1.

According to WHO nutrition

a) Is a foundation for health and wellbeing for poor
b) Is a foundation for health and wellbeing for children and pregnant women
c) Is a foundation for health and wellbeing for All
d) Is a foundation for health and wellbeing for elderly
2. About one in five deaths globally are attributable to
a) Alcohol consumption
b) Smoking
c) Poor diet
d) Lack of exercise
3. ……………………… is a special form of disease causing agent that has been develop to
protect against disease
a) Immunity
b) Immunogenic
c) Vaccines
d) Vaccinogenes
4. Antenatal care include
a. Spacing of birth
b. Ensuring adequate nutrition
c. Genetic counseling for prospective parents
d. All of the above
5. …………is a trial to prevent or to modify natural infections either actively or passively
by administration of antigen or an antibody
a) Immunity
b) Immunization
c) Vaccine
d) Infectivity
6. Breastfeeding should be started …… of birth
a. 2hrs
b. 24hrs
c. Within in 1hrs
d. 772hrs
7. All are true about colostrum except
a. Rich in fat
b. Secreted for 3-6 days
c. Rich in anti-infective factors
d. Rich in protein and minerals
8. All the following are vaccine preventable disease except
a) Anthrax
b) Polio
c) HIV/AIDS
 d) Hepatitis
9. Most perceptive measure of growth is
a. Height
b. Weight
c. Head circumference
d. Developmental milestone
10. Substances that induce the formation of antibodies in the body are called
a) Antagonist
b) Antigens
c) Enzymes
d) Hormones
11. Trans placental immunity is what type of immunity
a) Artificial active
b) Artificial passive
c) Natural active
d) Natural passive
12. Small pox vaccine is
a) Live vaccine
b) Live attenuated vaccine
c) Killed vaccine
d) Toxoid
13. All the following are example of live attenuated vaccine except
a) BCG
b) Oral polio vaccine
c) Measles vaccine
d) Hepatitis B Vaccine
14. One of the following is a killed vaccine
a) BCG
b) Oral polio vaccine
c) Measles vaccine
d) Hepatitis B vaccine
15. The route for BCG is
a) Intradermal in the right upper arm
b) Oral
c) Intradermal in the left upper arm
d) Intramuscular in the left upper arm
16. BCG is given at
a) Birth
b) 6weeks
c) 10weeks
d) 14weeks
17. The route for given penta vaccine is
a) Intradermal in the right upper arm
b) Oral
c) Intradermal in the right thigh
d) Intramuscular in the left thigh
18. The first dose of Vitamin A is given at
a. 6month
b. 9month
c. 10weeks
d. 14weeks
19. MMR booster is given at
a. 9month
b. 8month
c. 12month
d. 6month
20. In the cold chain system, vaccines in the refrigerator should be stored at
a. 00C
b. 100C
c. 80C
d. 120C
21. The first step in water treatment is
a. Sedimentation
b. Coagulation
c. Filtration
d. Flocculation
22. All the following are indirect method of nutritional assessment except
a. Individual
b. Anthropometric
c. Biochemical
d. Clinical
23. Which of the following national assessment can be applied to a large group of population
a) Individual
b) Anthropometric
c) Biochemical
d) Clinical
24. Which of the following national assessment is helpful in detecting early changes in body
metabolism
a) Individual
b) Anthropometric
c) laboratory
d) Clinical
25. Gentle mixing of water to form heavy particle is called
a. Sedimentation
b. Flocculation
c. Filtration
d. Coagulation
26. Reverse osmosis is another …………………. Method
a) Sedimentation
b) Flocculation
c) Filtration
d) Coagulation
27. scientific assessment of eating pattern that could detect nutrient deficiency is called
a. vital statistic
b. dietary intake assessment
c. anthropometric
d. clinical appraisal
28. To avoid unhealthy weight gain, total fat should not exceed
a. 20% of total energy intake
b. 40% of total energy intake
c. 30% of total energy intake
d. 50% of total energy intake
29. Limiting intake of free sugars to less than …………………….. Intake is part of a healthy
diet.
a. 18% of total energy
b. 10% of total energy
c. 20% of total energy
d. 25% of total energy
30. Keeping salt intake to less than ……………. help prevent hypertension, and reduces the
risk of heart disease
a. 5 g per day
b. 7 g per day
c. 8 g per day
d. 6 g per day
31. Vegetable and fruits are important source of the following except
a. Energy
b. vitamins
c. Minerals
d. Antioxidant
32. Eating ………………… will help consume healthier fat
a. Saturated fat
b. Animal fat
 c. Unsaturated fat
d. Semi saturated fat
33. Which of the following help reduce consumption of sugars
a. Eating cakes
b. Drinking soft drink
c. Eating fresh fruits
d. Eating chocolate
34. Which of the following sign should report instantly by mothers
a. Swelling of feet
b. Vaginal discharge
c. Blurred vision
d. All of the above
35. The first step in counseling is
a. Ask the client
b. Listen to the client
c. Great the client
d. Provide solution
36. All the followings are purpose of food hygiene except
a. Prevent food spoilage
b. Protect food from adulteration
c. Inform and educate people about simple and practical methods of keeping food safe
d. Provision of healthy diet
37. One is not principle of food hygiene
a. Cook foods thoroughly
b. Cook foods have done
c. Store cooked food carefully at an appropriate temperature
d. Avoid contact between raw and cooked food.
38. In pregnancy the following are complication of anemia except
a. Erythroblastosis fetalis
b. Postpartum hemorrhage
c. Pueperal sepsis
d. Premature birth
39. All the following are building blocks of mental health promotion except
a. Individuals
b. Families
c. Friends
d. Government
40. Health is best described as a resource that allows a person to have:
a. A social and spiritual life
b. A productive social and economic life
c. Economic well-being
 d. Physical capacity
41. What distinguishes primary health care from primary care?
a) A focus on primary, secondary and tertiary intervention
b) Provision of interventions specific to the health need
c) Works within a multidisciplinary framework
d) Planning and operation of services is centralized
42. The main aim of public health is to improve health by:
a) Providing medical intervention appropriate for the individual
b) Performing research to compare the effectiveness of treatments
c) Promoting health and preventing disease in populations
d) Providing advice on risk markers and genetics to families
43. HIV infect children through
a. During delivery
b. Trans placental
c. Breastfeeding
d. All of the above
44. Comprehensive primary health care is characterized by activities that work to change:
a) Social and political determinants of illness
b) Economic and educational well-being
c) Health status in communities, regions or cities
d) All of the above
45. Health care is predominantly:
a) The province of the diagnostician
b) Community focused
c) Political in nature
d) Independent in nature
46. A determinant that is clearly related to a change in health status is defined as a:
a) Distal determinant
b) Social determinant
c) Proximal determinant
d) Ecological determinant
47. Primary prevention is concerned with:
a) Preventing disease or illness occurring
b) Delaying the progress of an existing disease or illness
c) Maintaining current health status
d) Treatment of existing disease or illness
48. Primary health care focuses on:
a) Providing early diagnosis and treatment
b) Performing health surveillance measures
c) Exploring the relationship between determinants of health
d) Reducing inequity and improving effects of disadvantage
49. An example of primary health care is an:
(a) Nurse practitioner clinic
(b) Aboriginal Community Controlled Health Organisation
(c) Outpatient clinic for a specific disease process
(d) Aged Care Services Organisation
50. Social determinants of health:
(a) Are constant between similar populations
(b) Refer specifically to the characteristics of health
(c) May vary between similar populations
(d) Refer specifically to methods that can be used to measure health
51. Which approach to health is the most concerned with the social causes of disease,
injustice and inequity?
(a) Biomedical
(b) Behavioural
(c) Ecological
(d) New public health
52. Which of the following models of health is the primary health care approach based on?
a) Behavioural
b) Economic
c) Social
d) Education
53. Neonatal period refers to
a. 4 weeks of life
b. 6 month of life
c. 5 month of life
d. 12 months of life
54. Infant period refers to
a. 4 weeks of life
b. 6 month of life
c. 5 month of life
d. 12 months of life
55. Sustainability refers to the ability of a program to:
(a) Be uncompromising when disturbances occur in social and environmental
systems
(b) Identify and reduce risk factors and lifestyle behaviours affecting health
(c) Meet current needs without affecting the ability of people in the future to meet
their needs
(d) (d) Focus on the social, political, economic and ecological dimensions of health
56. A person working as a health educator uses an approach that views health as related to:
(a) Pathological processes
(b) Behavioural change
 (c) Health screening
(d) Minimising complications
57. All the followings are example of healthcare waste except
a) Waste produce at home in the course of healthcare
b) Waste produce in the hospital
c) Waste produce at schools
d) Waste produce at research centers
58. Only …………….. percent of healthcare waste are regarded as hazardous
a) 25%
b) 90%
c) 30%
d) 70%
59. All the followings are sharp waste except
a) Blades
b) Scalpels
c) Syringes
d) Knives
60. Any waste material suspected to contain pathogens are called
e. Biological waste
f. Pathological waste
g. Infectious waste
h. Radiological waste
61. Pathological waste consist
a. vaccines
b. Body parts
c. Needles
d. Cultures of infectious agent from laboratory
62. Genotoxic waste has the following effect except
a. Tetragenic
b. Teratogenic
c. Mutagenic
d. carcinogenic
63. chemical waste are considered to be hazardous if has all the following properties except
a. toxic
b. corrosive
c. flammable
d. flattable
64. one of the following is a minor sources of healthcare waste
a. general hospitals
b. psychiatric hospital
c. laboratories
 d. blood banks
65. the hazardous nature of healthcare waste depends on the followings except
e. presence of sharp
f. presence of radioactivity
g. presence of infectious agent
h. presence of syringes
66. the main group at risk for health care waste hazards are
a. nurses
b. physician
c. teachers
d. radiologist
67. the 3R for health care waste management is
a) reuse
b) refuse
c) reduce
d) recycle
68. the first step in the management of healthcare waste management is
a. segregation of waste
b. development of waste management planning
c. assigning responsibilities
d. treatment and disposal
69. cornerstone for control of communicable disease is
a. health education
b. health promotion
c. rapid identification
d. treatment
70. a system which is used to help storage and transportation of vaccination at lower
temperature is
a. cold box
b. refrigerator
c. cold chain
d. cold ice
71. passive immunization is achieved by
a. vaccines
b. antitoxins
c. by birth itself
d. antioxide
72. killed vaccine are administered by
a. intravenous
b. intramuscular
c. subcutaneous
 d. hypodermal
73. immune biological substances which produce specific protection against disease is
a. vaccine
b. immunity
c. antigen
d. immunoglobulin
74. the time interval between invasion of agent and appearance of sign and symptoms is
a. transmission period
b. incubation period
c. convalescent period
d. termination period
75. person who carries disease producing organism without producing any symptom is called
a. carrier
b. host
c. agent
d. transmitter
76. hospital acquired infection are called
a. contagious
b. nosocomial
c. prodromal
d. acute
77. an infection transmitted via animal to man is called
a. mycosis
b. anthropology
c. zoonosis
d. animosis
78. an outbreak of disease is termed as
a. incidence
b. epidemics
c. prevalence
d. endemics
79. Unusual occurrence of disease in a particular region
a) Pandemic
b) Epidemic
c) Incidence
d) Sporadic
80. All current cases existing at a given point in term or over a period of time in a given
population is
a. Prevalence
b. Incidence
c. Epidemic
 d. Endemic
81. The number of new cases occurring in a defined population during a specified period of
time is
a) Incidence
b) Prevalence
c) Epidemic
d) pandemic
82. . Disease frequency is measured by
a) Incidence and prevalence
b) Rate and ratio
c) Frequency and distribution
d) Rate only
83. Mortality rate means
a) Sickness rate
b) Death rate
c) Birth rate
d) Injury rate
84. Substance which destroys harmful microbes
a) Bacteriostatic
b) Disinfectant
c) Detergent
d) Infectant
85. Substance which destroys or inhibit the growth of microorganisms
a) Disinfectant
b) Antiseptic
c) Bactericidal
d) Detergent
86. MMR vaccine is given at
a) 9 month
b) 15 month
c) 2 year
d) 6month
87. Measles vaccine given at
a) 15 month
b) 9 month
c) 1 year
d) 7month
88. Most Powerful and cost effective weapons of modern medicine for prevention of
communicable disease
a) Immunoglobulin
b) Active immunization
 c) Antitoxin Answer
d) Active immunization
e) Medication
89. Health education help to
a. Provide health knowledge
b. Treat disorders
c. Development of health environment
d. Facilitates healthful relationship
90. The joint committee on health education and promotion terminology define heath
education in the year
a. 2000
b. 2001
c. 2002
d. 2003
91. All are objectives of health education except
a. Informing
b. Motivating
c. Educating
d. Guide into action
92. Motivating people is concern with
a. Skills and action
b. Guiding
c. Information sharing
d. Clarifying/changing attitude or belief
93. Which is the best and most efficient approach to health education
a. Educational
b. Legal
c. Administrative
d. Political
94. All are legal approach to health education except
a. Interviewing
b. Pollution act
c. Epidemic disease act
d. Food adulteration act
95. Mass approach can be achieved by
a. Demonstration
b. Lectures
c. Posters
d. Group discussion
96. The degree to which the message is perceived as trustworthy to the receiver means
a. Interest
 b. Credibility
c. Participation
d. Motivation
97. Social justice refers to
a. Ensuring the punishment first to crime
b. An ethical concept based of human right and fairness
c. Social inclusion
d. An ethical concept based on autonomy
98. Health literacy is based define as
a. Read health related literature
b. Flow medical instruction for specific medical problem
c. Recognize and know how to find information for specific health problem
d. Access the internet
99. Most people view health based on
a. Personal knowledge and experience
b. Life situation
c. Cultural background
d. All of the above
100. Health equity refers to
a. Right to fair distribution of health services
b. Disparities in the health status among individual
c. Discrimination inherent in health care
d. Statistical differences in health between groups
101. The term used to describe measurable differences in attaining health is:
a) Health equity
b) Health inequity
c) Health gradient
d) Health inequality
102. Allocation of health resources to one geographic area or group is an example of:
a) Health inequity
b) Health equity
c) Health inequality
d) Health justice
103. Understanding of health determinants is essential for:
a) Primary health care interventions and assessment
b) Effective programs to enable people to maintain good health
c) Organization of health services in regions or cities
d) Acute care service provision
104. Health promotion advocates did NOT view health as:
a) A resource for life
b) The reason for living
 c) A positive concept
d) Including personal resources
105. For primary health care to improve health people must have
e) Access to medical services
f) The basic needs met
g) A health promotion program
h) Electronic medical record
106. The key element the world health organization sees as necessary to achieve better
health for all include
a. Decreasing inclusion in health care coverage
b. Increasing stake holder participation
c. Centralizing and standardizing health service delivery
d. Reducing use of collaborative models
107. Collective efforts by a group to increase their control over health determinants is known
as
a) Community control
b) Community action
c) Health activism
d) Public policy
108. What role were health professionals seen as fulfilling in health promotion?
a) Enabling and nurturing health promotion
b) Controlling the health promotion agenda
c) Monitoring the health care team
d) Working with teachers
109. What factors besides lan degradation affect the ability to create supportive
environments?
(a) Rapid population growth and climate events
(b) Productive food harvests
(c) Political and social accord
(d) Economic stability
110. Which one of the following is considered as a long-term complication of prematurity?
A) Breathing difficulties
B) Infections
C) Jaundice
D) Retinopathy of prematurity
111. Which one of transmission infection causes jaundice?
A) Hepatitis
B) Gonorrhea
C) Syphilis
D) Chlamydia
112. Which of the following side effects are associated with maternal smoking during
pregnancy?
 A) Cleft lip
B) Cleft palate
C) Sudden infant death syndrome
D) All of them
113. Which one of the following nutrient deficiencies in a pregnant woman can lead to neural
defect in her child?
A) Iron
B) Folate
C) Calcium
D) Omega 3
114. The nurse is counseling a couple who has sought information about conceiving.
The couple asks the nurse to explain when ovulation usually occurs. Which statement by
the nurse is correct?
a. Two weeks before menstruation
b. Immediately after menstruation
c. Immediately before menstruation
d. Three weeks before menstruation
115. Vitamin A capsule should be given to children
a. Once a year
b. Twice a year
c. Three times a year
d. Four times a year.
116. An extra-uterine pregnancy is suggested by:

a. A uterus that is larger than expected for the duration of pregnancy

b. Morning sickness and breast tenderness
c. Lower abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding
d. The absence of fetal movements
117. A woman should book for antenatal care:
a) Before she falls pregnant
b) When she has missed her second menstrual period
c) When she first feels fetal movements
d) When she is 28 weeks pregnant
118. The last normal menstrual period may be used to calculate the duration of
pregnancy:

a) If that was the last menstrual period while the patient was on her last packet of
oral contraceptive pills
b) If the patient has a regular cycle and she was not on contraceptives.
c) If the last menstrual period had started earlier and had been shorter than the
patient would have expected.
d) Patients’ information about their last menstrual period is always wrong.
119. A cervical smear for cytology must be done during the first antenatal visit as part
of the gynaecological examination:
 a) In all women
b) Only if the cervix appears abnormal.
c) From all women 30 years or more who have not had a previous smear which had
been reported as normal
d) Only if there is a symptomatic vaginal discharge (e.g. itchiness or burning)
120. The abdominal examination is a useful assessment of the duration of pregnancy:

a) From 8 to 12 weeks
b) From 10 to 16 weeks
c) From 13 to 17 weeks
d) From 18 to 24 weeks
121. If a patient is 10 weeks pregnant:
a) The fundus will be palpable 2 cm above the pelvic symphysis
b) The fundus is not palpable abdominally and it is, therefore, not possible to
determine whether the dates correlate with the size of the uterus
c) It would be better to ask her to return in 6 weeks’ time for booking
d) The uterine size may be determined vaginally with fair accuracy
122. The best method of assessing the duration of pregnancy by physical examination
at 18 or more weeks is:

a) The symphysis-fundus measurement

b) Bimanual palpation of the uterus on vaginal examination
c) Palpation of the abdomen
d) To establish the lie of the fetus and assess the size of the fetal head
123. If the uterine fundus is just below the umbilicus (20 weeks) and the patient is 18
weeks pregnant by dates:

a) The dates must be considered correct and used to determine the duration of
pregnancy
b) The fundal height must be considered correct and used to determine the duration
of pregnancy
c) An ultrasound examination must be requested and the result used to determine the
duration of pregnancy
d) The average duration of 19 weeks must be accepted as the correct duration of
pregnancy
124. A uterus that is smaller than expected may be due to:
a) A breech presentation
b) An intra-uterine death
c) Polyhydramnios
d) None of the above
125. Antenatal ultrasound examination is an accurate method of determining the
duration of pregnancy up to:

a) 28 weeks
b) 24 weeks
c) 20 weeks
d) 16 weeks
126. During the antenatal period ultrasonography must be done between 18 and 22
weeks:

a) On very obese patients where determination the duration of pregnancy is difficult

b) On patients needing elective delivery, e.g. those with two previous Caesarean
sections
c) On patients with a history of severe pre-eclampsia before 34 weeks gestation
d) In all of the above patients
127. How often should a woman at low risk, who lives near a clinic, visit the antenatal
clinic between 28 and 34 weeks?

a) Weekly
b) Every 2 weeks
c) Once a month
d) No visit is required between these dates
128. The visit at 34 weeks is important because:

a) The fetus now becomes viable and the patient must monitor the fetal movements.
b) A vaginal examination must be done on patients who are at risk of preterm labour
to determine whether there are cervical changes.
c) The lie and presentation of the fetus are now important and have to be carefully
determined.
d) A repeat ultrasound examination must now be done on patients who had
ultrasonography at 18 and 22 weeks.
129. Oesophageal candidiasis suggests which clinical stage of HIV infection?

a) Stage 1
b) Stage 2
c) Stage 3
d) Stage 4
130. What health term is used to refer to the physical and social features of the settings
people live and work in and their access to resources for living?
(a) Health environments
(b) Supportive environments
(c) Community
(d) Social and community networks
131. About one in five deaths globally are attributable to
a) Alcohol consumption
b) Smoking
c) Poor diet
d) Lack of exercise
132. BCG is given at
a) Birth
b) 6weeks
c) 10weeks
 d) 14weeks
133. Gentle mixing of water to form heavy particle is called
a) Sedimentation
b) Flocculation
c) Filtration
d) Coagulation
134. The first step in counseling is
a) Ask the client
b) Listen to the client
c) Great the client
d) Provide solution
135. One is not principle of food hygiene
a) Cook foods thoroughly
b) Cook foods have done
c) Store cooked food carefully at an appropriate temperature
d) Avoid contact between raw and cooked food.
136. MMR booster is given at
a) 9month
b) 8month
c) 12month
d) 6month
137. Neonatal period refers to
a) 4 weeks of life
b) 6 month of life
c) 5 month of life
d) 12 months of life
138. All the followings are sharp waste except
a) Blades
b) Scalpels
c) Syringes
d) Knives
139. Any waste material suspected to contain pathogens are called
a) Biological waste
b) Pathological waste
c) Infectious waste
d) Radiological waste
140. Pathological waste consist
a. vaccines
b. Body parts
c. Needles
d. Cultures of infectious agent from laboratory
141. a system which is used to help storage and transportation of vaccination at lower
temperature is
a) cold box
b) refrigerator
c) cold chain
d) cold ice
142. Unusual occurrence of disease in a particular region
a) Pandemic
b) Epidemic
c) Incidence
d) Sporadic

143. hospital acquired infection are called

a) contagious
b) nosocomial
c) prodromal
d) acute

144. Mortality rate means

a) Sickness rate
b) Death rate
c) Birth rate
d) Injury rate
145. Substance which destroys or inhibit the growth of microorganisms
a) Disinfectant
b) Antiseptic
c) Bactericidal
d) Detergent
146. Health education help to
a) Provide health knowledge
b) Treat disorders
c) Development of health environment
d) Facilitates healthful relationship
147. All are legal approach to health education except
a) Interviewing
b) Pollution act
c) Epidemic disease act
d) Food adulteration act
148. Mass approach can be achieved by
a) Demonstration
b) Lectures
 c) Posters
d) Group discussion
149. Most people view health based on
a) Personal knowledge and experience
b) Life situation
c) Cultural background
d) All of the above
150. Health equity refers to
a) Right to fair distribution of health services
b) Disparities in the health status among individual
c) Discrimination inherent in health care
d) Statistical differences in health between groups

Exam Preparation:
(a) Community health services and NGOs
(b) Community and acute care clinics
(c) Aboriginal health services and NGOs
(d) Health education units
Social Justice refers to:
(a) Ensuring the punishment fits the crime
(b) An ethical concept based on human rights and fairness
(c) Social inclusion
(d) An ethical concept based on autonomy
The Ottawa Charter described health in terms of:
(a) The presence of disease
(b) The presence of health
(c) The object for living
(d) Physical capabilities
Health literacy is best defined as the capacity of a person to:
(a) Read health-related literature
(b) Follow medical instruction for a specific health care problem
(c) Recognise and know how to find information about a health problem
(d) Access the internet
Most people view health based on their:
(a) Personal knowledge and experience
(b) Life situations
(c) Cultural background
(d) All of the above
Health equity refers to the:
(a) Right to fair distribution of health services
(b) Disparities in health status among individuals
(c) Discrimination inherent in health care
(d) Statistical differences in health between groups
Which of the following best describes the principles that underlie the social health model?
(a) Individualised technologies and responsibilities
(b) Separation of health from the environment and spiritual beliefs
(c) Reduction of individual risk factors and individual or community-based education
(d) Reduction of inequity and empowerment with individuals and communities
Which of the following is the best description of life expectancy?
(a) The number of years people in a specific group or population can expect to live
(b) The number of years all people in all populations expect to live
(c) The minimum number of years people in a specific group expect to live
(d) The maximum number of years people in a specific group of population expect to liv
Exam Preparation:
(a) Community health services and NGOs
(b) Community and acute care clinics
(c) Aboriginal health services and NGOs
(d) Health education units
Social Justice refers to:
(a) Ensuring the punishment fits the crime
(b) An ethical concept based on human rights and fairness
(c) Social inclusion
(d) An ethical concept based on autonomy
The Ottawa Charter described health in terms of:
(a) The presence of disease
(b) The presence of health
(c) The object for living
(d) Physical capabilities
Health literacy is best defined as the capacity of a person to:
(a) Read health-related literature
(b) Follow medical instruction for a specific health care problem
(c) Recognise and know how to find information about a health problem
(d) Access the internet
Most people view health based on their:
(a) Personal knowledge and experience
(b) Life situations
(c) Cultural background
(d) All of the above
Health equity refers to the:
(a) Right to fair distribution of health services
(b) Disparities in health status among individuals
(c) Discrimination inherent in health care
(d) Statistical differences in health between groups
Which of the following best describes the principles that underlie the social health model?
(a) Individualised technologies and responsibilities
(b) Separation of health from the environment and spiritual beliefs
(c) Reduction of individual risk factors and individual or community-based education
(d) Reduction of inequity and empowerment with individuals and communities
Which of the following is the best description of life expectancy?
(a) The number of years people in a specific group or population can expect to live
(b) The number of years all people in all populations expect to live
(c) The minimum number of years people in a specific group expect to live
(d) The maximum number of years people in a specific group of population expect to liv
Exam Preparation:
(a) Community health services and NGOs
(b) Community and acute care clinics
(c) Aboriginal health services and NGOs
(d) Health education units
Social Justice refers to:
(a) Ensuring the punishment fits the crime
(b) An ethical concept based on human rights and fairness
(c) Social inclusion
(d) An ethical concept based on autonomy
The Ottawa Charter described health in terms of:
(a) The presence of disease
(b) The presence of health
(c) The object for living
(d) Physical capabilities
Health literacy is best defined as the capacity of a person to:
(a) Read health-related literature
(b) Follow medical instruction for a specific health care problem
(c) Recognise and know how to find information about a health problem
(d) Access the internet
Most people view health based on their:
(a) Personal knowledge and experience
(b) Life situations
(c) Cultural background
(d) All of the above
Health equity refers to the:
(a) Right to fair distribution of health services
(b) Disparities in health status among individuals
(c) Discrimination inherent in health care
(d) Statistical differences in health between groups
Which of the following best describes the principles that underlie the social health model?
(a) Individualised technologies and responsibilities
(b) Separation of health from the environment and spiritual beliefs
(c) Reduction of individual risk factors and individual or community-based education
(d) Reduction of inequity and empowerment with individuals and communities
Which of the following is the best description of life expectancy?
(a) The number of years people in a specific group or population can expect to live
(b) The number of years all people in all populations expect to live
(c) The minimum number of years people in a specific group expect to live
(d) The maximum number of years people in a specific group of population expect to li