and then increases
E. remains same.
Answer: A
135. Gas turbines use following type of air compressor
A. centrifugal type
B. reciprocating type
C. lobe type
D. axial flow type
E. none of the above.
Answer: D
136. As the turbine inlet temperature increases, the thermal efficiency of gas turbine for the optimum
pressure ratio
A. increases
B. decreases
C. remains same
D. first increases and then decreases
E. first decreases and then increases.
Answer: A
137. There is a certain pressure ratio (optimum) for a gas turbine at which its thermal efficiency is
maximum. With increase in turbine temperature, the value of pressure ratio for the peak efficiency would
A. remain same
B. decrease
C. increase
D. unpredictable
E. none of the above.
Answer: C
138. The material commonly used for air craft gas turbine is
A. stainless steel
B. high alloy’ steel
C. duralumin
D. Timken, Haste and Inconel allpys
E. titanium.
Answer: D
139. It is not possible to use closed gas turbine cycle in aeronautical engines because
A. it is inefficient
B. it is bulky
C. it requires cooling water for its operation
Answer: C
140. The combustion efficiency of a gas turbine using perfect combustion chamber is of the order of
A. 50%
B. 75%
C. 85%
D. 90%
(e ) 99%.
Answer: e
141. The jnaximum combustion pressure in gas turbine as compared to I.C. engine is
A. more
B. less
C. same
D. depends on other factors
E. unpredictable.
Answer: B
142. For an irreversible gas turbine cycle, the efficiency and work ratio both depend on
A. pressure ratio alone
B. maximum cycle temperature alone
C. minimum cycle temperature alone
D. both pressure ratio and maximum cycle temperature
E. none of the above.
Answer: D
143. Producer gas is produced by
A. carbonisation of coal
B. passing steam over incandescent coke
C. passing air and a large amount of steam over waste coal at about 65°C
D. partial combustion of coal, coke, anthracite coal or charcoal in a mixed air steam blast
E. same way as the natural gas.
Answer: D
144. Water gas is produced by
A. carbonisation of coal
B. passing steam over incandescent coke
C. passing air and a large amount of steam over waste coal at about 65°C
D. partial combustion of caol, eke, anthractie coal or charcoal in a mixed air steam blast
E. same way as the natural gas.
Answer: B
14 Water is injected in gas turbine cycle to
A. control temperature
B. control output of turbine
C. control fire hazards
D. increase efficiency
E. it is never done.
Answer: B
146. A gas turbine used in air craft should have
A. high h.p. and low weight
B. low weight and small frontal area
C. small frontal area and high h.p.
D. high speed and high h.p.
E. all of the above.
Answer: B
148. The closed cycle in gas turbines
A. provides greater flexibility
B. provides lesser flexibility
C. in never used
D. is used when gas is to be burnt
E. none of the above.
Answer: A
149. In the axial flow gas turbine, the work ratio is the ratio of
A. compressor work and turbine work
B. output and input
C. actual total head tempeature drop to the isentrpic total head drop from total head inlet to static head
outlet
D. actual compressor work and theoretical comprssor work
E. none of the above.
Answer: C
150. The degree of reaction of an axial flow turbine is the ratio of isentropic temperature drop in a blade
row to the
A. adiabatic temperature drop in the stage
B. total temperature drop
C. total temperature drop in the stage
D. total adiabaitc temperature drop
E. difference of maximum and minimum temperature in the cycle.
Answer: C
153. If infinite number of heaters be used in a gas turbine, then expansion process in turbine approaches
A. isothermal
B. isentropic
C. adiabatic
D. isochoric
E. isobaric.
Answer: A
154. Pick up the correct statement
A. gas turbine uses low air-fuel ratio to economise on fuel
B. gas turhine uses high air-fuel ratio to reduce outgoing temperature
C. gas turbine uses low air-fuel ratio to develop the high thrust required
D. all of the above
E. none of the above.
Answer: B
15 Intercooling in gas turbine results in
A. increase in net output but decrease in thermal efficiency
B. increase in thermal efficiency but decrease in net output
C. increase in both thermal efficiency and net output
D. decrease in both thermal efficiency and net output
E. none of the above.
Answer: A
156. If V, U and Vr represent the absolute velocity of fluid, velocity of blade, and relative velocity of
fluid, and suffix i and o stand for entry and exit conditions, then in a rotary machine whose degree of
reaction is unity
A.Vi=V0
B.Vt>V0
C. U,<V0
D.V,= U0
E. Vri=Vm.
Answer: A
157. Pick up the wrong statement
A. large gas turbines employ axial flow compressors
B. axial flow compressors are more stable than centrifugal type compressors but not as efficient
C. axial flow compressors have high capacity and efficiency
D. axial flow compressors have instability region of operation
E. centrifugal compressors are used mainly on low flow pressure ratio gas turbines.
Answer: B
158. The power available for take off and climb in case of turbojet engine as compared to reciprocating
engine is
A. less
B. more
C. same
D. may be less or more depending on ambient conditons
E. unpredictable.
Answer: A
159. Pick up the correct statement
A. large gas turbines use radial inflow turbines
B. gas turbines have their blades similar to steam turbine
C. gas .tur ine’s lade will appear as impulse section at the hu and as a reaction section at tip
D. gas turbines use both air and liquid cooling
E. all of the above are correct.
Answer: C
160. A closed gas turbine in which fuel is burnt directly in the air is not possible because of
A. high pressure ratio
B. increasing gas temperature
C. high specific volume
D. high friction losses
E. paucity of 02.
Answer: e
161. Choose the correct statement
A. gas turbine requires lot of cooling water
B. gas turbine is capable of rapid start up and loading
C. gas turbines have flat efficiency at part loads
D. gas turbines have high standby losses and require lot of maintenance
E. gas turbines can be used to generate power only.
Answer: B
162. Ram compression in turbojet involves
A. reduction of speed of incoming air and conversion of part of it into pressure energy
B. compression of inlet air
C. increasing speed of incoming air
D. lost work
E. leakage losses.
Answer: A
163. In gas turbines^ high thermal efficiency is obtained in
A. closed cycle
B. open cycle
C. both of the above
D. closed/open depending on other con-siderations
E. unpredictable.
Answer: A
164. In the cross compounding of the gas turbine plant
A. h.p. compressor L connected to h.p. turbine and l.p. compressor ot l.p. tur-bine
B. h.p. compressor is connected to l.p. turbine and l.p. compressor is con-nected to h.p. turbine
C. both the arrangements can be employed
D. all are connected in series
E. none of the above.
Answer: B
16 A jet engine works on the principle of conservation of
A. mass
B. energy
C. flow
D. linear momentum
E. angular momentum.
Answer: D
166. In jet engines, for the efficient production of large power, fuel is burnt in an atmosphere of
A. vacuum
B. atmospheric air
C. compressed air
D. oxygen alone
E. liquid hydrogen.
Answer: C
167. Which of the following fuels can be used in turbojet engines
A. liquid hydrogne
B. high speed diesel oil
C. kerosene
D. demethylated spirit
E. methyl alcohol
Answer: C
168. Turbo propeller has the^following additional feature over the turbojet
A. peopeller
B. diffuser
C. intercooler
D. turbine and combustion chamber
E. starting engine.
Answer: A
169. Propulsive efficiency is defined as ratio of
A. thrust power and fuel energy
B. engine output and propulsive power
C. propulsive power and fuel input
D. thrust power and propulsive power
E. none of the above.
Answer: D
170. In jet engines, paraffin is usually used as the fuel because of its
A. high calorific value
B. ease of atomisation
C. low freezing point
D. A. and C. above
E. none of the above.
Answer: D
171. A rocket engine for the combustion of its fuel
A. carries its own oxygen
B. uses surrounding air
C. uses compressed atmospheric air
D. does not require oxygen
E. depends on electrical energy supplied by solar cells.
Answer: A
172. A rocket works with maximum overall efficiency when air craft velocity is equal to the
A. jet velocity
B. twice the jet velocity
C. half the jet velocity
D. average of the jet velocity
E. no such co-relationship with jet velocity exists.
Answer: C
173. Propulsion efficiency of the following order-is obtained in practice
(ti) 34%
B. 50%
C. 60%
D. 72%
E. 85%.
Answer: C
174. The maximum propulsion efficiency of a turbojet is attained at around following speed –
A. 550 km/hr
B. 1050km/hr
C. 1700 km/hr
D. 2400km /hr
E. 4000 km/hr.
Answer: D
17 In jet propulsion power unit, the inlet duct of diverging shape is used in order to
A. collect more air
B. convert kinetic energy of air into pres-sure energy
C. provide robust structure
D. beautify the shape
E. none of the above
Answer: B
176. In jet engines the products of combustion after passing through the gas lurbine are discharged into
A. atmosphere
B. back to the compressor
C. discharge nozzle
D. vacuum
E. none of the above.
Answer: C
177. The air entry velocity m a rocket as compared to aircraft is
A. same
B. more
C. less
D. zero
E. dependent on power and speed.
Answer: D
183. The weight per horse power ratio for gas. turbine as compared to I.C. engine and steam turbine is
A. same
B. higher
C. lower
D. uncomparable
E. unpredictable.
Answer: C
184. Fighter bombers use following type of engine
A. turbo-jet
B. turbo-propeller
C. rocket
D. ram-jet ,
E. pulsojet.
Answer: A
18 Pick up the wrong statement
A. pulsojet requires no ambient air for propulsion
B. ramjet-engine has no turbine
C. turbine drives compressor in a burbojet
D. bypass turbo-jet engine increases the thrust without adversely affecting, the propulsive efficiency and
fuel economy
E. propeller is an indirect reaction device.
Answer: A
186. Thrust of a jet propulsion power unit can be increased by
A. burning fuel after gas turbine
B. injecting water in the compressor
C. injecting ammonia into the combustion chamber
D. all of the three above
E. none of the above.
Answer:
187. The blades of gas turbine are made of
A. mild steel
B. stainless steel
C. carbon steel
D. high alloy seel
E. high nicket alloy (neimonic).
Answer: e
188. The following property is most important for material used for gas turbine blade
A. toughness
B. fatigue
C. creep
D. corrosion resistance
E. bulk modulus.
Answer: C
189. The effective power of gas turbines is increased by adding the following in compressor
A. ammonia and water vapour
B. carbon dioxide
C. nitrogen
D. hydrogen
E. none of the above.
Answer: A
190. High air-fuel ratio is used in gas turbines
A. to increase the output
B. to increase the efficiency
C. to save fuel
D. to reduce the exit temperature
E. none of the above.
Answer: D
191. Air-fuel ratio in a jet engine will be of the order of
A. 10: 1
B. 15: 1
C. 20 : 1
D. 60 : 1
E. 100 : 1.
Answer: D
192. In which case the air-fuel ratio is likely to be maximum
A. 2-stroke engine
B. 4-stroke petrol engine
C. 4-stroke diesef engine
D. multi-cylinder engine
E. gas turbine.
Answer: e
193. In jet engines the compression ratio
A. varies as square root of the speed
B. Varies linearly to the speed
C. varies as square of the speed
D. varies as cube of the speed
E. is constant irrespective of variation in speed.
Answer: C
194. The specific output per kg mass flow rate of a gas turbine (having fixed efficiencies of
compressor and turine and fixed higher and lower temperature) with increase in pressure ratio will
A. increase first at fast rate and then slow
B. increase first at slow rate and then fast
C. decrease continuously
D. first increase, reach maximum and then decrease
E. none of the above.
Answer: D
195. The working fluid in ai turbine is
A. in two phases
B. in three phases
C. in a single phase
D. in the form of air and water mixture
E. gas and no air.
Answer: C
196. Gas turbine cycle with regenerator
A. increases thermal efficiency
B. allows high compression ratio
C. decreases heat loss is exhaust
D. allows operation at very high altitudes
E. permits high moisture content fuel to be used.
Answer: A
197. The compression ratio in a gas turbine is of the roder of
A. 3.5 : 1
B. 5 : 1
C. 8 : 1
D. 12 : 1
E. 20 : 1.
Answer: C
198. Reheating in multistage expansion gas turbine results in
A. high thermal efficiency
B. reduction in compressor work
C. decrease of heat loss in exhaust
D. maximum work output
E. none of the above.
Answer: D
199. The main purpose of reheating in gas turbine is to
A. increase temperature
B. reduce turbine size
C. increase power output
D. increase speed
E. increase pressure ratio.
Answer: C
200. Reheating in gas turbine results in
A. increase of work ratio
B. decrease of thermal efficiency
C. decrease of work ratio
D. both A. and B. above
E. both B. and C. above.
Answer: D
201. Work ratio of a gas turbine plant is ratio of
A. net work output and work done by turbine
B. net work output and heat supplied
C. work done by turbine and heat supplied
D. work done by turbine and net work output
E. actual/heat drop and isentropic heat drop.
Answer: A
202. Work ratio of a gas turbine may be improved by f
A. decreasing the compression work
B. increasing the compression work
C. increasing the turbine work
D. decreasing the turbine work
E. A. and C. above.
Answer: e
203. Maximum temprature in a gas turbine is of the order of COMPRESSORS, GAS TURBINES
AND JET ENGINES
A. 2500°C
B. 2000°C
C. 1500°C
D. 1000°C
E. 700°C.
Answer: e
215. In the aircraft propellers
A. the propulsive matter is caused to flow around the propelled body
B. propulsive matter is ejected from within the propelled body
C. its functioning does not depend on presence of air
D. all of the above
E. none of the above.
Answer: D
216. In air breathing jet engine, the jet is formed by expading
A. gases
B. solids
C. liquid
D. plasma
E. highly heated atmospheric air.
Answer: e
217. Ram-jet engine
A. is self-operating at zero flight speed
B. is not self-operating at zero^flight speed
C. requires no air for its operation
D. produces a jet consisting of plasma
E. none of the above.
Answer: B
218. For speed above 3000 km/hour, it is more advantageous to use
A. turbo-jet engine
B. ram-jet engine
C. propellers
D. rockets
E. hydraulic jet propulsion.
Answer: B
219. A simple turbo-jet engine is basically
A. a propeller system
B. gas-turbine engine equipped with a propulsive nozzle and diffuse*
C. chemical rocket regine
D. ram-jet enigne
E. none of the above.
Answer: B
220. Which of the following plants is smallest and lightest for genrating a given amount of power
A. steam power plant
B. petrol engine
C. diesel engine’
D. solar plant
E. gas turbine plant.
Answer: e
221. In turbo fan engine, the jet velocity as compared to turbo-jet engine is
A. less
B. more
C. same
D. may be less or more depening upon speed
E. none of the above.
Answer: A
222. Turbofan engine employs
A. one air stream
B. two or more air streams
C. no air stream
D. solid fuel firing
E. rocket principle for its operation.
Answer: B
223. Pressure ratio in gas turbines is the ratio of
A. compressor pressure ratio
B. highest pressure to exhaust pressure
C. inlet pressure to exhaust pressure
D. pressures across the turbine
E. none of the above.
Answer: B
224. Pick up the false statement
A. gas turbine is a self-starting unit
B. gas turbine does not require huge quantity of water like steam plant
C. exhaust losses in gas turbine are high due to large mass flow rate
D. overall efficiency of gas turbine plant is lower than that of a reciprocating engine
E. gas turbine can be easily started and stopped and thus is best suited for peaking demands.
Answer: A
22 The efficiency and work ratio of a gas turbine plant can be increased by
A. using mulit-stage compressor with mfercooler
B. adding heat exchanger
C. injecting water in/around combustion chamber
D. reheating the air after partial expansion in the turbine
E. all of the above.
Answer: e
226. Pick up the correct statement
A. closed cycle gas turbine is an I.C engine
B. gas turbine uses same working fluid over and over again
C. air-fuel ratio in a gas turbine is 100 : 1
D. ideal efficiency of closed cycle gas turbine plant is more than carnot cycle efficiency
E. thrust in turbo-jet is produced by nozzle exit gases.
Answer: e
227. The compression ratio in a jet engine varies proportional to
A. speed
B. speed
C. altitude
D. Vspeed
E. does not Vary.
Answer: B
228. The efficiency of jet engine is
A. higher at ground
B. higher at high altitudes
C. same at all altitudes
D. higher at high speed
E. lower at low speed.
Answer: B
300+ TOP I.C. Engines MCQ Questions and Answers Quiz
Posted on April 16, 2024 by engineer36 Comments
I.C. Engines Multiple Choice Questions with Answers :-
1. In an internal combustion engine, the process of removing the burnt gases from the combustion
chamber of the engine cylinder is known as
A. Scavenging
B. Detonation
C. Supercharging
D. Polymerisation
Answer: A
2. Pick up the wrong statement about supercharging
A. Supercharging reduces knocking in diesel engines
B. There can be limited supercharging in petrol engines because of detonation
C. Supercharging at high altitudes is essential
D. Supercharging results in fuel economy
Answer: D
3. Number of working strokes per min. for a four stroke cycle engine are _________ the speed of
the engine in r.p.m.
A. Equal to
B. One-half
C. Twice
D. Four-times
Answer: B
4. In a typical medium speed 4-stroke cycle diesel engine the inlet valve
A. Opens at 20° before top dead center and closes at 35° after the bottom dead center
B. Opens at top dead center and closes at bottom dead center
C. Opens at 10° after top dead center and closes 20° before the bottom dead center
D. May open or close anywhere
Answer: A
5. The voltage required to produce a spark across the gap, between the sparking points is
A. 2000 to 4000 volts
B. 4000 to 6000 volts
C. 6000 to 10,000 volts
D. 10,000 to 12,000 volts
Answer: C
6. Compression ratio of I.C. Engines is
A. The ratio of volumes of air in cylinder before compression stroke and after compression stroke
B. Volume displaced by piston per stroke and clearance volume in cylinder
C. Ratio of pressure after compression and before compression
D. Swept volume/cylinder volume
Answer: A
7. The theoretically correct air fuel ratio for petrol engine is of the order of
A. 6: 1
B. 9: 1
C. 12: 1
D. 15: 1
Answer: D
8. The air standard efficiency of an I.C. engine is given by (where r = Compression ratio, and γ =
Ratio of specific heats)
A. 1 – rγ – 1
B. rγ – 1
C. 1 – rγ – 1)
D. None of these
Answer: C
9. In the opposed piston diesel engine, the combustion chamber is located
A. Above the piston
B. Below the piston
C. Between the pistons
D. There is no such criterion
Answer: C
10. The ignition of the charge by some hot surface within the engine before the passage of spark is
called
A. Pre-ignition
B. Detonation
C. Ignition delay
D. Auto-ignition
Answer: A

11. In a typical medium speed, 4-stroke cycle diesel engine

A. Fuel injection starts at 10° before top dead center and ends at 20° after top dead center
B. Fuel injection starts at top dead center and ends at 20° after top dead center
C. Fuel injection starts at just before top dead center and ends just after top dead center
D. May start and end anywhere
Answer: A
12. Which one of the following engines will have heavier flywheel than the remaining ones?
A. 30 kW four-stroke petrol engine running at 1500 r.p.m.
B. 30 kW two-stroke petrol engine running at 1500 r.p.m.
C. 30 kW two-stroke diesel engine running at 750 r.p.m.
D. 30 kW four-stroke diesel engine running at 750 r.p.m.
Answer: A
13. Which of the following is the lightest and most volatile liquid fuel?
A. Diesel
B. Kerosene
C. Fuel oil
D. Gasoline
Answer: D
14. The working pressure and temperature inside the cylinder of an internal combustion engine is
_________ as compared to a steam engine.
A. Low
B. Very low
C. High
D. Very high
Answer: D
15. The rating of a diesel engine, with increase in air inlet temperature, will
A. Increase linearly
B. Decrease linearly
C. Increase parabolically
D. Decrease parabolically
Answer: B
16. If the temperature of intake air in internal combustion engine increases, then its efficiency will
A. Remain same
B. Decrease
C. Increase
D. None of these
Answer: B
17. The operation of forcing additional air under pressure in the engine cylinder is known as
A. Scavenging
B. Turbulence
C. Supercharging
D. Pre-ignition
Answer: C
18. The ignition quality of petrol is expressed by
A. Cetane number
B. Octane number
C. Calorific value
D. All of these
Answer: B
19. The mean effective pressure obtained from engine indicator indicates the
A. Maximum pressure developed
B. Minimum pressure
C. Instantaneous pressure at any instant
D. Average pressure
Answer: D
20. The probability of knocking in diesel engines is increased by
A. High self ignition temperature
B. Low volatility
C. Higher viscosity
D. All of these
Answer: D
21. Pour point of fuel oil is the
A. Minimum temperature to which oil is heated in order to give off inflammable vapours in sufficient
quantity to ignite momentarily when brought in contact with a flame
B. Temperature at which it solidifies or congeals
C. It catches fire without external aid
D. Indicated by 90% distillation temperature i.e., when 90% of sample oil has distilled off
Answer: B
22. In a four stroke cycle petrol engine, the compression
A. Starts at 40° after bottom dead centre and ends at 30° before top dead centre
B. Starts at 40° before bottom dead centre and ends at 30° after bottom dead centre
C. Starts at bottom dead centre and ends at top dead centre
D. May start and end anywhere
Answer: A
23. The maximum temperature in the I.C. engine cylinder is of the order of
A. 500-1000°C
B. 1000-1500°C
C. 1500-2000°C
D. 2000-2500°C
Answer: D
24. In compression ignition engines, swirl denotes a
A. Haphazard motion of the gases in the chamber
B. Rotary motion of the gases in the chamber
C. Radial motion of the gases in the chamber
D. None of the above
Answer: B
25. Supercharging is the process of
A. Supplying the intake of an engine with air at a density greater than the density of the surrounding
atmosphere
B. Providing forced cooling air
C. Injecting excess fuel for raising more loads
D. Supplying compressed air to remove combustion products fully
Answer: A
26. The knocking in spark ignition engines can be reduced by
A. Retarding the spark
B. Increasing the engine speed
C. Both (A) and (B)
D. None of these
Answer: C
27. An engine indicator is used to determine the following
A. Speed
B. Temperature
C. Volume of cylinder
D. m.e.p. and I.H.P.
Answer: D
28. In a four stroke cycle diesel engine, the exhaust valve
A. Opens at 30° before bottom dead centre and closes at 10° after top dead centre
B. Opens at 30° after bottom dead centre and closes at 10° before top dead centre
C. Opens at bottom dead centre and closes at top dead centre
D. May open and close anywhere
Answer: A
29. The pressure at the end of compression in the case of diesel engine is of the order of
A. 6 kg/cm
B. 12 kg/cm
C. 20 kg/cm
D. 35 kg/cm
Answer: D
30. The fuels in order of decreasing knock tendency for spark ignition engines are
A. Paraffin, aromatic, napthene
B. Paraffin, napthene, aromatic
C. Napthene, aromatics, paraffin
D. Napthene, paraffin, aromatic
Answer: B
31. Crankcase explosion in I.C. engines usually occurs as
A. First a mild explosion followed by a bi explosion
B. First a big explosion followed by a mil explosion
C. Both mild and big explosions occurs simultaneously
D. Never occurs
Answer: A
32. The air requirement of a petrol engine during starting compared to theoretical air required for
complete combustion is
A. More
B. Less
C. Same
D. May be more or less depending on engine capacity
Answer: B
33. In a four stroke cycle diesel engine, the compression
A. Starts at 40° after bottom dead center and ends at 10° before top dead center
B. Starts at 40° before top dead center and ends at 40° after top dead center
C. Starts at top dead center and ends at 40° before bottom dead center
D. May start and end anywhere
Answer: A
34. It the temperature of intake air in IC engines is lowered, then its efficiency will
A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. Remain same
D. Increase up to certain limit and then decrease
Answer: A
35. The loud pulsating noise heard within the cylinder of an internal combustion engine is known as
A. Detonation
B. Turbulence
C. Pre-ignition
D. Supercharging
Answer: A
36. Which of the following medium is compressed in a Diesel engine cylinder?
A. Air alone
B. Air and fuel
C. Air and lub oil
D. Fuel alone
Answer: A
37. Detonation is harmful due to
A. Increase in the rate of heat transfer, there is a reduction in the power output and efficiency of the
engine
B. Excessive turbulence which removes most of the insulating gas boundary layer from the cylinder walls
C. High intensity of knock causes crankshaft vibration and the engine runs rough
D. None of the above
Answer: D
38. A stoichiometric air-fuel ratio is
A. Chemically correct mixture
B. Lean mixture
C. Rich mixture for idling
D. Rich mixture for over loads
Answer: A
39. The firing order in an I.C. engine depends upon
A. Arrangement of the cylinders
B. Design of crankshaft
C. Number of cylinders
D. All of these
Answer: D
40. Pick up the false statement
A. Thermal efficiency of diesel engine is about 34%
B. Theoretically correct mixture of air and petrol is approximately 15:1
C. High speed compression engines operate on dual combustion cycle
D. S.I. engines are quality governed engines
Answer: D
41. The maximum propulsive efficiency of a turbojet engine is at a speed of
A. 1000 km/h
B. 2000 km/h
C. 2400 km/h
D. 3000 km/h
Answer: C
42. The ratio of indicated thermal efficiency to the corresponding air standard cycle efficiency is
called
A. Net efficiency
B. Efficiency ratio
C. Relative efficiency
D. Overall efficiency
Answer: C
43. The inlet valve of a four stroke cycle internal combustion engine remains open for
A. 130°
B. 180°
C. 230°
D. 270°
Answer: C
44. The minimum cranking speed in case of petrol engine is about
A. Half the operating speed
B. One fourth of operating speed
C. 250 – 300 rpm
D. 60 – 80 rpm
Answer: D
45. Number of working strokes per min. for a two stroke cycle engine is _________ the speed of the
engine in r.p.m.
A. Equal to
B. One-half
C. Twice
D. Four-times
Answer: A
46. Flash point of fuel oil is
A. Minimum temperature to which oil is heated in order to give off inflammable vapours in sufficient
quantity to ignite momentarily when brought in contact with a flame
B. Temperature at which it solidifies or congeals
C. Temperature at which it catches fire without external aid
D. Indicated by 90% distillation temperature, i.e. when 90% of sample oil has distilled off
Answer: A
47. In petrol engines, advancing of the spark timing will _________ the knocking tendency.
A. Not effect
B. Decrease
C. Increase
D. None of these
Answer: C
48. In a naturally aspirated diesel engine, the air is supplied by
A. A supercharger
B. A centrifugal blower
C. A vacuum chamber
D. An injection tube
Answer: C
49. A supercharged engine as compared to an ordinary engine
A. Requires smaller foundation
B. Is lighter
C. Consumes less lubricating oil
D. All of these
Answer: D
50. Which of the following is not an intern’s combustion engine?
A. 2-stroke petrol engine
B. 4-stroke petrol engine
C. Diesel engine
D. Steam turbine
Answer: D
51. The spark ignition engines are governed by
A. Hit and miss governing
B. Qualitative governing
C. Quantitative governing
D. Combination of (B) and (C)
Answer: C
52. Diesel engine can work on very lean air fuel ratio of the order of 30: 1. A petrol engine can also
work on such a lean ratio provided
A. It is properly designed
B. Best quality fuel is used
C. Cannot work as it is impossible
D. Flywheel size is proper
Answer: C
53. The object of providing masked inlet valve in the air passage of compression ignition engines is
to
A. Enhance flow rate
B. Control air flow
C. Induce primary swirl
D. Induce secondary turbulence
Answer: C
54. In the crankcase method of scavenging, the air pressure is produced by
A. Supercharger
B. Centrifugal pump
C. Natural aspirator
D. Movement of engine piston
Answer: D
55. The brake power (B.P.) of the engine is given by (where W = Brake load or dead load in
newtons, l = Length of arm in meters, N = Speed of engine in r.p.m., S = Spring balance reading in
newtons, D = Dia. of brake drum in meters, and d = Dia. of rope in meters)
A. B.P = Wl × πN 60 watts
B. B.P = [(W – S πDN] 60 watts
C. B.P = [(W – S π D d N] 60 watts
D. All of these
Answer: D
57. The temperature of interior surface of cylinder wall in normal operation is not allowed to
exceed
A. 80°C
B. 120°C
C. 180°C
D. 240°C
Answer: C
58. Thermal efficiency of a two stroke cycle engine is _________ a four stroke cycle engine.
A. Equal to
B. Less than
C. Greater than
D. None of these
Answer: B
59. Scavenging is usually done to increase
A. Thermal efficiency
B. Speed
C. Power output
D. Fuel consumption
Answer: C
60. If V₁ is the jet velocity and V₀ is the vehicle velocity, then the propulsive efficiency of a rocket is
given by
A. [ V₀ V₁ ] [ V₀ V₁ ]
B. V₀ V₁ [ V₀ V₁ ]
C. V₀ V₀ V₁
D. V₁ V₀ V₁
Answer: A
61. The pressure and temperature at the end of compression stroke in a petrol engine are of the
order of
A. 4-6 kg/cm² and 200-250°C
B. 6-12 kg/cm² and 250-350°C
C. 12-20 kg/cm² and 350-450°C
D. 20-30 kg/cm² and 450-500°C
Answer: B
62. The compression ignition engines are governed by
A. Hit and miss governing
B. Qualitative governing
C. Quantitative governing
D. Combination of (B) and (C)
Answer: B
63. The reason for supercharging in any engine is to
A. Increase efficiency
B. Increase power
C. Reduce weight and bulk for a given output
D. Effect fuel economy
Answer: C
64. Stoichiometric ratio is
A. Chemically correct air-fuel ratio by weight
B. Chemically correct air-fuel ratio by volume
C. Actual air-fuel ratio for maximum efficiency
D. None of the above
Answer: B
65. Volatility of diesel fuel oil is
A. Minimum temperature to which oil is heated in order to give off inflammable vapours in sufficient
quantity to ignite momentarily when brought in contact with a flame
B. Temperature at which it solidifies or congeals
C. It catches fire without external aid
D. Indicated by 90% distillation temperature, i.e., when 90% of sample oil has distilled off
Answer: D
66. The purpose of testing an internal combustion engine is
A. To determine the information, which cannot be obtained by calculations
B. To conform the data used in design, the validity of which may be doubtful
C. To satisfy the customer regarding the performance of the engine
D. All of the above
Answer: D
67. The process of breaking up or a liquid into fine droplets by spraying is called
A. Vaporisation
B. Carburetion
C. Ionization
D. Atomization
Answer: D
68. The ratio of the volume of charge admitted at N.T.P. to the swept volume of the piston is called
A. Mechanical efficiency
B. Overall efficiency
C. Volumetric efficiency
D. Relative efficiency
Answer: C
69. The air standard efficiency of an Otto cycle compared to diesel cycle for the given compression
ratio is
A. Same
B. Less
C. More
D. More or less depending on power rating
Answer: C
70. In order to prevent knocking in spark ignition engines, the charge away from the spark plug
should have
A. Low density
B. Low temperature
C. Long ignition delay
D. All of these
Answer: D
71. The actual volume of fresh charge admitted in 4-stroke petrol engine is
A. Equal to stroke volume
B. Equal to stroke volume and clearance volume
C. Less than stroke volume
D. More than stroke volume
Answer: C
72. The power actually developed by the engine cylinder of an I.C. engine is known as
A. Theoretical power
B. Actual power
C. Indicated power
D. None of these
Answer: C
73. In loop scavenging, the top of the piston is
A. Flat
B. Contoured
C. Slanted
D. Depressed
Answer: B
74. The correct sequence of the decreasing order of brake thermal efficiency of the three given basic
types of engines is
A. Four stroke C.I. engine, four stroke S.I. engine, two stroke S.I. engine
B. Four stroke S.I. engine, four stroke C.I. engine, two stroke S.I. engine
C. Four stroke C.I. engine, two stroke S.I. engine, four stroke S.I. engine
D. Two stroke S.I. engine, four stroke S.I. engine, four stroke C.I. engine
Answer: A
75. If the compression ratio of an engine working on Otto cycle is increased from 5 to 7, the
percentage increase in efficiency will be
A. 2%
B. 4%
C. 8%
D. 14%
Answer: D
76. The knocking tendency in compression ignition engines for a given fuel will be
A. Enhanced by decreasing compression ratio
B. Enhanced by increasing compression ratio
C. Dependent on other factors
D. None of the above
Answer: A
77. When crude oil is heated, then which of the following hydrocarbon is given off first?
A. Kerosene
B. Gasoline
C. Paraffin
D. Natural gas
Answer: D
78. Supercharging is the process of supplying the intake air to the engine cylinder at a density
_________ the density of the surrounding atmosphere.
A. Equal to
B. Less than
C. Greater than
D. None of these
Answer: C
79. Polymerization is a chemical process in which molecules of a compound become
A. Larger
B. Slowed down
C. Smaller
D. Liquid
Answer: A
80. In a petrol engine, the fuel supplied to the engine cylinder is mixed with required quantity of air
and the mixture is ignited with a
A. Fuel pump
B. Fuel injector
C. Spark plug
D. None of these
Answer: C
81. For maximum power generation, the air fuel ratio for a petrol engine for vehicles, is of the order
of
A. 9 : 1
B. 12 : 1
C. 15 : 1
D. 18 : 1
Answer: B
82. The ratio of the indicated thermal efficiency to the air standard efficiency is known as
A. Mechanical efficiency
B. Overall efficiency
C. Volumetric efficiency
D. Relative efficiency
Answer: D
83. The knock in diesel engine occurs due to
A. Instantaneous and rapid burning of the first part of the charge
B. Instantaneous auto ignition of last part of charge
C. Delayed burning of the first part of the charge
D. Reduction of delay period
Answer: A
84. Which of the following statement is correct regarding petrol engines?
A. A fine fuel spray mixed with air is ignited by the heat of compression which is at a high pressure
B. The fuel supplied to the engine cylinder is mixed with necessary amount of air and the mixture in
ignited with the help of a spark plug
C. The fuel is first evaporated after passing through a carburettor and is mixed with air before ignition
D. All of the above
Answer: B
85. If one cylinder of a diesel engine receives more fuel than the others, then for that cylinder the
A. Exhaust will be smoky
B. Piston rings would stick into piston grooves
C. Engine starts overheating
D. Scavenging occurs
Answer: D
86. Pre-ignition is caused by the spontaneous combustion of the mixture before the end of the
compression stroke, and is due to
A. Cylinder walls being too hot
B. Overheated spark plug points
C. Red hot carbon deposits on cylinder walls
D. Any one of these
Answer: D
87. Scavenging air in diesel engine means
A. Air used for combustion sent under pressure
B. Forced air for cooling cylinder
C. Burnt air containing products of combustion
D. Air used for forcing urnt gases out of engine’s cylinder during the e haust period
Answer: D
88. The reference fuels for knock rating of spark ignition engines would include
A. Iso-octane and alpha-methyl naphthalene
B. Normal octane and aniline
C. Iso-octane and normal hexane
D. Normal heptane and iso-octane
Answer: D
89. The working cycle in case of four stroke engine is completed in following number of revolutions
of crankshaft
A. 1/2
B. 1
C. 2
D. 4
Answer: C
90. The brake power of a diesel engine, keeping other parameters constant, can be increased by
A. Decreasing the density of intake air
B. Increasing the temperature of intake air
C. Increasing the pressure of intake air
D. Decreasing the pressure of intake air
Answer: C
91. Engine pistons are usually made of aluminium alloy because it
A. Is lighter
B. Wear is less
C. Absorbs shocks
D. Is stronger
Answer: A
92. Which of the following fuel detonates readily?
A. Benzene
B. Iso-octane
C. Normal heptane
D. Alcohol
Answer: C
93. In a typical medium speed 4-stroke cycle diesel engines
A. Exhaust valve opens at 35° before bottom dead center and closes at 20° after top dead center
B. Exhaust valve opens at bottom dead center and closes at top dead center
C. Exhaust valve opens just after bottom dead center and closes just before top dead center
D. May open and close anywhere
Answer: A
94. During idling, a petrol engine requires _________ mixture.
A. Lean
B. Rich
C. Chemically correct
D. None of these
Answer: B
95. The air-fuel ratio in petrol engines is controlled by
A. Controlling valve opening/closing
B. Governing
C. Injection
D. Carburetion
Answer: D
96. The function of a distributor in a coil ignition system of I.C. engines is
A. To distribute spark
B. To distribute power
C. To distribute current
D. To time the spark
Answer: D
97. The specific fuel consumption per BH hour for a petrol engine is approximately
A. 0.15 kg
B. 0.2 kg
C. 0.25 kg
D. 0.3 kg
Answer: C
98. In a four stroke cycle petrol engine, the expansion
A. Starts at top dead center and ends at bottom dead center
B. Starts at 30° before top dead center and ends at 50° before bottom dead center
C. Starts at 30° after top dead center and ends at 50° after bottom dead center
D. May start and end anywhere
Answer: B
99. Which of the following is false statement?
Excess quantities of sulphur in diesel fuel are Objectionable because it may cause the following
A. Piston ring and cylinder wear
B. Formation of hard coating on piston skirts
C. Oil sludge in the engine crank case
D. Detonation
Answer: D
100. As compared to air standard cycle, in actual working, the effect of variation in specific heats is
to
A. Increase maximum pressure and maximum temperature
B. Reduce maximum pressure and maximum temperature
C. Increase maximum pressure and decrease maximum temperature
D. Decrease maximum pressure and increase maximum temperature
Answer: B
101. Fuel consumption of diesel engines is not guaranteed at one quarter load because at such low
loads
A. The friction is high
B. The friction is unpredictable
C. The small difference in cooling water temperature or in internal friction has a disproportionate effect
D. The engine is rarely operated
Answer: C
102. By higher octane number of spark ignition fuel, it is meant that the fuel has
A. Higher heating value
B. Higher flash point
C. Lower volatility
D. Longer ignition delay
Answer: D
103. In diesel engine the diesel fuel injected into cylinder would burn instantly at about compressed
air temperature of
A. 250°C
B. 500°C
C. 1000°C
D. 2000°C
Answer: C
104. A gas engine has a swept volume of 300 cm3 and clearance volume of 25 cm3. Its volumetric
efficiency is 0.88 and mechanical efficiency is 0.90. The volume of the mixture taken in per stroke is
A. 248 cm3
B. 252 cm3
C. 264 cm3
D. 286 cm3
Answer: C
105. In a typical medium speed 4-stroke cycle diesel engine
A. Compression starts at 35° after bottom dead center and ends at top dead center
B. Compression starts at bottom dead center and ends at top dead center
C. Compression starts at 10° before bottom dead center and, ends just before top dead center
D. May start and end anywhere
Answer: A
106. In a petrol engine, the mixture has the lowest pressure at the
A. Beginning of suction stroke
B. End of suction stroke
C. End of compression stroke
D. None of these
Answer: B
107. The specific fuel consumption per BHP hour for diesel engine is approximately
A. 0.15 kg
B. 0.2 kg
C. 0.25 kg
D. 0.3 kg
Answer: B
108. Which of the following statement is correct?
A. Compression ratio for petrol engines varies from 6 to 10
B. Higher compression ratio in diesel engines results in higher pressures
C. Petrol engines work on Otto cycle
D. All of the above
Answer: D
109. All heat engines utilize
A. Low heat value of oil
B. High heat value of oil
C. Net calorific value of oil
D. Calorific value of fuel
Answer: A
110. Which of the following statement is wrong?
A. A four stroke cycle engine develops twice the power as that of a two stroke cycle engine
B. For the same power developed, a four stroke cycle engine is lighter, less bulky and occupies less floor
area
C. The petrol engines are costly than diesel engines
D. All of the above
Answer: D
111. Does the supply of scavenging air at a density greater than that of atmosphere mean engine is
supercharged?
A. Yes
B. No
C. To some extent
D. Unpredictable
Answer: B
112. Which one of the following event would reduce volumetric efficiency of a vertical compression
ignition engine?
A. Inlet valve closing after bottom dead center
B. Inlet valve closing before bottom dead center
C. Inlet valve opening before top dead center
D. Exhaust valve closing after top dead center
Answer: B
113. In a diesel engine, the fuel is ignited by
A. Spark
B. Injected fuel
C. Heat resulting from compressing air that is supplied for combustion
D. Ignition
Answer: C
114. Which of the following does not relate to a spark ignition engine?
A. Ignition coil
B. Spark plug
C. Carburettor
D. Fuel injector
Answer: D
115. Compression loss in I.C engines occurs due to
A. Leaking piston rings
B. Use of thick head gasket
C. Clogged air inlet slots
D. All of the above
Answer: D
116. Iso-octane (C₈H₁₈) has octane number of
A. 0
B. 50
C. 100
D. 120
Answer: C
117. As a result of detonation in an I.C. engine, following parameter attains very high value
A. Peak pressure
B. Rate of rise of pressure
C. Rate of rise of temperature
D. Peak temperature
Answer: B
118. A two stroke cycle engine gives ________ the number of power strokes as compared to the four
stroke cycle engine, at the same engine speed.
A. Half
B. Same
C. Double
D. Four times
Answer: C
119. The accumulation of carbon in a cylinder results in increase of
A. Clearance volume
B. Volumetric efficiency
C. Ignition time
D. Effective compression ratio
Answer: D
120. In a four stroke cycle engine, the sequence of operations is
A. Suction, compression, expansion and exhaust
B. Suction, expansion, compression and exhaust
C. Expansion, compression, suction and exhaust
D. Compression, expansion, suction and exhaust
Answer: A
121. Gaseous fuel guarantees are based on
A. Calorific value of oil
B. Low heat value of oil
C. High heat value of oil
D. Mean heat value of oil
Answer: B
122. The ratio of the work obtained at the crankshaft in a given time to the energy supplied during
the same time is called
A. Mechanical efficiency
B. Overall efficiency
C. Indicated thermal efficiency
D. Volumetric efficiency
Answer: B
123. The size of inlet valve of an engine in comparison to exhaust valve is
A. More
B. Less
C. Same
D. More/less depending on capacity of engine
Answer: B
124. The volumetric efficiency of a well designed engine may be
A. 30 to 40%
B. 40 to 60%
C. 60 to 70%
D. 75 to 90%
Answer: D
125. A 5 BHP engine running at full load would consume diesel of the order of
A. 0.3 kg/hr
B. 1 kg/hr
C. 3 kg/hr
D. 5 kg/hr
Answer: B
126. A petrol engine, during suction stroke draws
A. Air only
B. Petrol only
C. A mixture of petrol and air
D. None of these
Answer: C
127. Which of the following statements is correct?
A. All the irreversible engines have same efficiency
B. All the reversible engines have same efficiency
C. Both Rankine and Carnot cycles have same efficiency between same temperature limits
D. All reversible engines working between same temperature limits have same efficiency
Answer :Option D
128. The fuel valve in a four stroke cycle diesel engine
A. Opens at 15° after top dead center and closes at 20° before bottom dead center
B. Opens at 15° before top dead center and closes at 20° after top dead center
C. Opens at top dead center and closes at bottom dead center
D. May open and close anywhere
Answer: B
129. For the same power developed in I.C. engines, the cheaper system is
A. Naturally aspirated
B. Supercharged
C. Centrifugal pump
D. Turbo charger
Answer: B
130. The thermal efficiency of petrol and gas engines is about
A. 15%
B. 30%
C. 50%
D. 70%
Answer: B
131. Which is more viscous lube oil?
A. SEA 30
B. SAE 50
C. SAE 70
D. SAE 80
Answer: D
132. In petrol engine, using a fixed octane rating fuel and fixed compression ratio, supercharging
will _________ the knocking tendency.
A. Not effected
B. Decrease
C. Increase
D. None of these
Answer: C
133. Fuel oil consumption guarantees for I .C. engine are usually based on
A. Low heat value of oil
B. High heat value of oil
C. Net calorific value of oil
D. Calorific value of fuel
Answer: B
134. The compensating jet in a carburettor supplies almost constant amount of petrol at all speeds
because the
A. Jet area is automatically varied depending on the suction
B. The flow from the main jet is diverted to the compensating jet with increase in speed
C. The diameter of the jet is constant and the discharge coefficient is invariant
D. Flow is produced due to the static head in the float chamber
Answer: D
135. The magneto in an automobile is basically
A. Transformer
B. D.C. generator
C. Capacitor
D. Magnetic circuit
Answer: B
136. In order to eliminate knocking in compression ignition engines, there should be
A. Short delay period
B. Late auto-ignition
C. Low compression ratio
D. High self ignition temperature of fuel
Answer: A
137. Air fuel ratio at which a petrol engine cannot work is
A. 8 : 1
B. 10 : 1
C. 15 : 1
D. 20 : 1 and less
Answer: D
138. A fuel of an octane number rating of 75 matches in knocking intensity as a mixture of
A. 75% iso-octane and 25% normal heptane
B. 75% normal heptane and 25% iso-octane
C. 75% petrol and 25% diesel
D. 75% diesel and 25% petrol
Answer: A
139. An hmh flame speed is obtained in diesel engine when air fuel ratio is
A. Uniform throughout the mixture
B. Chemically correct mixture
C. About 35% of rich mixture
D. About 10% of rich mixture
Answer: D
140. A supercharged engine as compared to an ordinary engine
A. Is lighter
B. Requires smaller foundations
C. Consumes less lubricating oil
D. All of these
Answer: D
141. The inlet value of a four stroke cycle I.C engine remains open for nearly
A. 180°
B. 125°
C. 235°
D. 200°
Answer: C
142. The basic requirement of a good combustion chamber is
A. Minimum turbulence
B. Low compression ratio
C. High thermal efficiency and power output
D. Low volumetric efficiency
Answer: C
143. The cam shaft of a four stroke I.C. engine running at 1500 rpm will run at
A. 1500 rpm
B. 750 rpm
C. 3000 rpm
D. Any value independent of engine speed
Answer: B
144. In a four stroke cycle petrol engine, the inlet valve
A. Opens at top dead center and closes at bottom dead center
B. Opens at 20° before top dead center and closes at 40° after bottom dead center
C. Opens at 20° after top dead center and closes at 20° before bottom dead center
D. May open or close anywhere
Answer: B
145. Which of the following is false statement? Some of the methods used to reduce diesel smoke are
as follows
A. Using additives in the fuel
B. Increasing the compression ratio
C. Adherence to proper fuel specification
D. Avoidance of overloading
Answer: B
146. The frictional power (F.P.) is given by
A. F.P. = B.P. – I.P.
B. F.P. = I.P. – B.P.
C. F.P. = B.P./I.P.
D. F.P. = I.P./B.P.
Answer: B
147. The following volume of air is required for consuming 1 liter of fuel by a four stroke engine
A. 1 m3
B. 5 m3
C. 56 m3
D. 910 m3
Answer: D
148. The delay period in compression ignition engines depends upon
A. Temperature and pressure in the cylinder at the time of injection
B. Nature of the fuel mixture strength
C. Relative velocity between the fuel injection and air turbulence pressure of residual gases
D. All of the above
Answer: D
149. A diesel engine has
A. 1 valve
B. 2 valves
C. 3 valves
D. 4 valves
Answer: C
150. The mechanical efficiency (ηm) of the engine is given by
A. ηm = B.P .P
B. ηm = .P B.P
C. ηm = B.P × .P 00
D. None of these
Answer: A
151. The output of a diesel engine can be increased without increasing the engine revolution or size
in following way
A. Feeding more fuel
B. Heating incoming air
C. Scavenging
D. Supercharging
Answer: D
152. The reflectivity depends upon
A. Geometry of the reflector
B. Energy of neutrons
C. Properties of the reflector
D. All of these
Answer: D
153. The fuel air ratio in a petrol engine fitted with suction carburettor, operating with dirty air
filter as compared to clean filter will be
A. Higher
B. Lower
C. Remain unaffected
D. None of the above
Answer: A
154. The sensing element in the control system of nuclear reactors measures the _________ of the
neutron flux in the reactor.
A. Temperature
B. Volume
C. Density
D. None of these
Answer: C
155. Pick up the wrong statement
A. 2-stroke engine can run in any direction
B. In 4-stroke engine, a power stroke is obtained in 4-strokes
C. Thermal efficiency of 4-stroke engine is more due to positive scavenging
D. Petrol engines occupy more space than diesel engines for same power output
Answer: D
156. If V₁ is the jet velocity and V₀ is the vehicle velocity, then propulsive efficiency of a turbojet
engine is
A. V₁ V₀ V₁
B. V₀ V₀ V₁
C. V₀ V₀ V₁
D. V₁ V₀ V₁
Answer: C
157. In a cycle, the spark lasts roughly for
A. 1 sec
B. 0.1 sec
C. 0.01 sec
D. 0.001 sec
Answer: D
158. Which of the following does not relate to a compression ignition engine?
A. Fuel pump
B. Fuel injector
C. Governor
D. Carburettor
Answer: D
159. Air fuel ratio for idling speed of a petrol engine is approximately
A. 1 : 1
B. 5 : 1
C. 10 : 1
D. 15 : 1
Answer: C
160. The advancing of spark timing in spark ignition engines will _________ knocking tendency.
A. Increase
B. Reduce
C. Not effect
D. None of these
Answer: A
161. The fuel in diesel engine is normally injected at pressure of
A. 5-10 kg/cm²
B. 20-25 kg/cm²
C. 60-80 kg/cm²
D. 90-130 kg/cm²
Answer: D
162. A mixture containing 65% of iso-octane and 35% of normal heptane will have
A. Cetane number 65
B. Octane number 65
C. Cetane number 35
D. Octane number 35
Answer: B
163. The thermal efficiency of a diesel cycle having fixed compression ratio, with increase in cut-off
ratio will
A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. Be independent
D. May increase or decrease depending on other factors
Answer: B
164. Theoretically, a four stroke cycle engine should develop _________ power as that of a two
stroke cycle engine.
A. Half
B. Same
C. Double
D. Four times
Answer: A
165. The calorific value of gaseous fuels is expressed in terms of
A. kcal
B. kcal/kg
C. kcal/m²
D. kcal/m3
Answer: D
166. The pressure at the end of compression, in diesel engines, is approximately
A. 10 bar
B. 20 bar
C. 25 bar
D. 35 bar
Answer: D
167. A 75 cc engine has following parameter as 75 cc
A. Fuel tank capacity
B. Lube oil capacity
C. Swept volume
D. Cylinder volume
Answer: C
168. The combustion in compression ignition engines is
A. Homogeneous
B. Heterogeneous
C. Both (A) and (B)
D. None of these
Answer: B
169. Supercharging is essential in
A. Diesel engines
B. Gas turbines
C. Petrol engines
D. Aircraft engines
Answer: D
170. Which of the following fuel has little tendency towards detonation?
A. Benzene
B. Iso-octane
C. Normal heptane
D. Alcohol
Answer: B
171. Most high speed compression engines operate on
A. Diesel cycle
B. Otto cycle
C. Dual combustion cycle
D. Special type of air cycle
Answer: C
172. The higher combustion chamber wall temperature in compression ignition engines will
_________ knocking tendency.
A. Increase
B. Reduce
C. Not effect
D. None of these
Answer: B
173. If the intake air temperature of I.C. engine increases, its efficiency will
A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. Remain same
D. None of these
Answer: B
174. Solid fuel fabricated into various small shapes, which are assembled to form fuel elements, is in
the form of
A. Plates
B. Pallets
C. Pins
D. All of these
Answer: D
175. A heat engine utilizes the
A. Calorific value of oil
B. Low heat value of
C. High heat value of oil
D. Mean heat value of oil
Answer: C
176. Diesel as compared to petrol is
A. Highly ignitable
B. More difficult to ignite
C. Less difficult to ignite
D. None of these
Answer: B
177. The specific fuel consumption of a petrol engine compared to diesel engine of same H.P. is
A. Same
B. More
C. Less
D. Less or more depending on operating conditions
Answer: B
178. The increase of efficiency of a compression ignition engine, as the load decreases, is due to
A. Higher maximum temperature
B. Qualitative governing
C. Quantitative governing
D. Hit and miss governing
Answer: B
179. For the same compression ratio
A. Otto cycle is more efficient than the Diesel
B. Diesel cycle is more efficient than Otto
C. Both Otto and Diesel cycles are, equally efficient
D. Compression ratio has nothing to do with efficiency
Answer: A
180. The self ignition temperature of petrol is _________ as compared to diesel oil.
A. Same
B. Lower
C. Higher
D. None of these
Answer: C
181. In diesel engine, the compression ratio in comparison to expansion ratio is
A. Same
B. Less
C. More
D. Variable
Answer: C
182. In a four stroke cycle petrol engine, the pressure inside the engine cylinder during the suction
stroke is __________ the atmospheric pressure.
A. Equal to
B. Below
C. Above
D. None of these
Answer: B
183. Diesel fuel, compared to petrol is
A. Less difficult to ignite
B. Just about the same difficult to ignite
C. More difficult to ignite
D. Highly ignitable
Answer: C
184. In a petrol engine, if diesel is used, then the engine will
A. Not run
B. Run more efficiently
C. Run at high speed
D. Explode
Answer: A
185. Installation of supercharger on a four cycle diesel engine can result in the following percentage
increase in power
A. Up to 35%
B. Up to 50%
C. Up to 75%
D. Up to 100%
Answer: D
186. The thermal efficiency of diesel engines on weak mixtures is
A. Unaffected
B. Lower
C. Higher
D. Dependent on other factors
Answer: C
187. Combustion in compression ignition engines is
A. Homogeneous
B. Heterogeneous
C. Both (A) and (B)
D. Laminar
Answer: B
188. The colour of exhaust from diesel engine is generally
A. White
B. Bluish
C. Black
D. Violet
Answer: C
189. A diesel engine as compared to petrol engine (both running and rated load) is
A. More efficient
B. Less efficient
C. Equally efficient
D. Other factors will decide it
Answer: A
190. In a four stroke cycle petrol engine, the charge is ignited at
A. 30° before top dead center
B. 30° after top dead center
C. 30° before bottom dead center
D. 30° after bottom dead center
Answer: A
191. In case of gas turbines, the gaseous fuel consumption guarantees are based on
A. High heat value
B. Low heat value
C. Net calorific value
D. Calorific value
Answer: B
192. The knocking tendency in spark ignition engines may be decreased by
A. Controlling the air-fuel mixture
B. Controlling the ignition timing
C. Controlling the exhaust temperature
D. Reducing the compression ratio
Answer: D
193. The term scavenging is generally associated with
A. 2-stroke cycle engines
B. 4-stroke cycle engines
C. Aeroplane engines
D. High efficiency engines
Answer: D
194. Which of the following statement is correct regarding normal cetane?
A. It is a standard fuel used for knock rating of diesel engines
B. Its chemical name is normal hexadecane
C. It has long carbon chain structure
D. All of the above
Answer: D
195. Most high speed compression engines operate on
A. Otto cycle
B. Diesel cycle
C. Dual cycle
D. Carnot cycle
Answer: C
196. In a four stroke cycle diesel engine, the inlet valve
A. Opens at 20° before top dead center and closes at 40° after bottom dead center
B. Opens at 20° after top dead center and closes at 20° before bottom dead center
C. Opens at top dead center and closes at bottom dead center
D. May open and close anywhere
Answer: A
197. The air-fuel ratio of the petrol engine is controlled by
A. Fuel pump
B. Governor
C. Injector
D. Carburettor
Answer: D
198. Which of the following statement is wrong?
A. In compression ignition engines, detonation occurs near the beginning of combustion.
B. Since the fuel, in compression ignition engines, is injected at the end of compression stroke, therefore,
there will be no pre-ignition.
C. To eliminate knock in compression ignition engines, we want to achieve auto-ignition not early and
desire a long delay period.
D. In compression ignition engines, because of heterogeneous mixture, the rate of pressure rise is
comparatively lower.
Answer: C
199. In a four stroke cycle, the minimum temperature inside the engine cylinder occurs at the
A. Beginning of suction stroke
B. End of suction stroke
C. Beginning of exhaust stroke
D. End of exhaust stroke
Answer: A
200. The exhaust valve in a four stroke cycle petrol engine
A. Opens at 50° before bottom dead center and closes at 15° after top dead center
B. Opens at bottom dead center and closes at top dead center
C. Opens at 50° after bottom dead center and closes at 15° before top dead center
D. May open and close anywhere
Answer: A
201. The expansion of fuel in a four stroke cycle diesel engine
A. Starts at 15° before top dead center and ends at 30° after top dead center
B. Starts at top dead center and ends at 30° after top dead center
C. Starts at 15° after top dead center and ends at 30° before bottom dead center
D. May start and end anywhere
Answer: C
202. In a diesel engine, the duration between the time of injection and ignition, is known as
A. Pre-ignition period
B. Delay period
C. Period of ignition
D. Burning period
Answer: B
203. The effective inhibitor of pre-ignition is
A. Alcohol
B. Water
C. Lead
D. None of these
Answer: B
204. A diesel engine has
A. One valve
B. Two valves
C. Three valves
D. Four valves
Answer: C
205. The pressure inside the cylinder is _________ the atmospheric pressure during the exhaust
stroke.
A. Equal to
B. Below
C. Above
D. None of these
Answer: C
206. A carburettor is used to supply
A. Petrol, air and lubricating oil
B. Air and diesel
C. Petrol and lubricating oil
D. Petrol and air
Answer: D
207. Morse test can be conducted for
A. Petrol engines
B. Diesel engines
C. Multi cylinder engines
D. All of these
Answer: C
208. High speed compression engines operate on
A. Otto cycle
B. Diesel cycle
C. Dual combustion cycle
D. All of these
Answer: C
209. The theoretically correct mixture of air and petrol is
A. 10 : 1
B. 15 : 1
C. 20 : 1
D. 25 : 1
Answer: B
210. A diesel engine has compression ratio from
A. 6 to 10
B. 10 to 15
C. 15 to 25
D. 25 to 40
Answer: C
211. In order to mix air and petrol in the required proportion and to supply it to the engine during
suction stroke, then _________ is employed.
A. Fuel pump
B. Injector
C. Carburettor
D. None of these
Answer: C
212. The ratio of the brake power to the indicated power is called
A. Mechanical efficiency
B. Overall efficiency
C. Indicated thermal efficiency
D. Volumetric efficiency
213. The cetane (C₁₆H₃₄) which is a straight chain paraffin, is assigned a cetane number of
A. 0
B. 50
C. 100
D. 120
214. The thermodynamic cycle on which the petrol engine works, is
A. Otto cycle
B. Joule cycle
C. Rankine cycle
D. Stirling cycle
215. The correct mixture strength (by weight) for petrol is about
A. 14.6 : 1
B. 18.5 : 1
C. 20.4 : 1
D. 22.6 : 1
216. The scavenging efficiency of a four stroke cycle diesel engine is
A. Below 50%
B. Between 50 and 85%
C. Between 85 and 95%
D. Between 95 and 100%
217. If the speed of the engine is increased, the indicated power will
A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. Remain same
D. None of these
218. The specific fuel consumption per B.P. hour for a petrol engine is about
A. 0.2 kg
B. 0.25 kg
C. 0.3 kg
D. 0.35 kg
219. The injector nozzle of a compression ignition engine is required to inject fuel at a sufficiently
high pressure in order to
A. Inject fuel in a chamber of high pressure at the end of compression stroke
B. Inject fuel at a high velocity to facilitate atomization
C. Ensure that penetration is not high
D. All of the above
220. A fuel of cetane number 40 has the same ignition quality as a mixture of
A. 40% cetane and 60% alpha methyl naphthalene
B. 40% alpha methyl naphthalene and 60% cetane
C. 40% petrol and 60% diesel
D. 40% diesel and 60% petrol
221. The two reference fuels used for cetane rating are
A. Cetane and iso-octane
B. Cetane and alpha-methyl naphthalene
C. Cetane and normal heptane
D. Cetane and tetra ethyl lead
222. In petrol engines, the delay period is of the order of
A. 0.001 second
B. 0.002 second
C. 0.003 second
D. 0.004 second
223. A diesel engine is _________ as compared to petrol engine, both running at rated load.
A. Equally efficient
B. Less efficient
C. More efficient
D. None of these
224. The pressure at the end of compression, in petrol engines, is approximately
A. 10 bar
B. 20 bar
C. 25 bar
D. 35 bar
225. The turbine of the turboprop engine is __________ that of the turbojet engine.
A. Same as
B. Smaller than
C. Bigger than
D. None of these
Answer: C(15)
226. A higher compression ratio causes
A. Pre-ignition
B. Increase in detonation
C. Acceleration in the rate of combustion
D. Any one of these
Answer: D

228. A spark plug gap is kept from

A. 0.3 to 0.7 mm
B. 0.2 to 0.8 mm
C. 0.4 to 0.9 mm
D. 0.6 to 1.0 mm
Answer: A
229. The air standard efficiency of an I.C. engine depends on
A. Fuel used
B. Speed of engine
C. Compression ratio
D. None of these
Answer: C
230. Alpha-methyl-naphthalene (C₁₁ H₁₀) has a cetane number of
A. 0
B. 50
C. 100
D. 120
Answer: A
231. The increase in intake temperature of internal combustion engines will _________ efficiency.
A. Have no effect on
B. Increase
C. Decrease
D. None of these
Answer: C
232. The thermal efficiency of a petrol engine is _________ as compared to diesel engine.
A. Same
B. Less
C. More
D. None of these
Answer: B
233. The thermal efficiency of diesel engines is about
A. 15%
B. 30%
C. 50%
D. 70%
Answer: D
234. The ignition quality of diesel oil is expressed by
A. Cetane number
B. Octane number
C. Calorific value
D. None of these
Answer: A
235. If petrol is used in a diesel engine, then
A. Low power will be produced
B. Efficiency will be low
C. Higher knocking will occur
D. Black smoke will be produced
Answer: C
236. In a coil ignition system of petrol engines, a condenser is connected across the contact breaker
in order to
A. Prevent sparking across the gap between the points
B. Cause more rapid break of the primary current, giving a higher voltage in the secondary circuit
C. Both (A) and (B)
D. None of the above
Answer: C
237. The _________ engines can work on very lean mixture of fuel.
A. Spark ignition
B. Compression ignition
C. Both (A) and (B)
D. None of these
Answer: B
238. A diesel engine, during suction stroke, draws
A. Air only
B. Diesel only
C. A mixture of diesel and air
D. None of these
Answer: A
239. Antiknock for compression ignition engines is
A. Napthene
B. Tetra ethyl lead
C. Amyl nitrate
D. Hexadecane
Answer: C
240. The method of determination of indicated power of a multi cylinder spark ignition engine is by
the use of
A. Morse test
B. Prony brake test
C. Motoring test
D. Heat balance test
Answer: A
241. The cetane number of diesel oil, generally available, is
A. 20 to 25
B. 25 to 30
C. 30 to 40
D. 40 to 55
Answer: D
242. A petrol engine has compression ratio from
A. 6 to 10
B. 10 to 15
C. 15 to 25
D. 25 to 40
Answer: A
243. The brake power is the power available
A. In the engine cylinder
B. At the crank shaft
C. At the crank pin
D. None of these
Answer: B
244. The normal heptane (C₇H₁₆) is given a rating of ________ octane number.
A. 0
B. 50
C. 100
D. 120
Answer: A
245. The knocking in diesel engines may be prevented by
A. Reducing the delay period
B. Raising the compression ratio
C. Increasing the inlet pressure of air
D. All of these
Answer: D
246. The air-fuel ratio of the petrol engine is controlled by
A. Carburettor
B. Injector
C. Governor
D. None of these
Answer: A
247. If the compression ratio in I.C. engine increases, then its thermal efficiency will
A. Decrease
B. Increase
C. Remain same
D. None of these
Answer: B
248. The thermal efficiency of a standard Otto cycle for a compression ratio of 5.5 will be
A. 25%
B. 50%
C. 70%
D. 100%
Answer: B
249. The octane number of petrol, generally available, is
A. 20 to 40
B. 40 to 60
C. 60 to 80
D. 80 to 100
Answer: D
250. The object of supercharging the engine is
A. To reduce mass of the engine per brake power
B. To reduce space occupied by the engine
C. To increase the power output of an engine when greater power is required
D. All of the above
Answer: D
251. The increase of cooling water temperature in petrol engine will _________ the knocking
tendency.
A. Not effect
B. Decrease
C. Increase
D. None of these
Answer: C
252. The specific fuel consumption per B.P. hour for a diesel engine is about
A. 0.2 kg
B. 0.25 kg
C. 0.3 kg
D. 0.35 kg
Answer: A
253. The injection pressure in a diesel engine is about
A. 10 bar
B. 100 bar
C. 150 bar
D. 500 bar
Answer: B
254. Morse test is used to determine the I.P. of a
A. Single cylinder petrol engine
B. Four stroke engine
C. Single cylinder diesel engine
D. Multi cylinder engine
Answer: D
300+ TOP Industrial Engineering MCQs and Answers Quiz
Posted on April 16, 2024 by engineer4 Comments
Industrial Engineering Multiple choice Questions
1. A graphical device used to determine the break-even point and profit potential under varying
conditions of output and costs, is known as
A. Gnatt chart
B. flow chart
C. break-even chart
D. PERT chart
E. Taylor chart.
Answer: C
2. Break-even analysis consists of
A. fixed cost
B. variable cost
C. fixed and variable costs
D. operation costs
E. none of the above.
Answer: C
3. Break-even analysis shows profit when
A. sales revenue > total cost
B. sales revenue = total cost
C. sales revenue < total cost
D. variable cost < fixed cost
E. none of the above.
Answer: A
4. In braek-even analysis, total cost consists of
A. fixed cost
B. variable cost
C. fixed cost + variable cost
D. fixed cost + variable cost + over-heads
E. fixed cost + sales revenue.
Answer: A
5. The break-even point represents
A. the most economical level of operation of any industry
B. the time when unit can run without i loss and profit
C. time when industry will undergo loss
D. the time when company can make maximum profits
E. time for overhauling a plant.
Answer: C
6. Depreciation of machines is categorized under the head
A. direct expenses
B. indirect expenses
C. receipts
D. administrative expenses
E. indirect material costs.
7. Depreciation of machines, according to income tax regulations is calculated on the basis of
following method
A. straight line
B. sinking fund
C. machine hour
D. rate of return
E. declining balance.
8. In project appraisal analysis, shadow prices are
A. used for lost items
B. used to convert inputs into cost and output into benefits
C. used to determine feasibility of project
D. taken as the basis for determining value of all the assets
E. none of the above,
9. Cash discounts are reduction in price of goods
A. sold on credit
B. which depends on assurance of payment
C. which depends on prompt cash payment
D. obtainable on bad debt loans
E. which have good bargaining capacity of seller.
9. In the cost structure of a product, the selling price is determined by the factors such as1
A. sales turn over
B. lowest competitive price
C. various elements of the cost
D. uyers’ capa ility to pay
E. all of the above.
Answer: E
10. Work study is concerned with
A. improving present method and finding standard time
B. motivation of workers
C. improving production capability
D. improving production planning and control
E. all of the above.
Answer: A

11. Basic tool in work study is

A. graph paper
B. process chart
C. planning chart
D. stop watch
E. analytical mind.
Answer: D
12. What does symbol ‘O’ imply in work study
A. operation
B. inspection
C. transport
D. delay temporary storage
E. none of the above.
Answer: A
13. In project appraisal studies ‘intangibles’ are those items which can
A. be quantified in terms of money
B. e quantified ut can’t e converted into money terms
C. neither be quantified nor translated in money terms
D. not be considered and are usually ignored
E. receive highest priority.
14. Simplex method is used for
A. linear programming
B. queuing theory
C. network analysis
D. value engineering
E. all of the above.
15. What does symbol ‘D’ imply in work study
A. inspection
B. transport
C. delay temporary storage
D. permanent storage
E. none of the above.
Answer: C
16. In perpetual inventory control, the material is checked as it reaches its
A. minimum value
B. maximum value
C. average value
D. middle value
E. alarming value.
Answer: A
17. Material handling in automobile industry is done by
A. overhead crane
B. trolley
C. belt conveyor
D. all of the above
E. none of the above.
Answer: A
18. String diagram is used when
A. team of workers is working at a place
B. material handling is to be done
C. idle time is to be reduced
D. all of the above
E. none of the above.
Answer: A
19. For a project to be feasible, internal rate of return should be greater than
A. zero
B. 1
C. rate of interest for loan
D. expenses
E. losses likely to be incurred.
20. Work study is most useful
A. where production activities are involved
B. in judging the rating of machines
C. in improving industrial relations
D. in judging the output of a man and improving it
E. where men are biggest contributor to success of a project.
Answer: A
21. Micromotion study is
A. enlarged view of motion study
B. analysis of one stage of motion study
C. minute and detailed motion study
D. subdivision of an operation into therbligs and their analysis
E. motion study of small components upto mircoseconds.
Answer: D
22. In micromotion study, therblig is described by
A. a symbol
B. an event
C. an activity
D. micro motions
E. standard symbol and colour.
Answer: E
23. The allowed time for a job equals standard time plus
A. policy allowance
B. interference allowance
C. process allowance
D. learning allowance
E. unforeseen allowance.
Answer: A
24. Micromotion study involves following number of fundamental hand motions
A. 8
B. 12
C. 16
D. 20
E. 24.
Answer: C
25. The standard time for a job is
A. total work content
B. basic time + relaxation time
C. total work content + basic time
D. total work content + delay contigency allowance
E. total work content + relaxation time.
Answer: D
26. Internal rate of return is that discount rate which makes the value of net present value equal to
A. zero
B. 1
C. infinity D. some + ve value
E. some – ve value.
27. Work study is done with the help of
A. process chart
B. material handling
C. stop watch
D. all of the above
E. none of the above.
Answer: C
28. Scheduling gives information about
A. when work should start and how much work should be completed during a certain period
B. when work should complete
C. that how idle time can be minimised
D. prcper utilisation of machines
E. none of the above.
Answer: A
29. Expediting function consists in keeping a watch on
A. operator’s activity
B. flow of material and in case of trouble locate source of trouble
C. minimising the delays
D. making efficient despatching
E. none of the above.
Answer: B
30. Choose the wrong statement Time study is used to
A. determine overhead expenses
B. provide a basis for setting piece prices or incentive wages
C. determine standard costs
D. determine the capability of an operator to handle the number of machines
E. compare alternative methods.
Answer: A
31. Job evaluation is the method-of determining the
A. relative worth of jobs
B. skills required by a worker
C. contribution of a worker
D. contribution of a job
E. effectiveness of various alternatives.
Answer: A
32. Micromotion study is
A. analysis of a man-work method by using a motion picture camera with a timing device in the field of
view
B. motion study observed on enhanced time intervals
C. motion study of a sequence of operations conducted systematically
D. study of man and machine conducted simultaneously
E. scientific, analytical procedure for determining optimum work method.
Answer: A
33. Per cent idle time for men or machines is found by
A. work sampling
B. time study
C. method study
D. work study
E. ABC analysis.
Answer: A
34. TMU in method time measurement stands for
A. time motion unit
B. time measurement unit
C. time movement unit
D. technique measurement unit
E. time method unit.
Answer: B
35. Time study is
A. the appraisal, in terms of time, of the value of work involving human effort
B. machine setting time
C. time taken by workers to do a job
D. method of fixing time for workers
E. method of determining the personnel Requirement.
Answer: A
36. Work sampling observations are taken on the basis of
A. detailed calculations
B. convenience
C. table of random numbers
D. past experience
E. fixed percentage of daily production.
Answer: C
38. One time measurement unit(TMU) in method time measurement system equals
A. 0.0001 minute
B. 0.0006 minute
C. 0.006 minute
D. 0.001 minute
E. 0.06 minute.
Answer: B
39. Basic motion time study gives times for basic motions in ten thousandths of
A. second
B. minute
C. hour
D. day
E. none of the above.
Answer: B
40. Choose the wrong statement. Motion study is used for
A. improving a work method
B. improvising a work method
C. designing a work method
D. providing a schematic framework
E. reducing inventory costs.
Answer: E
41. Gnatt chart provides information about the
A. material handling
B. proper utilisation of manpower
C. production schedule
D. efficient working of machine
E. all of the above.
Answer: C
42. ABC analysis deals with
A. analysis of process chart
B. flow of material
C. ordering schedule of job
D. controlling inventory costs money
E. all of the above.
Answer: D
43. Process layout is employed for
A. batch production
B. continuous type of product
C. effective utilisation of machines
D. all of the above
E. none of the above.
Answer: A
44. For a product layout the material handling equipment must
A. have full flexibility
B. employ conveyor belts, trucks, tractors etc.
C. be a general purpose type
D. be designed as special purpose for a particular application
E. arranging shops according to specialisation of duties.
Answer: D
45. Travel charts provide
A. an idea of the flow of materials at various stages
B. a compact estimate of the handling which must be done between various work sections
C. the information for changes required in rearranging material handling equipment
D. an approximate estimate of the handling which must be done at a particular station
E. solution to handling techniques to achieve most optimum results.
Answer: B
46. Product layout is employed for
A. batch production
B. continuous production1
C. effective utilization of machine
D. all of the above
E. none of the above.
Answer: B
48. The process layout is best suited where
A. specialisation exists
B. machines are arranged according to sequence of operation
C. few number of nonstandardised units are to be produced
D. mass production is envisaged
E. bought out items are more.
Answer: C
49. A low unit cost can be obtained by following
A. product layout
B. functional layout
C. automatic material handling equipment
D. specialization of operation
E. minimum travel time plan and compact layout.
Answer: A
50. Military organisation is known as
A. line organisation
B. line and staff organisation
C. functional organisation
D. all of the above
E. none of the above.
Answer: A
51. The main disadvantage of line organisation is
A. top level executives have to do excessive work
B. structure is rigid
C. communication delays occur
D. all of the above
E. none of the above.
Answer: D
52. The main advantage of line organisation is its
A. effective command and control
B. defined responsibilities at all levels
C. rigid discipline in the organisation
D. ability of quick decision at all levels
E. all of the above.
Answer: E
53. Frederick W. Taylor introduced a system of working known as
A. line organisation
B. line and staff organisation
C. functional organisation
D. effective organisation
E. none of the above.
Answer: C
54. The salient feature of functional organisation is
A. strict adherence to specification
B. separation of planning and design part
C. each individual maintains functional efficiency
D. work is properly planned and distributed
E. all of the above.
Answer: E
55. The most popular type of organisation used for Civil Engineering Constructions is
A. line organisation
B. line and staff organisation
C. functional organisation
D. effective organisation
E. none of the above.
Answer: A
56. Templates are used for
A. a planning layout
B. flow of material
C. advancing a programme in automatic machines
D. copying complicated profiles
E. none of the above.
Answer: A
57. In steel plant the most important system for materials handling is
A. conveyors
B. cranes and hoists
C. trucks
D. locos
E. none of the above.
Answer: D
58. Routing prescribes the
A. flow of material in the plant
B. proper utilization of man power
C. proper utilization of machines
D. inspection of final product
E. none of the above.
Answer: A
59. Queuing theory deals with problems of
A. material handling
B. reducing the waiting time or idle Jajme
C. better utilization of man services
D. effective use of machines
E. none of the above.
Answer: B
60. Standard time is defined as
A. normal time + allowances
B. normal time + idle time + allowances
C. normal time + idle time
D. only normal time for an operation
E. none of the above.
Answer: A
61. Father of industrial engineering is
A. Jeck Gilberth
B. Gnatt
C. Taylor
D. Newton
E. none of the above.
Answer: B
62. The grouping of activities into organisational units is called
A. corporate plans
B. higher level management
C. functional authority
D. departmentatidn
E. company policy.
Answer: D
63. Which of the following organisation is preferred in automobile industry
A. functional organisation
B. line organisation
C. staff organisation
D. line and staff organisations
E. scalar organisation.
Answer: D
64. Which of the following organisations is best suited for steel plants
A. functional organisation
B. line organisation
C. staff organisation
D. line, staff and functional organisations
E. scalar organisation.
Answer: A
65. The wastage of material in the store is taken into account by the following method in the
evaluation of the material issued from the store
A. inflated system
B. primary cost method
C. current value method
D. fixed price method
E. variable price method.
Answer: A
66. Which of the following is independent of sales forecast
A. productivity
B. inventory control
C. production planning
D. production control
E. capital budgeting.
Answer: A
67. Gnatt charts are used for
A. forecasting sales
B. production schedule
C. scheduling and routing
D. linear programming
E. none of the above.
Answer: B
68. Inventory management consists of
A. effective running of stores
B. state of merchandise methods of strong and maintenance etc.
C. stock control system
D. all of the above
E. none of the above.
Answer: D
69. Gnatt charts provide information about
A. break even point analysis
B. production schedule
C. material handling layout
D. determining selling price
E. value analysis.
Answer: B
70. Inventory control in production, planning and control aims at
A. achieving optimisation
B. ensuring against market fluctuations
C. acceptable customer service at low capital investment in inventory
D. discounts allowed in bulk purchase
E. regulate supply and demand.
Answer: C
71. In inventory control, the economic order quantity is the
A. optimum lot size
B. highest level of inventory
C. lot corresponding to break-even point
D. capability of a plant to produce
E. none of the above.
Answer: A
72. Statistical quality control techniques are based on the theory of
A. quality
B. statistics
C. probability
D. all of the above
E. none of the above.
Answer: C
73. The appellate authority for an industrial dispute is
A. management
B. labour court
C. high court/supreme court
D. board of directors
E. president.
Answer: C
74. Under the Apprenticeship Act
A. all industries have to necessarily train the apprentices
B. industries have to train apprentices ac-cording to their requirement
C. all industries employing more than 100 workers have to recruit apprentices
D. only industries employing more than 500 workers have to recruit apprentices
E. all industries other than small scale industries have to train apprentices.
Answer: D
75. Standing orders which are statutory are applicable to
A. all industries
B. all process industries and thermal power plants
C. only major industries
D. only key industries
E. all industries employing more than 100 workers.
Answer: E
76. Acceptance sampling is widely used in
A. batch production
B. job production
C. mass production
D. all of the above
E. none of the above.
Answer: C
77. The technique of value analysis can be applied to
A. complicated items only
B. simple items only
C. crash-programme items only
D. cost consciousness items only
E. any item.
Answer: E
78. The term ‘value’ in value engineering refers to
A. total cost of the product
B. selling price of the product
C. utility of the product
D. manufactured cost of the product
E. depreciation value.
Answer: C
79. Value engineering aims at finding out the
A. depreciation value of a product
B. resale value of a product
C. major function of the item and accomplishing the same at least cost without change in quality
D. break even point when machine re-quires change
E. selling price of an item.
Answer: C
80. In the perpetual inventory control, the material is checked when it reaches its
A. minimum value
B. maximum value
C. average value
D. alarming value
E. original value.
Answer: A
81. According to MAPI formula, the old machine should be replaced by new one when
A. CAM < DAM
B. CAM > DAM
C. CAM = DAM
D. there is no such criterion
E. none of the above.
CAM = Challenger’s Adverse minimum DAM = Defender’s Adverse minimum
Answer: A
82. Merit Rating is the method of determining worth of
A. a job
B. an individual employee
C. a particular division in workshop
D. machine
E. overall quality.
Answer: B
83. Material handling and plant location is analysed by
A. Gnatt chart
B. bin chart
C. Emerson chart
D. travel chart
E. activity chart.
Answer: D
84. Works cost implies
A. primary cost
B. factory cost
C. factory expenses
D. primary cost + factory expenses
E. none of the above.
Answer: D
85. Motion study involves analysis of
A. actions of operator
B. layout of work place
C. tooling and equipment
D. all of the above
E. none of the above.
Answer: A
86. Standard time as compared to normal time is
A. greater
B. smaller
C. equal
D. there is no such correlation
E. none of the above.
Answer: A
87. Pick up the incorrect statement about advantages of work sampling
A. permits a fine breakdown of activities and delays
B. simultaneous study of many operators may be made by a single observer
C. calculations are easier, method is economical and less time consuming
D. no time measuring devices are generally needed
E. as operators are not watched for long periods, chances of obtaining misleading results are less.
Answer: A
88. In which of the following layouts, the lines need to the balanced
A. process layout
B. product layout
C. fixed position layout
D. plant layout
E. functional layout.
Answer: B
89. Which of the following layouts is suited for mass production
A. process layout
B. product layout
C. fixed position layout
D. plant layout
E. functional layout.
Answer: B
90. Which of the following layouts is suited to job production
A. process layout
B. product layout
C. fixed position layout
D. plant layout
E. functional layout.
Answer: A
91. The employees provident fund act is applicable to
A. all industries
B. all industries other than small and medium industries
C. volunteers
D. the industries notified by Government
E. all major industries.
Answer: D
92. The amount deducted from the salary of workers towards employees provident fund is
A. credited into reserves of company
B. deposited in nationalised bank
C. deposited in post office
D. deposited in the account of worker with employer or Reserve Bank of India
E. deposited in the account of worker with Provident Fund Commissioner.
Answer: E
93. The deductions for, employees provident fund start
A. immediately on joining the service
B. after 60 days of joining the service
C. after 100 days of joining the service
D. after 240 days of joining the service
E. after one year of joining the service.
Answer: D
94. Father of time study was
A. F.W. Taylor
B. H.L. Gantt
C. F.B. Gilberfh
D. R.M. Barnes
E. H.B. Maynord.
Answer: A
95. Tick the odd man out
A. Taylor
B. Drucker
C. McGregor
D. Galileo
E. Parkinson.
Answer: D
96. Current assets include
A. manufacturing plant
B. manufacturing plant and equipment
C. inventories
D. common stock held by the firm
E. all of the above.
Answer: A
97. The objective of time study is to determine the time required to complete a job by
A. fast worker
B. average worker
C. slow worker
D. new entrant
E. any one of the above.
Answer: B
98. Job enrichment technique is applied to
A. reduce labour monotony
B. overcome boring and demotivating work
C. make people happy
D. all of the above
E. none of the above.
Answer: D
99. For ship vessel industry the following layout is best suited
A. process layout
B. product layout
C. fixed position layout
D. plant layout
E. functional layout.
Answer: C
100. In Halsey 50-50 plan, output standards are established
A. by time study
B. from previous production records
C. from one’s judgement
D. all of the above
E. none of the above.
Answer: B
101. Routing is essential in the following type of industry
A. assembly industry
B. process industry
C. job order industry
D. mass production industry
E. steel industry.
Answer: A
102. An optimum project schedule implies
A. optimum utilisation of men, machines and materials
B. lowest possible cost and shortest possible time for project
C. timely execution of project
D. to produce best results under given constraints
E. realistic execution time, minimum cost and maximum profits.
Answer: B
103. Graphical method, simplex method, and transportation method are concerned with
A. break-even analysis
B. value analysis
C. linear programming
D. queing theory
E. tnaterial handling.
Answer: C
104. In crash program for a project
A. both direct and indirect costs, increase
B. indirect costs increase and direct costs decrease
C. direct costs increase and indirect costs decrease
D. cost is no criterion
E. none of the above.
Answer: C
106. Which one of the following represents a group incentive plan ?
A. Scanlon Plan
B. Rowan Plan
C. Bedaux Plan
D. Taylor Differential Piece Rate System
E. Halsey Premium Plan.
Answer: A
107. In the Halsey 50-50 plan, the following are rewarded more
A. past good workers
B. past poor workers
C. past average workers
D. all of the above
E. none of the above.
Answer: B
108. In the Halsey system of wage incentive plan, a worker is
A. paid as per efficiency
B. ensured of minimum wages
C. not paid any bonus till his efficiency 2 reaches 66 %
D. never a loser
E. induced to do more work.
Answer: B
109. ‘Value’ for value engineering and analysis purposes is defined as
A. purchase value
B. saleable value
C. depreciated value
D. present worth
E. function/cost.
Answer: E
110. Break-even analysis can be used for
A. short run analysis
B. long run analysis
C. average of above two run analysis
D. there is no such criterion
E. none of the above.
Answer: A
111. CPM has following time estimate
A. one time estimate
B. two time estimate
C. three time estimate
D. four time estimate
E. nil time estimate.
Answer: A
112. PERT has following time estimate
A. one time estimate
B. two time estimate
C. three time estimate
D. four time estimate
E. nil time estimate.
Answer: C
113. In Lincoln plan (one type of group incentive plan), the amount of the profit which an
.employee receives in addition to the guaranteed basic pay/wages, is based on :
A. a standard rating system
B. a merit rating system
C. a job evaluation system
D. his individual performance
E. all of the above.
Answer: B
114. Which of the following incentive plansrensures a part of the swing to the worker and rest to
the employer
A. Emerson efficiency plan
B. Taylor plan
C. Halsey premium plan
D. Piece rate system
E. Gilberth plan.
Answer: C
115. Which of the following is not wage incentive plan
A. differential piece rate system
B. Rowan plan
C. Emerson plan
D. Taylor plan
E. Halsey plan.
Answer: D
117. Which of the following plans motivates supervisors by paying a premium on time saved by
workers
A. Halsey plan
B. Rowan plan
C. Haynes plan
D. Emerson’s plan
E. Taylor’s plan.
Answer: C
118. The time required to complete a task is established and a bonus is paid to the worker for every
hour he saves from the established time required. This type of incentive plan is known as
A. Rowan Plan
B. Bedaux Plan
C. Taylor Differential Piece rate system
D. Halsey Premium plan
E. Day work plan.
Answer: D
119. One of the basic essentials of an incentive plan is that
A. a differential piece rate system should exist
B. minimum wages should be guaranteed
C. provide incentive to group efficiency performance
D. all standards should be based on optimum standards of production
E. all standards should be based on time studies.
Answer: E
120. In the Emerson efficiency plan, a worker receives only his daily wage and no bonus is paid till
his efficiency reaches
A. 50%
B. 661%
C. 75%
D. 80%
E. 90%.
Answer: B
121. According to Rowan plan, if H = hourly rate, A = actual time and S = standard time, then wages will
be
A. HA
B. HA + (S~A) HA
C. HA + ^^-H
D. HA + ^^-H
E. HA + ^^-HA.
Answer: B
122. If a worker gets a daily wage of Rs HA, then according to Rowan plan, his maximum daily earnings
can be
A. 2 HA
B. 1.33 HA
C. 1.5 HA
D. 1.15 HA
E. 2.5 HA.
Answer: A
123. In A-B-C control policy, maximum attention is given to
A. those items which consume money
B. those items which are not readily available
C. thosex items which are in more demand
D. those items which consume more money
E. proper quality assurance program-mes.
Answer: D
124. Which one of the following represents a group incentive plan ?
A. Halsey Premium Plan
B. Bedaux Plan
C. Lincoln Plan
D. Rowan Plan
E. Taylor Plan.
Answer: C
125. The mathematical technique for finding the best use of limited resources in an optimum manner is
known as
A. operation research
B. linear programming
C. network analysis
D. queuing theory
E. break-even analysis.
Answer: B
126. In order that linear programming techniques provide valid results
A. relations between factors must be linear (positive)
B. relations between factors must be linear (negative)
C. A. or (b)
D. only one factor should change at a time, others remaining constant
E. none of the above.
Answer: C
127. The linear programming techniques can be applied successfully to industries like
A. iron and steel
B. food processing
C. oil and chemical
D. banking
E. all of the above.
Answer: E
128. The simplex method is the basic method for
A. value analysis
B. operation research
C. linear programming
D. model analysis
E. none of the above.
Answer: C
129. The two-bin system is concerned with
A. ordering procedure
B. forecasting sales
C. production planning
D. despatching and expediting
E. none of the above.
Answer: A
130. The time required to complete a job is established and a bonus is paid to the worker based on the
exact % of time saved. This type of incentive plan is known as
A. Dry work Plan
B. Halsey Premium Plan
C. Taylor Plan
D. Bedaux Plan
E. Rowan Plan.
Answer: E
131. Replacement studies are made on the fol-lowing basis:
A. annual cost method
B. rate of return method
C. total life average method
D. present worth method
E. any one of the above.
Answer: E
132. String diagram is used
A. for checking the relative values of various layouts
B. when a group of workers are working at a place
C. where processes require the operator to be moved from one place to another
D. all of the above
E. none of the above.
Answer: D
133. Which of the following depreciation system ensures that the interest be charged on the cost of
machine asset every year on the book value, but the rate of depreciation every year remains constant
A. sinking fund method
B. straight line method
C. A-B-C charging method
D. annuity charging method
E. diminishing balance method.
Answer: D
134. Bin card is used in
A. administrative wing
B. workshop
C. foundary shop
D. stores
E. assembly shop.
Answer: D
135. Slack represents the difference between the
A. latest allowable time and the normal expected time
B. latest allowable time and the earliest expected time
C. proposed allowable time and the ear-liest expected time
D. normal allowable time and the latest expected time
E. project initiation tune and actual starting time.
Answer: B
136. PERT and CPM are
A. techniques to determine project status
B. decision making techniques
C. charts which increase aesthetic ap-pearance of rooms
D. aids to determine cost implications of project
E. aids to the decision maker.
Answer: E
137. A big advantage of PERT over Gantt charts is that in the former case
A. activities and events are clearly shown
B. early start and late finish of an ac¬tivity are clearly marked
C. activity times are clear
D. critical path can be easily determined
E. inter-relationship among activities is clearly shown.
Answer: E
138. CPM is the
A. time oriented technique
B. event oriented technique
C. activity oriented technique
D. target oriented technique
E. work oriented technique.
Answer: C
139. PMTP (predetermined motion time systems) include
A. MTM (method time measurement)
B. WFS (work factor systems)
C. BNTS (basic motion time study)
D. all of the above
E. none of the abbvev
Answer: D
140. Work study comprises following main techniques
A. method study and work measurement
B. method study and time study
C. time study and work measurement
D. method study and job evaluation
E. value analysis and work measurement.
Answer: A
141. Which of the following equations is not in conformity with others
A. organisation performance x motivation = profits
B. knowledge x skill = ability
C. ability x motivation = performance
D. attitude x situation = motivation
E. performance x resources = organisation performance.
Answer: A
142. PERT is the
A. time oriented technique
B. event oriented technique
C. activity oriented technique
D. target oriented technique
E. work oriented technique.
Answer: B
143. The basic difference between PERT and CPM is that
A. PERT deals with events and CPM with activities
B. critical path is determined in PERT only
C. costs are considered on CPM only and not in PERT
D. guessed times are used in PERT and evaluated times in CPM
E. PERT is used in workshops and CPM in plants.
Answer: D
145. Queing theory is used for
A. inventory problems
B. traffic congestion studies
C. job-shop scheduling
D. all of the above
E. none of the above.
Answer: D
146. In queuing theory, the nature of the waiting situation can be studied and analysed mathematically if
A. complete details’of items in, waiting line are known
B. arrival and waiting times are known and can be grouped to form a waiting line model
C. all variables and constants are known and form a linear equation
D. the laws governing arrivals, service times, and the order in which the arriving units are taken into
source are known
E. all of the above.
Answer: D
147. Queing theory is associated with
A. sales
B. inspection time
C. waiting time
D. production time
E. inventory.
Answer: C
148. The reasons which are basically responsible for the formation of a queue should be that
A. the average service rate HHess than the average arrival rate
B. output rate is linearly proportional to input
C. output rate is constant and the input varies in a random manner
D. all of the above
E. none of the above.
Answer: D
149. Monte Carlo solutions in queuing theory are extremely useful in queuing problems
A. that can’t e analysed mathematically
B. involving multistage queuing
C. to verify mathematical results
D. all of the above
E. none of the above.
Answer: A
151. A milestone chart
A. shows the interdependence of various jobs
B. depicts the delay of jobs, if any
C. points outgoing ahead of schedule of jobs, if any
D. all of the above
E. none of the above.
152. Bar charts are suitable for
A. minor works
B. major works
C. large projects
D. all of the above
E. none of the above.
153. The first method invented for planning projects was
A. bar chart method
B. milestone chart
C. critical path method (CPM)
D. programme evaluation and review technique (PERT)
E. none of the above.
154. Pick up the correct statement from the following
A. programme evaluation and review technique is event oriented
B. programme evaluation and review technique is not event oriented
C. critical path method is event oriented
D. critical.path method is not activity oriented
E. none of the above.
155. Pick up the correct statement from the
following
A. critical path method is an improvement upon bar chart method
B. critical path method provides a realistic approach to the daily problems
C. critical path method avoids delays which are very common in bar chart
D. critical path method was invented by Morgan R. Walker of Dupot and James E. Kelley of Remington
U.S.A in 1957
E. all of the above.
156. Pick up the correct step used for scheduling a project by C.P.M.
A. a project is divided into various activities
B. required time for each activity is established
C. sequence of various activities is made according to their importance
D. network is drawn by connecting the activities and the events
E. all of the above.
157. The time of completing a project in network analysis is given by following time of the critical
activity meeting at the final episode
A. early finish
B. early start
C. late start
D. late finish
E. none of the above.
158. The disadvantage of product layout is
A. high initial investment for the specialized facilities
B. skilled labour to operate machines
C. production time is longer, requiring more goods in inventory
D. high cost of inspection
E. costly and complex production control.
159. Emergency rush order can be pushed more effectively in
A. job production
B. automatic production
C. continuous production
D. intermittent production
E. none of the above.
160. Routing assists engineers in deciding in advance
A. the flow of material in the plant
B. the methods of proper utilization of manpower
C. the methods of proper utilization of machines
D. the layout of factory facilities
E. normal route of workers through the plant.
161. The performance of a specific task in CPM is known as
A. dummy
B. event
C. activity D. contract
E. none of the above.
162. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following
A. an activity of the project is denoted by an arrow on the net work
B. the tail of the arrow indicates the start of the activity
C. the head of the arrow indicates the end of,the activity!
D. the arrows are drawn (to scale from) left to right
E. each activity consumes a given time
163. The artificial activity; which indicates that an activity following it cannot be started unless, the
preceding activity is complete, is known as
A. event
B. free float
C. artificial
D. constraint
E. dummy.
164. A dummy activity
A. is artificially introduced
B. is represented by a dotted line
C. does not require any time
D. all of the above
E. none of the above.
165. If E> is the duration, ES and EF are die earliest start and finish times, LS and LF are latest start and
finish times, then the following relation holds good
A. EF=ES+D
(b)LS=LF-D
C. LF = LS + D
D. D = EF-ES
E. all of the above.
166. The difference between the time available to do the job and the time required to do the job, is known
as
A. event
B. float
C. duration
D. constraint
E. none of the above.
167. The probability distribution of activity times in PERT follows following distribution
A. normal
B. binomial
C. beta
D. exponential
E. Gaussian.
168. The probability distribution of project completion in PERT follows following distribution
A. normal
B. binominal
C. beta
D. exponential
E. Gaussian.
169. If TL is the largest allowable event occurrence time, total activity slack (s) is equal to
A. latest start time – earliest start time
B. latest finish time – earliest finish time (EFT)
C. TL-EFT
{d) all the above
E. none of the above.
170. The critical activity has
A. maximum float
(p) minimum float
C. zero float,
D. average float
E. none of these.
171. The time by which the activity completion time can be delayed without affecting the
start of succeeding activities, is Known as
A. duration
B. total float
C. free float
D. interfering float
E. none of the above.
172. The critical path of a network represents
A. the minimum time required for completion of project
B. the maximum time required for completion of project
C. maximum cost required for completion of project
D. minimum cost required for completion of project
E. none of the above.
173. Pick up the correct statement from the following
A. the float may be positive, zero or negative
B. if the float is positive and the activity is delayed by a period equal to its total float, the completion of
project in not delayed
C. if the float of an activity is negative, delay in its performance is bound to delay the completion of
project
D. if the float of an activity is zero, the activity is critical and any delay in its performance will delay the
whole project
E. all of the above.
174. Critical path moves along the activities having total float of
A. positive value
B. negative value
C. zero value
D. same value
E. none of the above.
175. Critical Path Net Work helps an engineer
A. to concentrate his attention on critical activities
B. to divert the resources from noncritical advanced activities to critical activities
C. to be cautious for avoiding any delay in the critical activities to avoid delay of the whole project
D. all of the above
E. none of the above.
177. The time which results in the least possible direct cost of an activity is known as
A. normal time
B. slow time
C. crash time
D. standard time
E. none of the above.
178. The technique for establishing and maintaining priorities among the various jobs
of any project is known as
A. event flow scheduling technique
B. critical ratio scheduling
C. slotting technique for scheduling
D. short interval scheduling
E. none of the above.
179. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following. A critical ratio scheduling
A. establishes the relative priorities among various activities on a common basis
B. determines the status of each activity
C. adjusts automatically changes in activity progress
D. is a dynamic system
E. none of the above.
181. PERT is
A. an analytic tool in concept ‘ B. limit up of event oriented diagrams
C. used for research and development projects
D. based on three time estimates for activities linking up two events
E. all of the above.
182. CPM is _____.
A. synthesising in concepts
B. is built of activities oriented program-mes
C. is, based on one time eytimate
D. is used for repetitive works
E. all of the above.
183. A CPM family includes
A. CPA (Critical Path Analysis)
B. CPP (Critical Path Plotted)
C. MCE (Minimum Cost Expenditure)
D. CPS (Critical Path Scheduling)
E. all of the above.
184. PERT/CPM, techniques can be used for following applications
A. once through project
B. maintenance jobs
C. research and development
D. all non-technical jobs
E. all of the above.
185. PERT analysis is based on
A. optimistic time
B. pessimistic time
C. most likely time
D. all of the above
E. none of the above.
186. Discrepancies of bar chart techniques are
A. consequential effects of lack in one activity on omer
B. consequential effects of lack in one activity on the finish date
C. free time availa le for an activity can’t e predicted
D. effective monitoring controlling can’t e done
E. all of the above.
187. O on a PERT/CPM chart represents
A. an ordinary event
B. a significant event representing some mile-stone
C. an event to be transferred to other network chart
D. dangling event
E. dummy event.
188. [ ] on a PERT/CPM chart represents
A. an ordinary event
B. a significant event representing some mile-stone
C. an event to be transferred to other network chart
D. dangling event
E. dummy event.
190. Pick up the correct statement. Dummy activity on a PERT/CPM chart means, it
A. consumes time, but no resources
B. consumes resources but no time
C. consumes neither time nor resources
D. is a dangling event
E. consumes both resources and time.
191. Criticalpath on PERT/CPM chart is obtained by joining the events having
A. maximum slack
B. minimum slack
C. average slack
D. no slack
E. judgement and experience.
192. Slack of various events on the critical path in PERT/CPM chart
A. increases continuously
B. decreases continuously
C. remains constant
D. may increase or decrease depending on various factors
E. unpredictable.
193. The assumption in PERT is
A. a project will always be behind schedule, if left uncorrected
B. cost of project will always be more than the estimated cost, if no timely corrections are taken
C. a project can be subdivided into a set of predictable, independent activities
D. activities are fi ed and can’t e changed ,
E. commissioning time can be changed, if activities are behind schedule.
194. Activity s,lack or float of any event on a PERT/CPM chart is represented by
A. latest start time of succeeding event -earliest finish time of preceding event activity time
B. latest start time of the event – earliest start time of the event
C. latest finish time of event – earliest finish time of the event
D. anyone of the above
E. none of the above.
195. The important file in making a PERT is
A. an event can’t e accomplished until activities leading to it are completed
B. no activity from any event can be started from preceding event till it is completed
C. length of arrow has nothing to do with time
D. every activity must be completed before end point is reached
E. all of the above.
196. An event is indicated on the network by
A. a straight line
B. a number enclosed in a circle or a square
C. a straight line with circles at the ends
D. a dotted line
E. an arrow.
197. In a PERT chart
A. all activities should be numbered
B. only important activities should be numbered
C. only critical activities are numbered
D. only selected activities are numbered
E. no activity is numbered.
198. Positive slack on a PERT indicates that project is
A. ahead of schedule
B. beyond schedule
C. as per schedule
D. on critical path
E. none of the above.
199. Pessimistic time is
A. the maximum time which an activity might require
B. the average time required for a job
C. the most probable time considering all conditions
D. the minimum time in which an activity can possibly be accomplished
E. the earliest finish.
200. In PERT analysis, critical path is obtained by joining events having
A. +ve slack
B. – ve slack
C. zero slack
D. dummy activities
E. critical activities.
201. The slack on various events at critical path will be
A. same as at the end point
B. decreasing proportional to that at the end point
C. increasing proportional to that at the end point
D. maximum compared to other events
E. none of the above.
202. A critical path on a PERT chart
A. starts from start point and ends at end point
B. starts from start point and may end anywhere
C. may start from any where but ends at end point
D. may start and end at any point
E. none of the above.
203. Capital expenditure means
A. expenses incurred in acquiring capital
B. main expenditure
C. recurring expenditure
D. expenditure on procurement of fixed assets
E. expenditure on property.
205. A rupee received one year hence is not the equivalent of a rupee received today, because the use of
money has a value. This is the principle under
A. pay-back method
B. average return on investment method
C. present value method
D. discounted cash flow method
E. cost accounting method.
206. The equal payment series sinking fund factor for a given number of years (n) is used to calculate
A. equal payments to be made at the end of each year when compound amount after n years is given
B. .compound amount after n years when payments to be made each year are given
C. present net worth when payments to be made each year are given
D. equal payments to be made at the end of each year when present, net worth is given
E. present net worth when the com¬pound amount after n years is given.
207. All financial decisions on any project appraisal are based on the
A. future value of money
B. present value of money
C. opportunity cost of money
D. anyone of the above
E. none of the above.
208. The capital and running costs of similar machines having unequal service life can be compared by
A. present net worth method
B. rate of return method
C. equivalent annual cost method
D. capitalised cost method
E. depreciation method.
. n Project appraisal, the term ‘e ternalities’ refers to
A. extraneous elements
B. unknown factors
C. unforeseen factors
D. indirect benefits and indirect costs
E. items over which there is no control.
213. The criterion to decide between various alternatives in project appraisal is
A. net present value criterion
B. benefit/cost ratio criterion
C. internal rate of return criterion
D. any one of the above
E. none of the above.
214. The benefit/cost ratio criterion is used to decide between various alternatives in a project appraisal
for comparing
A. identical projects
B. similar projects
C. dissimilar projects
D. all projects
E. none of the above.
215. Capitalized cost comparison method is used for comparing alternatives having
A. high initial cost
B. high maintenance cost
C. high service life
D. high electricity consuming devices
E. high running cost.
300+ Top Refrigeration & Air Conditioning MCQs & Answers
Posted on April 16, 2024 by engineerLeave a comment
Refrigeration and Air Conditioning Multiple Choice Questions
1. In vapour compression cycle using NH₃ as refrigerant, initial charge is filled at
A. Suction of compressor
B. Delivery of compressor
C. High pressure side close to receiver
D. Low pressure side near receiver
Answer: C
2. The temperature of air recorded by a thermometer, when it is not affected by the moisture
present in the air, is called
A. Wet bulb temperature
B. Dry bulb temperature
C. Dew point temperature
D. None of these
Answer: B
3. Absorption system normally uses the following refrigerant
A. Freon-11
B. Freon-22
C. CO2
D. Ammonia
Answer: D
4. Which of the following statement is correct?
A. In vapour absorption refrigerator, the compression of refrigerant is avoided.
B. Sub-cooling can be achieved by circulating more quantity of cooling water through the condenser.
C. In vapour compression refrigeration, the vapour is drawn in the compressor cylinder during its suction
stroke and is compressed adiabatically during the compression stroke.
D. All of the above
Answer: D
5. In a refrigeration cycle, the flow of refrigerant is controlled by
A. Compressor
B. Condenser
C. Evaporator
D. Expansion valve
Answer: D
6. The colour of the flame of halide torch, in case of leakage of Freon refrigerant, will change to
A. Bright green
B. Yellow
C. Red
D. Orange
Answer: A
7. For air conditioning the operation theater in a hospital, the percentage of outside air in the air
supplied is
A. Zero
B. 20
C. 50
D. 100
Answer: D
8. Allowable pressure on high pressure side or ammonia absorption system is of the order of
A. Atmospheric pressure
B. Slightly above atmospheric pressure
C. 24 bars
D. 56 bars
Answer: D
9. The C.O.P. of a Carnot refrigerator in winter will be _________ as compared to C.O.P. in
summer.
A. Same
B. Lower
C. Higher
D. None of these
Answer: C
10. Chaperon equation is a relation between
A. Temperature, pressure and enthalpy
B. Specific volume and enthalpy
C. Temperature and enthalpy
D. Temperature, pressure, specific volume and enthalpy
Answer: D

11. During humidification process, __________ increases.

A. Wet bulb temperature
B. Relative humidity
C. Dry bulb temperature
D. Specific humidity
Answer: B
12. Where does the lowest temperature occur in a vapour compression cycle?
A. Condenser
B. Evaporator
C. Compressor
D. Expansion valve
Answer: B
13. The ratio of actual mass of water vapour in a given volume of moist air to the mass of water
vapour in the same volume of saturated air at the same temperature and pressure, is called
A. Humidity ratio
B. Relative humidity
C. Absolute humidity
D. Degree of saturation
Answer: B
14. Under cooling in a refrigeration cycle
A. Increases C.O.P
B. Decreases C.O.P
C. C.O.P remains unaltered
D. Other factors decide C.O.P
Answer: A
15. In a domestic vapour compression refrigerator, the refrigerant commonly used is
A. CO₂
B. Ammonia
C. R-12
D. All of these
Answer: C
16. The COP of a vapour compression plant in comparison to vapour absorption plant is
A. More
B. Less
C. Same
D. More/less depending on size of plant
Answer: A
17. The fluids used in Electrolux refrigerator are
A. Water and hydrogen
B. Ammonia and hydrogen
C. Ammonia, water and hydrogen
D. None of these
Answer: C
18. Domestic refrigerator working on vapour compression cycle uses the following type of
expansion device
A. Electrically operated throttling valve
B. Manually operated valve
C. Thermostatic valve
D. Capillary tube
Answer: D
19. The condition of refrigerant after passing through the expansion or throttle valve, in a vapour
compression system is
A. High pressure saturated liquid
B. Wet vapour
C. Very wet vapour
D. Dry vapour
Answer: C
20. An important characteristic of absorption system of refrigeration is
A. Noisy operation
B. Quiet operation
C. Cooling below 0°C
D. Very little power consumption
Answer: B
21. The centrifugal compressors are generally used for refrigerants that require
A. Small displacements and low condensing pressures
B. Large displacements and high condensing pressures
C. Small displacements and high condensing pressures
D. Large displacements and low condensing pressures
Answer: D
22. Rick up the incorrect statement
A. Lithium bromide used in vapour absorption cycle is non volatile
B. Lithium romide plant can’t operate elow 0°C
C. A separator is used in lithium bromide plant to remove the unwanted water vapour by condensing
D. Concentration of solution coming out of lithium bromide generator is more in comparison to that
entering the generator
Answer: C
23. During dehumidification process, the relative humidity
A. Remains constant
B. Increases
C. Decreases
D. None of these
Answer: C
24. The refrigerant widely used in domestic refrigerators is
A. Ammonia
B. Carbon dioxide
C. Sulphur dioxide
D. R-12
Answer: D
25. The moisture in a refrigerant is removed by
A. Evaporator
B. Safety relief valve
C. Dehumidifier
D. Driers
Answer: D
26. During sensible cooling of air ________ decreases.
A. Wet bulb temperature
B. Relative humidity
C. Dry bulb temperature
D. Specific humidity
Answer: C
27. At lower temperatures and pressures, the latent heat of vaporisation of a refrigerant
A. Decreases
B. Increases
C. Remain same
D. Depends on other factors
Answer: B
28. The wet bulb depression is zero when relative humidity is
A. Zero
B. 0.5
C. 0.75
D. 1.0
Answer: D
29. The C.O.P of a refrigeration cycle with increase in evaporator temperature, keeping condenser
temperature constant, will
A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. Remain unaffected
D. May increase or decrease depending on the type of refrigerant used
Answer: A
30. During humidification process, dry bulb temperature
A. Remains constant
B. Increases
C. Decreases
D. None of these
Answer: A
31. The vapour pressure of refrigerant should be
A. Lower than atmospheric pressure
B. Higher than atmospheric pressure
C. Equal to atmospheric pressure
D. Could be anything
Answer: B
32. Which of the following statement is wrong?
A. The performance of the vapour compression refrigerator varies considerably with both vaporising and
condensing temperatures.
B. In vapour compression cycle, the useful part of the heat transfer is at the condenser.
C. In ammonia-hydrogen (Electrolux) refrigerator, no compressor, pump or fan is required.
D. The effect of under-cooling the liquid refrigerant is to decrease the coefficient of performance.
Answer: D
33. In a vapour compression system, the condition of refrigerant before passing through the
condenser is
A. Saturated liquid
B. Wet vapour
C. Dry saturated vapour
D. Superheated vapour
Answer: D
34. For proper refrigeration in a cabinet, if the temperature and vapour pressure difference
between cabinet and atmosphere is high, then
A. Bigger cabinet should be used
B. Smaller cabinet should be used
C. Perfectly tight vapour seal should be used
D. Refrigerant with lower evaporation temperature should be used
Answer: C
35. During sensible heating of air _________ decreases.
A. Wet bulb temperature
B. Relative humidity
C. Dry bulb temperature
D. Specific humidity
Answer: B
36. One ton refrigeration corresponds to
A. 50 kcal/ min
B. 50 kcal/ hr
C. 80 kcal/ min
D. 80 kcal/ hr
Answer: A
37. The process, generally used in winter air-conditioning to warm and humidity the air, is called
A. Humidification
B. Dehumidification
C. Heating and humidification
D. Cooling and dehumidification
Answer: C
38. The leaks in a refrigeration system using Freon are detected by
A. Halide torch which on detection produces greenish flame lighting
B. Sulphur sticks which on detection gives white smoke
C. Using reagents
D. Smelling
Answer: A
39. The reduced ambient air cooling system has
A. One cooling turbine and one heat exchanger
B. One cooling turbine and two heat exchangers
C. Two cooling turbines and one heat exchanger
D. Two cooling turbines and two heat exchangers
Answer: C
40. In vapour compression cycle, the condition of refrigerant is saturated liquid
A. After passing through the condenser
B. Before passing through the condenser
C. After passing through the expansion throttle valve
D. Before entering the expansion valve
Answer: A
41. Which of the following refrigerant has the maximum ozone depletion potential in the
stratosphere?
A. Ammonia
B. Carbon dioxide
C. Sulphur dioxide
D. Fluorine
Answer: D
42. If the evaporator temperature of a plant is lowered, keeping the condenser temperature
constant, the h.p. of compressor required will be
A. Same
B. More
C. Less
D. More/less depending on rating
Answer: B
43. Hydrogen is used in Electrolux refrigeration system so as to _________ the rate of evaporation
of the liquid ammonia passing through the evaporator.
A. Equalize
B. Reduce
C. Increase
D. None of these
Answer: C
44. Pick up the wrong statement. A refrigerant should have
A. Tow specific heat of liquid
B. High boiling point
C. High latent heat of vaporisation
D. Higher critical temperature
Answer: B
45. The pressure at the inlet of a refrigerant compressor is called
A. Suction pressure
B. Discharge pressure
C. Critical pressure
D. Back pressure
Answer: A
46. Condensing temperature in a refrigerator is the temperature
A. Of cooling medium
B. Of freezing zone
C. Of evaporator
D. At which refrigerant gas becomes liquid
Answer: D
47. In aircraft, air refrigeration Cycle is used because of
A. Low weight per tonne of refrigeration
B. High heat transfer rate
C. Low temperature at high altitudes
D. Higher coefficient of performance
Answer: A
48. Highest pressure encountered in a refrigeration system should be
A. Critical pressure of refrigerant
B. Much below critical pressure
C. Much above critical pressure
D. Near critical pressure
Answer: B
49. The refrigerant used for absorption refrigerators working on heat from solar collectors is a
mixture of water and
A. Carbon dioxide
B. Sulphur dioxide
C. Lithium bromide
D. R-12
Answer: C
50. One ton of the refrigeration is
A. The standard unit used in refrigeration problems
B. The cooling effect produced by melting 1 ton of ice
C. The refrigeration effect to freeze 1 ton of water at 0°C into ice at 0°C in 24 hours
D. The refrigeration effect to produce 1 ton of ice at NTP conditions
Answer: C
51. The dry bulb temperature during sensible heating of air
A. Remains constant
B. Increases
C. Decreases
D. None of these
Answer: B
52. Vertical lines on pressure-enthalpy chart show constant
A. Pressure lines
B. Temperature lines
C. Total heat lines
D. Entropy lines
Answer: C
53. During heating and dehumidification process, dry bulb temperature
A. Remains constant
B. Increases
C. Decreases
D. None of these
Answer: B
54. The evolution of heat of solution takes place in ammonia absorption plant when
A. Ammonia vapour goes into solution
B. Ammonia vapour is driven out of solution
C. Lithium bromide mixes with ammonia
D. Weak solution mixes with strong solution
Answer: A
55. In a pressure enthalpy chart, the space to the left of the saturated liquid line represents
A. Wet vapour region
B. Superheated vapour region
C. Sub-cooled liquid region
D. None of these
Answer: C
56. In vapour compression cycle, the condition of refrigerant is high pressure saturated liquid
A. After passing through the condenser
B. Before passing through the condenser
C. After passing through the expansion or throttle valve
D. Before entering the expansion valve
Answer: D
57. In a bootstrap air evaporative cooling system, the evaporator is provided
A. Between the combustion chamber and the first heat exchanger
B. Between the first heat exchanger and the secondary compressor
C. Between the secondary compressor and the second heat exchanger
D. Between the second heat exchanger and the cooling turbine
Answer: D
58. The COP of a domestic refrigerator
A. Is less than 1
B. Is more than 1
C. Is equal to 1
D. Depends upon the make
Answer: B
59. The air cooling system mostly used in transport type aircrafts is
A. Simple air cooling system
B. Simple evaporative air cooling system
C. Bootstrap air cooling system
D. All of these
Answer: C
60. The higher temperature in vapour compression cycle occurs at
A. Receiver
B. Expansion valve
C. Evaporator
D. Compressor discharge
Answer: D
61. Dry bulb temperature is the temperature of air recorded by a thermometer, when
A. It is not affected by the moisture present in the air
B. Its bulb is surrounded by a wet cloth exposed to the air
C. The moisture present in it begins to condense
D. None of the above
62. In refrigerators, the temperature difference between the evaporating refrigerant and the
medium being cooled should be
A. High, of the order of 25°
B. As low as possible (3 to 11°C)
C. Zero
D. Any value
Answer: B
63. The evaporator changes the low pressure liquid refrigerant from the expansion valve into
A. High pressure liquid refrigerant
B. Low pressure liquid and vapour refrigerant
C. Low pressure vapour refrigerant
D. None of these
Answer: C
64. Choose the correct statement
A. A refrigerant should have low latent heat
B. If operating temperature of system is low, then refrigerant with low boiling point should be used
C. Pre-cooling and sub-cooling bf refrigerant are same
D. Superheat and sensible heat of a refrigerant are same
Answer: B
65. Carbon dioxide is
A. Colourless
B. Odourless
C. Non-flammable
D. All of these
Answer: D
66. Reducing suction pressure in refrigeration cycle
A. Lowers evaporation temperature
B. Increases power required per ton of refrigeration
C. Lowers compressor capacity because vapour is lighter
D. All of the above
Answer: D
67. The coefficient of performance of a domestic refrigerator is ________ as compared to a domestic
air-conditioner.
A. Same
B. Less
C. More
D. None of these
Answer: B
68. If a gas is to be liquefied, its temperature must be
A. Increased to a value above its critical temperature
B. Reduced to a value below its critical temperature
C. Equal to critical temperature
D. None of the above
Answer: C
69. The capacity of a domestic refrigerator is in the range of
A. 0.1 to 0.3 TR
B. 1 to 3 TR
C. 3 to 5 TR
D. 5 to 7 TR
Answer: A
70. The lowest thermal diffusivity is of
A. Iron
B. Lead
C. Aluminium
D. Rubber
Answer: D
71. In a vapour compression cycle, the refrigerant immediately after expansion valve is
A. Liquid
B. Sub-cooled liquid
C. Saturated liquid
D. Wet vapour
Answer: D
72. Which of the following statement is correct for ammonia as a refrigerant?
A. It is toxic to mucous membranes.
B. It requires large displacement per TR compared to fluoro carbons.
C. It reacts with copper and its alloys.
D. All of these
Answer: D
73. Critical pressure of a liquid is the pressure
A. Above which liquid will remain liquid
B. Above which liquid becomes gas
C. Above which liquid becomes vapour
D. Above which liquid becomes solid
Answer: A
74. The optimum effective temperature for human comfort is
A. Higher in winter than in summer
B. Lower in winter than in summer
C. Same in winter and summer
D. Not dependent on season
Answer: B
75. Formation of frost on evaporator in refrigerator
A. Results in loss of heat due to poor heat transfer
B. Increases heat transfer rate
C. Is immaterial
D. Can be avoided by proper design
Answer: A
76. A one tonne refrigerating machine means that
A. One tonne is the total mass of machine
B. One tonne refrigerant is used
C. One tonne of water can be converted into ice
D. One tonne of ice when melts from and at 0° C in 24 hours, the refrigeration effect is equivalent to 210
kJ/min
Answer: D
77. The suction pipe diameter of refrigerating unit compressor in comparison to delivery side is
A. Bigger
B. Smaller
C. Equal
D. Smaller/bigger depending on capacity
Answer: A
78. The coefficient of performance (C.O.P.) of a refrigerator working as a heat pump is given by
A. (C.O.P.)P = (C.O.P.)R + 2
B. (C.O.P.)P = (C.O.P.)R + 1
C. (C.O.P)P = (C.O.P)R – 1
D. (C.O.P)P = (C.O.P)R
Answer: B
79. Presence of moisture in a refrigerant affects the working of
A. Compressor
B. Condenser
C. Evaporator
D. Expansion valve
Answer: D
80. During heating and humidification, the final relative humidity of air
A. Can be lower or higher than that of the entering air
B. Is lower than that of the entering air
C. Is higher than that of the entering air
D. None of the above
Answer: A
81. Which of the following cycles uses air as the refrigerant?
A. Ericson
B. Stirling
C. Carnot
D. Bell Coleman
Answer: D
82. The curved lines on a psychrometric chart indicates
A. Dry bulb temperature
B. Wet bulb temperature
C. Dew point temperature
D. Relative humidity
Answer: D
83. On the pressure-enthalpy diagram, condensation and desuperheating is represented by a
horizontal line because the process
A. Involves no change in volume
B. Takes place at constant temperature
C. Takes place at constant entropy
D. Takes place at constant pressure
Answer: D
84. When the temperature of the surrounding is higher than the temperature of the body, then the
heat loss by convection from the body to the surrounding will be
A. Positive
B. Negative
C. Zero
D. None of these
Answer: B
85. The general rule for rating refrigeration systems (excepting for CO₂ system) is to approximate
following h.p. per ton of refrigeration
A. 0.1 to 0.5 h.p. per ton of refrigeration
B. 0.5 to 0.8 h.p. per ton of refrigeration
C. 1 to 2 h.p. per ton of refrigeration
D. 2 to 5 h.p. per ton of refrigeration
Answer: C
86. The atmospheric air at dry bulb temperature of 15°C enters a heating coil maintained at 40°C.
The air leaves the heating coil at 25°C. The bypass factor of the heating coil is
A. 0.376
B. 0.4
C. 0.6
D. 0.67
Answer: C
87. The change in evaporator temperature in a refrigeration cycle, as compared to change in
condenser temperature, influences the value of C.O.P.
A. More
B. Less
C. Equally
D. Unpredictable
Answer: A
88. Most thermostatic expansion valves are set for a superheat of
A. 5°C
B. 10°C
C. 15°C
D. 20°C
Answer: A
89. In a refrigeration system, heat absorbed in comparison to heat rejected is
A. More
B. Less
C. Same
D. More for small capacity and less for high capacity
Answer: B
90. A thermostatic expansion valve in a refrigeration system
A. Ensures the evaporator completely filled with refrigerant of the load
B. Is suitable only for constant load systems
C. Maintains different temperatures in evaporator in proportion to load
D. None of the above
Answer: A
91. Freon group of refrigerants are
A. Inflammable
B. Toxic
C. Non-inflammable and toxic
D. Nontoxic and non-inflammable
Answer: D
92. The boiling point of ammonia is
A. -10.5°C
B. -30°C
C. -33.3°C
D. -77.7°C
Answer: C
93. For obtaining high COP, the pressure range of compressor should be
A. High
B. Low
C. Optimum
D. Any value
Answer: B
94. A reversible engine has ideal thermal efficiency of 30%. When it is used as a refrigerating
machine with all other conditions unchanged, the coefficient of performance will be
A. 1.33
B. 2.33
C. 3.33
D. 4.33
Answer: B
95. Cooling water is required for following equipment in ammonia absorption plant
A. Condenser
B. Evaporator
C. Absorber
D. Condenser, absorber and separator (rectifier)
Answer: D
96. The freezing point of sulphur dioxide is
A. -56.6°C
B. -75.2°C
C. -77.7°C
D. -135.8°C
Answer: B
97. Mass flow ratio of NH₃ in comparison to Freon-12 for same refrigeration load and same
temperature limits is of the order of
A. 1: 1
B. 1: 9
C. 9: 1
D. 1: 3
Answer: B
98. In a refrigeration system, the expansion device is connected between the
A. Compressor and condenser
B. Condenser and receiver
C. Receiver and evaporator
D. Evaporator and compressor
Answer: C
99. The vapour compression refrigerator employs the following cycle
A. Rankine
B. Carnot
C. Reversed Rankine
D. Reversed Carnot
Answer: D
100. In actual air-conditioning applications for R-12 and R-22, and operating at a condenser
temperature of 40° C and an evaporator temperature of 5° C, the heat rejection factor is about
A. 1
B. 1.25
C. 2.15
D. 5.12
Answer: B
101. Rating of a domestic refrigerator is of the order of
A. 0.1 ton
B. 5 tons
C. 10 tons
D. 40 tons
Answer: A
102. A human body feels comfortable when the heat produced by the metabolism of human body is
equal to the
A. Heat dissipated to the surroundings
B. Heat stored in the human body
C. Sum ofA. andB.
D. Difference ofA. andB.
Answer: C
103. The bank of tubes at the back of domestic refrigerator is
A. Condenser tubes
B. Evaporator tubes
C. Refrigerant cooling tubes
D. Capillary tubes
Answer: A
104. In a lithium bromide absorption refrigeration system
A. Lithium bromide is used as a refrigerant and water as an absorbent
B. Water is used as a refrigerant and lithium bromide as an absorbent
C. Ammonia is used as a refrigerant and lithium bromide as an absorbent
D. None of the above
Answer: B
105. The condition of refrigerant after passing through the condenser in a vapour compression
system is
A. Saturated liquid
B. Wet vapour
C. Dry saturated vapour
D. Superheated vapour
Answer: A
106. The value of C.O.P in vapour compression cycle is usually
A. Always less than unity
B. Always more than unity
C. Equal to unity
D. Any one of the above
Answer: B
107. The C.O.P. of a refrigerator working on a reversed Carnot cycle is (where T₁ = Lowest
absolute temperature, and T₂ = Highest absolute temperature)
A. T₁ T₂ – T₁
B. T₂ – T₁ T₁
C. T₁ – T₂ T₁
D. T₂ T₂ – T₁
Answer: A
108. Which of the following is not a desirable property of a refrigerant?
A. High risibility with oil
B. Low boiling point
C. Good electrical conductor
D. Large latent heat
Answer: C
109. The refrigerant after condensation process is cooled below the saturation temperature before
throttling. Such a process is called
A. Sub-cooling or under-cooling
B. Super-cooling
C. Normal cooling
D. None of these
Answer: A
110. A certain refrigerating system has a normal operating suction pressure of 10 kg/cm gauge and
condensing pressure of about 67 kg/cm. The refrigerant used is
A. Ammonia
B. Carbon dioxide
C. Freon
D. Brine
Answer: B
111. The capillary tube, as an expansion device, is used in
A. Domestic refrigerators
B. Water coolers
C. Room air conditioners
D. All of these
Answer: D
112. If a heat pump cycle operates between the condenser temperature of +27°C and evaporator
temperature of -23°C, then the Carnot COP will be
A. 0.2
B. 1.2
C. 5
D. 6
Answer: D
113. Which of the following statement is correct?
A. The human body can lose heat even if its temperature is less than the atmospheric temperature.
B. The increase in air movement increases the evaporation from the human body.
C. The warm air increases the rate of radiation of heat from the human body.
D. BothA. andB.
Answer: D
114. In a flooded evaporator refrigerator, an accumulator at suction of compressor is used to
A. Collect liquid refrigerant and prevent it from going to compressor
B. Detect liquid in vapour
C. Superheat the vapour
D. Collect vapours
Answer: A
115. The minimum temperature to which water can be cooled in a cooling tower is
A. Dew point temperature of air
B. Wet bulb temperature of air
C. Dry bulb temperature of air
D. Ambient air temperature
Answer: B
116. Highest temperature encountered in refrigeration cycle should be
A. Near critical temperature of refrigerant
B. Above critical temperature
C. At critical Temperature
D. Much below critical temperature
Answer: D
117. The operating pressure for refrigerating units using R-12 as a refrigerant is
A. 2 bar
B. 8 bar
C. 15 bar
D. 30 bar
Answer: B
118. The domestic refrigerator uses following type of compressor
A. Centrifugal
B. Axial
C. Miniature sealed unit
D. Piston type reciprocating
Answer: D
119. A bootstrap air cooling system has
A. One heat exchanger
B. Two heat exchangers
C. Three heat exchangers
D. Four heat exchangers
Answer: B
120. Critical temperature is the temperature above which
A. A gas will never liquefy
B. A gas will immediately liquefy
C. Water will evaporate
D. Water will never evaporate
Answer: A
121. Which of the following statement is correct?
A. The constant enthalpy lines are also constant wet bulb temperature lines
B. The wet bulb and dry bulb temperature are equal at saturation condition
C. The wet bulb temperature is a measure of enthalpy of moist air
D. All of the above
Answer: D
122. In vapour compression cycle, the condition of refrigerant is very wet vapour
A. After passing through the condenser
B. Before passing through the condenser
C. After passing through the expansion or throttle valve
D. Before entering the compressor
Answer: D
123. During cooling and dehumidification, dry bulb temperature
A. Remains constant
B. Increases
C. Decreases
D. None of these
Answer: C
124. Ammonia absorption refrigeration cycle requires
A. Very little work input
B. Maximum work input
C. Nearly same work input as for vapour compression cycle
D. Zero work input
Answer: A
125. Which of the following refrigerant has the highest freezing point.
A. Ammonia
B. Carbon dioxide
C. Sulphur dioxide
D. R-12
Answer: B
126. A standard ice point temperature corresponds to the temperature of
A. Water at 0°C
B. Ice at 4°C
C. Solid and dry ice
D. Mixture of ice and water under equilibrium conditions
Answer: D
127. The sub-cooling in a refrigeration cycle
A. Does not alter C.O.P.
B. Increases C.O.P.
C. Decreases C.O.P.
D. None of these
Answer: B
128. The condensing pressure due to the presence of non-condensable gases, as compared to that
actually required for condensing temperatures without non-condensable gases,
A. Will be higher
B. Will be lower
C. Will remain unaffected
D. May be higher or lower depending upon the nature of non-condensable gases
Answer: A
129. The Freon group of refrigerants are
A. Halocarbon refrigerants
B. Zoetrope refrigerants
C. Inorganic refrigerants
D. Hydrocarbon refrigerants
Answer: A
130. For better C.O.P of refrigerator, the pressure range corresponding to temperature in
evaporator and condenser must be
A. Small
B. High
C. Equal
D. Anything
Answer: A
131. In vapour compression refrigeration system, refrigerant occurs as liquid between
A. Condenser and expansion valve
B. Compressor and evaporator
C. Expansion valve and evaporator
D. Compressor and condenser
Answer: C
132. The wet bulb depression indicates _________ humidity of the air.
A. Absolute
B. Relative
C. Specific
D. None of these
Answer: B
133. The sensible heat factor during the heating and humidification process is given by (where h₁ =
Enthalpy of air entering the heating coil, h₂ = Enthalpy of air leaving the heating coil, and hA =
Enthalpy of air at the end of humidification process)
A. (hA – h2)/ (h1 – h2)
B. (h2 – hA)/ (h1 – h2)
C. (h1 – h2)/ (hA – h2)
D. (hA – h1)/ (h2 – h1)
Answer: D
134. The lower horizontal line of the refrigeration cycle plotted on pressure-enthalpy diagram
represents
A. Condensation of the refrigerant vapour
B. Evaporation of the refrigerant liquid
C. Compression of the refrigerant vapour
D. Metering of the refrigerant liquid
Answer: B
135. The leakage in a refrigeration system using Freon is detected by
A. Halide torch
B. Sulphur sticks
C. Soap and water
D. All of these
Answer: A
136. The conditioned air supplied to the room must have the capacity to take up
A. Room sensible heat load only
B. Room latent heat load only
C. Both room sensible heat and latent heat loads
D. None of the above
Answer: C
137. Moisture in Freon refrigeration system causes
A. Ineffective refrigeration
B. High power consumption
C. Freezing automatic regulating valve
D. Corrosion of whole system
Answer: C
138. The boiling point of ________ is 10.5°C.
A. Ammonia
B. R-12
C. Sulphur dioxide
D. Carbon dioxide
Answer: C
139. The refrigeration effect in a dry evaporator compared to flooded evaporator in a similar plant
is
A. Same
B. More
C. Less
D. More or less depending on ambient conditions
Answer: C
140. The index which correlates the combined effects of air temperature, relative humidity and air
velocity on the human body, is known as
A. Mean radiant temperature
B. Effective temperature
C. Dew point temperature
D. None of these
Answer: B
141. Which of the following refrigerants has lowest freezing point?
A. Freon-12
B. NH3
C. CO2
D. Freon-22
Answer: D
142. The thermostatic expansion valve is used in ________ type of evaporators.
A. Flooded
B. DX coil
C. Dry
D. None of these
Answer: C
143. The boiling point of ammonia is
A. 100°C
B. 50°C
C. 33.3°C
D. 0°C
Answer: C
144. The specific humidity during heating and humidification process.
A. Remains constant
B. Increases
C. Decreases
D. None of these
Answer: B
145. The relative coefficient of performance is
A. Actual COP/theoretical COP
B. Theoretical COP/actual COP
C. Actual COP × theoretical COP
D. None of these
Answer: A
146. The wet bulb temperature at 100% relative humidity is ________ dew point temperature.
A. Same as
B. Lower than
C. Higher than
D. None of these
Answer: A
147. Vapour compression refrigeration is somewhat like
A. Carnot cycle
B. Rankine’s cycle
C. Reversed Carnot cycle
D. None of the above
Answer: D
148. A heat pump working on a reversed Carnot cycle has a C.O.P. of 5. It works as a refrigerator
taking 1 kW of work input. The refrigerating effect will be
A. 1 kW
B. 2 kW
C. 3 kW
D. 4 kW
Answer: D
149. Aqua ammonia is used as refrigerant in the following type of refrigeration system
A. Compression
B. Direct
C. Indirect
D. Absorption
Answer: D
150. Air conditioning means
A. Cooling
B. Heating
C. Dehumidifying
D. All of these
Answer: D
151. The advantage of dry compression is that
A. It permits higher speeds to be used
B. It permits complete evaporation in the evaporator
C. It results in high volumetric and mechanical efficiency
D. All of the above
Answer: D
152. The specific humidity during dehumidification process
A. Remains constant
B. Increases
C. Decreases
D. None of these
Answer: C
153. The C.O.P. of a refrigeration cycle with lowering of condenser temperature, keeping the
evaporator temperature constant, will
A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. May increase or decrease depending on the type of refrigerant used
D. Remain unaffected
Answer: A
154. The alignment circle is marked on the psychrometric chart at
A. 20°C DBT and 50% RH
B. 26°C DBT and 50% RH
C. 20°C DBT and 60% RH
D. 26°C DBT and 60% RH
Answer: B
155. A refrigeration cycle operates between condenser temperature of + 27°C and evaporator
temperature of -23°C. The Carnot coefficient of performance of cycle will be
A. 0.2
B. 1.2
C. 5
D. 6
Answer: C
156. Relative humidity is given by (where pv = Partial pressure of water vapour, pb = Barometric
pressure, ps = Pressure of saturated air, pd = Pressure at dry bulb temperature, pw = Saturation
pressure corresponding to wet bulb temperature, and μ = Degree of saturation)
A. 0.622 Pv / (Pb – Pv)
B. μ [ – (1 – μ Ps P ]
C. [Pv (Pb – Pd)]/ [Pd (Pb – Pv)]
D. None of these
Answer: B
157. In refrigerator, liquid receiver is required between condenser and flow controlling device, if
quantity of refrigerant for system is
A. Less than 2 kg
B. More than or equal to 3.65 kg
C. More than 10 kg
D. There is no such consideration
Answer: B
158. During sensible cooling,
A. Relative humidity remains constant
B. Wet bulb temperature increases
C. Specific humidity increases
D. Partial pressure of vapour remains constant
Answer: D
159. Choose the wrong statement
A. Temperature of medium being cooled must be below that of the evaporator
B. Refrigerant leaves the condenser as liquid
C. All solar thermally operated absorption systems are capable only of intermittent operation
D. Frost on evaporator reduces heat transfer
Answer: A
160. The superheating in a refrigeration cycle
A. Does not alter C.O.P.
B. Increases C.O.P.
C. Decreases C.O.P.
D. None of these
Answer: C
161. Refrigeration in aeroplanes usually employs the following refrigerant
A. CO2
B. Freon-11
C. Freon-22
D. Air
Answer: D
162. The condition of refrigerant as it leaves the compressor in a vapour compression system is
A. Saturated liquid
B. Wet vapour
C. Dry saturated vapour
D. Superheated vapour
Answer: D
163. The coefficient of performance is the ratio of the refrigerant effect to the
A. Heat of compression
B. Work done by compressor
C. Enthalpy increase in compressor
D. All of the above
Answer: D
164. The bypass factor (B. P. F.) in case of sensible heating of air is (Where td₁ = Dry bulb
temperature of air entering the heating coil, td₂ = Dry bulb temperature of air leaving the heating
coil, and td₃ = Dry bulb temperature of heating coil)
A. td₂ – td₃ td₃ – td₁
B. td₃ – td₂ td₃ – td₁
C. td₃ – td₁ td₂ – td₃
D. td₃ – td₁ td₃ – td₂
Answer: B
165. Air refrigeration operates on
A. Carnot cycle
B. Reversed Carnot cycle
C. Rankine’s cycle
D. Brayton cycle
Answer: D
166. In order to cool and dehumidify a stream of moist air, it must be passed over the coil at a
temperature
A. Which lies between the dry bulb and wet bulb temperatures of the incoming stream
B. Which lies between the wet bulb and dew point temperatures of the incoming stream
C. Which is lower than the dew point temperature of the incoming stream
D. Of adiabatic saturation of incoming stream
Answer: C
167. Superheating in a refrigeration cycle
A. Increases C.O.P
B. Decreases C.O.P
C. C.O.P remains unaltered
D. Other factors decide C.O.P
Answer: B
168. The specific humidity during cooling and dehumidification
A. Remains constant
B. Increases
C. Decreases
D. None of these
Answer: C
169. Chaperon equation is applicable for registration at
A. Saturation point of vapour
B. Saturation point of liquid
C. Sublimation temperature
D. Triple point
Answer: A
170. For ammonia refrigerating systems, the tubes of a shell and tube condenser are made of
A. Copper
B. Aluminium
C. Steel
D. Brass
Answer: C
171. The refrigerant for a refrigerator should have
A. High sensible heat
B. High total heat
C. High latent heat
D. Low latent heat
Answer: C
172. The bypass factor for a cooling coil
A. Increases with increase in velocity of air passing through it
B. Decreases with increase in velocity of air passing through it
C. Remains unchanged with increase in velocity of air passing through it
D. May increase or decrease with increase in velocity of air passing through it depending upon the
condition of air entering
Answer: A
173. Accumulators should have adequate volume to store refrigerant charge at least
A. 10%
B. 25%
C. 50%
D. 75%
Answer: C
174. The dry bulb temperature lines, on the psychrometric chart are
A. Vertical and uniformly spaced
B. Horizontal and uniformly spaced
C. Horizontal and non-uniformly spaced
D. Curved lines
Answer: A
175. In S.J. unit, one ton of refrigeration is equal to
A. 210 kJ/ min
B. 21 kJ/ min
C. 420 kJ/ min
D. 840 kJ/ min
Answer: A
176. The cooling system used for supersonic aircrafts and rockets is
A. Simple air cooling system
B. Bootstrap air cooling system
C. Reduced ambient air cooling system
D. Regenerative air cooling system
Answer: D
177. Short horizontal lines on pressure-enthalpy chart show
A. Constant pressure lines
B. Constant temperature lines
C. Constant total heat lines
D. Constant entropy lines
Answer: A
178. Which of the following statement is wrong?
A. The value of C.O.P. is always greater than one
B. In a vapour compression system, the condition of refrigerant before entering the compressor is dry
saturated vapour
C. The space between the saturated liquid line and saturated vapour line, in a pressure enthalpy chart, is
wet vapour region
D. None of the above
Answer: D
179. One ton of refrigeration is equal to the refrigeration effect corresponding to melting of 1000 kg
of ice
A. In 1 hour
B. In 1 minute
C. In 24 hours
D. In 12 hours
Answer: C
180. In a vapour absorption refrigeration system, the compressor of the vapour compression system
is replaced by
A. Liquid pump
B. Generator
C. Absorber and generator
D. Absorber, generator and liquid pump
Answer: D
181. Efficiency of a Carnot engine is given as 80%. If the cycle direction be reversed, what will be
the value of C.O.P. of reversed Carnot Cycle?
A. 1.25
B. 0.8
C. 0.5
D. 0.25
Answer: D
182. The refrigerant supplied to a compressor must be
A. Superheated vapour refrigerant
B. Dry saturated liquid refrigerant
C. A mixture of liquid and vapour refrigerant
D. None of these
Answer: A
183. One of the purposes of sub cooling the liquid refrigerant is to
A. Reduce compressor overheating
B. Reduce compressor discharge temperature
C. Increase cooling effect
D. Ensure that only liquid and not the vapour enters the expansion (throttling) valve
Answer: D
184. The ratio of heat extracted in the refrigerator to the work-done on the refrigerant is called
A. Coefficient of performance of refrigeration
B. Coefficient of performance of heat pump
C. Relative coefficient of performance
D. Refrigerating efficiency
Answer: A
185. In vapour compression cycle the condition off refrigerant is dry saturated vapour
A. After passing through the condenser
B. Before passing through the condenser
C. After passing through the expansion or throttle valve
D. Before entering the compressor
Answer: D
186. In larger industrial and commercial reciprocating compression systems, refrigerant widely
used is
A. Ammonia
B. Carbon dioxide
C. Sulphur dioxide
D. R-12
Answer: A
187. In vapour compression cycle the condition of refrigerant is superheated vapour
A. After passing through the condenser
B. Before passing through the condenser
C. After passing through the expansion or throttle valve
D. Before entering the expansion valve
Answer: B
188. In which of the following refrigeration system, waste heat can be effectively used?
A. Vapour compression cycle
B. Vapour absorption cycle
C. Air refrigeration cycle
D. None of these
Answer: B
189. Pick up the correct statement about giving up of heat from one medium to other in ammonia
absorption system
A. Strong solution to weak solution
B. Weak solution to strong solution
C. Strong solution to ammonia vapour
D. Ammonia vapours to weak solution
Answer: B
190. The material of pipe lines for a system using Freon as a refrigerant should be
A. Brass
B. Copper
C. Steel
D. Aluminium
Answer: B
191. Ammonia is
A. Non-toxic
B. Non-inflammable
C. Toxic and non-inflammable
D. Highly toxic and inflammable
Answer: D
192. The sensible heat factor during cooling and dehumidification process is given by (where h₁ =
Enthalpy of air entering the cooling coil, h₂ = Enthalpy of air leaving the cooling coil, and hA =
Enthalpy of air at the end of dehumidification process)
A. (hA – h2)/ (h1 – h2)
B. (h2 – hA)/ (h1 – h2)
C. (h1 – h2)/ (hA – h2)
D. (hA – h1)/ (h2 – h1)
Answer: A
193. Most of the domestic refrigerators work on the following refrigeration system
A. Vapour compression
B. Vapour absorption
C. Carnot cycle
D. Electrolux refrigerator
Answer: A
194. For unsaturated air, the dew point temperature is __________ wet bulb temperature.
A. Equal to
B. Less than
C. More than
D. None of these
Answer: B
195. Air refrigeration cycle is used in
A. Domestic refrigerators
B. Commercial refrigerators
C. Air conditioning
D. Gas liquefaction
Answer: D
196. The temperature of air recorded by a thermometer, when its bulb is surrounded by a wet cloth
exposed to the air, is called
A. Wet bulb temperature
B. Dry bulb temperature
C. Dew point temperature
D. None of these
Answer: A
197. The C.O.P. of an absorption type refrigerator is given by (where T₁ = Temperature at which
the working substance receives heat, T₂ = Temperature of cooling water, and T₃ = Evaporator
temperature)
A. [T₁ T₂ – T₃ ] [T₃ T₁ – T₂ ]
B. [T₃ T₁ – T₂ ] [T₁ T₂ – T₃ ]
C. [T₁ T₁ – T₂ ] [T₃ T₂ – T₃ ]
D. [T₃ T₂ – T₃ ] [T₁ T₁ – T₂ ]
Answer: B
198. The humidity ratio or specific humidity is the mass of water vapour present in
A. 1 m3 of wet air
B. 1 m3 of dry air
C. 1 kg of wet air
D. 1 kg of dry air
Answer: D
199. During adiabatic saturation process on unsaturated air __________ remains constant.
A. Relative humidity
B. Dew point temperature
C. Dry bulb temperature
D. Wet bulb temperature
Answer: D
200. Degree of saturation or percentage humidity is
A. The mass of water vapour present in 1 m³ of dry air
B. The mass of water vapour present in 1 kg of dry air
C. The ratio of the actual mass of water vapour in a unit mass of dry air to the mass of water vapour in the
same mass of dry air when it is saturated at the same temperature and pressure
D. The ratio of actual mass of water vapour in a given volume of moist air to the mass of water vapour in
the same volume of saturated air at the same temperature and pressure
Answer: C
201. The reciprocating refrigerant compressors are very suitable for
A. Small displacements and low condensing pressures
B. Large displacements and high condensing pressures
C. Small displacements and high condensing pressures
D. Large displacements and low condensing pressures
Answer: C
202. The desirable property of a refrigerant is
A. Low boiling point
B. High critical temperature
C. High latent heat of vaporisation
D. All of these
Answer: D
203. The humidification process, on the psychrometric chart is shown by
A. Horizontal line
B. Vertical line
C. Inclined line
D. Curved line
Answer: B
204. The evaporator used in household refrigerators is
A. Frosting evaporator
B. Non-frosting evaporator
C. Defrosting evaporator
D. None of these
Answer: A
205. In case of sensible heating of air, the coil efficiency is given by (where B.P.F. = Bypass factor)
A. B.P.F. – 1
B. 1 – B. P.F.
C. 1/ B.P.F.
D. 1 + B.P.F.
Answer: B
206. In a refrigerating machine, heat rejected is _________ heat absorbed.
A. Equal to
B. Less than
C. Greater than
D. None of these
Answer: C
207. In aqua ammonia and Lithium bromide water absorption refrigeration systems, the
refrigerants are respectively
A. Water and water
B. Water and lithium bromide
C. Ammonia and lithium bromide
D. Ammonia and water
Answer: D
208. In air-conditioning of aeroplanes, using air as a refrigerant, the cycle used is
A. Reversed Carnot cycle
B. Reversed Joule cycle
C. Reversed Brayton cycle
D. Reversed Otto cycle
Answer: C
209. The mass of water vapour present in __________ is called absolute humidity.
A. 1 m3 of water
B. 1 m3 of dry air
C. 1 kg of wet air
D. 1 kg of dry air
Answer: B
210. While designing the refrigeration system of an aircraft, the prime consideration is that the
A. System has high C.O.P.
B. Power per TR is low
C. Mass of refrigerant circulated in the system is low
D. Mass of the refrigeration equipment is low
Answer: D
211. The formation of frost on cooling coils in a refrigerator
A. Increases heat transfer
B. Improves C.O.P. of the system
C. Increases power consumption
D. Reduces power consumption
Answer: C
212. The power per tonne of refrigeration is
A. 3.5/C.O.P.
B. C.O.P/3.5
C. 3.5 × C.O.P.
D. None of these
Answer: A
213. The wet bulb temperature during sensible heating of air
A. Remains constant
B. Increases
C. Decreases
D. None of these
Answer: B
214. The relative humidity is defined as
A. The mass of water vapour present in 1 m3 of dry air
B. The mass of water vapour present in 1 kg of dry air
C. The ratio of the actual mass of water vapour in a unit mass of dry air to the mass of water vapour in the
same mass of dry air when it is saturated at the same temperature and pressure
D. The ratio of actual mass of water vapour in a given volume of moist air to the mass of water vapour in
the same volume of saturated air at the same temperature and pressure
Answer: D
215. As relative humidity decreases, the dew point temperature will be ________ wet bulb
temperature.
A. Same as
B. Lower than
C. Higher than
D. None of these
Answer: B
216. In a psychrometric process, the sensible heat added is 30 kJ/s and the latent heat added is 20
kJ/s. The sensible heat factor for the process will be
A. 0.3
B. 0.6
C. 0.67
D. 1.5
Answer: B
217. An Electrolux refrigerator is called a _________ absorption system.
A. Single fluid
B. Two fluids
C. Three fluids
D. None of these
Answer: C
218. It is desired to condition the outside air from 70% relative humidity and 45° C dry bulb
temperature to 50% relative humidity and 25° C dry bulb temperature (room condition). The
practical arrangement will be
A. Dehumidification
B. Cooling and humidification
C. Cooling and dehumidification
D. Dehumidification and pure sensible cooling
Answer: C
219. The difference between dry bulb temperature and wet bulb temperature, is called
A. Dry bulb depression
B. Wet bulb depression
C. Dew point depression
D. Degree of saturation
Answer: B
220. The coefficient of performance of Heat Pump is always _________ one.
A. Equal to
B. Less than
C. Greater than
D. None of these
Answer: C
221. An evaporator is also known as
A. Freezing coil
B. Cooling coil
C. Chilling coil
D. All of these
Answer: D
222. A refrigeration system
A. Removes heat from a low temperature body and delivers it to a high temperature body
B. Removes heat from a high temperature body and delivers it to a low temperature body
C. Rejects energy to a low temperature body
D. None of the above
Answer: A
223. Nusselt number (NN) is given by
A. NN = hl/k
B. NN = μ cp k
C. NN = ρ V l μ
D. NN = V²/t.cp
Answer: A
224. The temperature of ammonia after compression in a vapour compression system is
A. 20 to 50°C
B. 50 to 70°C
C. 70 to 110°C
D. None of these
Answer: C
225. A pressure gauge on the discharge side of a refrigerant compressor reads too high. The reasons
will be
A. Lack of cooling water
B. Water temperature being high
C. Dirty condenser surface
D. All of these
Answer: D
226. For evaporators and condensers, for the given conditions, the logarithmic mean temperature
difference ™ for parallel flow is ________ that for counter flow.
A. Equal to
B. Less than
C. Greater than
D. None of these
Answer: A
227. A vapour absorption refrigerator uses _________ as a refrigerant.
A. Water
B. Ammonia
C. Freon
D. Aqua-ammonia
Answer: D
228. Bell Coleman cycle is a
A. Reversed Carnot cycle
B. Reversed Otto cycle
C. Reversed Joule cycle
D. Reversed Rankine cycle
Answer: C
229. The coefficient of performance of Electrolux refrigerator is the ratio of
A. Heat supplied by the gas burner to the heat absorbed by the evaporator
B. Heat absorbed by the evaporator to the heat supplied by the gas burner
C. Heat supplied by the gas burner minus the heat absorbed by the evaporator to the heat supplied by the
gas burner
D. Heat absorbed by the evaporator minus the heat supplied by the gas burner to the heat absorbed by the
evaporator
Answer: B
230. Which of the following refrigerant has the lowest freezing point?
A. R-11
B. R-12
C. R-22
D. Ammonia
Answer: C
231. In Electrolux refrigerator
A. Ammonia is absorbed in hydrogen
B. Ammonia is absorbed in water
C. Ammonia evaporates in hydrogen
D. Hydrogen evaporates in ammonia
Answer: C
232. One tonne of refrigeration (1TR) means that the heat removing capacity is
A. 21 kJ/min
B. 210 kJ/min
C. 420 kJ/min
D. 620 kJ/min
Answer: B
233. The superheated vapour region, in a pressure enthalpy chart, is represented by the space
A. To the left of saturated liquid line
B. To the right of saturated liquid line
C. Between the saturated liquid line and saturated vapour line
D. None of the above
Answer: C
234. A good refrigerant should have
A. High latent heat of vaporisation and low freezing point
B. High operating pressures and low freezing point
C. High specific volume and high latent heat of vaporisation
D. Low C.O.P. and low freezing point
Answer: A
235. Air refrigeration cycle is used in
A. Commercial refrigerators
B. Domestic refrigerators
C. Air-conditioning
D. Gas liquefaction
Answer: D
236. In a saturated air-water vapour mixture, the
A. Dry bulb temperature is higher than wet bulb temperature
B. Dew point temperature is lower than wet bulb temperature
C. Dry bulb, wet bulb and dew point temperature are same
D. Dry bulb temperature is higher than dew point temperature
Answer: C
237. The capillary tube is not used in large capacity refrigeration systems because
A. Cost is too high
B. Capacity control is not possible
C. It is made of copper
D. Required pressure drop cannot be achieved
Answer: B
238. The thermostatic expansion valve operates on the changes in the
A. Degree of superheat at exit from the evaporator
B. Temperature of the evaporator
C. Pressure in the evaporator
D. None of the above
Answer: A
239. In a vapour compression system, the condition of refrigerant before entering the expansion or
throttle valve is
A. High pressure saturated liquid
B. Wet vapour
C. Very wet vapour
D. Dry vapour
Answer: A
240. The freezing point of R-12 is
A. -86.6°C
B. -95.2°C
C. -107.7°C
D. -135.8°C
Answer: D
241. The unit of thermal diffusivity is
A. m/hK
B. m/h
C. m²/h
D. m²/hK
Answer: C
242. The comfort conditions in air conditioning are at (where DBT = Dry bulb temperature, and
RH = Relative humidity)
A. 25°C DBT and 100% RH
B. 20°C DBT and 80% RH
C. 22°C DBT and 60% RH
D. 25°C DBT and 40% RH
Answer: C
243. The pressure at the outlet of a refrigerant compressor is called
A. Suction pressure
B. Discharge pressure
C. Critical pressure
D. Back pressure
Answer: B
244. The bypass factor, in case of sensible cooling of air, is given by (where td₁ = Dry bulb
temperature of air entering the cooling coil, td₂ = Dry bulb temperature of air leaving the cooling
coil, and td₃ = Dry bulb temperature of the cooling coil)
A. (td₁ -td₃ td₂ -td₃
B. td₂ -td₃ td₁ -td₃
C. td₃ -td₁ td₂ -td₃
D. td₃ -td₂ td₁ -td₃
Answer: B
245. The operating temperature of a cold storage is 2°C. The heat leakage from the surrounding is
30 kW for the ambient temperature of 40°C. The actual C.O.P. of refrigeration plant used is one
fourth that of ideal plant working between the same temperatures. The power required to drive the
plant is
A. 1.86 kW
B. 3.72 kW
C. 7.44 kW
D. 18.6 kW
Answer: D
246. In chemical dehumidification process,
A. Dew point temperature decreases
B. Wet bulb temperature decreases
C. Dry bulb temperature increases
D. All of these
Answer: D
247. Environmental protection agencies advice against the use of chlorofluorocarbon refrigerants
since
A. These react with water vapour and cause acid rain
B. These react with plants and cause greenhouse effect
C. These react with oxygen and cause its depletion
D. These react with ozone layer
Answer: D
248. When the lower temperature of a refrigerating machine is fixed, then the coefficient of
performance can be improved by
A. Operating the machine at higher speeds
B. Operating the machine at lower speeds
C. Raising the higher temperature
D. Lowering the higher temperature
Answer: D
249. The bypass factor of a cooling coil decreases with
A. Decrease in fin spacing and increase in number of rows
B. Increase in fin spacing and increase in number of rows
C. Increase in fin spacing and decrease in number of rows
D. Decrease in fin spacing and decrease in number of rows
Answer: A
250. A mixture of dry air and water vapour, when the air has diffused the maximum amount of
water vapour into it, is called
A. Dry air
B. Moist air
C. Saturated air
D. Specific humidity
Answer: C
251. The total pressure exerted by the mixture of air and water vapour is equal to the sum of
pressures which each constituent would exert, if it occupied the same space by itself. This statement
is called
A. Kinetic theory of gases
B. Newton’s law of gases
C. Dalton’s law of partial pressures
D. Avogadro’s hypothesis
Answer: C
252. The relative humidity lines on a psychrometric chart are
A. Vertical and uniformly spaced
B. Horizontal and uniformly spaced
C. Horizontal and non-uniformly spaced
D. Curved lines
Answer: D
253. The C.O.P. of a heat pump working on a reversed Carnot cycle is
A. T₁ T₂ – T₁
B. T₂ – T₁ T₁
C. T₁ – T₂ T₁
D. T₂ T₂ – T₁
Answer: D
254. A vapour absorption refrigeration system
A. Gives noisy operation
B. Gives quiet operation
C. Requires little power consumption
D. Cools below 0°C
Answer: B
255. A refrigerating system operating on reversed Brayton refrigeration cycle is used for
maintaining 250 K. If the temperature at the end of constant pressure cooling is 300 K and rise in
the temperature of air in the refrigerator is 50 K, then the net work of compression will be (assume
air as working substance with Cp = 1 kJ/kg)
A. 25 kJ/kg
B. 50 kJ/kg
C. 100 kJ/kg
D. 125 kJ/kg
Answer: B
256. The ratio of the actual mass of water vapour in a unit mass of dry air to the mass of water
vapour in the same mass of dry air when it is saturated at the same temperature and pressure, is
called
A. Humidity ratio
B. Relative humidity
C. Absolute humidity
D. Degree of saturation
Answer: D
257. During dehumidification process, _________ remains constant.
A. Wet bulb temperature
B. Relative humidity
C. Dry bulb temperature
D. Specific humidity
Answer: C
258. Pressure of water vapour is given by
A. 0.622 Pv/ (Pb – Pv)
B. μ [ – (1 – μ Ps P ]
C. [Pv (Pb – Pd)]/ [Pd (Pb – Pv)]
D. None of these
Answer: D
259. R-12 is generally preferred over R-22 in deep freezers since
A. It has low operating pressures
B. It gives higher coefficient of performance
C. It is miscible with oil over large range of temperatures
D. All of the above
Answer: C
260. In a spray washing system, if the temperature of water is higher than the dry bulb temperature
of entering air, then the air is
A. Heated and dehumidified
B. Heated and humidified
C. Cooled and humidified
D. Cooled and dehumidified
Answer: B
261. A valve which maintains a constant degree of superheat at the end of the evaporator coil, is
called
A. Automatic expansion valve
B. High side float valve
C. Thermostatic expansion valve
D. Low side float valve
Answer: D
262. An infinite parallel planes with emissivities e₁ and e₂, the interchange factor for radiation from
surface 1 to surface 2 is given by
A. e₁ e₂ e₁ e₂ – e₁e₂
B. e₁ e₂
C. e₁ e₂
D. e₁e₂
Answer: A
263. The emissivity of a polished silver body is _________ as compared to black body.
A. Same
B. Low
C. Very low
D. High
Answer: C
264. Air refrigerator works on
A. Reversed Carnot cycle
B. Bell Coleman cycle
C. BothA. andB.
D. None of these
Answer: C
265. The relative coefficient of performance is equal to
A. (Theoretical C.O.P.)/ (Actual C.O.P.)
B. (Actual C.O.P.) /(Theoretical C.O.P.)
C. (Actual C.O.P.) × (Theoretical C.O.P.)
D. None of these
Answer: B
266. In case of sensible cooling of air, the coil efficiency is given by
A. B.P.F. – 1
B. 1 – B.P.F.
C. 1/ B.P.F.
D. 1 + B.P.F.
Answer: B
267. For large tonnage (more than 200 TR) air-conditioning applications, the compressor
recommended is
A. Reciprocating
B. Rotating
C. Centrifugal
D. Screw
Answer: C
268. The wet bulb temperature during sensible cooling of air
A. Remains constant
B. Increases
C. Decreases
D. None of these
Answer: C
269. A condenser of refrigeration system rejects heat at the rate of 120 kW, while its compressor
consumes a power of 30 kW. The coefficient of performance of the system will be
A. 1/4
B. 1/3
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: D
270. A refrigerant with the highest critical pressure is
A. R-11
B. R-12
C. R-22
D. Ammonia
Answer: D
271. In aqua ammonia absorption refrigeration system, incomplete rectification leads to
accumulation of water in
A. Condenser
B. Evaporator
C. Absorber
D. None of these
Answer: A
272. Most air cooled condensers are designed to operate with a temperature difference of
A. 5°C
B. 8°C
C. 14°C
D. 22°C
Answer: C
273. In a reversed Brayton cycle, the heat is absorbed by the air during
A. Isentropic compression process
B. Constant pressure cooling process
C. Isentropic expansion process
D. Constant pressure expansion process
Answer: D
274. Wet bulb temperature is the temperature of air recorded by a thermometer, when
A. It is not affected by the moisture present in the air
B. Its bulb is surrounded by a wet cloth exposed to the air
C. The moisture present in it begins to condense
D. None of the above
Answer: B
275. The difference between dry bulb temperature and dew point temperature, is called
A. Dry bulb depression
B. Wet bulb depression
C. Dew point depression
D. Degree of saturation
Answer: C
276. In mechanical refrigeration system, the refrigerant has the maximum temperature
A. In evaporator
B. Before expansion valve
C. Between compressor and condenser
D. Between condenser and evaporator
Answer: C
277. The central air conditioning system has ___________ overall efficiency as compared to
individual systems.
A. Same
B. Lower
C. Higher
D. None of these
Answer: C
278. Moisture should be removed from refrigerants to avoid
A. Freezing at the expansion valve
B. Restriction to refrigerant flow
C. Corrosion of steel plates
D. All of these
Answer: D
279. The specific humidity during humidification process
A. Remains constant
B. Increases
C. Decreases
D. None of these
Answer: B
280. During a refrigeration cycle, heat is rejected by the refrigerant in a
A. Compressor
B. Condenser
C. Evaporator
D. Expansion valve
Answer: B
281. In a vapour compression system, the condition of refrigerant is dry saturated vapour
A. Before entering the compressor
B. After leaving the compressor
C. Before entering the condenser
D. After leaving the condenser
Answer: A
282. During sensible cooling of air, specific humidity
A. Remains constant
B. Increases
C. Decreases
D. None of these
Answer: A
283. In a psychrometric chart, specific humidity (moisture content) lines are
A. Vertical and uniformly spaced
B. Horizontal and uniformly spaced
C. Horizontal and non-uniformly spaced
D. Curved lines
Answer: B
284. The horizontal and non-uniformly spaced lines on a psychrometric chart indicates
A. Dry bulb temperature
B. Wet bulb temperature
C. Dew point temperature
D. Specific humidity
Answer: C
285. In a vapour compression refrigeration system, a throttle valve is used in place of an expander
because
A. It considerably reduces mass of the system
B. It improves the C.O.P., as the condenser is small
C. The positive work in isentropic expansion of liquid is very small
D. It leads to significant cost reduction
Answer: C
286. Which of the following refrigerant is highly toxic and flammable?
A. Ammonia
B. Carbon dioxide
C. Sulphur dioxide
D. R-12
Answer: A
287. The dehumidification process, on the psychrometric chart, is shown by
A. Horizontal line
B. Vertical line
C. Inclined line
D. Curved line
Answer: B
288. The wet bulb temperature at 100% relative humidity is ________ dry bulb temperature.
A. Same as
B. Lower than
C. Higher than
D. None of these
Answer: A
289. The human body feels comfortable when the heat stored in the body is
A. Positive
B. Negative
C. Zero
D. None of these
Answer: C
290. The heat rejection factor (HRF) is given by
A. 1 + C.O.P
B. 1 – C.O.P.
C. 1 + (1/C.O.P)
D. 1 – (1/C.O.P)
Answer: C
291. In order to collect liquid refrigerant and to prevent it from going to a ________, a device
known as accumulator is used at the suction of compressor.
A. Compressor
B. Condenser
C. Expansion valve
D. Evaporator
Answer: A
292. The vertical and uniformly spaced lines on a psychrometric chart indicates
A. Dry bulb temperature
B. Wet bulb temperature
C. Dew point temperature
D. Specific humidity
Answer: A
293. The undesirable property of a refrigerant is
A. Non-toxic
B. Non-flammable
C. Non-explosive
D. High boiling point
Answer: D
294. The process, generally used in summer air conditioning to cool and dehumidify the air, is
called
A. Humidification
B. Dehumidification
C. Heating and humidification
D. Cooling and dehumidification
Answer: D
295. The leakage in a refrigeration system using ammonia is detected by
A. Halide torch
B. Sulphur sticks
C. Soap and water
D. All of these
Answer: B
296. The lowest temperature during the cycle in a vapour compression system occurs after
A. Compression
B. Expansion
C. Condensation
D. Evaporation
Answer: D
297. In a domestic refrigerator, a capillary tube controls the flow of refrigerant from the
A. Expansion valve to the evaporator
B. Evaporator to the thermostat
C. Condenser to the expansion valve
D. Condenser to the evaporator
Answer: A
298. The refrigerant used in small tonnage commercial machines (hermetically sealed units) is
A. Ammonia
B. Carbon dioxide
C. Sulphur dioxide
D. R-12
Answer: C
299. When the air is passed through an insulated chamber having sprays of water maintained at a
temperature higher than the dew point temperature of entering air but lower than its dry bulb
temperature, then the air is said to be
A. Cooled and humidified
B. Cooled and dehumidified
C. Heated and humidified
D. Heated and dehumidified
Answer: A
300. A refrigerant compressor is used to
A. Raise the pressure of the refrigerant
B. Raise the temperature of the refrigerant
C. Circulate the refrigerant through the refrigerating system
D. All of the above
Answer: D
500+ TOP Strength of Materials MCQ Questions and Answers
Posted on April 16, 2024 by engineer13 Comments
Strength of Materials Multiple choice Questions
1. A material obeys hook’s law up to
(A) Plastic limit
(B) Elastic limit
(C) Yield point
(D) Limit of proportionality
Answer: B
2. The torque transmitted by a solid shaft of diameter (D) is (where τ = Maximum allowable shear
stress)
A π 4 × τ × D³
B π 6 × τ × D³
C π 3 × τ × D³
D π 64 × τ × D³
Answer: B
3. The torque transmitted by a hollow shaft of outer diameter (d₁) and inner diameter (d2) is
(where, τ = Maximum allowable shear stress)
A π 4 × τ × d₁⁴ – d⁴₂ d₁
B π 6 × τ × d₁⁴ – d⁴₂ d₁
C π 3 × τ × d₁⁴ – d⁴₂ d₁
D π 64 × τ × d₁⁴ – d⁴₂ d₁
Answer: B
4. If Th is the torque resisting capacity of a hollow shaft and Ts is that of a solid shaft, of the same
material, length and weight. Then,
(A) Th > Ts
(B) Th < Ts
(C) Th = Ts
(D) None of these
Answer: A
5. A cube subjected to three mutually perpendicular stress of equal intensity p expenses a
volumetric strain
(A) 3p/ E × (2/m – 1)
(B) 3p/ E × (2 – m)
(C) 3p/ E × (1 – 2/m)
(D) E/ 3p × (2/m – 1)
Answer: C
6. The strain energy stored in a solid circular shaft subjected to shear stress (τ), is:
(Where, G = Modulus of rigidity for the shaft material)
A τ × Volume of shaft
B τ × Volume of shaft
C τ 4 × Volume of shaft
D τ 4 × Volume of shaft
Answer: A
7. The strain energy stored in a solid circular shaft in torsion, subjected to shear stress (τ), is:
(Where, G = Modulus of rigidity for the shaft material)
A τ × Volume of shaft
B τ × Volume of shaft
C τ 4 × Volume of shaft
D τ 4 × Volume of shaft
Answer: C
8. The stress induced in a body, when suddenly loaded, is _________ the stress induced when the
same load is applied gradually.
(A) Equal to
(B) One-half
(C) Twice
(D) Four times
Answer: C
9. If Kh is the torque resisting capacity of a hollow shaft and Ks is that of a solid shaft, of the same
material, length and weight. Then,
(A) Kh > Ks
(B) Kh < Ks
(C) Kh = Ks
(D) None of these
Answer: A
10. After reaching the yielding stage while testing a mild steel specimen, strain
(A) Becomes constant
(B) Starts decreasing
(C) Increases without any increase in load
(D) None of the above
Answer: C
 STRENGTH of Materials Multiple Choice Questions
11. Principal planes are planes having
(A) Maximum shear stress
(B) No shear stress
(C) Minimum shear stress
(D) None of the above
Answer: B
12. If the slenderness ratio for a column is 100, then it is said to be a _________ column.
(A) Long
(B) Medium
(C) Short
(D) None of these
Answer: A
13. A body is subjected to a tensile stress of 1200 MPa on one plane and another tensile stress of 600
MPa on a plane at right angles to the former. It is also subjected to a shear stress of 400 MPa on the
same planes. The maximum normal stress will be
(A) 400 MPa
(B) 500 MPa
(C) 900 MPa
(D) 1400 MPa
Answer: D
14. Young’s modulus of a wire is defined as the stress which will increase the length of wire
compared to its original length by
(A) Half
(B) Same amount
(C) Double
(D) One-fourth
Answer: B
15. True stress strain-curve for materials is plotted between
(A) Load/original cross-sectional area and change in length/original length
(B) Load/ instantaneous cross-sectional area and loge (original area/ instantaneous area)
(C) Load/ instantaneous cross-sectional area and change in length/ original length
(D) Load/ instantaneous area and instantaneous area/original area
Answer: B
16. A hollow shaft of same cross-section area as compared to a solid shaft transmit
(A) Same torque
(B) Less torque
(C) More torque
(D) Unpredictable
Answer: C
17. A steel bar of 5 mm is heated from 25°C to 45°C and it is free to expand. The bar will induce
(A) No stress
(B) Shear stress
(C) Tensile stress
(D) Compressive stress
Answer: A
18. Two shafts ‘A’ and ‘B’ transmit the same power. The speed of shaft ‘A’ is 250 r.p.m. and that of
shaft ‘B’ is 300 r.p.m.
A The shaft ‘B’ has the greater diameter
B The shaft ‘A’ has the greater diameter
(C) Both are of same diameter
(D) None of these
Answer: B
19. The intensity of stress which causes unit strain is called
(A) Unit mass
(B) Modulus of rigidity
(C) Bulk modulus
(D) Modulus of Elasticity
Answer: D
20. A thick cylindrical shell having ro and ri as outer and inner radii, is subjected to an internal
pressure (p). The maximum tangential stress at the inner surface of the shell is
(A) (ro² – ri²)/ 2p ri²
(B) 2p ri²/ (ro² – ri²)
(C) p (ro² + ri²)/ (ro² – ri²)
(D) p (ro² – ri²)/ (ro² + ri²)
Answer: C
21. A vertical column has two moments of inertia (i.e. Ixx and Iyy ). The column will tend to buckle
in the direction of the
(A) Axis of load
(B) Perpendicular to the axis of load
(C) Maximum moment of inertia
(D) Minimum moment of inertia
Answer: D
22. Strain energy is the
(A) Energy stored in a body when strained within elastic limits
(B) Energy stored in a body when strained up to the breaking of a specimen
(C) Maximum strain energy which can be stored in a body
(D) Proof resilience per unit volume of a material
Answer: A
23. The neutral axis of the cross-section a beam is that axis at which the bending stress is
(A) Zero
(B) Minimum
(C) Maximum
(D) Infinity
Answer: A
24. A composite bar made up of steel and copper bars of equal lengths are heated through 100°C.
The stresses developed shall be
(A) Tensile in both the material
(B) Tensile in steel and compressive in copper
(C) Compressive in steel and tensile in copper
(D) Compressive in both the materials
Answer: D
25. Euler’s formula holds good only for
(A) Short columns
(B) Long columns
(C) Both short and long columns
(D) Weak columns
Answer: B
26. The bending moment at a point on a beam is the algebraic ________ of all the moments on
either side of the point.
(A) Sum
(B) Difference
(C) Multiplication
(D) None of the above
Answer: A
27. The maximum diameter of the hole that can be punched from a plate of maximum shear stress
1/4th of its maximum crushing stress of punch, is equal to (where t = Thickness of the plate)
(A) t
(B) 2t
(C) 4t
(D) 8t
Answer: C
28. Within elastic limit, stress is
(A) Inversely proportional to strain
(B) Directly proportional to strain
(C) Square root of strain
(D) Equal to strain
Answer: B
29. Two closely coiled helical springs ‘A’ and ‘B’ are equal in all respects but the number of turns
of spring ‘A’ is half that of spring ‘B’ The ratio of deflections in spring ‘A’ to spring ‘B’ is
(A) 1/8
(B) 1/4
(C) 1/2
(D) 2
Answer: C
30. The deformation per unit length is called
(A) Tensile stress
(B) Compressive stress
(C) Shear stress
(D) Strain
Answer: D
31. The shape of cantilever for uniformly distributed load will be
(A) Straight line
(B) Parabolic
(C) Elliptical
(D) Cubic
Answer: B
32. For a simply supported beam of length ‘l’, when a concentrated load W is applied in the center
of the beam, the maximum deflection is
(A) 5WL³/ 384EI
(B) WL³/384EI
(C) WL³/ 348EI
(D) WL³/ 48EI
Answer: D
33. The point of contra flexure is a point where
(A) Shear force changes sign
(B) Shear force is maximum
(C) Bending moment changes sign
(D) Bending moment is maximum
Answer: C
34. The maximum stress produced in a bar of tapering section is at
(A) Smaller end
(B) Larger end
(C) Middle
(D) Anywhere
Answer: A
35. The ultimate tensile stress of mild steel compared to ultimate compressive stress is
(A) Same
(B) More
(C) Less
(D) Unpredictable
Answer: B
36. The energy stored in a body when strained within elastic limit is known as
(A) Resilience
(B) Proof resilience
(C) Strain energy
(D) Impact energy
Answer: C
37. Modular ratio of two materials is the ratio of
(A) Strains
(B) Stress and strain
(C) Shear stress and shear strain
(D) Moduli and elasticity
Answer: D
38. In compression test, the fracture in cast iron specimen would occur along
(A) The axis of load
(B) An oblique plane
(C) At right angles to the axis of specimen
(D) Would not occur
Answer: B
39. A coil is cut into two halves, the stiffness of cut coil will be
(A) Double
(B) Half
(C) Same
(D) None of these
Answer: A
40. The bending stress in a beam is _________ section modulus.
(A) Inversely proportional to two times
(B) Directly proportional to
(C) Inversely proportional to
(D) None of these
Answer: C
41. When shear force at a point is zero, then bending moment is _________ at that point.
(A) Zero
(B) Minimum
(C) Maximum
(D) Infinity
Answer: C
42. Elasticity of Mild Steel specimen is defined by
A Hooke’s law
(B) Yield point
(C) Plastic flow
(D) Proof stress
Answer: C
43. When a bar is cooled to -5°C, it will develop
(A) No stress
(B) Shear stress
(C) Tensile stress
(D) Compressive stress
Answer: C
44. If the radius of wire stretched by a load is doubled, then its Young’s modulus will be
(A) Doubled
(B) Halved
(C) Becomes four times
(D) None of the above
Answer: D
45. In order to know whether a column is long or short, we must know its
(A) Ultimate shear stress of the column
(B) Factor of safety
(C) Torque resisting capacity
(D) Slenderness ratio
Answer: D
46. A masonry dam may fail due to
(A) Tension in the masonry of the dam and its base
(B) Overturning of the dam
(C) Crushing of masonry at the base of the dam
(D) Any one of the above
Answer: D
47. Impact strength of a material is an index of its
(A) Toughness
(B) Tensile strength
(C) Capability of being cold worked
(D) Hardness
Answer: A
48. In order to prevent crushing of masonry at the base of the dam, the maximum stress should be
__________ the permissible stress of the soil.
(A) Equal to
(B) Less than
(C) More than
(D) None of these
Answer: B
49. Volumetric strain for a rectangular specimen of length ‘l’, breadth ‘b’ and thickness ‘t’
subjected to a pull of ‘P’ is given by
(A) e (1 – 2m)
(B) e (1 – 2/m)
(C) e (m – 2)
(D) e (2/m – 1)
Answer: B
50. When a body is subjected to two equal and opposite pushes, as a result of which the body tends
to reduce its length, then
(A) The stress and strain induced is compressive
(B) The stress and strain induced is tensile
(C) Both A and B is correct
(D) None of these
Answer: A
51. A thin cylindrical shell of diameter (d) and thickness (t) is subjected to an internal pressure (p).
The ratio of longitudinal strain to volumetric strain is
(A) (m – 1)/ (2m – 1)
(B) (2m – 1)/ (m – 1)
(C) (m – 2)/ (3m – 4)
(D) (m – 2)/ (5m – 4)
Answer: D
52. Modulus of rigidity is defined as the ratio of
(A) Longitudinal stress to longitudinal strain
(B) Volumetric stress to volumetric strain
(C) Lateral stress to Lateral strain
(D) Shear stress to shear strain
Answer: D
53. In the torsion equation T/J = τ/r = Gθ/ L, the term J/R is called
(A) Shear modulus
(B) Section modulus
(C) Polar modulus
(D) None of these
Answer: C
54. Strain re-setters are used to
(A) Measure shear strain
(B) Measure linear strain
(C) Measure volumetric strain
(D) Relieve strain
Answer: B
55. When a rectangular beam is loaded transversely, the maximum compressive stress is developed
on the
(A) Top layer
(B) Bottom layer
(C) Neutral axis
(D) Every cross-section
Answer: B
56. In a uniform bar, supported at one end in position, the maximum stress under self weight of bar
shall occur at the
(A) Middle of bar
(B) Supported end
(C) Bottom end
(D) None of these
Answer: B
57. When both ends of a column are fixed, the effective length is
(A) Its own length
(B) Twice its length
(C) Half its length
D √ × its length
Answer: C
58. A composite shaft consisting of two stepped portions having spring constants K₁ and K₂ is held
between two rigid supports at the ends. Its equivalent spring constant is
A K₁ K₂
B K₁ K₂
C K₁ K₂ K₁ K₂
D K₁ K₂ K₁ K₂
Answer: A
59. Slenderness of a column is zero when
(A) Ends are firmly fixed
(B) Column is supported on all sides throughout the length
(C) Length is equal to radius of gyration
(D) Length is twice the radius of gyration
Answer: D
60. Resilience is the
(A) Energy stored in a body when strained within elastic limits
(B) Energy stored in a body when strained up to the breaking of the specimen maximum strain
(C) Energy which can be stored in a body
(D) None of the above
Answer: D
61. When a closely-coiled helical spring of mean diameter (D) is subjected to an axial load (W), the
deflection of the spring (δ) is given by (where d = Diameter of spring wire, n = No. of turns of the
spring, and C = Modulus of rigidity for the spring material)
A WD3n Cd⁴
B WD3n Cd⁴
C 4WD3n Cd⁴
D 8WD3n Cd⁴
Answer: D
62. Percentage reduction of area in performing tensile test on cast iron may be of the order of
(A) 50%
(B) 25%
(C) 0%
(D) 15%
Answer: C
63. For the beam shown in the below figure, the shear force diagram between A and B is
(A) A horizontal line
(B) A vertical line
(C) An inclined line
(D) A parabolic curve
Answer: D
64. When a body is subjected to a direct tensile stress (σx) in one plane accompanied by a simple
shear stress (τxy), the maximum normal stress is
A σ ×√ σ 4τ y
B σ – ×√ σ 4τ y
C σ ×√ σ – 4 τ y)
D ×√ σ 4τ y
Answer: A
65. The materials which exhibit the same elastic properties in all directions are called
(A) Homogeneous
(B) Inelastic
(C) Isotropic
(D) Isentropic
Answer: C
66. Modulus of rigidity may be defined as the ratio of
(A) Linear stress to lateral strain
(B) Lateral strain to linear strain
(C) Linear stress to linear strain
(D) Shear stress to shear strain
Answer: D
67. The ratio of lateral strain to the linear strain within elastic limit is known as
A Young’s modulus
(B) Bulk modulus
(C) Modulus of rigidity
D Poisson’s ratio
Answer: D
68. In the below figure, the plastic range occurs
(A) Before point A
(B) Beyond point A
(C) Between points A and D
(D) Between points D and E
Answer: B
69. Shear modulus is the ratio of
(A) Linear stress to linear strain
(B) Linear stress to lateral strain
(C) Volumetric strain to linear strain
(D) Shear stress to shear strain
Answer: D
70. The ratio of elongation in a prismatic bar due to its own weight (W) as compared to another
similar bar carrying an additional weight (W) will be
(A) 1 : 2
(B) 1 : 3
(C) 1 : 4
(D) 1 : 2.5
Answer: B
71. The weakest section of a diamond riveting is the section which passes through
(A) The first row
(B) The second row
(C) The central row
(D) One rivet hole of the end row
Answer: D
72. The shear force diagram for a simply supported beam carrying a uniformly distributed load of
w per unit length, consists of
(A) One right angled triangle
(B) Two right angled triangles
(C) One equilateral triangle
(D) Two equilateral triangles
Answer: B
73. Hooke’s law holds good up to
(A) Yield point
(B) Limit of proportionality
(C) Breaking point
(D) Elastic limit
Answer: B
74. Which of the following statement is correct?
(A) The stress is the pressure per unit area
(B) The strain is expressed in mm
C Hook’s law holds good up to the reaking point
(D) Stress is directly proportional to strain within elastic limit
Answer: D
75. The property of a material which allows it to be drawn into a smaller section is called
(A) Plasticity
(B) Ductility
(C) Elasticity
(D) Malleability
Answer: B
76. The percentage reduction in area of a cast iron specimen during tensile test would be of the
order of
(A) More than 50%
(B) 25-50%
(C) 10-25%
(D) Negligible
Answer: D
77. The deformation of a bar under its own weight is _________ the deformation, if the same body
is subjected to a direct load equal to weight of the body.
(A) Equal to
(B) Half
(C) Double
(D) Quadruple
Answer: B
78. The ratio of maximum shear stress developed in a rectangular beam and a circular beam of the
same cross-sectional area is
(A) 2/3
(B) 3/4
(C) 1
(D) 9/8
Answer: D
79. Formula based on IS codes is based on
(A) Straight line formula
B Euler’s formula
(C Rankine’s formula
(D) Secant formula
Answer: D
80. Resilience of a material is considered when it is subjected to
(A) Frequent heat treatment
(B) Fatigue
(C) Creep
(D) Shock loading
Answer: D
81. The buckling load for a given column depends upon
(A) Area of cross-section of the column
(B) Length and least radius of gyration of the column
(C) Modulus of elasticity for the material of the column
(D) All of the above
Answer: D
82. The shear force at the center of a simply supported beam with a gradually varying load from
zero at both ends to w per meter at the center, is
(A) Zero
(B) wl/4
(C) wl/2
(D) wl²/2
Answer: A
83. A riveted joint in which the number otrivets decrease from innermost to outer most rows is
called
(A) Chain riveted joint
(B) Diamond riveted joint
(C) Crisscross riveted joint
(D) Zigzag riveted joint
Answer: B
84. A closely-coiled helical spring is cut into two halves. The stiffness of the resulting spring will be
(A) Same
(B) Double
(C) Half
(D) One-fourth
Answer: B
85. The torsional rigidity of a shaft is expressed by the
(A) Maximum torque it can transmit
(B) Number of cycles it undergoes before failure
(C) Elastic limit up to which it resists torsion, shear and bending stresses
(D) Torque required to produce a twist of one radian per unit length of shaft
Answer: D
86. The limit of eccentricity for no tensile conditions for a column of circular section of diameter (d)
is
(A) d/4
(B) d/8
(C) d/12
(D) d/16
Answer: B
87. The property of a material by virtue of which a body returns to its original, shape after removal
of the load is called
(A) Plasticity
(B) Elasticity
(C) Ductility
(D) Malleability
Answer: B
88. The state of stress at a point in a loaded member is shown in the below figure. The magnitude of
maximum shear stress is
(A) 10 MPa
(B) 30 MPa
(C) 50 MPa
(D) 100 MPa
Answer: C
89. For a beam, as shown in the below figure, the deflection at C is (where E = Young’s modulus for
the beam material, and I = Moment of inertia of the beam section.)
(A) Wl3/48 EI
(B) Wa²b²/3EIl
C [Wa a√3 E l] l – a²)3/2
(D) 5Wl3/384 EI
Answer: B
90. A concentrated load is one which
(A) Acts at a point on a beam
(B) Spreads non-uniformly over the whole length of a beam
(C) Spreads uniformly over the whole length of a beam
(D) Varies uniformly over the whole length of a beam
Answer: A
91. The stress necessary to initiate yielding is
(A) Considerably greater than that necessary to continue it
(B) Considerably lesser than that necessary to continue it
(C) Greater than that necessary to stop it
(D) Lesser than that necessary to stop it
Answer: A
92. A lap joint is always in _________ shear.
(A) Single
(B) Double
(C) Both A and B
(D) None of these
Answer: A
93. When it is indicated that a member is elastic, it means that when force is applied, it will
(A) Not deform
(B) Be safest
(C) Stretch
(D) Not stretch
Answer: C
94. For a beam, as shown in the below figure, when the load W is applied in the center of the beam,
the maximum deflection is
(A) Wl3 / 48EI
(B) 5Wl3 / 384EI
(C) Wl3 / 392EI
(D) Wl3 / 384EI
Answer: A
95. The relation between Young’s modulus (E), shear modulus (C) and bulk modulus (K) is given
by
(A) E = 3K.C/(3K + C)
(B) E = 6K.C/(3K + C)
(C) E = 9K.C/(3K + C)
(D) E = 12K.C/(3K + C)
Answer: C
96. The distance between the centers of the rivets in adjacent rows of zigzag riveted joint is known
as
(A) Pitch
(B) Back pitch
(C) Diagonal pitch
(D) Diametric pitch
Answer: C
97. In the below figure, the stress corresponding to point ‘D’ is
(A) Yield point stress
(B) Breaking stress
(C) Ultimate stress
(D) Elastic limit
Answer: C
98. A body is subjected to a direct tensile stress of 300 MPa in one plane accompanied by a simple
shear stress of 200 MPa. The maximum shear stress will be
(A) -100 MPa
(B) 250 MPa
(C) 300 MPa
(D) 400 MPa
Answer: B
99. A cylindrical section having no joint is known as
(A) Joint less section
(B) Homogeneous section
(C) Perfect section
(D) Seamless section
Answer: D
100. A beam which is fixed at one end and free at the other is called
(A) Simply supported beam
(B) Fixed beam
(C) Overhanging beam
(D) Cantilever beam
Answer: D
101. The neutral axis of a transverse section of a beam passes through the centre of gravity of the
section and is
(A) In the vertical plane
(B) In the horizontal plane
(C) In the same plane in which the beam bends
(D) At right angle to the plane in which the beam bends
Answer: D
102. The value of Poisson’s ratio for steel is between
(A) 0.01 to 0.1
(B) 0.23 to 0.27
(C) 0.25 to 0.33
(D) 0.4 to 0.6
Answer: C
103. The columns whose slenderness ratio is less than 80, are known as
(A) Short columns
(B) Long columns
(C) Weak columns
(D) Medium columns
Answer: A
104. The stress developed in a material at breaking point in extension is called
(A) Breaking stress
(B) Fracture stress
(C) Yield point stress
(D) Ultimate tensile stress
Answer: A
105. For riveting, the size of hole drilled in plates is __________ shank diameter of rivet.
(A) Equal to
(B) Less than
(C) Greater than
(D) None of these
Answer: C
106. Proof resilience per material is known as
(A) Resilience
(B) Proof resilience
(C) Modulus of resilience
(D) Toughness
Answer: C
107. The capacity of a strained body for doing work on the removal of the straining force, is called
(A) Strain energy
(B) Resilience
(C) Proof resilience
(D) Impact energy
Answer: B
108. In a tensile test on mild steel specimen, the breaking stress as compared to ultimate tensile
stress is
(A) More
(B) Less
(C) Same
(D) More/less depending on composition
Answer: B
109. A column of length (l) with both ends fixed may be considered as equivalent to a column of
length __________ with both ends hinged.
(A) l/8
(B) l/4
(C) l/2
(D) l
Answer: C
110. If the depth is kept constant for a beam of uniform strength, then its width will vary in
proportional to
(A) Bending moment (i.e. M)
(B) Bending moment² (i.e. M²)
(C) Bending moment³ (i.e. M³)
D Bending moment⁴ i.e. M⁴
Answer: A
111. In a tensile test, near the elastic limit zone, the
(A) Tensile strain increases more quickly
(B) Tensile strain decreases more quickly
(C) Tensile strain increases in proportion to the stress
(D) Tensile strain decreases in proportion to the stress
Answer: A
112. The pull required to crush the rivet per pitch length is
A p.t.σt
B d.t.σc
(C) π 4 × d × σt
D π 4 × d × σc
Answer: B
113. The total strain energy stored in a body is termed as
(A) Resilience
(B) Proof resilience
(C) Modulus of resilience
(D) Toughness
Answer: A
114. The extension of a circular bar tapering uniformly from diameter d₁ at one end to diameter d₂
at the other end and subjected to an axial pull of ‘P’ is given by
A δl = 4PE πl
B δl = 4πld PE
C δl = 4Pl πEd₁d₂
D δl = 4PlE πd₁d₂
Answer: C
115. The maximum bending moment for the beam shown in the below figure, is
A wl 3√3
B wl 6√3
C wl 9√3
D wl √3
Answer: C
116. Efficiency of a riveted joint is the ratio of its strength (max. load it can resist without failure) to
the strength of the unpunched plate in
(A) Tension
(B) Compression
(C) Bearing
(D) Any one of the above
Answer: A
117. The pull required to tear off the plate per pitch length is (where p = Pitch of rivets, t =
Thickness of plates, and σt, τ and σc = Permissible tensile, shearing and crushing stresses
respectively)
(A) (p – d t × σc
(B) (p – d t × τ
(C) (p – d) t × σt
(D) (2p – d t × σt
Answer: C
118. In a belt drive, the pulley diameter is doubled, the belt tension and pulley width remaining
same. The changes required in key will be
(A) Increase key length
(B) Increase key depth
(C) Increase key width
(D) Double all the dimensions
Answer: C
119. In the below figure, curve D represents_________.
(A) Mild steel
(B) Cast iron
(C) Concrete
(D) Bone of these
Answer: A
120. The bending moment of a cantilever beam of length ‘l’ and carrying a uniformly distributed
load of ‘w’ per unit length is __________ at the fixed end.
(A) wl/4
(B) wl/2
(C) wl
(D) wl²/2
Answer: D
121. Young’s modulus is defined as the ratio of
(A) Volumetric stress and volumetric strain
(B) Lateral stress and lateral strain
(C) Longitudinal stress and longitudinal strain
(D) Shear stress to shear strain
Answer: C
122. The layer at the center of gravity of the beam as shown in the below figure, will be
(A) In tension
(B) In compression
(C) Neither in tension nor in compression
(D) None of these
Answer: C
123. When a body is subjected to a direct tensile stress (σx) in one plane accompanied by a simple
shear stress (τxy), the minimum normal stress is
A σ ×√ σ 4τ y
B σ – ×√ σ 4τ y
C σ ×√ σ –4τ y
D ×√ σ 4τ y
Answer: B
124. Tensile strength of a material is obtained by dividing the maximum load during the test by the
(A) Area at the time of fracture
(B) Original cross-sectional area
(C) Average of (A) and (B)
(D) Minimum area after fracture
Answer: B
125. The section modulus of a circular section about an axis through its C.G., is
A πd 4
B πd 6
C πd3 6
D πd3 3
Answer: D
126. If a part is constrained to move and heated, it will develop
(A) Principal stress
(B) Tensile stress
(C) Compressive stress
(D) Shear stress
Answer: C
127. The moment of resistance of a balanced reinforced concrete beam is based on the stresses in
(A) Steel only
(B) Concrete only
(C) Steel and concrete both
(D) None of these
Answer: C
128. The property of a material by virtue of which it can be beaten or rolled into plates is called
(A) Malleability
(B) Ductility
(C) Plasticity
(D) Elasticity
Answer: A
129. In case of an under-reinforced beam, the depth of actual neutral axis is __________ that of the
critical neutral axis.
(A) Same as
(B) Less than
(C) Greater than
(D) None of these
Answer: B
130. The energy absorbed in a body, when it is strained within the elastic limits, is known as
(A) Strain energy
(B) Resilience
(C) Proof resilience
(D) Modulus of resilience
Answer: A
131. A simply supported beam with a gradually varying load from zero at ‘B’ and ‘w’ per unit
length at ‘A’ is shown in the below figure. The shear force at ‘B’ is equal to
(A) wl/6
(B) wl/3
(C) wl
(D) 2wl/3
Answer: A 1
132. A fletched beam is used to
(A) Change the shape of the beam
(B) Effect the saving in material
(C) Equalize the strength in tension and compression
(D) Increase the cross-section of the beam
Answer: C
133. Percentage reduction in area performing tensile test on cast iron may be of the order of
(A) 50%
(B) 25%
(C) 20%
(D) 30%
Answer: C
134. A beam is loaded as cantilever. If the load at the end is increased, the failure will occur
(A) In the middle
(B) At the tip below the load
(C) At the support
(D) Anywhere
Answer: D
135. The assumption made in Euler’s column theory is that
(A) The failure of column occurs due to buckling alone
(B) The length of column is very large as compared to its cross-sectional dimensions
(C) The column material o eys Hooke’s law
(D) All of the above
Answer: D
136. If the rivets in adjacent rows are staggered and the outermost row has only one rivets, the
arrangement of the rivets is called
(A) Chain riveting
(B) Zigzag riveting
(C) Diamond riveting
(D) Crisscross riveting
Answer: C
137. The point of contraflexure is a point where
(A) Shear force changes sign
(B) Bending moment changes sign
(C) Shear force is maximum
(D) Bending moment is maximum
Answer: B
138. The value of shear stress which is induced in the shaft due to the applied couple varies
(A) From maximum at the center to zero at the circumference
(B) From zero at the center to maximum at the circumference
(C) From maximum at the center to minimum at the circumference
(D) From minimum at the center to maximum at the circumference
Answer: B
139. The extremities of any diameter on Mohr’s circle represent
(A) Principal stresses
(B) Normal stresses on planes at 45°
(C) Shear stresses on planes at 45°
(D) Normal and shear stresses on a plane
Answer: B
140. The materials having same elastic properties in all directions are called
(A) Ideal materials
(B) Uniform materials
(C) Isotropic materials
(D) Piratical materials
Answer: C
141. The ratio of the largest load in a test to the original cross-sectional area of the test piece is
called
(A) Elastic limit
(B) Yield stress
(C) Ultimate stress
(D) Breaking stress
Answer: C
142. A column is said to be a short column, when
(A) Its length is very small
(B) Its cross-sectional area is small
(C) The ratio of its length to the least radius of gyration is less than 80
(D) The ratio of its length to the least radius of gyration is more than 80
Answer: C
143. The total elongation produced in a bar of uniform section hanging vertically downwards due to
its own weight is equal to that produced by a weight
(A) Of same magnitude as that of bar and applied at the lower end
(B) Half the weight of bar applied at lower end
(C) Half of the square of weight of bar applied at lower end
(D) One fourth of weight of bar applied at lower end
Answer: B
144. The lower layer of the beam as shown in the below figure, will be
(A) In tension
(B) In compression
(C) Neither in tension nor in compression
(D) None of these
Answer: A
145. The tensile strength of the welded joint for double fillet is (where s = Leg or size of the weld, l =
Length of weld, and σt = Allowable tensile stress for weld metal)
A 0.5 s.l.σt
B s.l.σt
C √ s.l.σt
D .s.l.σt
Answer: C
146. If a material expands freely due to heating it will develop
(A) Thermal stresses
(B) Tensile stress
(C) Bending
(D) No stress
Answer: D
147. When a body is subjected to biaxial stress i.e. direct stresses (σx) and (σy) in two mutually
perpendicular planes accompanied by a simple shear stress (τxy), then maximum normal stress is
A σ σy × √[ σ – σy 4 τ y]
B σ σy – × √[ σ – σy 4 τ y]
C σ – σy × √[ σ σy 4 τ y]
D σ – σy – × √[ σ σy 4 τ y]
Answer: A
148. The stress at which extension of the material takes place more quickly as compared to the
increase in load is called
(A) Elastic point of the material
(B) Plastic point of the material
(C) Breaking point of the material
(D) Yielding point of the material
Answer: D
149. A cantilever beam is one which is
(A) Fixed at both ends
(B) Fixed at one end and free at the other end
(C) Supported at its ends
(D) Supported on more than two supports
Answer: B
150. In a prismatic member made of two materials so joined that they deform equally under axial
stress, the unit stresses in two materials are
(A) Equal
(B) Proportional to their respective moduli of elasticity
(C) Inversely proportional to their moduli of elasticity
(D) Average of the sum of moduli of elasticity
Answer: B
151. A circular shaft fixed at, A has diameter D for half of its length and diameter D/2 over the
other half, as shown in the below figure. If the rotation of B relative to A is 0.1 radian, the rotation
of C relative to B will be
(A) 0.4 radian
(B) 0.8 radian
(C) 1.6 radian
(D) 3.2 radian
Answer: C
152. The shear force diagram of a cantilever beam of length ‘l’ and carrying a uniformly
distributed load of w per unit length will be
(A) A right angled triangle
(B) An isosceles triangle
(C) An equilateral triangle
(D) A rectangle
Answer: A
153. The safe twisting moment for a compound shaft is equal to the
(A) Maximum calculated value
(B) Minimum calculated value
(C) Mean value
(D) Extreme value
Answer: B
154. When a bar is subjected to a change of temperature and its deformation is prevented, the
stress induced in the bar is
(A) Tensile stress
(B) Compressive stress
(C) Shear stress
(D) Thermal stress
Answer: D
155. A thin mild steel wire is loaded by adding loads in equal increments till it breaks. The
extensions noted with increasing loads will behave as under
(A) Uniform throughout
(B) Increase uniformly
(C) First increase and then decrease
(D) Increase uniformly first and then increase rapidly
Answer: D
156. Which of the following is a proper sequence?
(A) Proportional limit, elastic limit, yielding, failure
(B) Elastic limit, proportional limit, yielding, failure
(C) Yielding, proportional limit, elastic limit, failure
(D) None of the above
Answer: A
157. Which is the false statement about true stress strain method?
(A) It does not exist
(B) It is more sensitive to changes in both metallurgical and mechanical conditions
(C) It gives a more accurate picture of the ductility
(D) It can be correlated with stress strain values in other tests like torsion, impact, combined stress tests
etc.
Answer: A
158. The bending equation is
A M =σy=ER
B TJ=τR=C l
C MR=TJ=C l
D T l= τ J = R C
Answer: A
159. For which material the Poisson’s ratio is more than unity
(A) Steel
(B) Copper
(C) Aluminium
(D) None of the above
Answer: D
160. When a body is subjected to a direct tensile stress (σ) in one plane, then maximum normal
stress occurs at a section inclined at _________ to the normal of the section.
(A) 0°
(B) 30°
(C) 45°
(D) 90°
Answer: A
161. Flow stress corresponds to
(A) Fluids in motion
(B) Breaking point
(C) Plastic deformation of solids
(D) Rupture stress
Answer: C
162. The thickness of a thin cylindrical shell with hemispherical ends is _________ that of spherical
ends.
(A) Equal to
(B) More than
(C) Less than
(D) None of these
Answer: B
163. A riveted joint in which every rivet of a row is opposite to other rivet of the outer row, is
known as
(A) Chain riveted joint
(B) Diamond riveted joint
(C) Crisscross riveted joint
(D) Zigzag riveted joint
Answer: A
164. The maximum tangential stress in a thick cylindrical shell is always _________ the internal
pressure acting on the shell.
(A) Equal to
(B) Less than
(C) Greater than
(D) None of these
Answer: C
165. If percentage reduction in area of a certain specimen made of material ‘A’ under tensile test is
60% and the percentage reduction in area of a specimen with same dimensions made of material
‘B’ is 40%, then
(A) The material A is more ductile than material B
(B) The material B is more ductile than material A
(C) The ductility of material A and B is equal
(D) The material A is brittle and material B is ductile
Answer: A
166. Which of the following materials is most elastic?
(A) Rubber
(B) Plastic
(C) Brass
(D) Steel
Answer: D
167. Strain is equal to (where l = Original length, and δl = Change in length)
A l δl
B δl l
C l.δl
D l δl
Answer: B
168. The ratio of direct stress to volumetric strain in case of a body subjected to three mutually
perpendicular stresses of equal intensity, is equal to
A Young’s modulus
(B) Bulk modulus
(C) Modulus of rigidity
(D) Modulus of elasticity
Answer: B
169. Which of the following statement is wrong?
(A) The deformation of the bar per unit length in the direction of the force is called linear strain.
B The Poisson’s ratio is the ratio of lateral strain to the linear strain.
(C) The ratio of change in volume to the original volume is called volumetric strain.
(D) The bulk modulus is the ratio of linear stress to the linear strain.
Answer: D
170. Diamond riveted joint can be adopted in the case of following type of joint
(A) Butt joint
(B) Lap joint
(C) Double riveted lap joints
(D) All types of joints
Answer: A
171. When a body is subjected to biaxial stress i.e. direct stresses (σx) and (σy) in two mutually
perpendicular planes accompanied by a simple shear stress (τxy), then minimum normal stress is
A σ σy × √[ σ – σy 4 τ y]
B σ σy – × √[ σ – σy 4 τ y]
C σ – σy × √[ σ σy 4 τ y]
D σ – σy – × √[ σ σy 4 τ y]
Answer: B
172. The unit of Young’s modulus is
(A) mm/mm
(B) kg/cm
(C) Kg
(D) kg/cm²
Answer: D
173. When a body is subjected to three mutually perpendicular stresses, of equal intensity, the ratio
of direct stress to the corresponding volumetric strain is known as
A Young’s modulus
(B) Modulus of rigidity
(C) Bulk modulus
D Poisson’s ratio
Answer: C
174. The value of modulus of elasticity for mild steel is of the order of
A . × 0⁵ kg cm
B . × 0⁶ kg cm
C . × 0⁷ kg cm
D 0. × 0⁶ kg cm
Answer: B
175. A pressure vessel is said to be a thick shell, when
(A) It is made of thick sheets
(B) The internal pressure is very high
(C) The ratio of wall thickness of the vessel to its diameter is less than 1/10.
(D) The ratio of wall thickness of the vessel to its diameter is greater than 1/10.
Answer: D
176. The strain energy stored in a body due to suddenly applied load compared to when it is applied
gradually is
(A) Same
(B) Twice
(C) Four times
(D) Eight times
Answer: C
177. The deformation of a bar under its own weight compared to the deformation of same body
subjected to a direct load equal to weight of the body is
(A) Same
(B) Double
(C) Half
(D) Four times
Answer: C
178. A continuous beam is one which is
(A) Fixed at both ends
(B) Fixed at one end and free at the other end
(C) Supported on more than two supports
(D) Extending beyond the supports
Answer: C
179. The radius of the Mohr’s circle in the given figure is equal to
Som Question No 14
(A) Sum of two principal stresses
(B) Difference of two principal stresses
(C) Half the sum of two principal stresses
(D) Half the difference of two principal stresses
Answer: D
180. The maximum shear stress, in the given figure, is equal to __________ of the Mohr’s circle.
(A) Radius
(B) Diameter
(C) Circumference
(D) Area
Answer: A
181. A key is subjected to side pressure as well at shearing forces. These pressures are called
(A) Bearing stresses
(B) Fatigue stresses
(C) Crushing stresses
(D) Resultant stresses
Answer: A
182. When a closely-coiled helical spring of mean diameter (D) is subjected to an axial load (W), the
stiffness of the spring is given by
A Cd⁴ D3n
B Cd⁴ D3n
C Cd⁴ 4D3n
D Cd⁴ 8D3n
Answer: D
183. During a tensile test on a specimen of 1 cm cross-section, maximum load observed was 8 tonnes
and area of cross-section at neck was 0.5 cm². Ultimate tensile strength of specimen is
(A) 4 tonnes/ cm²
(B) 8 tonnes/ cm²
(C) 16 tonnes/ cm²
(D) 22 tonnes/ cm²
Answer: B
184. When a body is subjected to a direct tensile stress (σx) in one plane accompanied by a simple
shear stress (τxy), the maximum shear stress is
A σ ×√ σ 4τ y
B σ – ×√ σ 4τ y
C σ ×√ σ –4τ y
D ×√ σ 4τ y
Answer: D
185. The change in the unit volume of a material under tension with increase in its Poisson’s ratio
will
(A) Increase
(B) Decrease
(C) Remain same
(D) Increase initially and then decrease
Answer: B
186. A material capable of absorbing large amount of energy before fracture is known as
(A) Ductility
(B) Toughness
(C) Resilience
(D) Shock proof
Answer: B
187. The shear force at the ends of a simply supported beam carrying a uniformly distributed load
of w per unit length is
(A) Zero at its both ends
(B) wl at one end and -wl at the other end
(C) wl/2 at one end and -wl/ 2 at the other end
(D) wl²/2 at one end and -wl²/ 2 at the other end
Answer: C
188. Deformation per unit length in the direction of force is known as
(A) Strain
(B) Lateral strain
(C) Linear strain
(D) Linear stress
Answer: C
189. Which of the following statement is correct?
(A) The energy stored in a body, when strained within elastic limit is known as strain energy.
(B) The maximum strain energy which can be stored in a body is termed as proof resilience.
(C) The proof resilience per unit volume of a material is known as modulus of resilience.
(D) All of the above
Answer: D
190. Rupture stress is
(A) Breaking stress
(B) Maximum load/original cross-sectional area
(C) Load at breaking point/Area
(D) Load at breaking point/neck area
Answer: D
191. When two shafts of same length, one of which is hollow, transmit equal torques and have equal
maximum stress, then they should have equal
(A) Polar moment of inertia
(B) Polar modulus
(C) Diameter
(D) Angle of twist
Answer: B
192. Longitudinal stress in a thin cylinder is
(A) Equal to the hoop stress
(B) Twice the hoop stress
(C) Half of the hoop stress
(D) One fourth of hoop stress
Answer: C
193. A beam of uniform strength may be obtained by
(A) Keeping the width uniform and varying the depth
(B) Keeping the depth uniform and varying the width
(C) Varying the width and depth both
(D) Any one of the above
Answer: D
194. Which of the following has no unit?
(A) Kinematic viscosity
(B) Surface tension
(C) Bulk modulus
(D) Strain
Answer: D
195. The deformation of the bar per unit length in the direction of the force is known as
(A) Linear strain
(B) Lateral strain
(C) Volumetric strain
(D) Shear strain
Answer: A
196. In the below figure, __________ represents glass.
(A) Curve A
(B) Curve B
(C) Curve C
(D) Curve D
Answer: C
197. Hook’s law holds good up to
(A) Yield point
(B) Elastic limit
(C) Plastic limit
(D) Breaking point
Answer: B
198. A thin spherical shell of diameter (d) and thickness (t) is subjected to an internal pressure (p).
The stress in the shell material is
(A) pd/t
(B) pd/2t
(C) pd/4t
(D) pd/8t
Answer: C
199. Poisson’s ratio is defined as the ratio of
(A) Longitudinal stress and longitudinal strain
(B) Longitudinal stress and lateral stress
(C) Lateral stress and longitudinal stress
(D) Lateral stress and lateral strain
Answer: C
200. The rectangular beam ‘A’ has length l, width b and depth d. Another beam ‘B’ has the same
length and width but depth is double that of ‘A’. The elastic strength of beam B will be __________
as compared to beam A.
(A) Same
(B) Double
(C) Four times
(D) Six times
Answer: C
201. The value of Poisson’s ratio for cast iron is
(A) 0.1 to 0.2
(B) 0.23 to 0.27
(C) 0.25 to 0.33
(D) 0.4 to 0.6
Answer: B
202. According to Euler’s column theory, the crippling load of a column is given by p = π²EI/Cl². In
the Euler’s formula, the value of C for a column with one end fixed and the other end free, is
(A) 1/2
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 4
Answer: D
203. The elasticity of various materials is controlled by its
(A) Ultimate tensile stress
(B) Proof stress
(C) Stress at yield point
(D) Stress at elastic limit
Answer: D
204. A simply supported beam of length ‘l’ carries a point load ‘W’ at a point C as shown in the
below figure. The maximum deflection lies at
(A) Point A
(B) Point B
(C) Point C
(D) Between points B and C
Answer: D
205. The shear force diagram for a cantilever beam of length l and carrying a gradually varying
load from zero at free end and w per unit length at the fixed end is a
(A) Horizontal straight line
(B) Vertical straight line
(C) Inclined line
(D) Parabolic curve
Answer: D
206. The maximum shear stress in a thin cylindrical shell subjected to internal pressure ‘p’ is
(A) pd/t
(B) pd/2t
(C) pd/4t
(D) pd/8t
Answer: D
207. When a beam is subjected to bending moment, the stress at any point is __________ the
distance of the point from the neutral axis.
(A) Equal to
(B) Directly proportional to
(C) Inversely proportional to
(D) Independent of
Answer: B
208. In a tensile test, when the material is stressed beyond elastic limit, the tensile strain __________
as compared to the stress.
(A) Decreases slowly
(B) Increases slowly
(C) Decreases more quickly
(D) Increases more quickly
Answer: D
209. A fixed beam is one which is fixed at _________.
(A) One of its ends
(B) Both of its ends
(C) The middle
(D) None of these
Answer: B
210. If the modulus of elasticity for a given material is twice its modulus of rigidity, then bulk
modulus is equal to
(A) 2C
(B) 3C
(C) 2C/3
(D) 3C/2
Answer: C
211. When a load on the free end of a cantilever beam is increased, failure will occur
(A) At the free end
(B) At the fixed end
(C) In the middle of the beam
(D) At a distance 2l/3 from free end
Answer: B
212. The rectangular beam ‘A ‘ has length l, width b and depth d. Another beam ‘B’ has the same
width and depth but length is double that of ‘A’. The elastic strength of beam ‘B’ will be
__________ as compared to beam A.
(A) Same
(B) One-half
(C) One-fourth
(D) One-eighth
Answer: B
213. In leaf springs, the maximum bending stress developed in the plates is (where W = Load acting
on the spring, l = Span of the spring, n = Number of plates, b = Width of plates, and t = Thickness
of plates)
(A) Wl/nbt²
(B) 3Wl/2nbt²
(C) 2Wl/nbt²
(D) 3Wl/nbt²
Answer: B
214. The extension of a circular bar tapering uniformly from diameter d₁ at one end to diameter d₂
at the other end, and subjected to an axial pull of P is _________ the extension of a circular bar of
diameter d₁ d₂ subjected to the same load P.
(A) Equal to
(B) Less than
(C) Greater than
(D) None of these
Answer: A
215. In a thick cylindrical shell subjected to an internal pressure (p), the radial stress across the
thickness of the cylinder is
(A) Maximum at the outer surface and minimum at the inner surface
(B) Maximum at the inner surface and minimum at the outer surface
(C) Maximum at the outer surface and zero at the inner surface
(D) Maximum at the inner surface arid zero at the outer surface
Answer: D
216. A column with maximum equivalent length has
(A) Both ends hinged
(B) Both ends fixed
(C) One end fixed and the other end hinged
(D) One end fixed and the other end free
Answer: D
217. The ratio of change in volume to the original volume is called
(A) Linear strain
(B) Lateral strain
(C) Volumetric strain
D Poisson’s ratio
Answer: C
218. Which of the following statement is wrong?
(A) In the theory of simple bending, the assumption is that the plane sections before bending remains
plane after bending.
(B) In a beam subjected to bending moment, the strain is directly proportional to the distance from the
neutral axis.
(C) At the neutral axis of a beam, the bending stress is maximum.
(D) The bending stress in a beam is inversely proportional to the section modulus.
Answer: C
219. The polar moment of inertia of a solid circular shaft of diameter (D) is
A πD³ 6
B πD³ 3
C πD⁴ 3
D πD⁴ 64
Answer: C
220. In Mohr’s circle, the center of circle from Y-axis is taken as
A σ – σy)/2
B σ σy
C [ σ – σy ] τ
D [σ σy ] τ
Answer: B
221. Shear strength of the welded joint for double parallel fillet is (where τ = Allowable shear stress
for weld metal)
A 0.5 s.l.τ
B s.l.τ
C √ s.l.τ
D .s.l.τ
Answer: C
222. When a shaft, is subjected to torsion, the shear stress induced in the shaft varies from
(A) Minimum at the center to maximum at the circumference
(B) Maximum at the center to minimum at the circumference
(C) Zero at the center to maximum at the circumference
(D) Maximum at the center to zero at the circumference
Answer: C
223. The strain energy stored in a body, when the load is gradually applied, is (where σ = Stress in
the material of the body, V = Volume of the body, and E = Modulus of elasticity of the material)
A σE V
B σV E
C σE V
D σV E
Answer: D
224. At the neutral axis of a beam, the shear stress is
(A) Zero
(B) Minimum
(C) Maximum
(D) Infinity
Answer: C
225. In a stress-strain diagram for mild steel, as shown in the below figure, the point ‘A’ represents
(A) Elastic limit
(B) Upper yield point
(C) Lower yield point
(D) Breaking point
Answer: A
226. When a body is subjected to two equal and opposite forces, acting tangentially across the
resisting section, as a result of which the body tends to shear off across the section, the stress and
strain induced is
(A) Tensile stress, tensile strain
(B) Compressive stress, compressive strain
(C) Shear stress, tensile strain
(D) Shear stress, shear strain
Answer: D
227. The given figure shows the Mohr’s circle of stress for two unequal and like principal stresses
(σx and σy) acting at a body across two mutually perpendicular planes. The tangential stress is
given by
(A) OC
(B) OP
(C) OQ
(D) PQ
Answer: D
228. The strain energy stored in a hollow circular shaft of outer diameter (D) and inner diameter
(d) subjected to shear stress is
A τ C D – d²/D) × Volume of shaft
B τ C D d D × Volume of shaft
C τ 4C D – d²/D) × Volume of shaft
D τ 4C D d D × Volume of shaft
Answer: D
229. The center to center distance, between two consecutive rivets in a row, is called
(A) Margin
(B) Pitch
(C) Back pitch
(D) Diagonal pitch
Answer: B
230. Two shafts ‘A’ and ‘B’ are made of same material. The shaft ‘A’ is of diameter D and shaft ‘B’
is of diameter D/2. The strength of shaft ‘B’ is _________ as that of shaft ‘A’
(A) One-eighth
(B) One-fourth
(C) One-half
(D) Four times
Answer: A
231. According to Unwin’s formula, the relation between diameter of rivet hole (d) and thickness of
plate (t) is given by (where d and t are in mm)
(A) d = t
(B) d = 1.6 t
(C) d = 2t
(D) d = 6t
Answer: D
232. A tensile test is performed on a round bar. After fracture, it has been found that the diameter
remains approximately same at fracture. The material under test was
(A) Mild steel
(B) Cast iron
(C) Glass
(D) Copper
Answer: B
233. A rectangular beam of length l supported at its two ends carries a central point load W. The
maximum deflection occurs
(A) At the ends
(B) At l/3 from both ends
(C) At the center
(D) None of these
Answer: C
234. The ratio of the lateral strain to the linear strain is called
(A) Modulus of elasticity
(B) Modulus of rigidity
(C) Bulk modulus
D Poisson’s ratio
Answer: D
235. The shear force of a cantilever beam of length l carrying a uniformly distributed load of w per
unit length is _________ at the free end.
(A) Zero
(B) wl/4
(C) wl/2
(D) wl
Answer: A
236. In a simple bending of beams, the stress in the beam varies
(A) Linearly
(B) Parabolically
(C) Hyperbolically
(D) Elliptically
Answer: A
237. The shear force at a point on a beam is the algebraic __________ of all the forces on either side
of the point.
(A) Sum
(B) Difference
(C) Multiplication
(D) Division
Answer: A
238. When a cantilever beam is loaded at its free end, the maximum compressive stress shall
develop at
(A) Bottom fibre
(B) Top fibre
(C) Neutral axis
(D) Center of gravity
Answer: A
239. The total strain energy stored in a body is termed as
(A) Resilience
(B) Proof resilience
(C) Impact energy
(D) Modulus of resilience
Answer: A
240. When a body is subjected to biaxial stress i.e. direct stresses (σx) and (σy) in two mutually
perpendicular planes accompanied by a simple shear stress (τxy), then maximum shear stress is
A × √[ σ – σy 4 τ y]
B × √[ σ σy 4 τ y]
C √[ σ – σy τ y]
D √[ σ σy τ y]
Answer: A
241. According to Euler’s column theory, the crippling load for a column length (l) hinged at both
ends, is
A πE l
B π E 4l
C 4π E l
D πE l
Answer: A
242. A thin cylindrical shell of diameter (d), length (l) and thickness (t) is subjected to an internal
pressure (p). The ratio of longitudinal strain to hoop strain is
(A) (m – 2)/(2m – 1)
(B) (2m – 1)/(m – 2)
(C) (m – 2)/(2m + 1)
(D) (2m + 1)/(m – 2)
Answer: A
243. Young’s modulus may be defined as the ratio of
(A) Linear stress to lateral strain
(B) Lateral strain to linear strain
(C) Linear stress to linear strain
(D) Shear stress to shear strain
Answer: C
244. The maximum bending moment for the beam shown in the below figure, lies at a distance of
________ from the end B.
(A) l/2
(B) l/3
C l√
D l √3
Answer: D
245. Two closely-coiled helical springs ‘A’ and ‘B’ are equal in all respects but the number of turns
of spring ‘A’ is double that of spring ‘B’. The stiffness of spring ‘A’ will be __________ that of
spring ‘B’.
(A) One-sixteenth
(B) One-eighth
(C) One-fourth
(D) One-half
Answer: D
246. The bending moment on a section is maximum where shear force is
(A) Minimum
(B) Maximum
(C) Changing sign
(D) Zero
Answer: C
247. The stress developed in the material without any permanent set is called
(A) Elastic limit
(B) Yield stress
(C) Ultimate stress
(D) Breaking stress
Answer: A
248. Two closely coiled helical springs ‘A’ and ‘B’ are equal in all respects but the diameter of wire
of spring ‘A’ is double that of spring ‘B’ The stiffness of spring ‘B’ will be __________ that of
spring ‘A’
(A) One-sixteenth
(B) One-eighth
(C) One-fourth
(D) One-half
Answer: A
249. In a riveted joint, when the number of rivets decreases from the inner most row to outer most
row, the joint is said to be
(A) Chain riveted
(B) Zig-zag riveted
(C) Diamond riveted
(D) None of these
Answer: C
250. The polar modulus for a hollow shaft of outer diameter (D) and inner diameter (d) is
A π 4 × D – d²)/D
B π 6 × D3 – d3)/D
C π 6 × D⁴ – d⁴ D
D π3 × D⁴ – d⁴ D
Answer: C
251. A leaf spring is supported at the
(A) Ends and loaded at the center
(B) Center and loaded at the ends
(C) Ends and loaded anywhere
(D) Center and loaded anywhere
Answer: B
252. The assumption made in the theory of the reinforced cement concrete beam is that
(A) All the tensile stresses are taken up by the steel reinforcement only
(B) There is a sufficient bond between steel and concrete
(C) The steel and concrete are stressed within its elastic limit
(D) All of the above
Answer: D
253. The ultimate tensile stress for mild steel is __________ the ultimate compressive stress.
(A) Equal to
(B) Less than
(C) More than
(D) None of these
Answer: C
254. The neutral axis of the cross-section of a beam is that axis at which the bending stress is
(A) Zero
(B) Minimum
(C) Maximum
(D) Infinity
Answer: A
255. When a thin cylindrical shell is subjected to an internal pressure, there will be
(A) A decrease in diameter and length of the shell
(B) An increase in diameter and decrease in length of the shell
(C) A decrease in diameter and increase in length of the shell
(D) An increase in diameter and length of the shell
Answer: D
256. When the shear force diagram is a parabolic curve between two points, it indicates that there is
a
(A) Point load at the two points
(B) No loading between the two points
(C) Uniformly distributed load between the two points
(D) Uniformly varying load between the two points
Answer: D
257. In order to avoid sliding of masonry dam, the force of friction between the dam and soil should
be at least __________ the total water pressure per meter length.
(A) Equal to
(B) 1.5 times
(C) Double
(D) 2.5 times
Answer: B
258. The design of thin cylindrical shells is based on
(A) Hoop stress
(B) Longitudinal stress
(C) Arithmetic mean of the hoop and the longitudinal stress
(D) Geometric mean of the hoop and longitudinal stress
Answer: A
259. A body is subjected to a tensile stress of 1200 MPa on one plane and another tensile stress of
600 MPa on a plane at right angles to the former. It is also subjected to a shear stress of 400 MPa
on the same planes. The minimum normal stress will be
(A) 400 MPa
(B) 500 MPa
(C) 900 MPa
(D) 1400 MPa
Answer: A
260. In the below figure, the point C represents
(A) Elastic limit
(B) Upper yield point
(C) Lower yield point
(D) Breaking point
Answer: C
261. If the section modulus of a beam is increased, the bending stress in the beam will
(A) Not change
(B) Increase
(C) Decrease
(D) None of these
Answer: C
262. In the below figure, the point E represents.
(A) The maximum stress
(B) The minimum stress
(C) No stress
(D) None of these
Answer: A
263. The maximum deflection of a cantilever beam of length ‘l’ with a point load ‘W’ at the free end
is
(A) Wl3/3EI
(B) Wl3/8EI
(C) Wl3/16EI
(D) Wl3/48EI
Answer: A
264. The strength of a riveted joint is equal to the
(A) Pull required to tear off the plate per pitch length (Pt)
(B) Pull required to shear off the rivet per pitch length (Ps)
(C) Pull required to crush the rivet per pitch length (Pc)
(D) Minimum value of Pt, Ps or Pc
Answer: D
265. The torsional rigidity of a shaft is given by
(A) T/J
B T
(C) T/r
(D) T/G
Answer: B
266. A localized compressive stress at the area of contact between two members is known as
(A) Tensile stress
(B) Bending stress
(C) Crushing stress
(D) Shear stress
Answer: C
267. The product of Young’s modulus (E) and moment of inertia (I) is known as
(A) Modulus of rigidity
(B) Bulk modulus
(C) Flexural rigidity
(D) Torsional rigidity
Answer: C
268. A body is subjected to a direct tensile stress (σ) in one plane. The shear stress is maximum at a
section inclined at __________ to the normal of the section.
(A) 45° and 90°
(B) 45° and 135°
(C) 60° and 150°
(D) 30° and 135°
Answer: B
269. Two solid shafts ‘A’ and ‘B’ are made of the same material. The shaft ‘A’ is of 50 mm
diameter and shaft ‘B’ is of 100 mm diameter. The strength of shaft ‘B’ is _________ as that of
shaft A.
(A) One-half
(B) Double
(C) Four times
(D) Eight times
Answer: D
270. For a given stress, the ratio of moment of resistance of a beam of square cross-section when
placed with its two sides horizontal to the moment of resistance with its diagonal horizontal, is
(A) 1/2
(B) 1
C √
D √
Answer: D
271. The ductility of the material __________ with the decrease in percentage elongation of a
specimen under tensile test.
(A) Increases
(B) Decreases
(C) Remain same
(D) None of these
Answer: B
272. The length of a conical bar is l, diameter of base is d and weight per unit volume is w. It is fixes
at its upper end and hanging freely. The elongation of the bar under the action of its own weight
will be
(A) wl²/2E
(B) wl²/4E
(C) wl²/6E
(D) wl²/8E
Answer: C
273. The ratio of linear stress to the linear strain is called
(A) Modulus of rigidity
(B) Modulus of elasticity
(C) Bulk modulus
D Poisson’s ratio
Answer: B
274. For no tension condition in the base of a short column of circular section, the line of action of
the load should be within a circle of diameter equal to __________ of the main circle.
(A) One-half
(B) One-third
(C) One-fourth
(D) One-eighth
Answer: C
275. The shear modulus of most materials with respect to the modulus of elasticity is
(A) Equal to half
(B) Less than half
(C) More than half
(D) None of these
Answer: B
276. Whenever a material is loaded within elastic limit, stress is __________ strain.
(A) Equal to
(B) Directly proportional to
(C) Inversely proportional to
(D) None of these
Answer: B
277. In the below figure, Hook’s law holds good, for the portion from_________.
(A) O to A
(B) B to D
(C) D to E
(D) None of these
278. The point of contraflexure occurs in
(A) Cantilever beams
(B) Simply supported beams
(C) Overhanging beams
(D) Fixed beams
Answer: C
279. The bending moment of a cantilever beam of length l and carrying a gradually varying load
from zero at free end and w per unit length at the fixed end is ________ at the fixed end.
(A) wl/2
(B) wl
(C) wl²/2
(D) wl²/6
Answer: D
280. The maximum deflection of a cantilever beam of length ‘l’ with a uniformly distributed load of
‘w’ per unit length is (where W = wl)
(A) Wl³/3EI
(B) Wl³/8EI
(C) Wl³/16EI
(D) Wl³/48EI
Answer: B
281. When a bar of length l, width b and thickness t is subjected to a pull of P, its
(A) Length, width and thickness increases
(B) Length, width and thickness decreases
(C) Length increases, width and thickness decreases
(D) Length decreases, width and thickness increases
Answer: C
282. A beam of T-section is subjected to a shear force of F. The maximum shear force will occur at
the
(A) Top of the section
(B) Bottom of the section
(C) Neutral axis of the section
(D) Junction of web and flange
Answer: C
283. The maximum deflection of a fixed beam of length l carrying a central point load W is
(A) wl³/48 EI
(B) wl³/96 EI
(C) wl³/192 EI
(D) wl³/384 EI
Answer: C
284. The torque transmitted by a hollow shaft of outer diameter (D) and inner diameter (d) is
A π 4 × τ [ D – d²)/d]
B π 6 × τ [ D³ – d³)/d]
C π 6 × τ [ D⁴ – d⁴ d]
D π3 × τ [ D⁴ – d⁴ d]
Answer: C
285. At the neutral axis of a beam
(A) The layers are subjected to maximum bending stress
(B) The layers are subjected to minimum bending stress
(C) The layers are subjected to compression
(D) The layers do not undergo any strain
Answer: D
286. In a thick cylindrical shell subjected to an internal pressure (p), the tangential stress across the
thickness of a cylinder is
(A) Maximum at the outer surface and minimum at the inner surface
(B) Maximum at the inner surface and minimum at the outer surface
(C) Maximum at the outer surface and zero at the inner surface
(D) Maximum at the inner surface and zero at the outer surface
Answer: B
287. When a bar of length l, width b and thickness t is subjected to a push of P, its
(A) Length, width and thickness increases
(B) Length, width and thickness decreases
(C) Length increases, width and thickness decreases
(D) Length decreases, width and thickness increases
Answer: D
288. In a simple bending theory, one of the assumptions is that the plane sections before bending
remain plane after bending. This assumption means that
(A) Stress is uniform throughout the beam
(B) Strain is uniform throughout the beam
(C) Stress is proportional to the distance from the neutral axis
(D) Strain is proportional to the distance from the neutral axis
Answer: D
289. For a beam, as shown in the below figure, the maximum deflection lies at
(A) l/3 from B
(B) l/3 from A
C √ l – a²/3) from B
D √ l – b²/3) from A
Answer: C
290. In the above question, the ratio of stiffness of spring ‘B’ to spring ‘A’ will be
(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) 6
(D) 8
Answer: D
291. When a body is subjected to a direct tensile stress (σ) in one plane, then normal stress on an
oblique section of the body inclined at an angle ‘θ’ to the normal of the section is
A σ cos
B σ cos
C σ sin
D σ sin
Answer: B
292. The longitudinal stress in a riveted cylindrical shell of diameter (d), thickness (t) and subjected
to an internal pressure (p) is
A pd η × t
B pd η × t
C pd η × 4t
D pd η × 8t
Answer: C
293. Lame’s theory is associated with
(A) Thin cylindrical shells
(B) Thick cylindrical shells
(C) Direct and bending stresses
(D) None of these
Answer: B
294. According to Euler’s column theory, the crippling load of a column is given by p = π² EI/Cl² In
this equation, the value of ‘C’ for a column with both ends hinged, is
(A) ¼
(B) ½
(C) 1
(D) 2
Answer: C
295. A riveted joint may fail by
(A) Tearing of the plate at an edge
(B) Tearing of the plate across a row of rivets
(C) Shearing of rivets
(D) Any one of these
Answer: D
296. The tensile strength of ductile materials is _________ its compressive strength.
(A) Equal to
(B) Less than
(C) Greater than
(D) None of these
Answer: C
297. The strain energy stored in a body due to shear stress, is (where τ = Shear stress, C = Shear
modulus, and V = Volume of the body)
A τ C ×V
B C τV
C τ C ×V
D C τV
Answer: C
298. The maximum shear stress is __________ the algebraic difference of maximum and minimum
normal stresses.
(A) Equal to
(B) One-fourth
(C) One-half
(D) Twice
Answer: C
299. The object of caulking in a riveted joint is to make the joint
(A) Free from corrosion
(B) Stronger in tension
(C) Free from stresses
(D) Leak proof
Answer: D
300. The Poisson’s ratio for steel varies from
(A) 0.23 to 0.27
(B) 0.27 to 0.30
(C) 0.31 to 0.34
(D) 0.32 to 0.42
Answer: B
301. The shear force of a cantilever beam of length l and carrying a gradually varying load from
zero at the free end and w per unit length at the fixed end is _________ at the fixed end.
(A) Zero
(B) wl/4
(C) wl/2
(D) wl
Answer: C
302. The modulus of elasticity for mild steel is approximately equal to
(A) 10 kN/mm²
(B) 80 kN/mm²
(C) 100 kN/mm²
(D) 210 kN/mm²
Answer: D
303. The direct stress induced in a long column is __________ as compared to bending stress.
(A) Same
(B) More
(C) Less
(D) Negligible
Answer: D
304. For a 25 mm hole drilled in plates, the diameter of rivet shank should be
(A) 23 mm
(B) 24.5 mm
(C) 25 mm
(D) 26 mm
Answer: A
305. The elongation of a conical bar under its own weight is __________ that of prismatic bar of the
same length.
(A) Equal to
(B) Half
(C) One-third
(D) Two-third
Answer: C
306. A bolt is made to pass through a tube and both of them are tightly fitted with the help of
washers and nuts. If the nut is tightened, then
(A) Bolt and tube are under tension
(B) Bolt and tube are under compression
(C) Bolt is under compression and tube is under tension
(D) Bolt is under tension and tube is under compression
Answer: D
307. Two shafts ‘A’ and ‘B’ have the same material. The shaft ‘A’ is solid of diameter 100 mm. The
shaft ‘B’ is hollow with outer diameter 100 mm and inner diameter 50 mm. The torque transmitted
by shaft ‘B’ is __________ as that of shaft ‘A’.
(A) 1/6
(B) 1/8
(C) 1/4
(D) 15/16
Answer: D
308. Mohr’s circle is used to determine the stresses on an oblique section of a body subjected to
(A) Direct tensile stress in one plane accompanied by a shear stress
(B) Direct tensile stress in two mutually perpendicular directions
(C) Direct tensile stress in two mutually perpendicular directions accompanied by a simple shear stress
(D) All of the above
Answer: D
309. A steel bar 2 m long, 20 mm wide and 10 mm thick is subjected to a pull of 2 kN. If the same
bar is subjected to a push of 2 kN, the Poisson’s ratio of the bar in tension will be __________ the
Poisson’s ratio for the bar in compression.
(A) Equal to
(B) Less than
(C) Greater than
(D) None of these
Answer: A
310. The assumption, generally, made in the theory of simple bending is that
(A) The beam material is perfectly homogeneous and isotropic
(B) The beam material is stressed within its elastic limit
(C) The plane sections before bending remain plane after bending
(D) All of the above
Answer: D
311. When a body is subjected to two equal and opposite pulls, as a result of which the body tends
to extend its length, the stress and strain induced is
(A) Compressive stress, tensile strain
(B) Tensile stress, compressive strain
(C) Tensile stress, tensile strain
(D) Compressive stress, compressive strain
Answer: C
312. The thermal stress in a bar is __________ proportional to the change in temperature.
(A) Directly
(B) Indirectly
(C) Both A and B
(D) None of these
Answer: A
313. A body is subjected to a direct tensile stress of 300 MPa in one plane accompanied by a simple
shear stress of 200 MPa. The minimum normal stress will be
(A) -100 MPa
(B) 250 MPa
(C) 300 MPa
(D) 400 MPa
Answer: A
314. For the beam shown in the below figure, the shear force at A is equal to
(A) wl/6
(B) wl/3
(C) wl
(D) 2wl/3
Answer: B
315. The maximum shear stress developed in a beam of circular section is __________ the average
shear stress.
(A) Equal to
(B) 4/3 times
(C) 1.5 times
(D) Twice
Answer: B
316. The bending moment of a cantilever beam of length l and carrying a uniformly distributed
load of w per unit length is __________ at the free end.
(A) Zero
(B) wl/4
(C) wl/2
(D) wl
Answer: A
317. For a shaft, the shear stress at a point is __________ the distance from the axis of the shaft.
(A) Equal to
(B) Directly proportional to
(C) Inversely proportional to
(D) None of these
Answer: B
318. The bending moment diagram for a simply supported beam carrying a uniformly distributed
load of ‘w’ per unit length, will be
(A) A horizontal line
(B) A vertical line
(C) An inclined line
(D) A parabolic curve
Answer: D
319. When one plate overlaps the other and the two plates are riveted together with two rows of
rivets, the joint is known as
(A) Single riveted lap joint
(B) Double riveted lap joint
(C) Double riveted single cover butt joint
(D) Double riveted double cover butt joint
Answer: B
320. When a body is subjected to a direct tensile stress (σ) in one plane, the maximum shear stress is
__________ the maximum normal stress.
(A) Equal to
(B) One-half
(C) Two-third
(D) Twice
Answer: B
321. The ductility of a material __________ with the increase in percentage reduction in area of a
specimen under tensile test.
(A) Increases
(B) Decreases
(C) Remains same
(D) None of these
Answer: A
322. Rivets are generally specified by
(A) Thickness of plates to be joined
(B) Overall length
(C) Shank diameter
(D) Diameter of head
Answer: C
323. The simply supported beam ‘A’ of length ‘l’ carries a central point load ‘W’. Another beam
‘B’ is loaded with a uniformly distributed load such that the total load on the beam is ‘W’. The
ratio of maximum deflections between beams ‘A’ and ‘B’ is
(A) 5/8
(B) 8/5
(C) 5/4
(D) 4/5
Answer: B
324. The rectangular beam ‘A’ has length ‘l’, width ‘b’ and depth ‘d’. Another beam ‘B’ has the
same length and depth but width is double that of ‘A’. The elastic strength of beam ‘B’ will be
_________ as compared to beam ‘A’.
(A) Same
(B) Double
(C) Four times
(D) Six times
Answer: B
325. The bending moment in the center of a simply supported beam carrying a uniformly
distributed load of w per unit length is
(A) Zero
(B) wl²/2
(C) wl²/4
(D) wl²/8
Answer: D
326. The polar modulus for a solid shaft of diameter (D) is
A πD 4
B πD³ 6
C πD³ 3
D πD⁴ 64
Answer: B
327. The slenderness ratio is the ratio of
(A) Area of column to least radius of gyration
(B) Length of column to least radius of gyration
(C) Least radius of gyration to area of column
(D) Least radius of gyration to length of column
Answer: B
328. A simply supported beam ‘A’ of length ‘l’, breadth ‘b’ and depth ‘d’ carries a central load
‘W’. Another beam ‘B’ of the same dimensions carries a central load equal to 2W. The deflection of
beam ‘B’ will be __________ as that of beam ‘A’.
(A) One-fourth
(B) One-half
(C) Double
(D) Four times
Answer: C
329. When a bar of length ‘l’ and diameter ‘d’ is rigidly fixed at the upper end and hanging freely,
then the total elongation produced in the bar due to its own weight is (where w = Weight per unit
volume of the bar)
(A) wl/2E
(B) wl²/2E
(C) wl³/2E
D wl⁴ E
Answer: B
330. In a riveted joint, when the rivets in the various rows are opposite to each other, the joint is
said to be
(A) Chain riveted
(B) Zig-zag riveted
(C) Diamond riveted
(D) None of these
Answer: A
331. When a rectangular bar of length l, breadth b and thickness t is subjected to an axial pull of P,
then linear strain (ε) is given by (where E = Modulus of elasticity)
A ε = P .t.E
B ε = .t.E P
C ε = .t P.E
D ε = P.E .t
Answer: A
332. Which of the following statement is correct?
(A) The size of hole drilled in riveting plates is less than the actual size of rivet.
(B) The center to center distance between two consecutive rivets in a row is called margin.
(C) Rivets are generally specified by its shank diameter.
(D) Tearing of plates can be avoided by taking the pitch of rivets equal to 1.5 times the diameter of rivet
hole.
Answer: C
333. A beam of triangular section is placed with its base horizontal. The maximum shear stress
occurs at
(A) Apex of the triangle
(B) Mid of the height
(C) Center of gravity of the triangle
(D) Base of the triangle
Answer: B
334. The Young’s modulus of a material is 125 GPa and Poisson’s ratio is 0.25. The modulus of
rigidity of me material is
(A) 30 GPa
(B) 50 GPa
(C) 80 GPa
(D) 100 GPa
Answer: B
335. In the above question, the normal stress on an oblique section will be maximum, when θ is
equal to
(A) 0°
(B) 30°
(C) 45°
(D) 90°
Answer: A
336. In a simply supported beam carrying a uniformly distributed load w per unit length, the point
of contraflexure
(A) Lies in the center of the beam
(B) Lies at the ends of the beam
(C) Depends upon the length of beam
(D) Does not exist
Answer: D
337. In case of eccentrically loaded struts __________ is preferred.
(A) Solid section
(B) Hollow section
(C) Composite section
(D) Reinforced section
Answer: C
338. In a thin cylindrical shell subjected to an internal pressure p, the ratio of longitudinal stress to
the hoop stress is
(A) 1/2
(B) 3/4
(C) 1
(D) 1.5
Answer: A
339. The unit of modulus of elasticity is same as those of
(A) Stress, strain and pressure
(B) Stress, force and modulus of rigidity
(C) Strain, force and pressure
(D) Stress, pressure and modulus of rigidity
Answer: D
340. The stress at which the extension of the material takes place more quickly as compared to the
increase in load, is called
(A) Elastic limit
(B) Yield point
(C) Ultimate point
(D) Breaking point
Answer: B
341. Two bars of different materials and same size are subjected to the same tensile force. If the
bars have unit elongation in the ratio of 2:5, then the ratio of modulus of elasticity of the two
materials will be
(A) 2 : 5
(B) 5 : 2
(C) 4 : 3
(D) 3 : 4
Answer: B
342. In a thick cylindrical shell subjected to an internal pressure (p), the maximum radial stress at
the inner surface of the shell is
(A) Zero
(B) p (tensile)
(C) -p (compressive)
(D) 2p (tensile)
343. When a body is subjected to direct tensile stresses (σx and σy) in two mutually perpendicular
directions, accompanied by a simple shear stress τxy, then in Mohr’s circle method, the circle
radius is taken as
A [ σ – σy ] τ
B [σ σy ] τ
C × √[ σ – σy 4τ y]
D × √[ σ σy 4τ y]
Answer: C
344. A section of beam is said to be in pure bending, if it is subjected to
(A) Constant bending moment and constant shear force
(B) Constant shear force and zero bending moment
(C) Constant bending moment and zero shear force
(D) None of the above
Answer: C
345. Modular ratio of the two materials is the ratio of
(A) Linear stress to linear strain
(B) Shear stress to shear strain
(C) Their modulus of elasticities
(D) Their modulus of rigidities
Answer: C
346. The relation between modulus of elasticity (E) and modulus of rigidity (C) is given by
(A) C = m.E/2 (m + 1)
(B) C = 2(m + 1)/m.E
(C) C = 2m.E/(m + 1)
(D) C = (m + 1)/2m.E
Answer: A
347. The Rankine’s constant for a mild steel column with both ends hinged is
(A) 1/750
(B) 1/1600
(C) 1/7500
(D) 1/9000
Answer: C
348. In a watch, the spring is used to store strain energy. This energy is released
(A) To stop the watch
(B) To run the watch
(C) To change the time
(D) All of these
Answer: B
349. When a column is subjected to an eccentric load, the stress induced in the column will be
(A) Direct stress only
(B) Bending stress only
(C) Shear stress only
(D) Direct and bending stress both
Answer: D
350. Two shafts ‘A’ and ‘B’ are made of same material. The shaft ‘A’ is solid and has diameter D.
The shaft ‘B’ is hollow with outer diameter D and inner diameter D/2. The strength of hollow shaft
in torsion is _________ as that of solid shaft.
(A) 1/16
(B) 1/8
(C) 1/4
(D) 15/16
Answer: D
351. A thick cylindrical shell having r₀ and ri as outer and inner radii, is subjected to an internal
pressure (p). The maximum tangential stress at the inner surface of the shell is
A [p r₀ ri ] r₀ – ri²)
B [p r₀ – ri ] r₀ ri
C pri r₀ – ri²)
D r₀ – ri²) / 2pri²
Answer: A
352. A beam of uniform strength has
(A) Same cross-section throughout the beam
(B) Same bending stress at every section
(C) Same bending moment at every section
(D) Same shear stress at every section
Answer: B
353. When a circular bar tapering uniformly from diameter d₁, at one end to diameter d₂ at the
other end, is subjected to an increase in temperature (t), then the thermal stress induced is (where α
= Coefficient of linear expansion, and E = Modulus of elasticity for the bar material)
A α.t.E.d₁ d₂
B α.t.d₁ E.d₂
C α.t.d₂ d₁.E
D d₁.t α.E.d₂
Answer: A
354. A shaft of diameter D is subjected to a twisting moment (T) and a bending moment (M). If the
maximum bending stress is equal to maximum shear stress developed, then M is equal to
(A) T/2
(B) T
(C) 2T
(D) 4T
Answer: A
355. The maximum deflection of a fixed beam of length ‘l’ carrying a total load ‘W’ uniformly
distributed over the whole length is
(A) Wl3/48EI
(B) Wl3/96EI
(C) Wl3/192EI
(D) Wl3/384EI
Answer: D
356. Factor of safety is defined as the ratio of
(A) Ultimate stress to working stress
(B) Working stress to ultimate stress
(C) Breaking stress to ultimate stress
(D) Ultimate stress to breaking stress
Answer: A
357. A pressure vessel is said to be a thin shell when the ratio of wall thickness of the vessel to its
diameter is __________ 1/10.
(A) Equal to
(B) Less than
(C) Greater than
(D) None of these
Answer: B
358. The unit of stress in S.I. units is
(A) N/mm²
(B) kN/mm²
(C) N/m²
(D) Any one of these
Answer: D
359. . A rod is enclosed centrally in a tube and the assembly is tightened by rigid washers. If the
assembly is subjected to a compressive load, then
(A) Rod is under compression
(B) Tube is under compression
(C) Both rod and tube are under compression
(D) Tube is under tension and rod is under compression
Answer: C
360. The load required to produce a unit deflection in a spring is called
(A) Flexural rigidity
(B) Torsional rigidity
(C) Spring stiffness
(D) Young’s modulus
Answer: C
361. The bending moment at a section tends to bend or deflect the beam and the internal stresses
resist its bending. The resistance offered by the internal stresses, to the bending, is called
(A) Compressive stress
(B) Shear stress
(C) Bending stress
(D) Elastic modulus
Answer: C
362. A thin cylindrical shell of diameter (d), length (l) and thickness (t) is subjected to an internal
pressure (p). The hoop stress in the shell is
(A) pd/t
(B) pd/2t
(C) pd/4t
(D) pd/6t
Answer: B
363. Fatigue test is carried out for
(A) Stresses varying between two limits of equal value, but of opposite sign
(B) Stresses varying between two limits of unequal value, but of opposite sign
(C) Stresses varying between two limits of unequal value but of same sign
(D) All of the above
Answer: D
364. The neutral axis of a beam is subjected to __________ stress.
(A) Zero
(B) Maximum tensile
(C) Minimum tensile
(D) Maximum compressive
Answer: A
365. Two beams, one of circular cross-section and the other of square cross-section, have equal
areas of cross-sections. When these beams are subjected to bending,
(A) Both beams are equally economical
(B) Square beam is more economical
(C) Circular beam is more economical
(D) None of these
Answer: B
366. A body is subjected to two normal stresses 20 kN/m² (tensile) and 10 kN/m² (compressive)
acting perpendicular to each other. The maximum shear stress is
(A) 5 kN/m²
(B) 10 kN/m²
(C) 15 kN/m²
(D) 20 kN/m²
Answer: C
367. The thermal or temperature stress is a function of
(A) Increase in temperature
(B) Modulus of elasticity
(C) Coefficient of linear expansion
(D) All of these
Answer: D
368. For long columns, the value of buckling load is __________ crushing load.
(A) Equal to
(B) Less than
(C) More than
(D) None of these
Answer: B
369. When a body is subjected to a direct tensile stress (σ) in one plane, then tangential or shear
stress on an oblique section of the body inclined at an angle ‘θ’ to the normal of the section is
A σ sin
B σ cos
C σ sin
D σ cos
Answer: C
370. Whenever some external system of forces acts on a body, it undergoes some deformation. As
the body undergoes some deformation, it sets up some resistance to the deformation. This resistance
per unit area to deformation, is called
(A) Strain
(B) Stress
(C) Pressure
(D) Modulus of elasticity
Answer: B
371. According to Euler’s column theory, the crippling load for a column of length (l) with one end
fixed and the other end hinged, is
A πE l
B π E 4l
C πE l
D 4π E l
Answer: C
372. When there is a sudden increase or decrease in shear force diagram between any two points, it
indicates that there is a
(A) Point load at the two points
(B) No loading between the two points
(C) Uniformly distributed load between the two points
(D) Uniformly varying load between the two points
Answer: A
373. According to Euler’s column theory, the crippling load for a column of length (l) fixed at both
ends is __________ the crippling load for a similar column hinged at both ends.
(A) Equal to
(B) Two times
(C) Four times
(D) Eight times
Answer: C
374. A load which is spread over a beam in such a manner that it varies uniformly over the whole
length of abeam is called uniformly ________ load.
(A) Distributed
(B) Varying
(C) Both A and B
(D) None of these
Answer: B
375. Which of the following statement is correct?
(A) A continuous beam has only two supports at the ends.
(B) A uniformly distributed load spreads uniformly over the whole length of a beam.
(C) The bending moment is maximum where shear force is maximum.
(D) The maximum bending moment of a simply supported beam of length l with a central point load W is
Wl/8.
Answer: B
376. The shear force in the center of a simply supported beam carrying a uniformly distributed
load of ‘w’ per unit length, is
(A) Zero
(B) wl²/2
(C) wl²/4
(D) wl²/8
Answer: A
377. Every direct stress is always accompanied by a strain in its own direction and an opposite kind
of strain in every direction, at right angles to it. Such a strain is known as
(A) Linear strain
(B) Lateral strain
(C) Volumetric strain
(D) Shear strain
Answer: B
378. A beam extending beyond the supports is called
(A) Simply supported beam
(B) Fixed beam
(C) Overhanging beam
(D) Cantilever beam
Answer: C
379. The shear force and bending moment are zero at the free end of a cantilever beam, if it carries
a
(A) Point load at the free end
(B) Point load at the middle of its length
(C) Uniformly distributed load over the whole length
(D) None of the above
Answer: C
380. Compression members always tend to buckle in the direction of the
(A) Axis of load
(B) Perpendicular to the axis of load
(C) Minimum cross section
(D) Least radius of gyration
Answer: D
381. In order to avoid tearing off the plate at an edge, the distance from the center of the rivet hole
to the nearest edge of the plate (i.e. margin) should be (where d = Diameter of rivet hole in mm)
(A) d
(B) 1.5 d
(C) 2 d
(D) 2.5 d
Answer: B
382. A thin cylindrical shell of diameter (d) length (l) and thickness (t) is subjected to an internal
pressure (p). The longitudinal stress in the shell is
(A) pd/t
(B) pd/2t
(C) pd/4t
(D) pd/6t
Answer: C
383. The maximum shear stress developed in a beam of rectangular section is __________ the
average shear stress.
(A) Equal to
(B) 4/3 times
(C) 1.5 times
(D) Twice
Answer: C
384. The distance between the center of a rivet hole to the nearest edge of plate, is called
(A) Margin
(B) Pitch
(C) Back pitch
(D) Diagonal pitch
Answer: A
385. When a rectangular beam is loaded transversely, the maximum tensile stress is developed on
the
(A) Top layer
(B) Bottom layer
(C) Neutral axis
(D) Every cross-section
Answer: A
386. The strain energy stored in a body, when suddenly loaded, is __________ the strain energy
stored when same load is applied gradually.
(A) Equal to
(B) One-half
(C) Twice
(D) Four times
Answer: D
387. The load at which the column just buckles, is known as
(A) Buckling load
(B) Critical load
(C) Crippling load
(D) Any one of these
Answer: D
388. The steel bars in a reinforced cement concrete beam are embedded __________ of the beam.
(A) In the center
(B) Near the bottom
(C) Near the top
(D) At any position
Answer: B
389. A reinforced cement concrete beam is considered to be made of
(A) Homogeneous material
(B) Heterogeneous material
(C) Composite material
(D) Isotropic material
Answer: B
390. Principle plane is a plane on which the shear stress is
(A) Zero
(B) Minimum
(C) Maximum
(D) None of these
Answer: A
391. The polar moment of inertia of a hollow shaft of outer diameter (D) and inner diameter (d) is
A π 6 D³ – d³)
B π 6 D⁴ – d⁴
C π3 D⁴ – d⁴
D π 64 D⁴ – d⁴
Answer: C
392. The springs in brakes and clutches are used to
(A) To apply forces
(B) To measure forces
(C) To store strain energy
(D) To absorb shocks
Answer: A
393. A beam encastered at both the ends is called
(A) Simply supported beam
(B) Fixed beam
(C) Cantilever beam
(D) Continuous beam
Answer: B
394. A spring used to absorb shocks and vibrations is
(A) Conical spring
(B) Torsion spring
(C) Leaf spring
(D) Disc spring
Answer: C
395. The bending moment at the free end of a cantilever beam is
(A) Zero
(B) Minimum
(C) Maximum
(D) None of these
Answer: A
396. The hoop stress in a thin cylindrical shell is
(A) Longitudinal stress
(B) Compressive stress
(C) Radial stress
(D) Circumferential tensile stress
Answer: D
397. In a stress-strain diagram as shown in the below figure, the curve ‘A’ represents
(A) Mild steel
(B) Soft brass
(C) Low carbon steel
(D) Cold rolled steel
Answer: B
398. The ratio of bulk modulus to Young’s modulus for a Poisson’s ratio of 0.25 will be
(A) 1/3
(B) 2/3
(C) 1
(D) 3/2
Answer: B
399. The ratio of shear modulus to the modulus of elasticity for a Poisson’s ratio of 0.4 will be
(A) 5/7
(B) 7/5
(C) 5/14
(D) 14/5
Answer: C
400. A column of length (l) with both ends fixed may be considered as equivalent to a column of
length __________ with one end fixed and the other end free.
(A) l/8
(B) l/4
(C) l/2
(D) l
Answer: B
401. The pull required to shear off a rivet, in double shear, per pitch length is
A π 4 × d × σt
B π4×d ×τ
C π × d × σt
D π ×d ×τ
Answer: D
402. The bending stress in abeam is __________ bending moment.
(A) Equal to
(B) Less than
(C) More than
(D) Directly proportional to
Answer: D
403. When a change in length takes place, the strain is known as
(A) Linear strain
(B) Lateral strain
(C) Volumetric strain
(D) Shear strain
Answer: A
404. The volumetric strain is the ratio of the
(A) Original thickness to the change in thickness
(B) Change in thickness to the original thickness
(C) Original volume to the change in volume
(D) Change in volume to the original volume
Answer: D
405. A welded joint as compared to a riveted joint has __________ strength.
(A) Same
(B) Less
(C) More
(D) None of these
Answer: C
406. In a beam subjected to pure bending, the intensity of stress in any fibre is _________ the
distance of the fibre from the neutral axis.
(A) Equal to
(B) Less than
(C) More than
(D) Directly proportional to
Answer: D
407. The relation between Young’s modulus (E) and bulk modulus (K) is given by
(A) k = (3m – 2)/m.E
(B) k = m.E/(3m – 2)
(C) k = 3(m – 2)/m.E
(D) k = m.E/3(m – 2)
Answer: D
408. The shear force of a cantilever beam of length l carrying a uniformly distributed load of w per
unit length is __________ at the fixed end.
(A) Zero
(B) wl/4
(C) wl/2
(D) wl
Answer: D
409. The strength of the shaft is judged by the_____________.
(A) Torque transmitted by the shaft
(B) Length of the shaft
(C) Dia. of the shaft
(D) None of these
Answer: A
410. A simply supported beam ‘A’ of length l, breadth b, and depth d carries a central point load
W. Another beam ‘B’ has the same length and depth but its breadth is doubled. The deflection of
beam ‘B’ will be __________ as compared to beam ‘A’.
(A) One-fourth
(B) One-half
(C) Double
(D) Four times
Answer: B
411. In a simple bending theory, one of the assumptions is that the material of the beam is isotropic.
This assumption means that the
(A) Normal stress remains constant in all directions
(B) Normal stress varies linearly in the material
(C) Elastic constants are same in all the directions
(D) Elastic constants varies linearly in the material
Answer: C
412. The maximum deflection of a fixed beam carrying a central point load lies at
(A) Fixed ends
(B) Center of beam
(C) l/3 from fixed ends
(D) None of these
Answer: B
413. The shear stress at the center of a circular shaft under torsion is
(A) Zero
(B) Minimum
(C) Maximum
(D) Infinity
Answer: A
414. A body is subjected to a direct tensile stress of 300 MPa in one plane accompanied by a simple
shear stress of 200 MPa. The maximum normal stress will be
(A) -100 MPa
(B) 250 MPa
(C) 300 MPa
(D) 400 MPa
Answer: D
415. When a closely-coiled helical spring is subjected to an axial load, it is said to be under
(A) Bending
(B) Shear
(C) Torsion
(D) Crushing
Answer: C
416. In a beam where shear force changes sign, the bending moment will be
(A) Zero
(B) Minimum
(C) Maximum
(D) Infinity
Answer: C
417. The strength of the unriveted or solid plate per pitch length is
A d.t.σc
B p.t.σt
(C) (p – d t.σt
D π ×d ×τ
Answer: B
418. The tensile test is carried on __________ materials.
(A) Ductile
(B) Brittle
(C) Malleable
(D) Plastic
Answer: A
419. The bending moment diagram for a simply supported beam loaded in its center is
(A) A right angled triangle
(B) An isosceles triangle
(C) An equilateral triangle
(D) A rectangle
Answer: B
420. A bar of length ‘L’ meters extends by ‘l’ mm under a tensile force of ‘P’. The strain produced
in the bar is
(A) l/L
(B) 0.1 l/L
(C) 0.01 l/L
(D) 0.001 l/L
Answer: D
421. A closely coiled helical spring is of mean diameter (D) and spring wire diameter (d). The spring
index is the ratio of
(A) 1/d
(B) 1/D
(C) D/d
(D) d/D
Answer: C
422. The compression test is carried on __________ materials.
(A) Ductile
(B) Brittle
(C) Malleable
(D) Plastic
Answer: B
423. If the tearing efficiency of a riveted joint is 50%, then ratio of rivet hole diameter to the pitch
of rivets is
(A) 0.20
(B) 0.30
(C) 0.50
(D) 0.60
Answer: C
424. The breaking stress is __________ the ultimate stress.
(A) Equal to
(B) Less than
(C) Greater than
(D) None of these
Answer: B
425. The section modulus (Z) of a beam is given by
(A) I/y
(B) I.y
(C) y/I
(D) M/I
Answer: A
426. The Rankine’s formula holds good for
(A) Short columns
(B) Long columns
(C) Both short and long columns
(D) Weak columns
Answer: C
427. When two main plates are kept in alignment butting each other and riveted with cover plate on
both sides of the main plates with two rows of rivets in each main plate, the joint is known as
________ double cover butt joint.
(A) Single riveted
(B) Double riveted
(C) Multi riveted
(D) None of these
Answer: B
428. When a shaft is subjected to a twisting moment, every cross-section of the shaft will be under
(A) Tensile stress
(B) Compressive stress
(C) Shear stress
(D) Bending stress
Answer: C
429. The maximum bending moment of a simply supported beam of span l and carrying a point
load W at the center of beam, is
(A) Wl/4
(B) Wl/2
(C) Wl
(D) Wl²/4
Answer: A
430. A tensile test is performed on a mild steel round bar. Its diameter after fracture will
(A) Remain same
(B) Increase
(C) Decrease
(D) Depend upon rate of loading
Answer: C
431. Transverse fillet welds are designed for
(A) Tensile strength
(B) Compressive strength
(C) Shear strength
(D) Bending strength
Answer: A
432. The product of the tangential force acting on the shaft and its distance from the axis of the
shaft (i.e. radius of shaft) is known as
(A) Bending moment
(B) Twisting moment
(C) Torsional rigidity
(D) Flexural rigidity
Answer: B
433. The unit of strain is
(A) N-mm
(B) N/mm
(C) mm
(D) No unit
Answer: D
434. In spring balances, the spring is used
(A) To apply forces
(B) To measure forces
(C) To absorb shocks
(D) To store strain energy
Answer: B
435. A body is subjected to a tensile stress of 1200 MPa on one plane and another tensile stress of
600 MPa on a plane at right angles to the former. It is also subjected to a shear stress of 400 MPa
on the same planes. The maximum shear stress will be
(A) 400 MPa
(B) 500 MPa
(C) 900 MPa
(D) 1400 MPa
Answer: B
1000+ TOP Thermodynamics MCQs and Answers Quiz Exam
Posted on April 16, 2024 by engineer15 Comments
Thermodynamics Multiple Choice Questions
1. Which of the following variables controls the physical properties of a perfect gas
A. pressure
B. temperature
C. volume
D. all of the above
E. atomic mass.
Answer: D
2. Which of the following laws is applicable for the behavior of a perfect gas
A. Boyle’s law
B. Charles’law
C. Gay-Lussac law
D. all of the above
E. Joule’s law.
Answer: D
3. The unit of temperature in S.I. units is
A. Centigrade
B. Celsius
C. Fahrenheit
D. Kelvin
E. Rankine.
Answer: D
4. The unit of mass in S.I. units is
A. kilogram
B. gram
C. tonne
D. quintal
E. newton.
Answer: A
5. The unit of time in S.I. units is
A. second
B. minute
C. hour
D. day
E. year.
Answer: A
6. The unit of length in S.I. units is
A. meter
B. centimeter
C. kilometer
D. millimeter.
Answer: A
7. The unit of energy in S.I. units is
A. watt
B. joule
C. joule/s
D. joule/m
E. joule m.
Answer: B
8. According to Gay-Lussac law for a perfect gas, the absolute pressure of given mass varies
directly as
A. temperature
B. absolute
C. absolute temperature, if volume is kept constant
D. volume, if temperature is kept constant
E. remains constant,if volume and temperature are kept constant.
Answer: C
9. An ideal gas as compared to a real gas at very high pressure occupies
A. more volume
B. less volume
C. same volume
D. unpredictable behaviour
E. no such correlation.
Answer: A
10. General gas equation is
A. PV=nRT
B. PV=mRT
D. PV = C
C. PV=KiRT
E. Cp-Cv = Wj
Answer: B

11. According to Dalton’s law, the total pres sure of the mixture of gases is equal to
A. greater of the partial pressures of all
B. average of the partial pressures of all
C. sum of the partial pressures of all
D. sum of the partial pressures of all divided by average molecular weight
E. atmospheric pressure.
Answer: C
12. Which of the following can be regarded as gas so that gas laws could be applicable, within the
commonly encountered temperature limits.
A. 02, N2, steam, C02
B. Oz, N2, water vapour
C. S02, NH3, C02, moisture
D. 02, N2, H2, air
E. steam vapours, H2, C02.
Answer: D
13. The unit of pressure in S.I. units is
A. kg/cm2
B. mm of water column
C. pascal
D. dynes per square cm
E. bars
Answer: C
14. A closed system is one in which
A. mass does not cross boundaries of the system, though energy may do so
B. mass crosses the boundary but not the energy
C. neither mass nor energy crosses the boundaries of the system
D. both energy and mass cross the boundaries of the system
E. thermodynamic reactions take place.
Answer: A
15. Temperature of a gas is produced due to
A. its heating value
B. kinetic energy of molecules
C. repulsion of molecules
D. attraction of molecules
E. surface tension of molecules.
Answer: B
16. According to kinetic theory of gases, the absolute zero temperature is attained when
A. volume of the gas is zero
B. pressure of the gas is zero
C. kinetic energy of the molecules is zero
D. specific heat of gas is zero
E. mass is zero.
Answer: C
17. Kinetic theory of gases assumes that the collisions between the molecules are
A. perfectly elastic
B. perfectly inelastic
C. partly elastic
D. partly inelastic
E. partly elastic and partly inelastic.
Answer: A
18. The pressure’of a gas in terms of its mean kinetic energy per unit volume E is equal to
A. E/3
B. E/2
C. 3E/4
D.2E/3
E. 5E/4.
Answer: D
19. Kinetic energy of the molecules in terms of absolute temperature (T) is proportional to
A. T
B. j
C. J2
D. Vr
E. 1/Vr.
Answer: A
20. Superheated vapour behaves
A. exactly as gas
B. as steam
C. as ordinary vapour
D. approximately as a gas
E. as average of gas and vapour.
Answer: D
21. Absolute zero pressure will occur
A. at sea level
B. at the center of the earth
C. when molecular momentum of the system becomes zero
D. under vacuum conditions
E. at a temperature of – 273 °K
Answer: C
22. No liquid can exist as liquid at
A. – 273 °K
B. vacuum
C. zero pressure
D. centre of earth
E. in space.
Answer: C
23. The unit of power in S.I. units is
A. newton
B. pascal
C. erg
D. watt
E. joule.
Answer: D
24. The condition of perfect vacuum, i.e., absolute zero pressure can be attained at
A. a temperature of – 273.16°C
B. a temperature of 0°C
C. a temperature of 273 °K
D. a negative pressure and 0°C temperature
E. can’t e attained.
Answer: A
25. Intensive property of a system is one whose value
A. depends on the mass of the system, like volume
B. does not depend on the mass of the system, like temperature, pressure, etc.
C. is not dependent on the path followed but on the state
D. is dependent on the path followed and not on the state
E. remains constant.
Answer: B
26. Specific heat of air at constant pressure is equal to
A. 0.17
B. 0.21
C. 0.24
D. 1.0
E. 1.41
Answer: C
27. Characteristic gas constant of a gas is equal to
A. C/Cv
B. Cv/Cp
C. Cp – Cv
D. Cp + Cv
E. Cp x Cv
Answer: C
28. The behaviour of gases can be fully determined by
A. 1 law
B. 2 laws
C. 3 laws
D. 4 laws
Answer: D
29. The ratio of two specific heats of air is equal to
A. 0.17
B. 0.24
C. 0.1
D. 1.41
E. 2.71.
Answer: D
30. Boyle’s law i.e. pV = constant is applicable to gases under
A. all ranges of pressures
B. only small range of pressures
C. high range of pressures
D. steady change of pressures
E. atmospheric conditions.
Answer: B
31. Which law states that the internal energy of a gas is a function of temperature
A. Charles’ law
B. Joule’s law
C. Regnault’s law
D. Boyle’s law
E. there is no such law.
Answer: B
32. The same volume of all gases would represent their
A. densities
B. specific weights
C. molecular weights
D. gas characteristic constants
E. specific gravities.
Answer: C
33. Which law states that the specific heat of a gas remains constant at all temperatures and
pressures
A. Charles’ Law
B. Joule’s Law
C. Regnault’s Law
D. Boyle’s Law
E. there is no such law.
Answer: C
34. An open system is one in which
A. mass does not cross boundaries of the system, though energy may do so
B. neither mass nor energy crosses the boundaries of the system
C. both energy and mass cross the boundaries of the system
D. mass crosses the boundary but not the energy
E. thermodynamic reactions do not occur.
Answer: C
35. According to which law, all perfect gases change in volume by l/273th of their original volume at
0°C for every 1°C change in temperature when pressure remains constant
A. Joule’s law
B. Boyle’s law
C. Regnault’s law
D. Gay-Lussac law
E. Charles’ law.
Answer: E
36. Gases have
A. only one value of specific heat
B. two values of specific heat
C. three values of specific heat
D. no value of specific heat
E. under some conditions one value and sometimes two values of specific heat.
Answer: B
37. According to Avogadro’s Hypothesis
A. the molecular weights of all the perfect gases occupy the same volume under same conditions of
pressure and temperature
B. the sum of partial pressure of mixture of two gases is sum of the two
C. product of the gas constant and the molecular weight of an ideal gas is constant
D. gases have two values of specific heat
E. all systems can be regarded as closed systems.
Answer: A
38. Extensive property of a system is one whose value
A. depends on the mass of the system like volume
B. does not depend on the mass of the system, like temperature, pressure, etc.
C. is not dependent on the path followed but on the state
D. is dependent on the path followed and not on the state
E. is always constant.
Answer: A
39. Work done in a free expansion process is
A. + ve
B. -ve
C. zero
D. maximum
E. minimum.
Answer: C
40. The statement that molecular weights of all gases occupy the same volume is known as
A. Avogadro’s hypothesis
B. Dalton’s law
C. Gas law
D. Law of thermodynamics
E. Joule’s law.
Answer: A
41. To convert volumetric analysis to gravimetric analysis, the relative volume of each constituent
of the flue gases is
A. divided by its molecular weight
B. multiplied by its molecular weight
C. multiplied by its density
D. multiplied by its specific weight
E. divided by its specific weight.
Answer: B
42. If a gas is heated against a pressure, keeping the volume constant, then work done will be equal
to
A. + v
B. – ve
C. zero
D. pressure x volume
E. any where between zero and infinity.
Answer: C
43. An isolated system is one in which
A. mass does not cross boundaries of the system, though energy may do so
B. neither mass nor energy crosses the boundaries of the system
C. both energy and mass cross the boundaries of the system
D. mass crosses the boundary but not the energy
E. thermodynamic reactions do not occur.
Answer: B
44. Properties of substances like pressure, temperature and density, in thermodynamic coordinates
are
A. path functions
B. point functions
C. cyclic functions
D. real functions
E. thermodynamic functions.
Answer: B
45. Which of the following quantities is not the property of the system
A. pressure
B. temperature
C. specific volume
D. heat
E. density.
Answer: D
46. According to Avogadro’s law, for a given pressure and temperature, each molecule of a gas
A. occupies volume proportional to its molecular weight
B. occupies volume proportional to its specific weight
C. occupies volume inversely proportional to its molecular weight
D. occupies volume inversely proportional to its specific weight
E. occupies same volume.
Answer: E
47. Mixture of ice and water form a
A. closed system
B. open system
C. isolated system
D. heterogeneous system
E. thermodynamic system.
Answer: D
48. Which of the following is the property of a system
A. pressure and temperature
B. internal energy
C. volume and density
D. enthalpy and entropy
E. all of the above.
Answer: E
49. On weight basis, air contains following parts of oxygen
A. 21
B. 23
C. 25
D. 73
E. 79.
Answer: B
50. Which of the following is not the intensive property
A. pressure
B. temperature
C. density
D. heat
E. specific volume.
Answer: D
51. Which of the following items is not a path function
A. heat
B. work
C. kinetic energy
D. vdp
E. thermal conductivity.
Answer: E
52. Work done in an adiabatic process between a given pair of end states depends on
A. the end states only
B. particular adiabatic process
C. the value of index n
D. the value of heattransferred
E. mass of the system.
Answer: A
53. Heat and work are
A. point functions
B. system properties
C. path functions
D. intensive properties
E. extensive properties.
Answer: C
54. Which of the following parameters is constant for a mole for most of the gases at a given
temperature and pressure
A. enthalpy
B. volume
C. mass
D. entropy
E. specific volume.
Answer: B
55. The value of n = 1 in the polytropic process indicates it to be
A. reversible process
B. isothermal process
C. adiabatic process
D. irreversible process
E. free expansion process.
Answer: B
56. Solids and liquids have
A. one value of specific heat (ft) two values of specific heat
C. three values of specific heat
D. no value of specific heat
E. one value under some conditions and two values under other conditions.
Answer: A
57. A perfect gas at 27°C is heated at constant pressure till its volume is double. The final
temperature is
A. 54°C
B. 327°C
C. 108°C
D. 654°C
E. 600°C
Answer: B
58. Curve A in Fig. 1.1 compared to curves B and C shows the following type of expansion
A. pV”=C
B. isothermal
C. adiabatic
D. free expansion
E. throttling.
Answer: B
59. If value of n is infinitely large in a polytropic process pV” = C, then the process is known as
constant
A. volume
B. pressure
C. temperature
D. enthalpy
E. entropy.
Answer: A
60. The index of compression n tends to reach ratio of specific heats y when
A. flow is uniform and steady
B. process is isentropic
C. process is isothermal
D. process is isentropic and specific heat does not change with temperature
E. process is isentropic and specific heat changes with temperature.
Answer: D
61. Change in enthalpy of a system is the heat supplied at
A. constant pressure
B. constant temperature
C. constant volume
D. constant entropy
E. N.T.P. condition.
Answer: A
62. The term N.T.P. stands for
A. nominal temperature and pressure
B. natural temperature and pressure
C. normal temperature and pressure
D. normal thermodynamic practice
E. normal thermodynamic pressure.
Answer: C
63. A heat exchange process in which the product of pressure and volume remains constant is
known as
A. heat exchange process
B. throttling process
C. isentropic process
D. adiabatic process
E. hyperbolic process.
Answer: E
64. In an isothermal process, the internal energy of gas molecules
A. increases
B. decreases
C. remains constant
D. may increase/decrease depending on the properties of gas
E. shows unpredictable behaviour.
Answer: C
65. Zeroth law of thermodynamics
A. deals with conversion of mass and energy
B. deals with reversibility and irreversibility of process
C. states that if two systems are both in equilibrium with a third system, they are in thermal equilibrium
with each other
D. deals with heat engines
E. does not exist.
Answer: C
66. If a certain amount of dry ice is mixed with same amount of water at 80°C, the final
temperature of mixture will be
A. 80°C
B. 0°C
C. 40°C
D. 20°C
E. 60°C.
Answer: B
67. The basis for measuring thermodynamic property of temperature is given by
A. zeroth law of thermodynamics
B. first law of thermodynamics
C. second law of thermodynamics
D. third law of thermodynamics
E. Avogadro’s hypothesis.
Answer: A
68. One watt is equal to
A. 1 Nm/s
B. 1 N/mt
C. 1 Nm/hr
D. 1 kNm/hr
E. 1 kNm/mt.
Answer: A
69. Work done is zero for the following process
A. constant volume
B. free expansion
C. throttling
D. all Of the above
E. none of the above.
Answer: D
70. For which of the following substances, the gas laws can be used with minimum error
A. dry steam
B. wet steam
C. saturated steam
D. superheated steam
E. steam at atmospheric pressure.
Answer: D
71. In a non-flow reversible process for which p = (- 3V+ 15) x 105N/m2,V changes from 1 m to 2
m3. The work done will be about
A. 100 xlOO5 joules
B. lxlO5 joules
C. 10 xlO5 joules
D. 10 xlO5 kilo joules
E. 10xl04kiojoules.
Answer: C
72. The value of the product of molecular weight and the gas characteristic constant for all the
gases in M.K.S. unit is
A. 29.27 kgfm/mol°K
B. 8314kgfm/mol°K
C. 848kgfm/mol°K
D. 427kgfm/mol°K
E. 735 kgfm/mol°K.
Answer: C
73. On volume basis, air contains following parts of oxygen
A. 21
B. 23
C. 25
D. 77
E. 79.
Answer: A
74. Universal gas constant is defined as equal to product of the molecular weight of the gas and
A. specific heat at constant pressure
B. specific heat at constant volume
C. ratio of two specific heats
D. gas constant
E. unity.
Answer: D
75. The value of the product of molecular weight and the gas characteristic constant for all the
gases in S.I. units is
A. 29.27 J/kmol°K
B. 83.14J/kmol°K
C. 848J/kmol°K
D. All J/kmol °K
E. 735 J/kmol °K.
Answer: B
76. For which of the following substances, the internal energy and enthalpy are the functions of
temperature only
A. any gas
B. saturated steam
C. water
D. perfect gas
E. superheated steam.
Answer: D
77. In a free expansion process
A. work done is zero
B. heat transfer is zero
C. both A. and B. above
D. work done is zero but heat increases
E. work done is zero but heat decreases.
Answer: C
78. If a gas vapour is allowed to expand through a very minute aperture, then such a process is
known as
A. free expansion
B. hyperbolic expansion
C. adiabatic expansion
D. parabolic expansion
E. throttling.
Answer: E
79. The specific heat of air increases with increase in
A. temperature
B. pressure
C. both pressure and temperature
D. variation of its constituents
E. air flow
Answer: A
80. If a fluid expands suddenly into vacuum through an orifice of large dimension, then such a
process is called
A. free expansion
B. hyperbolic expansion
C. adiabatic expansion
D. parabolic expansion
E. throttling.
Answer: A
81. Which of the following processes are thermodynamically reversible
A. throttling
B. free expansion
C. constant volume and constant pressure
D. hyperbolic and pV = C
E. isothermal and adiabatic.
Answer: E
82. Which of the following processes is irreversible process
A. isothermal
B. adiabatic
C. throttling
D. all of the above
E. none of the above.
Answer: C
83. In order that a cycle be reversible, following must be satisfied
A. free expansion or friction resisted expansion/compression process should not be encountered
B. when heat is being absorbed, temperature of hot source and working sub¬stance should be same
C. when beat is being rejected, temperature of cold source and working sub-stance should be same
D. all of the above
E. none of the above.
Answer: D
84. For a thermodynamic process to be reversible, the temperature difference between hot body
and working substance should be
A. zero
B. minimum
D. maximum
D. infinity
E. there is no such criterion.
Answer: A
85. Minimum work in compressor is possible when the value of adiabatic index n is equal to
A. 0.75
B. 1
C. 1.27
D. 1.35
E. 2.
Answer: B
86. Molecular volume of any perfect gas at 600 x 103 N/m2 and 27°C will be
A. 4.17m3/kgmol
B. 400 m3/kg mol
C. 0.15 m3/kg mol
D. 41.7 m3/kg mol
E. 417m3/kgmol.
Answer: A
87. A gas is compressed in a cylinder by a movable piston to a volume one-half its original volume.
During the process 300 kJ heat left the gas and internal energy remained same. The work done on
gas in Nm will be
A. 300 Nm
B. 300,000 Nm
C. 30 Nm
D. 3000 Nm
E. 30,000 Nm.
Answer: B
88. The more effective way of increasing efficiency of Carnot engine is to
A. increase higher temperature
B. decrease higher temperature
C. increase lower temperature
D. decrease lower temperature
E. keep lower temperature constant.
Answer: D
89. Entropy change depends on
A. heat transfer
B. mass transfer
C. change of temperature
D. thermodynamic state
E. change of pressure and volume.
Answer: A
90. For reversible adiabatic process, change in entropy is
A. maximum
B. minimum
C. zero
D. unpredictable
E. negative.
Answer: C
91. Isochoric process is one in which
A. free expansion takes place
B. very little mechanical work is done by the system
C. no mechanical work is done by the system
D. all parameters remain constant
E. mass and energy transfer do not take place.
Answer: C
92. According to first law of thermodynamics
A. work done by a system is equal to heat transferred by the system
B. total internal energy of a system during a process remains constant
C. internal energy, enthalpy and entropy during a process remain constant
D. total energy of a system remains constant
E. entropy of a system remains constant.
Answer: D
93. Energy can neither be created nor destroyed but can be converted from one form to other is
inferred from
A. zeroth low of thermodynamic
B. first law of thermodynamics
C. second law to thermodynamics
D. basic law of thermodynamics
E. claussius statement.
Answer: B
94. First law of thermodynamics furnishes the relationship between
A. heat and work
B. heat, work and properties of the system
C. various properties of the system
D. various thermodynamic processes
E. heat and internal energy.
Answer: B
95. Change in enthalpy in a closed system is equal to heat transferred if the reversible process takes
place at constant
A. pressure
B. temperature
C. volume
D. internal energy
E. entropy.
Answer: A
96. In an isothermal process, the internal energy
A. increases
B. decreases
C. remains constant
D. first increases and then decreases
E. first decreases and then increases.
Answer: C
97. Change in internal energy in a closed system is equal to heat transferred if the reversible
process takes place at constant
A. pressure
B. temperature
C. volume
D. internal energy
E. entropy.
Answer: C
98. According to first law of thermodynamics
A. mass and energy are mutually convertible
B. Carnot engine is most efficient
C. heat and work are mutually convertible
D. mass and light are mutually convertible
E. heat flows from hot substance to cold substance.
Answer: C
99. Total heat of a substance is also known as
A. internal energy
B. entropy
C. thermal capacity
D. enthalpy
E. thermal conductance.
Answer: D
100. First law of thermodynamics
A. enables to determine change in internal energy of the system
B. does not help to predict whether the system will or not undergo a change
C. does not enable to determine change in entropy
D. provides relationship between heat, work and internal energy
E. all of the above.
Answer: E
Applied Thermodynamics Objective Questions with Answers Pdf Download
101. Addition of heat at constant pressure to a gas results in
A. raising its temperature
B. raising its pressure
C. raising its volume
D. raising its temperature and doing external work
E. doing external work.
Answer: D
102. Carnot cycle has maximum efficiency for
A. reversible engine
B. irreversible engine
C. new engine
D. petrol engine
E. diesel engine.
Answer: A
103. Measurement of temperature is based on
A. thermodynamic properties
B. zeroth law of thermodynamics
C. first law of thermodynamics
D. second law of thermodynamics
E. joule’s law.
Answer: B
104. Carnot cycle efficiency depends upon
A. properties of the medium/substance used
B. condition of engine
C. working condition
D. temperature range of operation
E. effectiveness of insulating material around the engine.
Answer: D
105. Carnot cycle efficiency is maximum when
A. initial temperature is 0°K
B. final temperature is 0°K
C. difference between initial and final temperature is 0°K
D. final temperature is 0°C
E. initial temperature is minimum possible.
Answer: B
106. An engine operates between temperatures of 900°Kandr2 and another engine between T2 and
400°K For both to do equal work, value of T2 will be
A. 650°K
B. 600°K
C. 625°K
D. 700°K
E. 750°K.
Answer: A
107. If heat be exchanged in a reversible manner, which of the following property of the working
substance will change accordingly
A. temperature
B. enthalpy
C. internal energy
D. entropy
E. all of the above.
Answer: D
108. If a system after undergoing a series of processes, returns to the initial state then
A. process is thermodynamically in equilibrium
B. process is executed in closed system cycle
C. its entropy will change due to irreversibility
D. sum of heat and work transfer will be zero
E. no work will be done by the system.
Answer: D
109. Which of the following represents the perpetual motion of the first kind
A. engine with 100% thermal efficiency
B. a fully reversible engine
C. transfer of heat energy from low temperature source to high temperature source
D. a machine that continuously creates its own energy
E. production of energy by temperature differential in sea water at different levels.
Ans:
110. An actual engine is to be designed having same efficiency as the Carnot cycle. Such a
proposition is
A. feasible
B. impossible
C. possible
D. possible, but with lot of sophistications
E. desirable.
Answer: D
112. A manufacturer claims to have a heat engine capable of developing 20 h.p. by receiving heat
input of 400 kcal/mt and working between the temperature limits of 227° C and 27° C. His claim is
A. justified
B. not possible
C. may be possible with lot of sophistications
D. cost will be very high
E. theroretically possible.
Answer: B
113. In a Carnot cycle, heat is transferred at
A. constant pressure
B. constant volume
C. constant temperature
D. constant enthaply
E. any one of the above.
Answer: C
114. A diathermic wall is one which
A. prevents thermal interaction
B. permits thermal interaction
C. encourages thermal interaction
D. discourages thermal interaction
E. does not exist.
Answer: B
115. An adiabatic wall is one which
A. prevents thermal interaction
B. permits thermal interaction
C. encourages thermal interaction
D. discourages thermal interaction
E. dos not exist.
Answer: A
116. The door of a running refrigerator inside a room was left open. Which of the following
statements is correct?
A. The room will be cooled to the temperature inside the refrigerator.
B. The room will be cooled very slightly.
C. The room will be gradually warmed up.
D. The temperature of the air in room will remain unaffected.
E. any one of above is possible depending on the capacity.
Answer: C
117. Compressed air coming out from a punctured football
A. becomes hotter
B. becomes cooler1
C. remains at the same temperature
D. may become hotter or cooler depend-ing upon the humidity of the surround¬ing air
E. attains atmospheric temperature.
Answer: B
118. Water contained in a beaker can be made to boil by passing steam through it
A. at atmospheric pressure
B. at a pressure below the firuosphejric pressure
C. at a pressure greater than atmospheric pressure
D. any pressure
E. not possible.
Answer: C
119. During throttling process
A. heat exchange does not take place
B. no work is done by expanding steam
C. there is no change of internal energy of steam
D. all of the above
E. entropy decreases.
Answer: D
120. The energy of molecular motion appears as
A. heat
B. potential energy
C. surface tension
D. friction
E. increase in pressure.
Answer: A
121. A sudden fall in the barometer reading is a sign of approaching
A. fine weather
B. rains
C. storm
D. cold wave
E. hot wave.
Answer: C
122. The unit’of universal gas constant is
A. watts/°K
B. dynes/°C
C. ergscm/°K
D.erg/°K
E. none of the above.
Answer: D
123. Calorie is a measure of
A. specific heat
B. quantity of heat
C. thermal capacity
D.entropy
E. work.
Answer: B
124. I kgf/cm2 is equal to
A. 760 mm Hg
B. zero mm Hg
C. 735.6 mm Hg
D. 1 mm Hg
E. lOOmmHg.
Answer: C
125. Barometric pressure is equal to
A. 760 mm Hg
B. zero mm Hg
C. 735.6 mm Hg
D. 1 mm Hg
E. 100mm Hg.
Answer: A
126. One barometric pressure or 1 atmospheric pressure is equal to
A. 1 kgf/cnr2
B. 1.033 kgf/cm2
C. 0 kgf/cm2
D. 1.0197 kgf/cm2
E. 100 kgf/cm2.
Answer: B
127. The first law of thermodynamics is the law of
A. conservation of mass
B. conservation of energy
C. conservation of momentum
D. conservation of heat
E. conservation of temperature.
Answer: B
128. A perpetual motion machine is
A. a thermodynamic machine
B. a non-thermodynamic machine
C. a hypothetical machine
D. a hypothetical machine whose opera-tion would violate the laws of thermodynamics
E. an inefficient machine.
Answer: D
129. Kelvin Planck’s law deals with
A. conservation of heat
B. conservation of work
C. conversion of heat into work
D. conversion fo work into heat
E. conservation of mass.
Answer: C
130. According to Clausis statement of second law of thermodynamics
A. heat can’t e transferred from low temperature source to high temperature source
B. heat can be transferred for low temperature to high temperature source by using refrigeration cycle.
C. heat can be transferred from low temperature to high temperature source if COP of process is more
than unity
D. heat can’t be transferred from low temperature to high temperature source without the aid of external
energy
E. all of the above.
Answer: D
131. Thermal power plant works on
A. Carnot cycle
B. Joule cycle
D. Rankine cycle
D. Otto cycle
E. Brayton cycle.
Answer: C
132. Which of the following is an irreversible cycle
A. carnot
B. Stirling
C. ericsson
D. all of the above
E. none of the above.
Answer: E
133. Otto cycle consists of following four processes
A. two isothermals and two isentropics
B. two isentropics and two constant volumes
C. two isentropics, one constant volume and one constant pressure
D. two isentropics and two constant pres-sures
E. none of the above.
Answer: B
134. The efficiency of a Carnot engine depends on
A. working substance
B. design of engine
C. size of engine
D. type of fuel fired
E. temperatures of source and sink.
Answer: E
135. For same compression ratio and for same heat added
A. Otto cycle is more efficient than Diesel cycle
B. Diesel cycle is more efficient than Otto cycle
C. efficiency depends on other factors
D. both Otto and Diesel cycles are equally efficient
E. none of the above.
Answer: A
136. The efficiency of Carnot cycle is maximum for
A. gas engine
B. well lubricated engine
C. petrol engine
D. steam engine
E. reversible engine.
Answer: E
137. Carnot cycle is
A. a reversible cycle (ft) an irreversible cycle
C. a semi-reversible cycle
D. a quasi static cycle
E. an adiabatic irreversible cycle.
Answer: A
138. Diesel cycle consists of following four processes
A. two isothermals and two isentropics
B. two isentropics, and two constant volumes.
C. two isentropics, one constant volume and one constant pressure
D. two isentropics and two constant pressures
E. none of the above.
Answer: C
139. If both Stirling and Carnot cycles operate within the same temperature limits, then efficiency
of Stirling cycle as compared to Carnot cycle
A. more
B. less
C. equal
D. depends on other factors
E. none of the above.
Answer: C
140. Stirling and Ericsson cycles are
A. reversible cycles
B. irreversible cycles
C. quasi-static cycles
D. semi-reversible cycles
E. adiabatic irreversible cycles.
Answer: A
141. A cycle consisting of two adiabatics and two constant pressure processes is known as
A. Otto cycle
B. Ericsson cycle
C. Joule cycle
D. Stirling cycle
E. Atkinson cycle.
Answer: C
142. Reversed joule cycle is called
A. Carnot cycle
B. Rankine cycle
C. Brayton cycle
D. Bell Coleman cycle
E. Dual cycle.
Answer: C
143. Brayton cycle consists’ of following four processes
A. two isothermals and two isentropics
B. two isentropics and two constant volumes
C. two isentropics, one constant volume and one constant pressure
D. two isentropics and two constant pres-sures
E. none of the above.
Answer: D
144. Which of the following cycles is not a reversible cycle
A. Carnot
B. Ericsson
C. Stirling
D. Joule
E. none of the above.
Answer: E
145. The cycle in which heat is supplied at constant volume and rejected at constant pressure is
known as
A. Dual combustion cycle
B. Diesel cycle
C. Atkinson cycle
D. Rankine cycle
E. Stirling cycle.
Answer: C
146. The efficiency of Diesei cycle with decrease in cut off
A. increases
B. decreases
C. remains unaffected
D. first increases and then decreases
E. first decreases and then increases.
Answer: A
147. Which of the following cycles has maximum efficiency
A. Rankine
B. Stirling
C. Carnot
D. Brayton
E. Joule.
Answer: C
148. The ideal efficiency of a Brayton cycle without regeneration with increase ni pressure ratio will
A. increase
B. decrease
C. remain unchanged
D. increase/decrease depending on application
E. unpredictable.
Answer: A
149. The ideal efficiency of a Brayton cycle with regeneration, with increase in pressure ratio will
A. increase
B. decrease
C. remain unchanged
D. increase/decrease depending on ap-plication
E. unpredicta le. ”
Answer: B
150. The following cycle is used for air craft refrigeration
A. Brayton cycle
B. Joule cycle
C. Carnot cycle
D. Bell-Coleman cycle
E. Reversed-Brayton cycle.
Answer: E
151. Gas turbine cycle consists of
A. two isothermals and two isentropics
B. two isentropics and two constant volumes
C. two isentropics, one constant volume and one constant pressure
D. two isentropics and two constant pressures
E. none of the above.
Answer: D
152. The thermodynamic difference between a Rankine cycle working with saturated steam and the
Carnot cycle is that
A. carnot cycle can’t work with saturated steam
B. heat is supplied to water at temperature below the maximum temperature of the cycle
C. a rankine cycle receives heat at two places
D. rankine cycle is hypothetical
E. none of the above.
Answer: B
153. An ideal gas as compared to a real gas at very high pressure occupies
A. More volume
B. Less volume
C. Same volume
D. Unpredictable behavior
Answer: A
154. In open cycle gas turbine plants
A. Direct combustion systems is used
B. A condenser is used
C. The indirect heat exchanger and cooler is avoided
D. All of the above
Answer: D
155. One Joule (J) is equal to
A. 1 kN-m
B. 1 N-m
C. 10 kN-m/s
D. 10 N-m/s
Answer: B
156. General gas equation is
A. PV=nRT
B. PV=mRT
C. PV = C
D. PV=KiRT
Answer: B
157. Kinetic theory of gases assumes that the collisions between the molecules are
A. Perfectly elastic
B. Perfectly inelastic
C. Partly elastic
D. Partly inelastic
Answer: A
58. The pressure of a gas in terms of its mean kinetic energy per unit volume ‘E’ is equal to
A. E/3
B. E/2
C. 3E/4
D. 2E/3
Answer: D
159. Kinetic energy of the molecules in terms of absolute temperature (T) is proportional to
A. T
B. J
C. J²
D. Vr
Answer: A
160. The efficiency of Joule cycle is
A. Less than Carnot cycle
B. Equal to Carnot cycle
C. Greater than Carnot cycle
D. None of these
Answer: A
161. The state of a substance whose evaporation from its liquid state is complete, is known as
A. Perfect gas
B. Vapour
C. Steam
D. Air
Answer: A
162. Which law states that the internal energy of a gas is a function of temperature?
A. Charles’ law
B. Joule’s law
C. Boyle’s law
D. There is no such law
Answer: B
163. The same volume of all gases would represent their
A. Densities
B. Specific weights
C. Molecular weights
D. Gas characteristic constants
Answer: C
164. Which law states that the specific heat of a gas remains constant at all temperatures and pressures?
A. Charles’ Law
B. Joule’s Law
C. Regnault’s Law
D. Boyle’s Law
Answer: C
165. An open system is one in which
A. Mass does not cross boundaries of the system, though energy may do so
B. Neither mass nor energy crosses the boundaries of the system
C. Both energy and mass cross the boundaries of the system
D. Mass crosses the boundary but not the energy
Answer: C
166. The hyperbolic process is governed by
A. Avogadro’s law
B. Boyle’s law
C. Charles’ law
D. Gay-Lussac law
Answer: B
167. Which of the following quantities is not the property of the system?
A. Pressure
B. Temperature
C. Specific volume
D. Heat
Answer: D
168. The sum of internal energy (U) and the product of pressure and volume (p.v) is known as
A. Work done
B. Entropy
C. Power
D. Enthalpy
Answer: D
169. Which of the following gas has a minimum molecular mass?
A. Nitrogen
B. Hydrogen
C. Methane
D. Oxygen
Answer: B
70. According to Avogadro’s law, for a given pressure and temperature, each molecule of a gas
A. Occupies same volume
B. Occupies volume proportional to its specific weight
C. Occupies volume inversely proportional to its molecular weight
D. Occupies volume inversely proportional to its specific weight
Answer: A
171. Mixture of ice and water form a
A. Closed system
B. Open system
C. Isolated system
D. Heterogeneous system
Answer: D
172. The entropy of water at 0°C is assumed to be
A. 0
B. -1
C. 1
D. 2
Answer: A
73. The inde of compression ‘n’ tends to reach ratio of specific heats ‘y’ when
A. Flow is uniform and steady
B. Process is isentropic
C. Process is isothermal
D. Process is isentropic and specific heat does not change with temperature
Answer: D
174. Change in enthalpy of a system is the heat supplied at
A. Constant pressure
B. Constant temperature
C. Constant volume
D. Constant entropy
Answer: A
175. The term N.T.P. stands for
A. Nominal temperature and pressure
B. Natural temperature and pressure
C. Normal temperature and pressure
D. Normal thermodynamic practice
Answer: C
176. A heat exchange process in which the product of pressure and volume remains constant is known as
A. Heat exchange process
B. Throttling process
C. Isentropic process
D. Hyperbolic process
Answer: D
177. Universal gas constant is defined as equal to product of the molecular weight of the gas and
A. Specific heat at constant pressure
B. Specific heat at constant volume
C. Ratio of two specific heats
D. Gas constant
Answer: D
178. A cycle consisting of one constant pressure, one constant volume and two isentropic processes is
known as
A. Otto cycle
B. Stirling cycle
C. Carnot cycle
D. Diesel cycle
Answer: D
179. During which of the following process does heat rejection takes place in Carnot cycle?
A. Isothermal expansion
B. Isentropic expansion
C. Isothermal compression
D. Isentropic compression
Answer: C
180. The value of the product of molecular weight and the gas characteristic constant for all the gases in
S.I. units is
A. 29.27 J/kmol °K
B. 83.14 J/kmol °K
C. 848 J/kmol °K
D. 735 J/kmol °K
Answer: B
181. For which of the following substances, the internal energy and enthalpy are the functions of
temperature only
A. Any gas
B. Saturated steam
C. Water
D. Perfect gas
Answer: D
182. The more effective way of increasing efficiency of Carnot engine is to
A. Increase higher temperature
B. Decrease higher temperature
C. Increase lower temperature
D. Decrease lower temperature
Answer: D
183. Which of the following has the minimum atomic mass?
A. Sulphur
B. Nitrogen
C. Oxygen
D. Carbon
Answer: D
184. The processes occurring in open system which permit the transfer of mass to and from the system,
are known as
A. Flow processes
B. Non-flow processes
C. Adiabatic processes
D. None of these
Answer: A
185. Entropy change depends on
A. Heat transfer
B. Mass transfer
C. Change of temperature
D. Thermodynamic state
Answer: A
186. For reversible adiabatic process, change in entropy is
A. Maximum
B. Minimum
C. Zero
D. Negative
Answer: C
187. Carnot cycle has maximum efficiency for
A. Reversible engine
B. Irreversible engine
C. Petrol engine
D. Diesel engine
Answer: A
188. The efficiency of Diesel cycle increases with
A. Increase in cut-off
B. Constant cut-off
C. Decrease in cut-off
D. None of these
Answer: C
189. The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of the unit mass of gas through one degree at
constant volume, is called
A. Kilo Joule
B. Specific heat at constant volume
C. Specific heat at constant pressure
D. None of these
Answer: B
190. Measurement of temperature is based on
A. Thermodynamic properties
B. Zeroth law of thermodynamics
C. First law of thermodynamics
D. Second law of thermodynamics
Answer: B
191. Carnot cycle efficiency depends upon
A. Properties of the medium/substance used
B. Condition of engine
C. Working condition
D. Temperature range of operation
Answer: D
192. Compressed air coming out from a punctured football
A. Becomes hotter
B. Becomes cooler
C. Remains at the same temperature
D. May become hotter or cooler depending upon the humidity of the surrounding air
Answer: B
193. Water contained in a beaker can be made to boil by passing steam through it
A. At atmospheric pressure
B. At a pressure greater than atmospheric pressure
C. Any pressure
D. Not possible
Answer: B
194. During throttling process
A. Heat exchange does not take place
B. No work is done by expanding steam
C. There is no change of internal energy of steam
D. All of the above
Answer: D
195. The energy of molecular motion appears as
A. Heat
B. Potential energy
C. Surface tension
D. Friction
Answer: A
196. The compression ratio for Diesel engines is
A. 15 to 20
B. 5 to 8
C. 3 to 6
D. 20 to 30
Answer: A
197. The efficiency of Diesel cycle approaches to Otto cycle efficiency when
A. Cut-off is decreased
B. Cut-off is constant
C. Cut-off is increased
D. Cut-off is zero
Answer: B
98. According to Clausius’ statement of second law of thermodynamics
A. Heat can’t e transferred from low temperature source to high temperature source
B. Heat can be transferred for low temperature to high temperature source by using refrigeration cycle
C. Heat can be transferred from low temperature to high temperature source if COP of process is more
than unity
D. Heat can’t e transferred from low temperature to high temperature source without the aid of e ternal
energy
Answer: D
199. Thermal power plant works on
A. Carnot cycle
B. Joule cycle
C. Rankine cycle
D. Otto cycle
Answer: C
200. The atomic mass of oxygen is
A. 14
B. 16
C. 18
D. 121
Answer: B
201. An adiabatic process is one in which
A. The temperature of the gas changes
B. No heat enters or leaves the gas
C. The change in internal energy is equal to the mechanical work done
D. All of the above
Answer: D
202. Which of the following is an irreversible cycle?
A. Carnot
B. Stirling
C. Ericsson
D. None of the above
Answer: D
203. Otto cycle consists of following four processes
A. Two isothermal and two isentropic
B. Two isentropic and two constant volumes
C. Two isentropic, one constant volume and one constant pressure
D. Two isentropic and two constant pressures
Answer: B
204. The efficiency of a Carnot engine depends on
A. Working substance
B. Design of engine
C. Size of engine
D. Temperatures of source and sink
Answer: D
205. For same compression ratio and for same heat added
A. Otto cycle is more efficient than Diesel cycle
B. Diesel cycle is more efficient than Otto cycle
C. Efficiency depends on other factors
D. Both Otto and Diesel cycles are equally efficient
Answer: A
206. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
A. The liquid fuels have higher calorific value than solid fuels
B. The solid fuels have higher calorific value than liquid fuels
C. A good fuel should have low ignition point
D. The liquid fuels consist of hydrocarbons
Answer: C
207. The compression ratio for petrol engines is
A. 3 to 6
B. 5 to 8
C. 10 to 20
D. 15 to 30
Answer: B
208. The efficiency of Carnot cycle is maximum for
A. Gas engine
B. Petrol engine
C. Steam engine
D. Reversible engine
Answer: D
209. The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of the unit mass of gas through one degree at
constant volume, is called
A. Specific heat at constant volume
B. Specific heat at constant pressure
C. Kilo Joule
D. None of these
Answer: A
210. Diesel cycle consists of following four processes
A. Two isothermal and two isentropic
B. Two isentropic and two constant volumes
C. Two isentropic, one constant volume and one constant pressure
D. Two isentropic and two constant pressures
Answer: C
211. If both Stirling and Carnot cycles operate within the same temperature limits, then efficiency of
Stirling cycle as compared to Carnot cycle
A. More
B. Less
C. Equal
D. Depends on other factors
Answer: C
212. Stirling and Ericsson cycles are
A. Reversible cycles
B. Irreversible cycles
C. Semi-reversible cycles
D. Adiabatic irreversible cycles
Answer: A
213. A cycle consisting of two adiabatic and two constant pressure processes is known as
A. Otto cycle
B. Ericsson cycle
C. Joule cycle
D. Stirling cycle
Answer: C
214. Reversed joule cycle is called
A. Carnot cycle
B. Rankine cycle
C. Brayton cycle
D. Bell Coleman cycle
Answer: C
215. One kg of carbon monoxide requires _________kg of oxygen to produce 11/7 kg of carbon dioxide
gas.
A. 11/7
B. 9/7
C. 4/7
D. All of the above
Answer: C
216. The absolute zero temperature is taken as
A. 237°C
B. -273°C
C. -237°C
D. 273°C
Answer: B
7. Brayton cycle consists’ of following four processes
A. Two isothermal and two isentropic
B. Two isentropic and two constant volumes
C. Two isentropic, one constant volume and one constant pressure
D. Two isentropic and two constant pressures
Answer: D
218. Which of the following cycles is not a reversible cycle?
A. Carnot
B. Ericsson
C. Stirling
D. None of the above
Answer: D
219. The cycle in which heat is supplied at constant volume and rejected at constant pressure is known as
A. Dual combustion cycle
B. Diesel cycle
C. Atkinson cycle
D. Rankine cycle
Answer: C
220. The efficiency of Diesel cycle with decrease in cut-off
A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. First increases and then decreases
D. First decreases and then increases
Answer: A
221. Which of the following cycles has maximum efficiency?
A. Rankine
B. Stirling
C. Carnot
D. Brayton
Answer: C
222. Which of the following is correct?
A. Gauge pressure = Absolute pressure + Atmospheric pressure
B. Absolute pressure = Gauge pressure + Atmospheric pressure
C. Absolute pressure = Gauge pressure – Atmospheric pressure
D. Atmospheric pressure = Absolute pressure + Gauge pressure
Answer: B
223. The efficiency and work ratio of a simple gas turbine cycle are
A. Very low
B. Low
C. High
D. Very high
Answer: A
224. The ideal efficiency of a Brayton cycle without regeneration, with increase in pressure ratio will
A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. Remain unchanged
D. Increase/decrease depending on application
Answer: A
225. The ideal efficiency of a Brayton cycle with regeneration, with increase in pressure ratio will
A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. Remain unchanged
D. Increase/decrease depending on application
Answer: B
226. The following cycle is used for air craft refrigeration
A. Brayton cycle
B. Joule cycle
C. Carnot cycle
D. Reversed Brayton cycle
Answer: D
227. A cycle consisting of __________ and two isothermal processes is known as Stirling cycle.
A. Two constant pressure
B. Two constant volume
C. Two isentropic
D. One constant pressure, one constant volume
Answer: B
228. The condition for the reversibility of a cycle is
A. The pressure and temperature of the working substance must not differ, appreciably, from those of the
surroundings at any stage in the process
B. All the processes, taking place in the cycle of operation, must be extremely slow
C. The working parts of the engine must be friction free
D. All of the above
Answer: D
229. The change of entropy, when heat is absorbed by the gas, is
A. Positive
B. Negative
C. Positive or negative
D. None of these
Answer: A
230. The throttling process is __________ process.
A. Reversible
B. Irreversible
C. Reversible or irreversible
D. None of these
Answer: B
231. The isothermal and adiabatic processes are regarded as
A. Reversible process
B. Irreversible process
C. Reversible or irreversible process
D. None of these
Answer: A
232. For the constant pressure and heat input, the air standard efficiency of gas power cycle is in the order
A. Dual cycle, Diesel cycle, Otto cycle
B. Otto cycle, Diesel cycle, Dual cycle
C. Dual cycle, Otto cycle, Diesel cycle
D. Diesel cycle, Otto cycle, Dual cycle
Answer: A
233. The general gas equation is (where p = Pressure, v = Volume, m = mass, T = Absolute temperature,
and R = Gas constant)
A. pv = mRT
B. pv = RTm
C. pvm = C
D. pv = (RT)m
Answer: A
234. For the same maximum pressure and temperature,
A. Otto cycle is more efficient than Diesel cycle
B. Diesel cycle is more efficient than Otto cycle
C. Dual cycle is more efficient than Otto and Diesel cycles
D. Dual cycle is less efficient than Otto and Diesel cycles
Answer: B
35. Charles’ law states that all perfect gases change in volume by __________ of its original volume at
0°C for every 1°C change in temperature, when pressure remains constant.
A. 1/27th
B. 1/93th
C. 1/173th
D. 1/273th
236. A mixture of gas expands from 0.03 m3 to 0.06 m3 at a constant pressure of 1 MPa and absorbs 84
kJ of heat during the process. The change in internal energy of the mixture is
A. 30 kJ
B. 54 kJ
C. 84 kJ
D. 114 kJ
Answer: B
237. The total energy of a molecule is shared equally by the various degrees of freedom possessed by it.
This law is known as
A. Law of equipartition of energy
B. Law of conservation of energy
C. Law of degradation of energy
D. None of these
Answer: A
238. An isothermal process is governed by
A. Boyle’s law
B. Charles’ law
C. Gay-Lussac law
D. Avogadro’s law
Answer: A
239. A cycle consisting of one constant pressure, one constant volume and two isentropic processes is
known as
A. Carnot cycle
B. Stirling cycle
C. Otto cycle
D. Diesel cycle
Answer: D
240. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
A. The liquid fuels consist of hydrocarbons
B. The liquid fuels have higher calorific value than solid fuels
C. The solid fuels have higher calorific value than liquid fuels
D. A good fuel should have low ignition point
Answer: C
241. The efficiency of Joule cycle is
A. Greater than Carnot cycle
B. Less than Carnot cycle
C. Equal to Carnot cycle
D. None of these
Answer: B
242. Otto cycle is also known as
A. Constant pressure cycle
B. Constant volume cycle
C. Constant temperature cycle
D. Constant temperature and pressure cycle
Answer: B
243. The heat and mechanical energies are mutually convertible. This statement was established by
A. Boyle
B. Charles
C. Joule
D. None of these
Answer: C
244. The heat and work are mutually convertible. This statement is called __________ law of
thermodynamics.
A. Zeroth
B. First
C. Second
D. Third
Answer: B
245. The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 kg of water through one Kelvin is called
A. Specific heat at constant volume
B. Specific heat at constant pressure
C. kilo-Joule
D. None of these
Answer: C
246. A path 1-2-3 is given. A system absorbs 100 kJ as heat and does 60 kJ of work while along the path
1-4-3, it does 20 kJ of work. The heat absorbed during the cycle 1-4-3 is
Question No. 05
A. -140 kJ
B. -80 kJ
C. -40 kJ
D. +60 kJ
Answer: D
247. The fuel mostly used in blast furnace for extracting pig iron from iron ores is
A. Hard coke
B. Soft coke
C. Pulverized coal
D. Bituminous coal
Answer: A
248. Carnot cycle consists of
A. Two constant volume and two isentropic processes
B. Two isothermal and two isentropic processes
C. Two constant pressure and two isentropic processes
D. One constant volume, one constant pressure and two isentropic processes
Answer: B
249. Work-done during adiabatic expansion is given by (where p1 v1, T1 = Pressure, volume and
temperature for the initial condition of gas, p2, v2, T2 = Corresponding values for the final condition of
gas, R = as constant, and γ = Ratio of specific heats
A. (p1 v1 – p , v γ – 1)
B. [m R (T1 – T ] γ – 1)
C. [m R T γ – 1)][1 – (p2, v2 /p1 v1)]
D. All of these
Answer: D
250. In a free expansion process,
A. W1 – 2 = 0
B. Q1 – 2 = 0
C. dU = 0
D. All of these
Answer: D
251. When the gas is heated at constant volume, the heat supplied
A. Increases the internal energy of the gas and increases the temperature of the gas
B. Does some external work during expansion
C. Both A. and B.
D. None of these
Answer: A
252. Carnot cycle has maximum efficiency for
A. Petrol engine
B. Diesel engine
C. Reversible engine
D. Irreversible engine
Answer: C
253. The heat supplied to the gas at constant volume is (where m = Mass of gas, cv = Specific heat at
constant volume, cp = Specific heat at constant pressure, T2 – T1 = Rise in temperature, and R = Gas
constant)
A. mR (T2 – T1)
B. mcv (T2 – T1)
C. mcp (T2 – T1)
D. mcp (T2 + T1)
Answer: B
254. The processes occurring in open system which permit the transfer of mass to and from the system,
are known as
A. Flow processes
B. Non-flow processes
C. Adiabatic processes
D. None of these
Answer: A
255. Stirling and Ericsson cycles are
A. Reversible cycles
B. Irreversible cycles
C. Semi-reversible cycles
D. Quasi-static cycles
Answer: A
256. In an isothermal process,
A. There is no change in temperature
B. There is no change in enthalpy
C. There is no change in internal energy
D. All of these
Answer: D
257. When the expansion or compression takes place according to the law pvn = C, the process is known
as
A. Isothermal process
B. Adiabatic process
C. Hyperbolic process
D. Polytropic process
Answer: D
258. The general law of expansion or compression is pvn = C, The process is said to be hyperbolic, if n is
equal to
A. 0
B. 1
C. γ
D. ∝
Answer: B
259. One kilowatt is equal to
A. 1 N-m/s
B. 100 N-m
C. 1000 N-m/s
D. 1 × 106 N-m/s
Answer: C
260. The __________ states that change of internal energy of a perfect gas is directly proportional to the
change of temperature.
A. Boyle’s law
B. Charle’s law
C. Gay-Lussac law
D. Joule’s law
Answer: D
261. The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of __________ water through one degree is
called kilojoules.
A. 1 g
B. 10 g
C. 100 g
D. 1000 g
Answer: D
262. The work ratio of a gas turbine plant is given by
A. (Net work output)/(Work-done by the turbine)
B. (Net work output)/(Heat supplied)
C. (Actual temperature drop)/(Isentropic temperature drop)
D. (Isentropic increase in temperature)/(Actual increase in temperature)
Answer: A
263. The variables which control the physical properties of a perfect gas are
A. Pressure exerted by the gas
B. Volume occupied by the gas
C. Temperature of the gas
D. All of these
Answer: D
264. An open system is one in which
A. Heat and work crosses the boundary of the system, but the mass of the working substance does not
crosses the boundary of the system
B. Mass of the working substance crosses the boundary of the system but the heat and work does not
crosses the boundary of the system
C. Both the heat and work as well as mass of the working substance crosses the boundary of the system
D. Neither the heat and work nor the mass of the working substance crosses the boundary of the system
Answer: C
265. Which of the following statement is correct?
A. The increase in entropy is obtained from a given quantity of heat at a low temperature.
B. The change in entropy may be regarded as a measure of the rate of the availability or unavailability of
heat for transformation into work.
C. The entropy represents the maximum amount of work obtainable per degree drop in temperature.
D. All of the above
Answer: D
266. The calorific value of gaseous fuel is expressed in
A. kJ
B. kJ/kg
C. kJ/m2
D. kJ/m3
Answer: D
267. Which of the following is the correct statement of the second law of thermodynamics?
A. It is impossible to construct an engine working on a cyclic process, whose sole purpose is to convert
heat energy into work.
B. It is impossible to transfer heat from a body at a lower temperature to a higher temperature, without the
aid of an external source.
C. There is a definite amount of mechanical energy, which can be obtained from a given quantity of heat
energy.
D. All of the above
Answer: D
268. The ratio of specific heat at constant pressure (cp) and specific heat at constant volume (cv) is
A. Equal to one
B. Less than one
C. Greater than one
D. None of these
Answer: C
269. The expansion ratio (r) is the ratio of (where v1 = Volume at the beginning of expansion, and v2 =
Volume at the end of expansion)
A. v1/v2
B. v2/v1
C. (v1 + v2)/v1
D. (v1 + v2)/v2
Answer: B
270. Coke is produced
A. When coal is first dried and then crushed to a fine powder by pulverizing machine
B. From the finely ground coal by molding under pressure with or without a binding material
C. When coal is strongly heated continuously for 42 to 48 hours in the absence of air in a closed vessel
D. By heating wood with a limited supply of air to a temperature not less than 280°C
Answer: C
271. The hard coke is obtained when carbonization of coal is carried out at
A. 300° to 500°C
B. 500° to 700°C
C. 700° to 900°C
D. 900° to 1100°C
Answer: D
272. Energy can neither be created nor destroyed, but it can be transformed from one form to another.
This statement is known as
A. Zeroth law of thermodynamics
B. First law of thermodynamics
C. Second law of thermodynamics
D. Kinetic theory of gases
Answer: B
273. When the gas is heated at constant pressure, the heat supplied
A. Increases the internal energy of the gas
B. Increases the temperature of the gas
C. Does some external work during expansion
D. Both B. and C.
Answer: D
274. When a gas is heated at constant volume
A. Its temperature will increase
B. Its pressure will increase
C. Both temperature and pressure will increase
D. Neither temperature nor pressure will increase
Answer: C
275. Which of the following is the correct statement?
A. For a given compression ratio, both Otto and Diesel cycles have the same efficiency
B. For a given compression ratio, Otto cycle is more efficient than Diesel cycle
C. For a given compression ratio, Diesel cycle is more efficient than Otto cycle
D. The efficiency of Otto or Diesel cycle has nothing to do with compression ratio
Answer: B
276. One kg of hydrogen requires 8 kg of oxygen and produces
A. 1 kg of water
B. 7 kg of water
C. 8 kg of water
D. 9 kg of water
Answer: D
277. Which of the following statement is correct according to Clausis statement of second law of
thermodynamics?
A. It is possible to transfer heat from a body at a lower temperature to a body at a higher temperature.
B. It is impossible to transfer heat from a body at a lower temperature to a body at a higher temperature,
without the aid of an external source.
C. It is possible to transfer heat from a body at a lower temperature to a body at a higher temperature by
using refrigeration cycle.
D. None of the above
Answer: B
278. One molecule of oxygen is __________ times heavier than the hydrogen atom.
A. 12
B. 14
C. 16
D. 32
Answer: D
279. The absolute zero temperature is taken as
A. -273°C
B. 73°C
C. 237°C
D. -237°C
Answer: A
280. The efficiency and work ratio of a simple gas turbine cycle are
A. Low
B. Very low
C. High
D. Very high
Answer: B
281. The specific heat of water is
A. 1.817
B. 2512
C. 4.187
D. None of these
Answer: C
282. The specific heat at constant volume is
A. The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of unit mass of gas through one degree, at
constant pressure
B. The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of unit mass of gas through one degree, at
constant volume
C. The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 kg of water through one degree
D. Any one of the above
Answer: B
283. For the same compression ratio, the efficiency of dual combustion cycle is
A. Greater than Diesel cycle and less than Otto cycle
B. Less than Diesel cycle and greater than Otto cycle
C. Greater than Diesel cycle
D. Less than Diesel cycle
Answer: A
284. The main cause for the irreversibility is
A. Mechanical and fluid friction
B. Unrestricted expansion
C. Heat transfer with a finite temperature difference
D. All of the above
Answer: D
285. The mass of flue gas per kg of fuel is the ratio of the
A. Mass of oxygen in 1 kg of flue gas to the mass of oxygen in 1 kg of fuel
B. Mass of oxygen in 1 kg of fuel to the mass of oxygen in 1 kg of flue gas
C. Mass of carbon in 1 kg of flue gas to the mass of carbon in 1 kg of fuel
D. Mass of carbon in 1 kg of fuel to the mass of carbon in 1 kg of flue gas
Answer: C
286. The heating of a gas at constant pressure is governed by
A. Boyle’s law
B. Charles’ law
C. Gay-Lussac law
D. Avogadro’s law
Answer: B
287. In a reversible adiabatic process, the ratio of T1/T2 is equal to
A. p p γ – γ
B. p p γ – γ
C. v v γ – γ
D. v v γ – γ
Answer: B
288. First law of thermodynamics deals with
A. Conservation of heat
B. Conservation of momentum
C. Conservation of mass
D. Conservation of energy
Answer: D
289. The value of cp/cv for air is
A. 1
B. 1.4
C. 1.45
D. 2.3
Answer: B
290. The fuel mostly used in cement industry and in metallurgical processes is
A. Wood charcoal
B. Bituminous coke
C. Pulverized coal
D. Coke
Answer: C
291. The absolute zero pressure can be attained at a temperature of
A. 0°C
B. 273°C
C. 273 K
D. None of these
Answer: D
292. Which of the following is a reversible non-flow process?
A. Isochoric process
B. Isobaric process
C. Hyperbolic process
D. All of these
Answer: D
293. Which of the following is the correct statement?
A. All the reversible engines have the same efficiency.
B. All the reversible and irreversible engines have the same efficiency.
C. Irreversible engines have maximum efficiency.
D. All engines are designed as reversible in order to obtain maximum efficiency.
Answer: C
294. In S. I. units, the value of the universal gas constant is
A. 8.314 J/kg mole-K
B. 83.14 J/kgmole-K
C. 831.4 J/kgmole-K
D. 8314 J/kgmole-K
Answer: D
295. When gas is heated at constant pressure, the heat supplied is utilized in
A. Increasing the internal energy of gas
B. Doing some external work
C. Increasing the internal energy of gas and also for doing some external work
D. None of the above
Answer: C
296. Kerosene is distilled at
A. 65° to 220°C
B. 220° to 345°C
C. 345° to 470°C
D. 470° to 550°C
Answer: B
297. In open cycle gas turbine plants
A. The indirect heat exchanger and cooler is avoided
B. Direct combustion system is used
C. A condenser is used
D. All of the above
Answer: D
298. The volumetric or molar specific heat at constant pressure is the product of
A. Molecular mass of the gas and the specific heat at constant volume
B. Atomic mass of the gas and the gas constant
C. Molecular mass of the gas and the gas constant
D. None of the above
Answer: D
299. The measurement of a thermodynamic property known as temperature is based on
A. Zeroth law of thermodynamics
B. First law of thermodynamics
C. Second law of thermodynamics
D. None of these
Answer: A
300. Which is the incorrect statement about Carnot cycle?
A. It is used as the alternate standard of comparison of all heat engines.
B. All the heat engines are based on Carnot cycle.
C. It provides concept of maximizing work output between the two temperature limits.
D. All of the above
Answer: B
301. According to Avogadro’s law
A. The product of the gas constant and the molecular mass of an ideal gas is constant
B. The sum of partial pressure of the mixture of two gases is sum of the two
C. Equal volumes of all gases, at the same temperature and pressure, contain equal number of molecules
D. All of the above
Answer: C
302. The efficiency of Stirling cycle is __________ Carnot cycle.
A. Greater than
B. Less than
C. Equal to
D. None of these
Answer: C
303. The entropy of water at 0°C is assumed to be
A. 1
B. 0
C. -1
D. 10
Answer: B
304. Producer gas is obtained by
A. Partial combustion of coal, coke, anthracite coal or charcoal in a mixed air steam blast
B. Carbonization of bituminous coal
C. Passing steam over incandescent coke
D. Passing air and a large amount of steam over waste coal at about 650°C
Answer: A
305. For the same compression ratio, the efficiency of Diesel cycle is __________ Otto cycle.
A. Greater than
B. Less than
C. Equal to
D. None of these
Answer: B
306. The efficiency of the Carnot cycle may be increased by
A. Increasing the highest temperature
B. Decreasing the highest temperature
C. Increasing the lowest temperature
D. Keeping the lowest temperature constant
Answer: A
307. The atomic mass of nitrogen is __________ oxygen.
A. Equal to
B. Less than
C. More than
D. None of these
Answer: B
308. A definite area or a space where some thermodynamic process takes place is known as
A. Thermodynamic system
B. Thermodynamic cycle
C. Thermodynamic process
D. Thermodynamic law
Answer: A
309. The absolute zero pressure will be
A. When molecular momentum of the system becomes zero
B. At sea level
C. At the temperature of – 273 K
D. At the center of the earth
Answer: A
310. The work ratio of simple gas turbine cycle depends upon
A. Maximum cycle temperature
B. Minimum cycle temperature
C. Pressure ratio
D. All of these
Answer: D
311. In closed cycle gas turbine, the air is compressed
A. Isothermally
B. Isentropically
C. Polytropically
D. None of these
Answer: B
312. The thermal efficiency of an ideal gas turbine plant is given by (where r = Pressure ratio)
A. rγ – 1
B. 1 – rγ – 1
C. 1 – r γγ–1
D. 1 – r γ– γ
Answer: D
313. A process of heating crude oil to a high temperature under a very high pressure to increase the yield
of lighter distillates, is known as
A. Cracking
B. Carbonization
C. Fractional distillation
D. Full distillation
Answer: A
314. One kg of carbon monoxide requires 4/7 kg of oxygen and produces
A. 11/3 kg of carbon dioxide gas
B. 7/3 kg of carbon monoxide gas
C. 11/7 kg of carbon dioxide gas
D. 8/3 kg of carbon monoxide gas
Answer: C
315. Petrol is distilled at
A. 65° to 220°C
B. 220° to 345°C
C. 345° to 470°C
D. 470° to 550°C
Answer: A
316. The air standard efficiency of an Otto cycle is given y where r = Compression ratio, and γ = Ratio
of specific heats)
A. 1 – rγ – 1
B. rγ – 1
C. 1 – rγ – 1)
D. rγ – 1)
Answer: C
317. Mond gas is obtained by
A. Partial combustion of coal, coke, anthracite coal or charcoal in a mixed air steam blast
B. Carbonization of bituminous coal
C. Passing steam over incandescent coke
D. Passing air and a large amount of steam over waste coal at about 650°C
Answer: D
318. Which of the following gas has a minimum molecular mass?
A. Oxygen
B. Nitrogen
C. Hydrogen
D. Methane
Answer: C
319. The efficiency of Diesel cycle increases with
A. Decrease in cut-off
B. Increase in cut-off
C. Constant cut-off
D. None of these
Answer: A
320. An adiabatic process is one in which
A. No heat enters or leaves the gas
B. The temperature of the gas changes
C. The change in internal energy is equal to the mechanical work-done
D. All of the above
Answer: D
321. The distillation carried out in such a way that the liquid with the lowest boiling point is first
evaporated and re-condensed, then the liquid with the next higher boiling point is then evaporated and re-
condensed, and so on until all the available liquid fuels are separately recovered in the sequence of their
boiling points. Such a process is called
A. Cracking
B. Carbonization
C. Fractional distillation
D. Full distillation
Answer: C
322. A process, in which the temperature of the working substance remains constant during its expansion
or compression, is called
A. Isothermal process
B. Hyperbolic process
C. Adiabatic process
D. Polytropic process
Answer: A
323.When two bodies are in thermal equilibrium with a third body, they are also in thermal equilibrium
with each other. This statement is called
A. Zeroth law of thermodynamics
B. First law of thermodynamics
C. Second law of thermodynamics
D. Kelvin Planck’s law
Answer: A
324. Which of the following has the highest calorific value?
A. Peat
B. Lignite
C. Bituminous coal
D. Anthracite coal
Answer: D
325. Stirling cycle consists of
A. Two constant volume and two isentropic processes
B. Two constant volume and two isothermal processes
C. Two constant pressure and two isothermal processes
D. One constant volume, one constant pressure and two isentropic processes
Answer: B
326. Reversed Joule cycle is known as
A. Carnot cycle
B. Bell-Coleman cycle
C. Rankine cycle
D. Stirling cycle
Answer: B
327. Which of the following statement is correct?
A. The heat and work are boundary phenomena
B. The heat and work represent the energy crossing the boundary of the system
C. The heat and work are path functions
D. All of the above
Answer: D
328. The oxygen atom is ________ times heavier than the hydrogen atom.
A. 2
B. 8
C. 16
D. 32
Answer: C
329. The heat flows from a cold body to a hot body with the aid of an external source. This statement is
given by
A. Kelvin
B. Joule
C. Clausis
D. Gay-Lussac
Answer: C
330. The smallest quantity of a substance, which can exist by itself in a chemically recognizable form is
known as
A. Element
B. Compound
C. Atom
D. Molecule
Answer: D
331. The behavior of super-heated vapour is similar to that of
A. Perfect gas
B. Air
C. Steam
D. Ordinary gas
Answer: A
332. Relation between cp and cv is given by (where cp = Specific heat at constant pressure, cv = Specific
heat at constant volume, γ = cp cv, known as adia atic inde , and R = as constant
A. cv/ cp =R
B. cp – cv = R
C. cv = R γ-1
D. Both B. and C.
Answer: D
333. A cycle consisting of two constant pressure and two isentropic processes is known as
A. Carnot cycle
B. Stirling cycle
C. Otto cycle
D. None of these
Answer: D
334. The atomic mass of sulphur is
A. 12
B. 14
C. 16
D. 32
Answer: D
335. The efficiency of Carnot cycle depends upon
A. Temperature limits
B. Pressure ratio
C. Volume compression ratio
D. Cut-off ratio and compression ratio
Answer: A
336. Otto cycle efficiency is higher than Diesel cycle efficiency for the same compression ratio and heat
input because in Otto cycle
A. Combustion is at constant volume
B. Expansion and compression are isentropic
C. Maximum temperature is higher
D. Heat rejection is lower
Answer: D
337. The value of 1 mm of Hg is equal to
A. 1.333 N/m2
B. 13.33 N/m2
C. 133.3 N/m2
D. 1333 N/m2
Answer: C
338. Carbonization of coal consists of
A. Drying and crushing the coal to a fine powder
B. Moulding the finely ground coal under pressure with or without a binding material
C. Heating the wood with a limited supply of air to temperature not less than 280°C
D. None of the above
Answer: D
339. The area under the temperature-entropy curve (T – s curve) of any thermodynamic process
represents
A. Heat absorbed
B. Heat rejected
C. Either A. or B.
D. None of these
Answer: C
340. One Joule (J) is equal to
A. 1 N-m
B. 1 kN-m
C. 10 N-m/s
D. 10 kN-m/s
Answer: A
341. According to First law of thermodynamics,
A. Total internal energy of a system during a process remains constant
B. Total energy of a system remains constant
C. Work-done by a system is equal to the heat transferred by the system
D. Internal energy, enthalpy and entropy during a process remain constant
Answer: B
342. When wood is heated with a limited supply of air to a temperature not less than 280°C, the resulting
fuel is
A. Coke
B. Wood charcoal
C. Bituminous coal
D. Briquetted coal
Answer: B
343. The heat energy stored in the gas and used for raising the temperature of the gas is known as
A. External energy
B. Internal energy
C. Kinetic energy
D. Molecular energy
Answer: B
344. Which of the following statement is wrong?
A. The closed cycle gas turbine plants are external combustion plants.
B. In the closed cycle gas turbine, the pressure range depends upon the atmospheric pressure.
C. The advantage of efficient internal combustion is eliminated as the closed cycle has an external
surface.
D. In open cycle gas turbine, atmosphere acts as a sink and no coolant is required.
Answer: B
345. The temperature at which the volume of a gas becomes zero is called
A. Absolute scale of temperature
B. Absolute zero temperature
C. Absolute temperature
D. None of these
Answer: B
346. One kg of ethylene (C2H4) requires 2 kg of oxygen and produces 22/7 kg of carbon dioxide and
__________ kg of water or steam.
A. 9/7
B. 11/7
C. 7/4
D. 11/4
Answer: A
347. According to Regnault’s law, the specific heat at constant pressure (cp) and specific heat at constant
volume (cv) _________ with the change in pressure and temperature of the gas.
A. Change
B. Do not change
C. Both A. and B.
D. None of these
Answer: B
348. Which of the following is correct?
A. Absolute pressure = Gauge pressure + Atmospheric pressure
B. Gauge pressure = Absolute pressure + Atmospheric pressure
C. Atmospheric pressure = Absolute pressure + Gauge pressure
D. Absolute pressure = Gauge pressure – Atmospheric pressure
Answer: A
349. The general gas energy equation is (where Q1 – 2 = Heat supplied, dU = Change in internal energy,
and W1 – 2 = Work done in heat units)
A. Q1 – 2 = dU + W1 – 2
B. Q1 – 2 = dU – W1 – 2
C. Q1 – 2 = dU/W1 – 2
D. Q1 – 2 = dU × W1 – 2
Answer: A
350. The natural solid fuel is
A. Wood
B. Coke
C. Anthracite coal
D. Pulverized coal
Answer: A
351. In an ideal gas turbine plant, it is assumed that the compression and expansion processes are
A. Isothermal
B. Isentropic
C. Polytropic
D. None of these
Answer: B
352. The natural petroleum may be separated into
A. Petrol
B. Kerosene
C. Fuel oil
D. Lubricating oil
Answer: D
353. According to Kelvin-Planck’s statement of second law of thermodynamics,
A. It is impossible to construct an engine working on a cyclic process, whose sole purpose is to convert
heat energy into work
B. It is possible to construct an engine working on a cyclic process, whose sole purpose is to convert heat
energy into work
C. It is impossible to construct a device which operates in a cyclic process and produces no effect other
than the transfer of heat from a cold body to a hot body
D. None of the above
Answer: A
354. The pressure exerted by an ideal gas is ________ of the kinetic energy of all the molecules contained
in a unit volume of gas.
A. One-half
B. One-third
C. Two-third
D. Three-fourth
Answer: C
355. When a gas is heated, change takes place in
A. Pressure
B. Volume
C. Temperature
D. All of these
Answer: D
356. The property of a working substance which increases or decreases as the heat is supplied or removed
in a reversible manner, is known as
A. Enthalpy
B. Internal energy
C. Entropy
D. External energy
Answer: C
357. The fuel mostly used in steam boilers is
A. Brown coal
B. Peat
C. Coking bituminous coal
D. Non-coking bituminous coal
Answer: D
358. The heat absorbed or rejected by the working substance is given by (where ds = Increase or decrease
of entropy, T = Absolute temperature, and dQ = Heat absorbed or rejected)
A. δQ = T.ds
B. δQ = T ds
C. dQ = ds/T
D. None of these
Answer: A
359. The gas constant (R) is equal to the
A. Sum of two specific heats
B. Difference of two specific heats
C. Product of two specific heats
D. Ratio of two specific heats
Answer: B
360. A process, in which the gas is heated or expanded in such a way that the product of its pressure and
volume remains constant, is called
A. Isothermal process
B. Hyperbolic process
C. Adiabatic process
D. Polytropic process
Answer: B
361. The efficiency of the dual combustion cycle for the same compression ratio is __________ Diesel
cycle.
A. Greater than
B. Less than
C. Equal to
D. None of these
Answer: A
362. Those substances which have so far not been resolved by any means into other substances of simpler
form are called
A. Elements
B. Compounds
C. Atoms
D. Molecules
Answer: A
363. The most probable velocity of the gas molecules is given by
A. √ KT m
B. √ KT m
C. √ 3KT m
D. √ 5KT m
Answer: B
364. The sum of internal energy (U) and the product of pressure and volume (p.v) is known as
A. Work-done
B. Entropy
C. Enthalpy
D. None of these
Answer: C
365. The state of a substance whose evaporation from its liquid state is complete, is known as
A. Vapour
B. Perfect gas
C. Air
D. Steam
Answer: B
366. The root mean square velocity of the gas molecules is given by (where k = Boltzmann’s constant, T
= Absolute temperature, and m = Mass of one molecule of a gas)
A. √ KT m
B. √ KT m
C. √ 3KT m
D. √ 5KT m
Answer: C
367. When a perfect gas is expanded through an aperture of minute dimensions, the process is known as
A. Isothermal process
B. Adiabatic process
C. Free expansion process
D. Throttling process
Answer: D
368. A process, in which the working substance neither receives nor gives out heat to its surroundings
during its expansion or compression, is called
A. Isothermal process
B. Hyperbolic process
C. Adiabatic process
D. Polytropic process
Answer: C
369. The ratio of specific heat at constant pressure (cp) and specific heat at constant volume (cv) is
always __________ one.
A. Equal to
B. Less than
C. Greater than
D. None of these
Answer: C
370. Select the correct statement as per Charles’ law
A. p.v = constant, if T is kept constant
B. v/T = constant, if p is kept constant
C. p/T = constant, if v is kept constant
D. T/p = constant, if v is kept constant
Answer: B
371. A close cycle gas turbine gives __________ efficiency as compared to an open cycle gas turbine.
A. Same
B. Lower
C. Higher
D. None of these
Answer: C
37 . According to Avogadro’s law, the density of any two gases is __________ their molecular masses, if
the gases are at the same temperature and pressure.
A. Equal to
B. Directly proportional to
C. Inversely proportional to
D. None of these
Answer: B
373. During which of the following process does heat rejection takes place in Carnot cycle?
A. Isothermal expansion
B. Isentropic expansion
C. Isothermal compression
D. Isentropic compression
Answer: C
374. A tri-atomic molecule consists of __________ atoms.
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
Answer: C
375. Which of the following has the minimum atomic mass?
A. Oxygen
B. Sulphur
C. Nitrogen
D. Carbon
Answer: D
376. The mass of carbon per kg of flue gas is given by
A. (11/3) CO2 + (3/7) CO
B. (3/7) CO2 + (11/3) CO
C. (7/3) CO2 + (3/11) CO
D. (3/11) CO2 + (7/3) CO
Answer: A
377. When a system changes its state from one equilibrium state to another equilibrium state, then the
path of successive states through which the system has passed, is known as
A. Thermodynamic law
B. Thermodynamic process
C. Thermodynamic cycle
D. None of these
Answer: B
378. When the gas is cooled at constant pressure,
A. Its temperature increases but volume decreases
B. Its volume increases but temperature decreases
C. Both temperature and volume increases
D. Both temperature and volume decreases
Answer: D
379. Otto cycle consists of
A. Two constant volume and two isentropic processes
B. Two constant pressure and two isentropic processes
C. Two constant volume and two isothermal processes
D. One constant pressure, one constant volume and two isentropic processes
Answer: A
380. The efficiency of a gas turbine is given by
A. (Net work output)/(Work-done by the turbine)
B. (Net work output)/(Heat supplied)
C. (Actual temperature drop)/(Isentropic temperature drop)
D. (Isentropic increase in temperature)/(Actual increase in temperature)
Answer: B
381. An open cycle gas turbine works on
A. Carnot cycle
B. Otto cycle
C. Joule’s cycle
D. Stirling cycle
Answer: C
382. If the value of n = 0 in the equation pvn = C, then the process is called
A. Constant volume process
B. Adiabatic process
C. Constant pressure process
D. Isothermal process
Answer: C
383. The efficiency of Ericsson cycle is __________ Carnot cycle.
A. Greater than
B. Less than
C. Equal to
D. None of these
Answer: C
384. The mass of excess air supplied is equal to
A. (23/100) × Mass of excess carbon
B. (23/100) × Mass of excess oxygen
C. (100/23) × Mass of excess carbon
D. (100/23) × Mass of excess oxygen
Answer: D
385. The universal gas constant (or molar constant) of a gas is the product of
A. Molecular mass of the gas and the gas constant
B. Atomic mass of the gas and the gas constant
C. Molecular mass of the gas and the specific heat at constant pressure
D. Molecular mass of the gas and the specific heat at constant volume
Answer: A
386. The molecular mass expressed in gram (i.e. 1 g – mole) of all gases, at N. T. P., occupies a volume
of
A. 0.224 liters
B. 2.24 liters
C. 22.4 liters
D. 224 liters
Answer: C
387. The standard value of atmospheric pressure taken at sea level is
A. 1.013 bar
B. 760 mm of Hg
C. 1013 × 102 N/m2
D. All of these
Answer: D
388. The process is adiabatic, if the value of n in the equation pvn = C, is
A. Zero
B. One
C. γ
D. ∝
Answer: C
389. The polytropic index (n) is given by
A. log (p1p2)/log (v1v2)
B. log (p2/ p1)/log (v1/ v2)
C. log (v1/ v2)/ log (p1/p2)
D. log [(p1v1)/(p2v2)]
Answer: B
390. Which of the following gas is mostly used in town for street and domestic lighting and heating?
A. Producer gas
B. Coal gas
C. Mond gas
D. Coke oven gas
Answer: B
391. In an irreversible process, there is a
A. Loss of heat
B. No loss of heat
C. Gain of heat
D. No gain of heat
Answer: A
392. The general law for the expansion or compression of gases, is
A. pv = C
B. pv = m R T
C. pvn = C
D. pvγ = C
Answer: C
393. The principal constituents of a fuel are
A. Carbon and hydrogen
B. Oxygen and hydrogen
C. Sulphur and oxygen
D. Sulphur and hydrogen
Answer: A
394. The reading of the pressure gauge fitted on a vessel is 25 bar. The atmospheric pressure is 1.03 bar
and the value of ‘g’ is 9.8 m s . The a solute pressure in the vessel is
A. 23.97 bar
B. 25 bar
C. 26.03 bar
D. 34.81 bar
Answer: C
395. High air-fuel ratio in gas turbines
A. Increases power output
B. Improves thermal efficiency
C. Reduces exhaust temperature
D. Do not damage turbine blades
Answer: C
396. The ratio of root mean square velocity to average velocity of gas molecules at a particular
temperature is
A. 0.086
B. 1.086
C. 1.086
D. 4.086
Answer: B
397. One molecule of oxygen consists of __________ atoms of oxygen.
A. 2
B. 4
C. 8
D. 16
Answer: A
398. A series of operations, which takes place in a certain order and restore the initial conditions at the
end, is known as
A. Reversible cycle
B. Irreversible cycle
C. Thermodynamic cycle
D. None of these
Answer: C
399. The compression ratio for petrol engines is
A. 3 to 6
B. 5 to 8
C. 15 to 20
D. 20 to 30
Answer: B
400. The hyperbolic process is governed by
A. Boyle’s law
B. Charles’ law
C. Gay-Lussac law
D. Avogadro’s law
Answer: A
401. According to kinetic theory of gases, the velocity of molecules __________ with the increase in
temperature.
A. Remains constant
B. Increases
C. Decreases
D. None of these
Answer: B
402. The ultimate analysis of coal consists of the determination of the percentage of
A. Carbon
B. Hydrogen and nitrogen
C. Sulphur and ash
D. All of these
Answer: D
403. The heating of gas at constant volume is governed by
A. Boyle’s law
B. Charles’ law
C. Gay-Lussac law
D. Avogadro’s law
Answer: C
404. In a steady flow process, the ratio of
A. Heat transfer is constant
B. Work transfer is constant
C. Mass flow at inlet and outlet is same
D. All of these
Answer: D
405. The entropy may be expressed as a function of
A. Pressure and temperature
B. Temperature and volume
C. Heat and work
D. All of these
Answer: A
406. The gas constant (R) is equal to the __________ of two specific heats.
A. Sum
B. Difference
C. Product
D. Ratio
Answer: B
407. Work-done in a free expansion process is
A. Zero
B. Minimum
C. Maximum
D. Positive
Answer: A
408. Kelvin-Planck’s law deals with
A. Conservation of work
B. Conservation of heat
C. Conversion of heat into work
D. Conversion of work into heat
Answer: C
409. Second law of thermodynamics defines
A. Heat
B. Work
C. Internal energy
D. Entropy
Answer: D
410. Which of the following gas has the highest calorific value?
A. Coal gas
B. Producer gas
C. Mond gas
D. Blast furnace gas
Answer: A
411. One reversible heat engine operates between 1600 K and T2 K and another reversible heat engine
operates between T2 K and 400 K. If both the engines have the same heat input and output, then
temperature T2 is equal to
A. 800 K
B. 1000 K
C. 1200 K
D. 1400 K
Answer: A
412. According to Kelvin-Planck’s statement, a perpetual motion of the __________ is impossi le.
A. First kind
B. Second kind
C. Third kind
D. None of these
Answer: B
413. The value of one bar (in S. I. units) is equal to
A. 1 × 102 N/m2
B. 1 × 103 N/m2
C. 1 × 104 N/m2
D. 1 × 105 N/m2
Answer: D
414. The value of gas constant (R) in S. I. units is
A. 0.287 J/kgK
B. 2.87 J/kgK
C. 28.7 J/kgK
D. 287 J/kgK
Answer: D
415. The compression ratio for Diesel engines is
A. 3 to 6
B. 5 to 8
C. 15 to 20
D. 20 to 30
Answer: C
416. The ratio of molar specific heats for mono-atomic gas is
A. 1
B. 1.4
C. 1.67
D. 1.87
Answer: C
418. Steam coal is a
A. Pulverized coal
B. Brown coal
C. Coking bituminous coal
D. Non-coking bituminous coal
Answer: D
419. When a gas is heated at constant pressure
A. Its temperature will increase
B. Its volume will increase
C. Both temperature and volume will increase
D. Neither temperature not volume will increase
Answer: C
420. Diesel cycle consists of __________ processes.
A. Two constant volume and two isentropic
B. Two constant pressure and two isentropic
C. Two constant volume and two isothermal
D. One constant pressure, one constant volume and two isentropic
Answer: D
421. Select the wrong statement
A. A Joule cycle consists of two constant volume and two isentropic processes.
B. An Otto cycle consists of two constant volume and two isentropic processes.
C. An Ericsson cycle consists of two constant pressure and two isothermal processes.
D. All of the above
Answer: A
422. The compression ratio is the ratio of
A. Swept volume to total volume
B. Total volume to swept volume
C. Swept volume to clearance volume
D. Total volume to clearance volume
Answer: D
423. One kg of carbon requires 4/3 kg of oxygen and produces __________ kg of carbon monoxide gas.
A. 8/3
B. 11/3
C. 11/7
D. 7/3
Answer: D
424. The efficiency of Diesel cycle approaches to Otto cycle efficiency when
A. Cut-off is increased
B. Cut-off is decreased
C. Cut-off is zero
D. Cut-off is constant
Answer: C
425. The behavior of a perfect gas, undergoing any change in the variables which control physical
properties, is governed by
A. Boyle’s law
B. Charles’ law
C. Gay-Lussac law
D. All of these
Answer: D
426. The __________ is obtained when carbonization of coal is carried out at 500° to 700° C.
A. Soft coal
B. Hard coal
C. Pulverized coal
D. Bituminous coal
Answer: A
427. A molecule consisting of one atom is known as
A. Mono-atomic
B. Di-atomic
C. Tri-atomic
D. Poly-atomic
Answer: A
428. The unit of energy is S. I. units is
A. Joule (J)
B. Joule meter (Jm)
C. Watt (W)
D. Joule/meter (J/m)
Answer: A
429. The amount of heat generated per kg of fuel is known as
A. Calorific value
B. Heat energy
C. Lower calorific value
D. Higher calorific value
Answer: A
430. The entropy __________ in an irreversible cyclic process.
A. Remains constant
B. Decreases
C. Increases
D. None of these
Answer: C
43 . For a perfect gas, according to Boyle’s law where p = A solute pressure, v = Volume, and T =
Absolute temperature)
A. p v = constant, if T is kept constant
B. v/T = constant, if p is kept constant
C. p/T = constant, if v is kept constant
D. T/p = constant, if v is kept constant
Answer: A
432. Which of the following is the extensive property of a thermodynamic system?
A. Pressure
B. Volume
C. Temperature
D. Density
Answer: B
433. The increase in entropy of a system represents
A. Increase in availability of energy
B. Increase in temperature
C. Decrease in pressure
D. Degradation of energy
Answer: D
434. A cycle consisting of two isothermal and two isentropic processes, is known as
A. Carnot cycle
B. Stirling cycle
C. Ericsson cycle
D. Joule cycle
Answer: A
435. When coal is strongly heated continuously for 42 to 48 hours in the absence of air in a closed vessel,
the process is known as __________ of fuel.
A. Atomization
B. Carbonization
C. Combustion
D. None of these
Answer: B
436. Which of the following is an intensive property of a thermodynamic system?
A. Volume
B. Temperature
C. Mass
D. Energy
Answer: B
437. In an extensive property of a thermodynamic system
A. Extensive heat is transferred
B. Extensive work is done
C. Extensive energy is utilized
D. None of these
Answer: D
438. All perfect gases change in volume by 1/273th of its original volume at 0°C for every 1°C change in
temperature, when the pressure remains constant. This statement is called
A. Boyle’s law
B. Charles’ law
C. Gay-Lussac law
D. Joule’s law
Answer: B
439. When cut-off ratio is __________ the efficiency of Diesel cycle approaches to Otto cycle efficiency.
A. Zero
B. 1/5
C. 4/5
D. 1
Answer: A
440. The atomic mass of oxygen is
A. 8
B. 18
C. 16
D. 32
Answer: C
441. The gas turbine cycle with regenerator improves
A. Thermal efficiency
B. Work ratio
C. Avoids pollution
D. None of these
Answer: A
442. Which of the following process can be made reversible with the help of a regenerator?
A. Constant pressure process
B. Constant volume process
C. Constant pvn process
D. All of these
Answer: D
443. One kg of carbon produces __________ kg of carbon dioxide.
A. 3/7
B. 7/3
C. 11/3
D. 3/11
Answer: C
444. The kinetic energy per kg molecule of any gas at absolute temperature T is equal to (where Ru =
Universal gas constant)
A. Ru × T
B. 1.5 Ru × T
C. 2 Ru × T
D. 3 Ru × T
Answer: B
445. If in the equation pvn = C, the value of n = ∝, then the process is called
A. Constant volume process
B. Adiabatic process
C. Constant pressure process
D. Isothermal process
Answer: A
446. The value of specific heat at constant pressure (cp) is __________ that of at constant volume (cv).
A. Less than
B. Equal to
C. More than
D. None of these
Answer: C
447. One kg of carbon monoxide requires __________ kg of oxygen to produce 11/7 kg of carbon
dioxide gas.
A. 4/7
B. 11/4
C. 9/7
D. All of these
Answer: A
448. The efficiency of Diesel cycle depends upon
A. Temperature limits
B. Pressure ratio
C. Compression ratio
D. Cut-off ratio and compression ratio
Answer: D
449. The efficiency of the Carnot cycle is (where T1 and T2 = Highest and lowest temperature during the
cycle)
A. (T1/T2) – 1
B. 1 – (T1/T2)
C. 1 – (T2/T1)
D. 1 + (T2/T1)
Answer: C
450. The gas in cooling chamber of a closed cycle gas turbine is cooled at
A. Constant volume
B. Constant temperature
C. Constant pressure
D. None of these
Answer: C
451. When coal is first dried and then crushed to a fine powder by pulverizing machine, the resulting fuel
is called
A. Wood charcoal
B. Bituminous coal
C. Briquetted coal
D. None of these
Answer: D
452. The thermodynamic difference between a Rankine cycle working with saturated steam and the
Carnot cycle is that
A. Carnot cycle can’t work with saturated steam
B. Heat is supplied to water at temperature below the maximum temperature of the cycle
C. A Rankine cycle receives heat at two places
D. Rankine cycle is hypothetical
Answer: B
300+ TOP Theory of Machines MCQs and Answers Quiz
Posted on April 16, 2024 by engineer4 Comments
Theory of Machines Multiple Choice Questions
1. Which of the following disciplines provides study of inertia forces arising from the combined
effect of the mass and the motion of the parts
A. theory of machines
B. applied mechanics
C. mechanisms
D. kinetics
E. kinematics.
Answer: D
2. Which of the following disciplines provides study of relative motion between the parts of a
machine
A. theory of machines
B. applied mechanics
C. mechanisms
D. kinetics
E. kinematics.
Answer: E
3. Which of the following disciplines provides study of the relative motion between the parts of a
machine and the forces acting on the parts
A. theory of machines
B. applied mechanics
C. mechanisms
D. kinetics
E. kinematics.
Answer: A
4. The type of pair formed by two elements which are so connected that one is constrained to turn
or revolve about a fixed axis of another element is known as
A. turning pair
B. rolling pair
C. sliding pair
D. spherical pair
E. lower pair,
Answer: A
5. Which of the following is a lower pair
A. ball and socket i
B. piston and cylinder
C. cam and follower
D. A. and B. above
E. belt drive.
Answer: D
6. If two moving elements have surface contact in motion, such pair is known as
A. sliding pair
B. rolling pair
C. surface pair
D. lower pair
E. higher pair.
Answer: E
7. The example of lower pair is
A. shaft revolving in a bearing
B. straight line motion mechanisms
C. automobile steering gear
D. all of the above
E. none of the above.
Answer: D
8. Pulley in a belt drive acts as
A. cylindrical pair
B. turning pair
C. rolling pair
D. sliding pair
E. surface pair.
Answer: C
9. The example of rolling pair is
A. bolt and nut
B. lead screw of a lathe
C. ball and socket joint
D. ball bearing and roller bearing
E. all of the above.
Answer: D
10. Any point on a link connecting double slider crank chain will trace a
A. straight line
B. circle
C. ellipse
D. parabola
E. hyperbola.
Answer: C

11. The purpose of a link is to

A. transmit motion
B. guide other links
C. act as a support
D. all of the above
E. none of the above.
Answer: D
12. A universal joint is an example of
A. higher pair
B. lower pair
C. rolling pair
D. sliding pair
E. turning pair.
Answer: B
13. Rectilinear motion of piston is converted into rotary by
A. cross head
B. slider crank
C. connecting rod
D. gudgeon pin
E. four bar chain mechanism.
Answer: B
14. Pitch point on a cam is
A. any point on pitch curve
B. the point on cam pitch curve having the maximum pressure angle
C. any point on pitch circle
D. the point on cam pitch curve having the minimum pressure angle
E. none of the above.
Answer: B
15. The values of velocity and acceleration of piston at near dead center for a slider-crank
mechanism will be
A. 0, and more than co2r
B. 0, and less than coV
C. 0, 0
D. cor, 0
E. none of the above.
Answer: A
16. The example of spherical pair is
A. bolt and nut
B. lead screw of a lathe
C. ball and socket joint
D. ball bearing and roller bearing
E. none of the above.
Answer: C
17. Cross head and guides form a
A. lower pair
B. higher pair
C. turning pair
D. rolling pair
E. sliding pair.
Answer: E
19. A circular bar moving in a round hole is an example of
A. incompletely constrained motion
B. partially constrained motion
C. completely constrained motion
D. successfully constrained motion
E. none of the above
Answer: A
20. If some links are connected such that motion between them can take place in more than one
direction, it is called
A. incompletely constrained motion
B. partially constrained motion
C. completely constrained motion
D. successfully constrained motion
E. none of the above.
Answer: A
21. If there are L number of links in a mechanism then number of possible inversions is equal to
A. L + 1
B. L – 1
C. L
D. L + 2
E. L – 2.
Answer: C
22. Kinematic pairs are those which have two elements that
A. have line contact
B. have surface contact
C. permit relative motion
D. are held together
E. have dynamic forces.
Answer: C
24. The lower pair is a
A. open pair
B. closed pair
C. sliding pair
D. point contact pair
E. does not exist.
Answer: B
25. Automobile steering gear is an example of
A. higher pair
B. sliding pair
C. turning pair
D. rotary pair
E. lower pair.
Answer: E
26. In higher pair, the relative motion is
A. purely turning
B. purely sliding
C. purely rotary
D. purely surface contact
E. combination of sliding and turning.
Answer: E
27. Which of the following has sliding motion
A. crank
B. connecting rod
C. crank pin
D. cross-head
E. cross head guide.
Answer: D
28. The example of higher pair is
A. belt, rope and chain drives
B. gears, cams
C. ball and roller bearings
D. all of the above
E. none of the above.
Answer: D
29. Which of the following mechanism is obtained from lower pair
A. gyroscope
B. pantograph
C. valve and valve gears
D. generated straight line motions
E. all of the above.
Answer: E
30. Which of the following would constitute a link
A. piston, piston rings and gudgeon pin
B. piston, and piston rod
C. piston rod and cross head
D. piston, crank pin and crank shaft
E. piston, piston-rod and cross head.
Answer: E
31. The Scott-Russell mechanism consists of
A. sliding and turning pairs
B. sliding and rotary pairs
C. turning and rotary pairs
D. sliding pairs only
E. turning pairs only.
Answer: A
32. Davis steering gear consists of
A. sliding pairs
B. turning pairs
C. rolling pairs
D. higher pairs
E. lower pairs.
Answer: A
33. Ackermann steering gear consists of
A. sliding pairs
B. turning pairs
C. rolling pairs
D. higher pairs
E. lower pairs.
Answer: B
34. A completely constrained motion can be transmitted with .
A. 1 link with pin joints
B. 2 links with pin joints
C. 3 links with pin joints
D. 4 links with pin joints
E. all of the above.
Answer: D
36. Oldham’s coupling is the
A. second inversion of double slider crank chain
B. third inversion of double slider crank chain
C. second inversion of single slider crank chain
D. third inversion of slider crank chain
E. fourth inversion of double slider crank chain.
Answer: B
37. Sense of tangential acceleration of a link
A. is same as that of velocity
B. is opposite to that of velocity
C. could be either same or opposite to velocity
D. is perpendicular to that of velocity
E. none of the above.
Answer: C
38. A mechanism is an assemblage of
A. two links
B. three links
C. four links or more than four links
D. all of the above
E. none of the above.
Answer: C
39. The number of links in pantograph mechanism is equal to
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
E. 6.
Answer: C
40. Elements of pairs held together mechanically is known as
A. closed pair
B. open pair
C. mechanical pair
D. rolling pair
E. none of the above.
Answer: A
41. Shaft revolving in a bearing is the following type of pair
A. lower pair
B. higher pair
C. spherical pair,
D. cylindrical pair
E. bearing pair.
Answer: A
42. Rectangular bar in a rectangular hole is the following type of pair
A. completely constrained motion
B. partially constrained motion
C. incompletely constrained motion
D. freely constrained motion
E. none of the above.
Answer: A
43. A foot step bearing and rotor of a vertical turbine form examples of
A. incompletely constrained motion
B. partially constrained motion
C. completely constrained motion
D. successfully constrained motion
E. none of the above.
Answer: B
44. A slider crank chain consists of following numbers of turning and sliding pairs
A. I, 3
B. 2, 2
C. 3, 1
D. 4, 0
E. 0, 4.
Answer: C
45. Relationship between the number of links (L) and number of pairs (P) is
A. P = 2L-4
B. P = 2L + 4
C. P = 2L+2
D. P = 2L-2
E. P = L-4.
Answer: C
46. In problem 47, the chain is unconstrained when
A. L.H.S. = R.H.S.
B. L.H.S. > R.H.S.
C. L.H.S. < R.H.S.
D. there is no such criterion for checking above requirement
E. none of the above.
Answer: C
47. Angle of descent of cam is defined as the angle
A. during which the follower returns to its initial position
B. of rotation of the cam for a definite displacement of the follower
C. through which the cam rotates during the period in which the follower remains in the highest position
D. moved by the cam from the instant the follower begins to rise, till it reaches its highest position
E. moved by the cam from beginning of ascent to the termination of descent.
Answer: A
48. Angle of action of cam is defined as the angle
A. during which the follower returns to its initial position
B. of rotation of the cam for a definite displacement of the follower
C. through which the cam rotates during the period in which the follower remains in the highest position
D. moved by the cam from the instant the follower begins to rise, till it reaches its highest position
E. moved by the cam from beginning of ascent to the termination of descent.
Answer: E
49. Angle of dwell of cam is defined as the angle
A. during which the follower returns to its initial position
B. of rotation of the cam for definite dis¬placement of the follower
C. through which the cam rotates during the period in which the follower remains in the highest position
D. moved by the cam from the instant the follower begins to rise, till it reaches its highest position
E. moved by the cam from a beginning of ascent to the termination of descent.
Answer: C
50. In problem 47, the chain is constrained when
A. L.H.S. = R.H.S.
B. L.H.S. < R.H.S.
C. L.H.S. > R.H.S.
D. there is no such criterion for checking above requirement
E. none of the above.
Answer: A
51. The tendency of a body to resist change from rest or motion is known as
A. mass
B. friction
C. inertia
D. resisting force
E. resisting torque.
Answer: C
52. Angle of ascent of cam is defined as the angle
A. during which the follower returns to its initial position
B. of rotation of the cam for a definite displacement of the follower
C. through which the cam rotates during the period in which the follower remains in highest position
D. moved by the cam from the instant the follower begins to rise, till it reaches its highest position
E. moved by the cam from beginning oi ascent to the termination of descent.
Answer: D
53. The type of coupling used to join two shafts whose axes are neither in same straight line nor
parallel, but intersect is
A. flexible coupling
B. universal coupling
C. chain coupling
D. Oldham’s coupling
E. American coupling.
Answer: B
54. The advantage of the piston valve over D-slide valve is that in the former case
A. wear is less
B. power absorbed is less
C. both wear and power absorbed are low
D. the pressure developed being high provides tight sealing
E. there is overall economy of initial cost, maintenance and operation.
Answer: C
55. Flexible coupling is used because
A. it is easy to disassemble
B. it is easy to engage and disengage
C. it transmits shocks gradually
D. it prevents shock transmission and eliminates stress reversals
E. it increases shaft life.
Answer: D
56. With single Hooke’s joint it is possible to connect two shafts, the axes of which have an angular
misalignment up to
A. 10°
B. 20°
C. 30°
D. 40°
E. 60°.
Answer: D
57. The Hooke’s joint consists of :
A. two forks
B. one fork
C. three forks
D. four forks
E. five forks.
Answer: A
58. The Klein’s method of construction for reciprocating engine mechanism
A. is based on acceleration diagram
B. is a simplified form of instantaneous center method
C. utilises a quadrilateral similar to the diagram of mechanism for reciprocating engine
D. ena les determination of Corioli’s component
E. none of the above.
Answer: C
59. It is required to connect two parallel shafts, the distance between whose axes is small and
variable. The shafts are coupled by
A. universal joint
B. knuckle joint
C. Oldham’s coupling
D. flexible coupling
E. electromagnetic coupling.
Answer: C
60. The e.g. of a link in any mechanism would experience
A. no acceleration
B. linear acceleration
C. angular acceleration
D. both angular and linear accelerations
E. none of the above.
Answer: D
61. In elliptical trammels
A. all four pairs are turning
B. three pairs turning and one pair sliding
C. two pairs turning and two pairs sliding
D. one pair turning and three pairs sliding
E. all four pairs sliding.
Answer: C
62. In automobiles the power is transmitted from gear box to differential through
A. bevel gear
B. universal joint
C. Hooke’s joint
D. Knuckle joint
E. Oldham’s coupling.
Answer: C
63. The indicator using Watt mechanism is known as
A. Thompson indicator
B. Richard indicator
C. Simplex indicator
D. Thomson indicator
E. none of the above.
Answer: B
64. The Ackermann steering mechanism is preferred to the Davis type in automobiles because
A. the former is mathematically accurate
B. the former is having turning pair
C. the former is most economical
D. the former is most rigid
E. none of thfr above.
Answer: B
65. Transmission of power from the engine to the rear axle of an automobile is by means of
A. compound gears
B. worm and wheel method
C. Hooke’s joint
D. crown gear
E. bevel gears.
Answer: C
66. When a ship travels in a sea, which of the effect is more dangerous
A. steering
B. pitching
C. rolling
D. all of the above
E. none of the above.
Answer: B
67. In an ideal machine, the output as compared to input is
A. less
B. more
C. equal
D. may be less or more depending on efficiency
E. always less.
Answer: C
68. Governor is used in automobile to
A. decrease the variation of speed
B. to control
C. to control SN
D. all of the above
E. none of the above.
Answer: C
69. In gramophones for adjusting the speed of the turntable, the following type of governor is
commonly employed
A. Hartung governor
B. Wilson Hartnell governor
C. Pickering governor
D. Inertia governor
E. none of the above.
Answer: C
70. For fluctuating loads, welsuited bearing is
A. ball bearing
B. roller bearing
C. needle roller bearing
D. thrust bearing
E. sleeve bearing.
Answer: C
71. Crowning on pulleys helps
A. in increasing velocity ratio
B. in decreasing the slip of the belt
C. for automatic adjustment of belt posi-tion so that belt runs centrally
D. increase belt and pulley life
E. none of the above.
Answer: C
72. Idler pulley is used
A. for changing the direction of motion of the belt
B. for applying tension
C. for increasing -velocity ratio
D. all of the above
E. none of the above.
Answer: B
73. In multi-V-belt transmission, if one of the belt is broken, we have to change the
A. broken belt
B. broken belt and its adjacent belts
C. all the belts
D. there is no need of changing any one as remaining belts can take care of transmission of load
E. all the weak belts.
Answer: C
74. The moment on the pulley which produces rotation is called
A. inertia
B. momentum
C. moment of momentum
D. work
E. torque.
Answer: E
75. Creep in belt drive is due to
A. material of the pulley
B. material of the belt
C. larger size of the driver pulley
D. uneven extensions and contractions due to varying tension
E. expansion of belt.
Answer: D
76. TJie horse power transmitted by a belt is dependent upon
A. tension on tight side of belt
B. tension on slack side of belt
C. radius of pulley
D. speed of pulley
E. all of the above.
Answer: E
77. The locus of a point on a thread unwound from a cylinder will be
A. a straight line
B. a circle
C. involute
D. cycloidal
E. helix.
Answer: C
78. To transmit power from one rotating shaft to another whose axes are neither parallel nor
intersecting, use
A. spur gear
B. spiral gear
C. bevel gear
D. worm gear
E. crown gear.
Answer: D
79. For S.H.M. cam, the acceleration of the follower at the ends of the stroke and aimidstroke
respectively, is
A. maximum and zero
B. zero and maximum
C. minimum and maximum
D. zero and minimum
E. maximum and minimum.
Answer: A
80. Throw of a cam is the maximum distance of the follower from
A. base circle
B. pitch circle
C. root circle
D. prime circle
E. inner circle.
Answer: A
81. To obviate axial thrust, following gear drive is used
A. double helical gears having opposite teeth
B. double helical gears having identical teeth
C. single helical gear in which one of the teeth of helix angle a is more
D. mutter gears
E. none of the above.
Answer: A
82. Which of the following is false statement in respect of differences between machine and
structure
A. Machines transmit mechanical work, whereas structures transmit forces
B. In machines, relative motion exists be-tween its members, whereas same does hot exist in case of
structures
C. Machines modify movement and work, whereas structures modify forces
D. Efficiency of machines as well as structures is below 100%
E. Machines are run by electric motors, but structures are not.
Answer: D
83. If D1 and D2 be the diameters of driver and driven pulleys, then belt speed is proportional to
A. D1/D2
B. D2/D1
C. D1-D2.
D. D1
E. D1+D2.
Answer: D
84. Typewriter constitutes
A. machine
B. structure
C. mechanism
D. inversion
E. none of the above.
Answer: C
85. Lower pairs are those which have
A. point or line contact between the two elements when in motion
B. surface contact between the two elements when in motion
C. elements of pairs not -held together mechanically
D. two elements that permit relative motion
E. none of the above.
Answer: B
86. A point on a link connecting double slider crank chain traces a
A. straight line
B. circle
C. parabola
D. hyperbola
E. ellipse.
Answer: E
87. A pantograph is a mechanism with
A. lower pairs
B. higher pairs
C. rolling pairs
D. turning pairs
E. spherical pairs.
Answer: A
88. Kinematic pairs are those which have
A. point or line contact between the two elements when in motion
B. surface contact between the two ele-ments when in motion
C. elements of pairs not held together mechanically
D. two elements that permit relative mo-tion
E. none of the above.
Answer: D
89. If the opposite links of a four bar linkage are equal, the links will always form a
A. triangle
B. rectangle
C. parallelogram
D. pentagon
E. trapezoid.
Answer: C
90. Higher pairs are those which have
A. point or line contact between the two elements when in motion
B. surface contact between the two ele-ments when in motion
C. elements of pairs not held together mechanically
D. two elements that permit relative motion
E. none of the above.
Answer: A
91. A cam mechanism imparts following motion
A. rotating
B. oscillating
C. reciprocating
D. all of the above
E. none of the above.
Answer: D
92. A cam with a roller follower would con stitute following type of pair
A. lower pair
B. higher pair
C. open pair
D. close pair
E. cam pair.
Answer: B
93. The approximate straight line mechanism is a
A. four bar linkage
B. 6 bar linkage
C. 8 bar linkage
D. 3 bar linkage
E. 5 bar linkage.
Answer: A
94. “Open pairs are those which have
A. point or line contact between the two elements when in motion
B. surface contact between the two ele-ments when in motion
C. elements of pairs not held together mechanically
D. two elements that permit relative motion
E. none of the above.
Answer: C
95. Peaucellier mechanism has
A. eight links
B. six links
C. four links
D. twelve links
E. five links.
Answer: A
96. Hart mechanism has
A. eight links
B. six links
C. four links
D. twelve links
E. five links.
Answer: B
97. A chain comprises of 5 links having 5 joints. Is it kinematic chain ?
A. yes
B. no
C. it is a marginal case
D. data are insufficient to determine it
E. unpredictable.
Answer: B
99. The main disadvantage of the sliding pair is that it is
A. bulky
B. wears rapidly
C. difficult to manufacture
D. A. and B. above
E. A. and C. above.
Answer: D
100. For a kinematic chain to be considered as mechanism
A. two links should be fixed
B. one link should be fixed
C. none of the links should be fixed
D. there is no such criterion
E. none of the above.
Answer: B
101. An eccentric sheave pivoted at one point rotates and transmits oscillatory motion to a link
whose one end is pivoted and other end is connected to it. This mechanism has
A. 2 links
B. 3 links
C. 4 links
D. 5 links
E. none of the above.
Answer: C
102. Whitworth quick return mechanism is obtained by inversion of
A. slider crank mechanism
B. kinematic chain
C. five link mechanism
D. roller cam mechanism
E. none of the above.
Answer: A
103. In its simplest form, a cam mechanism consists of following number of links
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. none.
Answer: C
104. Which of the following mechanisms produces mathematically an exact straight line motion
A. Grasshopper mechanism
B. Watt mechanism
C. Peaucellier’s mechanism
D. Tchabichiff mechanism
E. Ackermann mechanism.
Answer: C
105. In a mechanism, usually one link is fixed.
If the fixed link is changed in a kinematic chain, then relative motion of other links
A. will remain same
B. will change
C. could change or remain unaltered depending oh which link is fixed
D. will not occur
E. none of the above.
Answer: A
106. A kinematic chain requires at least
A. 2 links and 3 turning pairs
B. 3 links and 4 turning pairs
C. 4 links and 4 turning pairs
D. 5 links and 4 turning pairs
E. none of the above.
Answer: C
107. In a darg link quick return mechanism, the shortest link is always fixed. The sum of the
shortest and longest link is
A. equal to sum of other two
B. greater than sum of other two
C. less than sum of other two
D. there is no such relationship
E. none of the above.
Answer: C
108. The following is the inversion of slider crank chain mechanism
A. Whitworth quick return mechanism
B. hand pump
C. oscillating cylinder engine
D. all of the above
E. none of the above.
Answer: D
109. Kinematic pairs are those which have
A. two elements held together mechani-cally
B. two elements having relative motion
C. two elements having Coroili’s com-ponent
D. minimum of two instantaneous centres
E. all of the above.
Answer: B
110 A typewriter mechanism has 7 number of binary joints, six links and none of higher pairs. The
mechanism is
A. kinematically sound
B. not sound
C. soundness would depend upon which link is kept fixed
D. data is not sufficient to determine same
E. none of the above.
Answer: A
111. In a four-bar chain it is required to give an oscillatory motion to the follower for a continuous
rotation of the crank. For the lengths of 50 mm of crank and 70 mm of the follower, determine
theoretical maximum length of coupler. The distance between fixed pivots of crank and followers is
A. 95 mm
B. slightly less than 95 mm
C. slightly more than 95 mm
D. 45 mm
E. none of the above.
Answer: B
112. In above example, the minimum length of the coupler will be
A. 45 mm
B. slightly less than 45 mm
C. slightly more than 45 mm
D. 95 mm
E. none of the above.
Answer: C
113. In S.H.M., acceleration is proportional to
A. velocity
B. displacement
C. rate of change of velocity
D. all of the above
E. none of the above.
Answer: B
114. For simple harmonic motion of the of follower, a cosine curve represents
A. displacement diagram
B. velocity diagram
C. acceleration diagram
D. all of the above
E. none of the above.
Answer: C
115. In S.H.M., the velocity vector w.r.t. displacement vector
A. leads by 90°
B. lags by 90°
C. leads by 180°
D. are in phase
E. could be anywhere.
Answer: A
116. A body having moment of inertia o:m2 is rotating at 210 RPM and r with another body at rest
having I 40 kg m2. The resultant speed after ing will be
A. 90 RPM
B. 100 RPM
C. 80 RPM
D. data are insufficient
E. none of the above.
Answer: A
117. Inertia force acts
A. perpendicular to the accel< force
B. along the direction of accel* force
C. opposite to the direction of ace ing force
D. in any direction w.r.t. accel* force depending on the magnit two
E. none of the above.
Answer: C
118. The frequency of oscillation at compared to earth will be
A. 6 times more
B. 6 times less
C. 2.44 times more
D. 2.44 times,less
E. 36 times less.
Answer: D
119. Polar moment of inertia (IP) of ac disc is to ht determined by suspen by a wire and noting the
frequei
oscillations (/)
A. Ipocf
B. Ipocf
C. Ip oc j
D. Ipoc-
E. none of the above.
Answer: C
120. If the radius of gyration of a compound pendulum about an axis through e.g. is more, then its
frequency of oscillation will be
A. less
B. more
C. same
D. data are insufficient to determine same
E. none of the above.
Answer: A
121. The Bifilar suspension method is used to determine
A. natural frequency of vibration
B. position of balancing weights
C. moment of inertia
D. centripetal acceleration’
E. angular acceleration of a body.
Answer: C
122. Which is the false statement about the properties of instantaneous centre
A. at the instantaneous center of rotation, one rigid link rotates instantaneously relative to another for the
configuration of mechanism considered
B. the two rigid links have no linear velocities relative to each other at the instantaneous centre
C. the two rigid links which have no linear velocity relative to each other at this center have the same
linear velocity to the third rigid link
D. the double centre can be denoted either by 02 or Ol2, but proper selection should be made
E. none of the above.
Answer: D
123. Instantaneous center of rotation of a link in a four bar mechanism lies on
A. right side pivot of this link
B. lift side pivot of this link
C. a point obtained by intersection on extending adjoining links
D. can’t occur
E. none of the above.
Answer: C
124. The number of links and instantaneous centers in a reciprocating engine mechanism are
A. 4, 4
B. 4, 5
C. 5, 4
D. 6, 4
E. 4, 6.
Answer: E
125. According to Kennedy’s theorem, if three bodies have plane motions, their instantaneous
centers lie on
A. a triangle
B. a point
C. two lines
D. a straight line
E. a curve.
Answer: D
126. In a rigid link OA, velocity of A w.r.t. will be
A. parallel to OA
B. perpendicular to OA
C. at 45° to OA
D. along AO
E. along OA.
Answer: B
127. Two systems shall be dynamically equivalent when
A. the mass of two are same
B. e.g. of two coincides
C. M.I. of two about an axis through e.g. is equal
D. all of the above
E. none of the above.
Answer: D
128. The velocity of any point in mechanism relative to any other point on the mechanism on
velocity polygon is represented by the line
A. joining the corresponding points
B. perpendicular to line as per A.
C. not possible to determine with these data
D. at 45° to line as per A.
E. none of the above.
Answer: A
129. The absolute acceleration of any point P in a link about center of rotation 0 is
A. along PO
B. perpendicular to PO
C. at 45° to PO
D. along OP
E. none of the above.
Answer: E
130. Angular acceleration of a link can be determined by dividing the
A. centripetal component of acceleration with length of link
B. tangential component of acceleration with length of link
C. resultant acceleration with length of link
D. all of the above
E. none of the above.
Answer: B
131. Corioli’s component of acceleration exists whenever a point moves along a path that has
A. linear displacement
B. rotational motion
C. tangential acceleration
D. centripetal acceleration
E. none of the above.
Answer: B
132. The direction of Corioli’s component of acceleration is the direction
A. of relative velocity vector for the two coincident points rotated by 90° in the direction of the angular
velocity of the rotation of the link
B. along the centripetal acceleration
C. along tangential acceleration
D. along perpendicular to angular velocity
E. none of the above.
Answer: A
133. In a shaper mechanism, the Corioli’s component of acceleration will
A. not exist
B. exist
C. depend on position of crank
D. unpredictable
E. none of the above.
Answer: B
134. The magnitude of tangential acceleration is equal to
A. velocity2 x crank radius
B. velocityvcrankradius
C. (velocity/crankradius)
D. velocity x crank radius2
E. none of the above.
Answer: B
135. Tangential acceleration direction is
A. along the angular velocity
B. opposite to angular velocity
C. may be any one of these
D. perpendicular to angular velocity
E. none of the above.
Answer: C
136. Corioli’s component is encountered in
A. quick return mechanism of shaper
B. four bar chain mechanism
C. slider crank mechanism
D. A. and C. above
E. all of the above.
Answer: A
137. Klein’s construction gives a graphica construction for
A. slider-crank mechanism
B. velocity polygon
C. acceleration polygon
D. four bar chain mechanism
E. angular acceleration.
Answer: C
138. Klein’s construction can be used to determine acceleration of various parts when the crank is
at
A. inner dead centre
B. outer dead centre
C. right angles to the link of the stroke
D. at 45° to the line of the stroke
E. all of the above.
Answer: E
139. The number of centers in a crank driven slider crank mechanism are
A. 0
B. 2
C. 4
D. 6
E. may be any number depending upon position of mechanism.
Answer: B
140. Corioli’s component acts
A. perpendicular to sliding surfaces
B. along sliding surfaces
C. somewhere in between above two
D. unpredictable
E. none of the above.
Answer: A
141. The sense of Corioli’s component is such that it
A. leads the sliding velocity vector by 90°
B. lags the sliding velocity vector by 90°
C. is along the sliding velocity vector
D. leads the sliding velocity vector by 180°
E. none of the above.
Answer: A
142. Klein’s construction can be used when
A. crank has a uniform angular velocity
B. crank has non-uniform velocity
C. crank has uniform angular acceleration
D. crank has uniform angular velocity and angular acceleration
E. there is no such criterion.
Answer: A
143. Klein’s construction is useful to determine
A. velocity of various parts
B. acceleration of various parts
C. displacement of various parts
D. angular acceleration of various parts
E. all of the above.
Answer: B
144. A circle passing through the pitch point with its center at the center of cam axis is known as
A. pitch circle
B. base circle
C. prime circle
D. outer circle
E. cam circle.
Answer: C
145. The pressure angle of a cam depends upon
A. offset between centre lines of cam and follower
B. lift of follower
C. angle of ascent
D. sum of radii of base circle and roller follower
E. all of the above.
Answer: E
146. Cam size depends upon
A. base circle
B. pitch circle
C. prime circle
D. outer circle
E. none of the above.
Answer: A
147. Cylindrical cams can be classified as
A. circular
B. tangent
C. reciprocating
D. all of the above
E. none of the above.
Answer: E
148. The maximum value of the pressure angle in case of cam is kept as
A. 10°
B. 14°
C. 20°
D. 30°
E. 25°.
Answer: D
149. For the same lift and same angle of ascent, a smaller base circle will give
A. a small value of pressure angle
B. a large value of pressure angle
C. there is no such relation with pressure angle
D. something else
E. none of the above is true.
Answer: B
150. Cam angle is defined as the angle
A. during which the follower returns to its initial position
B. of rotation of the cam for a definite displacement of the follower
C. through which, the cam rotates during the period in which the follower remains in the highest position
D. moved by the cam from the instant the follower begins to rise, till it reaches its highest position
E. moved by the can from beginning of i ascent to the termination of descent.
Answer: B
500+ TOP Engineering Mechanics MCQs and Answers Quiz
Posted on April 16, 2024 by engineer9 Comments
Engineering Mechanics Multiple Choice Questions
1. A body of mass ‘m’ moving with a constant velocity ‘v’ strikes another body of same mass
moving with same velocity but in opposite direction. The common velocity of both the bodies after
collision is
A.v
B.2v
C.4v
D.8v
Answer: B
2. The bellow figure shows the three coplanar forces P, Q and R acting at a point O. If these forces
are in equilibrium, then
A.P sin β = Q sin α = R sin ɣ
B.P sin α = Q sin β = R sin ɣ
C.P/sin ɣ = Q sin α = R sin β
D.P sin α = Q sin ɣ = R sin β
Answer: B
3. The centre of percussion of the homogeneous rod of length ‘L’ suspended at the top will be
A.L/2
B.L/3
C.3L/4
D.2L/3
Answer: D
4. The angle of inclination of the plane at which the body begins to move down the plane, is called
A.Angle of friction
B.Angle of repose
C.Angle of projection
D.None of these
Answer: A
5. Pick up wrong statement about friction force for dry surfaces. Friction force is
A.Proportional to normal load between the surfaces
B.Dependent on the materials of contact surface
C.Proportional to velocity of sliding
D.Independent of the area of contact surfaces
Answer: C
6. The term ‘Centroid’ is
A.The same as centre of gravity
B.The point of suspension
C.The point of application of the resultant of all the forces tending to cause a body to rotate about a
certain axis
D.None of the above
Answer: A
7. The C.G. of a plane lamina will not be at its geometrical centre in the case of a
A.Right angled triangle
B.Equilateral triangle
C.Square
D.Circle
Answer: A
8. If the masses of both the bodies, as shown in the below figure, are reduced to 50 percent, then
tension in the string will be
A.Same
B.Half
C.Double
D.None of these
Answer: B
9. The moment of inertia of a thin rod of mass ‘m’ and length ‘l’, about an axis through its centre of
gravity and perpendicular to its length is
A.ml2/4
B.ml2/ 6
C.ml2/8
D.ml2/12
Answer: D
10. Forces are called coplanar when all of them acting on body lie in
A.One point
B.One plane
C.Different planes
D.Perpendicular planes
Answer: B

11. A rubber ball is dropped from a height of 2 m. If there is no loss of velocity after rebounding,
the ball will rise to a height of
A.1 m
B.2 m
C.3 m
D.4 m
Answer: B
12. A weight of 1000 N can be lifted by an effort of 80 N. If the velocity ratio is 20, the machine is
A.Reversible
B.Non-reversible
C.Ideal
D.None of these
Answer: A
13. Centre of gravity of a solid cone lies on the axis at the height
A.One fourth of the total height above base
B.One third of the total height above base
C.One-half of the total height above base
D.Three eighth of the total height above the base
Answer: A
14. The periodic time (T) is given by (where, ω = Angular velocity of particle in rad/s.)
A.ω π
B. π ω
C. π × ω
D.π ω
Answer: B
15. The resultant of two forces P and Q (such that P > Q) acting along the same straight line, but in
opposite direction, is given by
A.P + Q
B.P – Q
C.P / Q
D.Q / P
Answer: B
16. When two elastic bodies collide with each other,
A.The two bodies will momentarily come to rest after collision
B.The two bodies tend to compress and deform at the surface of contact
C.The two bodies begin to regain their original shape
D.All of the above
Answer: D
17. The coefficient of friction depends upon
A.Nature of surfaces
B.Area of contact
C.Shape of the surfaces
D.All of the above
Answer: A
18. The angular velocity (in rad/s) of a body rotating at N revolutions per minute is
A.πN 60
B.πN 80
C. πN 60
D. πN 80
Answer: C
19. A block of mass m1, placed on an inclined smooth plane is connected by a light string passing
over a smooth pulley to mass m2, which moves vertically downwards as shown in the below figure.
The tension in the string is
A.m1/m2
B.m . g. sin α
C.m1.m2/m1 + m2
D.m . m .g sin α m m
Answer: D
20. In determining stresses in frames by methods of sections, the frame is divided into two parts by
an imaginary section drawn in such a way as not to cut more than
A.Two members with unknown forces of the frame
B.Three members with unknown forces of the frame
C.Four members with unknown forces of the frame
D.Three members with known forces of the frame
Answer: B
21. A machine having an efficiency greater than 50%, is known as
A.Reversible machine
B.Non-reversible machine
C.Neither reversible nor non-reversible machine
D.Ideal machine
Answer: A
22. The algebraic sum of moments of the forces forming couple about any point in their plane is
A.Equal to the moment of the couple
B.Constant
C.Both of above are correct
D.Both of above are wrong
Answer: A
23. In the lever of third order, load ‘W’, effort ‘P’ and fulcrum ‘F’ are oriented as follows
A.W between P and F
B.F between W and P
C.P between W and F
D.W, P and F all on one side
Answer: A
24. Which of the following statement is correct?
A.The algebraic sum of the forces, constituting the couple is zero
B.The algebraic sum of the forces, constituting the couple, about any point is the same
C.A couple cannot be balanced by a single force but can be balanced only by a couple of opposite sense
D.All of the above
Answer: D
25. A heavy ladder resting on floor and against a vertical wall may not be in equilibrium, if
A.The floor is smooth, the wall is rough
B.The floor is rough, the wall is smooth
C.The floor and wall both are smooth surfaces
D.The floor and wall both are rough surfaces
Answer: C
26. The skidding away of the vehicle on a level circular path can be avoided if the force of friction
between the wheels and the ground is __________ the centrifugal force.
A.Less than
B.Greater than
C.Equal to
D.None of these
Answer: B
27. Coulomb friction is the friction between
A.Bodies having relative motion
B.Two dry surfaces
C.Two lubricated surfaces
D.Solids and liquids
Answer: A
28. The time of flight (t) of a projectile on an upward inclined plane is(where u = Velocity of
projection, α = Angle of projection, and β = Inclination of the plane with the horizontal.)
A.t = g cos β u sin α – β
B.t = u sin α – β g cos β
C.t = g cos β u sin α β
D.t = u sin α β g cos β
Answer: B
29. Which of the following is the example of lever of first order?
A.Arm of man
B.Pair of scissors
C.Pair of clinical tongs
D.All of the above
Answer: D
30. Three forces acting on a rigid body are represented in magnitude, direction and line of action by
the three sides of a triangle taken in order. The forces are equivalent to a couple whose moment is
equal to
A.Area of the triangle
B.Twice the area of the triangle
C.Half the area of the triangle
D.None of these
Answer: B
31. The Cartesian equation of trajectory is (where u = Velocity of projection, α = Angle of
projection, and x, y = Co-ordinates of any point on the trajectory after t seconds.)
A.y = g u cos α . tanα
B.y = g u cos α – . tanα
C.y = . tanα – g u cos α
D.y = . tanα g u cos α
Answer: C
32. The units of moment of inertia of an area are
A.kg-m²
B.m⁴
C.kg/m²
D.m³
Answer: B
33. The slope on the road surface generally provided on the curves is known as
A.Angle of friction
B.Angle of repose
C.Angle of banking
D.None of these
Answer: C
34. A force acting on a body may
A.Change its motion
B.Balance the other forces acting on it
C.Retard its motion
D.All of the above
Answer: D
35. The centre of gravity of an isosceles triangle with base (p) and sides (q) from its base is
A.[√ 4p – q²)]/6
B.(4p² – q²)/6
C.(p² – q²)/4
D.(p² + q²)/4
Answer: A
36. On a ladder resting on smooth ground and leaning against vertical wall, the force of friction will
be
A.Towards the wall at its upper end
B.Away from the wall at its upper end
C.Upwards at its upper end
D.Downwards at its upper end
Answer: C
37. The velocity of a body on reaching the ground from a height h, is
A. .√ gh
B.√ gh
C.√ gh
D. g.√h
Answer: C
38. A framed structure, as shown in the below figure, is a
A.Perfect frame
B.Deficient frame
C.Redundant frame
D.None of the above
Answer: A
39. Lami’s theorem states that
A.Three forces acting at a point will be in equilibrium
B.Three forces acting at a point can be represented by a triangle, each side being proportional to force
C.If three forces acting upon a particle are represented in magnitude and direction by the sides of a
triangle, taken in order, they will be in equilibrium
D.If three forces acting at a point are in equilibrium, each force is proportional to the sine of the angle
between the other two
Answer: D
40. The ratio of static friction to dynamic friction is always
A.Equal to one
B.Less than one
C.Greater than one
D.None of these
Answer: C
41. Which is the correct statement about law of polygon of forces?
A.If any number of forces acting at a point can be represented by the sides of a polygon taken in order,
then the forces are in equilibrium
B.If any number of forces acting at a point can be represented in direction and magnitude by the sides of a
polygon, then the forces are in equilibrium
C.If a polygon representing forces acting at a point is closed then forces are in equilibrium
D.If any number of forces acting at a point can be represented in direction and magnitude by the sides of a
polygon taken in order, then the forces are in equilibrium
Answer: D
42. Moment of inertia of a triangular section of baseB.and height (h) about an axis through its base,
is
A.bh3/4
B.bh3/8
C.bh3/12
D.bh3/36
Answer: C
43. Coefficient of friction is the
A.Angle between normal reaction and the resultant of normal reaction and the limiting friction
B.Ratio of limiting friction and normal reaction
C.The friction force acting when the body is just about to move
D.The friction force acting when the body is in motion
Answer: B
44. The forces, which meet at one point and their lines of action also lie on the same plane, are
known as
A.Coplanar concurrent forces
B.Coplanar non-concurrent forces
C.Non-coplanar concurrent forces
D.Non-coplanar non-concurrent forces
Answer: A
45. A flywheel on a motor goes from rest to 1000 rpm in 6 sec. The number of revolutions made is
nearly equal to
A.25
B.50
C.100
D.250
Answer: B
46. A ladder is resting on a smooth ground and leaning against a rough vertical wall. The force of
friction will act
A.Towards the wall at its upper end
B.Away from the wall at its upper end
C.Downward at its upper end
D.Upward at its upper end
Answer: D
47. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:
A.The C.G. of a circle is at its centre
B.The C.G. of a triangle is at the intersection of its medians
C.The C.G. of a rectangle is at the intersection of its diagonals
D.The C.G. of a semicircle is at a distance of r/2 from the centre
Answer: D
48. The range of projectile (R) on an upward inclined plane is
A.g. cos² β u . sin α β . cos α
B. u . sin α β . cos α g. cos β
C.g. cos β u . sin α – β . cos α
D. u . sin α – β . cos α g. cos β
Answer: D
49. If three forces acting in one plane upon a rigid body, keep it in equilibrium, then they must
either
A.Meet in a point
B.Be all parallel
C.At least two of them must meet
D.All the above are correct
Answer: D
50. In order to double the period of simple pendulum, the length of the string should be
A.Halved
B.Doubled
C.Quadrupled
D.None of these
Answer: C
51. The angle which an inclined plane makes with the horizontal when a body placed on it is about
to move down is known as angle of
A.Friction
B.Limiting friction
C.Repose
D.Kinematic friction
Answer: C
52. The energy possessed by a body, for doing work by virtue of its position, is called
A.Potential energy
B.Kinetic energy
C.Electrical energy
D.Chemical energy
Answer: A
53. The centre of gravity of a uniform lamina lies at
A.The centre of heavy portion
B.The bottom surface
C.The midpoint of its axis
D.All of the above
Answer: C
54. The three forces of 100 N, 200 N and 300 N have their lines of action parallel to each other but
act in the opposite directions. These forces are known as
A.Coplanar concurrent forces
B.Coplanar non-concurrent forces
C.Like parallel forces
D.Unlike parallel forces
Answer: D
55. Angle of friction is the
A.Angle between normal reaction and the resultant of normal reaction and the limiting friction
B.Ratio of limiting friction and normal reaction
C.The ratio of minimum friction force to the friction force acting when the body is just about to move
D.The ratio of minimum friction force to friction force acting when the body is in motion
Answer: A
56. Moment of inertia of a hollow circular section, as shown in the below figure about an axis
perpendicular to the section, is ________ than that about X-X axis.
A.Two times
B.Same
C.Half
D.None of these
Answer: A
57. The frequency of oscillation of a compound pendulum is (where kG = Radius of gyration about
the centroidal axis, and h = Distance between the point of suspension and C.G. of the body.)
A. π. √ gh k h
B. π. √ k h gh
C. π. √ gh k h
D. π. √ k h gh
Answer: C
58. The necessary condition for forces to be in equilibrium is that these should be
A.Coplanar
B.Meet at one point
C.BothA.andB.above
D.All be equal
Answer: C
59. Two forces are acting at an angle of 120°. The bigger force is 40 N and the resultant is
perpendicular to the smaller one. The smaller force is
A.20 N
B.40 N
C.120 N
D.None of these
Answer: A
60. In actual machines
A.Mechanical advantage is greater than velocity ratio
B.Mechanical advantage is equal to velocity ratio
C.Mechanical advantage is less than velocity ratio
D.Mechanical advantage is unity
Answer: C
61. Coefficient of friction depends upon
A.Area of contact only
B.Nature of surface only
C.BothA.and (B)
D.None of these
Answer: B
62. Moment of inertia of a hollow rectangular section as shown in the below figure about X-X axis,
is
A.(BD³/12) – (bd³/12)
B.(DB³/12) – (db³/12)
C.(BD³/36) – (bd³/36)
D.(DB³/36) – (db³/36)
Answer: A
63. Which of the following is a vector quantity?
A.Energy
B.Mass
C.Momentum
D.Angle
Answer: C
64. The maximum velocity of a particle moving with simple harmonic motion is
A.ω
B.ωr
C.ω r
D.ω r
Answer: B
65. The product of either force of couple with the arm of the couple is called
A.Resultant couple
B.Moment of the forces
C.Resulting couple
D.Moment of the couple
Answer: D
66. The moment of a force
A.Is the turning effect produced by a force, on the body, on which it acts
B.Is equal to the product of force acting on the body and the perpendicular distance of a point and the line
of action of the force
C.Is equal to twice the area of the triangle, whose base is the line representing the force and whose vertex
is the point, about which the moment is taken
D.All of the above
Answer: D
67. A heavy string attached at two ends at same horizontal level and when central dip is very small
approaches the following curve
A.Circular arc
B.Parabola
C.Hyperbola
D.Elliptical
Answer: B
68. The centre of gravity a T-section 100 mm × 150 mm × 50 mm from its bottom is
A.50 mm
B.75 mm
C.87.5 mm
D.125 mm
Answer: C
69. Kinetic friction is the
A.Tangent of angle between normal reaction and the resultant of normal reaction and the limiting friction
B.Ratio of limiting friction and normal reaction
C.The friction force acting when the body is just about to move
D.The friction force acting when the body is in motion
Answer: D
70. According to Newton’s first law of motion,
A. Everybody continues in its state of rest or of uniform motion, in a straight line, unless it is acted upon
by some external force
B. The rate of change of momentum is directly proportional to the impressed force, and takes place in the
same direction, in which the force acts
C. To every action, there is always an equal and opposite reaction
D. None of the above
Answer: A
71. Which of the following is not a vector quantity?
A.Weight
B.Velocity
C.Acceleration
D.Force
Answer: A
72. The mechanical advantage of a lifting machine is the ratio of
A.Distance moved by effort to the distance moved by load
B.Load lifted to the effort applied
C.Output to the input
D.All of the above
Answer: B
73. From a circular plate of diameter 6 cm is cut out a circle whose diameter is a radius of the plate.
Find the e.g. of the remainder from the centre of circular plate
A.0.5 cm
B.1.0 cm
C.1.5 cm
D.2.5 cm
Answer: A
74. In ideal machines, mechanical advantage is __________ velocity ratio.
A.Equal to
B.Less than
C.Greater than
D.None of these
Answer: A
75. Frictional force encountered after commencement of motion is called
A.Limiting friction
B.Kinematic friction
C.Frictional resistance
D.Dynamic friction
Answer: D
76. The centre of gravity of a right circular solid cone is at a distance of _________ from its base,
measured along the vertical axis.(where h = Height of a right circular solid cone.)
A.h/2
B.h/3
C.h/4
D.h/6
Answer: C
77. A particle inside a hollow sphere of radius r, having coefficient of friction µ can rest up to height
of
A.r/2
B.r/A
C.r/3
D.0.134 r
Answer: D
78. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
A.A force acting in the opposite direction to the motion of the body is called force of friction
B.The ratio of the limiting friction to the normal reaction is called coefficient of friction
C.A machine whose efficiency is 100% is known as an ideal machine
D.The velocity ratio of a machine is the ratio of load lifted to the effort applied
Answer: D
79. A sample of metal weighs 219 gms in air, 180 gms in water, 120 gms in an unknown fluid. Then
which is correct statement about density of metal
A.Density of metal can’t e determined
B.Metal is twice as dense as water
C.Metal will float in water
D.Metal is twice as dense as unknown fluid
Answer: A
80. The centre of percussion is below the centre of gravity of the body and is at a distance equal to
A.h/kG
B.h2/kG
C.kG2/h
D.h × kG
Answer: C
81. A cable with a uniformly distributed load per horizontal meter run will take the following shape
A.Straight line
B.Parabola
C.Hyperbola
D.Elliptical
Answer: B
82. When a body falls freely under gravitational force, it possesses __________ weight.
A.No
B.Minimum
C.Maximum
D.None of these
Answer: A
83. A body moves, from rest with a constant acceleration of 5 m per sec. The distance covered in 5
sec is most nearly
A.38 m
B.62.5 m
C.96 m
D.124 m
Answer: B
84. When the lift is moving upwards with some acceleration, the pressure exerted by a man is
__________ to its acceleration.
A.Directly proportional
B.Inversely proportional
C.Cube root
D.None of these
Answer: A
85. Limiting force of friction is the
A.Tangent of angle between normal reaction and the resultant of normal reaction and limiting friction
B.Ratio of limiting friction and normal reaction
C.The friction force acting when the body is just about to move
D.The friction force acting when the body is in motion
Answer: C
86. A spherical body is symmetrical about its perpendicular axis. According to Routh’s rule, the
moment of inertia of a body about an axis passing through its centre of gravity is (where, M = Mass
of the body, and S = Sum of the squares of the two semi-axes.)
A.MS/3
B.MS/4
C.MS/5
D.None of these
Answer: C
87. The resultant of the following three couples 20 kg force, 0.5 m arm, +ve sense 30 kg force, 1 m
arm, -ve sense 40 kg force, 0.25 m arm, +ve sense having arm of 0.5 m will be
A.20 kg, -ve sense
B.20 kg, + ve sense
C.10 kg, + ve sense
D.10 kg, -ve sense
Answer: A
88. In a framed structure, as shown in the below figure, the force in the member BC is
A.W √3 compression
B.W √3 tension
C. W √3 compression
D. W √3 tension
Answer: D
89. For any system of coplanar forces, the condition of equilibrium is that the
A.Algebraic sum of the horizontal components of all the forces should be zero
B.Algebraic sum of the vertical components of all the forces should be zero
C.Algebraic sum of moments of all the forces about any point should be zero
D.All of the above
Answer: D
90. D’ Alembert’s principle is used for
A.Reducing the problem of kinetics to equivalent statics problem
B.Determining stresses in the truss
C.Stability of floating bodies
D.Designing safe structures
Answer: A
91. Two bodies of masses m1 and m2 are hung from the ends of a rope, passing over a frictionless
pulley as shown in the figure below. The acceleration of the string will be
A.g (m1 – m2)/(m1 + m2)
B.2g (m1 – m2)/(m1 + m2)
C.g (m1 + m2)/(m1 – m2)
D.2g (m1 + m2)/(m1 – m2)
Answer: A
92. The velocity ratio of a differential wheel and axle with ‘D’ as the diameter of effort wheel and
d1 and d2 as the diameters of larger and smaller axles respectively, is
A.D d₁ d₂
B.D/(d₁ – d₂
C. D d₁ d₂
D. D d₁ – d₂
Answer: D
93. Which of the following is not the unit of power?
A.kW (kilowatt)
B.hp (horse power)
C.kcal/sec
D.kcal/kg sec
Answer: D
94. Non-coplanar non-concurrent forces are those forces which
A.Meet at one point, but their lines of action do not lie on the same plane
B.Do not meet at one point and their lines of action do not lie on the same plane
C.Do not meet at one point but their lines of action lie on the same plane
D.None of the above
Answer: B
95. The unit of force in S.I. units is
A.kilogram
B.Newton
C.Watt
D.Dyne
Answer: B
96. A number of forces acting at a point will be in equilibrium, if
A.All the forces are equally inclined
B.Sum of all the forces is zero
C.Sum of resolved parts in the vertical direction is zero i.e. ∑V = 0
D.None of these
Answer: C
97. The weight of a body is due to
A.Gravitational pull exerted by the earth
B.Forces experienced by body in atmosphere
C.Force of attraction experienced by particles
D.Gravitational force of attraction towards the centre of the earth
Answer: D
98. The efficiency of a lifting machine is the ratio of
A.Output to the input
B.Work done by the machine to the work done on the machine
C.Mechanical advantage to the velocity ratio
D.All of the above
Answer: D
99. According to principle of moments
A. If a system of coplanar forces is in equilibrium, then their algebraic sum is zero
B. If a system of coplanar forces is in equilibrium, then the algebraic sum of their moments about any
point in their plane is zero
C. The algebraic sum of the moments of any two forces about any point is equal to moment of the
resultant about the same point
D. Positive and negative couples can be balanced
Answer: B
100. Moment of inertia of a triangular section of baseB.and height (h) about an axis passing
through its vertex and parallel to the base, is __________ than that passing through its C.G. and
parallel to the base.
A.Nine times
B.Six times
C.Four times
D.Two times
Answer: A
101. A trolley wire weighs 1.2 kg per meter length. The ends of the wire are attached to two poles 20
meters apart. If the horizontal tension is 1500 kg find the dip in the middle of the span
A.2.5 cm
B.3.0 cm
C.4.0 cm
D.5.0 cm
Answer: C
102. The algebraic sum of the resolved parts of a number of forces in a given direction is equal to
the resolved part of their resultant in the same direction. This is known as
A.Principle of independence of forces
B.Principle of resolution of forces
C.Principle of transmissibility of forces
D.None of these
Answer: B
103. A particle moves along a straight line such that distance (x) traversed in ‘t’ seconds is given by
x = t² (t – 4), the acceleration of the particle will be given by the equation
A.6t² – 8t
B.3t² + 2t
C.6f – 8
D.6f – 4
Answer: C
104. The minimum force required to slide a body of weight ‘W’ on a rough horizontal plane is
A.W sin
B.W cos
C.W tan
D.None of these
Answer: C
105. The maximum frictional force which comes into play when a body just begins to slide over
another surface is called
A.Limiting friction
B.Sliding friction
C.Rolling friction
D.Kinematic friction
Answer: A
106. The motion of a particle round a fixed axis is
A.Translatory
B.Rotary
C.Circular
D.Translatory as well as rotary
Answer: C
107. The C.G. of a right circular solid cone of height h lies at the following distance from the base
A.h/2
B.J/3
C.h/6
D.h/4
Answer: D
108. Which of the following statement is correct?
A.The kinetic energy of a body during impact remains constant
B.The kinetic energy of a body before impact is equal to the kinetic energy of a body after impact
C.The kinetic energy of a body before impact is less than the kinetic energy of a body after impact
D.The kinetic energy of a body before impact is more than the kinetic energy of a body after impact
Answer: D
109. A pair of smith’s tongs is an example of the lever of
A.Zeroth order
B.First order
C.Second order
D.Third order
Answer: C
110. Moment of inertia of a circular section about its diameterD.is
A.πd3 6
B.πd3 3
C.πd4 3
D.πd4 64
Answer: D
111. The forces, which meet at one point, but their lines of action do not lie in a plane, are called
A.Coplanar non-concurrent forces
B.Non-coplanar concurrent forces
C.Non-coplanar non-concurrent forces
D.Intersecting forces
Answer: B
112. The resultant of two forces P and Q acting at an angle θ is
A.√ P Q PQ sin
B.√ P Q PQ cos
C.√ P Q – PQ cos
D.√ P Q – PQ tan
Answer: B
113. Center of percussion is
A.The point of C.G.
B.The point of metacenter
C.The point of application of the resultant of all the forces tending to cause a body to rotate about a
certain axis
D.Point of suspension
Answer: C
114. The static friction
A.Bears a constant ratio to the normal reaction between the two surfaces
B.Is independent of the area of contact, between the two surfaces
C.Always acts in a direction, opposite to that in which the body tends to move
D.All of the above
Answer: D
115. Least force required to draw a body up the inclined plane is W sin (plane inclination + friction
angle) applied in the direction
A.Along the plane
B.Horizontally
C.Vertically
D.At an angle equal to the angle of friction to the inclined plane
Answer: D
116. The law of motion involved in the recoil of gun is
A.Newton’s first law of motion
B.Newton’s second law of motion
C.Newton’s third law of motion
D.None of these
Answer: C
117. A circular hole of 50 mm diameter is cut out from a circular disc of 100 mm diameter as shown
in the below figure. The center of gravity of the section will lie
A.In the shaded area
B.In the hole
C.At ‘O’
D.None of these
Answer: A
118. A semicircular disc rests on a horizontal surface with its top flat surface horizontal and
circular portion touching down. The coefficient of friction between semi circular disc and
horizontal surface is µ. This disc is to be pulled by a horizontal force applied at one edge and it
always remains horizontal. When the disc is about to start moving, its top horizontal force will
A.Remain horizontal
B.Slant up towards direction of pull
C.Slant down towards direction of pull
D.None of the above
Answer: C
119. Which of the following statement is correct?
A.The periodic time of a particle moving with simple harmonic motion is the time taken by a particle for
one complete oscillation
B.The periodic time of a particle moving with simple harmonic motion is directly proportional to its
angular velocity
C.The velocity of the particle moving with simple harmonic motion is zero at the mean position
D.The acceleration of the particle moving with simple harmonic motion is maximum at the mean position
Answer: A
120. In ideal machines
A.Mechanical advantage is greater than velocity ratio
B.Mechanical advantage is equal to velocity ratio
C.Mechanical advantage is less than velocity ratio
D.Mechanical advantage is unity
Answer: B
121. The forces, whose lines of action are parallel to each other and act in the same directions, are
known as
A.Coplanar concurrent forces
B.Coplanar non-concurrent forces
C.Like parallel forces
D.Unlike parallel forces
Answer: C
122. Two non-collinear parallel equal forces acting in opposite direction
A.Balance each other
B.Constitute a moment
C.Constitute a couple
D.Constitute a moment of couple
Answer: C
123. If the body falls freely under gravity, then the gravitational acceleration is taken as
A.+8.9 m/s2
B.-8.9 m/s2
C.+9.8 m/s2
D.-9.8 m/s2
Answer: C
124. The center of gravity of a triangle lies at the point of
A.Concurrence of the medians
B.Intersection of its altitudes
C.Intersection of bisector of angles
D.Intersection of diagonals
Answer: A
125. One joule means that
A.Work is done by a force of 1 N when it displaces a body through 1 m
B.Work is done by a force of 1 kg when it displaces a body through 1 m
C.Work is done by a force of 1 dyne when it displaces a body through 1 cm
D.Work is done by a force of 1 g when it displaces a body through 1 cm
Answer: A
126. On the ladder resting on the ground and leaning against a smooth vertical wall, the force of
friction will be
A.Downwards at its upper end
B.Upwards at its upper end
C.Perpendicular to the wall at its upper end
D.Zero at its upper end
Answer: D
127. Which of the following are vector quantities?
A.Angular displacement
B.Angular velocity
C.Angular acceleration
D.All of these
Answer: D
128. Which of the following is the locus of a point that moves in such a manner that its distance
from a fixed point is equal to its distance from a fixed line multiplied by a constant greater than one
A.Ellipse
B.Hyperbola
C.Parabola
D.Circle
Answer: B
129. In a framed structure, as shown in the below figure, the forces in the members AB and BC are
respectively
A.√3. W tensile and W compressive
B. W tensile and √3. W compressive
C. √3. W tensile and √3. W compressive
D.None of the above
Answer: A
130. When a body of mass ‘m’ attains a velocity ‘v’ from rest in time ‘t’, then the kinetic energy of
translation is
A.mv2
B.mgv2
C.0.5 mv2
D.0.5 mgv2
Answer: C
131. The M.I. of hollow circular section about a central axis perpendicular to section as compared
to its M.I. about horizontal axis is
A.Same
B.Double
C.Half
D.Four times
Answer: B
132. The maximum efficiency of a lifting machine is
A.1/m
B.V.R./m
C.m/V.R.
D.1/(m × V.R.)
Answer: D
133. When trying to turn a key into a lock, following is applied
A.Coplanar force
B.Non-coplanar forces
C.Moment
D.Couple
Answer: D
134. Moment of inertia of a triangular section of baseB.and height (h) about an axis passing
through its C.G. and parallel to the base, is
A.bh3/4
B.bh3/8
C.bh3/12
D.bh3/36
Answer: D
135. If a number of forces act simultaneously on a particle, it is possible
A.Not a replace them by a single force
B.To replace them by a single force
C.To replace them by a single force through C.G.
D.To replace them by a couple
Answer: B
136. If two bodies having masses m1 and m2 (m1>m2) have equal kinetic energies, the momentum
of body having mass m1 is _________ the momentum of body having mass m2.
A.Equal to
B.Less than
C.Greater than
D.None of these
Answer: C
137. Two coplanar couples having equal and opposite moments
A.Balance each other
B.Produce a couple and an unbalanced force
C.Are equivalent
D.Cannot balance each other
Answer: D
138. The center of gravity of a trapezium with parallel sides ‘a’ and ‘b’ lies at a distance of ‘y’ from
the base ‘b’, as shown in the below figure. The value of ‘y’ is
A.h [(2a + b)/(a + b)]
B.(h/2) [(2a + b)/(a + b)]
C.(h/3) [(2a + b)/(a + b)]
D.(h/3) [(a + b)/(2a + b)]
Answer: C
139. Non-coplanar concurrent forces are those forces which
A.Meet at one point, but their lines of action do not lie on the same plane
B.Do not meet at one point and their lines of action do not lie on the same plane
C.Meet at one point and their lines of action also lie on the same plane
D.Do not meet at one point, but their lines of action lie on the same plane
Answer: A
140. In the equation of virtual work, following force is neglected
A.Reaction of any smooth surface with which the body is in contact
B.Reaction of a rough surface of a body which rolls on it without slipping
C.Reaction at a point or an axis, fixed in space, around which a body is constrained to turn
D.All of the above
Answer: D
141. The velocity of a particle moving with simple harmonic motion is _________ at the mean
position.
A.Zero
B.Minimum
C.Maximum
D.None of these
Answer: C
142. If rain is falling in the opposite direction of the movement of a pedestrian, he has to hold his
umbrella
A.More inclined when moving
B.Less inclined when moving
C.More inclined when standing
D.Less inclined when standing
Answer: D
143. The linear velocity of a body rotating at ω rad/s along a circular path of radius r is given by
A.ω r
B.ω.r
C.ω r
D.ω .r
Answer: B
144. The C.G. of a solid hemisphere lies on the central radius 3r
A.At distance — from the plane base 3r
B.At distance — from the plane base 3r
C.At distance — from the plane base 3r
D.At distance — from the plane base
Answer: D
145. The velocity ratio of a simple wheel and axle with D and d as the diameters of effort wheel and
load axle, is
A.D + d
B.D – d
C.D × d
D.D / d
Answer: D
146. According to law of triangle of forces
A.Three forces acting at a point will be in equilibrium
B.Three forces acting at a point can be represented by a triangle, each side being proportional to force
C.If three forces acting upon a particle are represented in magnitude and direction by the sides of a
triangle, taken in order, they will be in equilibrium
D.If three forces acting at a point are in equilibrium, each force is proportional to the sine of the angle
between the other two
Answer: C
147. The loss of kinetic energy during inelastic impact, is given by (where m1 = Mass of the first
body,m2 = Mass of the second body, and u1 and u2 = Velocities of the first and second bodies
respectively.)
A.[m₁ m₂ m₁ m₂ ] u₁ – u₂
B.[ m₁ m₂ m₁ m₂] u₁ – u₂
C.[m₁ m₂ m₁ m₂ ] u₁ – u₂
D.[ m₁ m₂ m₁ m₂] u₁ – u₂
Answer: A
148. If a suspended body is struck at the center of percussion, then the pressure on die axis passing
through the point of suspension will be
A.Maximum
B.Minimum
C.Zero
D.Infinity
Answer: C
149. A couple produces
A.Translatory motion
B.Rotational motion
C.Combined translatory and rotational motion
D.None of the above
Answer: B
150. The resolved part of the resultant of two forces inclined at an angle ‘θ’ in a given direction is
equal to
A.The algebraic sum of the resolved parts of the forces in the given direction
B.The sum of the resolved parts of the forces in the given direction
C.The difference of the forces multiplied y the cosine of
D.The sum of the forces multiplied y the sine of
Answer: A
151. The force, by which the body is attracted, towards the center of the earth, is called
A.Impulsive force
B.Mass
C.Weight
D.Momentum
Answer: C
152. The equivalent length of a simple pendulum which gives the same frequency as compound
pendulum is
A.h/(kG² + h²)
B.(kG² + h²)/h
C.h²/(kG² + h²)
D.(kG² + h²)/h²
Answer: B
153. Moment of inertia of a rectangular section having widthB.and depthD.about an axis passing
through its C.G. and parallel to the width (b), is
A.db³/12
B.bd³/12
C.db³/36
D.bd³/36
Answer: B
154. The length of a second’s pendulum is
A.94.9 cm
B.99.4 cm
C.100 cm
D.101 cm
Answer: B
155. The angle between two forces when the resultant is maximum and minimum respectively are
A.0° and 180°
B.180° and 0°
C.90° and 180°
D.90° and 0°
Answer: A
156. The velocity ratio of a first system of pulleys with 4 pulleys is
A.4
B.8
C.16
D.20
Answer: C
157. Which of the following is a scalar quantity?
A.Force
B.Speed
C.Velocity
D.Acceleration
Answer: B
158. The unit of angular velocity is
A.m/min
B.rad/s
C.Revolutions/min
D.BothB.and (C)
Answer: D
159. The force required to move the body up the plane will be minimum if it makes an angle with
the inclined plane __________ the angle of friction.
A.Equal to
B.Less than
C.Greater than
D.None of these
Answer: A
160. When a person, on a bicycle, drives round a curve, he has to lean __________ to maintain
equilibrium.
A.Inward
B.Outward
C.Towards front
D.Towards back
Answer: A
161. The force induced in the string BC due to the load ‘W’ as shown in the below figure is
A.W sin
B.W cos
C.W tan
D.W cot
Answer: D
162. The center of gravity of a semi-circle lies at a distance of __________ from its base measured
along the vertical radius.
A.3r/ 8
B.4r 3π
C.8r/3
D.3r 4π
Answer: B
163. The rate of doing work is known as
A.Potential energy
B.Kinetic energy
C.Power
D.None of these
Answer: C
164. The impact between two lead spheres is approximately equal to an __________ impact.
A.Elastic
B.Inelastic
C.Solid
D.None of these
Answer: B
165. The unit of angular acceleration is
A.N-m
B.m/s
C.m/s2
D.rad/s2
Answer: D
166. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
A.The tangent of the angle of friction is equal to coefficient of friction
B.The angle of repose is equal to angle of friction
C.The tangent of the angle of repose is equal to coefficient of friction
D.The sine of the angle of repose is equal to coefficient to friction
Answer: D
167. Coplanar concurrent forces are those forces which
A.Meet at one point, but their lines of action do not lie on the same plane
B.Do not meet at one point and their lines of action do not lie on the same plane
C.Meet at one point and their lines of action also lie on the same plane
D.Do not meet at one point, but their lines of action lie on the same plane
Answer: C
168. If ‘P’ is the force acting on the body, ‘m’ is the mass of the body and ‘a’ is the acceleration of
the body, then according to Newton’s second law of motion,
A.P + m.a = 0
B.P – m.a = 0
C.P × m.a = 0
D.P/m.a = 0
Answer: B
169. If three forces acting in different planes can be represented by a triangle, these will be in
A.Non-equilibrium
B.Partial equilibrium
C.Full equilibrium
D.Unpredictable
Answer: A
170. The horizontal range of a projectile (R) is given by
A.R = u cos α g
B.R = u sin α g
C.R = u cosα g
D.R = u sinα g
Answer: B
171. A block of mass 20 kg lying on a rough horizontal plane is connected by a light string passing
over a smooth pulley to another mass 5 kg, which can move freely in the Vertical direction, as
shown in the below figure. The tension in the string will ___________ with the increase in
coefficient of friction.
A.Increase
B.Decrease
C.Not be effected
D.None of these
Answer: A
172. Coplanar non-concurrent forces are those forces which __________ at one point, but their lines
of action lie on the same plane.
A.Meet
B.Do not meet
C.Either ‘A’ or ‘B’
D.None of these
Answer: B
173. Which of the following do not have identical dimensions?
A.Momentum and impulse
B.Torque and energy
C.Torque and work
D.Moment of a force and angular momentum
Answer: D
174. In order to determine the effects of a force, acting on a body, we must know
A.Magnitude of the force
B.Line of action of the force
C.Nature of the force i.e. whether the force is push or pull
D.All of the above
Answer: D
175. A framed structure is perfect, if the number of members are __________ (2j – 3), where j is the
number of joints.
A.Equal to
B.Less than
C.Greater than
D.None of these
Answer: A
176. The ratio of limiting friction and normal reaction is known as
A.Coefficient of friction
B.Angle of friction
C.Angle of repose
D.Sliding friction
Answer: A
177. The bodies which rebound after impact are called
A.Inelastic bodies
B.Elastic bodies
C.Neither elastic nor inelastic bodies
D.None of these
Answer: B
178. The velocity of a particle (v) moving with simple harmonic motion, at any instant is given by
(where, r = Amplitude of motion, and y = Displacement of the particle from mean position.)
A.ω.√ y – r²)
B.ω.√ r – y²)
C.ω .√ y – r²)
D.ω .√ r – y²)
Answer: B
179. If n = number of members and y = number of joints, then for a perfect frame, n = ?
A.1/2
B.2/3
C.3/2
D.2/4
Answer: B
180. A framed structure is imperfect, if the numbers of members are __________ (2j – 3).
A.Equal to
B.Less than
C.Greater than
D.EitherB.or (C)
Answer: D
181. The time of flight (t) of a projectile on a horizontal plane is given by
A.t = u. sinα g
B.t = u. cosα g
C.t = u. tanα g
D.t = u g.sinα
Answer: A
182. Which of the following is not the unit of distance?
A.Angstrom
B.Light year
C.Micron
D.Milestone
Answer: D
183. Two like parallel forces are acting at a distance of 24 mm apart and their resultant is 20 N. It
the line of action of the resultant is 6 mm from any given force, the two forces are
A.15 N and 5 N
B.20 N and 5 N
C.15 N and 15 N
D.None of these
Answer: A
184. Which of the following are vector quantities?
A.Linear displacement
B.Linear velocity
C.Linear acceleration
D.All of these
Answer: D
185. Varingon’s theorem of moments states that if a number of coplanar forces acting on a particle
are in equilibrium, then
A.Their algebraic sum is zero
B.Their lines of action are at equal distances
C.The algebraic sum of their moments about any point in their plane is zero
D.The algebraic sum of their moments about any point is equal to the moment of their resultant force
about the same point
Answer: D
186. The possible loading in various members of framed structures are
A.Compression or tension
B.Buckling or shear
C.Shear or tension
D.All of the above
Answer: A
187. The acceleration of a particle moving with simple harmonic motion is __________ at the mean
position.
A.Zero
B.Minimum
C.Maximum
D.None of these
Answer: A
188. Efficiency of a screw jack is given by (where α = Helix angle, and φ = Angle of friction.)
A.tan α φ tanα
B.tanα tan α φ
C.tan α – φ tanα
D.None of these
Answer: B
189. The force induced in the string AB due to the load W, as shown in the below figure is
A.W sin
B.W cos
C.W sec
D.W cosec
Answer: D
190. The unit of work or energy in S.I. units is
A.Newton
B.Pascal
C.Watt
D.Joule
Answer: D
191. The velocity ratio for the first system of pulleys is (where n is the number of pulleys.)
A.n
B.n²
C.2n
D.2n – 1
Answer: C
192. If a number of coplanar forces acting at a point be in equilibrium, the sum of clockwise
moments must be __________ the sum of anticlockwise moments, about any point.
A.Equal to
B.Less than
C.Greater than
D.None of these
Answer: A
193. Center of gravity of a thin hollow cone lies on the axis at a height of
A.One-fourth of the total height above base
B.One-third of the total height above base
C.One-half of the total height above base
D.Three-eighth of the total height above the base
Answer: B
194. Which of the following statement is correct in connection with projectiles?
A.A path, traced by a projectile in the space, is known as trajectory.
B.The velocity, with which a projectile is projected, is known as the velocity of projection.
C.The angle, with the horizontal, at which a projectile is projected, is known as angle of projection.
D.All of the above
Answer: D
195. A pendulum which executes one beat per second is known as
A.Simple pendulum
B.Compound pendulum
C.Torsional pendulum
D.Second’s pendulum
Answer: D
196. A single force and a couple acting in the same plane upon a rigid body
A.Balance each other
B.Cannot balance each other
C.Produce moment of a couple
D.Are equivalent
Answer: B
197. The forces which meet at one point, but their lines of action __________ on the same plane, are
Known as non-coplanar concurrent forces.
A.Lie
B.Do not lie
C.Either A or B
D.None of these
Answer: B
198. During elastic impact, the relative velocity of the two bodies after impact is __________ the
relative velocity of the two bodies before impact.
A.Equal to
B.Equal and opposite to
C.Less than
D.Greater than
Answer: D
199. A force is completely defined when we specify
A.Magnitude
B.Direction
C.Point of application
D.All of the above
Answer: D
200. The rate of change of momentum is directly proportional to the impressed force, and takes
place in the same direction in which the force acts. This statement is known as
A.Newton’s first law of motion
B.Newton’s second law of motion
C.Newton’s third law of motion
D.None of these
Answer: B
201. The maximum efficiency of a screw jack is
A.(1 – sinφ sinφ
B. sinφ – sinφ
C.(1 – tanφ tanφ
D. tanφ – tanφ
Answer: A
202. The center of percussion of a solid cylinder of radius ‘r’ resting on a horizontal plane will be
A.r/2
B.2r/3
C.r/A
D.3r/2
Answer: D
203. The velocity ratio of a differential pulley block with D and d as the diameters of larger and
smaller pulley, is
A.D/(D – d)
B.D/(D + d)
C.2D/(D – d)
D.2D/(D + d)
Answer: C
204. In a screw jack, the effort required to lower the load is __________ the effort required to raise
the same load.
A.Less than
B.Equal to
C.More than
D.None of these
Answer: A
205. Tangent of angle of friction is equal to
A.Kinetic friction
B.Limiting friction
C.Angle of repose
D.Coefficient of friction
Answer: D
206. For a self locking machine, the efficiency must be
A.Equal to 50%
B.Less than 50%
C.Greater than 50%
D.100%
Answer: B
207. If the number of pulleys in a system is equal to its velocity ratio, then it is a __________ system
of pulleys.
A.First
B.Second
C.Third
D.None of these
Answer: B
208. Effect of a force on a body depends upon
A.Magnitude
B.Direction
C.Position or line of action
D.All of the above
Answer: D
209. The ideal angle of banking provided on the curves on roads depends upon
A.Weight of the vehicle
B.(Velocity)2 of the vehicle
C.Nature of the road surface
D.Coefficient of friction between the road and vehicle contact point
Answer: B
210. Two blocks ‘A’ and ‘B’ of masses 150 kg and 50 kg respectively are connected by means of a
string as shown in the below figure. The tension in all the three strings __________ be same.
A.Will
B.Will not
C.Either A or B
D.None of these
Answer: Option
211. The bellow figure shows the two equal forces at right angles acting at a point. The value of
force ‘R’ acting along their bisector and in opposite direction is
A.P/2
B.2P
C.√ × P
D.P √
Answer: C
212. A lead ball with a certain velocity is made to strike a wall, it falls down, but rubber ball of
same mass and with same velocity strikes the same wall, it rebounds. Select the correct reason from
the following:
A.Both the balls undergo an equal change in momentum
B.The change in momentum suffered by rubber ball is more than the lead ball
C.The change in momentum suffered by rubber ball is less than the lead ball
D.None of the above
Answer: B
213. In order to completely specify angular displacement by a vector, it must fix
A.Direction of the axis of rotation
B.Magnitude of angular displacement
C.Sense of angular displacement
D.All of these
Answer: D
214. The moment of inertia of a rectangular section 3 cm wide and 4 cm deep about X-X axis is
A.9 cm4
B.12 cm4
C.16 cm4
D.20 cm4
Answer: C
215. A framed structure is perfect if it contains members equal to
(Where, n = number of joints in a frame)
A.2n³
B.2n
C.n²
D.3n²
Answer: A
216. The motion of a wheel of a car is
A.Purely translation
B.Purely rotational
C.Combined translation and rotational
D.None of these
Answer: C
217. A smooth cylinder lying on its convex surface remains in __________ equilibrium.
A.Stable
B.Unstable
C.Neutral
D.None of these
Answer: B
218. The velocity ratio in case of an inclined plane inclined at angle ‘θ’ to the horizontal and weight
being pulled up the inclined plane by vertical effort is
A.sin
B.cos
C.tan
D.cosec
Answer: A
219. Forces are called concurrent when their lines of action meet in
A.One point
B.Two points
C.Plane
D.Perpendicular planes
Answer: A
220. The range of a projectile is maximum, when the angle of projection is
A.30°
B.45°
C.60°
D.90°
Answer: B
221. When a rigid body is suspended vertically, and it oscillates with a small amplitude under the
action of the force of gravity, the body is known as
A.Simple pendulum
B.Compound pendulum
C.Torsional pendulum
D.Second’s pendulum
Answer: B
222. The potential energy of a vertically raised body is __________ the kinetic energy of a vertically
falling body.
A.Equal to
B.Less than
C.Greater than
D.None of these
Answer: A
223. The acceleration of a particle moving with simple harmonic motion, at any instant is given by
A.ω.y
B.ω .y
C.ω y
D.ω3.y
Answer: B
224. The units of moment of inertia of mass are
A.kg-m²
B.m²/kg
C.kg/m²
D.kg/m
Answer: A
225. The linear acceleration A. of a body rotating along a circular path of radius (r) with an
angular acceleration of α rad/s2, is
A.a = α r
B.a = α.r
C.a = r α
D.None of these
Answer: B
226. Whenever a force acts on a body and the body undergoes a displacement, then
A.Work is said to be done
B.Power is being transmitted
C.Body has kinetic energy of translation
D.None of these
Answer: A
227. Which of the following is not the unit of energy?
A.kg m
B.kcal
C.Watt
D.Watt hours
Answer: C
228. The range of projectile will be maximum for a given velocity of projectile, when the angle of
projection (α) is
A.β
B.30° + β
C.45° β
D.60° β
Answer: C
229. The power developed by a body acted upon by a torque ‘T’ Newton meter (N – m) and
revolving at ω radian/s is given by
A.T.ω in watts
B.T.ω 60 in watts
C.T.ω 75 in kilowatts
D.T.ω 4500 in kilowatts
Answer: A
230. According to Lami’s theorem
A.The three forces must be equal
B.The three forces must be at 120° to each other
C.The three forces must be in equilibrium
D.If the three forces acting at a point are in equilibrium, then each force is proportional to the sine of the
angle between the other two
Answer: D
231. Which of the following is not the unit of work, energy and heat?
A.kcal
B.kg-m
C.kW-hr
D.h.p
Answer: D
232. If the masses of both the bodies, as shown in the below figure, are doubled, then the
acceleration in the string will be
A.Same
B.Half
C.Double
D.None of these
Answer: A
233. If a body is acted upon by a number of coplanar non-concurrent forces, it may
A.Rotate about itself without moving
B.Move in any one direction rotating about itself
C.Be completely at rest
D.All of these
Answer: D
234. The moment of inertia of a square of sideA.about an axis through its center of gravity is
A.a4/4
B.a4/8
C.a4/12
D.a4/36
Answer: C
235. A projectile is fired at an angle ‘θ’ to the vertical. Its horizontal range will be maximum when
‘θ’ is
A.0°
B.30°
C.45°
D.60°
Answer: C
236. The time of flight of a projectile on downward inclined plane depends upon
A.Angle of projection
B.Angle of inclination of the plane
C.BothA.and (B)
D.None of these
Answer: C
237. Which of the following is not a scalar quantity?
A.Mass
B.Volume
C.Density
D.Acceleration
Answer: D
238. The overturning of a vehicle on a level circular path can be avoided if the velocity of vehicle is
__________ √(gra/h)
A.Less than
B.Greater than
C.Equal to
D.None of these
Answer: A
239. According to the law of moments, if a number of coplanar forces acting on a particle are in
equilibrium, then
A.Their algebraic sum is zero
B.Their lines of action are at equal distances
C.The algebraic sum of their moments about any point in their plane is zero
D.The algebraic sum of their moments about any point is equal to the moment of their resultant force
about the same point
Answer: C
240. When the spring of a watch is wound, it will possess
A.Strain energy
B.Kinetic energy
C.Heat energy
D.Electrical energy
Answer: A
241. The velocity ratio for the third system of pulleys is
A.n
B.n²
C.2n
D.2n – 1
Answer: D
242. Dynamic friction as compared to static friction is
A.Same
B.More
C.Less
D.May be less of more depending on nature of surfaces and velocity
Answer: C
243. Mass moment of inertia of a thin rod about its one end is ___________ the mass moment of
inertia of the same rod about its mid-point
A.Same as
B.Twice
C.Thrice
D.Four times
Answer: D
244. In the shown figure, if the angle of inclination of the plane is increased, then acceleration of the
system will
A.Increase
B.Decrease
C.Remain the same
D.None of these
Answer: B
245. An ideal machine is one whose efficiency is
A.Between 60 and 70 %
B.Between 70 and 80%
C.Between 80 and 90%
D.100%
Answer: D
246. If a number of forces are acting at a point, their resultant is given by
A. ∑V ∑H
B.√[ ∑V ∑H ]
C. ∑V ∑H ∑V ∑H
D.√[ ∑V ∑H ∑V ∑H ]
Answer: B
247. The force applied on a body of mass 100 kg to produce an acceleration of 5 m/s2, is
A.20 N
B.100 N
C.500 N
D.None of these
Answer: C
248. Which of the following is not the unit of pressure?
A.kg/cm
B.Bar
C.Atmosphere
D.Newton
Answer: D
249. The maximum frictional force, which comes into play, when a body just begins to slide over the
surface of the other body, is known as
A.Static friction
B.Dynamic friction
C.Limiting friction
D.Coefficient of friction
Answer: C
250. The principle of transmissibility of forces states that, when a force acts upon a body, its effect
is
A.Same at every point on its line of action
B.Different at different points on its line of action
C.Minimum, if it acts at the center of gravity of the body
D.Maximum, if it acts at the center of gravity of the body
Answer: C
251. In a screw jack, the effort required to lift the load is given by (where W = Load lifted, α = Helix
angle, and φ = Angle of friction.)
A.P = W tan α – φ
B.P = W tan α φ
C.P = W tan φ – α
D.P = W cos α φ
Answer: B 12.
252. The moment of inertia of a thin disc of mass ‘m’ and radius ‘r’, about an axis through its
center of gravity and perpendicular to the plane of the disc is
A.mr2/2
B.mr2/4
C.mr2/6
D.mr2/8
Answer: A
253. If a rigid body is in equilibrium under the action of three forces, then
A.These forces are equal
B.The lines of action of these forces meet in a point
C.The lines of action of these forces are parallel
D.BothB.andC.above
Answer: D
254. The matter contained in a body, is called
A.Impulsive force
B.Mass
C.Weight
D.Momentum
Answer: B
255. Moment of inertia is the
A.Second moment of force
B.Second moment of area
C.Second moment of mass
D.All of these
Answer: D
256. Joule is the unit of
A.Force
B.Work
C.Power
D.Velocity
Answer: B
257. The coefficient of friction depends on
A.Area of contact
B.Shape of surfaces
C.Strength of surfaces
D.Nature of surface
Answer: D
258. In a framed structure, as shown in the below figure, the force in the member AB is __________
the force in member AC.
A.Half
B.Equal to
C.Double
D.None of these
Answer: A
259. The velocity ratio of a single purchase crab winch can be increased by
A.Increasing the length of the handle
B.Increasing the radius of the load drum
C.Increasing the number of teeth of the pinion
D.All of the above
Answer: A
260. Two balls of equal mass and of perfectly elastic material are lying on the floor. One of the balls
with velocity ‘v’ is made to strike the second ball. Both the balls after impact will move with a
velocity
A.v
B.v/2
C.v/4
D.v/8
Answer: B
261. Moment of inertia of a circular section about an axis perpendicular to the section is
A.πd3 6
B.πd3 3
C.πd4 3
D.πd4 64
Answer: C
262. A redundant frame is also called __________ frame.
A.Perfect
B.Imperfect
C.Deficient
D.None of these
Answer: B
263. Tension in the cable supporting a lift is more when the lift is moving __________ with an
acceleration.
A.Upwards
B.Downwards
C.Horizontal
D.None of these
Answer: A
264. The unit of work in S.I. units is
A.Newton
B.erg
C.kg-m
D.joule
Answer: D
265. If the gravitational acceleration at any place is doubled, then the weight of a body will be
A.g/2
B.g
C.√ .g
D.2g
Answer: D
266. The moment of inertia of a sphere of mass ‘m’ and radius ‘r’, about an axis tangential to it, is
A.2mr2/3
B.2mr2/5
C.7mr2/3
D.7mr2/5
Answer: D
267. The center of gravity of a quadrant of a circle lies along its central radius (r) at a distance of
A.0.5 r
B.0.6 r
C.0.7 r
D.0.8 r
Answer: B
268. The unit of moment of inertia of an area is
A.kg-m2
B.kg-m-s2
C.kg/m2
D.m4
Answer: D
269. When a body of mass moment of inertia ‘I’ (about a given axis) is rotated about that axis with
an angular velocity to, then the kinetic energy of rotation is
A. ω
B. ω
C.0.5 ω
D.0.5 ω
Answer: D
270. In a single threaded worm and worm wheel, the number of teeth on the worm is 50. The
diameter of the effort wheel is 100 mm and that of load drum is 50 mm. The velocity ratio is
A.50
B.100
C.200
D.400
Answer: B
271. One joule is equal to
A.0.1 N-m
B.1 N-m
C.10 N-m
D.100 N-m
Answer: B
272. A differential pulley block has larger and smaller diameters of 100 mm and 80 mm
respectively. Its velocity ratio is
A.5
B.10
C.20
D.40
Answer: B
273. A body will begin to move down an inclined plane if the angle of inclination of the plane is
_________ the angle of friction.
A.Equal to
B.Less than
C.Greater than
D.None of these
Answer: C
274. The friction experienced by a body, when in motion, is known as
A.Rolling friction
B.Dynamic friction
C.Limiting friction
D.Static friction
Answer: B
275. Mass moment of inertia of a uniform thin rod of mass M and length (l) about its mid-point and
perpendicular to its length is
A.(2/3) Ml²
B.(1/3) Ml²
C.(3/4) Ml²
D.(1/12) Ml²
Answer: D
276. If a given force (or a given system of forces) acting on a body __________ the position of the
body, but keeps it in equilibrium, then its effect is to produce internal stress in the body.
A.Change
B.Does not change
C.Changes periodically
D.None of these
Answer: B
277. One end of a helical spring is fixed while the other end carries the load W which moves with
simple harmonic motion. The frequency of motion is given by (where δ = Deflection of the spring.)
A. π. √ g δ
B. π. √ g δ
C. π. √ δ g
D. π. √ δ g
Answer: B
278. If tension in the cable supporting a lift moving downwards is half the tension when it is moving
upwards, the acceleration of the lift is
A.g/2
B.g/3
C.g/4
D.None of these
Answer: D
279. The friction experienced by a body, when at rest, is known as
A.Static friction
B.Dynamic friction
C.Limiting friction
D.Coefficient of friction
Answer: A
280. The unit of force in S.I. system of units is
A.Dyne
B.Kilogram
C.Newton
D.Watt
Answer: C
281. One kg force is equal to
A.7.8 N
B.8.9 N
C.9.8 N
D.12 N
Answer: C
282. The resultant of the two forces ‘P’ and ‘Q’ is ‘R’. If ‘Q’ is doubled, the new resultant is
perpendicular to ‘P’. Then
A.P = Q
B.Q = R
C.Q = 2R
D.None of these
Answer: B
283. The amplitude is always __________ radius of the circle.
A.Equal to
B.Less than
C.Greater than
D.None of these
Answer: A
284. The moment of the force ‘P’ about ‘O’ as shown in the below figure is
A.P × OA
B.P × OB
C.P × OC
D.P × AC
Answer: C
285. The process of finding out the resultant force is called __________ of forces.
A.Composition
B.Resolution
C.Decomposition
D.None of these
Answer: A
286. Which of the following is an equation of linear motion?(where, u and v = Initial and final
velocity of the body, a = Acceleration of the body, and s = Displacement of the body in time t
seconds.)
A.v = u + a.t
B.s = u.t + ½ a.t2
C.v2 = u2 + 2a.s
D.All of these
Answer: D
287. Moment of inertia of a hollow circular section, as shown in the below figure about X-axis, is
A.π 6 D – d²)
B.π 6 D³ – d³)
C.π 3 D⁴ – d⁴
D.π 64 D⁴ – d⁴
Answer: D
288. The forces which do not meet at one point and their lines of action do not lie on the same plane
are known as
A.Coplanar concurrent forces
B.Coplanar non-concurrent forces
C.Non-coplanar concurrent forces
D.None of these
Answer: D
289. Concurrent forces are those forces whose lines of action
A.Lie on the same line
B.Meet at one point
C.Meet on the same plane
D.None of these
Answer: B
290. The moment of inertia of a solid cylinder of mass ‘m’, radius ‘r’ and length ‘l’ about the
longitudinal axis or polar axis is
A.mr2/2
B.mr2/4
C.mr2/6
D.mr2/8
Answer: A
291. According to parallel axis theorem, the moment of inertia of a section about an axis parallel to
the axis through center of gravity (i.e. IP) is given by(where, A = Area of the section, IG = Moment
of inertia of the section about an axis passing through its C.G., and h = Distance between C.G. and
the parallel axis.)
A.IP = IG + Ah2
B.IP = IG – Ah2
C.IP = IG / Ah2
D.IP = Ah2 / IG
Answer: A
291. The law of the machine is (where P = Effort applied to lift the load, m = A constant which is
equal to the slope of the line, W = Load lifted, and C = Another constant which represents the
machine friction.)
A.P = mW – C
B.P = m/W + C
C.P = mW + C
D.P = C – mW
Answer: C
292. The wheels of a moving car possess
A.Potential energy only
B.Kinetic energy of translation only
C.Kinetic energy of rotation only
D.Kinetic energy of translation and rotation both
Answer: D
293. The resultant of two equal forces ‘P’ making an angle ‘θ’, is given by
A. P sin
B. P cos
C. P tan
D. P cot
Answer: B
294. The coefficient of restitution for inelastic bodies is
A.Zero
B.One
C.Between zero and one
D.More than one
Answer: A
295. If a number of forces are acting at a point, their resultant will be inclined at an angle ‘θ’ with
the horizontal, such that
A.tan = ΣH ΣV
B.tan = ΣV ΣH
C.tan = ΣV × ΣH
D.tan = √ ΣV ΣH
Answer: B
296. The periodic time of a particle with simple harmonic motion is _________ proportional to the
angular velocity.
A.Directly
B.Inversely
C.Square root
D.None of these
Answer: B
297. The efficiency of a screw jack is maximum, when (where α = Helix angle, and φ = Angle of
friction.)
A.α = 45° φ
B.α = 45° – φ
C.α = 90° φ
D.α = 90° – φ
Answer: B
298. The total motion possessed by a body, is called
A.Impulsive force
B.Mass
C.Weight
D.Momentum
Answer: D
299. A screw jack used for lifting the loads is
A.A reversible machine
B.A non-reversible machine
C.An ideal machine
D.None of these
Answer: B
300. If u1 and u2 are the velocities of two moving bodies in the same direction before impact and v1
and v2 are their velocities after impact, then coefficient of restitution is given by
A.(v1 – v2)/(u1 – u2)
B. v₂ – v₁ u – u2)
C.(u1 – u2)/(v1 – v2)
D. u₂ u₁ v₂ v₁
Answer: B
301. Work done is said to be zero, when
A.Some force acts on a body, but displacement is zero
B.No force acts on a body but some displacement takes place
C.EitherA.or (B)
D.None of the above
Answer: C
302. The range of projectile on a downward inclined plane is ________ the range on upward
inclined plane for the same velocity of projection and angle of projection.
A.Less than
B.More than
C.Equal to
D.None of These
Answer: B
303. The point, through which the whole weight of the body acts, irrespective of its position, is
known as
A.Moment of inertia
B.Center of gravity
C.Center of percussion
D.Center of mass
Answer: B
304. The total energy possessed by a system of moving bodies
A.Is constant at every instant
B.Varies from point to point
C.Is maximum in the start and minimum at the end
D.Is minimum in the start and maximum at the end
Answer: A
305. The acceleration of a body sliding down an inclined surface is
A.g sin
B.g cos
C.g tan
D.None of these
Answer: A
306. A force while acting on a body may
A.Change its motion
B.Balance the forces, already acting on it
C.Give rise to the internal stresses in it
D.All of these
Answer: D
307. A machine having an efficiency less than 50%, is known as
A.Reversible machine
B.Non-reversible machine
C.Neither reversible nor non-reversible machine
D.Ideal machine
Answer: B
308. Static friction is always __________ dynamic friction.
A.Equal to
B.Less than
C.Greater than
D.None of these
Answer: C
309. In the shown figure, the tension (T) in the string will be
A.m₁. m₂. g m₁ m₂
B. m₁. m₂. g m₁ m₂
C. m₁ m₂ m₁. m₂. g
D. m₁ m₂ m₁. m₂. g
Answer: B
310. A body of weight ‘W’ is required to move up on rough inclined plane whose angle of
inclination with the horizontal is ‘α’. The effort applied parallel to the plane is given by (where μ =
tanφ = Coefficient of friction between the plane and the body.)
A.P = W tanα
B.P = W tan α φ
C.P = W sinα μcosα
D.P = W cosα μsinα
Answer: C
311. A smooth cylinder lying on a __________ is in neutral equilibrium.
A.Curved surface
B.Convex surface
C.Horizontal surface
D.None of these
Answer: C
312. The unit of energy in S.I. units is
A.Dyne
B.Watt
C.kg-m
D.Joule
Answer: D
313. A ladder is resting on a rough ground and leaning against a smooth vertical wall. The force of
friction will act
A.Downward at its upper end
B.Upward at its upper end
C.Zero at its upper end
D.Perpendicular to the wall at its upper end
Answer: C
314. The periodic time of one oscillation for a simple pendulum is (where l = Length of the
pendulum.)
A. π .√ lg
B. π.√ gl
C. π. √ l g
D.None of these
Answer: C
315. The total momentum of a system of masses (i. e. moving bodies) in any one direction remains
constant, unless acted upon by an external force in that direction. This statement is called
A.Newton’s first law of motion
B.Newton’s second law of motion
C.Principle of conservation of energy
D.Principle of conservation of momentum
Answer: D
316. The moment of inertia of a thin spherical shell of mass m and radius r, about its diameter is
A.mr2/3
B.2mr2/3
C.2mr2/5
D.3mr2/5
Answer: B
317. The moment of inertia of a solid cone of mass ‘m’ and base radius ‘r’ about its vertical axis is
A.3mr2/5
B.3mr2/10
C.2mr2/5
D.4mr2/5
Answer: B
318. If the resultant of two equal forces has the same magnitude as either of the forces, then the
angle between the two forces is
A.30°
B.60°
C.90°
D.120°
Answer: D
319. In actual machines, mechanical advantage is _________ velocity ratio.
A.Equal to
B.Less than
C.Greater than
D.None of these
Answer: B
320. The moment of inertia of a solid sphere of mass ‘m’ and radius ‘r’ is
A.2mr2/3
B.2mr2/5
C.mr2
D.mr2/2
Answer: B
321. Moment of inertia of a rectangular section having widthB.and depthD.about an axis passing
through its C.G. and parallel to the depth (d), is
A.db³/12
B.bd³/12
C.db³/36
D.bd³/36
Answer: A
322. The unit of power in S.I. units is
A.Horsepower
B.Joule
C.Watt
D.kg-m
Answer: C
323. The maximum height of a projectile on a horizontal plane, is
A.u sin α g
B.u cos α g
C.u sin α g
D.u cos α g
Answer: A
324. One watt is equal to
A.0.1 joule/s
B.1 joule/s
C.10 joules/s
D.100 joules/s
Answer: B
325. The moment of inertia of a square of side a about its diagonal is
A.a2/8
B.a3/12
C.a4/12
D.a4/16
Answer: C
326. The maximum acceleration of a particle moving with simple harmonic motion is
A.ω
B.ωr
C.ω r
D.ω r
Answer: C
327. The rate of change of displacement of a body is called
A.Velocity
B.Acceleration
C.Momentum
D.None of these
Answer: A
328. The maximum mechanical advantage of a lifting machine is
A.1 + m
B.1 – m
C.1 / m
D.m
Answer: C
500+ MCQs on Steam Boilers, Engines, Nozzles and Turbines
Posted on April 16, 2024 by engineer2 Comments
Steam Boilers, Engines, Nozzles and Turbines Multiple Choice Questions
1. The maximum heat loss is a boiler occurs due to
A. Moisture in fuel
B. Dry flue gases
C. Steam formation
D. Unburnt carbon
Answer: B
2. A single stage impulse turbine with a diameter of 1.2 m runs at 3000 r.p.m. If the blade speed
ratio is 0.42, then the inlet velocity of steam will be
A. 79 m/s
B. 188 m/s
C. 450 m/s
D. 900 m/s
Answer: C
3. The actual vacuum in a condenser is equal to
A. Barometric pressure + actual pressure
B. Barometric pressure – actual pressure
C. Gauge pressure + atmospheric pressure
D. Gauge pressure – atmospheric pressure
Answer: B
4. Steam turbines are used for
A. Large marine propulsion
B. Electric power generation
C. Direct drive of fans, compressors, pumps
D. All of these
Answer: D
5. Locomotive boiler is of the following type
A. Multi tubular
B. Horizontal
C. Internally fired
D. All of the above
Answer: D
6. It is required to produce large amount of steam at low pressure. Which boiler should be used?
A. Pulverized fuel fired boiler
B. Cochran boiler
C. Lancashire boiler
D. Babcock and Wilcox boiler
Answer: C
7. Reheating of steam in a turbine
A. Increases the work-done through the turbine
B. Increases the efficiency of the turbine
C. Reduces wear on the blades
D. All of these
Answer: D
8. The ratio of heat actually used in producing the steam to the heat liberated in the furnace, is
known as
A. Equivalent evaporation
B. Factor of evaporation
C. Boiler efficiency
D. Power of a boiler
Answer: C
9. In designing air preheaters, the important design consideration is that
A. Approach temperature should be as low as possible
B. Handling and maintenance should be easier
C. Heat transfer area should be optimum
D. Stack gases should not be cooled to the dew point
Answer: D
10. A steam nozzle converts
A. Heat energy of steam into kinetic energy
B. Kinetic energy into heat energy of steam
C. Heat energy of steam into potential energy
D. Potential energy into heat energy of steam
Answer: A
11. The number of water level indicators in a boiler are generally __________ in number.
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
Answer: B
12. The maximum discharge through a chimney occurs when the height of chimney is
A. Infinitely long
B. Around 200 meters
C. Equal to the height of the hot gas column producing draught
D. Outside temperature is very low
Answer: C
13. The factor of evaporation for all boilers is always
A. Equal to unity
B. Less than unity
C. Greater than unity
D. None of these
Answer: C
14. Water and sediment in fuel oil can be removed by
A. Heating the oil in the settling tanks
B. Cooling the oil in the settling tanks
C. Burning the oil
D. Suspension
Answer: B
15. For a Parson’s reaction turbine, if α₁ and α₂ are fixed blade angles at inlet and exit respectively
and β₁ and β₂ are the moving blade angles at entrance and exit respectively, then
A. α₁ = α₂ and β₁ = β₂
B. α₁ = β₁ and α₂= β₂
C. α₁ < β₁ and α₂ > β₂
D. α₁ = β₂ and β₁ = α₂
Answer: B
16. In a reaction turbine when the degree of reaction is zero, then there is
A. No heat drop in moving blades
B. No heat drop in fixed blades
C. Maximum heat drop in moving blades
D. Maximum heat drop in fixed blades
Answer: A
17. A vessel into which the steam is exhausted and condensed after doing work in an engine
cylinder or turbine is known as
A. Steam condenser
B. Steam boiler
C. Steam preheater
D. Economiser
Answer: A
18. The capacity of induced draft fan compared to forced draft fan in a boiler is
A. Same
B. More
C. Less
D. Less or more depending on size of boiler
Answer: B
19. The expansion of steam in a nozzle follows
A. Carnot cycle
B. Rankine cycle
C. Joule cycle
D. Stirling cycle
Answer: B
20. Which of the following compound steam engine requires a smaller flywheel?
A. Receiver type
B. Tandem type
C. Woolf type
D. All of these
Answer: A
21. The feed check valve is used in order to
A. Regulate flow of boiler water
B. Check level of water in boiler drum
C. Recirculate unwanted feed water
D. Allow high pressure feed water to flow to drum and not allow reverse flow to take place
Answer: D
22. The discharge of steam in a convergent-divergent nozzle __________ after the throat (i.e. in the
divergent portion of the nozzle)
A. Remains constant
B. Decreases
C. Increases
D. None of these
Answer: A
23. An economiser _________ the steam raising capacity of a boiler.
A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Has no effect on
D. None of these
Answer: A
24. 1 kg.m is equal to
A. 9.81 Joules
B. 102 Joules
C. 427 Joules
D. None of these
Answer: A
25. When the back pressure of a nozzle is below the designed value of pressure at exit of nozzle, the
nozzle is said to be
A. Choked
B. Under-damping
C. Over-damping
D. None of these
Answer: B
26. The aim of a compound steam engine is
A. To reduce the ratio of expansion in each cylinder
B. To reduce the length of stroke
C. To reduce the temperature range in each cylinder
D. All of the above
Answer: D
27. At critical point, i.e. p=225.65 kg/cm², the latent enthalpy of vaporisation is
A. Maximum
B. Minimum
C. Zero
D. Depends on temperature also
Answer: C
28. Parson’s reaction turbine is a __________ reaction turbine.
A. 40 percent
B. 50 percent
C. 60 percent
D. 70 percent
Answer: B
29. A compound steam engine in which the high pressure and low pressure cylinders have common
piston rod, is called
A. Receiver type compound engine
B. Tandem type compound engine
C. Woolf type compound engine
D. None of these
Answer: B
30. Lancashire boiler is a
A. Stationary fire tube boiler
B. Stationary water tube boiler
C. Water tube boiler with natural/forced circulation
D. Mobile fire tube boiler
Answer: A
31. In a reaction turbine, when steam flows through the fixed blades,
A. Pressure increases while velocity decreases
B. Pressure decreases while velocity increases
C. Pressure and velocity both decreases
D. Pressure and velocity both increases
Answer: B
32. The relative efficiency is defined as the
A. Ratio of thermal efficiency to Rankine efficiency
B. Ratio of brake power to the indicated power
C. Ratio of heat equivalent to indicated power to the energy supplied in steam
D. Product of thermal efficiency and Rankine efficiency
Answer: A
33. Which of the following is a fire tube boiler?
A. Locomotive boiler
B. Babcock and Wilcox boiler
C. Stirling boiler
D. All of the above
Answer: A
34. The purpose of governing in steam turbines is to
A. Maintain the speed of the turbine
B. Reduce the effective heat drop
C. Reheat the steam and improve its quality
D. Completely balance against end thrust
Answer: A
35. The performance of a boiler is measured by the
A. Amount of water evaporated per hour
B. Steam produced in kg/h
C. Steam produced in kg/kg of fuel burnt
D. All of these
Answer: D
36. Which of the following boilers is best suited to meet fluctuating demands?
A. Babcock and Wilcox
B. Locomotive
C. Lancashire
D. Cochran
Answer: B
37. The ratio of the work-done on the blades per kg of steam to the total energy supplied per stage
per kg of steam is called
A. Blading efficiency
B. Nozzle efficiency
C. Stage efficiency
D. Mechanical efficiency
Answer: C
38. The artificial draught is produced by
A. Steam jet
B. Centrifugal fan
C. Chimney
D. BothA. andB.
Answer: D
39. With increase in load, radiant superheater has
A. Drooping characteristic
B. Linear characteristic
C. Rising characteristic
D. Flat characteristic
Answer: A
40. In a 50% reaction turbine stage, tangential component of absolute velocity at rotor inlet is 537
m/s and the blade velocity is 454 m/s. The power output in kW of steam will be
A. 260 kW
B. 282 kW
C. 296 kW
D. 302 kW
Answer: B
41. Which of the following statement indicates the difference between Cornish boiler and
Lancashire boiler?
A. Cornish boiler is a water tube boiler whereas Lancashire boiler is a fire tube boiler
B. Cornish boiler is a fire tube boiler whereas Lancashire boiler is a water tube boiler
C. Cornish boiler has one flue tube whereas Lancashire boiler has two flue tubes
D. Cornish boiler has two flue tubes whereas Lancashire boiler has one flue tube
Answer: C
42. Primary air is the air used to
A. Provide air around burners for obtaining optimum combustion
B. Transport and dry the coal
C. Convert CO formed in lower zone of furnace into CO₂ at higher zone
D. Air delivered by forced draft fan
Answer: B
43. In an ideal impulse turbine, the
A. Absolute velocity at the inlet of moving blade is equal to that at the outlet
B. Relative velocity at the inlet of the moving blade is equal to that at the outlet
C. Axial velocity at inlet is equal to that at the outlet
D. Whirl velocity at inlet is equal to that at the outlet
Answer: B
44. A throttle governed steam engine develops 15 kW with 280 kg per hour of steam and 35 kW
with 520 kg per hour of steam. The steam consumption in kg per hour when developing 20 kW will
be nearly
A. 150 kg/h
B. 210 kg/h
C. 280 kg/h
D. 340 kg/h
Answer: D
45. Gradually increasing temperature of flue gases at inlet to chimney for given steam outputs is an
indication of
A. Higher effectiveness of boiler
B. High calorific value coal being burnt
C. Fouling of heat transfer surfaces
D. Raising of steam temperature
Answer: C
46. The critical pressure ratio for initially superheated steam is __________ as compared to initially
dry saturated steam.
A. More
B. Less
C. Same
D. None of these
Answer: B
47. A condenser in a steam power plant
A. Increases expansion ratio of steam
B. Reduces back pressure of steam
C. Reduces temperature of exhaust steam
D. All of these
Answer: D
48. An impulse turbine as compared to a reaction turbine, for a given power has _________ row of
blades.
A. Equal
B. Less
C. More
D. None of these
Answer: C
49. For maximum discharge through a chimney, the condition is that height of hot gas column
producing the draught should be
A. One-half the height of chimney
B. Equal to the height of chimney
C. Two times the height of chimney
D. Four times the height of chimney
Answer: B
50. The steam temperature with increase in load in case of a boiler fitted with radiation superheater
A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Remain unaffected
D. First increases and then decreases
Answer: B
51. The rate of discharge through the nozzle __________ when the exit pressure is gradually
reduced.
A. Remains same
B. Decreases
C. Increases
D. None of these
Answer: C
52. The object of producing draught in a boiler is
A. To provide an adequate supply of air for the fuel combustion
B. To exhaust the gases of combustion from the combustion chamber
C. To discharge the gases of combustion to the atmosphere through the chimney
D. All of the above
Answer: D
53. Feed water conditioning in thermal power plants in done to
A. Reduce hardness and for removal of solids
B. Increase efficiency of thermal power plant
C. Increase heat transfer rate
D. Increase steam parameters
Answer: A
54. A regenerative steam cycle renders
A. Increased work output per unit mass of steam
B. Decreased work output per unit mass of steam
C. Increased thermal efficiency
D. Decreased work output per unit mass of steam as well as increased thermal efficiency
Answer: D
55. The fire tubes in a Cochran boiler are
A. Horizontal
B. Vertical
C. Inclined
D. None of these
Answer: A
56. For water, at pressures below atmospheric;
A. Melting point rises slightly and boiling point drops markedly
B. Melting point rises markedly and boiling point drops markedly
C. Melting point drops slightly and boiling point drops markedly
D. Melting point drops slightly and boiling point drops slightly
Answer: A
57. The action of steam in a steam turbine is
A. Static
B. Dynamic
C. Static and dynamic
D. Neither static nor dynamic
Answer: B
58. The efficiency of the plant __________ with the mechanical draught.
A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Remains constant
D. None of these
Answer: A
59. The latent heat of steam with increase of pressure
A. Remain same
B. Increases
C. Decreases
D. Behaves unpredictably
Answer: C
60. When the cross-section of a nozzle increases continuously from entrance to exit, it is called a
A. Divergent nozzle
B. Convergent nozzle
C. Convergent-divergent nozzle
D. None of these
Answer: A
61. The equivalent evaporation is defined as
A. The ratio of heat actually used in producing the steam to the heat liberated in the furnace
B. The amount of water evaporated or steam produced in kg per kg of fuel burnt
C. The amount of water evaporated from and at 100°C into dry and saturated steam
D. The evaporation of 15.653 kg of water per hour from and at 100°C
Answer: C
62. Steam engine operates on
A. Carnot cycle
B. Joule cycle
C. Stirling cycle
D. Brayton cycle
Answer: D
63. De-Laval turbines are mostly used
A. Where low speeds are required
B. For small power purposes and low speeds
C. For large power purposes
D. For small power purposes and high speeds
Answer: D
64. In a Tandem type compound engine, the high pressure and low pressure cylinders
A. Have common piston rod
B. Are set at 90°
C. Have separate piston rods
D. Are set in V-arrangement
Answer: A
65. Pick up the correct statement as regards Cornish boiler and Lancashire boiler
A. Cornish is fire tube and Lancashire is water tube
B. Cornish is water tube and Lancashire is fire tube
C. Cornish has two fire tubes and Lancashire has one
D. Lancashire has two fire tubes and Cornish has one
Answer: D
66. Blading efficiency is also known as
A. Stage efficiency
B. Diagram efficiency
C. Nozzle efficiency
D. None of these
Answer: B
67. In a single acting steam engine
A. The steam is admitted on one side of the piston and one working stroke is produced during each
revolution of the crankshaft
B. The steam is admitted, in turn, on both sides of the piston and one working stroke is produced during
each revolution of the crankshaft
C. The steam is admitted on one side of the piston and two working strokes are produced during each
revolution of the crankshaft
D. The steam is admitted, in turn, on both sides of the piston and two working strokes are produced
during each revolution of the crankshaft
Answer: A
68. Boiler H.P. is defined as the
A. Steam evaporation rate per kg of fuel fired
B. Work done in evaporating 1 kg of steam per hour from and at 100°C into dry saturated steam
C. The evaporation of 15.65 kg of water per hour from and at 100°C into dry saturated steam
D. Work done by 1 kg of steam at saturation condition
Answer: C
69. Steam turbines may be classified according to
A. Direction of steam flow
B. Number of stages
C. Mode of steam action
D. All of these
Answer: D
70. The fire tubes in a Locomotive boiler has __________ diameter.
A. 4.75 mm
B. 5.47 mm
C. 7.45 mm
D. 47.5 mm
Answer: D
71. The safety valve at superheater as compared to drum safety valve setting is set at
A. Higher value
B. Lower value
C. Same value
D. Any value
Answer: B
72. In a compound steam engine, the first stage of expansion is carried out in a high pressure
cylinder whereas the last expansion is completed in low pressure cylinder. The diameter of high
pressure cylinder is _________ the low pressure cylinder.
A. Equal to
B. Less than
C. More than
D. None of these
Answer: B
73. For combustion of a fuel, following is essential
A. Correct fuel air ratio
B. Proper ignition temperature
C. O₂ to support com ustion
D. All the three above
Answer: D
74. In an impulse reaction turbine, the pressure drops gradually and continuously over
A. Fixed blades
B. Moving blades
C. Both fixed and moving blades
D. None of these
Answer: C
75. The efficiency of a boiler is defined as
A. Ratio of heat actually used in producing steam to the heat liberated in the furnace
B. Ratio of the mass of steam produced to the mass of total water supplied in a given time
C. Ratio of the heat liberated in the furnace to the heat actually used in producing steam
D. None of the above
Answer: A
76. The pressure compounded impulse turbine as compared to velocity compounded turbine
require __________ number of stages.
A. Same
B. Less
C. More
D. None of these
Answer: C
77. The safety valve on boiler drum compared to safety valve on superheater is set at
A. Same value
B. Higher value
C. Lower value
D. Lower/higher depending on steam flow
Answer: B
78. Degree of reaction is defined as the ratio of
A. Heat drop in fixed blades to the heat drop in moving blades
B. Heat drop in moving blades to the heat drop in fixed blades
C. Heat drop in moving blades to the heat drop in fixed blades plus heat drop in moving blades
D. Heat drop in fixed blades plus heat drop in moving blades to the heat drop in moving blades
Answer: C
79. Which of the following statement is correct?
A. A horizontal steam engine requires less floor area than a vertical steam engine
B. The steam pressure in the cylinder is not allowed to fall below the atmospheric pressure
C. The compound steam engines are generally non-condensing steam engines
D. All of the above
Answer: B
80. A nozzle is said to be a convergent nozzle
A. When the cross-section of the nozzle increases continuously from entrance to exit
B. When the cross-section of the nozzle decreases continuously from entrance to exit
C. When the cross-section of the nozzle first decreases from entrance to throat and then increases from its
throat to exit
D. None of the above
Answer: B
81. Which of the following statement is wrong?
A. Locomotive boiler is a water tube boiler
B. Water tube boilers are internally fired
C. Lamont boiler is a low pressure water tube boiler
D. All of the above
Answer: D
82. Film boiling occurs at
A. Very low pressure
B. Atmospheric pressures
C. Medium pressures
D. Very high pressures
Answer: D
83. The discharge is __________ at critical pressure.
A. Zero
B. Minimum
C. Maximum
D. None of these
Answer: C
84. An air preheater is installed
A. Before the economiser
B. Before the superheater
C. Between the economiser and chimney
D. None of these
Answer: D
85. Coke is produced by
A. Pulverizing coal in inert atmosphere
B. Heating wood in a limited supply of air at temperatures below 300°C
C. Strongly heating coal continuously for about 48 hours in the absence of air in a closed vessel
D. Enriching carbon in the coal
Answer: C
86. The variation of steam pressure in the nozzle depends upon
A. Velocity of steam
B. Specific volume of steam
C. Dryness fraction of steam
D. All of these
Answer: D
87. A safety valve mainly used with locomotive and marine boilers is
A. Lever safety valve
B. Dead weight safety valve
C. High steam and low water safety valve
D. Spring loaded safety valve
Answer: D
88. In a throttling process
A. Steam temperature remains constant
B. Steam pressure remains constant
C. Steam enthalpy remains constant
D. Steam entropy remains constant
Answer: C
89. De-Laval turbine is a
A. Simple impulse turbine
B. Simple reaction turbine
C. Impulse-reaction turbine
D. None of these
Answer: A
90. When steam after doing work in the cylinder passes into a condenser, the engine is said to be a
A. Slow speed engine
B. Vertical steam engine
C. Condensing steam engine
D. Non-condensing steam engine
Answer: C
91. Efficiency of Rankine cycle can be increased by
A. Decreasing initial steam pressure and temperature
B. Increasing exhaust pressure
C. Decreasing exhausts pressure
D. Increasing the expansion ratio
Answer: A
92. In an impulse turbine
A. The steam is expanded in nozzles only and there is a pressure drop and heat drop
B. The steam is expanded both in fixed and moving blades continuously
C. The steam is expanded in moving blades only
D. The pressure and temperature of steam remains constant
Answer: A
93. For the same diameter and thickness of tube, a water tube boiler has ________ heating surface
as compared to fire tube boiler.
A. More
B. Less
C. Equal
D. None of these
Answer: A
94. Which of the following is a water tube boiler?
A. Locomotive boiler
B. Cochran boiler
C. Cornish boiler
D. Babcock and Wilcox boiler
Answer: D
95. In a reaction turbine
A. The steam is allowed to expand in the nozzle, where it gives a high velocity before it enters the moving
blades
B. The expansion of steam takes place partly in the fixed blades and partly in the moving blades
C. The steam is expanded from a high pressure to a condenser pressure in one or more nozzles
D. The pressure and temperature of steam remains constant
Answer: B
96. The selection of type and size of a steam boiler depends upon
A. The power required and working pressure
B. The geographical position of the power house
C. The fuel and water available
D. All of the above
Answer: D
97. In natural circulation type boiler,
A. Heating takes place at bottom and the water supplied at bottom gets converted into the mixture of
steam bubbles and hot water which rise to drum
B. Water is supplied in drum and through down comers located in atmospheric condition it passes to the
water wall and rises to drum in the form of mixture of water and steam
C. Feed pump is employed to supplement natural circulation in water wall type furnace
D. Water is converted into steam in one. Pass without any recirculation
Answer: A
98. The maximum efficiency of a De-Laval turbine is (where α = Nozzle angle)
A. sin α
B. cos α
C. tan α
D. cot α
Answer: B
99. A _________ in a boiler is used to put off fire in the furnace of the boiler when the level of water
in the boiler falls to an unsafe limit.
A. Blow off cock
B. Fusible plug
C. Stop valve
D. Safety valve
Answer: B
100. The ratio of heat utilized to produce steam and the heat liberated in furnace is known as
A. Boiler effectiveness
B. Boiler evaporative capacity
C. Factor of evaporation
D. Boiler efficiency
Answer: D
101. The blade friction in the impulse turbine reduces the velocity of steam by __________ while it
passes over the blades.
A. 10 to 15%
B. 15 to 20%
C. 20 to 30%
D. 30 to 40%
Answer: A
102. For the same length of stroke and speed of crankshaft, the piston speed for a double acting
steam engine is _________ the piston speed of single acting steam engine.
A. Equal to
B. Twice
C. Three times
D. Four times
Answer: B
103. The height of chimney in a power plant is governed by
A. The draft to be created
B. Limitation of construction facilities
C. Control of pollution
D. Quantity of flue gases to be handled
Answer: C
104. In impulse turbines, when friction is neglected, the relative velocity of steam at outlet tip of the
blade is _________ the relative velocity of steam at inlet tip of the blade.
A. Equal to
B. Less than
C. Greater than
D. None of these
Answer: A
105. The fittings mounted on the boiler for its proper and safe functioning is a
A. Water level indicator
B. Pressure gauge
C. Safety valve
D. All of these
Answer: D
106. Presence of moisture in fuel oil would
A. Keep the burner tips cool
B. Aid in proper combustion
C. Because sputtering, possibly extinguishing flame
D. Clean the nozzles
Answer: C
107. In a steam condenser, the partial pressure of steam and air are 0.06 bar and 0.007 bar
respectively. The condenser pressure is
A. 0.007 bar
B. 0.053 bar
C. 0.06 bar
D. 0.067 bar
Answer: D
108. Which is not correct statement about effect of sulphur in fuel?
A. It has heating value
B. It helps in electrostatic precipitation of ash in flue gases
C. It leads to corrosion of air heaters, ducting, etc. if flue gas exit temperature is low
D. It erodes furnace walls
Answer: D
109. The isentropic enthalpy drop in moving blade is two-third of the isentropic enthalpy drop in
fixed blades of a turbine. The degree of reaction will be
A. 0.4
B. 0.56
C. 0.67
D. 1.67
Answer: A
110. A turbine is said to have an axial discharge when the steam leaves the blade tip at _________ to
the direction of the blade motion.
A. 60°
B. 90°
C. 180°
D. 270°
Answer: B
111. The principal function of a stop valve is to
A. Control the flow of steam from the boiler to the main pipe and to shut off the steam completely when
required
B. Empty the boiler when required and to discharge the mud, scale or sediments which are accumulated at
the bottom of the boiler
C. Put off fire in the furnace of the boiler when the level of water in the boiler falls to an unsafe limit
D. Increase the temperature of saturated steam without raising its pressure
Answer: A
112. Fire tube boilers are limited to a maximum design working pressure of
A. 1 kg/cm
B. 6 kg/cm
C. 17 kg/cm²
D. 100 kg/cm²
Answer: C
113. The critical pressure ratio (p₂/p₁) is given by
A. p₂ p₁ = [ n – 1)] n/(n + 1)
B. p₂ p₁ = [ n ] n n-1)
C. p₂ p₁ = [ n – 1)/2] n + (1/n)
D. p₂ p₁ = [ n ] n – (1/n)
Answer: B
114. Water tube boilers are
A. Internally fired
B. Externally fired
C. Internally as well as externally fired
D. None of these
Answer: B
115. The bituminous coal is no caking if its carbon content is
A. 78-81%
B. 81-85%
C. 85-90%
D. 90-95%
Answer: A
116. The flow through a nozzle is regarded as
A. Constant volume flow
B. Constant pressure flow
C. Isothermal flow
D. Isentropic flow
Answer: D
117. A device used to increase the temperature of saturated steam without raising its pressure, is
called
A. Blow off cock
B. Fusible plug
C. Superheater
D. Stop valve
Answer: C
118. Orsat meter is used for
A. Gravimetric analysis of the flue gases
B. Volumetric analysis of the flue gases
C. Mass flow of the flue gases
D. Measuring smoke density of flue gases
Answer: B
119. The Parsons’ reaction turbine has
A. Only moving blades
B. Only fixed blades
C. Identical fixed and moving blades
D. Fixed and moving blades of different shape
Answer: C
120. A single acting steam engine produces __________ power than that of double acting steam
engine.
A. Equal
B. Half
C. Double
D. Four times
Answer: B
121. Which of the following substance will have same percentage in both proximate and ultimate
analysis?
A. Ash
B. Volatile matter
C. Moisture
D. Hydrogen
Answer: A
122. The steam enters the nozzle at a
A. High pressure and a low velocity
B. High pressure and a high velocity
C. Low pressure and a low velocity
D. Low pressure and a high velocity
Answer: A
123. By compounding the expansion of steam in two or more cylinders, the length of stroke
A. Does not change
B. Increases
C. Decreases
D. None of these
Answer: C
124. The diameters of fire tubes and superheater tubes in locomotive boiler are
A. 47.5 mm, 130 mm
B. 32.5 mm, 180 mm
C. 65.5 mm, 210 mm
D. 24.5 mm, 65 mm
Answer: A
125. The effect of friction on the flow of steam through a nozzle is to
A. Decrease the mass flow rate and to increase the wetness of steam
B. Increase the mass flow rate and to increase the exit temperature
C. Decrease the mass flow rate and to decrease the wetness of steam
D. Increase the exit temperature without any effect on mass flow rate
Answer: C
126. Throttle governing of steam engines is a method of controlling the engine output by varying
A. Volume of intake steam
B. Pressure of intake steam
C. Temperature of intake steam
D. All of these
Answer: B
127. With increase in load, convection superheater has
A. Drooping characteristic
B. Linear characteristic
C. Rising characteristic
D. Flat characteristic
Answer: C
128. In order to reduce the rotor speed of an impulse turbine, the method employed is
A. Velocity compounding
B. Pressure compounding
C. Pressure-velocity compounding
D. All of these
Answer: D
129. In case of condensing steam engines, the pressure of steam in the cylinder during exhaust
stroke is _________ the atmospheric pressure.
A. Equal to
B. Lower than
C. Higher than
D. None of these
Answer: C
130. Ultimate analysis of fuel is determination of percentage of
A. Carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, sulphur, moisture
B. Fixed carbon, ash, volatile matter, moisture
C. Higher calorific value
D. Lower calorific value
Answer: A
131. Which of the following statement is correct?
A. The efficiency of steam turbines is greater than steam engines
B. A flywheel is a must for steam turbine
C. The turbine blades do not change the direction of steam issuing from the nozzle
D. The pressure of steam, in reaction turbines, is increased in fixed blades as well as in moving blades
Answer: A
132. By compounding the expansion of steam in two or more cylinders, the ratio of expansion
A. Does not change
B. Increases
C. Decreases
D. None of these
Answer: C
133. The proximate analysis of fuel lists
A. Various chemical constituents, carbon, hydrogen, oxygen etc, plus ash as percents by volume
B. Various chemical constituents, carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, etc, plus ash as percents by weight
C. Fuel constituents as percents by volume of moisture, volatile, fixed carbon and ash
D. Fuel constituents as percents by weight of moisture, volatile, fixed carbon and ash
Answer: D
134. A steam turbine, in which a part of the steam after partial expansion, is used for process
heating and the remaining steam is further expanded for power generation, is known as
A. Back pressure turbine
B. Pass out turbine
C. Low pressure turbine
D. Impulse turbine
Answer: B
135. Willian’s law states that the steam consumption per hour provided with a throttled governor is
proportional to (where I.P. = Indicated power)
A. 1/(I.P)
B. 1/(I.P)²
C. I.P.
D. (I.P.)²
Answer: C
136. Which is not the correct statement about moisture in coal?
A. Inherent moisture and surface moisture are different things
B. In some coals moisture may be present up to 40%
C. Some moisture in coal helps in better burning which is not possible with completely dry coal
D. It increases thermal efficiency
Answer: D
137. The friction present between the steam and the nozzle surfaces reduces the heat drop by
A. 10 to 15%
B. 15 to 25%
C. 25 to 40%
D. 40 to 60%
Answer: A
138. The draught in locomotive boilers is produced by a
A. Chimney
B. Centrifugal fan
C. Steam jet
D. None of these
Answer: C
139. Stoichiometric quantity of air is the
A. Air present in atmosphere at NTP conditions
B. Air required for complete combustion of fuel with no excess air
C. Air required for optimum combustion so as to have reasonable excess air
D. Air required to convert CO into CO₂
Answer: B
140. The impulse reaction turbine has its driving force
A. As an impulsive force
B. As a reaction force
C. Partly as an impulsive force and partly as a reaction force
D. None of the above
Answer: C
141. The average operating pressure of Benson boiler is
A. 100 bar
B. 150 bar
C. 200 bar
D. 250 bar
Answer: D
142. Pick up the wrong statement about critical condition of steam
A. Latent heat is zero
B. Liquid directly becomes steam
C. Specific volume of steam and liquid is same
D. This is the maximum pressure limit
Answer: D
143. In reaction turbines, the axial thrust is due to
A. Pressure drop across the rotor
B. Change in axial velocity
C. BothA. andB.
D. None of these
Answer: C
144. The draught produced by a steam jet issuing from a nozzle placed in the chimney is called
A. Induced steam jet draught
B. Chimney draught
C. Forced steam jet draught
D. None of these
Answer: A
145. A packaged boiler is one in which various parts like firing equipment, fans, feed pumps and
automatic controls are
A. Supplied by same manufacturer loose and assembled at site
B. Supplied mounted on a single base
C. Purchased from several parties and packed together at site
D. Packaged boiler does not exist
Answer: B
146. The impulse turbine rotor efficiency will have a maximum value of 0.5 cos 2α, where α is the
nozzle exit flow angle, if the
A. Blades are equiangular
B. Blade velocity coefficient is unity
C. Blades are equiangular and frictionless
D. Blade solidity is 0.65
Answer: C
147. Lancashire boiler is used where working pressure and power required are
A. Low
B. Moderate
C. High
D. None of these
Answer: B
148. Fusible plug for boilers is made of fusible metal containing tin, lead, and
A. Bismuth
B. Copper
C. Aluminium
D. Nickel
Answer: A
149. Which of the following statement is correct for steam turbines as compared to reciprocating
steam engines?
A. A steam turbine develops higher speeds
B. The efficiency of steam turbine is higher
C. The steam consumption is less
D. All of these
Answer: D
150. Which of the following is not a boiler mounting?
A. Blow off cock
B. Feed check valve
C. Economiser
D. Fusible plug
Answer: C
151. In recuperative air preheaters, the heat is transferred
A. From a metal wall from one medium to another
B. From heating an intermediate material and then heating the air from this material
C. By direct mixing
D. Heat is transferred by bleeding some gases from furnace
Answer: A
152. The process of draining steam from the turbine, at certain points during its expansion and
using this steam for heating the feed water in feed water heaters and then supplying it to the boiler
is known as
A. Regenerative heating
B. Reheating of steam
C. Bleeding
D. None of these
Answer: C
153. Which of the following statement is wrong?
A. The mechanical draught reduces the height of chimney
B. The natural draught reduces the fuel consumption
C. A balanced draught is a combination of induced and forced draught
D. All of the above
Answer: B
154. Sulphur content of fuels is very important to the plant operators because it
A. Has high heating value
B. Retards electric precipitation
C. Promotes complete combustion
D. Has highly corrosive effect
Answer: D
155. Stage efficiency is also known as
A. Diagram efficiency
B. Nozzle efficiency
C. Gross efficiency
D. None of these
Answer: C
156. A device used to heat feed water by utilizing the heat in me exhaust flue gases before leaving
through the chimney, is known as
A. Economizer
B. Fusible plug
C. Superheater
D. Stop valve
Answer: A
157. Which is not correct statement about the function of furnace?
A. To provide proper conditions for continuous complete combustion
B. Mix fuel with air and ignite
C. Separate ash from coal
D. Maintain heat supply to prepare and ignite the incoming fuel
Answer: C
158. In a nozzle, whole frictional loss is assumed to occur between
A. Inlet and throat
B. Inlet and outlet
C. Throat and exit
D. All of these
Answer: C
159. The working pressure range for a LaMont boiler is
A. 0.5 to 10 MN/m²
B. 1 to 15 MN/m²
C. 2.5 to 15 MN/m²
D. 3.5 to 20 MN/m²
Answer: D
160. The basic job of feed water treatment in boilers is to overcome the problem of
A. Corrosion
B. Scale
C. Carryover
D. All of the above
Answer: D
161. In a De-Laval nozzle expanding superheated steam from 10 bar to 0.1 bar, the pressure at the
minimum cross-section (i. e. pressure at throat, p₂) will be
A. 3.3 bar
B. 5.46 bar
C. 8.2 bar
D. 9.9 bar
Answer: B
162. In a glass tube type water indicator for a boiler, one end of the tube is connected to water space
and the other end is connected to
A. Water space also
B. Chimney
C. Steam space
D. Superheater
Answer: C
163. At very low temperature, the melting and boiling temperatures become equal. This
temperature is
A. 373°K
B. 273.16°K
C. 303°K
D. 0°K
Answer: B
164. The ratio of the useful heat drop to the isentropic heat drop is called
A. Condenser efficiency
B. Nozzle efficiency
C. Boiler efficiency
D. Vacuum efficiency
Answer: B
165. The fire tubes in a Scotch marine boiler are
A. Horizontal
B. Vertical
C. Inclined
D. None of these
Answer: A
166. On Millier chart, the constant pressure lines
A. Diverge from left to right
B. Diverge from right to left
C. Are equally spaced throughout
D. First rise up and then fall
Answer: A
167. The reheat factor depends upon
A. Initial pressure and superheat
B. Exit pressure
C. Turbine stage efficiency
D. All of these
Answer: D
168. In a boiler, feed water supplied per hour is 205 kg while coal fired per hour is 23 kg. The net
enthalpy rise per kg of water is 145 kJ. If the calorific valve of the coal is 2050 kJ/kg, then the boiler
efficiency will be
A. 56 %
B. 63 %
C. 74 %
D. 78 %
Answer: B
169. The state of vapor under saturation condition is described by
A. Pressure alone
B. Temperature alone
C. Pressure and temperature
D. Pressure and dryness fraction
Answer: D
170. The diagram efficiency is the ratio of
A. Workdone on the blades to the energy supplied to the blades
B. Workdone on the blades per kg of steam to the total energy supplied per stage per kg of steam
C. Energy supplied to the blades per kg of steam to the total energy supplied per stage per kg of steam
D. None of the above
Answer: A
171. Locomotive boiler is a
A. Single tube, horizontal, internally fired and stationary boiler
B. Single tube, vertical, externally fired and stationary boiler
C. Multi-tubular, horizontal, internally fired and mobile boiler
D. Multi-tubular, horizontal, externally fired and stationary boiler
Answer: C
172. 100% efficiency of a thermal cycle cannot be achieved because of
A. Frictional losses
B. It is not possible to achieve 0°K temperature
C. Leakage
D. Non availability of ideal substance
Answer: B
173. In a velocity compounded impulse turbine, when steam flows through the second row of
moving blades,
A. Velocity increases
B. Velocity decreases
C. Velocity remains constant
D. Pressure remains constant
Answer: B
174. Cut-off governing as compared to throttle governing is
A. Less efficient and less economical
B. Less efficient and more economical
C. More efficient and less economical
D. More efficient and more economical
Answer: D
175. Which of the following coals has the highest calorific value?
A. Anthracite coal
B. Bituminous coal
C. Lignite
D. Peat
Answer: A
176. In a Parson’s turbine stage, blade velocity is 320 m/s at the mean radius and rotor blade exit
angle is 30°. For minimum kinetic energy of the steam leaving the stage, the steam velocity at the
exit of the rotor will be
A. 160/3 m/s
B. 320/3 m/s
C. 640/3 m/s
D. 640 m/s
Answer: C
177. The main object of a boiler trial is
A. To determine the generating capacity of the boiler
B. To determine the thermal efficiency of the boiler when working at a definite pressure
C. To prepare heat balance sheet for the boiler
D. All of the above
Answer: D
178. Hard coke is used in
A. Cement industry
B. Thermal power plant
C. Blast furnace
D. Domestic use
Answer: C
179. The velocity of whirl at outlet for an axial discharge turbine is
A. Minimum
B. Maximum
C. Zero
D. None of these
Answer: C
180. The ratio of the volume at cut-off to the swept volume is called
A. Cut-off ratio
B. Expansion ratio
C. Clearance ratio
D. None of these
Answer: A
181. The effect of friction in the nozzle __________ dryness fraction of steam.
A. Has no effect on
B. Decreases
C. Increases
D. None of these
Answer: C
182. The overall efficiency of thermal power plant is
A. Boiler efficiency, turbine efficiency, generator efficiency
B. All the three above plus gas cycle efficiency
C. Carnot cycle efficiency
D. Regenerative cycle efficiency
Answer: A
183. A compound steam engine in which piston rods of high pressure and low pressure cylinders
are attached to two different cranks set at 90° to each other, is called
A. Receiver type compound engine
B. Tandem type compound engine
C. Woolf type compound engine
D. BothA. andB.
Answer: A
184. In locomotives, the draught is produced by
A. Chimney
B. Induced draft fan
C. Both combinedA. andB.
D. Steam jet draught
Answer: D
185. The efficiency of an impulse turbine is maximum when (where Vb = Blade speed, V = Absolute
velocity of steam entering the blade, and α = Nozzle angle)
A. Vb = 0.5 V cosα
B. V = V cosα
C. V = 0.5 V cosα
D. V = V cosα
Answer: A
186. The draught (in mm of water), for maximum discharge of flue gases through the chimney, is
given by (where H = Height of the chimney in meters, and T1 = Absolute temperature of air outside
the chimney in K)
A. T1 /88.25H
B. 88.25H/T1
C. T1 /176.5H
D. 176.5H/T1
Answer: D
187. The behavior of coal in a furnace is determined by
A. The content of sulphur
B. The content of ash and heating value
C. The proximate analysis
D. The exact analysis
Answer: C
188. The efficiency of a pressure-velocity compounded impulse turbine is __________ as compared
to pressure compounded impulse turbine.
A. Same
B. Less
C. More
D. None of these
Answer: B
189. An economiser is generally placed between
A. Last superheater or reheater and air preheater
B. Induced draft fan and forced draft fan
C. Air preheater and chimney
D. None of the above
Answer: A
190. In order to obtain superheated steam, a superheater is added in an existing boiler. As as result,
furnace vacuum will
A. Remain unaffected
B. Improve
C. Worsen
D. May improve/worsen depending on size
Answer: C
191. The maximum discharge of steam through a convergent-divergent nozzle depends upon
A. Area of nozzle at throat
B. Initial pressure and volume of steam
C. Final pressure of steam leaving the nozzle
D. BothA. andB.
Answer: D
192. In a boiler, the heat is lost
A. To dry flue gases
B. In moisture present in the fuel
C. To steam formed by combustion of hydrogen per kg of fuel
D. All of the above
Answer: D
193. The critical pressure at which latent heat of vaporisation is zero is
A. 225.65 kgf/ cm²
B. 273 kgf/ cm²
C. 100 kgf/ cm²
D. 1 kgf/ cm²
Answer: A
194. The effect of bleeding is that
A. It increases the thermodynamic efficiency of the turbine
B. Boiler is supplied with hot water
C. It decreases the power developed by the turbine
D. All of the above
Answer: D
195. Which of the following statement is correct for a compound steam engine?
A. The cost of the engine, for the same power and economy, is more than that of a simple steam engine
B. The forces in the working parts are increased as the forces are distributed over more parts
C. The ratio of expansion is reduced, thus reducing the length of stroke
D. The temperature range per cylinder is increased, with corresponding increase in condensation
Answer: C
196. One kg of steam sample contains 0.8 kg dry steam; Its dryness fraction is
A. 0.2
B. 0.8
C. 1.0
D. 0.6
Answer: B
197. The velocity of steam leaving the nozzle (V) is given by (where K = Nozzle coefficient or nozzle
efficiency, and hd = Enthalpy or heat drop during expansion of steam in a nozzle)
A. V = 44.72 hd K
B. V = 44.72 K hd
C. V = 44.72 K hd
D. V = 44.72 K hd
Answer: C
198. The power of a boiler may be defined as
A. The ratio of heat actually used in producing the steam to the heat liberated in the furnace
B. The amount of water evaporated or steam produced in kg per kg of fuel burnt
C. The amount of water evaporated from and at 100° C into dry and saturated steam
D. The evaporation of 15.653 kg of water per hour from and at 100° C
Answer: B
199. Heating wet steam at constant temperature is heating it at constant
A. Volume
B. Pressure
C. Entropy
D. Enthalpy
Answer: B
200. The supersaturated flow of steam through a nozzle as compared to a stable flow, the available
heat drop
A. Remains the same
B. Increases
C. Decreases
D. Is unpredictable
Answer: C
201. The velocity of flue gases (V) through the chimney under a static draught of (H’) metres is
given by
A. V = g H’
B. V = g H’
C. V = H’ g
D. V = gH’
Answer: A
202. Efficiency of a thermal cycle increases by
A. Regeneration
B. Reheating of steam
C. BothA. andB.
D. Cooling of steam
Answer: C
203. Parson’s turbine is a
A. Simple impulse turbine
B. Simple reaction turbine
C. Impulse-reaction turbine
D. None of these
Answer: B
204. The diameter of a cylindrical shell of a Scotch marine boiler varies from
A. 1.5 to 2 m
B. 2.5 to 3.5 m
C. 3.5 to 4.5 m
D. None of these
Answer: B
205. The crown of the fire box is made hemispherical in order to
A. Give maximum space
B. Give maximum strength
C. Withstand pressure inside boiler
D. Resist intense heat in fire box
Answer: D
206. The velocity of steam at throat of the nozzle is __________ the velocity of sound.
A. Equal to
B. Less than
C. More than
D. None of these
Answer: A
207. The cylinder condensation or missing quantity may be reduced by
A. The efficient steam jacketing of the cylinder walls
B. Superheating the steam supplied to the engine cylinder
C. Keeping the expansion ratio small in each cylinder
D. All of the above
Answer: D
208. The Locomotive boiler has
A. 137 fire tubes and 44 superheated tubes
B. 147 fire tubes and 34 superheated tubes
C. 157 fire tubes and 24 superheated tubes
D. 167 fire tubes and 14 superheated tubes
Answer: C
209. Which of the following varieties of coals is mostly used in steam boilers?
A. Non-coking bituminous coal
B. Brown coal
C. Peat
D. None of the above
Answer: D
210. The compounding of turbines is done in order to
A. Reduce speed of rotor
B. Improve efficiency
C. Reduce exit losses
D. All of these
Answer: D
211. Which of the following is a fire tube boiler?
A. Lancashire boiler
B. Babcock and Wilcox boiler
C. Yarrow boiler
D. None of these
Answer: A
212. In forced recirculation type boiler,
A. Heating takes place at bottom and the water supplied at bottom gets converted into the mixture of
steam bubbles and hot water which rise to drum
B. Water is supplied in drum and through down comers located in atmospheric condition it passes to the
water wall and rises to drum in the form of mixture of water and steam
C. Feed pump is employed to supplement natural circulation in water wall type furnace
D. Water is converted into steam in one pass without any recirculation
Answer: C
213. When the nozzle operates with the maximum mass flow, the nozzle is said to be
A. Choked
B. Under-damping
C. Over-damping
D. None of these
Answer: A
214. The average value of diagram factor lies between
A. 0.2 to 0.5
B. 0.5 to 0.65
C. 0.65 to 0.9
D. 0.8 to 1.2
Answer: C
215. A safety valve in a locomotive starts leaking. The leaking medium will be
A. Water
B. Dry steam
C. Wet steam
D. Super heated steam
Answer: D
216. Which of the following statement is wrong?
A. The critical pressure gives the velocity of steam at the throat equal to the velocity of sound
B. The flow in the convergent portion of the nozzle is subsonic
C. The flow in the divergent portion of the nozzle is supersonic
D. To increase the velocity of steam above sonic velocity (supersonic) by expanding steam below the
critical pressure, the divergent portion for the nozzle is not necessary
Answer: D
217. The ratio of the energy required to produce the artificial draught (expressed in meters head or
J/kg of flue gas) to the mechanical equivalent of extra heat carried away per kg of flue gases due to
natural draught, is known as
A. Efficiency of the boiler
B. Efficiency of the chimney
C. Efficiency of the fan
D. Power of the boiler
Answer: B
218. Which device is used in thermal power plants to reduce level of pollution?
A. Induced draft fan
B. Smoke meter
C. Chimney
D. Precipitator
Answer: D
219. The expansion of steam, as it flows over the blades in reaction turbine, represents
A. Isothermal process
B. Isentropic process
C. Throttling process
D. Free expansion process
Answer: B
220. Clearance ratio is the ratio of
A. Clearance volume to the swept volume
B. Clearance volume to the volume at cut-off
C. Volume at cut-off to the swept volume
D. Swept volume to the clearance volume
Answer: A
221. The ultimate analysis of fuel lists
A. Various chemical constituents, carbon, hydrogen, oxygen etc, plus ash as percents by volume
B. Various chemical constituents, carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, etc, plus ash as percents by weight
C. Fuel constituents as percents by volume of moisture, volatile, fixed carbon and ash
D. Fuel constituents as percents by weight of moisture, volatile, fixed carbon and ash
Answer: B
222. Which of the following statement is correct?
A. The expansion of steam in a nozzle follows Rankine cycle
B. The friction in the nozzle increases the dryness fraction of steam
C. The pressure of steam at throat is called critical pressure
D. All of the above
Answer: D
223. The heat balance sheet for the boiler shows the
A. Complete account of heat supplied by 1 kg of dry fuel and the heat consumed
B. Moisture present in the fuel
C. Steam formed by combustion of hydrogen per kg of fuel
D. All of the above
Answer: A
224. A supercritical boiler is one that operates above the pressure and temperature of following
values
A. 100 kg/cm² and 540°C
B. 1 kg/cm² and 100°C
C. 218 kg/cm² abs and 373°C
D. 218 kg/cm² abs and 540°C
Answer: C
225. Curtis turbine is a
A. Simple reaction turbine
B. Velocity compounded turbine
C. Pressure compounded turbine
D. Pressure-velocity compounded turbine
Answer: D
226. The air pressure at the fuel bed is reduced below that of atmosphere by means of a fan placed
at or near the bottom of the chimney to produce a draught. Such a draught is called
A. Natural draught
B. Induced draught
C. Forced draught
D. Balanced draught
Answer: B
227. The dry saturated steam at very low pressure, (510 kg/cm²) when throttled to atmosphere will
become
A. Wet
B. Superheated
C. Remain dry saturated
D. Dry
Answer: B
228. The nozzle efficiency is the ratio of
A. Workdone on the blades to the energy supplied to the blades
B. Workdone on the blades per kg of steam to the total energy supplied per stage per kg of steam
C. Energy supplied to the blades per kg of steam to the total energy supplied per stage per kg of steam
D. None of the above
Answer: C
229. All steam engines work on
A. Zeroth law of thermodynamics
B. First law of thermodynamics
C. Second law of thermodynamics
D. None of these
Answer: C
230. The increase in pressure
A. Lowers the boiling point of a liquid
B. Raises the boiling point of a liquid
C. Does not affects the boiling point of a liquid
D. Reduces its volume
Answer: B
231. If the critical pressure ratio for steam is 0.546, then the steam is initially
A. Wet steam
B. Dry saturated steam
C. Superheated steam
D. None of these
Answer: C
232. The amount of water evaporated from feed water at _________ into dry and saturated steam
at 100° C at normal atmospheric pressure is called equivalent evaporation from and at 100° C.
A. 0°C
B. 40°C
C. 60°C
D. 100°C
Answer: D
233. The high pressure boiler is one, which produces steam at a pressure more than
A. Atmospheric pressure
B. 5 kg/cm²
C. 10 kg/cm²
D. 7580 kg/cm²
Answer: D
234. The critical pressure ratio for gases is
A. 0.528
B. 0.546
C. 0.577
D. 0.582
Answer: A
235. Which of the following is correct? (Where pa = Actual mean effective pressure, pm =
Theoretical mean effective pressure, and K = Diagram factor)
A. pa = pm/K
B. pa = pm × K
C. pa = K/pm
D. pa = pm + K
Answer: B
236. A stage, in reaction turbine, is represented by
A. Number of casing
B. Number of entries of steam
C. Number of exits of steam
D. Each row of blades
Answer: D
237. In a steam engine, superheated steam from the boiler is fed into the steam chest at a pressure
of
A. 10 atmospheres
B. 20 atmospheres
C. 30 atmospheres
D. 40 atmospheres
Answer: B
238. The diameter of tubes for natural circulation boiler as compared to controlled circulation
boilers is
A. More
B. Less
C. Same
D. Could be more or less depending on other factors
Answer: A
239. When the inlet pressure of steam is equal to the exit pressure, then
A. There is a pressure drop in the nozzle
B. Fluid flows through the nozzle
C. Pressure drops and fluid flows through the nozzle
D. There is no pressure drop and fluid does not flow through the nozzle
Answer: D
240. In water tube boilers
A. Water passes through the tubes which are surrounded by flames and hot gases
B. The flames and hot gases pass through the tubes which are surrounded by water
C. Forced circulation takes place
D. None of these
Answer: A
241. The temperature of flue gases at air heater outlet should be
A. 100°C
B. Above dew point temperature of flue gases
C. Below dew point temperature of flue gases
D. Less than wet bulb temperature of flue gases
Answer: B
242. The critical pressure ratio for initially wet steam is
A. 0.546
B. 0.577
C. 0.582
D. 0.601
Answer: C
243. The function of a cross-head is to guide motion of the _________ and to prevent it from
bending.
A. Piston rod
B. Connecting rod
C. Eccentric rod
D. Valve rod
Answer: A
244. An economiser in a boiler
A. Increases steam pressure
B. Increases steam flow
C. Decreases fuel consumption
D. Decreases steam pressure
Answer: C
245. Multi-stage steam turbines are of the
A. Velocity compounded type
B. Reaction type
C. Pressure compounded type
D. All of these
Answer: D
246. A double acting steam engine with a cylinder diameter of 190 mm and a stroke of 300 mm has
a cut-off of 0.35. The expansion ratio for this engine is nearly
A. 1.05
B. 2.86
C. 6.65
D. 10.05
Answer: B
247. Which is not correct statement about pulverized fuel firing?
A. High burning rate is possible
B. Heat release can be easily controlled
C. Fuel burns economically
D. It is the best technique for burning high ash content fuel having low fusion ash
Answer: D
248. The flow of steam is supersonic
A. At the entrance to the nozzle
B. At the throat of the nozzle
C. In the convergent portion of the nozzle
D. In the divergent portion of the nozzle
Answer: D
249. The diagram factor is the ratio of the
A. Area of the actual indicator diagram to the area of theoretical indicator diagram
B. Actual workdone per stroke to the theoretical workdone per stroke
C. Actual mean effective pressure to the theoretical mean effective pressure
D. Any one of the above
Answer: D
250. Relative percentage of heat absorbed through the heat transfer of
(i) Furnace water wall
(ii) Boiler tank
(iii) Superheater
(iv) Economizer
(v) Air-heater of a typical boiler of 200 MW capacity would be of the order of
A. 48 : 20 : 15 : 7 : 10
B. 10 : 7 : 15 : 20 : 48
C. 20 : 48 : 7 : 15 : 10
D. 7 : 15 : 20 : 10 : 48
Answer: A
251. The process of maintaining the speed of the turbine constant for various load conditions, is
known as
A. Bleeding
B. Reheating
C. Governing
D. None of these
Answer: C
252. Expansion ratio is the ratio of
A. Swept volume to the volume at cut-off
B. Clearance volume to the swept volume
C. Volume at cut-off to the swept volume
D. Swept volume to the clearance volume
Answer: A
253. Superheating of steam is done at
A. Constant volume
B. Constant temperature
C. Constant pressure
D. Constant entropy
Answer: C
254. When the cross-section of a nozzle __________ continuously from entrance to exit, it is called a
convergent nozzle.
A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Remain same
D. None of these
Answer: B
255. In a receiver type compound engine, the high pressure and low pressure cylinders
A. Have common piston rod
B. Are set at 90°
C. Have separate piston rods
D. Are set in V-arrangement
Answer: C
256. Latent heat of dry steam at atmospheric pressure is equal to
A. 539 kcal/ kg
B. 539 BTU/ lb
C. 427 kcal/ kg
D. 100 kcal/ kg
Answer: A
257 The ratio of total useful heat drop to the total isentropic heat drop, is called
A. Stage efficiency
B. Internal efficiency
C. Rankine efficiency
D. None of these
Answer: B
258. The pressure of feed water has to be raised before its entry into the boiler. The pressure is
raised by a device known as
A. Feed pump
B. Injector
C. Feed check valve
D. Pressure gauge
Answer: A
259. For burning 1 kg of carbon to CO as per chemically correct combustion, amount of air
required is
A. 1 kg
B. 4/3 kg
C. 8/3 kg
D. 2 kg
Answer: B
260. A binary vapor plant consists of
A. Steam turbine
B. Steam condenser
C. Mercury boiler
D. All of these
Answer: D
261. The draught may be produced by a
A. Mechanical fan
B. Chimney
C. A steam jet
D. All of these
Answer: D
262. Which of the following is steam dial?
A. Non-coking bituminous coal
B. Brown coal
C. Pulverized coal
D. Coking bituminous coal
Answer: A
263. The maximum efficiency of a reaction turbine is
A. sin α sin α
B. cos α cos α
C. sin α sin α
D. cos α cos α
Answer: B
264. In order to compare the capacity of boilers, the feed water temperature and working pressure
are taken as
A. 50°C and normal atmospheric pressure
B. 50°C and 1.1 bar pressure
C. 100°C and normal atmospheric pressure
D. 100°C and 1.1 bar pressure
Answer: C
265. In accelerated circulation type boiler
A. Heating takes place at bottom and the water supplied at bottom gets converted into the mixture of
steam bubbles and hot water which rise to drum
B. Water is supplied in drum and through down comers located in atmospheric condition it passes to the
water wall and rises to drum in the form of mixture of water and steam
C. Feed pump is employed to supplement natural circulation in water wall type furnace
D. Water is converted into steam in one pass without any recirculation
Answer: B
266. The pressure of steam __________ while flowing through a nozzle.
A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Remains constant
D. None of these
Answer: B
267. The indicated thermal efficiency is defined as the
A. Ratio of thermal efficiency to the Rankine efficiency
B. Ratio of brake power to the indicated power
C. Ratio of heat equivalent to indicated power to the energy supplied in steam
D. Product of thermal efficiency and Rankine efficiency
Answer: C
268. The major axis of elliptical manholes on the shell should be provided
A. Longitudinally
B. Circumferentially
C. On dished end
D. Anywhere
Answer: B
269. In a reaction turbine, when steam flows through the moving blades,
A. Pressure increases while velocity decreases
B. Pressure decreases while velocity increases
C. Pressure and velocity both decreases
D. Pressure and velocity both increases
Answer: C
270. The device attached to the steam chest for preventing explosions due to excessive internal
pressure of steam is called
A. Safety valve
B. Water level indicator
C. Pressure gauge
D. Fusible plug
Answer: A
271. The economiser is used in boilers to
A. Increase thermal efficiency of boiler
B. Economize on fuel
C. Extract heat from the exhaust flue gases
D. Increase flue gas temperature
Answer: A
272. The reheat factor is the ratio of the
A. Cumulative heat drop to the isentropic heat drop
B. Isentropic heat drop to the heat supplied
C. Total useful heat drop to the total isentropic heat drop
D. None of the above
Answer: A
273. Which of the following statement is correct?
A. A fire tube boiler occupies less space than a water tube boiler, for a given power
B. Steam at a high pressure and in large quantities can be produced with a simple vertical boiler
C. A simple vertical boiler has one fire tube
D. All of the above
Answer: C
274. The three “Ts” for good combustion are
A. Temperature, time, and turbulence
B. Total air, true fuel, and turbulence
C. Thorough mixing, total air and temperature
D. Total air, time, and temperature
Answer: A
275. The value of the reheat factor varies from
A. 1.02 to 1.06
B. 1.08 to 1.10
C. 1.2 to 1.6
D. 1.6 to 2
Answer: A
276. Cut-off governing of steam engines is a method of controlling the engine output by varying
A. Volume of intake steam
B. Pressure of intake steam
C. Temperature of intake steam
D. All of these
Answer: A
277. The size of a boiler drum in pulverized fuel fired boiler, as its size and capacity, (steam
pressure and flow ratings) increase
A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Remains unchanged
D. Increases/decreases depending on steam temperature requirements
Answer: B
278. A nozzle is said to be a divergent nozzle
A. When the cross-section of the nozzle increases continuously from entrance to exit
B. When the cross-section of the nozzle decreases continuously from entrance to exit
C. When the cross-section of the nozzle first decreases from entrance to throat and then increases from its
throat to exit
D. None of the above
Answer: A
279. The theoretical indicator diagram of a simple steam engine is based upon the assumption that
A. There is no pressure drop due to condensation
B. Steam is admitted at boiler pressure and exhausted at condenser pressure
C. The expansion (or compression) of the steam is hyperbolic
D. All of the above
Answer: D
280. If partial pressure of air and steam be ‘pa’ and ‘ps’ respectively in a condenser, then according
to Dalton’s law, the pressure in condenser is equal to
A. ps – pa
B. pa – ps
C. pa + ps
D. None of these
Answer: C
281. In turbines, the fluid undergoes a continuous steady flow process and the speed of flow is
A. Low
B. Very low
C. High
D. Very high
Answer: D
282. The high steam and low water safety valve is used to blow off steam when the
A. Steam pressure exceeds the working pressure
B. Water level in the boiler becomes too low
C. BothA. andB.
D. None of the above
Answer: C
283. On Mollier chart, free expansion, or throttling process from high pressure to atmosphere is
represented by
A. Horizontal straight line
B. Vertical straight line
C. Straight inclined line
D. Curved line
Answer: A
284. The critical pressure gives the velocity of steam at the throat
A. Equal to the velocity of sound
B. Less than the velocity of sound
C. More than the velocity of sound
D. None of these
Answer: A
285. The high pressure and low pressure cylinders in a Woolf type compound engine are regarded
as having cranks
A. 180° to each other
B. 90° to each other
C. 0° to each other
D. None of these
Answer: A
286. Mechanical equivalent of heat for 1 kcal or Joule’s equivalent is equal to
A. 421 kg.m
B. 421 kg.m
C. 539 kg.m
D. 102 kg.m
Answer: A
287. The effect of super-saturation is that the
A. Mass of the steam discharged increases
B. Entropy and specific volume of the steam increases
C. Exit velocity of steam reduces
D. All of these
Answer: D
288. The diameter of superheated tubes in a locomotive boiler is
A. 13 mm
B. 31 mm
C. 130 mm
D. 230 mm
Answer: C
289. The change in internal energy in steam engines equals to
A. Work done during the Rankine cycle
B. Work done during compression
C. Work done during adiabatic expansion
D. Change in enthalpy
Answer: A
290. The pressure velocity compounded impulse turbine allows a bigger pressure drop and hence
__________ numbers of stages are required.
A. More
B. Less
C. Equal
D. None of these
Answer: B
291. In fire tube boilers
A. Water passes through the tubes which are surrounded by flames and hot gases
B. The flames and hot gases pass through the tubes which are surrounded by water
C. Forced circulation takes place
D. None of these
Answer: B
292. The shell diameter and length of locomotive boiler are
A. 1.5 m, 4 m
B. 1.5 m, 6 m
C. 1 m, 4 m
D. 2 m, 4 m
Answer: A
293. The ratio of the workdone on the blades to the energy supplied to the blades, is called
A. Blading efficiency
B. Nozzle efficiency
C. Gross or stage efficiency
D. Mechanical efficiency
Answer: A
294. The numbers of fire tubes in a Cochran boiler are
A. 75
B. 115
C. 165
D. 225
Answer: C
295. In forced circulation type boiler
A. Heating takes place at bottom and the water supplied at bottom gets converted into the mixture of
steam bubbles and hot water which rise to drum
B. Water is supplied in drum and through down comers located in atmospheric condition it passes to the
water wall and rises to drum in the form of mixture of water and steam
C. Feed pump is employed to supplement natural circulation in water wall type furnace
D. Water is converted into steam in one pass without any recirculation
Answer: D
296. The critical pressure ratio for initially dry saturated steam is
A. 0.546
B. 0.577
C. 0.582
D. 0.601
Answer: B
297. In cross compounding, the cylinders are arranged
A. Side by side and each cylinder has common piston, connecting rod and crank
B. Side by side and each cylinder has separate piston, connecting rod and crank
C. At 90° and each cylinder has common piston, connecting rod and crank
D. At 90° and each cylinder has separate piston, connecting rod and crank
Answer: B
298. Vacuum for reciprocating steam engines compared to steam turbines is
A. More
B. Equal
C. Less
D. Could be more or less depending on the size of plant
Answer: C
299. In a nozzle, the effect of super-saturation is to
A. Decrease dryness fraction of steam
B. Decrease specific volume of steam
C. Increase the entropy
D. Increase the heat drop
Answer: C
300. The cylindrical shell of a Lancashire boiler has diameter from
A. 1 to 2 m
B. 1.25 to 2.25 m
C. 1.5 to 2.5 m
D. 1.75 to 2.75 m
Answer: D
301. Pour point of fuel oil is the
A. Lowest temperature at which oil will flow under set condition
B. Storage temperature
C. Temperature at which fuel is pumped through burners
D. Temperature at which oil is transported
Answer: A
302. The steam leaves the nozzle at a
A. High pressure and a low velocity
B. High pressure and a high velocity
C. Low pressure and a low velocity
D. Low pressure and a high velocity
Answer: D
303. A condenser where circulating water flows through tubes which are surrounded by steam, in
known as
A. Surface condenser
B. Jet condenser
C. Barometric condenser
D. Evaporative condenser
Answer: A
304. Maximum energy loss in a boiler occurs due to
A. Unburnt carbon in ash
B. Incomplete combustion
C. Ash content
D. Flue gases
Answer: D
305. The friction in the nozzle __________ exit velocity of steam.
A. Has no effect on
B. Decreases
C. Increases
D. None of these
Answer: B
306. The function of an eccentric rod is
A. To provide reciprocating motion to the slide valve
B. To convert reciprocating motion of the piston into rotary motion of the crank
C. To convert rotary motion of the crankshaft into to and fro motion of the valve rod
D. To provide simple harmonic motion to the D-slide valve
Answer: C
307. In water wall furnace, the heat is transferred to the water walls by
A. Convection
B. Radiation
C. Conduction
D. Radiation and conduction
Answer: B
308. The efficiency of reaction turbine is maximum when (where α = Angle made by the absolute
velocity ‘V’ at inlet)
A. V = 0.5 V cosα
B. V = V cos α
C. V = 0.5 V cosα
D. V = V cos α
Answer: B
309. When the speed of the crankshaft is between 100 r.p.m. and 250 r.p.m., the engine said to be a
A. Slow speed engine
B. Medium speed steam engine
C. High speed steam engine
D. None of these
Answer: B
310. The latent heat of steam at pressures greater than atmospheric in comparison to latent heat at
atmospheric pressure is
A. Less
B. More
C. Equal
D. May be less or more depending on temperature
Answer: A
311. The efficiency of steam turbines may be improved by
A. Reheating of steam
B. Regenerative feed heating
C. Binary vapor plant
D. Any one of these
Answer: D
312. In a uniflow engine
A. Steam enters and exhausts through the same port
B. Steam enters at one end and exhausts at the centre
C. Steam enters at the centre and exhausts at the other end
D. None of the above
Answer: B
313. In an experiment to determine dryness fraction of steam, the mass of water separated was 1.2
kg in 15 mts. and the mass of steam passed out in same time was 4.8 kg. Dryness fraction is
A. 40 %
B. 25 %
C. 50 %
D. 80 %
Answer: D
314. The critical pressure ratio is given by (where p₁ = Initial pressure of steam, and p₂ = Pressure
of steam at throat or critical pressure)
A. p₁. p₂
B. p₁ p₂
C. p₂ p₁
D. p₁ p₂
Answer: C
315. Which of the following is a water tube boiler?
A. Lancashire boiler
B. Babcock and Wilcox boiler
C. Locomotive boiler
D. Cochran boiler
Answer: B
316. The diameter of Cornish boiler is of the order of
A. 12 m
B. 1.52.5 m
C. 23 m
D. 2.53.5 m
Answer: A
317. The stage efficiency (ηS) is given by (where ηB = Blading efficiency, and ηN = Nozzle
efficiency)
A. ηS = ηB × ηN
B. ηS = ηB ηN
C. ηS = ηN ηB
D. None of these
Answer: A
318. The high pressure and low pressure cylinders in a Tandem type compound engine are
regarded as having cranks
A. 180° to each other
B. 90° to each other
C. 0° to each other
D. None of these
Answer: C
319. The water tubes in a Babcock and Wilcox boiler are
A. Horizontal
B. Vertical
C. Inclined
D. Horizontal and inclined
Answer: C
320. In an impulse turbine, steam expands
A. Wholly in blades
B. Wholly in nozzle
C. Partly in the nozzle and partly in blades
D. None of these
Answer: B
321. There is always some steam left in the clearance space from the previous stroke. This steam left
in the clearance space is called
A. Wet steam
B. Saturated steam
C. Superheated steam
D. Cushion steam
Answer: D
322. In which of the following boilers, the draught in furnace is increased by utilising exhaust steam
from engine
A. Lancashire boiler
B. Locomotive boiler
C. Babcock and Wilcox boiler
D. Benson boiler
Answer: B
323. De-Laval turbine is a
A. Single rotor impulse turbine
B. Multi-rotor impulse turbine
C. Impulse reaction turbine
D. None of these
Answer: A
324. An air preheater
A. Increases evaporative capacity of the boiler
B. Increases the efficiency of the boiler
C. Enables low grade fuel to be burnt
D. All of the above
Answer: D
325. O₂ content in atmospheric air on weight basis is
A. 21 %
B. 23 %
C. 30 %
D. 40 %
Answer: B
326. Rateau turbine is
A. Simple reaction turbine
B. Velocity compounded turbine
C. Pressure compounded turbine
D. Pressure-velocity compounded turbine
Answer: C
327. The function of a valve rod is
A. To provide reciprocating motion to the slide valve
B. To convert reciprocating motion of the piston into rotary motion of the crank
C. To convert rotary motion of the crankshaft into to and fro motion of the valve rod
D. To provide simple harmonic motion to the D-slide valve
Answer: D
328. The condition of steam in boiler drum is always
A. Dry
B. Wet
C. Saturated
D. Supersaturated
Answer: B
329. The density of supersaturated steam is about __________ that of the ordinary saturated vapor
at the corresponding pressure.
A. Same as
B. 2 times
C. 4 times
D. 8 times
Answer: D
330. The missing quantity per stroke is equal to
A. Cylinder feed indicated mass of steam
B. Cylinder feed + indicated mass of steam
C. Mass of cushion steam + indicated mass of steam
D. Mass of cushion steam + cylinder feed
Answer: A
331. The saturation temperature of steam with increase in pressure increases
A. Linearly
B. Rapidly first and then slowly
C. Slowly first and then rapidly
D. Inversely
Answer: B
332. Thermal equilibrium means that the flow of steam is
A. Isothermal
B. Isentropic
C. Hyperbolic
D. Polytropic
Answer: B
333. Willian’s line follows the law (where b = A constant representing the shape of the Willian’s
line, a = Another constant i.e. no load consumption per hour, I.P. = Indicated power, and m =
Steam consumption per hour)
A. I.P. = a × m + b
B. m = a + b × I.P.
C. I.P. = b × m + a
D. m = (b/I.P.) – a
Answer: B
334. Equivalent evaporation of water is the evaporation for a feed water supply at 100°C
A. And its corresponding conversion into dry saturated steam at 100°C and 1.033 kg/cm²
B. And its corresponding conversion into dry steam at desired boiler pressure
C. Conversion into steam at atmospheric condition
D. Conversion into steam at the same pressure at which feed water is supplied
Answer: A
335. The difference of supersaturated temperature and saturation temperature at that pressure is
called
A. Degree of super-saturation
B. Degree of superheat
C. Degree of under-cooling
D. None of these
Answer: C
336. The diameter of internal flue tubes of a Lancashire boiler is about _________ that of its shell.
A. One-fourth
B. One-third
C. Two-fifth
D. One-half
Answer: C
337. The biggest size of thermal power unit operating in India is
A. 30 MW
B. 60 MW
C. 100 MW
D. 500 MW
Answer: D
338. The ratio of the isentropic heat drop to the heat supplied, is called
A. Reheat factor
B. Stage efficiency
C. Internal efficiency
D. Rankine efficiency
Answer: D
339. The ratio of the actual vacuum to the ideal vacuum in a condenser is called
A. Condenser efficiency
B. Vacuum efficiency
C. Nozzle efficiency
D. Boiler efficiency
Answer: B
340. Pick up the wrong statement about water tube boiler in comparison to fire tube boilers
A. Former occupies less space for same power
B. Rate of steam flow is more in former case
C. Former is used for high installed capacity
D. Chances of explosion are less in former case
Answer: D
341. The turbine blades are
A. Straight
B. Circular
C. Curved
D. None of these
Answer: C
342. The ratio of the temperature rise of cooling water to the vacuum temperature minus inlet
cooling water temperature is called
A. Condenser efficiency
B. Vacuum efficiency
C. Nozzle efficiency
D. Boiler efficiency
Answer: A
343. The heat loss in a boiler takes place in the form of
A. Heat carried away by flue gases
B. Heat carried away by ash
C. Moisture present in fuel and steam formed by combustion of hydrogen in fuel
D. All of the above
Answer: D
344. Steam exhaust from high pressure turbine is reheated in
A. Boiler drums
B. Superheater tubes
C. Economizer
D. A separate coil located in convection path
Answer: D
345. The value of diagram factor depends upon
A. Initial conditions of steam
B. Back pressure
C. Initial pressure of steam
D. All of these
Answer: D
346. Green coal, in order to be burnt, must be
A. Heated sufficiently
B. Burnt in excess air
C. Heated to its ignition point
D. Burnt as powder
Answer: C
347. A safety valve usually employed with stationary boilers is
A. Lever safety valve
B. Dead weight safety valve
C. High steam and low water safety valve
D. All of these
Answer: D
348. The relative heat absorption for successively added equal areas of boiler convection heating
surfaces
A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Remain unaffected
D. First increases and then decreases
Answer: B
349. The pressure of steam in the engine cylinder at the beginning of the stroke is ________ the
boiler pressure.
A. Equal to
B. Less than
C. Higher than
D. None of these
Answer: B
350. Adiabatic process is
A. Essentially an isentropic process
B. Non-heat transfer process
C. Reversible process
D. Constant temperature process
Answer: B
351. Lancashire boiler is
A. Stationary fire tube boiler
B. Internally fired boiler
C. Horizontal boiler
D. All of these
Answer: D
352. Cochran boiler is a
A. Horizontal fire tube boiler
B. Horizontal water tube boiler
C. Vertical water tube boiler
D. Vertical fire tube boiler
Answer: D
353. Blow off cock in a boiler is used to
A. Control the flow of steam from the boiler to the main pipe and to shut off the steam completely when
required
B. Empty the boiler when required and to discharge the mud, scale or sediments which are accumulated at
the bottom of the boiler
C. Put off fire in the furnace of the boiler when the level of water in the boiler falls to an unsafe limit
D. Increase the temperature of saturated steam without raising its pressure
Answer: B
354. The diameter of internal flue tubes in a Lancashire boiler compared to its shell is
A. One-half
B. One-third
C. Two-fourth
D. Two-fifth
Answer: D
355. When the circulation of water, in a boiler, is by convection currents which are set up during
the heating of water, then the boiler is known as
A. Internally fired boiler
B. Externally fired boiler
C. Natural circulation boiler
D. Forced circulation boiler
Answer: C
356. Thermal efficiency of a thermal power plant is of the order of
A. 15 %
B. 20 %
C. 30 %
D. 45 %
Answer: C
357. The high steam and low water safety valve is not used in
A. Cochran boiler
B. Cornish boiler
C. Lancashire boiler
D. Locomotive boiler
Answer: D
358. Expanding steam to a very low pressure (high vacuum) in steam engines is
A. Desirable
B. Economical
C. Essential
D. Uneconomical
Answer: D
359. The cylinder dimensions of a compound engine may be designed on the basis of
A. Equal power developed in each cylinder for uniform turning moment
B. Equal initial piston loads on all pistons for obtaining same size of piston rod, connecting rod etc. for all
cylinders
C. Equal temperature drop in each cylinder for economy of steam
D. All of the above
Answer: D
360. One kilowatt-hour energy is equivalent to
A. 1000 J
B. 360 kJ
C. 3600 kJ
D. 3600 kW/sec
Answer: C
361. Which of the following boiler is best suited to meet the fluctuating demand of steam?
A. Locomotive boiler
B. Lancashire boiler
C. Cornish boiler
D. Babcock and Wilcox boiler
Answer: A
362. In locomotive boiler, maximum steam pressure is limited to
A. 1 kg/cm²
B. 5 kg/cm²
C. 10 kg/cm²
D. 18 kg/cm²
Answer: D
363. The fire tubes in a Cochran boiler usually have _________ diameter.
A. 6.25 mm
B. 62.5 mm
C. 72.5 mm
D. 92.5 mm
Answer: B
364. Boiler stays are used to
A. Prevent flat surfaces under pressure from tearing apart
B. Take care of failure in shear
C. Take care of failure in compression
D. Provide support for boiler
Answer: A
365. Which of the following is required for a steam condensing plant?
A. Condenser
B. Condensate pump
C. Air extraction pump
D. All of these
Answer: D
366. Spontaneous combustion is a phenomenon in which
A. All the fuel burns instantaneously producing high energy release
B. Fuel burns with less air
C. Coal bursts into flame without any external ignition source but by itself due to gradual increase in
temperature as a result of heat released by combination of oxygen with coal
D. Explosion in furnace
Answer: C
367. Fire tube boilers are limited to a maximum working pressure of
A. 0.17 MN/m²
B. 1.7 MN/m²
C. 17 MN/m²
D. 170 MN/m²
Answer: B
368. Tertiary air is the air used to
A. Provide air around burners for obtaining optimum combustion
B. Transport and dry the coal
C. Cool the scanners
D. Convert CO (formed in lower zone of furnace into CO₂ at higher zone
Answer: D
369. Desecration of feed water is carried out because it reduces
A. Cavitation of boiler feed pumps
B. Corrosion caused by oxygen
C. Heat transfer coefficient
D. pH value of water
Answer: B
370. The function of a safety valve is
A. To blow off steam when the pressure of steam inside the boiler exceeds the working pressure
B. To indicate the water level inside the boiler to an observer
C. To measure pressure of steam inside the steam boiler
D. None of the above
Answer: A
371. In a Woolf type compound engine, the high pressure and low pressure cylinders
A. Have common piston rod
B. Are set at 90°
C. Have separate piston rod
D. Are set in V arrangement
Answer: C
372. Carbonization of coal is the process of
A. Pulverizing coal in inert atmosphere
B. Heating wood in a limited supply of air at temperatures below 300°C
C. Strongly heating coal continuously for about 48 hours in the absence of air in a closed vessel
D. Binding the pulverized coal into briquettes
Answer: C
373. Cut-off ratio is the ratio of
A. Swept volume to the volume at cut-off
B. Volume at cut-off to the clearance volume
C. Volume at cut-off to the swept volume
D. Clearance volume to the volume at cut-off
Answer: C
374. The pressure at which latent heat of vaporisation of water is zero, is
A. Below atmospheric pressure
B. 1 kg/cm²
C. 100 kg/cm²
D. 225.6 kg/cm²
Answer: D
375. A compound steam engine in which piston rods of high pressure and low pressure cylinders ‘
are attached to two different cranks set at 180° to each other, is called
A. Receiver type compound engine
B. Tandem type compound engine
C. Woolf type compound engine
D. BothA. andB.
Answer: C
376. Which of the following gases has the highest calorific value?
A. Producer gas
B. Coal gas
C. Water gas
D. Blast furnace gas
Answer: B
377. The maximum steam pressure in a Locomotive boiler is limited to
A. 0.18 MN/m²
B. 1.8 MN/m²
C. 18 MN/m²
D. 180 MN/m²
Answer: B
378. Fire tube boilers are those in which
A. Flue gases pass through tubes and water around it
B. Water passes through the tubes and flue gases around it
C. Forced circulation takes place
D. Tubes are laid vertically
Answer: A
379. The ratio of heat equivalent to brake power to the energy supplied in steam is known as
A. Mechanical efficiency
B. Overall efficiency
C. Indicated thermal efficiency
D. Brake thermal efficiency
Answer: D
380. The difference between Cornish boiler and Lancashire boiler is that
A. Former is fire tube type and latter is water tube type boiler
B. Former is water tube type and latter is fire tube type
C. Former contains one fire tube and latter contains two fire tubes
D. None of the above
Answer: C
381. The function of a piston in a steam engine is
A. To guide motion of the piston rod and to prevent it from bending
B. To transfer motion from the piston to the cross-head
C. To convert heat energy of the steam into mechanical work id) to exhaust steam from the cylinder at
proper moment
D. None of these
Answer: C
382. The pressure of reheat steam after passing through reheater compared to inlet condition is
A. More
B. Less
C. Equal
D. May be more or less depending on capacity of reheater
Answer: B
383. Willian’s line for the steam engine is a straight line relationship between the steam
consumption per hour and
A. Indicated power
B. Brake power
C. Efficiency
D. Pressure of steam
Answer: A
384. Secondary air is the air used to
A. Provide air around burners for obtaining optimum combustion
B. Transport and dry the coal
C. Convert CO formed in lower zone of furnace into CO₂ at higher zone
D. Air delivered by induced draft fan
Answer: A
385. The function of a flywheel is
A. To convert reciprocating motion of the piston into rotary motion
B. To convert rotary motion of the crankshaft into to and fro motion of the valve rod
C. To prevent fluctuation of speed
D. To keep the engine speed uniform at all load conditions
Answer: C
386. During storage, the heating value of coal
A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Remain constant
D. May increase or decrease depending upon the method of storage
Answer: B
387. A closed vessel made of steel and used for the generation of steam is called a
A. Steam boiler
B. Steam turbine
C. Steam condenser
D. Steam injector
Answer: A
388. The shell of the Cochran boiler is made hemispherical
A. To give maximum space and strength
B. To withstand the pressure of steam inside the boiler
C. BothA. andB.
D. None of the above
Answer: C
389. Sublimation region is the region where
A. Solid and vapor phases are in equilibrium
B. Solid and liquid phases are in equilibrium
C. Liquid and vapor phases are in equilibrium
D. Solid, liquid and vapor phases are in equilibrium
Answer: A
390. The ratio of brake power to the indicated power is known as
A. Mechanical efficiency
B. Overall efficiency
C. Indicated thermal efficiency
D. Brake thermal efficiency
Answer: A
391. While steam expands in turbines, theoretically the entropy
A. Remains constant
B. Increases
C. Decreases
D. Behaves unpredictably
Answer: A
392. A device used to put off fire in the furnace of the boiler when the level of water in the boiler
falls to an unsafe limit, is called
A. Blow off cock
B. Stop valve
C. Superheater
D. None of these
Answer: D
393. Water tube boilers are those in which
A. Flue gases pass through tubes and water around it
B. Water passes through the tubes and flue gases around it
C. Work is done during adiabatic expansion
D. Change in enthalpy
Answer: C
394. When the circulation of water, in a boiler, is by a centrifugal pump, then the boiler is known as
A. Internally fired boiler
B. Externally fired boiler
C. Natural circulation boiler
D. Forced circulation boiler
Answer: D
395. Duplex feed pumps are used in small steam boilers. These operate on the principle of
A. Centrifugal pump
B. Axial flow pump
C. Gear pump
D. Reciprocating pump
Answer: D
396. An economiser is installed in a boiler primarily to
A. Superheat the steam
B. Reduce fuel consumption
C. Increase steam pressure
D. All of these
Answer: B
397. Which type of boiler can meet rapid changes of load?
A. Vertical fire tube type
B. Horizontal fire tube type
C. Horizontal water tube type
D. Forced circulation type
Answer: D
398. Besides mean effective pressure, the data required to determine the indicated power of an
engine include
A. Piston diameter, length of stroke and calorific value of fuel
B. Piston diameter, specific fuel consumption and Calorific value of fuel
C. Piston diameter, length of stroke and speed of rotation
D. Specific fuel consumption, speed of rotation and torque
Answer: C
399. The basic purpose of drum in boiler is to
A. Serve as storage of steam
B. Serve as storage of feed water for water wall
C. Remove salts from water
D. Separate steam from water
Answer: D
400. The high pressure and low pressure cylinders in a receiver type compound engine are
regarded as having cranks
A. 180° to each other
B. 90° to each other
C. 0° to each other
D. None of these
Answer: B
401. Steam in water tube boiler as compared to fire tube boiler
A. Can be raised rapidly
B. Is raised at slower rate
C. Is raised at same rate
D. Could be raised at fast/slow rate depending on design
Answer: A
402. When the speed of the engine is controlled by means of a valve in a steam pipe, which regulates
the pressure of steam entering the engine, then the governing is known as
A. Throttle governing
B. Cut-off governing
C. By-pass governing
D. None of these
Answer: A
403. Proximate analysis of fuel is determination of percentage of
A. Carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, sulphur, moisture
B. Fixed carbon, ash, volatile matter, moisture
C. Higher calorific value
D. Lower calorific value
Answer: B
404. A valve installed between the boiler and the feed pump is
A. Blow off cock
B. Feed check valve
C. Steam stop valve
D. None of these
Answer: B
405. Evaporative capacity of boiler is expressed as
A. kg of steam produced
B. Steam pressure produced
C. kg of fuel fired
D. kg of steam produced per kg of fuel fifed
Answer: D
406. A device in which some portion of waste heat of flue gases is recovered to heat the air before it
passes to the furnace for combustion purpose, is known as
A. Superheater
B. Air-preheater
C. Economizer
D. Injector
Answer: B
407. The specific volume of steam with increase in pressure decreases
A. Linearly
B. Slowly first and then rapidly
C. Rapidly first and then slowly
D. Inversely
Answer: C
408. When the total heat of steam is h kJ/kg and the sensible heat of feed water is hf1 kJ/kg, then
the factor of evaporation is given by
A. (h – hf1)/2257
B. (h + hf1)/2257
C. (h × hf1)/2257
D. None of these
Answer: A
409. The evaporation of 15.653 kg of water per hour from and at 100°C is called
A. Evaporative capacity
B. Factor of evaporation
C. Equivalent evaporation
D. One boiler h.p.
Answer: D
410. Which of the following are boiler accessories?
A. Economizer
B. Superheater
C. BothA. andB.
D. None of these
Answer: C
411. Lancashire boiler is of
A. Stationary < fire tube type
B. Horizontal type
C. Natural circulation type
D. All of the above
Answer: D
412. The actual power generated in the engine cylinder is called
A. Indicated power
B. Brake power
C. Frictional power
D. None of these
Answer: A
413. In regenerative air preheaters, the heat is transferred
A. From a metal wall from one medium to another
B. From heating an intermediate material and then heating the air from this material
C. By direct mixing
D. Heat is transferred by bleeding some gas from furnace
Answer: B
414. In case of non-condensing steam engines, the pressure of steam in the cylinder during exhaust
stroke is _________ the condenser pressure.
A. Equal to
B. Lower than
C. Higher than
D. None of these
Answer: C
415. Alkaline pyrogallate is used in Orsat’s apparatus for absorption of
A. CO₂
B. CO
C. O₂
D. N₂
Answer: C
416. The draught produced by a steam jet issuing from a nozzle placed in the ash-pit under the fire
grate of the furnace is called
A. Induced steam jet draught
B. Chimney draught
C. Forced steam jet draught
D. None of these
Answer: C
417. Equivalent evaporation is the amount of water evaporated in a boiler from and at
A. 0°C
B. 100°C
C. Saturation temperature at given pressure
D. Room temperature
Answer: B
418. The diameter of Cornish boiler varies from
A. 0.5 to 1 m
B. 1 to 2 m
C. 1.25 to 2.5 m
D. 2 to 3 m
Answer: B
419. In a throttling process
A. Heat transfer takes place
B. Work is done by the expanding steam
C. Internal energy of steam changes
D. None of the above
Answer: D
420. A device used in a boiler to control the flow of steam from the boiler to the main pipe and to
shut off the steam completely when required, is known as
A. Blow off cock
B. Fusible plug
C. Superheater
D. Stop valve
Answer: D
421. A device in which some portion of waste heat of flue gases is recovered to heat the air before it
passes to the furnace for combustion purpose, is known as
A. Superheater
B. Air-preheater
C. Economizer
D. Injector
Answer: B
422. The specific volume of steam with increase in pressure decreases
A. Linearly
B. Slowly first and then rapidly
C. Rapidly first and then slowly
D. Inversely
Answer: C
423. When the total heat of steam is h kJ/kg and the sensible heat of feed water is hf1 kJ/kg, then
the factor of evaporation is given by
A. (h – hf1)/2257
B. (h + hf1)/2257
C. (h × hf1)/2257
D. None of these
Answer: A
424. The evaporation of 15.653 kg of water per hour from and at 100°C is called
A. Evaporative capacity
B. Factor of evaporation
C. Equivalent evaporation
D. One boiler h.p.
Answer: D
425. Which of the following are boiler accessories?
A. Economizer
B. Superheater
C. BothA. andB.
D. None of these
Answer: C
426. Lancashire boiler is of
A. Stationary < fire tube type
B. Horizontal type
C. Natural circulation type
D. All of the above
Answer: D
427. The actual power generated in the engine cylinder is called
A. Indicated power
B. Brake power
C. Frictional power
D. None of these
Answer: A
428. In regenerative air preheaters, the heat is transferred
A. From a metal wall from one medium to another
B. From heating an intermediate material and then heating the air from this material
C. By direct mixing
D. Heat is transferred by bleeding some gas from furnace
Answer: B
429. In case of non-condensing steam engines, the pressure of steam in the cylinder during exhaust
stroke is _________ the condenser pressure.
A. Equal to
B. Lower than
C. Higher than
D. None of these
Answer: C
430. Alkaline pyrogallate is used in Orsat’s apparatus for absorption of
A. CO₂
B. CO
C. O₂
D. N₂
Answer: C
431. The draught produced by a steam jet issuing from a nozzle placed in the ash-pit under the fire
grate of the furnace is called
A. Induced steam jet draught
B. Chimney draught
C. Forced steam jet draught
D. None of these
Answer: C
432. Equivalent evaporation is the amount of water evaporated in a boiler from and at
A. 0°C
B. 100°C
C. Saturation temperature at given pressure
D. Room temperature
Answer: B
433. The diameter of Cornish boiler varies from
A. 0.5 to 1 m
B. 1 to 2 m
C. 1.25 to 2.5 m
D. 2 to 3 m
Answer: B
434. In a throttling process
A. Heat transfer takes place
B. Work is done by the expanding steam
C. Internal energy of steam changes
D. None of the above
Answer: D
435. A device used in a boiler to control the flow of steam from the boiler to the main pipe and to
shut off the steam completely when required, is known as
A. Blow off cock
B. Fusible plug
C. Superheater
D. Stop valve
Answer: D
436. The length of Cornish boiler is of the order of
A. 24 m
B. 35 m
C. 57.5 m
D. 79 m
Answer: C
437. The forced circulation of water does not take place in
A. LaMont boiler
B. Lancashire boiler
C. Velox boiler
D. Benson boiler
Answer: B
438. A fusible plug is fitted in small boilers in order to
A. Avoid excessive build up of pressure
B. Avoid explosion
C. Extinguish fire if water level in the boiler falls below alarming limit
D. Control steam dome
Answer: C
439. Which of the following statement is wrong?
A. The factor of evaporation for all boilers is always greater than unity
B. The amount of water evaporated in kg per kg of fuel burnt is called equivalent evaporation from and at
100° C
C. The ratio of heat actually used in producing the steam to the heat liberated in the furnace is called
boiler efficiency
D. None of the above
Answer: D
440. Sulphur in coal results in
A. Corroding air heaters
B. Spontaneous combustion during coal storage
C. Facilitating ash precipitation
D. All of the above
Answer: D
441. Lancashire boiler has __________ internal flue tubes.
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
Answer: B
442. For the same diameter and thickness of tube, a water tube boiler compared to a fire tube boiler
has
A. More heating surface
B. Less heating surface
C. Equal heating surface
D. Heating surface depends on other parameters
Answer: A
443. The amount of water evaporated in kg per kg of fuel burnt is called
A. Evaporative capacity of a boiler
B. Equivalent evaporation from and at 100° C
C. Boiler efficiency
D. None of these
Answer: A
444. Heating of dry steam above saturation temperature is known as
A. Enthalpy
B. Superheating
C. Super saturation
D. Latent heat
Answer: B
445. The function of a piston rod is
A. To guide motion of the piston rod and to prevent it from bending
B. To transfer motion from the piston to the cross head
C. To convert heat energy of the steam into mechanical work
D. To exhaust steam from the cylinder at proper moment
Answer: B
446. At which pressure the properties of water and steam become identical
A. 0.1 kg/cm²
B. 1 kg/cm²
C. 100 kg/cm²
D. 225.6 kg/cm²
Answer: D
447. The actual power supplied by the engine crankshaft is called
A. Indicated power
B. Brake power
C. Frictional power
D. None of these
Answer: B
448. The diameter of cylindrical shell of the Lancashire boiler is of the order of
A. 1 to 1.25 m
B. 1 to 1.75 m
C. 2 to 4 m
D. 1.75 to 2.75 m
Answer: D
449. The length of Lancashire boiler varies from
A. 5 to 6 m
B. 6 to 7 m
C. 7.25 to 9 m
D. 9 to 10 m
Answer: C
450. The radius of a dished head is taken approximately as
A. One fourth
B. Half
C. One
D. Two
Answer: C
451. Fire tube boilers are
A. Internally fired
B. Externally fired
C. Internally as well as externally fired
D. None of these
Answer: A
452. Bomb calorimeter is used to determine
A. Higher calorific value at constant volume
B. Lower calorific value at constant volume
C. Higher calorific value at constant pressure
D. Lower calorific value at constant pressure
Answer: A
453. The clearance in the engine cylinder
A. Increases the mean effective pressure
B. Increases the workdone
C. Decreases the efficiency of the engine
D. All of these
Answer: D
454. Over fire burning is the phenomenon of
A. Supply of excess, air
B. Supply of excess coal
C. Burning CO and unburnt in upper zone of furnace by supplying more air
D. Fuel bed firing
Answer: C
455. The length of Cornish boiler varies from
A. 2 to 4.5 m
B. 3 to 5 m
C. 5 to 7.5 m
D. 7 to 9 m
Answer: C
456. Hard coke is produced by carburization of coal at
A. Atmospheric temperature
B. 500-600°C
C. 700-850°C
D. 950-1100°C
Answer: D
457. The water tubes in a simple vertical boiler are
A. Horizontal
B. Vertical
C. Inclined
D. None of these
Answer: C
458. The dry saturated steam at very high pressure (150200 kg/cm²) when throttled to atmosphere
will become
A. Wet
B. Superheated
C. Remain dry saturated
D. Dry
Answer: A
459. Which of the following statement is correct?
A. Lancashire boiler is a fire tube boiler
B. Fire tube boilers are internally fired
C. Babcock and Wilcox boiler is a water tube boiler
D. All of the above
Answer: D
460. The best suited coal for chain or traveling grate stoker boiler is
A. Coking coal
B. Non-coking or free burning coal
C. Pulverized coal
D. High sulphur coal
Answer: B
461. The mechanical draught _________ with the amount of smoke.
A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Does not effect
D. None of these
Answer: B
462. O₂ content in atmospheric air on volume basis is
A. 21 %
B. 23 %
C. 30 %
D. 40 %
Answer: A
463. The natural draught is produced by
A. Steam jet
B. Centrifugal fan
C. Chimney
D. BothA. andB.
Answer: C
464. Boiler parameters are expressed by
A. Tonnes/hr. of steam
B. Pressure of steam in kg/cm²
C. Temperature of steam in °C
D. All of the above
Answer: D
465. In forced circulation steam boilers, the force is applied
A. To draw water
B. To circulate water
C. To drain off the water
D. All of these
Answer: B
466. The coal requirement per kW hour generation in the thermal power plant is of the order of
A. 0.1 to 0.2 kg
B. 0.2 to 0.4 kg
C. 0.6 to 0.8 kg
D. 1.0 to 1.5 kg
Answer: C
467. The diameter of flue tube in a Cornish boiler is _________ that of the shell.
A. One-fourth
B. One-third
C. Two-fifth
D. Three-fifth
Answer: D
468. During polytropic process
A. Heat transfer takes place across cylinder walls
B. Work is done
C. Steam may be wet, dry or superheated after expansion
D. All of the above
Answer: D
469. The ratio of the clearance volume to the swept volume is called
A. Cut-off ratio
B. Expansion ratio
C. Clearance ratio
D. None of these
Answer: C
470. The fusible plug in small boilers is located
A. In the drum
B. In the fire tubes
C. Above steam dome
D. Over the combustion chamber
Answer: D
471. The rate of steam produced in Benson boiler is
A. 100 tonnes/h
B. 135 tonnes/h
C. 175 tonnes/h
D. 250 tonnes/h
Answer: B
472. Incomplete combustion can be best judged by
A. Smoky chimney exit
B. Excess air in flue gases
C. Measuring carbon monoxide in flue gases
D. Measuring temperature of flue gases at exit of furnace
Answer: C
473. Which of the following boiler works on a forced circulation of water?
A. Lamont boiler
B. Benson boiler
C. Loeffler boiler
D. All of these
Answer: D
474. Hygrometry deals with the
A. Hygroscopic substances
B. Water vapor in air
C. Temperature of air
D. Pressure of air
Answer: B
475. The length of shell of a Locomotive boiler is
A. 1 m
B. 2 m
C. 3 m
D. 4 m
Answer: D
476. The number of drums in Benson steam generator is
A. One
B. Two
C. One steam drum and one water drum
D. No drum
Answer: D
477. The chimney draught varies with
A. Climatic conditions
B. Temperature of furnace gases
C. Height of chimney
D. All of these
Answer: D
478. Pick up wrong statement about desired properties of a good fuel
A. High calorific value
B. Produce minimum smoke and gases
C. Ease in storing
D. High ignition point
Answer: D
479. Benson boiler requires
A. No drum
B. One drum
C. Two drums
D. Three drums
Answer: A
480. Natural water circulation, by convection in water tube boilers, with increase in pressure of
boiler
A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Remain unaffected
D. First increases and then decreases
Answer: B
481. The shell diameter of a Locomotive boiler is
A. 1 m
B. 1.5 m
C. 2 m
D. 2.5 m
Answer: B
482. The equivalent evaporation of a boiler is a measure to compare
A. The given boiler with the model
B. The two different boilers of the same make
C. Two different makes of boilers operating under the same operating conditions
D. Any type of boilers operating under any conditions
Answer: D
483. Water at pressure of 4 kg/cm² and 160°C temperature when exposed to atmosphere will
A. Boil
B. Flash i.e. get converted into steam
C. Remain as it was
D. Cool down
Answer: B
484. Locomotive type’ boiler is
A. Horizontal multi-tubular water tube boiler
B. Water wall enclosed furnace type
C. Vertical tubular fire tube type
D. Horizontal multi-tubular fire tube type
Answer: D
485. The function of injector used in small steam plants is to
A. Create vacuum in furnace
B. Create vacuum at turbine exhaust
C. Pump feed water
D. Dose chemicals in feed water
Answer: C
486. The function of injector used in small capacity boilers is to
A. Create vacuum
B. Inject chemical solution in feed pump
C. Pump water, similar to boiler feed pump
D. Add make up water in the system
Answer: C
487. Caking coals are those which
A. Form lumps or masses of coke
B. Burn freely
C. Show little or no fusing action
D. Burn completely
Answer: A
488. The balanced draft furnace is one using
A. Induced draft fan and chimney
B. Induced draft fan and forced draft fan
C. Forced draft fan and chimney
D. Any one of the above
Answer: B
489. Reheating of steam under ideal conditions takes place at constant
A. Entropy
B. Enthalpy
C. Pressure
D. Temperature
Answer: D
490. If a steam sample is nearly in dry condition, then its dryness fraction can be most accurately
determined by
A. Throttling calorimeter
B. Separating calorimeter
C. Combined separating and throttling calorimeter
D. Bucket calorimeter
Answer: A
491. The specific heat of superheated steam in kcal/kg is generally of the order of
A. 0.1
B. 0.3
C. 0.5
D. 0.8
Answer: C
492. On Mollier chart, flow through turbine is represented by
A. Horizontal straight line
B. Vertical straight line
C. Straight inclined line
D. Curved line
Answer: B
493. A wet vapor can be completely specified by
A. Pressure only
B. Temperature only
C. Dryness fraction only
D. Pressure and dryness fraction
Answer: D
494. Water boils when its vapor pressure
A. Equals that of the surroundings
B. Equals 760 mm of mercury
C. Equals to atmospheric pressure
D. Equals the pressure of water in the container
Answer: A
495. An ideal regenerative cycle is
A. Equal to Carnot cycle
B. Less than Carnot cycle
C. More than Carnot cycle
D. Could be anything
Answer: B
496. The diameter of fire tube of Cornish boiler compared to its shell is
A. One half
B. One third
C. One fourth
D. One fifth
Answer: A
497. The number of flue tubes in Lancashire boiler is
A. Zero
B. One
C. Two
D. Four
Answer: C
498. The fire tubes in, a Coarran and Scottish marine boiler are
A. Horizontal
B. Vertical
C. Inclined
D. Both horizontal and vertical
Answer: A
499. A boiler in India should conform to safety regulations of
A. DIN
B. BS
C. ASTM
D. IBR
Answer: D
500. Thermal efficiency of well maintained boiler will be of the order
A. 40 %
B. 50 %
C. 75 %
D. 90 %
Answer: D
501. Size of boiler tubes is specified by
A. Mean diameter and thickness
B. Inside diameter and thickness
C. Outside diameter and thickness
D. Outside diameter and inside diameter
Answer: C
502. The diameter of fire tubes in Cochran boiler is of the order of
A. 2 cm
B. 6 cm
C. 8 cm
D. 12 cm
Answer: B
503. Gusset stays in a boiler are provided to
A. Prevent the bulging of flat surfaces
B. Avoid explosion in furnace
C. Prevent leakage of hot flue gases
D. Support furnace freely from top
Answer: A
504. Pulverized fuel is used for
A. Better burning
B. More calorific value
C. Less radiation loss
D. Medium sized units
Answer: A
505. Calorific value of coal is of the order of
A. 200-400 kcal/ kg
B. 800-1200 kcal/ kg
C. 2000-4000 kcal/ kg
D. 5000-8000 kcal/ kg
Answer: C