UNIT – 1

1. What is the primary objective of the simplex method?

a) Minimize the number of variables

b) Maximize the number of constraints

c) Maximize or minimize a linear objective function

d) None of the above

Answer: c) Maximize or minimize a linear objective function

2. In the simplex method, what is a basic feasible solution?

a) A solution where all variables are non-negative

b) A solution that satisfies all constraints and has at least one zero variable

c) A solution where all variables are zero

d) A solution that satisfies all constraints and has exactly m nonzero variables,
where m is the number of constraints

Answer: d) A solution that satisfies all constraints and has exactly m nonzero
variables, where m is the number of constraints

3. What does the simplex algorithm iteratively improve upon to find the optimal
solution?

a) The objective function value

b) The number of variables

c) The feasibility of the solution

d) None of the above

 Answer: a) The objective function value

4. What is the purpose of the pivot operation in the simplex method?

a) To add a new constraint to the problem

b) To change the objective function

c) To move from one basic feasible solution to another with a better objective
function value

d) None of the above

Answer: c) To move from one basic feasible solution to another with a better
objective function value

5. Which of the following is not a requirement for applying the simplex method?

a) The problem must be a linear programming problem

b) The problem must be in standard form

c) The problem must have only two decision variables

d) The problem must have a feasible solution

Answer: c) The problem must have only two decision variables

6. In the simplex method, which variable enters the basis during each iteration?

a) Non-basic variable with the most negative coefficient in the objective function

b) Basic variable with the most positive coefficient in the objective function

c) Non-basic variable with the least negative coefficient in the objective function

d) Basic variable with the least positive coefficient in the objective function
 Answer: a) Non-basic variable with the most negative coefficient in the objective
function

7. When does the simplex method terminate?

a) When all variables are zero

b) When there are no more feasible solutions

c) When the objective function value cannot be further improved

d) None of the above

Answer: c) When the objective function value cannot be further improved

Question 1:

What is the primary objective of the primal simplex method in linear programming?

A) Minimizing the number of variables

B) Maximizing the objective function

C) Minimizing the objective function

D) Maximizing the number of constraints

Answer:

C) Minimizing the objective function

Question 2:

In the primal simplex method, what is the first step?

A) Initialization

B) Determining the pivot column

C) Determining the pivot row

D) Checking for optimality

Answer:

A) Initialization

Question 3:

What does the dual simplex method in linear programming primarily focus on?

A) Maximizing the number of variables

B) Minimizing the objective function

C) Maximizing the objective function

D) Minimizing the number of constraints

Answer:

B) Minimizing the objective function

Question 4:

In the dual simplex method, what is the first step?

A) Initialization

B) Determining the pivot column

C) Determining the pivot row

D) Checking for optimality

Answer:

D) Checking for optimality

Question 5:

Which of the following statements about the primal and dual simplex methods is
true?
A) Both methods can only minimize the objective function.

B) The primal simplex method maximizes the objective function, while the dual
simplex method minimizes it.

C) The primal simplex method minimizes the objective function, while the dual
simplex method maximizes it.

D) Both methods are only used for maximization problems.

Answer:

B) The primal simplex method maximizes the objective function, while the dual
simplex method minimizes it.

Question 6:

What is the significance of the dual simplex method?

A) It allows for easier computation in certain cases.

B) It always finds the optimal solution faster than the primal simplex method.

C) It can only be used for minimization problems.

D) It is primarily used for initialization in linear programming.

Answer:

A) It allows for easier computation in certain cases.

1. What does the assignment problem deal with?

a) Optimally assigning tasks to workers

b) Optimally assigning workers to tasks

c) Maximizing profits in a production process

d) Minimizing transportation costs

Answer: b) Optimally assigning workers to tasks

2. Which of the following techniques is commonly used to solve the assignment

problem?

a) Linear programming

b) Genetic algorithms

c) Monte Carlo simulation

d) Dynamic programming

Answer: a) Linear programming

3. In the assignment problem, what does each worker or task correspond to?

a) A node in a graph

b) A variable in a linear equation

c) A column or row in a matrix

d) A constraint in an optimization problem

Answer: c) A column or row in a matrix

4. The Hungarian algorithm is often used to solve the assignment problem. What type
of algorithm is it?

a) Greedy algorithm

b) Divide and conquer algorithm

c) Dynamic programming algorithm

d) Genetic algorithm
Answer: a) Greedy algorithm

5. What does the Hungarian algorithm guarantee?

a) Finding the optimal solution for the assignment problem

b) Finding a suboptimal solution for the assignment problem

c) Finding the maximum profit in a production process

d) Finding the minimum transportation cost

Answer: a) Finding the optimal solution for the assignment problem

6. In the context of the assignment problem, what does the term "cost" refer to?

a) Financial expenditure

b) Time required to complete a task

c) Distance or effort required to perform a task

d) Quality of the output

Answer: c) Distance or effort required to perform a task

7. Which of the following statements about the assignment problem is true?

a) It can be solved using only brute force methods

b) It always has a unique solution

c) It is a type of combinatorial optimization problem

d) It does not require any optimization techniques to solve

Answer: c) It is a type of combinatorial optimization problem

8. What is the objective of solving the assignment problem?

a) Maximizing the number of tasks assigned

b) Minimizing the total cost or time of assignment

c) Balancing the workload among workers

d) Maximizing the profit of the organization

Answer: b) Minimizing the total cost or time of assignment

1. What is the Graphical Method used for in Operations Research?

A) To solve linear programming problems graphically

B) To solve non-linear programming problems

C) To analyze time series data

D) To simulate stochastic processes

Answer: A) To solve linear programming problems graphically

2. Which of the following is NOT a step in the Graphical Method for solving linear
programming problems?

A) Plot the constraints

B) Determine the feasible region

C) Calculate the objective function values

D) Identify the optimal solution

Answer: C) Calculate the objective function values

3. In the Graphical Method, the feasible region is determined by:

A) The intersection of the constraint lines

B) The area outside the constraint lines

 C) The area enclosed by the constraint lines

D) The area above the constraint lines

Answer: C) The area enclosed by the constraint lines

4. If a linear programming problem has no feasible region, it means:

A) There is no solution to the problem

B) The problem has an infinite number of solutions

C) The problem is unbounded

D) The problem is infeasible

Answer: D) The problem is infeasible

5. Which of the following statements about the Graphical Method is FALSE?

A) It can handle problems with any number of decision variables

B) It is suitable for educational purposes and simple problems

C) It provides an exact solution to linear programming problems

D) It is limited to problems with two decision variables

Answer: D) It is limited to problems with two decision variables

6. If the objective function line is parallel to a constraint line in the Graphical Method,
what does it indicate?

A) Multiple optimal solutions

B) No feasible solution

C) Unbounded solution

D) Feasible solution exists but not optimal

Answer: A) Multiple optimal solutions

7. In the Graphical Method, the optimal solution is found at the point where:

A) The objective function line intersects a constraint line

B) The feasible region is smallest

C) The objective function line is tangent to the feasible region

D) The objective function value is highest

Answer: C) The objective function line is tangent to the feasible region

8. Which of the following is a limitation of the Graphical Method

A) It cannot handle problems with more than two decision variables

B) It is computationally intensive for large-scale problems

C) It always provides the global optimal solution

D) It is not suitable for problems with non-linear constraints

Answer: B) It is computationally intensive for large-scale problems

1. What is the objective of linear programming?

a) To maximize profits

b) To minimize costs

c) To optimize a linear objective function subject to linear constraints

d) To solve quadratic equations

Answer: c) To optimize a linear objective function subject to linear constraints

2. Which of the following is NOT a requirement for a problem to be solved using linear
programming?

a) The objective function and constraints must be linear

b) The problem must have multiple solutions

 c) The variables must be continuous

d) The problem must be deterministic

Answer: b) The problem must have multiple solutions

3. In linear programming, what is the feasible region?

a) The region where the objective function is maximized

b) The region where all constraints are satisfied simultaneously

c) The region where the variables are non-negative

d) The region where the constraints are ignored

Answer: b) The region where all constraints are satisfied simultaneously

4. Which method is commonly used to solve linear programming problems

graphically?

a) Simplex method

b) Fourier-Motzkin elimination

c) Graphical method

d) Lagrange multipliers

Answer: c) Graphical method

5. Which of the following statements about the Simplex method is true?

a) It can only be used to solve maximization problems

b) It guarantees finding the optimal solution in polynomial time

c) It can handle both equality and inequality constraints

 d) It is not suitable for problems with more than two variables

Answer: c) It can handle both equality and inequality constraints

6. What does the dual problem represent in linear programming?

a) It represents the original problem with reversed objective and constraints

b) It represents the maximum value of the objective function

c) It represents the minimum value of the objective function

d) It represents the shadow prices of the constraints

Answer: d) It represents the shadow prices of the constraints

7. When is a linear programming problem considered infeasible?

a) When the objective function is unbounded

b) When there are no feasible solutions that satisfy all constraints

c) When the feasible region is empty

d) When the problem has multiple optimal solutions

Answer: c) When the feasible region is empty

UNIT – 2
1. What is game theory primarily concerned with?

a) Studying recreational games

 b) Analyzing strategic interactions between rational decision-makers

c) Investigating game shows

d) Exploring video game design

Answer: b) Analyzing strategic interactions between rational decision-makers

2. Who is considered the father of game theory?

a) John Nash

b) John von Neumann

c) Alan Turing

d) Claude Shannon

Answer: b) John von Neumann

3. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a game in game theory?

a) Players

b) Strategies

c) Chance

d) Goals

Answer: c) Chance

4. In game theory, what is a "strategy"?

a) A plan chosen by a player to achieve their goal

b) A random decision made by a player

c) A move that guarantees a win

 d) A tactic employed only in video games

Answer: a) A plan chosen by a player to achieve their goal

5. What is a "zero-sum game"?

a) A game where one player's gain is exactly balanced by another player's loss

b) A game with no clear rules

c) A game where players always tie

d) A game with unlimited rounds

Answer: a) A game where one player's gain is exactly balanced by another player's
loss

6. What does "payoff" represent in game theory?

a) The amount of money a player invests in the game

b) The satisfaction derived from playing

c) The outcome or result associated with a combination of strategies chosen by

players

d) The time duration of the game

Answer: c) The outcome or result associated with a combination of strategies chosen

by players

7. Which of the following is NOT a type of game in game theory?

a) Cooperative games

b) Simultaneous games

c) Sequential games
 d) Synchronous games

Answer: d) Synchronous games

8. What is the Prisoner's Dilemma?

a) A scenario where two rational individuals may not cooperate even if it is in their
best interest to do so

b) A game played by prisoners during recreation time

c) A situation where prisoners always collaborate for mutual benefit

d) A game with only one possible outcome

Answer: a) A scenario where two rational individuals may not cooperate even if it is in
their best interest to do so

9. What is a Nash equilibrium?

a) A strategy that guarantees a player's win

b) A situation where no player can improve their payoff by unilaterally changing their
strategy

c) A state where players always lose

d) A type of cooperative game

Answer: b) A situation where no player can improve their payoff by unilaterally

changing their strategy

10. What is the significance of John Nash's contribution to game theory?

a) He proved that all games have a winning strategy

b) He introduced the concept of Nash equilibrium

 c) He invented the first game theory textbook

d) He designed the first computer-based game

Answer: b) He introduced the concept of Nash equilibrium

1. In a two-person zero-sum game, what does "zero-sum" mean?

A) The total payoff to the players is always zero

B) The total payoff to one player is zero

C) The total payoff to both players is always positive

D) The total payoff to both players is always negative

Answer: A) The total payoff to the players is always zero

2. Which of the following is a key assumption of two-person zero-sum games?

A) Players have perfect information

B) Players have different objectives

C) The game must have a finite number of strategies

D) Players cannot communicate or collude

Answer: D) Players cannot communicate or collude

3. In a two-person zero-sum game, what is the maximin strategy?

A) Maximizing the minimum possible payoff

B) Maximizing the maximum possible payoff

C) Minimizing the maximum possible payoff

D) Minimizing the minimum possible payoff

Answer: A) Maximizing the minimum possible payoff

4. What is the minimax strategy in a two-person zero-sum game?

A) Minimizing the minimum possible payoff

B) Minimizing the maximum possible payoff

C) Maximizing the minimum possible payoff

D) Maximizing the maximum possible payoff

Answer: D) Maximizing the maximum possible payoff

5. How is the payoff matrix represented in a two-person zero-sum game?

A) A matrix where each player's strategy is listed against their opponent's strategy

B) A matrix where each player's payoff is listed for each possible combination of
strategies

C) A matrix where only one player's strategy is listed

D) A matrix where the total payoff to both players is listed

Answer: B) A matrix where each player's payoff is listed for each possible combination
of strategies

1. What is a pure strategy in game theory?

A) A strategy that involves randomizing between different actions.

B) A strategy that involves choosing a single action with certainty.

C) A strategy that involves maximizing the potential payoff.

D) A strategy that involves minimizing the potential payoff.

Answer: B) A strategy that involves choosing a single action with certainty.

2. Which principle is associated with decision-making under uncertainty in game

theory?

A) Nash equilibrium

B) Minimax principle

C) Maximin principle

D) Bayesian equilibrium

Answer: B) Minimax principle

3. In a zero-sum game, what does the Minimax principle suggest?

A) Each player maximizes their own payoff.

B) Each player minimizes the opponent's payoff.

C) Players aim to reach a Nash equilibrium.

D) Players aim to maximize the total payoff.

Answer: B) Each player minimizes the opponent's payoff.

4. What does the Maxmin principle state?

A) Players aim to maximize their own payoff.

B) Players aim to minimize the opponent's payoff.

C) Players aim to maximize the minimum possible payoff.

D) Players aim to minimize their own regret.

Answer: C) Players aim to maximize the minimum possible payoff.

5. In a two-player zero-sum game, if both players use pure strategies and play
optimally, what is guaranteed?

A) A Nash equilibrium

B) A Pareto optimal outcome

C) A minimax equilibrium

D) A dominant strategy equilibrium

Answer: C) A minimax equilibrium

6. Which of the following is NOT true regarding the Minimax principle?

A) It assumes perfect information.

B) It is used in zero-sum games.

C) It involves minimizing the maximum possible loss.

D) It always leads to a Pareto optimal outcome.

Answer: D) It always leads to a Pareto optimal outcome.

7. In a two-player game, if Player A uses a Minimax strategy and Player B uses a

Maximin strategy, what is likely to happen?

A) Both players achieve their maximum payoff.

B) Both players achieve their minimum payoff.

C) Player A achieves their maximum payoff, and Player B achieves their minimum
payoff.

D) Player B achieves their maximum payoff, and Player A achieves their minimum
payoff.
Answer: C) Player A achieves their maximum payoff, and Player B achieves their
minimum payoff.

1. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of mixed strategies in occupational

therapy?

A) Incorporating elements from different therapeutic approaches

B) Customizing interventions based on individual client needs

C) Following a standardized treatment protocol for all clients

D) Adapting interventions according to client progress

Answer: C) Following a standardized treatment protocol for all clients

2. What is the primary goal of employing mixed strategies in occupational therapy?

A) To streamline treatment approaches for efficiency

B) To ensure uniformity in treatment outcomes

C) To maximize therapeutic effectiveness for diverse client populations

D) To minimize client involvement in the treatment process

Answer: C) To maximize therapeutic effectiveness for diverse client populations

3. Which of the following is an example of a mixed strategy in occupational therapy?

A) Using only sensory integration techniques for all clients

B) Integrating cognitive-behavioral approaches with physical interventions

C) Applying the same standardized exercises to every client

D) Limiting interventions to one specific modality regardless of client needs

Answer: B) Integrating cognitive-behavioral approaches with physical interventions

4. How does the utilization of mixed strategies benefit occupational therapy practice?

A) By simplifying treatment planning

B) By reducing the need for client assessment

C) By enhancing the flexibility and effectiveness of interventions

D) By minimizing the need for therapist-client communication

Answer: C) By enhancing the flexibility and effectiveness of interventions

5. When employing mixed strategies, what should guide the selection of interventions
for a particular client?

A) The therapist's personal preference

B) The cost-effectiveness of interventions

C) The client's individualized needs and goals

D) The therapist's familiarity with certain techniques

Answer: C) The client's individualized needs and goals

6. Which aspect is essential for successful implementation of mixed strategies in

occupational therapy?

A) Strict adherence to one specific therapeutic approach

B) Utilizing only evidence-based interventions

C) Continual assessment and adaptation of interventions

D) Relying solely on theoretical knowledge

Answer: C) Continual assessment and adaptation of interventions

7. In what ways can mixed strategies in occupational therapy promote client-centered
care?

A) By limiting treatment options to those favored by the therapist

B) By prioritizing therapist convenience over client preferences

C) By tailoring interventions to meet the unique needs and preferences of each client

D) By disregarding client feedback during the treatment process

Answer: C) By tailoring interventions to meet the unique needs and preferences of

each client

8. Which factor is NOT considered when selecting interventions within mixed

strategies?

A) Client's cultural background

B) Client's financial status

C) Client's treatment preferences

D) Therapist's personal preference

Answer: D) Therapist's personal preference

1. What is the primary principle of dominance in occupational therapy?

A) Encouraging competition among patients

B) Fostering a sense of independence and self-efficacy

C) Promoting cooperation between patients and therapists

D) Emphasizing the use of dominant hand or limb for functional tasks

Answer: D) Emphasizing the use of dominant hand or limb for functional tasks
2. Which of the following is NOT a benefit of promoting dominance in occupational
therapy?

A) Improved motor skills and coordination

B) Enhanced self-esteem and confidence

C) Increased frustration and agitation

D) Better performance in activities of daily living

Answer: C) Increased frustration and agitation

3. How does emphasizing dominance contribute to occupational therapy goals?

A) By challenging patients to use their non-dominant hand more frequently

B) By reducing the risk of injury during therapy sessions

C) By promoting efficient and effective use of the dominant hand for tasks

D) By limiting the range of activities available to patients

Answer: C) By promoting efficient and effective use of the dominant hand for tasks

4. Which population might particularly benefit from interventions focused on

dominance in occupational therapy?

A) Children with developmental delays

B) Older adults with dementia

C) Individuals with traumatic brain injuries

D) All of the above

Answer: D) All of the above

5. What role does the concept of dominance play in occupational therapy
assessments?

A) It determines the severity of the patient's condition

B) It helps identify potential barriers to independence in daily activities

C) It dictates the types of interventions that can be used

D) It is not relevant to occupational therapy assessments

Answer: B) It helps identify potential barriers to independence in daily activities

1. In game theory, what is the algebraic method used for?

- A) Finding the Nash equilibrium

- B) Identifying the saddle point

- C) Solving games without a saddle point

- D) Analyzing zero-sum games

Answer: C) Solving games without a saddle point

2. Which step comes first in the algebraic method for solving games without a saddle
point?

- A) Identifying the saddle point

- B) Finding the Nash equilibrium

- C) Calculating row minimums and column maximums

- D) Identifying the game matrix

Answer: D) Identifying the game matrix

3. What is the maximin strategy used for in game theory?

 - A) Maximizing the minimum pay-off

- B) Minimizing the maximum pay-off

- C) Maximizing the maximum pay-off

- D) Minimizing the minimum pay-off

Answer: A) Maximizing the minimum pay-off

4. How do you find the minimax strategy in the algebraic method?

- A) By maximizing the minimum pay-off

- B) By minimizing the maximum pay-off

- C) By maximizing the maximum pay-off

- D) By minimizing the minimum pay-off

Answer: B) By minimizing the maximum pay-off

5. What does it mean if a game has no saddle point?

- A) The game is not zero-sum

- B) The game has multiple Nash equilibria

- C) The game has no pure strategy equilibrium

- D) The game has no dominant strategy equilibrium

- **Answer: B) The game has multiple Nash equilibria**

6. In the algebraic method, what is calculated to determine the maximin and minimax
strategies?

- A) Row minimums and column maximums

- B) Row maximums and column minimums

- C) Row sums and column sums

- D) Row averages and column averages

 Answer: A) Row minimums and column maximums

7. What is the significance of a Nash equilibrium in game theory

- A) It represents a compromise between players

- B) It ensures maximum pay-off for all players

- C) It indicates a stable outcome where no player has an incentive to deviate

unilaterally

- D) It guarantees the absence of dominant strategies

Answer: C) It indicates a stable outcome where no player has an incentive to deviate

unilaterally

1. Plotting the Pay-off Matrix: Begin by plotting the pay-off matrix on a graph, typically
with the strategies of one player on the x-axis and the strategies of the other player on
the y-axis.

2. Drawing Best Response Curves: For each player, draw a best response curve
indicating the strategies that maximize their pay-off given the strategies chosen by the
opponent.

3. Identifying Intersection Points: The intersection point(s) of the best response curves
represent the Nash equilibrium(s) of the game.

4. Calculating Pay-offs at Equilibrium: Determine the pay-offs associated with each

Nash equilibrium point.

1. Which method is used to solve games by visually representing the best responses
of players?

- A) Algebraic method

- B) Graphical method

- C) Analytical method
 - D) Strategic method

Answer: B) Graphical method

2. What do the intersection points of best response curves represent in the graphical
method of solving games?

- A) Saddle points

- B) Nash equilibria

- C) Dominant strategies

- D) Pay-off matrices

Answer: B) Nash equilibria

3. What is the first step in the graphical method to solve games?

- A) Plotting the pay-off matrix

- B) Drawing best response curves

- C) Identifying intersection points

- D) Calculating pay-offs at equilibrium

Answer: A) Plotting the pay-off matrix

4. What do best response curves represent in the graphical method?

- A) Strategies that minimize pay-offs

- B) Strategies that maximize pay-offs

- C) Mixed strategies

- D) Dominant strategies

Answer: B) Strategies that maximize pay-offs

5. What is determined at the intersection points of best response curves?

- A) Dominant strategies

- B) Minimax strategies

- C) Nash equilibria

- D) Saddle points

Answer: C) Nash equilibria

UNIT – 3
1. What is the primary objective of replacement theory?

- A) To minimize replacement costs

- B) To maximize the lifespan of an item

- C) To optimize inventory levels

- D) To minimize downtime due to replacements

Answer: A) To minimize replacement costs

2. Which of the following is NOT a common type of replacement in replacement

theory?

- A) Replacement due to deterioration

- B) Replacement due to obsolescence

- C) Replacement due to demand fluctuation

- D) Replacement due to failure

Answer: C) Replacement due to demand fluctuation

3.What is the objective of replacement of items that deteriorate?

- A) To minimize the cost of deterioration

- B) To maximize the lifespan of the items

- C) To minimize the cost of replacement and deterioration

- D) To minimize the cost of replacement alone

Answer: D) To minimize the cost of replacement alone

4. Which model is commonly used in replacement theory to determine the optimal

replacement policy for items that deteriorate?

- A) Economic Order Quantity (EOQ) model

- B) Replacement Model
 - C) Wilson's Inventory Model

- D) ABC Analysis

Answer: B) Replacement Model

5. What is the primary consideration in replacement of items that fail?

- A) Minimizing the cost of replacement alone

- B) Minimizing the cost of failure

- C) Maximizing the lifespan of the items

- D) Minimizing the cost of both replacement and failure

Answer: B) Minimizing the cost of failure

6. In replacement theory, what does the term "optimal replacement policy" refer to?

- A) The replacement policy that maximizes profits

- B) The replacement policy that minimizes total costs

- C) The replacement policy that minimizes downtime

- D) The replacement policy that maximizes inventory levels

Answer: B) The replacement policy that minimizes total costs

7. Which factor is NOT typically considered in replacement models?

- A) Purchase cost of the item

- B) Salvage value of the replaced item

- C) Lead time for replacement

- D) Customer demand for the item

Answer: D) Customer demand for the item

1. What is the key difference between group replacement and individual
replacement?

- A) Group replacement involves replacing items one by one, while individual

replacement is done in batches.

- B) Group replacement is suitable for situations where items fail simultaneously,

while individual replacement is done one at a time.

- C) Group replacement is more cost-effective than individual replacement.

- D) Individual replacement is more suitable for situations where items fail

simultaneously.

Answer: B) Group replacement is suitable for situations where items fail

simultaneously, while individual replacement is done one at a time.

2. Which of the following is a characteristic of group replacement?

- A) Items are replaced individually as they fail.

- B) Replacement is done in batches or groups.

- C) It is suitable for situations where items fail independently.

- D) It is more costly than individual replacement.

Answer: B) Replacement is done in batches or groups.

3. When is group replacement typically preferred over individual replacement?

- A) When items fail independently

- B) When individual replacements are cost-effective

- C) When items fail simultaneously or in groups

- D) When items have varying useful lives

 Answer: C) When items fail simultaneously or in groups

4. Which method of replacement is more suitable for situations where items have
varying useful lives?

- A) Group replacement

- B) Individual replacement

- C) Both methods are equally suitable

- D) Neither method is suitable

Answer: B) Individual replacement

5.What is the primary advantage of group replacement over individual replacement?

- A) Reduced downtime

- B) Lower replacement costs

- C) Higher efficiency

- D) Simplicity in implementation

Answer: B) Lower replacement costs

 UNIT- 4
1. Who developed the Program Evaluation and Review Technique (PERT)

- A) Henry Gantt

- B) Joseph Juran

- C) William Edwards Deming

- D) United States Navy

Answer: D) United States Navy

2. What was the primary purpose behind the development of PERT

- A) To manage manufacturing processes

- B) To plan and control large-scale projects

- C) To improve quality management

- D) To optimize supply chain operations

Answer: B) To plan and control large-scale projects

3. Which industry initially used PERT extensively for project management

- A) Automotive

- B) Aerospace
 - C) Construction

- D) Information Technology

Answer: B) Aerospace

4. What does PERT primarily focus on in project management?

- A) Cost estimation

- B) Resource allocation

- C) Time scheduling

- D) Quality assurance

Answer: C) Time scheduling

5. Which technique is often used in conjunction with PERT to account for

uncertainties in project duration estimates?

- A) Critical Path Method (CPM)

- B) Monte Carlo Simulation

- C) Earned Value Management (EVM)

- D) Gantt charts

Answer: B) Monte Carlo Simulation

1. Who developed the Critical Path Method (CPM)

- A) Microsoft Corporation

- B) DuPont Corporation and Remington Rand Corporation

- C) IBM Corporation

- D) General Electric Company

Answer: B) DuPont Corporation and Remington Rand Corporation

2. Which industry commonly uses CPM for project management

- A) Healthcare

- B) Retail

- C) Construction

- D) Hospitality

Answer: C) Construction

3. What is the primary objective of using CPM

- A) Minimizing project cost

- B) Maximizing project scope

- C) Identifying critical project activities

- D) Balancing project resources

Answer: C) Identifying critical project activities

4. In CPM, what does the critical path represent

- A) The shortest path through the project network

- B) The longest sequence of dependent activities

- C) The path with the most activities

- D) The path with the least float

Answer: B) The longest sequence of dependent activities

5. Which term refers to the amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying
the project completion date

- A) Critical path

- B) Slack or float

- C) Lead time
 - D) Lag time

Answer: B) Slack or float

1. Which of the following best describes the primary purpose of using PERT and CPM
in OT management?

a) Resource allocation

b) Time management and scheduling

c) Quality control

d) Cost estimation

Answer: b) Time management and scheduling

2. In an OT scenario, PERT and CPM are most useful for:

a) Determining the number of staff required

b) Identifying critical activities and their sequence

c) Estimating the cost of surgeries

d) Assessing patient satisfaction

Answer: b) Identifying critical activities and their sequence

3. What is the critical path in the context of OT management?

a) The path with the shortest duration

b) The path with the highest resource utilization

c) The sequence of activities with the least importance

d) The longest path through the project schedule

 Answer: d) The longest path through the project schedule

4. PERT and CPM help in managing OT schedules by:

a) Allowing flexibility in task sequencing

b) Identifying tasks that can be delayed without affecting the project timeline

c) Minimizing the need for coordination among OT staff

d) Speeding up the surgical procedures

Answer: b) Identifying tasks that can be delayed without affecting the project
timeline

5. In OT management, PERT and CPM aid in:

a) Minimizing patient wait times

b) Maximizing revenue generation

c) Optimizing resource utilization

d) Streamlining administrative tasks

Answer: c) Optimizing resource utilization

6. Which of the following is NOT a benefit of using PERT and CPM in OT management?

a) Improved coordination among OT staff

b) Enhanced decision-making capabilities

c) Reduced risk of delays and overruns

d) Increased surgical complications

Answer: d) Increased surgical complications

7. The critical path method helps in identifying:

a) Activities that can be performed concurrently

b) Activities with the highest resource requirements

c) Tasks with the least impact on project completion

d) Activities with the lowest priority

Answer: a) Activities that can be performed concurrently

8. PERT and CPM are particularly useful in OTs for:

a) Planning routine surgeries

b) Emergency procedures

c) Administrative tasks

d) Patient billing

Answer: b) Emergency procedures

9. Which of the following is a limitation of PERT and CPM in OT management?

a) Inability to account for uncertainties and variability

b) Complexity in implementation

c) Dependency on advanced technology

d) Limited applicability to surgical procedures

Answer: a) Inability to account for uncertainties and variability

10. PERT and CPM are primarily focused on:

 a) Cost control

b) Resource allocation

c) Time management

d) Quality assurance

Answer: c) Time management

1. Which of the following is not a component of a project network?

A) Nodes

B) Activities

C) Arrows

D) Resources

Answer: D) Resources

2. What does a node represent in a project network diagram?

A) Time

B) Activity

C) Resource

D) Duration

Answer: B) Activity

3. Which technique is used to determine the sequence of activities in a project

network?

A) Gantt chart
 B) Critical Path Method (CPM)

C) PERT analysis

D) Resource leveling

Answer: B) Critical Path Method (CPM)

4. In a project network diagram, what do arrows represent?

A) Resources

B) Dependencies between activities

C) Durations of activities

D) Milestones

Answer: B) Dependencies between activities

5. What is the critical path in a project network diagram?

A) The path with the longest duration

B) The path with the shortest duration

C) The path with the most activities

D) The path with zero slack

Answer: D) The path with zero slack

6. What is the purpose of calculating the critical path in project management?

A) To identify the activities that can be delayed without affecting the project deadline

B) To determine the minimum time required to complete the project

C) To allocate resources efficiently

 D) To identify the activities that have the highest cost

Answer: B) To determine the minimum time required to complete the project

7. What does slack represent in a project network diagram?

A) The difference between the early start and late start times of an activity

B) The amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the project

C) The amount of time an activity is expected to take

D) The difference between the early finish and late finish times of an activity

Answer: B) The amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the
project

8. Which scheduling technique accounts for uncertainty in activity durations?

A) Gantt chart

B) Critical Path Method (CPM)

C) Program Evaluation and Review Technique (PERT)

D) Resource leveling

Answer: C) Program Evaluation and Review Technique (PERT)

9. What is the difference between PERT and CPM?

A) PERT is deterministic, while CPM is probabilistic

B) PERT accounts for uncertainty in activity durations, while CPM assumes fixed
durations

C) PERT uses arrows to represent dependencies, while CPM uses nodes

 D) PERT is used for small projects, while CPM is used for large projects

Answer: B) PERT accounts for uncertainty in activity durations, while CPM assumes
fixed durations

10. Which type of relationship between activities indicates that one activity cannot
start until another activity has finished?

A) Start-to-Start (SS)

B) Finish-to-Finish (FF)

C) Start-to-Finish (SF)

D) Finish-to-Start (FS)

Answer: D) Finish-to-Start (FS)

+----------------------+

| Question 1 |

| What is the main |

| goal of OT? |

+----------------------+

+----------------------+

| A. Improve fine |

| motor skills |

| B. Treat diabetes |

| C. Perform surgery|
| D. Write novels |

+----------------------+

| | |

V V V

+----------------------+

| Correct Answer: A |

+----------------------+

+----------------------+

| Question 2 |

| Which population |

| can benefit most |

| from OT? |

+----------------------+

+----------------------+

| A. Children with |

| developmental |

| delays |

| B. Astronauts |

| C. Cats |

| D. Teachers |
+----------------------+

| | |

V V V

+----------------------+

| Correct Answer: A |

+----------------------+

+----------------------+

| Question 3 |

| What is adaptive |

| equipment in OT? |

+----------------------+

+----------------------+

| A. Tools used to |

| adapt to |

| disabilities |

| B. Kitchen gadgets|

| C. Shoes |

| D. Stationery |

+----------------------+
 | | |

V V V

+----------------------+

| Correct Answer: A |

+----------------------+

1. What is the critical path in project management?

A) The longest path in the project network diagram

B) The shortest path in the project network diagram

C) The path with the most activities

D) The path with the least activities

Answer: A) The longest path in the project network diagram

2. Which of the following is NOT a step in the Critical Path Method (CPM)?

A) Activity Identification

B) Activity Sequence

C) Activity Cost Estimation

D) Activity Time Estimation

Answer: C) Activity Cost Estimation

3. What is the float or slack time of an activity in a project network?

A) The amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the entire project

B) The amount of time an activity takes to complete

C) The earliest start time of an activity

 D) The difference between the earliest start time and the latest start time of an
activity

Answer: A) The amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the entire
project

4. In CPM, what does crashing refer to?

A) Reducing the duration of critical activities

B) Increasing the duration of non-critical activities

C) Adding more resources to critical activities

D) Removing unnecessary activities from the project

Answer: A) Reducing the duration of critical activities

5. Which of the following is true about the critical path?

A) It can change over the course of the project

B) It remains constant throughout the project

C) It is always the shortest path in the network diagram

D) It includes only activities with the highest cost

Answer: A) It can change over the course of the project

6. What is the main purpose of calculating the critical path in project management?

A) To identify the least important activities

B) To determine which activities can be delayed without affecting the project

completion time
 C) To identify the sequence of activities that must be completed on time to ensure
project completion

D) To allocate resources efficiently

Answer: C) To identify the sequence of activities that must be completed on time to

ensure project completion

7. Which of the following diagrams is commonly used to represent the project network
in CPM?

A) Gantt chart

B) Pie chart

C) PERT chart

D) Scatter plot

Answer: C) PERT chart

8. What is the difference between PERT and CPM?

A) PERT uses a deterministic approach, while CPM uses a probabilistic approach

B) PERT considers only the optimistic time estimates, while CPM considers only the
pessimistic time estimates

C) PERT accounts for uncertainty in activity duration, while CPM assumes fixed
activity durations

D) PERT is used for small projects, while CPM is used for large projects

Answer: C) PERT accounts for uncertainty in activity duration, while CPM assumes
fixed activity durations

9. Which of the following statements about the critical path is false?

 A) The critical path has zero float or slack time

B) Activities on the critical path determine the project's overall duration

C) The critical path can have multiple paths with the same duration

D) Delays in critical path activities will delay the project's completion

Answer: C) The critical path can have multiple paths with the same duration

10. What is the significance of the critical path method in project management?

A) It helps in resource leveling

B) It assists in identifying bottlenecks in project schedules

C) It facilitates effective communication among project stakeholders

D) All of the above

Answer: D) All of the above

 UNIT – 5
Question: What is Job Sequencing in Operating Systems?

A) A process of prioritizing tasks based on their complexity

B) The process of arranging tasks in the order they arrive

C) Organizing tasks based on their resource requirements

D) Scheduling tasks to optimize system performance

Answer:

B) The process of arranging tasks in the order they arrive

1. What is Johnson's algorithm primarily used for?

a) Sorting integers

b) Sequencing jobs on a single machine

c) Sequencing jobs on two machines

d) Optimizing network routing

Answer: c) Sequencing jobs on two machines

2. In Johnson's algorithm, how many machines are typically involved in the job
sequencing process?

a) One

b) Two

c) Three

d) Four

Answer: b) Two

3. Which of the following best describes the objective of Johnson's algorithm?

a) Minimizing the number of jobs

b) Minimizing the total processing time

c) Maximizing the total processing time

d) Balancing the workload across machines

Answer: b) Minimizing the total processing time

4. In Johnson's algorithm, how are the jobs typically arranged for processing?

a) Randomly

b) In ascending order of processing time on machine 1

c) In descending order of processing time on machine 1

d) In ascending order of processing time on machine 2

Answer: b) In ascending order of processing time on machine 1

5. Which of the following best describes the complexity of Johnson's algorithm?

a) O(n log n)

b) O(n^2)

c) O(n^3)

d) O(n)

Answer: a) O(n log n)

6. What is the primary advantage of using Johnson's algorithm for job sequencing?

a) It guarantees optimal solutions for all instances.

b) It is easy to implement and requires minimal computational resources.

c) It can handle a large number of machines efficiently.

d) It provides flexibility in assigning priorities to jobs.

Answer: a) It guarantees optimal solutions for all instances.